Genetic Analysis An Integrated Approach 2nd Edition Sanders Test Bank

Genetic Analysis An Integrated
Approach 2nd Edition Sanders Test

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Genetics: An Integrated Approach (Sanders)
Chapter 7 DNA Structure and Replication
7.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) In 1928, Griffith found that injecting which strains of Pneumococcus caused the mouse to die?
A) living type RII
B) heat-killed type SIII
C) heat-killed type RII
D) heat-killed type SIII and living type RII
E) heat-killed type RII and living type RII
Answer: D
Section: 7.1
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
2) The process by which Pneumococcus transfers DNA between living type RII and heat-killed type
SIII cells is known as __________.
A) transformation
B) replication
C) transduction
D) ligation
E) conjugation
Answer: A
Section: 7.1
3) Avery, Macleod, and McCarty expanded on Griffith’s experiment to prove that DNA is the
hereditary molecule required for transformation. What treatment of the heat-killed SIII bacteria
extract resulted in the mouse living?
A) destroying type SIII lipids and polysaccharides
B) destroying type SIII DNA with DNase
C) destroying type SIII RNA with RNase
D) destroying type SIII proteins with protease
E) the control group (null treatment), in which all components are intact
Answer: B
Section: 7.1
4) In the Hershey-Chase experiment, what was labeled by growing bacteriophage in 32P-containing

medium?
A) ghost phage particles
B) proteins
C) lipids
D) DNA
E) RNA
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Answer: D
Section: 7.1
5) Which of the following are classified as pyrimidines?

A) adenine and thymine
B) guanine and cytosine
C) adenine and guanine
D) thymine and cytosine
E) adenine and uracil
Answer: D
Section: 7.2
6) What type of bond is formed between the hydroxyl group of one nucleotide and the phosphate
group of an adjacent nucleotide, forming the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA?
A) glycosidic bond
B) phosphodiester bond
C) ester linkage
D) hydrogen bond
E) ionic bond
Answer: B
Section: 7.2
7) What is the difference between a nucleotide and a nucleoside?

A) Nucleotides are found in DNA, while nucleosides are found in RNA.
B) Nucleotides are involved in eukaryotic DNA replication, while nucleosides are used in bacterial
DNA replication.
C) Nucleosides contain only deoxyribose sugars.
D) A nucleoside with a phosphate ester linked to the sugar is a nucleotide.
E) Nucleosides are purines, while nucleotides are pyrimidines.
Answer: D
Section: 7.2
8) What types of bonds are formed between complementary DNA bases?

A) glycosidic bonds
B) phosphodiester bonds
C) covalent bonds
D) hydrogen bonds
E) ionic bonds
Answer: D
Section: 7.2
2
9) If there is 24% guanine in a DNA molecule, then there is _____ cytosine.
A) 24%
B) 26%
C) 48%
D) 52%
E) impossible to determine
Answer: A
Section: 7.2
Skill: Application/Analysis
10) What fraction of the nucleotides in a double-stranded DNA molecule are cytosine and thymine
(% C and % T added together)?
A) 25 %
B) 50 %
C) 75 %
D) 100%
E) It depends on the DNA sequence
Answer: B
Section: 7.2
11) If complementary DNA strands were arranged in a parallel manner, what would you expect to see?
A) Complementary nucleotides would be attracted to each other, forming ionic bonds that would
make the helix stable but not uniform in width.
B) Charges of complementary nucleotides would repel and no hydrogen bonds would form.
C) Complementary nucleotides would line up properly; but fewer hydrogen bonds would form, so
the strands could be more easily pulled apart.
D) Purines would pair with both purines and pyrimidines due to the closer alignment of the parallel
strands.
E) There would be no discernable difference between DNA strands aligned in a parallel versus an
antiparallel manner.
Answer: B
Section: 7.2
12) In their famous experiment, which of the following would Meselson and Stahl have observed after
one cycle of replication in 14N medium if DNA replication was conservative?
A) DNA molecules containing one strand of 15N-DNA and one strand of 14N-DNA
B) DNA molecules containing two 15N-DNA strands only
C) DNA molecules containing two 14N-DNA strands only
D) An equal number of DNA molecules containing two 15N-DNA strands and DNA molecules
containing two 14N-DNA strands.
E) A mix of DNA molecules corresponding to A and B.
Answer: D
Section: 7.3
3
13) A portion of one strand of DNA has the sequence 5′ AATGGCTTA 3′. If this strand is used as a
template for DNA replication, which of the following correctly depicts the sequence of the newly
synthesized strand in the direction in which it will be synthesized?
A) 3′ TTACCGAAT 5′
B) 5′ TAAGCCATT 3′
C) 3′ AATGGCTTA 5′
D) 5′ AATGGCTTA 3′
Answer: B
Section: 7.3
14) Based on the following replication bubble, which of these statements is true?
A) X and Y are leading strands, W and Z are lagging strands

