ACT ENGLISH TEST 3

45 Minutes—75 Questions

DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain
words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the
right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the
underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the
one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement
appropriate for standard written English, or is worded
most consistently with the style and tone of the passage
as a whole. If you think the original version is best,
choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will find in
the right-hand column a question about the underlined
part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.
You will also find questions about a section of the pas-
sage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.
For each question, choose the alternative you consider
best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
document. Read each passage through once before you
begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
many of the questions, you must read several sentences
beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
that you have read far enough ahead each time you
choose an alternative.

PASSAGE I
Difficult Personalities
Friends and relatives consider me a patient
person. I agree with them a lot and regard myself 1. A. NO CHANGE
1 B. with them too much
as an individual who is especially calm and C. they are right
D. OMIT the underlined portion.

collected when confronted before prickly 2. F. NO CHANGE

2 G. by
personalities. Things that annoy most other people H. over
simply roll off my skin the way water rolls off the J. from
feathers of a duck. Lately, however, I have not
been my usual self. I am easily rattled virtually
every time I encounter a difficult person. 3. Which of the following alternatives to the under-
3
lined portion would NOT be acceptable?
A. an annoying
B. a pleasant
C. a peevish
D. an ornery

Just last week, when my friend Liz 4. F. NO CHANGE

4
G. week, for example, my
and I had planned to meet at noon for lunch. H. week, since
Knowing that Liz is often late for appointments, I J. week my
took my time walking over to the café. As I
meandered along however, I suddenly became 5. A. NO CHANGE
5 B. along the sidewalk, nevertheless,
concerned that maybe, for once in her life, Liz C. along, however, I
D. along I, however,
e
ACT
would be punctual. I responded by quickening my

pace and arriving on time. Liz, as you can imagine,
6
was nowhere to be seen.
By 12:10, I had become so annoyed that I
decided to call Liz using her cell phone. Not
7 B.
surprisingly, she did not answer and, perturbed, I
chose not to leave a message. Ten minutes later, Liz
6. All of the following would be acceptable place-
ments for the underlined portion EXCEPT:
F. where it is now.
G. at the beginning of the sentence (revising the
capitalization and punctuation accordingly).
H. after the word was (revising punctuation
accordingly).
J. after the word be (revising punctuation
accordingly).
7. A. NO CHANGE
to call Liz on her cell phone
C. that to call her using a cell phone
D. to call, her cell phone was on

arrived with a big smile and no apology. I reacted 8. F. NO CHANGE

8 G. with no apologies
H. and without even an apology for me
J. after no apology

more like an angry dog then like an unruffled duck. 9. A. NO CHANGE

9 B. then like the feathers of
My annoyance was clear. “Oh, Sarah, I’m always C. than like
late,” offered Liz. “You know that. It’s part of my D. than
personality.”
Unfortunately, trying “personalities” like
Liz’s seem to be everywhere around us. They come 10. F. NO CHANGE
10 G. will be
in many forms, from siblings who borrow things H. can seem to be
without asking to cyclists who think they own the J. were often found

road. 11 Since it is impossible to avoid 11. At this point, the writer is considering deleting the
preceding sentence in its entirety. Should the
writer make such deletion?
A. Yes, because the sentence adds detail that is
redundant.
B. Yes, because the sentence is not supported by
evidence elsewhere in the passage.
C. No, because the sentence provides data that is
valuable in understanding a later claim.
D. No, because the sentence adds descriptive
detail that supports the preceding sentence.

ACT
encounters with annoying people, we all need to
learn how to deal with those. 12. F. NO CHANGE
12
G. them
H. ourselves
J. the same

Rather than devise ways of fighting back 13. A. NO CHANGE

13 B. devise ways to fight
with pointed comments, however, I suggest we C. finding ways of fighting
make like ducks and find ways to cope. Doing so D. fight
has the potential to make life more tolerable in the
presence of those that reach for their wallet in 14. F. NO CHANGE
14
G. who reach for their wallet
crowded stores only after all of their items have
H. who reach for their wallets
J. who reached their wallets

been fully scanned and put in bags. 15. A. NO CHANGE

15
B. put inside bags
C. placed in bags
D. bagged

PASSAGE II

Bits of Earth on the Moon

Roughly two decades ago, a team of

Austrian scientists were announcing that a 16. F. NO CHANGE
16 G. was announcing
meteorite they had discovered in Antarctica H. would announce
J. announced

ACT
preserved evidence of ancient life on Mars. 17
Now, some of those same scientists are working to
substantiate a recent claim that evidence of ancient
life on Earth may get found in meteorites on the 18. F.
18
moon.
It first appeared in a 2005 paper by 19. A.
19
University of Salzburg astronomer Wilhelm Koller.
Professor Koller hypothesized that during an 20. Upon reviewing the paragraph, the writer
20
intense asteroid storm that pummeled Earth about
20
four billion years ago, debris ejected from Earth
20
eventually found its resting place on the moon.
Professor Koller’s hypothesis has not only stirred
interest within the scientific community, it has
ACT
17. At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following true statement:
The meteorite had been found in a remote
region of the southernmost continent.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A. Yes, because the sentence offers evidence of
the commitment often required to make scien-
tific discoveries.
B. Yes, because the sentence adds an important
detail that is disputed later in the passage.
C. No, because the sentence adds no new infor-
mation that is critical to understanding the
passage.
D. No, because the sentence is not supported by
evidence later in the paragraph.
NO CHANGE
G. had gotten found
H. may be found
J. maybe will get found
NO CHANGE
B. They appeared first
C. The claim first appeared
D. That claim had been appearing first
considers deleting the underline portion. If the
writer were to make this deletion, the paragraph
would primarily lose:
F. detail critical in understanding why debris was
ejected from Earth.
G. a repetitive reminder that asteroids and
meteors are essentially the same.
H. an important defense of the claim made by
Professor Koller.
J. evidence of Earth’s vulnerability to attack
from space.
fueled a lively debate over whether debris that gets 21. A. NO CHANGE
21 B. that got
ejected from Earth could reach the moon intact. C. when
Today, more advanced computer modeling D. OMIT the underlined portion.

programs have made it possible for them to 22. F. NO CHANGE

22
G. them scientists
simulate the pressures such earthly meteorites might H. scientists
have experienced during their trip to the lunar J. that scientist
surface. As a result of these simulations, the
greater scientific community now agrees, accepts, 23. A. NO CHANGE
23
B. agrees and accepts
and subscribes to the notion that atmospheric pres- C. accepts and subscribes to the notion
23
sures four billion years ago were, indeed, low D. agrees

enough to permit the survival of the biological

markers contained within the meteorites. Thus, the
lunar surface seems like a good place to look for 24. F. NO CHANGE
24
G. seemed like
evidence of early terrestrial life. H. sounds like it is
Why search the moon for signs of early J. was
terrestrial life? Would it not be much easier to
search for it on Earth? Scientists respond to such 25. A. NO CHANGE
25 B. for them
questions by pointing out that biological markers of C. with them
D. for one

early terrestrial life are unlikely to exist on Earth. 26. F. NO CHANGE

26
G. existing
They were erased long ago by more than three H. in existence
billion years of volcanic activity, later meteor J. existence

impacts, and simple erosion caused by wind and 27. A. NO CHANGE

27
B. simply erosion caused by wind and rain
rain.
27 C. simply erosion caused by wind and by rain
Before government funds can be earmarked D. the simplest wind and rain causing erosion

for lunar exploration, however, one issue remained 28. F. NO CHANGE

28
G. remains
unresolved. Some scientists warn that because the H. stayed
J. stands yet

ACT
moon lacks any appreciable atmosphere, meteorites

are not decelerated before impact as they are when
29
passing through Earth’s atmosphere. Such
29
scientists are, therefore, not yet convinced that a
29. Given that all of the choices are true, which one
best emphasizes a primary difference between a
meteor from space striking the moon and one
striking Earth?

meteorite from Earth could ever have survived a A. NO CHANGE

B. as they were three billion years ago.
C. as they were when ejected from Earth.
D. as they are in computer models.

high-velocity impact with the lunar surface roughly 30. F. NO CHANGE

30
G. about four billion years ago
four billion years ago. H. years ago
30
J. OMIT the underlined portion.

PASSAGE III

The Repeat Year Dilemma

A mother from Missouri recently wrote to

me with a dilemma. Her five-year-old son was not
doing well in kindergarten; and she was wondering 31. A. NO CHANGE
31
B. kindergarten and
whether she should have him repeat kindergarten or C. kindergarten, and she
D. kindergarten but she

move on to first grade. "His current teacher thinks 32. F. NO CHANGE

32
G. move over to first grade
another year of kindergarten would serve him well H. have him move on up to the first grade
J. first grade

in the long run," is writing the mother, "but I'm still 33. A. NO CHANGE
33
B. a mother had written
not sure what to do. Please help." C. wrote the mother
D. wrote a mother

ACT
 This mother may not realize it, but she is in
the middle of one of the hottest debates in education
today. Educators, psychologists, and parents
around the country have strong, and often opposing, 34. F. NO CHANGE
34
G. but often conflicting
views on the topic of whether youngsters benefit H. but oft in opposition
J. since oft opposing

from repeating a grade early in life. 35 Some
argue that the repeat year allows children who are
behind their peers, either academically or socially,
35. The writer is considering adding the following
true statement:
Educators are the most vocal, while parents
are typically the most emotional.
Should the writer make this addition here?

A. Yes, because the sentence helps the reader

understand the balance of power.
B. Yes, because the sentence adds to the
humorous tone of the passage.
C. No, because the sentence does not contain
information critical to understanding the
paragraph.
D. No, because the sentence is not supported by
data elsewhere in the passage.

to thrive among new peers who, albeit younger, are 36. Which choice would most clearly communicate
36 the positive benefits believed to be associated with
developmentally similar. In contrast, others argue a repeat year?
that, because each child develops naturally at his or
F. NO CHANGE
her own pace, students considered “behind” in one G. exist
grade may catch up naturally during the next. H. plateau
J. stagnate

Years ago, virtually, every child was passed 37. A. NO CHANGE

37 B. Years ago virtually every
to the next grade without regard to social or aca- C. Years ago, virtually every
demic development. The practice became known D. Year’s ago, virtually, every
as “social promotion.” Today, more and more
children were repeating one of the early grades. 38. F. NO CHANGE
38
G. children repeated one of the
H. children are repeating
J. children are repeating one of

ACT
This is especially true for those which fail to achieve 39. A. NO CHANGE
39
B. whom
certain social and academic milestones, like C. who
working well with others or reading at grade level. D. whom happen to
A troublesome aspect of the current trend
is evidenced by data having been generated in 40. F. NO CHANGE
40
G. that had been generated
recent studies. Such data suggests that simply H. generated
having a child repeat a grade fails to solve certain J. generating

types of social or academic issues. Moreover, the 41. A. NO CHANGE

41
B. the data indicate that having
data indicates that having a child repeat a grade C. the data indicated that had
41
D. OMIT the underlined portion.

actually increases the likelihood that they will drop 42. F. NO CHANGE
42
G. such children
out of school later in life. H. the child
The upshot of all this is that parents, like the J. the children
mother from Missouri, should be forewarned that
any advice they receive on this topic could well 43. Which of the following alternatives to the under-
43
lined portion would NOT be acceptable?
A. guidance
B. insights
C. recommendations
D. grievances

depend on the vagaries of the local school’s policies 44. F. NO CHANGE

44
G. of the local school’s policy
and procedures. H. of local school policies
J. belonging to local schools’ policies

ACT
 Question 45 asks about the preceding passage as
a whole.

