2023 Biology HSC Trial

HIGHER
2023 SCHOOL
CERTIFICATE
TRIAL EXAMINATION
Biology
General  Reading time – 5 minutes
Instructions  Working time – 3 hours
 Write using black pen
 Draw diagrams using pencil
 NESA approved calculators may be used
 Write your Student ID at the bottom of this page and at the top
of page 11
Total marks: Section I — 20 marks (pages 2–10)

100  Attempt Questions 1–20
 Allow about 35 minutes for this section
Section II — 80 marks (pages 11–28)

 Attempt Questions 21–31
 Allow about 2 hours and 25 minutes for this section
Student ID: __________________________________
THIS PAPER CANNOT BE RELEASED IN PUBLIC UNTIL AFTER 25th AUGUST 2023
This paper is used with the understanding that it has a Security Period. ©Total Education Centre
Biology HSC Trial 2023
Section I
20 marks
Part A – 20 marks
Attempt Questions 1–20
Allow about 35 minutes for this part
Use the multiple-choice answer sheet for Questions 1–20.
1 The diagram represents a biological process.
https://commons.wikimedia.org
What is the process?
A. Budding
B. Fertilisation
C. Implantation
D. Binary fission
2 Colour blindness is a hereditary trait that is mostly seen in males.
Which term best describes this disorder?
A. Autosomal
B. Sex-linked
C. Co-dominant
D. Incomplete dominance
© Total Education Centre 2023 –2–

3 The diagram represents an example of point mutations.
Adapted from https://commons.wikimedia.org
Which of these mutations would be considered ‘silent’?
A. TAG
B. AGG
C. ACG
D. AAA

4 The diagram shows the deaths caused by malaria world-wide.
Malaria deaths by age: 1990 – 2019
Adapted from https://ourworldindata.org/malaria
Based on the data, which age group has the highest malaria mortality?
A. Under 5s
B. 5–14 years old
C. 15–49 years old
D. 70+ years old
5 Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is caused by a malformed protein and causes

neurodegeneration.
What is the classification of the pathogen that causes this disease?
A. Prion
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. Bacterium

6 Which would increase water loss in a plant?
A. Water storage
B. Closing stomates
C. Evaporative cooling
D. Reducing sun exposure
7 There has been recent discussion in further regulating the masonry industry because of
the rise in cases of silicosis. Families of those diagnosed say it should be treated with the
same care as asbestos (which causes asbestosis). Both silicosis and asbestosis are caused
from the inhalation of particles in the air which leads to severe lung damage.
Which best classifies the cause of asbestosis and silicosis?
A. Cancer
B. Genetic
C. Nutritional
D. Environmental exposure
8 These are images of three animals that live in different cold climates.
What is the common structural adaptation?
A. Large ears
B. Slender body
C. Long extremities
D. Dense body covering

9 Refer to the stimulus below to answer Questions 9 and 10.
The graph shows the results of an epidemiological study conducted examining cigarette
smoking in the United Kingdom.
What is a beneficial finding of the study?
A. All groups have a similar life expectancy

B. Ex-smokers have a similar life expectancy to smokers
C. Smokers have a similar life expectancy to non-smokers
D. Ex-smokers have a similar life expectancy to non-smokers
10 Which statement shows a potential limitation of the study?
A. It was a long-term investigation.

B. The sample size is not indicated.
C. Smokers have a shorter life expectancy.
D. The subjects stopped smoking between 25–34 years.

11 What type of proteins control biochemical reactions?
A. Enzymes
B. Hormones
C. Immunoglobulins
D. Transport proteins
12 Which is correct about the number of daughter cells produced during meiosis?
A. 2 haploid
B. 2 diploid
C. 4 haploid
D. 4 diploid
13 In which cells could a germ-line mutation occur?
A. Skin
B. Liver
C. Sperm
D. Muscle
14 Queensland fruit fly infestations result in significant annual crop losses. A preventative
strategy NSW uses is an ‘exclusion zone’ where travellers must dispose of any fruit
before entering.
What best describe the intent behind the implementation of the exclusion zone?
A. Quarantine
B. Hygiene practice
C. Pesticide treatment
D. Public Health campaign

15 Which organism would be considered transgenic?
A. Salmon with tomato genes

B. Mule (cross donkey and horse)
C. Dolly the sheep (the first ever clone)
D. Maltipoo dogs (cross Poodle and Maltese)
16 A large population of tortoises is separated by a volcanic event. Approximately a third of

the population has been permanently separated from the rest.
What genetic phenomena could occur among the smaller population?
A. Mutation
B. Evolution
C. Genetic drift
D. Natural Selection
17 The following DNA profile is a paternity test. It shows a DNA sample from the mother
(M), the child (Ch) and four potential fathers.
https://commons.wikimedia.org
Which sample is most likely the child’s father?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

