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Human Physiology Paper 2 [494 marks]

1. [Maximum mark: 6] 22N.2.SL.TZ0.5


The diagram shows the release of a neurotransmitter across a synapse.

[Source: Splettstoesser T., 2015. SynapseSchematic [diagram online] Available at :


https://commons.wikimedia.org/w/index.php?curid=41349083 [Accessed 14 January 2023].]

(a) Identify the structure labelled X. [1]

Markscheme

(Neurotransmitter) vesicle;

Do not accept Vacuole.

(b) Outline how the neuron is stimulated to release the neurotransmitter. [2]

Markscheme

a. the arrival of a nerve impulse/action potential/depolarization (stimulates the release of a


neurotransmitter);
b. depolarization stimulates calcium ion channels to open;
OR
calcium ions enter the presynaptic knob/button
c. (calcium ions) cause the vesicle to fuse with / move to the membrane
OR
vesicles release neurotransmitter by exocytosis;

(c) Explain the action of neonicotinoid pesticides in insects. [3]

Markscheme

a. prevents synaptic/nerve transmission


b. is /acts like /has similar structure to a neurotransmitter/acetylcholine
c. (neonicotinoid pesticides) bind to acetylcholine receptors in the post synaptic membrane;
d. neonicotinoid pesticides are not broken down (as acetylcholine would be) by
acetylcholinesterase/enzyme;
e. the receptors are overstimulated
f. paralyses/kills the insects;
2. [Maximum mark: 10] 22M.2.SL.TZ1.1
Three-toed sloths (Bradypus variegatus) are placental mammals that live in trees in Central and South
America. They eat leaves and fruit and get almost all their water from succulent plants.

[Source: Adapted from Laube, S., 2003. Three-toed-sloth (Bradypus variegatus), Lake Gatun, Republic of
Panama. [image online] Available at:
https://meta.wikimedia.org/wiki/User:Bradipus#/media/File:Bradypus.jpg]

Three-toed sloths change their body posture in response to the temperature of their environment
(ambient temperature). Researchers assessed posture on a scale from 1 to 6, with 1 being when the
sloth was curled into a tight ball and 6 when it had all limbs spread. The percentage of time the
sloths were observed in each position was recorded at ambient temperatures from 22 °C to 34 °C. The
researchers also measured the body temperature of the sloths over the same range of ambient
temperatures.
[Source: Adapted from Cliffe, R.N., Scantlebury, D.M., Kennedy, S.J., Avey-Arroyo, J., Mindich, D. and
Wilson, R.P., 2018. The metabolic response of the Bradypus sloth to temperature. PeerJ, [e-journal] 6:
e5600. http://dx.doi.org/10.7717/peerj.5600. Licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution 4.0
International License https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/4.0/.]
(a.i) State the relationship between sloth body temperature and ambient temperature. [1]

Markscheme

body temperature increases with ambient temperature / positive correlation;

Since direct can be either –/+, no credit for direct correlation alone.

(a.ii) Explain how this relationship differs from that in humans. [1]

Markscheme

humans maintain/regulate a constant body temperature at different ambient


temperatures/maintained by homeostasis;

(b.i) Describe the trend in body posture as ambient temperature rises from 22 to 34 °C. [1]

Markscheme
As ambient temperature increases, the sloth spends more time with limbs spread
OR
as ambient temperature increases the sloth spends less time curled in a ball
OR
as ambient temperature rises, the posture changes from 1 to 6;

(b.ii) Suggest reasons for this trend. [2]

Markscheme

a. less surface area is exposed when curled up


OR
more surface area is exposed when all limbs spread;
b. curled position prevents heat loss/provides warmth
OR
stretched out position allows more heat loss/body cooled;

The daily food intake of three-toed sloths and daily ambient temperatures were monitored over a
160-day period from February to early July. The graphs show the mean results.

[Source: Cliffe et al. (2015), Sloths like it hot: ambient temperature modulates food intake in the
brown-throated sloth (Bradypus variegatus). PeerJ 3:e875; DOI 10.7717/peerj.875 Licensed under a
Creative Commons Attribution 4.0 International License
https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/4.0/.]
(f ) The mean daily food intake fluctuated from day to day. State the month that
contains the day on which the mean intake of food was highest. [1]

Markscheme

May;

(g) Outline the relationship between ambient daily temperature and food intake in
March. [2]

Markscheme

a. food intake rises as daily temperature increases / positive correlation;


b. the lowest food intake corresponds to the lowest temperature;

(h) Suggest, with a reason, how the activity of the sloth varies with ambient
temperature. [1]

Markscheme

a. the sloth will be more active at higher temperatures as it takes in more food for energy;
b. as temperature rises, the sloth uncurls to dissipate/lose heat;

Reason required.

(i) State one feature of the sloth that would indicate it is a mammal. [1]

Markscheme

a. mammals have mammary glands;


b. produce milk for their offspring;
c. bodies covered in hair/fur;

Characteristic must be exclusive to mammals.

If more than one answer, use the first one given.


3. [Maximum mark: 7] 22M.2.SL.TZ1.5
The graph shows the change in the membrane potential of an axon during an action potential.

(a) State the approximate value of the membrane potential at X. [1]

Markscheme

0 mV; (accept answers in the range of – 10 mV to +10 mV) (Units required)

(b) Y is the threshold potential. State what happens when the threshold potential is
reached. [1]

Markscheme

sodium channels (start to) open


OR
depolarization/axon begins to depolarize
OR
action potential occurs;

Reject pumping of ions.

(c) Describe the movements in ions that occur during time t. [2]

Markscheme
Na+/sodium ions diffuse into the axon (in the first part/half of t);
K+ /potassium ions diffuse out of the axon (in the second half/part of t)

Do not accept the name of the element without indication that it is an ion.

(d) Explain how a nerve impulse is passed on to other neurons. [3]

Markscheme

a. impulses pass to another neuron at a synapse/across synaptic gap/cleft;


b. (depolarization causes) Ca2+/calcium ions to diffuse into the (presynaptic) neuron/axon;
c. depolarization (of presynaptic neuron) causes release of a neurotransmitter
OR
neurotransmitters diffuse across the synapse;
d. (neurotransmitters) bind to receptors on postsynaptic neuron/membrane;
e. (if the threshold potential is reached) an action potential occurs/sodium gates open (in the
postsynaptic neuron);
4. [Maximum mark: 12] 22M.2.SL.TZ2.1
There is growing evidence of a decrease in bee populations. This decrease is a serious problem
because of their valuable role as pollinators in the ecosystems where they live. Neonicotinoid
pesticides have been implicated in this decrease because they have been found at trace levels in the
nectar and pollen of crop plants and in the bee colonies.

Scientists placed colonies of a species of bumblebee, Bombus terrestris, in the laboratory to test the
effects of different levels of a neonicotinoid on their development. They divided the colonies into
three groups:

The control colonies were given a solution of water and sugar that resembled nectar produced
by flowers.
A second group of colonies was given the same sugar solution containing a neonicotinoid
dissolved in it at low concentrations, similar to those found in nature.
A third group of colonies was given the same sugar solution containing a neonicotinoid
dissolved in it at high concentrations, similar to those found in nature.

After two weeks, all colonies were placed in the field to allow the bumblebees to feed naturally.

(a.i) Describe the effect of neonicotinoid pesticides on the nervous system of insects. [1]

Markscheme

a. blocks synaptic transmission at (cholinergic synapses);


b. binds to (acetylcholine) receptors;

The mass of the colonies, including adult bumblebees, wax, honey and larvae, was recorded every
week. The cumulative increase in mass was calculated and is shown on the graph.
[Source: Adapted from Whitehorn, P.R., O’Connor, S., Wackers, F.L. and Goulson, D., 2012.
Bumble Bee Colony Growth and Queen Production. Science, [e-journal] 336(6079), pp. 351–352.
http://dx.doi.org/10.1126/science.1215025.]
(a.ii) State the cumulative increase in the mass of control colonies at 7 weeks. [1]

Markscheme

230 g;

Accept range of 215 – 265. This takes into account the beginning and end of week 7.
Unit required.

(a.iii) Compare and contrast the cumulative increase in mass of the three groups of
colonies once they were placed in the field. [2]

Markscheme

a. all increased in (cumulative) mass gain up to 5–6 weeks


OR
all decreased (in cumulative mass gain) after 6 weeks;
b. both with neonicotinoids have significantly lower (cumulative) mass than the control
colonies (at all periods)
OR
colonies exposed to high concentration always had the lowest (cumulative) mass gain;
Accept vice versa.

(a.iv) Suggest a reason for the changes in mass in the colonies between weeks 6 and 8. [1]

Markscheme

a. less production of honey/wax;


b. fewer bees/dispersal of bees/queens;
c. bad weather/environmental change/predators/disease/pests;

The number of queen bumblebees produced in each colony was recorded. New bumblebee
colonies are started by a queen.

[Source: Adapted from Whitehorn, P.R., O’Connor, S., Wackers, F.L. and Goulson, D., 2012.
Bumble Bee Colony Growth and Queen Production. Science, [e-journal] 336(6079), pp. 351–352.
http://dx.doi.org/10.1126/science.1215025.]

(b) Using the data in the graph, predict how the use of neonicotinoid pesticides will
affect bumblebee populations. [3]

Markscheme

a. number of populations may/will decrease;


b. both treatments decreased very significantly the number of queens;
c. low treatment had (almost) the same effect as the high
OR
even low levels have as toxic/lethal effects as high levels;
d. without new queens, new colonies cannot be founded;
e. no/less/little reproduction (as only queens lay eggs);
f. new colonies are essential to maintain bumblebee populations;

A similar study compared the effect of a different neonicotinoid on four different species of
bumblebees. The queens were exposed to either control conditions (with no pesticide), or low or
high doses of neonicotinoid. The scientists then measured the average length of the developing
eggs in the ovaries of the queens.

[Source: Baron GL, Raine NE, Brown MJF. 2017 General and species-specific impacts of a
neonicotinoid insecticide
on the ovary development and feeding of wild bumblebee queens. Proc. R. Soc. B 284: 20170123.
http://dx.doi.org/10.1098/rspb.2017.0123 Licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution 4.0
International License https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/4.0/ Source adapted.]

(c.i) Identify the species whose eggs are most affected by a high dose of neonicotinoid. [1]

Markscheme

B. lucorum;
(c.ii) Describe the overall effects of low and high doses of neonicotinoid on the egg
lengths of all four species. [2]

Markscheme

a. low doses caused (slight) decrease in (average) egg lengths in 3 species/most species
OR
low doses caused a slight increase in 1 species/B. pascuorum;
b. high doses caused (slightly) lower (average) results in all 4 species (compared to control);
c. in only one species/B. pratorum, the high doses caused larger lengths than the low doses;

Accept any other valid comparison.

(d) Deduce, based on the data presented, whether the levels of neonicotinoids used in
agriculture cause direct harm to B. terrestris. [1]

Markscheme

a. yes, as even low/both doses (of first neonicotinoid) affect the (overall) development of
colonies negatively; (From Graph 1)
b. yes, as decreased numbers of queens (likely) affect reproductive capabilities; (From Graph 2)
c. the second neonicotinoid (likely) had less/little/no effect on the bees as it had little effect
on egg size; (From Graph 3)

OWTTE
5. [Maximum mark: 6] 21N.2.SL.TZ0.4
(a) This micrograph shows a transverse section of an artery.

[Source: OpenStax College, 2013. Comparison of artery and vein. [image online]
Available at:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:2102_Comparison_of_Artery_and_Vein.jpg Attribution
3.0 Unported
(CC BY 3.0) https:/creativecommons.org/licenses/by/3.0/deed.en [Accessed 11 March
2020].]

Explain how the specialized structures of arteries help them to achieve their functions. [3]

Markscheme

a. arteries carry blood at high pressure;


b. rupture of arteries is prevented by thick muscular/elastic walls;
c. narrow lumen to maintain a high blood pressure;
d. elastic tissue allows artery to stretch and recoil (to even out pressures);
e. arteries have muscle layers which contract to increase/control the blood flow;
f. folding in the endothelium allows stretching
OR
smooth endothelium reduces friction;

(b.i) State one process that produces ATP. [1]

Markscheme

(cell) respiration/photosynthesis;
(b.ii) Outline the use of ATP. [1]

Markscheme

source of energy (for use in the cell)


OR
example of use of ATP
OR
when ATP is converted to ADP + Pi (is hydrolyzed) the energy stored in the phosphate bond is
released to be used by the cell;

(c) State one function of epinephrine in the human body. [1]

Markscheme

increases heart rate


OR
prepares the body for action;
6. [Maximum mark: 5] 21N.2.SL.TZ0.2
(a) The figure shows a tripeptide.

Label one peptide bond in this molecule. [1]

Markscheme

circle/bracket around peptide bond / arrow pointing to peptide bond / peptide bond labelled;

Allow either peptide bond

Allow if adjacent C=O and NH groups are included in the circle/bracket, but do not allow if other parts of the molecule are included

(b) Outline the specific functions of three named proteins. [3]

Markscheme

a. Rubisco fixes CO2 from atmosphere during photosynthesis;


b. insulin controls blood glucose levels;
c. collagen forms connective tissue/ligaments;
d. spider silk forms the spider web;
e. rhodopsin involved in photoreceptor;
f. immunoglobulins/antibodies attach to antigens/pathogens;
g. actin/myosin performs muscle contraction;
h. hemoglobin carries oxygen in red blood cells;

Accept any other correct three named proteins


If an enzyme is named, the correct substrate must be stated

(c) Outline the action taken by the diaphragm during inhalation. [1]

Markscheme

contracts/flattens/becomes less domed/increases volume of thorax;


7. [Maximum mark: 12] 21M.2.SL.TZ1.1
Antiretroviral drugs are used to treat Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infections. Zidovudine
(ZDV) and nevirapine (NVP) are examples of antiretroviral drugs. There are concerns that these drugs
may be toxic to body cells in mitosis. In a study using Allium cepa, root tips were exposed to the drugs
for 96 hours at a range of concentrations. The control treatment was a drug concentration of 0μmol.
In the graph, root lengths after the 96-hour treatment period are expressed as a percentage of the
length of the control.

