Professional Documents
Culture Documents
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Conduct research to better understand the
A)
context of nursing practice
Establish a base of evidence for practice
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B)
through disciplined research
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Document the role nursing serves in
C)
society
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D) Establish research priorities
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Which of the following would not be a
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3. current priority for clinical nursing
research?
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A) Pain management
B) Health promotion
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C) Nurses' personalities
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D) Prevention of illness
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4.
on:
A) Client satisfaction
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B) Clinical interventions
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C) Health promotion
D) Nursing education
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C) studied to be objective in providing
information.
The distance between the researcher and
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D) those being researched is minimized to
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enhance the interactive process.
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The traditional scientific method is not
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7. characterized by which of the following
attributes?
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A) Control over external factors
Systematic measurement and observation
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B)
of natural phenomena
Testing of hunches deduced from theory
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C)
or prior research
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observations
Deducing specific predictions from
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B)
generalizations
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B) Holistic
C) Systematic
D) Flexible
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B)
complex human traits
The difficulty of gaining the cooperation
C)
of humans as study participants
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The shortage of theories about human
D)
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behavior
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The classic scientific method has its
11.
A)
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intellectual roots in:
Positivism
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B) Determinism
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C) Constructivism
D) Empiricism
si
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A) Logical
B) Deterministic
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C) Empirical
D) Reductionist
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w
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A descriptive question that a qualitative
15.
researcher might ask is:
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What are the dimensions of this
A)
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phenomenon?
What is the average intensity of this
B)
phenomenon?
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How frequently does this phenomenon
C)
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occur?
What is the average duration of this
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D)
phenomenon?
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B) Quantitative
Either quantitative or qualitative
C)
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(researcher preference)
D) Insufficient information to determine
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w
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19. purposes would not be addressed through
cause-probing research?
A) Intervention/treatment
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B) Prognosis
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C) Harm and etiology
D) Diagnosis and assessment
pr
st
Over a 20-year period, Wallace and
colleagues conducted a series of studies
te
20.
on children's pain and nurses' pain
management. This is an example of:
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A) A research program
B) The scientific method
si
C) Positivist research
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D) Basic research
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findings.
A) True
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B) False
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Most people would agree that nursing
25.
research began with Florence Nightingale.
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A) True
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B) False
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The journal Nursing Research began
26.
A) True
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publication during the 1950s.
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B) False
ng
A) True
B) False
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university.
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A) True
B) False
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B) False
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The trial-and-error approach to
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32. developing knowledge is an empirical
one.
A) True
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B) False
st
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Benchmarking data is at the pinnacle of
33.
the evidence hierarchy.
ng
A) True
B) False
si
ur
34.
nature of the real world.
A) True
.m
B) False
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understood by researchers.
A) True
B) False
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more important than controlled
quantitative studies for nursing practice.
A) True
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B) False
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Empirical evidence is information derived
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39. from introspective analysis of real-world
A) True
st
phenomena.
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B) False
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40.
phenomena have antecedent causes.
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A) True
B) False
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A) True
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B) False
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The question “What is the meaning of this
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45. phenomenon?” would be asked by
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qualitative researchers.
A) True
pr
B) False
st
te
ng
si
ur
yn
.m
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w
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Chapter 1
Answer Key
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. C
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10. B
11. A
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12. D
13. C
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14. B
15. A
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16. B
17. D
18. C
st
te
19. D
20. A
ng
21. B
22. A
si
23. B
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24. B
25. A
yn
26. A
27. B
.m
28. A
29. B
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30. B
31. A
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32. A
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33. B
34. A
35. A
36. B
37. A
38. B
39. B
40. A
41. A
Chapter 1
42. B
43. A
44. A
45. A
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.c
ep
pr
st
te
ng
si
ur
yn
.m
w
w
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Chapter 2
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.c
3. Most evidence hierarchies put which of the following at the pinnacle?
A) Randomized clinical trials (RCTs)
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B) Systematic reviews of multiple studies
C) Quality improvement projects
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D) It depends on the research question
st
4. Which of the following can be used to critically appraise clinical practice guidelines?
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A) A systematic review from the Cochrane Collaboration
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5. Which of the following models was explicitly developed with the idea that individual
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6. In the following clinical question, what is the Outcome (O component): What is the
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effect of relaxation therapy versus biofeedback on the functional ability of patients with
rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Functional ability
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Biofeedback
D) Relaxation therapy
Page 1
7. In the following clinical question, what is the Intervention/influence/exposure (I
component): Does taking antidepressants affect the risk of suicide in cognitively
impaired adolescents?
A) Adolescence
B) Suicide
C) Antidepressant use
D) Cognitive impairment
8. In the following clinical question, what is the Population (P component): Do stress and
depression affect dyspnea in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD)?
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A) Patients who are stressed
B) Patients who are depressed
.c
C) Patients who experience dyspnea
D) Patients with COPD
ep
pr
9. In the following clinical question, what is the Comparison (C component): Does
chronic stress affect inflammatory responses in older men with atherosclerotic disease?
A) Chronic stress
B) Inflammatory response
st
te
C) Atherosclerotic disease
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10. In which of the following clinical questions is fatigue the “I” component?
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rehabilitation?
C) What is the meaning of fatigue among patients with sleep apnea?
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D) Does the level of depression of patients suffering from chronic fatigue improve by
participating in an exercise intervention?
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11. Which of the following is a question that would be asked as part of the process of
appraising research evidence?
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Page 2
12. Which of the following activities is part of an organizational—but not an
individual—EBP endeavor?
A) Asking a good question/identifying a problem
B) Searching for evidence
C) Assessing implementation potential
D) Synthesizing and appraising evidence
13. Asking a clinical question is the first step in evidence-based practice. What are the four
components of a PICO clinical question?
A) Population, implication, comparison, outcome
B) Population, intervention, clinical, outcome
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C) Population, intervention, comparison, outcome
D) Population, implication, clinical, outcome
.c
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14. Which following level of evidence includes systematic reviews of multiple studies?
A) Level IV
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B) Level III
C) Level II
D) Level I st
te
ng
15. A nurse in the United States is scheduled to care for a child with an ostomy. Which of
the following resource would best assist the nurse with specific guidelines for
evidence-based decision making for this patient?
si
A) MEDLINE
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B) TRIP
C) www.guidelines.gov
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D) www.rnao.org/bestpractices
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16. Which of following study types is a systematic review used for integration of statistical
quantitative research findings?
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A) Meta-synthesis
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B) Meta-analysis
C) Randomized controlled trial
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D) Quasi-experiment
Page 3
17. The best-known early research utilization (RU) project sought to bridge the gap between
research and practice. Which following is the name of that well-known project?
A) Cochrane Collaboration
B) Stetler Model of Research Utilization
C) Conduct and Utilization of Research in Nursing (CURN) Project
D) Promoting Action on Research Implementation in Health Services
18. The Iowa Model identifies problem-focused triggers for implementing an EBP project.
Which of the following is a problem-focused trigger in the Iowa Model?
A) A finding published recently in a nursing journal
B) A new clinical guideline issued by a federal agency
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C) An increase in latex allergy among emergency room nurses
D) Questions from hospital committee
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19. As a nurse, you must understand the difference between research utilization and
evidence-based nursing practice. Which of the following best defines evidence-based
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practice?
A) Begins with research itself, clinical expertise, and patient preference
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B) Uses new evidence and translates research findings into real-world applications
C) Uses findings from disciplined research in practical application unrelated to
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original research
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D) Integrates best research evidence, with clinical expertise, patient preference, and a
particular clinical situation
si
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20. Some EBP models recommend a formal assessment of organizational “fit,” known as
implementation potential, when an organization is considering undertaking an EBP
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21. A nurse is observing how the time of feeding impacts an inpatient's gastric reflux. In
which of the following steps of the EBP process would the nurse determine whether a
specific feeding time alleviated the patient's gastric reflux symptoms?
A) Searching for and collecting evidence that addresses the question
B) Appraising and synthesizing the evidence
C) Integrating the evidence with own clinical expertise, patient preferences, and local
context
D) Assessing the effectiveness of the decision, intervention, or advice
Page 4
22. After an institutional project has been developed, the next step is to conduct a pilot
study (a trial study). Based on the Iowa Model, which step would identify the success or
failure of a pilot study?
A) Developing an evaluation plan
B) Measuring client outcomes prior to implementation
C) Training relevant staff in the use of the new guideline
D) Evaluating the project in terms of both the process and the outcomes
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integrated review of qualitative studies?
A) Meta-synthesis
.c
B) Meta-analysis
C) Randomized controlled trial
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D) Quasi-experiment
pr
24. The Iowa Model identifies several knowledge-focused triggers for implementing an
st
EBP project. Which following statement is considered a knowledge-focused trigger in
the Iowa Model?
te
A) A report in the New England Journal of Medicine regarding a potential flu
ng
epidemic
B) Readmission rate of heart failure patients
C) Poor patient survey results
si
25. Which of the following is the best resource to use when beginning the search for
evidence necessary for an individual EBP project?
.m
Evidence for Nursing Practice (8th ed.). Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer| Lippincott
Williams & Wilkins.
D) Aggarwal, B., Liao, M., & Mosca, L. (2010). Predictors of physical activity at 1
year in a randomized controlled trial of family members of patients with
cardiovascular disease. Journal of Cardiovascular Nursing, 29(6), 444-449.
Page 5
Answer Key
1. C
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. D
om
10. A
11. B
12. C
.c
13. C
14. D
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15. C
16. B
pr
17. C
18. C
19.
20.
D
D
st
te
21. D
ng
22. D
23. A
24. A
si
25. B
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yn
.m
w
w
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Page 6
Chapter 3
1. Which of the following terms would likely be used only by qualitative researchers, as
opposed to quantitative researchers, to refer to people who participate in a study?
A) Informants
B) Study participants
C) Subjects
D) Investigators
2. Which of the following terms is used by both qualitative and quantitative researchers to
refer to the abstractions under study?
A) Concept
B) Theory
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C) Phenomenon
D) Variable
.c
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3. Which of the following would be most likely called a construct?
A) Gender
pr
B) Body temperature
C) Self-care
D) Blood type st
te
ng
C) A dependent variable
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D) An outcome variable
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5. The dependent (outcome) variable in the research question, "Is the quality of life of
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nursing home residents affected by their functional ability or hearing acuity?” is which
of the following?
A) Quality of life
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B) Functional ability
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C) Hearing acuity
D) Residence in a nursing home
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Page 1
6. The independent variable in the research question, "What is the effect of noise levels on
postoperative pain and blood pressure fluctuations in ICU patients?" is which of the
following?
A) Blood pressure
B) ICU patients
C) Noise levels
D) Postoperative pain
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A) Associate degree–prepared nurses
B) Baccalaureate degree–prepared nurses
.c
C) Rehabilitative nursing measures
D) Type of educational background of nurse
ep
pr
8. The purpose of an operational definition in a quantitative study is to do which of the
following?
A) Assign numeric values to variables
B) Specify how a variable will be measured
st
te
C) State the expected relationship between the variables under investigation
ng
9. Which of the following is a datum from a quantitative study of the labor and delivery
ur
B) 107 oz
C) “I practically slept through the whole thing!”
.m
10. Which of the following is a datum from a qualitative research study on the labor and
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Page 2
11. In quantitative studies, the most basic distinction is between which of the following?
A) Grounded theory and phenomenological research
B) Empirical and nonempirical research
C) Experimental and nonexperimental research
D) Population-based and sample-based research
12. Which of the following is the least likely research tradition to be used by qualitative
nurse researchers?
A) Experimental
B) Phenomenologic
C) Ethnographic
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D) Grounded theory
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13. The research tradition that focuses on understanding phenomena within a cultural
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context is which of the following?
A) Experimental
pr
B) Phenomenologic
C) Ethnographic
D) Grounded theory st
te
ng
14. The research tradition that is an approach to understanding people's experiences as they
are lived is which of the following?
A) Experimental
si
B) Phenomenologic
ur
C) Ethnographic
D) Grounded theory
yn
.m
B) Frameworks
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C) Research questions
D) Conceptual definitions
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16. The overall plan for answering a research question—the architectural backbone of a
study—is called which of the following?
A) Sampling plan
B) Proposal
C) Hypothesis
D) Research design
Page 3
17. The aggregate of those to whom a researcher wishes to generalize study results is which
of the following?
A) Gatekeepers
B) Population
C) Sample
D) Sampling plan
18. Gaining entrée in a qualitative project usually requires negotiation with one or more of
which of the following?