18 A patient returns to their GP complaining that infection symptoms have returned for a
third time. The patient has previously been prescribed two courses of antibiotics. The
first was a broad-spectrum antibiotic. After pathology testing, the second of antibiotics
specific to the identified bacterium was prescribed.
After a discussion, the doctor discovers that the patient has been stopping the medication
once symptoms have disappeared, rather than taking the full course.
What is the most likely reason causing the patient’s symptoms to return?
A. The incorrect antibiotic has been prescribed

B. The person has developed antibiotic resistance
C. Bacteria have not been completely eliminated
D. Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections
19 What is a potential advantage of both artificial insemination and pollination?
A. Increased variation
B. Increased crop yield
C. Increased birth rates
D. Increased plant hybridisation

20 The diagram below is a simplified version of Koch’s postulates, with some components
missing.
Which of the following would confirm that the suspected pathogen is the causative agent
of this disease?
A. The animal dies

B. The suspected pathogen is isolated and cultured from the diseased animal.
C. The suspected pathogen is isolated, cultured and identified from the diseased
animal.
D. The suspected pathogen is isolated from the diseased animal and successfully
identified under a microscope.
© Total Education Centre 2023 – 10 –

Student ID:
HIGHER SCHOOL CERTIFICATE
2023 TRIAL EXAMINATION
Biology
Section II
Answer Booklet
80 marks
Allow about 2 hours 25 minutes for this section
Instructions  Answer the questions in the spaces provided. These spaces

provide guidance for the expected length of response.
 Show all relevant working in questions involving calculations.
 Extra writing space is provided at the back of this booklet. If

you use this space, clearly indicate which question you are
answering.
Please turn over

Question 21 (7 marks)
Genealogy companies often sequence single nucleotide polymorphisms or SNPs because

sequencing entire sections of genes is expensive and time consuming.
(a) Define single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs). 1
(b) Describe the relationship between SNPs and relatedness. 2
(c) Information about a family illness is often shown as a pedigree tree. 4
Complete the labels indicated by the dashed lines to explain each feature to a person
without any scientific training so they can understand how to read the chart.
A circle shows The T intersection shows
The arrow shows

A square shows
This group
A shaded shape shows An unshaded shape
shows
shows
siblings

The winter months are often described as the ‘flu season’. This year, ‘flu season’ has
started in early autumn with the rise of the most recent strain. Nicknamed, ‘kindy flu’, this
current strain of influenza is a developing epidemic, fuelled by spread through preschools.
As of the beginning of May, only 2% of eligible children aged between six months and
five years have had the current flu vaccination.
(a) Define the term epidemic. 2
(b) This graph represents influenza cases in Australia between 2017 and 2022. 3
Use the graph to justify the winter months being described as the ‘flu season’ and
explain the earlier and larger 2022 peak during this time.
Question 22 continues on page 14

Question 22 (continued)
(c) Explain the most probable mode(s) of transmission causing the spread of ‘kindy 3
flu’.
(d) In controlling the spread of ‘kindy flu’, why might a public health campaign 4
promoting vaccination of pre-schoolers be more effective than a campaign targeting
hygiene practices?
End of Question 22

The immune system is made up of two parts: the innate immune system and the adaptive 5
immune system.
Contrast the innate and adaptive immune systems. Make reference to the stimulus
provided.


Study the stimulus to answer the question. 6
Evaluate the benefits of using genetic technologies like CRISPR in agricultural, medical
and industrial applications.

End of Question 24

Diabetes is a chronic disease where the body cannot produce enough insulin, or
effectively use the insulin it produces.
There are two types of diabetes, Type 1 and Type 2. People with Type 1 have diabetes
from birth and require daily insulin administration as they cannot produce their own.
However, Type 2 is often preventable with regular exercise and a healthy diet. This is
where the body cannot use the insulin it produces properly, which can lead to high blood
sugar levels.
There are currently around 422 million people worldwide who suffer from diabetes.
(a) Complete the negative feedback loop to show how a person without diabetes 4
manages high blood glucose levels.


