Pcar 1 2 3

PCAR PART 1
Republic of the Philippines
CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS (CAR)

PART 1
GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES, and

DEFINITIONS
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RECORD OF AMENDMENTS
Amendment No. Date Subject Incorporated

By
Original Issue 23 June 2008 Ruben F. Ciron
First Amendment 21 March 2011 • Amendment to Part 1.1.1.1 (a) Ramon S.
(6) and (b) regarding Gutierrez
definition of Approved and
Signs and Symbols.
• Changes on the definitions of
the following:
1. Airman
2. Approved
3. State Safety Program
4. Standard Atmosphere
Second 01 August 2013 Inclusion of vertical bars on the LT GEN William
Amendment previous amendments. K Hotchkiss III
AFP (Ret)
Third 31 October 2013 • 1.5 Safety Management LT GEN William
Amendment System (new Subtitle base on K Hotchkiss III
Annex 6 amendment 33, 34, AFP (Ret)
35 and 36.)
• IS 1.5 Safety Management
System
• Changes on the definitions
of the following:
1. Accelerate-stop distance
available (ASDA)
2. Airworthy
3. Alternate
airport/aerodrome/heliport
4. Approach and landing
operations using
instrument approach
procedures
5. Continuing Airworthiness
6. Duty
7. Duty Period
8. Engine
9. Enhanced Vision System
(EVS)
10. Extended diversion time
operations (EDTO)
11. EDTO critical fuel
12. EDTO-significant system
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13. Fatigue
14. Fatigue Risk Management
System (FRMS)
15. Flight duty period
16. Head-up display (HUD)
17. Isolated aerodrome
18. Land distance available
(LDA)
19. Maximum diversion time
20. Navigation specification
21. Point of no return
22. Rest period
23. State safety program
24. Threshold time
Fourth Amendment 21 November 2014 Appendix A: Definitions LT GEN William
1. Critical Engine(s) K Hotchkiss III
AFP (Ret)
Fifth Amendment 01 July 2016 Appendix A Definitions LT GEN William
1. Approved Training K Hotchkiss III
2. Approved Training AFP (Ret)
Organization
3. Medical Assessor
Sixth Amendment 14 July 2016 IS: 1.2.1.8 (d) Sanction Table LT GEN William
K Hotchkiss III
AFP (Ret)
Seventh 24 November 2016 Appendix A: Definitions Captain Jim C.
Amendment 1. Organization responsible Sydiongco
for the type design
2. State of Design
3. State of Manufacture
4. Type Certificate
5. Type Design
Eighth Amendment 01 July 2017 Appendix A: Definitions Captain Jim C.
1. Airport operating minima Sydiongco
2. Continuous descent final
approach (CDFA)
3. Decision Altitude (DA) or
Decision Height (DH)
4. Instrument approach
operations
5. Aircraft tracking
6. Combined vision system
(CVS)
7. COMAT
8. Electronic flight bag
(EFB)
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9. Enhanced vision system

(EVS)
10. State of the aerodrome
11. Synthetic vision system
(SVS)
12. Category A
13. Engine
14. State of manufacture
Ninth Amendment 22 December 2020 1.5 Safety Management Captain Jim C.
Sydiongco
IS: 1.5 Safety Management
Tenth Amendment 20 April 2021 Appendix A: Definitions Captain Jim C.
1. Contaminated runway Sydiongco
2. Continuing airworthiness
records
3. Continuous descent final
approach (CDFA)
4. Cruise relief pilot
5. Dangerous Goods
6. Decision altitude (DA) or
decision height (DH)
7. Dry runway
8. Duty period
9. EDTO critical fuel
10. Electronic flight bag
(EFB)
11. Specific approval
12. State of Registry
13. Threshold time
14. Visual meteorological
conditions (VMC)
15. Wet runway
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LIST OF EFFECTIVE PAGES
Part Page Amendment No. Page Date

Part 1 General Policies, Procedures and Definitions
Cover Page i Amendment 01 21 March 2011
Board Resolution iii – v Amendment 01 21 March 2011

Record of Amendments vi – viii Amendment 10 30 July 2021
List of Effective Pages ix – xi Amendment 10 30 July 2021
Table of Contents xii – xiii Amendment 10 30 July 2021
Introduction xiv Original Issue 23 June 2008
Page
1.1-1 Amendment 01 21 March 2011
1.1-2 Original Issue 23 June 2008
1.5-1 Amendment 09 15 January 2021
IS-1 Original Issue 23 June 2008
IS-2 Amendment 06 14 July 2016
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IS-10 Amendment 09 15 January 2021
IS-18 Amendment 03 31 October 2013
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CONTENTS
1.1 RULES OF CONSTRUCTION.……………………..……………………………….. 1.1-1

1.1.1.1 Rules of Construction……………………….………………………………………… 1.1-1
1.1.1.2 Applicability………………………………………………………………..…………… 1.1-1
1.1.1.3 Organization of Regulations…………………………………………………………. 1.1-2
1.1.2.1 Regulations Amendment Procedure………………………………………………… 1.1-2
1.2 GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULES GOVERNING TESTING, LICENSES,
AND CERTIFICATES…………………………………………………………………. 1.2-1
1.2.1.1 Display and Inspection of Licenses and Certificates…………………………..…... 1.2-1
1.2.1.2 Change of Name……………………….……………………………………………… 1.2-1
1.2.1.3 Change of Address…………………………………………………………………… 1.2-2
1.2.1.4 Replacement of a Lost or Destroyed Airman License or Medical Certificate or
Knowledge Test Report………………………………………………………………. 1.2-2
1.2.1.5 Falsification, Reproduction, or Alteration of Applications, Licenses, Certificates,
Logbooks, Reports, or Records……………………………………………………... 1.2-2
1.2.1.6 Administrative Action………………………………………………………………….. 1.2-3
1.2.1.7 Certificate Action………………………………………………………………………. 1.2-3
1.2.1.7.1 Suspension or Revocation of a License or certificate for violation of the
Regulations..……………………………………………………………………...…… 1.2-3
1.2.1.7.2 Re-Examination or Re-Inspection of a Certificate or License For
Lack of Qualification. ………………………………………………………………… 1.2-3
1.2.1.7.3 Notice and Opportunity To Be Heard……………………………………………….. 1.2-4
1.2.1.8 Civil Penalties………………………………………………………………………….. 1.2-4
1.2.1.9 Criminal Penalties……………………………………………………………………... 1.2-4
1.2.1.10 Surrender, Suspension, or Revocation of License or Certificate………..……….. 1.2-4
1.2.1.11 Reapplication After Revocation……………………………...………………………. 1.2-4
1.2.1.12 Reapplication After Suspension…………………………………............................. 1.2-5
1.2.1.13 Voluntary Surrender or Exchange of License……………………………............... 1.2-5
1.2.1.14 Prohibition on Performance During Medical Deficiency………………………… 1.2-5
1.2.1.15 Psychoactive Substance Testing and Reporting…………………………………... 1.2-5
1.3 EXEMPTIONS………………………………………..……………………...………… 1.3-1
……
1.3.1 Applicability…………………………………...………………………………….......... 1.3-1
.......
1.3.2 General……………………………...………………………………........................... 1.3-1
1.3.3 Requirements for Application……………………………...………………………... 1.3-1
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1.3.3.1 General…………………………………...…………………………………................ 1.3-1

.......
1.3.3.2 Substance of the Request for Exemption……………………………...…………. 1.3-1
1.3.4 Review, Publication, and Issue or Denial of the Exemption………………………. 1.3-2
1.3.4.1 Initial Review by the Authority……………………………...……………………….. 1.3-2
1.3.4.2 Evaluation of the Request……………………………...…………………………… 1.3-2
1.3.4.3 Notification of Determination……………………………...…………………………. 1.3-2
1.3.4.4 Extension of the Exemption to Other Interested Parties…………………………... 1.3-3
1.4 DEFINITIONS…………………………………...…………………………………...... 1.4-1
.......
1.5 SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM………………………………………………… 1.5-1
IS 1.2.1.8(d) Sanction Tables…….………………………………………………………………….. IS-2
IS 1.2.1.15(a) List of Psychoactive Substances………………………......................................... IS-9
IS 1.5 Safety Management System………………………………………………………… IS-10
Appendix A Definitions……………………………..................................................................... IS-12
.......
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PCAR PART 1
CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS

PART 1
GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES, and

DEFINITIONS
Introduction
The Civil Aviation Regulations (CAR) provide the regulatory requirements dealing with aviation
safety related to aircraft operations, airworthiness and personnel licensing; and are presented in
Parts.
Of special interest are the Implementing Standards that accompany each Part. These
Implementing Standards provide detailed requirements that support the intent of a regulation
presented in a Part, but gain the force and effect of the governing regulations only if specifically
referred to in the governing regulation.
Implementing Standards are used in these Regulations to allow the flexibility to incorporate new
practices or procedures as they become available without the procedures required for
promulgation of legally binding regulations.
Part 1 General Policies, Procedures and Definitions, sets forth the basic rules of construction
and application of the regulations, definitions applicable to more than one Part, and the rules
governing the administration of licenses and certifications. All of the definitions of ICAO
Annexes 1 through 16 Volume 2 and ICAO Annex 18 are listed in Appendix A to Part 1 of these
regulations.
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1.1 RULES OF CONSTRUCTION

1.1.1.1 RULES OF CONSTRUCTION
(a) Throughout these regulations the following word usage applies:
(1) Shall indicates a mandatory requirement.
(2) The words "no person may..." or "a person may not..." mean that no person is
required, authorized, or permitted to do an act described in a regulation.
(3) May indicates that discretion can be used when performing an act described in a
regulation.
(4) Will indicates an action incumbent upon the Authority.
(5) Includes means "includes but is not limited to."
(6) Approved means approved by or on behalf of the Civil Aviation Authority in
accordance with the pertinent requirements of national regulations.
(7) Acceptable means the Authority has reviewed the method, procedure, or policy
and has neither objected to nor approved its proposed use or implementation.
(8) Prescribed means the Authority has issued written policy or methodology which
imposes either a mandatory requirement; if the written policy or methodology
states "shall." or a discretionary requirement if the written policy or methodology
states "may."
(9) Should indicate a recommended practice.
(10) Civil Aviation Act means Republic Act No. 9497, otherwise known as Civil
Aviation Authority Act of 2008.
(b) Signs and Symbols
(1) A vertical bar covering a sentence or paragraph indicates that the said sentence
or paragraph has been amended which is followed by an enclose parenthesis
indicating the date of amendment.
1.1.1.2 APPLICABILITY
(a) These regulations shall apply to all persons operating or maintaining the following:
(1) Republic of the Philippines registered aircraft;
(2) Aircraft registered in another Contracting State that are operated by a person
licensed by Republic of the Philippines, and must be maintained in accordance
with the standards of the aircraft State of Registry, wherever that maintenance is
performed;
(3) Aircraft of other Contracting States operating in Republic of the Philippines.
(b) Those regulations addressing persons certificated under any Part of these
regulations apply also to any person who engages in an operation governed by any
Part of these regulations without the appropriate certificate, license, operations
specification, or similar document required as part of the certification
(c) Regulations addressing general matters establish minimum standards for all aircraft
operated in Republic of the Philippines. Specific standards applicable to the holder of
a certificate shall apply if they conflict with a more general regulation.
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(d) Foreign air operators, who conduct commercial air transport into, from or within the
Republic of the Philippines, shall be governed by the provisions of the Operations
Specification issued by the Authority, and by those provisions in Parts 7, 8, and 10
that specifically address commercial air transport. Regulations that address AOC
holders apply only to operators certificated by the Republic of the Philippines.
1.1.1.3 ORGANIZATION OF REGULATIONS

(a) These regulations are subdivided into five hierarchical categories:
(1) Part refers to the primary subject area.
(2) Subpart refers to any subdivision of a Part.
(3) Section refers to any subdivision of a Subpart.
(4) Subsection refers to the title of a regulation and can be a subdivision of a Subpart
or Section,
(5) Paragraph refers to the text describing the regulations. All paragraphs are
outlined alphanumerically in the following hierarchical order: (a), (1), (i); (A).
(b) Abbreviations used within each Part are defined at the beginning of those Parts, and
if a definition is supplied, a note will indicate the Part where the definition is located.
(c) Notes appear in Subsections to provide exceptions, explanations, and examples to
individual requirements.
(d) Regulations may refer to Implementing Standards, which provide additional detailed
requirements that support the purpose of the subsection, and unless otherwise
indicated, have the legal force and effect of the referring regulation. The rules of
construction, Subpart 1.1.1.1, apply to Implementing Standards.
1.1.2.1 REGULATIONS AMENDMENT PROCEDURE

(a) The following procedure is prescribed to incorporate an amendment to these
Regulations.
(b) There shall be a Regulations Review Committee (the RR-Committee), consisting of
the representatives from the Flight Standards Inspectorate Service (FSIS), the
Enforcement and Legal Service (ELS), the Office of ICAO and External Relations
(IER), and the concerned Services/Directorates of the Authority. The concerned
Service/Directorate shall file a requirement for an amendment to these Regulations to
the RR-Committee. An operator or a member of public may send their request for an
amendment to these Regulations to the Director General for the attention of the RR-
Committee. The Amendment Cycle shall be twice every year, in January and July,
commencing in January 2009. When there is a requirement to issue an immediate
amendment to the Regulations, it can be done by promulgating a “Temporary
Amendment” in colored pages by a Memorandum Circular. Such a Temporary
Amendment shall be merged in the next regular Amendment Cycle, and the
Temporary Amendment/Memorandum Circular shall stand automatically cancelled
thereafter. An example of processing an amendment is stated in the succeeding
paragraphs
(c) For example, as and when the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) issues
an amendment to Annexes 1, 6, 8, 7 or other safety-related Annexes, the FSIS shall
review the contents of each amendment with the corresponding Part(s) of CAR,
assess its applicability to Republic of the Philippines, and accordingly advise the RR-
Committee. The other Services/Directorates shall do the same in respect of their
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related Annexes. The RR-Committee shall deliberate and decide whether to “accept”
the Annex-amendment or to file a difference with the ICAO, and advise the Director
General accordingly. When the Annex-amendment is to be “accepted”, the IER shall
arrange to notify the ICAO accordingly, and file difference(s), if any, separately with
ICAO, in accordance with the prescribed procedure. The secretariat of the RR-
Committee shall maintain necessary documentation related to each Annex-
amendment and CAR-amendment, including the records (such as, record of
discussions in respect of industry and other consultations).
(d) The FSIS shall work out a suitable amendment text for the CAR, based on the
“accepted” part of the Annex-amendment and put up to the Director General, through
the RR-Committee. As prescribed by the Civil Aviation Authority Act of 2008
(Republic Act No. 9497) Sections 24 (j) and 25, on recommendation of the Director
General, the Board will approve the CAR-amendment for promulgation. The CAAP
will then publish the CAR-amendment in accordance with the prescribed procedure.
(e) The RR-Committee shall ensure that whenever an amendment to these Regulations
is issued, the copy of CAR on the website is updated accordingly.
(f) The FSIS shall ensure that the CAR-amendments are distributed among the
recipients/copy-holders of CAR in a timely manner.
(g) The Technical Library shall maintain a current copy of these regulations (CAR), fully
updated, at all times.
(h) A typical CAR-amendment shall contain the following:
(1) Letter of Transmittal: A letter to all recipients/CAR copy-holders, describing the
purpose and location of the amendment in relation to the existing Regulation(s).
(2) Instructions: The instructions to “insert” and/or “delete” the affected pages of each
Part stating page number(s) and their effective date(s).
(3) Replacement pages of CAR: The replacement pages of CAR giving effect to the
Annex-amendment. As these regulations are printed on both sides of paper,
whenever some text undergoes a change, the reverse side will also need a
reprint, except that the effective date of the reverse side page may remain
unchanged.
(4) Updated Table of Contents: The effective dates of changed pages shall be
incorporated in the Contents of each Part as well as in the main Table of
Contents.
(5) Recording of Amendments: Instructions for recording the insertion of the CAR-
amendment in the “Record of Amendment” in the Table of Contents Part.
(6) Updating a Controlled Document: The prescribed procedure for updating a
“Controlled Document” shall be adhered to while transmitting and incorporating
each CAR-amendment.
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1.2 GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULES GOVERNING TESTING,

LICENSES, AND CERTIFICATES
1.2.1.1 DISPLAY AND INSPECTION OF LICENSES AND CERTIFICATES
(a) Pilot license:
(1) To act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of Republic of the Philippines registry, a pilot
shall have in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a
valid pilot license or special purpose authorization issued under these
regulations.
(2) To act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within Republic of the
Philippines, a pilot shall be the holder of a valid pilot license, and have the pilot
license in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft.
(b) Flight instructor license: A person who holds a flight instructor license shall have that
license, or other documentation acceptable to the Authority, in that person's physical
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that
license.
(c) Other airman license: A person required by any part of these regulations to have an
airman's license shall have it in their physical possession or readily accessible in the
aircraft or at the work site when exercising the privileges of that license.
(d) Medical certificate: A person required by any part of these regulations to have a
current medical certificate shall have it in their physical possession or readily
accessible in the aircraft or at the work site when exercising the privileges of that
certificate.
(e) Approved Training Organization (ATO) certificate: Each holder of a certificate shall
display that certificate in a place in the school that is normally accessible to the public
and that is not obscured.
(f) Aircraft Certificate of Registration: Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall carry
the aircraft certificate of registration on the aircraft and available for inspection.
(g) Aircraft Airworthiness Certificate: Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall display
that certificate in the cabin of the aircraft or at the entrance to the aircraft flight deck.
(h) Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO) Certificate: Each holder of an AMO
certificate shall prominently display that certificate in a place accessible to the public
in the principal business office of the AMO.
(i) Aerial work certificate: Reserved.
(j) Air operator certificate: Reserved.
(k) Inspection of license: Each person who holds an airman or crew member license,
medical certificate, or authorization required by these regulations shall present it for
inspection upon a request from: the Authority; or any national or local law
enforcement officer.
1.2.1.2 CHANGE OF NAME

(a) A holder of a license or certificate issued under these regulations may apply to
change the name on a license or certificate. The holder shall include with any such
request
(1) The current license or certificate: and
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(2) A copy of the marriage license, court order, or other document verifying the name
change.
(b) The Authority will return to the airman the documents specified in paragraph (a) of
this subsection.
1.2.1.3 CHANGE OF ADDRESS

(a) The holder of an airman license or certificate, or approved training organization
certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30
days from that date, exercise the privileges of the license or certificate unless the
holder has notified the Authority in writing of the new permanent mailing address, or
current residential address if the permanent mailing address includes a post office
box number.
1.2.1.4 REPLACEMENT OF A LOST OR DESTROYED AIRMAN LICENSE OR

MEDICAL CERTIFICATE OR KNOWLEDGE TEST REPORT
(a) An applicant who has lost or destroyed one of the following documents issued under
these regulations shall request a replacement in writing from the office designated by
the Authority:
(1) An airman license.
(2) A medical certificate.
(3) A knowledge test report.
(b) The airman or applicant shall state in the request letter:
(1) The name of the airman or applicant;
(2) The permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a
post office box number, the person's current residential address;
(3) The social security number or equivalent national identification number;
(4) The date and place of birth of the airman or applicant; and
(5) Any available information regarding the
(i) Grade, number, and date of issuance of the license, and the ratings, if
applicable;
(ii) Date of the medical examination, if applicable; and
(iii) Date the knowledge test was taken, if applicable.
(c) After receiving a facsimile from the Authority confirming that the lost or destroyed
document was issued, an airman may carry the facsimile in lieu of the lost or
destroyed document for up to 60 days pending the airman's receipt of a duplicate
document.
1.2.1.5 FALSIFICATION, REPRODUCTION, OR ALTERATION OF

APPLICATIONS, LICENSES, CERTIFICATES, LOGBOOKS, REPORTS,
OR RECORDS
(a) No person may make or cause to be made concerning any license, certificate, rating,
qualification, or authorization, application for or duplicate thereof, issued under these
regulations:
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(1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement;

(2) Any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record, or report that
these regulations require, or used to show compliance with any requirement of
these regulations,
(3) Any reproduction for fraudulent purpose; or any alteration.
(b) Any person who commits any act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section may
have his or her airman license, rating, certificate, qualification, or authorization
revoked or suspended.
1.2.1.6 ADMINISTRATIVE ACTION

(a) If it is determined that a violation or an alleged violation of the Civil Aviation Act, or an
order or regulation issued under it; is appropriate for administrative action, the
Authority may be taken by one of the following actions:
(1) A "Warning Notice" that shall recite available facts and information about the
incident or condition and indicate that it may have been a violation; or
(2) A "Letter of Correction" which confirms the Authority's decision in the matter and
states the necessary corrective action the alleged violator has taken or agreed to
take. If the agreed corrective action is not fully completed, formal certificate action
may be taken in accordance with 1.2.1.7.
(b) An administrative action under this section does not constitute a formal adjudication
of the matter.
1.2.1.7 CERTIFICATE ACTION

1.2.1.7.1 SUSPENSION OR REVOCATION OF A LICENSE OR CERTIFICATE FOR
VIOLATION OF THE REGULATIONS.
(a) The holder of any license or certificate issued under these regulations who violates
any provision of the Civil Aviation Act, as amended, or any regulation or order issued
thereunder, is subject to suspension or revocation of the license or certificate, in
accordance with the provisions of Section 35 (i) and Section 71 (a) and (b) of the
Civil Aviation Act.
(b) Any license or certificate issued under these regulations ceases to be effective, if it is
surrendered, suspended, or revoked.
(c) The holder of any license or certificate issued under these regulations that has been
suspended or revoked shall return that license to the Authority when requested to do
so by the Authority.
1.2.1.7.2 RE-EXAMINATION OR RE-INSPECTION OF A CERTIFICATE OR

LICENSE FOR LACK OF QUALIFICATION.
(a) Under Section 71 the Authority may re-inspect any civil aircraft, aircraft engine,
propeller, appliance, air operator, school, or approved maintenance organization, or
any civil airman holding a certificate or license issued under Section 35 of the Act.
(b) If, as a result of that re-inspection or re-examination, or any other investigation made
by the Authority, the Authority determines that a lack of qualification exists, and that
safety in air transport and the public interest requires it, the Authority may issue an
order to amend, modify, suspend, or revoke the license or certificate in whole or in
part.
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(c) Procedures for the re-examination of personnel licenses, ratings, authorizations, or

certificates are set forth in Part 2 of these Regulations.
1.2.1.7.3 NOTICE AND OPPORTUNITY TO BE HEARD

(a) Unless safety in air transport requires immediate action, prior to a final determination
under this section 1.2.1.7, the Authority shall provide the person with an opportunity
to be heard as to why such certificate or license should not be amended, modified,
suspended, or revoked, in accordance with Part 71 (c) of the Civil Aviation Act.
1.2.1.8 CIVIL PENALTIES

(a) Any person, other than a person conducting an operation in commercial air transport
or international commercial air transport, who violates any provision of the Civil
Aviation Act, these Aviation Safety Regulations; or any order issued there under, is
subject to a civil penalty imposed by the Authority in accordance with Section 81 of
the Civil Aviation Act.
(b) Any person conducting an operation in commercial air transport or international
commercial air transport, who violates any provision of the Civil Aviation Act, these
Aviation Safety Regulations, or any order issued there under, is subject to a civil
penalty imposed by the Authority in accordance with Section 81 of the Civil Aviation
Act.
(c) Civil penalties may be assessed instead of or in addition to any license or certificate
action described in 1.2.1.7.
(d) Guidelines for civil penalties and certificate actions are listed in: Section 81 of the
Civil Aviation Act.
Note: IS 1.2.1.8 (d) contains a sample of a sanction guidance table which can be
modified to conform to the penalty provisions in the Civil Aviation Act and to reflect
the Authority's enforcement policy.
1.2.1.9 CRIMINAL PENALTIES

The Civil Aviation Authority Act (Republic Act No. 9497) of 2008 established criminal
penalties for any person who knowingly and willfully violates specified provisions of the
Act, or any regulation or order issued thereunder.
1.2.1.10 SURRENDER, SUSPENSION, OR REVOCATION OF LICENSE OR

CERTIFICATE
(a) Any license or certificate issued under these regulations ceases to be effective if it is
surrendered, suspended, or revoked.
(b) The holder of any license or certificate issued under these regulations that has been
suspended or revoked shall return that license or certificate to the Authority when
requested to do so by the Authority.
1.2.1.11 REAPPLICATION AFTER REVOCATION

(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, a person whose license, certificate,
rating, or authorization has been revoked may not apply for any license, certificate,
rating, or authorization for 1 year after the date of revocation.
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1.2.1.12 REAPPLICATION AFTER SUSPENSION

(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, a person whose license has been
suspended may not apply for any license, rating, or authorization during the period of
suspension.
1.2.1.13 VOLUNTARY SURRENDER OR EXCHANGE OF LICENSE

(a) The holder of a license or certificate issued under these regulations may voluntarily
surrender it for:
(1) Cancellation:
(2) Issuance of a lower grade license; or
(3) Another license with specific ratings deleted.
(b) If the license is surrendered for a voluntary suspension, the holder may not be
required to take any theoretical examination when the said holder desires to renew
his license but must comply with the other requirements of this Part.
(c) An applicant requesting voluntary surrender of a license shall include the following
signed statement or its equivalent: "This request is made for my own reasons, with
full knowledge that my (insert name of license or rating, as appropriate) may not be
reissued to me unless I complete the requirements prescribed for its issuance".
1.2.1.14 PROHIBITION ON PERFORMANCE DURING MEDICAL DEFICIENCY

(a) A person who holds a current medical certificate issued under these regulations shall
not act in a capacity for which that medical certificate is required while that person:
(1) Knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would make the
person unable to meet the requirements for the required medical certificate; or
(2) Is taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical condition that
results in the person being unable to meet the requirements for the required
medical certificate.
1.2.1.15 PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCE TESTING AND REPORTING

(a) Any person who performs any function requiring a license, rating, qualification, or
authorization prescribed by these regulations directly or by contract for a certificate
holder under the provisions of these regulations may be tested for usage of
psychoactive substances.
(b) Chemicals considered psychoactive substances are listed in IS 1.2.1.15(a).
(c) Any person subject to these regulations who refuses to submit to a test to indicate
the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law
enforcement officer or the Authority, or refuses to furnish or to authorize the release
of the test results requested by the Authority may:
(1) Be denied any license, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization issued
under these regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal;
or
(2) Have his or her license, certificate, rating, qualification, or authorization issued
under these regulations suspended or revoked.
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(d) Any person subject to these regulations who refuses to submit to a test to indicate
the presence of narcotic drugs; marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or
substances in the body, when requested by a law enforcement officer or the
Authority, or refuses to furnish or to authorize the release of the test results
requested by the Authority may:
under these regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal;
or
(e) Any person subject to these regulations who is convicted for the violation of any local
or national statute relating to the growing; processing, manufacture, sale, disposition,
possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant
or stimulant drugs or substances, may:
under these regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final
conviction; or
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1.3 EXEMPTIONS
1.3.1 APPLICABILITY
(a) This subpart prescribes procedures for the request, review, and denial or issuance of
exemptions from the Regulations of these Parts, as provided by the Civil Aviation
Authority Act (Republic Act No. 9497) of 2008.
1.3.2 GENERAL
(a) Any interested person may apply to the Director General for an exemption from these
Regulations.
(b) Only the Director General may issue exemptions, and no person may take or cause
to be taken any action not in compliance with these Regulations unless the Authority
has issued an applicable exemption to the person.
(c) Exemptions will only be granted in extraordinary circumstances and providing that
said grant of an exemption is not prejudicial to flight safety;
1.3.3 REQUIREMENTS FOR APPLICATION

1.3.3.1 GENERAL
(a) Applications for an exemption should be submitted at least 60 days in advance of the
proposed effective date, to obtain timely review.
(b) The request shall contain:
(1) The Applicant's name;
(2) Street address and mailing address, if different;
(3) Telephone number, and fax number if available;
(4) E-mail address if available; and
(5) Agent for all purposes related to the application.
(c) If the applicant is not a citizen or legal resident of the Republic of the Philippines, the
application must specify a Republic of the Philippines agent for service.
1.3.3.2 SUBSTANCE OF THE REQUEST FOR EXEMPTION

(a) Applications must contain the following:
(1) A citation of the specific requirement from which the applicant seeks relief;
(2) Description of the type of operations to be conducted under the proposed
exemption;
(3) The proposed duration of the exemption;
(4) An explanation of how the exemption would be in the public interest, that is,
benefit the public as a whole.
(5) A detailed description of the alternative means by which the applicant will
ensure a level of safety equivalent to that established by the Regulation in
question.
(6) A review and discussion of any known safety concerns with the requirement,
including information about any relevant accidents or incidents of which the
applicant is aware.
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(7) If the applicant seeks to operate under the proposed exemption outside of
Republic of the Philippines airspace, the application must also indicate whether
the exemption would contravene any provision of the Standards and
Recommended Practices of the International Civil Aviation Organization
(ICAO).
(b) If the applicant seeks emergency processing, the application must contain supporting
facts and reasons that the application was not timely filed, and the reasons it is an
emergency. The Authority may deny an application if the Authority finds that the
applicant has not justified the failure to apply in a timely fashion.
1.3.4 REVIEW, PUBLICATION, AND ISSUE OR DENIAL OF THE EXEMPTION

1.3.4.1 INITIAL REVIEW BY THE AUTHORITY
(a) The Authority will review the application for accuracy and compliance with the
requirements of Subpart 1.3.3.
(b) If the application appears on its face to satisfy the provisions of Subpart 1.3.3 and the
Authority determines that a review of its merits is justified, the Authority will publish a
detailed summary of the application for comment and specify the date by which
comments must be received by the Authority for consideration.
(c) If the filing requirements of Subpart 1.3.3 have not been met, the Authority will notify
the applicant and take no further action until the applicant complies with the
requirements of Subpart 1.3.3
1.3.4.2 EVALUATION OF THE REQUEST

After initial review, if the filing requirements have been satisfied, the Authority shall
conduct an evaluation of the request to include:
(a) A determination of whether an exemption would be in the public interest,
(b) A determination, after a technical evaluation, of whether the applicant's proposal
would provide a level of safety equivalent to that established by the Regulation;
Note: If it appears to the Authority that a technical evaluation of the request would
impose a significant burden on the Authority's technical resources, the Authority may
deny the exemption on that basis.
(c) A determination, if the applicant seeks to operate under the exemption outside of
Republic of the Philippines airspace, of whether a grant of the exemption would
contravene the applicable ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices.
(d) An evaluation of comments received from interested parties concerning the proposed
exemption.
(e) A recommendation, based on the preceding elements, of whether the request should
be granted or denied, and of any conditions or limitations that should be part of the
exemption.
1.3.4.3 NOTIFICATION OF DETERMINATION

(a) The Authority shall notify the applicant by letter and publish a detailed summary of its
evaluation and decision to grant or deny the request. The summary shall specify the
duration of the exemption and any conditions or limitations to the exemption.
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(b) If the request is for emergency relief, the Authority will publish the application and/or
the Authority's decision as soon as possible after processing the application.
(c) If the exemption affects a significant population of the aviation community of Republic
of the Philippines the Authority shall also publish the summary in its aeronautical
information publications.
1.3.4.4 EXTENSION OF THE EXEMPTION TO OTHER INTERESTED PARTIES

(a) If the Authority determines that an exemption should be granted, other persons or
organizations may apply to the Authority to be included in the relief granted.
(b) Such applications shall be in accordance with the requirements of Subpart 1.3.3.
(c) If the Authority determines that the request merits extension of the exemption to the
applicant, it shall notify the applicant by letter, specifying the duration of the
exemption, and listing any additional conditions that may pertain to the applicant that
are not addressed in the underlying exemption.
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1.4 DEFINITIONS
(a) For the purpose of these regulations, when the terms listed in Appendix A in this part
shall have the meaning as stated in the appendix. However, the individual Parts will
state the definitions applicable to that Part.
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1.5 SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

The AOC, ATO, AMO and International – General Aviation Operators shall implement a
safety management system acceptable to the Authority that as a minimum:
(1) Identifies safety hazards;
(2) Ensures the implementation of remedial action necessary to maintain agreed
safety performance;
(3) Provides for continuous monitoring and regular assessment of the safety
performance; and
(4) Aims at a continuous improvement of the overall performance of the safety
management system.
The safety management system shall clearly define lines of safety accountability
throughout the approved training organization, including a direct accountability for safety
on the part of senior management.
The safety management system shall contain the components and elements listed in IS:
1.5.
Note 1: Guidance on defining safety performance is contained in ICAO Doc 9859 Safety
Management Manual.
Note 2: The framework for the implementation and maintenance of a safety
management system is contained in ICAO Doc 9859 Safety Management Manual,
Appendix 4.
Note 3: The framework for a STATE Safety Program (SSP) is contained in ICAO Annex
1: Attachment C and ICAO Annex 6, Part I: Attachment I.
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PART 1: IS
GENERAL POLICIES,
PROCEDURES, and
DEFINITIONS: IMPLEMENTING
STANDARDS
31 OCTOBER 2013
For ease of reference, the number assigned to each Implementing

Standard corresponds to its associated regulation. For example, IS:
1.2.1.8 would reflect a standard required in CAR: 1.2.1.8.
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IS 1.2.1.8(d) SANCTION TABLES

This table provides a recommended approach to assessment of sanctions for violations
of these Aviation Regulations.
Introduction. The Sanction Guidance Table describes civil penalties as minimum,
moderate, or maximum for a single violation of a particular regulation, in accordance with
the Civil Aviation Authority Act (RA-9497) of 2008. These terms are defined as follows:
TABLE-1 CIVIL PENALTIES
Party Committing Violation Amount of Monetary Penalty/Basis

Maximum :500T Paragraph (4) Sec. 81 of
AOC Holders Moderate :400T Republic Act No. 9497
Minimum :300T
Maximum :500T Pertinent provisions of
Airport Operators Moderate :400T Sec. 81, R.A. No. 9497
Minimum :300T
AOC holder Personnel Moderate :400T Sec. 81, R.A. No. 9497
Minimum :300T
General Aviation Owners, Operators,
Moderate :400T Sec. 81, R.A. No. 9497
Mechanics, and non – licensed persons
Minimum :300T
Approved Maintenance Organizations Moderate :400T Republic Act No. 9497
Minimum :300T
Approved Training Organizations Moderate :400T Republic Act No. 9497
Minimum :300T
TABLE-2 SANCTIONS
Violation Sanction per Violation
I. Air operators and airport operators
1. Maintenance Manual
a. Suspend until manuals are current to 7
a. Failure to maintain a current manual
day
b. Failure to provide adequate instructions & Suspension and thereafter until manuals
procedures in manual are made current
c. Failure to distribute manual to appropriate b. Moderate to maximum civil penalty
Personnel c. Moderate civil penalty
d. Release of aircraft without required d. Maximum civil penalty to 7-day
equipment suspension

2. Failure to comply with Airworthiness
Moderate to maximum civil penalty
Directives
3.Operations Specification
a. Failure to comply with inspection and a. Maximum civil penalty to 7-day
overhaul time limitations suspension
b. Operations contrary to operations b. Maximum civil penalty
specifications
4. Failure to provide adequately for proper Maximum civil penalty to suspension until
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servicing, maintenance, repair, and proper servicing maintenance, repair, and

inspection of facilities and equipment inspection of facilities and equipment is
provided.
Maximum civil penalty to suspension until
5. Failure to provide or maintain a
appropriate maintenance and inspection
maintenance & inspection organization
organization is provided.
6. Training program
a. Failure to have or maintain an effective a. Maximum civil penalty to
training program suspension until compliance is
b. Failure to train specific personnel demonstrated
adequately b. Moderate to maximum civil penalty
7. Failure to ensure that maintenance
release is completed and signed
8. Failure to ensure that maintenance
release is completed and signed
9. Performance of maintenance by
Maximum civil penalty
unauthorized persons
10. Failure to perform or improper
performance of maintenance
11. Failure to revise aircraft data after repair Moderate to Maximum civil penalty
12. Records and Reports
a. Failure to make accurate mechanical
Moderate to Maximum civil penalty
interruption summary report
b. Failure to make available reports of
major alterations or repairs
c. Failure to make accurate mechanical
reliability reports
Maximum civil penalty to 7-ady suspension
d. Failure to keep maintenance records and thereafter until aircraft is in airworthy
condition
e. Failure to make required entry in
aircraft log
f. Failure to make available pilot
records
g. Failure to make available load
manifests
13. Operation of an un-airworthy aircraft
a. Technical non-conformity to type
certificate, but no likely effect (potential Minimum civil penalty
or actual) on safe operation.
b. Non-conformity which may have an
Moderate civil penalty
adverse effect on safety of an operation
c. Non-conformity which has an adverse
effect actual or potential un safe Maximum civil penalty
operation
14. Serving alcoholic beverages to or
boarding a person appears to be intoxicated
15. Using an unqualified crewmember Maximum civil penalty
16. Improperly returning an aircraft to
service
17. Illegal carriage of controlled substance
with knowledge of carrier, i.e., knowledge of Revocation
management personnel
18. Security violation
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a. Failure to properly screen baggage or

each passenger
b. Unauthorized access to airport
operations are
c. Failure to comply with air carrier
security program, including failure to
detect weapons, incendiary and other
dangerous devices
d. Management personnel coerce,
condone, or encourage falsification of Revocation
records/reports
e. Deliberate failure to maintain employee
records
f. Failure to challenge Moderate civil penalty
g. Failure to test screeners or test
Moderate civil penalty
equipment
h. Failure to properly train Moderate civil penalty
i. Unintentional failure to maintain
Minimum to Moderate civil penalty
screener test records
j. Failure to display identification Minimum to Moderate civil penalty
k. Failure to manage/control identification
system
l. Failure to conduct background check Minimum to Moderate civil penalty
m. Failure to detect test objects Maximum civil penalty
n. Failure to comply with approved or
current security program
II. Personnel of air operators
1. Maintenance performed by unauthorized
personnel:
a) Without certificate Maximum civil penalty
b) Exceeding limitations 30 to 45 day suspension
2. Failure to properly perform maintenance 30 to 120 day suspension
3. inspection personnel
a. Failure to make required inspection 30 to 60 day suspension
b. Making improper inspection 30 to 120 day suspension
c. Improperly releasing an aircraft to
30 to 60 day suspension
service
4. Records and Reports
a. Failure to make entries in aircraft log 15 to 60 day suspension
b. Failure to make entries in worksheets 15 to 30 day suspension
c. Failure to sign off work or inspection
performed
d. Failure to complete and sign
maintenance release
e. Falsification of records or reports Revocation
5. Releasing aircraft for service without
required equipment.
6. Pre-flight
a. Failure to use pre-flight cockpit checklist 15 to 30 day suspension
b. Failure to check aircraft logs, flight
manifest, weather, etc.
7. Taxiing
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a. Failure to adhere to taxi clearance or

instruction
b. Collision while taxiing 30 to 120 day suspension
c. Jet blast 30 to 180 day suspension
d. Taxiing with passenger standing 30 to 60 day suspension
8. Take-off
a. Takeoff against instruction or clearance 60 to 120 day suspension
b. Takeoff below weather minima 60 to 120 day suspension
c. Takeoff in overloaded aircraft 60 to 120 day suspension
9. En-route
a. Deviation from clearance or instruction 30 to 90 day suspension
b. Operating VFR within clouds 90 day suspension to revocation
c. Operation of un-airworthy aircraft 30 to 180 day suspension
d. Unauthorized departure from flight desk 15 to 30 day suspension
e. Operating within restricted or prohibited
area, or within positive control area with 30 to 90 day suspension
clearance
f. Operating without required equipment 15 to 120 day suspension
g. Fuel mismanagement/exhaustion 30 to 150 day suspension
10. Approach to landing
a. Deviation from clearance or instruction
in terminal area
b. Approach below weather minimums 45 to 90 day suspension
c. Exceeding speed limitations in airport
traffic areas
11. Landing
a. Landing at wrong airport 90 to 180 day suspension
b. Deviation from instrument approach
procedure
c. Overweight landing 30 to 90 day suspension
d. Hard landing 15 to 60 day suspension
e. Short or long landing 30 to 180 day suspension
f. Wheels up landing 30 to 180 day suspension
g. Failure to comply with preferential Maximum civil penalty to 15 day
runway system suspension
12. Unauthorized admission to flight deck 30 to 90 day suspension
Maximum civil penalty to 30 day
13. Failure to close and lock cockpit door
suspension
14. Acting as flight crewmember while
under the influence of liquor or drugs, or
Emergency revocation
alcoholic beverage consumption within 8
hrs.
15. Denial of authorized entry to flight deck 30 to 60 day suspension
16. Flight time and duty and rest periods
requirements
17. Operation without required certificate or
rating
a. Medical certificate 15 to 60 day suspension
b. Lack of a type rating 180 day suspension to revocation
c. Missed proficiency check 30 to 90 day suspension
d. Lack of current experience 30 to 90 day suspension
e. Failure to have current certificate or
Moderate civil penalty to 7 day suspension
license in possession
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18. Operation with known physical disability Revocation
III. Individuals and General Aviation – Owners, Pilots,

Aviation Maintenance Organizations, Maintenance personnel
1. Owners and operators other than required crewmembers
a. Failure to comply with airworthiness Moderate to maximum civil penalty
directives
b. Failure to perform or improper Moderate to maximum civil penalty
performance of maintenance, including
required maintenance
c. Failure to make proper entries in aircraft Minimum to moderate civil penalties
logs
d. Operation of aircraft beyond annual, Minimum to moderate civil penalty
100-hour, or progressive inspection
e. Operation of un-airworthy aircraft Moderate to maximum civil penalty
f. Falsification of any record Revocation
2. Aviation Maintenance Organizations
a. Failure to provide adequately for proper Moderate to maximum civil penalty
servicing maintenance repairs, and
inspection
b. Failure to provide adequate personnel Maximum civil penalty to 7-day suspension
who can perform, and inspect work for and thereafter until adequate personnel
which the sanction is rated are provided
c. Failure to have enough qualified Maximum civil penalty to 7-day suspension
personnel to keep up with the volume of and thereafter until certificate holder has
work enough qualified personnel
d. Failure to maintain records of Moderate to maximum civil penalty
supervisory and inspection personnel
e. Failure to maintain performance records Moderate to maximum civil penalty
and reports
f. Failure to ensure correct calibration of Minimum to maximum civil penalty
all inspection and test equipment is
accomplished at prescribed intervals
g. Failure to set forth adequate description Minimum to maximum civil penalty
of work performed
h. Failure of mechanic to make log entries, Moderate to maximum civil penalty
records, or reports
i. Failure to sign or complete maintenance Minimum to moderate civil penalty
release
j. Inspection of work performed and Maximum civil penalty to 30 day
approval for return to service by other suspension
than a qualified inspector
k. Failure to have an adequate inspection Moderate civil penalty to 30 day
system that procedure satisfactory suspension and thereafter until a an
quality control adequate inspection system is
l. Maintaining or altering an article for Moderate civil penalty to 30 day
which it is rated, without using required suspension
technical Data, equipment, or facilities
m. Failure to perform or properly perform Moderate civil penalty to 30 day
maintenance, repairs, alterations, and suspension
required alterations
n. Maintaining or altering an airframe, Maximum civil penalty
power plant, propeller, Instrument,
radio, or accessory for which it is not
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rated
o. Failure to report defects or un-airworthy Moderate to maximum civil penalty
conditions to the authority in a timely
manner
p. Failure to satisfy housing and facility Moderate civil penalty to suspension until
requirements housing and facility requirements are
satisfied
q. Change of location, housing, or facilities Moderate civil penalty to suspension until
without advance written approval approval is given
r. Operating as a certified repair station Maximum civil penalty
without a repair station certificate
s. Failure to permit Authority to inspect Maximum civil penalty to suspension until
Authority is permitted to inspect
3. General Aviation Maintenance Personnel
a. Failure to revise aircraft data after major 30 to 60 day suspension
repairs or alterations
b. Failure to perform or improper 30 to 120 day suspension
performance of maintenance
c. Failure of mechanic to properly 30 to 60 day suspension
accomplish inspection
d. Failure of mechanic to record inspection Minimum civil penalty to 30 day
suspension
e. Failure of Inspection Authorization 60 to 80 day suspension of Inspection
holder to properly accomplish Authorization
inspection
f. Failure of Inspection Authorization Moderate civil penalty to 30 day
holder to record inspection suspension of Inspection Authorization
g. Maintenance performed by person Moderate to maximum civil penalty
without a certificate
h. Maintenance performed by person who 15 to 60 day suspension
exceeded certificate limitations
i. Improper approval for return to service Moderate civil penalty to 60 day
suspension
j. j. Failure to make maintenance record Moderate civil penalty to 60 day
suspension
k. k. Failure to set forth adequate Minimum civil penalty to 30 day
description of work performed suspension
l. l. Falsification of maintenance records Revocation
4. Student Operation
a. a. Carrying passengers Revocation
b. b. Solo flight without endorsement 45 to 90 day suspension
c. c. Operation on international flight 60 to 90 day suspension
d. d. Use of aircraft in business 90 to 120 day suspension
e. e. Operation for compensation or hire Revocation
5. Instruction
a. a. False endorsement of student pilot Revocation
certificate
b. b. Exceeding flight time limitations 30 to 90 days suspension
c. c. Instruction in aircraft for which he/she 30 to 90 days suspension
is not rated
6. Operational Violations
a. Operation without valid airworthiness or 30 to 90 day suspension
registration certificate
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b. Failure to close flight plan or file arrival Administrative action to minimum civil
notice penalty
c. Operation without valid pilot certificate Maximum civil penalty
(no certificate)
d. Operation while pilot certificate is Emergency revocation
suspended
e. Operation without pilot or medical Administrative action to 15 day suspension
certificate in personal possession
f. Operation without valid medical 30 to 180 day suspension
certificate
g. Operation for compensation or hire 180 day suspension to revocation
without commercial pilot certificate
h. Failure to comply with special 90 day suspension to revocation
conditions of medical certificate
i. Failure to comply with special 90 day suspension to revocation
conditions of medical certificate
j. Operation without type of class rating 60 to 120 day suspension
k. Failure to obtain preflight information 30 to 90 day suspension
l. Deviation from ATC instruction or 30 to 90 day suspension
clearance
m. Taxiing, take off, or landing without a 30 to 90 day suspension
clearance where ATC tower is in
operation
n. Failure to maintain radio 30 to 60 day suspension
communications in airport traffic area
o. Failure to comply with airport traffic 30 to 60 day suspension
pattern
p. Operation in terminal control area 60 to 90 day suspension
without or contrary to a clearance
q. Failure to coma maintain altitude in 30 to 60 day suspension
airport traffic area
r. Exceeding speed limitations in traffic 30 to 60 day suspension
area
s. Operation of un-airworthy aircraft 30 to 180 day suspension
t. Failure to comply with Airworthiness 30 to 180 day suspension
directives
u. Operation without required instruments 30 to 90 day suspension
and/or equipment
v. Exceeding operation limitations 30 to 90 day suspension
w. Operation within prohibited or restricted 30 to 90 day suspension
area, or within positive control area
x. Failure to adhere to right of way rules 30 to 90 day suspension
y. Failure to comply with VFR cruising 30 to 90 day suspension
altitudes
z. Failure to maintain required minimum 60 to 180 day suspension
altitudes over structures, persons, or 30 to 120 day suspension
vehicles over congested area/sparsely
populated area
aa. Failure to maintain radio watch while 30 to 60 day suspension
under IFR
bb. Failure to report compulsory reporting 30 to 60 day suspension
points
cc. Failure to display positions lights 30 to 60 day suspension
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dd. Failure to maintain proper altimeter 30 to 60 day suspension

settings
ee. Weather operations:
Failure to comply with visibility 60 to 180 day suspension
minimums in controlled airspace;
Failure to comply with visibility 30 to 120 day suspension
minimums outside controlled airspace;
Failure to comply with distance from 60 to 180 day suspension
clouds requirements in controlled
airspace 30 to 120 day suspension
Failure to comply with distance from
clouds requirements outside of
controlled airspace
ff. Failure to comply with IFR landing 45 to 180 day suspension
minimums
gg. Failure to comply with instruments 45 to 180 day suspension
approach procedures
hh. Careless or reckless operations
Fuel mismanagement/exhaustion 30 to 150 day suspension

Wheels up landing 30 to 60 day suspension
Short or long landing 30 to 90 day suspension
Landing on or taking off from closed 30 to 60 day suspension
runway
Landing or taking off from ramps or 30 to 120 day suspension
other improper areas
Taxiing collision 30 to 90 day suspension
Leaving aircraft unattended with motor 30 to 90 day suspension
running
Propping aircraft without a qualified 30 to 90 day suspension
person at controls
ii. Passenger operations
Operation without approved seat belts 30 to 60 day suspension
Carrying passengers who are under the 60 to 120 day suspension
influence of drugs or alcohol
Performing acrobatics when all 60 to 90 day suspension
passengers are not equipped with
approved parachutes
IV – Security and Safety Violations by Individuals and Certificate holders
1. Individuals Aiming Laser Beams at Aircraft
a. Single, first-time, inadvertent or non- Minimum to Moderate civil penalty
deliberate violation by individual
b. Deliberate violation by an individual Maximum civil penalty to revocation (if
Applicable)
IS 1.2.1.15(a) LIST OF PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCES

Refer to ICAO Doc 9654
(a) Alcohol
(b) Opioids
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(c) Cannabinoids
(d) Sedatives and hypnotics
(e) Cocaine and other stimulants (except caffeine)
(f) Hallucinogens
(g) Volatile solvents
IS: 1.5 SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

The following specifies the framework for the implementation and maintenance of a safety
management system (SMS) by an AOC, ATO, AMO or International - General Aviation
Operators:
(1) Safety policy and objectives:
(i) Management commitment and responsibility.
(A) The AOC, ATO, AMO or International – General Aviation Operators shall
define the organization’s safety policy which shall be:
(aa) in accordance with international and national requirements, and
(bb) signed by the accountable executive of the organization.
(B) The safety policy shall:
(aa) reflect organizational commitments regarding safety;
(bb) include a clear statement about the provision of the necessary
resources for the implementation of the safety policy;
(cc) be communicated with visible endorsement throughout the
organization;
(dd) include the safety reporting procedures;
(ee) clearly indicate which types of operational behaviors are
unacceptable;
(ff) include the conditions under which disciplinary action would not
apply; and
(gg) be periodically reviewed to ensure it remains relevant and
appropriate to the organization.
(ii) Safety accountabilities
identify, with respect to the safety performance of the SMS:
(aa) the accountable executive who, irrespective of other functions, shall
have ultimate responsibility and accountability, on behalf of the
AOC, ATO, AMO or International – General Aviation Operators, for
the implementation and maintenance of the SMS;
(bb) the accountabilities of all members of the management, irrespective
of other functions, and
(cc) the employees.
(B) The AOC, ATO, AMO or International – General Aviation Operators shall:
(aa) document safety responsibilities, accountabilities and authorities;
(bb) communicate these throughout the organization, and
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(cc) include a definition of the levels of management authority to make

decisions regarding safety risk tolerability.
(iii) Appointment of key safety personnel
identify a safety manager to be the responsible individual and focal point
or the implementation and maintenance of an effective SMS.
(iv) Coordination of emergency response planning
ensure that an emergency response plan that provides for the orderly and
efficient transition from normal to emergency operations and the return to
normal operations is properly coordinated with the emergency response
plans of those organizations it must interface with during the provision of
its services.
(v) SMS documentation
develop and maintain:
(aa) an SMS implementation plan:
(aaa) endorsed by senior management of the organization, and
(bbb) that defines the organization’s approach to the management of
safety in a manner that meets the organization’s safety
objectives.
(bb) SMS documentation describing:
(aaa) the safety policy and objectives,
(bbb) the SMS requirements,
(ccc) the SMS processes and procedures,
(ddd) the accountabilities, responsibilities and authorities for
processes and procedures and the SMS outputs.
(cc) a safety management systems manual (SMSM) to communicate its
approach to the management of safety throughout the organization.
(2) Safety risk management:
(i) Hazard identification.
develop and maintain a formal process that ensures that hazards in
operations are identified.
(B) The AOC, ATO, AMO or International – General Aviation Operators shall
base its hazard identification on a combination of reactive, proactive and
predictive methods of safety data collection.
(ii) Safety risk assessment and mitigation.
develop and maintain a formal process that ensures analysis, assessment
and control of the safety risks in training operations.
(3) Safety assurance:
(i) Safety performance monitoring and measurement.
develop and maintain the means to:
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(aa) verify the safety performance of the organization, and

(bb) validate the effectiveness of safety risk controls.
(B) The AOC, ATO, AMO or International – General Aviation Operators shall
verify the safety performance of the organization in reference to the safety
performance indicators and safety performance targets of the SMS.
(ii) The management of change
develop and maintain a formal process to:
(aa) identify changes within the organization which may affect established
processes and services;
(bb) describe the arrangements to ensure safety performance before
implementing changes, and
(cc) eliminate or modify safety risk controls that are no longer needed or
effective due to changes in the operational environment.
(iii) Continuous improvement of the SMS
develop and maintain a formal process to:
(aa) identify the causes of substandard performance of the SMS.
(bb) determine the implications of substandard performance of the SMS in
operations; and
(cc) eliminate or mitigate such causes.
(4) Safety promotion:
(i) Training and education
develop and maintain a safety training program that:
(aa) ensures that all personnel are trained and competent to perform the
SMS duties, and
(bb) is appropriate to each individual’s involvement in the SMS.
(ii) Safety communication.
develop and maintain formal means for safety communication that:
(aa) ensures all personnel are fully aware of the SMS;
(bb) conveys safety-critical information;
(cc) explains why particular safety actions are taken; and
(dd) explains why safety procedures are introduced or changed.
APPENDIX A: DEFINITIONS
When the following terms are used in these regulations, they shall have the following
meanings.
Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS). An aircraft system based on secondary
surveillance radar (SSR) transponder signals which operates independently of ground-based
equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with
SSR transponders.
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Accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA). The length of the take-off run available plus
the length of stopway, if provided.
Accepting unit. Air traffic control unit next to take control of an aircraft.
Accident. An occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place
between the times any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as
all such persons have disembarked, in which:
(a) a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of:
- being in the aircraft, or
- direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including parts which have become
detached from the aircraft, or
- direct exposure to jet blast, except when the injuries are from natural causes,
self-inflicted or inflicted by other persons, or when the injuries are to stowaways
hiding outside the areas normally available to the passengers and crew; or
(b) the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which:
- adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight characteristics of
the aircraft, and
- would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component,
except for engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited to the engine, its
cowlings or accessories; or for damage limited to propellers, wing tips, antennas,
tires, brakes, fairings, small dents or puncture holes in the aircraft skin; or
(c) the aircraft is missing or is completely inaccessible.
Accredited medical conclusion. The conclusion reached by one or more medical experts
acceptable to the Licensing Authority for the purposes of the case concerned, in consultation
with flight operations or other experts as necessary.
Accounting management. An ATN systems management facility to monitor users for use of
network resources and to limit the use of those resources.
Accuracy. A degree of conformance between the estimated or measured value and the true
value.
Acrobatic flight. Maneuvers intentionally performed by an aircraft involving an abrupt
change in its altitude, an abnormal altitude, or an abnormal variation in speed.
ADS agreement. An ADS reporting plan which establishes the conditions of ADS data
reporting (i.e. data required by the air traffic services unit and frequency of ADS reports
which have to be agreed to prior to the provision of the ADS services).
ADS-C agreement. A reporting plan which establishes the conditions of ADS-C data
reporting (i.e. data required by the air traffic services unit and frequency of ADS-C reports
which have to be agreed to prior to using ADS-C in the provision of air traffic services).
ADS application. An ATN application that provides ADS data from the aircraft to the ATS
unit(s) for surveillance purposes.
ADS contract. A means by which the terms of an ADS agreement will be exchanged
between the ground system and the aircraft, specifying under what conditions ADS reports
would be initiated, and what data would be contained in the reports.
Advisory airspace. An airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route, within which air
traffic advisory service is available.
Advisory route. A designated route along which air traffic advisory service is available.
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Aerial work. An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialized services such
as agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and
rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.
Aerodrome. The preferred spelling is Airport however the meaning is identical except the
spelling. See Airport entries below.
Aeronautical Administrative Communication (AAC). Communication used by
aeronautical operating agencies related to the business aspects of operating their flights and
transport services. This communication is used for a variety of purposes, such as flight and
ground transportation, bookings, deployment of crew and aircraft or any other logistical
purposes that maintain or enhance the efficiency of over-all flight operation.
Aeronautical broadcasting service. A broadcasting service intended for the transmission
of information relating to air navigation.
Aeronautical chart. A representation of a portion of the earth, its culture and relief,
specifically designated to meet the requirements of air navigation.
Aeronautical fixed circuit. A circuit forming part of the aeronautical fixed service (AFS).
Aeronautical Fixed Service (AFS). A telecommunication service between specified fixed
points provided primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular, efficient and
economical operation of air services.
Aeronautical fixed station. A station in the aeronautical fixed service.
Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN). A worldwide system of
aeronautical fixed circuits provided, as part of the aeronautical fixed service, for the
exchange of messages and/or digital data between aeronautical fixed stations having the
same or compatible communications characteristics.
Aeronautical fixed telecommunication network circuit. A circuit forming part of the
aeronautical fixed telecommunication network (AFTN).
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). A publication issued by or with the authority of
a State and containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air
navigation.
Aeronautical meteorological station. A station designated to make observations and
meteorological reports for use in international air navigation.
Aeronautical mobile service (RR S1.32). A mobile service between aeronautical stations
and aircraft stations, or between aircraft stations, in which survival craft stations may
participate; emergency position-indicating radio beacon stations may also participate in this
service on designated distress and emergency frequencies.
Aeronautical mobile (R)* service (RR S1.33). An aeronautical mobile service reserved for
communications relating to safety and regularity of flight, primarily along national or
international civil air routes.
Aeronautical mobile-satellite service (RR S1.35). A mobile-satellite service in which
mobile earth stations are located on board aircraft; survival craft stations and emergency
position-indicating radio beacon stations may also participate in this service.
Aeronautical mobile-satellite (R)* service (RR S1.36). An aeronautical mobile-satellite
service reserved for communications relating to safety and regularity of flights, primarily
along national or international civil air routes.
Aeronautical Operational Control (AOC). Communication required for the exercise of
authority over the initiation, continuation, diversion or termination of flight for safety,
regularity and efficiency reasons.
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Aeronautical Passenger Communication (APC). Communication relating to the non-

safety voice and data services to passengers and crew members for personal
communication.
Aeronautical radio navigation service (RR S1.46). A radio navigation service intended for
the benefit and for the safe operation of aircraft.
Aeronautical station (RR S1.81). A land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In
certain instances, an aeronautical station may be located, for example, on board ship or on a
platform at sea.
Aeronautical telecommunication agency. An agency responsible for operating a station or
stations in the aeronautical telecommunication service.
Aeronautical telecommunication log. A record of the activities of an aeronautical
telecommunication station.
Aeronautical Telecommunication Network (ATN). An internetwork architecture that allows
ground, air-ground and avionic data sub networks to interoperate by adopting common
interface services and protocols based on the International Organization for Standardization
(ISO) Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
Aeronautical telecommunication service. A telecommunication service provided for any
aeronautical purpose
Aeronautical telecommunication station. A station in the aeronautical telecommunication
service.
Aeroplane. The preferred spelling is airplane however the meaning is identical except for
the spelling. See airplane below
AFTN communication centre. An AFTN station whose primary function is the relay or
retransmission of AFTN traffic from (or to) a number of other AFTN stations connected to it.
AFTN destination station. An AFTN station to which messages and/or digital data are
addressed for processing for delivery to the addressee.
AFTN origin station. An AFTN station where messages and/or digital data are accepted for
transmission over the AFTN.
AFTN station. A station forming part of the aeronautical fixed telecommunication network
(AFTN) and operating as such under the authority or control of a State.
AIDC application. An ATN application dedicated to exchanges between ATS units (ATSUs)
of air traffic control (ATC) information in support of flight notification, flight coordination,
transfer of control, transfer of communication, transfer of surveillance data and transfer of
general data.
Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS). An aircraft system based on secondary
surveillance radar (SSR) transponder signals which operates independently of ground-based
equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with
SSR transponders.
Aircraft. Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the
air other than the reactions of the air against the earth's surface.
Aircraft address. A unique combination of twenty-four bits available for assignment to an
aircraft for the purpose of air-ground communications, navigation and surveillance
Aircraft Earth Station (AES). A mobile earth station in the aeronautical mobile-satellite
service located on board an aircraft (see also “GES”).
Aircraft avionics. A term designating any electronic device, including its electrical part for
use in an aircraft, including radio, automatic flight control and instrument systems.
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Aircraft category. Classification of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics; e.g.

airplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon.
Aircraft certificated for single-pilot operation. A type of aircraft which the State of
Registry has determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely with a
minimum crew of one pilot.
Aircraft observation. The evaluation of one or more meteorological elements made from an
aircraft in flight.
Aircraft operating agency. The person, organization or enterprise engaged in, or offering to
engage in, an aircraft operation.
Aircraft operating manual. A manual, acceptable to the State of the Operator, containing
normal, abnormal and emergency procedures, checklists, limitations, performance
information, details of the aircraft systems and other material relevant to the operation of the
aircraft.
Note. - The aircraft operating manual is part of the operations manual.
Air-report. A report from an aircraft in flight prepared in conformity with requirements for
position, and operational and/ or meteorological reporting.
Aircraft stand. A designated area on an apron intended to be used for parking an aircraft.
Air defense identification zone. Special designated airspace of defined dimensions within
which aircraft are required to comply with special identification and/or reporting procedures
additional to those related to the provision of air traffic services (ATS).
Air-ground communication. Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or
locations on the surface of the earth.
Air-to-ground communication. One-way communication from aircraft to stations or
locations on the surface of the earth.
Air-ground control radio station. An aeronautical telecommunication station having
primary responsibility for handling communications pertaining to the operation and control of
aircraft in a given area.
Airman. Any individual who engages, as the person in command or as pilot, mechanic,
aeronautical engineer, flight radio operator or member of the crew, in the navigation of
aircraft while underway and any individual who is directly in charge of inspection,
maintenance, overhauling, or repair of aircraft, aircraft engine, propellers, or appliances; and
individual who serves in the capacity of aircraft dispatcher or air traffic control operator.
AIRMET information. Information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the
occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may
affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the
forecast issued for low-level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area
thereof.
Air Operator Certificate (AOC). A certificate authorizing an operator to carry out specified
commercial air transport operations.
Aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot. A type of aircraft that is required to be
operated with a co-pilot, as specified in the flight manual or by the air operator certificate.
Aircraft station (RR S1.83). A mobile station in the aeronautical mobile service, other than
a survival craft station, located on board an aircraft.
Aircraft tracking. A process, established by the operator, that maintains and updates, at
standardized intervals, a ground-based record of the four dimensional position of individual
aircraft in flight.
Aircraft — type of. All aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications thereto
except those modifications which result in a change in handling or flight characteristics.
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Airmanship. The consistent use of good judgment and well-developed knowledge, skills
and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives.
Airplane (aeroplane). A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly
from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight.
Airport (aerodrome). A defined area on land or water including any buildings, installations
and equipment intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and
surface movement of aircraft.
Airport climatological summary. Concise summary of specified meteorological elements
at an aerodrome, based on statistical data.
Airport climatological table. Table providing statistical data on the observed occurrence of
one or more meteorological elements at an airport.
Airport control radio station. A station providing radio-communication between an
aerodrome control tower and aircraft or mobile aeronautical stations.
Airport control service. Air traffic control service for Airport traffic.
Airport control tower. A unit established to provide air traffic control service to Airport
traffic.
Airport elevation. The elevation of the highest point of the landing area.
Airport meteorological office. An office, located at an Airport, designated to provide
meteorological service for international air navigation.
Airport reference point. The designated geographical location of an airport.
Airport traffic. All traffic on the maneuvering area of an airport and all aircraft flying in the
vicinity of an airport.
Airport traffic zone. An airspace of defined dimensions established around an airport for
the protection of airport traffic.
Airport operating minima. The limits of usability of an airport for:
(a) take-off, expressed in terms of runway visual range and/or visibility and, if
necessary, cloud conditions;
(b) landing in 2D instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility
and/or runway visual range, minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) and, if
necessary, cloud conditions; and
(c) landing in 3D instrument approach operations expressed in terms of visibility
and/or runway visual range and decision altitude/height (DA/H) appropriate to the
type and/or category of the operation.
Air-report. A report from an aircraft in flight prepared in conformity with requirements for
position, and operational and/or meteorological reporting.
Airship. A power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft.
Air-taxiing. Movement of a helicopter/VTOL above the surface of an Airport, normally in
ground effect and at a ground speed normally less than 37 km/h (20 kt).
Air taxiway. A defined path on the surface established for the air taxiing of helicopters.
Air traffic. All aircraft in flight or operating on the maneuvering area of an Airport.
Air traffic advisory service. A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure
separation, in so far as practical, between aircraft which are operating on IFR flight plans
Air traffic control clearance. Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions
specified by an air traffic control unit.
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Air traffic control service. A service provided for the purpose of:
(a) preventing collisions:
(1) between aircraft, and
(2) on the maneuvering area between aircraft and obstructions, and
(b) expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.
Air traffic control unit. A generic term meaning variously, area control centre, approach
control unit or Airport control tower.
Air Traffic Flow Management (ATFM). A service established with the objective of
contributing to a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic by ensuring that ATC
capacity is utilized to the maximum extent possible and that the traffic volume is compatible
with the capacities declared by the appropriate ATS authority
Air traffic service. A generic term meaning variously, flight information service, alerting
service, air traffic advisory service, air traffic control service (area control service, approach
control service or Airport control service).
Air transit route. A defined path on the surface established for the air transiting of
helicopters
Air traffic services airspaces. Airspaces of defined dimensions, alphabetically designated,
within which specific types of flights may operate and for which air traffic services and rules
of operation are specified.
Air traffic services reporting office. A unit established for the purpose of receiving reports
concerning air traffic services and flight plans submitted before departure.
Air traffic services unit. A generic term meaning variously, air traffic control unit, flight
information centre or air traffic services reporting office.
Airway. A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor.
Airworthy. The status of an aircraft, engine, propeller or part when it conforms to its
approved design and is in a condition for safe operation.
ALERFA. The code word used to designate an alert phase.
Alert phase. A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its
occupants.
Alerting service. A service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in
need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organizations as required.
Alternate airport/aerodrome/heliport. An airport/heliport to which an aircraft may proceed
when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the
airport/heliport of intended landing where the necessary services and facilities are available,
where aircraft performance requirements can be met and which is operational at the
expected time of use. Alternate airports/heliports include the following:
(a) Take-off alternate. An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft would be able to
land should this become necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use
the airport/heliport of departure.
(b) En-route alternate. An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft would be able to
land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary while en route.
(c) Destination alternate. An alternate airport/heliport at which an aircraft would be able
to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the
airport/heliport of intended landing.
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Alternative means of communication. A means of communication provided with equal

status, and in addition to the primary means.
Altitude. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point,
measured from mean sea level (MSL).
Anticipated operating conditions. Those conditions which are known from experience or
which can be reasonably envisaged to occur during the operational life of the aircraft taking
into account the operations for which the aircraft is made eligible, the conditions so
considered being relative to the meteorological state of the atmosphere, to the configuration
of terrain, to the functioning of the aircraft, to the efficiency of personnel and to all the factors
affecting safety in flight. Anticipated operating conditions do not include:
(a) those extremes which can be effectively avoided by means of operating procedures;
and
(b) those extremes which occur so infrequently that to require the Standards to be met in
such extremes would give a higher level of airworthiness than experience has shown
to be necessary and practical.
Application. Manipulation and processing of data in support of user requirements (ISO
19104*).
Application. The ultimate use of an information system, as distinguished from the system
itself.
Application Entity (AE). Part of an application process that is concerned with
communication within the OSI environment. The aspects of an application process that need
to be taken into account for the purposes of OSI are represented by one or more AEs.
Application information. Refers to the application names (e.g. AE qualifiers such as ADS
and CPC), version numbers, and addresses (the long or short TSAP, as required) of each
application.
Approach control service. Air traffic control service for arriving or departing controlled
flights.
Approach control unit. A unit established to provide air traffic control service to controlled
flights arriving at, or departing from, one or more airports.
Approach and landing phase ─ helicopters. That part of the flight from 300 m (1 000 ft)
above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned to exceed this height, or from the
commencement of the descent in the other cases, to landing or to the balked landing point.
Appropriate airworthiness requirements. The comprehensive and detailed airworthiness
codes established, adopted or accepted by a Contracting State for the class of aircraft,
engine or propeller under consideration (refer to 3.2.2 of Part II of Annex 8).
Appropriate ATS authority. The relevant authority designated by the State responsible for
providing air traffic services in the airspace concerned.
Appropriate authority.
(a) Regarding flight over the high seas: The relevant authority of the State of Registry.
(b) Regarding flight other than over the high seas: The relevant authority of the State
having sovereignty over the territory being over flown.
Approved. Means approved by or on behalf of the Civil Aviation Authority in accordance
with the pertinent requirements of national regulations.
Approved maintenance organization. An organization approved by the Philippine
authority, in accordance with the requirements of Annex 6, Part I, Chapter 8 – Aeroplane
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Maintenance, to perform maintenance of aircraft or parts thereof and operating under

supervision approved by the Philippine Republic.
Note. — Nothing in this definition is intended to preclude that the organization and its
supervision he approved by more than one State.
Approved training. Training conducted under special curricula and supervision approved by
the Authority.
Approved training organization. An organization approved by and operating under the
supervision of this Authority in accordance with the requirements of PCAR to perform
approved training.
Apron. A defined area, on a land airport, intended to accommodate aircraft for purposes of
loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fuelling, parking or maintenance.
Area control centre. A unit established to provide air traffic control service to controlled
flights in control areas under its jurisdiction.
Area control service. Air traffic control service for controlled flights in control areas.
Area Minimum Altitude (AMA). The minimum altitude to be used under instrument
meteorological conditions (IMC) that provides a minimum obstacle clearance within a
specified area, normally formed by parallels and meridians.
Area Navigation (RNAV). A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any
desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the
limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these.
Area navigation route. An ATS route established for the use of aircraft capable of
employing area navigation
Arrival routes. Routes identified in an instrument approach procedure by which aircraft may
proceed from the en-route phase of flight to an initial approach fix.
ATIS application. A FIS application that supports the D-ATIS.
ATN directory services (DIR). A service which provides the capability for an application
entity or user in the ATN community to query a distributed directory data base and retrieve
addressing, security and technical capabilities information relating to other users or entities
within the ATN community
ATN security services. A set of information security provisions allowing the receiving end
system or intermediate system to unambiguously identify (i.e. authenticate) the source of the
received information and to verify the integrity of that information.
ATN Systems Management (SM). A collection of facilities to control, coordinate and
monitor the resources which allow communications to take place in the ATN environment.
These facilities include fault management, accounting management, configuration
management, performance management and security management.
ATS Communications (ATSC). Communication related to air traffic services including air
traffic control, aeronautical and meteorological information, position reporting and services
related to safety and regularity of flight. This communication involves one or more air traffic
service administrations. This term is used for purposes of address administration
ATS direct speech circuit. An aeronautical fixed service (AFS) telephone circuit, for direct
exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units.
ATS Interfacility Data Communication (AIDC). Automated data exchange between air
traffic services units, particularly in regard to co-ordination and transfer of flights.
ATS Message Handling Service (ATSMHS). An ATN application consisting of procedures
used to exchange ATS messages in store-and-forward mode over the ATN such that the
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conveyance of an ATS message is in general not correlated with the conveyance of another
ATS message by the service provider.
ATS Message Handling System (AMHS). The set of computing and communication
resources implemented by ATS organizations to provide the ATS message handling service.
ATS route. A specified route designed for channeling the flow of traffic as necessary for the
provision of air traffic services.
ATS surveillance system. A generic term meaning variously, ADS-B, PSR, SSR or any
comparable ground-based system that enables the identification of aircraft.
ATS Unit (ATSU). A generic term meaning variously, air traffic control unit, flight information
centre or air traffic services reporting office.
Authentication. A process used to ensure the identity of a person/user/network entity.
Authorized path. A communication path that the administrator(s) of the routing domain(s)
has pre-defined as suitable for a given traffic type and category.
Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS). A surveillance technique in which aircraft
automatically provide, via a data link, data derived from on-board navigation and position-
fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four-dimensional position and additional data
as appropriate.
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast (ADS-B). A means by which aircraft,
aerodrome vehicles and other objects can automatically transmit and/or receive data such
as identification, position and additional data, as appropriate, in a broadcast mode via a data
link.
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast (ADS-B) OUT. A function on an aircraft
or vehicle that periodically broadcasts its state vector (position and velocity) and other
information derived from on-board systems in a format suitable for ADS-B IN capable
receivers.
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast (ADS-B) IN. A function that receives
surveillance data from ADS-B OUT data sources
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Contract (ADS-C). A means by which the terms of
an ADS-C agreement will be exchanged between the ground system and the aircraft, via a
data link, specifying under what conditions ADS-C reports would be initiated, and what data
would be contained in the reports.
ATS surveillance service. A term used to indicate a service provided directly by means of
an ATS surveillance system.
ATS surveillance system. A generic term meaning variously, ADS-B, PSR, SSR or any
comparable ground-based system that enables the identification of aircraft.
Note — A comparable ground-based system is one that has been demonstrated, by
comparative assessment or other methodology, to have a level of safety and performance
equal to or better than mono-pulse SSR.
Automatic relay installation. A teletypewriter installation where automatic equipment is
used to transfer messages from incoming to outgoing circuits.
Automatic telecommunication log. A record of the activities of an aeronautical
telecommunication station recorded by electrical or mechanical means.
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS). The automatic provision of current,
routine information to arriving and departing aircraft throughout 24 hours or a specified0
portion thereof.
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Data Link - Automatic Terminal Information Service (D-ATIS). The provision of ATIS via
data link.
Voice - Automatic Terminal Information Service (Voice-ATIS). The provision of ATIS by
means of continuous and repetitive voice broadcasts.
Balloon. A non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft.
Note. - For the purposes of this Part, this definition applies to free balloons.
Bare Earth. Surface of the Earth including bodies of water and permanent ice and snow,
and excluding vegetation and man-made objects.
Base turn. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the
outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track. The tracks are
not reciprocal.
Bit Error Rate (BER). The number of bit errors in a sample divided by the total number of
bits in the sample, generally averaged over many such samples.
Blind transmission. A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances
where two-way communication cannot be established but where it is believed that the called
station is able to receive the transmission
Broadcast. A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a
specific station or stations.
Briefing. Oral commentary on existing and/or expected meteorological conditions.
Cabin crew member. A crew member who performs, in the interest of safety of passengers,
duties assigned by the operator or the pilot-in-command of the aircraft, but who shall not act
as a flight crew member.
Calendar. Discrete temporal reference system that provides the basis for defining temporal
position to a resolution of one day (ISO 19108*).
Canopy. Bare Earth supplemented by vegetation height.
Carrier-to-multipath ratio (C/M). The ratio of the carrier power received directly, i.e. without
reflection, to the multipath power, i.e. carrier power received via reflection.
Carrier-to-noise density ratio (C/N ). The ratio of the total carrier power to the average
0
noise power in a 1 Hz bandwidth, usually expressed in dBHz.

