TA Papers

PRELIMINARY INTERVIEW BOARD
TERRITORIAL ARMY COMMISSION : 28 JULY 2019

PAPER-1: REASONING & ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS A1
Max Time : 2 Hours Max Marks : 100
Roll No………………………..
(Please Read The Instructions Carefully)
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Paper 1 has two parts: Part I & Part II

(a) Part I : Reasoning (50 marks)
(b) Part II: Elementary Mathematics (50 marks)
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2. Each section carries 50 objectives type of questions.
3. There will be four possible answers to every question. Candidates are required to fill correct answer in the OMR sheet with Black
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ball pen.
4. For each correct answer, 1 mark will be granted and 0.33 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
5. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer and 0.33 mark will be deducted. There will be no
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penalty for questions left unanswered.
6. Candidates should not mark in the question paper. They can use blank pages provided in the question paper for rough work.
7.
aggregate in total.
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To be eligible to qualify, a candidate must obtain minimum 40% marks each in Part I & II separately and a minimum of 50%
PART-1 : REASONING
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Direction In each of the following question a number of series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
that will continue the same pattern.
Q1. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ___, 17

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(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15
Q2. 23, 48, 99, 203, 413 ___

(a) 927 (b) 837 (c) 937 (d) 437
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Q3. 225, 336, 447, 558, ___ 7710

(a) 690 (b) 660 (c) 689 (d) 669
Q4. ABC, CAE, EZG, ___ , LXK

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(a) HUL (b) FAH (c) GYI (d) FYH
Q5. ___ ___ G ___ C ___ G K ___ P G ___

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(a) K C P C P K (b) C P K P C K (c) P K C P K P (d) C P P K C P
Direction Choose the correct alternative which shows the same relationship.
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Q6. Menu : Food : : Catalogue : ?

(a) Rack (b) Newspaper (c) Library (d) Books
Q7. 42 : 56 : : 110 : ?
(a) 182 (b) 132 (c) 136 (d) 156
Direction Choose the odd one out in question 8 to 11.
Q8. Find the odd one out.

Arrow, Axe, Knife, Sword
(a) Arrow (b) Axe (c) Knife (d) Sword

Bake, Peel, Fry, Boil
(a) Bake (b) Peel (c) Fry (d) Boil

MONDAY, TUESDAY, FRIDAY, SUNDAY
(a) MONDAY (b) TUESDAY (c) FRIDAY (d) SUNDAY
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Ear, Lung, Eye, Heart, Kidney
(a) Ear (b) Lung (c) Eye (d) Heart
Q12. If √AFI : 13 : : √DDA : ?

(a) 12 (b) 22 (c) 21 (d) 24
Q13. If white is called blue, blue is called red, red is called yellow, yellow is called green, green is called black, black is called
violet and violet is called orange, what would be the colour of human blood?
(a) Red (b) Green (c) Yellow (d) Violet
Q14. In a certain code language, '324' means 'Light is bright', '629' means 'Girl is beautiful' and '4758' means 'I prefer bright
colours', which digit means 'Light' in the language?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 7
Q15. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points toward North-east. In which direction does its hour hand point
at 1.30 PM?
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(a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West
Q16. In a class of 60, the number of girls are twice that of boys. Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are nine girls
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ahead of Kamal, how many boys are behind him in rank?
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 12 (d) 23
Q17. In a row of girls facing North, Reena is 10th to the left of Pallavi, who is 21st from the right end. If Malini who is 17th from
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left end, is fourth to the right of Reena, how many girls are there in the row?
(a) 37 (b) 43 (c) 44 (d) 16
Q18. A is father of C and D is the son of B. E is the brother of A, C is the sister of D, how is B related to E ?
(a) Daughter (b) Brother-in-law
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(c) Husband (d) Sister-in-law
Q19. B is the husband of P. Q is the only grandson of E, who is the wife of D and mother-in-law of P. How is B related to D?
(a) Nephew (b) Cousin (c) Son-in-law (d) Son
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Q20. Pointing to Kapil, Shilpa said, "His mother's brother is the father of my son Ashish." How is Kapil related to Shilpa?
(a) Sister-in-law (b) Nephew (c) Niece (d) Aunt
Q21. A family has a man, his wife, their four sons and their wives. The family of every son also has 3 sons and one daughter.
Find out the total number of male members in the whole family?
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(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 17
Q22. In certain Code DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded ?
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(a) 5279431 (b) 5978213 (c) 8251896 (d) 8543691
Q23. If ACNE can be coded as 3-7-29-11, then BOIL will be coded as ?

(a) 5-29-19-27 (b) 5-29-19-25 (c) 5-31-21-25 (d) 5-31-19-25
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Q24. A, B, C, D and E are five friends. A is shorter than B but taller than E. C is the tallest. D is shorter than B and taller than A.
Who has two persons taller and two persons shorter than him/ her ?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
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Q25. If × means –, + means ÷ , - means × and ÷ means + than

15 - 2 ÷ 900 + 90 × 100 = ?
(a) 190 (b) 180 (c) 90 (d) -60
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Q26. If 'a' means 'plus', 'b' means 'minus', 'c' means 'multiplied by' and 'd' means 'divided by' then
18 c 14 a 6 b 16 d 4 = ?
(a) 63 (b) 254 (c) 288 (d) 1208
Direction Consider the given statements to be true and decide which of the given conclusion/assumptions can definitely be
drawn from the given statement.
Q27. Statements
(a) All goats are cows. (b) All cows are animals.
Conclusion
(I) All goats are animals. (II) All animals are goats.
(a) Only conclusion I follows. (b) Only conclusion II follows.
(c) Both conclusion I and II follows. (d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Q28. Statements
(a) Some cats are dogs. (b) No dog is a toy.
Conclusion
(I) Some dogs are cats. (II) Some toys are cats.
(III) Some cats are not toys. (IV) All toys are cats.
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(a) Only conclusion I and III follows. (b) Only conclusion II and III follows.
(c) Only conclusion I and II follows. (d) Only conclusion I follows.
Q29. 1.12.91 is the first Sunday. Which is the fourth Tuesday of December 91?
(a) 17.12.91 (b) 24.12.91 (c) 26.12.91 (d) 31.12.91
Direction Each of the following problems (Q30 and 32 ), contains 4 figures marked (a), (b), (c), (d). Find the odd figure.
Q30.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q31.
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(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Q32.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

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Direction Each of the problems (Q 33 to 36 ), contains four figures marked as (A), (B), (C), (D) and answer figures marked as (a),
(b), (c) and (d). Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue in the same series as given in the problem
figure.
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Q33. Find out the next figure

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?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)
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?
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(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)
?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)
Q36. What number must be added to 6, 16 and 8 to get an average of 13?

(a) 22 (b) 25 (c) 20 (d) 18
Q37. 10 cats caught 10 rats in 10 seconds. How many cats are required to catch 100 rats in 100 seconds?
(a) 100 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 50
Q38. Find the pair where relationship does not exist?

(a) Spoon, Water (b) Glass, Juice (c) Cup, Tea (d) Knife, Fruit
Q39. Which diagram depicts the correct relationship between Army, Navy and Air Force?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q40. Which diagram depicts the correct relationship?

Godavari, Brahamputra, Majauli
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Direction.
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
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Q41. Find the letters?
COMPUTER : FQPRXVHT : : LANGUAGE : ?
(a) OXPIXDIG (b) OCQICYIG (c) OCQIXCJG (d) OCIXCIG
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Direction Study the figure and answer Q no. 42 and 43.
Q42. How many maximum squares are in the following figure?
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(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 13 (d) 14
Q43. Count the number of rectangles in the figure.

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(a) 8 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19
Q44. A square sheet is folded along dotted lines and holes/ cuts are made as shown. is hole is cut. Choose the diagram
that depicts how would paper look when unfolded completely?
Depicts Hole
Depicts Cut
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q45. Fill up the missing number.
1 2 3
11 7 5
120 45 ?
(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18
Q46. Find the missing number.
5 3 7 5 6 4
19 ? 29
4 6 5
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(a) 25 (b) 37 (c) 41 (d) 47
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Q47. Find the missing number
12 6 3
16 8 4
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128 ? 2
(a) 64 (b) 130 (c) 16 (d) 256
Q48. Fill up the missing letter and number.
A2
G3
C4
I5
E6
?
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M5 O9 Q14
(a) L10 (b) K15 (c) J15 (d) K8

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5 3 6
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2 4 2 3 4 7
584 694 ?
2 2 3 2 1 2
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1 2 1
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(a) 937 (b) 824 (c) 769 (d) 678
Q50. From a meaningful word and answer as per given code.
DOREK BAY
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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(a) 5 4 3 6 7 8 2 1 (b) 5 4 8 2 6 7 3 1 (c) 5 4 8 6 2 7 3 1 (d) 5 4 8 6 2 7 1 3
PART-II : ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS
Q51. Insert two rational numbers between 3/5 and 2/3.
21 10 15 11 19 37 41 16
(a) , (b) , (c) , (d) ,
10 15 20 12 30 60 20 25
Q52. The rational number lying between √2 and √3 is
49 56 63 85
(a) (b) (c) (d)
28 35 45 66
Q53. Find the value of :-
5.49 × 5.49 × 5.49 – 1.49 × 1.49 × 1.49
5.49 × 5.49 + 5.49 × 1.49 + 1.49 × 1.49
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
Q54. The numbers X, X + 2, x + 4 are all prime numbers. What is the value of x ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 11 (d) 17
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Q55. How many factors of 2 × 3 are perfect squares?
5 6
(a) 9 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 4
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x 5
Q56. If 3 = than value of x is
27 3
(a) 125 (b) 25 (c) 27 (d) 9
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Q57. If sum of five consecutive integers is 'S', then largest of these integers in terms of S will be :-
S – 10 S+4 S+5 S + 10
(a)
5
(b)
4
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Q58. A number is an much greater than 36 as is less than 86. Find the number.
(a) 61 (b) 71 (c) 81
4
(d)
(d) 51
5
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Q59. The LCM of two numbers is 90 times their HCF. The sum of LCM and HCF is 1456. If one of the number is 160, then what
is the other number?
(a) 120 (b) 136 (c) 144 (d) 184
Q60. Find the square root of

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0.324 × 0.64 × 129.6

0.729 × 1.024 × 36
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
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Q61. The duplicate ratio of 2√2 : 3√5 is?

(a) 4 : 9 (b) 8 : 45 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 6 : 45
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Q62. Find out the value of x if logx 4 + logx 16 + logx 64 = 12

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 7 (d) 54
Q63. If (a – b) : (a + b) = 1 : 5 ?
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Then what is (a2 –b2) : (a2 + b2) equal to

(a) 6 : 13 (b) 4 : 13 (c) 5 : 13 (d) 8 : 13
Q64. Find the value of x and y in the equation

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3x – y + 1 2x + y + 2 3x + 2y + 1
= =
3 5 6
(a) x = 2, y = 1 (b) x = 1, y = 1 (c) x = –1, y = –1 (d) x = 2, y = 1
Q65. Three traffic lights change after 36 seconds, 42 seconds and 72 seconds respectively. If they are switched on now, after how
much time will they blink together ?
(a) 8 min 24 sec (b) 8 min 4 sec (c) 8 min 44 sec (d) 8 min 54 sec
Q66. The age of x is six times that of y. After 4 years, x is 4 times elder of y. What is the present age of y ?
(a) 4 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) 7 years
Q67. One year ago ratio of age of Rohit and Sahil was 6 : 7, their ratio four years from now will be 7 : 8. How old is Sahil ?
(a) 40 (b) 39 (c) 37 (d) 36
Q68. A fraction becomes 2/3 if 1 is added to both its numerator and denominator. Same faction become 1/2 if 1 subtracted both
from its numerator; and denominator. The fraction is
(a) 4/7 (b) 3/4 (c) 3/5 (d) 8/9
Q69. A man sold two houses for ` 29,700,each. On one he incurred loss of 10%, while on other he gained 10%. The transaction
gives:-
(a) Profit (b) Neither profit nor loss (c) Loss (d) Insufficient data
Q70. The income of A & B are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and their annual expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. If each saves ` 60,000. Find
A's income?
(a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 72,000 (c) ` 19,200 (d) ` 48,000
Q71. How long will it take for a boy to run around a square field of area 25 hectare at the speed of 10 km/h?
(a) 12 min (b) 14 min (c) 10 min (d) 8 min
Q72. If the price of the cooking gas rises by 15%, by what %, should family reduce its consumption so as not to exceed the
budget on cooking?
1 1 1
(a) 12 % (b) 13 % (c) 14 % (d) None of the above
23 23 24
Q73. Population of a city in 2004 was 10,00,000. If in 2005, there is an increment of 15% in 2006 there is a decrease of 35% and in
2007, there is an increase of 45%. Then find out the population of the city at the end of year 2007?
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(a) 10,80,000 (b) 10,83,875 (c) 10,84,874 (d) 11,75,045
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Q74. A sum of money becomes 3 times in 5 years at simple interest. In how many years will the same sum become 6 times at
the same rate of simple interest?
(a) 10 years (b) 12 years (c) 12.5 years (d) 10.5 years
Q75. A sum of money on compound interest amount to ` 9680 in 2 years and ` 10648 in 3 years. What is the rate of interest per
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annum?
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) 20%
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(a) 10% (b) 70% (c) 4% lar
Q76. Two numbers are less than third number by 30% and 37% respectively. The percentage by which second number is less
(d) 3%
Q77. In a town of 3600 people, 8/9th population is men, 10% are married. Find the % of unmarried women?
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(a) 24% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 30%
Q78. Boating at 6/7th of regular speed in a lake, the tourist got late by 30 min? How much time will it take when boating is at
usual speed?
(a) 2 hr (b) 3 hr (c) 1.5 hr (d) None
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Q79. A rectangle field of length 242 m has an area of 4840 m2. What will be the cost of fencing its perimeter if cost of fencing is
50 paise/meter?
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(a) ` 262 (b) ` 270 (c) ` 320 (d) ` 258
Q80. The area of four walls of a room is 660 m2 and length is twice the width, ht being 11 m. Find area of ceiling?
(a) 200 (b) 190 (c) 210 (d) 220
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Q81. Ratio of two complementary angles is 1 : 5. What is the difference between them?
(a) 60° (b) 90° (c) 120° (d) 160°
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Q82. If a man travels with a speed of 2/5 times of his original speed and he reached his office 15 minutes late to the fixed time,
then the time taken with his original speed will be?
Q83. Find the value of x in the given figure where PA is parallel to QC

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P A
45°
x
30°
Q C
(a) 75° (b) 185° (c) 285° (d) 245°
Q84. The speed of boat upstream and speed of boat down stream are 7km/h and 13km/h respectively. What is the speed of
stream and speed of boat in still water?
(a) 10 km/h and 3km/h (b) 15 km/h and 9km/h (c) 20 km/h and 6km/h (d) 40 km/h and 12km/h
Q85. Ajay can do a piece of work in 10 days and Harshal can do same work in 12 days. They started working together but Ajay
left the work 2 days before completion of work, then time taken to complete the work?
6 3 3 2
(a) 6 days (b) 5 days (c) 4 days (d) 7 days
11 10 2 5
Q86. If 3 men or 4 women can plough a field in 43 days, how long 7 men and 5 women take to plough it?
Q87. A can do a piece of work in 70 days and B is 40% more efficient than A. The number of days taken by B to do the same
work will be?
Q88. A wooden box measures 10 cm by 6 cm by 5 cm. Thickness of wood is 2 cm. Find the volume of wood required to make
the box.
(a) 206 cm3 (b) 207 cm3 (c) 204 cm3 (d) 288 cm3
Q89. What is the value of

tan A – sin A
sin3 A
sec A sec A sec A
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
1–cos A 1+cos2 A 1+cos A
Q90. The length of a pendulum is 60 cm. The angle through which it swings when its tip describes an arc of length 16.5 cm will
be
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(a) 15° 30' (b) 15° 45' (c) 16° 15' (d) 16° 45'
Q91. Find the value of .
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sin θ sin θ tan (90° + θ)
+ +
cos (90° + θ) sin (180° + θ) cot θ
(a) 0 (b) –1 (c) –3 (d) 2
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Q92. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle and diameter AB bisects and chord CD at a point E such that CE = ED = 8 cm
and EB = 4 cm. The radius of circle is
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A O E B
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(a) 10 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 8 cm

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Q93. In a triangle ABC, if cos A = cos B × cos C, What is the value of tan A – tan B – tan C .
(a) – 1 (b) 0 (c) 1 + tan A + tan B + tan C (d) tan A tan B tan C – 1
Q94. An aeroplane flying at a height of 300 m above the ground passes vertically above a plane at an instant when the angle of
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elevation of two planes from the same point on the ground are 60° and 45° respectively. What is the height of lower plane
from ground ?
(a) 500 m (b) 100 √3 m (c) 500 √3 m (d) 15 (√3 + 1) m
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Q95. The mean of 20 observations is 15. On checking it was found that two observations were wrongly copied as 3 and 6. If
wrong observation are replaced by correct values 8 and 4, then the correct mean is?
(a) 15 (b) 15.15 (c) 15.35 (d) 16
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Q96. Two poles of equal height are standing opposite to each other on either side of a road which is 100m wide from a point
between them on ground. The angle of elevation of tops of poles are 30° and 60°. The height of each pole in metres will be?
(a) 25√3 (b) 20√3 (c) 28√3 (d) 30√3
Q97. An electric pump can fill a tank in 3 hours. Because of a leak in tank it took 3.5 hours to fill the tank. If tank is full, how
much time will it take for leak to empty it?
(a) 25 hrs (b) 19 hrs (c) 20 hrs (d) 21 hrs
Q98. A spherical ball of radius 3 cm is melted and recast into three spherical balls of radius 1.5 cm and 2 cm and X cm. Find the
value of X.
(a) 5 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 3 cm (d) 2.25 cm
Q99. Circumference of the base of a 9 m high conical tent is 44 m. Find the vol of air contained in it.
(a) 430 cm3 (b) 462 cm3 (c) 472 cm3 (d) 492 cm3
Q100. The average marks obtained by the students in a class are 43. If the average marks obtained by 25 boys are 40 and average
marks obtained by the girl students are 48, then what is the number of girl students in the class?
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 15 (d) 10
ANSWERS ARE BOLD
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PAPER-2: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & ENGLISH
Roll No………………………..
INSTRUCTIONS
(a) Part I : General Knowledge (50 marks)
(b) Part II: English (50 marks)
3. There will be four possible answers to every question. Candidates are required to fill correct answer in the OMR sheet with Black ball pen.
5. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer and 0.33 mark will be deducted. There will be no penalty for
questions left unanswered.
7. To be eligible to qualify, a candidate must obtain minimum 40% marks each in Part I & II separately and a minimum of 50% aggregate in total.
PART-I
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. Which of these is indigenously developed guided weapon system of India?
(a) Pinaka (b) M 777 (c) Agni 5 (d) Brahmos
2. Which activity has been declared as mental disorder by W H O ?

(a) excess use of mobile (b) oversleeping
(c) impaired control over gaming on mobile (d) over eating
3. Kartarpur Sahib corridor connects Kartarpur Gurudwara in Pakistan to Dera Baba Nanak Shrine in India’s _____ district
(a) Amritsar (b) Gurdaspur (c) Sangrur (d) Ludhiana
4. Name the India’s longest Rail cum Road Bridge.

(a) Makum (b) Abhayapuri (c) Bogibeel (d) Nalbari
5. Who among the following became the Force Commander of UN peacekeeping Force in South Sudan?
(a) Lt Gen I S Ghuman (b) LT Gen Anil Kumar Bhatt
(c) LT Gen Shailesh Tinaikar (d) LT Gen SK Upadhyay
6. The system of issuing and monitoring of money in the market is known as:-
(a) Proportional reserve ratio (b) Fixed reserve ratio (c) Minimum reserve ratio (d) Floating reserve ratio
7. Which one of the following is an example for Non-Banking Financial institution?

(a) RBI (b) SBI (c) IOB (d) LIC
8. Which term in economics is a broad measurement of a nation’s overall economic activity. It is the monetary value of all the
finished goods and service produced with a country’s border in a specific time period.
(a) GDP (b) GPN (c) OMP (d) GNP
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9. Agha Khan Cup is associated with which of the following games?
(a) Golf (b) Tennis (c) Hockey (d) Badminton
10. With reference to cyclone ‘Vayu’, read the following statements and answer the question:-
(1) It originated in Arabian Sea (2) It was named by India
(3) The cyclone originating in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea are named by India.
(a) Only 1 & 3 (b) Only 2 & 3 (c) Only 1 & 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
11. The two volcanic islands in the Indian territory are?

(a) Kavaratti and New Moor (b) Bitra and Kavaratti (c) Pamban and Barren (d) Narcondam and Barren
12. With which of the following countries India has no boundary?

(a) Nepal (b) Mongolia (c) Myanmar (d) Bhutan
13. In which State in Jog Falls located?

(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala
14. The declaration that democracy is a Govt of the people, by the people, for the people was made by
(a) George Washington (b) Winston Churchill (c) Abrahim Lincoln (d) Theodor Roosevell
15. Which of the following is called the ‘Gateway to the Pacific’?

(a) Suez Canal (b) Panama Canal (c) Bering Sea (d) Gulf of Alaska
16. EI Nino is
(a) a warm ocean current (b) sea storm (c) tropical disturbance (d) another name of typhoon
17. The most populous and oil-rich country in Africa is

(a) Kenya (b) Sudan (c) Nigeria (d) Uganda
18. Which one of the following is not a line of demarcation between two countries?
(a) International Date Line (b) MacMohan Line (c) Radcliffe Line (d) Durand Line
19. Who was the first Indian woman to scale Mt. Everest?
(a) Bachendri Pal (b) Fu Dorji (c) Aun Sang Suu Kyi (d) Yoko Ono
20. Tropical rain forest is characterised by

(a) Absence of trees (b) Least Productivity (c) Maximum biodiversity (d) Minimum diversity
21. Source of River Nile is

(a) Lake Nassir (b) Lake Chad (c) Lake Victoria (d) Lake Tanganyika
22. What is the distance of Marathon Race?