(b) Explain how we would classify diabetes as a disease. 3

(c) Plot the following data to compare the prevalence of diabetes in men and women 5
from 1980–2015.
Prevalence of Diabetes (%)

Year
Men Women
1980 5.6 4.2
1985 5.8 4.3
1990 6 4.5
1995 6.4 4.8
2000 6.7 5
2005 6.8 5
2010 6.8 5
2015 6.8 5

(d) In 2000, the government rolled out an early testing and educational campaign which 4
emphasised that poor eating habits can cause Type 2 Diabetes.
Evaluate the effectiveness of the early testing and educational campaign with
reference to the prevalence of diabetes during this time period.
End of Question 25

In your course you have learnt about many types of reproduction.
(a) Complete the table to identify the method(s) of reproduction used by each. An 4
example has been done for you.
Organism Method of Reproduction
Fungi Budding and spores
Animals
Plants
Bacteria
Protists
(b) Describe an advantage OR disadvantage of ONE of the methods of reproduction 2

listed above.

Plant X has a dominant phenotype of yellow flowers and a recessive phenotype of white flowers.
However, in acidic soil conditions, all flowers are yellow regardless of genotype.
(a) A student wanted to test this occurrence. 6
Design an experiment to test the effect of soil acidity on the phenotype of Plant X.

(b) Before commencing the experiment, the student had one plant with white flowers, 3
and one with yellow.
Predict the phenotypic ratio of the offspring, if one plant was heterozygous. Use a
punnet square in your answer and show all working.
End of Question 27

Ultraviolet radiation (UV) can induce point mutations across a range of organisms. UV is
an electromagnetic radiation mutagen.
(a) Use a flow diagram to describe the process and effects of a named point mutation. 3
(b) Assess the significance of this mutation occurring in a coding vs a non-coding DNA 3
segment.

During your course, you have studied how technology is used to alleviate the effects of a
human disorder.
Explain a disorder you studied and how a technology can be used to assist with its effects. 4
You may use diagrams to support your answer.

Both plants and animals have adaptations to inhibit the spread of disease within the
organism and/or population.
Describe the response of a named Australian plant to a named pathogen. 3

Genetic variation plays a crucial role in the survival of populations when exposed to 6
changing conditions.
How does genetic variation occur in a population? Support your answer with reference to
examples.

Section II extra writing space
If you use this space, clearly indicate which question you are answering.

Section II extra writing space
If you use this space, clearly indicate which question you are answering.

Student ID:
HIGHER SCHOOL CERTIFICATE
2023 TRIAL EXAMINATION
Biology Trial HSC Examination

Section I Answer Sheet
20 marks
Allow about 35 minutes for this section
Select the alternative A, B, C or D that best answers the question. Fill in the response circle
completely.
1 A B C D
2 A B C D
3 A B C D
4 A B C D
5 A B C D
6 A B C D
7 A B C D
8 A B C D
9 A B C D
10 A B C D
11 A B C D
12 A B C D
13 A B C D
14 A B C D
15 A B C D
16 A B C D
17 A B C D
18 A B C D
19 A B C D
20 A B C D
© Total Education Centre 2023 Multiple Choice Answer Sheet

2023 HSC Trial Biology

Marking Guidelines
Section I
Multiple-choice Answer Key (Explanations on following page)
Question Answer
1 B
2 B
3 D
4 A
5 A
6 C
7 D
8 D
9 D
10 B
11 A
12 C
13 C
14 A
15 A
16 C
17 A
18 C
19 A
20 B
© Total Education Centre 2023 –1– 2023 Biology HSC Trial Marking Guidelines
Multiple-choice Answer Explanations
Question Answer Explanation

B is correct – The sexual reproductive process where the egg fuses with a
sperm is fertilization.
A is incorrect – budding is an asexual form of reproduction where a
daughter cell develops from a parent cell
1 B
C is incorrect – implantation takes place in sexual reproduction but after
the process shown in the diagram
D is incorrect – binary fission is an asexual form of reproduction where a
cell splits into two new cells
B is correct – the trait is mostly seen in males it is sex-linked.
2 B A, C and D as there is not enough information given to make a
judgement.
D is the correct answer – ‘silent’ mutations are those that still code for
the same amino acid.
3 D
A, B and C are incorrect – these mutations either stop the polypeptide
chain or code for another amino acid and so are not ‘silent’ .
A is the correct answer. The interval underneath the line represents the
total malaria deaths and it is divided into the proportion of mortalities
4 A each age.
B, C and D represent much smaller proportions and are therefore
incorrect.
A is the correct answer. Only prions are infectious malformed proteins.

5 A B, C and D are incorrect – these are cellular pathogens and consist of
more than just proteins.
C is the correct answer. As water evaporates through stomates as a

colling mechanism, plants lose water.
A is incorrect – water is not lost as still held within the plant
6 C B is incorrect – closing stomates prevents loss of water through
evaporation
D is incorrect – plants are less likely to have stomates open, losing water
via evaporation when there is less sunlight available for photosynthesis.
D is correct – Both diseases are a result of environmental factors.