[Source: Onwuamah CK, Ekama SO, Audu RA, Ezechi OC, Poirier MC, Odeigah PGC (2014) Exposure of
Allium cepa Root Cells to Zidovudine or Nevirapine Induces Cytogenotoxic Changes. PLOS ONE 9(3):
e90296. https://doi.org/10.1371/journal.pone.0090296 (CC0 1.0 -
https://creativecommons.org/publicdomain/zero/1.0/).]

(a.i) Deduce the concentration of ZDV that would cause a 50 % reduction in root
growth compared to the control. [1]

Markscheme

75 μmol ✔

Allow answers in the range of 70 µmol–80 µmol.

(a.ii) Identify the root length, as a percentage of the control, resulting from a ZDV
concentration of 400 μmol. [1]

Markscheme

24 % ✔
Allow answers in the range 23 %–25 %.

(b) Compare and contrast the effect of ZDV and NVP on the growth of Allium roots. [2]

Markscheme

Similarities:

a. reduce root length (compared to the control) ✔

b. (ZDV and NVP) have greatest change (in growth) at lowest concentrations (of ZDV and NVP)

c. same effect at 200 μmol ✔

d. above/at about 400 μmol effect levels off ✔

Differences:

e. the change/differences become significant after 200 μmol ✔

f. ZDV has a (slightly) larger effect / NVP has a (slightly) smaller effect / WTTE
OR
above 400 μmol effect of ZDV remains higher / NVP remains lower ✔

Answer must contain one similarity and one difference.

Credit may be given for numeric differences when accurately stated.

Both ZDV and NVP are believed to have a damaging effect on the process of mitosis but ZDV in
particular is believed to block the formation of the spindle.
[Source: Medical Images / Carolina Biological.]
(c) Based on the information, suggest with a reason which of the labelled cell types
will become more common in Allium root tips treated with ZDV. [2]

Markscheme

a. Y (will become more common) ✔

b. spindle not formed yet


OR
cells x and z have spindles ✔

c. cells in Y cannot progress (into Z/into metaphase) ✔

(d) Allium root tips continue to show some growth even at high concentrations of NVP.
Suggest a possible reason for the growth seen in root tips with 800μmol NVP. [1]

Markscheme

a. still some mitosis ✔

b. individual cells grow/elongate (expand by absorbing water) ✔

c. NVP is not 100 % effective / does not enter all of the cells / not all cells have come in contact
with NVP ✔

d. roots have reached maximum saturation of NVP and are no longer functionally affected ✔

e. some cells are resistant to the drug ✔


Accept reasonable suggestions.

Mitosis plays an important role in tissue regeneration and can be an important factor in recovery
from surgery. The hormone leptin has been shown to promote mitosis in certain circumstances. The
bar chart shows the mitotic indices of liver tissue exposed to leptin and control tissue during 72
hours after surgery.

[Source: Adapted from Cilekar M, Uysal O, Bal C, Turel S, Yılmaz S. Leptin increases mitotic index and
regeneration ratio in hepatectomized rats. Med Sci Monit Basic Res. 2013 Nov 13;19:279-84. doi:
10.12659/MSMBR.889591]

(e) Deduce the change in mitotic index after 72 hours compared to the control. [1]

Markscheme

0.3 / 100 % increase / doubling ✔

Do not penalize errors in significant figures. For example, 0.34 would be acceptable.

(f ) Based on the data, evaluate the evidence for leptin promoting regeneration of liver
tissue. [3]

Markscheme

a. mitotic index in treatment greater than in control/leptin appears to promote mitosis ✔

b. mitotic index increases with time suggests ongoing regeneration/growth


OR
positive correlation between exposure to leptin and increased mitotic index ✔

c. but experiment limited to 72 hours/regeneration/recovery may take longer than 72 hours ✔


d. no error bars shown/no information on significance/sample size ✔

Acknowledge WTTE.

(g) Outline the role of leptin in appetite control. [1]

Markscheme

a. acts on receptors in the hypothalamus/appetite centre ✔

b. inhibits appetite ✔

Accept WTTE for mpb.


8. [Maximum mark: 3] 21M.2.SL.TZ1.4
Squid have been used for research on nerve impulses. The mechanism of nerve transmission in these
animals is the same as that in humans. The image shows an oscilloscope trace from a nerve impulse
in a squid’s giant axon.

[squid] Pixabay.

(a) Estimate the resting potential for this axon. [1]

Markscheme

−65 mV ✔

Unit required; minus sign required. Accept answers from −62mV to −65mV.

(b) Outline the role of the sodium–potassium pump in maintaining the resting
potential. [2]

Markscheme

a. sodium/potassium pump pumps sodium ions Na+ out of axon and pumps potassium ions/K+
in ✔

b. requires energy/ATP/against concentration gradients/active transport ✔

c. three sodium ions pumped out for every two potassium ions pumped in ✔

d. results in charge difference between inside and outside where outside is positive relative to
inside ✔
9. [Maximum mark: 6] 21M.2.SL.TZ1.3
Celiac disease is an immune reaction to eating gluten, a protein found in many cereals. The diagram
shows the arrangement of normal villi and villi affected by celiac disease in the small intestine.

(a) Outline the functions of the villi in the small intestine. [2]

Markscheme

a. increase the surface area for absorption ✔

b. absorption of digested foods/nutrients ✔

c. absorption of mineral ions/vitamins ✔

(b) Explain the consequences of celiac disease for absorption of digested nutrients. [2]

Markscheme

a. (celiac disease/gluten causes) much smaller villi/flattened villi/smaller surface area (of villi) /
no villi ✔

b. (smaller villi leads to) less efficient/less/slower/poor absorption


OR
nutrients/energy lost / fatigue/malnutrition may result ✔

c. (celiac sufferers) must eat a gluten-free diet / WTTE ✔

Note that this question requires an explain not an outline.


(c) Wheat, barley and rye all contain gluten. Outline how a protein such as gluten is
digested. [2]

Markscheme

a. enzymes/protease required ✔

b. (protease/peptidase) breaks peptide bonds/bonds between amino acids ✔

c. hydrolysis adds water molecules/breaks peptide bonds between amino acids ✔

d. protein/macromolecule converted to monomer/amino acids ✔

e. endopeptidase/enzymes/protease/trypsin secreted by the pancreas ✔

Peptidase/endopeptidase can be accepted instead of protease for mpa.

mpd can be awarded for an appropriate equation.


10. [Maximum mark: 3] 21M.2.SL.TZ1.4
Squid have been used for research on nerve impulses. The mechanism of nerve transmission in these
animals is the same as that in humans. The image shows an oscilloscope trace from a nerve impulse
in a squid’s giant axon.

[squid] Pixabay.

(a) Estimate the resting potential for this axon. [1]

Markscheme

−65 mV ✔

Unit required; minus sign required. Accept answers from −62mV to −65mV.

(b) Outline the role of the sodium–potassium pump in maintaining the resting
potential. [2]

Markscheme

a. sodium/potassium pump pumps sodium ions Na+ out of axon and pumps potassium ions/K+
in ✔

b. requires energy/ATP/against concentration gradients/active transport ✔

c. three sodium ions pumped out for every two potassium ions pumped in ✔

d. results in charge difference between inside and outside where outside is positive relative to
inside ✔
11. [Maximum mark: 6] 21M.2.SL.TZ1.3
Celiac disease is an immune reaction to eating gluten, a protein found in many cereals. The diagram
shows the arrangement of normal villi and villi affected by celiac disease in the small intestine.

(a) Outline the functions of the villi in the small intestine. [2]

Markscheme

a. increase the surface area for absorption ✔

b. absorption of digested foods/nutrients ✔

c. absorption of mineral ions/vitamins ✔

(b) Explain the consequences of celiac disease for absorption of digested nutrients. [2]

Markscheme

a. (celiac disease/gluten causes) much smaller villi/flattened villi/smaller surface area (of villi) /
no villi ✔

b. (smaller villi leads to) less efficient/less/slower/poor absorption


OR
nutrients/energy lost / fatigue/malnutrition may result ✔

c. (celiac sufferers) must eat a gluten-free diet / WTTE ✔

Note that this question requires an explain not an outline.


(c) Wheat, barley and rye all contain gluten. Outline how a protein such as gluten is
digested. [2]

Markscheme

a. enzymes/protease required ✔

b. (protease/peptidase) breaks peptide bonds/bonds between amino acids ✔

c. hydrolysis adds water molecules/breaks peptide bonds between amino acids ✔

d. protein/macromolecule converted to monomer/amino acids ✔

e. endopeptidase/enzymes/protease/trypsin secreted by the pancreas ✔

Peptidase/endopeptidase can be accepted instead of protease for mpa.

mpd can be awarded for an appropriate equation.


12. [Maximum mark: 12] 21M.2.SL.TZ1.1
Antiretroviral drugs are used to treat Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infections. Zidovudine
(ZDV) and nevirapine (NVP) are examples of antiretroviral drugs. There are concerns that these drugs
may be toxic to body cells in mitosis. In a study using Allium cepa, root tips were exposed to the drugs
for 96 hours at a range of concentrations. The control treatment was a drug concentration of 0μmol.
In the graph, root lengths after the 96-hour treatment period are expressed as a percentage of the
length of the control.

[Source: Onwuamah CK, Ekama SO, Audu RA, Ezechi OC, Poirier MC, Odeigah PGC (2014) Exposure of
Allium cepa Root Cells to Zidovudine or Nevirapine Induces Cytogenotoxic Changes. PLOS ONE 9(3):
e90296. https://doi.org/10.1371/journal.pone.0090296 (CC0 1.0 -
https://creativecommons.org/publicdomain/zero/1.0/).]

(a.i) Deduce the concentration of ZDV that would cause a 50 % reduction in root
growth compared to the control. [1]

Markscheme

75 μmol ✔

Allow answers in the range of 70 µmol–80 µmol.

(a.ii) Identify the root length, as a percentage of the control, resulting from a ZDV
concentration of 400 μmol. [1]

Markscheme

24 % ✔
Allow answers in the range 23 %–25 %.

(b) Compare and contrast the effect of ZDV and NVP on the growth of Allium roots. [2]

Markscheme

Similarities:

a. reduce root length (compared to the control) ✔

b. (ZDV and NVP) have greatest change (in growth) at lowest concentrations (of ZDV and NVP)

c. same effect at 200 μmol ✔

d. above/at about 400 μmol effect levels off ✔

Differences:

e. the change/differences become significant after 200 μmol ✔

f. ZDV has a (slightly) larger effect / NVP has a (slightly) smaller effect / WTTE
OR
above 400 μmol effect of ZDV remains higher / NVP remains lower ✔

Answer must contain one similarity and one difference.

Credit may be given for numeric differences when accurately stated.

Both ZDV and NVP are believed to have a damaging effect on the process of mitosis but ZDV in
particular is believed to block the formation of the spindle.
[Source: Medical Images / Carolina Biological.]
(c) Based on the information, suggest with a reason which of the labelled cell types
will become more common in Allium root tips treated with ZDV. [2]

Markscheme

a. Y (will become more common) ✔

b. spindle not formed yet


OR
cells x and z have spindles ✔

c. cells in Y cannot progress (into Z/into metaphase) ✔

(d) Allium root tips continue to show some growth even at high concentrations of NVP.
Suggest a possible reason for the growth seen in root tips with 800μmol NVP. [1]

Markscheme

a. still some mitosis ✔

b. individual cells grow/elongate (expand by absorbing water) ✔

c. NVP is not 100 % effective / does not enter all of the cells / not all cells have come in contact
with NVP ✔

d. roots have reached maximum saturation of NVP and are no longer functionally affected ✔

e. some cells are resistant to the drug ✔


Accept reasonable suggestions.

Mitosis plays an important role in tissue regeneration and can be an important factor in recovery
from surgery. The hormone leptin has been shown to promote mitosis in certain circumstances. The
bar chart shows the mitotic indices of liver tissue exposed to leptin and control tissue during 72
hours after surgery.

[Source: Adapted from Cilekar M, Uysal O, Bal C, Turel S, Yılmaz S. Leptin increases mitotic index and
regeneration ratio in hepatectomized rats. Med Sci Monit Basic Res. 2013 Nov 13;19:279-84. doi:
10.12659/MSMBR.889591]

(e) Deduce the change in mitotic index after 72 hours compared to the control. [1]

Markscheme

0.3 / 100 % increase / doubling ✔

Do not penalize errors in significant figures. For example, 0.34 would be acceptable.

(f ) Based on the data, evaluate the evidence for leptin promoting regeneration of liver
tissue. [3]

Markscheme

a. mitotic index in treatment greater than in control/leptin appears to promote mitosis ✔

b. mitotic index increases with time suggests ongoing regeneration/growth


OR
positive correlation between exposure to leptin and increased mitotic index ✔

c. but experiment limited to 72 hours/regeneration/recovery may take longer than 72 hours ✔


d. no error bars shown/no information on significance/sample size ✔

Acknowledge WTTE.