45. Suppose the writer’s goal had been to write a brief

response urging the mother from Missouri to let
her five-year-old son move on to the first grade.
Would this passage fulfill that goal?
A. Yes, because the passage states that children
who repeat an early grade are more likely to
drop out of school later in life.
B. Yes, because the passage is very much in
favor of the practice of social promotion.
C. No, because the passage never actually gives
advice on the topic.
D. No, because the passage cites no authority on
the topic being discussed.

PASSAGE IV

Fashionable Trash
[1]
Items salvaged from Indonesian landfills—
items like detergent bottle labels and empty tooth-
paste tubes—are currently being used as fashion
frills on products sold in countries that included 46. F. NO CHANGE
46 G. which included
Australia, Singapore, and the United States. This H. that include
latest fashion trend, known in the industry as J. OMIT the underlined portion.

"trashion,” has transcended it’s Indonesian roots and 47. A. NO CHANGE

47
B. its
is rapidly gaining mainstream acceptance. In fact, C. their
chic, urban designers worldwide are already D. those

enjoying record-breaking profits; using discarded 48. F. NO CHANGE

48 G. profits; by using
materials to create fashionable clothing, jewelry, and H. profits in used
other stylish accessories. J. profits by using

ACT
 [2]
The goal of trashion, say the trends’ 49. A. NO CHANGE
49
B. say the Indonesian creators of the trend
Indonesian creators, is to reduce pollution and C. say it’s Indonesian creators
49
provide employment opportunities to the poorest of D. said the trends’ Indonesian creators

Indonesia’s poor. Homemakers, disabled workers,

and even local entrepreneurs (many of whom would 50. F. NO CHANGE
50
G. who would
H. whose would
J. who’d

otherwise earn less than $1 per day) are, not 51. A. NO CHANGE
51
B. are, not surprisingly, embracing
surprisingly embracing the new eco-friendly fashion C. are not surprisingly embracing
51
trend. D. are embracing, not surprisingly

[3]
Shukhar Adita, founder of the Indonesian-
based Plastic Factory, Inc., buys plastic packaging
from eager, ambitious, and aspiring trash scavengers 52. F. NO CHANGE
52 G. from eager
for $0.30 a pound. Mr. Adita’s ten employees then H. for ambitious and aspiring
J. OMIT the underlined portion.

cut, sew, and they craft elements of the recovered 53. A. NO CHANGE
53 B. then
trash into wallets, umbrellas, and hats that sell for C. work to craft
between $25 and $85 worldwide. Part of the Plastic D. OMIT the underlined portion.
Factory’s corporate mission is to use company
profits in the funding of ventures that will help 54. F. NO CHANGE
54 G. for the funding of
Indonesia manage its growing consumer waste issues. H. to fund
[4] J. and fund
Traditional recycling programs, common in
most developed countries, are scarcely nonexistent 55. Which choice would most clearly communicate
55
the current lack of recycling programs in
in Indonesia today. As a result, most landfills in Indonesia today?

A. NO CHANGE
B. virtually
C. hardly
D. figuratively

ACT
Indonesia are so full they are spilling over literally. 56. F. NO CHANGE
56 G. are spilling literally over
Thus, it is not uncommon for uncollected rubbish to H. are, literally, spilling over
be burned or simply left to clog local streets and J. were, literally, spilling over

waterways. 57 For some in Indonesia, the trend 57. At this point, the writer is considering deleting the
preceding sentence in its entirety. If the writer
toward trashion is seen as a tiny, but viable, solution
were to delete the sentence, the paragraph would
to a growing and largely unmanaged consumer waste primarily lose:
problem. A. illustrations of two Indonesian consumer
waste issues.
B. evidence that supports the low per-pound
value of reclaimed trash.
C. evidence of widespread poverty in Indonesia.
D. a defense of the case for traditional recycling
programs.
[5]
Maha Wizer is the director of Recover 58. F. NO CHANGE
58
G. Maha Wizer has been
Design (a nonprofit, Indonesian-based design firm), H. The director, Maha Wizer,
says her goal is to raise awareness regarding J. Maha Wizer, director
recycling, waste production and environmental
degradation. Ms. Wizer is hopeful that whether the 59. A. NO CHANGE
59 B. as
fad grows and the potential for profits increase, C. since
prominent designers and global corporations will D. like
adopt even more earth-friendly measures. Question 60 asks about the preceding passage as
a whole.

60. Upon reviewing this essay and finding that some

information has been left out, the writer composes
the following sentence incorporating that infor-
mation:
It does, after all, provide them with real
opportunities to improve their lives.
This sentence would most logically be placed after
the last sentence in Paragraph:
F. 1.
G. 2.
H. 3.
J. 4.

ACT
PASSAGE V

The following paragraphs may or may not be in

the most logical order. They are currently num-
bered sequentially [in brackets]. Question 74 asks
you to decide where Paragraph 3 should most
Speed Limit Increase
logically be placed.

Speed Limit Increase

[1]
A few years ago, the Indiana General
Assembly passed a law, that allowed the Indiana 61. A. NO CHANGE
61
B. passed a law that, allowed
Department of Transportation to increase highway C. passed, a law that allowed
D. passed a law that allowed

speed limits within the State. Since weeks of the 62. F. NO CHANGE
62
G. Within
legislative action, the Department of Transportation H. From
raised the speed limit on all interstate highways from J. Unless
65 to 70 miles per hour, despite warnings from
outspoken citizens and traffic safety groups. Just
last week however, the actions of the General 63. A. NO CHANGE
63
B. week; however,
Assembly and the Department of Transportation were C. week; however
vindicated by a study released by Purdue University. D. week, however,
[2]
The study was conclusive and no one 64. Which choice is the most effective first sentence
64
questioned its findings. Predictably, publication of of Paragraph 2?
64
the study findings has elicited overdue sighs of relief F. NO CHANGE
G. The study found that the increased interstate
from members of the General Assembly who, at highway speed limit in Indiana had not led to
more fatalities or severe injuries from crashes.
H. The study, which was funded by private
grants, was conducted by a team of researchers
at the University.
J. The study focused on interstate highways in
Indiana, not non-interstate highways that have
less impressive design features.

ACT
public hearings on the topic only a few years earlier, 65. A. NO CHANGE
65 B. in the topic
had listened intently as droves of concerned citizens C. on topic
and special interest groups warned that increased D. OMIT the underlined portion.

interstate highway speed limits would result in the 66. F. NO CHANGE

66
G. from greater danger to motorists
greatest danger for motorists.
66
H. in greater danger for motorists
J. for motorists’ greater danger
[3]
Some experts contend that the number of life-
threatening crashes on Indiana interstate highways
did not increase with the speed limit because drivers
were driving already considerably faster than the 67. The best placement for the underlined word
67
would be:
posted speed limit. Thus, the five-mile-per-hour
A. where it is now.
increase had no material effect on the driving habits
B. after the word faster.
C. after the word were.
D. after the word considerably.

of motorists who routinely cruised along the 68. F. NO CHANGE

68 G. away
interstate highway in Indiana at high speeds. H. down that highways of Indiana
68
J. OMIT the underlined portion.
[4]
Interestingly, when the Indiana Department of
Transportation increased speed limits on interstate
highways years ago, they had chosen not to increase 69. A. NO CHANGE
69 B. they chose
speed limits on non-interstate highways within the C. it chose
state. The decision to keep such speed limits D. it having chose
unchanged was based primarily upon data generated

ACT
by Indiana University researchers. Using a series of
mathematical equations to tally accident probabilities
based on motor vehicle accident data over a five-year
period the researchers predicted that raising the 70. F. NO CHANGE
70
G. period, and the researchers
speed limit on non-interstate highways from 65 to 70 H. period, the researchers
J. period; the researchers

miles per hour would certainly increase fatalities and 71. A. NO CHANGE
71
B. fortunately
severe injuries from crashes. C. haphazardly
[5] D. OMIT the underlined portion.

When asking for an explanation, researchers 72. F. NO CHANGE

72
G. When asked
noted that Indiana’s interstate highways were H. Since being asked
designed to accommodate higher rates of speed than J. Because they were asked
its non-interstate highways. They have better water
drainage systems, wider lanes, and fewer curves than
the average non-interstate highway.

Questions 73-75 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.

73. Upon reviewing this essay and realizing that 74. For the sake of logic and coherence, Paragraph 3
some information has been left out, the writer should be placed:
composes the following sentence, incorporating
that information: F. where it is now.
G. after Paragraph 1.
After much deliberation, however, a majority H. after Paragraph 4.
of the General Assembly ultimately supported J. after Paragraph 5.
the law that authorized the Department of
Transportation to raise speed limits.

The most logical and effective place to add this

sentence would be after the last sentence of
Paragraph:
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.

ACT
75. Suppose the writer had decided to write an essay
discussing the benefits of increased speed limits
on interstate highways in Indiana. Would this
essay successfully fulfill the writer’s goal?
A. Yes, because the essay lists factors that make
interstate highways safer than non-interstate
highways.
B. Yes, because the essay states that increasing
the speed limits in Indiana did not increase
fatalities or severe injuries due to crashes.
C. No, because the essay fails to discuss any
benefits of increased speed limits on
interstate highways.
D. No, because the essay cites mathematical
equations that may be inherently flawed.

END OF TEST

ACT
 ACT MATHEMATICS TEST 3
60 Minutes—60 Questions
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct but some of the problems may be best done without using
answer, and then fill in the corresponding oval on your a calculator.
answer sheet. Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should
Do not linger over problems that take too much time. be assumed:
Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in the 1. Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
time you have left for this test. 2. Geometric figures lie in a plane.
You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You 3. The word line indicates a straight line.
may use your calculator for any problems you choose, 4. The word average indicates arithmetic mean.
b

1. If 8 adult movie tickets cost $66.00, what is the cost DO FIGURING HERE
of 1 adult movie ticket?

A. $7.50
B. $8.25
C. $8.50
D. $9.00
E. $9.25

2. For all numbers x, f(x) = 3x + 3. What is the value of

f(3)?

