RTP- 01 (2024) Biology Sankalp

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Questions
1. Longest phase of meiosis I is 10. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is
(1) Prophase I (2) Metaphase I (1) S ➔ G1 ➔ G2 ➔ M
(3) Anaphase I (4) Telophase I (2) G1 ➔ S ➔ G2 ➔ M
(3) M ➔ G1 ➔ G2 ➔ S
2. When does synapsis takes place in meiosis?
(4) G1 ➔ G2 ➔ S ➔ M
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene
(3) Zygotene (4) Leptotene
11. During mitosis, ER and nucleolus begin to
disappear at
3. Meiosis I is
(1) Late prophase
(1) Equational division
(2) Early metaphase
(2) Homotypic division
(3) Late metaphase
(3) Reductional division
(4) Early prophase
(4) Multiplicational division
12. During metaphase, the chromosomes align
4. M phase in human lasts ________ of the duration
themselves at the
of cell cycle
(1) Periphery (2) Equator
(1) 90% (2) 60%
(3) Cell plate (4) Furrow
(3) 96% (4) < 5%
13. Which of the following is correct sequence of cell
5. Homologous chromosomes begin to separate
division?
during
(1) Diakinesis (2) Leptotene (1) Anaphase ➔ Metaphase ➔ Telophase ➔
(3) Zygotene (4) Diplotene Prophase
(2) Prophase ➔ Telophase ➔ Anaphase ➔
6. When parental and maternal chromosomes Metaphase
mutually exchange their material in cell division, (3) Anaphase ➔ Prophase ➔ Metaphase ➔
the event is called Telophase
(1) Synapsis (4) Prophase ➔ Metaphase ➔ Anaphase ➔
(2) Crossing over Telophase
(3) Bivalent formation
(4) Dyad formation 14. In a somatic cell cycle, DNA synthesis takes place
in
7. Synapsis occurs between (1) G1 phase
(1) A male and a female gamete (2) Prophase of mitosis
(2) mRNA and ribosomes (3) S phase
(3) Spindle fibers and centromere (4) G2 phase
(4) Two homologous chromosomes
15. At which stage of the cell cycle are the histone
8. When paternal and maternal chromosomes protein synthesized in a eukaryotic cell?
mutually exchange their materials in cell division (1) During G2 stage
the event is called (2) During S phase
(1) Bivalent Formation (3) During entire prophase
(2) Recombination (4) During telophase
(3) Synapsis
(4) Dyad formation 16. A bivalent consists of
(1) Two chromatids and one centromere
9. Cell organelles replicate in/during (2) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(1) M phase (2) Interphase (3) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(3) G0 phase (4) Cytokinesis (4) Four chromatids and four centromeres

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17. In which stage of cell cycle, DNA replication 26. Which of the following is not a characteristic
occurs? feature during mitosis in somatic cells?
(1) G1 phase (2) S phase (1) Chromosome movement
(3) G2 phase (4) M phase (2) Synapsis
(3) Spindle fibers
18. Meiosis II performs (4) Disappearance of nucleolus
(1) Separation of sex chromosomes
(2) Synthesis of DNA and centromere 27. In somatic cell cycle,
(3) Separation of homologous chromosomes (1) A short interphase is followed by a long
(4) Separation of chromatids mitotic phase
(2) G2 phase follows mitotic phase
19. Centrioles duplicate in the (3) In G1 phase DNA content is double the
(1) Nucleus amount of DNA present in the original cell
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) DNA replication takes place in S-phase
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Mitochondria 28. At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the
spindle fibers by their
20. Synaptonemal complex is formed during (1) satellites (2) Secondary constrictions
(1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene (3) Kinetochores (4) Centromeres
(3) Leptotene (4) Diakinesis
29. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
21. In oocytes of some vertebrates, _____ can last for homologous chromosomes is called
months or years. (1) Equatorial plate (2) Kinetochore
(1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis (3) Bivalent (4) Axoneme
(3) Leptotene (4) Zygotene
30. In “S” phase of the cell cycle
22. If the initial amount of DNA is doubled by 2 C, (1) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell
then the amount of DNA present after S phase will (2) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell
be (3) Chromosome number is increased
(1) 4C (2) 8C (4) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell
(3) 2C (4) 5C
31. Spindle fiber unite with which structure of
23. If 46 chromosomes are present at G1 phase, then chromosomes?
the number of chromosomes after S phase will be (1) Chromocenter (2) Chromomere
(1) 23 (2) 92 (3) Kinetochore (4) Centriole
(3) 47 (4) 46
32. Which typical stage is known for DNA replication
24. The stage during which separation of the paired occurs?
homologous chromosomes begins is (1) S phase (2) G2 phase
(1) Diakinesis (3) Metaphase (4) G1 phase
(2) Diplotene
(3) Pachytene 33. The enzyme recombinase is required at which
(4) Zygotene stage of meiosis?
(1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene
25. Spindle fibers attach on to (3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
(1) Centromere of the chromosome
(2) Kinetosome of the chromosome 34. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase
(3) Telomere of the chromosome participates during
(4) Kinetochore of the chromosome (1) Metaphase I (2) Anaphase II
(3) Prophase I (4) Prophase II