(g) Outline the role of leptin in appetite control. [1]

Markscheme

a. acts on receptors in the hypothalamus/appetite centre ✔

b. inhibits appetite ✔

Accept WTTE for mpb.


13. [Maximum mark: 15] 21M.2.SL.TZ2.1
Honeybees (Apis mellifera) are key pollinators in most ecosystems. The worldwide use of neonicotinoid
pesticides has caused concern because they may be contributing to the decline of honeybee
populations.

Scientists measured the concentration of five neonicotinoids (acetamiprid, clothianidin,


imidacloprid, thiacloprid and thiamethoxam) in honey samples from 198 different locations across
the world. Each pie chart shows the relative frequency of neonicotinoids in honey samples from a
continent.

[Source: Republished with permission of American Association for the Advancement of Science,
from A worldwide survey of neonicotinoids in honey, Mitchell, E.A., et al., Science, Volume 358, Issue
6359, 2017. Permission conveyed through Copyright Clearance Center, Inc.
https://science.sciencemag.org/content/358/6359/109.full.]

(a) Identify in which continent the fewest types of neonicotinoid were detected in
honey samples. [1]

Markscheme

Oceania ✔

(b) Using the data, outline the different use of thiamethoxam in North and South
America.
[1]

Markscheme

thiamethoxam is the most used in North America (but not in South America) / CONVERSE
OR
in South America they use different neonicotinoids to thiamethoxam ✔

OWTTE.

Allow numerical comparison.

The neonicotinoids can be used alone or together with other neonicotinoids. The percentage of
honey samples with 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5 different neonicotinoids in each continent are shown in the
stacked bar chart.

[Source: Republished with permission of American Association for the Advancement of Science,
from A worldwide survey of neonicotinoids in honey, Mitchell, E.A., et al., Science, Volume 358, Issue
6359, 2017. Permission conveyed through Copyright Clearance Center, Inc.
https://science.sciencemag.org/content/358/6359/109.full.]

(c) Identify the total percentage of honey samples contaminated with neonicotinoid
pesticides in the continent with the lowest overall levels of contamination.

............% [1]
Markscheme

57 (%) ✔

Allow range 56 % to 58 %.

In order to grow, honeybee larvae are fed royal jelly, a high energy food with very high
acetylcholine concentrations.

In an experiment, larvae were bred artificially on a diet with reduced acetylcholine content in the
royal jelly. The graph shows the mean survival rate of these larvae compared to control larvae fed on
a normal diet.

[Source: Wessler I, Gärtner H-A, Michel-Schmidt R, Brochhausen C, Schmitz L, Anspach L, et al. (2016)
Honeybees Produce Millimolar Concentrations of Non-Neuronal Acetylcholine for Breeding:
Possible Adverse Effects of Neonicotinoids. PLOS ONE 11(6):e0156886.
doi:10.1371/journal.pone.0156886 Copyright: © 2016 Wessler et al. This is an open access article
distributed under the terms of the Creative Commons Attribution License
(https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/4.0/), which permits unrestricted use, distribution, and
reproduction in any medium, provided the original author and source are credited.]

(d) Deduce the conclusions that can be drawn from the data in the graph. [2]

Markscheme

a. reduced acetylcholine does not affect larval survival in the first two days ✔

b. reduced acetylcholine causes increased mortality from day 3 onwards ✔


c. 90 % versus 40 % survival/other valid numerical comparison by day 5
OR
(much) greater decrease in survival occurs between days 4 and 5/by day 5 for the reduced
group ✔

Do not accept answers without times/ days.

(e) Suggest a reason for the effect of a diet reduced in acetylcholine on the larval
survival rate. [1]

Markscheme

(larvae lacking acetylcholine/with reduced AcH cannot survive because) acetylcholine is a


neurotransmitter taking message from one neuron to another in synapses of nervous tissues
OR
messages would not pass from one neuron to the other
OR
(larvae) unable to synthesise/produce AcH, so need it from their diet ✔

OWTTE.

The concentration of acetylcholine was measured in royal jelly produced by honeybees that had
never been exposed to neonicotinoids (control) and honeybees that had been exposed for three
weeks to two neonicotinoids; clothianidin and thiacloprid.

Wessler I, Gärtner H-A, Michel-Schmidt R, Brochhausen C, Schmitz L, Anspach L, et al. (2016)


Honeybees Produce Millimolar Concentrations of Non-Neuronal Acetylcholine for Breeding:
Possible Adverse Effects of Neonicotinoids. PLOS ONE 11(6):e0156886.
doi:10.1371/journal.pone.0156886 Copyright: © 2016 Wessler et al. This is an open access article
distributed under the terms of the Creative Commons Attribution License
(https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by/4.0/), which permits unrestricted use, distribution, and
reproduction in any medium, provided the original author and source are credited.
(f ) Compare and contrast the effect of clothianidin and thiacloprid treatments on the
concentration of acetylcholine in royal jelly. [2]

Markscheme

a. both neonicotinoids reduce the concentration of acetylcholine in royal jelly (compared to


control) ✔

b. clothianidin reduces the concentration of acetylcholine in royal jelly more than thiacloprid
(but perhaps not statistically different) ✔

c. clothianidin is used in smaller concentrations (than thiacloprid) so no firm conclusion can be


obtained ✔

Need one similarity and one difference.

(g) Explain how neonicotinoids affect synaptic transmission in insects. [3]

Markscheme

a. neonicotinoids bind to the (acetylcholine) receptor (in insects) ✔

b. (binding happens) in (cholinergic) synapses/at motor end plate/between motor neuron and
muscles ✔

c. neonicotinoids bind irreversibly (to receptors)


OR
(receptors are blocked so) acetylcholine is unable to bind ✔

d. acetylcholinesterase/enzymes cannot break down neonicotinoids ✔

e. (synaptic) transmission prevented ✔

f. (causing) insect paralysis/death ✔

(h) Companies that manufacture neonicotinoid pesticides have argued that they do
not cause significant harm to honeybees. Construct an argument, based on the data
in this question, for serious concern about the manufacture and use of
neonicotinoid pesticides. [4]

Markscheme
a. neonicotinoids are used in every continent ✔

b. the choice of specific neonicotinoid varies considerably around the world ✔

c. neonicotinoids contaminate honey (so must get into honeybees) ✔

d. only a minority of honey samples from around the world contain no neonicotinoids ✔

e. neonicotinoids reduce the acetylcholine (content of royal jelly)


OR
only a small amount of clothianidin can reduce acetylcholine in royal jelly ✔

f. survival of honeybee larvae is lower if the acetylcholine is lower/content of royal jelly is


reduced ✔
14. [Maximum mark: 6] 20N.2.SL.TZ0.3
(a) Outline how the amphipathic properties of phospholipids play a role in membrane
structure. [2]

Markscheme

a. part hydrophobic/not attracted to water/non-polar AND part hydrophilic/attracted to


water/polar; Both needed.

b. bilayer formed (formed naturally by phospholipids in water);

c. hydrophilic heads/parts face outwards AND hydrophobic tails/parts face inwards;

Do not allow water loving/hating in mpa or mpc.

The diagram shows part of two neurons.

[Source: © International Baccalaureate Organization 2020.]

(b.i) State the name of the structure shown. [1]

Markscheme

synapse/synaptic

(b.ii) X indicates the movement of a structure in the neuron. Explain what events trigger
this movement and what happens next. [3]

Markscheme
a. depolarization of pre-synaptic membrane / action potential/nerve impulse arrives;

b. uptake of calcium / calcium ions diffuse in / calcium channels open;

c. structures containing neurotransmitter/vesicles move to/fuse with membrane;

d. neurotransmitter/acetylcholine released by exocytosis into cleft/binds to postsynaptic


membrane/receptors;
15. [Maximum mark: 12] 20N.2.SL.TZ0.1
A study was conducted to look at the short-term effects of a change in diet on the risk of disease in
young adults. The table shows data on the habitual diet of the participants as well as the study diet
followed for two weeks.

[Source: Horowitz, J.F., Ortega, J.F., Hinko, A., Li, M., Nelson, R.K. and Mora-Rodriguez, R.,
2018. Changes in markers for cardio-metabolic disease risk after only 1-2 weeks of a high saturated
fat diet in
overweight adults. PLoS ONE, 13(6), e0198372.]

(a) Comment on the total energy content of the two diets. [1]

Markscheme

a. energy is not changed (between the two diets);

b. study diet slightly lower in energy than habitual diet (but means/SD overlap);

c. spread of values show more variation for habitual diet / higher SD in habitual;

(b) Distinguish between the two diets. [2]

Markscheme

a. they differ in percent of saturated and unsaturated fats (but not total fat);

b. percent of saturated fats is higher in study diet / lower in habitual diet;

c. (mono/poly) unsaturated fats decreased in study diet compared to habitual diet/more in


habitual diet
OR
polyunsaturated fats in study diet only half of what they were in habitual diet;
d. (slightly) less carbohydrate in study;

Allow numerical points if they are a valid comparison using distinguishing terms.

Total blood plasma cholesterol levels were measured before the study began and once a week after
starting the study diet. Mean results are shown in the bar chart, including the standard deviation.

[Source: Horowitz, J.F., Ortega, J.F., Hinko, A., Li, M., Nelson, R.K. and Mora-Rodriguez, R.,
2018. Changes in markers for cardio-metabolic disease risk after only 1-2 weeks of a high saturated
fat diet in
overweight adults. PLoS ONE, 13(6), e0198372.]

(c) Calculate, showing your working, the percentage change in mean cholesterol level
after one week on the study diet.

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .% [2]

Markscheme

((165–150) ÷ 150) × 100;

(=) 10 (%);

Allow up to 167 = 11.3 %


1 mark for correct working if above 167.

Control of blood glucose concentration was investigated using an oral glucose tolerance test. For
this test, the person was given a concentrated glucose drink (at time zero) and then blood samples
were taken every 15 minutes to determine the plasma insulin level. This test was done before the
study diet and after two weeks on the study diet. Mean results are shown in the graph, including the
standard deviation.

[Source: Horowitz, J.F., Ortega, J.F., Hinko, A., Li, M., Nelson, R.K. and Mora-Rodriguez, R.,
2018. Changes in markers for cardio-metabolic disease risk after only 1-2 weeks of a high saturated
fat diet in
overweight adults. PLoS ONE, 13(6), e0198372.]

(d.i) Compare the data for plasma insulin levels before and after the study diet. [2]

Markscheme

a. both show same pattern of rise, level and then decrease / show same trend;

b. both show same/similar levels of insulin (at all times) due to overlapping error bars;

c. both rise for 30/45 minutes;

Do not give credit for contrasts.

(d.ii) State which cells secrete insulin. [1]

Markscheme

β cells of pancreas/islets (of Langerhans);


(d.iii) Outline the reason for plasma insulin levels changing in the first 30 minutes of the
test. [1]

Markscheme

as blood glucose rises, insulin rises/increases to reduce the level/OWTTE;

Blood glucose must be mentioned as well as a rise in insulin.

(e) The hypothesis made before the study was that saturated fats in the diet affected
the risk of coronary artery blockage and diabetes. Using all the data in question 1,
evaluate whether this hypothesis is supported by the study. [3]

Markscheme

Hypothesis is partially supported


a. Increased saturated fats in study diet resulted in increase in cholesterol levels;

b. cholesterol level is risk for blockage of coronary arteries;

Hypothesis is not supported


c. high insulin levels are sign of (Type II) diabetes;

d. insulin levels were the same in both diets so no increased risk;

e. study only 2 weeks long;


16. [Maximum mark: 8] 20N.2.SL.TZ0.2
The photomicrograph below shows the protozoan Paramecium caudatum.

[Source: Deuterostome, CC BY-SA 3.0


https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0, via Wikimedia Commons.]

(a.i) State the genus of this organism. [1]

Markscheme

Paramecium

(a.ii) State the domain in which it is classified. [1]

Markscheme

eukaryotes

(b) Outline the method of nutrition carried out by P. caudatum. [1]

Markscheme

heterotroph/consumer as it feeds on bacteria/algae/yeast/smaller single celled organisms


OR
heterotroph/consumer as it does not have chloroplasts
Heterotrophic must be qualified.

(c) Outline one aspect of how P. caudatum carries out homeostasis. [2]

Markscheme

a. lives in fresh water so water enters cell (by osmosis);

b. contractile vacuoles collect and expel water;

c. homeostasis is keeping internal conditions within limit/constant / involves


osmoregulation/regulating water content/potential;

(d) Apart from the ribosomes, explain the evidence for the endosymbiotic theory of the
origin of eukaryotic cells. [3]

Markscheme

a. mitochondria/chloroplasts show features in common with prokaryotes/similar size;

b. multiply by binary fission/in same manner;

c. have naked loop of DNA/circular DNA/own DNA;

d. surrounded by a double membrane;


17. [Maximum mark: 8] 19M.2.SL.TZ1.3
The diagram shows the human heart.