Category A. With respect to helicopters, means a multi-engine helicopter designed with
engine and system isolation features specified in ICAO Annex 8, Part IVB and capable of
operations using take-off and landing data scheduled under a critical engine failure concept
which assures adequate designated surface area and adequate performance capability for
continued safe flight or safe rejected take-off.
Category B. With respect to helicopters, means a single-engine or multi-engined helicopter
which does not meet Category A standards. Category B helicopters have no guaranteed
capability to continue safe flight in the event of an engine failure, and a forced landing is
assumed.
Ceiling. The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below
6,000 meters (20,000 feet) covering more than half the sky.
.
Certify as airworthy (to). To certify that an aircraft or parts thereof comply with current
airworthiness requirements after maintenance has been performed on the aircraft or parts
thereof.
Change-over point. The point at which an aircraft navigating on an ATS route segment
defined by reference to very high frequency omnidirectional radio ranges is expected to
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transfer its primary navigational reference from the facility behind the aircraft to the next
facility ahead of the aircraft
Channel rate. The rate at which bits are transmitted over the RF channel. These bits include
those bits used for framing and error correction, as well as the information bits. For burst
transmission, the channel rate refers to the instantaneous burst rate over the period of the
burst.
Channel rate accuracy. This is relative accuracy of the clock to which the transmitted
channel bits are synchronized. For example, at a channel rate of 1.2 Kbits/s, maximum error
-3
of one part in 106 implies the maximum allowed error in the clock is ±1.2 × 10 Hz.
Circuit mode. A configuration of the communications network which gives the appearance
to the application of a dedicated transmission path.
Clearance limit. The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance.
Clearway. A defined rectangular area on the ground or water under the control of the
appropriate authority, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may
make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height.
Cloud of operational significance. A cloud with the height of cloud base below 1 500 m (5
000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is greater, or a
cumulonimbus cloud or a towering cumulus cloud at any height.
Combined vision system (CVS). A system to display images from a combination of an
enhanced vision system (EVS) and a synthetic vision system (SVS).
COMAT. Operator material carried on an operator’s aircraft for the operator’s own purposes.
Commercial air transport operation. An aircraft operation involving the transport of
passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.
Common mark. A mark assigned by the International Civil Aviation Organization to the
common mark registering authority registering aircraft of an international operating agency
on other than a national basis.
Common mark registering authority. The authority maintaining the non-national register
or, where appropriate, the part thereof, in which aircraft of an international operating agency
are registered.
Communication centre. An aeronautical fixed station which relays or retransmits
telecommunication traffic from (or to) a number of other aeronautical fixed stations directly
connected to it.
Competency. A combination of skills, knowledge and attitudes required to perform a task to
the prescribed standard.
Competency element. An action that constitutes a task that has a triggering event and a
terminating event that clearly defines its limits, and an observable outcome.
Competency unit. A discrete function consisting of a number of competency elements.
Conference communications. Communication facilities whereby direct speech
conversation may be conducted between three or more locations simultaneously
Configuration (as applied to the aeroplane). A particular combination of the positions of
the moveable elements, such as wing flaps and landing gear, etc., that affect the
aerodynamic characteristics of the aeroplane.
Configuration deviation list (CDL). A list established by the organization responsible for
the type design with the approval of the State of Design which identifies any external parts of
an aircraft type which may be missing at the commencement of a flight, and which contains,
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where necessary, any information on associated operating limitations and performance

correction.
Configuration management. An ATN systems management facility for managers to change
the configuration of remote elements
Congested Area. In relation to a city, town or settlement, any area which is substantially
used for residential, commercial or recreational purposes.
Congested hostile environment. A hostile environment within a congested area.
Consensus standard means, for the purpose of certificating light-sport aircraft, an industry-
developed consensus standard that applies to aircraft design, production, and airworthiness.
It includes, but is not limited to, standards for aircraft design and performance, required
equipment, manufacturer quality assurance systems, production acceptance test
procedures, operating instructions, maintenance and inspection procedures, identification
and recording of major repairs and major alterations, and continued airworthiness.
Consultation. Discussion with a meteorologist or another qualified person of existing and/or
expected meteorological conditions relating to flight operations; a discussion includes
answers to questions.
Contaminated runway. A runway is contaminated when a significant portion of the runway
surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) within the length and width being used is
covered by one or more of the substances listed in the runway surface condition descriptors.
(Applicable effective 04 Nov 2021)
Note. – Further information on runway surface condition descriptors can be found in the
Annex 14, Volume I – Definitions.
Context Management (CM) application. An ATN application that provides a log-on service
allowing initial aircraft introduction into the ATN and a directory of all other data link
applications on the aircraft. It also includes functionality to forward addresses between ATS
units.
Continuing Airworthiness. The set of processes by which an aircraft, engine, propeller or
part complies with the applicable airworthiness requirements and remains in a condition for
safe operation throughout its operating life.
Continuing airworthiness records. Records which are related to the continuing
airworthiness status of an aircraft, engine, propeller or associated part.
Continuous descent final approach (CDFA). A technique, consistent with stabilized
approach procedures, for flying the final approach segment (FAS) of an instrument non-
precision approach (NPA) procedure as a continuous descent, without level-off, from an
altitude/height at or above the final approach fix altitude/height to a point approximately 15 m
(50 ft) above the landing runway threshold or the point where the flare maneuver begins for
the type of aircraft flown; for the FAS of an NPA procedure followed by a circling approach,
the CDFA technique applies until circling approach minima (circling OCA/H) or visual flight
maneuver altitude/height are reached.
Control area. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the
earth.
Controlled airport. An airport at which air traffic control service is provided to airport traffic.
Controlled airspace. An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control
service is provided in accordance with the airspace classification.
Controlled flight. Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance.
Controller-Pilot Data Link Communications (CPDLC). A means of communication
between controller and pilot, using data link for ATC communications.
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Control zone. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a
specified upper limit.
Co-pilot. A licensed pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than as pilot-in-command but
excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight
instruction.
CPDLC application. An ATN application that provides a means of ATC data communication
between controlling, receiving or downstream ATS units and the aircraft, using air-ground
and ground-ground subnetworks, and which is consistent with the ICAO phraseology for the
current ATC voice communication.
Credit. Recognition of alternative means or prior qualifications.
Crew member. A person assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft during a flight duty
period.
Critical engine(s). Any engine whose failure gives the most adverse effect on the aircraft
characteristics relative to the case under consideration.
Cross-country. A flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a pre-
planned route using standard navigation procedures.
Cruise climb. An aeroplane cruising technique resulting in a net increase in altitude as the
aeroplane mass decreases.
Cruise relief pilot. A flight crew member who is assigned to perform pilot tasks during
cruise flight, to allow the pilot-in-command or a co-pilot to obtain planned rest.
Cruising level. A level maintained during a significant portion of a flight.
Culture. All man-made features constructed on the surface of the Earth by man, such as
cities, railways, and Culture. All man-made features constructed on the surface of the Earth
by man, such as cities, railways, and canals.
Current data authority. The designated ground system through which a CPDLC dialogue
between a pilot and a controller currently responsible for the flight is permitted to take place.
Current flight plan. The flight plan, including changes, if any, brought about by subsequent
clearances.
Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC). A mathematical algorithm applied to the digital
expression of data that provides a level of assurance against loss or alteration of data.
Danger area. An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the
flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.
Dangerous goods. Articles or substances which are capable of posing a hazard to health,
safety, property or the environment and which are shown in the list of dangerous goods in
the Technical Instructions or which are classified according to those Instructions.
Note. – Dangerous goods are classified in Annex 18, Chapter 3 ICAO Technical Instructions.
Data integrity. The probability that data has not been altered or destroyed.
Data link communications. A form of communication intended for the exchange of
messages via a data link.
D-METAR. The symbol used to designate data link aviation weather report service.
Data product specification. Detailed description of a data set or data set series together
with additional information that will enable it to be created, supplied to and used by another
party.
Data quality. A degree or level of confidence that the data provided meet the requirements
of the data user in terms of accuracy, resolution and integrity.
Data set. Identifiable collection of data.
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Data set series. Collection of data sets sharing the same product specification.
Datum. Any quantity or set of quantities that may serve as a reference or basis for the
calculation of other quantities.
Decision Altitude (DA) or Decision Height (DH). A specified altitude or height in a 3D
instrument approach operation at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required
visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.
Note 1. – Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to mean sea level and decision height (DH) is
referenced to the threshold elevation.
Note 2. – The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the
approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made
an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position, in relation to the
desired flight path. In Category III operations with a decision height the required visual
reference is that specified for the particular procedure and operation.
Note 3. – For convenience where both expressions are used they may be written in the form
“decision altitude/height” and abbreviated “DA/H”.
Declared capacity. A measure of the ability of the ATC system or any of its subsystems or
operating positions to provide service to aircraft during normal activities. It is expressed as
the number of aircraft entering a specified portion of airspace in a given period of time,
taking due account of weather, ATC unit configuration, staff and equipment available, and
any other factors that may affect the workload of the controller responsible for the airspace.
Defined Point After Take-Off (DPATO). The point, within the take-off and initial climb
phase, before which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with one engine
inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required.
Defined Point Before Landing (DPBL). The point, within the approach and landing phase,
after which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is
not assured and a forced landing may be required.
Design landing mass (weight). The maximum weight of the aircraft at which, for structural
design purposes, it is assumed that it will be planned to land.
Design take-off mass (weight). The maximum weight at which the aircraft, for structural
design purposes, is assumed to be planned to be at the start of the take-off run.
Design taxiing mass (weight). The maximum weight of the aircraft at which structural
provision is made for load liable to occur during use of the aircraft on the ground prior to the
start of take-off.
DETRESFA. The code word used to designate a distress phase.
Digital Elevation Model (DEM). The representation of terrain surface by continuous
elevation values at all intersections of a defined grid, referenced to common datum.
Discrete source damage. Structural damage of the aeroplane that is likely to result from:
impact with a bird, uncontained fan blade failure, uncontained engine failure, uncontained
high energy rotating machinery failure or similar causes.
Displaced threshold. A threshold not located at the extremity of a runway.
Distress phase. A situation wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its
occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance.
Doppler shift. The frequency shift observed at a receiver due to any relative motion
between transmitter and receiver.
Double channel simplex. Simplex using two frequency channels, one in each direction.
Downstream clearance. A clearance issued to an aircraft by an air traffic control unit that is
not the current controlling authority of that aircraft.
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Downstream data authority. A designated ground system, different from the current data
authority, through which the pilot can contact an appropriate ATC unit for the purposes of
receiving a downstream clearance.
Dry runway. A runway is considered dry if its surface is free of visible moisture and not
contaminated within the area intended to be used. (Applicable effective 04 Nov 2021)
Dual instruction time. Flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from a
properly authorized pilot on board the aircraft.
Duplex. A method in which telecommunication between two stations can take place in both
directions simultaneously.
Duty. Any task that flight or cabin crew members are required by the operator to perform,
including for example, flight duty, administrative work, training, positioning and standby when
it is likely to induce fatigue.
Duty period. A period which starts when a flight or cabin crew member is required by an
operator to report for or to commence a duty and ends when that person is free from all
duties.
Effective acceptance bandwidth. The range of frequencies with respect to the assigned
frequency for which reception is assured when all receiver tolerances have been taken into
account.
Effective adjacent channel rejection. The rejection that is obtained at the appropriate
adjacent channel frequency when all relevant receiver tolerances have been taken into
account.
Electronic aeronautical chart display. An electronic device by which flight crews are
enabled to execute, in a convenient and timely manner, route planning, route monitoring and
navigation by displaying required information.
Electronic flight bag (EFB). An electronic information system, comprised of equipment and
applications for flight crew, which allows for the storing, updating, displaying and processing
of EFB functions to support flight operations or duties.
Elevated heliport. A heliport located on a raised structure on land.
Elevation. The vertical distance of a point or a level, on or affixed to the surface of the earth,
measured from mean sea level.
Ellipsoid height (Geodetic height). The height related to the reference ellipsoid, measured
along the ellipsoidal outer normal through the point in question.
Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT). A generic term describing equipment which
broadcast distinctive signals on designated frequencies and, depending on application, may
be automatically activated by impact or be manually activated. An ELT may be any of the
following:
• Automatic Fixed ELT (ELT(AF)). An automatically activated ELT which is
permanently attached to an aircraft.
• Automatic Portable ELT (ELT(AP)). An automatically activated ELT which is rigidly
attached to an aircraft but readily removable from the aircraft.
• Automatic Deployable ELT (ELT(AD)). An ELT which is rigidly attached to an
aircraft and which is automatically deployed and activated by impact, and, in some
cases, also by hydrostatic sensors. Manual deployment is also provided.
• Survival ELT (ELT(S)). An ELT which is removable from an aircraft, stowed so as to
facilitate its ready use in an emergency, and manually activated by survivors.
Emergency phase. A generic term meaning, as the case may be, uncertainty phase, alert
phase or distress phase.
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End-to-end. Pertaining or relating to an entire communication path, typically from (1) the
interface between the information source and the communication system at the transmitting
end to (2) the interface between the communication system and the information user or
processor or application at the receiving end.
End System (ES). A system that contains the OSI seven layers and contains one or more
end user application processes.
End-user. An ultimate source and/or consumer of information.
Energy per symbol to Noise density ratio (Es/No). The ratio of the average energy
transmitted per channel symbol to the average noise power in a 1 Hz bandwidth, usually
expressed in dB. For A-BPSK and A-QPSK, one channel symbol refers to one channel bit.
Engine. A unit used or intended to be used for aircraft propulsion. It consists of at least
those components and equipment necessary for the functioning and control, but excludes
the propeller/rotors (if applicable).
Enhanced Vision System (EVS). A system to display electronic real-time images of the
external scene achieved through the use of image sensors.
Note. EVS does not include night vision imaging systems (NVIS).
En-route phase. That part of the flight from the end of the take-off and initial climb phase to
the commencement of the approach and landing phase.
Entity. An active element in any layer which can be either a software entity (such as a
process) or a hardware entity (such as an intelligent I/O chip).
Equivalent isotropically radiated power (e.i.r.p). The product of the power supplied to the
antenna and the antenna gain in a given direction relative to an isotropic antenna (absolute
or isotropic gain).
Error. An action or inaction by an operational person that leads to deviations from
organizational or the operational person’s intentions or expectations.
Note — See Attachment E of' Annex 13 — Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation for a
description of operational personnel.
Error management. The process of detecting and responding to errors with
countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of errors and mitigate the
probability of further errors or undesired states.
Note — See Attachment C to Chapter 3 of the Procedures for Air Navigation Services —
Training (PANS-TRG, Doc 9868) and Circular 31-1 — Threat and Error Management (TEM)
in Air Traffic Control* for a description of undesired states.
Estimated off-block time. The estimated time at which the aircraft will commence
movement associated with departure.
Estimated time of arrival. For IFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft
will arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is
intended that an instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or, if no navigation aid
is associated with the airport, the time at which the aircraft will arrive over the airport. For
VFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the airport.
Expected approach time. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following
a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for a landing.
Extended diversion time operations (EDTO). Any operation by an airplane with two or
more turbine engines where the diversion time to an en-route alternate aerodrome is greater
than the threshold time established by the Authority.
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EDTO critical fuel. The fuel quantity necessary to fly to an en-route alternate aerodrome
considering, at the most critical point on the route, the most limiting system failure.
Note. – (Annex 6 Part 1) Attachment C contains guidance on EDTO critical fuel scenarios.
EDTO-significant system. An airplane system whose failure or degradation could adversely
affect the safety particular to an EDTO flight, or whose continued functioning is specifically
important to the safe flight and landing of an airplane during an EDTO diversion.
Extended range operation. Any flight by an aeroplane with two turbine power-units where
the flight time at the one power-unit inoperative cruise speed (in ISA and still air conditions),
from a point on the route to an adequate alternate aerodrome, is greater than the threshold
time approved by the State of the Operator.
Factor of safety. A design factor used to provide for the possibility of loads greater than
those assumed, and for uncertainties in design and fabrication.
Fan marker beacon. A type of radio beacon, the emissions of which radiate in a vertical fan-
shaped pattern.
Fatigue. A physiological state of reduced mental or physical performance capability resulting
from sleep loss or extended wakefulness, circadian phase, or workload (mental and/or
physical activity) that can impair a crew member's alertness and ability to safely operate an
aircraft or perform safety-related duties.
Fatigue Risk Management System (FRMS). A data-driven means of continuously
monitoring and managing fatigue-related safety risks, based upon scientific principles and
knowledge as well as operational experience that aims to ensure relevant personnel are
performing at adequate levels of alertness.
Fault management. An ATN systems management facility to detect, isolate and correct
problems.
Feature. Abstraction of real world phenomena.
Feature attribute. Characteristic of a feature.
Filed flight plan. The flight plan as filed with an ATS unit by the pilot or a designated
representative, without any subsequent changes.
Final approach. That part of an instrument approach procedure which commences at the
specified final approach fix or point, or where such a fix or point is not specified,
(a) at the end of the last procedure turn, base turn or inbound turn of a racetrack
procedure, if specified; or
(b) at the point of interception of the last track specified in the approach procedure; and
ends at a point in the vicinity of an aerodrome from which
(1) a landing can be made; or
(2) a missed approach procedure is initiated.
Final Approach and Take-Off area (FATO). A defined area over which the final phase of
the approach maneuver to hover or landing is completed and from which the take-off
maneuver is commenced. Where the FATO is to be used by helicopters operating in
performance Class 1, the defined area includes the rejected take-off area available.
Final approach fix or point. That fix or point of an instrument approach procedure where
the final approach segment commences.
Final approach segment. That segment of an instrument approach procedure in which
alignment and descent for landing are accomplished.
Fireproof. The capability to withstand the application of heat by a flame for a period of 15
minutes.
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Fireproof material. A material capable of withstanding heat as well as or better than steel
when the dimensions in both cases are appropriate for the specific purpose.
Fire resistant. The capability to withstand the application of heat by a flame for a period of 5
minutes.
FIS application. An ATN application that provides to aircraft information and advice useful
for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
Flight crew member. A licensed crew member charged with duties essential to the
operation of an aircraft during a flight duty period.
Flight Data Analysis. A process of analyzing recorded flight data in order to improve the
safety of flight operations.
Flight documentation. Written or printed documents, including charts or forms, containing
meteorological information for a flight.
Flight duty period. A period which commences when a flight or cabin crew member is
required to report for duty that includes a flight or a series of flights and which finishes when
the airplane finally comes to rest and the engines are shut down at the end of the last flight
on which he/she is a crew member.
Flight information center. A unit established to provide flight information service and
alerting service.
Flight information region. An airspace of defined dimensions within which flight information
service and alerting service are provided.
Flight Information Service. (FIS). A service provided for the purpose of giving advice and
information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
Flight level. A surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific
pressure datum, 1013.2 hectopascals (hPa), and is separated from other such surfaces by
specific pressure intervals.
Flight manual. A manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing
limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and
information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aircraft.
Flight operations officer/flight dispatcher. A person designated by the operator to engage
in the control and supervision of flight operations, whether licensed or not, suitably qualified
in accordance with Annex 1, who supports, briefs, and/or assists the pilot-in-command in the
safe conduct of the flight.
Flight plan. Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended
flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft.
Flight procedures trainer. See Flight simulation training device.
Flight recorder. Any type of recorder installed in the aircraft for the purpose of
complementing accident/incident investigation.
Flight safety documents system. A set of inter-related documentation established by the
operator, compiling and organizing information necessary for flight and ground operations,
and comprising, as a minimum, the operations manual and the operators’ maintenance
control manual.
Flight simulation training device. Any one of the following three types of apparatus in
which flight conditions are simulated on the ground:
A flight simulator, which provides an accurate representation of the flight deck of a
particular aircraft type to the extent that the mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc.
aircraft systems control functions, the normal environment of flight crew members,
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and the performance and flight characteristics of that type of aircraft are realistically
simulated;
A flight procedures trainer, which provides a realistic flight deck environment, and
which simulates instrument responses, simple control functions of mechanical,
electrical, electronic, etc. aircraft systems, and the performance and flight
characteristics of aircraft of a particular class;
A basic instrument flight trainer, which is equipped with appropriate instruments, and
which simulates the flight deck environment of an aircraft in flight in instrument flight
conditions.
Flight simulator. See Flight simulation training device.
Flight time — airplanes. The total time from the moment an airplane first moves for the
purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.
Note. -- Flight time as here defined is synonymous with the term "block to block' time or
"chock to chock” time in general usage which is measured from time an airplane first moves
for the purpose of taking off until it finally stops at the end of the flight.
Flight time — helicopters. The total time from the moment a helicopter's rotor blades start
turning until the moment the helicopter finally conies to rest at the end of the flight, and the
rotor blades are stopped.
Flight visibility. The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
Forecast. A statement of expected meteorological conditions for a specified time or period,
and for a specified area or portion of airspace.
Forward Error Correction (FEC). The process of adding redundant information to the
transmitted signal in a manner which allows correction, at the receiver, of errors incurred in
the transmission.
Frequency channel. A continuous portion of the frequency spectrum appropriate for a
transmission utilizing a specified class of emission.
Fully automatic relay installation. A teletypewriter installation where interpretation of the
relaying responsibility in respect of an incoming message and the resultant setting-up of the
connections required to effect the appropriate retransmissions is carried out automatically,
as well as all other normal operations of relay, thus obviating the need for operator
intervention, except for supervisory purposes.
Gain-to-noise temperature ratio. The ratio, usually expressed in dB/K, of the antenna gain
to the noise at the receiver output of the antenna subsystem. The noise is expressed as the
temperature that a 1 ohm resistor must be raised to produce the same noise power density.
GAMET area forecast. An area forecast in abbreviated plain language for low-level flights
for a flight information region or sub-area thereof, prepared by the meteorological office
designated by the meteorological authority concerned and exchanged with meteorological
offices in adjacent flight information regions, as agreed between the meteorological
authorities concerned.
General aviation operation. An aircraft operation other than a commercial air transport
operation or an aerial work operation.
Geodesic distance. The shortest distance between any two points on a mathematically
defined ellipsoidal surface.
Geodetic datum. A minimum set of parameters required to define location and orientation of
the local reference system with respect to the global reference system/frame
Geoid. The equipotential surface in the gravity field of the Earth which coincides with the
undisturbed mean sea level (MSL) extended continuously through the continents.
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Geoid undulation. The distance of the geoid above (positive) or below (negative) the
mathematical reference ellipsoid.
Glide path. A descent profile determined for vertical guidance during a final approach.
Glider. A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving, its lift in flight chiefly from
aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight.
Glider flight time. The total time occupied in flight, whether being towed or not, from the
moment the glider first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest
at the end of the flight.
Gregorian calendar. Calendar in general use; first introduced in 1582 to define a year that
more closely approximates the tropical year than the Julian calendar (ISO 19108*).
Grid point data in digital form. Computer processed meteorological data for a set of
regularly spaced points on a chart, for transmission from a meteorological computer to
another computer in a code form suitable for automated use.
Ground Earth Station (GES). An earth station in the fixed satellite service, or, in some
cases, in the aeronautical mobile-satellite service, located at a specified fixed point on land
to provide a feeder link for the aeronautical mobile-satellite service.
Ground handling. Services necessary for an aircrafts arrival at, and departure from, an
airport, other than air traffic services
Ground-to-air communication. One-way communication from stations or locations on the
surface of the earth to aircraft.
Ground visibility. The visibility at an airport, as reported by an accredited observer or by
automatic systems.
Gyroplane. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of the air on one or
more rotors which rotate freely on substantially vertical axes.
Heading. The direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed, usually
expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic, compass or grid)
Head-up display (HUD). A display system that presents flight information into the pilot’s
forward external field of view.
Heavier-than-air. Any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces.
Height. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured
from a specified datum.
Helicopter. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on
one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes.
Helicopter stand. An aircraft stand which provides for parking a helicopter and, where air
taxiing operations are contemplated, the helicopter touchdown and lift-off.
Helideck. A heliport located on a floating or fixed off-shore structure.
Heliport. An airport or a defined area on a structure intended to be used wholly or in part for
the arrival, departure and surface movement of helicopters.
Heliport operating minima. The limits of usability of a heliport for:
(a) take-off, expressed in terms of runway visual range and/or visibility and, if necessary,
cloud conditions;
(b) landing in precision approach and landing operations, expressed in terms of visibility
and/or runway visual range and decision altitude/height (DA/H) as appropriate to the
category of the operation;
(c) landing in approach and landing operations with vertical guidance, expressed in
terms of visibility and/or runway visual range and decision altitude/height (DA/H); and
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(d) landing in non-precision approach and landing operations, expressed in terms of

visibility and/or runway visual range, minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) and,
if necessary, cloud conditions.
Holding procedure. A predetermined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified
airspace while awaiting further clearance.
Homing. The procedure of using the direction-finding equipment of one radio station with the
emission of another radio station, where at least one of the stations is mobile, and whereby
the mobile station proceeds continuously towards the other station.
Hostile environment. An environment in which:
(a) a safe forced landing cannot be accomplished because the surface and surrounding
environment are inadequate; or
(b) the helicopter occupants cannot be adequately protected from the elements; or
(c) search and rescue response/capability is not provided consistent with anticipated
exposure; or
(d) there is an unacceptable risk of endangering persons or property on the ground.
Hot spot. A location on an aerodrome movement area with a history or potential risk of
collision or runway incursion, and where heightened attention by pilots/drivers is necessary.
Human Factors principles. Principles which apply to aeronautical design, certification,
training, operations and maintenance and which seek safe interface between the human and
other system components by proper consideration to human performance.
Human performance. Human capabilities and limitations which have an impact on the
safety and efficiency of aeronautical operations.
Hypsometric tints. A succession of shades or colour gradations used to depict ranges of
elevation.
IFR. The symbol used to designate the instrument flight rules.
IFR flight. A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules.
IMC. The symbol used to designate instrument meteorological conditions.
INCERFA. The code word used to designate an uncertainty phase.
Incident. An occurrence, other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft
which affects or could affect the safety of operation.
Initial approach segment. That segment of an instrument approach procedure between the
initial approach fix and the intermediate approach fix or, where applicable, the final
approaches fix or point.
Instrument approach operations. An approach and landing using instrument for
navigation guidance based on an instrument approach procedure. There are two
methods for executing instrument approach operations:
(a) a two-dimensional (2D) instrument approach operation, using lateral navigation
guidance only; and
(b) a three-dimensional (3D) instrument approach operation, using both lateral and
vertical navigation guidance.
Note: Lateral and vertical navigation guidance refers to the guidance provided
either by:
a) a ground-based radio navigation aid; or
b) computer-generated navigation data from ground-based, space-based, self-
contained navigation aids or a combination of these.
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Instrument approach procedure. A series of predetermined maneuvers by

reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial
approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a
point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not
completed, to a position at which holding or en-route obstacle clearance criteria
apply. Instrument approach procedures are classified as follows:
Non-precision approach (NPA) procedure. An instrument approach procedure
designed for 2D instrument approach operations Type A.
Note: Non-precision procedures may be flown using a continuous descent final
approach technique (CDFA). CDFA with advisory VNAV guidance calculated by on-
board equipment (see PANS-OPS (Doc 8168), Volume I, part I, Section 4, Chapter I,
paragraph 1.8.1) are considered 3D instrument approach operations. CDFA with
manual calculation of the required rate of descent are considered 2D instrument
approach operations. For more information on CDFA refer to PANS-OPS (Doc
8168), Volume I, Section 1.7 and 1.8.
Approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV). A performance-based on
navigation systems (ILS, MLS, GLS and SBAS Cat I) designed for 3D instrument
approach operations Type A or B.
Note: Refer to Subsection 8.8.1.7 paragraph (f) for instrument approach operation
types.
Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) or minimum descent height (MDH). A specified
altitude or height in a 2D instrument approach operation or circling approach
operation below which descent must not be made without the required visual
reference.
Obstacle Clearance Altitude (OCA) or obstacle clearance height (OCH). The
lowest altitude or the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway
threshold or the aerodrome elevation as applicable, used in establishing compliance
with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.
Note: Obstacle clearance altitude is referenced to mean sea level and obstacle
clearance height is referenced to the threshold elevation or in the case of non-
precision approach procedures to the aerodrome elevation or the threshold
elevation if that is more than 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome elevation. An
obstacle clearance height for a circling approach procedure is referenced to the
aerodrome elevation.
Inter-Centre Communications (ICC). ICC is data communication between ATS units to
support ATS, such as notification, coordination, transfer of control, flight planning, airspace
management and air traffic flow management.
Intermediate approach segment. That segment of an instrument approach procedure
between either the intermediate approach fix and the final approach fix or point, or between
the end of a reversal, racetrack or dead reckoning track procedure and the final approach fix
or point, as appropriate.
Intermediate holding position. A designated position intended for traffic control at which
taxiing aircraft and vehicles shall stop and hold until further cleared to proceed, when so
instructed by the aerodrome control tower.
Intermediate System (IS). A system which performs relaying and routing functions and
comprises the lowest three layers of the OSI reference model.
International telecommunication service. A telecommunication service between offices or
stations of different States, or between mobile stations which are not in the same State, or
are subject to different States.
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Internet communications service. The internet communications service is an internetwork

architecture which allows ground, air-to-ground and avionics data subnetworks to
interoperate by adopting common interface services and protocols based on the ISO/OSI
reference model.
Interpilot air-to-air communication. Two-way communication on the designated air-to-air
channel to enable aircraft engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of
VHF ground stations to exchange necessary operational information and to facilitate the
resolution of operational problems.
Isogonal. A line on a map or chart on which all points have the same magnetic variation for
a specified epoch.
Isogriv. A line on a map or chart which joins points of equal angular difference between the
North of the navigation grid and Magnetic North.
Isolated aerodrome. A destination aerodrome for which there is no destination alternate
aerodrome suitable for a given airplane type.
Instrument flight time. Time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraft solely by reference to
instruments and without external reference points.
Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC). Meteorological conditions expressed in
terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, less than the minima specified for visual
meteorological conditions.
Instrument ground time. Time during which a pilot is practicing, on the ground, simulated
instrument flight in a flight simulation training device approved by the Licensing Authority.
Instrument time. Instrument flight time or instrument ground time.
Integrated survival suit. A survival suit which meets the combined requirements of the
survival suit and life jacket.
Integrity (aeronautical data). A degree of assurance that an aeronautical data and its value
has not been lost nor altered since the data origination or authorized amendment.
International airways volcano watch (IAVW). International arrangements for monitoring
and providing warnings to aircraft of volcanic ash in the atmosphere.
International NOTAM office. An office designated by a State for the exchange of NOTAM
internationally.
International operating agency. An agency of the kind contemplated in Article 77 of the
Convention.
Land distance available (LDA). The lengthy of runway which is declared available and
suitable for the ground run of an airplane landing.
Landing area. That part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-off of aircraft.
Landing Decision Point (LDP). The point used in determining landing performance from
which, a power-unit failure occurring at this point, the landing may be safely continued or a
balked landing initiated.
Landing direction indicator. A device to indicate visually the direction currently designated
for landing and for take-off.
Landing surface. That part of the surface of an aerodrome which the aerodrome authority
has declared available for the normal ground or water run of aircraft landing in a particular
direction.
Level. A generic term relating to the vertical position of an aircraft in flight and meaning
variously, height, altitude or flight level.
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Licensing Authority. The Authority designated by a Contracting State as responsible for

the licensing of personnel, in the case of Philippines, the Civil Aviation Authority of the
Philippines, hereinafter referred to as “the Authority”.
Note. — In the provisions of these Regulations, the Authority is deemed to have been given
the following responsibilities by the State:
(a) assessment of an applicant's qualifications to hold a license or rating;
(b) issue and endorsement of licenses and ratings;
(c) designation and authorization of approved persons;
(d) approval of training courses;
(e) approval of the use of flight simulation training devices and authorization for their use
in gaining the experience or in demonstrating the skill required for the issue of a
license or rating, and
(f) validation of licenses issued by other Contracting States.
Light-sport aircraft means an aircraft, other than a helicopter or powered-lift that, since its
original certification, has continued to meet the following:
(1) A maximum takeoff weight of not more than--
(i) 660 pounds (300 kilograms) for lighter-than-air aircraft;
(ii) 1,320 pounds (600 kilograms) for aircraft not intended for operation on water;
or
(iii) 1,430 pounds (650 kilograms) for an aircraft intended for operation on water.
(2) A maximum airspeed in level flight with maximum continuous power (VH) of not
more than 120 knots CAS under standard atmospheric conditions at sea level.
(3) A maximum never-exceed speed (VNE) of not more than 120 knots CAS for a
glider.
(4) A maximum stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed without the use of lift-
enhancing devices (VS1) of not more than 45 knots CAS at the aircraft's
maximum certificated takeoff weight and most critical center of gravity.
(5) A maximum seating capacity of no more than two persons, including the pilot.
(6) A single, reciprocating engine, if powered.
(7) A fixed or ground-adjustable propeller if a powered aircraft other than a powered
glider.
(8) A fixed or autofeathering propeller system if a powered glider.
(9) A fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system, if a gyroplane.
(10) A nonpressurized cabin, if equipped with a cabin.
(11) Fixed landing gear, except for an aircraft intended for operation on water or a
glider.
(12) Fixed or repositionable landing gear, or a hull, for an aircraft intended for
operation on water.
(13) Fixed or retractable landing gear for a glider.
Likely. In the context of the medical provisions in Chapter 6, likely means with a probability
of occurring that is unacceptable to the medical assessor.
Lighter-than-air aircraft. Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air.
Limit loads. The maximum loads assumed to occur in the anticipated operating conditions.
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Load factor. The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being
expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces, or ground reactions.
Location indicator. A four-letter code group formulated in accordance with rules prescribed
by ICAO and assigned to the location of an aeronautical fixed station.
Logon address. A specified code used for data link logon to an ATS unit.
Magnetic variation. The angular difference between True North and Magnetic North.
Maintenance. The performance of tasks required to ensure the continuing airworthiness of
an aircraft, including any one or combination of overhaul, inspection, replacement, defect
rectification, and the embodiment of a modification or repair.
Maintenance organization's procedures manual. A document endorsed by the head of
the maintenance organization which details the maintenance organization's structure and
management responsibilities, scope of work, description of facilities, maintenance
procedures and quality assurance or inspection systems.
Maintenance program. A document which describes the specific scheduled maintenance
tasks and their frequency of completion and related procedures, such as a reliability
programme, necessary for the safe operation of those aircraft to which it applies.
Maintenance release. A certification confirming that the maintenance work to which it
relates has been complied with in accordance with the applicable standards of airworthiness,
using approved data.
Maneuvering area. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and
taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons.
Marking. A symbol or group of symbols displayed on the surface of the movement area in
order to convey aeronautical information.
Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL). A list established for a particular aircraft type by
the organization responsible for the type design with the approval of the State of Design
containing items, one or more of which is permitted to be unserviceable at the
commencement of a flight. The MMEL may be associated with special operating conditions,
limitations or procedures.
Maximum diversion time. Maximum allowable range, expressed in time, from a point on a
route to an en-route alternate aerodrome.
Maximum weight. Maximum certificated take-off weight.
Mean power (of a radio transmitter). The average power supplied to the antenna
transmission line by a transmitter during an interval of time sufficiently long compared with
the lowest frequency encountered in the modulation taken under normal operating
conditions.
Medical Assessment. The evidence issued by a Contracting State that the license holder
meets specific requirements of medical fitness.
Medical assessor. A physician, appointed by the Licensing Authority, qualified and
experienced in the practice of aviation medicine and competent in evaluating and assessing
medical conditions of flight safety significance.
Note 1: Medical assessors evaluate reports submitted to the Licensing Authority by
medical examiners.
Note 2: Medical assessors are expected to maintain the currency of their professional
knowledge. (per Memorandum Circular no. 05-16, series of 2016)
Medical examiner. A physician with training in aviation medicine and practical knowledge
and experience of the aviation environment, who is designated by the Licensing Authority, to
conduct medical examinations of fitness of applicants for licenses or ratings for which
medical requirements are prescribed.
Message field. An assigned area of a message containing specified elements of data.
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Metadata. Data about data.

METAR application. A FIS application that supports the D-METAR. Open systems
interconnection (OSI) reference model. A model providing a standard approach to network
design introducing modularity by dividing the complex set of functions into seven more
manageable, self-contained, functional layers. By convention these are usually depicted as a
vertical stack.
Meteorological authority. The authority providing or arranging for the provision of
meteorological service for international air navigation on behalf of a Contracting State.
Meteorological information. Meteorological report, analysis, forecast, and any other
statement relating to existing or expected meteorological conditions.
Meteorological office. An office designated to provide meteorological service for
international air navigation.
Meteorological operational channel. A channel of the aeronautical fixed service (AFS), for
the exchange of aeronautical meteorological information.
Meteorological operational telecommunication network. An integrated system of
meteorological operational channels, as part of the aeronautical fixed service (AFS), for the
exchange of aeronautical meteorological information between the aeronautical fixed stations
within the network.
Meteorological report. A statement of observed meteorological conditions related to a
specified time and location.
Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) or minimum descent height (MDH). A specified altitude
or height in a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be
made without the required visual reference.
Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA). The altitude for an en-route segment that provides
adequate reception of relevant navigation facilities and ATS communications, complies with
the airspace structure and provides the required obstacle clearance.
Minimum Equipment List (MEL). A list which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject
to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, prepared by an operator in
conformity with, or more restrictive than, the MMEL established for the aircraft type.
Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA). The minimum altitude for a defined
segment of flight that provides the required obstacle clearance.
Minimum sector altitude. The lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a
minimum clearance of 300 m (1 000 ft) above all objects located in the area contained within
a sector of a circle of 46 km (25 NM) radius centered on a radio aid to navigation.
Missed Approach Point (MAPt). That point in an instrument approach procedure at or
before which the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure
that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed.
Mobile surface station. A station in the aeronautical telecommunication service, other than
an aircraft station, intended to be used while in motion or during halts at unspecified points.
Mode S subnetwork. A means of performing an interchange of digital data through the use
of secondary surveillance radar (SSR) Mode S interrogators and transponders in
accordance with defined protocols
Movement area. That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and taxiing
of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the apron(s).
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Navigation specification. A set of aircraft and flight crew requirements needed to support
performance-based navigation operations within a defined airspace. There are two kinds of
navigation specification:
Required navigation performance (RNP) specification. A navigation specification based
on an area navigation that includes that requirement for performance monitoring and
alerting, designated by the prefix RNP, e.g. RNP 4, RNP APCH.
Area navigation (RNAV) specification. A navigation specification based on area
navigation that does not include the requirements for performance monitoring and
alerting, designated by the prefix RNAV, e.g. RNAV 5, RNAV 1.
Note 1: The Performance based Navigation Manual (ICAO Doc 9613) Volume 2 contains
detailed guidance on navigation specifications.
Note 2: The term RNP as previously defined as “a statement of the navigation
performance, necessary for operation within a defined airspace”, has been removed from
ICAO Annex 6 PART 1 as the concept of RNP has been overtaken by the concept of
PBN. The term RNP in of Annex 6 is now solely used in context of navigation
specifications that require performance monitoring and alerting. E.g. RNP 4 refers to the
aircraft and operating requirements, including a 4 NM lateral performance with on-board
performance monitoring and alerting that are detailed in ICAO Doc 9613.
Network station. An aeronautical station forming part of a radiotelephony network.
Next data authority. The ground system so designated by the current data authority
through which an onward transfer of communications and control can take place.
Night. The hours between sunset and sunrise.
Non-congested hostile environment. A hostile environment outside a congested area.
Non-hostile environment. An environment in which:
(a) a safe forced landing can be accomplished because the surface and surrounding
environment are adequate;
(b) the helicopter occupants can be adequately protected from the elements;
(c) search and rescue response/capability is provided consistent with anticipated
exposure; and
(d) the assessed risk of endangering persons or property on the ground is acceptable.
Non-network communications. Radiotelephony communications conducted by a station of
the aeronautical mobile service, other than those conducted as part of a radiotelephony
network.
NOTAM. A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information
concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service,
procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with
flight operations.
Observation (meteorological). The evaluation of one or more meteorological elements.
Obstacle. All fixed (whether temporary or permanent) and mobile objects, or parts thereof,
that are located on an area intended for the surface movement of aircraft or that extend
above a defined surface intended to protect aircraft in flight.
Obstacle Clearance Altitude (OCA) or obstacle clearance height (OCH). The lowest
altitude or the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or the
aerodrome elevation as applicable, used in establishing compliance with appropriate
obstacle clearance criteria.
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Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ). The airspace above the inner approach surface, inner
transitional surfaces, and balked landing surface and that portion of the strip bounded by
these surfaces, which is not penetrated by any fixed obstacle other than a low-mass and
frangibly mounted one required for air navigation purposes.
Offset frequency simplex. A variation of single channel simplex wherein
telecommunication between two stations is effected by using in each direction frequencies
that are intentionally slightly different but contained within a portion of the spectrum allotted
for the operation.
Offshore operations. Operations which routinely have a substantial proportion of the flight
conducted over sea areas to or from offshore locations. Such operations include, but are not
limited to, support of offshore oil, gas and mineral exploitation and sea-pilot transfer.
Operation. An activity or group of activities which are subject to the same or similar hazards
and which require a set of equipment to be specified, or the achievement and maintenance
of a set of pilot competencies, to eliminate or mitigate the risk of such hazards.
Operational control communications. Communications required for the exercise of
authority over the initiation, continuation, diversion or termination of a flight in the interest of
the safety of the aircraft and the regularity and efficiency of a flight.
Operational control. The exercise of authority over the initiation, continuation, diversion or
termination of a flight in the interest of the safety of the aircraft and the regularity and
efficiency of the flight.
Operational flight plan. The operator's plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on
considerations of helicopter performance, other operating limitations and relevant expected
conditions on the route to be followed and at the heliports concerned.
Operational planning. The planning of flight operations by an operator.
Operations manual. A manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by
operational personnel in the execution of their duties.
Operator. A person, organization or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in an
aircraft operation.
Operator’s maintenance control manual. A document which describes the operator’s
procedures necessary to ensure that all scheduled and unscheduled maintenance is
performed on the operator’s aircraft on time and in a controlled and satisfactory manner.
Operations in performance Class 1. Operations with performance such that, in the event
of a critical power- unit failure, performance is available to enable the helicopter to safely
continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, unless the failure occurs prior to reaching
the take-off decision point (TDP) or after passing the landing decision point (LDP), in which
cases the helicopter must be able to land within the rejected take-off or landing area.
of critical power-unit failure, performance is available to enable the helicopter to safely
continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, except when the failure occurs early during
the take-off maneuvers or late in the landing maneuver, in which cases a forced landing may
be required.
of a power-unit failure at any time during the flight, a forced landing will be required.
Organization responsible for the type design. The organization that holds the type
certificate, or equivalent document, for an aircraft, engine or propeller type, issued by a
Contracting State.
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Ornithopter. A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air
on planes to which a flapping motion is imparted.
Orthometric height. Height of a point related to the geoid, generally presented as an MSL
elevation.
Packet. The basic unit of data transfer among communications devices within the network
layer.
Packet Layer Protocol (PLP). A protocol to establish and maintain a connection between
peer level entities at the network layer, and to transfer data packets between them. In the
context of this standard, the term refers to the protocol defined by the ISO 8208 standard
used in this document.
Performance Class 1 helicopter. A helicopter with performance such that, in case of
engine failure, it is able to land on the rejected take-off area or safely continue the flight to an
appropriate landing area.
engine failure, it is able to safely continue the flight, except when the failure occurs prior to a
defined point after take-off or after a defined point before landing, in which cases a forced
landing may be required.
engine failure at any point in the flight profile, a forced landing must be performed.
Performance criteria. Simple, evaluative statements on the required outcome of the
competency element and a description of the criteria used to judge whether the required
level of performance has been achieved.
Performance management. An ATN systems management facility to monitor and evaluate
the performance of the systems.
Pilot (to). To manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight time.
Pilot-in-command. The pilot designated by the operator, or in the case of general aviation,
the owner, as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of a flight.
Pilot-in-command under supervision. Co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the
pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command, in accordance with a
method of supervision acceptable to the Licensing Authority.
Point light. A luminous signal appearing without perceptible length.
Point of no return. The last possible geographic point at which an airplane can proceed to
the destination aerodrome as well as to an available en route alternate aerodrome for a
given flight.
Point-to-point. Pertaining or relating to the interconnection of two devices, particularly end-
user instruments. A communication path of service intended to connect two discrete end-
users; as distinguished from broadcast or multipoint service.
Portrayal. Presentation of information to humans (ISO 19117*).
Position (geographical). Set of coordinates (latitude and longitude) referenced to the
mathematical reference ellipsoid which define the position of a point on the surface of the
Earth.
Power-unit. A system of one or more engines and ancillary parts which are together
necessary to provide thrust, independently of the continued operation of any other power-
unit(s), but not including short period thrust-producing devices.
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Powered-lift. A heavier-than-air aircraft capable of vertical take-off, vertical landing, and

low-speed flight, which depends principally on engine-driven lift devices or engine thrust for
the lift during these flight regimes and on non-rotating aerofoil(s) for lift during horizontal
flight.
Powered parachute means a powered aircraft comprised of a flexible or semi-rigid wing
connected to a fuselage so that the wing is not in position for flight until the aircraft is in
motion. The fuselage of a powered parachute contains the aircraft engine, a seat for each
occupant and is attached to the aircraft's landing gear.
Precision approach procedure. An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and
glide path information provided by ILS or PAR.
Pressure-altitude. An atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of altitude which
corresponds to that pressure in the Standard Atmosphere.
Prevailing visibility. The greatest visibility value, observed in accordance with the definition
of “visibility”, which is reached within at least half the horizon circle or within at least half of
the surface of the aerodrome. These areas could comprise contiguous or non-contiguous
sectors.
Primary frequency. The radiotelephony frequency assigned to an aircraft as a first choice
for air-ground communication in a radiotelephony network.
Primary means of communication. The means of communication to be adopted normally
by aircraft and ground stations as a first choice where alternative means of communication
exist.
Printed communications. Communications which automatically provide a permanent
printed record at each terminal of a circuit of all messages which pass over such circuit.
Problematic use of substances. The use of one or more psychoactive substances by
aviation personnel in a way that:
(a) constitutes a direct hazard to the user or endangers the lives, health or welfare of
others; and/or
(b) causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental or physical problem or disorder.
Procedure altitude/height. A specified altitude/height flown operationally at or above the
minimum altitude/height and established to accommodate a stabilized descent at a
prescribed descent gradient/angle in the intermediate/final approach segment.
Procedure turn. A maneuver in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed
by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the
reciprocal of the designated track.
Prognostic chart. A forecast of a specified meteorological element(s) for a specified time or
period and a specified surface or portion of airspace, depicted graphically on a chart.
Prohibited area. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
Protected service volume. A part of the facility coverage where the facility provides a
particular service in accordance with relevant SARPs and within which the facility is afforded
frequency protection
Psychoactive substances. Alcohol, opioids, cannabinoids, sedatives and hypnotics,
cocaine, other psychostimulants, hallucinogens, and volatile solvents, whereas coffee and
tobacco are excluded.
Quality assurance. All the planned and systematic activities implemented within the quality
system, and demonstrated as needed, to provide adequate confidence that an entity will
fulfill requirements for quality.
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Quality control. The operational techniques and activities that are used to fulfill
requirements for quality.
Quality management. All activities of the overall management function that determine the
quality policy, objectives and responsibilities, and implementing them by means such as
quality planning, quality control, quality assurance and quality improvement within the quality
system.
Quality system. Documented organizational procedures and policies; internal audit of those
policies and procedures; management review and recommendation for quality improvement.
Radio bearing. The angle between the apparent direction of a definite source of emission of
electro-magnetic waves and a reference direction, as determined at a radio direction-finding
station. A true radio bearing is one for which the reference direction is that of true North. A
magnetic radio bearing is one for which the reference direction is that of magnetic North.
Radio direction finding (RR S1.12). Radiodetermination using the reception of radio waves
for the purpose of determining the direction of a station or object.
Radio direction-finding station (RR S1.91). A radiodetermination station using radio
direction finding.
Radiotelephony network. A group of radiotelephony aeronautical stations which operate on
and guard frequencies from the same family and which support each other in a defined
manner to ensure maximum dependability of air-ground communications and dissemination
of air-ground traffic.
RCP type. A label (e.g. RCP 240) that represents the values assigned to RCP parameters
for communication transaction time, continuity, availability and integrity.
Readback. A procedure whereby the receiving station repeats a received message or an
appropriate part thereof back to the transmitting station so as to obtain confirmation of
correct reception
Regular station. A station selected from those forming an en-route air-ground
radiotelephony network to communicate with or to intercept communications from aircraft in
normal conditions.
Radiotelephony. A form of radio communication primarily intended for the exchange of
information in the form of speech.
Rated air traffic controller. An air traffic controller holding a license and valid ratings
appropriate to the privileges to be exercised.
Rating. An authorization entered on or associated with a license and forming part thereof,
stating special conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to such license.
Regional air navigation agreement. Agreement approved by the Council of ICAO normally
on the advice of a regional air navigation meeting.
Relief. The inequalities in elevation of the surface of the Earth represented on the
aeronautical charts by contours, hypsometric tints, shading or spot elevations.
Rendering (a Certificate of Airworthiness) valid. The action taken by a Contracting State,
as an alternative to issuing its own Certificate of Airworthiness, in accepting a Certificate of
Airworthiness issued by any other Contracting State as the equivalent of its own Certificate
of Airworthiness.
Rendering (a license) valid The action taken by a Contracting State, as an alternative to
issuing its own license, in accepting a license issued by any other Contracting State as the
equivalent of its own license.
Repair. The restoration of an aeronautical product to an airworthy condition to ensure that
the aircraft continues to comply with the design aspects of the appropriate airworthiness
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requirements used for the issuance of the type certificate for the respective aircraft type,
after it has been damaged or subjected to wear.
Repetitive Flight Plan (RPL). A flight plan related to a series of frequently recurring,
regularly operated individual flights with identical basic features, submitted by an operator for
retention and repetitive use by ATS units.
Reporting point. A specified geographical location in relation to which the position of an
aircraft can be reported.
Restricted area. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain
specified conditions.
Required Communication Performance (RCP). A statement of the performance
requirements for operational communication in support of specific ATM functions.
Required Communication Performance type (RCP type). A label (e.g. RCP 240) that
represents the values assigned to RCP parameters for communication transaction time,
continuity, availability and integrity.
Required Navigation Performance (RNP). A statement of the navigation performance
necessary for operation within a defined airspace.
Rescue Coordination Centre. A unit responsible for promoting efficient organization of
search and rescue services and for coordinating the conduct of search and rescue
operations within a search and rescue region.
Resolution. A number of units or digits to which a measured or calculated value is
expressed and used.
Rest Period. A continuous and defined period of time, subsequent to and/or prior to duty,
during which flight or cabin crew members are free of all duties.
Restricted Area. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain
specified conditions.
Return to Service (RTS). A document signed by an authorized representative of an
approved maintenance organization (AMO) in respect of an inspection, repair or modification
on a complete aircraft, engine or propeller after it has received a Maintenance Release for
the maintenance performed at an AMO.
Note: An air operator's aircraft are returned to service following maintenance by a person
specifically authorized by an AMO rather than by an individual on their own behalf. A return
to service can only be signed when all maintenance has been completed, accounted for and
a maintenance release signed as described in Parts 5 and 6. The person signing the RTS
acts in the capacity of an authorized agent for the AMO and is certifying that the
maintenance covered by the RTS was accomplished according to the air operator's
continuous maintenance program. Responsibility for each step of the accomplished
maintenance is borne by the person signing for that step and the RTS certifies the entire
maintenance work package. This arrangement in no way reduces the responsibility of
licensed aircraft maintenance technicians (AMT) or maintenance organizations for
maintenance functions or tasks they perform or supervise. The RTS is required for all
commercially operated aircraft including flight training aircraft having undergone
maintenance at an AMO; however this may also be used for Non-Commercial aircraft.
Reversal Procedure. A procedure designed to enable aircraft to reverse direction during the
initial approach segment of an instrument approach procedure. The sequence may include
procedure turns or base turns.
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RNP Type. A containment value expressed as a distance in nautical miles from the intended
position within which flights would be for at least 95 per cent of the total flying time
Example. - RNP 4 represents a navigation accuracy of plus or minus 7.4 km (4 NM) on a 95
per cent containment basis.
Rotorcraft. A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of the
air on one or more rotors.
Routing Directory. A list in a communication centre indicating for each addressee the
outgoing circuit to be used.
Runway. A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-
off of aircraft.
Runway-Holding Position. A designated position intended to protect a runway, an obstacle
limitation surface, or an ILS/MLS critical/sensitive area at which taxiing aircraft and vehicles
shall stop and hold, unless otherwise authorized by the aerodrome control tower.
Runway Strip. A defined area including the runway and stopway, if provided, intended:
(a) to reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway; and
(b) to protect aircraft flying over it during take-off or landing operations.
Runway visual range (RVR). The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line
of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or
identifying its centre line.
Safe forced landing. Unavoidable landing or ditching with a reasonable expectancy of no
injuries to persons in the aircraft or on the surface.
State safety program. An integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at improving
safety.
Safety management system. A systematic approach to managing safety, including the
necessary organizational structures, accountabilities, policies and procedures.
Safety-sensitive personnel. Persons who might endanger aviation safety if they perform
their duties and functions improperly including, but not limited to, crew members, aircraft
maintenance personnel and air traffic controllers.
Satisfactory evidence. A set of documents or activities that a Contracting State accepts as
sufficient to show compliance with an airworthiness requirement.
Search and rescue services unit. A generic term meaning, as the case may be, rescue
coordination center, rescue subcenter or alerting post.
Secondary frequency. The radiotelephony frequency assigned to an aircraft as a second
choice for air-ground communication in a radiotelephony network.
Secondary surveillance radar (SSR). A surveillance radar system which uses
transmitters/receivers (interrogators) and transponders.
Security management. An ATN systems management facility for access control,
authentication and data integrity.
Semi-automatic relay installation. A teletypewriter installation where interpretation of the
relaying responsibility in respect of an incoming message and the resultant setting-up of the
connections required to effect the appropriate retransmissions require the intervention of an
operator but where all other normal operations of relay are carried out automatically.
Series of flights. Series of flights are consecutive flights that:
(a) begin and end within a period of 24 hours; and
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(b) are all conducted by the same pilot-in-command.

Shoulder. An area adjacent to the edge of a pavement so prepared as to provide a
transition between the pavement and the adjacent surface.
Significant point. A specified geographical location used in defining an ATS route or the
flight path of an aircraft and for other navigation and ATS purposes.
SIGMET information. Information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the
occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may
affect the safety of aircraft operations.
Signal area. An area on an aerodrome used for the display of ground signals.
Sign a maintenance release (to). To certify that maintenance work has been completed
satisfactorily in accordance with the applicable Standards of airworthiness, by issuing the
maintenance release referred to in Annex 6.
Significant. In the context of the medical provisions in Chapter 6, significant means to a
degree or of a nature that is likely to jeopardize flight safety.
Simplex. A method in which telecommunication between two stations takes place in one
direction at a time.
Single channel simplex. Simplex using the same frequency channel in each direction.
Slotted aloha. A random access strategy whereby multiple users access the same
communications channel independently, but each communication must be confined to a
fixed time slot. The same timing slot structure is known to all users, but there is no other
coordination between the users.
SNOWTAM. A special series NOTAM notifying the presence or removal of hazardous
conditions due to snow, ice, slush or standing water associated with snow, slush and ice on
the movement area, by means of a specific format.
Solo flight time. Flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of an aircraft.
Special VFR flight. A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone
in meteorological conditions below VMC.
Specific approval. An approval which is documented in the operations specifications for
commercial air transport operations or in the list of specific approvals for general aviation
operations.
Note. – The terms authorization, specific approval, approval and acceptance are further
described in (Annex 6 Part 1) Attachment D.
Standard atmosphere. An atmosphere defined as follows:
(a) the air is a perfect dry gas;
(b) the physical constants are:
─ Sea level mean molar mass:
-3 -1
M0 = 28.964420 x 10 kg mol
─ Sea level atmospheric pressure:
P0 = 1013.250 hPa
─ Sea level temperature:
t0 = 15°C
T0 = 288.15 K
─ Sea level atmospheric density:
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p 0 = 1.225 0 kg m -3
─ Temperature of the ice point:
Ti = 273.15 K
─ Universal gas constant:

-1 -1
R* = 8.31432 JK mol
(c) the temperature gradients are:
Standard isobaric surface. An isobaric surface used on a worldwide basis for representing
and analyzing the conditions in the atmosphere.
State of Design. The State having jurisdiction over the organization responsible for the type
design.
State of Manufacture. The State having jurisdiction over the organization responsible for
the final assembly of the aircraft, engine or propeller.
State of Registry. The State on whose register the aircraft is entered.
Note. – In the case of the registration of aircraft of an international operating agency on
other than a national basis, the States constituting the agency are jointly and severally
bound to assume the obligations which, under the Chicago Convention, attach to a State of
Registry. See, in this regard, the Council Resolution of 14 December 1967 on Nationality
and Registration of Aircraft Operated by International Operating Agencies which can be
found in Policy and Guidance Material on the Economic Regulation of International Air
Transport (Doc 9587).
State of the Aerodrome. The State in whose territory the aerodrome is located.
State of the Operator. The State in which the operator's principal place of business is
located or, if there is no such place of business, the operator's permanent residence.
Station declination. An alignment variation between the zero degree radial of a VOR and
true north, determined at the time the VOR station is calibrated.
Stopway. A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available
prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned
take-off.
Subnetwork. An actual implementation of a data network that employs a homogeneous
protocol and addressing plan and is under control of a single authority.
Switched Virtual Circuit (SVC). The primary circuit management technique provided within
the ISO 8208 protocol. The network resources are dynamically allocated when needed and
released when no longer required.
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Synthetic vision system (SVS). A system to display data-derived synthetic images of the
external scene from the perspective of the flight deck.
System level requirement. The system level requirement is a high-level technical
requirement that has been derived from operational requirements, technological constraints
and regulatory constraints (administrative basis for the functional requirements and lower-
level requirements.
Take-off and initial climb phase. That part of the flight from the start of take-off to 300 m
(1,000 ft) above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned to exceed this height, or to
the end of the climb in the other cases.
Take-off Decision Point (TDP). The point used in determining take-off performance from
which, a power-unit failure occurring at this point, either a rejected take-off may be made or
a take-off safely continued.
Take-off surface. That part of the surface of an aerodrome which the aerodrome authority
has declared available for the normal ground or water run of aircraft taking off in a particular
direction.
Target Level of Safety (TLS). A generic term representing the level of risk which is
considered acceptable in particular circumstances.
Taxiing. Movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under its own power,
excluding take-off and landing.
Taxiway. A defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft and
intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another, including:
(a) Aircraft stand taxilane. A portion of an apron designated as a taxiway and intended to
provide access to aircraft stands only.
(b) Apron taxiway. A portion of a taxiway system located on an apron and intended to
provide a through taxi route across the apron.
(c) Rapid exit taxiway. A taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and designed
to allow landing airplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exit
taxiways thereby minimizing runway occupancy times.
Telecommunication (RR S1.3). Any transmission, emission, or reception of signs, signals,
writing, images and sounds or intelligence of any nature by wire, radio, optical or other
electromagnetic systems.
Teletypewriter tape. A tape on which signals are recorded in the 5-unit Start-Stop code by
completely severed perforations (Chad Type) or by partially severed perforations (Chadless
Type) for transmission over teletypewriter circuits.
Terminal control area. A control area normally established at the confluence of ATS routes
in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes.
Terminal Arrival Altitude (TAA). The lowest altitude that will provide a minimum clearance
of 300 m (1 000 ft) above all objects located in an arc of a circle defined by a 46-km (25 NM)
radius centered on the initial approach fix (IAF), or where there is no IAF on the intermediate
approach fix (IF), delimited by straight lines joining the extremity of the arc to the IF. The
combined TAAs associated with an approach procedure shall account for an area of 360
degrees around the IF.
Terrain. The surface of the Earth containing naturally occurring features such as mountains,
hills, ridges, valleys, bodies of water, permanent ice and snow, and excluding obstacles.
Threat. Events or errors that occur beyond the influence of an operational person, increase
operational complexity and must be managed to maintain the margin of safety.
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Note. — See Attachment E of Annex 13 — Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation for a
description of' operational personnel.
Threat management. The process of detecting and responding to threats with
countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of threats and mitigate the
probability of errors or undesired states.
Threshold. The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing.
Threshold time. The range, expressed in time, established by the Authority, to an en-route
alternate aerodrome, whereby any time beyond requires a specific approval for EDTO from
the Authority.
Time Division Multiplex (TDM). A channel sharing strategy in which packets of information
from the same source but with different destinations are sequenced in time on the same
channel.
Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA). A multiple access scheme based on time-shared
use of an RF channel employing: (1) discrete contiguous time slots as the fundamental
shared resource; and (2) a set of operating protocols that allows users to interact with a
master control station to mediate access to the channel.
“Torn-tape” relay installation. A teletypewriter installation where messages are received
and relayed in teletypewriter tape form and where all operations of relay are performed as
the result of operator intervention.
Touchdown. The point where the nominal glide path intercepts the runway.
Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF). A load bearing area on which a helicopter may
touch down or lift off.
Touchdown zone. The portion of a runway, beyond the threshold, where it is intended
landing airplanes first contact the runway.
Track. The projection on the earth’s surface of the path of an aircraft, the direction of which
path at any point is usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic or grid).
Traffic avoidance advice. Advice provided by an air traffic services unit specifying
maneuvers to assist a pilot to avoid a collision.
Traffic information. Information issued by an air traffic services unit to alert a pilot to other
known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to the position or intended route of
flight and to help the pilot avoid a collision.
Traffic Information Service-Broadcast (TIS-B) IN. A surveillance function that receives
and processes surveillance data from TIS-B OUT data sources.
Traffic Information Service-Broadcast (TIS-B) OUT. A function on the ground that
periodically broadcasts the surveillance information made available by ground sensors in a
format suitable for TIS-B IN capable receivers.
Transfer of control point. A defined point located along the flight path of an aircraft, at
which the responsibility for providing air traffic control service to the aircraft is transferred
from one control unit or control position to the next.
Transferring unit. Air traffic control unit in the process of transferring the responsibility for
providing air traffic control service to an aircraft to the next air traffic control unit along the
route of flight.
Transit delay. In packet data systems, the elapsed time between a request to transmit an
assembled data packet and an indication at the receiving end that the corresponding packet
has been received and is ready to be used or forwarded
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Transition altitude. The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is
controlled by reference to altitudes.
Tributary station. An aeronautical fixed station that may receive or transmit messages
and/or digital data but which does not relay except for the purpose of serving similar stations
connected through it to a communication centre.
Tropical cyclone. Generic term for a non-frontal synoptic-scale cyclone originating over
tropical or sub-tropical waters with organized convection and definite cyclonic surface wind
circulation.
Tropical Cyclone Advisory Centre (TCAC). A meteorological centre designated by
regional air navigation agreement to provide advisory information to meteorological watch
offices, world area forecast centers and international OPMET data banks regarding the
position, forecast direction and speed of movement, central pressure and maximum surface
wind of tropical cyclones.
Total estimated elapsed time. For IFR flights, the estimated time required from take-off to
arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is
intended that an instrument approach procedure will be commenced, or, if no navigation aid
is associated with the destination aerodrome, to arrive over the destination aerodrome. For
VFR flights, the estimated time required from take-off to arrive over the destination
aerodrome.
Total Vertical Error (TVE). The vertical geometric difference between the actual pressure
altitude flown by an aircraft and its assigned pressure altitude (flight level).
Track. The projection on the earth’s surface of the path of an aircraft, the direction of which
path at any point is usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic or grid).
Traffic avoidance advice. Advice provided by an air traffic services unit specifying
maneuvers to assist a pilot to avoid a collision.
Traffic information. Information issued by an air traffic services unit to alert a pilot to other
known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to the position or intended route of
flight and to help the pilot avoid a collision.
Transition altitude. The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is
controlled by reference to altitudes.
Type Certificate. A document issued by a Contracting State to define the design of an
aircraft, engine or propeller type and to certify that this design meets the appropriate
airworthiness requirements of that State.
Type design. The set of data and information necessary to define an aircraft, engine or
propeller type for the purpose of airworthiness determination.
Uncertainty phase. A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and
its occupants
Ultimate load. The limit load multiplied by the appropriate factor of safety.
Unmanned free balloon. A non-power-driven, unmanned, lighter-than-air aircraft in free
flight.
Upper-air chart. A meteorological chart relating to a specified upper-air surface or layer of
the atmosphere.
Upper Layers (UL) communications service. A term pertaining to the session,
presentation and application layers of the OSI reference model.
Vectoring. Provision of navigational guidance to aircraft in the form of specific headings,
based on the use of an ATS surveillance system.
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VFR. The symbol used to designate the visual flight rules.

VFR flight. A flight conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules.
VHF Digital Link (VDL). A constituent mobile subnetwork of the aeronautical
telecommunication network (ATN), operating in the aeronautical mobile VHF frequency
band. In addition, the VDL may provide non-ATN functions such as, for instance, digitized
voice.
Visibility. Visibility for aeronautical purposes is the greater of:
(a) the greatest distance at which a black object of suitable dimensions, situated near
the ground, can be seen and recognized when observed against a bright
background;
(b) the greatest distance at which lights in the vicinity of 1 000 candelas can be seen and
identified against an unlit background.
Visual approach procedure. A series of predetermined manoeuvres by visual reference,
from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival
route to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not
completed, a go-around procedure can be carried-out.
Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC). Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of
visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling*, equal to or better than specified minima.
Note. – The specified minima are contained in Chapter 4 of Annex 2.
VMC. The symbol used to designate visual meteorological conditions.
Volcanic Ash Advisory Centre (VAAC). A meteorological centre designated by regional air
navigation agreement to provide advisory information to meteorological watch offices, area
control centers, flight information centers, world area forecast centers and international
OPMET data banks regarding the lateral and vertical extent and forecast movement of
volcanic ash in the atmosphere following volcanic eruptions.
VOLMET. Meteorological information for aircraft in flight.
Data link-VOLMET (D-VOLMET). Provision of current aerodrome routine meteorological
reports (METAR) and aerodrome special meteorological reports (SPECI), aerodrome
forecasts (TAF), SIGMET, special air-reports not covered by a SIGMET and, where
available, AIRMET via data link.
VOLMET broadcast. Provision, as appropriate, of current METAR, SPECI, TAF and
SIGMET by means of continuous and repetitive voice broadcasts.
VTOSS. The minimum speed at which climb shall be achieved with the critical power-unit
inoperative, the remaining power-units operating within approved operating limits.
Waypoint. A specified geographical location used to define an area navigation route or the
flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation. Waypoints are identified as either:
Fly-by waypoint. A waypoint which requires turn anticipation to allow tangential
interception of the next segment of a route or procedure, or
Flyover waypoint. A waypoint at which a turn is initiated in order to join the next
segment of a route or procedure.
Weight-shift-control aircraft means a powered aircraft with a framed pivoting wing and a
fuselage controllable only in pitch and roll by the pilot's ability to change the aircraft's center
of gravity with respect to the wing. Flight control of the aircraft depends on the wing's ability
to flexibly deform rather than the use of control surfaces.
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Wet runway. The runway surface is covered by any visible dampness or water up to and
including 3 mm deep within the intended area of use. (Applicable effective 04 Nov 2021)
World Area Forecast Centre (WAFC). A meteorological centre designated to prepare and
issue significant weather forecasts and upper-air forecasts in digital form on a global basis
direct to States by appropriate means as part of the aeronautical fixed service.
World Area Forecast System (WAFS). A worldwide system by which world area forecast
centers provide aeronautical meteorological en-route forecasts in uniform standardized
formats.
Z marker beacon. A type of radio beacon, the emissions of which radiate in a vertical cone-
shaped pattern.
Terms used with a limited meaning:
For the purpose of these Regulations, the following terms are used with a limited meaning as
indicated below:
(a) to avoid confusion in respect of the term “service” between the meteorological
service considered as an administrative entity and the service which is provided,
“meteorological authority” is used for the former and “service” for the latter;
(b) “provide” is used solely in connection with the provision of service;
(c) “issue” is used solely in connection with cases where the obligation specifically
extends to sending out the information to a user;
(d) “make available” is used solely in connection with cases where the obligation ends
with making the information accessible to a user; and
(e) “supply” is used solely in connection with cases where either (c) or (d) applies.
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PART 2
PERSONNEL LICENSING
Amendment 03 28 January 2014

i
PCAR PART 2

ii
PCAR PART 2

iii
PCAR PART 2

iv
PCAR PART 2

v
PCAR PART 2
Amendment No. Date Subject Incorporated By

Initial Issue 23 June 2008 Ruben F. Ciron
First Amendment 21 March 2011 2.2.4.1 (d) (4) (iii) (E) Ramon S.
Demonstration of knowledge Gutierrez
and comprehension of the
English Language on
Validation Flight Crew
Licenses
2.3.1.5 Limitation of
privileges of pilots who have
attained their 60th birthday
2.3.1.5.1 Curtailment of
Privileges of Pilots who
have attained their 65th
Birthday
2.3.3.4 (f) Amendment on

Medical Fitness of Airlines
Transport Pilot License –
Airplane
2.3.3.9 (f) Amendment on

Medical Fitness of Airlines
Transport Pilot License –
Helicopter
2.4.4 (f) Amendment on

Medical Fitness of Flight
Engineer License
2.5.3 (f) Amendment on

Medical Fitness of Flight
Navigator License
2.10.2.4.6. (b) Medical

Requirements of Scheduled
Commercial Air Operators
Second Amendment 01 August 2013 Inserted vertical bars on the LT GEN William
previous amendments K Hotchkiss III
AFP (Ret)

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PCAR PART 2
Third Amendment 28 January 2014 2.1.3 Abbreviations (12) LT GEN William

(13) K Hotchkiss III
2.2.2.1 Licenses (i) AFP (Ret)
2.2.2.4 Certificates (2)
2.2.3 Validity of Licenses,
Ratings, Authorizations
and Certificates (f)
2.2.6.2 Use of synthetic
flight trainers
2.2.10.4 Reinstatement of
privileges of expired pilot
licenses and ratings
2.2.10.5 Reinstatement of
privileges of expired
AMT/AMS licenses and
ratings
2.2.11 Re-issue or
reinstatement of a
licenses, rating,
authorizations or
certificate
2.3.1.5 Limitation of
privileges of pilots who
birthday
privileges of pilots who
birthday
2.6.3.2 Eligibility
requirements: general (6)
(7) (8)
2.6.3.3 AMS ratings (b)
New subpart of 2.11
New subpart of 2.12
IS 2.11.3 New IS subpart
2.3.3.1 Student Pilots
Fourth Amendment 24 April 2014 2.2.7 Language Proficiency LT GEN William
(c) K Hotchkiss III
AFP (Ret)
Fifth Amendment 20 June 2014 2.11.4 Guidelines for the LT GEN William
Additional Endorsement K Hotchkiss III
and Rating for Cabin AFP (Ret)
Crew Member License
Privileges of Pilots Who

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PCAR PART 2
Have Attained Their 65th

and 67th Birthday
Sixth Amendment 19 July 2014 Repeal of Paragraph 2 and 3 LT GEN William
of the Philippine Civil K Hotchkiss III
Aviation Regulations Part AFP (Ret)
2 Subsection 2.2.4.2 (b)
Conversion of Flight
Crew License
Seventh Amendment 24 July 2014 2.3.3.4 Airline Transport LT GEN William
Pilot License (c) (5) K Hotchkiss III
AFP (Ret)
Eighth Amendment 01 July 2016 New Part 2.13 LT GEN William
2.2.7 Language Proficiency K Hotchkiss III
2.3.2.4 Type Rating – AFP (Ret)
Airplane and Helicopter
and Powered-Lifts (c) (2)
2.3.3.5.2 Requirements (f)
(1) (ii)
2.6.2.4 Knowledge
Requirements (a) (5) (i)
2.7.5 Air Traffic Controller
Rating Requirements (c)
2.8.3 Flight Operations
Officer License (b) (1)
(iv) and (d) (4)
2.10.1.3 Aviation Medical
Examiners (AME) (g) and
(k)
2.10.1.6 Decrease of
Medical Fitness (b)
2.10.1.8 Medical Certificate
(d) (1)
2.10.2.2.1 Certificate and
Issue Renewal (d)
2.10.2.2.2 Physical and
Mental Requirements (b)
(6) and (aa)
Mental Requirements (b)
(7) and (z)
Mental Requirements (x)
Ninth Amendment 06 January 2017 Repealing of Provisions in Capt. Jim C.

PCAR’s Pertaining to the Sydiongco
Issuance, Renewal or Re-

viii
PCAR PART 2
Issue of a Cabin Crew

License.
2.1.2 Definitions (6)

2.1.3 Abbreviations
2.2.2.1 Licenses (j)
New PCAR Part 2.14 Air

Traffic Safety Electronic
Personnel License and
Ratings
IS 2.14.3.2 Appendix A:
ATSEP License –
Knowledge
IS 2.14.3.4 Appendix B:
ATSEP License – Skill
Test
IS 2.14.8.1 Appendix C:
ATSEP Rating –
Knowledge
IS 2.14.8.3 Appendix D:
ATSEP Rating – Skill
Test
2.2.2.5 Medical Fitness
Tenth Amendment 23 April 2018 2.1.2 Definitions (a) Capt. Jim C.

• Academic training Sydiongco
• Accountable executive
• Aerodynamic stall
• Aeroplane upset
• Angle of Attack
(AOA)
• Approach-to-stall
• Approved training
organization (ATO)
• Assessment
• Autoflight systems
• Behaviour
• Behavioural indicator
• Bridge training
• Competency-based
training
• Contributing factor
• Core competencies

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PCAR PART 2
• Critical angle of attack

• Critical system
malfunctions
• Developed upset
• Developing upset
• Energy
• Energy state
• Evidence-based
training (EBT)
• Fidelity level
• First Indication of a
stall
• Flight crew member
• Flight management
system
• Flight path
• Flight simulation
training device
(FSTD)
• Instructional systems
design (ISD)
• Instructor
• Line-orientated flight
training
• Load factor
• Manoeuvres
• Manoeuvre-based
training
• Motion turnaround
bumps
• Negative training
• On-aeroplane training
• Performance criteria
• Phase of flight
• Post-stall regime
• Practical training
• Quality assurance
(QA)
• Quality management
• Quality system
• Scenario
• Scenario-based
training
• Stall

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PCAR PART 2
• Stall Event
• Stall recovery
procedure
• Stall warning
• Startle
• Stick pusher
• Stick shaker
• Stress (response)
• Surprise
• Threat management
• Train-to-proficiency
• Training event
• Training objective
• Transport category
aeroplane
• Unsafe situation
• Wake encounter
2.1.3 Abbreviations (a)

• AOA – Angle of
Attack
• FIR – Flight Instructor
Rating
• IR – Instrument
Rating
• MER – Multi-Engine
Rating
• TR – Type-Rating
• UPRT – Upset
Prevention and
Recovery Training
2.2.6.2 Use of Flight

Simulation Training Devices
(FSTD) (a), (b) and Note
2.3.2.4 Type Ratings –

Airplane and Helicopter and
Powered-Lifts (b) (1) (v)
2.3.3.3 Commercial Pilot

License – Airplane (b) (1)
(viii) and (d) (2) (iii), (4), (5)

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PCAR PART 2
2.3.3.4 Airline Transport

Pilot License – Airplane (b)
(1) (viii)
2.3.3.5.2 Requirements (f)

(1) (ii)
2.3.3.11 Instructor Ratings –

Airplane and Helicopter (a)
(4) & (5), (c) (1) (vii) and
(d) (2) (i) (M)
Class/Type Rating [SP (A)
and MP (A)] – Knowledge
(a) (9)
IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C:
Airplane Upset Prevention
and Recovery Training
(UPRT) for CPL and for
MPL, ATPL, Type Rating,
Instructor Rating (Airplane)
and Instructor Authorization
for Flight Simulation
Training Device(s)
(Airplane)
Eleventh Amendment 08 July 2020 2.2.2.2 Ratings (c) Capt. Jim C.