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35. Which of the following is the correct sequence? 44. What happens in S-phase?
(1) Leptotene ➔ Diakinesis ➔ Diplotene ➔ (1) DNA replication
Zygotene ➔ Pachytene (2) In animal cell replication of centriole
(2) Diplotene ➔ Leptotene ➔ Zygotene ➔ (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Separation of replicated DNA
Pachytene ➔ Diakinesis
(3) Leptotene ➔ Zygotene ➔ Pachytene ➔
45. In which of the following phase number of
Diplotene ➔ Diakinesis chromosomes remain same but amount of DNA
(4) Diakinesis ➔ Diplotene ➔ Pachytene ➔ doubles?
Zygotene ➔Leptotene (1) G1 (2) Quiescent stage
(3) Go (4) S
36. Crossing over occurs in
(1) Leptotene (2) Diplotene 46. Interphase
(3) Zygotene (4) Pachytene (I) Is a biosynthetic phase in which the cell
duplicates its organelles
37. Cells in G0 phase : (II) Constituted more than 95% duration of cell
(1) Suspend the cell cycle cycle
(2) Terminate the cell cycle (III) Is the phase between two successive M-phases
(3) Exit the cell cycle (1) Only (I) is correct
(4) Enter the cell cycle (2) Only (II) and (III) are correct
(3) All are correct
38. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs (4) None
during
(1) Pachytene (2) Leptotene 47. Match the following columns and select the correct
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis option:
Column I Column II
39. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in A G1 phase (i) Cell quiescence
(1) M phase (2) S phase B M phase (ii) Longest phase of
(3) G1 phase (4) G2 phase the cell cycle
C S phase (iii) Less than 5% of
40. Two chromatids are held together at total duration of cell
(1) Spindle fiber (2) Microtubule cycle
(3) Centromere (4) Kinetochore D G0 phase (iv) DNA content
doubles
(1) A (ii), B (iii), C (iv), D (i)
41. Two basic stages of cell cycle are
(2) A (ii), B (iii), C (i), D (iv)
(1) Interphase and M-phase/ divisional phase
(3) A (iii), B (ii), C (iv), D (i)
(2) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(4) A (iii), B (i), C (iv), D (ii)
(3) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase
(4) G1, S and G2-phases
48. Mitotic spindle is mainly composed of _____
proteins.
42. Which one is the correct sequence of a cell cycle ?
(1) tubulin
(1) G1→ G2→S→M (2) M→G1→G2→S
(2) myosin
(3) G1→S→G2→M (4) S→G1→G2→M
(3) actin
(4) actomyosin
43. Cells in G0-stage -
(1) Are metabolically more active
49. _______ is the best stage to count the number and
(2) Are metabolically inactive
study the morphology of chromosomes.
(3) Remain metabolically active but no longer
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
proliferate in normal condition
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
(4) None

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50. _______ is characterised by all the chromosomes 54. Find out the incorrect match with respect to the
coming to lie at the equator, with one chromatid given diagram.
connected by its kinetochore to spindle fibres from
one pole and its sister chromatid connected by its
kinetochore to spindle fibres from the opposite
pole.
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase

51. At which stage of mitosis, the two daughter

chromatids separate from each other, migrate (1) I=Kinetochore
towards the opposite poles and are now referred to (2) II-Aster
as chromosomes of the future daughter nuclei? (3) III – Cell membrane
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (4) IV - Centromere
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
55. Which of the following event takes place in
52. Recognise the figure and find out the correct zygotene?
matching. (1) Crossing over
(2) Formation of bivalents
(3) Synapsis
(4) More than one

56. X shape structures between homologous

chromosomes appear in
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
(1) a-Early prophase, b – late prophase, c –
transition to metaphase 57. A bivalent contains
(2) b-Early prophase, c – late prophase, a – (1) Two homologous chromosomes
transition to metaphase (2) 4 chromatids
(3) c-Early prophase, a – late prophase, b – (3) 2 centromeres
transition to metaphase (4) All of the above
(4) b-Early prophase, a – late prophase, c –
transition to metaphase 58. How many metaphasic plates are formed in
metaphase I?
53. The drawing below shows a cell whose diploid (1) 1 (2) 2
chromosome number is four. This cell is in- (3) 4 (4) 0