A) Gatekeeper
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B) Researcher
C) Informant
.c
D) Consultant
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19. Research design in qualitative studies is often described as:
pr
A) Experimental
B) Narrative
C) Interpretive
D) Emergent
st
te
ng
20. At what point does a qualitative researcher typically make a lot of decisions about data
collection and sampling?
si
21. In a qualitative study, the people cooperating in the study are called which of the
following?
w
A) Subjects
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B) Investigators
C) Researchers
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D) Informants
Page 4
23. The dependent variable in the research question, “Is the quality of life of nursing home
residents affected by their functional ability or hearing acuity?” is which of the
following?
A) Quality of life
B) Functional ability
C) Hearing acuity
D) Residence in a nursing home
24. The independent variable in the research question, “What is the effect of noise levels on
postoperative pain in ICU patients?” is which of the following?
om
A) Surgery
B) ICU patients
.c
C) Noise levels
D) Postoperative pain
ep
pr
25. The purpose of an operational definition in a quantitative study is to do which of the
following?
A) Assign numeric values to variables
B) Specify how a variable will be measured
st
te
C) State the expected relationship between the variables under investigation
ng
26. A researcher conceptualizes pain as “the subject's statement of intensity of pain.” What
ur
27. For which of the following pairs of variables is there most likely to be a relationship
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Page 5
28. In quantitative studies a basic distinction is between which of the following?
A) Grounded theory and phenomenological research
B) Empirical and nonempirical research
C) Experimental and nonexperimental research
D) Population-based and sample-based research
29. Which of the following is true of an experimental study? Select all that apply.
A) It includes an intervention or treatment.
B) It is a type of qualitative research.
C) It can be called a clinical trial.
D) It tests causal relationships.
om
.c
30. The conceptual phase of the research process involves which of the following activities?
A) Formulating the problem and reviewing the related literature
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B) Selecting an appropriate research design for the study
C) Finalizing and reviewing the research plan
pr
D) Interpreting the results of data analysis of key variables
st
31. The purpose of ethnographic research is to do which of the following?
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A) Study situations to aid in theory development
ng
33. Putting evidence into practice is in which phase of the quantitative research process?
A) Dissemination
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B) Analytic
C) Empirical
D) Conceptual
Page 6
Answer Key
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. B
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10. C
11. C
12. A
.c
13. C
14. B
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15. A
16. D
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17. B
18. A
19.
20.
D
C
st
te
21. D
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22. C
23. A
24. C
si
25. B
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26. C
27. A
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28. C
29. A, C, D
.m
30. A
31. C
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32. B
33. A
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Page 7
Chapter 4
Nurses are most likely to encounter research results in which of the following? Select all
1. that apply.
A) Poster sessions
B) Journal articles
C) Textbooks
D) Dissertations
2. When a research report undergoes a “blind” review for a journal, it means which of the
following?
A) The journal editors do not know who submitted the report.
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B) The authors of the report do not know who the editor of the journal is.
C) The report is published without indicating the authors' names.
D) The reviewers making recommendations about publication are not told who the
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authors are.
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3. In a quantitative research article, a review of prior research on the problem under study
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is most likely to be found in which section?
A) Introduction st
B) Method section
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C) Results section
D) Discussion
ng
si
4. In which section would the following sentence most likely appear: “The study sample
consisted of 135 mother-infant dyads from an inner-city neighborhood”?
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A) Introduction
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B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion
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5. In which section would the following sentence most likely appear: “The results may
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have been influenced by the patients' desire to please the researchers and the hospital
staff”?
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A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion
Page 1
6. When a finding is statistically reliable, it means which of the following?
A) The finding is very important
B) The same results are likely to occur with a new sample of subjects
C) The researcher's hypothesis is correct
D) Changes in nursing procedures are needed
7. In which section of a research report would the following sentence most likely appear:
“Patients who coughed were significantly more likely to have spontaneous dislodgement
of small-bore nasogastric tubes than patients who did not”?
A) Introduction
B) Method section
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C) Results section
D) Discussion
.c
ep
8. In a qualitative research article, the thematic analysis of the data would be presented in
which section?
pr
A) Introduction
B) Method section
C) Results section
D) Discussion section
st
te
ng
9. In a research report, limitations of the study are normally discussed in which section?
A) Introduction
si
B) Method section
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C) Results section
D) Discussion section
yn
.m
10. The criterion used by quantitative researchers involving the soundness of the evidence is
which of the following?
A) Reliability
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B) Validity
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C) Credibility
D) Generalizability
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11. Which of the following is an aspect of trustworthiness used in evaluating the strength of
evidence in a qualitative study?
A) Triangulation
B) Reflexivity
C) Reliability
D) Credibility
Page 2
12. A nurse researcher compared men's and women's level of stress following cardiac
surgery and made sure that both groups were comparable with regard to length of stay in
hospital. Length of stay in hospital is which of the following?
A) Independent variable
B) Dependent variable
C) Mediating variable
D) Confounding variable
13. In which section of the research report might the research problem be stated?
A) Abstract
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B) Introduction
C) Methods section
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D) Results section
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14. Key variables and the population of the study are most likely to be communicated in
pr
which of the following?
A) Title
B) Abstract
C) Introduction
st
te
D) Methods
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15. Questions such as “What were the research questions?” and “What were the findings?”
si
and “What methods were used to address those questions?” can all be answered in
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B) Abstract
C) Introduction
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D) Results
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16. The discussion of the central phenomena or variables of a study, along with the
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theoretical or conceptual framework of the study, is found in which section of the study?
A) Discussion
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B) Abstract
C) Introduction
D) Results
Page 3
17. The statement “the results of this study are statistically significant” means which of the
following regarding the findings?
A) Passed a Chi test
B) Are clinically important
C) Are the strength of the study
D) Are probably true and replicable
18. The level of significance of the findings in a research study can be found in which
section?
A) Discussion
B) Introduction
om
C) Methods
D) Results
.c
ep
19. An objective assessment of a research study's strengths and limitations is called which
of the following?
pr
A) Evidenced-based practice
B) Peer review process
C) Research critique
D) Literature review
st
te
ng
20. A conclusion drawn from evidence presented in a study is called which of the
following?
si
A) Statistically significant
ur
B) Valid
C) Inference
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D) Credible
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21. Research findings that are organized by categories or labels can be found in which type
of study?
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A) Clinical trial
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B) Qualitative
C) Quantitative
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D) Quasi-Experimental
Page 4
22. The presentation of the study's conclusions and implications for further study are found
in which section?
A) Discussion
B) Introduction
C) Methods
D) Results
23. The accuracy and consistency of information that is obtained from a study is which of
the following?
A) Credibility
B) Reliability
om
C) Validity
D) Trustworthiness
.c
ep
24. The soundness of the evidence collected and the relationship between the variables is
known as which of the following?
pr
A) Credibility
B) Reliability
C) Validity
D) Trustworthiness
st
te
ng
25. The use of multiple data collection methods to draw conclusions about the area being
studied is called which of the following?
si
A) Bias
ur
B) Statistical test
C) Research control
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D) Triangulation
.m
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w
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Page 5
Answer Key
1. A, B
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. C
9. D
om
10. B
11. D
12. D
.c
13. B
14. A
ep
15. B
16. C
pr
17. D
18. D
19.
20.
C
C
st
te
21. B
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22. A
23. B
24. C
si
25. D
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yn
.m
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w
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Page 6
Chapter 5
1. Based on what we know from this chapter, the Tuskegee Syphilis Study violated which
of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Freedom from harm
B) Right to self-determination
C) Right to fair treatment
D) Privacy rule
2. The regulations affecting the ethical conduct of research sponsored by the U.S. federal
government were based on which of the following?
A) Nuremberg Code
B) Declaration of Helsinki
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C) Belmont Report
D) Code of Ethics of the American Nurses Association
.c
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3. Debriefing sessions are which of the following?
A) Discussions with prospective participants to obtain informed consent
pr
B) Discussions with participants after a study to explain various aspects of the study
and provide a forum for questioning
st
C) Discussions with a human subjects committee before a study to obtain permission
to proceed
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D) Recruitment discussions with prospective participants
ng
4. Which of the following are potential benefits from participating in a study? Select all
si
that apply.
ur
A) Monetary gains
B) Access to a new and potentially beneficial treatment
yn
5. Which of the following comprise the three primary ethical principles articulated by the
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A) Beneficence
B) Respect for human dignity
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C) Anonymity
D) Justice
Page 1
6. If a researcher unobtrusively studies interactions among patients in a psychiatric
hospital, what might this be called?
A) Research misconduct
B) Breach of confidentiality
C) Covert data collection
D) Deception
7. The safeguard mechanism by which even the researcher cannot link the participant with
the information provided is called which of the following?
A) Confidentiality
B) Anonymity
om
C) Informed consent
D) Right to privacy
.c
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8. Confidentiality of study participants can be most effectively protected by which of the
following?
pr
A) Avoiding the collection of any identifying information
B) Performing a risk/benefit assessment
st
C) Placing all identifying information on computer files rather than manual files
D) Obtaining informed consent from participants before the study
te
ng
11. In a qualitative study that involves multiple contacts between the researcher and study
participants, the researcher may negotiate which of the following?
A) Implied consent
B) Stipend
C) Process consent
D) Risk/benefit ratio
Page 2
12. Which of the following is an example of research misconduct?
A) Fabrication of data
B) Concealed observation
C) IRB rejection
D) A high monetary incentive to study participants
13. Who may sign the informed consent for a child to participate in a study? Select all that
apply.
A) Grandmother with legal guardianship
B) Parent
C) Sibling over 18 years of age
om
D) Child over 7 years old
.c
14. Vulnerable groups include which of the following? Select all that apply.
ep
A) Prisoners
B) Pregnant women
pr
C) Young adults between 19 and 24 years of age
D) Infants and toddlers
st
te
15. In a qualitative study, process consent is used for which of the following reasons?
ng
D) The participant may forget the risks involved in a study after being initially
ur
informed.
yn
C) The assent form protects study participants from discrimination due to cultural
w
diversity.
D) The assent form allows the child over 7 years of age to give informed consent to
w
participate in a study.
Page 3
17. The nurse researcher protects study participants by which of the following?
A) Performing a risk/benefit assessment to evaluate the cost compared with the benefit
of participation.
B) Keeping painful procedure information from the study participant until the study is
completed.
C) Preventing psychological discomfort during and after the study.
D) Proposing a study that ultimately benefits society despite the risk to the
participants.
om
B) Confidentiality of participant information may occur during a research study
whereas anonymity is required.
.c
C) Confidentiality is a sign of respect for the participant by the researcher but
anonymity is a legal issue.
ep
D) Confidentiality procedures require a researcher to disclose illegal behavior whereas
anonymity protects the researcher from disclosing a participant's illegal behavior.
pr
st
19. In a legal case, a participant is protected if a Certificate of Confidentiality was issued by
which of the following?
te
A) The National Institutes of Health to prevent forced disclosure
ng
20. In both qualitative and quantitative studies, researchers use debriefing to do which of the
yn
following?
A) Allow participants to ask questions and give feedback to the researcher
.m
B) Allow the researcher to assess the participant before they leave the study site
C) Explain to the participant what information they can tell others
D) Describe the purpose of the study and the consent form
w
w
21. Which of the following is an ethical principle cited by the Belmont Report as a standard
w
for research?
A) Beneficence
B) Philanthropy
C) Duty
D) Morality
Page 4
22. Offering prisoners a $50.00 payment for participation in a clinical trial for toothpaste
violates which of the following?
A) The right to self-determination
B) The right to full disclosure
C) The right to protection from exploitation
D) The right to privacy
23. To protect the right to fair treatment, the researcher who seeks federal grant funding for
research is required to do which of the following?
A) Include minority populations in their research study
B) Disclose the benefits of the research to participants
om
C) Offer participants a stipend for participation in the study
D) Obtain informed consent from participants
.c
ep
pr
st
te
ng
si
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 5
Answer Key
1. A, B, C
2. C
3. B
4. A, B, C
5. A, B, D
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. D
om
10. D
11. C
12. A
.c
13. A, B
14. A, B, D
ep
15. A
16. A
pr
17. A
18. A
19.
20.
A
A
st
te
21. A
ng
22. A
23. A
si
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 6
Chapter 6
1. The research question, “What is the decision-making process among intensive care unit
nurses who decide to discuss spiritual issues with patients?” is which of the following?
A) Most likely to be addressed using a quantitative approach
B) Most likely to be addressed using a qualitative approach
C) Not researchable
D) Not appropriately worded
2. Which of the following is a major source of ideas for research problems? Select all that
apply.