F. 3
G. 6
H. 9
J. 12
K. 15

3. John’s first four test scores are 84, 84, 90, and 91. How
many points must he earn on his 5th and final test in
order to have an average test score of 90?

A. 90
B. 94
C. 95
D. 98
E. 101

4. A ladder that is 15 ft. long is leaning against the side of a

building as shown below. If the place where the ladder
touches the level ground is 9 ft. from the base of the
building, how high off the ground does the ladder touch
the building?

F. 7 ft.
G. 10 ft.
H. 12 ft
J. 2√3 ft. ladder
K. √234 ft.

GO ON TO NEXT PAGE

ACT
 5. For all numbers x, if 3(x + 2) = 7x – 3, then x = ? DO FIGURING HERE
9
A.
4
5
B.
3

C. 1
2
D.
3

E. – 1

1 2 3
6. + + =?
2 5 7

3
F.
7
31
G.
70

H. 1
93
J.
70

103
K.
70

7. The Smiths purchased a television for $802.50 which

included a 7% sales tax. What was the original price of
the television before the sales tax?

A. $750.00
B. $758.00
C. $768.00
D. $772.00
E. $799.00

8. If a and b are negative integers, a2 = 36, and b2 = 100,

what is the value of a + b?

F. – 16
G. – 4
H. 4
J. 16
K. 136

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ACT
 9. Melissa lives on a street with 1 yellow house, 3 blue DO FIGURING HERE
houses, 8 white houses and 9 brown houses. What is the
probability that Melissa’s house is blue?
1
A.
2
1
B.
7
2
C.
21
3
D.
7
3
E.
20

10. Given the figure below, what is the value of a + b?

F. 12
G. 92
H. 101 86°
J. 127 a°
K. 144
36° b°

11. For all x, (2x + 1)2 = ?

A. 2x2 + 1
B. 2x2 + 2x + 1
C. 4x2 + 1
D. 4x2 – 4x + 1
E. 4x2 + 4x + 1

12. On a number line, what is the midpoint of –7 and 23?

F. –3
G. 6
H. 8
J. 11
K. 16

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ACT
 3
13. If tan θ = , what does sin θ = ? DO FIGURING HERE
4

1
A.
2
θ
3
B.
5
4
C.
3
5
D.
3

E. 2

14. If (36 )(𝑎𝑎+1) = 3(12𝑎𝑎) , then a = ?

F. 0
G. 1
H. 2
J. 6
K. 12

15. If 65 is 20% of x, then x = ?

A. 130
B. 325
C. 350
D. 425
E. 430

16. What is the y-intercept of the line 4y + 7 = 2x – 5?

F. 0.5
G. 2
H. 3
J. – 2
K. – 3

1
17. Sam’s car uses 2 gallons of gasoline whenever Sam
3
drives to work and then home again. How many
complete trips to work and back home can Sam make in
2
his car on 9 gallons of gasoline?
3

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

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ACT
 18. For all x, (x5 + 6x3 + x – 7) – (x5 – x4 + x3 + 6) = ? DO FIGURING HERE
F. 2x5 – x4 + 7x3 + x – 1
G. – x4 + 7x3 + x – 1
H. x4 + 5x3 + x – 13
J. x4 – 7x3 + x – 1
K. x4 + 5x3 + x – 1

19. The ratio of boys to girls in a pre-school class is 3 to 5.

If there are 40 children in the class total, how many are
boys?

A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 18
E. 25

20. A circle with center O is inscribed in a square with a

perimeter of 40, as shown below. What is the area of the
shaded region?

F. 25π
G. 25(4 – π)
H. 25(4 + π)
O•
J. 100 – π
K. 100 + π

21. What is the sum of 5.2 × 108 and 2.3 × 108?

A. 11.96 × 1064
B. 11.96 × 1016
C. 11.96 × 108
D. 7.5 × 1016
E. 7.5 × 108

22. If the legs of a right triangle measure 8 inches and 11

inches, what is the length, in inches, of the hypotenuse?

F. √35
G. 5√7
H. √185
J. 17
K. 35
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ACT
 23. log 5 125 = ? DO FIGURING HERE
A. – 3
1
B.
3

C. 3
D. 5
E. 120

24. In the figure below, if line segment ����

AB is parallel to line
segment ����
CD, what is the measurement of angle x?

A B
F. 15° x
G. 20°
H. 30° 55°
J. 35°
K. 45° 40°
C D

25. Which of the following points could be found in

Quadrant III?

A. (– 3, 2)
B. (2, 4) II I
C. (0, 3)
D. (– 7, – 3) III IV
E. (5, – 1)

26. Given Set A consists of all prime numbers and Set B

consists of all integers that are divisible by 7, how many
integers are in the union of Set A and Set B?

F. 0
G. 1
H. 2
J. 3
K. An infinite number of integers.

27. If 2(3 – x) – 12 = 5x + 8, then x = ?

A. –2
B. –1
C. 7
D. 14
E. 20
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ACT
 28. If the slope of a line is 1 and that line passes through DO FIGURING HERE
point (– 2, 5), which other coordinate will this line pass
through?

F. (3, 4)
G. (– 4, 2)
H. (– 4, 3)
J. (– 4, – 2)
K. It cannot be determined based on the information
given.

29. If (2a – 1)4 = 16, then a = ?

A. – 2
B. – 1
C. 0
D. 2
E. 4

30. 2√18 + 2√2 = ?

F. 8√2
G. 12
H. 16
J. 8√5
K. 24

31. What is the area of the trapezoid shown below?

A. 18
B. 20
C. 25 5 4 4 5
D. 32
E. 105
5

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ACT
 Use the information that follows to answer questions 32-34. DO FIGURING HERE

log z A = 5
log z B = 6
log z C = 1

32. What is the value of log z (ABC) ?

F. 30
G. 22
H. 18
J. 12
K. 8

33. What is the value of log z (AC2)3 ?

A. 36
B. 21
C. 18
D. 12
E. 8

34. Which of the following is equivalent to z ?

F. A
G. B
H. C
J. 10
K. Cannot be determined from the given information.

35. What is the period of the function f(x) = 2 sin (x + π) ?

A. 3π
B. 2π
C. π
D. –π
E. It cannot be determined based on the information
given.

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ACT
 36. Which of the following numbers is equivalent to the DO FIGURING HERE
𝑖𝑖 𝑖𝑖
complex number expression • , where
(𝑖𝑖+1) (𝑖𝑖−1)
2
𝑖𝑖 = –1?

F. – 1
1
G. –
2

H. 0
1
J.
2

K. 1

37. The radius of the circle shown below with center O is 6

inches, and the measure of angle AOB is 120°. What is
the area, in square inches, of the shaded region?
A

A. 12π
B. 24π
C. 36π
D. 42π
E. 48π

38. An equilateral triangle is inscribed in a circle as shown

below. If the radius of the circle is 9, what is the length
of the minor arc AB?
A

F. 3π
G. 6π
H. 9π
J. 12π
K. 15π B C

39. If (x – 1)(x – 2) = 3x – 7, how many unique values of x

exist?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. An infinite number.
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ACT
 40. Line a is perpendicular to line b. Given that line b DO FIGURING HERE
passes through points (4, – 7) and (1, 2), what is the
slope of line a?

F. – 3
3
G. –
5
1
H. –
3
1
J.
3

K. 3

41. In a standard (x, y) coordinate plane, if (3, 4) is the

midpoint of the line segment ����AC and point A has the
coordinates (1, 2), what are the coordinates of point C?

A. (4, 8)
B. (4, 6)
C. (5, 6)
D. (7, 8)
E. (5, 8)

𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠2 θ+ 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2 θ
42. For all θ, =?
𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 θ

F. sin θ
G. cos θ
H. tan θ
J. csc θ
K. cot θ

43. Which of the following is the solution to the inequality

𝑥𝑥 2 − 10𝑥𝑥 + 9 ≥ 0 ?

A. x ≥ 9 or x ≤ 1

B. x ≤ 9

C. 9 > x > 1

D. 9 ≥ x ≥ 1

E. x = 9 or x = 1

44. As shown below, if all angles are right angles, what is

the perimeter of the figure?
5
F. 24
G. 25 3
H. 26 3 2
J. 27 2
K. 28
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ACT
 45. If the temperature of the water in a beaker is increased DO FIGURING HERE
from 40° F to 90° F, by what percent did the water
temperature increase?

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 85%
D. 115%
E. 125%

46. How many prime numbers are there between 0 and 10?

F. 2
G. 3
H. 4
J. 5
K. 6

1
47. What is the matrix product of [ 1 2 3 ] and �2� ?
3
A. 14

B. 36

1
C. �4�
9
2
D. �4�
6
1 2 3
E. �1 2 3�
1 2 3

48. The solution set of √2 − 𝑥𝑥 > 4 is the set of all real

numbers x such that:

F. x > – 14
G. x < – 14
H. x < 14
J. x > 18
K. x < – 18

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ACT
 49. Mark wants to tile a rectangular kitchen floor. If the DO FIGURING HERE
floor measures 6 feet by 6 feet and each square tile
measures 6 inches by 6 inches, assuming no waste and
no space between the tiles, how many tiles will Mark
need to tile the floor completely?

A. 80
B. 96
C. 100
D. 120
E. 144

50. The three parabolas shown in the standard (x, y)

coordinate plane below are from a group of related
parabolas. The general equation that defines this group
of parabolas contains the variables x and y and the
constant n. For one of the parabolas shown, n = – 3; for
another, n = – 1; and for the third, n = 3. Which of the
following could be a general equation that defines this
group of parabolas?

n=3 n=–3

n=–1

F. y = nx2 + 2
1
G. y = x+2
𝑛𝑛

H. y = (x + n)2 + 2

J. y = (x – n)2 + 2

K. y = x2 + 2n

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ACT
 51. The ratio of a to b is 2 to 5, and the ratio of c to b is DO FIGURING HERE
1 to 2. What is the ratio of a to c?

A. 4:5
B. 5:4
C. 1:5
D. 5:1
E. 3:7

52. If (x + 5) is a factor of x2 + x – c, what is the value of c?

F. – 30
G. – 20
H. – 10
J. 10
K. 20

53. Let p equal 3q + 4r2 – 1. What happens to the value of p

when the value of q is tripled and the value of r is
doubled?

A. It becomes 5 times bigger.

B. It becomes 6 times bigger.
C. It becomes 12 times bigger.
D. It becomes 18 times bigger.
E. It cannot be determined based on the information
given.

54. A used car dealership has 100 cars to sell. If 40 of the

cars, on average, are 5 years old and 60 of the cars, on
average, are 10 years old, how old, on average, are the
cars at the dealership?