(a.i) On the diagram, label the aorta. [1]

Markscheme

both labelled clearly as in diagram ✔

[Source: BlueRingMedia/Shutterstock]

(a.ii) On the diagram, label the right atrium. [1]


Markscheme

both labelled clearly as in diagram ✔

[Source: BlueRingMedia/Shutterstock]

(b) Explain how valves control the flow of blood through the heart. [2]

Markscheme

a. valves open and close in response to changes in blood pressure/heart contraction/pumping


b. valve prevents backflow/maintains direction of blood flow ✔

c. valves allow heart chambers to fill/to empty ✔

(c) Outline the causes and consequences of blood clot formation in coronary arteries. [2]

Markscheme

a. coronary heart disease/CHD/coronary artery disease/CAD occurs when there is reduction of


oxygen to the heart muscle ✔

b. high ratio of LDL to HDL/fatty diet leads to plaque formation in arteries ✔

c. plaque breaks off causing damage that activates blood clot formation ✔

d. clots «in the bloodstream» may block a coronary artery/coronary thrombosis reducing blood
flow/oxygen
OR
clots can cause heart attack/muscle death ✔

e. sickle cell anemia «crisis» produces blood clots «that can cause coronary/arterial blockage» ✔

(d) Outline the role of lymphocytes in defence against disease. [2]

Markscheme

a. produce antibodies ✔

b. memory cells confer immunity ✔

c. specific immunity results from production of antibodies specific to a particular antigen ✔

d. recognize pathogens ✔

e. destroy foreign cells/cancer cells ✔


18. [Maximum mark: 5] 19M.2.SL.TZ1.4
The diagram shows the structure of an alveolus and an adjacent capillary.

[Source: © International Baccalaureate Organization 2019]

(a) Outline the functions of type I and type II pneumocytes. [2]

Markscheme

type I:

a. carry out gas exchange


OR
diffusion of gases/CO2/O2 ✔

type II:

b. secrete fluid/surfactant ✔

(b) Explain how gases are exchanged between the air in the alveolus and the blood in
the capillaries.
[3]

Markscheme

a. O2 concentration in alveolar air greater than in capillary/blood «prior to gas exchange»


OR
hemoglobin in blood binds oxygen maintaining the concentration gradient ✔

b. O2 gas dissolves in water lining the alveolus ✔

c. O2 diffuses through wall of alveolus and capillary into blood ✔

d. CO2 concentration in blood greater than in alveolar air «prior to gas exchange» ✔

e. CO2 diffuses through wall of capillary and alveolus into alveolar airspace ✔
19. [Maximum mark: 12] 19M.2.SL.TZ1.1
Ebola virus disease (EVD) is the disease in humans and other primates that is caused by the Ebola
virus. Fruit bats are the reservoir for the virus and are able to spread the disease without being
affected. Humans can become infected by contact with fruit bats or with people infected by the
virus, their body fluids or equipment used to treat them.

The table shows data for four African countries that were affected by the 2014–2015 Ebola outbreak.

[Source: adapted with permission, from Ebola Situation Report, figure 1,


http://apps.who.int/ebola/current-situation/ebolasituation-
report-2-march-2016, March 2016, and from Successful treatment of advanced Ebola virus infection
with T-705
(favipiravir) in a small animal model, Oestereich, L. et al, 2014, under CC BY 3.0]

(a.i) Identify the country with the largest number of Ebola cases. [1]

Markscheme

Sierra Leone ✔

(a.ii) Identify the country with the largest number of deaths. [1]

Markscheme

Liberia ✔

(b) Analysis of the data suggests that the number of deaths from EVD is not related to
the total population size. State one piece of evidence from the data that would
support this analysis. [1]

Markscheme
country with biggest population/Mali has lowest number of deaths
OR
country with smallest population/Liberia has biggest number of deaths ✔

OWTTE

(c) Based on the mode of transmission of the Ebola virus, suggest a possible reason for
the relationship between population density and the number of Ebola cases in
these four countries. [1]

Markscheme

greater density means more frequent contact with infected people/animals ✔

Need both greater density and frequency of contact

The graphs show the progress of the EVD epidemic in Guinea and Liberia for the period April 2014 to
May 2015.

[Source: Ebola Situation Report 2 March 2016 and data from International Journal of Infectious Diseases, 38,
Ligui Wang et al, Epidemiological features and trends of Ebola virus disease in West Africa, 52-53.,
Copyright 2015, with permission from Elsevier]

(d) Based on the data, compare and contrast the progress of the epidemic in Liberia
and Guinea. [3]
Markscheme

a. overall pattern similar in both/both show a rise and a fall in the infections ✔

b. both countries show an increase during 2014


OR
neither country shows an increase in 2015 ✔

c. both show a sudden drop at one point


OR
sudden drop earlier «Oct–Nov 14» in Liberia than in Guinea «Dec 14, Jan 15» ✔

d. Guinea fluctuates whereas Liberia rises to a peak and then decreases/no fluctuations ✔

e. epidemic starts earlier «in April 14» in Guinea than in Liberia «in June 14» ✔

f. epidemic peaks earlier «Sept 14» in Liberia than in Guinea «Dec 14» ✔

g. epidemic lasts longer in Guinea than it does in Liberia


OR
last case recorded in Liberia Feb 15 while cases continue «at least» until May 15 in Guinea ✔

h. numbers of cases in Guinea generally lower than in Liberia


OR
number of cases higher in Liberia than in Guinea ✔

(e) Suggest two possible reasons for the drop in the daily numbers of newly infected
cases after October 2014 in Liberia. [2]

Markscheme

a. improved medical care/support/supplies/equipment/training of staff/hygiene/distribution of


vaccine ✔

b. improved understanding of how to avoid infection «amongst public»/greater awareness in


society/better education✔

c. rise in number of deaths means fewer infectious individuals ✔

d. impact of disease control measures/control policies/quarantine/isolation ✔

e. drop in the number of fruit bats ✔

f. maybe seasonal changes/weather changes ✔


g. people may have left the area ✔

h. international aid arrives ✔

OWTTE

An antiviral drug, T-705, was tested in order to establish whether it has potential to treat EVD. The
graph shows the data from an in vitro trial of T-705 on cells that had been infected with Ebola virus
five days previously. Virus concentration and live cells are shown as percentage of the control.

[Source: Oestereich, Lisa & Rieger, Toni & Neumann, Melanie & Bernreuther, Christian & Lehmann,
Maria & Krasemann,
Susanne & Wurr, Stephanie & Emmerich, Petra & de Lamballerie, Xavier & Ölschläger, Stephan &
Günther, Stephan. (2014).
Evaluation of Antiviral Efficacy of Ribavirin, Arbidol, and T-705 (Favipiravir) in a Mouse Model for
Crimean-Congo
Hemorrhagic Fever. PLoS neglected tropical diseases. 8. e2804. 10.1371/journal.pntd.0002804.]

(f ) Based on these data, outline the evidence that T-705 has potential to be used as a
treatment for EVD. [2]

Markscheme

a. cells not killed/few cells killed «even at high concentrations» ✔

b. «T-705» effective/viruses reduced/viruses killed at 100 μM


OR
«T-705» very effective/viruses much reduced/nearly all viruses killed at 1000 μM ✔

c. virus concentration decreases as T-705 concentration increases ✔


d. drug has «high» potential for treatment «at high enough concentration» ✔

(g) District administrators combatting the 2014 Ebola epidemic in West Africa were
assisted by international organizations such as the World Health Organization, who
provided data on the progress of the epidemic. Suggest one other way in which
international organizations can assist with combatting an epidemic of Ebola. [1]

Markscheme

raise awareness/provide information for local population/supply health workers/equipment/


train local staff/share expertise/provide financial support/provide vaccine/travel ban alert to
affected country ✔
20. [Maximum mark: 14] 19M.2.SL.TZ2.1
Mice (Mus musculus) have various defence systems against predators such as foxes (Vulpus vulpus) or stoats
(Mustela erminea). The mice release specific alarm compounds when under threat that serve as danger
signals for other mice. Predators also release scents that the mice can detect.

In one study, mice were exposed to paper soaked in compounds taken from other mice, foxes or
stoats in a test chamber. The scientists then measured the reaction of three different groups of
neurons used in smelling: G1, G2 and G3, as shown in the diagram.

The percentage of G1, G2 and G3 neurons responding to the mouse, fox and stoat compounds, as
well as a control compound, are shown in the chart.

Percentage of response of neurons in mice

[Source: Julien Brechbühl, et al., (2013), PNAS, 110 (12), pages 4762–4767]

(a) State the percentage of G2 neurons in the mice that respond to the fox scent.
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .% [1]

Markscheme

10–25 «%» ✔

(b) Using evidence from the chart, identify, giving a reason, which group of neurons
responded most to the chemicals. [1]

Markscheme

G1 always respond more than 25% «except control», while G2 and G3 always respond 25% or
less ✔

G1 always responds more than G2 and G3/all of the others ✔

OWTTE

The scientists recorded the neural traces (action and resting potentials) of six G1 neurons exposed to
the compounds from the different animals. The horizontal bar beneath each trace corresponds to the
time of exposure to the test compound.

[Source: adapted from J Brechbühl, et al., (2013), PNAS, 110 (12), pages 4762–4767]
(c) State the name of the instrument used to make these traces. [1]

Markscheme

oscilloscope ✔

(d) Distinguish between the effects of the mouse alarm compound and the effects of
the control compound on the G1 neurons. [1]

Markscheme

mouse chemicals cause action potentials «in all six neurons» while control ones cause none
«remain in resting potential»/mouse chemicals cause greater responses ✔

OWTTE

(e) Compare and contrast the effects of the mouse alarm compound and stoat scent on
the G1 neurons. [2]

Markscheme

a. both chemicals cause action potentials


OR
both chemicals respond in the majority of/five/most neurons ✔

b. stoat scent causes a higher action potential/longer/bigger response than mouse alarm
compound «in each neuron»
OR
neuron 2 reacts strongly to the stoat scent but has a minimal/no response to the mouse alarm
compound ✔

(f ) Deduce whether there is a correlation between the neural traces and the
percentage of responding G1 neurons. [2]

Markscheme

a. there is a positive relationship/correlation between the size of neural traces and the
percentage of responding G1 neurons Accept vice versa
OR
the chemicals that cause stronger/higher neural traces also cause the greatest percentage of
responding G1 neurons ✔
b. fox and stoat scents have «approximately» the same/similar neural traces and the same
percentage of responding neurons/>75 % ✔

c. mouse alarm compounds cause smaller neural traces and smaller percentage of responding
neurons/25–75 % ✔

d. control chemicals have no response in both cases


OR
no percentage of «G1 neurons» response and no action potential «in neural traces» ✔

(g) The molecular structures of the mouse alarm compound and fox scent are very
similar. Suggest an evolutionary advantage for this chemical similarity. [1]

Markscheme

the mice would have the same response to another mouse’s danger signal as to the actual
presence of the predator/fox
OR
adaptation to fool predator by producing a scent similar to predator’s own scent
OR
allows a group response to a predator/fox/danger when just one mouse detects the danger ✔

Accept any other feasible answer.

Another study was carried out on the defence systems in aphids (Myzus persicae) which feed on thale
cress plants (Arabidopsis thaliana). Individual aphids release an alarm compound containing the chemical
(E)-β-farnesene (EBF) when attacked by a predator. Other aphids are repelled and leave the thale
cress plant or hide.

The gene for EBF was inserted to produce transgenic (T) thale cress plants to test aphid reaction to
EBF over several generations. Aphids were raised on wild type (W) thale cress and then allowed to
feed for three generations on either W or T thale cress. Aphids were tested in each generation for
their reaction when EBF was added to a choice chamber. The percentages of aphids attracted to or
repelled by EBF and those which made no choice were recorded.
[Source: M De Vos, et al., (2010), PNAS, 107 (33), pages 14673–14678]
(h) Identify, with a reason, the aphids that were most strongly repelled by EBF. [1]

Markscheme

the aphids that were fed on wild-type thale cress/W as they had 80 % «or more» repelled each
generation/ always had the higher % response
OR
the aphids that fed on wild-type thale cress plants/W of G3 as they had «about» 85 %
repelled/had the higher % response ✔

Answer should refer to a percentage.

(i) Outline the conclusions that can be drawn from the data in the graph for the group
of aphids fed for three generations on transgenic thale cress plants (T). [2]

Markscheme
a. «over the generations» fewer are repelled by EBF ✔

b. «over the generations» more are attracted to EBF ✔

c. by G3 a «slight» increase in no choice ✔

d. aphids respond less to EBF/alarm compound if they feed on plants that produce it/exposed
to it constantly ✔

e. mutant aphids with attraction to transgenic plants can arise from aphids with no attraction or
repulsion to transgenic plants
OR
aphids with no attraction or repulsion to transgenic plants may produce new type of aphids
with attraction to transgenic plants ✔

(j) Discuss whether natural selection would favour the transgenic EBF-producing
thale cress plants if they were released into the wild. [2]

Markscheme

a. mutant aphids/varieties may be indifferent to/attracted to transgenic plants as these do not


present a hazard «not favour» ✔

b. initially/for limited time the plants would thrive as the aphids would be «largely»repelled
and thus not eat the plants «so natural selection would favour them» ✔

c. over time/in a few generations, the aphids population become more resistant/more
attracted/less repelled to EBF and return to feed on the plants so long-term benefit very limited
«so natural selection would not favour them» ✔

d. the aphids resistant to EBF would not respond to other aphid alarms and «likely»be more
readily eaten by predators «so the long-term benefit to plants could be supported by natural
selection» ✔

The answers must indicate whether natural selection would support or not for each statement.
21. [Maximum mark: 13] 18N.2.SL.TZ0.1
Trends in tobacco smoking and mortality due to lung cancer were measured in male and female
smokers aged 35 to 59 living in the United Kingdom from 1950 to 2000. The first graph represents the
proportion of smokers in the population. The second graph represents the mortality rate (deaths per
year per 100 000 people) from lung cancer.