A is incorrect – there is no evidence of uncontrolled cell replication.
B is incorrect – there is no referenced genetic component associated
7 D
with susceptibility to this disease.
C is incorrect – there is no referenced nutritional component associated
with susceptibility to this disease.
D is correct – dense body covering can be observed in these

three species.
8 D
A, B and C are incorrect because none of these traits can be
seen in all three of the animals.
D is correct – the curves for ex-smokers and non-smokers

follow a similar path.
9 D
A, B and C are incorrect as the life expectancy for smokers is
lower than other groups.
B is correct – there is no indication of the sample size on the

graph, and this limits the accuracy/reliability/validity of the
study.
10 B
A is incorrect – a long term investigation is not a limitation.
C, D are incorrect – findings of an investigation are not a
limitation.
A is correct – enzymes are a type of protein that can control

chemical reactions within the body.
B is incorrect – hormones are a type of protein used to send
messages through the blood stream.
11 A
C is incorrect – immunoglobulins are part of the immune
system.
D is incorrect – transport proteins carry substances
throughout the bloodstream.
C is correct – meiosis produces 4 haploid cells (1 set of
chromosomes).
12 C
A, B and D are incorrect as they either have 2 cells and/or
diploid cells.
C is correct – germline mutations can only occur in gametes.
13 C A, B and D are incorrect as they are somatic cells, not
gametes.
A is correct – the restriction of movement of
plants/animals/people is what defines quarantine.
B is incorrect – hygiene practice refers to sanitation methods
to prevent spread of pathogens on materials e.g. footbath,
handwashing
14 A
C is incorrect – there are no pesticides involved in this
process.
D is incorrect – there may be a public health campaign
involved, but this does not describe the action of establishing
a ‘exclusion’ zone.
A is correct – transgenic organisms are those whose genome

have been altered to include DNA from another organism.
15 A
B, C and D are incorrect – they do not contain genes or DNA
from another organism.
C is correct – genetic drift is the change in frequency of genes

in the gene pool caused by a random chance.
16 C
A, B and D are incorrect – these phenomena could occur
across both populations.
A is the correct answer – this profile shares the most DNA

bands in common with the child sample.
17 A
B, C and D are incorrect – they have fewer DNA bands in
common with the child’s sample.
C is correct – if a course of antibiotics is not completed, some

bacteria may remain alive even though the individual is
asymptomatic.
A is incorrect – there is no evidence of this, as symptoms
have disappeared, and full course is not taken
18 C
B is incorrect – bacteria develop resistance, not people. Even
though surviving bacteria may be resistant, this is not the
cause of the patient’s symptoms returning.
D is incorrect – symptoms disappeared indicating antibiotics
were working against a bacterial infection.
A is correct – increased variation is an advantage of both
genetic techniques.
19 A
B, C and D are incorrect – the options listed are advantages
of only one of the genetic techniques.
C is correct – The pathogen must be isolated, grown in
culture, and identified (using a microscope)
20 B A is incorrect – whether the animal dies or not is irrelevant.
B is incorrect – the pathogen must also be identified.
D is incorrect – the pathogen must also be cultured.
Section II
(a)
Criteria Marks
 Provides correct definition 1
Sample answer:
A single nucleotide polymorphism is where one nucleotide in a DNA sequence is replaced with
another.
(b) Criteria Marks