(a) 21 miles 385 yards (b) 25 miles 385 yards (c) 26 miles 385 yards (d) 42 km
23. “Curie” is unit of:

(a) Radioactivity (b) Temperature (c) Heat (d) Energy
24. The gas used in the artificial ripening of fruits is

(a) Acetylene (b) Methane (c) Ethane (d) Butane
25. In nuclear reactors, graphite is used as a/an

(a) Fuel (b) Lubricant (c) Moderator (d) Insulator
26. The isotope of Uranium used in atomic reactors is

(a) U235 (b) U236 (c) U237 (d) U232
27. The nitrogen in the ecosystem is circulated by:-

(a) Earthworms (b) Bacteria (c) Fungi (d) Protozoa
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28. Where is India’s super computer ‘PARAM’ located?
(a) Chennai (b) Pune (c) Bengaluru (d) Kolkata
29. Who invented the polio vaccine (oral)?

(a) Jonas Salk (b) Albert Sabin (c) Burkholder (d) Robert Koch
30. Optic fibres are used in:

(a) CAT scans (b) X-ray photos (c) Ultrasound scans (d) Endoscopy
31. Helium gas is used in gas balloons instead of hydrogen gas because it is
(a) Lighter than hydrogen (b) More abundant than hydrogen
(c) Non-combustible (d) More stable
32. The partition of Bengal was scrapped by –

(a) Lord Hardinge (b) Lord Minto (c) Lord Ilbert (d) Lord Lytton
33. Who defeated Humayun in the battle of Chausa in 1539

(a) Sher Shah (b) Bahadur Shah (c) Rana Sanga (d) None of these
34. Pantajali is well known for the compilation of

(a) Yoga sutra (b) Panchatantra (c) Brahma Sustra (d) Ayurveda
35. The most referred God in Rig Veda is?

(a) Indra (b) Vayu (c) Agni (d) Varun
36. In which year the Radicals and Moderates were divided?

(a) 1905 (b) 1907 (c) 1912 (d) 1908
37. Who was the founder of Khalsa Panth?

(a) Guru Nanak Dev (b) Guru Arjun Dev (c) Guru Teg Bahadur (d) Guru Govind Singh
38. The Successor of Guru Nanak was

(a) Guru Teg Bahadur (b) Guru Arjun Dev (c) Guru Govind Singh (d) Guru Angad Dev
39. Which was the first newspaper in India?

(a) Peking Gazette (b) Kashmir Times (c) Dainik Jagran (d) Bengal Gazette
40. Who is the final authority to interpret the constitution?

(a) President (b) The Parliament (c) The Lok Sabha (d) Supreme Court
41. Who is the executive head of the State Government?

(a) The Chief Minister (b) The Governor
(c) The Secretary to the Chief Minister (d) The Chief Secretary
42. Fiscal policy refers to:-

(a) Agricultural fertilizer policy (b) Rural credit policy
(c) Interest policy (d) Related to revenue and expenditure policy of the government
43. The First woman Governor of a State in free India was:-

(a) Mrs Sarojni Naidu (b) Mrs Sucheta Kriplani (c) Mrs Indira Gandhi (d) Mrs Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
44. The executive power relating to concurrent subjects remain with

(a) The States (b) The Centre (c) The Constitution (d) The President
45. The election commission does not conduct the election of the
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha (c) Local bodies (d) President’s elections
46. Finance commission is constituted by the President after how many years?
(a) 2 yrs (b) 3 yrs (c) 5 yrs (d) 4 yrs


47. Which Country was ranked as 1st in Global peace Index 2019?
(a) Norway (b) Iceland (c) Nepal (d) Australia
48. How many teams are participating in the ICC Word Cup 2019?
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12
49. Who has hit 17 sixes in a single match in the ICC World Cup 2019 so far?
(a) Rohit Sharma (b) J Roy (c) Morgan (d) Aaron Finch
50. What is the name of crypto currency wallet announced by Facebook and its partners recently?
(a) Aries (b) Taura (c) Libra (d) Moon


PART II: ENGLISH
Analyze the contents of the passage and then answer the questions that follow passage.
PASSAGE – 1
Anxiety and conscience is a pair of powerful dynamos. Of course, I can only speak for myself. Between them, they have ensured that one shall
work hard, but they cannot ensure that one shall work at anything worthwhile. They are blind forces which drive but do not direct.
Fortunately, I have also been moved by a third motive—the wish to see and understand. Curiosity is another motive for action. It is also one of
the distinctive characteristics of human nature and contrasted with the natures of non-human animals. All human have curiosity in some
degree and we also all have it about things which are of no practical use. Curiosity may be focused on anything in the universe, but the
spiritual reality of the phenomena should be the ultimate objective of all curiosity for it to be fruitful. Thanks to my mother my approach to this
ultimate objective is through the story of human affairs.
51. What is the main objective of this passage?

(a) Distinguish between human beings and animals.
(b) Project curiosity as a potent motivating factor
(c) Project anxiety and conscience as inadequate motivators
(d) Motivation and Spiritual reality
52. A characteristic peculiar to human beings that is referred to is

(a) Superior intelligence (b) Spirit of inquiry
(c) Capacity to rationalize and analyse (d) Ability to shift the practical from the impractical
53. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?

(a) Animals are as curious as human beings (b) Curiosity is another motive for action
(c) People motivated by curiosity do not need other motives to guide them
(d) People motivated by anxiety and conscience alone can be misdirected
54. According to the author

(a) Those who have little curiosity are curious about unimportant things.
(b) Apart from humans no other living beings have the gift of curiosity.
(c) The highest form of curiosity can be satisfied by study of human affairs alone.
(d) Spiritual reality is the ultimate goal of humans through action
55. The author subscribes to the view

(a) One’s curiosity should focus beyond the facade on the latent meaning of things.
(b) Curiosity is an inherent family characteristic.
(c) A study of human affairs is the most effective method of satisfying one’s curiosity.
(d) In order to motivate, curiosity must be coupled with anxiety and conscience.
Choose the word which best expresses nearly the same meaning of the given word.
56. OCCULT
(a) religious (b) unnatural (c) supernatural (d) strong
57. WHISTLE BLOWER

(a) a down (b) informer (c) a maniac (d) reformer
58. ABJURE
(a) renounce (b) announce (c) pronounce (d) denounce
59. PANACEA
(a) flatter (b) praise (c) inactivity (d) cure all
60. TRIVIAL
(a) unimportant (b) rude (c) crude (d) tribal


In each of the following questions, out of the given words, one word is mis-spelt. Find the mis-spelt word.
61. (a) Malignancy (b) Frequency (c) Emergancy (d) Consistency
62. (a) Phlegm (b) Mnemonic (c) Apropos (d) Rendezvos
63. (a) Rudiment (b) Compliment (c) Suppliment (d) Independent
64. (a) Odontalgia (b) Elucubrate (c) Smaragdine (d) Eudaemone
65. (a) Ancillary (b) Algorithm (c) Abridgment (d) Alignmant
Choose the word which best expresses the opposite meaning of the word.
66. CAJOLE
(a) pester (b) persuade (c) bitter (d) lament
67. SAPIENT
(a) wise (b) foolish (c) wasteful (d) culvert
68. COUNTERFEIT
(a) destructive (b) genuine (c) affirm (d) harmonize
69. BRAWNY
(a) swift (b) weak (c) strong (d) pale
70. FOMENT
(a) instigate (b) push (c) solemn (d) calm
Fill up the blanks with the most appropriate word from the options given below.
71. The leader of opposition party condemned the communal riots in ………………… terms.
(a) unambiguous (b) unparliamentary (c) unequivocal (d) uncontrollable
72. It ………………… that Punit will not be selected

(a) feels (b) looks (c) believes (d) seems
73. We had to pay more taxi fare because the driver brought us by a ………………… route.
(a) circular (b) circumscribed (c) longest (d) circuitous
74. Shivlal ………………… classical music. He always prefer Bhimsen Joshi to Asha Bhonsale.
(a) adores (b) cares (c) cultivates (d) apprehends
75. Indigenous products are now comparable ………………… improved goods in the country.
(a) against (b) to (c) than (d) from
In each of following sentences find our which part of the sentence has an error.
76. He had lost a ring in the sand and (a) / I helped him search for it (b) / but it was like a look for a needle in the haystack (c) /no
error (d)
Explanation:- Incorrect form of the verb. It should be ‘looking for a needle in the haystack’.
77. The scientist was seemed (a) / to be excited (b) / over the result of his experiment (c) /no error (d)
Explanation:-Remove ‘was’. Its use is superfluous.
78. The media of films has been accepted by all (a) / as the most powerful force (b) / that influences the younger generation (c) /no
error (d)
Explanation:- Use ‘young’ in place of ‘younger’.


79. Until you begin to make a better use of your time (a) / I shall not stop (b) / finding fault in you (c) /no error (d)
Explanation:-Use ‘with’ in place of ‘in’. Find fault with somebody is used.
80. If you repeat this mistake (a) / I will inform to your father (b) / and do not blame me then (c) /no error (d)
Explanation:- Remove ‘to’. Its use is superfluous.
Choose the best expression amongst multiple choices for a given idiom/proverb.
81. To die in harness means to die while

(a) riding a horse (b) in a stable (c) in a uniform (d) still in service
82. Get cold feet

(a) to run for life (b) to get cold (c) to be afraid (d) to become discourteous
83. Devil’s advocate

(a) an advocate (b) an advocate like a devil
(c) discussion of an advocate (d) to provoke debate or test the strength of opposing arguments
84. Blow by blow

(a) eruptions in quick succession from a volcano (b) continuously raining with thunders
(c) describe an event as it occurred in every detail (d) a rapid declare in business leading to closure
85. The treaty popularity of yester year’s superstar is on the wane.

(a) growing more (b) at its peak (c) growing less (d) at rock bottom
In each of the following questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given
word/sentence.
86. Succession of rulers belonging to one family

(a) dynasty (b) lineage (c) ancestry (d) progeny
87. Flat metal or porcelain plate fixed on a wall as an ornament or memorial.

(a) tabloid (b) poster (c) board (d) plaque
88. A sly look that is lustful

(a) lore (b) leer (c) lark (d) littoral
89. Without risk of punishment

(a) impudent (b) impunity (c) inexorable (d) imperturbable
90. Excessive preoccupation with one’s health

(a) hypochondria (b) malaria (c) disaffected (d) malinger
In these questions, the first and last sentence of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of passage is split into four parts and
named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four
combination is correct.
91. S1: While crossing a busy road, we should obey the policeman on duty,
S2: we should never run while crossing the road
(P) we should always cross the road at the zebra crossing
(Q) we must look to the signal lights and cross the road only when the road is clear.
(R) if there are no signal lights at the crossing, we should look to the right, then to the left and again the right before crossing the
road.
(S) if the road is not clear we should wait
(a) PSRQ (b) PQRS (c) RQSP (d) QRPS


92. S1: Politeness is not a quality possessed by only one nation or race.
S2: In any case, we should not mock at others habits.
(P) one may observe that a man of one nation will remove his hat or fold his hands by way of greeting when he meets someone
he knows.
(Q) a man of another country will not do so.
(R) it is a quality to be found among all people and nations in every corner of the earth.
(S) obviously, each person follows the custom of his particular country.
(a) RPQS (b) RPSQ (c) PRQS (d) QRPS
93. S1: I had not gone far when it began to rain heavily.
S2: I could reach my office only after three hours of great labour
(P) soon the roads began to overflow and the traffic got jammed.
(Q) I found some buses deserted in deep waters.
(R) I went from one road to another to get a clear passage to my office.
(S) but to my ill luck, I found the traffic jammed on every road.
(a) PSRQ (b) PRSQ (c) PQSR (d) SPRQ
94. S1: Your letter was a big relief

S2: But do not forget to bring chocolate
(P) how did your examination go?
(Q) after your result, you must come here for a week
(R) you had not written for over a month
(S) I am sure you will come out with flying
(a) PSRQ (b) QRPS (c) RPSQ (d) PSQR
95. S1: The wife is

S2: as free as the husband to choose her own path.
(P) not the husband’s slave
(Q) but his companion and his help mate
(R) and an equal partner
(S) in all his joys and sorrows and is
(a) QRSP (b) PRQS (c) QSRP (d) PQRS
For underlined part of sentence choose part of the sentence from given choices, to correct or improve it.
96. His powerful desire brought about his downfall.

(a) His intense desire (b) His desire for power
(c) His fatal desire (d) No improvement
97. During his long discourse, he did not touch that point.
(a) touch upon (b) touch on (c) touch of (d) no improvement
98. He had not and can never be in good books of his employer because he lacks honesty
(a) has not and cannot be (b) has not and can never been
(c) has not been and can never be (d) no improvement
99. I shall not go until I am invited.

(a) till I am invited (b) unless I am invited
(c) If not I am invited (d) no improvement
100. There is no chance of success unless you do not work hard.

(a) unless you work (b) until your working
(c) until you do not work (d) no improvement
ANSWERS ARE BOLD


PAPER-1: REASONING & ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS A1
Roll No………………………..
INSTRUCTIONS

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3. There will be four possible answers to every question. Candidates are required to fill correct answer in the OMR sheet with Black
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ball pen.
5. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer and 0.33 mark will be deducted. There will be no
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7.
aggregate in total.
PART-1 : REASONING
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To be eligible to qualify, a candidate must obtain minimum 40% marks each in Part I & II separately and a minimum of 50%
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Direction In each of the following question a number of series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
Q1. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ___, 17

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(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15

Explanation
The given series consists of prime numbers starting from 2. The prime number after 11 is 13. So, 13 is the missing number.
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Q2. 23, 48, 99, 203, 413 ___

(a) 927 (b) 837 (c) 937 (d) 437
Explanation
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The pattern is × 2 + 2 (prime number), × 2 + 3 (next prime number), × 2 + 5 (next prime number), × 2 + 7
(next prime number), × 2 + 11 (next prime number), So the series is 23 × 2 + 2 = 48, 48 × 2 + 3 = 99,
99 × 2 + 5 = 203, 203 × 2 + 7 = 413, 413 × 2 + 11 = 837 . So the answer is 837
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Q3. 225, 336, 447, 558, ___ 7710

(a) 690 (b) 660 (c) 689 (d) 669
Explanation
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The first two digits of the number in the given series are 22, 33, 44, 55, ……, 77. The third digit of the number from the series 5, 6, 7, 8,
…, 10. So, the first two digits of the missing number are 66 and the third digit is 9. Hence the missing number is 669.
Q4. ABC, CAE, EZG, ___ , LXK

(a) HUL (b) FAH (c) GYI (d) FYH
Explanation - Pattern follows as
–1 –1 –1 –1
A B C C A E E Z G G Y I L X K
+2 0 +2 0 +2 0 +2
Q5. ___ ___ G ___ C ___ G K ___ P G ___

(a) K C P C P K (b) C P K P C K (c) P K C P K P (d) C P P K C P
Explanation
The series is divided into group of four letters.
G
C G K
P G
Direction Choose the correct alternative which shows the same relationship.
Q6. Menu : Food : : Catalogue : ?

(a) Rack (b) Newspaper (c) Library (d) Books
Explanation
Menu lists all the food items in a restaurant. Similarly, catalogue is a list of all the books in a library.
Q7. 42 : 56 : : 110 : ?
(a) 182 (b) 132 (c) 136 (d) 156
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Explanation
Clearly the relationship is 6 × 7 = 42 : 7 × 8 = 56 :: 10 × 11 = 110 : 11 × 12 = 132
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Direction Choose the odd one out in question 8 to 11.

Arrow, Axe, Knife, Sword
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(a) Arrow (b) Axe (c) Knife (d) Sword
Explanation
Q9.
All except Arrow are used while holding in hand.
Find the odd one out.

Bake, Peel, Fry, Boil
(a) Bake (b) Peel
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(c) Fry (d) Boil
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Explanation
All except peel are forms of cooking.

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MONDAY, TUESDAY, FRIDAY, SUNDAY

(a) MONDAY (b) TUESDAY (c) FRIDAY (d) SUNDAY
Explanation
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All except Tuesday contain 6 letters.

Ear, Lung, Eye, Heart, Kidney
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(a) Ear (b) Lung (c) Eye (d) Heart

Explanation
All except Heart are present in the human body in a pair
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Q12. If √AFI : 13 : : √DDA : ?

(a) 12 (b) 22 (c) 21 (d) 24
Explanation
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√AFI : 13 ::√DDA : ?
↓ ↓↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
√169 : 13 :: √441 : Thus
21 the code for DDA is 441 = 21 × 21.
Q13. If white is called blue, blue is called red, red is called yellow, yellow is called green, green is called black, black is called
violet and violet is called orange, what would be the colour of human blood?
(a) Red (b) Green (c) Yellow (d) Violet
Explanation
Human blood colour is ‘red’, but ‘red’ is called ‘yellow’. So, human blood is ‘yellow’.
Q14. In a certain code language, '324' means 'Light is bright', '629' means 'Girl is beautiful' and '4758' means 'I prefer bright
colours', which digit means 'Light' in the language?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 7
Explanation
As 3=light, 2=is, 4=bright, 6=girl, 2=is, 9=beautiful, So, light=3.
Q15. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points toward North-east. In which direction does its hour hand point
at 1.30 PM?
(a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West
Explanation
Clearly, the positions of the minute and hour hands at 12 noon and 1:30 p.m. are as shown in the diagram. So, as shown, the hour hand
at 1:30 p.m. points towards the East.
N
11
11
10
10
–
–
E
E
12
12
9
9
1
1
8
8
2
2
7
7
3
3
6
6
5
4
Q16. In a class of 60, the number of girls are twice that of boys. Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are nine girls
ahead of Kamal, how many boys are behind him in rank?
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 12 (d) 23
Explanation
In a class of 60, the number of girls are twice that of boys. Clearly there are 20 boys and 40 girls.
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Kamal rank is 17th, so the number of boys ranked ahead of Kamal if there are 9 girls ahead of him = (17 – 9) = 8
the number of boys behind him in rank are = (20 – 8) = 12
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Q17. In a row of girls facing North, Reena is 10th to the left of Pallavi, who is 21st from the right end. If Malini who is 17th from
left end, is fourth to the right of Reena, how many girls are there in the row?
(a) 37 (b) 43 (c) 44 (d) 16
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Explanation
Pallavi is 21st from right and Reena is 10th to the left of Pallavi.
So, Reena is 31st from right.
Malini is 4th to the right of Reena.
So, Malini is 27th from the right.
Also, Malini is 17th from the left.
Therefore number of girls in the row = ( 26 + Malini + 16 ) = 43
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Q18. A is father of C and D is the son of B. E is the brother of A, C is the sister of D, how is B related to E ?
(a) Daughter (b) Brother-in-law (c) Husband (d) Sister-in-law
Explanation
A is father of C and C is sister of D. So, A is father of D. But D is son of B. So, B must be mother of C and D and wife of A. Now as E is
to
brother of A. So, B will be Sister-in-Law (Bhabhi) of E.
Q19. B is the husband of P. Q is the only grandson of E, who is the wife of D and mother-in-law of P. How is B related to D?
(a) Nephew (b) Cousin (c) Son-in-law (d) Son
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Explanation
B is the husband of P and E is mother-in-law of P. So, B is the son of E. Also, E is wife of D. Thus, B is the son of D
Q20. Pointing to Kapil, Shilpa said, "His mother's brother is the father of my son Ashish." How is Kapil related to Shilpa?
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(a) Sister-in-law (b) Nephew (c) Niece (d) Aunt

Explanation -
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Father of shilpa's son is Shilpa's husband. So, Kapil is the son of Shipa's husband’s sister. Thus, Kapil is Shilpa's nephew
Q21. A family has a man, his wife, their four sons and their wives. The family of every son also has 3 sons and one daughter.
Find out the total number of male members in the whole family?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 17
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Explanation
Man himself = 1, his 4 sons = 4, all four son’s have 3 sons each (3 x 4) =12. So total male members are (1 + 4 + 12) = 17.
Q22. In certain Code DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded ?
(a) 5279431 (b) 5978213 (c) 8251896 (d) 8543691
Explanation
The alphabets are coded as follows : D=7, E=3, L=5, H=4, I=1, C=8, A=2, U=9, T=6, Thus, the code for CALICUT is 8251896.
Q23. If ACNE can be coded as 3-7-29-11, then BOIL will be coded as ?

(a) 5-29-19-27 (b) 5-29-19-25 (c) 5-31-21-25 (d) 5-31-19-25
Explanation
Every letter’s position of alphabetical order is multiplied by two then added by one.
For example- A= 1 × 2 + 1 = 3, C = 3 × 2 + 1 = 7, N = 14 × 2 + 1 = 29, E = 5 × 2 + 1 = 11.
In the same way. B = 2 × 2 + 1 = 5, O = 15 × 2 + 1 = 31, I = 9 × 2 + 1 = 19, L =12 × 2 + 1 = 25.
Q24. A, B, C, D and E are five friends. A is shorter than B but taller than E. C is the tallest. D is shorter than B and taller than A.
Who has two persons taller and two persons shorter than him/ her ?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Explanation
Final ranking of height in descending order is as C > B > D > A > F. So D has two persons taller and two persons shorter than him.
Q25. If × means –, + means ÷ , - means × and ÷ means + than

15 - 2 ÷ 900 + 90 × 100 = ?
(a) 190 (b) 180 (c) 90 (d) -60
Explanation
Using the correct symbols we get expression given below
15 × 2 + 900 ÷ 90 – 100 = – 60
Q26. If 'a' means 'plus', 'b' means 'minus', 'c' means 'multiplied by' and 'd' means 'divided by' then
18 c 14 a 6 b 16 d 4 = ?
(a) 63 (b) 254 (c) 288 (d) 1208
Explanation
18 × 14 + 6 - 16 ÷ 4 = 254
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Direction Consider the given statements to be true and decide which of the given conclusion/assumptions can definitely be
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drawn from the given statement.
Q27. Statements
(a) All goats are cows. (b) All cows are animals.
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Conclusion
(I) All goats are animals. (II) All animals are goats.
(a) Only conclusion I follows. (b) Only conclusion II follows.
(c) Both conclusion I and II follows. (d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Explanation
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Cow
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Goat
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Q28. Statements
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Conclusion
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(a) Only conclusion I and III follows. (b) Only conclusion II and III follows.
(c) Only conclusion I and II follows. (d) Only conclusion I follows.
Explanation
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Cat Dog Toy

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Q29. 1.12.91 is the first Sunday. Which is the fourth Tuesday of December 91?
(a) 17.12.91 (b) 24.12.91 (c) 26.12.91 (d) 31.12.91
Explanation
1.12.91 is the first Sunday of December 91. So, 3.12.91 is the first Tuesday of the month. Clearly, 10.12.91, 17.12.91, 24.12.91 and
31.12.91 are also Tuesdays. So, 24.12.91 is the fourth Tuesday.
Direction Each of the following problems (Q30 and 32 ), contains 4 figures marked (a), (b), (c), (d). Find the odd figure.
Q30.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Explanation
All lines out side the circle are in the same direction except figure (d).
Q31.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Explanation
Only one line is required to complete the figures (a), (b), (c), i.e. triangle rectangle pentagon and but two lines are required to complete the
figure (d) i.e. hexagon
Q32.
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(a) (b) (c) (d)
Explanation
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From arrow side fourth line is bigger than rest of the lines except in figure (a)
Direction Each of the problems (Q 33 to 36 ), contains four figures marked as (A), (B), (C), (D) and answer figures marked as (a),
(b), (c) and (d). Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue in the same series as given in the problem
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figure.
Q33. Find out the next figure
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(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)
Explanation
Black and white dots are replacing each other and mark in the figures is rotating clock wise.
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?
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(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Explanation
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Arrow is moving clock wise and pin one is moving an anticlock wise.