A) Theories or conceptual frameworks
B) Personal nursing experience
om
C) Nursing code of ethics
D) Nursing literature
.c
ep
3. "Does maternal stress during the first trimester of a pregnancy affect the infant's birth
weight?" is which of the following?
pr
A) A research question
B) A portion of a problem statement
C) A statement of purpose
D) A hypothesis
st
te
ng
4. "This study aimed to explore the meaning of the experience of living with a colostomy”
is which of the following?
si
A) A research question
ur
D) A hypothesis
.m
Page 1
6. In a statement of purpose, the researcher often communicates information beyond the
substantive content through which of the following?
A) The specification of the population to be studied
B) The operational definition of the research variables
C) The prediction of anticipated relationships among variables
D) The choice of verbs that suggest the state of knowledge on the topic or the
approach to be used
om
B) The statement of purpose and the research questions
C) The independent variable and the dependent variable
.c
D) Statistical testing and the null hypothesis
ep
8. The hypothesis, "Women who jog regularly are more likely than those who do not to
pr
have amenorrhea" is which of the following?
A) Null
B) Not testable
C) Directional
st
te
D) Nondirectional
ng
9. The hypothesis, "A person's emotional status is not affected by a relocation to a nursing
si
A) Null
B) Not testable
yn
C) Directional
D) Nondirectional
.m
10. The hypothesis, "Women who live in rural areas are unlikely to practice breast
w
A) Null
B) Not testable
w
C) Directional
D) Nondirectional
Page 2
11. A researcher includes a statement of purpose that indicates that the goal of the study is
to understand the lived experiences of family members caring for a terminally ill child
with cancer. What type of research design would most likely be used?
A) Ethnography
B) Grounded theory
C) Phenomenology
D) Quasi-experimental
12. A researcher wants to explore the ways in which gender issues are evident in the
day-to-day interactions between male and female nurses and their patients in an
acute-care inpatient unit. The purpose statement of her research study indicates that she
om
wants to study whether and how gender issues influence the culture and behaviors of
nurses as they interact with patients. Of the following, which type of study design would
.c
be most appropriate to use?
A) Qualitative ethnography
ep
B) Qualitative phenomenology
C) Quantitative descriptive
pr
D) Quantitative Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT)
st
13. Select the best description for the following: “Is there a relationship between elective
te
labor induction and an unintended cesarean delivery?”
ng
A) It is a directional hypothesis
B) It is a directional research question
C) It is a non-directional hypothesis
si
14. Select the best description for the following: “Children who watch an average of 2 or
more hours of television per day will have higher BMIs than children who watch less
.m
C) It is a non-directional hypothesis
w
15. Which of the following statements, if used in a hypothesis, is not readily testable by
empirical means?
A) Less than
B) Meaning of
C) More than
D) Related to
Page 3
16. A hypothesis that states there is no relationship between the independent variable(s) and
the dependent variable(s) is called which of the following?
A) Non-directional hypothesis
B) Null hypothesis
C) Research hypothesis
D) Simple hypothesis
17. Which of the following statements made by a new nurse researcher indicate that he
correctly understands the purpose of using statistical analysis in quantitative research?
Select all that apply.
A) “Statistical analysis allows the formal testing of hypotheses.”
om
B) “Statistical analysis might lead a researcher to reject a hypothesis.”
C) “Statistical analysis provides proof of the relationships between variables.”
.c
D) “Statistical analysis supports inferences that a hypothesis is most likely correct (or
most likely not correct).”
ep
pr
18. Which of the following components are usually included in a well-structured problem
statement for nursing research? Select all that apply.
st
A) Knowledge gap (what information do we currently know and what is lacking?)
B) Problem identification (what is the overall problem? What is not working in the
te
current situation?)
ng
C) Proposed solution (how will information gained from the proposed study contribute
to the solution of this problem?)
D) Sustainability (how long will we be able to sustain any changes made to the current
si
status quo?)
ur
yn
19. Identify the independent variable(s) from the following research question: “What is the
effect of acetaminophen and ibuprofen on liver function in female adolescents with
.m
C) ibuprofen
w
D) liver function
w
20. Which of the following is the dependent variable (DV) in the research question, “Are
serial 12-lead ECGs more accurate in diagnosing acute myocardial infarctions (MI) than
a single initial 12-lead ECG?”
A) Accuracy in diagnosing an MI
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Serial 12-lead ECGs
D) Single initial 12-lead ECG
Page 4
21. Which of the following statements of purpose is most likely to be from a qualitative
study?
A) Explore lived experiences of refugee women and children from Afghanistan living
in the United States
B) Investigate the effectiveness of music therapy for decreasing pain in post-operative
adolescents
C) Compare the effectiveness of effleurage to therapeutic touch in decreasing maternal
anxiety during an un-medicated vaginal birth
D) Evaluate the relationship between insurance status and number of emergency
department (ED) visits
om
22. If the problem statement from a proposed research study indicates the need to generate a
.c
theory relating to social processes (e.g., how persons within a social group interact with
one another), the study design will most likely be which of the following?
ep
A) Quantitative study
B) Ethnography
pr
C) Grounded theory
D) Phenomenology
st
te
23. Which of the following statements of purpose is least likely to demonstrate a bias on the
ng
C) Prove
ur
D) Show
yn
24. Which of the following are true statements regarding the function of hypotheses in
.m
Page 5
Answer Key
1. B
2. A, B, D
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. C
9. A
om
10. B
11. C
12. A
.c
13. D
14. A
ep
15. B
16. B
pr
17. A, B, D
18. A, B, C
19.
20.
A, C
A
st
te
21. A
ng
22. C
23. B
24. A, B, D
si
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 6
Chapter 7
1. Which of the following would be a primary source for a research literature review?
A) A meta-analysis appearing in the Cochrane Reviews
B) A metasynthesis published in the journal Qualitative Health Research
C) An experimental study published in the journal Research in Nursing & Health
D) A systematic review published in the journal Nursing Research
om
.c
3. In conducting a subject search in an electronic database, you would most likely initiate
the search by typing in which of the following?
ep
A) An author's name
B) Restrictions to the search
pr
C) A topic or keyword
D) An ancestor or descendant
st
te
4. In an electronic literature search, the searcher does not necessarily have to know the
ng
B) Mapping
ur
C) Restricting focus
D) Copying
yn
.m
5. The electronic database that focuses on the nursing and allied health literature is:
A) CINAHL
B) EMBASE
w
C) Web of Knowledge
w
D) MEDLINE
w
Page 1
6. When doing a computerized search for quantitative studies on a topic, which of the
following statements is most accurate?
A) The best place to begin is to use a search engine such as Yahoo or Google
B) The primary keyword to use in the search typically would be the population
C) The keywords to start the search typically would be the independent and dependent
variables
D) The specific subject headings used in each bibliographic database would have to be
learned
om
B) The CINAHL database includes about 15 million records
C) The CINAHL database uses the controlled vocabulary called MeSH to index
.c
entries
D) Subject headings in CINAHL include substantive and methodologic topics
ep
pr
8. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The MEDLINE database can only be accessed through subscriptions with a
commercial vendor st
B) PubMed provides access to MEDLINE free of charge
te
C) PubMed does not allow users to find “related citations” for a previously identified
ng
record in MEDLINE
D) A search in MEDLINE and CINAHL for a given keyword would yield identical
results
si
ur
10. Which of the following is an appropriately worded sentence for a research review?
w
A) Five recent studies have proved that men are less well able to cope with the loss of
a spouse than women.
B) The HIV-epidemic has been the cause of considerable anxiety in the gay
community.
C) Nurses and physicians struggle with the decision about whether to work in
environments where abortion services are offered.
D) Research has consistently found that infant's sleeping position is related to the risk
of sudden infant death syndrome.
Page 2
11. What is the primary purpose of the review of literature in a research report?
A) Reporting on the state of the current evidence about the problem under study
B) Demonstrating the research capabilities of the authors
C) Focusing on the gaps in research related to the problem under study
D) Making recommendations about future study designs
12. At what point in the research process do grounded theory qualitative researchers
conduct a literature review?
A) Prior to data collection
B) After beginning to collect data
om
C) At the conclusion of the study
D) Prior to sample selection
.c
ep
13. What is the most important type of information that should be included in a literature
review?
pr
A) Clinical anecdotes
B) Opinion articles
st
C) Case reports from applicable clinical settings
D) Findings from prior studies
te
ng
14. What term is used to describe accounts of research in the literature prepared by someone
other than the researchers who conducted the study?
si
A) Primary sources
ur
B) Secondary sources
C) Ghost writer studies
yn
D) Literature reviews
.m
16. Which search strategy selects an important early study and locates subsequent citations
in the literature?
A) Ancestry approach
B) Database search
C) Descendancy approach
D) Footnote chasing
Page 3
17. Which electronic database would you first use to access nursing and allied health
literature?
A) CINAHL
B) MeSH
C) Google
D) MEDLINE
18. What term is given to unique symbols that expand search results and allow for a
simultaneous search of numerous words of the same root within an electronic database?
A) Textword search
om
B) Keywords
C) Wildcard characters
.c
D) Expanders
ep
19. What mechanism does the MEDLINE database use to provide consistency in
pr
information retrieval?
A) Textwords
B) MeSH terminology
C) Boolean operators
st
te
D) Scopus reviews
ng
20. You have identified 66 potential references through electronic database searches for
si
your review of literature. Which action in the screening process would be the most
ur
21. What is the primary purpose in documenting the literature retrieval process?
w
Page 4
22. What is the primary question that should be addressed when evaluating published
research reports in a literature review?
A) To what extent do the findings reflect the truth (the true state of affairs)?
B) Have the authors conducted an adequate literature review in their research report?
C) Did the authors cite appropriately from the previously published literature related
to the problem under study?
D) Was the research question appropriate considering the available evidence at the
time of the study?
23. Identifying patterns, regularities, and irregularities in the published literature about the
problem under study when constructing a literature review is a process called which of
om
the following?
A) Structuring
.c
B) Sorting
C) Content organizing
ep
D) Thematic analysis
pr
24. Which statement accurately reflects a characteristic of a well-written literature review?
st
A) Only a few key reports by the same author should be included if that author has
published extensively on the topic under study.
te
B) The review should primarily contain reports supportive of your general hypothesis
ng
research.
ur
yn
B) “Results from this study proved that nursing actions were instrumental to improved
patient outcomes.”
C) “All of these studies verify that levels of understanding cannot be changed easily.”
w
D) “It is clear that the presence of nurses improves the health status of patients in the
w
clinical setting.”
w
Page 5
Answer Key
1. C
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. B
om
10. D
11. A
12. B
.c
13. D
14. B
ep
15. A
16. C
pr
17. A
18. C
19.
20.
B
D
st
te
21. B
ng
22. A
23. D
24. C
si
25. A
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 6
Chapter 8
om
D) Articulate the nature of relationships among phenomena
.c
3. The building blocks of theory are which of the following?
ep
A) Frameworks
B) Relationships
pr
C) Concepts
D) Hypotheses
st
te
4. Every study has which of the following?
ng
A) Theory
B) Schematic model
C) Framework
si
D) Conceptual model
ur
yn
6. The Health Promotion Model would best be described as which of the following?
w
A) Descriptive theory
B) Borrowed theory
C) Grounded theory
D) Middle-range theory
Page 1
7. Which of the following are central concepts in conceptual models of nursing? Select all
that apply.
A) Human beings
B) Social support
C) Health
D) Environment
om
D) Theory of Stress and Coping
.c
9. The nurse-theorist Pender developed which of the following?
ep
A) Adaptation Model
B) Social Cognitive Theory
pr
C) Health Belief Model
D) Health Promotion Model
st
te
10. The nurse-theorist Mishel developed which of the following?
ng
D) Transtheoretical Model
ur
yn
11. The Theory of Stress and Coping is an example of which of the following?
A) A nursing model
.m
B) A grand theory
C) A borrowed theory
D) A grounded theory
w
w
12. Self efficacy is a widely-used construct that was originally developed within which of
w
the following?
A) The Health Belief Model
B) The Health Promotion Model
C) Social Cognitive Theory
D) The Uncertainty in Illness Theory
Page 2
13. Stages of change is a construct that was developed within which of the following?
A) The Health Belief Model
B) The Transtheoretical Model
C) Health as Expanding Consciousness Model
D) The Theory of Planned Behavior
14. A grounded theory often has as a theoretical underpinning which of the following?
A) An ideational theory
B) Symbolic interactionism
C) Phenomenology
D) The Theory of Human Becoming
om
.c
15. The belief that a child with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder will learn
appropriate behaviors from continued positive reinforcement of acceptable behavior
ep
patterns can generate a research hypothesis. This generalization of the relationship
between phenomena is known as which of the following?
pr
A) Null Hypothesis
B) Theory
C) Model
D) Framework
st
te
ng
16. The connection of phenomena through a loosely structured approach not directly linking
them in a logically deductive manner is which of the following?
si
B) Theoretical framework
C) Conceptual model
yn
D) Research question
.m
17. Identify the type of research that often fails to formally acknowledge the conceptual
underpinnings or framework of the study since it is not necessarily part of the research
w
tradition.
w
A) Quantitative research
B) Qualitative research
w
C) Pilot study
D) Mixed method research
Page 3
18. Which of the following concepts are central to nursing models? Select all that apply.
A) Human beings
B) Environment
C) Health
D) Nutrition
19. Research on the recovery process of young adults following post-traumatic amputation
of a lower extremity would best be furthered by using which of the following conceptual
models of nursing?
A) Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
B) Prochaska's Transtheoretical Model
om
C) Becker's Health Belief Model
D) Sister Callista Roy's Adaptation Model
.c
ep
20. Which of the following is a non-nursing conceptual model frequently used in nursing
research and can be considered a shared theory?
pr
A) Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
B) Pender's Health Promotion Model
C) Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
D) Beck's Theory of Postpartum Depression
st
te
ng
21. Which of the following are overall objectives of the use of theories in research? Select
all that apply.
si
that form these models include which of the following? Select all that apply.
w
A) Health promotion
B) Unified whole
w
C) Adaptation
D) Self-efficacy
Page 4
23. Theories are created and invented as opposed to being discovered. Theories are built
inductively from which of the following?
A) Observations
B) Correlations
C) Research questions
D) Research problems
24. Visual representation of the relationships among phenomena used in both quantitative
and qualitative research is known as which of the following?
A) Descriptive theory
B) Framework
om
C) Shared theory
D) Conceptual map
.c
ep
25. The five stages of change of the Transtheoretical Model include which of the following?
Select all that apply.
pr
A) Precontemplation
B) Action
C) Evaluation
D) Maintenance
st
te
ng
26. Which of the following theories are usually adopted by ethnographers in the conduction
of qualitative research? Select all that apply.
si
A) Ideational theories
ur
B) Materialistic theories
C) Substantive theories
yn
D) Preexisting theories
.m
27. Lazarus and Folkman's Theory of Stress and Coping has been used in nursing research
to correlate the relationship between stress and anxiety in primary caregivers of patients
w
A) Conceptual model
B) Framework
w
C) Shared theory
D) Grounded theory
Page 5
28. Nursing theories that are more restricted in their generality and set out to explain a
smaller focus of the human experience are known as which of the following?
A) Grand theories
B) Middle-range theories
C) Classical theories
D) Propositions
om
.c
ep
pr
st
te
ng
si
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 6
Answer Key
1. C
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. A
6. D
7. A, C, D
8. C
9. D
om
10. A
11. C
12. C
.c
13. B
14. B
ep
15. B
16. C
pr
17. A
18. A, B, C
19.
20.
D
A
st
te
21. A, B, C
ng
22. A, B, C
23. A
24. D
si
25. A, B, D
ur
26. A, B
27. C
yn
28. B
.m
w
w
w
Page 7
Chapter 9
1. The research design for a quantitative study involves decisions with regard to which of
the following? Select all that apply.
A) Which conceptual framework to use
B) Whether there will be an intervention
C) What types of comparisons will be made
D) How many times data will be collected
2. Which of the following are key criteria for making causal inferences about the
relationship between two variables? Select all that apply.
A) Lack of temporal ambiguity about which variable occurred first
B) Statistical confirmation that a relationship between the two exists
om
C) The ability to randomly assign study participants to groups
D) The ability to rule out other factors as potential causes of the outcome
.c
ep
3. An important function of a rigorous research design in a quantitative study is to have
control over which of the following?
pr
A) Outcome variables
B) Mediating variables
C) Carryover variables
D) Confounding variables
st
te
ng
4. A true experiment requires which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Control
si
B) Intervention
ur
C) Blinding
D) Randomization
yn
.m
5. The use of a random numbers table for assigning subjects to groups eliminates which of
the following?
A) Selection threat
w
B) Intervention fidelity
w
C) Attrition
D) Carryover effects
w
Page 1
7. A one-group pretest-posttest design is an example of which of the following?
A) A crossover design
B) A true experimental design
C) A quasi-experimental design
D) A retrospective design
om
.c
9. One weakness associated with cause-probing correlational research is which of the
following?
ep
A) Artificiality of the settings in which it occurs
B) Difficulty in linking the research to a theoretical framework
pr
C) Problem of self-selection into groups
D) Inability to generalize the findings beyond the sample
st
te
10. Which of the following research designs is weakest in terms of the researcher's ability to
ng
establish causality?
A) Experimental
B) Retrospective case-control
si
C) Prospective cohort
ur
D) Quasi-experimental
yn
11. If a researcher wanted to describe the relationship between women's age and frequency
.m
B) Quasi-experimental
w
C) Longitudinal
D) Experimental
w
12. Studies that collect data at one point in time are called which of the following?
A) Time series
B) Cross-sectional studies
C) Longitudinal studies
D) Crossover studies
Page 2
13. A study that followed, over a 20-year period, 500 users and 500 non-users of oral
contraceptives to determine if there were any long-term side effects would be which of
the following?
A) Time series
B) Retrospective study
C) Prospective study
D) Crossover study
om
C) Maximizing the external validity of the study
D) Avoiding carryover effects
.c
ep
15. Using homogeneity as a strategy for controlling confounding variables can reduce
which of the following?
pr
A) Construct validity
B) External validity
C) Intervention fidelity
D) Internal validity
st
te
ng
16. Which of the following is the most effective method for controlling participant factors?
A) Using a homogeneous sample
si
B) Statistical control
ur
C) Matching subjects
D) Randomization
yn
.m
C) Randomization to groups
D) Homogeneity of the sample
w
18. The researcher does not have to know in advance which confounding variables have to
be controlled for which of the following procedures?
A) Matching
B) Randomization
C) Statistical control
D) Homogeneity
Page 3
19. The threat to internal validity that occurs when external co-occurring events or
conditions affect outcomes is the threat known as which of the following?
A) Maturation
B) Selection
C) Testing
D) History
20. In a nonequivalent control group design, the most serious threat to internal validity is
which of the following?
A) Testing
om
B) Selection
C) Maturation
.c
D) History
ep
21. In an RCT, the most serious threat to internal validity typically is which of the
pr
following?
A) Mortality
B) Selection
C) Maturation
st
te
D) History
ng
22. A study is internally valid to the extent that which of the following has taken place?
si
23. The use of a diverse sample of study participants in multiple sites might affect which of
w
the following?
w
Page 4
24. When participants' behaviors are affected not by the treatment per se but by their
knowledge of participating in a study, interpretation of the findings is complicated by
the influence of which of the following?
A) Treatment effect
B) History threat
C) Hawthorne effect
D) Selection threat
25. Which of the following can reduce the statistical conclusion validity of a study?
A) Low attrition
B) Low power
om
C) Low generalizability
D) Low maturation
.c
ep
26. The nurse is designing a research study to assess the effectiveness of two wound healing
dressings. What key design feature will be most important to address in this type of
pr
study?
A) Intervention
B) Comparisons
C) Blinding
st
te
D) Location
ng
27. When addressing control of confounding variables, which of the following best
si
A) Individuals who have suffered a myocardial infarction (MI) are at higher risk for a
w
Page 5
29. Which of the statements below best illustrates the temporal criterion needed for a causal
relationship?
A) Skin cancer occurs because of genetic predisposition.
B) Kidney disease develops as a result of pesticide exposure.
C) Hepatitis C occurs in populations with substance abuse histories.
D) Following vaccination for varicella, rates of varicella infection are lower.
30. Which of the following are distinctive characteristics of a true experimental design?
Select all that apply.
A) Intervention
B) Control
om
C) Randomization
D) Correlation
.c
ep
31. Applying your knowledge of random assignment, which statement is correct?
A) Random assignment is accomplished with random sampling.
pr
B) Grouping participants with similar features together is the best way to achieve
random assignment.
st
C) Random assignment ensures that the study is a true experiment.
D) Recruiting participants from significantly different neighborhoods results in
te
random assignment.
ng
A) R X O X
B) R O R X
yn
C) R X O O
D) R O X O
.m
33. Which statement infers the advantage to using cross-over designs for quantitative
w
research?
w
Page 6
34. Quasi-experimental research designs lack what feature found in true experimental
research?
A) Control groups
B) Pretests
C) Randomization
D) Placebos
om
D) Blinding
.c
36. The nurse plans a study comparing the occurrence of anxiety disorders in military
ep
personnel deployed overseas with those who served strictly within the borders of the
United States. What research design should be selected for this study?
pr
A) Experimental
B) Quasi-Experimental
C) Cohort
D) Nonexperimental
st
te
ng
38. The nurse wishes to study the opinions of high school students concerning the
availability of health care services at XYZ High School during the past school year.
What research design best fits with the study objective?
w
A) Trend study
w
B) Cross-sectional study
C) Longitudinal study
w
D) Follow-up study
Page 7
39. Which of the following situations illustrates control over an external confounding
variable?
A) Using a script to relay information about the study.
B) Randomizing assignment to control treatment groups.
C) Allowing for maximum flexibility over where data is collected.
D) Choosing a heterogeneous sample of subjects.
40. What is the strongest method of controlling for intrinsic (subject) factors?
A) Statistical control
B) Randomization
C) Matching
om
D) Homogeneity
.c
41. What study design flaw may lead to a failure to achieve statistical significance?
ep
A) Variables precisely defined
B) Adequate exposure to the intervention
pr
C) Small sample size
D) Cross-sectional data collection
st
te
42. Using your knowledge of threats to internal validity, which research design will be most
ng
susceptible?
A) Pretest-Posttest
B) Cross-over
si
C) Correlational
ur
D) Factorial
yn
D) Control group subjects drop out of the study when their disease process does not
w
improve.
w
44. Which quantitative research design will most strongly support evidence-based practice?
A) Factorial Design
B) Randomized Control Trial Design
C) Correlational Design
D) Time-Series Design
Page 8
45. A review of research reveals two articles that have conflicting results. A national
randomized controlled trial found that annual brain scans will allow early detection and
treatment of brain cancers, reducing mortality by 65%. An international
quasi-experimental trial reported no significant reduction in mortality with annual scans.
Based on your review, propose the best recommendation.
A) Recommendations from the national study should be followed.
B) Recommendations from the international study should be followed.
C) There is no rigorous research that can support a recommendation.
D) Recommendations should be stratified according to where the research was
conducted.
om
46. A research proposal states that the objective is to, “explore the incidence of
homeopathic health practices on Iowa Native Reserves in Oklahoma.” In describing the
.c
design to be used for conducting the study, the researchers plan to use a
nonexperimental design. What can you conclude from this proposal?
ep
A) The choice of a nonexperimental design is appropriate for the research objective.
B) Researchers should consider using a quasi-experimental design to meet their
pr
objective.
C) This research may not be answered completely if a quantitative design is used.
st
D) The population to be studied needs to be expanded to include all Native Americans
in Oklahoma to avoid a small sample size.
te
ng
47. To study the effects of Healing Touch; what is the best choice to minimize confounding
variables?
si
B) Offer all participants a Healing Touch session when data collection is completed.
C) Offer to enroll only individuals who do not have any medical conditions.
yn
D) Offer another activity that gives similar time and attention to control group
participants.
.m
w
w
w
Page 9
Answer Key
1. B, C, D
2. A, B, D
3. D
4. A, B, D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. C
om
10. B
11. A
12. B
.c
13. C
14. A
ep
15. B
16. D
pr
17. B
18. B
19.
20.
D
B
st
te
21. A
ng
22. A
23. D
24. C
si
25. B
ur
26. B
27. C
yn
28. B
29. D
.m
30. A, B, C
31. C
w
32. D
33. A
w
34. C
w
35. A
36. D
37. C
38. B
39. A
40. B
41. C
42. C
43. D
44. B
Page 10
46. C
47. D
45. A
w
w
w
.m
yn
ur
si
Page 11
ng
te
st
pr
ep
.c
om
Chapter 10
om
D) Systematic over- or underrepresentation of a key attribute vis-a-vis the population
.c
3. Strata are incorporated into the design of which of the following sampling approaches?
ep
A) Systematic
B) Purposive
pr
C) Quota
D) Consecutive
st
te
4. Which of the following is a probability sampling method?
ng
A) Convenience sampling
B) Systematic sampling
C) Consecutive sampling
si
D) Quota sampling
ur
yn
5. The sampling design that would be especially likely to yield a representative sample is
which of the following?
.m
A) Consecutive
B) Convenience
C) Purposive
w
D) Quota
w
w
6. Which of the following types of sample is considered to be the weakest for quantitative
studies?