 Demonstrates some understanding of SNPs and relatedness 2
 Provides some relevant information 1
Sample answer:
The longer the stretch of identical SNPs on a chromosome, the more closely related the
individuals are. This is because less crossing over has occurred between generations.
(c)
Criteria Marks
 Demonstrates thorough understanding of constructing and
interpreting pedigree trees 4
 Provides answer in the form of an annotated diagram
 Demonstrates sound understanding of constructing and
3
interpreting pedigree trees
 Demonstrates some understanding of constructing and/or
2
interpreting pedigree trees
Sample answer over page
Sample answer:
(a)
Criteria Marks
 Provides appropriate and full definition 2
 Provides partial definition 1
Sample answer:
The rapid spread of disease through a population, resulting in a substantial increase in case
numbers in a short space of time.
(b)
Criteria Marks
 Provides appropriate explanation and justification
3
 Supports answer with data from the graph
 Provides some explanation and/or justification
2
 Provides some reference to the stimuli
 Some relevant information 1
Sample answer:
Winter (June, July, August) is described as flu season because that is generally when cases rise
substantially and the peak incidence of flu is recorded. This is supported through the peaks in
2017 (August), 2019 (July), 2022 (June) and the five-year average. However, peak flu prevalence
in 2022 was seen in early winter, as opposed to late winter (five-year average). This was due to
low levels of immunity in the community as flu cases in 2020 and 2021 are virtually zero.
(c)
Criteria Marks
 Demonstrates sound understanding of modes of transmission of
infectious disease 3
 Provides some contextual explanation
 Demonstrates some understanding of modes of transmission of
2
infectious disease
Sample answer:
Both direct and indirect contact are most probably, equally causing the spread of kindy flu.
Children holding hands, hugging, sharing food and generally making skin to skin contact during
play would be driving direct contact spread. As they are children and still learning hygiene
practices it is likely coughing and sneezing without covering their mouth in enclosed spaces
would be driving indirect contact spread.
(d)
Criteria Marks
 Demonstrates a thorough knowledge of public health campaigns,
vaccination and hygiene practices 4
 Provides appropriate justification based on the context
 Demonstrates sound knowledge of public health campaigns,
vaccination and hygiene practices 3
 Provides some justification based on the context
 Demonstrates some knowledge of public health campaigns
and/or vaccination, and/or hygiene practices 2
 Makes link(s) to the stimulus
Sample answer:
Public health campaigns are an effective way of disseminating information to assist in slowing or
preventing the spread of disease through a population. This is especially so when the
population affected is very young and not capable of undertaking effective hygiene practices for
themselves.
The flu vaccination in the preschool age bracket is very low (2%). By increasing vaccinations in
pre-schoolers, levels of herd immunity can be achieved and prevent the spread of disease. This
campaign would be aimed at parents and does not require any actions or learned behaviours
from the children themselves.
Criteria Marks
 Demonstrates thorough understanding of innate and adaptive
immune systems 5
 Makes effective reference to the stimulus provided
 Demonstrates sound understanding of innate and adaptive
immune systems 3–4
 Makes relevant reference to the stimulus provided
 Demonstrates some understanding of innate and adaptive
2
immune systems
Sample answer:
Both parts of our bodies immune systems play important roles in defending our bodies from
disease. The innate immune system works generally, and quickly. It is the body’s first line of
defence and works the same way against all pathogens. It includes physical barriers such as
skin, chemical barriers such as enzymes in saliva, the inflammation response and cells that
detect and destroy foreign bodies or irregular body cells. These include phagocytes such as
macrophages, and natural killer cells, which are suited to destroying virally infected cells and
cancer cells.
The adaptive immune system takes over if the pathogen has overcome the innate system. The
adaptive immune system identifies and specifically targets the pathogen. It can ‘remember’
how to fight certain pathogens you’ve encountered before (memory B and T cells as shown in
the diagram). However, in order to create specific defences for the pathogen (T and B