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?
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(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Explanation
Horizontal rectangle is moving and clockwise and vertical rectangle is moving anticlock wise.
Q36. What number must be added to 6, 16 and 8 to get an average of 13?

(a) 22 (b) 25 (c) 20 (d) 18
Explanation
To get an average of 13, total of four numbers must be 13 x 4 = 52. Now total is 6 + 16 + 8 = 30. So, 52 – 30 = 22 must be added to 6, 16,
and 8 to get an average of 13
Q37. 10 cats caught 10 rats in 10 seconds. How many cats are required to catch 100 rats in 100 seconds?
(a) 100 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 50
Explanation
10 cats caught 10 rats in 10 seconds. It means one cat can catch one rat in 10 seconds.
In 100 seconds one cat can catch 10 rats. So in 100 seconds 10 cats can catch 100 rats
Q38. Find the pair where relationship does not exist?

(a) Spoon, Water (b) Glass, Juice (c) Cup, Tea (d) Knife, Fruit
Explanation
In all other pairs, we need first one when we have second one but we do not need spoon if we need to have water.
Q39. Which diagram depicts the correct relationship between Army, Navy and Air Force?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Explanation
Army, Navy and Air Force are different forces but having many common ventures.
Q40. Which diagram depicts the correct relationship?

Godavari, Brahamputra, Majauli
n
(a) (b) (c) (d)
y.i
Explanation
Godavari and Brahamputra are two different rivers but Majuli is the river island of the river Brahmaputra.
m
Direction.
1 2 3
Q41. Find the letters?

4 5 6 7
COMPUTER : FQPRXVHT : : LANGUAGE : ?

(a) OXPIXDIG
8 9
(b) OCQICYIG
10 11 12
lar
13 14 15
(c) OCQIXCJG
16 17 18 19 20
(d) OCIXCIG
21 22 23 24 25 26
ria
Explanation
Every odd number letter of the word is moved three steps forward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code and every even number
letter of the word is moved two steps forward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code.
L + 3 = O, A + 2 = C, N + 3 = Q, G + 2 = I, U + 3 = X, A + 2 = C, G + 3 = J, E + 2 = G.
to
Direction Study the figure and answer Q no. 42 and 43.
Q42. How many maximum squares are in the following figure?

te rri
w.
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 13 (d) 14

ww
Explanation
14 Squares
Q43. Count the number of rectangles in the figure.
(a) 8 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19

Explanation
18 Rectangles
Q44. A square sheet is folded along dotted lines and holes/ cuts are made as shown. is hole is cut. Choose the diagram
that depicts how would paper look when unfolded completely?

Depicts Hole
Depicts Cut
(a) (b) (c) (d)
n
y.i
Explanation
A square sheet is folded along dotted lines and holes/ cuts are made as shown. is hole is cut. Choose the diagram that depicts how would
paper look when unfolded completely?
m
1 2 3
11
120
7
45
5
?
(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18

lar
ria
Explanation
We could see the pattern as when we go to the first column as 1, 11, 120,
We observe that: 112 – 12 means 121 – 1 = 120
Similarly now we consider the second column and observe the same pattern as 2, 7, 45,
to
72 – 22 means 49 – 4 = 45
Now we consider the third column 3, 5, ?
Hence, the value in the missing place is calculated as:
rri
55 – 32 means 25 – 9 = 16
Hence, the missing number is: 16
Q46. Find the missing number.

te
5 3 7 5 6 4
w.
19 ? 29
4 6 5
ww
(a) 25 (b) 37 (c) 41 (d) 47

Explanation
The rule is 3 × 5 + 4 = 19; 5 × 7 + 6 = 41; 4 × 6 + 5 = 29
∴ the missing number is 41. Hence, the answer is (c)
Q47. Find the missing number
12 6 3
16 8 4
128 ? 2
(a) 64 (b) 130 (c) 16 (d) 256
Explanation
12/2 = 6 6/2 = 3
16/2 = 8 8/2 = 4
128/8 = 16 16/8 = 2
Q48. Fill up the missing letter and number.
A2 C4 E6
G3 I5 ?
M5 O9 Q14
(a) L10 (b) K15 (c) J15 (d) K8

Explanation
How the number is obtained 2 + 4 = 6, 3 + 5 = 8, (8 should be in the box) 5 + 9 = 14.
Alternates of alphabet are taken A _ C _ E _ G _ I _ K _ M _ O _ Q (K is to be in the box)
So answer is K8

5 3 6
2 4 2 3 4 7
n
584 694 ?
y.i
2 2 3 2 1 2
1 2 1
m
(a) 937 (b) 824 (c) 769 (d) 678
Explanation –
In the first figure: 5 × 1 = 5; 4 × 2 = 8; 2 × 2 = 4
In the second figure: 2 × 3 = 6; 3 × 3 = 9; 2 × 2 = 4
∴ In the third figure: 6 × 1 = 6; 7 × 1 = 7; 4 × 2 = 8
∴ the answer is 678 i.e. (d). lar
ria
Q50. From a meaningful word and answer as per given code.
DOREK BAY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
to
(a) 5 4 3 6 7 8 2 1 (b) 5 4 8 2 6 7 3 1 (c) 5 4 8 6 2 7 3 1 (d) 5 4 8 6 2 7 1 3

Explanation
D O R E K B A Y
rri
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
So 5 4 8 6 2 7 3 1 is K E Y B O A R D
te
w.
ww
PART-II : ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS

Q51. Insert two rational numbers between 3/5 and 2/3.
21 10 15 11 19 37 41 16
(a) , (b) , (c) , (d) ,
10 15 20 12 30 60 20 25
Explanation
3 2
and
5 3
3 2 9 + 10
5 + 3 15 19 a+b
= = 30 [Rational Number a and b = = ]
2 2 2
3 19 18 + 19
5 + 30 30 37
= = 60
2 2
n
Q52. The rational number lying between √2 and √3 is
49 56 63 85
y.i
(a) (b) (c) (d)
28 35 45 66
Explanation
m
√2 = 1.414 √3 = 1.732
49 56
28 = 1.75 35 = 1.6
63
45 = 1.4
56
35
85
66
= 1.287
= 1.6 lies between √2 and √3

lar
ria
Q53. Find the value of :-
5.49 × 5.49 × 5.49 – 1.49 × 1.49 × 1.49
5.49 × 5.49 + 5.49 × 1.49 + 1.49 × 1.49
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
to
Explanation
5.49 × 5.49 × 5.49 – 1.49 × 1.49 × 1.49
rri
5.49 × 5.49 + 5.49 × 1.49 + 1.49 × 1.49
a3 – b3
a2 + b2 + ab = a – b
Here a = 5.49 b = 1.49
te
So a – b = 5.49 – 1.49 = 4
Q54. The numbers X, X + 2, x + 4 are all prime numbers. What is the value of x ?
w.
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 11 (d) 17

Explanation
Let the least value price be x.
ww
Then the next value is x + 20, and the next value is x + 40 and on and on up to 7 values.
It’s nothing but an arithmetic progression with sum 700.
x + x +20 + x + 40 +… x + 120 = 700
7x + (20 + 40 +…+ 120) = 700
7x + 20 (1 + 2 + 3 +…+ 6) = 700
7x + 20 (21) = 700
7x = 280
40
280
⇒x= 7 1 = 40
Q55. How many factors of 25 × 36 are perfect squares?

(a) 9 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 4
Explanation
25 × 36

• 20 • 30
[Even powers of 2 can be selected in 3 ways and
21 31 in the same way even powers of 3 can be selected in 4 ways ]
• 22 • 32
2 3
33
• 24 • 34
2 5
35
• 36
= 3 × 4 = 12
x 5
Q56. If 3 = than value of x is
3
n
27
(a) 125 (b) 25 (c) 27 (d) 9
y.i
Explanation
x 5
3 27 = 3
m
3 3
x
Cubing both side 3 27 = ( )
5
3
x 125
27 = 27 x = 125
(a)
S – 10
(b)
S+4
lar
Q57. If sum of five consecutive integers is 'S', then largest of these integers in terms of S will be :-
(c)
S+5
(d)
S + 10
ria
5 4 4 5
Explanation
Let five consecutive integers be x, x + 1, x + 2, x + 3, x + 4
x+x+1+x+2+x+3+x+4=S
to
5x + 10 = S
5x = S – 10
rri
S – 10
x= 5
S – 10
Largest number = x + 4 = 5 + 4
S – 10 + 20 S + 10
= = 5
te
5
Q58. A number is an much greater than 36 as is less than 86. Find the number.
(a) 61 (b) 71 (c) 81 (d) 51
w.
Explanation
36 + x = 86 – x
2x = 86 – 36
ww
2x = 50
x = 25
The number = 36 +x = 36 + 25 = 61
Q59. The LCM of two numbers is 90 times their HCF. The sum of LCM and HCF is 1456. If one of the number is 160, then what
is the other number?
(a) 120 (b) 136 (c) 144 (d) 184
Explanation
LCM = 90 × HCF
Let HCF = x
LCM = 90 × x = 90x
LCM + HCF = 1456
90x +x = 1456
91x = 1456 16
1456 112
x = 91
7
x = 16
LCM = 90x = 90 × 16 = 1440
HCF = x = 16
One number = 160
Let other number = y
Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM
160 × y = 16 × 1440
16 × 1440
y= 160
= 144
Q60. Find the square root of

0.324 × 0.64 × 129.6
0.729 × 1.024 × 36
n
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
Explanation
y.i
0.324 × 0.64 × 129.6
0.729 × 1.024 × 36
m
324 × 64 × 1296 1000000
1000000 × 729 × 1024 × 36
1
1 4 324 × 164 × 129636 4 1
81
729 × 1024 × 36
256 4 1 1
Q61. The duplicate ratio of 2√2 : 3√5 is?

= 1
lar
ria
(a) 4 : 9 (b) 8 : 45 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 6 : 45
Explanation
The duplicate ratio of 2√2 : 3√5
( 2√2)2 : (3√5 )2
to
[Duplicate ratio of a : b = a2 : b2]

=8 : 45
rri
Q62. Find out the value of x if logx 4 + logx 16 + logx 64 = 12

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 7 (d) 54
Explanation
te
logx4 + logx16 + logx64 = 12

logx22 + logx24 + logx26 = 12
w.
[log am = m log a]
2 logx2 + 4 logx2 + 6 logx2 = 12
= 12 logx2 = 12
ww
12
logx2 =
12
logx2 = 1
logx2 = logxx [logaa = 1]
2=x
x=2
Q63. If (a – b) : (a + b) = 1 : 5 ?
Then what is (a2 –b2) : (a2 + b2) equal to
(a) 6 : 13 (b) 4 : 13 (c) 5 : 13 (d) 8 : 13
Explanation
a–b:a+b=1:5
a–b = 1
a+b 5
5a – 5b = a + b [ By cross multiplication]
5a – a = b + 5b
4a = 6b
3
a= 6
b 42
a= 3
b 2
a2 – b2 = 32 – 22 = 9 – 4 = 5 = 5 : 13
a2 + b2 32 + 22 9+4 13
Q64. Find the value of x and y in the equation

3x – y + 1 2x + y + 2 3x + 2y + 1
= =
3 5 6
(a) x = 2, y = 1 (b) x = 1, y = 1 (c) x = –1, y = –1 (d) x = 2, y = 1
Explanation
3x – y + 1 2x + y + 2 3x + 2y + 1
n
3 = 5 = 6 ...(1)
Taking first two members of (1)
y.i
3x – y + 1 2x + y + 2
3 = 5
5 (3x – y + 1) = 3 (2x + y + 2)
m
15x – 5y +5 = 6x + 3y + 6
15x – 5y +5 – 6x – 3y – 6 = 0
9x – 8y – 1 = 0 ...(2)
Taking last two members of (1)
2x + y + 2
5 =
3x + 2y + 1
6
6 (2x + y + 2) = 5 (3x + 2y + 1)
lar
ria
12x + 6y +12 = 15x + 10y + 5
0 = 15x + 10y +5 –12x –6y –12
3x + 4y – 7 = 0 ... (3)
to
Multiplycation (3) by (2)

6x + 8y – 14 = 0
rri
adding (1) & (2)

9x – 8y – 1 = 0
6x + 8y – 14 = 0
te
15x –15 = 0
15x = 15
w.
x= 1
Put x = 1 in (2)
9 × 1 – 8y – 1 = 0
ww
9 – 1 = 8y
8y = 8
81
y = 8 y = 1
1
Q65. Three traffic lights change after 36 seconds, 42 seconds and 72 seconds respectively. If they are switched on now, after how
much time will they blink together ?
(a) 8 min 24 sec (b) 8 min 4 sec (c) 8 min 44 sec (d) 8 min 54 sec
Explanation
Three traffic lights will blink together after
= LCM of 36 sec, 42sec and 72 sec
2 36 – 42 – 72
2 18 – 21 – 36
2 9 – 21 – 18
3 9 – 21 – 9
3 3–7–3 LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 7 × 1 × 1 = 504 sec = 8 min 24 sec.
7 1–7–1 504
= 504 sec = 60 min = 8 min 24 sec
1–1–1
Q66. The age of x is six times that of y. After 4 years, x is 4 times elder of y. What is the present age of y ?
Explanation
Let the present age of Raj be 3x years
And the present age of Vipin = 2x years
According to question
∵ (3x – 4) = (2x – 4) + 6
⇒ 3x – 4 = 2x – 4 + 6
⇒ 3x – 4 = 2x + 2
⇒ 3x – 2x = 2+4
∴ x = 6
∴ Present age of Vipin = 2x
= 2 × 6 = 12 years
n
Q67. One year ago ratio of age of Rohit and Sahil was 6 : 7, their ratio four years from now will be 7 : 8. How old is Sahil ?
(a) 40 (b) 39 (c) 37 (d) 36
y.i
Explanation
Let age of Rohit and Sahil one year age were = 6x and 7x
Then their present ages will be 6x + 1 and 7x + 1
m
Their ages after 4 yrs
= 6x + 1 +4, 7x + 1 + 4
= 6x + 5 , 7x + 5
A.T.Q.
6x + 5
7x + 5
8 (6x + 5)
=
=
7
8
7(7x + 5)
lar
ria
48x + 40 = 49x + 35
40 – 35 = 49x – 48x
5 = x
x = 5
to
Present age of Sahil = 7x + 1

= 7 × 5 + 1 = 35 + 1 = 36
rri
Q68. A fraction becomes 2/3 if 1 is added to both its numerator and denominator. Same faction become 1/2 if 1 subtracted both
from its numerator; and denominator. The fraction is
(a) 4/7 (b) 3/4 (c) 3/5 (d) 8/9
Explanation
te
Let numerator = x and denominator = y

x
Fraction = y
w.
A.T.Q.
x+1 2
=
y+1 3
ww
3x + 3 = 2y + 2
3x – 2y = –1 ...(1)
x–1 1
=
y–1 2
2x – 2 = y–1
2x – y = 1 ... (2)
Multiple (2) by 2
4x –2y = 2 ... (3)
Sub (1 ) from (3)
4x – 2y = 2
3x – 2y = –1
– + +
x = 3
2x – y = 1
5=y
x
y = 5 ⇒ Fraction = = 3
y 5
Q69. A man sold two houses for ` 29,700,each. On one he incurred loss of 10%, while on other he gained 10%. The transaction
gives:-
(a) Profit (b) Neither profit nor loss (c) Loss (d) Insufficient data
Explanation
Let CP of first house = x
Loss % = 10%
10 x
Loss = 10% of x = 100 × x =
10
SP = CP – Loss
x
= x –
10
10x
9x
= –x =
10 10
9x
= 29700
10
n
10 3300
x = 29700 × = 33000
9
y.i
Let CP of second house = y
Profit % = 10%
10 y
Profit = 10% of y = ×y=
m
100 10
SP = CP + Profit
y
=y+
10
=
10y + y
10
=
11y
10 lar
ria
11y
= 29700
10
2700
y = 29700 × 10 = 27000
11
to
Total CP = x+y
= 33000 + 27000 = 60000
rri
Total SP = 29700 + 29700 = 59400

CP > SP
So it will be a loss.
te
Q70. The income of A & B are in the ratio of 4 : 3 and their annual expenses are in the ratio of 3 : 2. If each saves ` 60,000. Find
A's income?
(a) ` 2,40,000 (b) ` 72,000 (c) ` 19,200 (d) ` 48,000
w.
Explanation
Let incomes of A and B be 4x and 3x
4x – 60000 3
=
ww
3x – 60000 2
8x – 120000 = 9x – 180000 [ By cross multiplication]
x = 60000
A's income = 4x = 4 × 60000
=240000
Q71. How long will it take for a boy to run around a square field of area 25 hectare at the speed of 10 km/h?
Explanation
Area of sq. field = 25 hectare
= 250000 m2 [ 1 hectare = 10000 m2]
side = 250000 m
2 2
side2 = (500 m)2

side = 500m.
Perimeter of Sq field = 4 × side ⇒ = 4 × 500
= 2000 m = 2km
Speed = 10km/hr.
Time = Dis
Speed
2000
= = 200
10
12
= 2 = 1 hr. = 1 × 60 = 12 minutes [ 1 hour = 60 minutes]
10 5 5
5
Q72. If the price of the cooking gas rises by 15%, by what %, should family reduce its consumption so as not to exceed the
budget on cooking?
1 1 1
(a) 12 % (b) 13 % (c) 14 % (d) None of the above
23 23 24
Explanation
n
Let price of working gas earlier = 100
New price = 100 + 15 = 115
y.i
% reduction is consumptions
15
= × 100
100 + 15
m
3 15
= 115 × 100 = 300 = 13 1 %
23 23
23
Q73. Population of a city in 2004 was 10,00,000. If in 2005, there is an increment of 15% in 2006 there is a decrease of 35% and in
(a) 10,80,000
Explanation
Populations of city in 2004
(b) 10,83,875
= 10,00,000
lar
2007, there is an increase of 45%. Then find out the population of the city at the end of year 2007?
(c) 10,84,874 (d) 11,75,045
ria
in 2005 in increment % = 15%
to
Population at the end of 2007 =

15 35 45
1000000
( 1 + 100)( 1 – 100)( 1 + 100)
rri
115 65 145
= 1000000 × × × = 1083875
100 100 100
te
Q74. A sum of money becomes 3 times in 5 years at simple interest. In how many years will the same sum become 6 times at
the same rate of simple interest?
(a) 10 years (b) 12 years (c) 12.5 years (d) 10.5 years
w.
Explanation:
Let principal be P
Time = 5yrs
Amount = 3 P
ww
S.P. = Amount – Principal

= 3P – P = 2P
P×R×T = 2P
100
P × R × 5 = 2P
100
5R 2P
=
100 P
100 20
R=2×
5
R = 40%
Let after t yrs it become 6 times
Amount = 6P
S.P. = Amount – Principal
= 6P – P
P×R×T = 5P
100
P × 40 × T = 5P
100
25
5p × 100
T= = 12.5 years
p × 40 8
2
Q75. A sum of money on compound interest amount to ` 9680 in 2 years and ` 10648 in 3 years. What is the rate of interest per
annum?
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) 20%
Explanation:
Let principal be P
( 1 + 100R )
2
n
P = 9680 ... (1)
P( 100 )
y.i
3
1+ R
= 10648 ... (2)
Divide (1) and (2)
m
( 1 + 100R )
3
11
P 10648
=
9680
P(
1+ R
100 )
lar
2
10
1 + R = 11
100 10
ria
R = 1
100 10
R = 1 × 100 = 10%
to
10
Q76. Two numbers are less than third number by 30% and 37% respectively. The percentage by which second number is less
than first is
rri
(a) 10% (b) 70% (c) 4% (d) 3%

Explanation
Let third number = x
70 x
te
First number =
100
Second number =
63 x
100
w.
Difference of first and second number

= 70 x – 63 x = 7 x
100 100 100
ww
% by which second number is less than the first

7x
100
= 70 x × 100
100
7x
= 100 × 100 × 100 = 10%
70x
10
Q77. In a town of 3600 people, 8/9th population is men, 10% are married. Find the % of unmarried women?
(a) 24% (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 30%
Explanation
Population of men = 360°C
400
No. of men = 8 of 3600 = 3200
9
% married men = 10%
No. of married men = 10% of 3200

10
= × 3200 = 320
100
No. of married women = 320
Total no. of women = 3600 – 3200 = 400
No. of unmarried women = 400 – 320 = 80
20
% of unmarried women = 80 × 100 = 20%
400
1
Q78. Boating at 6/7th of regular speed in a lake, the tourist got late by 30 min? How much time will it take when boating is at
usual speed?
(a) 2 hr (b) 3 hr (c) 1.5 hr (d) None
Explanation
n
Let distance be d and speed be s
d
y.i
Time = s
6
Time taken if he boats by 7 of regular speed
d
= 6
m
7 s
A.T.Q.
lar
d d
– = 30
6 s s
7
7 d – d = 30
ria
6s s
7–6
d
s
( 6 = 30)
d 1
× 6 = 30
to
s
d
s
= 30 × 6
rri
d
s
= 180 minutes
180
min. = 3 hrs.
te
60 min.
Q79. A rectangle field of length 242 m has an area of 4840 m2. What will be the cost of fencing its perimeter if cost of fencing is
50 paise/meter?
w.
(a) ` 262 (b) ` 270 (c) ` 320 (d) ` 258