B) X and Z are leading strands, W and Y are lagging strands
C) X and W are leading strands, Y and Z are lagging strands
D) W and Z are leading strands, X and Y are lagging strands
E) W and Y are leading strands, X and Z are lagging strands
Answer: E
Section: 7.4
15) The following represents a DNA strand in the process of replication. The bottom sequence is that of
the DNA strand with polarity indicated and the top sequence represents the RNA primer.
GGGGCCUUU
5′ AAATCCCCGGAAACTAAAC 3′
Which of the following will be the first DNA nucleotide added to the primer?
A) A
B) G
C) C
D) T
E) U
Answer: A
Section: 7.4
4
16) What is one difference between DNA replication in bacteria versus eukaryotes?
A) Eukaryotic chromosomes are replicated bidirectionally, while bacterial chromosomes are
replicated in one direction.
B) Eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication and replicate bidirectionally, while
bacteria have only one origin of replication and replicate unidirectionally.
C) Bacterial chromosomes are replicated bidirectionally, while eukaryotic chromosomes are
replicated in one direction.
D) Eukaryotic chromosomes have many origins of replication, while bacteria have only one origin
of replication.
E) The process is identical in bacterial and eukaryotic DNA replication.
Answer: D
Section: 7.3
17) During DNA replication in E. coli, what is the role of DnaA?