lymphocytes and antibodies), it works slower initially.
Criteria Marks
 Provides an extensive evaluation of the benefits of using CRISPR
and other genetic technologies in agricultural, medical and
industrial applications 6
 Provides a well-informed judgement as to the benefits of CRISPR
and other genetic technologies
 Provides a thorough evaluation of the benefits of using CRISPR and
other genetic technologies in agricultural, medical and industrial
applications 5
 Provides an informed judgement as to the benefits of genetic
technologies
 Provides an evaluation of the benefits of genetic technologies in
agricultural, medical and industrial applications 4
 Provides a judgement
 Provides some points about the benefits or genetic technologies in
agricultural and/or medical and/or industrial applications 2–3
 Makes link(s) to the stimulus
Sample answer:
CRISPR is a form of gene editing that has numerous potential benefits across the agricultural,
medicinal and industrial fields.
CRISPR could be used in agriculture to create crops that are disease resistant and can survive in
harsh conditions. These crops would then provide a higher yield. They can also be grown in a
larger number of geographic locations. CRISPR can also be used to create crops with high levels
of nutrition so have the potential to benefit communities.
In medicinal fields, bacteria can be manipulated to create large amounts of desired substance
needed in medications by using gene editing such as CRISPR. For example, it can create
hormones such as insulin. CRISPR also has the potential to be used by the medicine industry as
a form of gene therapy, to treat genetic disorders.
CRISPR could also be used industrially to create bacteria capable of cleaning oil spills by
breaking down the chemical. CRISPR also offers potential improvement to effective biofuel
cropping which would assist industry generally. This would be an incredible sustainable fuel
resource and could lead to significant reductions in production costs.
CRISPR and other genetic technologies have the potential to substantially benefit our society.
(a)
Criteria Marks
 Completes diagram to clearly describe how the body reacts to
4
high blood glucose levels in the maintenance of homeostasis
 Completes diagram to outline how the body reacts to high blood
3
glucose levels in the maintenance of homeostasis
 Completes some of the diagram to give some information on how
2
the body reacts to high blood glucose levels
Sample answer:
(b)
Criteria Marks
 Correctly classifies Type 1 and 2, showing understanding that the
3
disease cannot be classified under one group
 Correctly classifies Type 1 and 2 2
Sample answer:
Diabetes as a whole cannot be classified under a single group, because Type 1 and Type 2 have
different underlying causes. Type 1 diabetes is a genetic disease as a person is born with it.
However, Type 2 diabetes can be classed as a nutritional disease because it can arise from poor
diet.
© Total Education Centre 2023 – 10 – 2023 Biology HSC Trial Marking Guidelines
(c)
Criteria Marks
 Selects appropriate graph for data set
 Demonstrates thorough knowledge and understanding of
5
graphing conventions
 Correctly plots data
 Selects appropriate graph for data set
 Demonstrates sound knowledge and understanding of graphing
4
conventions
 Correctly plots data
 Demonstrates some knowledge and understanding of graphing
conventions 2–3
 Correctly plots most data
Sample answer:
(d)
Criteria Marks
 Evaluates the early testing and education campaign as a method of
disease prevention
4
 Uses stimulus to support answer
 Provides a suitable judgement
 Outlines suitable points about the effectiveness of method of
disease prevention 2–3
 Relates answer to stimulus
Sample answer:
The data in the stimulus shows that from approximately 2000 the prevalence of diabetes in
both men and women starts to plateau. This indicates that there are very few new cases of
diabetes being diagnosed from 2000–2015. If the early testing and education campaign was the
only disease prevention strategy introduced during this time, then it was very effective in
decreasing the incidence of Type 2 diabetes. However, the campaign would have had no effect
on Type 1, as it is genetic.
(a)
Criteria Marks
 Demonstrates competent understanding of reproductive
4
processes by completing all cells correctly
 Demonstrates sound understanding of reproductive processes by
3
completing most cells correctly
 Demonstrates limited understanding of reproductive processes by
2
completing some cells correctly
Sample answer:
Organism Method of Reproduction