Explanation
Length of rectangular field = 242m
ww
Let breadth = b m.
Area = 4840 m2
l × b = 4840 m2
242 × b = 4840 m
b= 4840 20
242
b = 20 m
Perimeter = 2 (l + b)
= 2 (242 + 20)
= 2 × 262 = 524m.
If cost of fencing on 1m = 50 paise
Then cost of fencing on 524 m= 1 `
2
262
= 1 × 524 = ` 262
21
Q80. The area of four walls of a room is 660 m2 and length is twice the width, ht being 11 m. Find area of ceiling?
(a) 200 (b) 190 (c) 210 (d) 220
Explanation
Let breadth = x
11
length = 2x
height = 11 m.
Area of four walls (C.S.A) = 2 (l + b) × h
= 2 (2x + x) × 11
= 2 × 3x × 11 = 66x x
66x = 660 2x
10
x= 660 x = 10
66
Area of ceiling = l × b
= 2x × x = 2x2
n
= 2 × x × x = 2 × 10 × 10 = 200 m2
Q81. Ratio of two complementary angles is 1 : 5. What is the difference between them?
y.i
(a) 60° (b) 90° (c) 120° (d) 160°
Explanation
Let two angles be x and 5x
m
5x + x = 90° [sum of complementary angles is 90°]
6x = 90° o x
15
x= 90°
x =15°
6
lar
⇒ Difference = 5x – x = 4x ⇒ = 4 × 15° = 60°
5x
Q82. If a man travels with a speed of 2/5 times of his original speed and he reached his office 15 minutes late to the fixed time,
then the time taken with his original speed will be?
ria
Explanation
Let speed of man = x km/h
2
to
New speed = x km/h

5
Let Distance = d
rri
Time = Distance
Speed
According to condition
te
d – d = 15
2 x
x
5
w.
d × 5 – d = 15
x 2 x
d
( 52 – 1) = 15
ww
d × 3 = 15
x 2
5
d = 15 × 2 ⇒ d = 10
x 3 x
Time taken when he goes with his original speed = 10 minutes
Q83. Find the value of x in the given figure where PA is parallel to QC
P A
45°
x
30°
Q C
(a) 75° (b) 185° (c) 285° (d) 245°
Explanation
Draw DE || PA || QC
PA || DE and AE is transliteration P A
45° + ∠1 = 180° (co interior angle) 45°
∠1 = 180° – 45°
∠1 = 135°
x 1
2
DE || QC and CE is transverses
30°
∠2 + 30° = 180° (co interior angle)
Q C
∠2 = 150°
x = ∠1 + ∠2 = 135° + 150° ⇒ x = 285°
Q84. The speed of boat upstream and speed of boat down stream are 7km/h and 13km/h respectively. What is the speed of
stream and speed of boat in still water?
(a) 10 km/h and 3km/h (b) 15 km/h and 9km/h (c) 20 km/h and 6km/h (d) 40 km/h and 12km/h
n
Explanation
Let speed of boat in still water = x km/h
y.i
Speed of stream = y km/h
Speed of boat downstream = (x + y) km/h
Speed of boat upstream = (x – y) km/h
m
x + y = 13 ... (1)
x – y = 7 ... (2)
adding (1) & (2)
x+y =
x–y
2x
=
=
13
7
20
lar
ria
10
x = 20
2
x + y = 13
10 + y = 13
to
y = 13 – 10 = 3 km/h
Q85. Ajay can do a piece of work in 10 days and Harshal can do same work in 12 days. They started working together but Ajay
rri
left the work 2 days before completion of work, then time taken to complete the work?
6 3 3 2
11 10 2 5
Explanation
te
No. of days taken by Ajay = 10 days

No. of days taken by Harshal = 12 days 60
w.
Unit of work done in last 2 days efficiency

6 5
by Harshal = 2 × 5 = 10
Unit of work done = 60 – 10 = 50
10 12
No. of days taken together = 50 = 50 = 4 6
ww
Ajay Harshal
6+5 11 11
Total days = 4 6 + 2 = 6 6
11 11
Q86. If 3 men or 4 women can plough a field in 43 days, how long 7 men and 5 women take to plough it?
Explanation
According to Question
3M=4W
M = 4
W 3
Ratio of efficiency of Man and woman = 4 : 3
Work done by 1 man in 1 day = 3 unit
Total units of work = 43 × 3 × 4
No. of days taken by 7 men and 5 women
= 43 × 3 × 4
7×4+5×3
1
43 × 3 × 4
= 43 × 3 × 4 = = 12 days
28 + 15 431
Q87. A can do a piece of work in 70 days and B is 40% more efficient than A. The number of days taken by B to do the same
work will be?
Explanation
Efficiency of A = 100
60
Efficiency of B = 100 + 40 = 140
A : B = 100 : 140 = 5 : 7 efficiency
6 5
5 7
Total work = 5 × 70 = 350
50 10 12
350
No. of days taken by B = 7 = 50 Ajay Harshal
[ Total work
Efficiency of B
= No. of days taken by B
]
n
Q88. A wooden box measures 10 cm by 6 cm by 5 cm. Thickness of wood is 2 cm. Find the volume of wood required to make
y.i
the box.
(a) 206 cm3 (b) 207 cm3 (c) 204 cm3 (d) 288 cm3
Explanation
Outer length = 10 cm
m
Outer breadth = 6 cm
Outer height = 5 cm
Outer volume
Inner length
Inner breadth
=
=
l×b×h
lar
= 10 cm × 6 cm × 5 cm = 300 cm3
= 10 – (2 + 2) = 10 – 4 = 6
6 – (2 + 2) = 6 – 4 = 2
5cm.
.
ria
6cm
Inner height = 5 – (2 + 2) = 5 – 4 = 1
Inner volume = l×b×h 10cm.
= 6 cm × 2 cm × 1 cm = 12 cm 3
to
Volume of wood = Outer volume – Inner volume

= 300 cm3 – 12 cm3

= 288 cm3
rri
Q89. What is the value of

tan A – sin A
sin3 A
te
sec A sec A sec A

(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
1–cos A 1+cos A2
1+cos A
w.
Explanation
tan A – sin A
sin3 A
sin A sin A
ww
–
cos A
sin A
3
sin A (sec A – 1)
sin3 A
sin A ( 1 – cos A)
cos A sin2 A
1 – cos A
= cos A sin2 A
1 – cos A
= cos A (1 – cos2 A) [ sin2θ = 1 – cos2θ]
1 – cos A
= cos A (1 – cos A) (1 + cos A)
1 sec A
= = 1 +cos A
cos A (1 + cos A)
Q90. The length of a pendulum is 60 cm. The angle through which it swings when its tip describes an arc of length 16.5 cm will be
(a) 15° 30' (b) 15° 45' (c) 16° 15' (d) 16° 45'
Explanation
Length of pendulum (radius) = 60 cm
Length of arc (l)=16.5 cm.
l=rθ
16.5 = 60 × θ
16.5
60 = θ
11
165 55 11
θ= = 40
60 × 10
20 4
=
11 180
40
×
π
⇒ (1 radian = 180
40
)
11 1 9 7 63
= 40 × 180 × 22 ⇒ = 4 = 15° 45’
2
n
2
Q91. Find the value of .
y.i
+ +
cos (90° + θ) sin (180° + θ) cot θ
(a) 0 (b) –1 (c) –3 (d) 2
Explanation
m
cos (90° + θ) + sin (180° + θ) + cot θ
lar
cos (90°– θ) = sin θ
sin (90°– θ) = cos θ
tan (90°– θ) = cot θ
sin θ + sin θ – cot θ
ria
– sin θ – sin θ cot θ
– 1 – 1 – 1 = – 3
Q92. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle and diameter AB bisects and chord CD at a point E such that CE = ED = 8 cm
to
and EB = 4 cm. The radius of circle is

(a) 10 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 8 cm
D
rri
A O E B
te
w.
C
Explanation
D
AE × EB = DE × EC
ww
AE × 4 = 8×8
8×8 2
AE =
4 A O E B
AE = 16
AE = 16
EB = 4 C
In a circle if
two chords a
O y
intersect at a x b
point them
a×b=x×y
AB = 16 + 4
= 20cm
10
AB 20
AO = = = 10 cm
2 2 1
Q93. In a triangle ABC, if cos A = cos B × cos C, What is the value of tan A – tan B – tan C .
(a) – 1 (b) 0 (c) 1 + tan A + tan B + tan C (d) tan A tan B tan C – 1
Explanation
cos A = cos B × cos C
A + B + C = 180°(sum of Δ of Δ 180°)
B + C = 180° – A
sin (B + C) = sin (180° – A)
sin (B + C) = sin A
we are given
cos B × cos C = cos A
tan A – tan B – tan C
tan A – (tan B + tan C)
sin B sin C
n
tan A –( cos B + cos C )
y.i
tan A –( sin B cos C + sin C cos B )
cos B cos C
sin (B + C)
tan A – [sin (x + y) = sin x cos y y + cos x sin y]
cos B cos C
m
tan A – sin A
cos A
[ sin (B + C) = sin A (Proved)

cos B cos C = cos A (Given)
tan A – tan A = 0
] lar
ria
Q94. An aeroplane flying at a height of 300 m above the ground passes vertically above a plane at an instant when the angle of
elevation of two planes from the same point on the ground are 60° and 45° respectively. What is the height of lower plane
from ground ?
(a) 500 m (b) 100 √3 m (c) 500 √3 m (d) 15 (√3 + 1) m
to
Explanation B
Let A & B be the two aeroplanes
rri
BC = 300 m
Let AC = h meters
CD = x
In Δ ACD In Δ BCD A
te
300m
AC
CD = tan 45°
BC
w.
h
CD = tan 60°
h 300
x =1 x = √3 60°
45°
h = x ... (1) x = 300 C x D
ww
√3

x = 300 × √3
√3 √3
100
300 √3
= 3 = 100√3
From (1) h = x
h = 100√3
height of lower ground = 100√3 m
Q95. The mean of 20 observations is 15. On checking it was found that two observations were wrongly copied as 3 and 6. If
wrong observation are replaced by correct values 8 and 4, then the correct mean is?
(a) 15 (b) 15.15 (c) 15.35 (d) 16
Explanation
Incorrect sum of 20 observations
15 × 20 = 300 [Sum = Mean × Sum of observation]
Correct Sum of observation
= 300 – (3 + 6) + (8 + 4)
= 300 – 9 + 12 = 312 – 9 = 303

Correct sum 303
Correct mean = Number of observations ⇒ = 20 = 15.15
Q96. Two poles of equal height are standing opposite to each other on either side of a road which is 100m wide from a point
between them on ground. The angle of elevation of tops of poles are 30° and 60°. The height of each pole in metres will be?
(a) 25√3 (b) 20√3 (c) 28√3 (d) 30√3
Explanation
Let AB = CD = h meters be the height of poles
BD = 100 m A C
Let BE = x, then ED = 100 – x h
h
In Δ ABE h
AB
= tam 60°
BE 60° 30°
D
h B x E 100–x
= √3
x
n
h = √3 x ... (1)
In Δ CDE
y.i
CD
DE
= tam 30°
h
= 1
m
100–x √3
100–x
h= ... (2)
√3 x
√3
From (1) & (2)
= √3
100–x
lar
ria
3x = 100–x
3x + x = 100
4x = 100
25
to
100
x = 4 = 25
Put value of x in (1)
h = √3 x
rri
= √3 × 25 = 25√3
Q97. An electric pump can fill a tank in 3 hours. Because of a leak in tank it took 3.5 hours to fill the tank. If tank is full, how
much time will it take for leak to empty it?
te
(a) 25 hrs (b) 19 hrs (c) 20 hrs (d) 21 hrs

Explanation
w.
Time taken by electric pump to fill the tank = 3 hrs

7 21
Because of leak tank took = 3.5 hrs = 2 hrs
Electric pump’s efficiency = 7 efficiency 7 6
ww
Pump’s efficiency after leakage = 6

Leakage efficiency = 7–6 = 1 hours 3 7
21 2
Time taken to empty it = = 21 hrs
1
Q98. A spherical ball of radius 3 cm is melted and recast into three spherical balls of radius 1.5 cm and 2 cm and X cm. Find the
value of X.
(a) 5 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 3 cm (d) 2.25 cm
Explanation
Radius of I ball = 3 cm
Volume of I ball = 4 π(3)3
3
[Volume of sphere = 4 πr3]
3 2cm. xcm.
Radius of II ball = 1.5 cm 3cm. 1.5cm.
Volume of II ball = 4 π(1.5)3

3
Radius of III ball = 2 cm I II III IV
Volume of III ball = 4 π(2)3

3
Radius of IV ball = x cm
Volume of IV ball = 4 π(x)3

3
ATQ:-
4 π(1.5)3 + 4 π(2)3 + 4 π(x)3= 4 π(3)3
3 3 3 3
4 π(1.5)3 + 23 + x3 = 4 π × 27
3 3
3.375 + 8 + x3 = 27
11.375 + x = 27
3
x3 = 27 – 11.375
x3 = 2.5 3 ⇒ x = 2.5
Q99. Circumference of the base of a 9 m high conical tent is 44 m. Find the vol of air contained in it.
(a) 430 cm3 (b) 462 cm3 (c) 472 cm3 (d) 492 cm3
Explanation
n
Base of conical tent = 44
2πr = 44
y.i
2 × 22 × r = 44
7
1 22 1 7
r = 44 × 2 × 22 = 7
1 1
m
height = 9m
22
Volume = 1 πr2h ⇒ = 1× × 7 × 7 × 7 = 462 cm3
3 3 7
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 15

Explanation
lar
Q100. The average marks obtained by the students in a class are 43. If the average marks obtained by 25 boys are 40 and average
marks obtained by the girl students are 48, then what is the number of girl students in the class?
(d) 10
ria
Let number of girls be x.
Average marks obtained by girls = 48
Total marks of girls = Average × No. of girls
48 × x = 48x
to
Total no. of boys = 25

Average marks obtained by boys = 40
rri
Total marks of boys =25 × 40 = 1000

Average marks of whole class = 43
Total students = x + 25
Total marks of whole class = 43 (x + 25)
te
Total marks of boys and girls = 1000 + 48x

A.T.Q.
w.
1000 + 48x = 43(x + 25)

1000 + 48x = 43x + 1075
48x – 43x = 1075 – 1000
ww
5x = 75
15
x = 75
51
No. of girls = 15
ANSWERS ARE BOLD
TERRITORIAL ARMY COMMISSION : JULY 2017

PAPER: 1 REASONING & ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS C
Roll No___________
(Please read the instructions carefully)
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Paper 1 has two parts- Part I and Part II.
(a) Part I – Reasoning (50 Marks).
(b) Part II – Elementary Mathematics (50 Marks).
3. There will be four possible answers to every question. Candidates are required to fill correct answer in the OMR sheet with Black
n
ball pen only.
y.i
5. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer and half mark will be deducted. There will be no
m
7. To be eligible to quality, candidate must obtain minimum 40% marks each in section I & II separately and a minimum of 50% ag-
gregate in total.
Q 1. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

lar
PART - I REASONING
ria
A B
to
D C
(a) 16 (b) 14 (c) 8 (d) 12
rri
Explanation
16
Q 2. How many rectangles are there in the given figure?

te
w.
(a) 24 (b) 16 (c) 21 (d) 14

ww
Explanation
21
Q 3. In a row of girls, kamla is 9th from the left and veena is 16th from the right. If they interchange their positions. Kamla
becomes 25th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?
(a) 34 (b) 40 (c) 36 (d) 41
Explanation
When Kamla interchanged her position, new position will be 25th from left and 16th from right. Total girls are 24 + Kamla +16 = 40
Q 4. Five students are standing one behind the other in the play ground facing the instructor. Malini is behind Anjana, but in
front of Gayatri. Meena is in front of Sheena, but behind Gayatri. What is the position of Meena?
(a) Second from Last ( b) Extreme First (c) Extreme Last (d) Second from first
Explanation
Final ranking of position order is Anjana > Malini > Gayatri > Meena > Sheena. Hance Meena is second from last.
Q 5. Sita is elder than Swapna. Lavanya is elder than Swapna but younger than Sita. Suvarna is younger than both Hari and
Swapna. Swapna is elder than Hari. Who is the youngest?
(a) Sita (b) Lavanya (c) Suvarna (d) Hari
Explanation
Final ranking of old in descending order is Sita > Lavanya > Swapna > Hari > Suvarna. Hence, Suvarna is youngest.
Q 6. C is A’s father’s nephew. D is A’s Cousin but not brother of C. How is D related to C?
(a) Father (b) Sister (c) Mother (d) Aunt
Explanation
C is A's father's nephew means C is the son of A's father's brother i.e, C is the cousin of A. D is also A's cousin. So, D must be real brother
or sister of C. But D is not brother of C. So, D must be sister of C.
Q 7. Deepak said to Nitin, “That Boy playing football is the younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my father’s wife”
How is the boy playing football related to Deepak?
(a) Son (b) Nephew (c) Brother (d) Cousin
Explanation
Deepak’s Father’s wife is Deepak’s mother. Deepak’s Mother’s daughter is Deepak’s sister. Deepak’s sister’s younger brother is Deepak’s
younger brother. So, the boy is Deepak's brother.
n
Q 8. Which diagram depicts relationship between Nitrogen, Ice, Air?
y.i
(a) (b) (c) (d)
m
Explanation
Nitrogen gas is a part of air while ice is different from these.
lar
Q 9. Which diagram depicts relationship between Bus, Car, Vehicle?
(a) (b)
ria
(c) (d)
to
Explanation
Bus and car are different from each other. But both these are parts of Vehicle.
rri
Q 10. If CUSTOM is written as UCTSMO then how PARENT will be written in the same code?
(a) ERAPTN (b) TNERAP (c) RAPTNE (d) APERTN
Explanation
First and second letters are interchanged, third and fourth letters are interchanged, fifth and sixth letters are interchanged to obtain the
te
code.
Q 11. If CAT is coded as 3120, what code number can be given to NAVIN?
w.
(a) 14122914 (b) 49274654 (c) 73957614 (d) 43245654

Explanation
Numbers are given according to the position of alphabets: C=3, A=1, T=20. So CAT=3120. Thus numbers for NAVIN are 14122914 as
N=14, A=1, V=22, I=9, N=14.
ww
Q 12. If in a certain code EDITION is written as 3891965, then how TIDE will be written in that code?
(a) 3819 (b) 1983 (c) 1839 (d) 1586
Explanation
The alphabets are coded as follows: E=3, D=8, I=9, T=1, I=9, O=6, N=5. Thus the code for TIDE is 1983.
Q 13. If FADE is coded as 3854 then how can GAGE be coded?

(a) 1824 (b) 2834 (c) 2824 (d) 2814
Explanation
The alphabets are coded as follows: F=3, A=8, D=5, E=4. Thus the code for GAGE is G=?, A=8, G=?, E=4, In order to write the code for
GAGE, we have to determine the code for G only, the same number is given at two places. Therefore, the code for G is 2.
Directions: In each of the following questions, four words are given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth
one is different. Choose the odd one.
Q 14. (a) Wood (b) Cork (c) Stone (d) Paper
Explanation
All except Stone are obtained directly or indirectly from trees.
Q 15. (a) Commander (b) Commodore (c) Admiral (d) Brigadier

Explanation
All except Brigadier are ranks in navy, while Brigadier is a rank in army.
Directions: In each of the following questions, certain pairs of words are given, out of which the words in all pairs except one,
bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in which the words are diffently related
Q 16. (a) Steel : Utensils (b) Bronze : Statue (c) Duralumin : Aircraft (d) Iron : Rails
Explanation
In all other pairs, first is the alloy used to make the second. Iron is not an alloy, but a metal.
Q 17. (a) Tongue : Taste (b) Eye : Blind (c) Ear : Deaf (d) Leg : Lame
Explanation
In all other pairs, second indicates a state of non-functioning of the first.
Directions: In each of the following questions, four numbers are given, out of which three are alike in some manner while the
fourth one is different. Choose the one different from the rest.
n
Q 18. (a) 25631 (b) 33442 (c) 34424 (d) 52163
Explanation
y.i
In all other numbers, sum of digits is 17.
Q 19. (a) 2468 (b) 2648 (c) 4826 (d) 6482
Explanation
m
All other numbers contain all four consecutive even numbers but not in proper order.
Q 20. (a) 3:12 (b) 4:20 (c) 6:42 (d) 7:63
Explanation
lar
In all other pairs, (1st number) × (1st number + 1st number) = 2nd number.
Directions: In each of the following questions, a number series is given with one term missing. Choosing the correct alternative
ria
Q 21. 3, 20, 63, 144, 275, ____
(a) 554 (b) 548 (c) 468 (d) 354
Explanation
The pattern is a combination of three series : 1st series follows 17 + 43 + 81 + 131. 2nd series follows 26 + 38 + 50. 3rd series follows 12 +
to
12. Clearly, the pattern in the 3rd series is + 12. So, missing term in the 3rd series is 50 + 12 = 62. missing term in the 2nd series is 131 +
62 missing term in the 1st series is 275 + 193 = 468. Thus, the missing term is 468.
Q 22. 8, 12, 18, 27, ____
rri
1 1
(a) 36 (b) 44 (c) 37 (d) 40
2 2
Explanation
1
The pattern is 8 (8 × 3) ÷ 2 = 12 (12 × 3) ÷ 2 = 18 (18 × 3) ÷ 2 = 27 (27 × 3) ÷ 2 = 40.5. Thus, the missing term is 40.5 i.e. 40
2
te
Q 23. 8, 29, 113, 449, ____

(a) 673 (b) 984 (c) 1484 (d) 1793
w.
Explanation
The pattern is 8 (8 × 4) – 3 = 29 (29 × 4) – 3 =113 (113 × 4) – 3 = 449 (449 × 4) – 3 = 1793. Thus, the missing term is 1793
Q 24.
2
3
,
4
7
, ?, 11
21
,
16
31
ww
5 6 7 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 11 13 11
Explanation
7
The pattern is 2 + 2 = 4 + 3 = 7 + 4 = 11 + 5 = 16 and 3 + 4 = 7 + 6 = 13 + 8 = 21 + 10 = 31. Thus, the missing term is
13
Directions: In each of the following questions, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one missing term as shown by
(?) choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.
Q 25. N5V, K7T, ?, E14P, B19N
(a) H9R (b) H10Q (c) H10R (d) I10R
Explanation
Letters and numbers are given in alphanumeric series follows this pattern –
First letter : N (-3), K (-3), H (-3), E (-3), B (-3)…
Second number : 5 (+2), 7 (+3), 10 (+4), 14 (+5), 19…
Third letter : V (-2), T (-2), R (-2), P (-2), N (-2)…..
Q 26. J2Z, K4X, I7V, ?, H16R, M22P

(a) I11T (b) L11S (c) L12T (d) L11T
Explanation
The first letters in odd numbered terms from series J, I, H, and in even numbered terms from the series K, L, M. The sequence followed by
the numbers is + 2, + 3, + 4, + 5, + 6. The third letter of each term is moved two steps backward to obtain the third letter of the next term..
Q 27. C4X, F9U, I16R, ?
(a) K25P (b) L259 (c) L25O (d) L27P
Explanation
The first letter of each term is moved three steps forward and the last letter is moved three steps backward to obtain the corresponding let-
ters of the next term. The numbers from the sequence 22, 32, 42, 52.
Directions: In each of the following questions, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one missing term as shown by
(?)– choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.
Q 28. AB, DEF, HIJK, ?, STUVWX

(a) LMNO (b) LMNOP (c) MNOPQ (d) QRSTU
n
Explanation
The number of letters in the terms goes on increasing by 1 at each step. Each term consists of letters in alphabetical order. The first letter
y.i
of each term is two steps ahead of the last letter of the preceding term
Q 29. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, ?