A) Convenience
B) Quota
C) Purposive
D) Systematic
Page 1
7. A researcher used a systematic sampling plan. The sample size was 200. The sampling
interval was 250. The first element drawn was 196. The second element would be:
A) 396
B) 45
C) 446
D) 646
8. Which of the following is the most widely used data collection method by nurse
researchers?
A) Records
B) Self-reports
om
C) Observation
D) Biophysiologic measures
.c
ep
9. A major advantage of closed-ended questions is that they do which of the following?
A) Are easy to construct
pr
B) Are analyzed in a straightforward manner
C) Encourage in-depth responses
D) Are not subject to response biases st
te
ng
10. Interviews are usually preferable to questionnaires because of which of the following?
A) They are less expensive
B) They yield data that are easier to analyze
si
12. On a five-point Likert scale, a person who strongly agreed with a statement would be
scored as which of the following?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) Cannot be determined
Page 2
13. On a 20-item Likert scale with five response categories, the range of possible scores is
which of the following?
A) 0 to 100
B) 20 to 80
C) 20 to 100
D) 0 to 50
14. A self-report method used to measure subjective experiences such as pain and fatigue is
which of the following?
A) Observation
B) In vivo measurements
om
C) Visual analog scales
D) Likert scales
.c
ep
15. The social desirability response set bias is least likely to be a problem on scales
incorporated into which of the following?
pr
A) Mailed anonymous questionnaires
B) Face-to-face interviews
C) Telephone interviews
D) All options are equally susceptible
st
te
ng
16. A person who marked “strongly agree” to all or most items on a Likert scale would best
be described as which of the following?
si
B) Biased participant
C) Nay-sayer
yn
D) Yea-sayer
.m
17. When an observer is not concealed, the findings may be biased because of which of the
following?
w
A) Reactivity
w
B) Ethical problems
C) Lack of mobility
w
Page 3
18. Which of the following are advantages of using biophysiologic measures in nursing
studies? Select all that apply.
A) They are relatively accurate and precise
B) They effectively measure subjective experiences such as pain and fatigue
C) They are objective, requiring minimal inference
D) They are typically cost effective because they are available for clinical purposes
om
Association (ANA) members
C) Selected members of families of clients undergoing surgery
.c
D) A sample of clients diagnosed with COPD and who currently smoke
ep
20. Which of the following results from a sample size that is too small?
pr
A) Low power to detect a difference in the outcomes of the two groups
B) Lack of control over extraneous variables
C) Limits to random sampling
D) A weak questionnaire survey tool
st
te
ng
recruiting participants
ur
population
D) Identification of a sampling frame for an accessible population, writing element
names on paper, placing the written names in a bowl, and drawing a select number
w
22. Which statement regarding sampling error and sampling bias is accurate?
A) Sampling bias may be defined as the difference between data obtained from a
simple random sample and the data that would be obtained if an entire population
were measured.
B) Sampling bias occurs by chance.
C) Sampling error and sampling bias are synonymous.
D) Sampling error may be contained in sample data even when the most careful
random sampling procedure has been used to obtain the sample.
Page 4
23. Which group represents a convenience sample?
A) The patients with a diagnosis of URI seen in the clinic on one afternoon in
February
B) One hundred male BSN nurses recruited by the original study subjects who are
currently in leadership roles
C) Middle-class Caucasian females chosen as representatives of the accessible
population
D) Twenty male subjects and twenty female subjects chosen for a study on gender
differences
om
24. Which sampling method would be most practical and provide the most reliable data to
study the medication errors by registered nurses who work in city, county, and federal
.c
prisons?
A) Purposive sampling
ep
B) Stratified random sampling
C) Quota sampling
pr
D) Simple random sampling
st
25. If a target population contains 10,600 elements and the researcher seeks a systematic
te
random sample of 50, the sampling interval would be which of the following?
ng
A) 116
B) 600
C) 212
si
D) 53
ur
yn
27. A survey question asks subjects to respond to the following statement: “The overall
hospital experience that I received during my hospital stay considered my needs as an
individual.” They were asked to identify, on a five-point scale, the degree to which they
agreed or disagreed with the statement. This is an example of which scale?
A) Social scale
B) Likert scale
C) Visual analog scale
D) Differential scale
Page 5
28. The nurse researcher is conducting a study on a nonpharmacologic nursing intervention
for the treatment of pain. Which data collection instrument would provide the most
sensitive measurement of pain?
A) Differential scale
B) Physiologic measures
C) Likert scale
D) Visual analog scale
om
A) Subjects may be anxious because they are being observed.
B) Respondents can remain anonymous.
.c
C) It is less time consuming than a questionnaire.
D) It directly captures an event and behaviors.
ep
pr
30. Which of the following are advantages to biophysiologic measures?
A) Biophysiologic measurements are subjective and accurate.
st
B) Patients cannot distort the measurements and have objective measures.
C) Biophysiologic measurements are self-reported.
te
D) Biophysiologic measurements effectively indicate pain levels.
ng
si
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 6
Answer Key
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. B
9. B
om
10. C
11. A
12. D
.c
13. C
14. C
ep
15. A
16. D
pr
17. A
18. A, C, D
19.
20.
A
A
st
te
21. D
ng
22. D
23. A
24. B
si
25. C
ur
26. C
27. B
yn
28. D
29. D
.m
30. B
w
w
w
Page 7
Chapter 11
1. The term emergent design in qualitative inquiry refers to a research design that emerges
at which of the following times?
A) During the conduct of a literature review
B) While the researcher develops a conceptual framework
C) Before the study is begun
D) While the researcher is in the field collecting data
om
C) Selecting research instruments
D) Determining the maximum amount of time available for field work
.c
ep
3. Which of the following design features can apply to both a qualitative and quantitative
study?
pr
A) Manipulation of the independent variable
B) Cross-sectional versus longitudinal data collection
C) Control over confounding variables
D) Random assignment of study participants
st
te
ng
B) Phenomenology
ur
C) Grounded theory
D) Symbolic Interaction
yn
.m
Page 1
7. Which of the following is a step in descriptive phenomenology? Select all that apply.
A) Bracketing
B) Inferring
C) Analyzing
D) Describing
8. A study that focused on the meaning of sacrifice among wounded military personnel
during war time would likely use which of the following?
A) A descriptive phenomenological approach
B) A grounded theory approach
C) An ethnography
om
D) A hermeneutic approach
.c
9. Participant observation is a data collection strategy used in almost all of which of the
ep
following?
A) Ethnographic studies
pr
B) Case studies
C) Phenomenological studies
D) Descriptive qualitative studies st
te
ng
10. Which of the following approaches involves the use of a procedure known as constant
comparison?
A) Grounded theory
si
B) Ethnography
ur
C) Phenomenology
D) Historical
yn
.m
11. The question, “What is the essence of men's experiences of chemotherapy treatment for
prostate cancer?” is an example of a research question within which of the following
traditions?
w
A) Grounded theory
w
B) Ethnography
C) Phenomenology
w
D) Qualitative description
Page 2
12. The question, “What are the basic social processes women use to maintain balance
through their menopausal transition?” is an example of a research question within which
of the following traditions?
A) Grounded theory
B) Ethnography
C) Phenomenology
D) Qualitative description
13. Which of the following statements are true? Select all that apply.
A) Reflexive journals can be used in the bracketing process.
B) Hermeneutics focuses on interpreting the meaning of experiences.
om
C) Descriptive phenomenology aims at understanding tacit knowledge.
D) Interpretive phenomenologists often supplement in-depth interviews with an
.c
analysis of texts (e.g., novels, poetry).
ep
14. Which of the following names does not belong with the others?
pr
A) Heidegger
B) Corbin
C) Strauss
D) Glaser
st
te
ng
15. Which of the following is most likely to be at “center stage” in a case study?
A) A phenomenon such as attempted suicide
si
16. A researcher who used Burke's pentadic dramatism approach would be undertaking
which of the following?
A) Historical research
w
B) Qualitative description
w
C) A case study
D) A narrative analysis
w
17. Which of the following is a type of research with an ideological perspective? Select all
that apply.
A) Critical ethnography
B) Symbolic interaction
C) Participatory action research
D) Feminist research
Page 3
18. Critical research differs from traditional qualitative research in which of the following?
A) Its goal to be transformative
B) Its use of interviews as a data source
C) Its use of reflexivity
D) Its desire to gain an in-depth understanding of phenomena
19. Emergent design is used in qualitative research and is described as a research design that
does which of the following?
A) Is specified before data is collected
B) Tends to be reductionistic
om
C) Evolves during the study
D) Involves a short period of time to collect data
.c
ep
20. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?
A) It is capable of adjusting to what is being learned during data collection.
pr
B) It depends on the robust nature of statistical analysis.
C) It does not have to obtain Institutional Review Board approval before conducting
the study.
D) It involves survey research design.
st
te
ng
21. When considering the evidence that men in nursing had an important role in the
evolution of nursing as a profession, what qualitative research design is appropriate to
si
A) Phenomenology
B) Grounded theory
yn
C) Ethnography
D) Historical
.m
22. Which of the following characteristics refers to qualitative nursing research design?
w
Page 4
23. Which characteristic of qualitative research design is similar to quantitative research
design?
A) Use of both cross-sectional and longitudinal designs to observe the evolution of a
phenomenon
B) Generalizing the finding of a study
C) Use of power analysis for determining sample size
D) Avoidance of using field notes during the data collection process, to prevent bias
24. Ethnographers seek to learn from members of a cultural group to understand their world
view. Ethnographic researchers refer to which of the following two perspectives?
A) Ying and yang
om
B) Emic and etic
C) Data saturation and generalization
.c
D) Significant and nonsignificant
ep
25. The qualitative method that uses an inductive approach using a systematic set of
pr
procedures to create a theory about social processes is known which of the following?
A) Phenomenology
B) Grounded Theory
C) Ethnography
st
te
D) Historical Method
ng
26. In a qualitative study, the researcher becomes involved with the research process and
si
must ensure that his or her own preconceived beliefs and opinions do not influence the
ur
data that is emerging from the study. The way the researcher does this is by which of the
following?
yn
A) Bracketing
B) Hermeneutics
.m
C) Narrative analysis
D) Pentadic dramatism
w
w
27. Ethnographers use a very specific strategy for making observations of the culture under
study while being involved in activities. This is referred to as which of the following?
w
A) Surveys
B) Participant observation
C) Hermeneutics
D) Bracketing
Page 5
28. Grounded theory tries to account for people's actions from the perspective of those
involved. It seeks to discover this main concern or problem and the behavior that is
designed to resolve it. The manner in which people resolve this main concern is known
as which of the following?
A) Participatory action research
B) Constant comparison
C) The core variable
D) A single entity
om
B) Focusing on a story as the object of inquiry
C) Emergence of content analysis
.c
D) Presentation of pentadic dramatism
ep
30. A critical researcher is concerned with which of the following? Select all that apply.
pr
A) A critique of society and envisioning new possibilities
B) An aim to make people aware of contradictions and disparities in beliefs and social
practices st
C) Understanding how individuals construct and narrate stories to make sense of their
te
world
ng
31. Participatory action research aims to produce which of the following? Select all that
ur
apply.
A) Knowledge
yn
B) Action
C) Empowerment
.m
D) Stability
w
w
w
Page 6
Answer Key
1. D
2. A, B, D
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. A, C, D
8. D
9. A
om
10. A
11. C
12. A
.c
13. A, B, D
14. A
ep
15. C
16. D
pr
17. A, C, D
18. A
19.
20.
C
A
st
te
21. D
ng
22. A, D
23. A
24. B
si
25. B
ur
26. A
27. B
yn
28. C
29. A
.m
30. A, B, D
31. A, B, C
w
w
w
Page 7
Chapter 12
1. A critical concern for qualitative researchers in their sampling decisions is which of the
following?
A) Obtaining a sample that is representative of the population under study
B) Accessing information-rich sources of data
C) Recruiting a sample that can facilitate saturation quickly and efficiently
D) Obtaining a sample with high potential for generalizability
om
C) Using randomness in the sampling process is desirable.
D) The type of sampling approach can change and evolve over the course of data
.c
collection.
ep
3. Theoretical sampling is most likely to be used by which of the following?
pr
A) Ethnographers
B) Grounded theory researchers
C) Phenomenologists
D) Qualitative descriptive researchers
st
te
ng
4. Which of the following is a type of purposive sampling? Select all that apply.
A) Extreme case sampling
si
C) Snowball sampling
D) Typical case sampling
yn
.m
5. Near the end of data collection, qualitative researchers may employ the technique of
sampling which of the following?
A) Criterion cases
w
B) Deviant cases
w
C) Typical cases
D) Disconfirming cases
w
Page 1
7. Samples of ten or fewer study participants would be most likely to be found in which of
the following?