(a) Calculate the change in the percentage of the male population that smoked from
1950 to 2000.
[1]

Markscheme

«−» 44 «%» ✔

Allow answers in the range of 43 «%» to 45 «%»

(b) Compare and contrast the trends in smoking behaviour between males and
females between 1950 and 2000. [2]

Markscheme

Similarity:

a. both show an overall decrease


OR
both decrease after 1970 ✔

Difference:

b. proportion of male smokers is always higher than female


OR
men decrease more
OR
women first increase «till 1970» and then decrease whereas men decrease throughout
OR
males highest value in 1950 and females in 1970 ✔

There should be one similarity and one difference

(c) Evaluate the evidence provided by the data in the graphs for smoking as a cause of
lung cancer. [3]

Markscheme

a. more smoking leads to more deaths


OR
there is a correlation between smoking and deaths from lung cancer ✔

b. «nevertheless» male mortality peaks in 1960 when declining numbers of smoking ✔

c. cancer takes time to develop causing delay between changes in smoking and cancer ✔

d. correlation does not prove causation ✔

e. the data shows deaths from lung cancer, not incidence ✔

The incidence of lung cancer in 75-year-old males was studied comparing current smokers, former
smokers and non-smokers.

(d) Describe the relationship between the incidence of lung cancer and stopping
smoking. [2]

Markscheme

a. highest incidence with continual smoking ✔

b. negative correlation/incidence decreases with length of time not smoking ✔

c. decrease «in incidence» occurs at less than 10 years since stopping smoking ✔

d. after 30 years incidence is not much more than non-smokers ✔


(e) Explain evidence from the data in the table that could be used to persuade a
smoker to give up smoking. [2]

Markscheme

a. incidence of lung cancer decreases the earlier the smoker gives up smoking ✔

b. continuing smoking increases incidence of lung cancer ✔

c. after 30 years of not smoking the risk of lung cancer is low/similar to non-smokers ✔

Accept vice versa

(f ) Among 75-year-old lifelong non-smokers the percentage incidence of lung cancer


was 0.01 %. Suggest one possible cause of lung cancer in non-smokers. [1]

Markscheme

passive smoking/second hand smoke/exposure to radon/asbestos/pollution/smog/genetic


predisposition ✔

(g) State two respiratory diseases, other than lung cancer, caused by smoking.

[2]

Markscheme

a. emphysema ✔

b. bronchitis ✔

c. COPD ✔

d. asthma ✔

e. pneumonia ✔

Only mark first two


22. [Maximum mark: 7] 18N.2.SL.TZ0.4
(a) Label X and Y on the diagram of the heart.

[2]

Markscheme

X: pulmonary artery ✔

Y: left atrium ✔

Accept auricle

(b) Explain how the circulatory system is able to transport the blood under high
pressure from the heart to the rest of the body. [3]

Markscheme

a. contraction of ventricle creates high pressure ✔

b. blood at high pressure is carried out of the heart through arteries ✔

c. thick muscular walls of arteries resist pressure/prevent leaks ✔

d. elastic recoil of arterial walls helps to push blood ✔

e. narrow lumen of arteries maintain pressure ✔

Features require an explanation, a list is inadequate

(c) The heart responds quickly to physical activity. Describe how heart rate is
controlled to meet the increased circulatory demands.
[2]

Markscheme

a. nerve impulse from medulla/brain acts on heart/right atrium ✔

b. pacemaker/sinoatrial node/SAN increases/controls contraction of heart ✔

c. epinephrine/adrenaline «rapidly» increases heart rate ✔


23. [Maximum mark: 15] 18N.2.SL.TZ0.6
(a) Isolated communities in rural Finland, Hungary and some of the Scottish islands
have a high incidence of red-green colour blindness. Describe the inheritance of
red-green colour blindness. [3]

Markscheme

a. sex linked/gene is on the X chromosome ✔

b. allele «for red-green colour blindness» is recessive/colour blindness is recessive


trait/disorder ✔

c. heterozygous females are unaffected/carriers ✔

d. XB denotes normal allele and Xb denotes colour blindness allele ✔

e. more frequent in males because they only have one X chromosome ✔

f. 50 % chance of colour blindness in sons whose mother who is heterozygote/XB Xb ✔

Accept any other letter for the alleles.

Award mpb, mpc, mpd and mpf if these points are clearly made on a Punnett grid.

(b) The human hand is an example of adaptive radiation. Outline adaptive radiation. [5]

Markscheme

a. «happens in a group of species that» evolve from a common ancestor ✔

b. evolution «of a structure» in different ways ✔

c. for different functions ✔

d. common features remain «despite the differences» ✔

e. homologous structures are evidence «of adaptive radiation»

Must see “homologous” ✔

f. an example of adaptive radiation ✔

g. example of specific adaptation ✔


h. second description of a specific adaptation ✔

example 1:

f. pentadactyl limb

g. human hand is adapted for grasping/climbing/manipulation

h. front limb of mole is adapted for digging»

example 2:

f. «Darwin’s» finches’/birds’ beaks

g. nectar feeding has a long/thin beak

h. seed feeding has a short/stout beak

(c) Explain how the human body defends itself against pathogens. [7]

Markscheme

a. skin/mucous membranes primary/first defence against pathogens ✔

b. tears/mucus contain enzymes/lysozymes which destroy pathogens ✔

c. stomach/skin/some mucus produces acid which kills pathogens ✔

d. phagocytic white blood cells/phagocytes/macrophages ingest pathogens


OR
lysosomes in phagocytes/macrophages release enzymes that digest pathogens ✔

e. phagocytes/macrophages give non-specific immunity «to diseases» ✔

f. specific immunity provided by lymphocytes ✔

g. lymphocytes divide to produce clones «of plasma cells» ✔

h. plasma cells/lymphocytes produce antibodies ✔

i. antibodies are specific to a pathogen/antigen ✔

j. memory cells provide immunity against future attacks by same pathogen ✔

k. blood clotting/fibrin closes opening in the body so pathogens cannot enter✔


Accept leukocytes instead of white blood cells
24. [Maximum mark: 8] 18M.2.SL.TZ1.3
(a) Using the Punnett grid, explain how two parents can have children with any of the
different ABO blood groups.

[3]

Markscheme

a. correct gametes of one parent as IA AND i in header line/column


AND
correct gametes of other parent as IB AND i in header column/line

b. correct corresponding genotypes in inner squares as IAIB , IAi, IB i, ii

c. corresponding phenotypes of children identified as AB, A, B and O

d. ratio of phenotypes is 1:1:1:1 OWTTE

Allow ECF.

(b) Distinguish between the structure of arteries and the structure of veins. [3]

Markscheme
a. arteries have thicker (muscular) walls/layer/tunica (media)
OR
veins have thinner (muscular) walls/layer/tunica (media)

b. arteries have no valves


OR
veins have valves

c. arteries have thicker elastic layer


OR
veins have thinner elastic layer

d. arteries have a smaller lumen/bore


OR
veins have a larger lumen/bore

Accept answers presented in a table.

(c) Explain how cuts in the skin are sealed by blood clotting. [2]

Markscheme

a. clotting factors released from platelets

b. clotting process involves a cascade/series of reactions

c. produces thrombin

d. causes rapid conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin

e. fibrin makes a mesh to seal the wound OWTTE


25. [Maximum mark: 7] 18M.2.SL.TZ1.2
(a.i) Distinguish between the structure of amylose and the structure of amylopectin. [1]

Markscheme

amylose unbranched/helical while amylopectin branched / vice versa

(a.ii) Suggest the reason for cellulose passing undigested through the human gut. [1]

Markscheme

enzymes required to digest cellulose not present in the human gut OWTTE
OR
undigested cellulose provides bulk/fibre

(b) Draw an annotated diagram to show how a peptide bond is formed. [3]

Markscheme

a. correct structure of two amino acids

b. H2O lost

c. C from COOH of one links to N of NH2/NH3+ from the other

d. correct labelling of the peptide bond

e.g.
(c) State two structural features that differ between RNA and DNA. [2]

Markscheme

a. number of strands
OR
(usually) only one strand in RNA/two strands in DNA

b. base composition
OR
uracil only in RNA / thymine only in DNA

c. type of pentose
OR
ribose only in RNA / deoxyribose only in DNA
26. [Maximum mark: 12] 18M.2.SL.TZ2.1
Edible insects have been a part of traditional human diets in many countries. For example, crickets
are insects commonly eaten in Asia and Africa. Many studies have looked at the prospects of raising
insects on a commercial scale for direct human consumption as food or indirectly by feeding insects
to farm animals.

One factor to consider is which organisms are most efficient at converting the feed they eat into
animal protein that can be consumed. A study compared the percentage of mass that was edible in
two common farm animals and in crickets.

(a.i) Identify which organism has the highest percentage of edible mass. [1]

Markscheme

cricket

(a.ii) Calculate how much more feed is required by cattle than chickens to produce 1 kg
of live mass. [1]

Markscheme

25 − 4 = 21kg «more required for cattle»


Must state unit kg.

(a.iii) Identify which organism requires the least feed to produce 1 kg of edible mass. [1]

Markscheme

cricket

The yellow mealworm (Tenebrio molitor) is native to temperate regions of the world and has been
studied as a possible means of producing food in countries with that type of climate. The amino acid
content of yellow mealworms and cattle was analysed. The table shows the results for seven amino
acids that are required in the human diet.

(b.i) Distinguish between the amino acid contents of yellow mealworms and cattle. [1]

Markscheme

a. mealworms have more isoleucine/leucine/valine than cattle

b. cattle have more lysine/methionine/phenylalanine/threonine

c. the total proportion of these amino acids is «slightly» greater in cattle (188 to 176)

(b.ii) Predict, with a reason, whether the amino acid composition of yellow mealworms
or cattle is more suitable for a human diet. [1]

Markscheme
a. cattle as they are more closely related to humans

b. cattle as they are more likely to have proteins with a similar amino acid composition to
humans OWTTE.

c. cattle as they contain a «slightly» higher proportion of «essential» amino acids required in
human diet (188 to 176)

OWTTE

The environmental impact of producing protein from mealworms was compared with the impact of
producing traditional protein sources. The graphs show the greenhouse gas production (global
warming potential) and land use due to the production of 1 kg of protein from mealworms, chickens
and cattle.

(c) Outline the differences between the environmental impact of using mealworms
and traditional farm livestock for protein production. [2]

Markscheme
a. mealworms contribute much less to global warming than other traditional farm livestock for
protein production

b. mealworms require less land use than other traditional farm livestock for protein production

Accept converse or OWTTE.

(d) Birds and mammals maintain constant body temperature despite considerable
losses of body heat to the environment. In insects such as mealworms, body
temperature is variable and is often the same as the temperature of the
environment or only slightly above it. Analyse the data in the bar charts, using this
information. [2]

Markscheme

a. cell respiration required to generate heat (lost to environment) to maintain body


temperature

b. birds/chickens and mammals/cattle carry out cell respiration at higher rate than insects

c. «chickens/cattle therefore» generate more CO2 per kg protein produced

d. «chickens/cattle» need more food/land area to produce body mass

e. feed conversion ratios are lower in mealworms/insects/cold blooded animals as they do not
need to maintain a constant body temperature (accept converse)

(e) Using all the relevant data in this question, discuss the use of insects as a major food
source for humans. [3]

Markscheme

a. insects/crickets have the highest edible percentage

b. insects have the lowest feed conversion ratio/produce the most edible mass per kg of food
they eat

c. insects supply amino acids required in the human diet

d. insects cause less global warming/use less land area per kg of protein produced

e. in western countries, there is a disgust factor/cultural factors about eating insects which
would need to be overcome before they could be used as a significant food source
f. insects may supply less proportions/content of amino acids required in human diets
27. [Maximum mark: 14] 17N.2.SL.TZ0.01
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is characterized by progressive airflow limitation.
Classification of COPD as mild, moderate or severe is based on measurement of Forced Expiratory
Volume (FEV), which is the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled in one second.

The table shows the numbers of individuals in each COPD class and their mean FEV for a Swedish
study of 349 people.

[Source: Reproduced with permission of the © ERS 2012. European Respiratory Journal Apr 2012, 39
(4) 839–845; DOI: 10.1183/09031936.00064611]

(a) State the level of COPD that has the lowest FEV. [1]

Markscheme

Severe

(b) Explain how a low FEV can be used to indicate emphysema. [2]

Markscheme

a. low FEV indicates inability to force out air/adequate volume of air

OWTTE

b. airflow limitation is the reason for inability to force out air/shortness of breath

c. inability to force out air/shortness of breath indicates emphysema

d. emphysema causes/involves breakdown of alveoli walls «so less elastin»

The idea that there are fewer alveoli to “push”

[Max 2 Marks]
The elasticity and resilience of the lungs are mainly provided by the protein elastin. Degradation of
elastin produces peptides called desmosines.

Desmosines in urine or blood plasma have been proposed as biomarkers of lung degradation. The
relationship between urine desmosines, plasma desmosines and COPD severity in patients was
assessed.