(a) MQORN (b) MQNRO (c) NQMOR (d) QMONR
m
Explanation
First letter of each term follows this pattern -: A (+3) = D (+3) = G (+3) = J (+3) = M.
Second letter of each term follows this pattern -: Y (-2) =W (-2) =U (-2) = S (-2) = Q.
lar
Third letter of each term follows this pattern -: B (+3) = E (+3) = H (+3) = K (+3) = N.
Fourth letter of each term follows this pattern -: Z (-2) = W (-2) = V (-2) =T (-2) = R.
Fifth letter of each term follows this pattern -: C (+3) = (F+3) = I (+3) = L (+3) =O.
ria
Q 30. I am facing in Southern Direction I turn Right and walk 20 m. Then I turn right and walk 10 m. Then again I turn left and
walk 10 m. Then again I turn right and walk 20 m. Once again I turn right and walk 60 m. In which direction I am from
(starting) Initial point?
(a) North (b) North West (c) East (d) North East
to
Explanation
E 60m F
rri
N
20m
W E
10m C
D
te 10m
B 20m A
w.
Q 31. Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H placed as shown in the diagram. All are facing in the outward direction. If all of them
move anticlockwise to three place then.
N
A
ww
H B
G C
F D
E
(a) B is facing West (b) E is facing East (c) H is facing North West (d) A is facing South
Explanation
If all of them move anticlockwise to three places the new position will be –
N N
A D
H B C E
G C B F
F D A G
E H
Q 32. On what dates of March, 2013 did Wednesdays fall?

(a) 6, 13, 20, 27 (b) 5, 12, 19, 26 (c) 4, 11, 18, 25 (d) 7, 14, 21, 28
Explanation
We need to find out the day of 01-March-2013
01-March-2013 = (2000 years + period from 1-Jan-2001 to 01-March-2013)
We know that number of odd days in 400 years = 0
Hence the number of odd days in 2000 years = 0 (Since 2000 is a perfect multiple of 400)
13 years are equal to 4745 day + 3 leap days = 4748 divide by 7 = 678 weeks and 2 days
2 (left days) + 31 (Jan) +28 (Feb) Total = 61 day divide by week = 8 weeks and 5 days
As 0 day means Sunday thus 5 days means Friday. So 1 March 2013 was Friday
Hence first Wednesday of March 2013 comes in 06th and successive Wednesdays come in 13th, 20th and 27th .
Q 33. A watch which gains uniformly is 4 minute slow at 9 A.M. on Sunday, and is 4 minutes 15 sec. fast at 9 P.M. on next Friday.
When was it correct?
(a) 2 A.M. Thursday (b) 6 P.M. Wednesday (c) 1 A.M. Wednesday (d) 6 P.M.
n
Explanation
Time from 9 A.M Sunday to 9 P.M Friday = 5 day 12 hours. In 132 hours the clock gains (8 minutes 15 seconds is equal to 8.25 minutes)
y.i
8.25 minutes, or 0.0625 minutes per hour. To be "on time" the clock must gain 4 minutes. That takes (4 ÷ 0.0625) = 64 hours. 64 hours
from 9 A.M. Sunday would be 1 A.M. Wednesday.
Q 34. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at interval of 64 minutes of correct time. How much a day does the
m
clock gain or lose?
9 8
(a) 43 minutes loss (b) 32 minute gain
11 11
(c) 33
9
11
Explanation
minute gain
55 min. spaces are covered in 60 min.

lar
(d) 32
8
11
minute loss
ria
( 6065 × 60)min.= 65 115 min.
60 min. spaces are covered in
Loss in 64 min. = (65 – 64) =

5 16
min.
to
11 11
Loss in 24 hrs = ( × 24 × 60 )min.

16 1
×
11 64
rri
8
32 minute gain
11
Directions: Each of the following questions is based on the following alphabet series
te
Q 35. Which letter is sixteenth to the right of the letter which is fourth to the left of I?
(a) S (b) T (c) U (d) V
w.
Explanation
Clearly, the fourth letter to the left of I is E. The sixteenth letter to the right of E is U.
Q 36. Which letter is exactly midway between G and Q in the given alphabet?
ww
(a) K (b) L (c) M (d) N

Explanation
There are nine letters between G and Q, clearly the middle letter is L
Q 37. Which letter is midway between the eighteenth letter from the left end and tenth letter from the right end of the given
alphabet?
(a) No letter (b) K (c) Q (d) R
Explanation
R is eighteenth letter from the left end Q is tenth letter from the right end. Clearly no letter is midway between Q and R.
Q 38. Statements
(a) All teachers are experienced. (b) Some teachers are spinsters.
Conclusions
(I) Some experienced are spinsters (II) Some spinsters are experienced.
(a) Only conclusion I or II follow (b) Either conclusion I or II follow

(c) Both conclusion I and II follow (d) Only conclusion I follows
Explanation
Experienced
Teachers
Spinster
Q 39. Statements
Conclusions
n
(a) Only conclusion I and III follow (b) Only conclusion II and III follow
(c) Only conclusion I and II follow (d) Only conclusion I follows
y.i
Explanation
m
Cat Dog Toy
Q 40. Find Missing Term.

2
8
7
9
5
?
11
13
10
7
-3
(-4)
lar
ria
6 4 10 ?
(a) 3 and 2 (b) (-3) and 2 (c) 3 and (-2) (d) (-3) and (-2)
Explanation
I row + 2 + 9 = 11 –2+9 =7
to
II row + 8 + 5 = 13– 8 + 5 = – 3
III row + 7 + 3 = 10 –7+5 = (– 4)
rri
IV row + 6 + 4 = 10 –6+4 = (– 2)
Q 41. Find Missing number.
?
10
te
3 4
8 6
w.
20 14
(a) 19 (b) 18 (c) 24 (d) 12

Explanation
ww
Total sum of diagonally numbers is 42

20 + 8 + 4 + 10 = 42
14 + 6 + 3 + 19 = 42
Q 42. Find the Missing Term.

67 91 45
78 90 36
? 81 27
(a) 95 (b) 98 (c) 105 (d) 111
Explanation
67 + 91 + 45 = 203
78 + 90 + 36 = 204
98 + 80 + 27 = 205
Q 43. Find Missing Term.

7 9 8
2 4 3
5 7 6
16 32 ?
(a) 17 (b) 23 (c) 47 (d) 73
Explanation
7 + 22 + 5 = 16
9 + 42 + 7 = 32
8 + 32 + 6 = 23
Directions: In each of the following questions, a letter number series is given with one or more terms missing as shown by (?).
Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.
Q 44. √AFI : 13 :: √ADD = ?
n
(a) 12 (b) 22 (c) 21 (d) 24
Explanation
y.i
√AFI : 13 ::√ADD : ?
↓ ↓↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
√169 : 13 :: √144 : 12 Thus the code for ADD is 144 so 144 = 12 × 12.
m
Q 45. RUST : 9687 : : TSUR
(a) 7896 (b) 7869 (c) 7689 (d) 6789
Explanation
lar
The alphabets are coded as follows : R=9, U=6, S=8, T=7. Thus the code for TSUR is 7869.
Directions: In the following questions you have to identify the correct response from the given premises stated according to
following symbols.
ria
Q 46. If ÷ means +, - means ÷, × means – and + means ×
(36 × 4) — 8 × 4
then
4 + 8 × 2 + 16 ÷ 1
(a) 0 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16
to
Explanation
rri
(36 – 4) ÷ 8 – 4 32 ÷ 8 – 4 (36 – 4) ÷ 8 – 4 4–4

⇒ = = =0
4 × 8 – 2 × 16 + 1 32 – 32 + 1 4 × 8 – 2 × 16 + 1 1
Q 47. If → stands for ‘additions’,← stands for ‘subtraction’, ↑ stands for ‘division’, ↓ stands for ,multiplication’, stands for
↓
‘equal to’, then which of the following alternatives is correct?
te
(a) 7 ← 43 ↑ 6 ↓ 1 4 (b) 3 ↓ 6 ↑ 2→ 3 ← 6 4
↓ ↓
(c) 5 → 7 ← 3 ↑ 2 4 (d) 2 ↓ 5 ← 6 → 2 6
↓
w.
Explanation
2×5–6+2=6
Directions: In each of the following questions, various terms of an alphabet series are given with one or more terms missing as
ww
shown by – choose the missing terms out of the given alternatives.

Q 48. a c b _ c e _ f _
(a) dde (b) cde (c) dee (d) ddg
Explanation
Pattern follows as :- a (+2) c (+1) b (+2) d (+1) c (+2) e (+1) d (+2) f (+1) e .
Q 49. r t x_ s x_z_txy_ _yz
(a) y y r x s (b) y y s x r (c) y y r s x (d) y y x r s
Explanation
Pattern follows as :- r t x y
s x yz
r t x y
s x y z
Q 50. Unscramble the letters to frame a meaningful word. Then find out the correct numerical position of the letters.
B C U S M E L R N A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(a) 2 1 3 4 6 8 9 7 5 10 (b) 6 1 4 3 2 5 8 7 9 10 (c) 3 1 5 7 10 4 2 6 9 8 (d) 3 9 4 2 8 10 5 1 7 6
Explanation
After rearranging the alphabets the meaningful word that is formed - UNSCRAMBLE
Part – II : Elementary Mathematics

Q 51. The value of
cos2 60°+ 4 sec2 30°— tan2 45°
sin2 30° + cos2 30°
64 55 67 67
(a) (b) (c) (d)
√3 12 12 10
Explanation
cos2 60°+ 4 sec2 30°— tan2 45°

sin2 30° + cos2 30°
( 12 ) + 4 (√32 ) – 1
2 2
2
[∵ cos2θ + sin2θ = 1]
= 1
n
1 +4× 4 –1
4 3
y.i
= 1
= 1 + 16 – 1 = 3 + 64 – 12
4 3 12
= 67 - 12 = 55
m
12 12
tan 57° + cot 37°

Q 52. The expression is equal to
(a) tan 30° cot 57°
Explanation
tan 33° + cot 53°
(b) tan 57° cot 37°
lar
(c) tan 33° cot 53° (d) tan 33° cot 37°
ria
tan 57° + cot 37°
tan 33° + cot 53°
tan 57° + cot 37°
= tan (90° – 57°) + cot (90° –37°)
to
tan (90° – θ) = cotθ

tan 57° + cot 37°
= cot (90° – θ) = tanθ
cot 57° + tan 37°
rri
tan 57° + cot 37°

= 1 1
tan 57° + cot 37°
te
tan 57° + cot 37°

= cot 37° + tan 57°
w.
tan 57° cot 37°
= (tan 57° + cot 37°) × tan 57° cot 37°

(cot 37° + tan 57°)
ww
= tan 57° cot 37°
sinθ + cosθ
Q 53. If = 3 then the value of sin4 θ is
sinθ —cosθ
16
(a) (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 2
25 3 9 9
Explanation
sinθ + cosθ
=3
sinθ —cosθ
Divide num & den. by cos θ

sinθ + cosθ
cosθ
sinθ – cosθ
=3
cosθ
sinθ cosθ
cosθ + cosθ
=3
sinθ cosθ
cosθ – cosθ
tanθ + 1 = 3
tanθ —1
tan θ + 1 = 3 (tan θ – 1)
tan θ + 1 = 3 tan θ – 3 √5
1 + 3 = 3 tan θ – tan θ 2
2
2tan θ = 4 ⇒ tan θ = 1 θ
2 1
sin θ =
√5
16
sin θ = 25
4
n
7
Q 54. If sin – cos = θ and 0°< θ<90° then the value of sin θ + cos θ is
y.i
13
17
(a) (b) 13 (c) 1 (d) 1
13 17 13 17
Explanation
m
7
sin θ – cos θ =
13
Squaring both sides
(sin θ – cos θ)2 =

2
( 137 ) = 169
49 lar
ria
49
sin2 θ + cos2 θ – 2 sin θ cos θ =
169
49
1 – 2 sin θ cos θ =
169
to
49
1– = 2 sin θ cos θ
169
120
= 2 sin θ cos θ
169
rri
(sin θ + cos θ)2 = [sin2x + cos2x = 1]
= sin2 θ + cos2 θ + 2 sin θ cos θ

te
120 289
=1+ =
169 169
w.
(sin θ + cos θ) = 2
( )
17
13 ⇒ sin θ + cos θ =
17
13
Q 55. If a2 sec2 x – b2 tan2x = c2 then the value of sec2x + tan2x is equal to (assume b2 ≠ a2)
ww
b2— a2 + 2c2 b2 + a2— 2c2 b2— a2— 2c2 b2— a2

(a) (b) (c) (d)
b2 + a2 b 2— a 2 b2 + a2 b2 + a2 + 2c2
Explanation
a2 sec2 x – b2 tan2 x = c2
a2 (1 + tan2 x) – b2 tan2 x = c2
[sec2θ = 1 + tan2θ]
a2 + a2 tan2 x – b2 tan2 x = c2
a2 – c2 = b2 tan2 x – a2 tan2 x
a2 – c2 = (b2 – a2) tan2 x

a2 – c2
tan2 x =
b2 – a2
a2 – c2
sec2 x = 1 + tan2 x = 1 +
b2 – a2
b2 – c2
= b – a 2+ a 2 – c = 2 2
2 2 2 2
b –a b –a
b2 – c2 a2 – c2
sec2 x + tan2 x = + 2 2
b2 – a2 b –a
= b + 2a – 22c
2 2 2
b –a
1 2x
Q 56. If x + = 5, then is equal to
x 3x — 5x + 3
2
1 1
(a) 5 (b) (c) 3 (d)
5 3
1
(b) 5 Explanation
x + 1x = 5
x2 + 1
= 5 or x2 + 1 = 5x ... (1)
n
x
2x
y.i
3x2 – 5x + 3
2x (using ... 1)
3x2 – (x2 + 1) + 3
2x
m
=
3x2 – x2 – 1 + 3
2x
= 2x2 + 2
=
x
5x
2x
2(x2 + 1)
(using ... 1)
lar
ria
1
=
5
2xy x3 + y3
Q 57. The simplified value of (1–
x—y
2 2
)÷ ( x— y 3xy )
is
to
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
x—y2 2
x +y
2 2
x— y x+ y
rri
Explanation
(1– x + y ) ÷ ( x— y – 3xy)
2xy x3 – y3
2 2
te
x2 + y2 – 2xy x3 – y3 – 3xy (x–y)

÷
x +y
2 2 x–y
w.
(x – y)2 (x – y)3
÷
x2 + y2 x–y
(x – y)2 x–y
ww
×
x2 + y2 (x – y)3
(x – y)3
(x2 + y2) (x – y)3
1
x2 + y2
Q 58. Find the value of

1 494
+ 999 × 99
5 495
(a) 90000 (b) 99000 (c) 90900 (d) 99990
Explanation
1 + 999 494 × 99
5 495
1 + (999 + 494 ) × 99
5 495
1 + 999 × 99 + 494 × 991

5 495
5
1 + 494 + 999 × 99 = 495 99
+ 999 × 99
5 5 51
99 + 999 × 99 = 99 (1+999)
99 × 1000 = 99000
Q 59. If x = 11, then the value of x5 – 12x4 – 12x3 – 12x2 + 12x – 1 is

(a) 11 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) -10
Explanation
x = 11
= x5 – 12x4 + 12x3 – 12x2 + 12x – 1
= 115 – 12 × 114 + 12 × 113 – 12 × 112 + 12 × 11 – 1
= 115 – (11 +1)114 + (11+1)113 – (11+1)112 +(11+1)× 11 – 1
n
= 115 – 115 – 114 + 114 + 113 – 113 – 112 + 112 + 11 – 1
= 11 – 1 = 10
y.i
3
Q 60. If p = 101, then the value of √p(p2 — 3p + 3)—1 is
(a) 100 (b) 101 (c) 1001 (d) 1000
Explanation
m
given p = 101
3
= √p3 — 3p2 + 3p—1
lar
3
= √p3 — 13 – 3p (p—1)
(∵ a3 – b3 – 3ab (a – b) = (a – b)3)
1
= 3√ (p—1)3 = [(p—1)3] 3 = p—1

ria
= 101 – 1 = 100
1
Q 61. If a 3 = 11 then the value of a2 – 331a is

(a) 1331331 (b) 1331000 (c) 1334331 (d) 1330030
to
Explanation
1
a 3 = 11
rri
Cubing both sides

⇒ a = 113 ⇒ a = 1331
a2 – 331a ⇒ a (a – 331) = 1331 (1331–331)
te
= 1331 × 1000 = 1331000
Q 62. If 11√n = √112 + √343 then the value of n is

(a) 3 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 7
w.
Explanation
11√n = √112 + √343
11√n = √7 ×16 + √7 ×49
ww
11√n = 4√7 + 7√7

11√n = 11√7
n=7 [on comparing both sides]
Q 63. If x + y = √3 and x – y = √2 , then the value of 8xy (x2 + y2) is

(a) 6 (b) √6 (c) 5 (d) √5
Explanation
x + y = √3 and x - y = √2 ,
then the value of 8xy (x2 + y2)
x + y = √3
x – y = √2
Adding we get, 2x = √3 + √2
√3 + √2
x= ... 1
2
Subtracting we get, 2y = √3 – √2
√3 – √2
y= ... 2
2
( )
2
√3 + √2
x2 =
2
3 + 2 + 2 √6 5 + 2 √6
= = [∵ (a + b)2 = a2 +b2 + 2ab]
4 4
( )
2
√3 – √2
y2 =
2
3 + 2 – 2 √6 5 – 2 √6
= = [∵ (a – b)2 = a2 +b2 – 2ab]
4 4
5 + 2 √6 5 – 2 √6 10 5 5
x2 + y2 = + = =
4 4 4 2 2
xy = ( √3 + √2
2 )( √3 – √2
2 )
n
(√3)2 – (√2)2 1
= = 4 (using a2 – b2 = (a+b) (a–b))
y.i
4
21 1
∴ 8xy (x2 + y2) = 8 × × 5 =5
41 2
m
1 1 1
Q 64. If 2x = 3y = 6-z then ( + + ) is equal to
x y z
3 1
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) (d) -
Explanation
Let 2x = 3y = 6-z = k
1
2 2
1 -1
lar
ria
2=kx,3=ky ,6=kz
2×3=6
1 1 -1
k x × k y = k z
1 1 -1
kx + y =kz
to
[∴ am × an = am + n]
1 1 –1 1 1 1
+ = ⇒ + + =0
x y z x y z
rri
1
Q 65. If x = 3 + √2
2
then x2 + is equal to
x2
(a) 36 (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 34
Explanation
te
x = 3+ 2 √2
1 1
=
w.
x 3 + 2√2
1 3 – 2√2
= × [on Rationalising]
3 + 2√2 3 – 2√2
ww
3 – 2√2 3 – 2√2
= 9–8 = 1
)
2
x2 +
1
x2
= x+ 1
x ( –2
= (3 + 2 √2 + 3 – 2 √2 )2 –2 = 62 – 2 = 36 – 2 = 34
Q 66. The distance between two parallel chords of length 8 cm each in a circle of diameter 10 cm is
(a) 6 cm (b) 7cm (c) 8 cm (d) 5.5 cm
Explanation
A 4 E B
⊥ ar from centre to the chord
5
bisects the chord ∴ AE = EB = CF = FD = 4cm O
5
Also diameter = 10cm
C F D
∴ AO = OC = 5cm (radii of the same circle) 4
In ΔOCF, by Pythagoras theorem,
OC2 = OF2 + CF2

∴ (5)2 = OF2 + (4)2 or OF2 = 25 – 16 = 9
∴ OF = 3cm
similarly, OE= 3cm EF= EO + OF = 6cm
1
Q 67. ABCD is a rhombus. A straight line through C cuts AD produced at P and AB produced at Q. If DP = AB then the ratio
of the length of BQ and AB is 2
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 1:1 (d) 3:1
Explanation
ABCD is a rhombus
∴ CD to BA
∴ ∠1 = ∠2 (corresponding angles)
∠P = ∠P (common)
n
∴ By AA similarity,
A D P
Δ DPC is Δ APQ 2 1
y.i
∴ Ratio of corresponding sides is equal
AP AQ
∴ PD = DC
m
B C
AD + DP AB + BQ
PD = DC
⇒ AD + AD = AB + BQ
DP DP DC DC
Given DP = 1 AB = 1 AD
2
lar Q
ria
2
(∵ ABCD is a rhombus
∴ AB = BC = CD = DA)
AD + 1 = AB + BQ (replacing DC by AB)
to
AB AB
1
AD
2
2 + 1 = 1 + BQ
rri
AB
or BQ = 2
AB 1
te
1 1
Q 68. If the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 1 :3 then the triangle is
4 4
w.
(a) Right triangle (b) Isosceles triangle (c) Obtuse triangle (d) Acute triangle
Explanation
Let the sides of the triangle be 3k, 5 k and 13 k
4 4
ww
( 5k4 ) = 9k + 25k
2
2
Now, (3k)2 + 2
16
144k + 25k = 169k = ( 13k )

2
2 2 2
= 4
16 16
∵ sum of squares of 2 sides is equal to square of the third side, by converse of Pythagoras theorem it is a right angled triangle.
Q 69. An equilateral triangle of side 6 cm is inscribed in a circle. Then radius of the circle is:
(a) 2 √3 cm (b) 3 √2 cm (c) 4 √3 cm (d) √3 cm
Explanation
r= s = 6 =2×3 = 2 √3 cm
√3 √3 √3
r
6
Q 70. If the difference between compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 8% per annum
is Rs. 768/- then the sum invested is:
(a) 1,00,000/- (b) 1,10,000/- (c) 1,20,000/- (d) 1,70,000/-
Explanation
S.I. = P × R × T C.I. = P 1 +
100
R
100
( ( ) – P)
T
Where P = Principal, R = Rate of Interest ,