59. In which of the following phase chromosomes

separate without any splitting of their centromeres?
(1) Anaphase
(2) Anaphase I
(3) Anaphase II
(4) metaphase

60. Which of the following event takes place in

(1) Metaphase interkinesis?
(2) Anaphase of mitosis (1) DNA replication
(3) First anaphase of meiosis (2) Chromosome duplication
(4) Second anaphase of meiosis (3) Condensation of chromosomes
(4) Preparation of second meiotic division
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61. Prophase-I is subdivided into five phases based on 68. Which is unique to mitosis and does not occur in
(1) Chromosomal movement meiosis?
(2) Chromosomal alignment (1) Homologous chromosomes cross over
(3) Chromosomal behaviour (2) Homologous chromosomes pair and form
(4) Chromosomal structure bivalent
(3) Homologous chromosomes behave
62. Shape of chiasmata is independently
(1) C-shaped (2) X-shaped (4) Chromatids are separated during anaphase
(3) Y-shaped (4) U-shaped
69. Recombination between homologous
63. The beginning of diplotene is recognized by the chromosomes is completed by the end of
(1) Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex (1) Pachytene (2) Leptotene
(2) Tendency of the recombined homologous (3) Diplotene (4) Zygotene
chromosomes of the bivalents to separate
from each other 70. Crossing over takes place in
(3) Meiotic spindle is assembled (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(4) Both 1 and 2 (3) Anaphase (4) Prophase I

64. Most of the organelle duplication occurs during 71. Homologous chromosomes separate during
(1) M-phase (2) Interphase (1) Metaphase I
(3) Interkinesis (4) Cytokinesis (2) Anaphase I
(3) Metaphase II
65. Recognize the figure and find out the correct (4) Anaphase II
matching.
72. Microtubules from opposite poles of spindle get
attached to kinetochores of sister chromatids
during
(1) Anaphase II (2) Prophase II
(3) Metaphase II (4) Metaphase I

73. Exchange of segments between non-sister

chromatids of homologous chromosomes is
(1) Crossing over (2) Translocation
(1) a—Early prophase, b—late prophase, c— (3) Linkage (4) Inversion
transition to metaphase
(2) b—Early prophase, c—late prophase, a— 74. In meiosis, synapsis occurs during
transition to metaphase (1) S-phase
(3) c—Early prophase, a—late prophase, b— (2) Interphase
transition to metaphase (3) Leptotene
(4) b—Early prophase, a—late prophase, c— (4) Prophase
transition to metaphase
75. Meiosis involves
66. Non-sister chromatids exchange segments during (1) Two nuclear divisions and one chromosomal
(1) Leptotene (2) Diplotene division
(3) Zygotene (4) Pachytene (2) One nuclear division and one chromosomal
division
67. Recombination involves (3) One nuclear division and two chromosomal
(1) Crossing over divisions
(2) Chromosome duplication (4) Two nuclear divisions and two chromosomal
(3) Spindle formation divisions
(4) Cytokinesis
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76. Robert Hooke discovered 26. Who first saw and described a live cell?
(1) Living cell (2) Death cell (1) Mathias Schleiden
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Not known (2) Theodore Schwann
(3) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
77. The term cell refers to (4) Rudolf Virchow
(1) Little room (2) living Compartment
(3) Little world (4) Living room 87. Consider the following two statements and select
the correct option.
78. RNA is genetic material in Statement I: Cell is the fundamental structural and
(1) Human (2) Prokaryotes functional unit of all living organisms.
(3) Viruses (4) All of above Statement II : Anything less than a complete
structure of a cell does not ensure independent
79. Nucleoid is present in living.
(1) Prokaryotes (2) Eukaryotes (1) Both statements I and II are correct and II
(3) Viruses (4) All of above explains I.
(2) Both statements I and II are correct and II does
80. Svedberg unit refers to not explain I.
(1) Coefficient unit (3) Statement I is true and statement II is false.
(2) Sedimentation coefficient (4) Both statements I and II are false.
(3) Sedimentation rate
(4) Deposition rate 88. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Unicellular organisms are capable of
81. The type of ribosome found in eukaryotes is independent existence, but they cannot
(1) 80 S (2) 70 S perform all the vital functions of live
(3) 60 S (4) 90 S (2) Anything less than a complete structure of a
cell does not ensure independent living.
82. Which of the following is the largest isolated (3) Anton van Leeuwenhoek first saw and
single cell? described a live cell.
(1) Nerve cell (4) Robert Hooke published his work in
(2) Mycoplasma Micrographia.
(3) Ostrich egg
(4) RBCs 89. Who report that cell had a thin outer layer which is
today named as plasma membrane?
83. Plant cell differs from animal cell by (1) Schleiden
(1) Presence of vacuoles (2) Schwann
(2) Presence of cell wall and chloroplast (3) British zoologist
(3) Absence of cell wall (4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) Absence of chloroplast
90. “Omnis cellula-e cellula” means
84. Non-membranous organelle is (1) All animal and plants are made up of cells.
(1) Chlorplast (2) Cells are structural and functional unit of life
(2) Nucleolus (3) New cells formed from pre-existing cells.
(3) Centriole / Centrosome (4) All of these
(4) Both (2) and (3)
91. Microtubules are the constituents of
85. Who proposed cell lineage/cell always arises from (1) Cilia, flagella and peroxisomes
pre-existing cell? (2) Spindle fibers, centrioles and cilia
(1) Lamarck (2) Virchow (3) Centrioles, spindle fibers and chromatin
(3) Schwann (4) Darwin (4) Centrosome, nucleosome and centrioles