Sydiongco
2.7.4 Air Traffic Controller
Categories/Ratings (a)

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Part 2 Personnel Licensing
Cover Page i Amendment 03 28 January 2014
Board Resolution iii – v Amendment 03 28 January 2014
Record of Amendments vi – xii Amendment 11 15 January 2021
List of Effective Pages xiii – xix Amendment 11 15 January 2021
Table of Contents xx – xxvii Amendment 11 15 January 2021
Introduction xxviii Original Issue 23 June 2008
Page
2.1-1 Amendment 10 16 July 2018

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2.3-2 Amendment 05 20 June 2014

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2.10-10 Amendment 08 01 July 2016
2.10-13 Amendment 08 01 July 2016
2.10-16 Amendment 08 01 July 2016

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2.10-21 Amendment 08 01 July 2016
2.10-22 Amendment 08 01 July 2016
2.10-23 Amendment 08 01 July 2016
2.10-24 Amendment 08 01 July 2016

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CONTENTS
2.1 GENERAL.................................................................................................... 2.1-1

2.1.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………….. 2.1-1
2.1.2 Definitions…………………………………………………………………………. 2.1-1
2.1.3 Abbreviations……………………………………………………………………… 2.1-9
2.2 GENERAL LICENSING REQUIREMENTS……………………………………. 2.2-1
2.2.1 General…….………………………………………………………………………. 2.2-1
2.2.2 Licenses, Ratings, Authorizations and Certificates…………………………… 2.2-1
2.2.2.1 Licenses……………………………………………………………………………. 2.2-1
2.2.2.2 Ratings…………………………………………………………………………….. 2.2-2
2.2.2.3 Authorizations……………………………………………………………………... 2.2-3
2.2.2.4 Certifications………………………….......………………………………………. 2.2-3
2.2.2.5 Medical Fitness……………………………………………………………………. 2.2-3
2.2.3 Validity of Licenses, Ratings, Authorizations and Certifications……………... 2.2-4
2.2.4 Validation and Conversion of Foreign Licenses and Ratings……...………… 2.2-4
2.2.4.1 Validation of Flight Crew Licenses……………………………………………… 2.2-4
2.2.4.2 Conversion of Flight Crew Licenses……………………………………………. 2.2-6
2.2.4.3 Validation and Conversion of Flight Crew Licenses by Reliance upon the
Licensing System of another Contracting State……..……………................. 2.2-7
2.2.4.4 Validation in Case of Leased, Chartered or Interchanged aircraft...………… 2.2-8
2.2.4.5 Validation of Foreign mechanics Licenses...…….…………………………….. 2.2-8
2.2.5 Military Competence Special Rules……..……….…………………….………. 2.2-8
2.2.5.1 Military Pilots………………………………………………………………………. 2.2-8
2.2.5.2 Military Flight Engineers………………………………………………………….. 2.2-8
2.2.5.3 Military Mechanics………………………………………………………………… 2.2-8
2.2.5.4 Evidentiary Documents…………..……………………………………………… 2.2-9
2.2.6 Training and Testing Requirements…………………………………………….. 2.2-9
2.2.6.1 Approved Training………………………………………………………………… 2.2-9
2.2.6.2 Use of Flight Simulation Training Devices (FSTD)………………………….… 2.2-10
2.2.6.3 Knowledge and Skill Tests and Checks: Time, Place, Designated Persons
and Format………………………………………………………………………… 2.2-10
2.2.6.4 Knowledge and Skill Tests and Checks; Prerequisites and Passing Grades 2.2-10
2.2.6.5 Reliance on Training and Testing in another Contracting State……………... 2.2-11

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2.2.7 Language Proficiency……………………………………………………………. 2.2-11

2.2.8 Recording of Flight Time………………………………………………………… 2.2-12
2.2.9 Format of the License……………………………………………………………. 2.2-12
2.2.10 Suspension or Revocation of a Licenses, Rating, Authorization or
Certificate………………………………………………………………………….. 2.2-12
2.2.10.1 Suspension of Licenses, Rating, Authorizations or Validation Certificate..… 2.2-12
2.2.10.2 Suspension of Medical Certificate………………………………………………. 2.2-13
2.2.10.3 Revocation of Licenses, Ratings, Authorization or Certificate…..…………... 2.2-13
2.2.10.4 Reinstatement of Privileges of Expired Pilot Licenses and Ratings………… 2.2-14
2.2.10.5 Reinstatement of Privileges of Expired AMT/AMS Licenses and Ratings…. 2.2-14
2.2.11 Re-issue or Reinstatement of a License, Rating, Authorization or
Certificate…………………………………………………………………………. 2.2-15
2.3 Pilot Licenses, Categories, Ratings and Authorizations……..………..... 2.3-1
2.3.1 General……………………………………………………………………….…… 2.3-1
2.3.1.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………..… 2.3-1
2.3.1.2 General Rule Concerning Pilot Licenses, Ratings and Authorizations…..…. 2.3-1
2.3.1.3 Authority to Act as a Flight Crew Member……………..……………………… 2.3-1
2.3.1.4 Crediting of Flight Time…………..……………………………………………… 2.3-1
2.3.1.5 Limitation of Privileges of Pilots who have Attained their 60 Birthday……..
th
2.3-2
2.3.1.5.1 Curtailment of Privileges of Pilots who have Attained their 65 th and 67th
Birthday……………………………………………………………………………. 2.3-2
2.3.1.6 Recent Experience Requirements……………………………………………… 2.3-3
2.3.2 Category, Class & Type Ratings and Category II/III Authorizations……….... 2.3-3
2.3.2.1 General……………………..…………………………………………………….. 2.3-3
2.3.2.2 Category Ratings…………………………………………………………………. 2.3-3
2.3.2.3 Class Ratings - Airplane, Helicopter and Powered - Lifts…………………… 2.3-4
2.3.2.4 Type Ratings - Airplane, Helicopter and Powered – Lifts…………………... 2.3-5
2.3.2.5 Category II and III Authorization………………………………………………... 2.3-7
2.3.3 Pilot Licenses, Instrument and Instructor Ratings…………………………… 2.3-7
2.3.3.1 Student Pilots……………………………………………………………………. 2.3-7
2.3.3.2 Private Pilot License – Airplane…………………………………………............ 2.3-8
2.3.3.3 Commercial Pilot License – Airplane…………………………………………… 2.3-11
2.3.3.4 Airline Transport Pilot License – Airplane……………………………………… 2.3-14
2.3.3.5 Multi-crew Pilot License (MPL)………………………………………………….. 2.3-18

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2.3.3.5.1 General……..……………………………………………………………………... 2.3-18

2.3.3.5.2 Requirements……………………………………………………………………… 2.3-19
2.3.3.6 Instrument Rating – Airplane…………………………………………………….. 2.3-22
2.3.3.7 Private Pilot License – Helicopter……………..………………………………... 2.3-25
2.3.3.8 Commercial Pilot License – Helicopter……………..………………………….. 2.3-27
2.3.3.9 Airline Transport Pilot License – Helicopter……………………..…………….. 2.3-31
2.3.3.10 Instrument Rating – Helicopter………………..………………………………… 2.3-34
2.3.3.11 Instructor Ratings– Airplane and Helicopter……........................................... 2.3-37
2.3.3.12 Examiners………………………………………………………………………… 2.3-41
2.3.3.13 Glider Pilot License……………………………………………………………... 2.3-41
2.3.3.14 Free Balloon Pilot License……………………………………………………….. 2.3-43
2.4 Flight Engineer License and Ratings……………………………………… 2.4-1
2.4.1 Applicability…………….………………………………………………………… 2.4-1
2.4.2 General…………………….…………………………………………………….. 2.4-1
2.4.3 Type Rating – Flight Engineer…………………………………………………… 2.4-1
2.4.4 Flight Engineer License………………………………………………………… 2.4-2
2.5 Flight Navigator License …………………………………….………..……… 2.5-1
2.5.1 Applicability………….…………………………………………………………… 2.5-1
2.5.2 General………………………………………………………………………….. 2.5-1
2.5.3 Flight Navigator License.…….……………………………………..………….. 2.5-1
2.6 Aviation Maintenance Licensing……………………………………………. 2.6-1
2.6.1 General………………………………………………………………………….. 2.6-1
2.6.1.1 Applicability………….…………………………………………………………… 2.6-1
2.6.2 Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT)……………………………………. 2.6-1
2.6.2.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………… 2.6-1
2.6.2.2 Eligibility Requirements: Ratings……………………………………………… 2.6-1
2.6.2.3 Ratings…………………………………………………………………………… 2.6-1
2.6.2.4 Knowledge Requirements……………………………………………………… 2.6-1
2.6.2.5 Knowledge Requirements for the Ratings……………….…………………… 2.6-2
2.6.2.6 Skill Requirements……………………………………………………………… 2.6-2
2.6.2.7 Experience Requirements…………………………………………………….. 2.6-3
2.6.2.8 Privileges and Limitations……………………………………………………… 2.6-3
2.6.2.9 Duration of AMT License………………………………………………………. 2.6-4
2.6.2.10 Recent Experience Requirements……………………………………………. 2.6-4

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2.6.2.11 Display of License………………………………………………………………. 2.6-5

2.6.2.12 Application for Additional Rating………………………………………………. 2.6-5
2.6.2.13 Requirements for Renewal of Licenses………………………………………. 2.6-5
2.6.3 Aviation Maintenance Specialist (AMS)………………………………………. 2.6-5
2.6.3.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………………. 2.6-5
2.6.3.2 Eligibility Requirements: General……………………………………………… 2.6-5
2.6.3.3 AMS Ratings…………………………………………………………………….. 2.6-6
2.6.3.4 Knowledge Requirements General……………………………………………. 2.6-7
2.6.3.5 Knowledge Requirements for the Ratings………………………………..…... 2.6-7
2.6.3.6 Skill Requirements………………………………………………………...…….. 2.6-8
2.6.3.7 Experience Requirements……………………………………………………… 2.6-8
2.6.3.8 Privileges and Limitations….………………………………………………….. 2.6-9
2.6.3.9 Duration of the Licenses……………………………………………………….. 2.6-9
2.6.3.10 Recent Experience Requirements…………………………………………….. 2.6-9
2.6.3.11 Display of License.……………………………………………………………... 2.6-10
2.6.3.12 Requirement of the Renewal of License.……………………………………. 2.6-10
2.7 Air Traffic Controller Licenses, Categories and Ratings………………. 2.7-1
2.7.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………… 2.7-1
…
2.7.2 General…………………………………………………………………………… 2.7-1
2.7.3 Air Traffic Controller License…………………………………………………... 2.7-1
2.7.4 Air Traffic Controller Categories/Ratings……………………………………... 2.7-2
2.7.5 Air Traffic Controller Ratings Requirements…………………………………. 2.7-2
2.8 Flight Operations Officer License………………………………………….. 2.8-1
2.8.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………………. 2.8-1
2.8.2 General…………………………………………………………………………… 2.8-1
2.8.3 Flight Operations Officer License……………………………………………… 2.8-1
2.9 Aeronautical Station Operation Licenses…………………………………. 2.9-1
2.9.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………........... 2.9-1
2.9.2 General…………………………………………………………………………… 2.9-1
2.9.3 Aeronautical Station Operation Licenses…………………………………….. 2.9-1
2.10 Medical Provisions for Licensing…………………………………………... 2.10-1
2.10.1 General…………………………………………………………………………… 2.10-1
2.10.1.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………………. 2.10-1
2.10.1.2 Medical Fitness………………………………………………………………….. 2.10-1

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2.10.1.3 Aviation Medical Examiners (AME)…………………………………………… 2.10-1

2.10.1.4 Aviation Medical Examinations………………………………………………… 2.10-2
2.10.1.5 Special Circumstances…………………………………………………………. 2.10-2
2.10.1.6 Decrease of Medical Fitness…………………………………………………... 2.10-3
2.10.1.7 Use of Psychoactive substances……………………………………………… 2.10-3
2.10.1.8 Medical Certificates…………………………………………………………….. 2.10-3
2.10.2 Medical Requirements…………………………………………………………. 2.10-5
2.10.2.1 Requirements for Medical Certificate………….…………………………….. 2.10-5
2.10.2.1.1 General…………………………………………………………………………… 2.10-5
2.10.2.1.2 Physical and Mental Requirements…………………………………………… 2.10-5
2.10.2.1.3 Visual Acuity Test Requirements…………………………............................. 2.10-5
2.10.2.1.4 Color Perception Requirements………………………………………………. 2.10-5
2.10.2.1.5 Hearing Requirements………………………………………………………….. 2.10-6
2.10.2.2 Class 1 Medical Certificate…………………………………………………….. 2.10-6
2.10.2.2.1 Certificate Issue and Renewal…………………………………………………. 2.10-6
2.10.2.2.3 Visual Requirements……………………………………………………………. 2.10-10
2.10.2.3 Class 2 Medical Certificate…………………………………………………….. 2.10-12
2.10.2.4 Class 3 Medical Certificate………………………………….…………………. 2.10-18
2.10.2.4.5 Medical Requirements for Scheduled Commercial Air Transport Operators 2.10-24
2.10.2.4.6 Penalties…………………………………………………………………………. 2.10-24
2.11 RESERVED……………………….………………………………………………. 2.12-1
2.12 Ground Instructor License…………………………………………………….. 2.12-1
2.12.1 General…………………………………………………………………………….. 2.12-1
2.12.2 Ground Instructors License……………………………………………………… 2.12-1

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2.13 RPA Controller Certificate………………………………………...............….. 2.13-1

2.13.1 Applicability…………………………………………………………………….….. 2.13-1
2.13.2 Application for RPA Controller Certificate……………………………………… 2.13-1
2.13.3 Eligibility for RPA Controller Certificate………………………………………… 2.13-1
2.13.4 Conditions as RPA Controller Certificate………………………………………. 2.13-1
2.13.5 RPA Controller Certificate: Contents…………………………………………… 2.13-2
2.13.6 Validity of RPA Controller Certificate…………………………………………… 2.13-2
2.13.7 Show Cause Notice to RPA Controller Certificate Holder……………………. 2.13-2
2.13.8 Cancellation of RPA Controller Certificate……………………………………... 2.13-3
2.13.9 Cancellation at Request of Holder………………………………………………. 2.13-3
2.13.10 Validation of Foreign RPA Controller Certificate, License or Authorization… 2.13-3
2.14. AIR TRAFFIC SAFETY ELECTRONIC PERSONNEL LICENSE
AND RATINGS…………………………………………………………………… 2.14-1
2.14.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………… 2.14-1
2.14.2 General……………………………………………………………………... 2.14-1
2.14.3 Requirements for the Issue of the License……………………………... 2.14-1
2.14.3.1 Age………………………………………………………………………….. 2.14-1
2.14.3.2 Knowledge…………………………………………………………………. 2.14-1
2.14.3.3 Experience…………………………………………………………………. 2.14-1
2.14.3.4 Skill………………………………………………………………………….. 2.14-1
2.14.3.5 Medical Fitness……………………………………………………………. 2.14-1
2.14.4 Privileges of the Holder of License……………………………………… 2.14-2
2.14.5 Validity of License………………………………………………………… 2.14-2
2.14.6 Requirements for the Renewal of License……………………………… 2.14-2
2.14.7 ATSEP Rating……………………………………………………………… 2.14-2
2.14.8 Requirements for ATSEP Ratings……………………………………….. 2.14-3
2.14.8.1 Knowledge…………………………………………………………………. 2.14-3
2.14.8.2 Experience…………………………………………………………………. 2.14-3
2.14.8.3 Skill………………………………………………………………………….. 2.14-3
2.14.9 Privileges of the Holder of Rating……………………………………….. 2.14-3
2.14.10 Validity of Ratings…………………………………………………………. 2.14-4
2.14.11 Requirements for the Re-Validation of Rating…………………………. 2.14-4
IS 2.2.1 Issue, renewal and re-issue of licenses, ratings, Authorizations and
Certificates………………………………………………………………………… IS-2

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IS 2.2.4.3 Appendix A: Procedures for Conversion of a PPL…………………………….. IS-2

IS 2.2.4.3 Appendix B: Procedures for Conversion of a PPL/IR, CPL, CPL/IR, ATPL
and Flight Engineer License…………….……………………………………… IS-2
IS 2.2.4.3 Appendix C: Procedures for Validation and Conversion of flight crew
licenses by reliance upon the licensing system of another Contracting
State………………………………………………………………………………... IS-3
IS 2.2.5 Military Flight Crew and Mechanics…………………..………………………... IS-4
IS 2.2.6 Appendix A: Prerequisites for a knowledge test……………………...……….. IS-5
IS 2.2.6 Appendix B: Prerequisites for a skill test……………………………………….. IS-5
IS 2.2.7 Language proficiency…………………………………………………………….. IS-5
IS 2.2.8 Recording of flight time…………………………………………………………… IS-7
IS 2.2.9 Format of the license…………...………………………………………………… IS-9
IS 2.3.2.4 Appendix A: Class/Type rating [SP(A) and MP(A)] – Knowledge…………… IS-9
IS 2.3.2.4 Appendix B: Flight instruction, skill test and proficiency check – CRM……. IS-10
IS 2.3.3.1 Student pilots - Maneuvers and procedures for pre-solo flight training…….. IS-11
IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix A: Private pilot license (A) - Knowledge …………………………… IS-12
IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix B: Private pilot license (A) - Flight instruction and skill test………. IS-13
IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix A: Commercial pilot license (A) – Knowledge……………………… IS-16
IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix B: Commercial pilot license (A) - Flight instruction and skill test… IS-19
IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C: Airplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training (UPRT) for
CPL and for MPL, ATPL, Type Rating, Instructor Rating (Airplane) and
Instructor Authorization for Flight Simulation Training Device(s) (Airplane)... IS-22
IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix A: Airline transport pilot license (A) – Knowledge…………………. IS-34
IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B: Airline transport pilot license (A) - Flight Instruction and skill
Test…………………………………………………………………………………. IS-38
IS 2.3.3.5 Appendix A Multi-crew Pilot License (A) Knowledge and Experience………. IS-39
IS 2.3.3.5 Appendix B Multi-crew Pilot License Skills………………………………..…… IS-41
IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix A: Instrument rating (A and H) – Knowledge………………………. IS-42
IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B: Instrument rating (A and H) - Flight instruction, skill test and
proficiency check………………………………………………………………….. IS-45
IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix A: Private pilot license (H) – Knowledge…………………………… IS-46
IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B: Private pilot license (H) – Flight instruction and skill test……… IS-47
IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix A: Commercial pilot license (H) – Knowledge……………………… IS-49
IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B: Commercial pilot license (H) – Flight instruction and skill test IS-52

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IS 2.3.3.9 Appendix A: Airline transport pilot license (H) – Knowledge…………………. IS-54

IS 2.3.3.9 Appendix B: Airline transport pilot license (H) - Flight Instruction and skill
Test…………………………………………………………………………………. IS-58
IS 2.3.3.11 Appendix A: Flight instructor (A and H) - Flight instruction, skill test and
proficiency check………………………………………………………………….. IS-59
IS 2.3.3.11 Appendix B: Flight instructor for instrument ratings (A and H) – Flight
instruction, skill test and proficiency check……………………………………. IS-63
IS 2.3.3.11 Appendix C: Instructor rating for additional type ratings – Flight instruction,
skill test and proficiency check………………………………………………….. IS-65
IS 2.3.3.11 Appendix D Instructor rating for Multi-Crew Pilot License – Flight
Instruction, skill rest and proficiency check…………………………………….. IS-66
IS 2.3.3.12 Examiners…………………………………………………………………………. IS-68
IS 2.4.3 Type rating - Flight engineers - Flight Instruction, skill test and proficiency
Check………………………………………………………………………………. IS-69
IS 2.6.2.6 Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT) License Skill Test..……………….. IS-70
IS 2.6.2.6 (a) Skill requirements for the AMT Airframe rating…………………………… IS-71
IS 2.6.2.6 (b) Skill requirements for the AMT Power-plant rating………………………. IS-71
IS 2.6.2.6 (c) Skill requirements for the AMS Avionics rating…………………………… IS-71
IS 2.10.1.3 Appendix A – Basic training in aviation medicine for AMEs………………….. IS-72
IS 2.10.1.3 Appendix B – Advanced training in aviation medicine for AMEs…………….. IS-72
IS 2.10.1.4 Application form for Medical Certificate………………………………………… IS-72
IS 2.10.1.8 Medical Certificate………………………………………………………………… IS-73
IS 2.11.3 RESERVED…………………………………………...…………………………... IS-73
IS 2.14.3.2 Appendix A: ATSEP License – Knowledge……………………………………. IS-74
IS 2.14.3.4 Appendix B: ATSEP License – Skill Test………………………………………. IS-75
IS 2.14.8.1 Appendix C: ATSEP Rating – Knowledge……………………………………… IS-75
IS 2.14.8.3 Appendix C: ATSEP Rating – Skill Test………………………………………... IS-76

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Introduction
CAR Part 2 addresses the licensing of personnel. Article 32 of the Chicago Convention requires
Republic of the Philippines to issue certificates of competency and licenses or validate such
certificates or licenses issued by other Contracting States to the pilot of every aircraft and to other
members of the operating crew of every aircraft engaged in international navigation.
The basis of this obligation is the goal of promoting and conducting safe and regular aircraft
operations through the development and implementation of internationally acceptable certification
and licensing processes. If the same process is extended to domestic operations, Republic of the
Philippines can ensure the overall safety of aircraft operation through unification of licensing
requirements.
ICAO Annex 1, Personnel Licensing, presents the broad international specifications for personnel
licensing agreed upon by Contracting States. Most of the specifications in ICAO Annex 1 are not
given in enough detail to satisfy the day-to-day management of a country's personnel licensing
activities.
Part 2 of the Civil Aviation Regulations presents detailed requirements for the general rules of
licensing and detailed requirements for the certification of airmen, pilots, non-pilot flight crew
members, and airmen, such as mechanics, who are not flight crew.
Part 2 also presents medical standards for the granting of licenses and certification, and for the
administration of medical examinations. The licensing and medical standards are based upon
ICAO Annex 1.
Original Issue 23 June 2008

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2.1 GENERAL
2.1.1 APPLICABILITY
Part 2 prescribes:
(a) The requirements for issuing, renewal and re-issue of aviation personnel licenses,
ratings, Authorizations and certificates:
(b) the conditions under which those licenses, ratings, Authorizations and Certificates are
necessary; and
(c) the privileges and limitations granted to the holders of those licenses, ratings,
Authorizations and certificates.
2.1.2 DEFINITIONS
(a) For the purpose of Part 2, the definitions in the Law, in Part 1 and the following
definitions shall apply:
(1) Academic training. Training that places an emphasis on studying and reasoning
designed to enhance knowledge levels of a particular subject, rather than to
develop specific technical or practical skills.
(2) Accountable executive. The individual who has corporate authority for ensuring
that all training commitments can be financed and carried out to the standard
required by the civil aviation authority (CAA), and any additional requirements
defined by the approved training organization.
(3) Aerodynamic stall. An aerodynamic loss of lift caused by exceeding the critical
angle of attack (synonymous with the term ‘stall’).
(4) Aeroplane upset. An airplane in flight unintentionally exceeding the parameters
normally experienced in line operations or training, normally defined by the
existence of at least one of the following parameters:
a) pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees, nose up; or
b) pitch attitude greater than 10 degrees, nose down; or
c) bank angle greater than 45 degrees; or
d) within the above parameters, but flying at airspeeds inappropriate for the
conditions.
(5) Aircraft certificated for single-pilot operation. A type of aircraft which the State
of Registry has determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely
with a minimum crew of one pilot.
(6) Aircraft certificated for multi-pilot operation. A type of aircraft which the State
of Registry has determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely
with a minimum crew of two pilots.
Note: During the certification process, the State of Registry may issue a certificate
of airworthiness designating an aircraft for single-pilot operation based upon the
Type Certificate issued by the State of Design, but might also require that the same
aircraft be operated by more than one pilot under certain conditions, such as use
in air transportation. (See Part 8 paragraph 8.4.1.1)
(7) Aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot. A type of aircraft that is required
to be operated with a co-pilot as specified in the flight manual or by the air operator
certificate.
Amendment 10 16 July 2018

2.1-1
PCAR PART 2
(8) Airmanship. The consistent use of good judgment and well-developed knowledge,
skills and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives.
(9) Airship. A power-driven lighter than air aircraft.
(10) Air Traffic Safety Electronic Personnel. also known as CNS Systems Officer
in the CAAP
(11) Angle of Attack (AOA). Angle of attack is the angle between the oncoming air,
or relative wind, and a defined reference line on the aeroplane or wing.
(12) Approach-to-stall. Flight conditions bordered by stall warning and aerodynamic
stall.
(13) Approved training organization (ATO). An organization approved by and
operating under the supervision of a Contracting State in accordance with the
requirements of Annex 1 to perform approved training.
(14) Assessment. The determination as to whether a candidate meets the
requirements of the expected performance standard.
(15) Autoflight systems. The autopilot, autothrottle (or autothrust), and all related
systems that perform automatic flight management and guidance.
(16) Behaviour. The way a person responds, either overtly or covertly, to a specific
set of conditions, which is capable of being measured.
(17) Behavioural indicator. An overt action performed or statement made by any
flight crew member that indicates how an individual or the crew is handling an
event.
(18) Bridge training. Additional training designed to address shortfalls in knowledge
and skill levels so that all trainees possess the pre-requisite levels upon which
the approved training programme was designed.
(19) Calendar month. A period of a month beginning and ending with the dates that
are conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and end of a numbered
year (as January 1 through January 31 in the Gregorian calendar).
(20) Calendar year. A period of a year beginning and ending with the dates that are
conventionally accepted as marking the beginning and end of a numbered
year(as January 1 through December 31 in the Gregorian calendar).
(21) Commercial air transport operation. An aircraft operation involving the
transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.
(22) Competency. A combination of skills, knowledge and attitudes required to
perform a task to the prescribed standard.
(23) Competency-based training. Training and assessment that are characterized
by a performance orientation, emphasis on standards of performance and their
measurement and the development of training to the specified performance
standards.
(24) Competency element. An action that constitutes a task that has a triggering
event and a terminating event that clearly defines its limits, and an observable
outcome.
(25) Competency unit. A discrete function consisting of a number of competency
elements.

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PCAR PART 2
(26) Complex airplane. An airplane that has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a
controllable pitch propeller; or in the case of a seaplane, flaps and a controllable
pitch propeller
(27) Contributing factor. A reported condition that contributed to the development of
an aircraft accident or incident.
(28) Conversion. Conversion is the action taken by the Republic of the Philippines in
issuing its own license on the basis of a license issued by another Contracting
State for use on aircraft registered in the Republic of the Philippines.
(29) Core competencies. A group of related behaviours, based on job requirements,
which describe how to effectively perform a job and what proficient performance
looks like. They include the name of the competency, a description, and a list of
behavioural indicators.
(30) Credit. Recognition of alternative means or prior qualifications.
(31) Critical angle of attack. The angle of attack that produces the maximum
coefficient of lift beyond which an aerodynamic stall occurs.
(32) Critical system malfunctions. Aeroplane system malfunctions that place
significant demand on a proficient crew. These malfunctions should be
determined in isolation from any environmental or operational context.
(33) Cross country. A flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival
following a pre-planned route using standard navigation procedures.
(34) Developed upset. A condition meeting the definition of an aeroplane upset.
(35) Developing upset. Any time the aeroplane begins to unintentionally diverge
from the intended flight path or airspeed.
(36) Energy. The capacity to do work.
(37) Energy state. How much of each kind of energy (kinetic, potential or chemical)
the aeroplane has available at any given time.
(38) Error. An action or inaction by the flight crew that leads to deviations from
organizational or flight crew intentions or expectations.
(39) Error management. The process of detecting and responding to errors with
countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of errors, and
mitigate the probability of errors or undesired aircraft state.
(40) Evidence-based training (EBT). Training and assessment based on
operational data that is characterized by developing and assessing the overall
capability of a trainee across a range of core competencies rather that by
measuring the performance of individual events or manoeuvres.
Note.- Guidance on EBT is contained in the Procedures for Air Navigation
Services- Training (PANS-TRG, Doc 9868) and the Manual of Evidence-based
Training (Doc 9995). EBT is competency-based and is applicable, as an option,
to the recurrent training of flight crew members engaged in commercial air
transport operations that is conducted in an FSTD.
(41) Fidelity level. The level of realism assigned to each of the defined FSTD
features.
(42) First Indication of a stall. The initial aural, tactile or visual sign of an impending
stall, which can be either naturally or synthetically induced.

2.1-3
PCAR PART 2
(43) Flight crew member. A licensed crew member charged with duties essential to
the operation of an aeroplane during a flight duty period.
(44) Flight management system. An aeroplane computer system that uses a large
database to permit routes to be pre-programmed and fed into the system by
means of a data loader. The system is constantly updated with respect to position
accuracy by reference to the most appropriate navigation aids available, which
are automatically selected during the information update cycle.
(45) Flight path. The trajectory or path of an object (aeroplane) travelling through the
air over a given space of time.
(46) Flight plan. Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to
an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft.
(47) Flight simulation training device (FSTD). A synthetic training device that is in
compliance with the minimum requirements for FSTD qualification as described
in Doc 9625.
(48) Human performance. Human capabilities and limitations which have an impact
on the safety and efficiency of aeronautical operations.
(49) Instructional systems design (ISD). A formal process for designing training
which includes analysis, design and production, and evaluation phases.
(50) Instructor. A person authorized to provide academic or practical training to a
trainee or trainee for an aviation license, rating or endorsement.
(51) Instrument flight time. Time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraft solely by
reference to instruments and without external reference points.
(52) Instrument ground time. Time during which a pilot is practicing, on the ground,
simulated instrument flight in a synthetic flight trainer approved by the Authority.
(53) Instrument time. Instrument flight time or instrument ground time.
(54) Licensing Authority. The authority designated by the Contracting State as
responsible for the licensing of personnel.
(55) Line-orientated flight training. Training and assessment involving a realistic,
‘real time’, full mission simulation of scenarios that are representative of line
operations.
(56) Load factor. The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aeroplane, the
former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, propulsive forces, or
ground reactions.
(57) Manoeuvres. A sequence of deliberate actions to achieve a desired flight path.
Flight path control may be accomplished by a variety of means including manual
aeroplane control and the use of autoflight systems.
(58) Manoeuvre-based training. Training that focuses on a single event or
manoeuvre in isolation.
(59) Medical certificate. The evidence issued by the Authority that the license holder
meets specific requirements of medical fitness. It is issued following an
evaluation by the Licensing Authority of the report submitted by the designated
medical examiner who conducted the examination of the applicant for the
license.
(60) Motion turnaround bumps. A phenomenon associated with FSTD motion
actuators when their direction of travel reverses, which results in acceleration
spikes that can be felt by the pilot thus giving a false motion cue.

2.1-4
PCAR PART 2
(61) Negative training. Training which unintentionally introduces incorrect information

or invalid concepts, which could actually decrease rather than increase safety.
(62) On-aeroplane training. A component of a UPRT programme designed to develop
skill sets in employing effective upset prevention and recovery strategies utilizing
only suitably-capable light aeroplanes.
(63) Performance criteria. Simple, evaluative statements on the required outcome of
the competency element and a description of the criteria used to measure whether
the required level of performance has been achieved.
(64) Phase of flight. A defined period within a flight.
Note.- E.g. take-off, climb, cruise, descent, approach and landing.
(65) Pilot (to). To manipulate the flight controls of an aircraft during flight time.
(66) PIC under supervision. Co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the PIC, the
duties and functions of a PIC, provided that the method of supervision employed
is acceptable to the (Licensing) Authority.
(67) Post-stall regime. Flight conditions at an angle of attack greater than the critical
angle of attack.
(68) Powered-lift. A heavier than air aircraft capable of vertical take-off, vertical
landing, and low speed flight that depends principally on engine driven lift devices
or engine thrust for the lift during these regimes and on non-rotating aerofoil(s) for
lift during horizontal flight.
(69) Practical training. Describes training that places an emphasis on the
development of specific technical or practical skills, which is normally preceded by
academic training.
(70) Problematic use of substances. The use of one or more psychoactive
substances by aviation personnel in a way that:
(i) Constitutes a direct hazard to the user or endangers the lives, health or welfare
of others: and/or
(ii) Causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental or physical problem or
disorder.
(71) Psychoactive substances. Alcohol, opioids, cannabinoids, sedatives and
hypnotics, cocaine, other psychostimulants, hallucinogens, and volatile solvents,
whereas coffee and tobacco are excluded.
(72) Quality assurance (QA). All the planned and systematic actions necessary to
provide adequate confidence that all activities satisfy given standards and
requirements, including the ones specified by the approved training organization
in relevant manuals.
(73) Quality management. A management approach focused on the means to
achieve product or service quality objectives through the use of its four key
components: quality planning; quality control; quality assurance; and quality
improvement.
(74) Quality system. The aggregate of all the organization’s activities, plans, policies,
processes, procedures, resources, incentives and infrastructure working in unison
towards a total quality management approach. It requires an organizational
construct complete with documented policies, processes, procedures and
resources that underpin a commitment by all employees to achieve excellence in

2.1-5
PCAR PART 2
product and service delivery through the implementation of best practices in quality
management.
(75) Rated air traffic controller. An air traffic controller holding a license and valid
ratings appropriate to the privileges to be exercised.
(76) Renewal of license, rating, Authorization or certificate. The administrative
action taken within the period of validity of a license, rating, Authorization or
certificate that allows the holder to continue to exercise the privileges of a license,
rating, Authorization or certificate for a further specified period consequent up on
the fulfillment of specified requirements.
(77) Re-issue of a license, rating, Authorization or certificate. The administrative
action taken after a license, rating, Authorization or certificate has lapsed that
reissues the privileges of the license, rating, Authorization or certificate for a further
specified period consequent upon the fulfillment of specified requirements.
(78) Route sector. A flight comprising take off, departure, cruise of not less than 15
minutes, arrival, approach and landing phases.
(79) Scenario. Part of a training module plan that consists of predetermined
manoeuvres and training events.
(80) Scenario-based training. Training that incorporates manoeuvres into real-world
experiences to cultivate practical flying skills in an operational environment.
(81) Stall. An aerodynamic loss of lift caused by exceeding the critical angle of attack.
Note. – A stalled condition can exist at any attitude and airspeed, and may be
recognized by continuous stall warning activation accompanied by at least one
of the following:
a) buffeting, which could be heavy at times;
b) lack of pitch authority and/or roll control; and
c) inability to arrest the descent rate.
(82) Stall Event. An occurrence whereby the aeroplane experiences conditions
associated with an approach-to-stall or an aerodynamic stall.
(83) Stall recovery procedure. The manufacturer-approved aeroplane-specific stall
recovery procedure. If a manufacturer-approved recovery procedure does not
exist, the aeroplane-specific stall recovery procedure developed by the operator
based on the stall recovery template contained in the FAA Advisory Circular, AC
120-109.
(84) Stall warning. A natural or synthetic indication provided when approaching a stall
that may include one or more of the following indications:
a) aerodynamic buffeting (some airplanes will buffet more than others);
b) reduced roll stability and aileron effectiveness;
c) visual or aural cues and warnings;
d) reduced elevator (pitch) authority;
e) inability to maintain altitude or arrest rate of descent; and
f) stick shaker activation (if installed).
Note. – A stall warning indicates an immediate need to reduce the angle of
attack.
(85) Startle. The initial short-term, involuntary physiological and cognitive reactions to
an unexpected event that commence the normal human stress response.

2.1-6
PCAR PART 2
(86) Stick pusher. A device that, automatically applies a nose down movement and
pitch force to an aeroplane’s control columns, to attempt to decrease the
aeroplane’s angle of attack. Device activation may occur before or after
aerodynamic stall, depending on the aeroplane type.
Note. – A stick pusher is not installed on all aeroplane types.
(87) Stick shaker. A device that automatically vibrates the control column to warn the
pilot of an approaching stall.
Note. – A stick shaker is not installed on all aeroplane types.
(88) Stress (response). The response to a threatening event that includes
physiological, psychological and cognitive effects. These effects may range from
positive to negative and can either enhance or degrade performance.
(89) Surprise. The emotionally-based recognition of a difference in what was expected
and what is actual.
(90) Synthetic flight trainer. See flight simulation training device.
(91) Threat. Events or errors that occur beyond the influence of the flight crew,
increase operational complexity and which must be managed to maintain the
margin of safety.
(92) Threat management. The process of detecting and responding to threats with
countermeasures that reduce or eliminate the consequences of threats and
mitigate the probability of errors or undesired aeroplane states.
(93) Train-to-proficiency. Approved training designed to achieve end-state
performance objectives, providing sufficient assurances that the trained individual
is capable to consistently carry out specific tasks safely and effectively.
Note. – In the context of this definition, the words train-to-proficiency can be
replaced by training-to-proficiency.
(94) Training event. Part of a training scenario that enables a set of competencies to
be exercised.
(95) Training objective. A clear statement that is compromised of three parts, i.e.:
a) the desired performance or what the trainee is expected to be able to do at
the end of training (or at the end of particular stages of training);
b) the conditions under which the trainee will demonstrate competence; and
c) the performance standard to be attained to confirm the trainee’s level of
competence.
(96) Transport category aeroplane. A category of airworthiness applicable to large
civil aeroplanes, which are either:
a) Turbojets with 10 or more seats or having a maximum take-off mass
(MTOM) of greater than 5 700 kg (12 566 lb); or
b) Propeller-driven aeroplanes with greater than 19 seats or a MTOM greater
than 8618 kg (19 000 lb).
(97) Undesired aircraft state. Occurs when the flight crew places the aircraft in a
situation of unnecessary risk.
(98) Unsafe situation. A situation, which has led to an unacceptable reduction in
safety margin.
(99) Validation. The action taken by the Republic of the Philippines as an alternative
to issuing its own license, in accepting a license issued by another Contracting

2.1-7
PCAR PART 2
State as the equivalent of its own for use on aircraft registered in the Republic of
the Philippines.
(100) Wake encounter. An event characterized by the aeroplane experiencing the
effects of wake turbulence brought about by wingtip vortices or engine exhaust.

2.1-8
PCAR PART 2
2.1.3 ABBREVIATIONS
(a) The following abbreviations are used in Part 2:
(1) A – Airplane
(2) ADS-B – Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast
(3) AIP - Aeronautical Information Publication
(4) AME - Aviation Medical Examiner
(5) AMS - Aviation Maintenance Specialist
(6) AMT - Aviation Maintenance Technician
(7) AOA – Angle of Attack
(8) AS – Airship
(9) ATCO - Air Traffic Controller
(10) ATS - Air Traffic Control Service
(11) ATSEP – Air Traffic Safety Electronic Personnel
(12) ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot License
(13) B – Balloon
(14) CAT II/III - Category II/III
(15) CNS/ATM – Communications, Navigation, Surveillance Air Traffic
Management
(16) CPL - Commercial Pilot License
(17) CRM - Crew Resource Management
(18) DFEE - Designated Flight Engineer Examiner
(19) DFNE - Designated Flight Navigator Examiner
(20) DME – Distance Measuring Equipment
(21) FE - Flight Engineer
(22) Fl - Flight Instructor
(23) FIR – Flight Instructor Rating
(24) FN - Flight Navigator
(25) FOO - Flight Operations Officer
(26) G – Glider
(27) GBAS – Ground-Based Augmentation System
(28) GNSS – Global Navigation Satellite System
(29) GPS – Global Positioning System
(30) IA - Inspection Authorization
(31) IFR - Instrument Flight Rules
(32) ILS - Instrument Landing System
(33) IR – Instrument Rating
(34) H – Helicopter

2.1-9
PCAR PART 2
(35) HMI – Human-Machine Interface

(36) ICAO - International Civil Aviation Organization
(37) MER – Multi-Engine Rating
(38) MPA - Multi-pilot Airplane
(39) MPH - Multi-pilot Helicopter
(40) MPL - Multi-crew Pilot License
(41) NDB – Non-Directional Beacon
(42) NOTAM - Notice to airmen
(43) PIC - Pilot-in-Command
(44) PL - Powered-lift
(45) PPL - Private Pilot License
(46) RT – Radiotelephony
(47) SBAS – Satellite-Based Augmentation System
(48) SIC - Second-in-Command
(49) SMC – System Monitoring and Control
(50) SPA - Single-pilot Airplane
(51) SPH - Single-pilot Helicopter
(52) TR – Type-Rating
(53) UPRT – Upset Prevention and Recovery Training
(54) VFR - Visual Flight Rules
(55) VOR – Very High Frequency Omni-Directional Radio

2.1-10
PCAR PART 2

2.1-11
PCAR PART 2
2.2 GENERAL LICENSING REQUIREMENTS

2.2.1 GENERAL
(a) A license, rating, Authorization and/or certificate will be issued, renewed or re-issued
when the applicant complies with the requirements of Part 2.
(b) Privileges. A license and/or certificate holder is not permitted to exercise privileges
other than those granted by the license and/or certificate.
(c) Medical fitness. An applicant for a flight crew or air traffic controller license shall hold
a medical certificate issued in accordance with the provisions of this Part.
Implementing Standard: See IS 2.2.1 for detailed requirements for application for the
issue, renewal and re-issue of licenses, ratings, authorizations and certificates.
2.2.2 LICENSES, RATINGS, AUTHORIZATIONS AND CERTIFICATES

2.2.2.1 LICENSES
The following licenses are issued under this Part to an applicant who satisfactorily
accomplishes the requirements in this Part for the license sought:
(a) Pilot licenses:
(1) Private pilot license (PPL);
(2) Commercial pilot license (CPL);
(3) Airline Transport pilot license (ATPL);
(4) Multi-crew Pilot License (MPL);
(5) Glider pilot license; and
(6) Free balloon pilot license.
(b) Flight engineer license.
(c) Flight navigator license.
(d) Aviation maintenance technician license (AMT).
(e) Aviation maintenance specialist license (AMS).
(f) Air traffic controller license (ATCO).
(g) Flight operations officer (Flight Dispatcher) license;
(h) Aeronautical station operator.
Note: Flight radiotelephone operator
(1) Where the knowledge and skill of an applicant have been established as
satisfactory in respect of the certification requirements for the radiotelephone
operator’s restricted certificate specified in the general radio regulations annex to
the International Telecommunication Convention and the applicant has met the
requirements that are pertinent to the operation of the radiotelephone on board an
aircraft, a Contracting State may endorse a license already held by the applicant
or issue a separate license as appropriate
(2) Skill and knowledge requirements on radiotelephony procedures and phraseology
have been developed as an integral part of all pilot airplane and helicopter licenses.
(i) Air Traffic Safety Electronic Personnel (ATSEP)

2.2-1
PCAR PART 2
2.2.2.2 RATINGS
(a) The following ratings are placed on a pilot license when an applicant satisfactorily
accomplishes the requirements in this Part for the rating sought:
(1) Category ratings in the following aircraft:
(i) Airplane
(ii) Helicopter
(iii) Glider
(iv) Free Balloon
(2) Class ratings in the following aircraft:
(i) Single-engine land - airplane
(ii) Single-engine sea - airplane
(iii) Multi-engine land - airplane
(iv) Multi-engine sea- airplane
(v) A class rating may be issued for those helicopters certificated for single-pilot
Operations and which have comparable handling, performance and other
characteristics.
Note: A class rating or endorsement for High Performance Airplanes (HPA)
requires additional knowledge, if the applicant has not completed the ATPL (A)
knowledge requirements.
(3) Type ratings in the following aircraft:
(i) Each type of aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least
two pilots;
(ii) Each type of helicopter certificated for single-pilot except where a class rating
has been established under (a)(2)(v); and
(iii) Any aircraft considered necessary by the Authority.
Note: A type rating for High Performance Airplanes (HPA) requires additional
knowledge, if the applicant has not completed the ATPL(A) knowledge
requirements.
(4) Instrument ratings in the following aircraft:
(i) Instrument — Airplane
(ii) Instrument — Helicopter
(5) Instructor ratings:
(i) Flight instructors
(ii) Instructors for additional class/type/instrument ratings
(iii) Ground Instructor
(b) The following ratings are placed on a flight engineer's license when an applicant
satisfactorily accomplishes the requirements in this Part for the rating sought:
(1) Type rating
(2) Instructor rating

2.2-2
PCAR PART 2
(c) The following ratings are placed on an air traffic controller license when an applicant
satisfactorily accomplishes the requirements in this Part for the rating sought:
(1) Aerodrome control rating;
(2) Approach control procedural rating;
(3) Approach control surveillance rating;
(4) Approach precision radar control rating;
(5) Area control procedural rating; and
(6) Area control surveillance rating.
(d) The following ratings are placed on an aviation maintenance technician license when
an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the requirements in this Part for the rating
sought:
(1) Airframe
(2) Powerplant
(3) Airframe and Powerplant
2.2.2.3 AUTHORIZATIONS
(a) The following Authorizations are issued when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes
the requirements in this Part for the Authorization sought:
(1) Student pilot Authorization
Note: if the State prefers, a license or certificate can be issued.
(2) Examiner Authorization
(b) The following Authorizations are placed on a license when an applicant satisfactorily
accomplishes the requirements in this Part for the Authorization sought:
(1) Category II pilot Authorization
(2) Category III pilot Authorization
(3) Inspection Authorization
2.2.2.4 CERTIFICATES
(a) The following certificates are issued when an applicant satisfactorily accomplishes the
requirements in this Part for the certificate sought:
(1) Medical certificate Class 1 for CPL, ATPL, Flight engineer and Flight navigator
license
(2) Medical certificate of Class 2 for PPL, Glider, Free balloon pilot
(3) Medical certificate Class 3 for Air traffic controller license
(4) Validation certificates
2.2.2.5 MEDICAL FITNESS

(a) The Authority shall apply, as part of its State safety programme, basic safety
management principles to the medical assessment process of license holders, that as
a minimum include:

2.2-3
PCAR PART 2
(1) routine analysis of in-flight incapacitation events and medical findings during
medical assessments to identify areas of increased medical risk; and
(2) continuous re-evaluation of the medical assessment process to concentrate on
identified areas of increased medical risk.
(b) The Licensing Authority shall implement appropriate aviation-related health promotion
for license holders subject to a Medical Assessment to reduce future medical risks to
flight safety.
Note 1.— Standard 2.2.2.5 indicates how appropriate topics for health promotion
activities may be determined.
Note 2.— Guidance on the subject is contained in the Manual of Civil Aviation Medicine
(Doc 8984).
Note 3.— Guidance on the relationship between the Licensing Authority and the
implementation of Medical Assessment for license holders is contained in the Manual
of Procedures for Establishment and Management of a State’s Personnel Licensing
System (Doc 9379).
2.2.3 VALIDITY OF LICENSES, RATINGS, AUTHORIZATIONS AND

CERTIFICATES
(a) The privileges granted by a license, or by related ratings, may not be exercised unless
the holder maintains competency and meets the requirements for recent experience
of this Part.
(1) Maintenance of competency and recent experience requirements for pilot licenses
and ratings shall be base on a systematic approach to accident prevention and
should include a risk assessment process and analysis
(2) Maintenance of competency shall be indicated in the airman's personal license or
record (e.g. logbook).
(b) The maintenance of competency of flight crew members, engaged in commercial air
transport operations, may be satisfactorily established by demonstration of skill during
proficiency flight checks completed in accordance with Part 8.
(c) The validity period of a license varies by the type of license. The date of validity of a
license shall be endorsed on each license, so as to be easily identified by an inspecting
authority.
(d) The validity period of the ratings, Authorizations and medical certificates and the
renewal/re-issue conditions are indicated in the relevant Subparts of Part 2.
(e) Renewal of a license will take place within the validity period after initial issue of a
rating, provided the ratings related to the license and the medical certificate are valid.
2.2.4 VALIDATION AND CONVERSION OF FOREIGN LICENSES AND RATINGS

2.2.4.1 VALIDATION OF FLIGHT CREW LICENSES
(a) A person who holds a current and valid pilot license issued by another Contracting
State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 may apply for a validation of such license for
use on aircraft registered in the Republic of the Philippines.
(b) The Republic of the Philippines will verify the authenticity of the license, ratings
Authorizations and the medical certificate with the state of license issue.

2.2-4
PCAR PART 2
(c) A validation certificate with PPL privileges, based upon at least a PPL, will be issued
provided:
(1) The applicant for the validation certificate shall present to the Authority the foreign
license.
(2) The applicant for the validation certificate shall hold a current medical certificate
issued under Part 2 or a current medical certificate issued by the Contracting State
that issued the applicant's pilot license provided that the foreign medical certificate
meets the requirements of Part 2, relevant to the license held.
(3) The validation certificate will be valid provided the foreign license or in the case of
a continuing license, the rating/medical certificate remains valid.
(d) A validation certificate with PPL/IR. CPL. CPL/IR. ATPL or FE privileges, based upon
the relevant license, will be issued provided the following requirements are met.
(1) The applicant for the validation certificate shall present to the Authority the foreign
license and evidence of the experience required by presenting the record (e.g.
logbook).
(2) The validation certificate will be valid for one year, provided the foreign license or
in the case of a continuing license the rating/medical certificate remains valid.
(3) Ratings will only be validated together with the validation of a license.
(4) The applicant for the validation certificate shall:
(i) hold a current medical certificate issued under Part 2 or a current medical
certificate issued by the Contracting State that issued the applicant's pilot
license provided that the foreign medical certificate meets the requirements of
Part 2, relevant to the license held;
(ii) complete a skill test for the relevant ratings in the license that he or she wants
to be validated relevant to the privileges of the license held;
(iii) demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority the knowledge relevant to the
license to be validated of:
(A) Air Law;
(B) Aeronautical Weather codes;
(C) Flight Performance and Planning; and
(D) Human Performance.
(E) Demonstrate a knowledge and comprehension of the English language as
required by subpart 2.3.7
(F) While exercising the privileges of his license, a valid medical certificate, the
license on which the validation is based and the certificate of validation shall
be carried; and
(G) Comply with the experience requirements set out in the table below:
License Experience Validation Privileges
ATPL (A)  1 500 hours as PIC in multi-pilot Commercial air transport in multi-
certificated airplanes pilot airplanes as PIC

2.2-5
PCAR PART 2
ATPL (H)  1 000 hours as PIC on multi-pilot Commercial air transport in multi-
helicopters pilot helicopters as PIC
ATPL (A) or  500 hours as PIC or co-pilot on Commercial air transport in multi-
CPL(A)/IR with multi-pilot airplanes pilot airplanes as co-pilot
ATPL (A)
knowledge
ATPL (H) or  500 hours as PIC or co-pilot on Commercial air transport in multi-
CPL(H)/IR with multi-pilot helicopters pilot helicopters as co-pilot
ATPL (H)
knowledge
CPL (A)/IR  1 000 hours as PIC in Commercial air transport in single-
commercial air transport since pilot airplanes as PIC
gaining an IR
CPL (H)/IR  1 000 hours as PIC in Commercial air transport in single-
commercial air transport since pilot helicopters as PIC
gaining an IR
CPL (A)  700 hours in airplanes other than Activities in airplanes other than
gliders, including 200 hours in commercial air transport
the activity role for which
validation is sought, and 50
hours in the role in the last 12
months
CPL (H)  700 hours in helicopters Activities in helicopters other than
including 200 hours in the commercial air transport
activity role for which validation
is sought, and 50 hours in the
role in the last 12 months
PPL A / IR  100 hours PIC instrument flight Private flights under IFR
time
Flight engineer  1 500 hours as flight engineer on Commercial air transport in
airplanes in commercial air airplanes as flight engineer
transport
Flight engineer  1 000 hours flight engineer on Other than commercial air
airplanes in other than transport in airplanes as flight
commercial air transport engineer
*Note: The term multi-pilot is used to indicate experience in an aircraft required to be

operated with a co-pilot. (For example, see ICAO Annex 1, paragraph 2.5.1.5).
>= Greater than
2.2.4.2 CONVERSION OF FLIGHT CREW LICENSES

(a) Conversion of a foreign pilot license for issuance of a PPL by Republic of the
Philippines. A person who holds a current and valid pilot license with at least PPL
privileges issued by another Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1, may
apply for a conversion and be issued with a PPL for use on aircraft registered in
Republic of the Philippines provided the following requirements are met.

2.2-6
PCAR PART 2
(1) The holder shall:

(i) present to the Authority the foreign license, evidence of experience required by
presenting the record (e.g. logbook) and current medical certificate;
(ii) present to the Authority evidence of language proficiency in English as
specified in Subpart 2.2.7 or shall demonstrate the language proficiency skills
as specified in Subpart 2.2.7;
(iii) present to the Authority a Class 2 medical certificate issued under this Part;
(iv) demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Authority the knowledge of Air Law; and
(v) complete a PPL skill test.
(2) The Republic of the Philippines will verify the authenticity license, ratings,
Authorizations and the medical certificate with the State of license issue.
(b) Conversion of PPL/IR. CPL; CPL/IR, ATPL and Flight Engineer licenses, which have
been validated in accordance with Subpart 2.2.4.1: The holder of a current and valid
foreign PPL/IR, CPL, CPL/IR, ATPL or Flight Engineer license issued by another
Contracting State in accordance with ICAO Annex 1, and appropriate medical
certificate, may apply for conversion to the appropriate license and ratings issued by
Republic of the Philippines, provided the following requirements are met:
(1) The applicant is the holder of a current validation certificate issued under Subpart
2.2.4.1;
(2) The applicant shall hold a medical certificate issued under this Part, appropriate to
the level of license to be converted.
(3) Ratings listed on a person's foreign pilot license that have been validated in
accordance with Subpart 2.2.4.1, may be placed on that person's converted
license.
2.2.4.3 VALIDATION AND CONVERSION OF FLIGHT CREW LICENSES BY

RELIANCE UPON THE LICENSING SYSTEM OF ANOTHER
CONTRACTING STATE
(a) Notwithstanding Subparts 2.2.4.1 and 2.2.4.2, the Authority may issue a validation
certificate or a license with the applicable ratings to the holder of a current and valid
foreign license, provided:
(1) The license is issued by another Contracting State;
(2) The Authority is convinced that the license has been issued on the basis of at least
Part 2; and
(3) There is an agreement between the Authority and the other Contracting State
about recognition of licenses and, if applicable, keeping the licenses and ratings
current and valid.
(b) The applicant for the validation certificate or conversion shall present to the Authority
the foreign license and evidence of the currency of the license by presenting the record
(e.g. logbook).
(c) The applicant shall hold a medical certificate relevant to the license to be converted or
validated, provided that the foreign medical certificate meets the requirements of Part2,
which medical certificate shall be issued under Part 2, medical requirements.
(d) If applicable, the applicant shall pass a knowledge test on Air Law.

2.2-7
PCAR PART 2
Note: See ICAO Document 9379 for procedures related to validation or conversion.
Implementing Standard: See IS 2.2.4.3 Appendices A, B and C for procedures for
validation or conversion of flight crew licenses.
2.2.4.4 VALIDATION IN CASE OF LEASED, CHARTERED OR INTERCHANGED

AIRCRAFT
(a) The requirements stated in Subpart 2.2.4.1 shall not apply where aircraft, registered in
Republic of the Philippines, are leased to, chartered by or interchanged by an operator
of another Contracting State, provided that during the term of the lease the State of
the Operator has accepted the responsibility for the technical and/or operations
supervision in accordance with Article 83-bis of the ICAO Convention.
(b) The licenses of the flight crew of the other Contracting State may be validated,
provided that the privileges of the flight crew license validation are restricted for use
during the lease, charter or interchange period only on nominated aircraft in specified
operations not involving a Republic of the Philippines operator, directly or indirectly
through a wet lease or other commercial arrangement.
Note: See ICAO Document 9379 for procedures related to validation.
2.2.4.5 VALIDATION OF FOREIGN MECHANICS LICENSES

(a) The Authority may render valid a license issued by a foreign country on a reciprocal
basis as an alternative to the issuance of its own license. It shall establish validity by
suitable authorization to be carried with the former license accepting it as the
equivalent of the latter. The validity of the authorization shall not extend beyond the
period of validity of his foreign license.
2.2.5 MILITARY COMPETENCE SPECIAL RULES

2.2.5.1 MILITARY PILOTS
The holder of a military pilot license (or certificate) who meets the requirements of IS
2.2.5 may apply, on the basis of his or her military training, for:
(a) a CPL;
(b) a rating in the category and class of aircraft for which that military pilot is qualified;
(c) an instrument rating with the appropriate category rating for which that military pilot is
qualified; and a type rating, if appropriate.
2.2.5.2 MILITARY FLIGHT ENGINEERS

(a) A rated military aircraft flight engineer, or a former rated military aircraft flight engineer,
who meets the requirements of knowledge, skill and experience as required by Subpart
2.4 will be eligible for a flight engineer license, based on his/her military competency.
(b) An aircraft type rating shall be placed on the flight engineer license, for which he/she
is qualified.
2.2.5.3 MILITARY MECHANICS

(a) General

2.2-8
PCAR PART 2
A rated military aircraft mechanic or former rated military aircraft mechanic who applies
for an Aviation Maintenance license is entitled to that license based on military
competence in accordance with the provisions of this section.
(b) To be eligible for the provisions of this section, the applicant must provide evidence
that he is or was, within the preceding twelve-month period from the date of application,
a member of the military and for aircraft mechanics, on active military duty as an aircraft
mechanic.
(c) An eligible military or former military applicant for an Aviation Maintenance license who
has been appropriately trained and has at least 4 years practical experience in aircraft
repair, alteration and inspection shall be issued that license if he satisfactorily passes
the theoretical examinations for an Aviation Maintenance license and a practical
examination administered by the Authority.
(d) An eligible military or former military applicant for an Aviation Maintenance license who
has been appropriately trained and has at least 10 years practical experience in aircraft
repair, alteration and inspection shall be issued that license if he satisfactorily passes
the CAR examinations and a practical examination administered by the Authority.
2.2.5.4 EVIDENTIARY DOCUMENTS

The following documents are satisfactory evidence for the purposes indicated -
(a) To show that an applicant is a member of the armed forces, an official identification
card issued to him by an armed force may be used.
(b) To show the applicant’s discharge or release from the armed forces, or his former
membership therein, an original or certified true copy of a license of discharge or
release may be used.
(c) To show current or previous status as a rated military pilot on flying status with a
Philippine Armed Force, one of the following may be used:
(1) An official Armed Force order to flight duty as a military pilot.
(2) An official Armed Force form or logbook showing military pilot status.
(3) An official order showing that the applicant graduated from an accredited pilot
school and is or was rated as a military pilot.
(d) To show practical experience as a military aircraft mechanic, applicable service
records; and
(e) To show appropriate training as a military aircraft mechanic, the certificates of training.
2.2.6 TRAINING AND TESTING REQUIREMENTS

2.2.6.1 APPROVED TRAINING
(a) The Authority may provide for some reduction in the experience requirements for the
issue of certain licenses and ratings prescribed in this Part when training is conducted
within an Approved Training Organization under special curricula approved by the
Authority.
(b) Approved training shall provide a level of competency at least equal to that provided
by the minimum experience requirements for personnel not receiving such approved
training.

2.2-9
PCAR PART 2
(c) CAR Part 3 prescribes the requirements for certifying and administering Approved
Training Organizations for conducting approved training.
(d) The approval of a training organization by the Authority shall be dependent upon the
applicant demonstrating compliance with the requirements of CAR Part 3.
Note: See ICAO Document 7192 Part B-5 and Doc 9379 for details on training
2.2.6.2 USE OF FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICES (FSTD)

(a) Depending on the purpose (training, testing or checking) and on the type of license or
rating sought (PPL, CPL, ATPL, MPL, IR, TR, MER, FIR) one or more of seven device
types may be used. The device types differ in terms of fidelity of the 3 simulator feature
categories, aircraft simulation, cueing simulation and environment simulation.
(b) For the purpose of UPRT, which includes stall and engine and airframe icing, additional
fidelities of the simulator feature aerodynamic flight and engine model, flight controls
and forces, motion cueing and the IOS are required.
(1) A license holder shall be evaluated/checked in an SFT with the features and
configuration similar to a particular type of aircraft used by the said license holder.
(2) A license holder shall be evaluated/checked in an SFT for the purpose of additional
rating of Instrument Rating (IR) only.
Note. ICAO Doc. 9625 Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulation
Training Devices, Fourth Edition 2015, provides guidance for the approval of FSTDs.
2.2.6.3 KNOWLEDGE AND SKILL TESTS AND CHECKS: TIME, PLACE,

DESIGNATED PERSONS AND FORMAT
(a) Knowledge and Skill Tests and Checks prescribed by or under Part 2 are given at times
and places and by persons authorized and designated by the Authority.
(b) The knowledge test will be performed in written or computer format, except for the
knowledge test for an instructor rating or an additional instructor rating within the same
aircraft category, which may be performed orally. In addition to the written knowledge
test, candidates may be questioned orally during the skill test, as appropriate.
2.2.6.4 KNOWLEDGE AND SKILL TESTS AND CHECKS: PREREQUISITES AND

PASSING GRADES
(a) An applicant for a knowledge test or a skill test shall have received any required
endorsement as specified in this part.
Note: The endorsement requirements may differ between licenses and will appear in
each license section as applicable.
(b) An applicant for a knowledge or skill test must receive written Authorization from the
Authority to take the test.

2.2-10
PCAR PART 2
(c) An applicant shall show proper identification in the form of a Government issued
identification document at the time of application that contains the applicant's:
photograph, signature and date of birth.
(d) The Authority will specify the minimum passing grades.
(e) An applicant for a knowledge or skill test who fails that test may reapply for the test
only after the applicant has received:
(1) The necessary training from an authorized instructor who has determined that the
applicant is proficient to pass the test; and
(2) An endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave the applicant the
additional training.
2.2.6.5 RELIANCE ON TRAINING AND TESTING IN ANOTHER CONTRACTING

STATE
(a) The Authority may rely on the training and/or testing system administered by another
Contracting State as the basis for its own written or practical test requirement for
airman licenses provided that the Authority has an agreement with the other
Contracting State whose training and/or testing system is used.
(b) The applicant shall apply for and receive written approval from the Authority prior to
receiving training and/or testing in a system administered by another Contracting State.
2.2.7 LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY

(a) Flight navigators required to use the radio telephone aboard an aircraft, air traffic
controllers and aeronautical station operators shall demonstrate the ability to speak,
read and understand the English language used for radio telephony communications.
(b) All airplane, airship, helicopter and powered-lift pilots, air traffic controllers and
aeronautical station operators shall demonstrate the ability to speak and understand
the language used for radiotelephony communications to the level specified in the
language proficiency requirements.
(c) All airplane, airship, helicopter and powered-lift pilots, air traffic controllers and
aeronautical station operators shall demonstrate the ability to speak and understand
the language used for radiotelephony communications to the level specified in the
language proficiency requirements as follows:
(1) those demonstrating language proficiency at the Operational Level (Level 4) shall
no longer be evaluated.
(2) those demonstrating language proficiency at the Extended Level (Level 5) shall no
longer be evaluated.
(3) those demonstrating language proficiency at the Expert Level (Level 6) shall be
exempted from further language evaluation.
(d) Flight engineers, and glider and free balloon pilots should have the ability to speak and
understand the language used for radiotelephony communications.
(e) Implementing Standard IS 2.2.7 contains the detailed requirements for language
proficiency.

2.2-11
PCAR PART 2
Note: ICAO DOC 9835 Manual on the Implementation of ICAO Language Proficiency
Requirements is a guide to the implementation of the ICAO Language Proficiency
Requirements.
2.2.8 RECORDING OF FLIGHT TIME

(a) Each person shall document and record the following time in a manner acceptable to
the Authority:
(1) training and experience used to meet the requirements for a license, rating and
Authorization of Part 2; and
(2) the experience required to show recent flight experience according to the
requirements of Part 2.
Implementing Standard: see IS 2.2.8 for detailed recording requirements.
2.2.9 FORMAT OF THE LICENSE

(a) The license format shall be in a form and manner prescribed by the Authority. The
items required on the license are indicated in IS 2.2.9.
2.2.10 SUSPENSION OR REVOCATION OF A LICENSE, RATING,

AUTHORIZATION/CERTIFICATE
Note: See also Subpart 1.2.1.7.
2.2.10.1 SUSPENSION OF A LICENSE, RATING AUTHORIZATION OR

VALIDATION CERTIFICATE
If, in accordance with the Civil Aviation Law the Authority determines that the interests of
safety require that a license, rating, Authorization or certificate must be suspended, the
Authority may act as follows:
(a) If the Authority discovers facts indicating either a lack of competency or lack of
qualification, the Authority may, require an applicant for or the holder of any license,
rating, Authorization, or validation certificate to retake all or part of the knowledge or
practical tests required for any license, rating, Authorization, or validation certificate at
issue, renewal or re-issue. The Authority may suspend the validity of any such license,
rating, Authorization and/or validation certificate pending the results of such re-testing.
(b) A person whose license, rating, Authorization, or certificate has been amended,
modified, suspended, or revoked shall be provided with notice and an opportunity to
be heard in accordance with Subpart 1.2.1.7.3.
(c) After notifying the person involved, in writing, stating the reasons for such action, the
Authority may also suspend the validity of any license, rating, Authorization and/or
validation certificate in the following cases:
(1) during the investigation of an aircraft disaster or incident;
(2) in cases of proven misconduct, recklessness or excessive carelessness;
(3) if the holder has acted in contradiction to his or her privileges; and/or
(4) pending the investigation of a suspected violation of these regulations or the
aviation law under which these regulations are effected.

2.2-12
PCAR PART 2
(d) Once the suspension is effective, the person involved shall immediately cease
exercising the privileges of the affected license, certificate, rating, or Authorization. The
person involved shall surrender to the Authority all licenses or validation certificates in
his or her possession that are subject to the suspension within 8 days of receiving the
notification of the order. If the person fails to surrender the documents under
suspension, the Authority may revoke all such certificate(s) held by that person.
(e) When a suspension is limited to one or more ratings mentioned on the license or
validation certificate, the Authority shall provide the person involved with a new license
or validation certificate omitting all ratings which are subject to the suspension.
(f) The Authority may cancel a suspension in the following cases:
(1) if person under suspension has taken and passed the knowledge or practical tests
required for any license, rating, or Authorization at issue indicated in (a);
(2) if the person involved has gained the required additional experience; or
(3) by revocation of the license, rating, Authorization and/or validation certificate.
(g) Once the suspension has been cancelled, other than by revocation, the Authority shall
issue the person involved a new license or validation certificate.
2.2.10.2 SUSPENSION OF A MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

(a) In case of doubt concerning the medical fitness of the holder of a medical certificate,
the Authority may determine that the person involved shall again repeat a complete or
partial medical examination. and may suspend the validity of that medical certificate
until the repeat examination is completed with favorable results.
(b) The validity of a medical certificate may also be suspended in case of a temporary
rejection on medical grounds.
(c) The person holding the medical certificate will be notified in writing of a suspension
stating the reasons for that suspension.
(d) The person holding the suspended medical certificate shall surrender the medical
certificate in his or her possession to the Authority within 8 days after the date of
receiving the notification.
(e) In cases in which the medical fitness of the person involved allows it, the Authority may
provide the person with a suspended medical certificate of a particular class with a
new medical certificate of a lower class.
(f) A suspension may be lifted if the medical examination intended in (a) has been passed
satisfactorily. If a suspension is lifted, the person involved shall receive a new medical
certificate unless the medical certificate was revoked.
2.2.10.3 REVOCATION OF LICENSES, RATINGS, AUTHORIZATIONS OR

CERTIFICATES
(a) A license, rating, Authorization or certificate shall be revoked if the holder has lost the
skills for exercising the privileges mentioned in the document or fails to meet the
appropriate medical standards as shown by the results of a medical examination or a
test.

2.2-13
PCAR PART 2
(b) A license, rating, Authorization and/or certificate may be revoked if the holder has
made a statement contrary to the truth in obtaining or maintaining that license, rating
Authorization or certificate, or has provided incorrect data at a medical examination
and/or test required for the issue, maintenance or renewal of the license, rating,
Authorization and certificate.
(c) A license, rating, Authorization or certificate shall be revoked in case of proven
misconduct, recklessness or excessive carelessness. The holder of the license will be
notified in writing of the revocation with the reasons therefore.
(d) A person who has had a license or certificate revoked shall be obliged to hand over to
the Authority all the licenses or certificates in his or her possession applicable to the
revocation within 8 days after the date of receiving notification from the Authority.
(e) The person who has been denied the privilege to manipulate the controls of an aircraft
by judgment of a court, shall be equally obliged to hand over to the Authority all licenses
and certificates in his or her possession within 8 days after he or she has taken
cognizance of the judgment or after it can be reasonably assumed that he or she has
taken cognizance thereof.
2.2.10.4 REINSTATEMENT OF PRIVILEGES OF EXPIRED PILOT LICENSES AND

RATINGS
(a) No person who holds an expired pilot license or rating shall exercise the privileges of
said license or ratings,
(b) The holder of an expired Philippine issued pilot license and rating shall pass the Civil
Aviation Regulations practical examinations and medical test required for renewal or
reinstatement of the license.
(c) Flight crewmembers seeking reinstatement of any license that has expired for more
than twenty four (24) months shall complete an aircraft initial ground and flight training
program, including instrument rating with additional condition as follows:
(1) For holders of a flight crewmember license other than an airline transport pilot
license, training on any aircraft type is required;
(2) For holders of an airline transport pilot license and flight engineer license, training
certification on a multi-engine and/or applicable type of aircraft should be
presented.
(3) Except as provided, flight crewmember seeking reinstatement of an aircraft rating,
other than a rating as part of a license re-issuance shall complete an initial ground
and flight training program and pass a knowledge and skill test for that type of
aircraft.
2.2.10.5 REINSTATEMENT OF PRIVILEGES OF EXPIRED AMT/AMS LICENSES

AND RATINGS
(a) No person who holds an expired AMT/AMS license or rating shall exercise the
privileges of said license or rating;
(b) Aviation Maintenance Technicians or Specialists who seek reinstatement of their
licenses that had already expired shall comply with the following conditions:
(1) Within twenty four (24) months from expiration of license, he/she shall pass the
Civil Aviation Regulations test given by the Authority.
(2) After twenty four (24) months from expiration of license, he/she shall pass the Civil
Aviation Regulations test and must undergo the appropriate recurrent training from

2.2-14
PCAR PART 2
an Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO) or any school or facility accredited

by the Authority for such purpose.
(3) After sixty (60) months from expiration of license, he/she shall comply with the
requirements for the application for the initial application for AMT/AMS License.
2.2.11 RE-ISSUE OR REINSTATEMENT OF A LICENSE, RATING,

AUTHORIZATION OR CERTIFICATE
Note: Re-issue of a license, rating, Authorization or certificate. The administrative
action taken after a license, rating, Authorization or certificate has lapsed that reissues the
privileges of the license, rating, Authorization or certificate for a further specified period
consequent upon the fulfillment of specified requirements. (PCAR 2.1.2 (a) (35))
Note: Other airman license: A person required by any part of these regulations to have
an airman's license shall have it in their physical possession or readily accessible in the
aircraft or at the work site when exercising the privileges of that license. (PCAR 1.2.1.1
(c))
(a) The following conditions qualifies for a reissue or reinstatement of the license, rating,
authority or certificate:
(1) expired licenses;
(2) surrendered licenses;
(3) suspended licenses;
(4) revoked licenses;
(5) exchange of licenses to lower grade or different rating;
(6) and other similar conditions;
Note: A license that has been suspended or revoked may be reissued or reinstated
subject to the Director General’s approval.
(b) Any person who holds a Philippine license, ratings authorization or certificate that has
been surrendered, expired, or other similar conditions may apply for a reissue or
reinstatement of such license for use provided he/she successfully complies with the
requirements of the license;
Note: A license that has been surrendered or has expired shall be considered as an
“expired license”
(c) A person who holds an expired Philippine license, ratings authorization or certificate
for LESS THAN thirty six (36) months must pass the knowledge test on the Air Law to
be administered by the Authority prior to the re-issue of the said license;
(d) A person who holds expired Philippine license, ratings, authorization or certificate for
MORE THAN thirty six (36) months must undergo the same process as the initial or
original license application, including passing the Air Law, ALL the theoretical or
knowledge test of the license in question and skill test and oral test requirements to be
administered by the Authority prior to the re-issue of the said license;
(e) In addition to the requirements of PCAR 2.2.11 (c), a holder of an expired FLIGHT
DISPATCHER LICENSE, rating, authorization or certificate for MORE THAN thirty six
(36) months shall be required to undergo the appropriate refresher course for the said
license.

2.2-15
PCAR PART 2

2.2-16
PCAR PART 2
2.3 PILOT LICENSES, CATEGORIES, RATINGS AND

AUTHORIZATIONS
2.3.1 GENERAL
This Section prescribes the requirements for the issue, renewal and re-issue, if applicable,
of pilot licenses, ratings and Authorizations.
2.3.1.2 GENERAL RULE CONCERNING PILOT LICENSES, RATINGS AND

AUTHORIZATIONS
(a) An applicant shall, before being issued with any pilot license, rating or Authorization,
meet such requirements in respect of age, knowledge, experience, flight instruction,
skill, medical fitness and language proficiency as are specified for that license, rating
or Authorization.
(b) A person shall not act either as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot of an aircraft in any of
the categories unless that person is the holder of a pilot license issued in accordance
with the provisions of Part 2.
(c) An applicant shall for renewal or re-issue of a license, rating or Authorization meet the
requirements as are specified for that license, rating or Authorization.
2.3.1.3 AUTHORITY TO ACT AS A FLIGHT CREW MEMBER

(a) A person shall not act as a flight crew member of an aircraft registered in the Republic
of the Philippines unless a valid license or a validation certificate is held showing
compliance with the specifications of this Part and appropriate to the duties to be
performed by that person.
(b) No person may act as the PIC or co-pilot of an aircraft unless that person holds the
appropriate category, class and type rating for the aircraft to be flown.
(c) A person shall not act as a flight crew member of an aircraft in the territory of the
Republic of the Philippines unless a valid license or a validation certificate is held that
has been issued by the State of Registry of that aircraft or by any other Contracting
State and rendered valid by the state of registry of that aircraft.
Note: During a skill test, the applicant acts as PIC but the safety pilot will intervene in
safety situations.
2.3.1.4 CREDITING OF FLIGHT TIME

(a) A student pilot or the holder of a pilot license shall be entitled to be credited in full with
all solo, dual instruction and pilot-in-command flight time towards the total flight time
required for the initial issue of a pilot license or the issue of a higher grade of pilot
license.
(b) The holder of a pilot license, when acting as co-pilot at a pilot station of an aircraft
certificated for operation by a single pilot but required by a Contracting State to be
operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credited with not more than 50 percent
of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot
license. The Authority may authorize that flight time be credited in full towards the total
flight time required, provided the aircraft is equipped to be operated by a co-pilot and
the aircraft is operated in a multi-pilot crew operation. The holder of a pilot license,
when acting as co-pilot at a pilot station of an aircraft certificated to be

2.3-1
PCAR PART 2
operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credited in full with this flight time
towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot license.
(c) The holder of a pilot license, when acting as pilot-in-command under supervision, shall
be entitled to be credited in full with this flight time towards the total flight time required
for a higher grade of pilot license.
2.3.1.5 LIMITATION OF PRIVILEGES OF PILOTS WHO HAVE ATTAINED THEIR

60TH BIRTHDAY
(a) No person who holds a pilot license under this Part shall serve as pilot-in-command on
a Philippine-registered civil aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport
(defined in Part 2.1.2) in a single pilot operation if that person reached 60 th year of age.
(b) No person who holds a pilot license issued under this Part shall serve as a pilot-in-
command on a Philippine-registered civil aircraft engaged in commercial air transport
in a multi-crew operation if that person reached 60 th year of age unless the other pilot
is younger than 60 years of age.
2.3.1.5.1 CURTAILMENT OF PRIVILEGES OF PILOTS WHO HAVE ATTAINED

THEIR 65TH AND 67TH BIRTHDAY
(a) No person who holds a pilot license under this Part shall serve as pilot-in-command or
as co-pilot on a Philippine-registered civil aircraft engaged in international commercial
air transport if that person has reached 65th years of age.
(b) No person who holds a pilot license under this Part shall serve as pilot-in-command or
as co-pilot on a Philippine-registered civil aircraft engaged in domestic commercial air
transport if that person has reached 67th years of age.
(c) No person under this Part shall be granted any flexibility in meeting the medical
qualifications under any circumstances or medical conditions if that person has
reached 65th years of age.
(d) Any person beyond 67 years of age who holds a pilot license and a valid medical
certificate under this Part may be allowed to fly as a pilot-in-command or co-pilot
provided the flight is not in pursuance of commercial air transport operations, singly or
collectively, and a mandatory CAAP medical examination every six (6) months is
complied with.
(e) For purposes of paragraph (a) (d) above and of other applicable PCAR provisions, all
aircraft operations involving the transport of passengers, cargo or mail are presumed
commercial air transport operations except in the following instances:
(1) Training or demonstration flights of Approved Training Organizations;
(2) Corporate flights for the purpose of transporting the company’s executives,
employees and/or clients;
(3) The cargo on board is owned by the aircraft owner/operator.
(f) Any person who claims that his/her flight is covered by the above exceptions shall
present sufficient proof, documentary and/or testimonial, to prove the same when so
required by the Authority
Amendment 05 20 June 2014

2.3-2
PCAR PART 2
2.3.1.6 RECENT EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) A pilot shall not operate an aircraft carrying passengers as pilot-in-command or copilot
to operate at the flight controls of a type or a variant of a type of aircraft during take-off
and landing unless that pilot has operated the flight controls during at least three take-
offs and landings within the preceding 90 days on the same type of aircraft or in the
flight simulator approved for the purpose.
(b) The holder of a license that does not include an instrument rating shall not act as PIC
of an aircraft carrying passengers at night unless he or she has carried out at least
three take-offs and three landings at night during the previous 90 days.
(c) A pilot shall not act in the capacity of a cruise relief pilot in a type or variant of a type
of aircraft unless, within the preceding 90 days that pilot has either:
(1) Operated as a PIC, CP or cruise relief pilot on the same type of aircraft; or
(2) Carried out flying skill refresher training including normal, abnormal and emergency
procedures specific to cruise flight on the same type of aircraft or in a flight
simulator approved for the purpose, and has practiced approach and landing
procedures, where the approach and landing procedure practice may be performed
as the pilot who is not flying the aircraft.
(d) Each person shall document and record the experience required, to show the recent
flight experience.
2.3.2 CATEGORY, CLASS and TYPE RATINGS AND CATEGORY ll / Ill

AUTHORIZATIONS
2.3.2.1 GENERAL
(a) The holder of a pilot license shall not be permitted to act as pilot-in-command or as
copilot of an airplane or helicopter unless the holder has received Authorization as
follows:
(1) the appropriate class rating specified in this Part, or
(2) a type rating when required in accordance with this Part; and
(3) an authorization when required or permitted in accordance with this Part.
(b) The applicant shall meet the appropriate requirements of this Part for the aircraft rating
or authorization sought.
(c) When an applicant demonstrates skill and knowledge for the initial issue or re-issue of
a pilot license, the category and ratings appropriate to the class or type of aircraft used
in the demonstration will be entered on the license.
(d) For the purpose of training, testing or specific special purpose non-revenue, non-
passenger carrying flights, special Authorization may be provided in writing to the
license holder by the Authority in place of issuing the class or type rating in accordance
with (a). This Authorization shall be limited in validity to the time needed to complete
the specific flight.
2.3.2.2 CATEGORY RATINGS

(a) The category of aircraft shall be endorsed on the license as a rating.
(b) Any additional category rating endorsed on a pilot license shall indicate the level of
licensing privileges at which the category rating is granted.