T = Time Period
∴ given CI – SI = 768
[ (1 + ) –1]–
2
8 P×8×2
P = 768
100 100
n
[(1 + ) –1]–
2
2 4P
P = 768
25 25
y.i
[( 2725 ) – 1 – ] = 768
2
4
P
25
m
P [ 27 – 2525– 4 × 25 ] = 768
2 2
192
768 × 25 × 25 768 × 25 × 25 768 × 25 × 25
P = (272 – 252) – 4 × 25 =
52 × 2 – 100
=
41
lar
= 1,20,000
Q 71. On what sum of money will the difference between simple interest and compound interest for 2 years at 5% per annum
be equal to Rs. 63/-
ria
(a) Rs. 24600/- (b) Rs. 24800/- (c) Rs. 25200/- (d) Rs. 25500/-
Explanation
S.I. = P × R × T C.I. = P 1 + R
100 100
( ( ) – P)
T
to
Where P = Principal, R = Rate of Interest , T = Time Period

2
[( ) ]
rri
5
P 1 + 100 – 1 – P × 5 × 2 = 63
100
2
P [ ( 2120 ) – 1– 101 ] = 63
te
P [ 21 20– 20 – 101 ] = 63
2
2
2
w.
P [ 441400– 400 – 101 ] = 63

ww
P [ 400
41 – 1 ] = 63
10
P ( 41400– 40 ) = 63 ⇒ P = 63 × 400 = Rs 25,200
1
Q 72. A sells an article to B making a profit of of his outlay. B sells it to C, gaining 20%. If C sells it for Rs. 600 and incurs a
1 5
loss of of his outlay, the cost price of A is
6
(a) Rs. 600 (b) Rs. 500 (c) Rs. 720 (d) Rs. 800
Explanation
Let CP for A be Rs x
6x
∴ SP = x + 1 × x =
5 5 1
6x 6x 20 6x
∴ CP of B = and SP = + 100 ×
5 5 5
6x 6x 36x 5
= + =
5 25 25
6
1 6x
∴ CP of C= 36x its loss = × 36x =
25 6 1 25 5
6x 30x
∴ SP of C = 36x – =
25 5 25
6
30x
given = 600
25
5
6x
5 = 600
∴ x = 5 × 600 = Rs 500
6
Q 73. Ramesh bought 10 cycles for Rs. 500 each. He spent Rs. 2,000 on the repair of all cycles. He sold five of them for Rs. 750 each
and the remaining for Rs. 550 each. Then the total gain or loss % is
1 1 2 1
(a) Gain of 8 % (b) Loss of 8 % (c) Gain of 7 % (d) Loss of 7 %
3 3 3 7
n
Explanation
CP of 10 cycles = 500 × 10 = 5000
y.i
Money spent on repair = Rs 2000
∴ Total CP = 5000 + 2000 = Rs 7000
m
SP of 5 cycles = 5 × 750 = 3750
SP of remaining 5 cycles = 5 × 550 = 2750
∴ Total SP of 10 cycles = 3750 + 2750 = Rs 6500
∴ Loss = CP – SP = Rs 500
Loss% =
Loss
× 100 =
500
× 100
lar
ria
CP 7000
50
= 7 % =7 1%
7
Q 74. A can finish a piece of work in 18 days and B can do the same work in half of the time taken by A. Then working together
what part of the same work they can finish in a day.
to
1 2 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 5 9 7
rri
Explanation
Let total units of work = 18
Efficiency of A = 1
te
Efficiency of B = 2
18 18
w.
No. of days to finish work = = =6

1+2 3
1
Work done in 1 day =
6
ww
Q 75. The rate of working of A and B are in the ratio 2:3. The number of days taken by them to finish the work is in the ratio
(a) 2:3 (b) 4:9 (c) 3:2 (d) 9:4
Explanation
Rate of working = 2:3
1 1
No. of days = : = 3:2
2 3
Q 76. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in the school is 3:2. If 20% of the boys and 25% of the girls are scholarship holders,
the percentage of the school students who are not scholarship holders is
(a) 56 (b) 78 (c) 70 (d) 80
Explanation
Let no. of boys be 3x and girls be 2x
20 3x
∴ 20% of boys = × 3x =
100 5
25 x
25% of girls = × 2x =
100 2
Total no. of students = No. of (boys + girls) = 5x
3x x
Scholarship holders = +
5 2
6x + 5x 11x
= = 10
10
∴ Students who are not scholarship
11x
holders = 5x – = 50x – 11x = 39x
10 10 10
39x
10 39 2
% = 5x × 100 = 10 × 5 × 100 = 78%
1
Q 77. A train passes two bridges of lengths 800 m and 400 m in 100 seconds and 60 seconds respectively. The length of the Train is
(a) 80 m (b) 90 m (c) 200 m (d) 150 m
Explanation
Let length of the train be x m
n
distance covered
speed = = constant
time taken
y.i
∴ speed to cover distance of (800 + x)m = speed to cover distance of (400 + x)m
800 + x 400 + x
∴ =
5 100 60 3
m
3 (800 + x) = 5 (400 + x)
2400 + 3x = 2000 + 5x
or 3x – 5x = 2000 – 2400
or –2x = – 400
or x = 200 m
lar
ria
Q 78. In an examination, 52% students failed in Hindi and 42% in English. If 17% failed in both the subjects, what percentage of
students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 38% (b) 33% (c) 23% (d) 18%
Explanation
to
∩
n (H E) = n (H) + n (E) – n (H∩E)
= 52% + 42% – 17% = 94% – 17% = 77%
Passed in both subjects = 100% – 77% = 23%
rri
Q 79. The batting average for 40 innings of a cricket player is 50 runs. His highest score exceeds his lowest score by 172 runs. If
these two innings are excluded, the average of the remaining 38 innings is 48 runs. The highest score of the player is
(a) 165 (b) 170 (c) 172 (d) 174
te
Explanation
Total score = 40 × 50 = 2000
w.
Let lowest = l
highest = l + 172
average of 38 innings = 48
ww
Total of 38 innings = 38 × 48 = 1824

1824 + l + l + 172 = 2000
1996 + 2l = 2000
2l = 2000 – 1996
2l = 04 l=2
highest = l + 172 = 2 + 172 = 174
Q 80. A discount of series of 15%, 20% and 30% is equal to a single discount of
(a) 50% (b) 47.6% (c) 52.8% (d) 52.4%
Explanation
Let initial price = Rs 100
Ist discount = 15% of 100 = Rs 15
∴ Remaining amount = Rs 100 – Rs 15 = Rs 85
20 1 17
2nd discount = 20% of Rs 85 = 100 × 85 = 17
51
∴ Remaining amount = Rs 85 – Rs 17 = Rs 68
3rd discount = 30% of Rs 68 = 30 × 68 = Rs 20.40

100
∴ Remaining final amount = Rs 68 – Rs 20.40 = Rs 47.60
Total discount = 15 + 17 + 20.4 = 52.4
or (100 – 47.6 = 52.4)
Single discount = 100% – 47.6% = 52.4%
Q 81. A dishonest dealer defrauds to the extent of x% in buying as well as selling his goods by using faulty weight. What will be
the gain percent on his outlay?
10 x2 x2
(a) 2x% (b) ( + x2)% (c) (2x + )% (d) (x + )%
x 100 100
Explanation
Let CP in buying = Rs 100
∵ gain = x %
n
∴ SP = (100 + x) Rs.
y.i
In selling this SP becomes CP
∴ CP = Rs (100 + x)
gain = x%
m
gain SP – CP
gain % = × 100 = × 100
CP CP
SP – (100 + x)
x = (100 + x)
SP = x (100 + x)
× 100
SP – (100 + x) = x (100 + x)
100
+ (100 + x)
lar
ria
100
= (100 + x) × [ 1 + 100x ] = (100 + x)2

100
overall gain % = SP – CP × 100
to
CP
(100 + x)2
– 100
= 100 × 100
100
rri
(100 + x)2 – 10000

=
100
= 10000 + x + 200x – 10000

2
te
100
(
= x + 200x = 2x + x %
2 2
)
w.
100 100
or short cut approach
[x + x + x+x x2
= 2x + 100 % ]
ww
100
2
Q 82. A and B started a business in the partnership by investing in the ratio of 7:9. After 3 months A withdraw of of its
1 3
investment and after 4 months from the beginning B withdraw 33 % of its investment. If the total earned profit is Rs.
3
10201/- at the end of 9 months, find the share of each in the profit.
(a) Rs 3535/- and Rs 6666/- (b) Rs 3055/- and Rs. 5555/-
(c) Rs 4503/- and Rs 1345/- (d) Rs 3545/- and Rs. 3333/-
Explanation
2
7x × 3 + 7x × 6 : 9x × 4 + 30x
3
1
21x + 14x : 36x + 30x
35x : 66x
35x : 66x
A:B= 35 : 66
35
101
A’s profit = 101 × 10201 = 3535
1
66 101
B's profit = × 10201 = 6666
1011
Q 83. The mean marks of 20 students is 15. On checking it was found that two marks were wrongly copied as 3 and 6. If wrong
marks obtained are replaced by correct values 8 and 4, then the correct mean is
(a) 15 (b) 15.15 (c) 15.35 (d) 16
Explanation
Total marks = 20 × 15 = 300
Total correct marks = 300 – 3 – 6 + 8 + 4
= 300 + 12 – 9 = 303
Correct mean = 303 = 15.15
20
n
Q 84. Three circle of diameter 10 cm each are bound together by rubber band, the length of the rubber band is.
(a) 30 (b) 30 + 10 π (c) 10 π (d) 60 + 20 π
y.i
Explanation
30 + 2π × 5
30 + 10π
m
Q 85. A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km per hour. How much water will fall into sea in a minute?
(a) 4,00,000 m3 (b) 40,00,000 m3 (c) 40,000 m3 (d) 4,000 m3
Explanation
Water flowed in 1 hour = 3 × 40 × 2000 = 24000 m3

4000
240000
Water flowed in 1 minute = 60 1 = 4000 m3
lar [Volume of cuboid = lbh]
( 1 hour = 60 minutes)
ria
Q 86. If the radius of the base and the height of a right circular cylinder is increased by 10% each then the volume of the cylinder
increases by:
(a) 3.31% (b) 14.5% (c) 33.1% (d) 19.5%
to
Explanation
Volume of cylinder (V1) = πr2h

rri
where r = radius of the base, h = height
new radius = r + 10 × r = 11r

100 10
te
new height = h + 10 × h = 11h

100 10
( 11r
10 ) ( 10 )
2
11h
w.
new volume (V2) = π
1331
1000 πr h
= 2
ww
% increase in volume
New Volume – Original Volume
= × 100
Original Volume
V2 – V1
V1 × 100
1331 2
πr h – πr2h
1000
= × 100
πr2h
=
( 1331
1000
– 1 ) πr h
2
× 100
πr2h
1331 – 1000 331

= 1000 × 100 = 10 = 33.1%
Q 87. The amount of concrete required to build a concrete cylindrical pillar whose base has a perimeter 8.8 metre and curved
22
surface area 17.6 sq. metre is (Take π = )
7
(a) 8.325 m
3
(b) 9.725 m
3
(c) 10.5 m3 (d) 12.32 m3
Explanation
Perimeter of circle = 2πr = 8.8 m ...1
22
⇒ 2 × 7 × r = 8.8
0.2
4.4
8.8 × 7
r = 2 × 22 = 1.4 m
1 11
Also, curved surface area of cylinder = 2πrh = 17.6 m2 ...2
Divide 2 by 1
2πrh 17.6
we get = 8.8 or h = 2 m
2πr
0.2
22
Volume of cylinder = πr2h = 7 × 1.4 × 1.4 × 2
= 12.32 m3
n
Q 88. Some bricks are arranged in an area measuring 20 m3. If the length, breadth and height of each brick is 25 cm, 12.5 cm and
8 cm respectively, then the number of bricks are:
y.i
(a) 6000 (b) 8000 (c) 4000 (d) 10000
Explanation
Total area covered
No. of bricks =
Volume of 1 brick
m
Total area covered = 20m3
[1m3 = 1000000 cm3]
lar
= 20 × 1000000 cm3
20 × 1000000
∴ No. of bricks = 25 × 12.5 × 8
(∵ Brick is a cuboid & volume of cuboid = l×b×h)
ria
4 8000 5
= 20 × 1000000 ×10 = 8000
25 × 125 × 8
5 1 4
to
Q 89. The length, breadth and height of a room is 5m, 4m and 3m respectively. Find the length of the largest bamboo that can
be kept.
(a) 5 m (b) 60m (c) 7 m (d) 5 √2 m
rri
Explanation
Largest bamboo = length of diagonal = √l2 + b2 + h2

te
= √52 + 42 + 32 = √25 + 16 + 9
= √5 0 = 5 √2 m
w.
Q 90. A solid metallic spherical ball of diameter 6cm is melted and re-casted into a cone with diameter of the base as 12 cm. The
height of the cone is
(a) 6 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 3 cm
Explanation
ww
3
radius of spherical ball = 6 = 3cm
2
Volume of spherical ball V1 = 4 π r3 = 4 π (3)3 = 36 π

3 3
6
radius of cone = 12 cm = 6cm
21
Let height of cone of h cm
Volume of cone V2= 1 π 62h = 1 π × 36h = 12πh

3 3
Volume of spherical ball = Volume of cone formed
V1 = V2
36 π = 12πh
3=h
h = 3 cm
Q 91. If the ratio of the diameter of two right circular cones of equal height be 3:4, then the ratio of their valume will be
(a) 3:4 (b) 9:16 (c) 16:9 (d) 27:64
Explanation
Let the radii of right circular cones be 3r and 4r and height be h
1
π (3r)2 × h 9
3
Ratio of volumes = = = 9:16
1 16
3 π (4r) × h
2
Q 92. What is the value of log2 (log3 81) ?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 9
Explanation
( loglog813 ) = log ( log

log2 (log3 81) = log2
3
log 3
) 2
4
(∵ log m = log m
and log x = n log x)
n
e n
n log n e
e e
= log ( )
4 log3
y.i
2
log3
log 4 log 22 2 log 2
= log24 = = log 2 = log 2 = 2
log 2
m
Q 93. Find the value of 0.355 × 0.5555 × 2.025 is equal to
0.225 × 1.775 × 0.2222
(a) 5.4 (b) 4.58 (c) 4.5 (d) 5.45
Explanation
0.355 × 0.5555 × 2.025
0.225 × 1.775 × 0.2222
lar
ria
1 5 9
355 × 5555 × 2025 9
= = 4.5
225 × 1775 × 2222 2
1 5 2
Q 94. (0.01024)1/5 is equal to
to
(a) 0.4 (b) 4.0 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.00004

Explanation
rri
(0.01024) 5
1
1
( 1024
) = ( 104 )
5 5
= 5
100000 5
te
1 1
4 5
[( ) ] = ( )
5×5
5
4 4
= = = 0.4
w.
10 10 10
[(a ) = a ]
m n m×n
ww
Q 95. The value of (243)0.16 × (243) 0.04 is equal to

1
(a) 0.16 (b) 3 (c)
(d) 0.04
3
Explanation
(243)0.16 × (243) 0.04
(243)0.16+0.04 = (243)0.20
[∴ xa xb = xa+b] [ (xa)b = xab]
20 1 1
100 5 5
= (243) = (243) = (3 ) 5
=3
Q 96. If a and b are two positive integer such that a2 – b2 = 19 then value of a is
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 9 (d) 10
Explanation
a2 – b2 = 19
(a + b) ( a – b) = 19 × 1
[19 is a prime number prime number has only two factors, 1 and itself]
a + b = 19 .... 1 a–b=1 .... 2

adding (1) & (2)
a + b = 19
a–b =1
2a = 20
a = 10 ⇒ 10 + b = 19 ∴ b = 9
Q 97. √(798)2 + 0.404 × 0.798 + (0.202)2 + 1 is equal to

(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0.404
Explanation
√(0.798)2 + 0.404 × 0.798 + (0.202)2 + 1
√(0.798)2 + 2 × 0.202 × 0.798 + (0.202)2 + 1
n
= √(0.798 + 0.202)2 + 1
y.i
=1+1=2
Q 98. The sum of three consecutive odd natural numbers is 147. Then the middle number is
(a) 47 (b) 48 (c) 49 (d) 51
m
Explanation
Let the 3 numbers be x, x + 2, x + 4
According to condition
x + x + 2 + x + 4 = 147
= 3x + 6 = 147
= 3x = 141
lar
ria
141 47
x=
1 3
x = 47
to
∴ Numbers are 47, 49 and 51 ∴ Middle no. = 49

5 5
Q 99. A student was asked to find of a number. By mistake he found of that number and his answer was 250 more than
16 6
rri
the correct answer. Find the given number

(a) 300 (b) 480 (c) 450 (d) 500
Explanation
te
Let the no. be x
given, 5 x = 5 x +250
6 16
w.
( 56 – 165 )x = 250
ww
( )
5x 8 – 3 = 250
48
5x × 5 = 250
48
10
x = 250 × 48 = 480
25
1
Q 100. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 12 and 336 respectively. If one number is 84, then the other number is
(a) 48 (b) 36 (c) 72 (d) 96
Explanation
HCF × LCM = n1 × n2
[HCF × LCM = Product of two numbers]
12 × 336 = 84 × n2
1 48
12 × 336
n2 = = 48
84
7 1
TERRITORIAL ARMY COMMISSION : SEPTEMBER 2021
PAPER–2: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & ENGLISH A1
Max Time : 2 Hours (Please Read The Instructions Carefully) Max Marks : 100
Roll No……………………….. INSTRUCTIONS
1. Paper-2 has two parts: Part I & Part II

3. There will be four possible answers to every question. Candidates are required to fill correct answer in the OMR sheet
with Black ball pen only.
5. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer and 0.5 mark will be deducted. There
will be no penalty for questions left unanswered.
6. Candidates should not mark in the question paper. They can use blank pages provided in the question paper for
rough work.
7. To be eligible to qualify, a candidate must obtain minimum 40% marks each in Part I & II separately and a minimum
of 50% aggregate in total.
PART–1 : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Q1. Which of the following was the first metal used by man?
(a) Copper (b) Silver (c) Bronze (d) Brass
Q2. Which Mughal king tried to stop the practice of Sati?
(a) Akabar (b) Humayun (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
Q3. The Sultan of Delhi, who is reputed to have built the biggest network of canals in India was
(a) Iltutmish (b) Ghiyas-ud- din - Tughlaq(c) Firoze Shah Tughlaq (d) Sikandar Lodi
Q4. Which caves is a network of sculpted caves located in Mumbai harbour?
(a) Ajanta (b) Ellora (c) Elephanta (d) Khajuraho
Q5. The Panama canal links
(a) Pacific and Atlantic Ocean (b) Atlantic & Arctic Ocean
(c) Pacific and Indian Ocean (d) Antarctic & Atlantic Ocean
Q6. India is developing Chabahar port in which of the following countries?

(a) Iraq (b) Oman (c) Iran (d) Pakistan
Q7. Who is the author of the book 'The White Tiger'?
(a) R K Narayan (b) Aravind Adiga (c) Vikram Seth (d) Arundhati Roy
Q8. Kisan Diwas (Farmer's Day) is observed on?
(a) 23rd December (b) 15th July (c) 14rd December (d) 1st May
Q9. The world economic report is published by?
(a) World bank (b) UNDP (c) IMF (d) UNCTAD
Q10. Eutrophication
(a) Is a normal process that converts dry land into marshes.
(b) Is slowed by the presence of Phosphate and Nitrate fertilisers.
(c) Is characterised by an excess amount of oxygen in large bodies of water.
(d) Is characterised by a rapid enrichment of water body with minerals and nutrients.
Q11. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the State Policy?
(a) To raise the level of nutrition. (b) To develop a scientific temper.
(c) To promote economic interests of weaker sections. (d) To separate the judiciary from the executive.
Q12. MALABAR is a Naval exercise between India and

(a) Singapore (b) USA (c) China (d) Britain
Q13. In a pressure cooker, cooking is faster because the increase in vapour pressure
(a) Increase the specific heat (b) Decrease the specific heat
(c) Decrease the boiling point (d) Increase the boiling point
Q14. In 1991, India's first indigenous super computer named............. was developed by Vijay Bhatkar.
(a) Prayag 400 (b) Pragati 5000 (c) Param 8000 (d) Prabhas 6000
Q15. A data warehouse is always

(a) Subject Oriented (b) Object Oriented (c) programme Oriented (d) Compiler Oriented
Q16. Jallikattu is associated with which Indian festival?