Fungi Budding and spores
Animals Sexual reproduction (internal and external)
Plants Sexual and asexual reproduction
Bacteria Binary fission
Protists Binary fission and budding
(b)
Criteria Marks
 Provides an applicable and correct advantage OR disadvantage to
2
the method of reproduction
Sample answer:
Plants that reproduce prolifically through asexual reproduction are vulnerable to disease as
they have no variation.
(a)
Criteria Marks
 Provides a suitable procedure to test the effect of soil acidity on the
phenotype of Plant X which includes:
 How the independent variable is changed
 How the dependent variable is measured 6
 Variables kept constant
 Repetition
 Logical sequence
 Appropriate safety considerations
 Provides a suitable procedure to test the effect of soil acidity on the
phenotype of Plant X which includes:
 How the independent variable is changed
 How the dependent variable is measured 5
 Variables kept constant
 Logical sequence
 Repetition OR appropriate safety considerations
 Outlines how the independent variable is changed
 Outlines how the dependent variable is measured
AND 3–4
 Includes variables kept constant OR includes repetition
 May include appropriate safety considerations
 Provides features of a relevant investigation 2
Sample answer:
Answer continues on next page
Materials: (These may be integrated into the procedure)

 6 x established cuttings of homozygous recessive plant
 Soil
 Mild acid to change soil pH
 Distilled water
 Temp controlled glasshouse
 Soil pH probe
Method
1. Use the mild acid to adjust the pH of the soil in 3 of the cuttings to a pH of 5.
2. If the pH of the other 3 cuttings is not neutral (pH 7), adjust.
3. Place all cuttings in temperature-controlled glasshouse.
4. Water equally and regularly.
5. Test the soil pH with the probe daily and adjust if necessary.
6. Continue tending and monitoring plants until flowers bloom.
7. Record colours of flowers on each plant.
Risk Precaution
Acid can irritate/ cause a caustic burn Wear gloves and eye protection when
handling
Soil can grow harmful microorganisms Do not ingest and handle with care
(b)
Criteria Marks
 Provides the correct phenotypic ratio of the offspring
3
 Provides correct parental genotypes and suitable working
 Provides the correct phenotypic ratio of the offspring
 Provides some suitable working
OR
 Identifies correct parental genotypes
2
 Provides suitable working
OR
 Provides appropriate parental genotypes
 Provides suitable working and relevant phenotypic ratio
Sample answer:
The plant with the white flower must be homozygous recessive. Therefore, the cross is Hh x hh.
X H h
h Hh hh
h Hh hh
The phenotypic ration will be 1:1, as there is a 50% chance the flowers will be either white or
yellow.
(a)
Criteria Marks
 Provides thorough and appropriate description of the process and
effects of the named point mutation 3
 Uses correct flow chart format
 Provides some description of the process and effect of a named
2
point mutation
Sample answer:
Nonsense mutation
Mutated DNA stand codes for STOP codon, rather than amino acid  Polypeptide synthesis is
cut shortResulting protein is non-functional  major phenotypic effect
(b)
Criteria Marks
 Provides logical assessment of the significance of mutation in
3
coding and non-coding DNA regions
 Provides some assessment of the significance of mutation in coding
2
and non-coding DNA regions
Sample answer:
A nonsense mutation in a coding region of DNA will result in a non-functional protein and a
phenotypic effect. A nonsense mutation in a coding region can be equally impactful, as many
parts of non-coding DNA code for other products such as rRNA. Mutation in these regions can
affect cellular functioning.
(a)
Criteria Marks
 Demonstrates sound knowledge and understanding of the cause
and effects of the named disorder
 Demonstrates sound knowledge and understanding of technology 4
used to assist with the disorder
 Provides answer in annotated diagram or flow chart format
 Demonstrates some knowledge and understanding of the cause
and effects of the named disorder
3
 Demonstrates some knowledge and understanding of technology
used to assist with the disorder
 Demonstrates basic knowledge of the cause and/or effects of the
named disorder 2
 States a correct technology used to assist with the disorder
Sample answer:
Myopia is short-sightedness caused by an irregular shaped eye lens as shown in the diagram.
Concave eyeglasses are the technology which can diverge light rays so they land on the retina
not in front of it.
Criteria Marks
 Provides appropriate description of a plant response to a pathogen
3
 Uses an Australian example
 Provides a description of a plant response to a pathogen 2
Sample answer:
Snow gum trees possess both physical and chemical responses to fight dieback. Dieback can be
causes by the larvae of the longicorn beetle, as well as a range of other pathogens. The tough
lignin within the cell walls of the plant act as a physical barrier to the larvae, and the plant
generates a chemical response, including producing toxic hydrogen peroxide.
Criteria Marks
 Provides extensive explanation of how genetic variations occurs
within a population 6
 Includes the processes of fertilisation, meiosis and mutation
 Provides thorough explanation of how genetic variations occurs
within a population 5
 Includes the processes of fertilisation, meiosis and mutation
 Provides an explanation of how genetic variations occurs within a
population 4
 Includes some of the process of fertilisation, meiosis or mutation
 Provides some points of how genetic variation occurs within a
2–3
population
Sample answer:
Genetic variation is critical in ensuring species survive changing environmental conditions.

Genetic variation arising in species via three major processes; Fertilisation, Meiosis and
Mutation.
Fertilisation in sexual reproduction involves an ovum (egg) combining with a sperm to form a
zygote. Each sperm carries a different assortment of genes/chromosomes from the male. The
genetic diversity of the sperm is one source of genetic variation.
During the process of meiosis (cell division of gametes), chromosomes randomly align and can
then undertake a process called ‘crossing over’ where they swap genetic information. This is
another source of genetic variation as crossing over produces different gene assortments, than
that of the parents.
Mutation is another major source variation. Mutation can occur from an outside influence
(mutagen) or as mistakes in the replication of DNA. Mutations have effects such as insertions or
deletions in the genetic code. While most mutation are ‘silent’, some create a phenotypic or
genotypic change, and this is another source of genetic variation.
2023 HSC Trial Biology