A) Phenomenological study
B) Grounded theory study
C) Ethnography
D) Participatory action study
8. In which of the following types of studies would the principle of data saturation be
used? Select all that apply.
A) Grounded theory study
om
B) Ethnography
C) Phenomenological study
.c
D) Clinical trial
ep
9. Which of the following data collection approaches is conducted with a group of 5 to 10
pr
people simultaneously?
A) Photo elicitation interview
B) Focused interview
C) Critical incidents interview
st
te
D) Focus group interview
ng
10. Which of the following data collection approaches is most likely to use a topic guide?
si
D) Participant observation
.m
Page 2
12. Which of the following statements about data collection in qualitative research is true?
Select all that apply.
A) When interviewing participants, qualitative researchers do not tend to ask their
questions in any predetermined order.
B) Unstructured observational data are often gathered in field settings through
participant observation.
C) Ethnographers usually gather their data using both observation and self-reports.
D) The data for an unstructured interview are most likely to be in the form of field
notes that the researcher records immediately after the interview has been
completed.
om
13. Which of the following statements about participant observation is true?
A) Participant observers must maintain the same level of participation throughout the
.c
study.
B) In a participant observation study, participants are observed but not questioned.
ep
C) Participant observers may use single, multiple, or mobile positioning.
D) Participant observers most commonly record their observations by videotaping all
pr
events and transactions that they observe.
st
14. Which of the following are types of notes maintained by a participant observer? Select
te
all that apply.
ng
A) Descriptive notes
B) Participatory action notes
C) Reflective notes
si
D) Methodologic notes
ur
yn
15. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research? Select all that apply.
A) Uncovering multiple realities
.m
16. Which of the following is true regarding qualitative and quantitative research?
w
Page 3
17. A difficulty identified with convenience sampling is which of the following?
A) The participants do not meet the conceptual needs of the study
B) It is not economical
C) It is not efficient
D) The participants may not produce the depth of information needed
18. Qualitative researchers often count on recruiting by referral, which is called which of
the following?
A) Convenience sampling
B) Snowball sampling
om
C) Volunteer sampling
D) Purposive sampling
.c
ep
19. A qualitative researcher who is attempting to provide findings from multiple diverse
viewpoints on a phenomenon would most likely subscribe to which of the following?
pr
A) Deviant case sampling
B) Typical case sampling
C) Criterion case sampling
D) Confirming case sampling
st
te
ng
20. A qualitative researcher identifies trends in the phenomenon being studied, yet several
new cases received through a snowball sampling effort have divergent views of the
si
A) Confirming cases
B) Disconfirming cases
yn
C) Purposive cases
D) Typical cases
.m
21. When developing a theory, a nurse researcher uses theoretical sampling to do which of
w
the following?
w
Page 4
22. Data saturation occurs when which of the following happens?
A) Researchers can find no new participants that fit the criteria
B) All the research questions are answered
C) No new information is obtained and redundancy is achieved
D) Participants are describing new concepts
23. What is the purpose of choosing key informants in ethnographic research studies? Select
all that apply.
A) To facilitate recruiting more participants to the study
B) To guide the researcher culturally
C) To identify important events
om
D) To provide a knowledgeable link to the culture
.c
24. Which of the following are key principles that guide the selection of a sample for a
ep
phenomenological study? Select all that apply.
A) The participant must be able to articulate what it was like to have lived the
pr
experience.
B) The participant must have considerable knowledge of the phenomenon being
studied. st
C) The participant must be someone who is closely associated with someone who has
te
experienced the phenomenon.
ng
25. Which of the following would be the most appropriate reason to adjust the sampling
ur
26. When collecting data through interviews, qualitative researchers rely primarily on which
w
of the following?
A) A priori ideas
w
B) Structured questions
C) Supplemental physiological data
D) Self-report
Page 5
27. A phenomenological researcher is interviewing a participant who has lived through a
hurricane. Which of the following is the best example of a grand tour question
appropriate to ask this participant?
A) Why did you not evacuate the area when instructed to do so?
B) What kind of damage did your home sustain?
C) What was it like to live through a hurricane?
D) How many fatalities occurred in your state due to the hurricane?
om
.c
ep
pr
st
te
ng
si
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 6
Answer Key
1. B
2. D
3. B
4. A, B, D
5. D
6. A
7. A
8. A, B, C
9. D
om
10. B
11. C
12. A, C, D
.c
13. C
14. A, C, D
ep
15. A, B, D
16. A
pr
17. D
18. B
19.
20.
A
B
st
te
21. D
ng
22. C
23. B, C, D
24. A, D
si
25. A
ur
26. D
27. C
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 7
Chapter 13
1. The use of both of qualitative and quantitative data in a study or cluster of studies serves
the important purpose of which of the following?
A) Providing researchers with different skills an opportunity to collaborate
B) Enhancing the study's validity
C) Allowing participants to select an unstructured or structured method of responding
D) Enhancing the likelihood that the study will be published
om
C) Triangulation
D) Methodologic research
.c
ep
3. Which of the following is true about the notation QUAL → quan?
A) The qualitative component is dominant
pr
B) The quantitative component is dominant
C) The data would be collected in a single phase
D) The design is an embedded design st
te
ng
5. The phase of a clinical trial that typically uses a full experimental design is which of the
.m
following?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
w
C) Phase III
w
D) Phase IV
w
Page 1
7. If a researcher wanted to assess how well an evidence-based protocol for encouraging
adolescent mothers to breastfeed was meeting its objectives, the research would be
which of the following?
A) Survey
B) Evaluation
C) Methodologic research
D) Secondary analysis
8. A phase III clinical trial most closely resembles which of the following in terms of
objectives and design?
A) An impact analysis
om
B) An economic analysis
C) A process analysis
.c
D) A secondary analysis
ep
9. What type of study would address the following question: What barriers did the nursing
pr
staff face in implementing the fall prevention program?
A) Impact analysis
B) Outcomes study
C) Process analysis
st
te
D) Economic analysis
ng
10. An issue that is distinctive in nursing intervention research is which of the following?
si
11. The type of research designed to document the effectiveness of health care and nursing
services in a broad sense is called which of the following?
w
A) A process analysis
w
B) Outcomes research
C) An impact analysis
w
D) Methodological research
Page 2
12. Suppose a nurse researcher were interested in learning whether a self-administered
health history questionnaire yielded data of comparable quality to a personal interview
health history. The researcher would be doing which of the following?
A) Secondary analysis
B) Clinical trial
C) Methodologic study
D) Survey
13. A nurse researcher gathered data from a national sample of nurses regarding fatigue and
burnout by means of an Internet questionnaire. This is an example of which of the
following?
om
A) A survey
B) An evaluation
.c
C) A case study
D) A secondary analysis
ep
pr
14. If a researcher used U.S. census data to examine the relationship between women's
employment and childbearing, this would be an example of which of the following?
A) A survey
B) An outcomes study
st
te
C) A secondary analysis
ng
D) A methodological study
si
15. Which of the following could involve either qualitative or quantitative data? Select all
ur
that apply.
A) A secondary analysis
yn
B) An evaluation
C) A methodologic study
.m
D) An ethnographic study
w
16. The use of mixed methods research is best characterized by which of the following?
w
A) Decreasing
B) Increasing
w
C) Confusing
D) Being called into question
Page 3
17. Which of the following is the key factor for determining the design and method a
researcher will use?
A) The researchers' preference
B) The financial resources available
C) The research question
D) Sample size
18. Which of the following is most likely the strongest argument for mixed method
research?
A) Pragmatism
B) Incrementality
om
C) Enhanced validity
D) Complementarity
.c
ep
19. Sequencing and prioritization are important when reporting research. Which of the
following is the correct notation for a convergent parallel design study?.
pr
A) QUAL + QUAN
B) QUAL → QUAN
C) QUAL(quan)
D) QUAN → qual
st
te
ng
20. Nested sampling is a preferred sampling technique used by many researchers for which
of the following reasons?
si
D) Only one group of people has to be recruited for both qualitative and quantitative
strands.
.m
w
an evaluation?
w
Page 4
22. Which of the following most accurately describes the triangulation design in mixed
methods research?
A) A design that uses multiple approaches in a research study to offset limitations with
strengths
B) A design that features a dominant component and a supportive component with
concurrent data collection
C) A sequential design in which quantitative data are collected in the first phase and
qualitative in the second phase
D) A sequential design in which qualitative data are collected in the first phase and
quantitative in the second phase
om
23. Process analysis is the best choice for research when the researcher would like to do
which of the following?
.c
A) Assess a clinical intervention
B) Describe program implementation
ep
C) Identify a net impact
D) Weigh a program's benefits against its monetary costs
pr
st
24. Which of the following statements most accurately describes methodologic research?
A) A distinctive process of planning, developing, testing, and disseminating
te
interventions.
ng
outcome measures
ur
25. Nursing intervention research involves phases for complex interventions. Which of the
following indicates the correct order of these phases?
A) Effectiveness research, basic developmental research, pilot research, efficacy
w
research
w
Page 5
26. Which of the following are characteristic of methodologic research? Select all that
apply.
A) Methodologic research addresses the development, validation, and evaluation of
research tools or methods.
B) Methodologic research focuses on development of new instruments.
C) Methodologic research has piqued the interest of nurse researchers.
D) Methodologic research obtains quantitative information about the prevalence,
distribution, and interrelations of variables within a population.
27. Which of the following are true of the mixed methods research design? Select all that
apply.
om
A) Qualitative and quantitative methods are complementary and avoid limitations of a
single approach to research.
.c
B) A mix of qualitative and quantitative research should be used in all research
studies.
ep
C) Complexity of the subject may require the use of both paradigms to ensure rigorous
research.
pr
D) Triangulation allows the researcher to the alternative interpretations of the data
which help shape the result.
st
te
ng
si
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 6
Answer Key
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. A
9. C
om
10. A
11. B
12. C
.c
13. A
14. C
ep
15. A, B, C
16. B
pr
17. C
18. A
19.
20.
A
C
st
te
21. C
ng
22. A
23. B
24. C
si
25. D
ur
26. A, B, C
27. A, C, D
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 7
Chapter 14
2. If the bulk of scores on a test occurred at the upper end of the distribution, the
distribution could be described as which of the following?
A) Normal
B) Bimodal
C) Positively skewed
om
D) Negatively skewed
.c
3. The mean is usually the statistic reported for which type or types of measure? Select all
ep
that apply.
A) Nominal measures
pr
B) Ordinal measures
C) Interval measures
D) Ratio measures st
te
ng
C) Risk
ur
D) Variability
yn
5. The measure of central tendency that is most stable is which of the following?
.m
A) Mode
B) Median
C) Mean
w
6. The measure of variability that takes into account all score values is which of the
following?
A) Range
B) Median
C) Mean
D) Standard deviation
Page 1
7. A group of 100 students took a test. The mean was 85, the standard deviation was 5, and
the scores were normally distributed. About how many of the 100 scores fell between 80
and 90?
A) 34
B) 68
C) 95
D) Impossible to determine
om
C) The values are positively skewed
D) The mean is 100
.c
ep
9. Which of the following signifies the strongest relationship?
A) r = -.64
pr
B) M = .99
C) t = 1.44
D) r = .57 st
te
ng
D) An individual score
yn
11. A widely used index of risk used among practitioners of evidence-based practice is
.m
B) The F ratio
C) The odds ratio
w
D) Pearson's r
w
12. The use of inferential statistics permits a researcher to do which of the following?
A) Draw conclusions about a population based on information gathered from a sample
B) Describe information obtained from empirical observation
C) Interpret descriptive statistics
D) Estimate risk and relative risk
Page 2
13. The standard deviation of a sampling distribution is called which of the following?
A) Sampling error
B) Standard error of the mean
C) Variance
D) Parameter
om
.c
15. In the following statement, what would the number 50 be called: 95% CI for the mean
of 60 = 50 to 70?
ep
A) The probability value
B) The point estimate
pr
C) The lower confidence limit
D) The effect size
st
te
16. In the following statement, what would the number 60 be called: 95% CI for the mean
ng
of 60 = 50 to 70?
A) The probability value
B) The point estimate
si
C) A beta of .95
w
D) A beta of .05
w
18. The steps involved in using test statistics include which of the following? Select all that
apply.
A) Determining the appropriate statistic to be used
B) Selecting a level of significance
C) Calculating the degrees of freedom
D) Calculating the theoretical distribution for the test statistic
Page 3
19. For which of the following levels of significance is the risk of making a Type I error
lowest?