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92. Prokaryotic flagella is made up of which of the 99. Recognize the figure and find out the correct
following protein? matching.
(1) Tubulin (2) Flagellin
(3) Pilin (4) Dynein

93. Which of the following is correct about centriole?

(1) It is found is all eukaryotes
(2) It is microflamentous
(3) It is important for mitosis
(4) It is made up of solid protein rod

94. Cytoskeleton of cell is made of

(1) Protein (2) Lipid
(3) Carbohydrate (4) Nucleic acid

95. Prokaryotic flagella is made up of which of the

(1) d—plasma membrane, b—radial spoke, a—
following protein?
central sheath, c—interdoublet bridge, f—
(1) Tubulin (2) Flagellin
peripheral microtubule, e—central
(3) Pilin (4) Dynein
microtubule
(2) d—plasma membrane, c—radial spoke, a—
96. Flagella occur in
central sheath, b—interdoublet bridge, e—
(1) Eukaryotic cells
peripheral microtubule, f—central
(2) Prokaryotic cells
microtubule
(3) Viruses
(3) a—plasma membrane, b—radial spoke, d—
(4) Both 1 and 2
central sheath, c—interdoublet bridge, e—
peripheral microtubule, f—central
97. Read the following statements and find out the
microtubule.
correct statements.
(4) a—plasma membrane, c—radial spoke, d—
a. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella are
central sheath, b—interdoublet bridge, e—
structurally
peripheral microtubule, f—central
b. Cilia work like oars and comparatively smaller
microtubule.
than flagella
c. The core of cilium or flagellum is called
100. Fill in the blanks:
axoneme
1. Centrioles are …a… structures that lie …b… to
d. Central tubules are connected by interdoublet
each other
bridges and is enclosed by central sheath
2. Centrioles have an organization like …c…
e. Central sheath is connected to one of the tubules
3. Centrioles are made up of nine evenly spaced
of each peripheral doublets by a radial spoke.
peripheral fibrils of …d… protein
there are nine radial spokes
4. Each peripheral fibril of centriole is …e…
f. Peripheral doublets are also interconnected by
5. Central part of the proximal region of the
linkers
centriole is called …f… which is
(1) b, d, e, f (2) c, d, e
proteinaceous
(3) a, b, c (4) b, c, e, f
(1) a—spherical, b—parallel, c—cart wheel, d—
flagellin, e—doubled, f—bridge
98. Cilium and flagellum emerge from centriole like
(2) a—cylindrical, b—perpendicular, c—cart
structure called
wheel, d—tubulin, e—triplet, f—hub
(1) Centrosome
(3) a—cylindrical, b—perpendicular, c—cart
(2) Kinetochore
wheel, d—tubulin, e—doubled, f—hub
(3) Basal body
(4) a—spherical, b—perpendicular, c—cart wheel,
(4) Centromere
d—tubulin, e—triplet, f—hub