F. 5.5 years
G. 6 years
H. 7 years
J. 7.5 years
K. 8 years

55. A large cube has edges that are three times longer than
those of a smaller cube. What is the ratio of the surface
area of the larger cube to the surface area of the smaller
cube?

A. 9:1
B. 3:1
C. 1:3
D. 1:9
E. It cannot be determined based on the information
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ACT
 Use the information that follows to answer questions 56-58. DO FIGURING HERE

A circle in the xy-coordinate plane has equation:

(x – 3)2 + (y + 4)2 = 16

56. The center of the circle is located at which of the

following points?

F. (3, – 4)
G. (– 3, 4)
H. (9, – 16)
J. (– 9, 16)
K. (9, 16)

57. The circle intersects the y-axis at which of the following

values?

A. y = ‒ 4 + √7 and y = ‒ 4 ‒ √7
B. y = ‒ 4 + √7 and y = 4 + √7
C. y = ‒ 3 only
D. y = ‒ 4 only
E. The circle does not intersect the y-axis.

58. Which of the following lines is tangent to the circle?

F. y=4
G. y = ‒4
H. y = ‒8
J. x = ‒3
K. x = ‒4

59. If f(x) = x2 + 3, then f(x – h) = ?

A. x2 – h2 + 3
B. x2 – xh + h2 + 3
C. x2 – 2xh + h2 + 3
D. x2 – 2xh – h2 + 3
E. x2 + 3 – h

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ACT
 π π π
60. Given that = – and that DO FIGURING HERE
12 4 6

sin (A – B) = (sin A)(cos B) – (cos A)(sin B), which of

π
the following answer choices is equal to sin ?
12

(Note: You may use the following table of values.)

θ sin θ cos θ tan θ

π 1 √3 √3
6 2 2 3
π
√2 √2 1
4 2 2

π 1
√3 √3
3 2 2

√6 – √2
F. 4

√2 – √6
G. 4

√2
H.
4

√2
J.
2

√2
K. – √3
2

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ACT
 ACT READING TEST 3
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are four passages in this test. Each
passage is followed by several questions. After reading a
passage, choose the best answer to each question and fill in
the corresponding oval on your answer document. You
may refer to the passages as often as necessary

Passage I
Prose Fiction: The follow passage is adapted from a
blog post written by Bernard HP Gilroy.
In case you have forgotten, Rock-Paper-Scissors
is a method of decision between two people, wherein
each secretly picks one of the items and they compare.
Line The key bit is that each item ties with itself, loses to one,
5 and beats the other. The traditional phrasing is, “Rock
blunts scissors; scissors cut paper; paper covers rock.” It
is that last one I want to ponder. Paper covers rock?
What does that mean? How is that a win for paper?
This past summer I had the opportunity to visit
10 the national Pearl Harbor Memorial in Honolulu, Hawaii.
The two great anchors of the Memorial are the USS
Arizona and the USS Missouri. The Arizona was a
battleship sunk during the Pearl Harbor attacks. Though
most of the Pacific Fleet was refloated and rebuilt in the
15 years following the attacks, the Arizona could not be
salvaged or moved. It sits at the bottom of what was
once Battleship Row. The Navy operates a tender from
shore to an observation station that was constructed
above the wreck. From it visitors can look down on the
20 coral-encrusted hulk of the Arizona.
The Missouri was BB-63, the last battleship ever
constructed by the United States. Now a museum ship
docked at Pearl Harbor, the Missouri is still an
intimidating sight. Towering over the shoreline, she
25 bears three turrets, each with three 16-inch guns capable
of firing an explosive shell a distance of 20 miles,
landing the shell precisely within a circle of radius six
inches. The Missouri was a great and terrible engine of
war, and everything in her design speaks to the awesome
30 destructive powers that could be marshaled by an
enraged industrial democracy. But standing on her deck,
I found the most stirring and moving part was not her
giant main guns, or the anti-aircraft machine guns still
deployed on the side, but a simple golden circle fixed to
35 an otherwise nondescript spot on one of the mid-decks.
In 1945, at that spot on the Missouri, in the
waters of Tokyo Bay, representatives of the Empire of
Japan signed the formal documents indicating their
surrender to the forces of the United Nations, ending the
40 Second World War. In a brisk twenty-three minute
ceremony, a band of perhaps twenty men—Japanese,
American, Canadian, British, and Russian—affixed their
names to two copies of the surrender documents to enact
the armistice.
45 Standing on the Missouri near that golden spot, I
overheard a museum guide relate a story that struck me
immediately. It’s one of those little tales that museum
guides love: a tidbit that uses the mundane to illuminate
the immense. Signing the Japanese surrender document
50 was, as you might imagine, an event of great import in
anyone’s life and, as you might also imagine, it could be
the source of great trepidation. The representative of
Canada, L. Moore Cosgrave, was apparently overcome
by his nervousness and, while signing the Japanese copy,
55 signed on the line for the French Republic. This forced
everyone following him to also sign on the wrong line.
Eventually, concern over the implications of this error
led General Richard Sutherland to cross out the names of
the nations and handwrite in the correct ones.
60 It was a minor, totally banal detail. Yet it was
also a striking, astonishing thing. At that moment,
General MacArthur stood in supreme command of the
largest, most powerful military forces in the history of
the world. Having brought the Empire of Japan to its
65 knees, the Allied Powers held uncontested dominion
over East Asia and the Pacific. How truly bizarre:
between them, these men standing on the deck of the
Missouri had fought the most devastating war ever
known, had overseen barbarities of a nature hard to
70 contemplate, had rained down obliteration on entire
cities and had sent millions to their deaths to do it. Yet
here they were, worried that somehow, a signature in the
wrong place could render the document worthless and
the exercise moot—that somehow, a misplaced name
75 could unmake the surrender.
And that’s the hidden key. The Missouri, the last
and greatest battleship, the apex of naval construction,
serves as a very present icon of physical force—standing
at the head of an unbroken lineage stretching all the way
80 back to the first rock lifted by a semi-evolved ape in
assault upon its brethren. Our long and bloody history
attests to the power of that rock. But on that day in
Tokyo Bay, it was not the battleship that mattered, or the

ACT
 airplanes or submarines, or even the atomic bombs 6. Which of the following statements best describes the
85 looming in the background. To the assembled warriors of way the fourth paragraph (lines 36-44) functions in the
the most terrible conflict, what mattered was the passage as a whole?
document. Paper trumps rock.
F. It expresses the author’s opinion regarding World
War II.
1. At the time the author “overheard” (line 46) the G. It provides the reader with relevant background
museum guide, he was: information.
H. It foreshadows the answers to the questions posed
A. reading an American history book. in the first paragraph.
B. visiting the Pearl Harbor Memorial in Hawaii. J. It reveals the bias found in many U.S. history
C. reviewing the Japanese surrender document. books.
D. viewing the coral-encrusted hulk of the Arizona.
7. It can be reasonably inferred from the passage that
General Richard Sutherland:
2. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by
information in the passage? A. was the last to sign the surrender document.
B. fixed the golden circle to the deck of the Missouri.
F. When was the Arizona sunk? C. was as nervous as the representative from Canada.
G. Did World War II involve many casualties? D. presided over the ceremony.
H. Who noticed the error of L. Moore Cosgrave?
J. Was the Missouri equipped with different types of 8. The term exercise (line 74) refers to which of the
guns? following?
F. The 23-minute surrender ceremony.
3. According to the passage, the author uses the phrase
G. World War II.
“stirring and moving” (line 32) to describe his
H. The author’s visit to the Memorial in Hawaii.
emotional reaction to:
J. Rock-Paper-Scissors.
A. the giant main guns of the Missouri.
B. the history behind the simple golden circle. 9. The last paragraph (lines 76-87) suggests that the author
C. the anti-aircraft machine guns of the Missouri. believes in which of the following:
D. the awesome destructive powers of a democracy.
A. the theory of evolution.
B. games as a means of ending world conflict.
4. The author most likely used the word brisk in line 40 in C. a supreme being.
order to emphasize: D. the use of atomic bombs.

F. the cool weather during the ceremony. 10. The author would most likely characterize the battleship
G. the informality of the ceremony. Missouri and a rock as symbols of:
H. the brevity of the ceremony.
J. the formality of the ceremony. F. destructive weapons.
G. physical force.
H. freedom.
5. It can reasonably be inferred that the author views the J. naval construction.
nervousness of L. Moore Cosgrave with:
A. humor.
B. understanding.
C. cynicism.
D. indignation.