2.3-3
PCAR PART 2
(c) The holder of a pilot license seeking additional category ratings shall meet the
requirements of this Part appropriate to the privileges for which the category rating is
sought.
2.3.2.3 CLASS RATINGS - AIRPLANE AND HELICOPTER AND POWERED-LIFTS

(a) Flight instruction.
(1) The applicant for a class rating shall have completed the flight instruction for the
class rating on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 or 2.3.3.3 Appendix B (for airplane)or
IS 2.3.3.6 or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B (for helicopter), as applicable.
(2) Where applicable the flight instruction shall include instrument procedures,
including instrument approach and landing procedures under normal, abnormal
and emergency conditions including simulated engine failure.
(b) Skill.
(1) The applicant for a class rating shall:
(i) have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that
the person is prepared for the required skill test;
(ii) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 or
2.3.3.3Appendix B (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B (for
helicopter), as applicable.
(2) Where applicable the skill test shall include instrument procedures, including
instrument approach and landing procedures under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions including simulated engine failure.
(c) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the holder of a class rating are to act as a pilot on the class of aircraft
specified in the rating.
(d) Validity: Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the validity
period of:
(1) a multi-engine class rating is 1 calendar year;
(2) a single-engine class rating is 2 calendar years.
(e) Renewal.
(1) For the renewal of a single-engine class rating the pilot shall:
(i) within the preceding 24 calendar months, complete a proficiency check on
areas of operation listed in IS 2.3.3.2, Appendix B for PPL or IS
2.3.3.3Appendix B for CPL (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B for PPL or
IS2.3.3.7 Appendix B for CPL (for helicopter), as applicable; or
(ii) have completed 12 hours flight time within the 12 months preceding the expiry
date.
(2) For the renewal of a multi-engine class rating the pilot shall:
(i) within the preceding 12 calendar months, complete a proficiency check on the
subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix B for PPL or IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix B for
CPL (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B for PPL or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B
for CPL (for helicopter), as applicable; and
(ii) have completed 10 route sectors within the 3 months preceding the expiry date.

2.3-4
PCAR PART 2
(3) Where applicable the proficiency check shall include instrument procedures,
and emergency conditions, including simulated engine failure.
(4) If a pilot takes the proficiency check required in this section in the calendar month
before or the calendar month after the month in which it is due, the pilot is
considered to have taken it in the month in which it was due for the purpose of
computing when the next proficiency check is due.
(f) Re-issue. If the class rating has expired the applicant shall:
(1) Have received refresher training from an authorized instructor with an endorsement
that the person is prepared for the required skill test; and
(2) Pass the required skill test on the areas of operation listed in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix
B for PPL or IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix B for CPL (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B
for PPL or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B for CPL (for helicopter), as applicable.
emergency conditions, including simulated engine failure.
2.3.2.4 TYPE RATINGS - AIRPLANE AND HELICOPTER AND POWERED-LIFTS

(a) Knowledge. The applicant for a type rating shall have completed the theoretical
knowledge instruction and demonstrated in a test the relevant knowledge subjects as
listed in IS 2.3.2.4 Appendix A.
(b) Experience.
(1) An applicant for a type rating shall:
(i) have at least 100 hours as pilot-in-command applicable to the category of
aircraft;
(ii) where applicable, have an instrument rating applicable to the category of
aircraft;
(iii) have completed a CRM course as listed in IS 2.3.2.4 Appendix B; and
(iv) have demonstrated in a test, the ATPL knowledge on the basis of the
requirements listed in Subpart 2.3.3.4 (b) (for airplane) or Subpart 2.3.3.8 (b)
(for helicopter), as applicable.
(v) for the first type-rating –airplane-, have completed on-airplane upset recovery
training as specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
(c) Flight instruction.
(1) The applicant for a type rating shall have completed the flight instruction for the
type rating:
(i) for single-pilot aircraft: on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 or IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix
B (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B for helicopter, as
applicable; and
(ii) for multi-pilot aircraft: on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B (for
airplane) or 2.3.3.8 Appendix B (for helicopter), as applicable.
(2) Where applicable the flight instruction shall include instrument procedures,
and emergency conditions, including simulated engine failure and upset prevention
and recovery training.

2.3-5
PCAR PART 2
(d) Skill.
(1) The applicant for a type rating shall:
the person is prepared for the required skill test;
(ii) pass the required skill test:
(A) for single pilot aircraft: on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 or IS 2.3.3.3
Appendix B (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B for
helicopter, as applicable; and
(B) for multi-pilot aircraft on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 (for airplane) or
IS2.3.3.8 Appendix B(for helicopter), as applicable.
(e) Privileges.
Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the privileges of the
holder of a type rating are to act as a pilot on the type of aircraft specified in the rating.
(1) When the skill test for a type rating has been performed under VFR the type rating
will be issued limiting the privileges to VFR flight and such limitation will be
endorsed on the rating.
(f) Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirements in this Part, the validity period of
a type rating is 1 year.
(g) Renewal. For the renewal of a type rating the pilot shall:
(1) within the preceding 12 calendar months, complete a proficiency check:
(i) for single pilot aircraft: on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 or IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix
B (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B for helicopter, as
applicable: and
(ii) for multi-pilot aircraft on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B (for
airplane) or IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B (for helicopter), as applicable.
(2) have completed 10 route sectors within the 3 months preceding the expiry date.
(3) Where applicable the proficiency check shall include instrument procedures,
and emergency conditions, including simulated engine failure.
(h) Re-issue. If the type rating has been expired the applicant shall:
(1) have received refresher training from an authorized instructor with an endorsement
that the person is prepared for the required skill test: and
(2) pass the required skill test:
(i) for single pilot aircraft: on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.2 or IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix
B (for airplane) or IS 2.3.3.6 or IS 2.3.3.7 Appendix B (for helicopter), as
applicable: and

2.3-6
PCAR PART 2
(ii) for multi-pilot aircraft on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B (for
airplane) or IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B (for helicopter), as applicable.
2.3.2.5 CATEGORY II AND III AUTHORIZATION

(a) General.
(1) A person, not flying under Part 8, may not act as pilot of an aircraft during Category
II or III operations unless that person holds a Category II or III pilot Authorization
for that category, class or type of aircraft.
(2) The applicant for a Category II or III pilot Authorization shall:
(i) hold a pilot license with an instrument rating or an ATPL; and
(ii) hold a category and class or type rating for the aircraft for which the
Authorization is sought.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a Category II or III pilot Authorization shall have
completed the theoretical knowledge instruction and demonstrated in a test the
knowledge subjects as listed in IS 2.3.2.4 Appendix A (Section 6).
(c) Experience. The applicant for a Category II or III pilot Authorization shall have at least:
(1) 50 hours of night flight time as PIC;
(2) 75 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated instrument conditions; and
(3) 250 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC.
(d) Flight instruction. The applicant for a Category II or III pilot Authorization shall have
completed the flight instruction on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B
(Section10) for airplane or IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B (Section 9) for helicopter, as
applicable.
(e) Skill. The applicant for a Category II or III pilot Authorization shall pass a skill test
including the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B (Section 10) for airplane or
IS2.3.3.8 Appendix B (Section 9) for helicopter, as applicable.
(f) Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the validity
period of a Category II and III Authorization is 6 months.
(g) Renewal. For the renewal of a Category II or III pilot Authorization the pilot shall have
completed a proficiency check including the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix
B(Section 10) for airplane or IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B (Section 9) for helicopter, as
applicable.
(h) Re-issue. If the Category II or the Category III have been expired the applicant shall:
(2) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B
(Section10) for airplane or IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B (Section 9) for helicopter, as
applicable.
2.3.3 PILOT LICENSES, INSTRUMENT AND INSTRUCTOR RATINGS

2.3.3.1 STUDENT PILOTS

2.3-7
PCAR PART 2
(a) The applicant for a student pilot Authorization shall be not less than 16 years of age.
(b) The applicant can read, speak and understand English
(c) The applicant must hold a current class 2 Medical Certificate
(d) Pre-solo flight instruction. Prior to conducting a solo flight, a student pilot shall have:
(1) received and logged flight training for the maneuvers and procedures as listed in
IS 2.3.3.1.
(2) demonstrated satisfactory proficiency and safety, as judged by an authorized
instructor, on the maneuvers and procedures as listed in IS 2.3.3.1.
(e) Solo flight requirement
(1) Holding at least a Class 2 Medical Certificate
(2) An Authorized student pilot had received and logged ground training from an
authorized instructor on the following subject:
(i) Applicable sections of Part 2 and Part 8;
(ii) Airspace rules and procedures for the airport where the student will perform
solo flight; and
(iii) Flight characteristics and operation for the make and model of aircraft to be
flown.
(3) Must be authorized by a Flight Instructor.
2.3.3.2 PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE - AIRPLANE

(a) Age. The applicant for a PPL(A) shall be not less than 17 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a PPL(A) shall:
(1) Receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the following
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a PPL(A); rules of the
air; appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures
(ii) Aircraft general knowledge:
(A) Principles of operation of airplane powerplants, systems and instruments;
(B) Operating limitations of airplanes and powerplants: relevant operational
information from the flight manual or other appropriate document;
(iii) Flight performance and planning:
(A) effects of loading and weight distribution on flight characteristics; weight
and balance calculations;
(B) use and practical application of take-off, landing and other performance
data;
(C) pre-flight and en-route flight planning appropriate to private operations
under VFR; preparation and filing of air traffic services flight plans;
appropriate air traffic services procedures; position reporting procedures;
altimeter setting procedures; operations in areas of high-density traffic;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the PPL(A)
(v) Meteorology: application of elementary aeronautical meteorology; use of, and
procedures for obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry

2.3-8
PCAR PART 2
(vi) Navigation: practical aspects of air navigation and dead-reckoning techniques;

use of aeronautical charts:
(vii) Operational procedures:
(A) use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP, NOTAM, aeronautical
codes and abbreviations;
(B) appropriate precautionary and emergency procedures, including action to
be taken to avoid hazardous weather, wake turbulence and the operating
hazards;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to airplanes;
(ix) Radiotelephony:
(A) radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as applied to VFR
operations; action to be taken in case of communication failure;
(B) as listed in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix A;
(2) have received an endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorized instructor
who:
(i) conducted the training on the knowledge subjects;
(ii) certifies that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test; and
(3) pass the required knowledge test on the knowledge areas listed in IS 2.3.3.2
Appendix A.
(c) Experience
(1) The applicant for a PPL(A) shall have completed not less than 40 hours of flight
time as pilot of airplanes, a total of 5 hours may have been completed in a flight
simulator or flight procedures trainer.
(2) The applicant shall have completed in airplanes not less than 10 hours of solo flight
time under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor, including 5hours of
solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight totaling not less
than 270 km (150 nm) in the course of which full-stop landings at two difference
aerodromes shall be made.
(3) The holder of pilot licenses in other categories may be credited with 10 hours of
the total flight time as pilot-in-command towards a PPL(A).
(d) Flight Instruction.
(1) The applicant for a PPL(A) shall receive and log not less than 20 hours of dual
instruction from an authorized instructor on the subjects listed in IS
2.3.3.2Appendix B. These 20 hours may include 5 hours completed in a flight
simulator or flight procedures trainer. The 20 hours of dual instruction shall include
at least 5hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight
totaling not less than 270 km (150 NM) in the course of which full-stop landings at
two different aerodromes shall be made.
(2) The instructor shall ensure that the applicant has operational experience in at least
the following areas to the level of performance required for the private pilot:
(i) pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, airplane
inspection and servicing;
(ii) aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions and
procedures;
(iii) control of the airplane by external visual reference;

2.3-9
PCAR PART 2
(iv) flight at critically slow airspeeds; recognition of, and recovery from, incipient
and full stalls;
(v) flight at critically high airspeeds; recognition of, and recovery from, spiral dives,
(vi) normal and cross-wind take-offs and landings;
(vii) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance take-offs, short field
landings;
(viii) flight by reference solely to instruments, including the completion of a level180
degrees turn:
(ix) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and, where
available, radio navigation aids;
(x) emergency operations, including simulated airplane equipment malfunctions;
and
(xi) operations to, from and transmitting controlled aerodromes, compliance with
air traffic services procedures, radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as
further specified in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix B.
(3) If the privileges of the PPL(A) are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have
received 4 hours dual instruction in airplanes in night flying, including take-offs,
landings and 1 hour of navigation and that information shall be endorsed on the
license.
Note 1: Training can be performed by an individually authorized flight instructor, by
an authorized flight instructor in a flying club, or in an Aviation Training
Organization.
(e) Skill. The applicant for a PPL(A) shall:
(1) have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the
person is prepared for the required skill test; and
(2) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform as pilot in-command
of an airplane, the areas of operation described in IS 2.3.3.2 Appendix B, with a
degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a
PPL(A), and to
(i) operate the airplane within its limitations;
(ii) complete all maneuvers with smoothness and accuracy;
(iii) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(iv) apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(v) maintain control of the airplane at all times in a manner such that the successful
outcome of a procedure or maneuver is never seriously in doubt.
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for a PPL (A) shall hold a current Class 2 Medical
Certificate.
(g) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the holder of a PPL (A) shall be to act, but not for remuneration, as pilot
in-command or co-pilot of any airplane engaged in non-revenue flights.
(h) Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the validity
period of the license is 5 years. For renewal of the license see 2.2.3.

2.3-10
PCAR PART 2
2.3.3.3 COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE - AIRPLANE

(a) Age. The applicant for a CPL (A) shall be not less than 18 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a CPL (A) shall:
(1) receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the following
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a CPL (A); rules of the
(A) principles of operation and functioning of airplane powerplants, systems
and instruments:
(B) operating limitations of appropriate airplanes and powerplants; relevant
operational information from the flight manual or other appropriate
document;
(C) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate
airplanes;
(D) maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of
appropriate airplanes;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on airplane handling, flight
characteristics and performance; mass and balance calculations;
data;
(C) pre-flight and en-route flight planning appropriate to operations under VFR;
preparation and filing of air traffic services flight plans; appropriate air traffic
services procedures;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the CPL (A);
(v) Meteorology:
(A) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports. charts
and forecasts; use of, and procedures for obtaining, meteorological
information, pre-flight and in-flight; altimetry;
(B) aeronautical meteorology; climatology of relevant areas in respect of the
elements having an effect upon aviation; the moment of pressure systems.
the structure of fronts; and the origin and characteristics of significant
weather phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing conditions;
hazardous weather avoidance;
(vi) Navigation: air navigation. including the use of aeronautical charts, instruments
and navigation aids; understanding of the principles and characteristics of
appropriate navigation systems; operation of air borne equipment
(vii) Operation procedures:
(A) use of aeronautical documentation such as AIR; NOTAM, aeronautical
codes and abbreviations:
(B) appropriate precautionary and emergency procedures;
(C) operational procedures for carriage of freight; potential hazards associated
with dangerous goods;

2.3-11
PCAR PART 2
(D) requirements and practices for safety briefing to passengers, including

precautions to be observed when embarking and disembarking from
airplanes;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to airplanes, and upset
prevention and recovery elements from IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C;
operations; action to be taken in case of communication failure:
(B) as further specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix A.
(2) Have received an endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorized
instructor who:
(i) conducted the training on the knowledge subjects:
(ii) certifies that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test: and
(3) Pass the required knowledge test on the knowledge subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.3
Appendix B.
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for a CPL(A) shall have completed not less than 200 hours of flight
time, or 150 hours if completed during an Authority-approved training course
provided for in an Approved Training Organization under Part 3, as a pilot of
airplanes, of which 10 hours may have been completed in a flight simulator or flight
procedures trainer.
(2) The applicant shall have completed in airplanes not less than:
(i) 100 hours as pilot-in-command or, in the case of a course of approved training,
70 hours as pilot-in-command;
(ii) 20 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross
country flight totaling not less than 540 km (300 NM) in the course of which full-
stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made:
(iii) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be
instrument ground time;
(iv) if the privileges of the license are to be exercised at night, 5 hours of night flight
time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot-in-command.
(3) The holder of a pilot license in another category may be credited towards the 200
hours of flight time as follows:
(i) 10 hours as PIC in a category other than helicopters; or
(ii) 30 hours as pilot-in-command holding a PPL(H) on helicopters; or
(iii) 100 hours as pilot-in-command holding a CPL(H) on helicopters.
(4) The applicant for a CPL(A) shall hold a PPL(A) issued under this Part.
(1) The applicant for a CPL(A) shall receive and log not less than 25 hours of dual
instruction from an authorized instructor. These 25 hours may include 5 hours
completed in a flight simulator or flight procedures trainer.
the following areas to the level of performance required for the commercial pilot:

2.3-12
PCAR PART 2
(i) pre-flight operations, including mass and balance determination, airplane

inspection and servicing; aerodrome and traffic pattern operations, collision
avoidance precautions and procedures;
(ii) control of the airplane by external visual reference;
(iii) upset prevention training including flight at critically slow airspeeds, recognition
of, and recovery from, incipient and full stalls, and on-airplane upset recovery
training as specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C;
(iv) flight at critically high airspeeds; recognition of, and recovery from, spiral dives;
(v) normal and cross-wind take-offs and landings;
(vi) maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance take-offs, short field
landings;
(vii) basic flight maneuvers and recovery from unusual attitudes by reference solely
to basic flight instruments;
(viii) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and radio
navigation aids; diversion procedures
(ix) abnormal and emergency procedures and maneuvers; and
(x) operations to, from and transmitting controlled aerodromes, compliance with
air traffic services procedures, radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as
further specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix B.
(3) If the privileges of the CPL (A) are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have
received 4 hours dual instruction in airplanes in night flying, including take-offs,
landings and 1 hour of navigation.
(4) For airplane instructor ratings, have completed on-airplane recovery training as
specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
(5) For Flight Instructor (FI), have completed on-airplane upset prevention and
recovery training as specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
(e) Skill. The applicant for a CPL(A) shall:
(2) shall have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform as pilot-in
command of an airplane, the areas of operation described in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix
B, with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder
of a CPL(A), and to
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for a CPL (A) shall hold a current Class 1 Medical
Certificate.
privileges of the holder of a CPL(A) shall be:
(1) to exercise all the privileges of the holder of a PPL(A);

2.3-13
PCAR PART 2
(2) to act as pilot-in-command in any airplane engaged in operations other than

commercial air transportation;
(3) to act as pilot-in-command in commercial air transportation in any airplane
certificated for single-pilot operation; and
(4) to act as co-pilot in commercial air transportation in airplanes required to be
operated with a copilot.
period of the license is Five (5) year. For renewal of the license see 2.2.3.
2.3.3.4 AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENSE - AIRPLANE

(a) Age. The applicant for an ATPL (A) shall be not less than 21 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an ATPL (A) shall:
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of an ATPL(A); rules of the
air, appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures
(A) general characteristics and limitations of electrical, hydraulic,
pressurization and other airplane systems; flight control systems, including
autopilot and stability augmentation;
(B) principles of operation, handling procedures and operating limitations of
airplane powerplants; effects of atmospheric conditions on engine
performance; relevant operational information from the flight manual or
other appropriate document,
(C) operating procedures and limitations of appropriate airplanes; effects of
atmospheric conditions on airplane performance,
(D) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate
airplanes;
(E) flight instruments; compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic
instruments, operational limits and precession effects; practices and
procedures in the event of malfunctions of various flight instruments;
(F) (maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of
appropriate airplanes;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on airplane handling, flight
data, including procedures for cruise control;
(C) pre-flight and en-route operational flight planning; preparation and filing of
air traffic services flight plans; appropriate air traffic services procedures;
altimeter setting procedures
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the ATPL(A)
(v) Meteorology:

2.3-14
PCAR PART 2
(A) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports, charts

and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for
obtaining, meteorological information; pre-flight and in-flight; altimetry;
elements having an effect upon aviation; the moment of pressure systems;
the structure of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of significant
(C) causes, recognition and effects of engine and airframe icing; frontal zone
penetration procedures; hazardous weather avoidance;
(vi) Navigation:
(A) air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts, radio navigation
aids and area navigation systems; specific navigation requirements for
long-range flights; use, limitation and serviceability of avionics and
instruments necessary for the control and navigation of airplanes;
(B) use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure,
enroute, approach and landing phases of flight; identification of radio
navigation aids;
(C) principles and characteristics of self-contained and external-referenced
navigation systems; operation of airborne equipment;
(A) interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP,
NOTAM, aeronautical codes and abbreviations, and instrument procedure
charts for departure, en-route, descent and approach;
(B) precautionary and emergency procedures; safety practices associated with
flight under IFR
(C) operational procedures for carriage of freight and dangerous goods;
airplanes;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to airplanes; subsonic
aerodynamics; compressibility effects, maneuver boundary limits, wing design
characteristics, effects of supplementary lift and drag devices; relationships
between lift, drag and thrust at various airspeeds and in different flight
configuration and upset prevention and recovery elements from IS 2.3.3.3
Appendix C;
(ix) Radiotelephony: radiotelephony procedures and phraseology; action to be
taken in case of communication failure; as further specified in IS
2.3.3.4Appendix A
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for an ATPL (A) shall have completed not less than 1,500 hours of
flight time as a pilot of airplanes of which a maximum of 100 hours may have been
completed in a flight simulator. The applicant shall have completed in airplanes not
less than:
(i) 250 hours, either as pilot-in-command, or made up by not less than 100 hours
as pilot-in-command and the necessary additional flight time as co-pilot
performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command, the duties and

2.3-15
PCAR PART 2
functions of a pilot-in-command; provided that the method of supervision

employed is acceptable to the Authority;
(ii) 200 hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than 100 hours shall
be as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the
pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command, provided that
the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the Authority;
(iii) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be
instrument ground time; and
(iv) 100 hours of night flight as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot.
(2) Holders of a CPL(H) will be credited with 50% of their helicopter flight time as pilot-
in-command towards the flight time required in paragraph (1) above.
(3) The applicant shall have completed a CRM course on the subjects listed in
IS2.3.2.4 Appendix B.
(4) The applicant for an ATPL(A) shall be the holder of a CPL(A) with instrument and
multi-engine rating issued under this Part.
(5) Holders of MPL (A) shall have completed not less than:
(i) 3,000 hours as pilot of airplanes of which a maximum of 100 hours may have
been completed in a flight simulator. The applicant shall have completed in
airlines not less than:
(A) 350 hours of pilot-in-command, or made up of not less than 10 hours as
pilot-in-command and the necessary additional flight time as co-pilot
performing under the supervision of pilot-in-command, the duties and
functions of pilot-in-command.
Note: After completion of the required skill test, the applicant shall be issued
ATPL with limitations: “For Multi-Crew Operations Only” and “For
Supervised Line Flying Only”.
(B) The applicant shall complete not less than 150 hours as pilot-in-command
during Supervised Line Flying.
Note: After completion of not less than 150 hours as pilot-in-command
during SLF, the applicant shall be issued ATPL with limitation: “For Multi-
Crew Operation Only
(d) Flight Instruction. The applicant for an ATPL(A) shall have received the dual flight
instruction required for the issue of the CPL(A) and the IR.
(e) Skill. The applicant for an ATPL(A) shall:
(2) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform, as pilot-in
command of a multi-engine airplane required to be operated with a co-pilot, the
following procedures and maneuvers:
(i) pre-flight procedures, including the preparation of the operational flight plan
and filing of the air traffic services flight plan;
(ii) normal flight procedures and maneuvers during all phases of flight;

2.3-16
PCAR PART 2
(iii) procedures and maneuvers for IFR operations under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions, including simulated engine failure, and covering at least
the following:
(A) transition to instrument flight on take-off;
(B) standard instrument departures and arrivals;
(C) en-route IFR procedures and navigation;
(D) holding procedures;
(E) instrument approaches to specified minima;
(F) missed approach procedures;
(G) landings from instrument approaches;
(iv) abnormal and emergency procedures and maneuvers related to failures and
malfunctions of equipment, such as powerplant, systems and airframe; and
(v) procedures for crew incapacitation and crew coordination, including allocation
of pilot tasks, crew cooperation and use of checklists.
(3) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform the areas of
operation described in IS 2.3.3.4 Appendix B, with a degree of competency
appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an ATPL(A), and to:
outcome of a procedure or maneuver is never in doubt;
(vi) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and
(vii) communicate effectively with the other flight crew members
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for an ATPL(A) shall hold a current Class 1 Medical
Certificate .,except for:
(i) Check Airman Qualifications for Flight Simulation Training Device as provided
for under 8.10.1.39 (b) (1); and
(ii) Check Airmen who have reached their 65 th birthday or who do not have an
appropriate medical certificate as provided for under 8.10.1.39 (d) and 8.10.1.1
(c).
privileges of the holder of an ATPL(A) shall be:
(1) to exercise all the privileges of the holder of a PPL(A) and CPL(A) and of an IR(A);
and
(2) to act as pilot-in-command and co-pilot in airplanes in air transportation.
(3) if authorized under this CAR, holder of an ATPL may instruct other pilots in air
transportation service in aircraft or approved simulator training device of the
category, class and type for which he is rated. To do so, he must be familiar with
the operating procedures of the company for which he is providing pilot instruction.
However, he may not instruct for more than 8 hours in one day, and not more than
36 hours in any 7-day period. He may instruct under this section only in aircraft

2.3-17
PCAR PART 2
with functioning dual controls. Unless he has a valid flight instructor license, an
airline transport pilot may instruct only as provided in this section.
period of the license is 5 years. For renewal of the license see Subpart 2.2.3.
2.3.3.5 MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENSE (MPL)

2.3.3.5.1 GENERAL
(a) Applicability
This section prescribes the requirements for the issuance of an MPL and ratings, the
conditions under which those license and ratings are necessary, and the limitations
upon those license and ratings.
(b) Eligibility requirement:
(1) To be eligible for an MPL in the airplane category, the applicant shall have
completed an approved training course. The training shall be competency-based
and conducted in a multi-crew operational environment.
(2) During the training, the applicant shall have acquired the knowledge, skills and
attitudes required as the underpinning attributes for performing as a co-pilot of a
turbine-powered air transport airplane certificated for operation with a minimum
crew of at least two pilots.
(c) Assessment level:
(1) The applicant for the MPL in the airplane category shall have satisfactorily
demonstrated performance in all the nine competency units specified herein at the
advanced level of competency and shall have demonstrated the skill and
knowledge required for the safe operation of the applicable type of aircraft, relevant
to the licensing requirements and piloting functions of the applicant.
(2) The use of a flight simulation training device for acquiring the experience or
performing any maneuver required during the demonstration of skill for the issue
of a license or rating shall be approved by the Authority, which shall ensure that
the flight simulation training device used is appropriate to the task.
(d) Competency units:
The nine competency units that an applicant has to demonstrate are as follows: The
applicant shall:
(1) Apply threat and error management (TEM) principles;
(2) Perform airplane ground operations;
(3) Perform take-off;
(4) Perform climb
(5) Perform cruise;
(6) Perform descent
(7) Perform approach;
(8) Perform landing; and
(9) Perform after-landing and airplane post-flight operations.
(e) Nationality:

2.3-18
PCAR PART 2
Be a citizen of the Philippines or a citizen of a foreign country granting similar rights

and privileges to citizens of the Philippines subject, however, to existing treaty or
treaties and agreements entered into by the Philippine Government with foreign
countries and subject further to security measures adopted by the Philippine
Government.
2.3.3.5.2 REQUIREMENTS
(a) Age. The applicant for a MPL shall be not less than 18 years of age.
(b) Language proficiency. Be able to pass the ICAO English Proficiency Test at level 4 or
above.
(c) Knowledge. The applicant shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate
to the privileges granted to the holder of an ATPL (A) and appropriate to the category
of aircraft intended to be included in the license, in at least the following subjects (see
IS: 2.3.3.5 Appendix A). The applicant for an MPL shall:
(1) Receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the following
subjects:
(i) Air Law: Rules and regulations relevant to the holder of an airline transport pilot
license; rules of the air; appropriate air traffic services practices and
procedures.
(ii) Aircraft General Knowledge:
(A) General characteristics and limitations of electrical, hydraulic,
pressurization and other aircraft systems; flight control systems, including
autopilot and stability augmentation.
(B) Principles of operation, handling procedures and operating limitations of
aircraft powerplants; effects of atmospheric conditions on engine
performance; relevant operational information from the flight manual or
other appropriate document.
(C) Operating procedures and limitations of the relevant category of aircraft;
effects of atmospheric conditions on aircraft performance in accordance to
the relevant operational information from the flight manual.
(D) Use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate
aircraft.
(E) Flight instruments, compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic
procedures in the event of malfunctions of various flight instruments and
electronic display units.
(F) Maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of
appropriate aircraft.
(G) For helicopter and powered-lift, transmission (power-trains) where
applicable;
(iii) Flight Performance and Planning:
(A) Effects of loading and mass distribution on aircraft handling.
(iv) Human Performance:
(A) Human performance including principles of threat and error management.
(v) Meteorology:

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PCAR PART 2
(A) Interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports,

charts and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for
obtaining, meteorological information, pre-flight and in-flight altimetry.
(B) Aeronautical meteorology; climatology of relevant areas in respect of the
elements having an effect upon aviation; the movement of pressure
systems; the structure of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of
significant weather phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing
conditions.
(C) Causes, recognition and effects of icing; frontal zone penetration
procedures; hazardous weather avoidance.
(D) In the case of airplane and powered-lift, practical high altitude meteorology,
including interpretation and use of weather reports, charts and forecasts,
and jet-streams.
(vi) Navigation:
(A) Air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts, radio navigation
long-range flights.
(B) Use, limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for
the control and navigation of aircraft.
(C) Use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure,
navigation aids.
(D) Principles and characteristics of self-contained and external-referenced
navigation systems; operation of airborne equipment.
(vii) Operational Procedures:
(A) Application of threat and error management to operational performance;
(B) Interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP,NOTAM,
aeronautical codes and abbreviations;
(C) Precautionary and emergency procedures; safety practices;
(D) Operational procedures for carriage of freight and dangerous goods;
(E) Requirements and practices for safety briefing to passengers, including
aircraft;
(F) In the case of the helicopter, and if applicable, powered-lift, settling with
power; ground resonance; retreating blade stall; dynamic roll-over and
other operation hazards; safety procedures, associated with flight under
VFR;
(viii) Principles of flight
(ix) Radiotelephony
(A) Procedures and phraseology; action to be taken in case of communication
failure.
(d) Skill. The applicant for an MPL shall have demonstrated the skills:
(1) Required for fulfilling all the competency units specified in this part as pilot flying
and pilot not flying, to the level required to perform as a co-pilot of turbine

2.3-20
PCAR PART 2
powered airplanes certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two
pilots under VFR and IFR, and to:
(2) Recognize and manage threats and errors;
(3) Smoothly and accurately manually control the airplane within its limitations at all
times, such that the successful outcome of a procedure or maneuver is assured;
(4) Operate the airplane in the mode of automation appropriate to the phase of flight
and to maintain awareness of the active mode of automation;
(5) Perform, in an accurate manner, normal, abnormal and emergency procedures in
all phases of flight; and
(6) Communicate effectively with other flight crew members and demonstrate the
ability to effectively perform procedures for crew incapacitation, crew coordination,
including allocation of pilot tasks, crew cooperation, adherence to standard
operating procedures (SOPs) and use of checklists.
(7) Progress in acquiring the skills above shall be continuously assessed.
Note: See IS: 2.3.3.5 Appendix B for MPL Skills requirements.
(e) Medical fitness. The applicant for an MPL shall hold a current Class 1 Medical
Certificate.
(f) Ratings. Comply with the sections of this regulation that apply to the rating he seeks.
(1) Airplane rating: Aeronautical experience.
(i) An applicant for a Multi-crew pilot license with an airplane rating shall have
completed an approved training course and shall have not less than 240hours
as pilot flying and pilot not flying of actual and simulated flight.
(ii) Flight experience in actual flight shall include not less than 40 hours of flight
time, or 35 hours if completed during a course of approved training, as a pilot
of airplanes appropriate to the class rating sought and shall include upset
prevention and recovery training as specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C, night
flying, cross-country and flight by reference solely to instruments.
(iii) The Licensing Authority shall determine whether experience as a pilot under
instruction in a flight simulation training device is acceptable as part of the total
flight time of 40 hours or 35 hours, as the case may be. Credit for such
experience shall be limited to a maximum of 5 hours.
(iv) When the applicant has flight time as a pilot of aircraft in other categories, the
Licensing Authority shall determine whether such experience is acceptable
and, if so, the extent to which the flight time requirements of sub-paragraph
(v) above can be reduced accordingly.
(vi) In addition to meeting the above provisions, the applicant shall have gained, in
a turbine-powered airplane certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at
least two pilots, or in a flight simulation training device approved for that
purpose by the Licensing Authority the experience necessary to achieve the
advanced level of competency defined listed in Subpart 2.3.3.5.1 (c) and (d)
above.
privileges of the holder of an MPL shall be:
(1) (i) to exercise all the privileges of the holder of a private pilot license in the
appropriate airplane category provided the requirements have been met;

2.3-21
PCAR PART 2
(ii) to exercise the privileges of the instrument rating in a multi-crew operation; and
(iii) To act as co-pilot in an airplane required to be operated with a co-pilot.
(2) Before exercising the privileges of the instrument rating in a single pilot operation,
the license holder shall have demonstrated an ability to act as pilot-in-command in
a single pilot operation exercised solely by reference to instruments.
(3) Before exercising the privileges of a commercial pilot license in a single pilot
operation, the license holder shall have:
(i) completed 70 hours, either as pilot-in-command, or made up by not less than
10 hours as pilot-in-command and the necessary additional flight time as pilot
in-command under supervision;
(ii) meet the requirements for the commercial pilot license.
(4) Act as second-in-command/co-pilot in commercial air transportation in airplanes
required to be operated with a co-pilot by the type certificate of the aircraft or the
regulations under which the aircraft will be operated; and
(5) When the holder of an airline transport pilot license in the airplane category has
only previously held a MPL, the privileges of the license shall be limited to multi-
crew operations unless the holder has met the requirements established. Any
limitation of privileges shall be endorsed on the license.
period of the license is five (5) year. For renewal of the license see Subpart 2.2.3.
2.3.3.6 INSTRUMENT RATING - AIRPLANE

(a) General. The holder of a pilot license shall not act either as pilot-in-command or as
copilot of an aircraft under instrument flight rules (IFR) unless such holder has received
proper Authorization from the Authority. Proper Authorization shall comprise an
instrument rating appropriate to the aircraft category.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an IR (A) shall:
subjects
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to flight under IFR: related air traffic
services practices and procedures;
(A) use, limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for
the control and navigation of airplanes under IFR and in instrument
meteorological conditions; use and limitations of autopilot;
(B) compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic instruments,
operational limits and precession effects; practices and procedures in the
event of malfunctions of various flight instruments;
(iii) Flight performance and planning
(A) pre-flight preparations and checks appropriate to flight under IFR;
(B) operational flight planning; preparation and filing of air traffic services flight
plans under IFR; altimeter setting procedures;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to instrument flight in
airplanes;

2.3-22
PCAR PART 2
(v) Meteorology:
(A) application of aeronautical meteorology; interpretation and use of reports,
charts and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for
obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry;
(B) causes, recognition and effects of engine and airframe icing; frontal zone
(vi) Navigation:
(A) practical air navigation using radio navigation aids;
(B) use accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure,
navigation aids;
(vii) Operation procedures
(A) interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP, NOTAM,
aeronautical codes and abbreviations, and instrument procedure charts for
departure, en-route; descent and approach;
flight under IFR
(viii) Radiotelephony:
(A) radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as applied to aircraft
operations under IFR, action to be taken in case of communication failure;
(B) as listed in IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix A.
who:
(3) pass the required knowledge test on the knowledge subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.6
Appendix A.
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for an IR (A) shall hold at least a PPL (A).
(2) The applicant shall have completed not less than:
(i) 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in
categories acceptable to the Authority, of which not less than 10 hours shall be
in airplanes; and
(ii) 40 hours of instrument time in airplanes or helicopters of which not more than
20 hours, or 30 hours where a flight simulator is used, may be instrument
ground time. The ground time shall be under the supervision of an authorized
instructor.
(1) The applicant for an IR (A) shall have not less than 10 hours of the instrument flight
time required in (c)(2)(ii) while receiving and logging dual instruction in airplanes
from an authorized flight instructor, on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.6Appendix B.
the following areas to the level of performance required for the holder of an
instrument rating:

2.3-23
PCAR PART 2
(i) pre-flight procedures, including the use of the flight manual or equivalent
document, and appropriate air traffic services documents in the preparation of
an IFR flight plan;
(ii) pre-flight inspection, use of checklists, taxiing and pre-take-off checks;
(iii) procedures and maneuvers for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions covering at least:
(iv) in flight maneuvers and particular flight characteristics.
(3) If the privileges of the instrument rating are to be exercised on multi-engine
airplanes, the applicant shall have received dual instrument flight instruction in
such an airplane from an authorized flight instructor. The instructor shall ensure
that the applicant has operational experience in the operation of the airplane solely
by reference to instruments with one engine inoperative or simulated inoperative.
(e) Skill. The applicant for an IR (A) shall:
appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an IR (A), and to:
outcome of a procedure or maneuver is never seriously in doubt,
(vi) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures, and
(3) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to operate multi-engine
airplanes solely by reference to instruments with one engine inoperative, or
simulated inoperative, described in IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B, if the privileges of the
instrument rating are to be exercised on such airplanes.
(f) Medical fitness. Applicants who hold a PPL shall have established their hearing acuity
on the basis of compliance with the hearing requirements for the issue of a Class
1Medical Certificate.
privileges of the holder of an IR(A) shall be to pilot airplanes under IFR.

2.3-24
PCAR PART 2
(1) Before exercising the privileges on multi-engine airplanes the holder of the rating
shall have complied with the requirements of (e) (3).
period of an IR (A) is 5 years.
(i) Renewal:
(1) For the renewal of a single-engine instrument rating the applicant shall within the
preceding 12 calendar months, complete proficiency check on the subjects listed
in IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B.
(2) For the renewal of a multi-engine instrument rating the applicant shall within the
preceding 12 calendar months, complete proficiency check on the subjects listed
before or the calendar month after the month in which it is due; the pilot is
(j) Re-issue. If the instrument rating has been expired the applicant shall:
(2) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B.
2.3.3.7 PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE - HELICOPTER

(a) Age. The applicant for a PPL (H) shall be not less than 17 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an PPL(H) shall
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a PPL (H); rules of the
(A) principles of operation of helicopter powerplants, transmission
(powertrains),systems and instruments;
(B) operating limitations of helicopters and powerplants: relevant operational
information from the flight manual;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on flight characteristics; mass and
balance calculations;
data;
(C) pre-flight and en-route flight planning appropriate to private operation
sunder VFR; preparation and filing of air traffic services flight plans;
appropriate air traffic services procedures; position reporting procedures;
altimeter setting procedures; operations in areas of high-density traffic;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the PPL(H)
procedures for obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry

2.3-25
PCAR PART 2
(vi) Navigation: practical aspects of air navigation and dead reckoning techniques;
use of aeronautical charts:
be taken to avoid hazardous weather and wake turbulence; settling with
power, ground resonance, rollover and other operating hazards;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to helicopters;
(A) radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as applied to VFR operations;
action to be taken in case of communication failure;
who:
(i) conducted the training on the knowledge subjects
(3) pass the required knowledge test on the knowledge areas listed in IS 2.3.3.6
Appendix A
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for a PPL (H) shall have completed not less than 40 hours of flight
time as pilot of airplanes, a total of 5 hours may have been completed in a flight
simulator or flight procedures trainer.
(2) The applicant shall have completed in helicopter not less than 10 hours of solo
flight time under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor, including 5hours
of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight totaling not
less than 180 km (100 nm) in the course of which landings at two different points
shall be made.
(3) The holder of pilot licenses in other categories may be credited with 10 hours of
the total flight time as pilot-in-command towards a PPL (H).
(1) The applicant for a PPL(H) shall receive and log not less than 20 hours of dual
instruction from an authorized instructor on the subjects listed in IS
2.3.3.6Appendix B. These 20 hours may include 5 hours completed in a flight
simulator or flight procedures trainer. The 20 hours of dual instruction shall include
at least 5hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight
totaling not less than 180 km (100 NM) in the course of which landings at two
different points shall be made.
the following areas to the level of performance required for the private pilot:
(i) pre-flight operations. including mass and balance determination, helicopter
procedures;
(iii) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;

2.3-26
PCAR PART 2
(iv) recovery at the incipient stage from settling with power; recovery techniques
from low-rotor rpm within the normal range of engine rpm; ground maneuvering
and run-ups; hovering; take-offs and landings — normal, out of wind and
sloping ground;
(v) take-offs and landings with minimum necessary power; maximum performance
take-off and landing techniques; restricted site operations; quick stops;
(vi) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and, where
available, radio navigation aids including a flight of at least one hour;
(vii) emergency operations, including simulated helicopter equipment malfunctions;
auto-rotative approach and landing; and
(viii) operations to, from and transmitting controlled aerodromes, compliance with
air traffic services procedures, radiotelephony procedures and phraseology
(ix) as further specified in IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B.
(3) If the privileges of the PPL (H) are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have
received 4 hours dual instruction in helicopters in night flying, including takeoffs,
landings and 1 hour of navigation.
(e) Skill. The applicant for a PPL (H) shall:
(2) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform as pilot-in command
of a helicopter, the areas of operation described in IS 2.3.3.6 Appendix B, with a
PPL(A), and to
(i) operate the helicopter within its limitations;
(v) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in a manner such that the
successful outcome of a procedure or maneuver is never seriously in doubt.
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for a PPL(H) shall hold a current Class 2 Medical
Certificate.
privileges of the holder of a PPL(H) shall be to act, but not for remuneration, as pilot
in-command or co-pilot of any helicopter engaged in non-revenue flights.
period of the license is 5 years. For renewal of the license see 2.2.3.
2.3.3.8 COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE - HELICOPTER

(a) Age. The applicant for a CPL(H) shall be not less than 18 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an CPL(H) shall:
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a CPL (H); rules of the

2.3-27
PCAR PART 2
(ii) Aircraft general knowledge

(A) principles of operation and functioning of helicopter powerplants,
transmission (power-trains) systems and instruments;
(B) operating limitations of appropriate helicopters and powerplants; relevant
operational information from the flight manual;
(C) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate
helicopters;
(D) maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of
appropriate helicopters;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution, including external loads, on
helicopter handling, flight characteristics and performance; mass and
data;
preparation and filing of air traffic services flight plans; appropriate air traffic
services procedures;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the CPL (H);
(v) Meteorology:
(A) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports,
charts and forecasts; use of, and procedures for obtaining, meteorological
information, pre-flight and in-flight; altimetry;
elements having an effect upon aviation; the moment of pressure systems,
weather phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing conditions,
(vi) Navigation: air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts, instruments
and navigation aids; understanding of the principles and characteristics of
appropriate navigation systems; operation of air borne equipment.
(vii) Operation procedures
(B) appropriate precautionary and emergency procedures; settling with power,
ground resonance, roll-over and other operating hazards;
(C) operational procedures for carriage of freight, including external loads;
potential hazards associated with dangerous goods;
helicopters;
operations; action to be taken in case of communication failure; and

2.3-28
PCAR PART 2

who:
Appendix A.
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for a CPL(H) license shall have completed not less than 150 hours
of flight time, or 100 hours if completed during an integrated course of approved
training provided for in an Aviation Training Organization Part 3, as a pilot of
helicopters, of which 10 hours may have been completed in a flight simulator or
flight procedures trainer.
(2) The applicant shall have completed in helicopters not less than:
(i) 35 hours as pilot-in-command;
(ii) 10 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross-
country flight in the course of which full-stop landings at two different points
shall be made;
(iii) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be
instrument ground time;
(iv) if the privileges of the license are to be exercised at night, 5 hours of night flight
time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot-in-command.
(3) The holder of a pilot license in the helicopter category may be credited towards the
150 hours of flight time as follows:
(i) 20 hours as pilot-in-command holding a PPL(A) in airplanes; or
(ii) 50 hours as pilot-in-command holding a CPL(A) in airplanes.
(4) The applicant for a CPL (H) shall hold a PPL(H) under this Part.
(1) The applicant for a CPL (H) shall have received and log not less than 30 hours of
dual instruction in helicopters from an authorized flight instructor under Part 3 on
the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B.
the following areas to the level of performance required for the commercial pilot:
(i) Pre-flight operations. including mass and balance determination, helicopter
procedures;
(iii) control of the helicopter by external visual reference;
(iv) recovery at the incipient stage from settling with power; recovery techniques
from low-rotor rpm within the normal range of engine rpm;
(v) ground maneuvering and run-ups; hovering; take-offs and landings - normal,
out of wind and sloping ground; steep approaches;

2.3-29
PCAR PART 2
(vi) take-offs and landings with minimum necessary power; maximum performance
take-off and landing techniques; restricted site operations; quick stops;
(vii) hovering out of ground effect; operations with external load, if applicable; flight
at high altitude;
(viii) basic flight maneuvers and recovery from unusual attitudes by
reference solely to basic flight instruments;
(ix) cross-country flying using visual reference, dead reckoning and radio
navigation aids; diversion procedures
(x) abnormal and emergency procedures. including simulated helicopter
equipment malfunctions; auto-rotative approach and landing; and
(xi) operations to, from and transmitting controlled aerodromes, compliance with
air traffic services procedures, radiotelephony procedures and phraseology
(xii) as further specified in IS 2.3.3.8 Appendix B.
(3) If the privileges of the license are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have
received dual instruction in helicopters in night flying, including take-offs, landings
and navigation.
(e) Skill. The applicant for a CPL (H) shall:
(2) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform as pilot-in command
of an helicopter, the areas of operation described in IS 2.3.3.7Appendix B, with a
CPL(H), and to
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for a CPL(H) shall hold a current Class 1 Medical
Certificate.
privileges of the holder of a CPL(H) shall be:
(1) to exercise all the privileges of the holder of a PPL(H);
(2) to act as pilot-in-command in any helicopter engaged in operations other than
commercial air transportation;
(3) to act as pilot-in-command in commercial air transportation in any helicopter
certificated for single-pilot operation; and
(4) to act as co-pilot in commercial air transportation in helicopters required to be
operated with a copilot.

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PCAR PART 2
2.3.3.9 AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENSE - HELICOPTER

(a) Age. The applicant for an ATPL (H) shall be not less than 21 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an ATPL(H) shall:
subjects
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of an ATPL(H); rules of the
(A) general characteristics and limitations of electrical, hydraulic and other
helicopter systems; flight control systems, including autopilot and stability
augmentation;
(B) principles of operation, handling procedures and operating limitations of
helicopter powerplants; transmission (power-trains); effects of atmospheric
conditions on helicopter performance; relevant operational information from
the flight manual;
(C) operating procedures and limitations of appropriate helicopters; effects of
atmospheric conditions on helicopter performance; relevant operational
information from the flight manual:
(D) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate
helicopters flight instruments; compasses, turning and acceleration errors;
gyroscopic instruments, operational limits and precession effects; practices
and procedures in the event of malfunctions of various flight instruments;
(E) maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of
appropriate helicopters;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution, including external loads, on
helicopter handling, flight characteristics and performance; mass and
data, including procedures for cruise control;
altimeter setting procedures
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the ATPL(H)
(v) Meteorology:
(A) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports. charts
and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for
obtaining, meteorological information, pre-flight and in-flight; altimetry;
elements having an effect upon aviation; the moment of pressure systems;
(C) causes, recognition and effects of engine, airframe and rotor icing;
(vi) Navigation:

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PCAR PART 2
(A) Air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts. radio navigation
long-range flights;
(B) use. limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for
the control and navigation of helicopters;
(C) use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems; identification of radio
navigation aids:
(D) principles and characteristics of self-contained and external-referenced
(A) Interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP.
NOTAM, aeronautical codes and abbreviations;
(B) precautionary and emergency procedures; settling with power. Ground
resonance, retreating blade stall. dynamic roll-over and other operating
hazards; safety practices associated with flight under VFR;
(C) operational procedures for carriage of freight, including external load, and
dangerous goods;
helicopters;
operations; action to be taken in case of communication failure
who:
Appendix A.
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for an ATPL (H) shall have completed not less than 1000 hours of
flight time as a pilot of helicopters of which a maximum of 100 hours may have
been completed in a flight simulator. The applicant shall have completed in
helicopters not less than:
(i) 250 hours. either as pilot-in-command, or made up by not less than 100 hours
as pilot-in-command and the necessary additional flight time as co-pilot
performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command, the duties and
functions of a pilot-in-command; provided that the method of supervision
employed is acceptable to the Authority;
(ii) 200 hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than 100 hours shall
be as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the
pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command, provided that
the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the Authority;

2.3-32
PCAR PART 2
(iii) 30 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may be
instrument ground time; and
(iv) 50 hours of night flight as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot.
(2) Holders of a CPL (A) will be credited with 50% of their airplane flight time as pilot
in- command towards the flight time required in (1).
(3) The applicant shall have completed a CRM course on the subjects listed in
IS2.3.2.4 Appendix B.
(4) The applicant for an ATPL (H) shall be the holder of a CPL (H) issued under this
Part.
(d) Flight Instruction. The applicant for an ATPL (H) shall have received the dual flight
instruction required for the issue of the CPL (H).
(e) Skill. The applicant for a ATPL (H) shall:
(2) have demonstrated by passing a skill test the ability to perform, as pilot-in
command of a helicopter required to be operated with a co-pilot, the following
procedures and maneuvers:
(i) pre-flight procedures, including the preparation of the operational flight plan
and filing of the air traffic services flight plan;
(ii) normal flight procedures and maneuvers during all phases of flight;
(iii) if the IR is going to be part of the ATPL(H): procedures and maneuvers for IFR
operations under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions, including
simulated engine failure, and covering at least the following:
(iv) abnormal and emergency procedures and maneuvers related to failures and
malfunctions of equipment. such as powerplant, systems and airframe; and
(v) procedures for crew incapacitation and crew coordination, including allocation
of pilot tasks, crew cooperation and use of checklists.
appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an ATPL(H), and to:
(iv) apply aeronautical knowledge;

2.3-33
PCAR PART 2
successful outcome of a procedure or maneuver is never seriously in doubt;
(vi) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for an ATPL (H) shall hold a current Class 1 Medical
Certificate, except for:
(1) Check Airman Qualifications for Flight Simulation Training Device as provided for
under 8.10.1.39 (b) (1); and
(2) Check Airmen who have reached their 65 th birthday or who do not have an
appropriate medical certificate as provided for under 8.10.1.39 (d) and 8.10.1.1 (c).
privileges of the holder of an ATPL (H) shall be:
(1) to exercise all the privileges of the holder of a PPL (H) and CPL (H); and
(2) to act as pilot-in-command and co-pilot in helicopters in air transportation.
2.3.3.10 INSTRUMENT RATING – HELICOPTER

(a) General. The holder of a pilot license shall not act either as pilot-in-command or as
copilot of an aircraft under instrument flight rules (IFR) unless such holder has received
proper Authorization from the Authority. Proper Authorization shall comprise an
instrument rating appropriate to the aircraft category.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an IR (H) shall:
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to flight under IFR; related air traffic
services practices and procedures;
(A) use, limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for
the control and navigation of helicopters under IFR and in instrument
meteorological conditions; use and limitations of autopilot;
(B) compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic instruments
operational limits and precession effects; practices and procedures in the
event of malfunctions of various flight instruments;
(A) pre-flight preparations and checks appropriate to flight under IFR;
(B) operational flight planning; preparation and filing of air traffic services flight
plans under IFR; altimeter setting procedures;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to instrument flight in
helicopters;
(v) Meteorology:

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PCAR PART 2
(A) application of aeronautical meteorology; interpretation and use of reports,

charts and forecasts; codes and abbreviations: use of, and procedures for
obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry;
(B) causes, recognition and effects of engine and airframe icing; frontal zone
(vi) Navigation:
(A) practical air navigation using radio navigation aids,
(B) use; accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure,
navigation aids;
(A) interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP,
NOTAM, aeronautical codes and abbreviations, and instrument procedure
charts for departure, en-route, descent and approach;
flight under IFR:
(viii) Radiotelephony:
(A) radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as applied to aircraft
operations under IFR; action to be taken in case of communication failure;
who:
Appendix A.
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for an IR (H) shall hold a PPL (H), a CPL (H) or an ATPL (H).
(2) The applicant shall have completed not less than:
(i) 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in
categories acceptable to the Authority, of which not less than 10 hours shall be
in helicopters; and
(ii) 40 hours of instrument time in helicopters or airplanes of which not more than
20 hours, or 30 hours where a flight simulator is used, may be instrument
ground time. The ground time shall be under the supervision of an authorized
instructor.
(1) The applicant for an IR(H) shall have gained not less than 10 hours of the
instrument flight time required in (c)(2)(ii) while receiving and logging dual
instruction in helicopters from an authorized flight instructor, on the subjects listed
the following areas to the level of performance required for the holder of an
instrument rating:

2.3-35
PCAR PART 2
an IFR flight plan;
(ii) pre-flight inspection, use of checklists, taxiing and pre-take-off checks;
(iii) procedures and maneuvers for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and
(A) transition to instrument flight on take-off:
(C) en-route IFR procedures and navigation:
(D) holding procedures:
(F) missed approach procedures:
(G) landings from instrument approaches:
(iv) in flight maneuvers and particular flight characteristics.
(3) If the privileges of the instrument rating are to be exercised on multi-engine
helicopters, the applicant shall have received dual instrument flight instruction in
such an helicopter from an authorized flight instructor. The instructor shall ensure
that the applicant has operational experience in the operation of the helicopter
solely by reference to instruments with one engine inoperative or simulated in
operative.
(e) Skill. The applicant for an IR(H) shall:
operation described in IS: 2.3.3.5 Appendix B, with a degree of competency
appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an IR(H), and to:
(i) operate the helicopter within its limitations:
(ii) complete all maneuvers with smoothness and accuracy:
(f) Medical fitness. Applicants who hold a PPL shall have established their hearing acuity
on the basis of compliance with the hearing requirements for the issue of a Class 1
Medical Certificate.
privileges of the holder of an IR(H) shall be to pilot helicopters under IFR.
period of the instrument rating is 5 years.
(i) Renewal.
(1) For the renewal of an IR(H) the applicant shall within the preceding 12 calendar
months, complete a proficiency check on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.5 Appendix
B.

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PCAR PART 2
(j) Re-issue. If the instrument rating has been expired the applicant shall:
(2) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.5 Appendix B.
2.3.3.11 INSTRUCTOR RATINGS - AIRPLANE AND HELICOPTER

(a) General. The applicant for an instructor rating or Authorization - airplane or helicopter,
shall
(1) hold at least the license and rating for which instruction is being given, in the
appropriate category; and
(2) hold the license and rating necessary to act as the pilot-in-command of the aircraft
on which the instruction is given; or
(3) hold a specific Authorization granted by the Authority.
(4) for airplane instructor ratings, have completed on-airplane recovery training as
specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
(5) for Flight Instructor (FI), have completed on-airplane upset prevention and
recovery training as specified in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
(b) Flight Instructors
(1) Age. The applicant for a flight instructor rating (FI) shall be not less than 18 years
of age.
(2) Knowledge:
(i) The applicant for an Fl rating shall have met the knowledge requirements for
the issue of a CPL as specified in Subparts 2.3.3.3 and 2.3.3.7, as applicable.
(ii) In addition, the applicant for an FI rating shall receive and log ground training
from an authorized instructor on the following subjects:
(A) techniques of applied instruction;
(B) assessment of student performance in those subjects in which ground
instruction is given;
(C) the learning process;
(D) elements of effective teaching;
(E) student evaluation and testing, training philosophies;
(F) training program development;
(G) lesson planning
(H) classroom instructional techniques;
(I) use of training aids;
(J) analysis and correction of student errors;
(K) human performance relevant to flight instruction; and

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PCAR PART 2
(L) hazards involved in simulating system failures and malfunctions in the

aircraft
(iii) Have received an endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorized
instructor who:
(A) conducted the training on the knowledge subjects;
(B) certifies that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test; and
(iv) pass the required knowledge test on the knowledge subjects listed in (2).
(A) This test may be combined with the test under (5).
(v) The holder of an FI rating, issued under this Part, applying for an additional
Flatting is exempted from this paragraph (2).
(3) Experience. The applicant for an Fl rating shall have completed not less than 200
hours of flight time on single-pilot aircraft of the appropriate category.
(4) Flight Instruction. The applicant for an FI rating shall, under the supervision of an
instructor accepted by the Authority for that purpose
(i) have received instruction in flight instructional techniques including
demonstration, student practices, recognition and correction of common
student errors; and
(ii) have practiced instructional techniques in those flight maneuvers and
procedures in which it is intended to provide flight instruction listed in IS:
2.3.3.11 Appendix A or B, as applicable.
(5) Skill. The applicant for an FI rating shall:
the person is prepared for the required skill test; and
(ii) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.11 Appendix A or
B, as applicable.
(c) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part,
(1) the privileges for the holder of an Fl rating shall be:
(i) to supervise solo flights by student pilots;
(ii) to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL;
(iii) to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a CPL if he or she has completed
500 hrs of flight time and 200 hours of flight instruction;
(iv) to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a single-engine class rating if he or
she has 15 hrs on the applicable type in the preceding 12 months;
(v) to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a multi-engine class rating if he or
she has 500 hrs flight time and 15 hours on the applicable type in the preceding
12 months; and
(vi) to carry out flight instruction for the issue of an instructor rating, if he or she has
completed 500 hours of instruction in the appropriate category.
(vii) to carry out flight instruction for the on-airplane upset recovery as specified in
IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C, if he or she completed instructor training at an ATO for
on-airplane upset recovery instruction.
(2) the privileges of the holder of a Fl instrument rating shall be to carry out flight
instruction for the issue of an IR, if he or she has completed 200 hours flight in

2.3-38
PCAR PART 2
accordance with instrument flight rules and passed the test on the subjects listed
(d) Instructor rating for additional type ratings:
(1) Subject to compliance with this Subpart, pilots having experience in accordance
with paragraph (3) below, may apply for an instructors rating for additional type
ratings.
(2) Knowledge.
(i) The applicant for an instructor rating for additional type ratings shall receive
and log ground training from an authorized instructor on the following subjects:
(A) techniques of applied instruction;
(B) assessment of student performance in those subjects in which ground
instruction is given;
(C) the learning process;
(D) elements of effective teaching;
(E) student evaluation and testing, training philosophies;
(F) training program development;
(G) lesson planning;
(H) classroom instructional techniques;
(I) use of training aids;
(J) analysis and correction of student errors;
(K) human performance relevant to flight instruction; and
(L) hazards involved in simulating system failures and malfunctions in the
aircraft;
(M) and upset prevention and recovery elements from IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
(ii) shall have received an endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorized
instructor who
(A) conducted the training on the knowledge subjects;
(iii) pass the required knowledge test on the subjects listed in (2) (i).
(A) The test may be combined with the test under (5).
(iv) The holder of an instructor rating for additional type ratings is exempted from
this paragraph.
(3) Experience:
(i) The applicant for an instructor rating for additional type ratings shall have
completed:
(A) for single-pilot type rating instruction 500 hours of flight time as pilot-in
command
(B) for multi-pilot type rating instruction 500 hours of flight time as pilot-in
command on multi-pilot aircraft of the appropriate category including
30route sectors in the preceding 12 months of which 15 sectors may have
been completed in a flight simulator.

2.3-39
PCAR PART 2
(4) Flight Instruction: The applicant for an instructor rating for additional type ratings
shall, under the supervision of an instructor accepted by the Authority for that
purpose:
(i) have received instruction in instructional techniques including demonstration,
student practices, recognition and correction of common student errors; and
(ii) have practiced instructional techniques in those flight maneuvers and
procedures in which it is intended to provide instruction on the subjects listed
in Appendix C for type rating instructor.
(5) Skill. The applicant shall have demonstrated in a skill test, in the category and in
type of aircraft for which instructor privileges are sought, the ability to instruct in
those areas in which instruction is to be given, including pre-flight, post-flight and
ground instruction as appropriate on the subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.11 Appendix C
for type rating instructor.
(6) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the holder of a instructor rating are to carry out flight instruction for the
issue of an additional type rating including CRM training in the appropriate
category.
(e) Instructor Authorization for synthetic flight training.
(1) Notwithstanding Subpart 2.3.3.11 (a), former holders of professional pilot licenses,
having instructional experience can apply for an Authorization to provide flight
instruction in a synthetic flight trainer, provided the applicant has at least two (2)
years experience as instructor in synthetic flight trainers.
(2) Skill. The applicant shall have demonstrated in a skill test, in the category and in
the class or type of aircraft for which instructor Authorization privileges are sought,
the ability to instruct in those areas in which ground instruction is to be given.
(3) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the holder of an Authorization are to carry out synthetic flight training
instruction for the issue of a class or type rating in the appropriate category.
period of instructor ratings and Authorization is five (5) years.
(g) Renewal.
(1) For the renewal of an Fl rating the applicant shall:
(i) have conducted at least 30 hours of flight instruction within the 12 months
preceding the expiry date; or
(ii) within the preceding 24 calendar months complete a proficiency check on the
subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.11 Appendix A or B, as applicable.
(2) For the renewal of an instructor rating for additional class ratings the applicant shall:
(i) have conducted at least 30 hours of flight instruction within the 12 months
preceding the expiry date; or
subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.11 Appendix A.
(3) For the renewal of an instructor rating for additional type ratings the applicant shall:
(i) have conducted one simulator session of at least 3 hours or one air exercise of
at least 1 hour of a type rating course in the preceding 12 months; and

2.3-40
PCAR PART 2
subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.11 Appendix C.
(4) For the renewal of an instructor Authorization for synthetic flight training the
applicant shall:
(i) have conducted one simulator session of at least 3 hours of a type rating course
in the preceding 12 months.
(5) If an instructor takes the proficiency check required in this section in the calendar
month before or the calendar month after the month in which it is due, the instructor
is considered to have taken it in the month in which it was due for the purpose of
computing when the next proficiency check is due
(h) Re-issue. If the instructor rating or Authorization has been expired the applicant shall:
(2) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS 2.3.3.11 Appendix A, B or C,
as applicable.
2.3.3.12 EXAMINERS
(a) General. Examiners shall hold at least the license and the rating for which they are
authorized to conduct skill tests or proficiency checks and shall hold the privilege to
instruct for this license or rating.
(b) Experience. The applicant for the examiner's Authorization shall have 1,000 hours of
flight time and 200 hours of flight instruction.
(c) Training. The ground, flight and simulator training for Examiners shall include the
subjects listed in IS: 2.3.3.12.
(d) Skill test. The applicant for an examiner Authorization shall have conducted at least
one skill test in the role of an examiner for which Authorization is sought, including
briefing, conduct of the skill test, assessment of the applicant to whom the skill test is
given, debriefing and recording/documentation. This skill test shall be supervised by
an inspector of the Authority or by a senior examiner specifically authorized by the
Authority for this purpose.
(e) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the examiner's Authorization are to conduct skill tests and proficiency
checks for a license and rating(s).
period of an examiner's Authorization is five (5) years. Re-Authorization will be at the
discretion of the Authority.
2.3.3.13 GLIDER PILOT LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for a glider pilot license shall be not less than 16 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a glider pilot license shall:
(1) receive training on the knowledge subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a glider pilot license;
rules of the air; appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures;

2.3-41
PCAR PART 2
(A) principles of operation of glider systems and instruments;

(B) operating limitations of gliders; relevant operational information from the
flight manual or other appropriate document;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on flight characteristics; mass and
balance considerations:
(B) use and practical application of launching, landing and other performance
data;
appropriate air traffic services procedures; altimeter setting procedures;
operations in areas of high-density traffic:
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the glider pilot;
procedures for obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry;
(vi) Navigation: practical aspects of air navigation and dead-reckoning techniques,
use of aeronautical charts;
(B) different launch methods and associated procedures;
(C) appropriate precautionary and emergency procedures, including action to
be taken to avoid hazardous weather and wake turbulence and other
operating hazards;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to gliders
(2) pass the required knowledge test.
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant shall have completed not less than 6 hours of flight time as a pilot of
gliders including 2 hours' solo flight time during which not less than 20 launches
and landings have been performed.
(2) The applicant for a glider pilot license shall have gained, under appropriate
supervision, Operational experience in a glider in at least the following areas:
(i) pre-flight operations, including glider assembly and inspection;
(ii) techniques and procedures for the launching method used, including
appropriate airspeed limitations, emergency procedures and signals used;
(iii) traffic pattern operations, collision avoidance precautions and procedures;
(iv) control of the glider by external visual reference;
(v) flight throughout the flight envelope;
(vi) recognition of, and recovery from, incipient and full stalls and spiral dives;
(vii) normal and cross-wind launches, approaches and landings;
(viii) cross-country flying using visual reference and dead reckoning;
(ix) emergency procedures.

2.3-42
PCAR PART 2
(3) The holder of a pilot license in the airplane category may be credited with three (3)
hours towards the six (6) hours of flight time required for the glider license.
(d) Skill. The applicant for a glider pilot license shall have demonstrated by passing the
required skill test the ability to perform as pilot-in-command of a glider, the procedures
and maneuvers described in (c) with a degree of competency appropriate to the
privileges granted to the holder of a glider pilot license, and to:
(1) operate the glider within its limitations;
(2) complete all maneuvers with smoothness and accuracy;
(3) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(4) apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(5) Maintain control of the glider at all times in a manner such that the successful
(e) Medical fitness. The applicant of a glider pilot license shall holder a current Class 2
Medical Certificate.
(f) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the holder of a glider pilot license shall be to act as pilot-in-command of
any glider provided that the license holder has operational experience in the launching
method used.
(g) Validity of the license. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this
Part, the validity period of the license is 5 years. For renewal of the license see Subpart
2.2.3.
2.3.3.14 FREE BALLOON PILOT LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for a free balloon pilot license shall be not less than 16 years of
age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a free balloon pilot license shall:
(1) receive training on the following knowledge subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a free balloon pilot
license; rules of the air; appropriate air traffic services practices and
procedures;
(A) principles of operation of free balloon systems and instruments;
(B) operating limitations of free balloons; relevant operational information from
the flight manual or other appropriate document;
(C) physical properties and practical application of gases used in free balloons;
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on flight characteristics; mass
calculations;
(B) use and practical application of launching, landing and other performance
data. including the effect of temperature;
appropriate air traffic services procedures; altimeter setting procedures;
operations in areas of high-density traffic;

2.3-43
PCAR PART 2
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the free balloon pilot;
(v) Meteorology: application of elementary aeronautical meteorology; use of. And
procedures for obtaining, meteorological information; altimetry;
(vi) Navigation: practical aspects of air navigation and dead-reckoning techniques;
use of aeronautical charts;
be taken to avoid hazardous weather and wake turbulence and other
operating hazards;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to gliders
(ix) Radiotelephony: the applicant should have demonstrated a level of knowledge
appropriate to the privileges to be granted to the holder of a free balloon pilot
license, in radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as appropriate to VFR
operations and on action to be taken in case of communication failure;
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant shall have completed not less than 16 hours of flight time as a pilot
of free balloons including at least 8 launches and ascents of which one must be
solo.
(2) The applicant for a free balloon pilot license shall have gained in free balloons
under appropriate supervision operational experience.
(3) If the privileges of the license are to be exercised at night, the applicant shall have
gained, under appropriate supervision, operational experience in free balloons in
night flying.
(d) Skill. The applicant for a free balloon pilot license shall have demonstrated by passing
the required skill test the ability to perform as pilot-in-command of a free balloon, the
procedures and maneuvers described in (c) with a degree of competency appropriate
to the privileges granted to the holder of a free balloon pilot license, and to:
(1) operate the free balloon within its limitations;
(2) complete all maneuvers with smoothness and accuracy;
(4) apply aeronautical knowledge; and
(5) Maintain control of the free balloon at all times in a manner such that the successful
(e) Medical fitness. The applicant for a free balloon pilot license shall hold a current Class
2 Medical Certificate.
(f) Privileges.
(1) Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the privileges of
the holder of a free balloon pilot license shall be to act as a pilot-in-command of
any free balloon provided that the license holder has operational experience in hot
air or gas balloons, as appropriate.

2.3-44
PCAR PART 2
(2) Before exercising the privileges at night, the license holder shall have complied
with the requirements as specified in (c) (3).
(g) Validity of the license. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this
Part, the validity period of the license is 5 years. For renewal of the license see Subpart
2.2.3.

2.3-45
PCAR PART 2

2.3-46
PCAR PART 2
2.4 FLIGHT ENGINEER LICENSE AND RATINGS

2.4.1 APPLICABILITY
This section prescribes the requirements for the issue, renewal and re-issue of a flight
engineers license and ratings.
2.4.2 GENERAL
(a) A person shall not act as a flight engineer of an aircraft registered in Republic of the
Philippines unless a valid license or a validation certificate is held showing compliance
with the specifications of this Part and appropriate to the duties to be performed by that
person.
(b) For the purpose of training, testing or specific special purpose non-revenue, non
passenger carrying flights, special Authorization may be provided in writing to the
license holder by the Authority in place of issuing the class or type rating in accordance
with this Part. This Authorization will be limited in validity to the time needed to
complete the specific flight.
(c) An applicant shall, before being issued with a flight engineer license, meet such
requirements in respect of age, knowledge, experience, skill, medical fitness and
language proficiency as are specified for that license or rating.
(d) An applicant shall for renewal or re-issue of a license, rating or Authorization meet the
2.4.3 TYPE RATING - FLIGHT ENGINEER

(a) Knowledge. The applicant for a type rating shall have completed the theoretical
knowledge instruction and demonstrated by passing a knowledge test the knowledge
subjects as listed in IS: 2.3.2.4 Appendix A.
(b) Experience. The applicant for a type rating shall:
(1) have at least 100 hours flight time in the performance of the duties of a flight
engineer; and
(2) have completed a CRM course as listed in IS: 2.3.2.4 Appendix B.
(c) Flight instruction. The applicant for a type rating shall have completed the flight
instruction for the type rating on the subjects listed in IS: 2.4.3.
(d) Skill. The applicant for a type rating shall:
(2) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS: 2.4.3.
privileges of the holder of a type rating are to act as flight engineer on the type of
aircraft specified in the rating.
period of a type rating is 5 years.
(g) Renewal. For the renewal of a type rating the flight engineer shall:
(1) within the preceding 12 calendar months complete a proficiency check on the
subjects as listed in IS: 2.4.3 and

2.4-1
PCAR PART 2
(2) Have completed 10 route sectors.