A) DnaA is a region of DNA recognized by the replisome where replication is initiated.
B) DnaA bends DNA, hydrolyzing the hydrogen bonds in the 13-mer region of oriC and creating
an open complex.
C) DnaA is a helicase that uses ATP to hydrolyze hydrogen bonds and separate DNA strands.
D) DnaA carries the helicase protein to the open region of DNA where hydrolysis and strand
separation will occur.
E) DnaA prevents reannealing of the separated strands so replication can proceed.
Answer: B
Section: 7.4
18) Which arrow(s) point(s) to the location of helicase in the diagram shown?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) A and E
E) B and D
5
Answer: E
Section: 7.4
19) If SSB is not present during DNA replication, what would you expect to see?
A) The replisome complex would not assemble on the oriC region.
B) The DNA cannot bend, so hydrogen bonds in the 13-mer region of oriC remain intact.
C) Helicase activity is inhibited, so DNA strands cannot be separated.
D) SSB carries the helicase protein to the open region of DNA, so hydrolysis and strand separation
will not occur.
E) SSB prevents reannealing of the separated strands, so strands would quickly reanneal and DNA
replication cannot proceed.
Answer: E
Section: 7.4
20) DNA helicase inhibitors are well studied as potential drug targets. What would you expect to see
if DNA helicase activity is inhibited?
A) The replisome complex would not assemble on the oriC region.
B) The DNA cannot bend, so hydrogen bonds in the 13-mer region of oriC remain intact.
C) Helicase catalyzes ATP hydrolysis and DNA strands separation, so the helix cannot be unwound
and strands will not separate.
D) Helicase carries the SSB protein to the open region of DNA, so hydrolysis and strand separation
will not occur.
E) Helicase prevents reannealing of the separated strands, so strands would quickly reanneal and
DNA replication cannot proceed.
Answer: C
Section: 7.4
21) What is required for DNA polymerase to initiate DNA strand synthesis?
A) a short DNA primer synthesized by the enzyme primase
B) a short RNA primer synthesized by the enzyme primase
C) ATP and a short DNA primer synthesized by the enzyme topoisomerase
D) ATP and a short RNA primer synthesized by the enzyme topoisomerase
E) DNA polymerase initiates DNA strand synthesis without requiring any additional enzymes.
Answer: B
Section: 7.4
22) What enzyme(s) is/are responsible for removal of RNA primers and joining of Okazaki fragments?
A) DNA polymerase I
B) DNA polymerase III
C) DNA ligase
D) DNA polymerase I and DNA ligase
E) DNA polymerase III and DNA ligase
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Answer: D
Section: 7.4
23) You identify a cell in which DNA polymerase III is functional, but it seems to exhibit extremely
low processivity. This is likely a defect in what structure?
A) the t proteins
B) the pol III holoenzyme
C) the clamp loader
D) the topoisomerase enzyme
E) the sliding clamp
Answer: E
Section: 7.4
24) The extraordinary accuracy of the DNA polymerase III enzyme lies in its ability to “proofread”
newly synthesized DNA, a function of the enzyme’s __________.
A) 3′-to-5′ exonuclease activity
B) 5′-to-3′ exonuclease activity
C) 3′-to-5′ polymerase activity
D) 5′-to-3′ polymerase activity
E) 3′-to-5′ helicase activity
Answer: A
Section: 7.4
25) Where would you expect to find telomerase activity?

A) At the end of a chromosome in a normal healthy eukaryotic body (somatic) cell.
B) At the end of a chromosome in a cancerous eukaryotic body cell.
C) On the leading strand of DNA in a normal bacterial cell.
D) On the lagging strand of DNA in a normal bacterial cell.
E) At the centromere of a chromosome in a healthy eukaryotic reproductive cell.
Answer: B
Section: 7.4
26) Which of the following would you find in a Sanger sequencing reaction but not in a polymerase
chain reaction?
A) DNA template
B) DNA polymerase
C) dNTPs
D) ddNTPs
E) DNA primer
Answer: D
Section: 7.5
Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation
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27) Which functional groups have been altered in a ddNTP compared to a dNTP?
A) The ddNTPs have a 2′ OH and a 3′ H, while dNTPs have a 2′ H and a 3′ OH.
B) The ddNTPs have a 2′ H and a 3′ H, while dNTPs have a 2′ H and a 3′ OH.
C) The ddNTPs have a 2′ OH and a 3′ OH, while dNTPs have a 2′ H and a 3′ H.
D) The ddNTPs have a 2′ H and a 3′ H, while dNTPs have a 2′ OH and a 3′ OH.
E) The ddNTPs have a 2′ H and a 3′ OH, while dNTPs have a 2′ H and a 3′ H.
Answer: B
Section: 7.5
28) Which of the following temperature cycles would you expect to see in a standard polymerase chain
reaction (from denaturation to annealing to extension)?
A) 95° → 72° → 55°
B) 45° → 72° → 95°
C) 95° → 55° → 72°
D) 95° → 72° → 95°
E) 75° → 95° → 45°
Answer: C
Section: 7.5
7.2 Short-Answer Questions
1) Based on Griffith’s results, what would you expect if you injected both heat-killed type RII and
living type SIII?
Answer: The mouse lives.
Section: 7.1
2) What are the three parts of a DNA nucleotide?

Answer: deoxyribose, base, phosphate
Section: 7.1
3) What is the molecular diameter of the DNA helix (in angstroms)?