A) .10
B) .05
C) .01
D) .001
20. If the power for an analysis was .50, which of the following would be true?
A) There would be a 50% risk of a Type II error
B) The odds ratio would be equal to .50
C) The 95% CI would have a range of 50 points
om
D) There would be a 50% risk of a Type I error
.c
21. If a researcher calculated a t-statistic to be –2.5 and the theoretical t value (for df = 60
ep
and alpha = .05) is 2.0, the researcher would do which of the following?
A) Conclude that a Type II error had been made
pr
B) Accept the null hypothesis
C) Reject the null hypothesis
D) Use a different level of significance st
te
ng
22. A researcher compared the mean anxiety levels of patients in a soothing music group, a
massage group, or a control group. The statistical procedure that was likely used to test
group differences is which of the following?
si
A) t-test
ur
B) ANOVA
C) MANOVA
yn
D) Chi-squared test
.m
A) t
B) r
w
C) F
D) χ2
Page 4
24. When both the independent and outcome variables are measured on a ratio scale, the
appropriate bivariate test statistic is which of the following?
A) t
B) r
C) F
D) χ2
25. Which of the following is an effect size index? Select all that apply.
A) t
B) r
om
C) d
D) OR
.c
26. A researcher wanted to predict whether nursing home residents would or would not
ep
experience a fall based on 10 characteristics (e.g., age, presence of absence of dementia,
etc.). The analysis would involve which of the following?
pr
A) Multiple regression
B) ANCOVA
C) Logistic regression
D) MANOVA
st
te
ng
27. A researcher wanted to compare male and female oncology patients in terms of
satisfaction with nursing care, controlling for age and severity of illness. The analysis
si
A) Multiple regression
B) ANCOVA
yn
C) Logistic regression
D) MANCOVA
.m
28. Suppose a researcher found a multiple correlation of .40 (R = .40) between candy intake,
w
age, income on the one hand and dental caries on the other. The amount of variability
w
that could be accounted for in dental caries by candy intake, age, and income is which of
w
the following?
A) 4%
B) 16%
C) 40%
D) Cannot be determined
Page 5
29. In analysis of covariance, a covariate is generally which of the following?
A) An independent variable
B) The outcome variable
C) Either an independent or dependent variable
D) A confounding variable
30. In reporting the results of a statistical test in a research article, which of the following
would be reported? Select all that apply.
A) The computed value of the test statistic
B) The theoretical value of the test statistic
C) Degrees of freedom
om
D) The probability (p) value
.c
31. Which measure of central tendency is the most stable?
ep
A) Mode
B) Median
pr
C) Mean
D) Average
st
te
32. The alpha level of significance refers to the probability of which of the following?
ng
A) A Type I error
B) A Type II error
C) A null hypothesis
si
D) Multiple regression
ur
yn
34. A frequency distribution for height would most likely be represented by which of the
w
following?
A) A symmetric distribution
B) A positive skew
C) A negative skew
D) A normal distribution
Page 6
35. The d statistic approximates effect size by measuring the difference between the
experimental group mean and the control group mean, normed to the standard deviation.
If the effect size is moderate, which of the following values of d would one expect to
calculate?
A) d = 0
B) d = .20
C) d = .50
D) d = .80
36. When testing multiple independent variables, the proportion of variability in the
outcome variable that is explained by the predictors is measured as which of the
om
following?
A) Paired t-test
.c
B) The product-moment correlation coefficient
C) R
ep
D) R2
pr
37. The shape of a distribution with three values of high frequency is which of the
following?
A) Unimodal
st
te
B) Bimodal
ng
C) Multimodal
D) A bell-shaped curve
si
ur
38. In a normal distribution, 95% of scores fall within approximately how many standard
deviations (SDs) from the mean?
yn
A) 1
B) 2
.m
C) 3
D) 4
w
w
39. To test mean differences among related groups over time with at least three different
points of data collection, you would use which of the following?
w
A) Paired t-test
B) Chi-squared test
C) Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
D) Repeated measures ANOVA
Page 7
40. Which correlation coefficient shows the strongest relationship between two variables?
A) –0.821
B) –0.653
C) 0
D) 0.759
41. Testing the significance of difference in two group means is done with which of the
following?
A) Independent groups t-test
B) Paired t-test
C) Dependent groups t-test
om
D) Chi-squared test
.c
42. To test the significance of differences between the means of two or more groups on two
ep
or more outcome variables simultaneously, without controlling for covariates, one
would use which of the following?
pr
A) Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
B) Multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA)
C) Analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) st
D) Multivariate analysis of covariance (MANCOVA)
te
ng
43. A researcher would like to test the significance of differences in the means of three age
groups of baseball pitchers for the outcome variables of speed and accuracy. She
si
realizes that she will need to control for the potential confounding variable of base skill
ur
of the individual subjects in all three groups. Which type of analysis should she use?
A) Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
yn
44. In an experiment testing a smoking cessation technique with two groups of smokers, one
w
control and one experimental, what index would measure the proportion of individuals
in the control group who may have avoided the undesirable outcome of continued
w
Page 8
45. In an analysis of variance (ANOVA), which of the following contrasts variation
between groups with variation within groups?
A) F ratio
B) Post hoc tests
C) Chi-squared statistic
D) Pearson's r
om
.c
ep
pr
st
te
ng
si
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 9
Answer Key
1. A
2. D
3. C, D
4. B
5. C
6. D
7. D
8. B
9. A
om
10. B
11. C
12. A
.c
13. B
14. D
ep
15. C
16. B
pr
17. B
18. A, B, C
19.
20.
D
A
st
te
21. C
ng
22. B
23. D
24. B
si
25. B, C, D
ur
26. C
27. B
yn
28. B
29. D
.m
30. A, C, D
31. C
w
32. A
33. C
w
34. D
w
35. C
36. D
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. A
42. B
43. D
44. B
Page 10
45. A
w
w
w
.m
yn
ur
si
Page 11
ng
te
st
pr
ep
.c
om
Chapter 15
om
A) Significance levels
B) Effect size estimates
.c
C) Correlation coefficients
D) Confidence intervals
ep
pr
3. Information about the magnitude or importance of results typically takes the form of
which of the following?
A) Significance levels
B) Effect size estimates
st
te
C) Correlation coefficients
ng
D) Confidence intervals
si
4. Which of the following is an aspect or dimension of the interpretive task? Select all that
ur
apply.
A) The accuracy or credibility of the results
yn
5. When a researcher makes a Type II error (concludes that no relationship between the
w
independent and dependent variable exists when in fact it does), this could occur
because of which of the following? Select all that apply.
w
A) An anomalous sample
B) Unreliable data collection instruments
C) Problems with adequately implementing the intervention
D) A large sample size
Page 1
6. When a researcher obtains significant results that are opposite to what was originally
hypothesized, it is likely that this occurred because of which of the following?
A) Inadequate sample size
B) Unreliable data collection instruments
C) A flawed statistical analysis
D) Faulty reasoning
7. The Results section of a research article summarizes results of which of the following?
A) Study conclusions
B) Statistical analyses
C) Inferences
om
D) Interpretation of study findings
.c
8. It is important that researchers design rigorous study methods to prevent which of the
ep
following?
A) Making inferences
pr
B) Biases
C) Rejection of null hypothesis
D) Internal audit st
te
ng
vaccinations
.m
10. A main purpose of the Consolidated Standards of Reporting Trials (CONSORT) flow
diagram is which of the following?
w
Page 2
11. The purpose of evaluating the evidence that emanates from research articles is to do
which of the following?
A) Maintain licensure as a professional nurse
B) Implement protocols already established in one's clinical area
C) Improve one's clinical assessment skills
D) Decide whether recommendations might be implemented
12. A researcher must select a sample that is representative of the population. Which of the
following venues would be most practical for recruitment of patients with primary
hypertension?
A) Prenatal clinic
om
B) High school clinic
C) Primary care clinic
.c
D) Acute care hospital
ep
13. A researcher plans to use a proxy variable to measure the concept of patient outcome.
pr
Which of the following would be an appropriate variable to use?
A) Length of stay in hospital
B) Medicare eligibility
C) Falls risk
st
te
D) Staffing ratios
ng
14. Researchers conducting an exercise intervention study with overweight adults recruited
si
a sample of 250 adults from a primary care clinic. Of the 250 adults, 82 participants
ur
B) Accessible population
C) Recruited sample
.m
D) Actual sample
w
A) Truth of an inference
B) Honesty of the report
w
Page 3
16. A study reports a 60% rate of attrition among the participants. This finding suggests
which of the following?
A) A threat to internal validity
B) Lack of recruitment
C) Appropriate compensation/incentives
D) Invalid measurements
17. A p-value is a measure of the likelihood that the statistical results were obtained in error.
A confidence interval, on the other hand, provides which of the following?
A) The range of the measured values in the sample reported in the research report
B) The probability that similar results will be obtained in error, in the future
om
C) The range of probable values of the variable in the population
D) The likelihood that the results will be useful in practice
.c
ep
18. The fact that research study findings are statistically significant indicates which of the
following?
pr
A) Intervention was effective
B) Methods were valid
C) Results were unlikely due to chance
D) Sample size was adequate
st
te
ng
si
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 4
Answer Key
1. B
2. D
3. B
4. A, B, D
5. A, B, C
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. C
om
10. A
11. D
12. C
.c
13. A
14. D
ep
15. A
16. A
pr
17. C
18. C
st
te
ng
si
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 5
Chapter 16
1. The first major step that a researcher must undertake in a qualitative analysis is which of
the following?
A) A search for major themes
B) A search for appropriate metaphors
C) The use of quasi-statistics
D) Developing a system for organizing and indexing the data
2. Before the advent of computer software for qualitative analysis, the main procedure for
managing qualitative data was the development of which of the following?
A) Conceptual files
B) Core categories
om
C) Memos
D) Themes
.c
ep
3. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Narrative materials tend to be linear, which simplifies the coding process.
pr
B) Qualitative researchers typically develop a category scheme before they collect
their data.
st
C) CAQDAS is available for coding, organizing, and retrieving qualitative data.
D) Content analysis is the analytic method used in phenomenologic studies.
te
ng
4. Steps generally employed in the management and analysis of qualitative data include
which of the following? Select all that apply.
si
A) Testing hypotheses
ur
B) Validation
w
C) Thematic generation
D) Constant comparison
w
6. Spradley's method includes which type of data analysis? Select all that apply.
A) Domain analysis
B) Taxonomic analysis
C) Componential analysis
D) Statistical analysis
Page 1
7. Validation of themes by conferring with study participants was specifically considered
inappropriate by whom?
A) Colaizzi
B) Giorgi
C) Glaser
D) Strauss
om
C) Colaizzi
D) Giorgi
.c
ep
9. Diekelmann and colleagues proposed a 7-stage process of hermeneutic analysis that
includes the identification of which of the following?
pr
A) An appropriate metaphor
B) A constitutive pattern
C) A hermeneutic circle
D) An exemplar
st
te
ng
10. The process referred to as constant comparison involves which of the following?
A) Comparing two researchers' interpretation of the data
si
interpretation
C) Comparing elements present in one data source with those in another
yn
D) Comparing data from the study with data and categories from other similar studies
.m
11. In the Strauss and Corbin approach to grounded theory, the initial process of breaking
down, categorizing, and coding the data is often referred to as which of the following?
w
A) Axial coding
w
B) Core coding
C) Open coding
w
D) Selective coding
Page 2
12. Level III codes, in the Glaser and Strauss approach to grounded theory, are which of the
following?
A) Axial codes
B) In vivo codes
C) Open codes
D) Theoretical constructs
13. Selective coding in Glaserian approach to grounded theory studies begins when which
of the following occurs?
A) Constant comparison has ended
B) Data saturation has occurred
om
C) Memos have been prepared
D) A core category has been identified
.c
ep
14. Constructivist grounded theory is an approach developed by whom?
A) Charmaz
pr
B) Glaser
C) Strauss
D) Corbin st
te
ng
16. Which of the following best describes the purpose of constant comparison?
.m
A) To identify commonalities among elements present in one data source with those in
another
B) To describe the essential nature of an experience
w
17. In qualitative data analysis, which element can be used as an analytic strategy?
A) Management
B) Metaphors
C) Conceptualization
D) Constructivism
Page 3
18. Which of the following is an activity involved in qualitative content analysis? Select all
that apply.
A) Breaking down data into smaller units
B) Coding and naming units according to the content they represent
C) Collecting information on participants
D) Grouping coded material based on shared concepts
19. Phenomenology most fundamentally involves a search for which of the following?
A) A core category from open coding
B) Intersubjective agreement among judges
C) Thematic descriptions from artistic sources
om
D) Common patterns shared by particular instances
.c
20. The Duquesne School of Phenomenology is based on the philosophy of which of the
ep
following?