(3) If a flight engineer takes the proficiency check required in this section in the
calendar month before or the calendar month after the month in which it is due, the
flight engineer is considered to have taken it in the month in which it was due for
the purpose of computing when the next proficiency check is due.
(h) Re-issue. If a type rating has been expired the applicant shall:
(2) pass the required skill test on the subjects listed in IS: 2.4.3.
2.4.4 FLIGHT ENGINEER LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for a flight engineer license shall be not less than 18 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a flight engineer license shall:
subjects:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a flight engineer license;
rules and regulations governing the operation of civil aircraft pertinent to the
duties of a flight engineer;
(A) basic principles of powerplants; gas turbines and/or piston engines;
characteristics of fuels; fuel systems including fuel control; lubricants and
lubrication systems; afterburners and injection systems, function and
operation of engine ignition and starter systems;
(B) principles of operation; handling procedures and operating limitations of
aircraft powerplants; effects of atmospheric conditions on engine
performance;
(C) airframes; flight controls; structures; wheel assemblies; brakes and antiskid
units; corrosion and fatigue life; identification of structural damage and
defects;
(D) ice and rain protection systems;
(E) pressurization and air-conditioning systems; oxygen systems;
(F) hydraulic and pneumatic systems;
(G) basic electrical theory, electric systems (AC and DC); aircraft wiring
systems; bonding and screening;
(H) principles of operation of instruments, compasses, autopilots, radio
communication equipment, radio and radar navigation aids, flight
management systems, displays and avionics;
(I) limitations of appropriate aircraft;
(J) fire protection, detection, suppression and extinguishing systems;
(K) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate
aircraft;

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PCAR PART 2
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on aircraft handling, flight

(B) use and practical application of performance data including procedures for
cruise control:
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to the flight engineer;
(v) Operational procedures:
(A) principles of maintenance; procedures for the maintenance of
airworthiness; defect reporting; pre-flight inspections; precautionary
procedures for fuelling and use of external power; installed equipment and
cabin systems;
(B) normal, abnormal and emergency procedures;
(C) operational procedures for carriage of freight and dangerous goods;
(vi) Principles of flight: fundamentals of aerodynamics;
(vii) Radiotelephony: radiotelephony procedures and phraseology;
who:
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for a flight engineer license shall have completed under the
supervision of a person accepted by the Authority for that purpose, not less than
100 hours of flight time in the performance of the duties of a flight engineer, of
which 50 hours may have been completed in a flight simulator.
(2) The holder of a pilot license may be credited with 30 hours towards the 100 hours
of flight time.
(3) The applicant shall have operational experience in the performance of the duties
of a flight engineer, under the supervision of a flight engineer accepted by the
Authority for that purpose, in at least the following areas:
(i) Normal procedures:
(A) pre-flight inspections
(B) fuelling procedures, fuel management
(C) inspection of maintenance documents
(D) normal flight deck procedures during all phases of flight
(E) crew coordination and procedures in case of crew incapacitation
(F) defect reporting
(ii) Abnormal and alternate (standby) procedures:
(A) recognition of abnormal functioning of aircraft systems
(B) use of abnormal and alternate (standby) procedures
(iii) Emergency procedures:

2.4-3
PCAR PART 2
(A) recognition of emergency conditions

(B) use of appropriate emergency procedures as further specified in IS: 2.4.3.
(4) The applicant shall have completed a CRM course as listed in IS: 2.3.2.4 Appendix
B.
(d) Flight instruction. The applicant for a type rating shall have completed the flight
instruction for the type rating on the subjects as listed in IS: 2.4.3.
(e) Skill. The applicant for a flight engineer license shall:
(2) have demonstrated by passing the required skill test, the ability to perform as flight
engineer of an aircraft, the duties and procedures described in paragraph (c) (3)
above with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges granted to the
holder of a flight engineer license, and to
(i) use aircraft systems within the aircraft's capabilities and limitations;
(ii) exercise good judgment and airmanship;
(iii) apply aeronautical knowledge:
(iv) perform all the duties as part of an integrated crew with the successful outcome
never in doubt: and
(v) communicate effectively with the other flight crew members.
(f) Medical fitness. The applicant for a flight engineer license shall hold a current Class 1
Medical Certificate., except for:
for under 8.10.1.39 (b) (1); and
(ii) Check Airmen who have reached their 65 th birthday or who do not have an
(c).
privileges of the holder of a flight engineer license shall be to act as flight engineer of
any type of aircraft on which the holder has demonstrated a level of knowledge and
skill, on the basis of those requirements specified in Subpart 2.4.4 (b) and (d) which
are applicable to the safe operation of that type of aircraft.
period of the license is five (5) years. For renewal of the license see Subpart 2.2.3.

2.4-4
PCAR PART 2
2.5 FLIGHT NAVIGATOR LICENSE

2.5.1 APPLICABILITY
navigator license.
2.5.2 GENERAL
(a) An applicant shall, before being issued with a flight navigator license, meet such
requirements in respect of age, knowledge; experience, skill, medical fitness and
language proficiency as are specified for that license.
(b) An applicant shall for renewal or re-issue of a license, rating or Authorization meet the
requirements as are specified for that license.
2.5.3 FLIGHT NAVIGATOR LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant shall be not less than 18 years of age.
(b) Knowledge.
(1) The applicant for a flight navigator license shall receive and log ground training
from an authorized instructor on the following subjects:
(i) Air Law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a flight navigator license;
appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures;
(ii) Flight performance and planning
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on aircraft performance;
(B) use of take-off, landing and other performance data including procedures
for cruise control;
altimeter setting procedures;
(iii) Human performance: human performance relevant to the flight navigator;
(iv) Meteorology
(A) Interpretation and practical application of aeronautical meteorological
reports. charts and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and
procedures for obtaining, meteorological information; pre-flight and in flight;
altimetry;
elements having an effect upon aviation; the movement of pressure
systems; the structure of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of
significant weather phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing
conditions;
(v) Navigation
(A) dead-reckoning; pressure-pattern and celestial navigation procedures, the
use of aeronautical charts, radio navigation aids and area navigation
systems; specific navigation requirements for long-range flights;
(B) use; limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for
the navigation of the aircraft,

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PCAR PART 2
(C) use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure,

enroute and approach phases of flight; identification of radio navigation
aids;
(D) principles, characteristics and use of self-contained and external
referenced navigation systems; operation of airborne equipment;
(E) the celestial sphere including the movement of heavenly bodies and their
selection and identification for the purpose of observation and reduction of
sights; calibration of sextants; the completion of navigation documentation;
(F) definitions, units and formulae used in air navigation;
(vi) Operational procedures: interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation
such as AIP, NOTAM, aeronautical codes, abbreviations, and instrument
procedure charts for departure, en-route, descent and approach;
(vii) Principles of flight: principles of flight;
(viii) Radiotelephony: radiotelephony procedures and phraseology.
(2) shall have received an endorsement for the knowledge test from an authorized
instructor who:
(A) conducted the training on the knowledge subjects,
(3) pass the required knowledge test on the subjects listed in paragraph (b) (1).
(c) Experience
(1) The applicant shall have completed in the performance of the duties of a flight
navigator, not less than 200 hours of flight time acceptable to the Authority, in
aircraft engaged in cross-country flights, including not less than 30 hours by night.
(2) The holder of a pilot license may be credited with 30 hours towards the 200 hours
of flight time.
(3) The applicant shall produce evidence of having satisfactorily determined the
aircraft's position in flight, and used that information to navigate the aircraft, as
follows:
(i) by night - not less than 25 times by celestial observations; and
(ii) by day - not less than 25 times by celestial observations in conjunction with
self-contained or external-referenced navigation systems.
(d) Skill. The applicant shall have demonstrated by passing the required skill test the ability
to perform as flight navigator of an aircraft with a degree of competency appropriate to
the privileges granted to the holder of a flight navigator license, and to:
(2) apply aeronautical knowledge;
(3) perform all duties as part of an integrated crew; and
(4) communicate effectively with the other flight crew members.

2.5-2
PCAR PART 2
(e) Medical fitness. The applicant shall hold a current Class 1 Medical Certificate, except
for:
for under 8.10.1.39 (b) (1); and
(ii) Check Airmen who have reached their 65th birthday or who do not have an
(c).
(f) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the
privileges of the holder of a flight navigator license shall be to act as flight navigator of
any aircraft.
(g) Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the validity
period of the license is five (5) years. The license shall become invalid when the flight
navigator has ceased to exercise the privileges of the license for a period of 6 months.
The license shall remain invalid until the flight navigator's ability to exercise the
privileges of the license has been re-established. For renewal of the license see
Subpart 2.2.3.

2.5-3
PCAR PART 2

2.5-4
PCAR PART 2
2.6 AVIATION MAINTENANCE LICENSING

2.6.1 GENERAL
(a) Subpart 2.6 prescribes the requirements for issuing the following licenses and
associated ratings and/or authorizations for:
(1) Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT)
(2) Aviation Maintenance Specialist (AMS)
2.6.2 AVIATION MAINTENANCE TECHNICIAN (AMT)

(a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for issuance of an Aviation Maintenance
Technician (AMT) license and associated ratings the conditions under which this
license and ratings are necessary and the general operating rules and limitations of
the holder of this license and ratings.
2.6.2.2 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL

(a) An applicant for an AMT license and any associated rating shall
(1) Be at least 18 years of age;
(2) Demonstrate the ability to read, write, speak, and understand the English language
by reading and explaining appropriate maintenance publications and by writing
defect and repair statements;
(3) Comply with the knowledge, experience, and competency requirements prescribed
for the license and rating sought; and
(4) Pass all of the prescribed tests for the license and rating sought, within a period of
24 months.
(b) A licensed AMT who applies for an additional rating must meet the requirements of
Subpart 2.6.2.6 and, within a period of 24 months, pass the tests prescribed by
Subparts 2.6.2.5 and 2.6.2.7 for the additional rating sought.
2.6.2.3 RATINGS
(a) The following ratings are issued under this subpart:
(1) Airframe
(2) Powerplant
(3) Airframe and Powerplant
2.6.2.4 KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

(a) The applicant for an Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT) license shall have pass
a knowledge test covering at least the following areas:
(1) Air law and airworthiness requirements:
(i) rules and regulations relevant to an Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT)
license holder including applicable airworthiness requirements governing

2.6-1
PCAR PART 2
certification and continuing airworthiness of aircraft and approved aircraft

maintenance organization procedures;
(2) Natural science and aircraft general knowledge
(i) basic mathematics; units of measurement; fundamental principles and theory
of physics and chemistry applicable to aircraft maintenance;
(3) Aircraft engineering
(i) characteristics and applications of the materials of aircraft construction
including principles of construction and functioning of aircraft structures,
fastening techniques; powerplants and their associated systems, mechanical,
fluid, electrical and electronic power sources, aircraft instrument and display
systems, aircraft control systems, and airborne navigation and communication
systems;
(4) Aircraft maintenance:
(i) tasks required to ensure the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft including
methods and procedures for the overhaul, repair, inspection, replacement,
modification or defect rectification of aircraft structures, components and
systems in accordance with the methods prescribed in the relevant
Maintenance Manuals and the applicable requirements of airworthiness;
(5) Human performance:
(i) human performance and limitations, including principles of threat and error
management relevant to the duties of an aviation maintenance license holder;
2.6.2.5 KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RATINGS

(a) The applicant for an airframe rating shall pass a knowledge test covering at least the
following areas:
(1) Airframe Maintenance practices and materials
(2) Airframe systems and structures-fixed wing
(3) Airframe systems and structures-rotary wing
(4) Systems and structures
(b) The applicant for a powerplant rating shall pass a knowledge test covering at least the
following areas:
(1) Piston engines
(2) Propellers
(3) Gas turbine engines
(4) Fuel systems
(c) The applicant shall pass each section of the test before applying for the oral and
practical tests prescribed by the Authority.
2.6.2.6 SKILL REQUIREMENTS

(a) Each applicant for an AMT license or rating must pass an oral and a skill test on the
license or rating he seeks. The tests cover the applicant's basic skill in performing
practical projects on the subjects covered by the written test for the license or rating

2.6-2
PCAR PART 2
and shall contain at least the subjects in the IS 2.6.2.6, appropriate to the license or
rating sought.
2.6.2.7 EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for an AMT license and associated ratings may qualify by either practical
experience or through training in an ATO.
(b) Practical experience only. Each applicant for an AMT license and rating(s) relying
solely on practical experience shall provide documentary evidence, acceptable to the
Authority, of the following experience in the inspection, servicing and maintenance of
aircraft or its components:
(1) Airframe rating - 30 months,
(2) Powerplant rating - 30 months;
(3) Airframe and Powerplant ratings - 60 months;
(c) Approved Training. Each applicant for an AMT license relying on completion of training
in an Approved Training Organization (ATO) shall provide documentary evidence,
acceptable to the Authority, of the following training:
(1) Airframe rating - 24 months
(2) Powerplant rating - 24 months
(3) Airframe and Powerplant ratings - 30 months
2.6.2.8 PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

(a) Except as specified in paragraphs (d), (e) and (f) of this subsection, a licensed AMT
with A&P may perform or supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or
modification of, or after inspection, sign a maintenance release and a return to service
for any aircraft, airframe aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part
thereof for which he or she is rated, provided the licensed AMT has:
(1) Satisfactorily performed the work at an earlier date;
(2) Demonstrated the ability to perform the work to the satisfaction of the Authority;
(3) Received training acceptable to the Authority on the tasks to be performed; or
(4) Performed the work while working under the direct supervision of a licensed AMT
who is appropriately rated and has-
(i) Had previous experience in the specific operation concerned; or
(ii) Received training acceptable to the Authority on the task to be performed.
(b) Except as specified in paragraphs (d), (e) and (f) of this subsection, a licensed AMT
with an Airframe rating may after he/she has performed the 100-hour inspection
required by Part 8 of this chapter on an airframe, or any related part or appliance, and
sign a maintenance release.
(c) Except as specified in paragraphs (d), (e) and (f) of this subsection, a licensed AMT
with a Powerplant rating may perform the 100-hour inspection required by Part 8 of
this chapter on a powerplant or propeller or any related part or appliance, and sign a
maintenance release.
(d) An AMT with an Airframe or Powerplant rating may not

2.6-3
PCAR PART 2
(1) Supervise the maintenance, repair, or modification of, or approve and provide a
maintenance release for any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance,
component or part thereof, for which he/she is rated unless he/she has
satisfactorily performed the work concerned at an earlier date.
(2) Exercise the privileges of the license unless the licensed AMT understands the
current instructions for continued airworthiness and the maintenance instructions
for the specific operation concerned.
(e) An AMT with an Airframe or Powerplant rating may
(1) Perform or supervise under the direct supervision and control of an AMO, any
repair or alteration of instruments.
(2) Sign a Maintenance Release for any aircraft, airframe, engine, propeller, appliance,
component, or part thereof after completion of a major alteration or major repair.
(f) A licensed mechanic shall not exercise the privileges of his license and ratings unless
he is familiar with the current CAR, manufacturer's instructions and the maintenance
manuals pertinent to the particular aircraft operation to be performed.
2.6.2.9 DURATION OF THE LICENSE

(a) The duration of the AMT license is (5) years.
(b) The holder of a license with an expiration date may not, after that date, exercise the
privileges of that license.
(c) The license shall remain valid as long as the holder thereof maintains his/her
competency.

(a) A licensed AMT may not exercise the privileges of his/her license or rating unless,
within the preceding 24 months:
(1) The Authority has found that he/she is able to do that work; or
(2) For at least 6 months within the preceding 24 months-
(i) Served as an AMT under his/her license and rating;
(ii) Technically supervised other AMT’s;
(iii) Provided aviation maintenance instruction or served as the direct supervisor of
persons providing aviation maintenance instruction for an AMT course or
program acceptable to the Authority;
(iv) Supervised the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of any
aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part
thereof; or been engaged in any combination of paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through
(a)(2)(iii) of this subsection; and
(b) Has received appropriate recurrent training from an AMO within the preceding 24
months and is familiar both with current manufacturers and approved maintenance
organization’s instructions and the maintenance manuals pertinent to the particular
aircraft operation to be performed.
(1) The requirements of recurrent training applies to all AME’s when certifying aircraft
or components used in commercial operations.

2.6-4
PCAR PART 2
2.6.2.11 DISPLAY OF LICENSE

(a) Each person who holds an AMT license shall keep it within the immediate area where
he/she normally exercises the privileges of the license and shall present it for
inspection upon the request of the Authority or law enforcement officer.
2.6.2.12 APPLICATION FOR ADDITIONAL RATING

(a) An applicant for a rating subsequent to the original issuance of a mechanic license with
approved rating shall meet the training, knowledge and experience requirements for
the rating sought and pass a practical examination established by the Authority.
2.6.2.13 REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RENEWAL OF LICENSES

(a) A holder of an aircraft mechanic license desiring to renew his license must accomplish
and submit the following within 30 days prior to the expiry of his license:
(1) Application for the renewal of license duly notarized;
(2) Certification or proof that the holder has rendered services in accordance with the
provisions this Part from an AMO, AOC or an ATO, or any other person found
acceptable in writing by the Authority, as applicable, in any case fully in compliance
with this regulations.
2.6.3 AVIATION MAINTENANCE SPECIALIST (AMS)

(a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for issuance of Aviation Maintenance
Specialist (AMS) licenses and ratings, the conditions under which this license and
ratings are necessary and the general operating rules and limitations of the holder of
this license and ratings.
2.6.3.2 ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL

(a) An applicant for an AMS license and any associated rating shall:
(1) Be at least 18 years of age;
(2) Demonstrate the ability to read, write, speak, and understand the English language
by reading and explaining appropriate maintenance publications and by writing
defect and repair statements;
(3) Comply with the knowledge, experience, and competency requirements prescribed
for the license and rating sought; and
(4) Pass all of the prescribed tests for the license and rating sought, within a period of
24 months.
(5) Be a citizen of the Philippines or a citizen of a foreign country granting similar rights
and privileges to citizens of the Philippines subject, however, to existing treaty or
treaties, and agreements, entered into by the Philippine Government with foreign
countries, and subject, further, to security measures adopted by the Philippine
Government.
(6) For AMS Specialized Service Rating be specially qualified to perform maintenance
on aircraft or components thereof, appropriate to the job for which he/she was
employed;

2.6-5
PCAR PART 2
(7) For AMS Specialized Service Rating be employed for a specific job requiring those
special qualifications by an approved maintenance organization certificated under
Part 6 allowed by its operating certificate and approved specific operating
provisions to provide maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications to
aircraft; and
(8) For AMS Specialized Service Rating be recommended for certification by his
employer, to the satisfaction of the Authority, as able to satisfactorily maintain
aircraft or components, appropriate to the job for which he is employed;
(b) A licensed AMS who applies for an additional rating must meet the requirements of
this Part and, within a period of 24 months, pass the tests prescribed by the Authority
for the additional rating sought.
2.6.3.3 AMS RATINGS

(a) The following ratings are issued under this subpart:
(1) Limited Airframe:
(i) Fixed wing
(ii) Rotary wing
(iii) Aircraft Systems, Hydraulics
(iv) Aircraft Systems, Pneumatics
(v) Aircraft Emergency and Safety Equipment
(vi) Aircraft Structures, Sheet metal
(vii) Aircraft Structures, Composites
(viii) Aircraft Structures, Woodwork/Fabric
(2) Limited Powerplant:
(i) Piston
(ii) Propellers
(iii) Turbine
(iv) Fuel Systems
(3) Avionics
(i) Electrical
(ii) Instruments
(iii) AFCS Fixed wing
(iv) AFCS Rotary wing
(v) Navigation
(vi) Radio
(4) Specialized Services
(i) Welding
(ii) Non-destructive testing (subject to compliance with P.N.S. 146)
(b) At no instance shall an AMS license be issued a Specialized Service rating in which
the AMO has not been issued.

2.6-6
PCAR PART 2
(c) Ratings for an applicant employed by an AMO shall coincide with the approved specific
operating provisions and the approved maintenance procedures manual that identifies
the AMO’s authorizations limited to the specific job for which the person is employed
to perform, supervise, or sign a maintenance release.
Note: When employed by an AMO, an Aviation Maintenance Specialist (AMS) license
should correspond to the specialty shop or group in which they perform, supervise, or
sign a maintenance release an aeronautical product or aircraft. For example,
Hydraulic component overhaul, landing gear overhaul, special inspections, non-
destructive testing, turbine disc overhaul, etc.
2.6.3.4 KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

(a) The applicant for an aviation maintenance Specialist license shall have pass a
knowledge test covering at least the following areas related to the ratings sought:
(1) Air law and airworthiness requirements:
(i) rules and regulations relevant to an Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT)
license holder including applicable airworthiness requirements governing
certification and continuing airworthiness of aircraft and approved aircraft
maintenance organization procedures;
(2) Natural science and aircraft general knowledge
(i) basic mathematics; units of measurement; fundamental principles and theory
of physics and chemistry applicable to aircraft maintenance;
(3) Aircraft engineering
(i) characteristics and applications of the materials of aircraft construction
including principles of construction and functioning of aircraft structures,
fastening techniques; powerplants and their associated systems; mechanical;
fluid; electrical and electronic power sources; aircraft instrument and display
systems; aircraft control systems; and airborne navigation and communication
systems;
(4) Aircraft maintenance :
(i) tasks required to ensure the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft including
methods and procedures for the overhaul, repair, inspection, replacement,
modification or defect rectification of aircraft structures, components and
systems in accordance with the methods prescribed in the relevant
Maintenance Manuals and the applicable requirements of airworthiness;
(i) Human performance and limitations, including principles of threat and error
management relevant to the duties of an aviation maintenance license holder;
2.6.3.5 KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RATINGS

(a) The applicant for the following ratings shall pass a knowledge test covering at least the
following areas:
(1) Limited Airframe:
(i) Airframe Maintenance practices and materials

2.6-7
PCAR PART 2
(ii) Airframe systems and structures-fixed wing

(iii) Airframe systems and structures-rotary wing
(iv) Systems and structures
(2) Limited powerplant:
(i) Piston engines
(ii) Propellers
(iii) Gas turbine engines
(iv) Fuel systems
(3) Avionics :
(i) Aircraft engineering and maintenance: Electrical and instrument
(A) Maintenance practices and materials
(B) Electrical and electronic fundamentals
(C) Digital techniques, computers and associated devices
(D) Aircraft electrical systems
(E) Aircraft instrument systems
(ii) Aircraft engineering and maintenance: Automatic flight control systems
AFCS/Navigation/Radio
(A) Automatic flight control systems (AFCS): Fixed wing
(B) Automatic flight control systems (AFCS): Rotary wing
(C) Aircraft inertial navigation systems (INS)
(D) Aircraft radio and radio navigation systems
(iii) Specialized Services
(A) Welding
(B) Non-destructive testing (subject to compliance with P.N.S. 146)
(b) The applicant shall pass each section of the test before applying for the theoretical and
practical tests prescribed in this Part.
2.6.3.6 SKILL REQUIREMENTS

(a) Each applicant for an AMS license or rating must pass an oral and a skill test on the
license or rating he seeks. The tests cover the applicant's basic skill in performing
practical projects on the subjects covered by the written test for the license or rating
and shall contain at least the subjects in the IS 2.6.3.7, appropriate to the license or
rating sought.
2.6.3.7 EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for an AMS license and associated ratings may qualify by either practical
experience solely or through training in an ATO plus practical experience.
(b) Practical experience only. Each applicant for an AMS license and rating(s) relying
solely on practical experience shall provide documentary evidence, acceptable to the

2.6-8
PCAR PART 2
Authority, of the following experience in the inspection, servicing and maintenance of

aircraft or its components
(1) Limited Airframe rating - 30 months,
(2) Limited Powerplant rating - 30 months;
(3) Avionics rating - 36 months,
(c) Approved Training. Each applicant for an AMS license relying on completion of training
in an Approved Training Organization shall provide documentary evidence acceptable
to the Authority, of the following training:
(1) Limited Airframe rating - 24 months
(2) Limited Powerplant rating - 24 months
(3) Avionics rating - 24 months in an ATO, plus 12 months practical work experience.
2.6.3.8 PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

(a) A licensed AMS may perform or supervise the maintenance, preventive maintenance,
or alteration of aircraft, airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances,
components, and parts appropriate to the designated specialty area for which the
Aviation Maintenance Specialist (AMS) is licensed and rated.
(b) An Aviation Maintenance Specialist (AMS) may not perform or supervise duties unless
the aviation repair specialist understands the current instructions of the employing
certificate holder and the instructions for continued airworthiness, which relate to the
specific operations concerned.
(c) A licensed AMS with an Avionics rating may inspect, repair, maintain, perform a
function test and sign a maintenance release for avionics systems and related
components.
2.6.3.9 DURATION OF THE LICENSE

(a) The duration of the AMS license is (5) years.
(b) The holder of a license with an expiration date may not, after that date, exercise the
privileges of that license
(c) Licenses shall remain valid as long as the holders thereof maintain their competency.

(a) A licensed AMS may not exercise the privileges of his/her license or rating unless,
within the preceding 24 months:
(1) The Authority has found that he/she is able to do that work; or
(2) for at least 6 months within the preceding 24 months-
(i) Served as an AMS under his/her license and rating;
(ii) Technically supervised other AMSs.
(b) Has received appropriate recurrent training from an AMO within the preceding 24
months and is familiar both with current manufacturers and approved maintenance
organization’s instructions and the maintenance manuals pertinent to the particular
operations to be performed.

2.6-9
PCAR PART 2
2.6.3.11 DISPLAY OF LICENSE

(a) Each person who holds an AMS license shall keep it within the immediate area where
he/she normally exercises the privileges of the license and shall present it for
inspection upon the request of the Authority or law enforcement officer.
2.6.3.12 REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RENEWAL OF LICENSE
(a) A holder of an AMS license desiring to renew his license must accomplish and submit
the following within 30 days prior to the expiry of his license:
(i) Application for the renewal of license duly notarized;

(ii) Certification or proof that the holder has rendered services during the previous 24
months in accordance with the provisions of this Part from an AMO, or any other
person found acceptable in writing by the Authority, as applicable, in any case fully
in compliance with this regulations.

2.6-10
PCAR PART 2
2.7 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER LICENSES, CATEGORIES AND

RATINGS
2.7.1 APPLICABILITY
This section prescribes the requirements for the issue, renewal and re-issue of an air
traffic controller license and ratings.
2.7.2 GENERAL
(a) An applicant shall, before being issued with an air traffic controllers license, meet such
requirements in respect of age, knowledge, experience, skill, medical fitness and
language proficiency as are specified for that license or rating.
2.7.3 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for an air traffic controller license shall be not less than 21 years of
age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an air traffic controller license shall
(1) receive an approved training course from an authorized instructor on the
knowledge areas:
(i) Air law: rules and regulations relevant to the air traffic controller;
(ii) Air traffic control equipment: principles, use and limitations of equipment used
in air traffic control;
(iii) General knowledge: principles of flight; principles of operation and functioning
of aircraft, powerplants and systems; aircraft performances relevant to air traffic
control operations;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to air traffic control;
(v) Language: the language or languages nationally designated for use in air traffic
control and ability to speak such language or languages without accent or
impediment which would adversely affect radio communication;
(vi) Meteorology: aeronautical meteorology; use and appreciation of
meteorological documentation and information; origin and characteristics of
weather phenomena affecting flight operations and safety; altimetry;
(vii) Navigation: principles of air navigation; principle, limitation and accuracy of
navigation systems and visual aids;
(viii) Operational procedures: air traffic control, communication, radiotelephony and
phraseology procedures (routine, non routine and emergency); use of the
relevant aeronautical documentation; safety practices associated with flight.
who:
(i) conducted the training on the knowledge areas;

2.7-1
PCAR PART 2
(c) Experience The applicant shall have completed an approved training course and not
less than three months' satisfactory service engaged in the actual control of air traffic
under the supervision of an appropriately rated air traffic controller. The experience
requirements specified for air traffic controller ratings in Subpart 2.7.4 will be credited
as part of the experience specified in this paragraph.
(d) Medical fitness. The applicant for an air traffic controller license shall hold a current
Class 3 Medical Certificate.
(e) Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirement specified in this Part, the validity
period of the license is five (5) years. For renewal of the license see Subpart 2.2.3.
2.7.4 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER CATEGORIES/RATINGS

(a) Air traffic controller ratings shall comprise the following categories:
(1) aerodrome control rating;
(2) approach control procedural rating;
(3) approach control surveillance rating;
(4) approach precision radar control rating;
(5) area control procedural rating; and
(6) area control surveillance rating.
Note: The World Meteorological Organization has specified requirements for
personnel making meteorological observations which apply to air traffic controllers
providing such a service.
2.7.5 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER RATING REQUIREMENTS

(a) Knowledge. The applicant for an air traffic controller rating shall
(1) receive an approved training course from an authorized instructor on the following
subjects:
(i) aerodrome control rating:
(A) aerodrome layout; physical characteristics and visual aids;
(B) airspace structure;
(C) applicable rules, procedures and source of information;
(D) air navigation facilities;
(E) air traffic control equipment and its use;
(F) terrain and prominent landmarks;
(G) characteristics of air traffic;
(H) weather phenomena; and emergency and search and rescue plans;
(ii) approach control and area control ratings:
(A) airspace structure;
(B) applicable rules, procedures and source of information;
(C) air navigation facilities;
(D) air traffic control equipment and its use;

2.7-2
PCAR PART 2
(E) terrain and prominent landmarks;

(F) characteristics of air traffic and traffic flow;
(G) weather phenomena; and
(H) emergency and search and rescue plans; and
(iii) approach radar, approach precision radar and area radar control ratings. The
applicant shall meet the requirements specified in (ii) in so far as they affect the
area of responsibility. and shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge
appropriate to the privileges granted. in at least the following additional
subjects:
(A) principles, use and limitations of radar, other surveillance systems and
associated equipment; and
(B) procedures for the provision of approach, precision approach or area radar
control services, as appropriate, including procedures to ensure
appropriate terrain clearance;
who:
(b) Experience.
(1) The applicant for an air traffic controller license shall have:
(i) satisfactorily completed an approved training course;
(ii) provided; satisfactorily, under the supervision of an appropriately rated air
traffic controller:
(A) aerodrome control rating: an aerodrome control service, for a period of not
less than 90 hours or one month, whichever is greater, at the unit for which
the rating is sought;
(B) approach, approach radar, area or area radar control rating: the control
service for which the rating is sought. for a period of not less than 180 hours
or three months, whichever is greater, at the unit for which the rating is
sought; and
(C) approach precision radar control rating: not less than 200 precision
approaches of which not more than 100 shall have been carried out on a
radar simulator approved for that purpose by the Authority. Not less than
50 of those precision approaches shall have been carried out at the unit
and on the equipment for which the rating is sought; and
(iii) if the privileges of the approach radar control rating include surveillance radar
approach duties, the experience shall include not less than 25 plan position
indicator (PPI) approaches on the surveillance equipment of the type in use at
the unit for which the rating is sought and under the supervision of an
appropriately rated approach radar controller.
(2) The experience specified under (ii) shall have been completed within the 6-month
period immediately preceding application.

2.7-3
PCAR PART 2
(c) Skill. The applicant shall have demonstrated by passing the required skill test, at a
level appropriate to the privileges being granted, the skill, judgment and performance
required to provide a safe, orderly and expeditious control service including the
recognition and management of threats and errors.
(d) Privileges.
(1) Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the privileges of
the holder of an air traffic controller license
(i) aerodrome control rating: to provide or to supervise the provision of aerodrome
control service for the aerodrome for which the license holder is rated:
(ii) approach control rating: to provide or to supervise the provision of approach
control service for the aerodrome or aerodromes for which the license holder
is rated, within the airspace or portion thereof, under the jurisdiction of the unit
providing approach control service;
(iii) approach control rating: to provide or to supervise the provision of approach
control service for the aerodrome or aerodromes for which the license holder
is rated, within the airspace or portion thereof, under the jurisdiction of the unit
providing approach control service;
(iv) approach radar control rating: to provide and/or supervise the provision of
approach control service with the use of radar or other surveillance systems for
the aerodrome or aerodromes for which the license holder is rated, within the
airspace or portion thereof, under the jurisdiction of the unit providing approach
control service:
(A) subject to compliance with the provisions of paragraph (b) (1) (iii), the
privileges shall include the provision of surveillance radar approaches;
(v) approach precision radar control rating: to provide and/or supervise the
provision of precision approach radar service at the aerodrome for which the
license holder is rated;
(vi) area control rating: to provide and/or supervise the provision of area control
service within the control area or portion thereof, for which the license holder is
rated; and
(vii) area radar control rating: to provide and/or supervise the provision of area
control service with the use of radar, within the control area or portion thereof.
for which the license holder is rated.
(2) Before exercising the privileges indicated in paragraph (d) (1), the license holder
shall be familiar with all pertinent and current information.
(e) Validity of ratings. A rating shall become invalid when an air traffic controller has
ceased to exercise the privileges of the rating for a period of five (5) years. A rating
shall remain invalid until the controller's ability to exercise the privileges of the rating
has been re-established.

2.7-4
PCAR PART 2
2.8 FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICER LICENSE

2.8.1 APPLICABILITY
operations officer license.
2.8.2 GENERAL
(a) An applicant shall, before being issued with a flight operations officer license; meet
such requirements in respect of age; knowledge; experience; skill, medical fitness and
language proficiency as are specified for that license.
(b) An applicant shall for renewal or re-issue of a license meet the requirements as are
specified for that license.
Note: The license can also be specified as Flight dispatcher license.
2.8.3 FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICER LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for a flight operations officer license shall be not less than 21 years
of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for a flight operations officer license shall
(1) receive an approved training course from an authorized instructor on the
knowledge areas:
(i) Air Law: rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a flight operations officer
license; appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures;
(A) principles of operation of airplane powerplants, systems and instruments
(B) operating limitations of airplanes and powerplants; and
(C) minimum equipment list;
(iii) Flight performance calculation and planning procedures:
(A) effects of loading and mass distribution on aircraft performance and flight
characteristics; mass and balance calculations;
(B) operational flight planning; fuel consumption and endurance calculations;
alternate airport selection procedures; en-route cruise control; extended
range operation;
(C) preparation and filing of air traffic services flight plans; and
(D) basic principles of computer-assisted planning systems;
(iv) Human performance: human performance relevant to dispatch duties; including
principles of threat and error management.
(v) Meteorology
(A) aeronautical meteorology; the moment of pressure systems; the structure
of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of significant weather
phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing conditions;

2.8-1
PCAR PART 2
(B) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports, charts

and forecasts, codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for
obtaining, meteorological information;
(vi) Navigation: principles of air navigation with particular reference to instrument
flight;
(A) use of aeronautical documentation;
(B) operational procedures for the carriage of freight and dangerous goods;
(C) procedures relating to aircraft accidents and incidents; emergency flight
procedures;
(D) procedures relating to unlawful interference and sabotage of aircraft;
(viii) Principles of flight: principles of flight relating to the appropriate category of
aircraft;
(ix) Radio communication: procedures for communicating with aircraft and relevant
ground stations;
who:
(c) Experience.
(1) The applicant for a flight operations officer license shall have gained the following
experience:
(i) a total of two (2) years' service in any one or in any combination of the
capacities specified in (A) to (C) inclusive, provided that in any combination of
experience the period serviced in any capacity shall be at least one year:
(A) a flight crew member in air transportation; or
(B) a meteorologist in an organization dispatching aircraft in air transportation;
or
(C) an air traffic controller; or a technical supervisor of flight operations officers
or air transportation flight operations systems; or
(ii) at least one year as an assistant in the dispatching of air transport; or
(iii) have satisfactorily completed a course of approved training.
(2) The applicant shall have served under the supervision of a flight operations officer
for at least 90 working days within the 6 months immediately preceding the
application.
(d) Skill. The applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to:
(1) make an accurate and operationally acceptable weather analysis from a series of
daily weather maps and weather reports; provide an operationally valid briefing on
weather conditions prevailing in the general neighborhood of a specific air route;
forecast weather trends pertinent to air transportation with particular reference to
destination and alternates;

2.8-2
PCAR PART 2
(2) determine the optimum flight path for a given segment, and create accurate manual
and/or computer generated flight plans;
(3) provide operating supervision and all other assistance to a flight in actual or
simulated adverse weather conditions as appropriate to the duties of the holder of
a flight operations officer license; and
(4) recognize and manage threat and errors.
privileges of the holder of a flight operations officer license shall be to serve in that
capacity with responsibility for each area for which the applicant meets the
requirements in CAR Part 8 and 9.
(f) Validity. The validity period of the license is 5 year. A license shall become invalid when
a flight operations officer has ceased to exercise the privileges of the license for a
period of 6 months. A license shall remain invalid until the flight operations officer's
ability to exercise the privileges of the license has been re-established. For renewal of
the license see Subpart 2.2.3.

2.8-3
PCAR PART 2

2.8-4
PCAR PART 2
2.9 AERONAUTICAL STATION OPERATOR LICENSES

2.9.1 APPLICABILITY
This section prescribes the requirements for the issue, renewal or re-issue of an
aeronautical station operator license.
2.9.2 GENERAL
(a) An applicant shall, before being issued with an aeronautical station operator license,
meet such requirements in respect of age, knowledge, experience, skill, medical
fitness and language proficiency as are specified for that license.
requirements as are specified for that license.
2.9.3 AERONAUTICAL STATION OPERATOR LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for an aeronautical station operator license shall be not less than
18 years of age.
(b) Knowledge. The applicant for an aeronautical station operator license shall:
subjects:
(i) General Knowledge: air traffic services provided within Republic of the
Philippines;
(ii) Language: the language or languages nationally designated for use in air
ground communications and ability to speak such language or languages
without accent or impediment which would adversely affect radio
communication;
(iii) Operational Procedures: radiotelephony procedures; phraseology;
telecommunication network:
(iv) Rules and regulations: rules and regulations applicable to the aeronautical
station operator;
(v) Telecommunication equipment: principles, use and limitations of
telecommunication equipment in an aeronautical station
who:
(c) Experience. The applicant for an aeronautical station operator license shall have:
(i) satisfactorily completed an approved training course within the 12-month
period immediately preceding application, and have served satisfactorily under
a qualified aeronautical station operator for not less than 2 months; or
(ii) satisfactorily served under a qualified aeronautical station operator for not less
than 6 months during the 12-month period immediately preceding application.

2.9-1
PCAR PART 2
(d) Skill. The applicant for an aeronautical station operator license shall demonstrate; or
have demonstrated; competency in:
(i) operating the telecommunication equipment in use; and
(ii) transmitting and receiving radiotelephony messages with efficiency and
accuracy.
privileges of the holder of an aeronautical station operator license shall be to act as an
operator in an aeronautical station. Before exercising the privileges of the license, the
holder shall be familiar with all pertinent and current information regarding the types of
equipment and operating procedures used at that aeronautical station.
(f) Validity: The validity period of the license is five (5) years. A license shall become
invalid when an aeronautical station operator has ceased to exercise the privileges of
the license for a period of 6 months. A license shall remain invalid until the aeronautical
station operator's ability to exercise the privileges of the license has been re-
established. For renewal of the license see Subpart 2.2.3.

2.9-2
PCAR PART 2
2.10 MEDICAL PROVISIONS FOR LICENSING

2.10.1 GENERAL
(a) Medical confidentiality shall be respected at all times.
(b) All medical reports and records shall be securely held with accessibility restricted to
authorized personnel.
(c) When justified by operational considerations, the Chief of the Office of Flight Surgeon
and Aviation Medicine shall determine to what extent pertinent medical information is
presented to relevant officials of the Authority.
(a) This Section prescribes the requirements and procedures for issuing, renewing and
re-issuing Class 1, Class 2 and Class 3 medical certificates.
2.10.1.2 MEDICAL FITNESS

(a) The applicants for a flight crew license and air traffic controller license shall hold a
medical certificate issued in accordance with this Part.
(b) The flight crew members or air traffic controllers shall not exercise the privileges of
their license unless they hold a current medical certificate appropriate to the license.
2.10.1.3 AVIATION MEDICAL EXAMINERS (AME)

(a) Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in this Part, the Authority will
designate and authorize qualified and licensed physicians in the practice of medicine,
to be authorized as an AME and conduct medical examinations of fitness of applicants
for the issue, renewal or re-issue of the licenses or ratings specified in this Part. AMEs
may be designated outside of Republic of the Philippines.
(b) AMEs shall have had, or shall receive:
(1) Basic training in aviation medicine for Class 2 and 3 medical examinations on the
subjects listed in IS: 2.10.1.3 Appendix A, supported by a diploma or a certificate
of completion; and
(2) Advance training in aviation medicine for Class 1 medical examinations on the
subjects listed in IS: 2.10.1.3 Appendix B.
(3) Refresher training at regular intervals, not more than three years.
(c) AMEs shall acquire practical knowledge and experience of the conditions in which the
holders of licenses and ratings carry out their duties.
(d) Prior to a designation, medical examiners shall demonstrate adequate competency in
aviation medicine
(e) The Authorization of an AME is valid for 3 years. The AME shall have completed at
least 10 examinations for a medical certificate per year. Re-Authorization will be at the
discretion of the Authority.
(f) Having completed the medical examination of an applicant in accordance with this
Section, the AME shall coordinate the results of the examination and submit a signed
report to the Authority, detailing the results of the examination and evaluating the
findings with regard to medical fitness. If the medical report is submitted to the

2.10-1
PCAR PART 2
Authority in electronic format, adequate identification of the examiner shall be\

established.
(g) The medical examiner shall be required to submit sufficient information to the Licensing
Authority to enable that Authority to undertake Medical Assessments audits.
Note: The purpose of such auditing is to ensure that medical examiners meet
applicable standards for good medical practice and aeromedical risk assessment.
Guidance on aeromedical risk assessment is contained in the Handbook of Procedures
of Aviation Medical Examination.
(h) If the medical examination is carried out by a constituted group of AMEs, the head of
the group will be appointed by the Authority, who will be responsible for coordinating
the results of the examination, evaluating the findings with regard to the medical
fitness, and signing the report.
(i) The Authority will use the services of physicians experienced in the practice of aviation
medicine, when it is necessary to evaluate reports submitted to the Authority by
medical examiners.
(j) The Authority retains the right to reconsider any action of an AME.
(k) The competence of a medical examiner shall be evaluated periodically by the medical
assessor.
2.10.1.4 AVIATION MEDICAL EXAMINATIONS

Applicants for licenses or ratings for which medical fitness is prescribed shall sign and
furnish to the AME a declaration stating whether they have previously undergone such
an examination and, if so, the date, place and result of the last examination. They shall
indicate to the examiner whether a medical certificate has previously been refused,
revoked or suspended and, if so, the reason for such refusal, revocation or suspension.
(a) Each applicant for a medical certificate shall provide the AME with a personally certified
statement of medical facts concerning personal, familial and hereditary history.
(b) Each applicant for a medical certificate shall produce proof of identification.
(c) Any false declaration to an AME made by an applicant for a license or rating shall be
reported to the Authority for such action as may be considered appropriate.
(d) The applicant shall complete the appropriate application form as detailed in IS:
2.10.1.4.
2.10.1.5 SPECIAL CIRCUMSTANCES

(a) If the medical requirements prescribed in Part 2 for a particular license are not met,
the appropriate medical certificate will not be issued, renewed or re-issued unless the
following conditions are fulfilled:
(1) Accredited medical conclusion indicates that in special circumstances the
applicant's failure to meet any requirement, whether numerical or otherwise. Is
such that exercise of the privileges of the license applied for is not likely to
jeopardize flight safety;
(2) Relevant ability, skill and experience of the applicant and operational conditions
have been given due consideration; and

2.10-2
PCAR PART 2
(3) The license is endorsed by the Authority with any special limitation or limitations
when the safe performance of the license holder's duties is dependent on
compliance with such limitation or limitations.
(b) The AME shall report to the Authority any individual case where, in the AME's
judgment, an applicant's failure to meet any requirement, whether numerical or
otherwise, is such that exercise of the privileges of the license being applied for, or
held, is not likely to jeopardize flight safety.
2.10.1.6 DECREASE OF MEDICAL FITNESS

(a) Holders of licenses provided for in this Part shall not exercise the privileges of their
licenses and related ratings at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their
medical fitness which might render them unable to safely and properly exercise these
privileges.
(b) The Authority shall ensure that license holders are provided with clear guidelines on
medical conditions that may be relevant to flight safety and when to seek clarification
or guidance from a medical examiner or Licensing Authority.
Note: Guidance on physical and mental conditions and treatment that are relevant to
flight safety about which information may need to be forwarded to the Licensing
Authority, is contained in the Handbook of Procedures of Aviation Medical
Examination.
(c) Holders of licenses provided for in this Part shall not exercise the privileges of their
licenses and related ratings during any period in which their medical fitness has, from
any cause, decreased to an extent that would have prevented the issue or renewal of
their Medical Assessment.
2.10.1.7 USE OF PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCES

(a) Holders of licenses provided for in this Part shall not exercise the privileges of their
licenses and related ratings while under the influence of any psychoactive substance
which might render them unable to safely and properly exercise these privileges.
(b) Holders of licenses provided for in this Part shall not engage in any problematic use of
substances.
(c) Holders of licenses provided for in this Part who engage in any kind of problematic use
of substances shall be identified and removed from their safety-critical functions.
Return to the safety-critical functions may be considered after successful treatment or,
in cases where no treatment is necessary, after cessation of the problematic use of
substances and upon determination that the person’s continued performance of the
function is unlikely to jeopardize safety.
(d) Random tests for effects of alcohol or psychoactive substances will be conducted by
the Authority.
Note: See ICAO Manual on Prevention of Problematic Use of Substances in the
Aviation Workplace (Doc 924)
2.10.1.8 MEDICAL CERTIFICATES

(a) The medical certificate shall be in a form and manner prescribed by the Authority. The
items required on the license are indicated in IS: 2.10.1.8.

2.10-3
PCAR PART 2
(b) Issue of medical certificates

(1) A medical certificate will be issued to any person who meets the medical
requirements prescribed in this Subpart, based on medical examination and
evaluation of the applicant's history and condition.
(i) The Authority will issue the Class 1 medical certificate.
(ii) The issue of Class 2 and 3 medical certificates may be delegated to the
authorized Aviation Medical Examiner.
(2) Each person to be issued a medical certificate shall undergo a medical examination
based on the physical and mental requirements contained in this Subpart.
(3) Any person who does not meet the medical requirements of this Subpart may apply
for the discretionary issuance of a certificate under Subpart 2.10.1.5.
(c) Validity:
(1) The validity period of the medical certificate is:
(i) 6 months for the Class 1 for ATPL.
(ii) 12 months for CPL, MPL, flight engineer license, flight navigator license and
FOO license.
(iii) 24 months for the Class 2 for the PPL, SPL, glider pilot license and free balloon
pilot license; and Class 3 for air traffic controller license.
(iv) When the holders have passed their 40th birthday:
(A) the 12-month interval specified for CPL, MPL, flight engineer license and
flight navigator license will be reduced to 6 months; and
(B) the 24-month interval specified for the PPL, SPL, glider pilot license, free
balloon pilot license and air traffic controller license will be reduced to 12
months.
(v) The period of validity of a medical certificate may be extended, at the discretion
of the Licensing Authority, up to 45 days.
(2) For initial issuance of the medical certificate, the period of validity shall begin on
the date the medical examination is performed. For any renewal or re-issuance of
a medical certificate, based on a medical examination that takes place during the
period of validity of the current medical certificate, but no more than 28 days before
its expiry date, the new period of validity shall begin on that date. For any renewal
or re-issuance, based on a medical examination taking place after the expiry date
or earlier than 28 days before the expiry date, the new period of validity shall begin
on the date of the examination.
(3) The period of validity of a Medical Assessment may be reduced when clinically
indicated.
(d) Renewal or re-issue of a medical certificate
(1) The level of medical fitness to be met for the renewal or re-issue of a medical
certificate shall be same as that for the initial certificate except where otherwise
specifically stated.
(2) The renewal of the Class 1, 2 and 3 medical certificates may be delegated to the
(3) Re-issue of the Class 1 medical certificate will be done by the Authority.

2.10-4
PCAR PART 2
(4) Re-issue of the Class 2 and 3 medical certificate may be delegated to the
(e) Limitation or denial
(1) The Authority may for medical reasons justified and notified to the applicant limit or
deny a medical certificate.
(f) Suspension or revocation of a medical certificate
(1) The Authority may in accordance with Subpart 2.2.10 suspend or revoke a medical
certificate issued, if it is established that an applicant or a certificate holder has not
met, or no longer meets the requirements of Part 2.
2.10.2 MEDICAL REQUIREMENTS

2.10.2.1 REQUIREMENTS FOR MEDICAL CERTIFICATES
2.10.2.1.1 GENERAL
An applicant for a Medical Certificate issued in accordance with this Part, shall undergo a
medical examination based on the following requirements:
(a) physical and mental;
(b) visual and color perception; and
(c) hearing.
2.10.2.1.2 PHYSICAL AND MENTAL REQUIREMENTS

An applicant for any class of Medical Assessment shall be required to be free from:
(a) any abnormality; congenital or acquired; or
(b) any active, latent, acute or chronic disability; or
(c) any wound, injury or sequelae from operation; or
(d) any effect or side-effect of any prescribed or non-prescribed therapeutic medication
taken; such as would entail a degree of functional incapacity which is likely to interfere
with the safe operation of an aircraft or with the safe performance of duties.
2.10.2.1.3 VISUAL ACUITY TEST REQUIREMENTS

(a) Visual acuity tests must be conducted in an environment with a level of illumination
that corresponds to ordinary office illumination (30-60cd/m2).
(b) Visual acuity must be measured by means of a series of Landolt rings or similar
optotypes, placed at a distance from the applicant appropriate to the method of testing
adopted.
2.10.2.1.4 COLOR PERCEPTION REQUIREMENTS

(a) The applicant shall be required to demonstrate the ability to perceive readily those
colors the perception of which is necessary for the safe performance of duties.
(b) The applicant shall be tested for the ability to correctly identify a series of
pseudoisochromatic plates in daylight or in artificial light of the same color

2.10-5
PCAR PART 2
temperature such as that provided by CIE standard illuminants C or D2 as specified

by the International Commission of Illumination (CIE).
(c) An applicant obtaining a satisfactory result as prescribed by the Authority shall be
assessed as fit. An applicant failing to obtain a satisfactory result in such a test shall
be assessed as unfit unless able to readily distinguish the colors used in air navigation
and correctly identify aviation colored lights. Applicants who fail to meet these criteria
shall be assessed as unfit except for Class 2 assessment with the following restriction:
valid daytime only.
2.10.2.1.5 HEARING REQUIREMENTS

Hearing requirements are established in addition to the ear examination conducted during
the medical examination for the physical and mental requirements.
(a) The applicant shall be required to be free from any hearing defect that would interfere
with the safe performance of duties in exercising the privileges of the license.
Note 1: The reference zero for calibration of pure-tone audiometers used for applying
Subparts 2.10.2.2.4 (a) and 2.10.2.4.4 (a) is that of the International Organization for
Standardization (ISO) Recommendation R389, 1964.
Note 2: The frequency composition of the background noise referred to in Subparts
2.10.2.4 (a)(1) and 2.10.2.4.4.(a)(1) is defined only to the extent that the frequency
range 600 to 4 800 Hz is adequately represented.
Note 3: In the choice of speech material, aviation-type material is not to be used
exclusively for the above tests. Lists of phonetically balanced words in use by a number
of Contracting States have given satisfactory results.
Note 4: A quiet room for the purposes of testing the hearing requirements is a room in
which the intensity of the background noise is less than 50 dB when measured on 'slow
response of an 'A"-weighted sound level meter.
Note 5: For the purposes of hearing requirements, the sound level of an average
conversational voice at point of output ranges from 85 to 95 dB.
2.10.2.2 CLASS 1 MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

2.10.2.2.1 CERTIFICATE ISSUE AND RENEWAL
(a) An applicant for a CPL, MPL, ATPL, Flight Engineer or Flight Navigator license shall
undergo an initial medical examination for the issue of a Class 1 Medical Certificate.
(b) Except where otherwise stated in this subpart, holders of CPL, MPL, ATPL, Flight
Engineer or Flight Navigator license shall have their Class 1 Medical Certificate
renewed at intervals not exceeding those specified in Subpart 2.10.1.8 (c).
(c) A Class 1 Medical Certificate will be issued when the applicant complies with the
requirements of this Part
(d) In alternate years, for Class 1 applicants under 40 years of age, the Licensing Authority
may allow medical examiners to omit certain routine examination items related to the
assessment of physical fitness, whilst increasing the emphasis on health education
and prevention of ill health.
The medical examination shall be based on the following requirements.

2.10-6
PCAR PART 2
(a) The applicant shall not suffer from any disease or disability which could render that
applicant likely to become suddenly unable either to operate an aircraft safely or to
perform assigned duties safely.
(b) The applicant shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of:
(1) a psychosis:
(2) alcoholism;
(3) drug dependence;
(4) any personality disorder, particularly if severe enough to have repeatedly resulted
in overt acts;
(5) a mental abnormality, or neurosis of a significant degree; such as might render the
applicant unable to safely exercise the privileges of the license applied for or held,
unless accredited medical conclusion indicates that in special circumstances, the
applicant's failure to meet the requirement is such that exercise of the privileges of
the license applied for is not likely to jeopardize flight safety.
(6) a depression being treated with antidepressant medication, unless the medical
assessor, having access to the details of the case concerned, considers the
applicant’s condition as unlikely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant’s
license and rating privileges.
(c) The applicant should have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any
mental abnormality, personality disorder or neurosis which according to accredited
medical conclusion, makes it likely that within two years of the examination the
applicant will be unable to safely exercise the privileges of the license or rating applied
for or held.
Note: A history of acute toxic psychosis need not be regarded as disqualifying,
provided that the applicant has suffered no permanent impairment.
(d) The applicant shall have no established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of
the following:
(1) a progressive or non-progressive disease of the nervous system, the effects of
which, according to accredited medical conclusion, are likely to interfere with the
safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges;
(2) epilepsy;
(3) any disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical explanation of
cause;
(e) Cases of head injury, the effects of which, according to accredited medical conclusion,
are likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating
privileges shall be assessed as unfit.
(f) The applicant shall not possess any abnormality of the heart, congenital or acquired,
which is likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating
privileges. A history of proven myocardial infarction shall be disqualifying.
Note: Such commonly occurring conditions as respiratory arrhythmia, occasional
extra systoles which disappear on exercise, increase of pulse rate from excitement or
exercise, or a slow pulse not associated with auriculoventricular dissociation may be
regarded as being “within -normal" limits.

2.10-7
PCAR PART 2
(1) Electrocardiography shall form part of the heart examination for the first issue of a
license and shall be included in re-examination of applicants between the ages of
30 and 40 no less frequently than every two years, and thereafter no less frequently
than annually.
Note 1: The purpose of routine electrocardiography is case finding. It does not
provide sufficient evidence to justify disqualification without further thorough
cardiovascular investigation.
Note 2: Guidance on resting and exercise electrocardiography is published in the
Manual of Civil Aviation Medicine (Doc 8984).
(2) An applicant who has undergone coronary bypass, grafting or angioplasty (with or
without stenting) or other cardiac intervention or who suffers from any other
potentially incapacitating cardiac condition shall be assessed unfit, unless the
applicant’s cardiac condition has been investigated and evaluated in accordance
with best medical practices and is assessed not likely to interfere with the safe
exercise of the applicant’s license or rating privileges.
(g) The systolic and diastolic blood pressures shall be within normal limits.
Note 1: The use of drugs for control of high blood pressure is disqualifying except for
those drugs. the use of which, according to accredited medical conclusion is
compatible with the safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges.
Note 2: Extensive guidance on the subject is published in the Manual of Civil Aviation
Medicine (Doc 8984).
(h) There shall be no significant functional, nor structural abnormality of the circulatory
tree.
(i) There shall be no acute disability of the lungs, nor any active disease of the structures
of the lungs, mediastinum or pleura. Radiography shall form a part of the medical
examination in all doubtful clinical cases.
(1) Radiography should form a part of the initial chest examination and should be
repeated periodically thereafter.
(j) Any extensive mutilation of the chest wall with collapse of the thoracic cage and
sequelae of surgical procedures resulting in decreased respiratory efficiency at altitude
shall be assessed as unfit.
(k) Cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease should be assessed as unfit if the
condition is causing symptoms.
(l) Cases of active pulmonary tuberculosis, duly diagnosed, shall be assessed as unfit.
Cases of quiescent or healed lesions which are known to be tuberculous, or are
presumably tuberculous in origin, may be assessed as fit.
Note 1: Guidance material on assessment of respiratory diseases is published in the
Note 2: Guidance material on hazards of the medications is published in the Manual
of Civil Aviation Medicine (Doc 8984).
(m) Cases of disabling disease with important impairment of function of the gastrointestinal
tract or its adnexae shall be assessed as unfit.
(n) The applicant shall be required to be completely free from those hernias that might
give rise to incapacitating symptoms.

2.10-8
PCAR PART 2
(o) Any sequelae of disease or surgical intervention on any part of the digestive tract or its
adnexae, likely to cause incapacity in flight, in particular any obstructions due to
structure or compression shall be assessed as unfit.
(1) An applicant who has undergone a major surgical operation on the biliary passages
or the digestive tract or its adnexae, which has involved a total or partial excision
or a diversion of any of these organs should be assessed as unfit until such time
as the medical Authority designated for the purpose by Republic of the Philippines
and having access to the details of the operation concerned considers that the
effects of the operation are not likely to cause incapacity in the air.
(p) Cases of metabolic, nutritional or endocrine disorders likely to interfere with the safe
exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges shall be assessed as unfit.
(q) Cases of insulin-treated diabetes mellitus shall be assessed as unfit. Proven cases of
non-insulin-treated diabetes mellitus shall be assessed as unfit unless the condition is
shown to be satisfactorily controlled by diet alone or by diet combined with oral
antidiabetic medication, the use of which, according to the accredited medical
conclusion are compatible with the safe exercise of the applicant’s license and rating
privileges.
(r) Cases of severe and moderate enlargement of the spleen persistently below the costal
margin shall be assessed as unfit.
(s) Cases of significant localized and generalized enlargement of the lymphatic glands
and of diseases of the blood shall be assessed as unfit, except in cases where
accredited medical conclusion indicates that the condition is not likely to affect the safe
exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges.
(1) Possession of the sickle cell trait should not be a reason for disqualification unless
there is positive medical evidence to the contrary.
(2) Cases in (r) due to a transient condition should be assessed as only temporarily
unfit.
(t) Cases presenting any signs of organic disease of the kidney shall be assessed as
unfit; those due to a transient condition may be assessed as temporarily unfit. Urine
examination shall form part of the medical examination and shall contain no abnormal
element considered by the medical examiner to be of pathological significance. Cases
of affections of the urinary passages and of the genital organs shall be assessed as
unfit; those due to a transient condition may be assessed as temporarily unfit.
(u) Any sequelae of disease or surgical procedures on the kidneys and the urinary tract
likely to cause incapacity, in particular any obstructions due to stricture or compression,
shall be assessed as unfit. Compensated nephrectomy without hypertension or uremia
may be assessed as fit.
(1) An applicant who has undergone a major surgical operation on the urinary system
which has involved a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of its organs
should be assessed as unfit until such time as the medical Authority designated for
the purpose by Republic of the Philippines and having access to the details of the
operation concerned considers that the effects of the operation are not likely to
cause incapacity in the air.
(v) An applicant for the first issue of a license who has a personal history of syphilis shall
be required to furnish evidence, satisfactory to the AME, that the applicant has
undergone adequate treatment.

2.10-9
PCAR PART 2
(w) Pregnancy shall be cause of temporary unfitness.

(1) In the absence of significant abnormalities, accredited medical conclusion may
indicate fitness during the middle months of pregnancy.
(x) Following confinement or termination of pregnancy, the applicant shall not be permitted
to exercise the privileges of her license until she has undergone reexamination and
has been assessed as fit.
(y) Any active disease of the bones, joints, muscles or tendons and all serious functional
sequelae of congenital or acquired disease shall be assessed as unfit. Functions after-
effects of lesion affecting the bones, joints, muscles or tendons and certain anatomical
defects compatible with the safe exercise of the applicants license and rating privileges
(z) Applicants who are seropositive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) shall be
assessed as unfit unless the applicant’s condition has been investigated and
evaluated in accordance with best medical practice and is assessed as not likely to
interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant’s license or rating privileges.
(aa) There shall be:
(1) no active pathological process, acute or chronic, of the internal ear or of the middle
ear;
(2) no unhealed (unclosed) perforation of the tympanic membranes. A single dry
perforation need not render the applicant unfit. Licenses shall not be issued or
renewed in these circumstances unless the appropriate hearing requirements in
Subpart 2.10.2.2.4 are complied with;
(3) no permanent obstruction of the Eustachian tubes;
(4) no permanent disturbances of the vestibular apparatus. Transient conditions may
be assessed as temporarily unfit.
Note: The details of the hearing requirements are set out in Subpart 2.10.2.4.
(bb) There shall be free nasal air entry on both sides. There shall be no serious
malformation, nor serious, acute or chronic affection of the buccal cavity or upper
respiratory tract. Cases of speech defects and stuttering shall be assessed as unfit.
2.10.2.2.3 VISUAL REQUIREMENTS

(a) The function of the eyes and their adnexa shall be normal. There shall be no active
pathological condition, acute or chronic, nor any sequelae of surgery or trauma of the
eyes or their adnexa likely to reduce proper visual function to an extent that would
interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges.
(b) Distant visual acuity with or without correction shall be 6/9 or better in each eye
separately, and binocular visual acuity shall be 6/6 or better. No limits apply to
uncorrected visual acuity. Where this standard of visual acuity can be obtained only
with correcting lenses, the applicant may be assessed as fit provided that:
(1) such correcting lenses are worn during the exercise of the privileges of the license
or rating applied for or held; and
(2) in addition, a pair of suitable correcting spectacles is kept readily available during
the exercise of the privileges of the applicant's license.

2.10-10
PCAR PART 2
Note: An applicant accepted as meeting these provisions is deemed to continue

to do so unless there is reason to suspect otherwise, in which case an ophthalmic
report is required at the discretion of the Authority. Both uncorrected and correct
visual acuity are normally measured and recorded at each re-examination.
Conditions which indicate a need to obtain an ophthalmic report include: a
substantial decrease in the uncorrected visual acuity; any decrease in best
corrected visual acuity, and the occurrence of eye disease, eye injury or eye
surgery.
(c) Applicants may use contact lenses to meet the requirement of (b) provided that:
(1) the lenses are monofocal and non-tinted;
(2) the lenses are well tolerated; and
(3) a pair of suitable correcting spectacles is kept readily available during the exercise
of the license privileges.
Note: Applicants who use contact lenses may not need to have their uncorrected
visual acuity measured at each re-examination provided the history of their
contact lens prescription is known.
(d) Applicants with a large refractive error shall use contact lenses or high-index spectacle
lenses. Note: If spectacles are used, high-index lenses are needed to minimize
peripheral field distortion.
(1) Applicants whose uncorrected distant visual acuity in either eye is worse than 6/60
shall be required to provide a full ophthalmic report prior to initial Medical certificate
and every five years thereafter.
Note 1: The purpose of the required ophthalmic examination is (1) to ascertain
normal visual performance and (2) to identify any significant pathology.
Note 2: Guidance on the assessment of monocular applicants under the
provisions of Subpart 2.10.1.5 is contained in the Manual of Civil Aviation
(e) Applicants who have undergone surgery affecting the refractive status of the eye shall
be assessed as unfit unless they are free from those sequelae which are likely to
interfere with the safe exercise of their license and rating privileges.
(f) The applicant shall have the ability to read, while wearing the correcting lenses, if any,
required by paragraph (b), the N5 chart or its equivalent at a distance selected by that
applicant in the range of 30 to 50 cm and the ability to read the N14 chart or its
equivalent at a distance of 100 cm. If this requirement is met only by the use of near
correction, the applicant may be assessed as fit provided that this near correction is
added to the spectacle correcting already prescribed in accordance with (b); if no such
correction is prescribed, a pair of spectacles for near use shall be kept readily available
during the exercise of the privileges of the license. When near correction is required,
the applicant shall demonstrate that one pair of spectacles is sufficient to meet both
distant and near visual requirements.
Note 1: N5 and N14 refer to the size of typeface used. For further details, see the
Note 2: Any applicant who needs near correction to meet this requirement will require
`look-over", bifocal or perhaps multifocal lenses in order to read the instruments and
a chart or manual held in the hand, and also to make use of distant vision, through
the windscreen, without removing the lenses. Single-vision near correction (full
lenses of one power only, appropriate for reading) significantly reduces distant visual
acuity and is therefore not acceptable.

2.10-11
PCAR PART 2
Note 3: Whenever there is a requirement to obtain or renew correcting lenses, an

applicant is expected to advise the refractionist of reading distances for the visual
flight deck tasks relevant to the types of aircraft in which the applicant is likely to
function.
(1) When near correction is required in accordance with this paragraph, a second pair
of near-correction spectacles shall be kept available for immediate use.
(g) The applicant shall be required to have normal fields of vision.
(h) The applicant shall be required to have normal binocular function.
Note: Defective stereopsis, abnormal convergence not interfering with near vision,
and ocular misalignment where the fusional reserves are sufficient to prevent
asthenopia and diplopia may not be disqualifying.

(a) The applicant, tested on a pure-tone audiometer at first issue of license, not less than
once every five years up to the age of 40 years, and thereafter not less than once every
three years, shall not have a hearing loss in either ear separately, of more than 35 dB
at any of the frequencies 500, 1 000 or 2 000 Hz, or more than 50 dB at 3 000 Hz.
However, an applicant with a hearing loss greater than the above may be declared fit
provided that:
(1) the applicant has a hearing performance in each ear separately equivalent to that
of a normal person, against a background noise that will simulate the masking
properties of flight deck noise upon speech and beacon signals; and
(2) the applicant has the ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet room,
using both ears, at a distance of 2m from the examiner, with the back turned to the
examiner.
(b) Alternatively, other methods providing equivalent results to those specified in
paragraph (a) shall be used.

(a) An applicant for a PPL, SPL, FOO and a Glider Pilot license or a Free Balloon Pilot
license shall undergo an initial medical examination for the issue of a Class 2 Medical
Certificate.
(b) Except where otherwise stated in this subpart, holders of a PPL, SPL, FOO and a
Glider Pilot license or a Free Balloon Pilot license shall have their Class 2 Medical
Certificate renewed at intervals not exceeding those specified in Subpart 2.10.1.8 (c).
requirements of this Part.


2.10-12
PCAR PART 2
applicant likely to become suddenly unable either to operate an aircraft safely or to
perform assigned duties safely.
(1) a psychosis;
(2) alcoholism;
(3) drug dependence;
in overt acts;
(5) a mental abnormality, or neurosis of a significant degree;
(6) such as might render the applicant unable to safely exercise the privileges of the
license applied for or held, unless accredited medical conclusion indicates that in
special circumstances, the applicant's failure to meet the requirement is such that
exercise of the privileges of the license applied for is not likely to jeopardize flight
safety; and
(7) a depression being treated with antidepressant medication, unless the medical
assessor, having access to the details of the case concerned, considers the
applicant’s condition as unlikely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant’s
license and rating privileges.
for or held.
the following:
(2) epilepsy:
cause:
privileges. A history of proven myocardial infarction shall be disqualifying.
extrasystoles which disappear on exercise, increase of pulse rate from excitement or
regarded as being “within normal" limits.

2.10-13
PCAR PART 2
(1) Electrocardiography should form part of the heart examination for the first issue of
a license, at the first re-examination after the ages 30 and 40, no less frequently
than every two years, and thereafter no less frequently than annually.
provide sufficient evidence to justify disqualification without further
thoroughcardiovascular investigation.
(2) An applicant who has undergone coronary bypass grafting or angioplasty (with or
potentially incapacitating cardiac condition shall be assessed as unfit unless the
those drugs, the use of which, according to accredited medical conclusion is
(h) There shall be no significant functional nor structural abnormality of the circulatory tree.
The presence of varicosities does not necessarily entail unfitness.
(i) There shall be no acute disability of the lungs nor any active disease of the structures
(j) Any extensive mutilation of the chest wall with collapse of the thoracic cage and
sequelae of surgical procedures resulting in decreased respiratory efficiency at altitude
shall be assessed as unfit.
(k) Cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease should be assessed as unfit if the
(l) Cases of active pulmonary tuberculosis, duly diagnosed, shall be assessed as unfit.
(m) Cases of disabling disease with important impairment of function of the gastrointestinal
(n) The applicant shall be required to be completely free from those hernias that might
(o) Any sequelae of disease or surgical intervention on any part of the digestive tract or its

2.10-14
PCAR PART 2
(1) An applicant who has undergone a major surgical operation on the biliary passages
or the digestive tract or its adnexae, which has involved a total or partial excision
or a diversion of any of these organs should be assessed as unfit until such time
as the medical Authority designated for the purpose by Republic of the Philippines
and having access to the details of the operation concerned considers that the
effects of the operation are not likely to cause incapacity in the air.
(p) Cases of insulin-treated diabetes mellitus shall be assessed as unfit. Proven cases of
diabetes mellitus shown to be satisfactorily controlled without the use of any
antidiabetic drug may be assessed as fit. The use of anti-diabetic drugs for the control
of diabetes mellitus is disqualifying except for those oral drugs administered under
conditions permitting appropriate medical supervision and control and which according
to accredited medical conclusion, are compatible with the safe exercise of the
applicant's license and rating privileges.
(q) Cases of severe and moderate enlargement of the spleen persistently below the costal
margin shall be assessed as unfit.
(r) Cases of significant localized and generalized enlargement of the lymphatic glands
(1) Possession of the sickle cell trait should not be a reason for disqualification unless
there is positive medical evidence to the contrary.
(2) Cases in (q) due to a transient condition should be assessed as only temporarily
unfit.
(s) Cases presenting any signs of organic disease of the kidney shall be assessed as
(t) Any sequelae of disease or surgical procedures on the kidneys and the urinary tract
(1) An applicant who has undergone a major surgical operation on the urinary system
which has involved a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of its organs
should be assessed as unfit until such time as the medical Authority designated for
the purpose by the Republic of the Philippines and having access to the details of
the operation concerned considers that the effects of the operation are not likely to
cause incapacity in the air.
(u) An applicant for the first issue of a license who has a personal history of syphilis shall
(v) Applicants who have a history of severe menstrual disturbances that have proved
unamenable to treatment and that are likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the
applicant's license and rating privileges shall be assessed as unfit.
(1) Applicants who have undergone gynaecological operations should be considered
individually.

2.10-15
PCAR PART 2
(w) Pregnancy shall be cause of temporary unfitness.

(x) Following confinement or termination of pregnancy, the applicant shall not be permitted
to exercise the privileges of her license until she has undergone reexamination and
has been assessed as fit.
(y) Any active disease of the bones. joints, muscles or tendons and all serious functional
sequelae of congenital or acquired disease shall be assessed as unfit. Certain
qualifying functional after-effects of lesion affecting the bones, joints, muscles or
tendons and certain anatomical defects compatible with the safe exercise of the
applicants license and rating privileges may be assessed as fit.
(z) Those who are seropositive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) shall be assessed
as unfit unless the applicant’s condition has been investigated and evaluated in
accordance with best medical practice and is assessed as not likely to interfere with
the safe exercise of the applicant’s license or rating privileges.
(aa) There shall be:
ear;
Note: The details of the hearing requirements are set out in 2.10.2.3.4.
(bb) There shall be no serious malformation nor serious, acute or chronic affection of the
buccal cavity or upper respiratory tract.

Note: An applicant accepted as meeting these provisions is deemed to continue to
do so unless there is reason to suspect otherwise, in which case an ophthalmic

2.10-16
PCAR PART 2
surgery.
(c) Applicants may use contact lenses to meet the requirement of paragraph (b) provided
that:
(1) the lenses are monofocal and non-tinted:
lenses.
Note: If spectacles are used, high-index lenses are needed to minimize peripheral
field distortion.
(e) Applicants whose uncorrected distant visual acuity in either eye is worse than 6/60
should be required to provide a full ophthalmic report prior to initial Medical Certificate
Note 1: The purpose of the required ophthalmic examination is (1) to ascertain
normal visual performance; and (2) to identify any significant pathology.
Note 2: Guidance on the assessment of monocular applicants under the provisions of
Subpart 2.10.1.5 is contained in the Manual of Civil Aviation Medicine (Doc 8984).
(f) Applicants who have undergone surgery affecting the refractive status of the eye shall
(g) The applicant shall have the ability to read, while wearing the correcting lenses, if any,
required by (b), the N5 chart or its equivalent at a distance selected by that applicant
in the range of 30 to 50 cm and the ability to read the N14 chart or its equivalent at a
distance of 100 cm. If this requirement is met only by the use of near correction, the
applicant may be assessed as fit provided that this near correction is added to the
spectacle correcting already prescribed in accordance with (b); if no such correction is
prescribed, a pair of spectacles for near use shall be kept readily available during the
exercise of the privileges of the license. When near correction is required, the applicant
shall demonstrate that one pair of spectacles is sufficient to meet both distant and near
visual requirements.
-look-over", bifocal or perhaps multifocal lenses in order to read the instruments and
function.

2.10-17
PCAR PART 2
(h) The applicant shall be required to have normal fields of vision.
(i) The applicant shall be required to have normal binocular function.
Note: Defective stereopsis, abnormal convergence not interfering with near vision,

(a) The medical examination shall be based on the following requirements:
(1) The applicant tested on a pure-tone audiometer at first issue of license, and every
three (3) years after the age of 50 years, shall not have a hearing loss in either ear
separately, of more than 35 dB at any of the frequencies 500, 1000 or 2000 Hz, or
more than 50 dB at 3000 Hz. However, an applicant with a hearing loss greater
than the above may be declared fit provided that:
(i) the applicant has hearing performance in each ear separately equivalent to that
of a normal person, against a background noise that will simulate the masking
properties of flight deck noise upon speech and beacon signals; and
(ii) the applicant has the ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet
room, using both ears, at a distance of 2m from the examiner, with the back
turned to the examiner.
(2) Alternatively, other methods providing equivalent results to those specified in
paragraph (1) shall be used.

(a) An applicant for an Air Traffic Controller license shall undergo an initial medical
examination for the issue of a Class 3 Medical Certificate.
(b) Except where otherwise stated in this subpart, holders of an Air Traffic Controller
license shall have their Class 3 Medical Certificate renewed at intervals not exceeding
those specified in Subpart 2.10.1.8 (c).
requirements of this Part.

applicant likely to become suddenly unable to perform assigned duties safely.
(1) a psychosis:
(2) alcoholism;
(3) drug dependence,

2.10-18
PCAR PART 2
in overt acts;
(5) a mental abnormality, or neurosis of a significant degree,
(i) such as might render the applicant unable to safely exercise the privileges of
the license applied for or held, unless accredited medical conclusion indicates
that in special circumstances, the applicant's failure to meet the requirement is
such that exercise of the privileges of the license applied for is not likely to
jeopardize flight safety.
for or held.
the following:
(2) epilepsy;
cause;
privileges. An applicant indicated by accredited medical conclusion to have made a
satisfactory recovery from myocardial infarction may be assessed as fit.
extrasystoles which disappear on exercise, increase of pulse rate from excitement or
regarded as being within ”normal“ limits.
(1) Electrocardiography shall form part of the heart examination for the first issue of a
license, and shall be included in re-examination of the applicant between the ages
30 and 40 no less frequently than every two years, and thereafter no less frequently
than annually.
provide sufficient evidence to justify disqualification without further thorough
cardiovascular investigation.
(2) An applicant who has undergone coronary bypass, grafting or angioplasty (with or
potentially incapacitating cardiac condition shall be assessed unfit, unless the

2.10-19
PCAR PART 2
those drugs, the use of which, according to accredited medical conclusion is
(h) There shall be no significant functional nor structural abnormality of the circulatory tree.
The presence of varicosities does not necessarily entail unfitness.
(i) There shall be no acute disability of the lungs nor any active disease of the structures
(j) Cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease should be assessed as unfit if the
(k) Cases of active pulmonary tuberculosis, duly diagnosed, shall be assessed as unfit.
(l) Cases of disabling disease with important impairment of function of the gastrointestinal
(m) The applicant shall be required to be completely free from those hernias that might
(n) Any sequelae of disease or surgical intervention on any part of the digestive tract or its
(o) Cases of metabolic, nutritional or endocrine disorders likely to interfere with the safe
exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges shall be assessed as unfit.
(p) Cases of insulin treated diabetes mellitus shall be assessed as unfit. Proven cases of
diabetes mellitus shown to be satisfactorily controlled without the use of any
antidiabetic drug may be assessed as fit. The use of anti-diabetic drugs for the control
of diabetes mellitus is disqualifying except for those oral drugs administered under
conditions permitting appropriate medical supervision and control and which according
to accredited medical conclusion, are compatible with the safe exercise of the
applicant's license and rating privileges.
(q) Cases of significant localized and generalized enlargement of the lymphatic glands
(1) Cases in (q) due to a transient condition should be assessed as only temporarily
unfit.

2.10-20
PCAR PART 2
(r) Cases presenting any signs of organic disease of the kidney shall be assessed as
(s) Any sequelae of disease or surgical procedures on the kidneys and the urinary tract
(t) An applicant for the first issue of a license who has a personal history of syphilis shall
(u) Applicants who have a history of severe menstrual disturbances that have proved
unamenable to treatment and that are likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the
applicant's license and rating privileges shall be assessed as unfit.
(v) Pregnancy shall be cause of temporary unfitness:
(2) Following confinement or termination of pregnancy, the applicant shall not be
permitted to exercise the privileges of her license until she has undergone
reexamination and has been assessed as fit.
(w) Any active disease of the bones, joints, muscles or tendons and all serious functional
sequelae of congenital or acquired disease shall be assessed as unfit. Functional after-
effects of lesion affecting the bones, joints, muscles or tendons and certain anatomical
defects compatible with the safe exercise of the applicants license and rating privileges
(x) Those who are seropositive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) shall be assessed
as unfit unless the applicant’s condition has been investigated and evaluated in
accordance with best medical practice and is assessed as not likely to interfere with
the safe exercise of the applicant’s license or rating privileges.
Note: Early diagnosis and active management of HIV disease with antiretroviral
therapy reduces morbidity and improves prognosis and thus increases the likelihood
of a fit assessment.
(y) There shall be:
ear;
(2) no unhealed (unclosed) perforations of the tympanic membrane. A single dry
perforation need not render the applicant unfit. License shall not be issued or
renewed in these circumstances unless the appropriate hearing requirements in
Subpart 2.10.2.2.4 are complied with;
(3) no permanent obstruction of the Eustachian tubes; and
Note: The details of the hearing requirements are set out in Subpart 2.10.2.4.4.