Answer: 20 Å
Section: 7.2
4) What are the regions where DNA-binding proteins can make direct contact with exposed
nucleotides?
Answer: major and minor grooves
Section: 7.2
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5) What is removed from dNTPs to provide the energy required for DNA polymerase to catalyze DNA
strand elongation?
Answer: two phosphates (pyrophosphate group)
Section: 7.2
6) What type of experimental technique did Huberman and Riggs use to produce the first evidence of
bidirectional replication in bacteria?
Answer: pulse-chase labeling
Section: 7.3
7) What do the DNA sequences found at the origins of replication signify?

Answer: binding replication enzymes
Section: 7.4
8) What well-characterized sequence in E. coli is 245 bp, AT-rich, and divided into three 13-mers and
four 9-mers?
Answer: oriC
Section: 7.4
9) In E. coli, which protein uses ATP to hydrolyze hydrogen bonds holding complementary strands
together?
Answer: DnaB
Section: 7.4
10) During DNA replication in E. coli, how does the cell prevent the DNA strands from following their
natural tendency to seek maximum stability and reanneal?
Answer: SSB prevents reannealing.
Section: 7.4
11) What is the overall direction of DNA strand elongation?

Answer: 5′ to 3′
Section: 7.4
12) What structure in E. coli delivers primase and accessory proteins to the oriC site to synthesize the
primer needed for DNA replication?
Answer: primosome
Section: 7.4
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13) What is the term for the daughter strand synthesized continuously during DNA replication?
Answer: leading strand
Section: 7.4
14) What did Okazaki’s discovery of the short segments of DNA reveal about DNA replication on the
lagging strand?
Answer: It is discontinuous.
Section: 7.4
15) Eukaryotic polymerases interact with which protein that acts as the sliding clamp in eukaryotic
DNA replication?
Answer: PCNA
Section: 7.4
16) Which enzyme, a combination of several proteins and a molecule of tRNA, acts as the template for
the telomere repeat DNA sequence?
Answer: telomerase
Section: 7.4
17) How might you choose a region of DNA for a PCR primer so as to increase the temperature
necessary for primer annealing (to minimize nonspecific PCR products)?
Answer: look for higher GC concentrations
Section: 7.5
18) What characteristic of the polymerase isolated from Thermus aquaticus makes it unique and highly
useful for maintaining the enzyme efficiency during PCR?
Answer: heat stability
Section: 7.5
19) What are the three steps of each PCR cycle?