(a) Onam (b) Pongal (c) Biku (d) Hornbill
Q17. Which of the following countries have an unwritten constitution?
(a) USA (b) UK (c) Iran (d) Pakistan
Q18. Supernova is
(a) Comet (b) Asteroid (c) Exploding Star (d) Black Hole
Q19. The largest tiger reserve in India is
(a) Pench (b) Manas (c) Nagarjun (d) Corbett
Q20. Sahara is located in which part of Africa?
(a) Eastern (b) Western (c) Northern (d) Southern
Q21. Which among the following comes under the primary sector of Indian economy?
(a) Sugar Industry (b) Dairy (c) Banking (d) Transport of goods
Q22. As we go from equator to North Pole, the value of ‘g’(the acceleration due to gravity)
(a) Remains the same (b) decreases (c) Increases (d) None of the above
Q23. Ozone layer above the surface of earth provides a shield against?
(a) X-rays (b) Ultra violet rays (c) Gamma rays (d) Infra-red rays
Q24. Which foreign country is closest to Andaman Islands?
(a) Srilanka (b) Myanmar (c) Indonesia (d) Pakistan
Q25. Fiscal policy is connected with
(a) Issue of currency (b) Exports and Imports
(c) Public revenue & expenditure (d) None of above
Q26. Convertibility of rupee implies
(a) Being able to convert rupee into gold
(b) Allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces
(c) Freely permitting the conversation of rupee to other currencies and vice-versa
(d) Developing an International market for currencies in India
Q27. Where did Buddha preach his first sermon?
(a) Kasi (b) Sarnath (c) Kushinagar (d) Bodh Gaya
Q28. The only country in the world whose flag is not square or rectangle is?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Bhutan (c) Maldives (d) Nepal
Q29. Which one of the following Grand Slam titles is also known as ‘Rolland Garros’ title?
(a) French Open (b) Wimbledon (c) US Open (d) Australian Open
Q30. Who was the first woman President of the Indian National Congress?
(a) Mrs. Anne Besant (b) Sucheta Kriplani (c) Indria Gandhi (d) Sarojini Naidu
Q31. Solar eclipse occurs when
(a) Earth comes between Sun and Moon (b) Moon is at right angle of Earth
(c) Moon come between Sun and Earth (d) Sun comes between Moon and Earth
Q32. Who is the first Indian cricketer to take a Hat trick of wickets in test?
(a) BS Bedi (b) BS Chandra Sekhar (c) EAS Prasanna (d) Harbhajan Singh
Q33. The first woman to climb Mount Everest was?
(a) Marie Jose Perec (b) Florence Griffith Joyner (c) Junkie Tabei (d) Jackie Joyner Kersee
Q34. Which of the following cause variations in the genetic material of progeny?
(i) Sexual reproduction (ii) Asexual reproduction (iii) Mutations (iv) Epigenetic changes
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
Q35. Shock absorbers are usually made of steel as it
(a) is not brittle (b) has lower elasticity
(c) has higher elasticity (d) has no ductile property
Q36. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?
(a) Nylon (b) Plastics (c) Wool (d) Polyethene bags
Q37. The first stable product of photosynthesis is?
(a) Starch (b) Sucrose (c) Phosphoglycesic acid (d) Glucose
Q38. Narain Karthikeyan is a sportsman in the field of?
(a) Golf (b) Chess (c) Shooting (d) Formula one car racing
Q39. The process of arranging data in logical sequence is called?
(a) Classifying (b) Reproduction (c) Summarising (d) Sorting
Q40. Who among the following has not won Nobel prize?
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) Kailash Satyarthi (c) H.G Khorana (d) Mother Teresa
Q41. Addition of gypsum to cement
(a) reduces setting time of cement (b) produce very light color cement
(c) increases setting time of cement (d) shining surface is formed
Q42. Which of the following organs does not eliminate waste products from the body?
(a) Large Intestine (b) Liver (c) Kidney (d) Skin
Q43. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) War Saw - Poland (b) Rotterdam - Australia (c) Karachi - Pakistan (d) Dublin - Ireland
Q44. For determination of which of the following is carbon dating method used?
(a) Fossils (b) Rocks (c) Trees (d) a & b above
Q45. In which stadium did Sachin Tendulkar complete his 100th century?
(a) Eden Garden (b) Shere Bangla Stadium
(c) Firoz Shah Kolta Stadium (d) None of the above
Q46. From which Country did India procure the aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov, to join Indian Navy as INS Vikramaditya?
(a) Russia (b) Germany (c) Ukraine (d) France
Q47. The office of Lokpal and Lakayukta in India is based on which of the following?
(a) Parliamentary Commissioner of UK
(b) Ombudsman of Scandinavia
(c) Procurator General of Russia
(d) Council of state in France
Q48. Who is the first Air Chief to receive the honour of Marshal?
(a) Arjan Singh (b) Satish Kumar Sarin (c) SK Metha (d) Yashwant Tepnis
Q49. In banking sector, C stands in CBS for ?
(a) Credit (b) Core (c) Contingent (d) Complete
Q50. The executive power relating to concurrent subjects remain with?
(a) the States (b) the Centre (c) the Constitution (d) the President
PART–II : ENGLISH
Directions Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:
No one can look back on his schooldays and say with truth that they were altogether unhappy. I have good memories of Oak
Grove's, among a horde of bad ones, Sometimes on summer afternoons there were wonderful expeditions across the Duns to
a village called Tsango Gap, or to Birchha lake, where one bathed dangerously among the boulders and came home covered
with cuts. And there were still more wonderful mid summer evenings, when as a special treat, we were not driven off to bed as
usual but allowed to wander about the grounds in the long twilight, ending up with a plunge into a swimming bathe at about
nine o' clock. There was a joy of waking early on summer mornings and getting in an hour's undisturbed reading (Premchand,
Ruskin Bond, HG Wells, Anton Chekhov were the favourite authors of my childhood) in the sunlit sleeping dormitory. There
was also cricket, which I was no good at but with which I conducted a sort of hopeless love affair upto the age of about eighteen.
And there was the pleasure of keeping caterpillars- the silky green and purple puss-moth specimen of which could be illicitly
purchased for six paise at a shop in the town- and, when one could escape long enough from the master who was talking the
walk' there was the excitement of dredging the dew ponds on the Duns for the enormous newts with orange coloured bellies.
The business of being out for a walk, coming across something of fascinating interest and then being dragged away from it by
a yell from the master, like a dog jerked onwards by the leash, is an important feature of school life and helps to build up the
conviction, so strong in many children, that the things you most want to do are always unattainable.
Q51. We can infer that the author was a

(a) disobedient student (b) lonely child
(c) mischievous boy (d) studious boy
Q52. Why does writer call cricket a hopeless affair?
(a) He was forced to give it up (b) He did not play it at all
(c) He played it secretly (d) He tried hard to learn
Q53. “Where one bathed dangerously”. Why the writer call bathing dangerous?
(a) They were punished later (b) There were snakes in the water
(c) The boulders gave them bruises (d) The water was too deep
Q54. What is the 'moral' the boy draws from his childhood experiences ?
(a) Things you enjoy doing are always unreachable (b) Only do the things that masters tell you to
(c) Do not walk alone in the grounds (d) Do not collect insects like caterpillars
Q55. Which of the following the boys not do on summer mornings ?
(a) Read in bed (c) Sleep until late (b) Play cricket (d) Collect caterpillar
Directions: In the following questions, some part of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a
sentence has error. The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is "No error".
Q56. A senior doctor (a)/ expressed concern (b)/ about physician's recommended the vaccine (c) / No error (d)
Q57. "The Arabian Nights" (a)/ are indeed (b)/ an interesting book (c)/ No error (d)
Q58. A chill wind blew (a)/ and icy fingers of death (b) /crept up my spine (c) / No error (d)
Q59. They dreamed of a society (a) /where everyone (b) were equal (c) / No error (d)
Q60. Her behavior (a)/ around him (b) /was little oddly (c) No error (d)
Directions: In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the meaning of the word given
in the bold.
Q61. Loquacious
(a) talkative (b) slow (c) content (d) unclear
Q62. Bliss
(a) pleasure (b) fantasy (c) happiness (d) laughter
Q63. Labyrinth
(a) meandering (b) rotating (c) pacing (d) wriggling
Q64. Conscientious
(a) concentrated (b) honest (c) scientific (d) false
Q65. Fustian
(a) unpretentious (b) timid (c) arrogant (d) courteous
Directions: In the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom / Phrase in 'bold'. Choose the alternative which best
expresses the meaning of the idioms / phrase given in bold.
Q66. to show a clean pair of heels

(a) to hide (b) to escape (c) to pursue (d) to follow
Q67. a little gush of gratitude
(a) gradual recovery (b) friendly feeling (c) excessive labour (d) excessive enthusiasm
Q68. to get wind

(a) to forget (b) come to know (c) to tell (d) to meet
Q69. a man of straw

(a) a unreasonable person (b) a man of no substance (c) a very active person (d) a worthy fellow
Q70. was plain sailing

(a) was very easy (b) was complicated (c) was competitive (d) was uncomfortable
Directions: In this questions, out of four alternative choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentences.
Q71. A person very reserved in speech

(a) confident (b) reticent (c) eloquent (d) adamant
Q72. Free from punishment

(a) posterity (b) stoicism (c) impunity (d) wrath
Q73. A person who devotes his/her life for the welfare of others
(a) altruist (b) hermit (c) volunteer (d) martyr
Q74. Excessive desire to work
(a) ergomania (b) idolomania (c) islomania (d) ethnomania
Q75. Speaking with stammer or lips

(a) melliloquent (b) dentiloquent (c) fatiloquent (d) stuttering
Directions: In these questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word (s). Four alternatives
are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out the four alternatives
Q76. How did these things come ?
(a) about (b) into (c) at (d) down
Q77. I haven't butter but I have a lot of bread.
(a) a lot of (b) little (c) much (d) some
Q78. It is difficult affection on her.
(a) showering (b) to shower (c) shower (d) of showering
Q79. I always fall old friends in times of need.
(a) over (b) through (c) back on (d) off
Q80. Never give your friends .
(a) the cold arm (b) the cold elbow (c) the cold shoulder (d) the cold hand
Directions: In these questions, four words are given out of which only one is mis-spelt. Find that mis-spelt word.
Q81. (a) telepathy (b) antepathy (c) sympathy (d) apathy
Q82. (a) adversery (b) adultery (c) advisory (d) arbitrary
Q83. (a) impetuous (b) ignoble (c) ignominious (d) idiosyncrasy
Q84. (a) accellerate (b) exaggerate (c) liberate (d) perpetrate
Q85. (a) acquaintance (b) appeasement (c) abnormality (d) accentuate
Directions: In these questions, the sentences have been given in Active / Passive voice. From the given alternatives, choose
the one which best expresses the given sentence in passive / Active voice.
Q86. I remember them taking me to the zoo.

(a) I remember having being taken to the zoo. (b) I remember to be taken to the zoo.
(c) I remember being taken to the zoo. (d) I remember I was taken to the zoo.
Q87. We must endure what we cannot cure.
(a) what cannot cured must endured (b) what could be cure must be endured.
(c) what we cure must be endured. (d) what cannot be cured must be endured.
Q88. I have made all the reservations.
(a) All the reservations are made by myself. (b) The reservations are made by myself.
(c) All the reservations have been made by me. (d) None of these.
Q89. Who did this?
(a) This was done by who? (b) By who this was done?
(c) By whom this was done? (d) By whom was this done?
Q90. The mechanic uses old spare parts for the car.
(a) Old spare parts were used for the car by the mechanic
(b) Old spare parts was used for the car by the mechanic.
(c) Old spare parts is being used for the car by the mechanic.
(d) Old spare parts are used for the car by the mechanic.
Directions: In these questions, the first and the last sentence of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage are
numbered 1 & 6. The part of the passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in
their proper order. Read the sentences and find out which of the four combinations is correct.
Q91. 1: Even today in many countries

P : neglected and these are for
Q : who have had the benefit of
R : women continue to be
S : fever, women than men
6 : educational and vocational training
(a) PRQS (b) QPSR (c) RQPS (d) SQRP
Q92. 1: Computers and mobile phones

P : grammar and reducing
Q : are turning us into
R : lazy writers
S : ruining and sleeping and
6 : are attention span
(a) QRSP (b) SPQR (c) QSPR (d) SRPQ
Q93. 1: In the first year of reign, Ashoka was in autocraft

P : The effect of slaughter on his mind was profound
Q : He was successful but thousands were slain in the battle.
R : About the ninth year he decided to conquer Kalinga
S : This caused a sudden change of heart
6 : He joined the Buddhist community and became a monk.
(a) RPQS (b) RSPQ (c) RQSP (d) RQPS
Q94. 1: Vegetarianism promotes a natural way of life.

P : A vegetarian's life–style is natural and healthy.
Q : Despite its message of universal love and non-violence, it has not spread.
R : It is best cultivated in the mind.
S : This may be because it is an inward looking habit.
6 : Food and health are closely related.
(a) QSRP (b) PQRS (c) QRSP (d) PRSQ
Q95. 1: The fame of Bacon as a creative writer rests mainly on his essays.
P : The term is derived from 'essai'.
Q : It may be perhaps desirable to write something on 'Essay'.
R : 'Essai' means experiment, attempt.
S : The essay, covers an enormous range of composition.
6 : In style the essay is often self-revelatory & illustrative.
(a) PQRS (b) QPRS (c) RPSQ (d) SPRQ
Directions: In these questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the word given in the bold.
Q96. Analogue
(a) Correlate (b) Cognate (c) Dialogue (d) Difference
Q97. Procrastinate
(a) Experiment (b) Expedite (c) Exclude (d) Propagate
Q98. Adept
(a) Ignorance (b) Inept (c) Lacuna (d) Inexperience
Q99. Impoverished
(a) Pure (b) Affluent (c) Important (d) Efficient
Q100. Bizzare
(a) Droll (b) Ridiculous (c) Ordinary (d) Comical
ANSWERS ARE BOLD
PAPER–1: REASONING & ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS A1
1. Paper–1 has two parts: Part I & Part II

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with Black ball pen.
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rough work.
7. To be eligible to qualify, candidate must obtain minimum 40% marks each in Part I & II separately and a minimum of
50% aggregate in total.
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PART–1 : REASONING
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Direction: In each of the following questions, select the related word from the given alternatives:-
Q1. Timid : Ass :: Cunning : ?

(a) Ant (b) Fox (c) Rabbit (d) Horse
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Q2. Antonyms : Synonyms :: Analysis : ?

(a) Synthesis (b) Synchronize (c) Simplify (d) Summarise
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Q3. Editor : Newspaper :: ? : ?

(a) Farmer : Sell (b) Wall : Mason (c) Chef : Knife (d) Poet : Poem
Q4. Amnesia : Memory :: Paralysis : ?

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(a) Legs (b) Movement (c) Limbs (d) Handicapped
Q5. 8 : 81 :: 10 : ?
(a) 100 (b) 121 (c) 120 (d) 111
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Q6. Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the word-pair
Spoke : Wheel
(a) Word : Sentence (b) Printer : Computer (c) Square : Side (d) Tree : Branch
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Q7. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (16, 64, 8)
(a) (15, 60, 8) (b) (18, 90, 6) (c) (10, 80, 8) (d) (14, 62, 4)
Q8. AC : CF :: MO : ?
(a) QR (b) PQ (c) OQ (d) OR
Q9. BECD : YVXW :: DGEF : ?

(a) VRTS (b) WTVU (c) WUTV (d) XUWV
Q10. A is B's sister. C is B's mother. D is C's father. E is D's mother. Then how is A related to D?
(a) Grandmother (b) Daughter (c) Grandfather (d) Granddaughter
Q11. A and B are brother and sister respectively. C is A's father. D is C's sister and E is D's mother. How is B related to E?
(a) Granddaughter (b) Great Granddaughter (c) Aunt (d) Daughter
Q12. Raghu and Babu are twins. Babu's sister is Reema. Reema's husband is Rajan. Raghu's mother is Laxmi. Laxmi's husband
is Rajesh. How is Rajesh related to Rajan?
(a) Father-in-law (b) Cousin (c) Uncle (d) Son-in-law
Q13. Gopal said, pointing at Govind, "His father is my father's only son." How is Gopal related to Govind?
(a) Grandfather (b) Grandson (c) Son (d) Father
Directions: In the following questions you have to identify the correct response from the given options according to following
symbols:
Q14. If '–' stands for division '+' stands for subtraction, '÷' stands for multiplication, '×' stands for addition, then which one of
the following is correct?
(a) 70 – 2 + 4 ÷ 5 × 6 = 44 (b) 70 – 2 + 4 ÷ 5 × 6 = 21 (c) 70 – 2 + 4 ÷ 5 × 6 = 341 (d) 70 – 2 + 4 ÷ 5 × 6 = 36
Q15. If '+' means '÷', '–' means '+', '×' means '–' and '÷' means '×', then 8 ÷ 4 – 6 + 3 × 4 = ?
(a) 4 (b) 14 (c) 28 (d) 30
Q16. If '+' means '÷', '–' means '×', '÷' means '+' & '×' means '–', then 36 × 12 + 4 ÷ 6 + 2 – 3 = ?
(a) 4 (b) 6½ (c) 18 (d) 42
Q17. Which of the following interchange would make the equation 8 × 20 ÷ 3 + 9 – 5 = 38

(a) (8, 9) (b) (3, 5) (c) (3, 9) (d) (3, 8)
Q18. In the following question, by using which mathematical operator will expression become correct?
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9 ? 27 ? 3 ? 4 ? 3
(a) +, +, < and × (b) +, ÷, > and × (c) ×, ÷, = and × (d) +, ÷, < and +
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Q19. If 1 # 3 # 7 = 21 and 12 # 1 # 3 = 36, then 14 # 2 # 0 = ?
(a) 28 (b) 0 (c) 16 (d) 7
Q20. A man drives his car 6 km towards west, then turns left and drives 3 km and again turns left and drives 3 km. Find out the
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final direction of the man from his original position.
(a) South–West (b) North–West (c) North–East (d) South–East
Q21. 56, 90, 132, 184, 248, ?

(a) 368 (b) 316 (c) 362
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Directions: In each of the following questions, a series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from
the given ones that will complete the series.
(d) 326
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Q22. 14, 19, 29, 49, 89, ?
(a) 139 (b) 149 (c) 159 (d) 169
Q23. 225, 289, ? , 441.

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(a) 361 (b) 375 (c) 383 (d) 386
Q24. 2, 5, 9, ? , 20, 27.

(a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 24
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Q25. 1, 6, 13, 22, 33, ?

(a) 47 (b) 43 (c) 46 (d) 44
Q26. If SEVEN is coded as 23136 and EIGHT as 34579, what will be the code for NINE?
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(a) 6463 (b) 6364 (c) 6346 (d) 6436
Q27. If in certain code, 'EDITION' 3891965, then how 'TIDE' will be written in that code?
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(a) 3819 (b) 1983 (c) 1839 (d) 1586
Q28. PROHIBITION is coded as 68032124205. How will you code INHIBITION?

(a) 2531214205 (b) 2532125205 (c) 2542124205 (d) 2532124205
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Q29. If E=5, PEN=35, then PAGE = ?

(a) 27 (b) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30
Q30. If MEAT is written as TEAM, then BALE is written

(a) EBLA (b) EALB (c) ELAB (d) EABL
Q31. If MIGRANT is coded as LHFQZMS, then how will GEL be coded as?
(a) Q X K (b) F D K (c) I X Z (d) I F G
Q32. B is twice as old as A but twice younger than F. C is half the age of A but is twice older than D. Who is second oldest?
(a) B (b) F (c) D (d) C
Q33. Five friends are sitting on bench. A is to the left of B but on the right of C. D is to the right of B but on the left of E. Who
are at extremes?
(a) AB (b) AD (c) BD (d) CE
Q34. The salaries of B, R, G, A and M are compared with one-another, M receives more salary than that of A & G. The salary of
R is less than the three persons. The salary of B is least. Whose salary is second lowest?
(a) M (b) R (c) A (d) G
Direction Find the missing number from the given responses in each of the following questions:
Q35. 3 2 1 5 3 4
35 126 ?
(a) 90 (b) 91 (c) 103 (d) 75
Q36.
3 2 2 –1 6 5
4 24 –2 4 0 ?
(a) 1 (b) 30 (c) 11 (d) 0
Q37. 64 36 2
81 25 4
144 16 ?
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(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 3 (d) 16
Q38. 4 10 6
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12 96 48
16 152 ?
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(a) 110 (b) 104 (c) 112 (d) 124
Q39. 5 4 41
15 5 ?
9
(a) 261
11 202
(b) 212 (c) 209 (d) 122
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Q40. The age of Ram is double as that of Shyam and half as that of Suresh. If the sum of their age is 70. What is the age of Ram?
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) 10
Q41. Anil is as much younger to Vivek as he is older to Tarun. If the total of the ages of Vivek & Tarun is 48 years, how old is
Anil?
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(a) 20 (b) 33 (c) 24 (d) 18
Q42. If 4 cats kill 4 rats in 4 minutes, how many minutes will it take 8 cats to kill 8 rats?
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 16
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Q43. The last three digits of the binary equivalent of the number 85432578 is?
(a) 001 (b) 100 (c) 110 (d) 010
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Q44. A man takes 6 Km distance to go around the rectangular area. If the area of the rectangle is 2 sq Km find the difference
between length & breadth?
(a) 2 Km (b) 0.5 Km (c) 1 Km (d) 0.75 Km
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Direction: Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following words?
Q45. (a) Doctor (b) Fever (c) Prescribe (d) Diagnose (e) Medicine
(a) b, a, c, d, e (b) a, d, c, b, e (c) b, a, d, c, e (d) b, d, c, e, a
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Q46. (1) Brother (2) Husband (3) Father (4) Son (5) Son -in- law
(a) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 (b) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 (c) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
Q47. Which of the following states the relationship between Sociology, psychology and Humanities?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q48. In the following figure, which member represents the women doctor who are not employed
9 Women
6 1 5
Employed
3 2 4
7
8 Doctors
(a) 7 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 8
Q49. In Venn diagram the rectangle represents WOMEN, the pentagon represents ENTREPRENEURS and the triangle
represents MOTHERS. The numbers given in the diagram represents number of persons in that category?
50
74
41 48 21 46
How many WOMEN are ENTREPRENEURS but not MOTHER

(a) 21 (b) 74 (c) 50 (d) 46
Q50. Select the Venn diagram which best represents relationship among the given three classes? MALE, FATHER, BROTHER
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(a) (b) (c) (d)
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PART–II : ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS
Q51. A fruit seller has a certain number of apples of which 5% are rotten. He sells 75% of the remainder and he is left with 190
apples. What was the initial number of apples with fruit seller?
(a) 1000 (b) 900 (c) 800 (d) 700
Q52. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 13 is subtracted from each, the new number are in the ratio of 10 : 21. If 15 is added to
each of the original number then the ratio becomes?
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 23 : 33 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 24 : 35
Q53. Ramesh marks his goods 30% above cost price. If he sells the item for 910/- after allowing a discount of 15% find his cost
price?
(a) 823.5 (b) 758 (c) 814.2 (d) 856.5
Q54. 'A' does 30% of a work in 30 days. He then call 'B' and they together finish the remaining work in 20 days. How long B
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alone world take to do the whole work?
(a) 40 (b) 80 (c) 120 (d) 160
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Q55. If for two real constant a and b, the expression ax3 + 3x2 – 8x + b is exactly divisible by (x + 2) and (x – 2), then?
(a) a = 2, b = 12 (b) a = 12, b = 2 (c) a = 2, b = –12 (d) a = –2, b = 12
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Q56. If the diameter of a wire is decreased by 10%, by how much percent (approx) will the length be increased to keep the vol
constant?
(a) 5% (b) 17% (c) 20% (d) 23%
(a) 55m (b) 110m

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Q57. The ratio of the outer and inner perimeters of a circular path is 23 : 22. If the path is 5m wide, the diameter of the inner
circle is?
(c) 220m (d) 230m
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Q58. In statistics, a suitable graph for representing the partitioning of total into subpart is?
(a) An ogive (b) a pictograph (c) a histogram (d) a pie chart
Q59. The sum of twice a number and thrice its reciprocal is 25/2. What is the number?
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(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 4
Q60. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 and their LCM is 4200. Their HCF is?
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(a) 70 (b) 60 (c) 20 (d) 15
Q61. Find the value of 2.8 + (5.2 ÷ 1.3 × 2) – 6 × 3 ÷ 8 + 2?