[Source: Reproduced with permission of the © ERS 2012. European Respiratory Journal Apr 2012, 39
(4) 839–845; DOI: 10.1183/09031936.00064611]

(c) State the disease severity group that has the highest range of plasma desmosines. [1]

Markscheme

No disease

(d) Evaluate which of the two biomarkers would be the most useful indicator of COPD
severity. [2]

Markscheme

a. plasma desmosines

b. neither is very good due to large overlaps of ranges

OWTTE

OR

the range of data for each category is less for plasma desmosines

OR
data are more reliable

c. the level of plasma desmosines increases with disease severity

d. easier/less invasive to take urine sample rather than a plasma sample

[Max 2 Marks]

(e) Elastin is also an important component of other tissues such as arteries and
ligaments. Evaluate how these other sources of elastin could affect the
interpretation of the biomarker as an indicator of COPD. [2]

Markscheme

a. degradation of elastin from other tissues may have contributed to the results

b. there is no guarantee that the concentrations of desmosines measured came from the lungs

OR

difficult to assess how much lung elastin constitutes the total

c. overlapping ranges makes interpretation difficult

[Max 2 Marks]

The graph shows the relationship between the diffusion capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide
(CO) and urine desmosines.
[Source: Reproduced with permission of the © ERS 2012. European Respiratory Journal Apr 2012, 39
(4) 839–845; DOI: 10.1183/09031936.00064611]
(f ) State the relationship between diffusion capacity and urine desmosines. [1]

Markscheme

inversely correlated

OR

negative correlation

OR

the higher the «urine» desmosine concentration, the lower the diffusion «rate»

(g) Other studies on pulmonary diseases have shown a wide variety of results. Apart
from age, sex and severity of COPD, list two other factors that may explain the
inconsistent results between studies. [2]

Markscheme

a. «small» sample size

OR

only studied in one country

b. methods used

c. environment/pollution/workplace exposure

d. race/genetic factors

e. health status/fitness/BMI of volunteers

[Max 2 Marks]

(h) Discuss whether measurements of desmosine concentration would be useful for


monitoring changes in the health of a patient. [3]

Markscheme

a. positive correlation with COPD severity «as seen in the table»


OR

negative correlation with «CO» diffusion capacity «as seen in the graph»

b. not directly proportional/other factors affect it

c. «but» if other factors stay the same in a patient it could be an effective indicator of change

d. because the ranges are high, only change in an individual is useful

e. the measurements may be more useful for one gender than the other as differences seen in
the graph

[Max 3 Marks]
28. [Maximum mark: 14] 17N.2.SL.TZ0.01
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is characterized by progressive airflow limitation.
Classification of COPD as mild, moderate or severe is based on measurement of Forced Expiratory
Volume (FEV), which is the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled in one second.

The table shows the numbers of individuals in each COPD class and their mean FEV for a Swedish
study of 349 people.

[Source: Reproduced with permission of the © ERS 2012. European Respiratory Journal Apr 2012, 39
(4) 839–845; DOI: 10.1183/09031936.00064611]

(a) State the level of COPD that has the lowest FEV. [1]

Markscheme

Severe

(b) Explain how a low FEV can be used to indicate emphysema. [2]

Markscheme

a. low FEV indicates inability to force out air/adequate volume of air

OWTTE

b. airflow limitation is the reason for inability to force out air/shortness of breath

c. inability to force out air/shortness of breath indicates emphysema

d. emphysema causes/involves breakdown of alveoli walls «so less elastin»

The idea that there are fewer alveoli to “push”

[Max 2 Marks]
The elasticity and resilience of the lungs are mainly provided by the protein elastin. Degradation of
elastin produces peptides called desmosines.

Desmosines in urine or blood plasma have been proposed as biomarkers of lung degradation. The
relationship between urine desmosines, plasma desmosines and COPD severity in patients was
assessed.

[Source: Reproduced with permission of the © ERS 2012. European Respiratory Journal Apr 2012, 39
(4) 839–845; DOI: 10.1183/09031936.00064611]

(c) State the disease severity group that has the highest range of plasma desmosines. [1]

Markscheme

No disease

(d) Evaluate which of the two biomarkers would be the most useful indicator of COPD
severity. [2]

Markscheme

a. plasma desmosines

b. neither is very good due to large overlaps of ranges

OWTTE

OR

the range of data for each category is less for plasma desmosines

OR
data are more reliable

c. the level of plasma desmosines increases with disease severity

d. easier/less invasive to take urine sample rather than a plasma sample

[Max 2 Marks]

(e) Elastin is also an important component of other tissues such as arteries and
ligaments. Evaluate how these other sources of elastin could affect the
interpretation of the biomarker as an indicator of COPD. [2]

Markscheme

a. degradation of elastin from other tissues may have contributed to the results

b. there is no guarantee that the concentrations of desmosines measured came from the lungs

OR

difficult to assess how much lung elastin constitutes the total

c. overlapping ranges makes interpretation difficult

[Max 2 Marks]

The graph shows the relationship between the diffusion capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide
(CO) and urine desmosines.
[Source: Reproduced with permission of the © ERS 2012. European Respiratory Journal Apr 2012, 39
(4) 839–845; DOI: 10.1183/09031936.00064611]
(f ) State the relationship between diffusion capacity and urine desmosines. [1]

Markscheme

inversely correlated

OR

negative correlation

OR

the higher the «urine» desmosine concentration, the lower the diffusion «rate»

(g) Other studies on pulmonary diseases have shown a wide variety of results. Apart
from age, sex and severity of COPD, list two other factors that may explain the
inconsistent results between studies. [2]

Markscheme

a. «small» sample size

OR

only studied in one country

b. methods used

c. environment/pollution/workplace exposure

d. race/genetic factors

e. health status/fitness/BMI of volunteers

[Max 2 Marks]

(h) Discuss whether measurements of desmosine concentration would be useful for


monitoring changes in the health of a patient. [3]

Markscheme

a. positive correlation with COPD severity «as seen in the table»


OR

negative correlation with «CO» diffusion capacity «as seen in the graph»

b. not directly proportional/other factors affect it

c. «but» if other factors stay the same in a patient it could be an effective indicator of change

d. because the ranges are high, only change in an individual is useful

e. the measurements may be more useful for one gender than the other as differences seen in
the graph

[Max 3 Marks]
29. [Maximum mark: 4] 17N.2.SL.TZ0.02
The figure shows a transmission electron micrograph of rotavirus particles. Each rotavirus is about 70
nanometres in diameter.

[Source: CDC / Dr. Erskine L. Palmer]

(a) State a reason for using an electron microscope to view this virus rather than a light
microscope. [1]

Markscheme

electron microscope has greater resolution/magnification

OR

70 nm is too small/viruses are too small to be viewed by a light microscope

(b) Rotavirus causes diarrhea and vomiting. Explain why viral diseases cannot be
treated using antibiotics. [2]

Markscheme

a. viruses are not living

b. viruses lack metabolism/lack enzymes «for metabolism»/lack cell walls

c. antibiotics target metabolic «pathways»/cell wall production

[Max 2 Marks]

(c) State an application of plasmids in biotechnology. [1]


Markscheme

transfer/vector of genetic material/genes/DNA fragments

OR

to produce insulin/useful protein


30. [Maximum mark: 7] 17N.2.SL.TZ0.05
(a) State one disaccharide and the two monomers from which it can be synthesized.

Disaccharide:

1:

Monomers:

1:

and 2:

[2]

Markscheme

a. disaccharide name

eg: lactose, glucose and galactose

b. both monomers that make up mpa

eg: maltose, glucose and glucose

eg: sucrose, glucose and fructose

(b) Discuss the roles of the enzymes secreted by the pancreas during digestion. [3]

Markscheme

a. amylase breaks down/catalyzes/hydrolyses starch to maltose

b. lipase breaks down/catalyzes/hydrolyses fats to fatty acids and glycerol

c. proteases/peptidases break down/catalyze/hydrolyze proteins into smaller


polypeptides/dipeptides/amino acids

Award [2] if all three enzymes and substrates named correctly and one further mark for all three products named
correctly.

Allow specific enzymes

(c) Compare and contrast cis-fatty acids and trans-fatty acids. [2]
Markscheme

a. both are unsaturated fatty acids

OR

both have two carbon atoms joined by a double bond

b. in cis-fatty acids the two H atoms are on the same side while in trans-fatty acids they are on
opposite sides

OR

cis-fatty acids are healthier than trans-fatty acids

OR

cis-fatty acids have a lower boiling/melting point than trans

OR

cis-fatty acids have a kink «in the chain» but trans do not

Accept answer in an annotated diagram


31. [Maximum mark: 15] 17N.2.SL.TZ0.06
Reproduction in eukaryotes can be sexual or asexual.

(a) Describe the origin of eukaryotic cells according to the endosymbiotic theory. [4]

Markscheme

a. mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar to prokaryotes

b. «host» cell took in another cell by endocytosis/by engulfing «in a vesicle»

Allow “taking in” in place of “engulfing”

c. but did not digest the cell/kept the «ingested» cell alive

OR

symbiotic/mutualistic relationship «between engulfed and host cell»

d. chloroplasts and mitochondria were once independent/free-living «organisms»

e. DNA «loop» in chloroplast/mitochondrion

f. division/binary fission of chloroplast/mitochondrion

g. double membrane around chloroplast/mitochondrion

h. 70s ribosomes «in chloroplast/mitochondrion»

Award up to [2] for evidence from mpe to mph

[Max 4 Marks]

(b) Explain how hormones are used to control the human menstrual cycle. [8]

Markscheme

a. FSH stimulates the development of follicles

b. follicles produce estrogen

c. estrogen stimulates the repair of the uterus lining

d. estrogen stimulates LH secretion

e. LH causes/stimulates ovulation
f. LH causes/stimulates the development of the corpus luteum

g. corpus luteum secretes progesterone

h. progesterone causes/stimulates thickening of the uterus lining

OR

prepares uterine lining for implantation

OR

maintains the endometrium

i. progesterone/estrogen inhibits the secretion of LH/FSH

j. falling progesterone levels at the end of the cycle allow FSH production/menstruation

k. negative/positive feedback «control» described correctly

l. LH/FSH are pituitary hormones

[Max 8 Marks]

(c) Outline natural methods of cloning in some eukaryotes. [3]

Markscheme

a. clones are genetically identical organisms

OR

group of cells derived from a single parent cell

b. asexual reproduction in plants such as tubers/runners/bulbs

Allow other verifiable examples of plants

c. common in non-vertebrates such as budding in hydra

Allow other verifiable examples of invertebrates

d. budding in yeast/fungi

Allow other verifiable examples of fungi

e. identical twins «in humans» are clones because they originate from
the same cell
32. [Maximum mark: 15] 22N.2.SL.TZ0.7
Humans ingest food which provides energy and nutrients to carry out life processes.

(a) Outline how starch in the diet is modified for absorption in humans. [3]

Markscheme

a. starch is broken down by the enzyme amylase;


b. (amylase) secreted by the pancreas/salivary glands;
c. acts in the duodenum/small intestine/mouth;
d. starch is broken down into monomers/maltose/glucose;
e. products of digestion are smaller/more soluble molecules for absorption

(b) Describe how the small intestine is adapted for efficient absorption of nutrients. [5]

Markscheme

a. small intestine is very long;


b. small intestine contains villi/microvilli;
c. the epithelial cells of villi have microvilli;
d. these increase the surface area for absorption;
e. the cells of the small intestine contain (a large number of ) mitochondria;
f. these provide energy for active transport;
g. the walls contain proteins for active transport/ facilitated diffusion;
h. the villi have a rich blood supply/ lacteals;
i. the walls of the villi are thin so less distance for diffusion;

(c) Blood transports nutrients to all tissues of the body. Explain the initiation of the
heartbeat and how blood flow is controlled in the heart. [7]

Markscheme

a. the contraction of the heart is myogenic / heart beat initiates within the heart tissue itself;
b. heart beat initiates in the sinoatrial node
OR
SA acts as a pacemaker;
c. the SA node is located in the right atrium;
d. electrical impulses pass over the atria then the ventricles;
e. nerves from the medulla can control the rate of heart beat/ blood flow;
f. epinephrine/adrenaline can increase the rate of the heart/blood flow;
g. contraction of heart/cardiac muscle causes blood to flow;
h. ventricles send blood to the organs/cells of the body;
i. the direction of flow is controlled by valves/valves prevent backflow
OR
when the heart/named chamber contracts the valves/named valve open;
j. AV valves prevent backflow from ventricles/into atria;
k. semilunar valves prevent blood returning/backflow to the heart/ventricles;
33. [Maximum mark: 15] 22M.2.SL.TZ1.6
(a) Outline reasons for the therapeutic use of stem cells. [3]

Markscheme

a. unspecialized/undifferentiated stem cells can divide / differentiate along different


pathways;
b. (stem cells are accessible as they) come from embryos/bone marrow/umbilical cord
blood/adult tissue;
c. (stem cells) can regenerate/repair diseased/damaged tissues in people;
d. valid specific example;
e. drugs can be tested on stem cells (in laboratories to see if they are harmful);

(b) Describe how leaf cells make use of light energy. [5]

Markscheme

a. leaf cells contain chloroplasts;


b. light is absorbed by chlorophyll (in chloroplasts);
c. other pigments absorb different wavelengths;
d. light energy is used in photosynthesis;
e. (light is needed) to combine water and carbon dioxide/fix carbon dioxide;
f. carbon compounds/organic compounds/glucose/starch/carbohydrate are produced;
g. blue and red light is absorbed;
h. perform photolysis
OR
split water molecules;

Wavelengths accepted for mpg.

(c) Explain how cells and cell components in the blood defend the body against
infectious disease. [7]

Markscheme

Platelets: [3 max]

a. damage/cuts to blood vessels causes platelets to be activated;


b. the platelets release clotting factors;
c. initiates cascade of reactions
OR
fibrinogen is converted to fibrin;
d. forms a mesh over the damaged area;
e. prevents pathogens from entering the body;

Phagocytes: [3 max]
f. phagocytes/phagocytic white blood cells in the blood travel to the site of infection;
g. (phagocytes) squeeze between the capillary cells;
h. (phagocytes) engulf/ingest/take in pathogens;
i. the pathogen is digested/broken down by/within the phagocyte;

Lymphocytes: [3 max]
j. lymphocytes recognize a particular fragment/antigen of a pathogen;
k. (lymphocytes) release antibodies;
l. (antibodies) provide specific immunity;
m. memory cells provide rapid response giving long-term immunity (to pathogens previously
recognized);
n. antibodies destroy pathogens;

ECF may be applied when candidates use white blood cells in place of specific terms.
34. [Maximum mark: 15] 22M.2.SL.TZ2.6
People with the inherited disease hemophilia have a deficiency in one of the proteins that act as
clotting factors in blood.