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ACT
 Passage II
Social Science: The following passage is adapted from a
blog post written by Bernard HP Gilroy.
One night last year, a bunch of us piled into an
old station wagon and trekked the 50 miles to New York
City, a half-dozen wanderers searching for oracular
Line wisdom. For reasons that made more sense then than
5 they do now, we had decided that such wisdom was to be
found at the intersection of the legendary rock band Pink
Floyd and the classic movie The Wizard of Oz. We
sought to partake of The Dark Side of the Rainbow.
For the uninitiated, The Dark Side of the
10 Rainbow is sort of a film . . . or an experience . . . or
really just an allegation. If you’re confused, I apologize.
Let me elaborate: On March 24, 1973, Pink Floyd
released the album Dark Side of the Moon, a haunting,
lyrical, sometimes-confused tribute to—as near as I can
15 tell—mental instability. Dark Side was a huge
contributor to the album-oriented FM rock revolution of
the 1970s. Since March 24, 1973, and perhaps even
before that date, a rumor has been circulating about Dark
Side and the 1939 family classic The Wizard of Oz,
20 starring Judy Garland as Dorothy.
The rumor . . . or thesis . . . or allegation, is that
the album Dark Side of the Moon was written and
recorded as an alternate soundtrack for The Wizard of
Oz. Don’t believe me? See (and hear) for yourself. If you
25 begin the first side of the album on the third roar of the
lion in the movie, the album and movie soundtrack will
gel in amazing ways. For example, Mrs. Gulch enters on
her bicycle with bells a-ringing while the song “Time”
begins with its cacophony of bells and chimes. Dorothy
30 does her fence-walking scene while the rock band sings
about being “balanced on the greatest wave.” Dorothy
puts her head to the Tin Man’s chest as the album ends
with its signature heartbeat. Perhaps most tantalizing, the
tornado ravages the Gale family farm to the tune of
35 “Great Gig in the Sky.”
Roger Waters, who wrote the album’s lyrics, has
repeatedly decried any connection between the album
and the movie. So has every other member of Pink
Floyd. Even the sound editor once remarked that “it’s all
40 an amazing coincidence” and that “no one even
mentioned The Wizard of Oz during any of the (Dark
Side) recording sessions.” “And remember,” he added,
“this was 1973; it’s not like the band could have dis-
patched a groupie to run down to the local Blockbuster
45 movie rental store to pick up a tape of the movie.” And
ACT
yet, google the Internet and you’ll find dozens of web
pages that provide detailed instructions on how to set up
your own audio/visual system for maximum effect. The
same web pages provide testimonial accounts of dark-
50 side-of-the-rainbow experiences by curiosity seekers,
like me, with nothing better to do.
At some point, a few of us were bandying the
tale about in the faculty lounge. We were well-educated,
authority figures, and somewhat set in our ways, but still,
55 we hoped, open-minded. We were teachers and writers
and dreamers, our whole lives oriented around exposing
the hidden order of the world, in science, in literature, in
life. The possible truth taunted us, hanging seductively
between ludicrous fiction and sublime fact.
60 It stayed there for a little while, until one of the
six nudged us out of our superposition. He had somehow
discovered that a theater in Manhattan gave a regular
showing of The Dark Side of the Rainbow: a carefully-
calibrated double-playing of the album and movie, in an
65 honest-to-goodness movie theater using honest-to-
goodness film and an honest-to-goodness vinyl album.
The lure was irresistible, so we piled into the station
wagon one Saturday afternoon—too many for comfort,
but just the right number for camaraderie. We bumped
70 our way into The City, got momentarily lost, paid far too
much for parking, and grabbed a quick bite before
heading into a hole-in-the-wall theater . . . and into the
deeper recesses of pop culture.
We watched the film and had our epiphanies, or
75 not, and we headed home. Getting out of The City took a
lot longer than getting in, mostly due to the epic struggle
between our driver and his arch nemesis, the FDR Drive.
Someone, it seemed, kept moving the entrance to the
road that we needed to take in order to get back to the
80 safety of our lives in New Jersey. Given, as we were, an
outrageous amount of time in the car together, we
discussed the film . . . the experience . . . the allegation,
and what it all meant—or indeed, if it meant anything at
all. As is usual in any late-night philosophy rap among
85 six over-educated friends, opinions diverged. But, alas,
we made it home without any holy wars breaking out.
My conclusion, I will—for now—reserve to myself.
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 11. According to the passage, the bunch referred to in 16. According to the passage, the author considers
line 1 most likely consisted of a few: himself all of the following EXCEPT:
A. high school seniors. F. an educator.
B. high school teachers. G. a dreamer.
C. Pink Floyd groupies. H. a curiosity seeker.
D. classic movie buffs. J. a good driver.
17. The author most likely italicized the term google
12. The primary function of the second paragraph (lines (line 46) in order to:
9-20) is to:
A. acknowledge that it is commonly understood,
F. continue an allegation made in the first but not likely to be included in a traditional
paragraph. dictionary.
G. provide the reader with clarifying background B. indicate that he prefers searching the Internet
information. using Google’s search engine.
H. detail the origins of a 1970s album-oriented rock C. provide detailed instructions regarding how to
revolution. obtain information on The Dark Side of the
J. praise the creators of The Dark Side of the Rainbow.
Rainbow. D. remind the reader that he is an over-educated
curiosity seeker.
13. The third paragraph (lines 21-35) serves primarily to:
18. If the paragraphs of the passage were to be arranged
A. offer examples that support the rumor referred to in chronological order based the author’s actions,
in line 21. which CURRENT paragraph would become the
B. illustrate how the classic movie and The Dark first?
Side of the Rainbow gel.
F. the second
C. suggest a connection between the band, Pink
G. the third
Floyd, and the characters in the classic movie.
H. the fifth
D. explain both the audio and the visual nature of
J. the seventh
the experience.
19. The third sentence of the last paragraph (lines 78-80)
14. It can be reasonably inferred that “Mrs. Gulch” (line was most likely added by the author in order to:
27) is:
A. highlight the high crime rate of New York City.
F. a colleague of the author. B. explain why it took so long to drive home.
G. a character in the movie. C. further define the driver’s arch nemesis.
H. the librarian in the classic film. D. continue the humorous tone of the paragraph.
J. the wizard of Oz.
20. The phrase “My conclusion” in line 87 most likely
refers to:
15. The quote included in lines 42-45 serves to:
F. the last paragraph of the passage that the author
A. support the sound editor’s claim that “it’s all an chose to omit in its entirety.
amazing coincidence” (lines 39-40). G. the author’s opinion regarding whether Dark
B. decry movie rental stores that became popular Side was truly written and recorded as an
during the 1980s. alternate soundtrack for The Wizard of Oz.
C. highlight an inconsistency in the claim that the H. the author’s thoughts regarding the opinions of
album and movie are connected. his well-educated friends.
D. stifle rumors that the band wanted to profit from J. the final leg of the trip home from New York
The Dark Side of the Rainbow’s success. City on the night at issue.

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ACT
 Passage III
Humanities: Passage A is adapted from the essay "A
Gymnast's Life." Passage B is adapted from the essay
"Rite of Passage."
Passage A
Unlike Thomas, who was quick to engage with his
peers, I was always playing near, but not with, my
friends. I relished the freedom to move around as I
Line pleased. My memories of social gatherings involve the
5 playground at our local park, with friends from my
school clustered on the swings while I hung from the
climbing bars. Eventually they became bored and joined
me. But inevitably after some short period of interaction,
I would be off doing my own thing again, usually
10 cartwheels or handsprings on the grass nearby.
Recalling those tumbling sprees, I recognize a
particular feeling that I couldn't obtain from any other
source. I was untethered from the planet for moments,
my feet off the ground and the laws of gravity
15 suspended. Awareness of mom, Thomas, my friends and
the playground disappeared as I narrowed my existence
to my hurtling body in relation to the ground. These brief
forays into the low levels of the atmosphere made me
feel like an astronaut on a spacewalk: thrilled by the
20 dangerous departure from solid ground, and strangely
isolated in the midst of that departure.
My hunger for this escape led me to practice more
regularly. As a result, my aptitude increased. Soon, I was
unexpectedly, and very proudly, earning my brother's
25 attention. By the time I was ten, Thomas would urge his
friends to watch me, and they would sit still on the edge
of the playground for a few minutes, mesmerized by
body whipping through the air. Thomas would rate my
tumbling passes, and he developed an eye for
30 differentiating between the pedestrian and the special.
These performances, with the nervousness I felt about
taking flight, and the need to wow an audience that
might not have much patience for me, were excellent
training for days to come.
35 On one such occasion, an unknown onlooker made
a comment to my mom: “Sign her up for gymnastics
class!” My interest was piqued. At the time, I was too
young to realize that my involvement would mean that
my mom would have to make significant sacrifices to
40 support me. Looking back, I tell myself that she did not
mind turning her world upside down for a short time.
Maybe she knew, as I found out, there is a sense of
accomplishment upon finding your feet afterward.
ePrep, Inc. © 2008
ACT
Passage B
I quickly relegated graduation to a back corner of
45 my mind, knowing that a wonderful summer awaited
before I went off to college. I would lifeguard at the
pool again, probably for the last time in my life, and still
have time in the evenings to hang out with friends.
Most people look at a lifeguard and think that the
50 work is easy. I suppose it can be when the pool is not
crowded. The Springdale community pool is always
crowded in the summer, however. If one takes the
responsibilities seriously, as I always did, there is no
room for breaks in concentration.
55 One morning as I sat and watched a small group of
kids jumping off the diving board, one after another, my
mind uncharacteristically wandered. I thought of the
present summer in comparison to summers to come, and
recognized that so many of the college students I knew
60 were immersed in their future career plans. Some were
serving as interns in their chosen fields. Others had real
jobs that dovetailed perfectly with their post-college
aspirations. Still others were making progress in their
majors or graduate school by taking summer courses. I
65 realized that, starting next year, I would be one of them,
the toiling masses.
My thoughts continued to meander, and I realized a
further truth: the current summer was like the diving
board twenty feet to my right. Each day took me one
70 step away from the familiar life I knew in Springdale, the
end bolted to the concrete, and toward the unfamiliar
wider world ahead, a beginning that stood above the
deep end of the pool.
There would be, I supposed, a moment that would
75 mark the end of my last carefree summer, when
Springdale would seem very far away and I would stand
with my toes curled over the edge of the board. I
imagined it would come watching my parents drive away
as they left me at my dorm. The picture of that moment
80 coalesced sadly in my mind. Perhaps, as I watched our
silver minivan diminish, the distance between us
increasing, I would feel the thrill of suspension in air that
the kids before me felt as they took flight from the edge
of the diving board. They seemed so gleeful, hovering
85 inches from the water's surface. I wondered whether I
would be too.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE
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 27. Within Passage B, the author likens embracing a
Questions 21-25 ask about Passage A. new phase of life to:

21. Based on Passage A, Thomas and the author of A. avoiding the toiling masses.
Passage A are: B. taking a summer class in a field of interest.
C. jumping into a pool from a diving board.
A. siblings. D. watching parents drive away in a minivan.
B. best friends.
C. acquaintances.
D. arch enemies.
Questions 28-30 ask about both passages.
22. In the second paragraph of Passage A (lines 11-21),
the author explains: 28. Both Passage A and Passage B address:
F. the thrill of performing. F. the thrill of jumping, soaring, and landing.
G. her fear of landing a back handspring. G. the love that parents have for their children.
H. the sensation of being airborne. H. a turning point in a young person’s life.
J. her career aspirations. J. the joy of performing for others.

23. Passage A suggests all of the following about the 29. In contrast with the author of Passage B, the author
author as a child EXCEPT: of Passage A includes a discussion of how her life:
A. the author was somewhat athletic.
A. affected the life of her mother.
B. the author was an introvert.
B. progressed from childhood to adulthood.
C. the author enjoyed performing tumbling passes.
C. stagnated until she found her passion.
D. the author felt guilty about burdening her mother.
D. became more fulfilling with the help of friends.