2.10-21
PCAR PART 2
(z) There shall be no serious malformation, nor serious, acute or chronic affection of the
buccal cavity or upper respiratory tract. Cases of speech defects and stuttering shall
be assessed as unfit.

Note: An applicant accepted as meeting these provisions is deemed to continue
to do so unless there is reason to suspect otherwise in which case an ophthalmic
surgery.
(c) Applicants may use contact lenses to meet the requirement of (b) provided that:
(1) the lenses are monofocal and non-tinted:
lenses.
Note: If spectacles are used, high-index lenses are needed to minimize peripheral
field distortion.
(e) Applicants whose uncorrected distant visual acuity in either eye is worse than 6/60
should be required to provide a full ophthalmic report prior to initial Medical Certificate
Note 1: The purpose of the required ophthalmic examination is 1) to ascertain normal
visual performance and 2) to identify any significant pathology.
Note 2: Guidance on the assessment of monocular applicants under the provisions of
2.10.1.5 is contained in the Manual of Civil Aviation Medicine (Doc 8984).

2.10-22
PCAR PART 2
(f) Applicants who have undergone surgery affecting the refractive status of the eye shall
(g) The applicant shall have the ability to read, while wearing the correcting lenses, if any,
required by (b), the N5 chart or its equivalent at a distance selected by that applicant
in the range of 30 to 50 cm and the ability to read the N14 chart or its equivalent at a
distance of 100 cm. If this requirement is met only by the use of near correction, the
applicant may be assessed as fit provided that this near correction is added to the
spectacle correcting already prescribed in accordance with (b); if no such correction is
prescribed. a pair of spectacles for near use shall be kept readily available during the
exercise of the privileges of the license. When near correction is required, the applicant
shall demonstrate that one pair of spectacles is sufficient to meet both distant and near
visual requirements.
“Look-over", bifocal or perhaps multifocal lenses in order to read the instruments and
function.
(h) The applicant shall be required to have normal fields of vision.
(i) The applicant shall be required to have normal binocular function.
Note: Defective stereopsis: abnormal convergence not interfering with near vision,

(a) The applicant, tested on a pure-tone audiometer at first issue of license, not less than
once every five years up to the age of 40 years, and thereafter not less than once every
three years, shall not have a hearing loss in either ear separately, of more than 35 dB
at any of the frequencies 500, 1000 or 2000 Hz, or more than 50 dB at 3000 Hz.
However, an applicant with a hearing loss greater than the above may be declared fit
provided that:
(1) the applicant has a hearing performance in each ear separately equivalent to that
of a normal person, against a background noise that will simulate the that
experienced in a typical air traffic control working environment; and
(2) the applicant has the ability to hear an average conversational voice in a quiet
room, using both ears, at a distance of 2m from the examiner, with the back turned
to the examiner.

2.10-23
PCAR PART 2
(b) Alternatively, other methods providing equivalent results to those specified in (a) shall
be used.
2.10.2.4.5 MEDICAL REQUIREMENTS FOR THE SCHEDULED COMMERCIAL AIR

OPERATORS
The following general medical requirements shall apply to the scheduled commercial air
operators’ medical services:
(a) A scheduled commercial air operator shall have a medical service in support of its
operation whose head shall be at least an Aviation Medical Specialist.
(b) A scheduled commercial air operator Medical Examiner shall not perform medical
examination of airmen of the scheduled commercial air operator for the purpose of
securing original or renewal of airmen licenses or rating(s). He shall be mainly
concerned in keeping the flight crew members of the scheduled commercial air
operator physically and mentally fit to perform flight duties at all times.
2.10.2.4.6 PENALTIES
Any person who violates any provisions of these rules and regulations shall be liable to
the provisions and penalties prescribed in Chapter XI of the Civil Aviation Authority Act of
2008 (Republic Act No. 9497).

2.10-24
PCAR PART 2
2.11 RESERVED
2.12 GROUND INTRUCTOR LICENSE
2.12.1 GENERAL
The applicant for an instructor rating or license – airplane or helicopter, shall:
(a) Hold at least a valid commercial pilot license with instrument rating if instrument
instructions is to be given or have completed the necessary (ATO) Approved Training
Organization on the subjects/courses to be handled or otherwise established his
competence to provide such instruction; and
(b) Hold a specific authorization/license granted by the Authority
2.12.2 GROUND INSTRUCTORS LICENSE

(a) Age. The applicant for a ground instructor rating or license shall be not less than 21
years of age.
(b) Knowledge:
(1) The applicant for a ground instructor rating or license shall have met the knowledge
requirements for the issuance of a CPL as specified in PCAR Part 2.3.3.3 and
2.3.3.8, as applicable;
(2) Must be able to read, speak, write and understand the English language;
(3) In addition, the applicant for a ground instructor license shall meet the requirements
of 2.3.3.11(b)(2)(ii)(A) - (L) from an authorized instructor; and
(4) Has obtained instructional experience for at least twenty (20) hours certified by a
currently licensed ground instructor by having presented each subject he/she is to
teach, in its entirety, to a minimum of group of student class.
(c) Issuance. For original issuance of ground instructor rating or license, the applicant
shall submit the following;
(1) Certification or proof that he meets the eligibility requirements for a ground
instructor;
(2) Passed the knowledge test for ground instructor; and
(3) Passed a practical examination on each subject he/she is to teach.
(d) Medical Fitness. The applicant for a ground instructor rating or license shall be holder
of a current Class 2 Medical Certificate
(e) Privileges. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in the existing
aviation regulations on Ground Instruction, the privileges of the holder of a ground
instructor license shall be:
(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, provide a course of instruction
in each subject for which he has passed the practical demonstration required.
(2) Provide instruction in an approved training program under PCAR Part 8 and Part 9
in which subjects for which he is qualified under that training program; and
(3) If rated on a higher horsepower single engine aircraft, provide instruction on all
aircraft systems and subjects for aircraft of an equal or lower horsepower rating
made by the same manufacturer.
(4) These provisions are not applicable to aircraft with a different propulsion system;
that is, piston, turbo-propeller or turbojet.

2.12-1
PCAR PART 2
(f) Validity. Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in these Guidelines,
the validity period of the license is 5 years. For renewal of the ground instructor see
PCAR Part 2.2.3, and must present the evidence to the authority within thirty (30) days
prior to the expiry of his/her license, that he/she has exercised the privileges of said
license during its validity.

2.12-2
PCAR PART 2
2.13 RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

2.13.1 APPLICABILITY
(a) This Subsection applies to all persons conducting Remotely Piloted Aircraft
System for commercial operations.
(b) This likewise applies to all persons conducting Remotely Piloted Aircraft System
for non-commercial operations using Large RPAs or operating within the controlled
or prohibited airspace in relation to PCAR Part 11.11.3 (c).
2.13.2 APPLICATION FOR RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

(a) The application for RPA Controller’s Certificate shall be made in writing, signed
and sworn to by the applicant. The application shall also state the following:
(1) The date and place of filing;
(2) The name of applicant;
(3) The address of the applicant;
(4) The intended RPA to be controlled;
(5) Details of any flight crew license, air traffic control license or operations officer
license that the applicant holds (include details of ratings, endorsements and
qualifications);
(6) Details of applicant’s experience in operating RPAs.
(7) Evidence of the completion of any training course in RPA operation that the
applicant has undertaken.
(b) The Authority may refuse to consider, or cease considering, the application until
the applicant gives the information or a copy of it.
2.13.3 ELIGIBILITY FOR RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

(a) No person is eligible for the issuance of an RPA Controller Certificate unless he or
she:
(1) Has completed an RPAs training course as conducted by the RPA
manufacturer in the operation of the type of RPA that he or she proposes to
operate; and
(2) Has at least five (5) hours experience in operating RPAs outside controlled
airspace.
(3) Has Passed RPAS Exam.
(4) Has passed the demonstration flight conducted by the authorized personnel of
the Authority.
2.13.4 CONDITIONS AS RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

(a) The Authority may impose a condition on the authorization of a person as a RPA
controller in the interest of air navigation safety.
(b) Without limiting the generality of paragraph (a), the following conditions may be
imposed:
(1) Allow the person to control RPAs of only specified kinds; or

2.13-1
PCAR PART 2
(2) Limit the areas where he or she may control RPAs; or

(3) Allow him or her to control RPAs only in VMC.
2.13.5 RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE: CONTENTS

(a) The RPA Controller Certificate shall contain the following information:
(1) Name of the person;
(2) Address;
(3) RPA Controller PEL Number;
(4) Conditions and Limitations;
(5) Type rating; and
(6) Period of validity.
2.13.6 VALIDITY OF RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

(a) An RPA Controller Certificate issued by the Authority is effective for a period of
five (5) years from date of issuance and remains valid until:
(1) The Authority amends, suspends, revokes or otherwise terminates the
certificate;
(2) The RPA Controller surrenders it to the Authority.
2.13.7 SHOW CAUSE NOTICE TO RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

HOLDER
(a) The Authority may give a show cause notice to an RPA Controller Certificate
Holder if there are reasonable grounds for believing that there are facts or
circumstances that would justify the cancellation of the certification under PCAR
Part 2 Subpart 2.13.8
(b) A show cause notice shall include the following:
(1) tell the controller of the facts and circumstances that, in Authority’s opinion,
would justify the cancellation of the RPA Controller Certificate under PCAR
Part 2 Subpart 2.13.8; and
(2) invite the controller to show in writing, within a reasonable time stated in the
notice, why the RPA Controller Certificate should not be cancelled.
(c) A show cause notice may state that the RPA Controller Certificate is suspended if
the Authority reasonably considers that there may be a serious risk to air
navigation safety if the certification were not to be suspended.
(d) If a show cause notice states that the RPA Controller Certificate is suspended, the
certification is suspended from when the notice is given to the holder.
(e) The Authority may at any time revoke the suspension.
(f) If the approval is suspended and the Authority has not dealt with it under PCAR
Part 2 Subpart 2.13.8 within 90 days after the day it is suspended, the suspension
lapses at the end of that period.

2.13-2
PCAR PART 2
2.13.8 CANCELLATION OF RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE

(a) The Authority may cancel an RPA Controller certificate by written notice to the
controller, if:
(1) The Authority has given to the controller a show cause notice under PCAR Part
2 Subpart 2.13.7 in relation to it;
(2) The Authority has taken into account any representation made, within the
period stated in the notice, by or on behalf of the controller; and
(3) there are reasonable grounds for believing that the controller:
(i) has operated an RPA in contravention of these Subpart or of a condition of
the certification; or
(ii) has operated the RPA negligently or carelessly; or
(iii) in operating the RPA, has recklessly endangered human life or property.
(b) If the Authority has given a show cause notice under PCAR Part 2 Subpart 2.13.7
to an RPA Controller Certificate Holder, and it decides not to cancel the approval,
the Authority shall:
(1) Inform the controller in writing of the decision; and/or
(2) Revoke the suspension if the controller’s authorization is suspended under that
regulation.
2.13.9 CANCELLATION AT REQUEST OF HOLDER

(a) The Authority may cancel a RPA Controller Certificate if asked to do so in writing
by the controller.
(b) The cancellation takes effect upon the issuance by the Authority of such order
cancelling the RPA Controller Certificate.
2.13.10 VALIDATION OF FOREIGN RPA CONTROLLER CERTIFICATE,

LICENSE OR AUTHORIZATION
(a) A person who holds a current and valid RPA Controller Certificate, License or
Authorization issued by another Contracting State may apply for a validation of
such license or authorization for use on Remotely Piloted Aircraft registered with
the Authority.
(b) The Authority shall verify with the authenticity of the license/authorization and
ratings with the issuing state.
(c) A validation certificate will be issued, provided:
(1) that the applicant shall present to the Authority the foreign issued
license/authorization.
(2) that the foreign issued license/authorization is current and valid.
(d) A validation certificate, based upon the relevant foreign issued
license/authorization, will be issued provided the following requirements are met:
(1) The applicant for the validation certificate shall present to the Authority the
foreign license/authorization and evidence of the experience required by PCAR
Part 2; 2.13.3.

2.13-3
PCAR PART 2
(2) The validation certificate will be valid for one (1) year, provided that the foreign
license/authorization are still current and valid.
(3) The applicant for the validation certificate shall:
(i) have completed RPA training course conducted by the RPA manufacturer
in the operation of the type of RPA that he or she proposes to operate;
(ii) have at least five (5) hours experience in operating RPAs.
(iii) pass the demonstration flight conducted by the authorized personnel of the
Authority.

2.13-4
PCAR PART 2
2.14 AIR TRAFFIC SAFETY ELECTRONIC PERSONNEL LICENSE AND

RATINGS
2.14.1 APPLICABILITY
This section prescribes the requirements for the issuance of an Air Traffic Safety Electronic
Personnel (ATSEP) license and ratings.
2.14.2 GENERAL
An applicant shall, before being issued with an ATSEP license, meet such requirements
in respect of age, knowledge, experience, skill, medical fitness as specified for that license
or rating.
2.14.3 REQUIREMENTS FOR THE ISSUE OF THE LICENSE

2.14.3.1 AGE.
The applicant shall be at least 21 years of age.
2.14.3.2 KNOWLEDGE.
The applicant for an ATSEP license shall:
(i) have satisfactorily completed an approved training course conducted by an
authorized instructor and/or acceptable to the Authority with at least knowledge
subject as specified in IS 2.14.3.2 APPENDIX A;
(ii) have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the
person is prepared for the required knowledge test; and
(iii) have passed the required knowledge test on the knowledge subjects of item (i) of
this Part.
2.14.3.3 EXPERIENCE.
The applicant for an ATSEP license shall have completed not less than Three Hundred
Twenty (320) hours of Facility Familiarization Training in the preventive maintenance of an
Air Navigation Facility Equipment under the supervision of an authorized instructor.
2.14.3.4 SKILL.
The applicant for an ATSEP license shall:
(i) have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the
person is prepared for the required skill test as specified in IS 2.14.3.4 APPENDIX
B; and
(ii) have demonstrated, by passing a skill test, the ability to perform the privileges as
specified in 2.14.4.(a) or (b) as appropriate.
2.14.3.5 MEDICAL FITNESS.

The applicant shall hold a current Class 3 Medical Certificate.

2.14-1
PCAR PART 2
2.14.4 PRIVILEGES OF THE HOLDER OF LICENSE

Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in 2.14.3, the privileges of the holder
of an ATSEP license shall:
(a) except as specified in paragraphs (b) of this subsection and provided the licensed
ATSEP has:
(1) Satisfactorily performed the work at an earlier date;
(2) Demonstrated the ability to perform the work to the satisfaction of the Authority;
(3) Received training acceptable to the Authority on the tasks to be performed; and
(4) Performed the work under the direction of a licensed ATSEP designated by the
Authority:
(i) perform activities related to the establishments and/or improvement of air
navigation facilities;
(ii) implement approved plans and design for the establishment and/or
improvement of air navigation facilities;
(iii) formulate and/or implement standard procedures and regulations, and conduct
evaluation of air navigation facilities; and
(iv) administer, manage, supervise, and/or train on the functional operation and
maintenance of CNS/ATM systems.
(b) operate and maintain a CNS/ATM system and equipment under the direct supervision
of an appropriately rated ATSEP.
2.14.5 VALIDITY OF LICENSE

Subject to compliance of the requirements specified in 2.14.3, the license is valid for five
(5) years from the date of issuance provided that the license holder shall:
(a) continue to perform ATSEP functions within the Authority;
(b) continue to exercise any of the Privileges as specified in 2.14.4; and
(c) hold a current class 3 medical certificate.
2.14.6 REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RENEWAL OF LICENSES

A holder of an ATSEP license desiring to renew his/her license must accomplish and
submit the following, within 30 days prior to the expiry of his/her license:
(a) Application for the renewal of license;
(b) current Class 3 medical certificate; and
(c) Certification or proof that the holder continues to exercise any of the privileges of the
license.
2.14.7 ATSEP RATING

ATSEP ratings are issued specific for each equipment type, brand and model, and shall
comprise the following categories:
(a) Communications Equipment Rating
(b) Radio Navigational Aids Equipment Rating

2.14-2
PCAR PART 2
(c) Surveillance Equipment Rating

(d) Data Processing System Rating
2.14.8 REQUIREMENTS for ATSEP RATINGS

2.14.8.1 KNOWLEDGE.
The applicant for an ATSEP rating shall:
(i) have satisfactorily completed an approved training course conducted by an
authorized instructor and/or acceptable to the Authority with at least subject areas
as specified in IS 2.14.8.1 APPENDIX C
(ii) have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the
person is prepared for the required written and/or oral test; and
(iii) have demonstrated a required level of knowledge, through written and/or oral test,
covering the areas specified in item (i) of this Part for a specific equipment for which
the rating is sought.
2.14.8.2 EXPERIENCE.
(i) have rendered a service of at least one (1) year in the preventive and corrective
maintenance of a specific equipment for which the rating is sought under the
supervision of an appropriately rated ATSEP.
2.14.8.3 SKILL.
(i) have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor who certifies that the
person is prepared for the required practical/skill test as specified in IS 2.14.8.3
APPENDIX D; and
(ii) have demonstrated a level of skills, by passing a practical/skill test, appropriate to
the privileges as specified in 2.14.9 for a specific equipment for which the rating is
sought.
2.14.9 PRIVILEGES OF THE HOLDER OF RATING

Subject to compliance with the requirements specified in 2.14.8, the privileges of the holder
of an ATSEP license with one or more ratings shall be to:
(a) perform and/or supervise the operation, and maintenance of a specific equipment for
which the license holder is rated;
(b) conduct on-the-job training for a specific equipment; and
(c) certify the reliability and recommend the return-to-service of a specific equipment for
which the license holder is rated following a preventive and/or corrective maintenance
procedures.

2.14-3
PCAR PART 2
2.14.10 VALIDITY OF RATINGS

The rating shall become invalid when an ATSEP has ceased to exercise any of the
privileges of the rating for at least one (1) year. A rating shall remain invalid until the
ATSEP’s ability to exercise the privileges of the rating has been re-validated.
2.14.11 REQUIREMENTS FOR THE RE-VALIDATION OF RATING

A holder of an ATSEP Rating desiring to re-validate his/her Rating shall:
(a) hold a current Class 3 medical certificate; and
(b) pass the skill test for the relevant ratings that he or she wants to be validated relevant
to the privileges of the rating held and/or demonstrate to the satisfaction of the
Authority the knowledge relevant to the rating to be validated.

2.14-4
PCAR PART 2

(CAR)
PART 2: IS
PERSONNEL LICENSING:
IMPLEMENTING STANDARDS

IS-1
PCAR PART 2
IS 2.2.1 ISSUE, RENEWAL AND RE-ISSUE OF LICENSES, RATINGS,

AUTHORIZATIONS AND CERTIFICATES
(a) Issue, renewal and re-issue of licenses, ratings, Authorizations and certificates will take
place when the applicant meets the requirements of Part 2 for issue, renewal and re-
issue for these licenses, ratings, Authorizations and certificates.
(b) Issue, renewal and re-issue of licenses, ratings, Authorizations and certificates will be
performed by the Authority.
(c) Notwithstanding (b), renewal of ratings and category II/III pilot Authorizations may be
performed by the Examiner, when delegated by the Authority.
(d) Notwithstanding (b), renewal of medical certificates may be performed by the AME,
when delegated by the Authority.
(e) Application for the issue, renewal and re-issue of licenses, ratings. Authorizations or
certificates by the Authority shall be done by submitting to the Authority a properly filled
out form, which form can be obtained from the Authority. This form must be submitted
to the Authority at least 14 days before the expiry date.
IS 2.2.4.3 APPENDIX A: PROCEDURES FOR CONVERSION OF A PPL

(a) The holder of a private pilot license issued by another Contracting State may directly
apply for a conversion of his or her license, without prior holding a validation as is
required for PPL/IR or professional licenses under Subpart 2.2.4.3 (b).
(b) The applicant shall, before application for a conversion, complete the requirements of
Subpart 2.2.4.3 (a).
(c) Application for the issue of a conversion of a license issued by another Contracting
State must be done by submitting to the Authority a properly filled out form, which form
can be obtained from the Authority.
(d) The application form for the issue of a conversion of a license issued by another
Contracting State must be submitted to the Authority at least 14 days in advance of
the date the conversion is desired.
(e) The valid license from the other Contracting State and the record (e.g.) logbook must
be presented to the Authority
(f) The applicant shall hold a medical certificate relevant to the license applied for and this
medical certificate will be issued by the Authority of Republic of the Philippines, when
the applicant complies with the requirements of this Part.
(g) The Authority, that issues a license based on a license issued by another Contracting
State, remains responsible for the converted license.
IS 2.2.4.3 APPENDIX B: PROCEDURES FOR CONVERSION OF A PPL/R, CPL,

CPL/IR, ATPL AND FLIGHT ENGINEER LICENSE
(a) The applicant shall, before application for a conversion, complete the requirements of
Subpart 2.2.4.3. (b).
(b) Application for the conversion of a license issued by another Contracting State shall
be made by submitting a properly filled out form to the Authority, which form can be
obtained from the Authority.

IS-2
PCAR PART 2
(c) The application form for the issue of a conversion of a license issued by another
Contracting State must be submitted to the Authority at least 14 days in advance of
the date the conversion is desired.
(d) The valid license from the other Contracting State and the record (e.g. logbook) must
be presented to the Authority.
(e) The applicant shall hold a medical certificate relevant to the license applied for and this
(f) The Authority, that issues a license based on a license issued by another Contracting
State, remains responsible for the converted license.
IS 2.2.4.3 APPENDIX C: PROCEDURES FOR VALIDATION AND CONVERSION OF

FLIGHT CREW LICENSES BY RELIANCE UPON THE LICENSING
SYSTEM OF ANOTHER CONTRACTING STATE
(a) The Authority that issues a license based on a license from another Contracting State
remains responsible for the validation certificate and the converted license.
(b) The Authority should, before making the agreement mentioned in Subpart 2.2.4.3
(a)(3) be convinced, that the other Contracting State issues licenses in conformity with
at least this Part.
(c) An inspector or experienced pilot from Republic of the Philippines, or from another
Contracting State delegated by the Authority of Republic of the Philippines, must visit
the other Contracting State to be convinced that the licensing system in the other
Contracting State is in conformity with at least this Part. A report describing the bases
for the decision shall be made to the Authority of Republic of the Philippines.
(d) An Air Law test must be arranged if the Air Law system of Republic of the Philippines
is different from the Air Law system from the other Contracting State.
(e) Renewal and re-issue of the validation certificate or the converted licenses and ratings:
(1) when examiners are available in Republic of the Philippines to perform proficiency
checks for the renewal of rating(s) or skill tests for the re-issue of the license or
rating(s), these tests/checks will be performed by the authorized examiners of
Republic of the Philippines;
(2) when examiners are not available in Republic of the Philippines to perform
proficiency checks for the renewal of the rating(s) or skill test for the re-issue of the
license or rating(s), the availability of examiners for these tests/checks from the
other Contracting State can be arranged in the agreement mentioned in Subpart
2.2.4.3 (a)(3).
(f) Application for the validation certificate and the conversion of a license from another
Contracting State shall be done by submitting to the Authority a properly filled out form,
which form can be obtained from the Authority.
(g) The valid license from the other Contracting State and the record (e.g. logbook) must
be presented to the Authority
(h) The applicant shall hold a medical certificate relevant to the license applied for and this
IS 2.2.5 MILITARY FLIGHT CREW AND MECHANICS

IS-3
PCAR PART 2
(i) Requirements for a military pilot to meet the requirements of Subpart 2.2.5.
(ii) Military pilots on active flying status within the past 12 months. The holder of a military
pilot license (or certificate) who has been on active flying status within the 12 months
before applying shall:
(1) Pass a knowledge test on the appropriate parts of these regulations that apply to
pilot privileges and limitations, air traffic and general operating rules, and accident
reporting rules;
(2) Present documentation showing compliance with the requirements of paragraph
(c) of this subsection for at least one aircraft category rating; and
(3) Present documentation showing that the applicant is or was, at any time during the
12 calendar months before the month of application the holder of a military pilot
license (or certificate) on active flying status in an armed force of the Republic of
the Philippines.
(iii) Aircraft category, class and type ratings. The Authority may issue to the holder of a
military pilot license (or certificate) an aircraft category, class or type rating to a
commercial pilot license if the pilot present documentary evidence that shows
satisfactory accomplishment of:
(1) A military pilot check and instrument proficiency check of the Republic of the
Philippines in that aircraft category, class or type, if applicable, as PIC during the
12 calendar months before the month of application; and
(2) At least 10 hours of PIC time in that aircraft category, class or type, if applicable,
during the 12 calendar months before the month of application.
(iv) Instrument rating. The holder of a military pilot license (or certificate) may apply for an
airplane or helicopter instrument rating to be added to his or her commercial pilot
license if the pilot has, within the 12 calendar months preceding the month of
application:
(1) Passed an instrument proficiency check by an armed force of the Republic of the
Philippines in the aircraft category for the instrument rating sought; and
(2) Received Authorization from an armed force of the Republic of the Philippines to
conduct IFR flights on airways in that aircraft category and class for the instrument
rating sought.
(v) Aircraft type rating. The Authority will issue an aircraft type rating only for aircraft types
that the Authority has certified for civil operations.
(vi) Aircraft type rating placed on an airline transport pilot license. The Authority may issue
to the holder of a military pilot license (or certificate) who holds an airline transport pilot
license an aircraft type rating provided that the pilot:
(1) Holds a category and type rating for that type of aircraft at the airline transport pilot
license level; and
(2) Passed an official military pilot of the Republic of the Philippines check and
instrument proficiency check in that type of aircraft as PIC during the 12 calendar
months before the month of application.
(vii) Evidentiary documents. The Authority may accept the following documents as
satisfactory evidence of military pilot status.
(1) An official identification card issued to the pilot by an armed force to demonstrate
membership in the armed forces.

IS-4
PCAR PART 2
(2) An original or a copy of a certificate of discharge or release from an armed force of

the Republic of the Philippines;
(3) At least one of the following:
(i) An order of an armed force of the Republic of the Philippines to flight status as
a military pilot
(ii) An armed force form or logbook showing military pilot status; or
(iii) an order showing that the applicant graduated from a military pilot school of the
Republic of the Philippines and received a rating as a military pilot.
(4) A certified armed force logbook or an appropriate official armed force form or
summary to demonstrate flight time in military aircraft as a member of an armed
force of the Republic of the Philippines.
(5) An official armed force of Republic of the Philippines record of a military designation
as PIC.
(6) An official record of satisfactory accomplishment of an instrument proficiency check
during the 12 calendar months preceding the month of application.
IS 2.2.6 APPENDIX A: PREREQUISITES FOR A KNOWLEDGE TEST

(a) The applicant shall, before passing the knowledge test for a license or rating:
(1) have satisfactorily accomplished the required training;
(2) have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record, that has been signed
by an authorized instructor, who certifies that the applicant is prepared for the
knowledge test.
IS 2.2.6 APPENDIX B: PREREQUISITES FOR A SKILL TEST

(a) An applicant shall, before passing the skill test for a license or rating:
(1) have passed the required knowledge test within the 24-calendar-month period
preceding the month the applicant completes the skill test;
(2) have satisfactorily accomplished the required training and obtained the experience
prescribed by Part 2 for the license or rating sought;
(3) meet the prescribed age requirement of this Part for the issuance of the license or
rating sought; and
(4) have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record that has been signed
by an authorized instructor, who certifies that the applicant is prepared for the
required skill test.
(b) An applicant for an airline transport pilot license may take the skill test for that license
with a knowledge test report that has been completed within a period of seven (7) years
before the application, provided the applicant is employed as a flight crew member by
a certificate holder under Part 9 at the time of the skill test.
IS 2.2.7 LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY

(a) General
(1) To meet the language proficiency requirements contained in Subpart 2.2.7, an
applicant for a license or a license holder shall demonstrate, in a manner

IS-5
PCAR PART 2
acceptable to the Authority, compliance with the holistic descriptors in paragraph

(b) below and with the Operational Level (Level 4) of the Language Proficiency
Rating Scale as mentioned in paragraph c) below.
(b) Holistic descriptors: Proficient speakers shall:
(1) communicate effectively in voice-only (telephone/radiotelephone) and in face-to-
face situations;
(2) communicate on common, concrete and work-related topics with accuracy and
clarity;
(3) use appropriate communicative strategies to exchange messages and to recognize
and resolve misunderstandings (e.g. to check, confirm, or clarify information) in a
general or work-related context;
(4) handle successfully and with relative ease the linguistic challenges presented by a
complication or unexpected turn of events that occurs within the context of a routine
work situation or communicative task with which they are otherwise familiar; and
(5) use a dialect or accent which is intelligible to the aeronautical community.
(c) Rating scale:
Operational Level (Level 4)
(1) Pronunciation: Pronunciation, stress, rhythm and intonation are influenced by the
first language or regional variation but only sometimes interfere with
understanding.
(2) Structure: Basic grammatical structures and sentence patterns are used creatively
and are usually well controlled. Errors may occur, particularly in unusual or
unexpected circumstances, but rarely interfere with meaning.
(3) Vocabulary: Vocabulary range and accuracy are usually sufficient to communicate
effectively on common, concrete, and work related topics. Can often paraphrase
successfully when lacking vocabulary in unusual or unexpected circumstances.
(4) Fluency: Produces stretches of language at an appropriate tempo. There may be
occasional loss of fluency on transition from rehearsed or formulaic speech to
spontaneous interaction, but this does not prevent effective communication. Can
make limited use of discourse markers or connectors. Fillers are not distracting.
(5) Comprehension: Comprehension is mostly accurate on common, concrete, and
work related topics when the accent or variety used is sufficiently intelligible for an
international community of users. When the speaker is confronted with a linguistic
or situational complication or an unexpected turn of events, comprehension may
be slower or require clarification strategies.
(6) Interactions: Responses are usually immediate, appropriate and informative.
Initiates and maintains exchanges even when dealing with an unexpected turn of
events. Deals adequately with apparent misunderstandings by checking,
confirming or clarifying.
Extended Level (Level 5)
(1) Pronunciation: Pronunciation, stress, rhythm, and intonation, though influenced by
the first language or regional variation, rarely interfere with ease of understanding.
(2) Structure: Basic grammatical structures and sentence patterns are consistently
well controlled. Complex structures are attempted but with errors which sometimes
interfere with meaning.

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(3) Vocabulary: Vocabulary range and accuracy are sufficient to communicate

effectively on common, concrete, and work related topics. Paraphrases
consistently and successfully. Vocabulary is sometimes idiomatic.
(4) Fluency: Able to speak at length with relative ease on familiar topics, but may not
vary speech flow as a stylistic device. Can make use of appropriate discourse
markers or connectors.
(5) Comprehension: Comprehension is accurate on common, concrete, and work
related topics and mostly accurate when the speaker is confronted with a linguistic
or situational complication or an unexpected turn of events. Is able to comprehend
a range of speech varieties (dialect and/or accent) or registers.
(6) Interactions: Responses are immediate, appropriate, and informative. Managers
the speaker/listener relationship effectively.
Expert Level (Level 6)
(1) Pronunciation: Pronunciation, stress, rhythm, and intonation, thought possibly
influenced by the first language or regional variation, almost never interfere with
ease of understanding.
(2) Structure: Both basic and complex grammatical structures and sentence patterns
are consistently well controlled.
(3) Vocabulary: Vocabulary range and accuracy are sufficient to communicate
effectively on a wide variety of familiar and unfamiliar topics. Vocabulary is
idiomatic, nuanced, and sensitive to register.
(4) Fluency: Able to speak at length with a natural, effortless flow. Varies speech flow
for stylistic effect, e.g. to emphasize a point. Uses appropriate discourse markers
and connectors spontaneously.
(5) Comprehension: Comprehension is consistently accurate in nearly all contexts and
includes comprehension of linguistic and cultural subtleties.
(6) Interactions: Interacts with ease in nearly all situations Is sensitive to verbal and
nonverbal cues, and responds to them appropriately.
IS 2.2.8 RECORDING OF FLIGHT TIME

The details in the records of flights flown as pilot shall contain the following items:
(a) For the purpose of meeting the requirements of Subparts 2.2.6.1 and 2.3.1.6, each
person shall enter the following information for each flight or lesson logged:
(1) Personal details:
(i) Name and address of the holder
(2) For each flight:
(i) Name of PIC
(ii) Date of flight
(iii) Place and time of departure and arrival
(iv) Type of aircraft and registration
(3) For each synthetic flight trainer session:
(i) Type and qualification number of flight trainer
(ii) Synthetic flight trainer instruction

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(iii) Date
(iv) Total time of session
(4) Pilot function:
(i) Solo
(ii) PIC
(iii) Co-pilot
(iv) Dual
(v) Flight instructor
(b) Logging of flight time
(1) Logging of solo flight time:
(i) A student pilot may log as solo flight time only that flight time when the pilot is
the sole occupant of the aircraft.
(2) Logging of PIC flight time:
(i) The applicant or the holder of a pilot license may log as PIC time all that flight
time during which that person is:
(A) The sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which the pilot is rated;
and
(B) Acting as PIC of an aircraft on which more than one pilot is required under
the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight
is conducted.
(ii) An authorized instructor may log as PIC time all of the flight time while acting
as an authorized instructor.
(iii) A student pilot may log as PIC time all solo flight time and flight time as student
pilot-in-command provided that such time is countersigned by the instructor.
(3) Logging of co-pilot time:
(i) A person may log co-pilot time only when occupying a pilot seat as co-pilot in
an aircraft on which more than one pilot is required under the type certification
of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is conducted.
(4) Logging of instrument flight time:
(i) A person may log instrument flight time only for that flight when the person
operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or
simulated instrument flight conditions.
(5) Logging instruction time:
(i) A person may log instruction time when that person receives training from an
authorized instructor in an aircraft or synthetic flight trainer.
(ii) The instruction time shall be logged in a record (e.g. logbook) and shall be
endorsed by the authorized instructor.
IS 2.2.9 FORMAT OF THE LICENSE
(a) The following details shall appear on the license:
(i) Name of State (in bold type);
(ii) Title of license (in very bold type);

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(iii) Serial number of the license, in Arabic numerals, given by the Authority issuing
the license;
(iv) Name of holder in full (in Roman alphabet also if script of national language is
other than Roman and date of birth:
(v) Address of holder:
(vi) Nationality of holder;
(vii) Signature of holder;
(viii) Authority and, where appropriate, all conditions under which the license is
issued;
(ix) Certification concerning validity and Authorization;
(x) Signature of officer issuing the license and the date of such issue;
(xi) Seal or stamp of Authority issuing license;
(xii) Ratings, e.g. category, class, type of aircraft, airframe, aerodrome control, etc.;
(xiii) Remarks. i.e. special endorsements relating to limitations and endorsements
for privileges;
(xiv) Any other details desired by Republic of the Philippines in issuing the license.
IS 2.3.2.4 APPENDIX A: CLASS/TYPE RATING [SP (A) and MP (A)] - KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the type rating for multi-pilot - airplane shall
include the following subjects:
(1) Airplane structure and equipment, normal operation of systems and malfunctions
(i) Dimensions
(ii) Engine including auxiliary power unit
(iii) Fuel system
(iv) Pressurization and air-conditioning
(v) Ice protection. windshield wipers and rain repellent
(vi) Hydraulic systems
(vii) Landing gear
(viii) Flight controls, lift devices
(ix) Electrical power supply
(x) Flight instruments, communication, radar and navigation equipment
(xi) Cockpit, cabin and cargo compartment
(xii) Emergency equipment
(2) Limitations:
(i) General limitations
(ii) Engine limitations
(iii) System limitations
(iv) Minimum equipment list

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(3) Performance, flight planning and monitoring

(4) Load. balance and servicing
(i) Load and balance
(ii) Servicing on the ground
(5) Emergency procedures
(6) Special requirements for extension of a type rating for instrument approaches down
to a decision height of less than 200 ft (60m)
(i) Airborne and ground equipment: technical requirements, operational
requirements, operational reliability, fail operational, fail-passive, equipment
reliability, operating procedures, preparatory measures, operational
downgrading, communications
(ii) Procedures and limitations: operational procedures, crew co-ordination
(7) Special requirements for "glass cockpit" airplane with electronic flight instrument
systems (e.g. EFTS; EICAS)
(8) Flight Management systems (FMS)
(9) Upset prevention and recovery elements from IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C.
IS 2.3.2.4 APPENDIX B: FLIGHT INSTRUCTION, SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY

CHECK - CRM
(a) The flight instruction, skill test and proficiency for CRM for the multi-pilot type rating —
airplane and helicopter shall include the following subjects:
(1) The training program:
(i) An initial indoctrination/awareness segment;
(ii) A method to provide recurrent practice and feedback; and
(iii) A method of providing continuing reinforcement
(2) Topics to be contained in an initial CRM training course:
(i) Communications processes and decision behavior;
(ii) Internal and external influences on interpersonal communications;
(iii) Barriers to communication;
(iv) Listening skills;
(v) Decision making skills
(vi) Effective briefings;
(vii) Developing open communications;
(viii) Inquiry, advocacy and assertion training;
(ix) Crew self-critique;
(x) Conflict resolution;
(xi) Team building and maintenance;
(xii) Leadership and followership training;
(xiii) Interpersonal relationships;

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(xiv) Workload management;

(xv) Situational awareness
(xvi) How to prepare, plan and monitor task completions;
(xvii) Workload distribution;
(xviii) Distraction avoidance;
(xix) Individual factors; and
(xx) Stress reduction.
IS 2.3.3.1 STUDENT PILOTS - MANEUVERS AND PROCEDURES FOR PRE-SOLO

FLIGHT TRAINING
(a) A student pilot who is receiving training for solo flight shall receive and log flight training
for the following maneuvers and procedures, as applicable for each category and class
rating:
(1) Proper flight preparation procedures, including pre-flight planning and preparation,
powerplant operation and aircraft systems
(2) Taxiing, including run-ups
(3) Take-offs and landings, including normal and crosswind
(4) Straight and level flight and turns in both directions
(5) Climbs and climbing turns
(6) Airport traffic patterns including entry and departure procedures
(7) Collision avoidance, wind-shear avoidance and wake turbulence avoidance
(8) Descents, with and without turns, using high and low drag configurations
(9) Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight
(10) Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with recovery
initiated at the first indication of a stall and recovery from a full stall
(11) Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions
(12) Ground reference maneuvers
(13) Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine malfunctions
(14) Slips to a landing
(15) Go-around
(b) Additional training for a helicopter:
(1) Approaches to the landing area
(2) Hovering and hovering turns
(3) Simulated emergency procedures, including autorotational descents with a power
recovery and power recovery to hover
(4) Rapid decelerations
(5) Simulated one-engine-inoperative approaches and landings for multi-engine
helicopters
(c) Maneuvers and procedures for cross-country flight training in an airplane or rotorcraft:

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(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation using pilotage and dead reckoning
with the aid of a magnetic compass
(2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross-country flight
(3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including
recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight
(4) Recognition, avoidance and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features
in the geographical area where the student pilot will conduct cross-country flight
(5) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications
(6) Climbs at best angle and best rate
(7) Control and maneuvering solely by reference to flight instruments, including
straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs, use of radio aids and ATC
directives.
IS 2.3.3.2 APPENDIX A: PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE (A) - KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the private pilot license - airplane shall include
at least the following subjects:
(1) Air law
(i) Relevant parts of ICAO Convention and Annexes 2, 7, 8, 11 and 14
(ii) ICAO Document 4444: General provisions, Area control service, Approach
control service, Aerodrome control service, Flight information and alerting
service;
(iii) National law
(2) Aircraft General Knowledge
(i) Airframe: Airframe structure and loads
(ii) Powerplant: engines general, engine cooling, engine lubrication, ignition
systems, carburetion, aero engine fuel, fuel systems, propellers, engine
handling
(iii) Systems: electrical system, vacuum system
(iv) Instruments: Pitot/static system, Airspeed indicator, Altimeter, Vertical speed
indicator, Gyroscopes, Turn indicator, Altitude indicator, Heading indicator,
Magnetic compass, Engine instruments, Other instruments
(v) Airworthiness
(3) Flight Performance and Planning
(i) Mass and balance
(ii) Performance: Take-off, Landing, In-flight
(i) Basic physiology: Concepts, Effects of partial pressure, Vision, Hearing, Motion
sickness, Flying and health, Toxic hazards
(ii) Basic psychology: The information process, the central decision channel,
stress; judgment and decision making
(5) Meteorology

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(i) The atmosphere. Pressure, density and temperature, Humidity and

precipitation, Pressure and wind; Cloud information, Fog, mist and haze,
Airmasses, Frontology, Ice accretion, Thunderstorms; Flight over mountainous
areas, Climatology, Altimetry, The meteorological organization, Weather
analysis and forecasting, Weather information for flight planning,
Meteorological broadcasts for aviation
(6) Navigation
(i) Form of the earth, mapping, conformal orthomorphic projection (ICAO
1.500.000 chart), Direction, Airplane magnetism, Distances, Charts in practical
navigation, Chart reference material/map reading, Principles of navigation, The
navigation computer, Time, Flight planning, Practical navigation
(ii) Radio navigation: Ground direction finding (D/F), automatic direction finding
(ADF), including associated beacons (non directional beacons (NDBs) and use
of the radio magnetic indicator (RMI). VHF omni-directional range/distance
measuring equipment (VOR/DME), GPS, Ground radar; Secondary
surveillance radar
(7) Operational Procedures
(i) Relevant parts of ICAO Annex 6, Part II; Annex 12, 13 and 16 (relevant parts),
Contravention of aviation regulations
(8) Principles of Flight
(i) The atmosphere, Airflow around a body, sub-sonic, Airflow about a two
dimensional aerofoil; Three dimensional flow about an aerofoil; Distribution of
the four forces, Flying controls, Trimming controls, Flaps and slats, The stall,
Avoidance of spins, Stability, Load factor and maneuvers, Stress loads on the
ground
(9) Communications
(i) Radio telephony and communications, Departure procedures, En-route
procedures, Arrival and traffic pattern procedures, Communications failure,
Distress and urgency procedures
IS 2.3.3.2 APPENDIX B: PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE (A) - FLIGHT INSTRUCTION

AND SKILL TEST
(a) The flight instruction and skill test for the single-engine and multi-engine private pilot
license - airplane shall include at least the following areas of operation:
Note 1: When (SE) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for single-engine. When
(ME) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for multi-engine. When nothing is
indicated the item or paragraph is for single-engine and multi-engine.
Note 2: When (S) is indicated, the item is only for seaplanes. When (L) is indicated,
the item is only for landplanes. When nothing is indicated the item is for land and
seaplanes.
(1) Pre-flight preparation; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Licenses and documents
(ii) Airworthiness requirements
(iii) Weather information

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(iv) Cross-country flight planning

(v) National airspace system
(vi) Performance and limitations
(vii) Operation of system
(viii) Principles of flight
(ix) Water and Seaplane Characteristics (S)
(x) Seaplane bases, maritime rules and aids to marine navigation (S)
(xi) Aeromedical factors
(2) Pre-flight procedures: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Pre-flight inspection
(ii) Cockpit management
(iii) Engine Starting
(iv) Taxiing (L)
(v) Taxiing and Sailing (S)
(vi) Before take-off check
(3) Aerodrome and seaplane operations: including the applicant's knowledge and
performance of the following tasks--
(i) Radio communications and ATC light signals
(ii) Traffic patterns
(iii) Aerodrome/Seaplane Base, runway and taxiway signs, markings and lighting
(4) Take-offs, landings and go-grounds; including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Normal and crosswind take-off and climb
(ii) Normal and crosswind approach and landing
(iii) Soft-field take-off and climb (SE) (L)
(iv) Soft-field approach and landing (SE) (L)
(v) Short-field [Confined area (S)] take-off and maximum performance climb
(vi) Short-field approach (Confined area (S)) and landing
(vii) Glassy Water take-off and climb (S)
(viii) Glassy water approach and landing (S)
(ix) Rough water take-off and climb (S)
(x) Rough water approach and landing (S)
(xi) Forward slip to a landing (SE)
(xii) Go-around /rejected landing
(5) Performance maneuver: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
the following tasks--
(i) Steep turns

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PCAR PART 2
(6) Ground reference maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and

(i) Rectangular course
(ii) S-turns
(iii) Turns around a point
(7) Navigation: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the following
tasks--
(i) Pilotage and dead reckoning
(ii) Navigation systems and radar services
(iii) Diversion
(iv) Lost procedures
(8) Slow flight and stalls; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks-
(i) Maneuvering during slow flight
(ii) Power-off stalls
(iii) Power-on stalls
(iv) Spin awareness
(9) Basic instrument maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and performance
of the following tasks--
(i) Straight-and-level flight
(ii) Constant airspeed climbs
(iii) Constant airspeed descents
(iv) Turns to headings
(v) Recovery from unusual flight
(vi) Radio Communications, navigation systems/facilities and radar services;
including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the following tasks--
(10) Emergency operations; including the applicant's knowledge and performance
(i) Emergency approach and landing
(ii) Emergency descent (ME)
(iii) Engine failure during take-off before VMC (simulated) (ME)
(iv) Engine failure after lift-off (simulated) (ME)
(v) Approach and landing with an inoperative engine (simulated) (ME)
(vi) Systems and equipment malfunctions
(vii) Emergency equipment and survival gear
(11) Multi-engine operations (ME); including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Maneuvering with one engine inoperative
(ii) VMC demonstration

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(iii) Engine failure during flight (by reference to instruments)

(iv) Instrument approach — one engine inoperative (by reference to instruments)
(12) Night operation; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Night preparation
(13) Post-flight procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) After landing, parking and securing
(ii) Anchoring (S)
(iii) Docking and mooring (S)
(iv) Ramping/Beaching (S)
IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX A: COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE (A) — KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the commercial pilot license — airplane shall
include at least the following subjects:
(1) Air law
(i) International Agreements and Organizations: The Convention of Chicago;
Other International agreements: IATA agreement; Tokyo and Warsaw
Convention; PIC authority and responsibility regarding safety and security;
Operators and pilots liabilities towards persons and goods on the ground, in
case of damage and injury caused by the operation of the aircraft, Commercial
practices and associated rules, dry and wet lease;
(ii) Relevant parts of ICAO Annexes: 1, 2, 7, 8, 9, 11 (and Doc 4444), 12, 13, 14,
15, 17;
(iii) Procedures for air navigation (PANS-OPS) - Aircraft Operations Doc 8168;
(iv) National law
(2) Aircraft general knowledge
(i) Airframe and systems, electrics, powerplant, emergency equipment
(A) Airframe and systems: Fuselage, Cockpit and cabin windows, Wings,
Stabilizing surfaces, Landing Gear, Flight Controls, Hydraulics, Air driven
systems (piston engines only), Air driven systems (turbopropeller and jet
aircraft), Non-pneumatic operated de-ice and anti-ice systems, Fuel
system;
(B) Electrics: Direct Current (DC), Alternating Current (AC), Semiconductors,
Basic knowledge of computers; Basic radio propagation theory
(C) Powerplant: Piston Engine, Turbine Engine, Engine construction, Engine
systems, Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)
(D) Emergency equipment: Doors and emergency exits, Smoke detection, Fire
detection, Fire fighting equipment, Aircraft oxygen equipment, Emergency
equipment
(ii) Instrumentation

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(A) Flight instruments: Air data instruments, Gyroscopic instruments, Magnetic

Compass, Radio Altimeter, Electronic Flight Instrument System
(EFIS),
(B) Automatic flight control system: Flight director, Autopilot, Yaw
damper/Stability augmentation system,
(C) Warning and recording equipment: Warnings general; Stall warning,
(D) Powerplant and system monitoring instruments: Pressure gauge,
Temperature gauge, RPM indicator, Consumption gauge, Fuel gauge,
Torque meter, Flight hour meter, Vibration motoring, Remote (signal)
transmission system, Electronic Displays
(3) Flight performance and planning
(i) Mass and balance: Center of gravity, Mass and balance limits
(ii) Loading: Terminology, Aircraft mass checks, Procedures for determining
airplane mass and balance documentation; Effects of overloading;
(iii) Center of gravity: Basis of cg calculations (load and balance documentation),
Calculation of cg; Securing of loading; Area load, running load, supporting
(iv) Performance of single-engine airplanes - Performance class B: Definitions of
terms and speeds; Take-off and landing performance, Climb and cruise
performance
(v) Performance of multi-engine airplanes: Definitions of terms and speeds;
Importance of performance calculations; Elements of performance, Use of
performance graphs and tabulated data
(vi) Flight planning and flight monitoring:
(A) Flight plan for cross country flights: Navigation plan, Fuel plan, Flight
monitoring and in-flight re-planning, Radio communication and navigation
aids;
(B) ICAO ATC flight plan: Types of flight plan, Completing the flight plan, Filling
the flight plan, Closing the flight plan, Adherence to flight plan
(C) Practical flight planning: Chart preparation; Navigation plans; Simple fuel
plans, Radio planning practice
(D) Practical completion of a flight plan (flight plan, flight log, navigation log,
ATC plan, etc.): Extraction of data
(4) Human performance
(i) Human factors basic concepts: Human factors in aviation, Accident statistics,
Flight safety concepts
(ii) Basic aviation physiology: Basics of flight physiology, Man and environment:
the sensory system; Health and Hygiene;
(iii) Basic aviation psychology: Human information processing; Human error and
reliability; Decision making; Avoiding and managing errors: cockpit
management; Personality; Human overload and underload, Advanced cockpit
automation
(5) Meteorology
(i) The atmosphere: Composition, extent, vertical division; Temperature;
Atmospheric pressure; Atmospheric density; Altimetry;

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(ii) Wind: Definition and measurement; General circulation; Turbulence; Variation

of wind with height; Local winds; Standing waves;
(iii) Thermodynamics: Humidity;
(iv) Clouds and Fog: Cloud formation and description; Fog, mist, haze
(v) Precipitation
(vi) Airmasses and fronts: Types of airmasses; Fronts;
(vii) Pressure systems: Location of the principal pressure areas, Anticyclone, Non
frontal depressions;
(viii) Climatology: Typical weather situations in mid-latitudes; Local seasonal
weather and wind
(ix) Flight hazards: Icing, Turbulence; Wind-shear; Thunderstorms; Hazards in
mountainous areas; Visibility reducing phenomena;
(x) Meteorological information: Observation, Weather charts, Information for flight
planning
(6) Navigation:
(i) General Navigation: Basics of navigation: The solar system; The earth, Time
and time conversions; Directions, Distance
(ii) Magnetism and compasses: General Principles, Aircraft magnetism,
Knowledge of the principles, standby and landing or main compasses and
remote reading compasses
(iii) Charts: General properties of miscellaneous types of projections; The
representation of meridians; parallels; great circles and rhumb lines; The use
of current aeronautical charts
(iv) Dead reckoning navigation (DR): Basics of dead reckoning; Use of the
navigational computer; The triangle of velocities; Determination of DR position;
Measurement of DR elements; Resolution of current DR problems;
Measurements of maximum range, radius of action and point-of-safe-return
and point-of-equal-time
(v) In-flight navigation: Use of visual observations and application to in-flight
navigation; Navigation in climb and descent: Navigation in cruising flight, use
of fixes to revise navigation data; Flight log (including navigation records);
(vi) Radio Navigation: Radio aids: Ground D/F (including classification of bearings);
ADF (including associated beacons and use of the radio magnetic indicator);
VOR and Doppler-VOR (including the use of the radio magnetic indicator);
DME (distance measuring equipment); Basic radar principles: SSR (secondary
surveillance radar and transponder); Self-contained and external referenced
navigation systems: Satellite assisted navigation: GPS/GLONASS/DGPS
(7) Operational procedures
(i) ICAO Annex 6 Parts I, II and III (as applicable)
(ii) Special operational procedures and hazards: Minimum equipment list; Ground
icing; Bird strike risk and avoidance; Noise abatement; Fire/smoke;
Decompression of pressurized cabin; Winds-hear, microburst; Wake
turbulence; Security; Emergency and precautionary landings; Fuel jettisoning;
Transport of dangerous goods; Contaminated runways;
(8) Principles of flight:

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(i) Basics; laws and definitions; The two-dimensional airflow about an aerofoil:
The coefficients; The three-dimensional airflow about an airplane; The total
drag; The ground effect; The relation between the lift coefficient and the speed
for constant lift; The stall; Climax augmentation; Means to decrease the CLCD
ratio, increasing drag; The boundary layer;
(ii) Stability: Condition of equilibrium in stable horizontal flight; Methods of
achieving balance; Longitudinal stability; Static directional stability; Static
lateral stability; Dynamic lateral stability;
(iii) Control: General; Pitch control; Yaw control; Roll control; Interaction in different
planes (yaw/roll); Means to reduce control forces; Mass balance; Trimming;
(iv) Limitations: Operating limitations; Maneuvering envelope; Gust envelope;
(v) Propellers: Conversion of engine torque to thrust; Engine failure or engine stop;
Design feature for power absorption; Moments and couples due to propeller
operation;
(vi) Flight mechanics: Forces acting on an airplane; Asymmetric thrust; Emergency
descent; Wind-shear;
(9) Radiotelephony:
(i) VFR Communications: Definitions; General operating procedures; Relevant
weather information terms (VFR); Action required to be taken in case of
communication failure; distress and urgency procedures; General principles of
VHF propagation and allocation of frequencies;
(ii) Morse code.
IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX B: COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE (A) - FLIGHT

INSTRUCTION AND SKILL TEST
(a) The flight instruction and skill test for the single-engine and multi-engine commercial
pilot license -airplane shall include at least the following areas of operation:
Note 1: When (SE) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for single-engine. When
(ME) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for multi-engine. When nothing is
Note 2: When (S) is indicated, the item is only for seaplanes. When (L) is indicated,
the item is only for landplanes. When nothing is indicated the item is for land and
seaplanes.
following tasks:
(ii) Airworthiness requirements
(iii) Weather information
(iv) Cross-country flight planning
(v) National airspace system
(vi) Performance and limitations
(vii) Operation of system
(viii) Principles of flight (ME)

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(ix) Water and Seaplane characteristics (S)

(x) Seaplane bases, maritime rules and aids to marine navigation (S)
(xi) Aeromedical factors
(2) Pre-flight procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks:
(iii) Engine Starting
(iv) Taxiing (L)
(v) Taxiing and sailing (S)
(vi) Before take-off check
(3) Aerodrome and seaplane base operations; including the applicant's knowledge
and performance of the following tasks--
(iii) Aerodrome/Seaplane base, runway and taxiway signs, markings and lighting
(4) Take-off, landing, and go-around; including the applicant's knowledge and
(iii) Soft-field take-off and climb (SE)
(iv) Soft-field approach and landing (SE)
(v) Short-field (Confined area (S)) take-off and maximum performance climb
(vi) Short-field (Confined area (S)) approach and landing
(vii) Glassy water take-off and climb (S)
(viii) Glassy water approach and landing (S)
(ix) Rough water take-off and climb (S)
(x) Rough water approach and landing (S)
(xi) Power-off 180 degrees accuracy approach and landing (SE)
(xii) Go-around /rejected landing
(5) Performance maneuvers: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Steep turns
(ii) Steep spiral (SE)
(iii) Chandelles (SE)
(iv) Lazy eights (SE)
(6) Ground reference maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and

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(i) Eights on pylons (SE)

(7) Navigation; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the following
tasks:
(ii) Navigation systems and radar services
(iii) Diversion
(8) Slow flight and stalls; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks-
(ii) Power-off stalls
(iii) Power-on stalls
(iv) Spin awareness
(9) Emergency operations; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Emergency approach and landing
(ii) Emergency descent (ME)
(iii) Engine failure during take-off before VMC (simulated) (ME)
(iv) Engine failure after lift-off (simulated) (ME)
(v) Approach and landing with an inoperative engine (simulated) (ME)
(vi) Systems and equipment malfunctions
(vii) Emergency equipment and survival gear
(10) High altitude operations: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Supplemental oxygen
(ii) Pressurization
(11) Multi-engine operations (ME): including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Maneuvering with one engine inoperative
(ii) VMC demonstration
(iii) Engine failure during flight (by reference to instruments)
(iv) Instrument approach — one engine inoperative (by reference to instruments)
(i) After landing, parking and securing
(ii) Anchoring (S)
(iii) Docking and mooring (S)
(iv) Ramping/beaching (S)

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IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX C: AIRPLANE UPSET PREVENTION AND RECOVERY

TRAINING (UPRT) FOR CPL AND FOR MPL, ATPL, TYPE RATING,
INSTRUCTOR RATING (AIRPLANE) AND INSTRUCTOR AUTHORIZATION
FOR FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICE(S) (AIRPLANE)
(a) Definitions
(1) Angle of attack (AOA). The angle between the oncoming air, or relative wind, and
a defined reference line on the airplane or wing,
(2) Approach-to-stall. Flight conditions bordered by the stall warning and stall.
(3) Developed upset. A condition meeting the definition of an airplane upset.
(4) Developing upset. Any time the airplane begins to unintentionally diverge from the
intended flight path or airspeed.
(5) Energy State. How much of each king of energy (kinetic, potential or chemical) the
airplane has available at any given time.
(6) First indication of a stall. The initial aural, tactile or visual sign of an impending stall,
which can be either naturally or synthetically induced.
(7) Flight path. The trajectory or path of the travelling through the air over a given
space of time.
(8) Flight path management. An active manipulation, using either the airplanes
automation or manual handling, to command the airplane flight controls to direct
the airplane along a desired trajectory.
(9) Load factor. The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the airplane, the former
being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, propulsive forces, or ground
reactions.
(10) Manoeuvre-based training. Training that focuses on a single event or manoeuvre

in isolation.
(11) Negative transfer of training. Training which unintentionally introduces incorrect

information or invalid concepts, which could actually decrease rather than
increase safety.
(12) Negative transfer of training. The application (and ‘transfer’) of what was learned
in a training environment (i.e., a classroom, an FSTD) to normal practice, i.e. it
describes the degree to which what was learned in training is applied to actual
normal practices. In this context, negative transfer of training refers to the
inappropriate generalization of knowledge and skill to a situation or setting in
normal practice that does not equal the training situation or setting.
(13) Post-stall regime. Flight conditions at an angle of attack greater than the critical
angle of attack.
(14) Scenario-based training. Training that incorporates manoeuvres into real-world

experiences to cultivate practical flying skills in an operational environment.

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(15) Spin. ‘Incipient spin’ means a transient flight condition in the post-stall regime
where an initial, uncommanded roll in excess of 45° has resulted from yaw
asymmetry during a stall and which, if recovery action is not taken, will lead
rapidly to a developing spin. Prompt recovery during this incipient spin stage will
normally result in an overall heading change, from pre-stall conditions, of not
more than 180°.
‘Developing spin’ means a flight condition in the post-stall regime where the
airplane exhibits abnormal, but varying, rates of yaw and roll, together with
changing pitch attitude, following an incipient spin but before the establishment
of a developed spin. A developing spin follows an unrecovered incipient spin and
will usually persist, in the absence of any recovery action, until a developed spic
ensues. ‘Developed spin’ means a flight condition in the post-stall regime where
airplane has achieved approximately constant pitch attitude, yaw rate and roll
rate on a descending flight path. In action, to attaining a developed spin, the
airplane is likely to have rolled through at least 540°.
Note: To summarize, the circumstances that must prevail before an airplane

spins are: The airplane must be in a stalled condition and the airplane must yaw
and/or roll.
(16) Stall. A loss of lift caused by exceeding the airplane’s critical angle of attack. A
stalled condition can exist at any attitude and airspeed, and may be recognized
by continuous stall warning activation accompanied by at least one of the
following:
- buffeting, which could be heavy at times;
- lack of pitch authority and/or roll control; and
- inability to arrest the descent rate.
(17) Stall Event. An occurrence whereby the airplane experiences conditions
associated with an approach-to-stall or a stall.
(18) Stall (event) recovery procedure. The manufacturer-approved airplane-specific

stall recovery procedure. If an OEM-approved recovery procedure does not exist,
the airplane-specific stall recovery procedure developed by the operator, based
on the stall recovery template contained in IS 2.3.3.3 Appendix C, may be used.
(19) Stall warning. A natural or synthetic indication provided when approaching a stall
that may include one or more of the following indications:
- aerodynamic buffeting (some airplanes will buffet more than others);
- reduced roll stability and aileron effectiveness;
- visual or aural cues and warnings;
- reduced elevator (pitch) authority;
- inability to maintain altitude or arrest rate of descent; and
- stick shaker activation (if installed).
(20) Startle. The initial short-term, involuntary physiological and cognitive reactions to
an unexpected event that commence the normal human stress response.
(21) Stick pusher. A device that, automatically applies a nose down movement and
pitch force to an airplane’s control columns, to attempt to decrease the airplane’s
angle to attack. Device activation may occur before or after aerodynamic stall,
depending on the airplane type.
Note: A stick pusher is not installed on all airplane types.

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(22) Stick shaker. A device that automatically vibrates the control column to wan the
pilot of an approaching stall.
Note. A stick shaker is not installed on all airplane types.
(23) Stress (response). The response to a threatening event that includes
physiological, psychological and cognitive effects. These effects may range
from positive to negative and can either enhance or degrade performance.
(24) Surprise. The emotionally-based recognition of a difference in what was
expected and what is actual.
(25) Train-to-proficiency. Approved training designed to achieve end-state
performance objectives, providing sufficient assurances that the trained individual is capable
to consistently carry out specific tasks safely and effectively.
(b) Upset prevention and recovery training - UPRT

(1) Upset prevention training in FSTDs or airplanes:
The objective of upset prevention training is to enable pilots to prevent airplane upsets.
Upset prevention training consist of ground training and flight instruction in FSTD or
airplanes; it should use a combination of manoeuvre-based and scenario-based training.
Scenario-based training may be used to introduce pilots to situations which, if not correctly
managed, could lead to an upset condition. Relevant TEM and CRM aspects should be
included in scenario-based training.
In FSTDs instructors and pilots should understand the limitations of the device. To avoid
negative training and negative transfer of training, instructors should ensure that the
selected upset prevention scenarios and exercises take into consideration the limitations of
the FSTD and the extent to which it represents the handling characteristics of the actual
airplane. If it is determined that the FSTD is not suitable, the required training outcome
should be achieved by other means.
The upset prevention elements in Table 1 should be integrated into the flight instruction of
CPL, MPL, ATPL and Type rating modules and phases, such that all the elements are
covered.
Pre-
Flying
Core elements and components Flight
Training
briefing
A. Aerodynamics
1. General Aerodynamic Characteristics X X
2. Aeroplane certification and limitations X X
3. Aerodynamics (high and low altitude) X X
4. Aeroplane performance (high and low altitude) X X
5. AoA and stall awareness X X
6. Aeroplane stability X X
7. Control surface fundamentals X X
8. Use of trim X X
9. Icing and contamination effects X X
10. Propeller slipstream (as applicable) X X
B. Causes of and contributing factors to upsets
1. Environmental X X
2. Pilot-induced X X
3. Mechanical (aeroplane systems) X X
Safety review of accidents and incidents relating to
C.
aeroplane upsets

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Safety review of accidents and incidents relating to aeroplane

1. X X
upsets
D. G-load management
1. Positive/negative/increasing/decreasing G-loads X X
2. Lateral G awareness (sideslip) X X
3. G-load management X X
E. Energy management
Kinetic energy vs potential energy vs chemical energy
1. X X
(power)
F. Flight path management
1. Relationship between pitch, power and performance X X
2. Performance and effects of differing power plants X X
Manual and automation inputs for guidance and control (if X X
3.
applicable)
4. Class-specific characteristics of flight path management X X
Management of g-arounds from various stages during the X X
5.
approach
6. Automation management (if applicable) X X
7. Proper use of rudder X X
G. Recognition
Class-specific examples of instrumentation during developing
1. X X
and developed upset
2. Pitch/power/roll/yaw X X
3. Effective scanning (effective monitoring) X X
4. Stall protection systems and cues X X
5. Criteria for identifying stalls and upsets X X
System malfunction
H. (including immediate handling and subsequent
operational considerations, as applicable)
1. Flight control defects X X
2. Engine failure (partial or full) X X
3. Instrument failures X X
4. Loss of reliable airspeed X X
5. Automation failures X X
Stall protection system failures, including icing alerting X X
6.
systems
Additional exercises, Flight path management, manual
I.
control
1. Manually controlled slow flight X X
2. Steep turns X X
3. Manually controller loss of reliable airspeed X X
4. Manually controlled instrument departure and arrival X X
5. Visual approach X X
6. Recovery from bounced landing X X
Upset prevention training is delivered by personnel holding an instructor rating or
authorization for synthetic flight training.
Normally used for all exercises require during CPL, MPL, ATPL and Type rating training.
This “normal” training envelope can be defined by the airplane certified flight envelope,
operational parameters, and safety margins for student and instructor errors;
e.g. for prevention training in airplanes:

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• bank angles: Prevention training in airplane certified in the Normal category must
respect the bank limitation of 60deg, and additionally consider sufficient margin for
errors, to avoid exceeding the 60deg of bank; consequentially exercises exceeding
45deg of bank should not be planned;
• pitch attitude: Excessive pitch attitudes beyond those attitudes normally flown during
licensing training should be avoided; prevention training should stay within 25deg nose-
high and 10deg nose-down;
• airspeed: Prevention exercises should stay within an airspeed range of Vs to Va;
• AOA: Post-stall exercises should only flown in airplane certified at least for incipient
spin; incipient spins should only be flown in airplane certified for developed spin.
(2) Upset recovery training:
i) Upset recovery training in FSTDs for CPL, MPL, ATPL and Type Rating Upset
recovery training assumes that prevention has failed and an upset has developed. It should
be designed as manoeuvre-based training. The objective of upset recovery training is to
enable pilots to recover from developed upsets and to build pilot resilience.
Resilience can be increased by raising the level of competence (behaviors that mobilize the
relevant knowledge, skills and attitudes) and by achieving the appropriate level of
confidence (trust).
Upset recovery training consist of ground training and flight instruction in an FSTD or an
airplane.
Ground training should comprise the elements in Table 2; flight instruction should comprise
the exercises in Table 3.
Table 2: Elements of upset recovery training

Core elements and components
A. Threat and Error Management (TEM) & Crew Resource Management (CRM)
1. TEM framework
2. Recognition of threats and errors of undesired aircraft states
3. Management of threats and errors of undesired aircraft states
4. Countermeasures of threats and errors of undesired aircraft states (early intervention
and timely switching to undesired aircraft states management when necessary to
prevent upsets)
5. Situational awareness
6. Aeroplane flight plan management, manual control
7. Application of procedures
8. Problem-solving decision-making
9. Workload management
10. Communication
11. Leadership and teamwork
B. Human factors – managing consequential psychological and physiological
effects of developed upsets
1. Active monitoring and checking
2. Human information processing, cognitive effects
3. Perceptual illusions (visual or physiological) and spatial disorientation, effects of G-
loads
4. Correct interpretation of upset attitudes and energy states
5. Management of surprise and startle induced by upset attitudes
6. Managing the effects of G-loads
7. Understanding counter-intuitive behavior

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8. Distraction, inattention, fixation

C. Application of recovery templates
1. Recovery from nose-high attitudes at various bank angles
2. Recovery from nose-low attitudes at various bank angles
D. Application of the OEM stall recovery procedure or the stall recovery template
Table 3: Upset recovery exercises
Ground Flight
Upset recovery exercises
Training Instruction
1. Timely and appropriate intervention X X
Application of OEM recommendations
2. Recovery from nose-high at various bank angles X X
3. Recovery from nose-low at various bank angles; X X
Including spiral dive
Application of the stall recovery SOPs
4. *Recovery from stall, including uncoordinated stalls X X
(aggravating yaw)
5. *Recovery from accelerated and secondary X X
6. *Recovery from incipient spin X X
Recovery from stall events, in the following configurations:
- Take-off configuration;
- Clean configuration low altitude;
7. X X
- Clean configuration near maximum operating
altitude; and
- Landing configuration during the approach phase.
*For on-airplane recovery training only
Upset recovery courses should be designed with care to allow pilots to gradually increase
their performance and build resilience. Pilots should not be required to perform maneuvers
not listed in Table 3.
(1) Stall recovery exercises
To recover from stall events the stall recovery Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) of
the Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) should be used. Instructors or ATOs should
therefore consult the OEM on whether any approved specific stall recovery procedures are
available prior to using the recommended template in Table 4. The OEM procedures always
take precedence over the recommendations.
Note: Refer to Revision 3 of the APURTA on the ICAO website for a detailed explanation
and rationale of the stall recovery template by the OEMs.
Table 4: Recommended stall event recovery template

Stall Event Recovery Template
Pilot Flying – Immediately do the following at first indication of a stall (aerodynamic
buffeting, reduced roll stability and aileron effectiveness, visual or aural cues and warnings,
reduced elevator (pitch) authority, inability to maintain altitude or arrest rate of descent, stick
shaker activation (if installed)). – during any flight phases except at lift-off.
Pilot
Pilot Flying (PF) Monitoring
(PM)
1. AUTOPILOT – DISCONNECT
(a large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when
the autopilot is disconnected)
2. AUTOTHRUST/AUTOTHROTTLE – OFF MONITOR

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3. a) NOSE DOWN PITCH CONTROL apply until stall airspeed and

warning is eliminated attitude
b) NOSE DOWN PITCH TRIM (as needed) throughout the
(reduce the angle of attack (AOA) whilst accepting the recovery and
resulting loss) ANNOUNCE
4. BANK – WINGS LEVEL any continued
5. THRUST – ADJUST (as needed) divergence
(Thrust reduction for aeroplanes with underwing
mounted engines may be needed)
6. SPEEDBRAKES/SPOILERS - RETRACT
7. When airspeed is sufficiently increasing – RECOVERY
to level flight
(Avoid the secondary stall due to premature recovery or
excessive G-loading)
(2) Nose-high and Nose-low recovery exercises
Nose-high and nose-low recovery exercises should use the strategies recommended by the
OEMs contained in Table 5 and 6 below.
Note: As the OEM procedures always take precedence over the recommendations, training
providers should consult the respective OEM on whether any approved specific recovery
procedures are available prior to using the templates.
Note: Refer to revision 3 of the Airline Upset Prevention and Recovery Guide (APURTA) for
a detailed explanation and rationale of nose-high and nose-low recovery strategies as
recommended by the OEMs.
Table 5: Recommended nose-high recovery strategy

Nose-High recovery strategy template
Either Pilot – Recognize and confirm the developing situation by announcing ‘nose high’
Pilot
(PM)
(A large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when
2. AUTOTHRUST/AUTOTHROTTLE - OFF
MONITOR
3. APPLY as much nose-down control input as required to
airspeed and
obtain a nose-down pitch rate
attitude
4. THRUST – ADJUST (as needed)
throughout the
(Thrust reduction for aeroplanes with underwing
recovery and
mounted engines may be needed)
ANNOUNCE
5. ROLL – ADJUST (if required)
any continued
(Avoid exceeding 60-degree bank)
divergence
6. When airspeed is sufficiency increasing – RECOVERY
to level flight
Note:
(a) Recovery to level flight may require use of pitch trim.
(b) If necessary, consider reducing thrust in aeroplanes with underwing-mounted
engines to aid in achieving nose-down pitch rate.
(c) WARNING: Excessive use of pitch trim or rudder may aggravate the upset situation
or may result in high structural loads.

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Table 6: Recommended nose-low recovery strategy

Nose-Low recovery strategy template
Either Pilot – Recognize and confirm the developing situation by announcing ‘nose-low’
(if the autopilot or autothrust/autothrottle is responding correctly, it may not be appropriate
to decrease the level of automation while assessing if the divergence is being stopped.
Pilot
(PM)
(A large out-of-trim condition could be encountered when
2. AUTOTHRUST/AUTOTHROTTLE – OFF MONITOR
3. RECOVERY form stall if required airspeed and
4. ROLL in the shortest direction to wings level attitude
throughout the
(It may be necessary to reduce the G-loading by applying
recovery and
forward control pressure to improve roll effectiveness)
ANNOUNCE
5. THRUST AND DRAG – ADJUST (if required) any continued
6. RECOVER to level flight divergence
Note:
(a) Recovery to level flight may require use of pitch trim.
(b) WARNING: Excessive use of pitch trim or rudder may aggravate the upset situation
or may result in high structural loads.
ii) On-airplane upset upset recovery training
The objective of on-airplane recovery training should be to build pilot resilience. Resilience
can be increased by raising the level of competence (behaviors that mobilize the relevant
knowledge, skills and attitude) and by achieving the appropriate level of confidence (trust).
Note: Upset recovery training should not be referred to as aerobatic flight. Although basic
aerobatics do contribute to certain pilot competencies, such as airplane flight path
management, manual control, and situational awareness, aerobatic manoeuvres do not
serve the same training objectives as upset recovery training does. Simply put, the focus of
basic aerobatics is on a sequence of prescribed manoeuvres, such as passing through
defined attitudes and using perfect energy management. In contrast to basic aerobatics,
upset recovery training focusses exactly on the contrary. The training focusses on applying
correct and timely recovery strategies to return the airplane to safe flight, whilst building the
pilot’s resilience against the associated psychological and physiological human factors (to
better cope with the startle and surprise effect). Additionally, in the context of the subsequent
pilot career in commercial air transport, it is of the utmost importance that the potential for
negative transfer of training is avoided, i.e. single-engine piston airplanes behave differently
compared to large transport airplanes.
The training objectives should enable pilots to:

(1) apply effective strategies to recover from actual developed upsets;
(2) manage psychological and physiological effects induced by all-attitude exposure;

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(3) perform appropriate counter-intuitive actions whilst experiencing unusual accelerations,

especially those experienced during deviations from normal 1G flight conditions.
Instructors should:
(1) deliver training in a spirit of collaborative learning and ensure that pilots will experience
the successful outcome of their actions. Success will allow pilots to build positive thinking
and confidence in their ability to successfully recover from any developed nose-high or
nose-low attitude, and from stalls. Such experience may positively contribute to
resilience and consequentially reduce the level of stress in difficult situations. Lower
stress levels will then allow problem-focused coping with the situation (including the
application of TEM and CRM) and prevent or reduce emotional effects, such as attention-
channeling and degraded information processing;
(2) place emphasis on the differences in aerodynamic behavior and flight controls of large
transport airplanes in comparison to training airplane to avoid negative transfer of
training;
(3) place emphasis on the correct application of:
(i) the stall recovery Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) of the Original Equipment
Manufacturers (OEMs), or the OEM recommended template, and to reduce the AOA
whilst accepting the resulting altitude loss. The training should also emphasis the
avoidance of secondary stalls during the recovery; and
(ii) the nose-high and nose-low recommendations of the OEM during nose-high attitudes
(various bank angles) exercises.
Note: Transport airplanes are typically certified to withstand G-loadings in the range of -1 to
+2.5G (or +3G in some business airplanes). As the on-airplane upset recovery training in
an airplane is mainly focused on future airline pilots, instructors should ensure that student
pilots are not exposed to G-loading outside this range to avoid negative transfer of training.
The on-airplane upset recovery training course shall be completed at an ATO and shall be
designed according to the “train-to-proficiency” concept.
It shall comprise at least:
(1) 5 hours of ground training
(2) Pre-flight briefings and post-flight debriefings; and
(3) 3 hours of all-attitude upset recovery flight instruction in an airplane qualified for the
training task. Airplane used shall be certified for all pitch and bank attitudes and for
developed spins.
Upon completion of the course, the applicant shall be issued with a certificate of completion
and a logbook-entry by the ATO.
On-airplane upset recovery training objectives
In general, the training objectives are for the student pilot to be able to
(1) recognize and confirm the situation;
(2) apply an appropriate, effective and timely recovery action;
(3) stay within the airspeed and G-loading envelope;
(4) correctly recognize when recovered from the upset situation;
(5) set safe parameters of heading, altitude and speed whilst re-establishing situational
awareness;
(6) identify the reasons for the airplane entering the upset situation and take appropriate
corrective actions to prevent further upsets;

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(7) become more confident about their skills and ability to recover from an upset situation.
The instructor should ensure that the training area remains well clear of traffic and significant
weather.
on-airplane upset recovery exercises
Table 3 shows the list of upset recovery exercises.
In broad terms, there are six kinds of upset situations that should be addressed:
(1) Nose-high with low airspeed at various bank-angles;
(2) Nose-low with high airspeed at various bank angles, including spiral dive;
(3) Airspeed stable with high bank angle;
(4) Recovery from stall events, including uncoordinated stalls;
(5) Recovery from accelerated and secondary stall;
(6) Recovery from incipient spin.
(2) Instructor training
i) Instructor training for UPRT in FSTDs
It is of paramount importance that instructors have the specific competence to deliver UPRT
in an FSTD, including the ability to demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the type-
specific upset recovery procedures and recommendations developed by the Original
Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs). Prior to conducting UPRT training instructors should:
(a) be able to demonstrate application of the type-specific upset recovery procedures and
recommendations developed by the OEMs;
(b) understand the importance of applying type-specific OEMs procedures for recovery
manoeuvres;
(c) be able to distinguish between the applicable SOPs and the OEMs recommendations
(if available);
(d) understand the capabilities and limitations of the FSTD used for UPRT;
(e) be aware of the potential of negative transfer of training that may exist when training
outside the capabilities of the FSTD;
(f) understand and be able to use the IOS of the FSTD in the context of effective UPRT
delivery;
(g) understand and be able to use the FSTD instructor tools available for providing
accurate feedback on pilot performance;
(h) understand the importance of adhering to the FSTD UPRT scenarios that have been
validated by the training program developer; and
(i) understand the missing critical human factor aspects due to the limitations of the FSTD
and convey this to the student pilot(s) receiving the training.
ii) Instructor training for the on-airplane recovery training
Upset recovery training in the all-attitude/all-envelope environment of an airplane may
require instructor performance beyond that experienced in normal operations. Moreover,
the safety implications of poor upset recovery instructional technique or misleading
information is more significant than in any other areas of pilot training. The unpredictable
nature of pilot inputs, reactions and behavior requires fluency in response to a wide variety
of potential situations requiring a time-constrained and accurate response. This specialized
expertise cannot be acquired through routine flight operations alone but demands that
instructor training provide routine flight appropriate degree of exposure necessary to
develop a comprehensive understanding of the entire UPRT operating environment, as well
as the airplane’s limitations and capabilities.