Answer: denaturation, annealing, extension
Section: 7.5
7.3 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
1) The large, complex aggregation of proteins and enzymes that assembles at the replication fork is
known as the ________.
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Answer: replisome
Section: 7.4
2) Comparison of conserved sequences among related species usually leads to the identification of
________, which illustrate the nucleotides most often found at each position of DNA in the
conserved region.
Answer: consensus sequences
Section: 7.4
3) DNA polymerase requires a primer sequence to provide a ________ functional group to which the
new DNA nucleotide can be added.
Answer: 3′ OH
Section: 7.4
4) The major and minor grooves of DNA are features of the helix that can be attributed to _______,
which involves tight packing of DNA bases in a duplex.
Answer: base stacking
Section: 7.2
5) ________ is the term for multiprotein complexes in which a core enzyme is associated with
additional protein components leading to its function.
Answer: Holoenzyme
Section: 7.4
6) ________ must be added to a PCR to direct the polymerase where to begin synthesis.
Answer: PCR primers
Section: 7.5
7.4 Essay Questions
1) Describe the DNA helix structure proposed by Watson and Crick. What is the diameter of the helix
and the distance between bases? What types of bonds are involved in stabilizing the DNA
backbone, and what types of bonds are found between complementary base pairs? Why would a
sequence containing high concentrations of G and C require more energy to break the bonds?
Answer: The DNA model contains two DNA polymer strands in a right-handed twist around a
common axis. The strands are orientated in an antiparallel direction from 5′ to 3′ and 3′ to 5′. The
backbone consists of alternating sugar-phosphate groups stabilized by phosphodiester bonds, and it
is located on the outside of the helix. Complementary base pairs are stacked in the center of the
helix and are stabilized by hydrogen bonds. There are three hydrogen bonds between G and C, but
only two between A and T. Thus, GC-rich regions require higher temperatures to break the bonds.
11
The base pairs, which are perpendicular to the axis, are stacked with 10 base pairs per turn and a
helical repeat of 34 Å The overall diameter of the helix is 10 angstroms.
Section: 7.2
2) Briefly describe the Meselson and Stahl experiment that indicated that DNA replication is
semiconservative. How would their results have differed if DNA replication was actually
conservative in nature?
Answer: Meselson and Stahl grew bacteria in the presence of 15N and then replaced the 15N media
with the “lighter” 14N media. DNA was extracted at various intervals to collect several successive
generations. Using high-speed CsCl density-gradient ultracentrifugation, they observed that after
the first generation, the “heavy” DNA (15N/15N) was not present, and the DNA was intermediate
between light and heavy (14N/15N). After the second generation, there were two bands with equal
amounts of intermediate and light bands (14N/15N and 14N/14N). These results validated the
semiconservative model, in which one strand of the parent DNA is present in each daughter strand
of replicated DNA.
If the conservative model were correct, they would have expected to observe DNA molecules with
two distinct densities after generation 1 (15N/15N and 14N/14N). Their first-generation results
excluded this model.
Section: 7.2
3) Describe the function of the oriC. What do you predict will happen to the cell if 100 bp between the
13-mer and 9-mer sequence is deleted as indicated in the figure?
Answer: A consensus sequence is the portion of a conserved region that carries out the essential
function that is the focus of natural selection. The 13-mer and 9-mer consensus sequences that are
part of oriC have been maintained by natural selection because they have essential functional roles
in replication initiation, as we explain in the following section. Beyond the presence of the
consensus sequences themselves, natural selection also acts to maintain specific spacing between
the consensus sequences. Spacing is important because DNA-binding proteins must assemble at
sites where consensus sequences are located. Different proteins are attracted to different consensus
sequences, and each protein must have the physical space to bind to DNA and to interact with the
other proteins bound to the consensus sequence region. The spacing between consensus sequence
elements is also important to allow room on the DNA molecule for protein binding and interaction
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between bound proteins. If you delete this region, replication will not proceed because there is not
enough space for replisome assembly.
Section: 7.4
4) Many antibacterial agents and chemotherapy agents act as topoisomerase inhibitors. Why would
inhibition of topoisomerase cause cell death in bacterial and eukaryotic cells?
Answer: During DNA replication, as DNA strands unwind it creates torsional stress that
accumulates as the unwound region gets larger. Without free ends, covalently closed circular DNA
readily accumulates superhelical twists (supercoiled DNA). The accumulating stress could break the
DNA template at random locations, potentially leading to a breakdown of DNA replication and,
ultimately, to cell death. Topoisomerases prevent this lethal event by catalyzing a controlled
cleavage and rejoining of DNA, thus enabling over-twisted strands to unwind. Topoisomerase
inhibitors block the ligation step of the cell cycle, generating single- and double-stranded breaks
that harm the integrity of the genome and ultimately result in apoptosis of the cancer cells or
bacteria.
Section: 7.4
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7.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

4) In the Hershey-Chase experiment, what was labeled by growing bacteriophage in 32P-containing

5) Which of the following are classified as pyrimidines?

7) What is the difference between a nucleotide and a nucleoside?

8) What types of bonds are formed between complementary DNA bases?

A) X and Y are leading strands, W and Z are lagging strands

17) During DNA replication in E. coli, what is the role of DnaA?

25) Where would you expect to find telomerase activity?

7.2 Short-Answer Questions

2) What are the three parts of a DNA nucleotide?

3) What is the molecular diameter of the DNA helix (in angstroms)?

7) What do the DNA sequences found at the origins of replication signify?

11) What is the overall direction of DNA strand elongation?

19) What are the three steps of each PCR cycle?

7.3 Fill-in-the-Blank Questions

7.4 Essay Questions

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