Mapping grid
Question Marks Content Syllabus outcomes
Section I
BIO12-12
1 1 Module 5-Reproduction
BIO11/12-4
2 1 Module 5- Genetic Variation BIO12-12
3 1 Module 6-Mutation BIO12-13
4 1 Module 7- Prevention, Treatment and Control BIO11/12-4
5 1 Module 7- Causes of Infectious Disease BIO12-14
6 1 Module 8-Homeostasis BIO12-15
7 1 Module 8- Causes and Effects BIO12-15
8 1 Module 8-Homeostasis BIO12-15
BIO11/12-5
9 1 Module 8-Epidemiology
BIO11/12-6
BIO11/12-5
10 1 Module 8-Epidemiology
BIO11/12-6
11 1 Module 5-DNA and polypeptide synthesis BIO12-12
BIO12-12
12 1 Module 5-Reproduction
BIO11/12-4
13 1 Module 6- Mutation BIO12-13
14 1 Module 7-Prevention, Treatment and Control BIO12-14
15 1 Module 6- Genetic Technologies BIO12-13
16 1 Module 6-Mutation BIO12-13
BIO12-12
17 1 Module 5-Inheritance Patterns in a population BIO11/12-6
BIO11/12-5
BIO12-14
18 1 Module 7-Prevention, Treatment and Control
BIO11/12-6
19 1 Module 6- Genetic Technologies BIO12-13
20 1 Module 7-Causes of Infectious Disease BIO12-14
Question Marks Content Syllabus outcomes
Section II
BIO11/12-6
21a 1 Module 5-Genetic Variation
BIO12-12
BIO11/12-6
21b 2 Module 5-Genetic Variation
BIO12-12
BIO11/12-6
21c 4 Module 5-Genetic Variation
BIO12-12
22a 2 Module 7- Causes of Infectious Disease BIO12-14
BIO11/12-4
22b 3 Module 7-Prevention, Treatment and control
BIO12-14
22c 3 Module 7- Causes of Infectious Disease BIO12-14
BIO12-14
22d 4 Module 7- Prevention, Treatment and Control
BIO11/12-6
BIO12-14
23 5 Module 7- Immunity
Module 6-Biotechnology, Genetic BIO12-13
24 6
technologies BIO11/12-7
BIO12-15
25a 4 Module 8-Homeostasis
BIO11/12-7
BIO12-15
25b 3 Module 8-Causes and Effects
BIO12-15
25c 5 Module 8-Epidemiology
BIO11/12-4
BIO12-15
25d 4 Module 8-Prevention
BIO11/12-6
26a 4 Module 5- Reproduction BIO12-12
26b 2 Module 5- Reproduction BIO12-12
BIO11/12-7
27a 6 Module 5-DNA and Polypeptide synthesis
BIO12-12
27b 3 Module 5- Genetic Variation BIO12-12
BIO12-13
28a 3 Module 6- Mutation
BIO11/12-6
BIO12-13
28b 3 Module 6- Mutation
BIO11/12-6
BIO11/12-7
29 4 Module 8-Technologies and Disorders
BIO11/12-7
BIO11/12-3
30 3 Module 7- Responses to pathogens
BIO12-14
BIO11/12-7
31 6 Module 6-Mutation
BIO12-13

2023 Biology HSC Trial

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HIGHER

Total marks: Section I — 20 marks (pages 2–10)

Section II — 80 marks (pages 11–28)

Student ID: __________________________________

Use the multiple-choice answer sheet for Questions 1–20.

1 The diagram represents a biological process.

2 Colour blindness is a hereditary trait that is mostly seen in males.

Which term best describes this disorder?

© Total Education Centre 2023 –2–

Adapted from https://commons.wikimedia.org

Which of these mutations would be considered ‘silent’?

© Total Education Centre 2023 –3–

Malaria deaths by age: 1990 – 2019

Adapted from https://ourworldindata.org/malaria

5 Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is caused by a malformed protein and causes

What is the classification of the pathogen that causes this disease?

© Total Education Centre 2023 –4–

Which best classifies the cause of asbestosis and silicosis?

What is the common structural adaptation?

© Total Education Centre 2023 –5–

What is a beneficial finding of the study?

A. All groups have a similar life expectancy

10 Which statement shows a potential limitation of the study?

A. It was a long-term investigation.

© Total Education Centre 2023 –6–

13 In which cells could a germ-line mutation occur?

© Total Education Centre 2023 –7–

A. Salmon with tomato genes

16 A large population of tortoises is separated by a volcanic event. Approximately a third of

What genetic phenomena could occur among the smaller population?

Which sample is most likely the child’s father?

© Total Education Centre 2023 –8–

A. The incorrect antibiotic has been prescribed

19 What is a potential advantage of both artificial insemination and pollination?

© Total Education Centre 2023 –9–

Adapted from https://commons.wikimedia.org

A. The animal dies

© Total Education Centre 2023 – 10 –

Instructions  Answer the questions in the spaces provided. These spaces

 Show all relevant working in questions involving calculations.

 Extra writing space is provided at the back of this booklet. If

Please turn over

© Total Education Centre 2023 – 11 –

Genealogy companies often sequence single nucleotide polymorphisms or SNPs because

(a) Define single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs). 1

(b) Describe the relationship between SNPs and relatedness. 2

(c) Information about a family illness is often shown as a pedigree tree. 4

A circle shows The T intersection shows

The arrow shows

© Total Education Centre 2023 – 12 –

(a) Define the term epidemic. 2

Question 22 continues on page 14

© Total Education Centre 2023 – 13 –

© Total Education Centre 2023 – 14 –

© Total Education Centre 2023 – 15 –

© Total Education Centre 2023 – 16 –

Study the stimulus to answer the question. 6

Adapted from https://commons.wikimedia.org

Question 24 continues on page 17

© Total Education Centre 2023 – 17 –

© Total Education Centre 2023 – 18 –

Question 25 continues on page 19

© Total Education Centre 2023 – 20 –

(b) Explain how we would classify diabetes as a disease. 3