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Instructors for the on-airplane upset recovery training should therefore be trained-to-
proficiency and remain current to ensure competence in airplane manoeuvring as well as
being able to consistently employ effective intervention skills that may become necessary
to maintain adequate margins of safety. Such interventions may be required with regard to
airplane limitations, altitude, airspace, avoidance of collision, human performance and
limitations of the instructor or the trainee or any other threats or errors that might reduce
margins of safety. Instructors’ training should therefore focus on risk/safety margin
management, strong teaching skills with respect to human factors, trainee’s
psychophysiological reactions (startle and surprise), confidence building, and in-flight
recovery skills.
Instructors should:
(1) ensure that the training objectives of the upset recovery exercises are achieved;
(2) understand that upset recovery exercises in an aeroplane build primarily resilience and
confidence. In other words, the training serves mainly human factor training objectives
and less flying skills training;
(3) have knowledge and understanding of how
- UPRT in an aeroplane and in an FSTD complement each other;
- to ensure that negative transfer of training from light aeroplane to heavier transport
category aeroplanes is avoided. This may be achieved by observing UPRT in an
FSTD, especially in an type-specific FFS;
(4) have knowledge and understanding of the upset prevention theoretical knowledge and
flight instruction elements taught during the CPL, MPL, ATPL and Type rating to ensure
continuity and consistency in delivering UPRT;
(5) ensure that the risk mitigation procedure developed by the ATO are strictly adhered to
in order to ensure that safety margins are maintained.
Instructors for on-airplane upset recovery training shall

(1) have completed an on-airplane upset recovery instructor training course at an ATO;
(2) have at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on airplanes, including 200 hours of
flight instruction; and
(3) shall be experienced in aerobatic flight.
The objectives of the on-airplane upset recovery instructor training is to train instructors to
deliver training in accordance with the ‘train-to-proficiency’ concept and to manage safety.
Training should be both theoretical and practical. Practical elements should include the
development of specific instructor skills, particularly in the area of teaching upset recovery
techniques and strategies whilst exploring the associated physiological and psychological
aspects.
Applicants for the flight instructor privilege of on-airplane upset recovery training should
have passed a pre-entry flight assessment with an instructor holding the privilege to instruct
in the on-airplane upset recovery training within 6 months preceding the start of the course,
to assess their ability to undertake the course.
Instructor training should comprise

(1) ground training on the elements of upset recovery training in Table 2 and the additional
instructor upset recovery course elements in Table 7;
(2) flight instruction on the upset recovery exercises in Table 3;

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(3) additional instructor training elements in Table 7.
Table 7: Additional on-airplane upset recovery instructor training elements

Additional Instructor upset recovery course elements
1. Completion of a flight risk assessment
2. Resilience and confidence-building strategies, managing startle and surprise
3. Understanding the operating environment
4. Understanding the limitations and type-specific characteristics of the aeroplane used
for training
5. Value and benefits of an instructor-led demonstration
6. Energy management factors
7. Workload management
8. Instructor techniques to induce and manage startle and surprise
9. Upset recognition and recovery strategies
10. Disorientation
11. Distraction
12. Recognition of student pilot errors
13. Intervention strategies
During the training, the performance of the instructor shall be continuously assessed and
recorded.
Upon completion of the course, the applicant shall be issued with a certificate of completion
and logbook-entry by the ATO.
(3) Use of FSTDs for UPRT
The use of an FSTD provides valuable training without the risks associated with airplane
training. In order to avoid negative transfer of training, the capabilities of the specific FSTD
to be used should be considered when designing and delivering the training program,
especially when manoeuvre training could involve operation outside the normal flight
envelope of the airplane, for example during aerodynamic stall.
Type-specific content contained in the training program should be developed in consultation
with the OEMs to avoid negative training or negative transfer of training.
Some FSTDs may offer capabilities that could enhance the UPRT, such as Instructor
Operating Station (IOS) feature, enhanced aerodynamic models and enhanced motion
cueing. The value of such features in support of the training objectives may be considered.
The FSTD used for upset recovery training should be qualified to ensure that the training
task objectives can be achieved and negative transfer of training is avoided.
A level C or D FFs is qualified for the upset recovery training task. Exercises Outside the
Validated Training Envelope (VTE) should not be conducted. This is especially relevant for
stall event training.
Lower level FSTD (e.g. ICAO Type VI) may also qualify for the upset recovery training task
if equivalency for the specific features needed for the task can be demonstrated through the
conduct of a special evaluation. Once the lower level FSTD is deemed to qualify, the
authority should enter the additional capability on the certificate using the wording ‘upset
recovery training’.
Except for CPL and MPL, credit for on-airplane recovery training may be granted for
recovery training in an FSTD, if it can be demonstrated that the FSTD is capable of
delivering the same training results, by offering an appropriate level of fidelity; e.g. a motion
of platform delivering sustained g-loading, aerodynamic modelling of the same AOA range
(alpha-beta-envelope), stall behavior etc., to fully support the upset recovery training

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objectives, in particular the psycho-physiological effects equivalent to the aircraft. Once the
FSTD is deemed to qualify, the authority should enter the additional capability on the
certificate using the wording ‘credit for on-airplane upset recovery training’
(4) Additional guidance
Specific guidance on upset prevention training is available in the latest revisions of the ICAO
Doc 10011 ‘Manual on Airplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training’ and in the
‘Airplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Aid’, available on the ICAO website.
IS 2.3.3.4 APPENDIX A: AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENSE (A) —

KNOWLEDGE
(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the airline transport pilot license — airplane
shall include at least the following subjects:
(1) Air law
(i) International Agreements and Organizations: The Convention of Chicago:
Other International agreements: IATA agreement, Tokyo and Warsaw
Convention: PIC authority and responsibility regarding safety and security:
Operators and pilots liabilities towards persons and goods on the ground: in
case of damage and injury caused by the operation of the aircraft; Commercial
practices and associated rules: dry and wet lease;
(ii) Relevant parts of ICAO Annexes: 1. 2. 7, 8, 9, 11 (and Doc 4444). 12, 13, 14,
15, 17.
(iv) National law;
(i) Airframe and systems, electrics, powerplant; emergency equipment
(A) Airframe and systems: Fuselage: Cockpit and cabin windows: Wings,
Stabilizing surfaces: Landing Gear: Flight Controls; Hydraulics: Air driven
systems (piston engines only): Air driven systems (turbopropeller and jet
aircraft): Non-pneumatic operated de-ice and anti-ice systems; Fuel
system;
(B) Electrics: Direct Current (DC); Alternating Current (AC): Semiconductors:
Basic knowledge of computers: Basic radio propagation theory;
(C) Powerplant: Piston Engine: Turbine Engine: Engine construction: Engine
systems, Auxiliary Power Unit (APU);
(D) Emergency equipment: Doors and emergency exits; Smoke detection; Fire
detection; Fire fighting equipment; Aircraft oxygen equipment; Emergency
equipment;
(A) Flight instruments: Air data instruments, Gyroscopic instruments; Magnetic
Compass; Radio Altimeter; Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS);
Flight Management System (FMS);
(B) Automatic flight control system: Flight director, Autopilot; Flight envelope
protection; Yaw damper/Stability augmentation system, Automatic pitch
trim; Thrust computation, Auto-thrust,

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(C) Warning and recording equipment: Warnings general; Altitude alert

system; Ground proximity warning system (GPWS); Traffic collision
avoidance system (TCAS), Overspeed warning; Stall warning, Flight data
recorder; Cockpit voice recorder;
Temperature gauge, RPM indicator; Consumption gauge; Fuel gauge;
Torque meter; Flight hour meter; Vibration motoring; Remote
(signal)transmission system; Electronic Displays;
(i) Mass and balance: Center of gravity, Mass and balance limits;
(ii) Loading: Terminology; Aircraft mass checks; Procedures for determining
airplane mass and balance documentation; Effects of overloading;
(iii) Center of gravity: Basis of cg calculations (load and balance documentation);
Calculation of cg; Securing of loading; Area load; running load, supporting;
(iv) Performance of single-engine airplanes not certified under FAR/JAR 25 —
Performance class B: Definitions of terms and speeds; Take-off and landing
performance, Climb and cruise performance,
(v) Performance of multi-engine airplanes not certified under FAR/JAR 25 —
Performance class B: Definitions of terms and speeds; Importance of
performance calculations; Elements of performance, Use of performance
graphs and tabulated data;
(vi) Performance of airplanes certified under FAR/JAR 25 — Performance class A:
Take-off, Accelerate-stop distance, Initial Climb; Climb; Cruise; Descent and
landing; Practical application of an airplane performance manual;
(vii) Flight planning and flight monitoring:
(A) Flight plan for cross country flights: Navigation plan; Fuel plan; Flight
monitoring and in-flight re-planning; Radio communication and navigation
aids;
(B) ICAO ATC flight plan: Types of flight plan; Completing the flight plan; Filling
the flight plan; Closing the flight plan; Adherence to flight plan;
plans; Radio planning practice.
(viii) IFR (airways) flight planning: Meteorological considerations; Selection of
routes to destination and alternates; General flight planning tasks;
(A) Jet airplanes flight planning: Additional flight planning aspects for jet
airplanes (advanced flight planning); computerized flight planning;
(B) Practical completion of a flight plan (flight plan, flight log, nav log, ATC plan,
etc.): Extraction of data;
(i) Human factors basic concepts: Human factors in aviation; Accident statistics;
Flight safety concepts;
(ii) Basic aviation physiology: Basics of flight physiology; Man and environment:

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automation
(5) Meteorology
Atmospheric pressure; Atmospheric density; International Standard
Atmosphere (ISA); Altimetry;
(ii) Wind: Definition and measurement; Primary cause of wind; General circulation;
Turbulence; Variation of wind with height; Local winds; Jet streams; Standing
waves;
(iii) Thermodynamics: Humidity; Change of state of aggregation; Adiabetic
processes
(v) Precipitation: Development; Types;
frontal depressions; Tropical revolving storms
(viii) Climatology: Climatology zones; Tropical climatology; Typical weather
situations in mid-latitudes; Local seasonal weather and wind
(ix) Flight hazards: Icing, Turbulence; Wind-shear; Thunderstorms; Tornadoes;
Low and high level inversions; Stratospheric conditions; Hazards in
mountainous areas; Visibility reducing phenomena;
planning
(6) Navigation:
(i) General Navigation: Basics of navigation: The solar system; The earth, Time
and time conversions: Directions, Distance
representation of meridians, parallels, great circles and rhumb lines; The use
navigation; Navigation in climb and descent; Navigation in cruising flight, use
Purposes of FMS (flight management systems);
(vi) Inertial navigation systems (INS): Principles and practical application;
Alignment procedures; Accuracy, reliability, errors and coverage, INS
operation;

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(vii) Radio Navigation: Radio aids: Ground D/F (including classification of bearings);
VOR and Doppler VOR (including the use of the radio magnetic indicator); DME
(distance measuring equipment); ILS (instrument landing system); MLS
(Microwave landing system);
(viii) Basic radar principles: Pulse techniques and associated terms; Ground
radar; Airborne weather radar; SSR (secondary surveillance radar and
transponder); Use of radar observations and application to in-flight
navigation;
(ix) Area navigation systems: General philosophy; Typical flight deck equipment
and operation; Instrument indications; Types of area navigation system inputs;
VOR/DME area navigation (RNAV); Flight director and autopilot coupling;
(x) Self-contained and external-referenced navigation systems: Doppler, Loran-C;
Decca navigation system; Satellite assisted navigation:
GPS/GLONASS/DGPS
(i) ICAO Annex 6 Parts I, II and III (as applicable); Navigation requirements for
long-range flights;
icing; Bird strike risk and avoidance; Noise abatement; Fire/smoke;
Decompression of pressurized cabin; Wind-shear, microburst; Wake
turbulence; Security; Emergency and precautionary landings; Fuel jettisoning;
Transport of dangerous goods; Contaminated runways;
(i) Basics, laws and definitions; The two-dimensional airflow about an aerofoil;
The coefficients; The three-dimensional airflow about an airplane; The total
drag; The ground effect; The relation between the lift coefficient and the speed
for constant lift; The stall; Climax augmentation, Means to decrease the CLCD
ratio, increasing drag; The boundary layer; Special circumstances,
(ii) Transonic aerodynamics: The Mach number definition, Normal shockwaves;
Means to avoid the effects of exceeding M-CRIT
(iii) Supersonic aerodynamics: Oblique shockwaves
(iv) Stability: Condition of equilibrium in stable horizontal flight; Methods of
achieving balance; Longitudinal stability; Static directional stability; Static
lateral stability; Dynamic lateral stability;
(v) Control: General; Pitch control; Yaw control; Roll control; Interaction in different
planes (yaw/roll); Means to reduce control forces; Mass balance; Trimming;
(vi) Limitations: Operating limitations, Maneuvering envelope; Gust envelope,
(vii) Propellers: Conversion of engine torque to thrust; Engine failure or engine stop;
Design feature for power absorption; Moments and couples due to propeller
operation;
(viii) Flight mechanics: Forces acting on an airplane; Asymmetric thrust;
Emergency descent; Wind-shear;
(9) Radiotelephony:

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communication failure, distress and urgency procedures; General principles of

VHF propagation and allocation of frequencies,
(ii) IFR Communications: Definitions; General operating procedures; Action
required to be taken in case of communication failure; Distress and urgency
procedures; General principles of VHF propagation and allocation of
frequencies;
(iii) Morse code.
IS 2.3.3.4 APPENDIX B: AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENSE (A) – FLIGHT

(a) The flight instruction and skill test for the airline transport pilot license - airplanes shall
include CRM and at least the following areas of operation:
following tasks--
(i) Equipment examination
(ii) Performance and limitations
following tasks--
(ii) Powerplant start
(iii) Taxiing
(iv) Before takeoff checks
(3) Take-off and departure phase: including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Normal takeoffs with different flap settings. including expedited take-off
(ii) Instrument takeoff;
(iii) Powerplant failure during takeoff
(iv) Rejected takeoff
(v) Departure procedures
(4) In-flight maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks-
(i) Steep turns
(ii) Approach to stalls
(iii) Powerplant failure
(iv) Specific flight characteristics
(v) Recovery from unusual altitudes.
(5) Instrument procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Standard terminal arrival/flight management system procedures
(ii) Holding procedures

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(iii) Precision instrument approaches

(iv) Non-precision instrument approaches
(v) Circling approach
(vi) Missed approach
(6) Landings and approaches to landings; including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Normal and crosswind approaches and landings
(ii) Landing from a precision approach
(iii) Approach and landing with (simulated) powerplant failure
(iv) Landing from a circling approach
(v) Rejected landing
(vi) Landing from a no-flap or a non-standard flap approach.
(7) Normal and abnormal procedures
(8) Emergency procedures
(9) Post-flight procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) After landing procedures
(ii) Parking and securing
IS 2.3.3.5 Appendix ‘A’ MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENSE KNOWLEDGE AND

EXPERIENCE
The applicant shall have completed a course of approved training covering all the
knowledge and experience requirements specified herein:
(a) Knowledge: The applicant shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate
to the privileges granted to the holder of an airline transport pilot license and
appropriate to the category of aircraft intended to be included in the license, in at least
the following subjects:
(1) Meteorology
(2) Air law
(i) rules and regulations relevant to the holder of an airline transport pilot license;
rules of the air; appropriate air traffic services practices and procedures;
(3) Aircraft general knowledge for airplanes, helicopters and powered-lifts
(i) general characteristics and limitations of electrical, hydraulic, pressurization
and other aircraft systems; flight control systems, including autopilot and
stability augmentation;
(ii) principles of operation, handling procedures and operating limitations of aircraft
powerplants; effects of atmospheric conditions on engine performance;
relevant operational information from the flight manual or other appropriate
document;
(iii) operating procedures and limitations of the relevant category of aircraft; effects
of atmospheric conditions on aircraft performance in accordance with the
relevant operational information from the flight manual;

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(iv) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate aircraft;
(v) flight instruments; compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic
procedures in the event of malfunctions of various flight instruments and
electronic display units;
(vi) maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of
appropriate aircraft;
(vii) for helicopters and powered-lifts, transmission (power trains) where applicable;
(4) Flight performance, planning and loading
(v) effects of loading and weight distribution on aircraft handling, flight
(ii) use and practical application of take-off, landing and other performance data,
including procedures for cruise control;
(iii) pre-flight and en-route operational flight planning; preparation and filing of air
traffic services flight plans; appropriate air traffic services procedures; altimeter
setting procedures;
(iv) in the case of helicopters and powered-lifts, effects of external loading on
handling;
(i) human performance including principles of threat and error management;
(ii) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports, charts
and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for obtaining,
meteorological information, pre-flight and in-flight; altimetry;
(iii) aeronautical meteorology; climatology of relevant areas in respect of the
elements having an effect upon aviation; the movement of pressure systems;
the structure of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of significant weather
phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing conditions;
(iv) causes, recognition and effects of icing; frontal zone penetration procedures;
(v) in the case of airplanes and powered-lifts, practical high altitude meteorology,
including interpretation and use of weather reports, charts and forecasts; jet
streams;
(6) Navigation
(i) air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts, radio navigation aids
and area navigation systems; specific navigation requirements for long-range
flights;
(ii) use, limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for the
control and navigation of aircraft:
(iii) use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure, enroute,
approach and landing phases of flight; identification of radio navigation aids;
(iv) principles and characteristics of self-contained and external-referenced
(i) application of threat and error management to operational performance;

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(ii) interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP, NOTAM,

aeronautical codes and abbreviations;
(iii) precautionary and emergency procedures; safety practices;
(iv) operational procedures for carriage of freight and dangerous goods;
(v) requirements and practices for safety briefing to passengers, including
precautions to be observed when embarking and disembarking from aircraft;
(vi) in the case of helicopters, and if applicable, powered-lifts, settling with power;
ground resonance; retreating blade stall; dynamic rollover and other operating
hazards; safety procedures, associated with flight in VMC;
(8) Principles of flight
(i) principles of flight;
(9) Radiotelephony
(i) communication procedures and phraseology; action to be taken in case of
communication failure.
(ii) In addition to the above subjects, the applicant for an airline transport pilot
license applicable to the airplane or powered-lift category shall have met the
knowledge requirements for the instrument rating.
IS 2.3.3.5 APPENDIX B: MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENSE SKILLS

(a) The applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to perform, as pilot-in-command of
an aircraft within the appropriate category required to be operated with a copilot, the
following procedures and maneuvers:
(1) pre-flight procedures, including the preparation of the operational flight plan and
filing of the air traffic services flight plan;
(2) normal flight procedures and maneuvers during all phases of flight;
(3) abnormal and emergency procedures and maneuvers related to failures and
malfunctions of equipment, such as powerplant, systems and airframe;
(4) procedures for crew incapacitation and crew coordination, including allocation of
pilot tasks, crew cooperation and use of checklists; and
(5) in the case of airplanes and powered-lifts, procedures and maneuvers for
instrument flight described the applicant shall have completed not less than:
(6) 50 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories
acceptable to the Licensing Authority, of which not less than 10 hours shall be in
the aircraft category being sought; and
(7) 40 hours of instrument time in aircraft of which not more than 20 hours, or 30 hours
where a flight simulator is used, may be instrument ground time. The ground time
shall be under the supervision of an authorized instructor.
(b) Flight instruction
(1) The applicant shall have gained not less than 10 hours of instrument flight time
while receiving dual instrument flight instruction in the aircraft category being
sought, from a flight instructor authorized by the Authority. The instructor shall
ensure that the applicant has operational experience in at least the following areas
to the level of performance required for the holder of an instrument rating:

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an IFR flight plan;
(ii) pre-flight inspection, use of checklists, taxiing and pre take-off checks;
(iii) procedures and maneuvers for LFR operation under normal, abnormal and
(C) en-route IFR procedures;
(H) in-flight maneuvers and particular flight characteristics including simulated
engine failure.
(I) In the case of an airplane, the applicant shall have demonstrated the ability
to perform the procedures and maneuvers described as pilot-in-command
of a multi-engine airplane.
(2) The applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to perform the procedures and
maneuvers described with a degree of competency appropriate to the privileges
granted to the holder of an airline transport pilot license, and to:
(i) recognize and manage threats and errors;
(ii) smoothly and accurately, manually control the aircraft within its limitations at all
times, such that the successful outcome of a procedure or maneuver is
assured;
(iii) operate the aircraft in the mode of automation appropriate to the phase of flight
and to maintain awareness of the active mode of automation;
(iv) perform, in an accurate manner, normal, abnormal and emergency procedures
in all phases of flight;
(v) exercise good judgment and airmanship, to include structured decision making
and the maintenance of situational awareness; and
(vi) communicate effectively with other flight crew members and demonstrate the
ability to effectively perform procedures for crew incapacitation, crew
coordination, including allocation of pilot tasks, crew cooperation, adherence to
standard operating procedures (SOPs) and use of checklists.
IS 2.3.3.6 APPENDIX A: INSTRUMENT RATING (A AND H) - KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the instrument rating — airplane and helicopter
(1) Air law
Convention; PIC authority and responsibility regarding safety and security,

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Operators and pilots liabilities towards persons and goods on the ground, in
case of damage and injury caused by the operation of the aircraft, Commercial
practices and associated rules: dry and wet lease
(ii) Relevant parts of ICAO Annexes: 1. 2. 7; 8, 9, 11 (and Doc 4444), 12, 13, 14,15;
(iv) National law
(i) Airframe and systems, electrics, powerplant, emergency equipment
(A) Airframe and systems: Air driven systems (piston engines only), Air driven
systems (turbo propeller and jet aircraft), Non-pneumatic operated de-ice
and anti-ice systems, Fuel systems
(B) Electrics: Direct Current (DC), Basic radio propagation theory
(C) Flight instruments: Air data instruments, Gyroscopic instruments, Magnetic
Compass, Radio Altimeter; Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFTS),
Flight Management System (FMS)
(D) Automatic flight control system: Flight director; Autopilot; Yaw
damper/Stability augmentation system;
(E) Warning and recording equipment: Warnings general; Stall warning;
(i) Flight planning and flight monitoring:
(A) Flight plan for cross country flights: Navigation plan, Fuel plan, Flight
monitoring and in-flight re-planning, Radio communication and navigation
aids;
(B) ICAO ATC flight plan: Types of flight plan, Completing the flight plan, Filling
the flight plan, Closing the flight plan, Adherence to flight plan
plans, Radio planning practice
(D) IFR (airways) flight planning: Meteorological considerations, Selection of
routes to destination and alternates, General flight planning tasks,
(E) Practical completion of a flight plan (flight plan, flight log, nay log, ATC plan,
etc.): Extraction of data
(i) Human factors basic concepts: Human factors in aviation, Accident statistics,
Flight safety concepts
(ii) Basic aviation physiology: Basics of flight physiology, Man and environment:
automation
(5) Meteorology

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(ii) Wind: Definition and measurement: General circulation; Turbulence: Variation

(iii) Thermodynamics: Humidity; Change of state of aggregation; Adiabatic
processes
(v) Precipitation: Development and types of precipitation;
frontal depressions;
(viii) Climatology: Typical weather situations in mid-latitudes; Local seasonal
weather and wind
(ix) Flight hazards: Icing, Turbulence; Wind-shear; Thunderstorms; Low and high
level inversions; Hazards in mountainous areas;
planning
(6) Navigation:
(i) General Navigation:
(ii) Charts: The use of current aeronautical charts
(iii) Radio Navigation: Radio aids: Ground D/F (including classification of bearings);
DME (distance measuring equipment); ILS (instrument landing
(iv) system); MLS (Microwave landing system);
(v) Basic radar principles: Pulse techniques and associated terms; Ground radar;
Airborne weather radar; SSR (secondary surveillance radar and transponder);
Use of radar observations and application to in-flight navigation;
(vi) Area navigation systems: General philosophy; Typical flight deck equipment
VOR/DME area navigation (RNAV);
(vii) Self-contained and external-referenced navigation systems: Satellite assisted
navigation: GPS/GLONASS/DGPS
(i) General
(ii) Special operational procedures and hazards: General
(8) Radiotelephony:
(i) IFR Communications: Definitions; General operating procedures; Action
required to be taken in case of communication failure; distress and urgency
frequencies; Morse code.

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IS 2.3.3.6 APPENDIX B: INSTRUMENT RATING (A AND H) - FLIGHT INSTRUCTION,

SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY CHECK
(a) The flight instruction, skill test and proficiency check for the instrument rating —
airplane and helicopter shall include at least the following areas of operation:
Note: When (SE) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for single-engine. When
(ME) is indicated the item or paragraphs is only for multi-engine. When nothing is
following tasks--
(i) Weather information
(ii) Cross-country flight planning
following tasks:
(i) Aircraft systems related to IFR operations
(ii) Aircraft flight instruments and navigation equipment
(iii) Instrument cockpit check
(3) Air traffic control clearances and procedures; including the applicant's knowledge
(i) Air traffic control clearances
(ii) Compliance with departure, en route and arrival procedures and clearances
(iii) Holding procedures
(4) Flight by reference to instruments; including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Change of airspeed
(iii) Constant airspeed climbs and descents
(iv) Rate climbs and descents
(v) Timed turns to magnetic compass headings
(vi) Steep turns
(vii) Recovery from unusual flight attitudes
(5) Navigation systems; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Intercepting and tracking navigational systems and DME Arcs
(6) Instrument approach procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Non-precision instrument approach
(ii) Precision ILS instrument approach
(iii) Missed approach
(iv) Circling approach
(v) Landing from a straight-in or circling approach

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(i) Loss of communications
(ii) One engine inoperative during straight-and-level flight and turns (ME)
(iii) One engine inoperative — instrument approach (ME)
(iv) Loss of gyro attitude and/or heading indicators
following tasks--
(i) Checking instruments and equipment
IS 2.3.3.7 APPENDIX A: PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE (H) — KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the private pilot license - helicopter shall include
at least the following subjects:
(1) Air law
(i) Relevant parts of ICAO Convention and Annexes 2, 7, 8, 11 and 14
(ii) ICAO Document 4444: General provisions, Area control service, Approach
control service, Aerodrome control service; Flight information and alerting
service
(iii) National law:
(2) Aircraft General Knowledge
(i) Airframe: Rotors: Airframe structure and loads
(ii) Powerplant: Piston engine; Engines general, lubrication system; air cooling;
ignition systems, engine fuel supply, engine performance, power augmentation
devices, fuel, mixture, engine handling and manipulation. operational criteria,
(iii) Systems: electrical system, hydraulic system
(iv) Instruments: Pilot/static system, Airspeed indicator, Altimeter, Vertical speed
indicator, Gyroscopes, Turn indicator, Altitude indicate, Heading indicator,
Magnetic compass, Engine instruments, Other instruments
(v) Airworthiness
(3) Flight Performance and Planning
(i) Mass and balance
(ii) Performance: Take-off; Landing; In flight
(i) Basic physiology: Concepts, Effects of partial pressure, Vision, Hearing; Motion
sickness, Flying and health; Toxic hazards
(ii) Basic psychology: The information process, the central decision channel,
stress, judgment and decision making
(5) Meteorology
(i) The atmosphere, Pressure, density and temperature, Humidity and
precipitation, Pressure and wind, Cloud information, Fog, mist and haze,
Airmasses, Frontology, Ice accretion, Thunderstorms, Flight over mountainous

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areas, Climatology, Altimetry, The meteorological organization, Weather

analysis and forecasting; Weather information for flight planning,
Meteorological broadcasts for aviation
(6) Navigation
(i) Form of the earth; Mapping, Conformal conic projection, Direction, Helicopter
magnetism, Distances, Charts in practical navigation, Chart reference
material/map reading, Principles of navigation; The navigation computer; Time;
Flight planning, Practical navigation
(7) Radio navigation: Ground directory finding (D/F), Automatic directory finding
(ADF), including associated beacons (non directional beacons (NDBs)) and use of
the radio magnetic indicator (RMI), VHF omni-directional range/distance
measuring equipment (VOR/DME), GPS, Ground radar, Secondary surveillance
radar
(8) Operational Procedures
(i) Relevant parts of ICAO Annex 6. Part III. Annex 12, 13 and 16 (relevant parts),
Contravention of aviation regulations
(9) Principles of Flight
(i) The atmosphere. Airflow around a body; Subsonic flow about a two
dimensional aerofoil, Three dimensional flow about an aerofoil, Rotor
aerodynamics, Flying controls, Stability. Load factor and maneuvers,
Stressloads on the ground, Helicopter specific hazards
(10) Communications
(i) Radio telephony and communications, Departure procedures, En-route
procedures, Arrival and traffic pattern procedures, Communications failure,
Distress and urgency procedures.
IS 2.3.3.7 APPENDIX B: PRIVATE PILOT LICENSE (H) - FLIGHT INSTRUCTION

AND SKILL TEST
(a) The flight instruction and skill test for the private pilot license - helicopter shall include
at least the following areas of operation:
following tasks--
(ii) Weather information
(iii) Cross-country flight planning
(iv) National airspace system
(v) Performance and limitations
(vi) Operation of system
(vii) Minimum equipment list
(viii) Aeromedical factors
following tasks--

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(iii) Engine Starting and rotor engagement
(iv) Before take-off check
(3) Aerodrome and heliport operations; including the applicant's knowledge and
(iii) Aerodrome and heliport markings and lighting
(4) Hovering maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Vertical take-off and landing
(ii) Slope operations
(iii) Surface taxi
(iv) Hover taxi
(v) Air taxi
(5) Take-off, landing, and go-around; including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Normal and crosswind approach
(iii) Maximum performance take-off and climb
(iv) Steep approach
(v) Rolling take-off
(vi) Shallow approach and running/roll-on landing
(vii) Go-around
(6) Performance maneuver; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Rapid deceleration
(ii) Straight in autorotation
tasks--
(i) Pilot age and dead reckoning
(ii) Radio navigation and radar services
(iii) Diversion
(i) Power failure at a hover
(ii) Power failure at altitude
(iii) Systems and equipment malfunctions

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(iv) Settling-with-power
(v) Low rotor RPM recovery
(vi) Dynamic rollover
(vii) Ground resonance
(viii) Low G conditions
(9) Emergency equipment and survival gear Night operation; including the applicant's
knowledge and performance of the following tasks--
(i) Physiological aspects of night flying
(ii) Lighting and equipment for night flying
(i) After landing and securing
IS 2.3.3.8 APPENDIX A: COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE (H) — KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the commercial pilot license — helicopter shall
include at least the following subjects:
(1) Air law
Operators and pilots liabilities towards persons and goods on the ground; in
(ii) Relevant parts of ICAO Annexes: 1. 2.7. 8, 9, 11 (and Doc 4444). 12, 13, 14,
15, 17;
(iv) National law;
(A) Airframe and systems: Helicopter configurations; Controls and rotors;
Cockpit and cabin; Landing Gear; Transmission systems; Rotor-brake;
Inspection; Hydraulics; Air driven systems De-ice and anti-ice systems,
Fuel system
(B) Electrics: Direct Current (DC); Alternating Current (AC); Semiconductors;
Basic knowledge of computers; Basic radio propagation theory;
(C) Powerplant: Piston Engine; Turbine Engine; Engine construction; Engine
detection; Fire fighting equipment; Aircraft oxygen equipment; Emergency
equipment;

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(A) Flight instruments: Air data instruments; Gyroscopic instruments; Magnetic

Flight Management System (FMS):
protection: Yaw damper/Stability augmentation system;
(C) Warning and recording equipment: Warnings general: Altitude alert system:
Ground proximity warning system (GPWS); Traffic collision avoidance
system (TCAS), Overspeed warning; Flight data recorder; Cockpit voice
recorder; Rotors and engine over/underspeed warning;
Temperature gauge, RPM indicator, Consumption gauge: Fuel gauge:
Torque meter: Flight hour meter; Remote (signal) transmission system:
Electronic Displays; Chip detection;
(ii) Loading: Terminology: Aircraft mass checks: Procedures for determining
helicopter mass and balance documentation; Effects of overloading:
Calculation of cg; Securing of load, Area load, running load, supporting;
(iv) Performance: Airworthiness Requirements: Definitions of terms; Take off —
Cruise - Landing Performance;
(v) Flight planning and flight monitoring:
(A) Flight plan for cross country flights: Navigation plan: Fuel plan; Flight
aids;
plans; Radio planning practice;
(D) Practical completion of a flight plan (flight plan, flight log, nay log, ATC plan,
etc.): Extraction of data;
(E) Offshore or remote area operation: Additional flight planning aspects for off
shore or remote area operation; computerized flight planning;
automation
(5) Meteorology

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(iii) Thermodynamics: Humidity; Change of state of aggregation; Adiabatic
processes
(v) Precipitation
mountainous areas;
planning
(6) Navigation:
(i) General Navigation: Basics of navigation: The solar system; The earth Time
and time conversions; Directions. Distance
VOR and Doppler VOR (including the use of the radio magnetic indicator); DME
(distance measuring equipment);
(vii) Basic radar principles: Pulse techniques and associated terms; Ground radar;
SSR (secondary surveillance radar and transponder); Use of radar
observations and application to in-flight navigation;
(viii) Area navigation systems: Flight director and autopilot coupling;

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(ix) Self-contained and external-referenced navigation systems: Doppler; Loran-C;

GPS/GLONASS/DGPS
(i) ICAO Annex 6 Parts II and III (as applicable);
icing; Bird strike risk and avoidance; Noise abatement; Fire/smoke; Windshear,
microburst; Wake turbulence; Security; Emergency and precautionary
landings; Fuel jettisoning; Transport of dangerous goods; Contaminated
runways; Rotor down wash; Operation influence by meteorological conditions;
(8) Emergency procedures;
(i) Subsonic Aerodynamics: Basic laws and definitions; Derivation of lift; Drag;
Distribution of forces — balance of couples; Stability; Blade-stall; Transonic
effects on blades; Limitations; Performance degradation;
(ii) Helicopter aerodynamics: The helicopter and associated terminology; The
forces diagram and associated terminology; Uniformity of rotor thrust along
blade span; Helicopter controls; Rotor blade freedom of movement; Phase lag
and advance angle; Vertical flight; Forces in balance; Transitional lift; Power
requirements; Further aerodynamics of forward flight; Factors affecting cyclic
stick limits; The flare — power flight; Settling with power (vortex ring); Blade
sailing; Autorotation — vertical; Autorotation - forward flight; Stability; Control
power; Power requirements — graphs;
(9) Radiotelephony
(ii) Morse code.
IS 2.3.3.8 APPENDIX B: COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSE (H) — FLIGHT

(a) The flight instruction and skill test for the commercial pilot license — helicopter shall
include at least the following areas of operation:
following tasks--
(iii) Cross-country flight planning
(iv) National airspace system
(v) Performance and limitations
(vi) Operation of system
(vii) Minimum equipment list
(viii) Aeromedical factors
(ix) Physiological aspects of night flying

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(x) Lighting and equipment for night flying

following tasks--
(iii) Engine starting and rotor engagement
(iv) Before take-off check
(3) Aerodrome and heliport operations; including the applicant's knowledge and
performance of the following tasks:
(iii) Aerodrome and heliport markings and lighting
(4) Hovering maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(ii) Slope operations
(iii) Surface taxi
(iv) Hover taxi
(v) Air taxi
(5) Take-off, landing and go-around; including the applicant's knowledge and
(iii) Maximum performance take-off and climb
(iv) Steep approach
(v) Rolling take-off
(vi) Shallow approach and running/roll-on landing
(vii) Go-around
(6) Performance maneuver; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(ii) 180 Degrees autorotation
tasks--
(ii) Radio navigation and radar services
(iii) Diversion

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the following tasks:
(iii) Systems and equipment malfunctions
(iv) Settling-with-power
(v) Low rotor RPM recovery
(viii) Low G conditions
(ix) Emergency equipment and survival gear
(9) Special operations; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Confined area operation
(ii) Pinnacle/platform operations
(i) After landing; parking and securing
IS 2.3.3.9 APPENDIX A: AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENSE (H) - KNOWLEDGE

(a) The knowledge instruction and test for the airline transport pilot license — helicopter
(1) Air law
Operators and pilots liabilities towards persons and goods on the ground; in
(ii) Relevant parts of ICAO Annexes: 1, 2, 7, 8, 9, 11 (and doc 4444), 12, 13, 14,
15 and 17;
(iv) National law;
(A) Airframe and systems: Helicopter configurations; Controls and rotors;
Cockpit and cabin; Landing Gear; Transmission systems; Rotor-brake;
Inspection; Hydraulics; Air driven systems, De-ice and anti-ice systems,
Fuel system
(B) Electrics: Direct Current (DC); Alternating Current (AC); Semiconductors,
Basic knowledge of computers Basic radio propagation theory;

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(C) Powerplant: Piston Engine; Turbine Engine; Engine construction; Engine

detection; Fire-fighting equipment; Aircraft oxygen equipment; Emergency
equipment;
(A) Flight instruments: Air data instruments, Gyroscopic instruments,Magnetic
Flight Management System (FMS);
protection; Yaw damper/Stability augmentation system;
(C) Warning and recording equipment: Warnings general; Altitude alert system;
Ground proximity warning system (GPWS); Traffic collision avoidance
system (TCAS), Overspeed warning; Flight data recorder; Cockpit voice
recorder; Rotors and engine over/underspeed warning;
Temperature gauge, RPM indicator; Consumption gauge, Fuel gauge,
Torque meter, Flight hour meter, Remote (signal) transmission system;
Electronic Displays; Chip detection;
(ii) Loading: Terminology; Aircraft mass checks; Procedures for determining
helicopter mass and balance documentation; Effects of overloading;
Calculation of cg; Securing of load; Area load; running load, supporting;
(iv) Performance: Airworthiness Requirements; Definitions of terms; Take off —
Cruise - Landing Performance;
(v) Flight planning and flight monitoring:
(A) Flight plan for cross country flights: Navigation plan; Fuel plan; Flight
aids;
plans; Radio planning practice;
(D) IFR (airways) flight planning: Meteorological considerations; Selection of
routes to destination and alternates; General flight planning tasks;
Note: This subsection is only part of the instruction, test or check when an
instrument rating is required.
(E) Practical completion of a flight plan (flight plan, flight log, navigation log,
ATC plan, etc.): Extraction of data;
(F) Offshore or remote area operation: Additional flight planning aspects for
offshore or remote area operation; computerized flight planning;

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automation
(5) Meteorology
of wind with height; Local winds; Jet streams; Standing waves;
(iii) Thermodynamics: Humidity; Change of state of aggregation; Adiabetic
processes
(v) Precipitation
mountainous areas;
planning
(6) Navigation:
(i) General Navigation: Basics of navigation: The solar system; The earth Time
and time conversions; Directions, Distance

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DME (distance measuring equipment); ILS (instrument landing system); MLS
(Microwave landing system);
(vii) Basic radar principles: Pulse techniques and associated terms; Ground radar;
Airborne weather radar; SSR (secondary surveillance radar and transponder);
Use of radar observations and application to in-flight navigation;
(viii) Area navigation systems: General philosophy; Typical flight deck equipment
VOR/DME area navigation (RNAV); Flight director and autopilot coupling
(ix) Area navigation systems: General philosophy; Typical flight deck equipment
VOR/DME area navigation (RNAV); Flight director and autopilot coupling
Note: Typical flight deck equipment and operation: Instrument indications: and
Types of area navigation system inputs are only part of the instruction, test or
check when an instrument rating is required.
(x) Self-contained and external-referenced navigation systems: Doppler; Loran-C;
GPS/GLONASS/DGPS
(i) ICAO Annex 6 Parts I, II and III (as applicable);
icing; Bird strike risk and avoidance; Noise abatement; Fire/smoke; Windshear;
microburst; Wake turbulence; Security; Emergency and precautionary
landings; Fuel jettisoning; Transport of dangerous goods; Contaminated
runways;
(i) Subsonic Aerodynamics: Basic laws and definitions; Derivation of lift; Drag;
Distribution of forces — balance of couples; Stability; Blade-stall; Transonic
effects on blades; Limitations; Performance degradation;
(ii) Helicopter aerodynamics: The helicopter and associated terminology; The
forces diagram and associated terminology; Uniformity of rotor thrust along
blade span; Helicopter controls; Rotor blade freedom of movement;; Phase lag
and advance angle; Vertical flight; Forces in balance; Transitional lift; Power
requirements; Further aerodynamics of forward flight; Factors affecting cyclic
stick limits; The flare — power flight; Settling with power (vortex ring); Blade
sailing; Autorotation — vertical; Autorotation - forward flight; Stability; Control
power; Power requirements — graphs;
(9) Radiotelephony:
(ii) IFR Communications: Definitions; General operating procedures; Action
required to be taken in case of communication failure; distress and urgency

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frequencies;
Note: This subsection is only part of the instruction, test or check when an
instrument rating is required.
(iii) Morse code.
IS 2.3.3.9 APPENDIX B: AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENSE (H) – FLIGHT

(a) The flight instruction and skill test for the airline transport pilot license for helicopters
shall include CRM and at least the following areas of operation:
(1) Pre-flight preparations and checks; including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Equipment examination
following tasks--
(ii) Powerplant start
(iii) Taxiing
(iv) Pre-takeoff checks
(3) Takeoff and departure phase: including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Normal and crosswind takeoff
(ii) Instrument takeoff
(iii) Powerplant failure during takeoff
(iv) Rejected takeoff
(v) Instrument departure
(4) In-flight maneuvers: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks-
(i) Steep turns
(ii) Powerplant failure-multi-engine helicopter
(iii) Powerplant failure-single-engine helicopter
(iv) Recovery from unusual altitudes
(v) Settling with power
(5) Instrument procedures: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Instrument arrival
(ii) Holding
(iii) Precision instrument approaches
(iv) Non-precision instrument approaches

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(v) Missed approach

(6) Landings and approaches to landings: including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Normal and crosswind approaches and landings
(ii) Approach and landing with simulated powerplant failure-multiengine helicopter
(iii) Rejected landing
(7) Normal and abnormal procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and
performance of the tasks.
(8) Emergency procedures: including the applicant's knowledge and performance.
following tasks--
(i) After landing procedures
IS 2.3.3.11 APPENDIX A: FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR (A and H) - FLIGHT INSTRUCTION,

SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY CHECK
(a) The flight instruction, skill test and proficiency check for the flight instructor rating -
airplane and helicopter shall include at least the following areas of operation:
Notes:
(1) When (SE) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for single-engine, when (ME)
is indicated the item or paragraphs is only for multi-engine. When nothing is indicated
the item or paragraph is for single-engine and multi-engine.
(2) When (A) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for Airplane. When (H) is
indicated the item or paragraph is only for Helicopter. When nothing is indicated the
item or the paragraph is for A and H.
(3) When (S) is indicated, the item is only for seaplanes, when (L) is indicated, the
item is only for landplanes. When nothing is indicated the item is for land and
seaplanes.
(1) Fundamentals of instruction; including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) The learning process
(ii) The teaching process
(iii) Teaching methods
(iv) Evaluation
(v) Flight instructor characteristics and responsibilities
(vi) Human factors
(vii) Planning instructional activity
(2) Technical subject areas; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
the following tasks
(i) Aeromedical factors
(ii) Visual Scanning and collision avoidance

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(iii) Principles of flight

(iv) Aircraft flight controls
(v) Aircraft weight and balance
(vi) Navigation and flight planning
(vii) Night operations
(viii) High altitude operations (A)
(ix) Regulations and publications
(x) Use of minimum equipment list
(xi) National airspace system
(xii) Navigation aids and radar services (A)
(xiii) Logbook entries and license endorsements
(xiv) Water and seaplane characteristics (S)
(xv) Seaplane bases, rules and aids to marine navigation (S)
following tasks--
(iii) Operation of systems (SE)
(iv) Performance and limitations (SE)
(v) Airworthiness requirements
(4) Pre-flight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight: including the applicant's
knowledge and performance of the following task--
(i) Maneuver lesson
following tasks--
(iii) Engine starting (A)
(iv) Engine starting and rotor engagement (H)
(v) Taxiing (A)
(vi) Sailing (S)
(vii) Before take-off check
(6) Aerodrome operations and Heliport operations: including the applicant's
knowledge and performance of the following tasks--
(iii) Aerodrome and runway markings and lighting (A)
(iv) Aerodrome and Heliport Markings and lighting

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(7) Take-off, landing and go-around (A): including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Take-off and maximum performance climb
(iii) Short field (Confined area (S)) take-off and maximum performance climb
(iv) Soft field take-off and climb (SE)
(v) Glossy water take-off and climb (S)
(vi) Rough water take-off and climb (S)
(vii) Normal and crosswind approach and landing
(viii) Slip to a landing (SE)
(ix) Go-around/rejected landing
(x) Short field (Confined area (S)) approach and landing
(xi) Glassy water approach and landing (S)
(xii) Rough water approach and landing (S)
(xiii) Soft field approach and landing (SE)
(xiv) Power-off 180 degrees accuracy approach and landing
(8) Hovering Maneuvers (H); including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(ii) Surface taxi
(iii) Hover taxi
(iv) Air taxi
(v) Slope operation
(9) Fundamentals of flight; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(ii) Level turns
(iii) Straight climbs and climbing turns
(iv) Straight descents and descending turns
(10) Performance maneuvers (A); including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Steep turns
(ii) Steep spirals (SE)
(11) Performance maneuvers (H); including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Straight-in autorotation
(iii) 180 degrees autorotation

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(12) Ground reference maneuvers (A); including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Rectangular course
(ii) S-turns across a road
(iii) Turns around a point
(13) Slow flight, stalls and spins (A); including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Power-on stalls (proficiency)
(iii) Power-off stalls (proficiency)
(iv) Crossed-control stalls (demonstration) (SE)
(v) Elevator trim stalls (demonstration) (SE)
(vi) Secondary stalls (demonstration) (SE)
(vii) Spins (SE)
(14) Basic instrument maneuvers; including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Constant airspeed climbs
(iii) Constant airspeed descents
(iv) Turns to headings
(v) Recovery from unusual flight attitudes
(15) Emergency operations (SE) (A); including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Emergency approach and landing (simulated)
(ii) Systems and equipment malfunctions
(iii) Emergency equipment and survival gear
(16) (Emergency operations (ME) (A); including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Systems and equipment malfunctions
(ii) Engine failure during take-off before VMC
(iii) Engine failure after lift-off
(iv) Approach and landing with an inoperative engine
(v) Emergency descent
(vi) Emergency equipment and survival gear
(17) Emergency operations (H); including the applicant's knowledge and performance
(iii) Settling-with-power

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(iv) Low rotor RPM recovery

(v) Anti-torque system failure
(viii) Low "G" conditions
(ix) Systems and equipment malfunctions
(x) Emergency equipment and survival gear
(18) Multi-engine operations (ME) (A); including the applicant's knowledge and
(i) Operation of systems
(iii) Flight principles — engine inoperative
(iv) Maneuvering with one engine inoperative
(v) VMC demonstration
(vi) Demonstrating the effects of various airspeeds and configurations during
engine inoperative performance
(19) Special operations (H); including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Confined area operation
(ii) Pinnacle/platform operation
(i) Post-flight procedures
(ii) Anchoring
(iii) Docking and mooring
(iv) Beaching
(v) Ramping
IS 2.3.3.11 APPENDIX B: FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR FOR INSTRUMENT RATINGS (A

and H) - FLIGHT INSTRUCTION, SKILL TEST and PROFICIENCY CHECK
(a) The flight instruction, skill test and proficiency for the flight instructor for instrument
ratings - airplane and helicopter shall include at least the following areas of operation:
Notes:(1) When (SE) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for single-engine.
When (ME) is indicated the item or paragraphs is only for multi-engine. When nothing
is indicated the item and paragraph are for single-engine and multi-engine.
(2) When (A) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for Airplane. When (H) is
item and the paragraph are for A and H.
(1) Fundamentals of instructing; including the applicant's knowledge and performance

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(i) The learning process

(ii) Human behavior and effective communication
(iii) The teaching process
(iv) Teaching methods
(v) Critique and evaluation
(vi) Flight instructor characteristics and responsibilities
(vii) Planning instructional activity
(2) Technical subject areas; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of
(i) Aircraft flight instruments and navigation equipment
(ii) Aeromedical factors
(iii) Regulations and publications related to IFR operations
(iv) Logbook entries related to instrument instruction
following tasks:
(i) Weather information
(ii) Cross-country flight planning
(iii) Instrument cockpit check
(4) Pre-flight lesson on a maneuver to be performed in flight; including the applicant's
knowledge and performance of the following task:
(i) Maneuver lesson
(5) Air traffic control clearances and procedures; including the applicant's knowledge
and performance of the following tasks-
(i) Air traffic control clearances
(ii) Compliance with departure, en-route and arrival procedures and clearances
(6) Flight by reference to instruments; including the applicant's knowledge and
(ii) Turns
(iii) Change of airspeed in straight-and-level and turning flight
(iv) Constant airspeed climbs and descents
(v) Constant rate climbs and descents
(vi) Timed turns to magnetic compass headings
(vii) Steep turns
(viii) Recovery from unusual flight altitudes
(7) Navigation systems; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks:
(i) Intercepting and tracking navigational systems and DME Arcs
(ii) Holding procedures

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(8) Instrument approach procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and

(i) Non-precision instrument approach
(ii) Precision instrument approach
(iii) Missed approach
(iv) Circling approach (A)
(v) Landing from a straight-in approach
(i) Loss of communications
(ii) Loss of gyro attitude and heading indicators
(iii) Engine failure during straight-and-level flight and turns
(iv) Instrument approach — one engine inoperative
the following task--
(i) Checking instruments and equipment
IS 2.3.3.11 APPENDIX C: INSTRUCTOR RATING FOR ADDITIONAL TYPE RATINGS

- FLIGHT INSTRUCTION, SKILL TEST and PROFICIENCY CHECK
(a) The flight instruction, skill test and proficiency checks for instructors for additional type
ratings -airplane and helicopter shall include at least the following areas of operation:
Note: When (A) is indicated the item or paragraph is only for Airplane. When (H) is
item and the paragraph are for A and H.
(1) Technical subject areas
(i) The content of the technical subject areas shall cover the areas as applicable
to the aircraft class or type.
(ii) Flight simulator: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks:
(A) Use of checklist, setting of radios/navigation aids
(B) Starting engines
(C) Take-off checks
(D) Instrument take-off, transition to instruments after lift off
(E) Engine failure during take-ff between V1 and V2 (Airplane)
(F) Aborted take-off prior to reaching V1 (A)
(G) High mach buffeting, specific flight characteristics (if necessary) (A)
(H) Take-off with engine failure prior to TDP or DPATO or shortly after TDP or
DPATO (Helicopter)
(I) Steep turns

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(J) Recovery from approach to stall/take-off, clean landing configuration

(Airplane)
(K) Instrument approach to required minimum decision height or minimum
descent height/altitude, manual one engine simulated inoperative during
approach and landing or go-around (Airplane)
(L) Instrument approach to required minimum decision height or minimum
descent height/altitude, autopilot one engine simulated inoperative during
approach and landing or go-around (Helicopter)
(M) Rejected landing and go-around
(N) Crosswind landing
(iii) Category II and II operations, if applicable: including the applicant's knowledge
(A) Precision approaches, automatic with auto-throttle and flight director go
around caused by aircraft or ground equipment deficiencies
(B) Go-around caused by weather conditions
(C) Go-around at DH caused by offset position from centerline
(D) One of the CAT II/CAT III approaches must lead to a landing
(iv) Aircraft: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the following
tasks--
(A) Familiarization with controls during outside checks
(B) Use of checklist, setting of radios and navigation aids, starting engines
(C) Taxiing
(D) Take-off
(E) Engine failure during take-off short after V2, after reaching climb out attitude
(Airplane)
(F) Engine failure during take-off short after TDP or DPATO after reaching
climb out attitude (Helicopter)
(G) Other emergency procedures (if necessary)
(H) Instrument approaches to required minimum decision height, manual one
engine out during approach and landing or go-around
(I) One engine simulated inoperative go-around from required minimum
decision height
(J) One engine (critical) simulated inoperative landing
IS 2.3.3.11 APPENDIX D: INSTRUCTOR RATING FOR MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENSE

– FLIGHT INSTRUCTION, SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY CHECK
In addition to the information outlined in IS: 2.3.3.11 Appendices A, B and C, the
following applies to the MPL program:
(a) Flight Instructor Competencies
The nature of MPL training, with its emphasize on multi-crew operations, is such that
instructors engaged in the delivery of that training need to meet minimum levels of
competency. Organizations planning to deliver training for the issue of a MPL have a

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responsibility to ensure that their instructors either have, or provide a means by which
the instructors can achieve, the following competencies:
(b) Competencies:
(1) For all instructors engaged in training for the MPL:
(i) Successful completion of an operators CRM course;
(ii) Understanding of the philosophy of multi-crew operations;
(iii) Use of a multi-crew flight check system; and
(iv) Use of operator specific SOPs.
(2) For flight instructors engaged in training for the Core and Basic Stages;
(i) Current Flight Instructors Rating;
(ii) Current Command Instrument Rating,
(iii) Management of multiple students; and
(iv) Successful completion of an operator’s multi-crew operations course.
(3) For instructors engaged in training for the Intermediate and Advanced Stages:
(i) Hold, or have held, a Command (Multi-engine) Instrument Rating,
(ii) Hold, or have held, a Flight Instructors Rating, and
(iii) Hold, or have held, a Multi-engine Training Approval.
(c) Induction
The standardization of instructors is an essential for any MPL training organization.
Induction training which covers the following aspects will provide a suitable level of
initial standardization:
(1) Structure and management chain of responsibility;
(i) This should provide the new instructor with a clear understanding of the
hierarchy of the organization and the lines of communication and responsibility.
(2) Instructor and trainee duties and responsibilities;
(i) Particular attention should be given to the conduct of in-flight procedures such
as:
(A) multi-crew operations,
(B) emergency and non-normal procedure training.
(C) Multi-crew Operations;
(3) Particular attention should be given to ensuring that instructors are cognizant of
the differences in multi-crew training, and are familiar with the specific
requirements of the organization with respect to multi-crew pilot training.
(4) Threat and Error Management should:
(i) clearly address the need for TEM,
(ii) ensure that all instructors clearly understand the importance of applying TEM
in training,
(iii) ensure that instructors understand how to deliver TEM training,
(iv) ensure that instructors are competent in the assessment of TEM.

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(5) Supervision;
(i) Address the need for supervision and the individual responsibilities of
instructors.
(6) Operations Manual;
(i) Instructors should be left in no doubt as to the need for them to conduct all
operations in accordance with the procedures laid down in the operations
manual.
(7) Pre and post flight briefings procedures;
(i) In addition to addressing the policy on briefings, instructors should be given the
opportunity to review and refresh their individual briefing techniques.
(8) Training procedures;
(i) Address the Operations Manual provisions on training including the use of
Training Plans, Achievement Records etc.
(9) Recording procedures.
(i) Instructors should be given the opportunity to gain familiarity with the
organizations recording methods. In particular attention should be made of the
need for accurate Training Records, and the need to maintain up to date
Achievement Records.
(d) Recurrent Training
Recurrent training represents the ongoing aspect of standardization and should
reinforce many of the topics addressed during induction training. Accordingly, the
following topics need to be part of any recurrent training program:
(1) Instructor and trainee duties and responsibilities;
(i) Supervision;
(ii) Pre and post flight briefings procedures;
(iii) Training procedures; and
(iv) Recording procedures.
(2) In addition (under the guidance and supervision of senior staff) provision should
made for each instructor to evaluate their own flight instructional techniques and
procedures to identify any weaknesses or deviations from the requirements of the
Operations Manual.
(e) Duty Roster Systems
The requirements for instructor rostering will vary according to the size and complexity
of the individual training organization. For small organizations a suitable roster system
need be no more complex than a simple white board showing instructional and other
duties with provision for the display of rest periods. Larger organizations will need to
take a more detailed approach to their rostering, and may need to make use of a
computerized system. Regardless of size, organizations will need to ensure that the
rostering system makes provision for the inclusion of standardization/recurrent training
undertaken by instructors.
IS 2.3.3.12 EXAMINERS
(a) The ground training for examiners shall at least include:

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(1) Examiner duties, functions and responsibilities

(2) Applicable regulations and procedures;
(3) Appropriate methods, procedures and techniques for conducting the required tests
and checks;
(4) Proper evaluation of student performance including the detection of:
(i) Improper and insufficient training, and
(ii) Personal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely affect safety;
(5) Appropriate corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory tests and checks; and
(6) Approved methods, procedures and limitations for performing the required normal,
abnormal and emergency procedures in the aircraft.
(b) The flight training shall include:
(1) Training and practice in conducting flight evaluation (from the left and right pilot
seats for pilot examiners) in the required normal, abnormal and emergency
procedures to ensure competence to conduct the flight tests and checks;
(2) The potential results of improper, untimely or non-execution of safety measures
during an evaluation; and
(3) The safety measures (to be taken from either pilot seat for pilot check examiners)
for emergency situations that are likely to develop during an evaluation.
(c) The flight training for examiners (simulator) shall include:
(1) Training and practice in conducting flight checks in the required normal, abnormal
and emergency procedures to ensure competence to conduct the evaluations tests
and checks required by this Part (this training and practice shall be accomplished
in a flight simulator, a flight procedures trainer or flight training device.
(2) Training in the operation of flight simulators, flight procedures trainers, or flight
training devices, or in all three, to ensure competence to conduct the evaluations
required by this Part.
IS 2.4.3 TYPE RATING - FLIGHT ENGINEERS - FLIGHT INSTRUCTION, SKILL

TEST and PROFICIENCY CHECK
(a) The flight instruction, skill test and proficiency check for the flight engineers license
and type rating shall include CRM and at least the following areas of operation:
(1) Pre-flight preparation: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks--
(i) Equipment examination-systems knowledge
(ii) Aircraft handbooks; manuals, minimum equipment list (MEL), configuration
deviation list (CDL) and operations specifications
(iii) Performance and limitations
following tasks:
(i) Pre-flight inspection and cockpit setup
(ii) Pre-flight inspection-exterior

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(3) Ground operations; including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks:
(i) Powerplant start
(ii) Taxi and pre-takeoff checks
(4) Normal procedures: including the applicant's knowledge and performance of the
following tasks:
(i) Take-off
(ii) In-flight
(iii) During approach and landing
(iv) Engine systems monitoring
(5) Abnormal and emergency procedures; including the applicant's knowledge and
performance of the following tasks:
(i) Take-off
(ii) In-flight
(iii) During approach and landing
(iv) Engine systems monitoring
(6) Post-flight procedures
(i) After landing
IS 2.6.2.6 AVIATION MAINTENANCE TECHNICIAN (AMT) LICENSE SKILL TEST

Each applicant for a Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT) license or rating shall pass
an oral and practical test appropriate to the rating(s) sought. The tests cover the applicants’
skill in performing the practical projects on the subjects covered by the written test for that
rating. The applicant will be provided with appropriate facilities, tools, materials and
airworthiness data
(a) The skill test for the AMT License shall test the applicant's knowledge and performance
in at least the following areas of operation:
(1) basic electricity
(2) lines and fittings
(3) materials and processes
(4) ground operations and servicing
(5) cleaning and corrosion control
(6) mathematics
(7) maintenance forms and records
(8) maintenance publications
(9) physics
(10) mechanic privileges and limitations

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IS 2.6.2.6 (a) SKILL REQUIREMENTS FOR THE AMT AIRFRAME RATING

(a) The skill test for the airframe rating shall test the applicant's knowledge and
performance in at least the following areas of operation:
(1) assembly and rigging
(2) airframe inspection
(3) aircraft landing gear systems
(4) hydraulic and pneumatic systems
(5) cabin atmosphere control systems
(6) aircraft instrument systems
(7) communication and navigation systems
(8) fuel systems
(9) aircraft electrical systems
(10) position and warning systems
(11) ice and rain control systems
(12) fire protection systems
(13) Job/task documentation and control practices.
IS 2.6.2.6 (b) SKILL REQUIREMENTS FOR THE AMT POWERPLANT RATING

(a) The skill test for the powerplant rating shall test the applicant's knowledge and
performance in at least the following areas of operation:
(1) powerplant electrical systems
(2) lubrication systems
(3) ignition and starting systems
(4) fuel metering
(5) engine fuel systems
(6) induction and engine airflow systems
(7) engine cooling systems
(8) engine exhaust and reverser systems
(9) propellers
(10) auxiliary power units
IS 2.6.3.6 (c) SKILL REQUIREMENTS FOR THE AMS AVIONICS RATING

(a) The skill test for the avionics rating shall test the applicant's knowledge and
performance in the basic workshop and maintenance practices in at least the following
areas of operation:
(1) Avionics — electrical
(2) Avionics — instrument

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(3) Avionics — autoflight

(4) Avionics — radio
(5) Repair, maintenance and function testing of aircraft systems/components —
avionics
IS 2.10.1.3 APPENDIX A- BASIC TRAINING IN AVIATION MEDICINE FOR AMEs

(a) Basic training in aviation medicine
(b) Physics of atmosphere and space
(c) Basic aeronautical knowledge
(d) Aviation Physiology
(e) Ophthalmology
(f) Otorinolaryngology
(g) Cardiology and general medicine
(h) Neurology
(i) Psychiatry in aviation medicine
(j) Psychology
(k) Dentistry
(l) Accidents, Escape and Survival
(m) Legislation. rules and regulations
(n) Air evacuation
(o) Medicine and flying
IS 2.10.1.3 APPENDIX B - ADVANCED TRAINING IN AVIATION MEDICINE FOR

AMEs
(a) Pilot working environment
(b) Aerospace physiology
(c) Ophthalmology
(d) Otorinolaryngology
(e) Cardiology and general medicine
(f) Neurology/Psychiatry
(g) Human factors in aviation
(h) Tropical medicine
(i) Hygiene
(j) Space medicine
IS 2.10.1.4 APPLICATION FORM FOR MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

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(Application form to be implemented here from Guide for Aviation Medical Examiners.)
IS 2.10.1.8 MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

The following details shall appear on the medical certificate:
(i) Name of State
(ii) License No.
(iii) Name of holder in full (in Roman alphabet also if script of national language is
other than Roman):
(iv) Date of birth
(v) Address of holder
(vi) Nationality of holder
(vii) Signature of holder
(viii) Medical certificate Class 1 or 2
(ix) Issuing Authority
(x) Validity
(xi) Limitations
(xii) Date of issue and signature of issuing officer.
IS 2.11.3 RESERVED

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IS 2.14.3.2 APPENDIX A: ATSEP LICENSE - KNOWLEDGE

The knowledge instruction and test for ATSEP license - shall include at least the following
subjects as recommended in the ICAO Doc 7192 Part E-2:
(a) ATSEP GENERAL EXAM
1) Air Law
2) International and national organizations and standards
3) Familiarization with air traffic service and air space standards
4) Familiarization with CNS/ATM concepts
5) System Safety
6) Human Performance and Limitation
(b) COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
1) Communication System Concepts
2) Radio Transmitters and Receivers
3) Communication Protocols
4) Networks
5) Types of Medium
6) Recorders
7) Safety aspects
(c) RADIO NAVIGATIONAL AIDS
1) Navigational Aids Concepts
2) Ground-Based Systems (NDB, VOR, DME, ILS, etc.)
3) Satellite-Based Navigation Systems (GNSS, GBAS, SBAS, GPS etc.)
4) On-board Navigation Architecture
5) Display Systems
6) Inertia Navigation
7) Vertical Navigation
8) Safety Aspects
(d) SURVEILLANCE
1) Surveillance System Concepts
2) Primary Surveillance
3) Surface Movement Radar
4) Secondary Surveillance
5) ADS-B
6) Human-Machine Interface
7) Safety Aspects
(e) DATA PROCESSING SYSTEM
1) User functional view

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2) Data processing chain

3) Software process
4) Hardware Platform
5) Data Essential Features
6) Life Cycle
7) Aviation Data Details Structure
8) Safety Aspects
(f) POWER SUPPLY
1) Power Distribution
2) Uninterruptible Power Supply
3) Engine Generator Set
4) Batteries and Battery Stations
5) Power Supply Network
6) Safety Aspects
IS 2.14.3.4 APPENDIX B: ATSEP LICENSE – SKILL TEST

Each applicant for ATSEP License shall pass both oral and practical tests. The tests cover
the applicant’s skill in performing the practical projects on the subject covered by the
written test.
The applicant will be provided with appropriate tools, materials and manuals.
The skill tests for the ATSEP License shall include, but not limited to:
a) Use of Test Instruments
b) Identification of electronic/electrical components
c) Reading schematic Diagrams
d) Troubleshooting analysis
IS 2.14.8.1 APPENDIX C: ATSEP RATING – KNOWLEDGE

The On-the-job training (OJT) instruction and test for ATSEP rating Experience
requirement shall include at least the following subjects for each specific equipment:
a) Environmental knowledge for the equipment or system.
Detailed view of the technical and operational environment of the system and
equipment.
b) Theoretical section of the equipment or system.
Familiarization with the system or equipment, in particular with the principles,
descriptions, characteristics, performance standards and functionality of the hardware
and software elements.
c) Practical section enhanced by OJT on the equipment or system.
Work on live equipment under the supervision of an experienced ATSEP or instructor.

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IS 2.14.8.3 APPENDIX D: ATSEP RATING – SKILL TEST

The applicant shall have successfully completed the system and equipment rating training
and competency assessment.
The applicant shall have mastery on, but not limited to:
a) Details of the different components of the equipment;
b) Protocols used and the data flow;
c) Parameters and error messages;
d) Measurement and checking of different modules and their parameters;
e) Procedures in performing unit replacement and calibration;
f) Functionality of the Human Machine Interface (HMI) and System Monitoring &
Control (SMC) and their operation.

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PART 3
APPROVED TRAINING ORGANIZATIONS
Amendment 01 21 March 2011

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ii
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iii
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Amendment No. Date Subject Incorporated By

Initial Issue 23 June 2008 Ruben F. Ciron
First Amendment 21 March 2011 3.2.1 Flight Crew Training Ramon S. Gutierrez
Courses
Second Amendment 01 August 2013 Inserted vertical bars on the LT GEN William K
previous amendments Hotchkiss III AFP (Ret)
Third Amendment 23 April 2018 3.1.2.1 General (b) Capt. Jim C. Sydiongco
3.1.2.2 Application for
Issuance or Amendment of
an ATO Certificate (e) (2)
(iv)
3.1.2.7 Facilities,
Equipment and Material (c)
3.2.1 Flight Crew Training
Courses (26)
3.2.5 Training Aircraft (a)
(1) (i)
3.2.6 Flight Simulation
Training Devices (b) (1) (i)
IS 3.1.2.2 Appendix A –
Application for Issuance or
Amendment of an ATO
Certificate (e) and (h)
Inspection (a) (4)
IS 3.2.2 Appendix C:
Instructors for training for
licenses and ratings (c)
IS 3.2.2 Appendix D:
Instructors for additional
class or type ratings (b) (i)
IS 3.2.2 Appendix E:
Instructors for flight
simulation training
device(s) (a) (i)
Fourth Amendment 28 December 3.1.2.3 Validity of the Capt. Jim C. Sydiongco
2018 Certificate and Renewal (a)
Fifth Amendment 09 June 2020 3.2.1 Flight Crew Training Capt. Jim C. Sydiongco
Courses (7), (8) and (14)

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Part 3 Approved Training Organizations
Cover Page i Amendment 01 21 March 2011
Board Resolution iii – v Amendment 01 21 March 2011
Record of Amendments vi Amendment 05 01 July 2020
List of Effective Pages vii – viii Amendment 05 01 July 2020
Table of Contents ix – xi Amendment 05 01 July 2020
Introduction
Page

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TABLE OF CONTENTS
3.1 GENERAL……………..................................................................................... 3.1-1

3.1.1 General…………………………………………………………………………. 3.1-1
3.1.1.1 Applicability……………………………………………………………………….. 3.1-1
3.1.1.2 Definitions…………………………………………………………………………. 3.1-1
3.1.1.3 Abbreviations……………………………………………………………………... 3.1-1
3.1.2 Certification and local requirements………………………………………….…. 3.1-2
3.1.2.1 General……………………………………………………………………………… 3.1-2
3.1.2.2 Application for issuance or amendment of an ATO certificate………………... 3.1-2
3.1.2.3 Validity of the certificate and renewal………………………………………........ 3.1-3
3.1.2.4 Inspection…………………………………………………………………….……. 3.1-4
3.1.2.5 Renewal of the certificate……………………………………………………..….. 3.1-4
3.1.2.6 Suspension or revocation……………………………………………………..….. 3.1-4
3.1.2.7 Facilities, equipment and material…………………………………………..…… 3.1-4
3.1.2.8 Location………………………………………………………………………..…… 3.1-5
3.1.2.9 Satellite ATOs…………………………………………………………….…..……. 3.1-5
3.1.2.10 Changes Requiring notice to the authority…………………………………….… 3.1-5
3.2 TRAINING FOR FLIGHT CREW LICENSES AND RATINGS………………… 3.2-1
3.2.1 Flight crew training courses……………………………………………………..… 3.2-1
3.2.2 Personnel………………………………………………………………………..…. 3.2-2
3.2.3 Record Keeping………………………………………………………………..….. 3.2-2
3.2.4 Training program and approval……………………………………………..…… 3.2-2
3.2.5 Training aircraft…………………………………………………………………...… 3.2-3
3.2.6 Flight Simulation Training Devices………………………………………………… 3.2-3
3.2.7 Airports and sites………………………………………………………………..… 3.2-4
3.2.8 Training facilities…………………………………………………………………… 3.2-4
3.2.9 Training manual and procedures manual……………………………………..… 3.2-4
3.3 TRAINING FOR LICENSESAND RATINGS FOR AVIATION
MAINTENANCE, AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLERS, FLIGHT OPERATIONS
OFFICERS AND AERONAUTICALSTATION OPERATORS……………… 3.3-1
3.3.1 Applicability………………………………………………………………………. 3.3-1
3.3.2 Training courses for licenses and rating for aviation maintenance, air traffic,
Controllers, flight operations officers and aeronautical station officers………..... 3.3-1

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3.3.3 Personnel…………….……………………………………………………………….. 3.3-1

3.3.4 Record keeping………………………..……………………………………………... 3.3-1
3.3.5 Training program and approval……………………………………………………. 3.3-2
3.3.6 Training facilities, equipment and material for aviation maintenance (AM)
Courses……………………………………………………………………………….. 3.3-2
3.3.7 Training, facilities, equipment and material for Air Traffic controller, flight
operations officer and aeronautical station operator courses…………………. 3.3-3
3.3.8 Training manual and procedures manual………………………………………… 3.3-3
3.4 AMT TRAINING COURSE………………………………………………………… 3.4-1
3.4.1 Applicability…………………………………………………………………………… 3.4-1
3.4.2 AMT training courses………………………………………………………………… 3.4-1
3.4.3 General Curriculum Requirements………………………………………………… 3.4-1
3.4.4 AMT Training Program Providers………………………………………………….. 3.4-2
3.4.5 Instructor Requirements……………………………………………………………… 3.4-2
3.4.6 Attendance and Credit for Prior Instruction or Experience………………………. 3.4-2
IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX A – Application for Issuance or Amendment of an ATO
Certificate………………..…………………………………………………………… IS-2
IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX B: Quality System…….………………………………………………. IS-2
IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX C: Guidance Materials for Quality System………………….……... IS-2
IS 3.1.2.2 APPNDIX D: Aviation Training Organization Certificate………………..……...... IS-10
IS 3.1.2.4 APPENDIX A: Inspection…..……………………………………………………….. IS-11
IS 3.1.2.4 APPENDIX B: Inspection Report………………………………………………… IS-11
IS 3.1.2.5 Renewal…..…………………………………………………………………………. IS-13
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX A: Head of Training…………………………………………………… IS-13
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX B: Chief Flight Instructor…………….……………………………….. IS-13
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX C: Instructor for Training for License and Rating…………………. IS-14
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX D: Instructors for Additional Class or Type Rating………………… IS-14
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX E : Instructors for Synthetic Flight Training……………………….... IS-14
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX F: Instructors for Flight Engineer License and/or Ratings………… IS-14
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX G: Chief Ground Instructor (CGI)…………………………….……… IS-15
IS 3.2.2 APPENDIX H: Ground instructors…………..……………….……………………. IS-15
IS 3.2.4 Flight crew Training Courses………………………………………………………. IS-15
IS 3.2.7 Airports and Sites…………………………………………………………………….. IS-15

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IS 3.2.9 APPENDIX A: Training Manual……………………………………………………. IS-16

IS 3.2.9 APPENDIX B: Procedures Manual………..………………………………………. IS-18
IS 3.4.3 AM Airframe and/or Powerplant and/or Avionics Ratings………………………. IS-19

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3.1 GENERAL
3.1.1 GENERAL
Part 3 prescribes the requirements governing the certification of Aviation Training
Organizations.
3.1.1.2 DEFINITIONS
(a) For the purpose of Part 3, the definitions in the Law, in Part 1 and 2 and the following
definitions shall apply:
(1) Accountable manager. The manager who has corporate Authority for ensuring
that all training commitments can be financed and carried out to the standard
required by the Authority and any additional requirements defined by the ATO. The
accountable manager may delegate in writing to another person within the
organization, the day to day management but not the overall approval management
responsibility.
Note: The “accountable manager” is not specifically defined under ICAO, but the
concept is partially discussed in ICAO Doc. 9642, Section IV, Chapter 2, as being
either the CEO or a high level corporate official who has financial responsibility for
the entire organization. The examples of an accountable manager are: the CEO,
President, Managing Director, Director General, General Manager, etc.
(2) Procedures manual. A manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance
for use by personnel of the Aviation Training Organization in the execution of their
duties in meeting the requirements of the certificate.
(3) Quality manager. The manager, acceptable to the Authority, responsible for the
management of the Quality system, monitoring function and requesting corrective
actions.
(4) Training manual. A manual containing the training goals, objectives, standards
syllabi, and curriculum for each phase of the approved training course. ICAO Doc
7192, Part D-1.
(5) Training specifications. A document issued to an Aviation Training Organization
certificate holder by the Republic of the Philippines that specifies training program
requirements and authorizes the conduct of training, checking, and testing with any
limitations thereof.
3.1.1.3 ABBREVIATIONS
(a) The following abbreviations are used in Part 3:
(1) A – Airplane
(2) AMT – Aviation Maintenance Technician
(3) ATCO – Air Traffic Controller
(4) ATO – Aviation Training Organization
(5) ATPL – Airline Transport Pilot License
(6) CFI – Chief Flight Instructor
(7) CGI – Chief Ground Instructor

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(8) CPL – Commercial Pilot License

(9) CRM – Crew Resource Management
(10) FE – Flight Engineer
(11) H – Helicopter
(12) IFR – Instrument Flight Rules
(13) ICAO – International Civil Aviation Organization
(14) MMEL – Master Minimum Equipment List
(15) PIC – Pilot-in-Command
(16) PPL – Private Pilot License
(17) RT – Radiotelephony
(18) VFR – Visual Flight Rules
3.1.2 CERTIFICATION AND LOCATION REQUIREMENTS

3.1.2.1 GENERAL
(a) No person may operate an Aviation Training Organization (ATO) without, or in violation
of, an ATO certificate and training specifications issued under this Part.
(b) No person may conduct training, testing and/or checking in Flight Simulation Training
Device(s) without, or in violation of, the certificate and training specifications required
under this Part.
(c) The Licensing Authority will issue to a Aviation Training Organization that meets the
requirements of this Part an ATO certificate and training specifications for providing
courses for flight crew licenses and ratings and for courses for personnel other than
flight crew members, as approved by the Authority.
3.1.2.2 APPLICATION FOR ISSUANCE OR AMENDMENT OF AN ATO

CERTIFICATE
(a) An applicant for an ATO certificate and training specifications shall apply at least 120
calendar days before the beginning of any proposed training.
(b) An applicant for an ATO certificate shall submit an application:
(1) In a form and manner prescribed by the Licensing Authority; and
(2) Containing any information the Licensing Authority requires the applicant to submit
including at least the information shown in IS 3.1.2.2, Appendix A.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.1.2.2 Appendix A for certificate information
needed by the Authority
(c) The ATO shall establish procedures acceptable to the Licensing Authority to ensure
compliance with all relevant requirements of this Part. The procedures shall include a
quality system which meets the procedures in IS: 3.1.2.2., Appendices B and C.
(d) An applicant for a certificate shall ensure that the facilities and equipment described in
its application are:
(1) available for inspection and evaluation prior to approval; and

3.1-2
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(2) in place and operational at the location of the ATO prior to issuance of a certificate
under this Part.
(e) The Authority will issue to an applicant who meets the requirements of this Part and is
approved by the Authority:
(1) an ATO certificate containing:
(i) the name, location of the ATO;
(ii) the date of issue and period of validity;
(iii) the authorized locations of operations; and
(iv) training courses for the following categories, as applicable: flight crew training,
training for personnel other than flight crew and other training as approved by
the Authority;
Implementing Standard: See IS 3.1.2.2 Appendix D for the Aviation Training
Organization Certificate
(2) Training Specifications containing:
(i) authorization for the ATO;
(ii) the type of training authorized, including approved courses;
(iii) the rating, category, class and type of aircraft, or parts thereof, that may be
used for training, testing and checking;
(iv) for each Flight Simulation Training Device(s) that may be used for training,
testing and checking, the make, model and series of aircraft being simulated,
the qualification level assigned and the identification number assigned by the
Authority;
(v) any aircraft, or parts thereof, approved for training, as appropriate;
(vi) authorized deviations or waivers from this Part;
(vii) staff required to perform under this Part; and
(viii) any other items the Authority may require or allow.
Implementing Standard: IS 3.1.2.2 – Appendix D – Aviation Training
Organization Certificate
(f) The Authority may deny a certificate if the Authority finds that the applicant does not
comply with the approval requirements of this Part.
(g) The Authority may amend an ATO certificate and/or the training specifications:
(1) On the Authority’s own initiative, under the applicable Republic of the Philippines
legislation; or
(2) Upon timely application by the certificate holder.
(h) An ATO located outside Republic of the Philippines may apply for a Republic of the
Philippines ATO certificate, to provide training leading to a license issued by Republic
of the Philippines, provided the requirements of this Part are met.
3.1.2.3 VALIDITY OF THE CERTIFICATE AND RENEWAL

(a) Subject to satisfactory compliance with the requirements of this Part, the validity of the
certificate is five (5) years.