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101. During the meiosis I, the number of chromosomes 109. In meiosis, centromeres of chromosomes divide
is during-
(1) Doubled (2) Tripled (1) anaphase of meiosis-II
(3) Reduced to half (4) remain same (2) metaphase of meiosis-I
(3) anaphase of meiosis-I
102. A bivalent of meiosis-I consists of (4) prophase of meiosis-II
(1) Two chromatids and one centromere
(2) Two chromatids and two centromere
(3) Four chromatids and two centromere 110. Meiosis I is reductional division and meiosis II is
(4) Four chromatids and four centromere equational division because of
(1) Separation of chromatids
103. The number of chromosomes is reduced to half (2) Crossing over
during – (3) The disjunction of homologous chromosomes
(1) Anaphase of mitosis and meiosis (4) The pairing of homologous chromosomes
(2) Meiosis II
(3) Meiosis I 111. Synapsis takes place between
(4) Fertilization (1) Spindle fibre and centromere
(2) mRNA and ribosomes
104. Identify the wrong statement about meiosis (3) a female and a male gamete
(1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes (4) Two homologous chromosomes
(2) Four haploid cells are formed
(3) At the end of meiosis the number of 112. Synaptonemal complex is a nucleoprotein
chromosomes are reduced to half structure. It is visible or found from-
(4) Two cycle of DNA replication occurs (1) zygotene to pachytene
(2) leptotene to diplotene
105. In which stage of meiosis homologous (3) zygotene to metaphase
chromosome are segregated. (4) pachytene to diplotene
(1) Metaphase I (2) Anaphase II
(3) Metaphase II (4) Anaphase I 113. Synapsis occurs between
(1) A male and a female gamete
106. During meiosis ,the bivalent chromosome clearly (2) mRNA and ribosomes
appear as tetrad during (3) Spindle fibres and centromere
(1) diakinesis (2) diplotene (4) Two homologous chromosomes
(3) zygotene (4) pachytene
114. In meiosis-I, a bivalent is an association of
107. Which one is correct about bivalent ? (1) Four chromatids and four centromeres
1. Bivalent are tetrads (2) Two chromatids and two centromeres
2. A bivalent means 4 chromatids and 2 (3) Two chromatids and one centromeres
centromere (4) Four chromatids and two centromeres
3. One bivalent consists of 2 homologous
chromosomes, each and sister chromatids 115. In which stage of the first meiotic division, two
4. Bivalents form in zygotene sister chromatids are formed?
(1) All (2) Only 3 (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(3) 3 and 4 (4) Only 4 (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene

108. At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the 116. Chiasma shows the sites of
spindle fibres by their : (1) Spindle formation
(1) Satellites (2) Synapsis
(2) Secondary constrictions (3) Crossing over
(3) Kinetochores (4) None of these
(4) Centromere

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117. The proteins involved in the movement of 119. When synapsis is complete all along the
chromosomes towards the poles during cell chromosome, the cell is said to have entered a
division are stage called
(1) Actin (2) Myosin (1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
(3) Tubulin (4) Elastin (3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis

118. Separation of linked genes is called 120. When synapsis is complete all along the
(1) Linkage (2) Segregation chromosome, the cell is said to have entered a
(3) Crossing over (4) Genetic mutation stage called
(1) II, III (2) II, IV
(3) III, IV (4) I, III

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Answer Key

1. (1) 31. (3) 61. (3) 91. (2)

2. (1) 32. (1) 62. (2) 92. (1)
3. (3) 33. (1) 63. (4) 93. (3)
4. (4) 34. (3) 64. (2) 94. (1)
5. (4) 35. (3) 65. (1) 95. (1)
6. (2) 36. (4) 66. (4) 96. (4)
7. (4) 37. (3) 67. (1) 97. (4)
8. (2) 38. (3) 68. (3) 98. (3)
9. (2) 39. (2) 69. (1) 99. (4)
10. (2) 40. (3) 70. (4) 100. (4)
11. (4) 41. (1) 71. (2) 101. (3)
12. (2) 42. (3) 72. (3) 102. (3)
13. (4) 43. (3) 73. (1) 103. (3)
14. (3) 44. (3) 74. (4) 104. (4)
15. (2) 45. (4) 75. (1) 105. (4)
16. (3) 46. (3) 76. (2) 106. (4)
17. (2) 47. (1) 77. (1) 107. (1)
18. (4) 48. (1) 78. (3) 108. (3)
19. (3) 49. (2) 79. (1) 109. (1)
20. (2) 50. (2) 80. (2) 110. (1)
21. (1) 51. (3) 81. (1) 111. (4)
22. (1) 52. (1) 82. (3) 112. (1)
23. (4) 53. (3) 83. (2) 113. (4)
24. (2) 54. (1) 84. (4) 114. (4)
25. (4) 55. (4) 85. (2) 115. (3)
26. (2) 56. (3) 86. (3) 116. (3)
27. (4) 57. (4) 87. (1) 117. (3)
28. (3) 58. (2) 88. (1) 118. (3)
29. (3) 59. (2) 89. (4) 119. (2)
30. (1) 60. (4) 90. (3) 120. (1)

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