24. According to Passage A, as the author became better

30. Elsewhere in the essay from which Passage B was
at tumbling, Thomas became:
adapted, the author of Passage B writes:
F. angry and jealous.
During my first month of college, I adjusted to
G. a more discerning judge.
life in a dormitory with a roommate from Spain,
H. overly enthusiastic.
enjoyed a flexible class schedule, and quickly got
J. a helpful coach and supporter.
used to completing very lengthy reading assign-
ments.
25. The quote included in lines 36-37 was likely
included in Passage A in order to mark: Which of the following statements, if included in the
essay from which Passage A was adapted, would
A. a turning point in the author’s athletic career. best parallel the statement above, which, again, was
B. a shift in the author’s relationship with Thomas. included in the essay from which Passage B was
C. the beginning her family’s financial struggles. adapted?
D. the end of the author’s carefree childhood.
F. I never attended a gymnastics class, but I did
continue performing for Thomas and his friends.
G. I was pretty nervous at my first gymnastics class,
Questions 26 and 27 ask about Passage B. but I became comfortable quickly and enjoyed
the formal instruction.
26. Passage B is best described as an essay about: H. After my first few classes, five new girls joined,
F. the requirements of lifeguarding. along with one boy.
G. the author’s last summer as a lifeguard. J. During my first month of gymnastics, my
H. the author’s thoughts about a major life change. mother drove a significant number of extra
J. the author’s last summer to spend time with high miles.
school friends. GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
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ACT
 Passage IV
Natural Science: The following passage is adapted from
“Geographical Evolution” by Sir Archibald Geikie.
An examination of the rocks found in almost any
part of the world would likely lead to the conclusion that
most rock located near the Earth’s surface is fragmentary
Line (composed of compacted fragments of various
5 materials), rather than crystalline (formed from molten
lava). Shale and limestone are all well-known examples
of fragmentary rock, which can be found in virtually
limitless varieties, textures, and colors around the world.
It is not unusual for various types of fragmentary
10 rock to be piled up, layer upon layer, to form the
foundation of plains and the structure of mountains. Each
unique layer of fragmentary rock is composed of distinct
particles, worn away from previously existing larger
rocks. Thus, each layer can be classified as a derivative
15 formation, with a source and mode of origin that can be
determined accurately by experienced geologists.
Some layers of fragmentary rock may contain
component particles that are for the most part rounded,
bearing evidence of having been rolled about in water for
20 an extended period of time before becoming compacted.
Thus, geologists studying such layers may rightly
conclude that the rounded particles were, during an
earlier time, submerged in a dynamic body of water like
an ocean. Then, based on the sheer extent of the area
25 covered by such water-formed rocks, geologists can
further conclude that such rocks were formed, not in
rivers or lakes, but in vast tidal oceans.
Within a layer of fragmentary rock, the
preserved remains of fish and other aquatic organisms
30 suggest marine, rather than terrestrial, origin. Thus, it
stands to reason that any given formation of fragmentary
rock preserves within itself (as fossils) a large abundance
of the remains of the creatures that lived and died in the
place where it was formed.
35 It is interesting to note that the preserved
remains of marine life may not merely exist sparsely
within a given layer of fragmentary rock. In fact,
organic remains alone may form the bulk of thick layers
of rock. The carboniferous limestone of Ireland and
40 central England, for example, reaches a thickness of
3,000 feet, covers thousands of square miles of land area,
and is composed almost entirely of identifiable organic
marine matter. Geologists from Ireland have rightly
concluded that, for ages, organic matter must have
ePrep, Inc. © 2008
ACT
45 comprised the bottom of a great sea over which
generation after generation of marine organisms lived
and died, until their accumulated remains had gathered
into a deep and compact sheet of rock.
The aforementioned conclusion may lead the
50 curious mind to wonder how such marine-based rock
formations were transformed into the land formations
currently known as Ireland and central England.
According to a popular belief among some geologists,
land and sea have been continually changing places over
55 time. That this notion rests, however, upon a mistaken
interpretation of the facts may be shown from an
examination of the bottoms of many present oceans.
Information gathered during recent explorations
indicates that the composition of ocean floors is, indeed,
60 vastly different than that of the fragmentary formations
that comprise most of the Earth’s land mass. Instead of
the pebbly material found so abundantly among the
fragmentary rocks of the land, enormous tracts of the sea
bottom are little more than organic “ooze.” Thus, the
65 marine-based land formations of Ireland and central
England appear to be anomalous.
It is also interesting to note that one deep-ocean
explorer recently reported that, from remote depths in
certain regions, large numbers of shark teeth and whale
70 ear-bones were dredged up. Because it is unreasonable,
according to marine biologists, to suppose that the
population density of sharks and whales is, or was, much
greater in these regions than in others where such relics
are found much less plentifully, geologists sought an
75 explanation. Ultimately, the explanation of the
abundance of shark and whale remains in deep seas was
supplied by the varied condition of decay and
preservation of such remains.
Some remains were comparatively fresh, others
80 were greatly decayed, and others were incrusted with a
deposit of earthy manganese. The fact that the same cast
of the dredge brought up these different stages of decay
from the same layer of the sea floor led explorers to an
interesting conclusion. While generation after generation
85 of sea creatures died and dropped to the deep sea floor,
so exceedingly feeble was the rate of deposit of rock-
based sediment that such organic remains have remained
uncovered, perhaps for centuries. Thus, unlike typical
land formations, deep sea bottoms collect marine
90 remains today that may lie side-by-side, for centuries to
come, with the incrusted bones that found their way to
the bottom hundreds of years ago.
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 31. The passage can best be described as a scientific
paper that focuses on:
A. the differences between fragmentary rock and
crystalline rock.
B. how the remains of marine life are preserved in
sedimentary rock.
C. fragmentary rock, generally, and particular
formations of it, specifically.
D. the formation of plains and the structure of
mountains near deep oceans.
32. According to the passage, fragmentary rock is
LEAST likely to be found in which of the following
locations?
F. at the bottom of a deep sea
G. on a small volcanic island
H. at the base of a mountain
J. within a coniferous forest
33. Based on the third paragraph (lines 17-27), it can be
properly inferred that the particles found compacted
in fragmentary rock may be rounded due to:
A. years of erosion caused by moving water.
B. the pressure applied by layer upon layer of rock.
C. the molten lava from which they were formed.
D. the effect of salt in ocean water.
34. According to the fourth paragraph (lines 28-34), if
the fossilized remains of a reptile were found in a
layer of fragmentary rock, it would be reasonable to
conclude that:
F. the reptile species became extinct during the
period in which the rock was formed.
G. the reptile once lived in the region where its
remains were discovered.
H. the layer of fragmentary rock was formed near a
vast tidal ocean.
J. the layer of fragmentary rock will also contain
evidence of marine life.
35. The word remains, as used in line 29 and elsewhere
in the passage, refers to which of the following:
A. marine and terrestrial habitat.
B. parts of deceased animal or plant life.
C. leftover rock-based sediment.
D. layers of fragmentary rock.
ePrep, Inc. © 2008
36. According to the passage, the belief that land and sea
have been changing places over time is:
F. accurate, based on the study of deep ocean
bottoms.
G. accurate, based on information collected by
ocean explorers.
H. inaccurate, based on information collected by
ocean explorers.
J. inaccurate, based on shifting continent theories.
37. The notion referred to in line 55, most likely refers
to the belief that:
A. fragmentary rock can form layer upon layer over
time.
B. fragmentary rock can be formed from thick
layers of mineral matter.
C. salt water covers parts of all of the Earth’s
continents.
D. rock from land and sea have been changing
places over time.
38. The word “ooze” in line 64 is most likely set in
quotation marks in order to:
F. indicate that it is a made-up word.
G. acknowledge the use of a non-technical term.
H. highlight its humorous misuse.
J. signify its technical nature.
39. The primary function of the last paragraph is to:
A. explain in greater detail an assertion made in the
last sentence of the previous paragraph.
B. contradict an assertion made in the last sentence
of the previous paragraph.
C. retract a statement made at the beginning of the
previous paragraph.
D. conclude a theme that was introduced at the
beginning of the passage.
40. It can reasonably be inferred from the last two
sentences of the passage (lines 84-92) that, at the
bottom of deep seas:
F. marine remains are buoyant in the salt water.
G. marine-based remains become encrusted at an
unusually fast rate.
H. insignificant amounts of rock-based sediment
settle among marine remains.
J. scientists have been collecting marine-life data
for centuries.
END OF TEST.
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ACT
 ACT SCIENCE TEST 3
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are seven passages in this test.
Each passage is followed by several questions. After
reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
You are not permitted to use a calculator on this test.

Passage I Study 2
Scientists used the Hubble Space Tele-
Infra-red images of Rhea, one of Saturn’s scope’s infra-red imaging technology to measure
moons, were captured by the Hubble Space Rhea’s average reflectance (the average reflectance
Telescope. The images show areas of the Rhea’s of Rhea’s entire visible surface at a given point in
surface that scientists believe contain various time). Scientists measured Rhea’s average
isotopes (chemical forms) of frozen nitrogen (N). reflectance at two different points in time. Figure 2
The following two studies were conducted to shows these data as well as reflectance data
determine, with greater certainty, the chemical generated by a computer model.
composition of these frozen regions.
Figure 2
Study 1
Measurement 1 Measurement 2
In a laboratory setting, scientists measured
Computer Model
the reflectance (the percent of light that is reflected
by a surface) of each of 3 isotopes of nitrogen 100
(green, blue, and purple) and of a nitrogen
compound (nitric oxide (NO)). Reflectance was 80
measured, in each case, at light wavelengths
reflectance (%)

between 400 and 700 nanometers (nm). Figure one 60

shows the data for the 3 nitrogen isotopes and NO.
40
Figure 1
20
green N blue N
purple N NO 0
400 500 600 700
100
wavelength (nm)
80
reflectance (%)

60

40

20

0
400 500 600 700
wavelength (nm)

ACT
Study 3 3. Based on the information provided in Study 1
Scientists used the Hubble space telescope’s and Study 2, which of the following conclusions
infra-red imaging technology to measure the is most reasonable?
reflectance of the Tirawa basin, one of Rhea’s giant A. On average, Rhea contains high concentra-
frozen craters. Figure 3 shows the reflectance data. tions of green N isotope.
B. Rhea contains no nitric oxide.
Figure 3 C. The computer model used in Study 2 is
100 largely unreliable.
D. The average reflectance of Rhea generally
80
increases as wavelength increases.

60
reflectance (%)

4. According to Study 1 and Study 3, the

40
reflectance values of the Tirawa basin are most
similar to the reflectance values of which of the
20
following?
0 F. The green N isotope
400 500 600 700 G. The blue N isotope
wavelength (nm) H. The purple N isotope
J. Nitric oxide

1. At the wavelengths included in Study 1, as the

wavelength of light increases, the reflectance of
NO: 5. Based on the information provided, the
reflectance of NO is highest at a wavelength of:
A. increases only.
B. decreases only. A. 500 nm.
C. increases, then decreases. B. 550 nm.
D. decreases, then increases. C. 650 nm
D. 700 nm.

2. According to Study 1, the reflectance of blue N

at a wavelength of 550 nm is:
F. higher than the reflectance of green N at
550 nm.
G. higher than the reflectance of purple N at
600 nm.
H. lower than the reflectance of green N at 550
nm.
J. higher than the reflectance of NO at 550 nm.