(a) Outline how a protein is made in a cell by the process of translation. [5]

Markscheme

a. translation occurs on ribosomes when proteins/polypeptides are synthesized;


b. amino acid sequence of a protein is determined by the mRNA;
c. mRNA is determined by the order of bases of DNA/order of bases sequence in a gene;
d. codons (of 3 bases) on mRNA correspond to one amino acid in a polypeptide;
e. codons are on mRNA and anticodons on tRNA;
f. mRNA binds to ribosome/(during initiation) small ribosomal subunit binds to the start of
the mRNA sequence;
g. tRNA transfers an amino acid to large ribosomal subunit/to the ribosome;
h. reference to start or stop codon;
i. tRNA moves to the next mRNA codon to continue the process, creating an amino acid
chain;
j. peptide bond formed between amino acids
k. translation/order of amino acids depends on complementary base pairing between
codons and anticodons;

(b) A family has a history of hemophilia that is caused by a sex-linked recessive allele. A
woman from this family is a carrier and marries a man who does not have the allele.
Showing your working, determine the probability of their children having the
disease. [3]

Markscheme

a. alleles clearly labelled for both parents (in a Punnett square or other format);
b. correct genotypes for all four possibilities for children;

c. phenotypes of the children: the sons would have a 50 % chance of having hemophilia and
the daughters would have 0 % chance of having hemophilia/50 % chance of being a
carrier;
Sex needs to be mentioned for mpc but info can be taken from the Punnett square.

(c) Explain how blood clotting occurs and the consequence for a person who has
hemophilia. [7]

Markscheme

Clotting process:

a. blood clotting seals cuts in the skin;


b. clotting factors are released (from platelets);
c. thrombin is activated;
d. a cascade reaction occurs (with thrombin);
e. (thrombin causes) fibrinogen is converted to fibrin;
f. fibrin forms a clot/blocks the cut/prevents blood from being lost;
Consequences of hemophilia:
g. if a person does not have enough clotting factors/hemophilia, the clot will not form;
h. pathogens can enter the body more easily;
i. (in hemophiliacs) blood will be lost from a cut which affects blood pressure/bleeding to
death;
j. loss of blood affects amount of hemoglobin/O2 carried around the body;
k. reference to lifestyle / menstrual/birth problems

e.g. surgery, contact sports


35. [Maximum mark: 15] 21N.2.SL.TZ0.5
Substances can move into and out of cells through the cell membrane.

(a) Outline the significance of surface area to volume ratio in the limitation of cell size. [4]

Markscheme

a. surface area of the cell affects the rate of material exchange;


b. when the cell increases in size, so does its chemical activity/metabolism;
c. (when the cell increases in size/grows) more substances need to be taken in / more waste
products need to be excreted;
d. as the volume of the cell increases, so does the surface area, however not to the same extent
OR
when the cell gets bigger, its surface area to volume ratio gets smaller;
e. substances will not be able enter the cell fast enough/cell volume will not be supplied

OR
metabolic rate will exceed the rate of exchange
OR
when the surface area: volume ratio is higher, the diffusion rate increases;
f. some cells have adaptations to increase their surface area/flatten/microvilli/shape of red
blood cells;
g. cells in growth areas tend to divide and remain small
OR
cells divide when maximum size is reached;

(b) Describe transport across cell membranes by osmosis. [4]

Markscheme

a. form of diffusion;
b. osmosis is the movement of water molecules;
c. (movement) across a selectively/semi/partially permeable membrane/cell membrane;
d. from a region of low solute concentration to a region of high solute concentration (until
equilibrium is reached)
OR
movement of water molecules from a high concentration of water to a low concentration of
water molecules;
e. it is a passive transport mechanism/does not use ATP;
f. channel proteins/aquaporins are used;
(c) Explain the adaptations of the small intestine to its function. [7]

Markscheme

a. small intestine is where nutrients are absorbed into the bloodstream;


b. very long to maximize absorption;
c. (the small intestine) is lined with (smooth) muscle to allow for the mixing/ and moving of
digested food;
d. muscles are circular and longitudinal;
e. that perform peristalsis;
f. the pancreas (and gall bladder) secretes substances into the small intestine to aid digestion;
g. contain villi, to increase surface area;
h. villi have microvilli to increase surface area even more;
i. villi absorb products of digestion/mineral ions/vitamins/glucose;
j. dense capillary network rapidly transports absorbed products;
k. lacteal absorbs lipids from the intestine (into the lymphatic system);
l. (most of the) chemical digestion (into monomers) occurs in small intestine/description of
specific enzyme action;

Accept annotated diagrams as part of the explanation.

[Source: © 1999–2022, Rice University. Except


where otherwise noted, textbooks on this site are
licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution 4.0
International License https://creativecommons.org/
licenses/by/4.0/. Image available at https://
openstax.org/books/anatomy-and-physiology/
pages/23-5-the-small-and-large-intestines?
query=villus&target=%7B%22type%22%3A%
22search%22%2C%22index%22%3A0%7D#fsid1272744]
36. [Maximum mark: 15] 21M.2.SL.TZ1.7
(a) Outline the process of inhalation. [4]

Markscheme

a. diaphragm contracts / moves downwards/flattens ✔

b. external intercostal muscles contract ✔

c. (muscle contraction) moves the rib cage upwards and outwards ✔

d. increases volume of the thorax / lungs ✔

e. difference in pressure/decreasing pressure causes air to flow into lungs / lungs inflate ✔

(b) Explain the process of gas exchange taking place in the alveoli. [7]

Markscheme

a. O2 diffuses into blood and CO2 diffuses out from blood ✔

b. blood entering the alveoli is high in CO2/low in O2 ✔


OR
air in alveolus is high in O2/low in CO2 ✔

c. diffusion (in either direction) take place due to concentration gradients ✔

d. concentration gradients maintained by ventilation/blood flow ✔

e. large surface area created by many alveoli/spherical shape of alveoli for more efficient
diffusion ✔

f. rich supply of capillaries (around alveoli) allows efficient exchange ✔

g. type I pneumocytes are thin to allow easy diffusion/short distances ✔

h. gases must dissolve in liquid lining of alveolus in order to be exchanged ✔

i. type II pneumocytes secrete surfactants to reduce surface tension/prevent lungs sticking


together ✔

j. type II pneumocytes create moist conditions in alveoli ✔

(c) Discuss the relationship between atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration and
global temperatures. [4]
Markscheme

a. greenhouse effect keeps Earth warm ✔

b. (over-time) earth’s temperature has fluctuated naturally ✔

c. changes in human activities have led to increases in CO2 concentration ✔

d. CO2 absorbs infrared/long wave radiation / trapping heat ✔

e. increase in atmospheric CO2 (concentration) correlates with/causes increased global average


temperature ✔

f. use of fossil fuels increases atmospheric CO2 ✔

g. deforestation removes a carbon sink / less CO2 absorbed ✔

h. loss of polar ice causes less reflection of surface light/ more reradiation as heat contributing
to (global) warming ✔

i. CO2 is not the only greenhouse gas/ there are other greenhouse gases ✔
37. [Maximum mark: 15] 21M.2.SL.TZ2.5
Pastry cream or confectioners’ custard is made with a combination of milk (rich in casein and
lactose), egg yolks, sugar, starch and a flavouring such as vanilla.

(a) Describe the structure of starch. [5]

Markscheme

a. starch is a carbohydrate ✔

b. starch is formed by carbon, hydrogen and oxygen ✔

c. it is a polymer/chain/polysaccharide ✔

d. formed from monosaccharides/simple sugars/glucose ✔

e. linked together by condensation/dehydration ✔

f. consists of amylose and amylopectin ✔

g. amylose is a long chain/unbranched ✔

h. amylopectin is branched ✔

(b) Explain how amino acids in casein could reach the liver, starting from the moment
when the person takes a bite of pastry cream pie. [7]

Markscheme

a. food is mechanically/physically digested in the mouth through mastication/chewing ✔

b. mixed with saliva (to form the bolus) in mouth ✔

c. moved through esophagus/peristalsis ✔

d. proteins digested in the stomach (pepsin) ✔

e. pancreas secretes enzymes into lumen of small intestine


OR
(endo)peptidases/trypsin) are secreted by pancreas ✔

f. enzymes digest macromolecules to monomers


OR
endopeptidases digest polypeptides to peptides/amino acids ✔

g. villi of small intestine absorb amino acids ✔ Allow pepsin.


h. amino acids carried to blood capillaries ✔

i. blood (capillaries) carry amino acids to (hepatic portal) vein/blood vessel going to liver ✔

j. amino acids absorbed by active transport/protein pumps in the villi ✔

(c) Congenital lactase deficiency is a type of lactose intolerance that occurs in infants.
It is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. Calculate the chance of congenital
lactose intolerance in a child whose parents are both carriers for the disorder,
showing fully how you reached your answer. [3]

Markscheme

a. gametes of both parents shown as a capital and small letter (e.g. L and l) ✔

b. possible F1 genotypes ✔

c. 25 % lactose intolerant, 50 % carriers, 25 % lactose tolerant


OR
75 % tolerant and 25 % intolerant
OR
child has 25 %/1:4/ 1

4
chances of inheritance of intolerance ✔
38. [Maximum mark: 15] 21M.2.SL.TZ2.6
Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

(a) Outline the structures in M. tuberculosis that are not present in a human cell. [3]

Markscheme

a. cell wall ✔

b. pili/flagella ✔

c. 70S ribosomes ✔

d. nucleoid / circular DNA


OR
naked DNA ✔

e. plasmids ✔

As candidates do not need to know the structure of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, all prokaryotic structures are accepted.

Ignore references to membrane bound organelles.

(b) Explain the production of antibodies when a patient is infected with the TB
bacterium. [7]

Markscheme

a. phagocytes/lymphocytes are white blood cells ✔

b. TB bacterium has a specific antigen ✔

c. this antigen is recognised by white blood cells ✔

d. a clone of lymphocytes/plasma cells/B cells are produced ✔

e. antibodies are produced by lymphocytes ✔

f. each lymphocyte produces just one type of antibody ✔

g. (this is) specific immunity ✔

h. (part of the) antibody/immunoglobulin binds to the antigen / specific antibody binds to the
specific antigen ✔

i. antibodies are proteins/immunoglobulins ✔


j. (some) plasma cells become memory cells ✔

k. memory cells reproduce quickly ✔

l. memory cells prevent infection in the future ✔

Allow annotated diagrams to explain the process.

(c) Describe the risk to the human population of indiscriminate use of antibiotics. [5]

Markscheme

a. antibiotics block bacterial processes ✔

b. example of bacterial process ✔ e.g. cell wall formation

c. variations exist naturally in a population / some are naturally resistant to the antibiotic ✔

d. bacteria that are not resistant to this antibiotic will die / only resistant will survive (when
antibiotic given) ✔

e. this characteristic could be passed to next generation ✔

f. (natural selection) leads to changes in the proportions/frequency in the population ✔

g. human population will be exposed to antibiotic resistant bacteria and will not have
antibiotic to kill them ✔

h. (antibiotic resistant bacteria) may pass resistance to other bacteria species/types by means of
plasmids (so other bacteria species turn resistant too) ✔
39. [Maximum mark: 15] 20N.2.SL.TZ0.6
According to the cell theory, living organisms are composed of cells.

(a) Draw the ultrastructure of a prokaryotic cell based on electron micrographs. [3]

Markscheme

a. cell wall;

b. plasma membrane; Clearly shown as a separate line under the cell wall or the inner line

c. cytoplasm AND 70S ribosomes; Do not allow (small) circles

d. nucleoid/naked DNA;

e. plasmid
OR
pili
OR
flagella/flagellum;

Structures correctly drawn and labelled.

Award [2 max] if any exclusively eukaryotic structures are shown.

Do not allow cilia as they are not found in prokaryotes.

(b) Outline what occurs in cells in the first division of meiosis. [5]

Markscheme

a. halves the chromosome number/produces haploid cells;

b. at start of meiosis each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids attached by a


centromere;

c. prophase (I): pairing of homologous chromosomes;

d. crossing over occurs;

e. chromosomes condense by supercoiling;

f. metaphase (I): pairs of homologous chromosomes/bivalents move to equator of spindle


OR
metaphase (I): orientation of pairs of homologous chromosomes (prior to separation) is
random;

g. anaphase (I): centromeres do not divide


OR
anaphase (I): spindle fibre pulls chromosome/whole centromere with two sister chromatids to
opposite poles;

h. telophase (I): arrival of centromere with sister chromatids at opposite poles;

Some of these can be awarded for correctly annotated diagrams.

No credit for events in meiosis II.