A) Colaizzi
pr
B) Van Kaam
C) Husserl
D) Giorgi st
te
ng
21. Which of the following is the first stage of Diekelmann, Allen, and Tanner's (1989)
process of data analysis in hermeneutics?
A) Interpretive summaries of each interview are written.
si
22. What is the primary outcome of Strauss and Corbin's (2008) approach to grounded
theory?
w
D) A core category
Page 4
23. Which of the following accurately describes a task that computer-assisted qualitative
data analysis software can accomplish? Select all that apply.
A) Code interview portions and observational records
B) Facilitate examination of relationships between codes
C) Inform the researcher of how best to analyze the data
D) Allow retrieval of portions of text corresponding to specified codes for analysis
om
D) To collect, describe, and record data
.c
25. Which of the following is the final phase of Leininger and McFarland's (2006)
ep
ethnonursing data analysis guide?
A) Abstract major themes and present findings
pr
B) Identify and categorize descriptors
C) Analyze data to discover repetitive patterns in their context
D) Collect, describe, and record data st
te
ng
26. Which of the following is the correct order of tasks in organizing and managing
narrative data for qualitative analysis?
A) 1. Organize the data; 2. develop a category scheme; 3. read and code the data; 4.
si
D) 1. Read and code the data; 2. develop a category scheme; 3. check the accuracy of
transcribed data; 4. organize the data
w
w
27. Which of the following can best facilitate researchers' search for themes?
A) Charting devices
w
B) Detailed coding
C) Quasi-statistics
D) Computer software
Page 5
28. Why does a researcher introduce quasi-statistics?
A) As an analytic strategy
B) To validate and refine themes
C) As a taxonomic analysis
D) To provide an overall structure
om
.c
ep
pr
st
te
ng
si
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 6
Answer Key
1. D
2. A
3. C
4. B, C, D
5. B
6. A, B, C
7. B
8. A
9. B
om
10. C
11. C
12. D
.c
13. D
14. A
ep
15. C
16. A
pr
17. B
18. A, B, D
19.
20.
D
C
st
te
21. C
ng
22. B
23. B, D
24. C
si
25. A
ur
26. C
27. A
yn
28. B
.m
w
w
w
Page 7
Chapter 17
2. Which of the following are terms that are considered aspects of trustworthiness within
the Lincoln and Guba framework? Select all that apply.
A) Transferability
B) Confirmability
C) Stability
om
D) Dependability
.c
3. Dependability in qualitative research is considered the analog of which criterion in
ep
quantitative research?
A) Internal validity
pr
B) Construct validity
C) Reliability
D) Specificity st
te
ng
4. The criterion that refers to neutrality or objectivity in qualitative inquiry is which of the
following?
A) Credibility
si
B) Transferability
ur
C) Authenticity
D) Confirmability
yn
.m
5. Which criterion is considered analogous to internal validity in the Lincoln & Guba
framework?
A) Credibility
w
B) Transferability
w
C) Dependability
D) Confirmability
w
6. If both in-depth interviews and participant observations were used to collect data on a
phenomenon in a study, this would be referred to as which of the following?
A) Data triangulation
B) Investigator triangulation
C) Theory triangulation
D) Method triangulation
Page 1
7. If a researcher studying family response to adolescent suicide interviewed parents and
siblings independently, the triangulation approach method would be called which of the
following?
A) Data triangulation
B) Investigator triangulation
C) Theory triangulation
D) Method triangulation
8. A member check involves the researcher reviewing data with which of the following?
A) An external auditor
om
B) A peer of the researcher
C) A study participant
.c
D) A second member of the research team
ep
9. The maintenance of good, thorough documentation and a decision trail is especially
pr
critical in which of the following?
A) Member checks
B) Stepwise replications
C) Negative case analysis
st
te
D) Inquiry audits
ng
of the following?
ur
A) Member checks
B) Stepwise replications
yn
11. The term trustworthiness in qualitative research parallels which of the following terms
w
A) Generalizability
B) Validity
w
C) Reliability
D) Correlation
Page 2
12. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research? Select all that apply.
A) It is consistent with the constructivist paradigm of inquiry.
B) It generates causal hypotheses.
C) It tests hypotheses.
D) It involves an iterative process of interpretation and analysis.
om
.c
14. Confirmability in qualitative research refers to which of the following?
A) The reliability of data over time
ep
B) Objectivity of the interpretation of the data
C) Applicability of the data to other groups
pr
D) Confidence in the truth value of the data
st
15. The term transferability in qualitative research is similar to which term used in
te
quantitative research?
ng
A) Authenticity
B) Reliability
C) Generalizability
si
D) Correlation
ur
yn
16. Which of the following statements about qualitative research methods is true?
A) Peer debriefings in qualitative research provide proof that interpretations are
.m
correct.
B) Qualitative research attempts to test hypotheses generated from quantitative
research.
w
17. Which of the following statements about controversies in qualitative research is true?
A) Unlike quantitative research methods, qualitative research methods do not require
rigorous study designs.
B) There is lack of consensus regarding the quality criteria for qualitative inquiry.
C) There is no “gold standard” in qualitative research criteria.
D) There is no comparable criterion in qualitative research for the positivists' criterion
of internal validity.
Page 3
18. Which of the following is a barrier that qualitative researchers face in demonstrating the
trustworthiness of their studies to readers?
A) Page limitations imposed by journals
B) Reflexivity
C) Lack of generalizability
D) Small sample sizes
om
described in this example?
A) Persistent observation
.c
B) Prolonged engagement
C) Reflexivity
ep
D) Data triangulation
pr
20. A nurse working in an adolescent health clinic conducted a grounded theory study
st
related to contraceptive decision-making in Latina youth. She collected data from
individual interviews and focus groups. Which of the following quality-enhancement
te
strategies is described in this example?
ng
A) Persistent observation
B) Prolonged engagement
C) Reflexivity
si
D) Data triangulation
ur
yn
21. A nurse working in an inner-city clinic conducted an ethnographic study of sex workers
to gain understanding of factors related to HIV risk for these women. After she
.m
completed her data collection, she gave three participants feedback about her findings
for their review and commentary. Which of the following quality-enhancement
strategies is described in this example?
w
A) Audit trail
w
B) Data triangulation
C) Reflexivity
w
D) Member checking
Page 4
22. Which of the following quality-enhancement strategies has the greatest potential for
leading to erroneous conclusions about the data?
A) Member checking
B) Audit trail
C) Reflexivity
D) Data triangulation
om
C) Inter-rater reliability
D) Internal consistency
.c
ep
24. The proper rationale for searching for and including disconfirming evidence is which of
the following?
pr
A) To eliminate confounding cases from data analysis
B) To refine a hypothesis or theory
C) To confirm saturation of the data st
D) To formulate a conclusion based on existing data
te
ng
Page 5
Answer Key
1. B
2. A, B, D
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. D
7. A
8. C
9. D
om
10. A
11. B, C
12. A, B, D
.c
13. D
14. B
ep
15. C
16. C
pr
17. B
18. A
19.
20.
B
D
st
te
21. D
ng
22. A
23. C
24. B
si
25. C
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 6
Chapter 18
om
.c
3. The “fruit” problem in meta-analysis refers to which of the following?
A) Including studies in the analysis from multiple disciplines
ep
B) Including both unpublished and published reports in the analysis
C) Including both qualitative and quantitative findings in the analysis
pr
D) Including studies that have addressed different research questions
st
4. Which of the following activities are normally undertaken as part of doing a
te
meta-analysis? Select all that apply.
ng
5. Searching for studies in the grey literature represents a reviewer's effort to do which of
the following? Select all that apply.
.m
Page 1
7. When heterogeneity of effects is high (statistically significant), the preferred
meta-analytic approach is which of the following?
A) Abandon efforts to undertake a meta-analysis
B) Use a fixed effects analytic model
C) Use a random effects analytic model
D) Use a forest plot to display the extensiveness of heterogeneity to readers of the
report
8. An effect size index that can be used in meta-analyses includes which of the following?
Select all that apply.
om
A) Standardized mean difference or d
B) Intensity effect size
.c
C) Pearson's correlation coefficient (r)
D) The odds ratio (OR)
ep
pr
9. A forest plot portrays information about which of the following for each study in the
meta-analysis?
A) 95% CIs around an effect size
B) Number of study participants
st
te
C) Quality assessment scores
ng
Page 2
12. Paterson and colleagues developed an approach to metasynthesis that includes which of
the following components? Select all that apply.
A) Meta-data analysis
B) Meta-method
C) Meta-ethnography
D) Meta-theory
13. The unit of analysis in computing a frequency effect size, using the
Sandelowski-Barroso approach, is which of the following?
A) An individual study
B) A study participant
om
C) A mean value
D) A theme or qualitative finding
.c
ep
14. Which of the following is a cornerstone of evidence-based practice?
A) Systematic reviews
pr
B) Secondary study reports
C) Meta-analysis of qualitative studies
D) Narrative integration st
te
ng
15. Meta-analysis differs from meta-synthesis in that meta-analysis studies use which of the
following? Select all that apply.
A) Objectivity in drawing conclusions regarding a body of evidence
si
C) Subjective decisions about how much weight to give findings from different
studies
yn
16. Which of the following not only yields information about the existence of a relationship
between variables in many studies but also an estimate of its magnitude?
w
A) Effect size
w
B) Problem formulation
C) Grey literature
w
D) Subgroup analysis
Page 3
17. It is appropriate to use statistical integration when which of the following components
are nearly identical across studies?
A) Independent variable, dependent variable, and study populations
B) Statistical methods, population sample, hypotheses
C) Dependent variable, research design, theory explication
D) Available evidence, novel interpretation of findings, population sample
18. Which of the following is a condition under which meta-analysis would be inappropriate
to conduct?
A) Highly conflicting results among studies
B) Research questions across studies being nearly identical
om
C) A large number of studies to draw from
D) Independent variables are similar across studies
.c
ep
19. Which of the following is most accurate regarding researchers conducting
metasyntheses?
pr
A) They often conduct original studies on the same topic as the metasynthesis they are
conducting.
st
B) They perform little advance planning, as it is not needed in qualitative research.
C) They make sampling decisions at the end of the study.
te
D) They use only peer-reviewed journals in the analysis.
ng
20. Integrating and analyzing qualitative findings from multiple research studies is called
si
A) Systematic review
B) Grey literature
yn
C) Meta-analysis
D) Metasynthesis
.m
Page 4
22. Meta-analysts depend on the calculation of an index that encapsulates in a single
number the relationship between the independent and dependent variables in each study.
An example of this calculation is which of the following?
A) Inclusion criteria
B) Forest plot
C) Cohen's d
D) Moderator analyses
23. Analyzing heterogeneity in meta-analysis can be visually attained with which of the
following?
A) Cohen's d
om
B) A forest plot
C) Inclusion criteria
.c
D) Moderator analyses
ep
24. In this research question for a systematic review, the researchers use which approach to
pr
determining the answer to the question: Are clinical outcomes of nurse-led care for
patients with rheumatoid arthritis similar to those produced by usual care?
A) Randomized control trial
B) Metasynthesis
st
te
C) Meta-analysis
ng
26. In metasyntheses, various methods are employed for interpretive analysis. One method
w
Page 5
27. In metasyntheses, various methods are employed for interpretive analysis. One method
developed by Paterson and a team of Canadian colleagues (2001) involves three
components: meta-data analysis, meta-method, and meta-theory. Meta-method involves
which of the following?
A) The study of the results of reported research in a specific substantive area by
analyzing the “processed data”
B) The splitting of effect size information into distinct categorical groups
C) The analysis of the theoretical underpinnings on which the studies are grounded
D) The study of the methodologic rigor of the studies included in the meta-synthesis
28. In metasyntheses, various methods are employed for interpretive analysis. One method
om
developed by Paterson and a team of Canadian colleagues (2001) involves three
components: meta-data analysis, meta-method, and meta-theory. Meta-theory analysis
.c
involves which of the following?
A) The study of the results of reported research in a specific substantive area by
ep
analyzing the “processed data”
B) The splitting of effect size information into distinct categorical groups
pr
C) The analysis of the theoretical underpinnings on which the studies are grounded
D) The study of the methodologic rigor of the studies included in the meta-synthesis
st
te
ng
si
ur
yn
.m
w
w
w
Page 6
Answer Key
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. B, C, D
5. A, B, C
6. B
7. C
8. A, C, D
9. A
om
10. A
11. B
12. A, B, D
.c
13. D
14. A
ep
15. A, D
16. A
pr
17. A
18. A
19.
20.
A
D
st
te
21. A
ng
22. C
23. B
24. A
si
25. D
ur
26. A
27. D
yn
28. C
.m
w
w
w
Page 7