ACT
Passage II Figure 1 shows how the density of liquid
water changes with temperature.
The density of a substance is defined as its
mass divided by its volume. Figure 1

density = mass ÷ volume 1000

999

density (kg/m3)
The density of many substances, like air and
water, varies predictably with temperature. Table 1 998
and Table 2 below list the density of air (at 1 997
atmosphere of pressure) and the density of liquid 996
water (at standard temperature and pressure (STP)),
995
respectively, at various temperatures:
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
temperature (°C)
Table 1
Density of Air
Temperature Density
(°C) (kg/m3) 6. According to Table 1, as the temperature of air
increases to 15°C from –5°C, its density de-
–10 1.342 creases by:
–5 1.316
F. 0.091 kg/m3.
0 1.293 G. 0.069 kg/m3.
5 1.269 H. 0.031 kg/m3.
10 1.247 J. 0.022 kg/m3.
15 1.225 7. According to Figure 1, as the temperature of
20 1.204 water decreases from 30°C to 0°C, its density:
25 1.184 A. decreases only.
30 1.165 B. increases only.
C. decreases, then increases.
D. increases, then decreases.
Table 2
Density of Liquid Water
8. According to the information provided, which
Temperature Density one of the following statements is accurate?
(°C) (kg/m3)
F. At 1 atmosphere of pressure, air density
0 999.840 increases as temperature increases.
5 999.971 G. At 1 atmosphere of pressure, air density
10 999.703 decreases as temperature increases.
H. If mass is doubled and volume is doubled,
15 999.103 density doubles.
20 998.207 J. If mass is doubled and volume is halved,
25 997.048 density doubles.
30 995.650

ACT
9. Which of the following statements best explains 10. According to Figure 1, 10,000 kg of water at
why Table 2 does not contain temperature 4°C would fill a container having a volume
values below 0°C? closest to which of the following?
A. Figure 1 does not contain temperature values F. 1 m3
below 0°C. G. 10 m3
B. The definition of density (density = mass ÷ H. 100 m3
volume) does not work for temperatures J. 1,000 m3
below 0°C.
C. Under otherwise normal conditions, water
freezes when cooled to temperatures below
0°C.
D. Under otherwise normal conditions, water
evaporates when cooled to temperatures
below 0°C.

ACT
Passage III
dropper
rubber coupling
Under certain conditions, some of the liquid
contained in a closed container will vaporize. As flask
the vapor circulates within the closed container,
some of it will eventually condense on the walls of
the container, once again becoming a liquid. The
pressure of the vapor at equilibrium (the state
achieved when the rates of vaporation and
condensation are equal within the closed container)
is often referred to as the vapor pressure of the
liquid. Liquid in an open container boils when its
vapor pressure equals the external pressure (the
h
pressure (mm Hg) of the surrounding atmosphere).
The following two experiments were conducted by
students in a chemistry class to study vapor pres-
H2O bath
sure.

Experiment 1 manometer
The lab equipment shown in Figure 1 was
assembled by the chemistry students. Before the Figure 1
rubber coupling was used to connect the manometer
to the flask, the empty, closed flask was partially
submerged in a bath of water having a constant
temperature of 10°C. After 8 minutes, the Experiment 2
manometer was connected and 3 mL of liquid A test tube of methanol was heated in an oil
methanol were injected into the flask from the
bath until it began to boil. The boiling temperature
dropper. After several hours, the vapor pressure
(mm Hg) of the methanol was determined by was measured using a thermometer. An external
measuring the height, h (mm), of the mercury (Hg) pressure of 800 mm Hg was maintained throughout
in the manometer. Additional trials were performed the experiment. This procedure was repeated with
by the chemistry students at different bath-water other liquids and at different external pressures.
temperatures and with other liquids in 3 mL The results of all trials are shown in Table 2.
quantities. The results of all trials are set forth in
Table 1. Table 2
Boiling point (°C)
Table 1
at external pressure of:
Height, h (mm), of Hg at:
800 400 200
Liquid 5°C 10°C 20°C Liquid mm Hg mm Hg mm Hg
Methanol 30 40 90aaaa Methanol 65.8 50.0 31.2
Isopropanol 15 20 40aaaa Isopropanol 82.3 68.3 48.5
Hexane 45 55 110aaaa Hexane 69.5 49.6 25.8
Butanone 40 50 80aaaa Butanone 80.0 61.1 39.3
Ethanol 25 35 70aaaa Ethanol 78.4 59.2 32.4

ACT
11. According to the results of Experiment 1, the 14. The apparatus used in Experiment 2 is best
vapor pressure of hexane at 10°C is closest to illustrated by which of the following figures?
the vapor pressure of:
F. pressure chamber
A. methanol at 10°C. thermometer
B. ethanol at 20°C. test tube
C. butanone at 10°C. oil bath
D. hexane at 5°C. hot plate

G. pressure chamber
thermometer
test tube
oil bath
hot plate

12. Based on the results of Experiment 2, as

external pressure increases, the liquid boiling H. air
points: thermometer
test tube
F. increases only. oil bath
G. decreases only. hotplate
H. increases, then decreases.
J. decreases, then increases.
J. air
thermometer
test tube
oil bath

13. Based on the results set forth in Table 1, it is 15. Before the manometer was connected to the
reasonable to conclude that the height, h, of Hg flask in Experiment 1, the height, h, was most
at 30°C for 3 mL of isopropanol would be: likely:
A. greater than 40 mm. A. zero.
B. between 20 mm and 40 mm. B. less than zero.
C. between 15 mm and 20 mm. C. slightly greater than zero.
D. less than 15 mm. D. significantly greater than zero.

ACT
Passage IV Figure 2
Mercury Earth Jupiter
A physics student calculated the amount of
time, in seconds (sec), it would take an object to fall 30
from various heights, in meters (m), on three
planets: Mercury, Earth, and Jupiter. The student 24
ignored atmospheric resistance, as appropriate.
Table 1 contains the acceleration due to gravity on
18

time (sec)
Mercury, Earth, and Jupiter. Figure 1 displays the
results of the student’s calculations.
12

Table 1
6
Acceleration due to
gravity
Planet (m/sec2) 0
0 10 20 30 40 50
Mercury 3.7 initial upward velocity (m/sec)
Earth 9.8
Jupiter 24.8

Figure 1
16. Based on Table 1, acceleration due to gravity on
Mercury Earth Jupiter Jupiter is approximately how many times accel-
12 eration due to gravity on Mercury?
10 F. 3
G. 5
8
H. 7
time (sec)

6 J. 9

2
17. Based on Figure 1, the time it would take an
0
object to fall to the surface of Mercury from a
0 40 80 120 160 200
height of 160 m is closest to:
height (m)
A. 3.7 sec
B. 5.8 sec
The physics student then re-calculated the C. 9.3 sec
fall time of the object from an initial height of 120 D. 10.4 sec
m on each of the 3 planets. This time, however,
instead of assuming the ball was dropped from its
initial height, the student factored in various initial
upward velocities (m/sec). Figure 2 displays the
results of the student’s new calculations.