(c) Explain the role of cells in the defence against infectious disease. [7]

Markscheme

a. cells of skin provide a physical barrier/produce fatty acids/lactic acid/lysozyme which stops
entry of microbes
OR
mucous membranes produce mucus to trap pathogens
OR
stomach cells produce hydrochloric acid which kills microbes;

b. platelets start the clotting process preventing access of pathogens;

c. (two types of ) white blood cells fight infections in the body;

d. phagocytes ingest pathogens (by endocytosis/phagocytosis);

e. gives non-specific immunity to diseases / ingest any type of pathogen;

f. production of antibodies by lymphocytes/B cells;

g. in response to particular pathogens/antigens;

h. gives specific immunity;

i. lymphocyte/B cell makes only one type of antibody;

j. plasma cells produce large quantity of (one type of ) antibody;

k. some lymphocytes act/remain as memory cells;

l. can quickly reproduce to form a clone of plasma cells if a pathogen carrying a specific antigen
is re-encountered;
m. results in faster defence against second exposure to specific antigen/pathogen/disease;
40. [Maximum mark: 15] 19N.2.SL.TZ0.6
(a) Outline how cuts in the skin are sealed to prevent blood loss. [4]

Markscheme

a. platelets respond to/detect skin/blood vessel damage ✔

b. platelets release clotting factors ✔

c. clotting factors trigger a chain/cascade of reactions ✔

d. «leading to» formation of thrombin ✔

e. thrombin causes fibrinogen conversion into fibrin ✔

f. blood clot seals the wound due to fibrin network of fibres ✔

Accept answers presented as a flow chart.

(b) Outline how two parents could have a child with any of the four ABO blood groups. [4]

Markscheme

a. «first set of» gametes/parental genotype IA, i ✔

b. «other set of» gametes/parental genotype IB , i ✔

c. «genotypes of offspring are respectively» IAIB , IB i, IAi, ii ✔ All four correct required.

d. «phenotypes of offspring are respectively» AB, B, A, O ✔ All four correct required linked to genotypes

Award marks only for the first grid if more than one drawn;
e.g. of Punnett grid

Answers can be given in a Punnett grid or in prose.

Accept the four possible blood groups of the offspring anywhere in the answer.

(c) Explain how ventilation and lung structure contribute to passive gas exchange. [7]
Markscheme

a. air carried through trachea AND bronchi/bronchioles AND alveoli ✔ All three required in correct order.

b. alveoli increase the surface area/thin walled for gas exchange ✔

c. gas exchange carried out through type I pneumocytes ✔

d. type II pneumocytes secrete surfactant to reduce surface tension ✔

e. moist surface/surfactant allows gases to diffuse in solution ✔

f. ventilation/moving blood maintains concentration gradients of oxygen and carbon dioxide


g. between air in alveoli and blood in «adjacent» capillaries


OR
oxygen diffuses from alveoli to capillaries and carbon dioxide from capillaries to alveoli ✔ OWTTE

h. external intercostal muscles/diaphragm contract during inspiration ✔

i. lowering air pressure «in lungs»/increasing thorax volume ✔

j. relaxation of external intercostal muscles/diaphragm enable «passive» expiration ✔

k. internal intercostal «and abdominal muscles» contract «to force» expiration ✔

l. expiration due to increasing air pressure «in lungs»/decreasing thorax volume ✔

Accept correctly annotated diagram.


41. [Maximum mark: 15] 19M.2.SL.TZ1.8
(a) Describe how detritivores obtain nutrition and the effects they have in ecosystems. [4]

Markscheme

a. «detritivores» obtain nutrition from detritus/waste/dead bodies ✔

b. are heterotrophic ✔

c. removes large waste/cleans up the ecosystem


OR
helps control spread of disease ✔

d. facilitates further decomposition ✔

e. contribute to the supply of «inorganic» nutrients for autotrophs/nutrient cycling


OR
improve soil conditions/aeration ✔

(b) Outline the role of amylase in digestion in humans. [4]

Markscheme

a. amylase is an enzyme ✔

b. secreted by salivary glands/pancreas ✔

c. active/released into the mouth/small intestine ✔

d. acts on starch/polysaccharides ✔

e. breaks «glycosidic» bond by hydrolysis/adding water ✔

f. converts insoluble/large molecule to soluble/small molecules ✔

g. product is maltose/disaccharide/sugar molecule ✔

(c) Explain how plants capture and use light in photosynthesis. [7]

Markscheme

a. plants convert light energy into chemical energy by photosynthesis ✔

b. photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts ✔


c. chloroplasts «are organelles that» contain the pigment chlorophyll ✔

d. chloroplasts/chlorophyll «in plants» absorb sunlight ✔

e. «chlorophyll» absorbs red AND blue light most effectively ✔

f. light causes photolysis/splits water molecule ✔

g. carbon dioxide AND water are reactants «in photosynthesis» ✔

h. glucose AND oxygen are products «of photosynthesis» ✔

i. light intensity is a limiting factor for the rate of photosynthesis ✔

j. organic/carbon compounds/glucose provide food/stored energy «for plant itself,


animals,food chains» ✔

k. up to one additional mark for an accurate detail from AHL ✔


42. [Maximum mark: 15] 19M.2.SL.TZ2.5
(a) Outline four types of membrane transport, including their use of energy. [4]

Markscheme

a. simple diffusion is passive movement of molecules/ions along a concentration gradient ✔

b. facilitated diffusion is passive movement of molecules/ions along a concentration gradient


through a protein channel «without use of energy» ✔

c. osmosis is the passage of water through a membrane from lower solute concentration to
higher ✔ OWTTE

d. active transport is movement of molecules/ions against the concentration gradient«through


membrane pumps» with the use of ATP/energy ✔ Active transport requires mention of the
use of energy.

e. endocytosis is the infolding of membrane/formation of vesicles to bring molecules into cell


with use of energy
OR
exocytosis is the infolding of membrane/formation of vesicles to release molecules from cell
with use of energy ✔

f. chemiosmosis occurs when protons diffuse through ATP synthase «in membrane» to produce
ATP ✔

The description of each type of transport should include the name and brief description.

mpa, mpb and mpc require reference to concentration.

(b) Draw the structure of a dipeptide. [3]

Markscheme

a. two amino acids, one with NH2/NH3+end and one with COOH/COO– end ✔

b. peptide bond between C=0 and N—H correctly drawn ✔

c. «chiral» C with H and R group on each amino acid ✔

d. peptide bond labelled/clearly indicated between C terminal of one amino acid and N
terminal of the second amino acid ✔
Labels not required for amino group and carboxyl group.

(c) Explain the action of enzymes in digestion and the different roles of at least two
named enzymes that are produced in the pancreas. [8]

Markscheme

a. enzymes catalyse/speed up chemical reactions/lower the energy needed ✔ OWTTE

b. have specific active sites to which specific substrates bind ✔

c. enzyme catalysis involves molecular motion and the collision of substrates with the active
site ✔ OWTTE

d. enzymes break macromolecules into monomers/smaller molecules indigestion ✔

e. smaller molecules/monomers more readily absorbed ✔

f. <<pancreas>> secretes enzymes into the «lumen of» small intestine ✔

g. the small intestine has an alkaline pH ✔

h. enzymes have maximum action at specific pHs


OR
enzymes can be denatured at other pHs ✔

i. amylase breaks down starch into sugars/disaccharides ✔

j. lipase breaks lipids/triglycerides into monoglycerides/fatty acids and glycerol ✔

k. endopeptidase/protease breaks «peptide» bonds in proteins/polypeptides ✔

l. accept any other valid pancreatic enzyme, substrate and product ✔

Award [6 max] if there is no mention of two specific groups of enzymes.


43. [Maximum mark: 15] 19M.2.SL.TZ2.6
(a) Describe briefly the endosymbiotic theory. [3]

Markscheme

a. eukaryotes evolved from prokaryotes ✔

b. prokaryotes engulfed other prokaryotes without digesting them ✔

c. engulfed aerobic cell/prokaryote became mitochondria ✔

d. engulfed photosynthetic cell/ prokaryotes became chloroplasts ✔

e. these organelles have a double membrane «due to the engulfing process» ✔

f. mitochondria/chloroplasts contain DNA/small ribosomes/70S ribosomes ✔

(b) Outline how photosynthesis produces glucose. [4]

Markscheme

a. solar/light energy is converted to chemical energy ✔

b. energy needed to produce glucose ✔

c. only specific wavelengths are absorbed by chlorophyll


OR
red and blue absorbed most strongly.
OR
chlorophyll is the pigment that absorbs light energy ✔

d. H(+)/electrons from water are used to reduce compounds ✔

e. CO2 is absorbed/used/reduced to produce carbohydrates ✔

f. correct word/balanced symbol equation of photosynthesis ✔

Accept correct reference to NADPH/ATP from AHL.

(c) Discuss the control of blood glucose levels and the consequences if they are not
maintained. [8]

Markscheme
control: [6 max]

a. homeostasis is the maintenance of a constant internal environment ✔

b. the pancreas produces hormones that control the levels of glucose ✔

c. if glucose levels in blood are high, beta-cells «of the pancreas» produce insulin ✔

d. «insulin» causes the cells to take up /absorb glucose ✔

e. liver stores excess glucose as glycogen ✔

f. if glucose levels in blood are low, alpha-cells «of the pancreas» produce glucagon ✔

g. «glucagon» causes the liver to break down glycogen into glucose ✔

h. «glucagon» increase levels of glucose in the blood ✔

i. negative feedback controls the glucose levels ✔ OWTTE

consequences:

j. if the pancreas produces little/no insulin a person can develop type I diabetes ✔

k. a person with type I diabetes «usually» needs/is dependent on injections of insulin ✔

l. type II diabetes occurs when the body becomes resistant to insulin/cells do not respond to
insulin ✔

m. type II diabetes can «sometimes» be controlled by diet and exercise ✔

n. named consequence of having diabetes «eg: eye damage» ✔

Award [6 max] if no consequences are given.


44. [Maximum mark: 15] 18M.2.SL.TZ1.6
(a) Outline the role of the parts of an alveolus in a human lung. [4]

Markscheme

a. the (spherical) wall of an alveolus maximizes/allows gas exchange

b. pneumocytes I (optimize) gas exchange

c. pneumocytes II produce surfactant

d. adjacent capillaries enclose alveolus for efficient gas exchange with blood

e. surfactant reduces surface tension/prevents collapse of alveolus

f. (alveolar) macrophages/phagocytes help with defense/homeostasis/response to foreign


substances

(b) Explain how antibiotic resistance can evolve in bacteria, such as those causing
pneumonia. [4]

Markscheme

a. antibiotic resistance exists as a genetic variation (within the population)

b. (antibiotic resistance) may occur from transfer of genetic material


OR
(antibiotic resistance) may occur through mutation

c. resistance is specific to one antibiotic

d. only bacteria with resistance gene reproduce in the presence of antibiotic

e. frequency of resistant bacteria increases in population

f. resistant population replaces non-resistant over time

(c) Many diseases are caused by bacteria and other pathogens. Explain, using
examples, how other factors can lead to disease in humans. [7]

Markscheme

Since this question is open-ended here is how it may be marked:


For any non-pathogenic disease being addressed, look for the following components
● name of disease/condition.
● factor/category e.g.: genetic, lifestyle, environmental, psychological, multi-factoral.
● description/symptoms of disease.
● cause of disease.

At least 2 of these qualities must be present to earn any marks for a disease or category/factor
For this question use the unlettered tick. Award 4 MAX if only one condition is explained.

Sample answers:
e.g.
cystic fibrosis

genetic

multiple lung infections/sticky mucus allows opportunistic bacterial infections of lungs / patients lack lipases/cannot digest fat/do
not “thrive”

recessive (autosomal) allele / homozygous recessive subjects display cystic fibrosis phenotype / chloride channels are faulty

e.g.
rickets
environmental / lifestyle / nutritional
bones are soft/do not calcify
lack of vitamin D
45. [Maximum mark: 15] 18M.2.SL.TZ2.5
Every cell is surrounded by a cell surface membrane which regulates the movement of materials into
and out of the cell.

(a) Draw an annotated diagram of the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure. [4]

Markscheme

a. phospholipid bilayer – with head and tails

b. hydrophilic/phosphate/polar heads AND hydrophobic/hydrocarbon/fattyacid/non-polar tails


labelled. Both needed.

c. integral/intrinsic protein – embedded in the phospholipid bilayer

d. protein channel – integral protein showing clear channel/pore

e. peripheral/extrinsic protein – on the surface

f. glycoprotein with carbohydrate attached

g. cholesterol – shown embedded in bilayer

Award [1] for each structure clearly drawn and correctly labelled.

(b) Describe the processes involved in absorbing different nutrients across the cell
membrane of villus epithelium cells lining the small intestine. [4]

Markscheme

a. «simple» diffusion of nutrients along/down a concentration gradient

b. example of simple diffusion, eg: fatty acids

c. facilitated diffusion of nutrients involves movement through channel proteins

d. example of nutrient for facilitated diffusion eg: fructose

e. active transport of nutrients against a concentration gradient / involving protein pumps

f. example of active transport, eg: (iron) ions/glucose/amino acids

g. endocytosis / by means of vesicles

h. example of nutrient for endocytosis, eg: cholesterol in lipoprotein particles


(c) Explain the events that occur during a nerve impulse and how the impulse is
propagated along an axon. [7]

Markscheme

a. nerve impulses are action potentials propagated along axons of neurons

b. resting potential is −70 mV


OR
relatively negative inside in comparison to the outside

c. Na+/K+ pumps maintain/re-establish «the resting potential»

d. more sodium ions outside than inside «when at the resting potential»
OR
more potassium ions inside than outside «when at the resting potential»

e. action potential stimulates «wave of» depolarization along the membrane/axon

f. «when neuron is stimulated» if threshold potential is reached Na+ channels open

g. sodium ions diffuse/move in

h. «Na+ move in» causing depolarization / inside of the neuron becomes more positively
charged than the outside of the neuron

i. potassium ion channels open


OR
potassium ions diffuse/move out

j. «K+ move out» causing repolarization

k. local currents
OR
description of Na+ ion diffusion between depolarized region and next region of axon to
depolarize

l. myelination increases propagation speed/allows saltatory conduction

Accept any of the points clearly explained in an annotated diagram.

© International Baccalaureate Organization, 2023

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