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3.1.2.4 INSPECTION
(a) The Authority may, at any time, inspect an ATO holder on the ATO holder’s premises
to determine the ATO’s compliance with this Part.
(b) Inspections will normally be conducted at least annually, unless the certificate holder
continues to meet the requirements under which it was originally certificated. At the
discretion of the Authority the inspection may be extended to 24 months.
(c) After an inspection is made, the certificate holder will be notified, in writing, of any
deficiencies found during the inspection.
(d) Inspection will also be performed on the applicant for, or the holder of an ATO
certificate held outside Republic of the Philippines. This inspection may be delegated
to the Authority of the State where the ATO is located, provided an arrangement exists.
Implementing Standards: IS 3.1.2.4 Annex A and B for detailed inspection
requirements
3.1.2.5 RENEWAL OF THE CERTIFICATE

(a) An ATO may apply for renewal of its certificate within 30 days preceding the month its
ATO certificate expires, provided the ATO meets the requirements prescribed in this
Part.
(b) After the application the ATO will be inspected to ensure that it meets the requirements
prescribed in this Part.
Implementing Standards: IS 3.1.2.5 for detailed renewal requirements
3.1.2.6 SUSPENSION OR REVOCATION

(a) The Authority may suspend or revoke an issued ATO certificate, if it is established that
a certificate holder has not met, or no longer meets the requirements of Part 3.
3.1.2.7 FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT AND MATERIAL

(a) The facilities and working environment shall be appropriate for the task to be
performed.
(b) The ATO shall have, or have the necessary information, technical data, equipment,
training devices and material to conduct the courses for which it is approved.
(c) Flight Simulation Training Device(s) shall be qualified according to requirements
established by the Republic of the Philippines and their use shall be approved by the
Licensing Authority to ensure that they are appropriate to the task.
Note.- The manual of Criteria for the qualification of flight simulator (Doc 9625) and
FAA Advisory Circular 120-40B provides guidance on the approval of flight simulator.
AC 61-136 FAA Approval of Aviation Training Device(s) under use of Training and
Experience dated 17 November 2014.
(d) A certificate holder may not make a substantial change in facilities, equipment or
material that have been approved for a particular training program, unless that change
is approved by the Authority in advance.
(e) Each certificate holder shall maintain the records required by this Part in facilities
adequate for that purpose.

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3.1.2.8 LOCATION
(a) An applicant for, or holder of, a certificate issued under this Part shall establish and
maintain a principal business office that is physically located at the address shown on
its certificate.
3.1.2.9 SATELLITE ATOs

(a) The holder of an ATO certificate may conduct training in accordance with a training
program approved by the Authority at a satellite ATO if:
(1) the facilities, equipment, personnel and course content of the satellite ATO meet
the applicable requirements;
(2) the instructors at the satellite ATO are under the direct supervision of management
personnel of theprincipal ATO; and
(3) the certificate holder’s training specifications reflect the name and address of the
satellite ATO and the approved courses offered at the satellite ATO.
(b) The Authority will issue training specifications which prescribe the operations required
and authorized at each satellite ATO.
3.1.2.10 CHANGES REQUIRING NOTICE TO THE AUTHORITY

(a) Each ATO shall notify the Authority within 30 days of any of the following changes:
(1) the Accountable Manager;
(2) the Quality Manager;
(3) the instructional staff; and
(4) the housing, training facilities and equipment, procedures, training programs and
work scope that could affect the approval.
(b) The Authority may prescribe the conditions under which the ATO may operate during
such changes unless the Authority determines that the approval should be suspended.

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PCAR PART 3
3.2 TRAINING FOR FLIGHT CREW LICENSES AND RATINGS

3.2.1 FLIGHT CREW TRAINING COURSES
The Authority may approve, as provided in the training specifications, the following courses
of instruction to an applicant for, or a holder of an ATO certificate, provided the applicant
meets the requirements of Parts 2 and 3:
(1) Private Pilot License (PPL) Course for Airplane Single-Engine (SE) Land/Sea;
(2) Private Pilot License (PPL) Course for Airplane Multi-Engine (ME) Land/Sea;
(3) Commercial Pilot License (CPL) Course for Airplane Single-Engine (SE) Land/Sea;
(4) Commercial Pilot License (CPL) Course for Airplane Multi-Engine (ME) Land/Sea;
(5) Instrument Rating (IR) Course for Airplane;
(6) Flight Instructor (FI) Course for Airplane Single-Engine (SE) Land/Sea;
(7) Flight Instructor (FI) Course for Airplane Multi-Engine (ME) Land/Sea;
(8) Flight Instructor (FI) Course with Instrument Rating (IR) Course for Airplane Single-
Engine (SE) Land/Sea;
(9) Flight Instructor (FI) Course with Instrument Rating (IR) Course for Airplane Multi-
Engine (ME) Land/Sea;
(10) Instructor Course for Synthetic Flight Training for Airplane Single-Engine (SE)
Land/Sea;
(11) Instructor Course for Synthetic Flight Training for Airplane Multi-Engine (ME)
Land/Sea;
(12) Refresher Course for Airplane Single-Engine (SE) Land/Sea;
(13) Refresher Course for Airplane Multi-Engine (ME) Land/Sea;
(14) Airline Transport Pilot License (ATPL) for Airplane;
(15) Commercial Pilot License (CPL) / Instrument Rating (IR), Multi-Engine (ME) /
Crew Resource Management (CRM) Integrated Course for Airplane;
(16) Flight Engineer License (FEL) Course;
(17) Flight Navigator License (FNL) Course;
(18) Multi-Crew Pilot License (MPL) Course for Airplane;
(19) Private Helicopter Pilot License (PHPL) Course;
(20) Commercial Helicopter Pilot License (CHPL) Course;
(21) Flight Instructor (FI) Course for Helicopter (H);
(22) Flight Instructor (FI) with Instrument Rating (IR) Course for Helicopter (H);
(23) Instrument Rating (IR) Course for Helicopter (H);
(24) Instructor Course for Synthetic Flight Training for Helicopter (H);
(25) Type Rating Training Course.
Note 1: See ICAO Document 7192, Part B-5, Volume 1 and 2 for Integrated
Commercial Pilot Course
Note 2: Course contents are not specified in detail in this Part 3 to allow courses
to be tailored to specific training needs of students and to be updated promptly. (21
March 2011)

3.2-1
PCAR PART 3
(26) Flight Instructor Course for on-airplane upset recovery training
3.2.2 PERSONNEL
(a) The ATO shall satisfy the Authority that there shall be on the staff:
(1) an Accountable Manager;
(2) a Quality Manager;
(3) a Head of Training;
(4) a Chief Flight Instructor, as applicable;
(5) a Chief Ground Instructor, as applicable; and
(6) an adequate number of ground and flight instructors relevant to the courses
provided.
(b) Each instructor to be used for flight training must hold an instructor rating or
authorization in accordance with 2.3, relevant to the instruction given.
(c) The ATO shall ensure that all instructional personnel receive initial and continuation
training appropriate to their assigned tasks and responsibilities. The training program
established by the training organization shall include training in knowledge and skills
related to human performance.
Note: Guidance material to design training programs to develop knowledge and skills
in human performance can be found in the ICAO Human Factors Training Manual (Doc
9583).
Implementing Standard: See IS 3.2.2 Appendix A – H for detailed requirements for
staff of the ATO.
3.2.3 RECORD KEEPING

(a) A certificate holder shall maintain and retain the following records for a period of one
year after the completion of training:
(1) details of ground, flying and simulated flight training given to individual students;
(2) detailed and regular progress reports from instructors including assessments, and
regular progress flight tests and ground examinations;
(3) personal trainee information, e.g. names, course, certificates held, expiry dates of
medical certificates, ratings, etc.; and
(4) record of each instructor that indicates qualifications and compliance with this Part
and Part 2.
(b) The format of the student training records shall be specified in the Training Manual
(c) The ATO shall submit training records and reports as required by the Authority.
3.2.4 TRAINING PROGRAM AND APPROVAL

(a) The applicant for, or the holder of an ATO certificate shall apply to the Authority for
training program approval.
(b) The applicant for, or the holder of an ATO certificate shall develop a training program
for each type of course offered. This program shall include;

3.2-2
PCAR PART 3
(1) a breakdown of flying and theoretical knowledge instruction in either a week-by-

week or phase presentation, a list of standard exercises and a curriculum
summary. In particular, synthetic flight training and theoretical knowledge
instruction shall be phased in such a manner as to ensure that students shall be
able to apply to flying exercises the knowledge gained on the ground;
(2) minimum aircraft and flight training equipment requirements for each proposed
program;
(3) minimum instructor qualifications for each proposed program; and
(4) a program for initial training and continuing training of each instructor employed to
instructing a proposed program.
(c) The content and sequence of the training program shall be acceptable to the Authority.
3.2.5 TRAINING AIRCRAFT

(a) An adequate fleet of training aircraft appropriate to the courses of training shall be
provided for the training for flight crew licenses and ratings. Each aircraft shall be fitted
with duplicated primary flight controls for use by the instructor and the student. Swing-
over flight controls shall not be acceptable.
(1) The fleet shall include, as appropriate to the courses of training, Airplane(s)
suitable for demonstrating stalling and spin avoidance.
(i) For on-airplane recovery training, Airplane(s) shall be qualified for the training
task; the Airplane(s) shall be certified for all bank and pitch attitudes and for
developed spins. Except for CPL and MPL, FTSDs may be used as an alternative,
if it can be demonstrated that the FSTD is capable of delivering the same results,
in particular the psycho-physiological effects effects equivalent to the aircraft.
(2) ATO fleet helicopter(s) shall include, as appropriate to the courses of training,
helicopter(s) suitable for auto-rotation demonstration.
(3) ATO fleet aircraft shall be suitably equipped to simulate instrument meteorological
conditions and suitably equipped for the instrument flight training and testing.
3.2.6 FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICES

(a) An applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate, providing synthetic flight training, shall
satisfy the Authority that suitably equipped synthetic flight trainers are provided having
regard to the number of students and organization of courses.
(b) An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate shall show that each synthetic flight
trainer used for training, testing and checking or is specifically qualified and approved
by the Authority for:
(1) each manoeuvre and procedure for the make, model and series of aircraft, set of
aircraft, or aircraft type simulated, as applicable; and
(i) For the purpose of UPRT, which includes stall and engine and airframe icing,
additional fidelities of the simulator features, aerodynamic flight and engine model,
flight controls and forces, motion cueing, and IOS are required.
(2) each training program or training course in which the synthetic flight trainer is used,
if that program or course is used to satisfy any requirement of these regulations.

3.2-3
PCAR PART 3
3.2.7 AIRPORTS AND SITES

(a) Each applicant for, and holder of, an ATO certificate shall show that it has continuous
use of each airport and sites (for helicopter training) at which training flights originate,
and that the airport has an adequate runway and the necessary equipment.
Implementing Standard: See 3.2.7 for specific runway and equipment requirements
and requirements for sites.
3.2.8 TRAINING FACILITIES

(a) An applicant for, and holder of an ATO certificate shall have facilities, as determined
by the Authority, appropriate for the maximum number of students expected to be
taught at any time, as follows:
(1) Flight operations facilities:
(i) an operations room;
(ii) a flight planning room
(iii) adequate briefing rooms
(iv) offices for the instructors
(2) Knowledge instruction facilities
(i) classroom accommodation,
(ii) suitable demonstration equipment;
(iii) a RT training and testing facility
(iv) a library
(v) offices for instructors
(b) A certificate holder may not make a substantial change in facilities, equipment or
3.2.9 TRAINING MANUAL AND PROCEDURES MANUAL

(a) Each applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate shall prepare and maintain a Training
Manual and a Procedures Manual containing information and instructions to enable
staff to perform their duties and to give guidance to students on how to comply with
course requirements, as listed in IS 3.2.9 Appendix A: Training Manual and IS 3.2.9
Appendix B: Procedures Manual.
(b) The Training Manual and Procedures Manual may be combined.
(c) The ATO shall ensure that the Training Manual and the Procedures Manual are
amended as necessary to keep the information contained therein up to date.
(d) Copies of all amendments to the Training Manual and the Procedures Manual shall be
furnished promptly to all organizations or persons to whom the manual has been
issued.
Implementing Standards: See IS 3.2.9 Appendix A and B for detailed requirements for
the Training Manual and the Procedures Manual and format for each manual.

3.2-4
PCAR PART 3

3.2-5
PCAR PART 3
3.3 TRAINING FOR LICENSES AND RATINGS FOR AVIATION

MAINTENANCE, AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLERS, FLIGHT
OPERATIONS OFFICERS AND AERONAUTICAL STATION
OPERATORS
3.3.1 APPLICABILITY
(a) Certification under this Subpart is not required for training that is approved under the
provisions of Part 9.
3.3.2 TRAINING COURSES FOR LICENSES AND RATINGS FOR AVIATION

MAINTENANCE, AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLERS, FLIGHT OPERATION
OFFICERS AND AERONAUTICAL STATION OPERATORS.
The Authority may approve the following courses of instruction to an applicant for, or a
holder of an ATO certificate, provided the applicant meets the requirements of CAR Parts
2 and 3:
(a) Aviation maintenance license course
(b) Airframe rating, powerplant rating, avionics rating course
(c) Air traffic controller license course
(d) Courses for ratings for Air traffic controller licenses
(e) Flight operations officer course
(f) Aeronautical station operator course
Note: Course contents are not specified in detail because it allows courses to be
tailored to specific training needs of students and to be updated in a quicker way.
3.3.3 PERSONNEL
(a) The ATO shall satisfy the Authority that an adequate number of qualified, competent
staff are employed as follows:
(1) An Accountable Manager;
(2) A Quality Control Manager;
(3) A Head of Training; and
(4) An adequate number of instructors relevant to the courses provided, qualified in
accordance with the requirements of Part 2.
(b) The ATO shall ensure that all instructional personnel receive initial and continuation
training appropriate to their assigned tasks and responsibilities. The training program
established by the training organization shall include training in knowledge and skills
related to human performance.
Note: Guidance material to design training programs to develop knowledge and skills
in human performance can be found in the ICAO Human Factors Training Manual (Doc
9583).
3.3.4 RECORD KEEPING

(a) A certificate holder shall maintain and retain the following records for a minimum period
of one year after the completion of training:

3.3-1
PCAR PART 3
(1) details of training given to individual students;

(2) detailed and regular progress reports from instructors including assessments, and
regular progress tests and examinations;
(3) personal trainee information, e.g. names, course, certificates held, expiry dates of
medical certificates, if applicable, ratings, etc.; and
(4) record of each instructor that indicates qualifications and compliance with this Part
and Part 2.
(b) The ATO shall submit training records and reports as required by the Authority.
3.3.5 TRAINING PROGRAM AND APPROVAL

(a) Each applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate, shall apply to the Authority for
training program approval.
(b) Each applicant shall ensure that each training program submitted to the Authority for
approval meets the applicable requirements.
(c) Each applicant for training program approval shall indicate in the application:
(1) Which courses are part of the program; and
(2) Which requirements of Part 2 will be satisfied by the training program.
(d) After a certificate holder begins operations under an approved training program, the
Authority may require the certificate holder to make revisions to the training program,
if the Authority finds that the certificate holder is not meeting the provisions of its
approved training program.
3.3.6 TRAINING FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT AND MATERIAL FOR AVIATION

MAINTENANCE (AM) COURSES
(a) An applicant for, and holder of, an ATO certificate shall have facilities, as determined
by the Authority, appropriate for the maximum number of students expected to be
taught at any time, as follows:
(1) An enclosed classroom.
(2) Suitable facilities arranged to assure proper separation from the working space, for
parts, tools, materials and similar articles.
(3) Suitable area for application of finishing materials, including paint spraying.
(4) Suitable areas equipped with wash-tank and degreasing equipment with air
pressure or other adequate cleaning equipment.
(5) Suitable facilities for running engines.
(6) Suitable area with adequate equipment, including benches, tables, and test
equipment, to disassemble, service and inspect:
(i) Ignition systems, electrical equipment and appliances;
(ii) Carburetors and fuel systems; and
(iii) Hydraulic and vacuum systems for aircraft, aircraft engines, and their
appliances.
(7) Suitable space with adequate equipment, including tables, benches, stands and
jacks for disassembling, inspecting and rigging aircraft.

3.3-2
PCAR PART 3
(8) Suitable space with adequate equipment for disassembling, inspecting,

assembling, troubleshooting and timing engines.
(b) An applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate with approved AM courses shall have
and maintain the following instructional equipment as is appropriate to the rating
sought:
(1) Various kinds of airframe structures, airframe systems and components,
powerplants and powerplant system and components (including propellers) of a
quantity and type suitable to complete the practical projects required by its
approved training program;
(2) At least one aircraft of a type acceptable to the Authority;
(c) An applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate with an AM rating shall have airframes,
powerplants, propellers, appliances and components thereof, to be used for instruction
and from which students will gain practical working experience and shall insure that
the airframes, powerplants, propellers, appliances and components thereof be
sufficiently diversified as to show the different methods of construction, assembly,
inspection and operation when installed in an aircraft for use.
(d) An applicant for an ATO certificate with an AM rating, or an applicant seeking an
additional AM rating, shall have at least the facilities, equipment and materials
appropriate to the rating sought.
(e) An applicant for, or holder of, an ATO certificate with an AM rating shall maintain, on
the premises and under the full control of the ATO, an adequate supply of material,
special tools and shop equipment used in constructing and maintaining aircraft as is
appropriate to the approved training program of the ATO, in order to assure that each
student will be properly instructed.
(f) A certificate holder may not make a substantial change in facilities, equipment or
3.3.7 TRAINING FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT AND MATERIAL FOR AIR TRAFFIC

CONTROLLER, FLIGHT OPERATIONS OFFICER AND
AERONAUTICAL STATION OPERATOR COURSES
Reserved.
3.3.8 TRAINING MANUAL AND PROCEDURES MANUAL

(a) Each applicant for, or holder of an ATO certificate shall prepare and maintain a Training
Manual and a Procedures Manual containing information and instructions to enable
staff to perform their duties and to give guidance to students on how to comply with
course requirements.
(b) The Training Manual and Procedures Manual may be combined.
(c) The ATO shall ensure that the Training Manual and the Procedures Manual is
amended as necessary to keep the information contained therein up to date.
(d) Copies of all amendments to the Training Manual and the Procedures Manual shall be
furnished promptly to all organizations or persons to whom the manual has been
issued.

3.3-3
PCAR PART 3

3.3-4
PCAR PART 3
3.4 AMT TRAINING COURSE

3.4.1 APPLICABILITY
(a) This Subpart prescribes the requirements for—
(1) Issuing ATO certificates and ratings;
(2) Conducting licensing courses and associated ratings for AMTs; and
(3) Instructing the general operating rules for the holders of AMT licenses and ratings.
3.4.2 AMT TRAINING COURSES

(a) The Authority may approve the following courses of instruction to an applicant for, or
holder of an ATO certificate, provided the applicant meets the requirements of 3.1.2.2
(1) AMT—
(i) Airframe rating;
(ii) Powerplant rating;
(iii) Airframe and Powerplant rating; and
(iv) Avionics rating.
3.4.3 GENERAL CURRICULUM REQUIREMENTS

(a) Each ATO shall have an approved curriculum that is designed to qualify its students to
perform the duties of an AMT for a particular rating or ratings.
(b) The curriculum shall offer at least the following number of hours of instruction shown,
and the instruction unit hour shall be not less than 50 minutes in length.
(1) Airframe – 1,150 hours (400 general plus 750 airframe).
(2) Powerplant – 1,150 hours (400 general and 750 powerplant).
(3) Combined airframe and powerplant – 1,900 hours (400 general plus 750 airframe
and 750 powerplant).
(4) Avionics - 1,150 hours (400 hours of General Subjects, and 750 hours of Avionics
Subjects)
(c) The curriculum shall cover the subjects and items prescribed in IS: 3.4.3, AMT Airframe
and/or Powerplant and/or Avionics Ratings
(d) Each ATO shall teach each subject to at least the indicated level of proficiency defined
in IS: 3.4.3, AMT Airframe and/or Powerplant and/or Avionics Ratings.
(e) The certificate holder shall maintain a curriculum that shows—
(1) The required practical projects to be completed;
(2) For each subject, the proportions of theory and other instruction to be given; and
(3) A list of the minimum required tests to be given.
(f) Each ATO may issue AMT licenses of competency to persons successfully completing
speciality courses provided that all requirements are met and the licenses of
competency specifies the aircraft make and model to which the license applies.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.4.3, AMT Airframe and/or Powerplant and/or
Avionics Ratings for applicable AMT course curri14 CFR: 147.21

3.4-1
PCAR PART 3
3.4.4 AMT TRAINING PROGRAM PROVIDERS

(a) The holder of a training organization applicant may apply to the Authority for approval
for an AMT training program.
(b) An AOC holder, an AMO, or an ATO may apply to the Authority for approval for an
AMT training program that meets the requirements of this Subpart.
Implementing Standard: See IS: 3.4.3 for AMT training program curriculum
requirements.
3.4.5 INSTRUCTOR REQUIREMENTS

(a) Each ATO shall provide the number of instructors holding appropriate licenses and
ratings, issued under Part 2, Section 2.6.2 that the Authority determines is necessary
to provide adequate instruction and supervision of the students, including at least one
such instructor for each 25 students in each class held in a shop where students are
performing actual tasks appropriate to the curriculum.
(b) An ATO may provide specialized instructors, who are not licensed in accordance with
Part 2, to teach mathematics, physics, basic electricity, basic hydraulics, drawing, and
similar subjects.
(c) Each ATO shall maintain a list of the names and qualifications of such specialized
instructors, and upon request, provide a copy of the list, with a summary of the
qualifications of each specialized instructor to the Authority.
3.4.6 ATTENDANCE AND CREDIT FOR PRIOR INSTRUCTION OR EXPERIENCE

(a) An ATO may credit a student with instruction or previous experience as follows:
(1) Instruction satisfactorily completed at—
(i) An accredited university, college, or junior college;
(ii) An accredited vocational, technical, trade or high school;
(iii) A military technical school; or (iv) An ATO.
(2) Previous aviation maintenance experience comparable to required curriculum
subjects—
(i) By determining the amount of credit to be allowed by documents verifying
previous experience; and
(ii) By giving the student a test equal to the one given to students who complete
the comparable required curriculum subject at the ATO.
(3) Credit to be allowed for previous instruction —
(i) By an entrance test equal to one given to the students who complete a
comparable required curriculum subject at the crediting ATO;
(ii) By an evaluation of an authenticated transcript from the student's former
school; or
(iii) In the case of an applicant from a military school, only on the basis of an
entrance test.
(4) A certificate holder may credit a student seeking an additional rating with previous
satisfactory completion of the general portion of an ATO’s curriculum.

3.4-2
PCAR PART 3
(b) Each ATO shall show hours of absence allowed and how it will make missed material
available to the student.

3.4-3
PCAR PART 3

3.4-4
PCAR PART 3

PART 3: IS
APPROVED TRAINING ORGANIZATIONS

IMPLEMENTING STANDARDS

IS-1
PCAR PART 3
IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX A – APPLICATION FOR ISSUANCE OR AMENDMENT OF AN

ATO CERTIFICATE
Each applicant for an ATO certificate and training specification shall provide the Authority
with the following information:
(a) a statement showing that the minimum qualification requirements for each
management position are met;
(b) a description of the minimum qualifications and ratings for each instructor;
(c) a statement acknowledging that the applicant may notify the Authority within 10
working days of any change made in the assignment of persons in the required
management or instructors positions;
(d) the proposed training specifications requested by the applicant;
(e) a description of the training equipment that the applicant proposes to use e.g. the
aircraft, the Flight Simulation Training Device(s) including any special equipment used
for each phase of training;
(f) a listing of the airports or sites at which training flights originate and a description of
the applicant’s training facilities, equipment and qualifications of personnel to be use;
and
(g) a training program, including manuals, curricula, outlines, courseware, procedures and
documentation to support the items required in 3.2.3, 3.2.4, 3.3.4 and 3.3.5.
(h) In case of conducting on-airplane upset recovery training for instructors and/or
students a statement about:
(i) how the safety risks associated with this training are identified and mitigated; and
(ii) The procedures for minimum dispatch and weather criteria, such as minimum safe
altitudes, cloud clearances and airspace restrictions.
IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX B - QUALITY SYSTEM

(a) In a quality system of an ATO for training for licenses and ratings the following five
elements should be clear identifiable:
(1) determination of the organization’s training policy and training and flight safety
standards;
(2) determination and establishment of assignment of responsibility, resources,
organization and operational processes, which will make allowance for policy and
training and flight safety standards;
(3) follow up system to ensure that policy, training and flight safety standards are
complied with;
(4) registration and documentation of deviations from policy, training and flight safety
standards together with necessary analysis, evaluations and correction of such
deviations; and
(5) evaluation of experiences and trends concerning policy, training and flight safety
standards.
IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX C - GUIDANCE MATERIAL FOR A QUALITY SYSTEM

(a) Introduction

IS-2
PCAR PART 3
(1) A basis for quality should be established by every ATO and problem-solving
techniques to run processes should be applied. Knowledge in how to measure,
establish and ultimately achieve quality in training and education is considered to
be essential.
(2) The purpose of this Guidance material is to provide information and guidance to
the ATO on how to establish a Quality System that enables compliance with 3.1.2.2
(c).
(3) In order to show compliance with 3.1.2.2 (c) an ATO should establish its Quality
System in accordance with the instructions and information contained in the
succeeding paragraphs.
(b) The Quality system of the ATO
(1) Terminology
(i) Quality. The totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that
bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs.
(ii) Quality Assurance. All those planned and systematic actions necessary to
provide adequate confidence that all training activities satisfy given
requirements, including the ones specified by the ATO in relevant manuals.
(iii) Quality Manual. The document containing the relevant information pertaining
to the ATO’s quality system and quality assurance program.
(iv) Quality audit. A systematic and independent examination to determine whether
quality activities and related results comply with planned arrangements and
whether these arrangements are implemented effectively and are suitable to
achieve objectives.
(2) Quality Policy and Strategy
(i) It is of vital importance that the ATO describes how the organization formulates,
deploys, reviews its policy and strategy and turns it into plans and actions. A
formal written Quality Policy Statement should be established that is a
commitment by the Head of Training, as to what the Quality System is intended
to achieve. The Quality Policy should reflect the achievement and continued
compliance with relevant parts of Part 2 and 3 together with any additional
standards specified by the ATO.
(ii) The Accountable Manager will have overall responsibility for the Quality
System including the frequency, format and structure of the internal
management evaluation activities.
(3) Purpose of a Quality System: The implementation and employment of a Quality
System will enable the ATO to monitor compliance with relevant parts of Part 2 and
3, the Procedures Manual and the Training Manual, and any other standards as
established by the ATO, or the Authority, to ensure safe and efficient training.
(4) Quality Manager
(i) The primary role of the Quality Manager is to verify, by monitoring activities in
the field of training, that the standards required by the Authority, and any
additional requirements as established by the ATO are being carried out
properly under the supervision of the Head of Training, Chief Flight Instructor
and Chief Ground Instructor.
(ii) The Quality Manager should be responsible for ensuring that the Quality
Assurance Program is properly implemented, maintained and continuously

IS-3
PCAR PART 3
reviewed and improved. The Quality Manager should: - have direct access to
the Head of Training; - have access to all parts of the ATO’s organization.
(iii) In the case of small or very small ATO’s, the posts of the Head of Training and
the Quality Manager may be combined. However, in this event, quality audits
should be conducted by independent personnel.
(5) Quality System
(i) The Quality System of the ATO should ensure compliance with and adequacy
of training activities conducted.
(ii) The ATO should specify the basic structure of the Quality System applicable to
all training activities conducted.
(iii) The Quality System should be structured according to the size of the ATO and
the complexity of the training to be monitored.
(6) Scope: A quality System should address the following:
(i) Leadership
(ii) Policy and Strategy
(iii) Processes
(iv) The provisions of Parts 2 and 3
(v) Additional standards and training procedures as stated by the ATO
(vi) The organizational structure of the ATO
(vii) Responsibility for the development, establishment and management of the
Quality System
(viii) Documentation, including manuals, reports and records
(ix) Quality Assurance Program
(x) The required financial, material and human resources
(xi) Training requirements
(xii) Customer satisfaction
(7) Feedback System: The quality system should include a feedback system to ensure
that corrective actions are both identified and promptly addressed. The feedback
system should also specify who is required to rectify discrepancies and non-
compliance in each particular case, and the procedure to be followed if corrective
action is not completed within an appropriate timescale.
(8) Documentation: Relevant documentation includes the relevant part(s) of the
Training and Procedures Manual, which may be included in a separate Quality
Manual.
(i) In addition relevant document should also include the following:
(A) Quality Policy
(B) Terminology
(C) Specified training standards
(D) A description of the organization
(E) The allocation of duties and responsibilities
(F) Training procedures to ensure regulatory compliance

IS-4
PCAR PART 3
(ii) The Quality Assurance Program, reflecting:

(A) Schedule of the monitoring process
(B) Audit procedures
(C) Reporting procedures
(D) Follow-up and corrective action procedures
(E) Recording System
(F) The training syllabus
(G) Document control
(9) Quality Assurance Program: The Quality Assurance Program should include all
planned and systematic actions necessary to provide confidence that all training
are conducted in accordance with all applicable requirements, standards and
procedures.
(10) Quality Inspection
(i) The primary purpose of a quality inspection is to observe a particular
event/action/document etc., in order to verify whether established training
procedures and requirements are followed during the accomplishment of that
event and whether the required standard is achieved.
(ii) Typical subject areas for quality inspections are:
(A) Actual flight and ground training
(B) Maintenance
(C) Technical Standards
(D) Training Standards
(11) Audit
(i) An audit is a systematic, and independent comparison of the way in which a
training is being conducted against the way in which the published training
procedures say it should be conducted.
(ii) Audits should include at least the following quality procedures and processes:
(A) An explanation of the scope of the audit
(B) Planning and preparation
(C) Gathering and recording evidence
(D) Analysis of the evidence
(iii) The various techniques that make up an effective audit are:
(A) Interviews or discussions with personnel
(B) A review of published documents
(C) The examination of an adequate sample of records
(D) The witnessing of the activities which make up the training
(E) The preservation of documents and the recording of observations
(12) Auditors

IS-5
PCAR PART 3
(i) The ATO should decide, depending on the complexity of the training, whether
to make use of a dedicated audit team or a single auditor. In any event, the
auditor or audit team should have relevant training and/or operational
experience.
(ii) The responsibilities of the auditors should be clearly defined in the relevant
documentation.
(13) Auditor’s Independence
(i) Auditors should not have any day-to-day involvement in the area of the
operation or maintenance activity which is to be audited. An ATO may, in
addition to using the services of full-time dedicated personnel belonging to a
separate quality department, undertake the monitoring of specific areas or
activities by the use of part-time auditors.
(ii) An ATO whose structure and size does not justify the establishment of full-time
auditors, may undertake the audit function by the use of part-time personnel
from within its own organization or from an external source under the terms of
an agreement acceptable to the Authority.
(iii) In all cases the ATO should develop suitable procedures to ensure that persons
directly responsible for the activities to be audited are not selected as part of
the auditing team. Where external auditors are used, it is essential that any
external specialist is familiar with the type of training conducted by the ATO.
(iv) The Quality Assurance Program of the ATO should identify the persons within
the company who have the experience, responsibility and Authority to:
(A) Perform quality inspections and audits as part of ongoing Quality
Assurance
(B) Identify and record any concerns or findings, and the evidence necessary
to substantiate such concerns or findings
(C) Initiate or recommend solutions to concerns or findings through designated
reporting channels
(D) Verify the implementation of solutions within specific timescales
(E) Report directly to the Quality Manager
(14) Audit Scope: ATOs are required to monitor compliance with the Training and
Procedures Manuals they have designed to ensure safe and efficient training. In
doing so they should as a minimum, and where appropriate, monitor:
(i) Organization
(ii) Plans and objectives
(iii) Training Procedures
(iv) Flight Safety
(v) Manuals, Logs and Records
(vi) Flight and Duty Time limitations
(vii) Rest requirements and scheduling
(viii) Aircraft Maintenance/Operations interface
(ix) Maintenance programs and continued airworthiness
(x) Maintenance accomplishment

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(15) Audit Scheduling

(i) A Quality Assurance Program should include a defined audit schedule and a
periodic review cycle. The schedule should be flexible, and allow unscheduled
audits when trends are identified. Follow-up audits should be scheduled when
necessary to verify that corrective action was carried out and that it was
effective.
(ii) An ATO should establish a schedule of audits to be completed during a specific
calendar period. All aspects of the training should be reviewed within a period
of 12 months in accordance with the program unless an extension to the audit
period is accepted as explained below.
(iii) An ATO may increase the frequency of their audits at their discretion but should
not decrease the frequency without the acceptance of the Authority. It is
considered unlikely that a period of greater than 24 months would be
acceptable for any audit topic.
(iv) When an ATO defines the audit schedule, significant changes to the
management, organization, training, or technologies should be considered, as
well as changes to the regulatory requirements.
(16) Monitoring and corrective action
(i) The aim of monitoring within the Quality System is primarily to investigate and
judge its effectiveness and thereby to ensure that defined policy, training
standards are continuously complied with. Monitoring activity is based upon
quality inspections, audits, corrective action and follow-up. The ATO should
establish and publish a quality procedure to monitor regulatory compliance on
a continuing basis. This monitoring activity should be aimed at eliminating the
causes of unsatisfactory performance.
(ii) Any non-compliance identified should be communicated to the manager
responsible for taking corrective action or, if appropriate, the Accountable
Manager. Such non-compliance should be recorded, for the purpose of further
investigation, in order to determine the cause and to enable the
recommendation of appropriate corrective action.
(iii) The Quality Assurance Program should include procedures to ensure that
corrective actions are developed in response to findings. These quality
procedures should monitor such actions to verify their effectiveness and that
they have been completed. Organizational responsibility and accountability for
the implementation of corrective action resides with the department cited in the
report identifying the finding. The Accountable Manager will have the ultimate
responsibility for ensuring, through the Quality Manager(s), that corrective
action has re-established compliance with the standard required by the
Authority and any additional requirements established by the ATO.
(17) Corrective action
(i) Subsequent to the quality inspection/audit, the ATO should establish:
(A) The seriousness of any findings and any need for immediate corrective
action
(B) The origin of the finding
(C) What corrective actions are required to ensure that the non-compliance
does not recur
(D) A schedule for corrective action

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(E) The identification of individuals or departments responsible for

implementing corrective action
(F) Allocation of resources by the Accountable Manager, where appropriate
(ii) The Quality Manager should:
(A) Verify that corrective action is taken by the manager responsible in
response to any finding of non-compliance
(B) Verify that corrective action includes the elements outlined in paragraph
(16) above
(C) Monitor the implementation and completion of corrective action
(D) Provide management with an independent assessment of corrective action,
implementation and completion
(E) Evaluate the effectiveness of corrective action through the follow-up
process
(18) Management Evaluation
(i) A management evaluation is a comprehensive, systematic documented review
by the management of the quality system, training policies, and procedures,
and should consider: The results of quality inspections, audits and any other
indicators; as well as the overall effectiveness of the management organization
in achieving stated objectives. A management evaluation should identify and
correct trends, and prevent, where possible, future non-conformities.
Conclusions and recommendations made as a result of an evaluation should
be submitted in writing to the responsible manager for action. The responsible
manager should be an individual who has the Authority to resolve issues and
take action. The Accountable Manager should decide upon the frequency,
format, and structure of internal management evaluation activities.
(19) Recording
(i) Accurate, complete and readily accessible records documenting the result of
the Quality Assurance Program should be maintained by the ATO. Records are
essential data to enable an ATO to analyze and determine the root causes of
non-conformity, so that areas of non-compliance can be identified and
subsequently addressed.
(ii) The following records should be retained for a period of 5 years:
(A) Audit schedules
(B) Quality inspection and audit reports
(C) Responses to findings
(D) Corrective action reports
(E) Follow-up and closure reports
(F) Management evaluation reports
(20) Quality Assurance Responsibility for Satellite ATOs
(i) An ATO may decide to sub-contract out in accordance with Subpart 3.1.2.10,
certain activities to external organizations subject to the approval of the
Authority.
(ii) The ultimate responsibility for the training provided by the satellite ATO always
remains with the ATO. A written agreement should exist between the ATO and

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the satellite ATO clearly defining the safety related services and quality to be
provided. The satellite ATO’s safety related activities relevant to the agreement
should be included in the ATO’s Quality Assurance Program.
(iii) The ATO should ensure that the satellite ATO has the necessary
authorization/approval when required, and commands the resources and
competence to undertake the task. If the ATO requires the satellite ATO to
conduct activity which exceeds the satellite ATO’s authorization/approval, the
ATO is responsible for ensuring that the satellite ATO’s quality assurance takes
account of such additional requirements.
(21) Quality System Training
(i) Correct and thorough training is essential to optimize quality in every
organization. In order to achieve significant outcomes of such training the ATO
should ensure that all staff understand the objectives as laid down in the Quality
Manual.
(ii) Those responsible for managing the Quality System should receive training
covering:
(A) An introduction to the concept of Quality System
(B) Quality management
(C) Concept of Quality Assurance
(D) Quality manuals
(E) Audit techniques
(F) Reporting and recording
(G) The way in which the Quality System will function in the ATO
(iii) Time should be provided to train every individual involved in quality
management and for briefing the remainder of the employees. The allocation
of time and resources should be governed by the size and complexity of the
operation concerned.
(22) Sources of Training:
Quality management courses are available from the various National or
International Standards Institutions, and an ATO should consider whether to offer
such courses to those likely to be involved in the management of Quality Systems.
Organizations with sufficient appropriately qualified staff should consider whether
to carry out in-house training.
(23) Quality Systems for small/very small Organizations
(i) The requirement to establish and document a Quality System and to employ a
Quality Manager applies to all ATOs.
(ii) Complex quality systems could be inappropriate for small or very small ATOs
and the clerical effort required to draw up manuals and quality procedures for
a complex system may stretch their resources. It is therefore accepted that
such ATOs should tailor their quality systems to suit the size and complexity of
their training and allocate resources accordingly.
(iii) For small and very small ATOs it may be appropriate to develop a Quality
Assurance Program that employs a checklist. The checklist should have a
supporting schedule that requires completion of all checklist items within a
specified timescale, together with a statement acknowledging completion of a

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periodic review by top management. An occasional independent overview of

the checklist content and achievement of the Quality Assurance should be
undertaken.
(iv) The small ATO may decide to use internal or external auditors or a combination
of the two. In these circumstances it would be acceptable for external
specialists and or qualified organizations to perform the quality audits on behalf
of the Quality Manger.
(v) If the independent quality audit function is being conducted by external
auditors, the audit schedule should be shown in the relevant documentation.
(vi) Whatever arrangements are made, the main ATO retains the ultimate
responsibility for the quality system and especially the completion and flowing.
IS 3.1.2.2 APPENDIX D – AVIATION TRAINING ORGANIZATION CERTIFICATE

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IS 3.1.2.4 APPENDIX A: INSPECTION

(a) The inspection shall focus on:
(1) staff: adequacy of number and qualifications;
(2) instructors: validity of licenses and ratings; logbooks;
(3) training aircraft: registration; associated documents; maintenance records;
(4) Flight Simulation Training Device(s) qualification and approval;
(5) facilities: adequacy to the courses being conducted and the number of students;
(6) documentation: documents related to the courses; updating system; training and
operations manuals;
(7) training records and checking forms;
(8) flight instruction including pre-flight briefing, actual flight debriefing for ATOs for
flight crew training;
(9) instruction program for personnel other than flight crew;
(10) quality system.
IS 3.1.2.4 APPENDIX B: INSPECTION REPORT

Report for the inspection of an ATO for training for flight crew licenses.
INSPECTION REPORT
AVIATION TRAINING ORGANIZATION
Approved Courses Inspected

(Tick those relevant)

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Itemized Inspector’s report

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Note 1: Where it has not been possible to carry out a check item, this shall be stated with
reasons.
Note 2: Any item(s) marked unsatisfactory shall have an explanation attached to this
report.
IS 3.1.2.5 Renewal
(a) The holder of an ATO approval must apply for a renewal in sufficient time before the
expiry date of the approval certificate in order to continue training without interruption
because of the expiry date of the approval certificate. Renewal of approval is based on
criteria and a report in IS 3.1.2.4.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix A: Head of Training

(a) The Head of Training shall have overall responsibility for ensuring satisfactory
integration of flying training, synthetic flight training and theoretical knowledge
instruction and for supervising the progress of individual students. The Head of
Training shall have had extensive experience in training as a flight instructor for
professional pilot licenses and possess a sound managerial capability.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix B: Chief Flight Instructor (CFI)

(a) The CFI shall be responsible for the supervision of flight and synthetic flight instructors
and for the standardization of all flight instruction and synthetic flight instruction.
(b) The CFI shall:
(1) hold the highest professional pilot license related to the flying training courses
conducted;
(2) hold the rating(s) related to the flying training courses conducted;

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(3) hold a flight instructor rating for at least one of the types of aircraft used on the
course; and
(4) have completed 1,000 hours pilot-in-command flight time of which a minimum of
500 hours shall be on flying instructional duties related to the flying courses
conducted, of which 200 hours may be instrument ground time.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix C: Instructors for training for licenses and ratings

Flight instructors, shall hold:
(a) A professional pilot license and rating(s) in accordance with Part 2 related to the flying
training courses they are appointed to conduct; and
(b) an instructor rating or authorization in accordance with Part 2, relevant to the part of
the course being conducted e.g. flight instructor, flight instrument rating instructor,
instructor for additional class or type rating(s), instructor for synthetic flight training, as
appropriate.
(c) Before delivering UPRT instructor should have received UPRT instructor training,
details are specified in IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX C.
(1) On-airplane recovery training requires special instructor qualification. Before
delivering UPRT for on-airplane recovery instruction, a certificate of completion
and a logbook-entry, issued by the ATO for successful completion of on-airplane-
upset recovery instructor training. During this course, the ATO shall provide
training-to-proficiency and shall continuously assess and record the performance
of the instructor under training.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix D: Instructors for additional class or type ratings

Instructors for additional class or type ratings training shall hold:
(a) the license and the rating(s) in accordance with Part 2 related to the class or type rating
training courses they are appointed to conduct; and
(b) an instructor rating in accordance with Part 2, relevant to the part of the course being
conducted.
(i) Before delivering UPRT instructors shall have received UPRT instructor training.
Details are specified in IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX C.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix E: Instructors for flight simulation training device(s)

(a) Instructors for synthetic flight training shall hold the authorization in accordance with
Part 2 related to the synthetic flight training courses they are appointed to conduct.
(i) Before UPRT instructors shall have received UPRT instructor training. Details are
specified in IS 2.3.3.3 APPENDIX C.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix F: Instructors for flight engineer licenses and/or ratings
Instructors for flight engineer licenses and rating training shall hold:
(a) the license and the rating(s) in accordance with Part 2 related to the flight engineer
license and/or rating training courses they are appointed to conduct; and
(b) an instructor rating in accordance with Part 2, relevant to the part of the course being
conducted.

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IS 3.2.2 Appendix G: Chief ground instructor (CGI)

(a) The CGI shall be responsible for the supervision of all ground instructors and for the
standardization of all theoretical knowledge instruction.
(b) The CGI shall have a practical background in aviation and have undergone a course
of training in instructional techniques or have had extensive previous experience in
giving theoretical knowledge instruction.
IS 3.2.2 Appendix H: Ground instructors

(a) Ground instructors in license and ratings knowledge subjects shall have appropriate
experience in aviation and shall, before appointment, give proof of their competency
by giving a test lecture based on material they have developed for the subjects they
are to teach.
IS 3.2.4 Flight crew training courses

(a) Each applicant for, and holder of, an approved flight crew training course shall include
training on the knowledge and flight training subjects that are based on the
requirements of Part 2 and are:
(1) needed to safely exercise the privileges of the license, rating or authorization for
which the course is established; and
(2) conducted to develop competency, proficiency, resourcefulness, self-confidence
and self-reliance in each student.
(b) Each applicant for, and holder of, an approved flight crew training course shall include:
(1) the knowledge and flight training that is appropriate to the aircraft rating and flight
crew license level for which the course applies; and
(2) an adequate number of total knowledge and flight training hours appropriate to the
aircraft rating and flight crew license level for which the course applies.
(c) Each person, to graduate from an approved pilot training course shall satisfactorily
accomplish the progress checks and skill tests, consisting of the areas of operation
that are appropriate to the operating privileges or authorization that graduation from
the course will permit.
IS 3.2.7 Airports and Sites

(a) The base airport, and any alternative base airport, at which flying training is being
conducted shall have at least the following facilities:
(1) at least one runway or take-off area that allows training aircraft to make a normal
take-off or landing at the maximum take-off or maximum landing weight authorized,
and touch down autorotation as appropriate:
(i) under calm wind (not more than four knots) conditions and temperatures equal
to the mean high temperature for the hottest month of the year in the operating
area;
(ii) clearing all obstacles in the take-off flight path by at least 50 feet;
(iii) with the powerplant operation and the landing gear (if applicable)
recommended by the manufacturer; and

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(iv) with a smooth transition from lift-off to the best rate of climb speed without
exceptional piloting skills or techniques;
(2) have a wind direction indicator that is visible at ground level from the ends of each
runway;
(3) have adequate runway electrical lighting if used for night training; and
(4) have a traffic direction indicator when:
(i) the airport does not have an operating control tower; and (ii) traffic and wind
advisories are not available.
IS 3.2.9 Appendix A: Training Manual

The Training Manual for use at an ATO conducting approved training courses shall include
the following:
(a) Chapter 1: The Training Plan:
(1) The aim of the course: A statement of what the student is expected to do as a result
of the training, the level of performance, and the training constraints to be
observed.
(2) Pre-entry requirements: Minimum age, educational requirements (including
language), medical requirements.
(3) Credits for previous experience: To be obtained from the Authority before training
begins.
(4) Training Curricula: The flying curriculum (single-engine), the flying curriculum
(multi-engine), the synthetic flight training curriculum and the theoretical knowledge
training curriculum.
(5) The time scale and scale in weeks, for each curriculum: Arrangements of the
course and the integration of curricula time.
(6) Training program: The general arrangements of daily and weekly programs for
flying, ground and synthetic flight training. Bad weather constraints, Program
constraints in terms of maximum student training times, (flying, theoretical
knowledge, synthetic) e.g. per day/week/month, Restrictions in respect of duty
periods for students. Duration of dual and solo flights at various stages, Maximum
flying hours in any day/night, Maximum number of training flights in any day/night,
Minimum rest period between duty period.
(7) Training records: Rules for security of records and documents. Attendance
records. The form of training records to be kept. Persons responsible for checking
records and students’ log books. The nature and frequency of records checks.
Standardization of entries in training records. Rules concerning log book entries.
(8) Safety training: Individual responsibilities. Essential exercises. Emergency drills
(frequency). Dual checks (frequency at various stages). Requirement before first
solo day/night/navigation, etc.
(9) Checks and tests: Flying: Progress checks and skill tests. Knowledge: Progress
tests and knowledge tests. Authorization for test: Rules concerning refresher
training before retest. Test reports and records. Procedures for test paper
preparation, type of question and assessment, standard required for ‘Pass’.
Procedure for question analysis and review and for raising replacement papers.
Test resit procedures.

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(10) Training effectiveness: Individual responsibilities. General Assessment. Liaison

between departments. Identification of unsatisfactory progress (individual
students). Actions to correct unsatisfactory progress. Procedure for changing
instructors. Maximum number of instructor changes per student. Internal feedback
system for detecting training deficiencies. Procedure for suspending a student from
training. Discipline. Reporting and documentation.
(11) Standards and level of performance at various stages: Individual responsibilities.
Standardization. Standardization requirements and procedures. Application of test
criteria.
(b) Chapter 2: Briefing and Air Exercises
(1) Air Exercise: A detailed statement of the content specification of all the air
exercises to be taught, arranged in the sequence to be flown with main and sub-
titles.
(2) Air exercise reference list: An abbreviated list of the above exercises giving only
main and sub-titles for quick reference, and preferably in flip-card form to facilitate
daily use by instructors.
(3) Course structure – Phase of training: A statement of how the course will be divided
into phases, indication of how the above air exercises will be divided between the
phases and how they will be arranged to ensure that they are completed in the
most suitable learning sequence and that essential (emergency) exercises are
repeated at the correct frequency. Also, the curriculum hours for each phase and
for groups of exercises within each phase shall be stated and when progress tests
are to be conducted, etc.
(4) Course structure integration of curricula: The manner in which theoretical
knowledge, synthetic flight training and flying training will be integrated so that as
the flying training exercises are carried out students will be able to apply the
knowledge gained from the associated theoretical knowledge instruction and
synthetic flight training.
(5) Student progress: The requirement for student progress and include a brief but
specific statement of what a student is expected to be able to do and the standard
of proficiency he or she must achieve before progressing from one phase of air
exercise training to the next. Include minimum experience requirements in terms
of hours, satisfactory exercise completion, etc. As necessary before significant
exercises, e.g. night flying.
(6) Instructional methods: The ATO requirements, particularly in respect of pre- and
post-flying briefing, adherence to curricula and training specifications, authorization
of solo flights, etc.
(7) Progress tests: The instructions given to examining staff in respect of the conduct
and document of all progress tests.
(8) Glossary of terms: Definition of significant terms as necessary.
(9) Appendices: Progress test report forms. Skill test report forms. ATO certificates of
experience, competence, etc. as required.
(c) Chapter 3: Synthetic flight training: Structure generally as for Chapter 2.
(d) Chapter 4: Knowledge instruction: Structure generally as for Chapter 2 with a training
specification and objectives for each subject. Individual lesson plans to include mention
of the specific training aids available for use.

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PCAR PART 3
IS 3.2.9 Appendix B: Procedures Manual

The Procedures Manual for use at an ATO conducting approved training courses shall
include the following:
(a) Chapter 1: General:
(1) A list and description of all volumes in the Procedures Manual.
(2) Administration (function and management).
(3) Responsibilities (all management and administrative staff).
(4) Student discipline and disciplinary action.
(5) Approval/authorization of flights.
(6) Preparation of flying program (restriction of numbers of aircraft in poor weather).
(7) Command of aircraft.
(8) Responsibilities of pilot-in-command.
(9) Carriage of passengers.
(10) Aircraft documentation.
(11) Retention of documents.
(12) Flight crew qualification records (licenses and ratings).
(13) Revalidation (licenses, ratings and medical certificates).
(14) Flying duty period and flight time limitations (flying instructors).
(15) Flying duty period and flight time limitations (students).
(16) Rest periods (flying instructors).
(17) Rest periods (students).
(18) Pilots’ log books
(19) Flight planning (general).
(20) Safety general: equipment, radio listening watch, hazards, accidents and
incidents (including reports), safety pilots, etc.
(b) Chapter 2: Technical
(1) Aircraft descriptive notes.
(2) Aircraft handling (including checklists, limitations, aircraft maintenance and
technical logs, in accordance with relevant requirements, etc.)
(3) Emergency procedures.
(4) Radio and radio navigation aids.
(5) Allowable deficiencies (based on MMEL, if available).
(c) Chapter 3: Route
(1) Performance (legislation, take-off, route, landing, etc.).
(2) Flight planning (fuel, oil, minimum safe altitude, navigation equipment, etc.)
(3) Loading (load sheets, weight, balance, limitations).
(4) Weather minima (flying instructors)

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(5) Weather minima (students: at various stages of training).

(6) Training routes/areas
(d) Chapter 4: Staff training
(1) Appointments of persons responsible for standards/competence of flying staff.
(2) Initial training.
(3) Refresher training.
(4) Standardization training.
(5) Proficiency checks
(6) Upgrading training.
(7) ATO staff standards evaluation.
IS 3.4.3 AM AIRFRAME AND/OR POWERPLANT AND/OR AVIONICS RATINGS

Curriculum Requirements
This Implementing Standard defines terms used in Section A, B, C and D of this part, and
describes the levels of proficiency at which items under each subject in each curriculum
must be taught, as outlined in Sections A, B, C and D.
(a) Definitions. As used in Sections A, B, C and D:
(1) "Inspect" means to examine by sight and touch.
(2) "Check" means to verify proper operation.
(3) "Troubleshoot" means to analyze and identify malfunctions.
(4) "Service" means to perform functions that assure continued operation.
(5) "Repair" means to correct a defective condition. Repair of an airframe or
powerplant system includes component replacement and adjustment, but not
component repair.
(6) "Overhaul" means to disassemble, inspect, repair as necessary, and check.
(b) Teaching levels.
(1) Level 1 requires:
(i) Knowledge of general principles, but no practical application.
(ii) No development of manipulative skill.
(iii) Instruction by lecture, demonstration, and discussion.
(i) Knowledge of general principles, and limited practical application.
(ii) Development of sufficient manipulative skill to perform basic operations.
(iii) Instruction by lecture, demonstration, discussion, and limited practical
application.
(i) Knowledge of general principles, and performance of a high degree of practical
application.

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(ii) Development of sufficient manipulative skills to simulate return to service.

(iii) Instruction by lecture, demonstration, discussion, and a high degree of practical
application.
(c) Teaching materials and equipment.
(1) The curriculum may be presented utilizing currently accepted educational materials
and equipment, including, but not limited to: calculators, computers, and audio-
visual equipment.
Section A – General Curriculum Subjects

This section list the subjects required for at least 400 hours of general curriculum subjects.
The number in parentheses before each item listed under each subject heading indicates
the level of proficiency at which that item shall be taught.
Teaching
Level
A. BASIC ELECTRICITY 30 HOURS
(2) 1. Calculate and measure capacitance and inductance.
(2) 2. Calculate and measure electrical power.
(3) 3. Measure voltage, current, resistance, and continuity.
Teaching
Level
(3) 4. Determine the relationship of voltage, current, and resistance in electrical circuits.
(3) 5. Read and interpret aircraft electrical circuit diagrams, including solid state devices
and logic functions.
(3) 6. Inspect and service batteries.
B. AIRCRAFT DRAWINGS 40 HOURS
(2) 7. Use aircraft drawings, symbols, and system schematics.
(3) 8. Draw sketches of repairs and alterations.
(3) 9. Use blueprint information.
(3) 10. Use graphs and charts.
C. WEIGHT AND BALANCE 30 HOURS
(2) 11. Weigh aircraft.
(3) 12. Perform complete weight and balance check and record data.
D. FLUID LINES AND FITTINGS 15 HOURS
(3) 13. Fabricate and install rigid and flexible fluid lines and fittings.
E. MATERIALS AND PROCESSES 50 HOURS
(1) 14. Identify and select appropriate non-destructive testing methods.

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(2) 15. Perform dye penetrate, eddy current, ultrasonic, and magnetic particle inspections.
(1) 16. Perform basic heat-treating processes.
(3) 17. Identify and select aircraft hardware and materials.
(3) 18. Inspect and check welds.
(3) 19. Perform precision measurements.
F. GROUND OPERATION AND SERVICING 30 HOURS
(2) 20. Start, ground operate, move, service, and secure aircraft and identify typical ground
operation hazards.
(2) 21. Identify and select fuels.
G. CLEANING AND CORROSION CONTROL 30 HOURS
(3) 22. Identify and select cleaning materials.
(3) 23. Inspect, identify, remove, and treat aircraft corrosion and perform aircraft cleaning.
H. MATHEMATICS 75 HOURS
(3) 24. Extract roots and raise numbers to a given power.
(3) 25. Determine areas and volumes of various geometric shapes.
(3) 26. Solve ratio, proportion, and percentage problems.
(3) 27. Perform algebraic operations involving addition, subtraction, multiplication, and
division of positive and negative numbers.
I. MAINTENANCE FORMS AND RECORDS 40 HOURS
(3) 28. Write descriptions of work performed including aircraft discrepancies and corrective
actions using typical aircraft maintenance records.
Teaching
Level
(3) 29. Complete required maintenance forms, records, and inspection reports.
J. BASIC PHYSICS 40 HOURS
(2) 30. Use and understand the principles of simple machines; sound, fluid, and heat
dynamics; basic aerodynamics; aircraft structures; and theory of flight.
K. MAINTENANCE PUBLICATIONS 50 HOURS
(3) 31. Demonstrate ability to read, comprehend, and apply information contained in CAA
and manufacturers‘ aircraft maintenance specifications, data sheets, manuals,
publications, and related Civil Aviation Regulations (CAR) Airworthiness Directives,
and Model Advisory Material.
(3) 32. Read technical data.
L. MECHANIC PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS 20 HOURS
(3) 33. Exercise mechanic privileges within the limitations prescribed by Part 2 of the CAR.
Section B - Airframe Curriculum Subjects

This section list the subjects required in at least 750 hours of each airframe curriculum, in

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addition to at least 400 hours in general curriculum subjects. The number in parentheses
before each item listed under each subject heading indicates the level of proficiency at
which that item must be taught.
I. AIRFRAME STRUCTURES
Teaching
level
A. WOOD STRUCTURES 15 HOURS
(1) 1. Service and repair wood structures.
(1) 2. Identify wood defects.
(1) 3. Inspect wood structures.
B. AIRCRAFT COVERING 15 HOURS
(1) 4. Select and apply fabric and fiberglass covering materials.
(1) 5. Inspect, test, and repair fabric and fiberglass.
C. AIRCRAFT FINISHES 30 HOURS
(1) 6. Apply trim, letters, and touch-up paint.
(2) 7. Identify and select aircraft finishing materials.
(2) 8. Apply finishing materials.
(2) 9. Inspect finishes and identify defects.
D. SHEET METAL AND NONMETALLIC STRUCTURES 60 HOURS
(2) 10. Select, install, and remove special fasteners for metallic, bonded, and composite
structures.
(2) 11. Inspect bonded structures.
(2) 12. Inspect, test and repair fiberglass, plastics, honeycomb, composite, and laminated
primary and secondary structures.
(2) 13. Inspect, check, service, and repair windows, doors, and interior furnishings.
(3) 14. Inspect and repair sheet metal structures.
Teaching
level
(3) 15. Install conventional rivets.
(3) 16. Form, layout, and bend sheet metal.
E. WELDING 70 HOURS
(1) 17. Weld magnesium and titanium.
(1) 18. Solder stainless steel.
(1) 19. Fabricate tubular structures.
(2) 20. Solder, braze, gas weld, and arc weld steel.
(1) 21. Weld aluminum and stainless steel.

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PCAR PART 3
F. ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING 50 HOURS

(1) 22. Rig rotary wing aircraft.
(2) 23. Rig fixed wing aircraft.
(2) 24. Check alignment of structures.
(3) 25. Assemble aircraft components, including flight control surfaces.
(3) 26. Balance, rig, and inspect moveable primary and secondary flight control surfaces.
(3) 27. Jack aircraft.
G. AIRFRAME INSPECTION 40 HOURS
(3) 28. Perform airframe conformity and airworthiness inspections.
II. AIRFRAME SYSTEMS AND COMPONENTS

A. AIRCRAFT LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS 30 HOURS
(3) 29. Inspect, check, service, and repair landing gear, retraction systems, shock struts,
brakes, wheels, tires, and steering systems.
B. HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER SYSTEMS 20 HOURS
(2) 30. Repair hydraulic and pneumatic power systems components.
(3) 31. Identify and select hydraulic fluids.
(3) 32. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair hydraulic and pneumatic power
systems.
C. CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL SYSTEMS 60 HOURS
(1) 33. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair heating, cooling, air conditioning,
pressurization systems, and air cycle machines.
(1) 34. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair heating, cooling, air conditioning,
and pressurization systems.
(2) 35. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service and repair oxygen systems.
D. AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS 20 HOURS
(1) 36. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair electronic flight instrument
systems and both mechanical and electrical heading, speed, altitude, temperature,
pressure, and position indicating systems to include the use of built-in test equipment.
(2) 37. Install instruments and perform a static pressure system leak test.
Teaching
level
E. COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION SYSTEMS 30 HOURS
(1) 38. Inspect, check, and troubleshoot autopilot, servos, and approach coupling systems.
(1) 39. Inspect, check, and service aircraft electronic communication and navigation
systems, including VHF passenger address interphones and static discharge devices,
aircraft VOR, ILS, LORAN/GPS, Radar beacon transponders, flight management
computers, and GPWS.

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PCAR PART 3
(2) 40. Inspect and repair antenna and electronic equipment installations.
F. AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEMS 70 HOURS
(1) 41. Check and service fuel dump systems.
(1) 42. Perform fuel management transfer, and De-fuelling.
(1) 43. Inspect, check, and repair pressure-fuelling systems.
(2) 44. Repair aircraft fuel system components.
(2) 45. Inspect and repair fluid quantity indicating systems.
(2) 46. Troubleshoot, service, and repair fluid pressure and temperature warning systems.
(3) 47. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair aircraft fuel systems.
G. AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS 50 HOURS
(2) 48. Repair and inspect aircraft electrical system components; crimp and splice wiring
to manufacturers’ specifications, and repair pins and sockets of aircraft connectors.
(3) 49. Install, check, and service airframe electrical wiring, controls, switches, indicators,
and protective devices.
(3) 50.a. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair alternating and direct current
electrical systems.
(1) 50.b. Inspect, check, and troubleshoot constant speed and integrated speed drive
generators.
H. POSITION AND WARNING SYSTEMS 50 HOURS
(2) 51. Inspect, check, and service speed and configuration warning systems, electrical
brake controls, and anti-skid systems.
(3) 52. Inspect, check, troubleshoot and service landing gear position indicating and
warning systems.
I. ICE AND RAIN CONTROL SYSTEMS 40 HOURS
(2) 53. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair airframe ice and rain control
systems.
J. FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS 70 HOURS
(1) 54. Inspect, check, and service smoke and carbon monoxide detection systems.
(3) 55. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair aircraft fire detection and
extinguishing systems.
Section C - Powerplant Curriculum Subjects

This section list the subjects required in at least 750 hours of each powerplant curriculum, in
before each item listed under each subject heading indicates the level of proficiency at which
that item must be taught.
Teaching
level
I. POWERPLANT THEORY AND MAINTENANCE
A. RECIPROCATING ENGINES 80 HOURS

IS-24
PCAR PART 3
(1) 1. Inspect and repair a radial engine.

(2) 2. Overhaul reciprocating engine.
(3) 3. Inspect, check, service, and repair reciprocating engines and engine installations.
(3) 4. Install, troubleshoot, and remove reciprocating engines.
B. TURBINE ENGINES 80 HOURS
(2) 5. Overhaul turbine engine.
(3) 6. Inspect, check, service, and repair turbine engines and turbine engine installations.
(3) 7. Install, troubleshoot, and remove turbine engines.
C. ENGINE INSPECTION 80 HOURS
(3) 8. Perform powerplant conformity and airworthiness inspections.
II. POWERPLANT SYSTEMS AND COMPONENTS

A. ENGINE INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS 50 HOURS
(2) 9. Troubleshoot, service, and repair electrical and mechanical fluid rate-of-flow
indicating systems.
(3) 10. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair electrical and mechanical engine
temperature, pressure, and rpm indicating systems.
B. ENGINE FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS 40 HOURS
(3) 11. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair engine fire detection and
extinguishing systems.
C. ENGINE ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS 30 HOURS
(2) 12. Repair engine electrical system components.
(3) 13. Install, check, and service engine electrical wiring, controls, switches, indicators,
D. LUBRICATION SYSTEMS 30 HOURS
(2) 14. Identify and select lubricants.
(2) 15. Repair engine lubrication system components.
(3) 16. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair engine lubrication systems.
E. IGNITION AND STARTING SYSTEMS 50 HOURS
(2) 17. Overhaul magneto and ignition harness.
(2) 18. Inspect, service, troubleshoot, and repair reciprocating and turbine engine ignition
systems and components.
(3) 19. a. Inspect, service, troubleshoot, and repair turbine engine electrical starting
systems.
(1) 19. b. Inspect, service, and troubleshoot turbine engine pneumatic starting systems.
Teaching
level

IS-25
PCAR PART 3
F. FUEL METERING SYSTEMS 60 HOURS

(1) 20. Troubleshoot and adjust turbine engine fuel metering systems and electronic
engine fuel controls.
(2) 21. Overhaul carburetor.
(2) 22. Repair engine fuel metering system components.
(3) 23. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair reciprocating and turbine engine
fuel metering systems.
G. ENGINE FUEL SYSTEMS 30 HOURS
(2) 24. Repair engine fuel system components.
(3) 25. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair engine fuel systems.
H. INDUCTION AND ENGINE AIRFLOW SYSTEMS 40 HOURS
(2) 26. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair engine ice and rain control
systems.
(1) 27. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot and repair heat exchangers, superchargers,
and turbine engine airflow and temperature control systems.
(3) 28. Inspect, check, service, and repair carburetor air intake and induction manifolds.
I. ENGINE COOLING SYSTEMS 30 HOURS
(2) 29. Repair engine cooling system components.
(3) 30. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair engine-cooling systems.
J. ENGINE EXHAUST AND REVERSER SYSTEMS 40 HOURS
(2) 31. Repair engine exhaust system components.
(3) 32.a. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair engine exhaust systems.
(1) 32.b. Troubleshoot and repair engine thrust reverser systems and related components.
K. PROPELLERS 60 HOURS
(1) 33. Inspect, check, service, and repair propeller synchronizing and ice control systems.
(2) 34. Identify and select propeller lubricants.
(1) 35. Balance propellers.
(2) 36. Repair propeller control system components.
(3) 37. Inspect, check, service, and repair fixed pitch, constant speed, and feathering
propellers, and propeller governing systems.
(3) 38. Install, troubleshoot, and remove propellers.
(3) 39. Repair aluminum alloy propeller blades.
L. UNDUCTED FANS 40 HOURS
(1) 40. Inspect and troubleshoot unducted fan systems and components.
M. AUXILIARY POWER UNITS 40 HOURS
(1) 41. Inspect, check, service, and troubleshoot turbine driven auxiliary power units.

IS-26
PCAR PART 3
Section D - Avionics Curriculum Subjects

This section list the subjects required in at least 750 hours of each avionics curriculum, in
before each item listed under each subject heading indicates the level of proficiency at
which that item must be taught.
I. AVIONICS THEORY AND MAINTENANCE COURSE

A. AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS 20 HOURS
Teaching
level
(3) 1. Aircraft instruments test and repair electrical flight instruments.
(3) 2. Inspect altitude indicating and reporting equipment.
(3) 3. Test aircraft systems utilizing built in test equipment.
B. COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION 20 HOURS
(3) 4. Test aircraft antenna systems
(3) 5. Install systems and components.
(3) 6. Test, inspect, and repair autopilot systems.
C. AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS 20 HOURS
(3) 4. Inspect, test and repair electrical cables.
(3) 5. Inspect and repair electrical generating system components.
D. AIRCRAFT DIGITAL COMPUTER SYSTEMS. 20 HOURS
(3) 4. Test and repair digital systems and components.
(3) 5. Test and troubleshoot computer systems.
II. AVIONICS SYSTEMS AND COMPONENTS COURSE

A. AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS 150 HOURS
Teaching
Level
(1) 1. Inspect, check, service, troubleshoot, and repair electronic flight instrument systems
and both mechanical and electrical heading, speed, altitude, temperature, pressure,
and position indicating systems to include the use of built-in test equipment.
(3) 2. Install instruments and perform a static pressure system leak test.
B. COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION SYSTEMS 150 HOURS
(2) 3. Inspect, check, and troubleshoot autopilot, servos and approach coupling systems.

IS-27
PCAR PART 3
(3) 4. Inspect, check, and service aircraft electronic communication and navigation
systems, including VHF passenger address interphones, audio control devices and
static discharge devices, aircraft VOR, ILS, LORAN, GPS, Radar beacon
transponders, flight management computers, and GPWS. Inspect, test, troubleshoot
and repair INS, IRS and other forms of inertial navigation devices and systems.
(2) 5. Inspect and repair antenna and electronic equipment installations.
Teaching
Level
C. AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS 150 HOURS
(3) 6. Repair and inspect aircraft electrical system components, cable routing and security;
crimp and splice wiring to manufacturers' specifications; and repair pins and sockets
of aircraft connectors.
(3) 7. Install, check, test, and service airframe electrical wiring, controls, switches,
indicators, and protective devices.
(3) 8. Inspect, check, troubleshoot, service, and repair alternating and direct current
electrical systems and components.
(1) 9. Inspect, check, and troubleshoot constant speed and integrated speed drive
generators.
(3) 10. Install, check, and service engine electrical wiring controls, switches, indicators,
D. AIRCRAFT DIGITAL COMPUTER SYSTEMS 220 HOURS
(2) 11. Install, inspect, test and repair digital systems and equipment, indicating, and
switching systems and components. Install, test, inspect, repair onboard-integrated EFIS
systems, entertainment systems and components, and logic and control components.

IS-28
PCAR PART 3

IS-29

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PCAR PART 1

Republic of the Philippines

CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS (CAR)

GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES, and

July 2021 Edition

INTENTIONALLY BLANK PAGE

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July 2021 Edition

July 2021 Edition

July 2021 Edition

Amendment No. Date Subject Incorporated

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July 2021 Edition

9. Enhanced vision system

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LIST OF EFFECTIVE PAGES

Part Page Amendment No. Page Date

Board Resolution iii – v Amendment 01 21 March 2011

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IS-6 Amendment 06 14 July 2016

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IS-41 Amendment 07 06 January 2017

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1.1 RULES OF CONSTRUCTION.……………………..……………………………….. 1.1-1

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1.3.3.1 General…………………………………...…………………………………................ 1.3-1

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CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS

GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES, and

July 2021 Edition

1.1 RULES OF CONSTRUCTION

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1.1.1.3 ORGANIZATION OF REGULATIONS

1.1.2.1 REGULATIONS AMENDMENT PROCEDURE

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INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK

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1.2 GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULES GOVERNING TESTING,

1.2.1.2 CHANGE OF NAME

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1.2.1.3 CHANGE OF ADDRESS

1.2.1.4 REPLACEMENT OF A LOST OR DESTROYED AIRMAN LICENSE OR

1.2.1.5 FALSIFICATION, REPRODUCTION, OR ALTERATION OF

July 2021 Edition

(1) Any fraudulent or intentionally false statement;

1.2.1.6 ADMINISTRATIVE ACTION

1.2.1.7 CERTIFICATE ACTION

1.2.1.7.2 RE-EXAMINATION OR RE-INSPECTION OF A CERTIFICATE OR

July 2021 Edition

(c) Procedures for the re-examination of personnel licenses, ratings, authorizations, or

1.2.1.7.3 NOTICE AND OPPORTUNITY TO BE HEARD

1.2.1.8 CIVIL PENALTIES

1.2.1.9 CRIMINAL PENALTIES

1.2.1.10 SURRENDER, SUSPENSION, OR REVOCATION OF LICENSE OR

1.2.1.11 REAPPLICATION AFTER REVOCATION

July 2021 Edition

1.2.1.12 REAPPLICATION AFTER SUSPENSION

1.2.1.13 VOLUNTARY SURRENDER OR EXCHANGE OF LICENSE

1.2.1.14 PROHIBITION ON PERFORMANCE DURING MEDICAL DEFICIENCY

1.2.1.15 PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCE TESTING AND REPORTING

July 2021 Edition