ACT
18. According to Figure 2, an object on Earth that is
projected upward at an initial velocity of 10
m/sec from the initial height of 120 m will take
approximately how long to reach the ground?
F. 3 sec
G. 6 sec
H. 9 sec
J. 12 sec
19. If the physics student had mistakenly assumed a
downward initial velocity, instead of an upward
initial velocity, when calculating, for Figure 2,
the fall time of an object with an initial velocity
of 30 m/sec and a initial height of 120 m above
the surface of Mercury, the fall time so
mistakenly calculated would have been:
A. higher than the fall time accurately repre-
sented in Figure 2.
B. lower than the fall time accurately repre-
sented in Figure 2.
C. equal to the fall time accurately represented
in Figure 2.
D. sometimes higher than the fall time ac-
curately represented in Figure 2.
ACT
20. According to Figure 2, if an object is projected
upward from an initial height of 120 m at an
initial velocity between 10 and 50 m/sec,
inclusive, and it takes the object between 5 and
13 sec, inclusive, to reach the surface, the object
could have been projected above the surface of
which of the following planets?
F. Mercury only.
G. Earth only.
H. Jupiter and Earth only.
J. Jupiter, Earth, or Mercury.
21. The acceleration due to gravity on the planet
Saturn is approximately 8.8 m/sec2. Based on
the information provided, the fall time of an
object dropped from a height of 160 m above
Saturn’s surface would be:
A. greater than its fall time on Earth.
B. greater than its fall time on Mercury.
C. less than its fall time on Earth.
D. less than its fall time on Jupiter.
Passage V
The Cretaceous-Tertiary extinction event
occurred approximately 65.5 million years ago
(Ma). The event was a large-scale mass extinction
of plant and animal species over a relatively short
period of time. Scientists discuss 2 possible causes
of the extinction event.
Scientist 1
The extinction event was caused by a large
asteroid that impacted the Earth, exploding into an
enormous cloud of dust and debris. The dark cloud
quickly spread, ultimately blocking sunlight from
the Earth’s surface almost entirely. This lack of
sunlight inhibited photosynthesis in plants; it also
caused a global drop in air and surface temperatures.
Many species of plant life failed to survive
the year it took for airborne particles to settle down
to the Earth’s surface. Many species of animals
failed to survive because they relied on plants for
food and on the sun’s warmth to regulate body
temperature.
Evidence of the impact theory of extinction
is found in the Earth’s surface. According to
geologists, the thin layer of the Earth’s crust that
was formed 65.5 Ma contains an unusually high
concentration of iridium, a chemical element that is
rare in other layers of the Earth’s crust, but which is
found in abundance in asteroids and meteors.
Scientist 2
At the end of the Cretaceous Era (the
geological era that dates from 145.5 Ma to 65.5 Ma)
global sea levels fell dramatically. This regression
of sea levels caused much of the Earth’s continental
shelf—the shallowest and most species-rich part of
the Earth’s seas—to dry up. A mass extinction of
marine life, not surprisingly, accompanied the
regression. This, in turn, resulted in the mass
extinction of many terrestrial species that relied,
either directly or indirectly, upon the abundance
and/or the diversity of marine life for subsistence.
The regression also caused global climate
changes, partly by disrupting normal wind and
water currents and partly by reducing the Earth’s
ACT
albedo (the ability of an object to reflect light from
the sun). Thus, regression accelerated the
extinction of numerous species by increasing global
temperatures as well.
Evidence of the regression theory is found in
the Earth’s oceans. Geologists hypothesize that the
world’s mid-ocean ridges were formed when vast
ocean regions sank dramatically under their own
weight, literally sucking water from the Earth’s
continental shelf.
22. Which of the following statements best explains
why Scientist 1 mentioned photosynthesis?
F. It is the process that caused the drop in
global air temperature.
G. It is the process that requires sunlight.
H. It is a process studied in most high school
biology classes.
J. It is a process required for the survival of
many plant species.
23. Large amounts of certain types of aerosols in the
atmosphere are known to reflect solar radiation
back into space, causing a drop in surface
temperatures. Based on the information
provided, the information regarding aerosols
would most likely weaken the viewpoint(s) of:
A. Scientist 1 only.
B. Scientist 2 only.
C. Both Scientist 1 and Scientist 2.
D. Neither Scientist 1 nor Scientist 2.
24. According to the information provided, layers of
the Earth’s crust containing unusually high
concentrations of iridium were most likely
formed:
F. 145.5 Ma
G. 100.5 Ma
H. 65.5 Ma
J. 35.5 Ma
25. Scientist 2 asserts that, as sea levels regressed at
the end of the Cretateous Era, the Earth’s albedo
was reduced. Which of the following state-
ments best supports this assertion?
A. Dry land is a better reflector of sunlight than
water.
B. Water is a better reflector of sunlight than
dry land.
C. The Earth’s albedo is affected by the
abundance and the diversity of marine life.
D. The abundance and the diversity of marine
life are affected by the Earth’s albedo.
26. Based on the information provided, both
scientists would most likely agree that:
F. increasing temperatures played a role in the
Cretaceous-Tertiary extinction event.
G. decreasing water temperatures played a role
in the Cretaceous-Tertiary extinction event.
H. iridium in high concentrations can cause a
mass extinction of plant and animal species.
J. temperature changes played a role in the
Cretaceous-Tertiary extinction event.
ACT
27. Which of the following questions could not be
answered based on the information provided?
A. What is a common element found in
asteroids?
B. Why did vast ocean regions sink under their
own weight?
C. Why does a layer of the Earth’s crust
contain unusually high concentrations of
iridium?
D. What is the continental shelf?
28. Scientist 2 mostly likely mentioned global
climate changes in order to:
F. explain the disruption of normal wind
currents.
G. bolster the claim that increases in global air
temperatures are natural.
H. provide additional reasons for the extinction
of species 65.5 Ma.
J. rebuff an anticipated objection by the reader.
Passage VI After the 72-hour storage period, the test
tubes were examined by the students. If the
Fermentation is the process of deriving fermentation caused by the bacterial species during
energy from the oxidation of organic compounds. the storage period yielded enough acid to reduce the
The fermentation of some organic compounds pH level of the solution below 7.3, the solution
produces acid and carbon dioxide gas (CO 2 ) as appeared yellow. If not, the solution remained red
byproducts, while the fermentation of other organic in appearance. The gas bubble that formed within
compounds yields acid and hydrogen gas (H 2 ) as the Durham tube was then tested to determine
byproducts. Students in a chemistry class—under- whether the fermentation process had yielded CO 2
standing that as the acidity of a solution increases, gas or H 2 gas. The results are set forth in Table 1.
its pH decreases—conducted 2 experiments to study
the process of fermentation and its byproducts. Table 1
Bacteria Lactose solution Starch solution
Experiment 1
species
A lactose solution was added to 4 test tubes. added color gas color gas
Next, phenol red (a pH indicator that causes a
solution to appear yellow when the solution’s pH is A red CO 2 red H2
less than or equal to 7.3 and red when the solution’s B red CO 2 yellow H2
pH is greater than 7.3) was added to each test tube. C yellow CO 2 yellow H2
Because the lactose solution had a pH of 8.0, the D red CO 2 yellow H2
phenol red caused it to appear red. A Durham tube
(a small test tube) was placed, upside down, in each
of the 4 larger test tubes containing the red lactose Experiment 2
solution. The air initially trapped in each Durham Experiment 1 was repeated adding pairs of
tube was removed during a sterilization process. different bacterial species to each of the 8 test tubes.
(See Figure 1.) The results are set forth in Table 2.
cap
Table 2
test tube
Bacteria Lactose solution Starch solution
Durham tube species
added color gas color gas
solution A and B red CO 2 yellow H2
B and C yellow CO 2 yellow H2
C and D yellow CO 2 yellow H2
D and A red CO 2 yellow H2
Figure 1
After the sterilization process, one of 4
29. Based on the passage, which of the following
different species of bacteria was added to each test
assumptions about phenol red is most
tube, which had been capped as part of the
reasonable?
sterilization process. The procedure was repeated
using a starch solution, instead of the lactose A. It will not change a lactose solution’s pH.
solution. Because the starch solution also had a pH B. It will change a starch solution’s pH.
of 8.0, the phenol red made it appear red. The 8 C. It inhibits bacterial fermentation.
capped test tubes were stored at 40 °C for 72 hours. D. It enhances bacterial fermentation.

ACT
30. In Experiment 1, which species of bacteria 34. Which of the following figures best illustrates
caused fermentation that lowered the pH of the the result of Experiment 1 for bacterial species
starch solution by at least 0.7 units on the pH B in the lactose solution?
scale?
F.
F. A only.
G. C only. CO 2 gas
H. A, B, and D only.
J. B, C, and D only. red

31. Based on the results of Experiment 1 and 2, is it

reasonable to conclude that the choice of solu-
tion determines the gas produced during fermen-
tation? G.
A. Yes, because fermentation of lactose CO 2 gas
produced only CO 2 and fermentation of
starch produced only H 2 .
B. Yes, because the test tubes were sealed yellow
during the storage period.
C. No, because different amounts of acid were
produced in both experiments.
D. No, because both solutions had an initial pH H.
of 8.0.
H 2 gas
32. According to Experiment 1, which species of
bacteria produced the least amount of acid
during fermentation in the starch solution? yellow
F. A.
G. B.
H. C.
J. It cannot be determined based on the J.
information provided.
H 2 gas
33. Based on the results of Experiment 2, it is
reasonable to conclude that:
red
A. fermentation of the starch solution yields
little acid.
B. fermentation of the lactose solution by
bacterial species C produces significant
amounts of acid.
C. fermentation of starch by any pair of
bacterial species increases the pH of the
solution.
D. CO 2 gas is never produced by bacterial
species B.

ACT
Passage VII
Scientists investigated whether positive
reinforcement improves procedural learning
(learning by repeating a complex physical activity
over and over again until the subject’s neural
system automatically produces the activity) in
chimpanzees.
The scientists trained chimpanzees to tap
three buttons in 1 of 2 sequences: Sequence P only,
or Sequence P followed by Sequence Q (see Figure
1). To train for a sequence, the scientists helped the
chimpanzees tap the sequence again and again for
one minute. After 30 seconds of rest, the scientists
again helped the chimpanzees tap the sequence
repeatedly for one minute. After 5 cycles of guided
tapping and rest, the chimpanzees were encouraged
to tap the sequence without help. Their accuracy
was recorded.
Figure 1
1 2
3 2 3 1
Group 1 was trained and tested for Sequence P, and
trained and retested for Sequence P without positive
reinforcement.
Group 2 was trained and tested for Sequence P and
Sequence Q, and trained and retested for Sequence
P and Sequence Q without positive reinforcement.
Group 3 was trained and tested for Sequence P, and
trained and retested for Sequence P after a serving
of ice cream as positive reinforcement.
Group 4 was trained and tested for Sequence P and
Sequence Q, and trained and retested for Sequence
P and Sequence Q after a serving of ice cream as
positive reinforcement.
Group 5 was trained and tested for Sequence P, and
trained and retested for Sequence P after a hug and
verbal praise as positive reinforcement.
Group 6 was trained and tested for Sequence P and
Sequence Q, and trained and retested for Sequence
P and Sequence Q after a hug and verbal praise as
positive reinforcement.

A B C A B C Table 1 shows, for each group, the

percentage change in the average accuracy of group
members between testing and retesting.
Sequence P: Sequence Q:
A-C-B-A B-C-A-B Table 1
Percent
Several weeks later, the accuracy of the
change
chimpanzees was retested in one of three ways as
in average
follows: (1) after 5 cycles of guided tapping and rest
accuracy for
only (no positive reinforcement); (2) after a serving
Sequences Positive Sequence:
of ice cream, a chimpanzee favorite (positive
Group taught reinforcement P Q
reinforcement), and 5 cycles of guided tapping and
rest; or (3) after an affectionate hug and verbal 1 P only None 0 N/A
praise from one of the scientists (positive 2 P and Q None 1 −2
reinforcement) and 5 cycles of guided tapping and 3 P only ice cream 20 N/A
rest. 4 P and Q ice cream 21 30
Six groups, each consisting of 5 different 5 P only hug & praise 19 N/A
chimpanzees, were subjected to different training 6 P and Q hug & praise 22 30
and testing/retesting protocols:
Note: N/A indicates that the heading is not applicable.

ACT
35. When chimpanzees were not trained for
Sequence Q, did retesting after the positive
reinforcement of ice cream increase the percent
change in average accuracy for Sequence P?
A. Yes; the percent change in average accuracy
for Group 5 was 19% compared to 0% for
Group 1.
B. Yes; the percent change in average accuracy
for Group 3 was 20% compared to 0% for
Group 1.
C. No; the percent change in average accuracy
for Group 1 was 0% compared to 1% for
Group 2.
D. No; the percent change in average accuracy
for Group 1 was 0% compared to −2% for
Group 2.
36. To determine whether Sequence Q was tapped
with greater accuracy after positive reinforce-
ment than without positive reinforcement, it
would be best to compare the results for:
F. Groups 1 and 2.
G. Groups 2 and 3.
H. Groups 3 and 5.
J. Groups 2 and 6.
37. How did the behavior of a chimpanzee training
for the shorter sequence differ from the behavior
of a chimpanzee training for the longer
sequence? A chimpanzee training for the shorter
sequence tapped:
A. A-C-B-A repeatedly, whereas a chimpanzee
training for the longer sequence tapped
B-C-A-B repeatedly.
B. A-C-B-A repeatedly, whereas a chimpanzee
training for the longer sequence tapped
A-C-B-A-B-C-A-B repeatedly.
C. B-C-A-B repeatedly, whereas a chimpanzee
training for the longer sequence tapped
B-C-A-B-A-C-B-A repeatedly.
D. B-C-A-B repeatedly, whereas a chimpanzee
training for the longer sequence tapped
B-C-A-B-B-C-A-B repeatedly.
38. The results of the investigation are most consis-
tent with which of the following conclusions
about the effect of positive reinforcement on the
procedural learning ability of chimpanzees?
F. Positive reinforcement before training does
not improve procedural learning.
G. Positive reinforcement after training does
not improve procedural learning.
H. Positive reinforcement before training
improves procedural learning.
J. Positive reinforcement after training
improves procedural learning.
39. Which of the following factors varied from the
initial training/testing to the subsequent training/
retesting for at least one of the groups of
chimpanzees?
A. The number of chimpanzees in the group.
B. The number of weeks between training/
testing and training/retesting.
C. The tap sequence taught and tested.
D. The positive reinforcement offered before
training.
40. A chimpanzee properly tapping B-A-B during a
test or retest could have been in which of the
following groups?
F. 1 only.
G. 1, 3, or 5 only.
H. 2 only.
J. 2, 4, or 6 only.
END OF TEST