(a) 6.45 (b) 4.55 (c) 8.45 (d) 10.55
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x –x+12
Q62. If x = 2 +√3 , then the value of x2 + x + 1 is ?
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2 3 4 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 5 5
Q63. On a journey across Mumbai, a taxi average 25 km per hr for 50% of the distance, 20 km pr hr for 40% of it and 10 km per
hr for remaining. The average speed in (km/hr) for the complete journey is?
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(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 20 (d) 22.5
Q64. Find the wrong number in the sequence 5, 10, 17, 26, 38, 50, 65
(a) 10 (b) 26 (c) 38 (d) 65
Q65. If x + y + z = 3 and x2 + y2 + z2 = 101, then what is the value of √x³ + y³ + z³ – 3xyz

(a) 28 (b) 26 (c) 24 (d) 21
Q66. In a class of 60 students, 40% are girls. The average weight of the whole class is 59.2 and the average weight of the girls is
55 kg. What is the average weight of the boys?
(a) 61 Kg (b) 62 Kg (c) 63 Kg (d) 64 Kg
Q67. The ratio of age of two boys is 5 : 6, after two years the ratio will be 7 : 8. The ratio of their age after 12 yrs will be?
21 15 17 11
(a) (b) (c) (d)
22 16 18 12
Q68. A canister holds 36 Ltr of mixture of milk and water in a ratio 3 : 1. 15 Ltr of milk is added to the canister. The new ratio
of the mixture is ?
(a) 12 : 5 (b) 14 : 3 (c) 7 : 4 (d) 9 : 4
Q69. The sum of two positive numbers is 20% of the sum of their square and 25% of the difference of their squares. If the
numbers are x & y then x + y is equal to ?
x²
1 3 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 8 3 9
Q70. The top of two poles of height 24m and 36m are connected by a wire. If the wire makes an angle of 60˚ with the horizontal,
then the length of the wire is?
(a) 6m (b) 8m (c) 8√3 m (d) 3√3 m
Q71. If the opposite sides of a quadrilateral and also its diagonal are equal, then each of the angles of quadrilateral is?
(a) 90º (b) 105º (c) 120º (d) 60º
Q72. Find length of the arc whose central angle is 45º and radius of the circle is 28 cm?
(a) 11 (b) 22 (c) 33 (d) 44
Q73. In a farm there are cows and hens. If heads are counted they are 180, if legs are counted they are 420. The number of cows
in the farm is?
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(a) 150 (b) 130 (c) 50 (d) 30
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Q74. 114 sweets are distributed among 20 children such that each girl gets 6 sweets and each boy gets 5 sweets. The number of
boy is?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
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Q75. If a sum of money on compound interest becomes three times in 4 years, then at the same interest rate, the sum will become
27 times in?
(a) 100 (b) 150

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Q76. Simple interest on a sum for 10 years is equal to 5% of the principle. In how many years interest will be equal to the
principle?
(c) 200 (d) 250
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Q77. The sum of three consecutive integers is 81. The middle one is?
(a) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (d) 27
Q78. The sum of two numbers is 1215 and their HCF is 81. How many such pairs of numbers can be formed?
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(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) None of the above

Q79. If √y = √4 – √6 then find the value of (y – 20y + 12)?
2
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(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12

Q80. The average of prime numbers between 1 and 30 is?
3 7 9 7
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 12 (d) 12
7 9 10 9
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Q81. A man covered a certain distance by a train running at the speed of 50 km/h and covers the same distance by walking
back at the speed of 5 Km/h. If the whole journey took 5 hr and 30 min. then what was the distance (in Km) of one side?
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(a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 30
Q82. A certain number of men complete a work n 60 days. If there are 8 more men, the work can be finished in 10 days less. The
number of men originally is?
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(a) 30 (b) 32 (c) 36 (d) 40

Directions: The following pie chart shows the expenditure (in percentage) of five companies P, Q, R, S and T in one year 2020?
T 20% P 24%
Total expenditure – 48Cr S 16%
22%
R
Q
18%
Q83. What was the total expenditure in (Rs Cr) of the company Q, R & T together?
(a) 19.2 (b) 28.8 (c) 24.3 (d) 31.4
Q84. By how much percent expenditure of company Q & R together is greater than that of company P?
(a) 33.33% (b) 60% (c) 66.67% (d) 75%
Q85. Two chords, AB and CD of a circle meet at a point O, outside the circle. It is given that AB = 7 cm, CD = 4 cm, OB = 5 cm.
What is length of OD?
(a) 5 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 7.5 cm (d) 10 cm
Q86. The curved surface area of a cylinder is 594 cm² and its vol is 1336.5 cm³. What is the height (in cm) of the cylinder?
(a) 114 (b) 21 (c) 24.5 (d) 10.5
Q87. Dinesh can row at 18 Km/h in still water. If speed of stream is 6 Km/h, then how long will Dinesh take to row upto a
distance of 6km and return to the starting point?
(a) 40 Min (b) 45 Min (c) 50 Min (d) 52 Min
3
Q88. If cos θ =
, then the value of sin θ is ?
5
2 4 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) can not be determined
5 5 3
Q89. If 3√5 + √125 = 17.88, then what will be the value of √80 + 6√5 ?
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(a) 13.41 (b) 20.46 (c) 21.66 (d) 22.35
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2
Q90. Water contains 14 % of hydrogen and the rest is oxygen. In 350g of water, oxygen will be?
7
(a) 300 (b) 250 (c) 200 (d) None of the above
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Q91. The area of smallest square which can be formed with rectangle of dimension 6 cm × 4 cm, is?
(a) 16 cm2 (b) 24 cm2 (c) 36 cm2 (d) 144 cm2
Q92. The mean proportion between (8 + √15 ) and (32 – 4√15 ) is?
(a) 14 (b) 13 (c) 12 (d) 11
Q93. If AB is parallel to HG, what is the value of a ?

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E
40º 6a – 5
A C F B
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10a + 5 D
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H G
(a) 15 (b) 2.5 (c) 7.5 (d) 9.5
Q94. A well is dug 20 m and it has a diameter of 7m. The earth taken out is spread as a regular plot 22 m× 14m dimension, then
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height of the platform formed is?

(a) 2.1 m (b) 2.5 m (c) 2.9 m (d) 3.5 m
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θ 2θ
Q95. If tan ( ) tan ( ) = 1. What is the value of (in degree) θ?
2 5
(a) 45º (b) 90º (c) 100º (d) 120º
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2 3 1
Q96. If x (3 –)= then the value of x2 + is
x x x²
1 4 1 4
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 3
9 9 9 9
Q97. The efficiencies of A, B and C are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2 working together, they can complete a task in 21 hours. In how many
hours will B alone complete 40% of that task?
(a) 28 (b) 24 (c) 21 (d) 35
Q98. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. The ratio of the speed of the boat in still
water and that of the current is?
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 3 : 1
1
Q99. Find the value of x? Log x √3 =
4
(a) 9 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
Q100. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(a) log1010 = 1 (b) log (2+3) = log (2×3)
(c) log101 = 0 (d) log (1+2+3) = log1 + log2 + log3
ANSWERS ARE BOLD
PAPER–2: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & ENGLISH A1

n
with Black ball pen.
y.i
5. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer and 0.33 mark will be deducted.
There will be no penalty for questions left unanswered.
m
rough work.
7.
8.
separately and a minimum of 50% aggregate in total.
This question paper contains 20 number of pages.
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Paper 2 has part I & Part II. To be eligible to qualify, candidate must obtain minimum 40% marks each in Part I & II
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Q1. Which is the first Asian Country to join NATO’s cyber defence group?
(a) India (b) South Korea (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh
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Q2. Which country has opened its Infinity Bridge for traffic for the first time?
(a) Dubai (United Arab Emirates (b) Zurich (Switzerland)
(c) Beijing (China) (d) Paris (France)
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Q3. The South Indian State which was famous for its Naval power, was?
(a) Chalukyas (b) Cholas (c) Hoysalas (d) Pandyas
Q4. Which among the following was the first Governor General of Bengal?
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(a) Rober Clive (b) William Bentinck (c) Marquis Wellesley (d) Warren Hastings
Q5. Which country has submitted an application to become a member in the group of emerging economies known as the
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BRICS?
(a) Iran (b) Argentina (c) Iraq (d) a and b
Q6. Which of the following country has hosted the 5th BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and
Economic Cooperation)?
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(a) Myanmar (b) Thailand (c) Sri Lanka (d) India
Q7. Bariatric surgery makes changes to a person’s?

(a) Heart (b) Lungs (c) Nasal passage (d) Digestive system
Q8. Who is not the recipient of the highest French Civilian Award of the ‘Knight of Legion’?
(a) Lata Mangeshkar (b) Satyajit Ray (c) Kishore Kumar (d) Amitabh Bachhan
Q9. Which of the following is not a process of chemical weathering?

(a) Solution (b) Carbonation (c) Oxidation (d) Exfoliation
Q10. High Altitude Warfare School of Indian Army is located at?

(a) Gulmarg (b) Siachen (c) Leh (d) Manali
Q11. By which name/ names is our country mentioned in the constitution?

(a) India and Bharat (b) India and Hindustan (c) Bharat only (d) India, Bharat and Hindustan
Q12. ‘MOV’ extension refers usually to what kind of file?

(a) Image file (b) Animation file (c) Audio file (d) MS Office document MS Office
Q13. The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on which of the following?
(a) Parliamentary Commissioner of UK (b) Ombudsman of Scandinavia
(c) Procurator General of Russia (d) Council of State in France
Q14. Which among the following is an OTT based platform?

(a) Twitter (b) Hotstar (c) Facebook (d) WhatsApp
Q15. Which of the following Chief Justices of India acted as the President of India?
(a) Justice M Hidayatullah (b) Justice PN Bhagwati
(c) Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan (d) Justice BK Mukherjee
Q16. Which country accepted the policy of dual citizenship?

(a) India (b) Canada (c) Australia (d) USA
Q17. In India the President is elected by?

(a) Direct Election (b) Single transferable vote
(c) Proportional Representation System (d) Open Ballot System
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Q18. Yarlung Tsangpo river in India is known as?
(a) Ganga (b) Indus (c) Brahmaputra (d) Mahanadi
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Q19. Which part of Ukraine was invaded and occupied by Russia since 2014?
(a) Donbas (b) Crimea (c) Siberia (d) Glacia
Q20. The main reasons for significance of the South China Sea region are fishing and
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(a) oil (b) oil and gas (c) trade route (d) oil and gas and trade route
Q21. Who is the highest civil servant of the Union Government?

(a) Attorney General
Q22. Japan’s parliament is known as?

(b) Home Secretary
(a) Diet (b) Dail (c) Yuan (d) Shora

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(c) Principal Secretary to the PM (d) Cabinet Secretary
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Q23. Who is competent to dissolve Rajya Sabha?
(a) The Chairman Rajya Sabha (b) The President
(c) The Joint Session of Parliament (d) None
Q24. What could be the maximum time limit of zero hour?

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(a) 30 minutes (b) 1 hour (c) 2 hour (d) Infinite period
Q25. The Speaker’s vote in the Lok Sabha is called?

(a) Casting Vote (b) Sound Vote (c) Direct Vote (d) Indirect Vote
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Q26. The system of judicial review exists in ?

(a) India only (b) UK only (c) USA only (d) India and USA
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Q27. Which country is currently the largest producer of “Uranium”?

(a) Canada (b) Brazil (c) Australia (d) Kazakhstan
Q28. What is the motto of Territorial Army (India)?

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(a) Valour and Courage (b) Valour and Wisdom (c) Vigilance and Valour (d) Valour and Duty
Q29. Who presides over the National Development Council of India?

(a) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission of India (b) Prime Minister of India
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(c) Finance Minister of India (d) Vice President of India
Q30. Which is the ‘Hot Spot’ for biological diversity of India?

(a) Western Ghats (b) Sunderbans (c) Chilka Lagoon (d) Eastern Ghats
Q31. Which one of the following is an abiotic and renewable resource?
(a) Iron ore (b) Livestock (c) Water (d) Forests
Q32. The nodal agency for implementing the ‘Rural Infrastructure Development Fund Programs’ is?
(a) NABARD (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) State Bank of India (d) State Cooperative Bank
Q33. ‘National Rural Health Mission’ was launched in the year .................. ?
(a) 2003 (b) 2004 (c) 2005 (d) 2006
Q34. ‘Mission Indradhanush’ is related to ..............?

(a) Bullet train project (b) Agricultural development
(c) Women empowerment (d) Full Immunization
Q35. Commercial paper is the source of credit for which one of the following?
(a) Corporate industry (b) Small scale industries (c) Commercial Bank (d) Foreign bank
Q36. ‘Inside trading’ is related to?
(a) Share market (b) Horse racing (c) Taxation (d) International trade
Q37. One degree of the circumference of the Earth measures?

(a) 100 (b) 111 (c) 151 (d) 175
Q38. Which one of the following is a minor plate?

(a) Cocos plate (b) Nazca plate (c) Caroline plate (d) Antarctic plate
Q39. Which mountains separate Asia from Europe?

(a) Himalayas (b) Andes (c) Urals (d) Rocky
Q40. Major source of oceanic salinity is?

(a) Rivers (b) Wind (c) Land (d) Ash from volcanoes
Q41. Kyoto Protocol is the first commitment started in 2008 and ended in?
(a) 2010 (b) 2011 (c) 2012 (d) 2013
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Q42. Distance of stars is measured in?
(a) Galactic Units (b) Seller Mile (c) Cosmic Kilometre (d) Light Year
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Q43. Filament in electric bulb is made of?
(a) Nichrome (b) Tungsten (c) Lead (d) Aluminium
Q44. Which of the following tissue helps in keeping the body warm?
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(a) Sweat gland (b) Connective tissue (c) Fatty tissue (d) Hair
Q45. Which of the following is not caused by viruses?

(a) Cholera (b) Chicken Pox (c) Hepatitis (d) Measles
(b) Columbia lar

Q46. The world’s highest ground based telescopic observatory is located in?
(a) India (c) Nepal
Q47. Who amongst the following is a renowned Indian Classical dance?

(d) Switzerland
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(a) Palghat Mani Iyer (b) Siddheshwari Devi (c) Sonal Man Singh (d) Madhumati
Q48. The International Court Justice is located at?

(a) Geneva (b) Hague (c) Amsterdam (d) Vienna
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Q49. Who is the first Indian women amputee to climb the Mt. Everest?
(a) Bachendri Pal (b) Arunima Sinha (c) Santosh Yadav (d) Premlata Agarwal
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Q50. Velodrome is related to which sport?

(a) Tennis (b) Cycling (c) Fencing (d) Boxing
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PART–II : ENGLISH
Directions Each question below consists of a word in capital letters followed by four words or group of words. Select the
word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the words in capital letters.
Q51. COUNTERVAILING
(a) argumentative (b) compensating (c) crying (d) complaining
Q52. INNOCUOUS
(a) abominable (b) harmless (c) harmful (d) useless
Q53. ELUCIDATE
(a) clarify (b) calculate (c) summarise (d) update
Q54. INCENSED?
(a) enthused (b) enraged (c) inflamed (d) excited
Q55. MUNIFICENT
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(a) well to do (b) generous (c) respectable (d) learned
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word or group of words that is opposite in meaning to the words in capital letters.
Q56. SLAPDASH
(a) careful (b) violent (c) pervasive (d) scarce
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Q57. ACERBIC
(a) the accused (b) polite (c) unpleasant (d) improbable
Q58. REPUDIATE
(a) prefer
Q59. ASSENT
(a) breakdown
(b) unite
(b) misunderstand
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(c) explain
(c) dispatch
(d) accept
(d) disagreement
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Q60. RANCOUR
(a) animosity (b) harmony (c) devotion (d) enmity
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Directions D: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:-
Most interesting visitor comes at night, when the lights are still burning – a tiny bat who prefers to fly in through the open door,
and will use the window only if there is no alternative. His object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster
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around the lamps. All the bats I have seen fly fairly high, keeping near the ceiling; but this particular bat flies in low, like a dive
bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under tables. Once he passed straight between my legs. Has his radar gone wrong,
I wondered, or is he just plain crazy?
Q61. Consider the following statements.

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1. The tiny bat flew in low like a dive bomber.

2. The tiny bat like all bats keeps near the ceiling.
3. It has lost direction because its radar has gone wrong.
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4. It wants to entertain the author with skill in flying.

Which of the above statements may be assumed to be true from the information given in the passage?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
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Q62. The bat entered the room

(a) Because there were no alternatives.
(b) To eat the moths around the lamps.
(c) As it had gone mad.
(d) As it preferred to fly in through the open door.
Q63. After comparing the habits of the tiny bat with those of the other bats, the author was
(a) Sure that this bat had lost its direction.
(b) Not sure about its preferences.
(c) Surprised to find that it was an expert flier.
(d) Unable to give the correct explanation for its behaviour.
Q64. The author calls the tiny bat an “interesting visitor”. This means
(a) The bat visits him at night.
(b) The bat is interested in the moths.
(c) The bat has peculiar qualities.
(d) This bat surprised in by zooming in and out like a dive bomber.
Q65. What according to you, can be the most suitable title for the passage
(a) Someone visits me. (b) Night of mysteries. (c) My nocturnal visitor. (d) A funny visitor.
Directions : In the following questions, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange
theses parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your
answer sheet accordingly.
Q66. Physical training

P: the character of
Q: who are going to be responsible citizens
R: can shape well
S: young boys and girls
Which of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) RPSQ (b) QSPR (c) RSPQ (d) QPSR
Q67. The old lady

P: wanted to sell her precious table
Q: having the capacity to pay a huge amount as its price
R: to someone
S: with gold coated legs and glossy surface
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(a) QSRP (b) PRSQ (c) QRSP (d) PSRQ
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Q68. P: to cross the broken bridge
Q: not knowing how
R: to wade through the river
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S: they decided
(a) PQRS (b) RSQP (c) SRPQ (d) QPSR
Q69. Some educationists

P: should not be exposed to
Q: believe that
R: young children
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S: too much television viewing
(a) RSPQ (b) QPRS (c) QRPS (d) PQRS
Directions : Each question in this section has three underlined parts (a), (b) and (c). Find out whether there is any error in the
to
underlined part and mark your responses accordingly.
Q70. Everybody, it must be admitted, has their ups and downs, no error
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(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q71. Oh for God sake, leave me along, and go away from here, no error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Q72. My neighbour Deepak, is a person, that will help anyone, no error

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Q73. Please convey, my best wishes, back to your parents, no error

(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q74. No news, is, good news, no error

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Directions : Look at the underlined a part of each sentence. Below each sentence, three possible situations for the underlined
part are given. Indicate your responses accordingly.
Q75. The passengers have formed queue at the booking counter much before a train arrives.
(a) formed (b) have been forming (c) form (d) No improvement
Q76. The poor villagers have waited in bitter cold for more than four hours now.
(a) have been waiting (b) had waited (c) has been waiting (d) No improvement
Q77. Her sister is a nurse and she intends to be one too.

(a) this is the profession she intends (b) her intention is the same profession
(c) she intending to be nurse too (d) No improvement
Q78. Those men as are false to their friends should be avoided.

(a) the men (b) such men (c) men (d) No improvement
Q79. Even she had taken a taxi, she would have been late.
(a) even if she had (b) although she had (c) as if she had (d) No improvement
Directions : Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the most appropriate
word from the option.
Q80. These trousers are too long, _________ the length please.
(a) diminish (b) lessen (c) curtail (d) reduce
Q81. “What did you think of the film?” “_________ I didn’t like it very much.”
(a) To be honest (b) Being honest (c) To be fair (d) In honesty
Q82. _________ if he is willing to fit in with the plans of the group.

(a) There is no objection to him joining the party
(b) There is no objection on his joining the party
(c) There is no objection to his joining the party
(d) There was no objection to him joining the party
Q83. After they _________ lunch, the boys ran outside.

(a) have eaten (b) had eaten (c) were eating (d) would eat
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Q84. The mounting pressure was so over whelming that he ultimately _________ to her wish.
(a) yielded in (b) gave in (c) cowed in (d) agreed in
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Directions : In each of the following one word is spelt incorrectly. Select the world with the incorrect spelling.
Q85. (a) Acceptable (b) Acheieve (c) Acknowledge (d) Accommodation
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Q86. (a) Acquited (b) Accepted (c) Recruited (d) Debuted
Q87. (a) Liason (b) Luscious (c) Ludicrous (d) Licence

Q88. (a) Behaviour
Q89. (a) Collate

(b) Munificent
(b) Collaegue lar

(c) Rampant
(c) Collision
Directions : Choose appropriate meaning of the idioms from the choices given.
(d) Caleneder
(d) Collide
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Q90. To read between lines
(a) To suspect. (b) To read carefully.
(c) To understand meaning. (d) To do useless thing.
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Q91. To meet one’s waterloo

(a) To meet a strong adversary. (b) To meet with humiliation.
(c) To die fighting. (d) To meet one’s final defeat.
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Q92. To move heaven and earth

(a) To cause and earthquake. (b) To try everything possible.
(c) To pray to all Gods. (d) To travel in a rocket.
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Q93. To keep the pot boiling

(a) To maintain interest. (b) To heat. (c) To show anger. (d) To do experiments.
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Directions : Choose the appropriate word which best describes the sentence.
Q94. Habitually silent or taking time

(a) Servile (b) Unequivocal (c) Taciturn (d) Synoptic
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Q95. Stage between boyhood and youth

(a) Puberty (b) Adolescence (c) Infancy (d) Maturity
Q96. One who does not believe in existence of God

(a) Egoist (b) Atheist (c) Stoic (d) Naive
Q97. Policeman riding on motorcycles as guards to a VIP
(a) Commandos (b) Attendants (c) Servants (d) Outriders
Directions : Read each sentence and find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error if any, will
be in one part of the sentence. The alphabet corresponding to that part is your answer.
Q98. Why are (A)/ Ramit not (B)/ cooking (C)/ food today? (D)
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Q99. She did not (A)/ opened the (B)/ door because she (C)/ was washing her hair? (D).
(a) B (b) A (c) D (d) C
Q100. By tomorrow evening (A)/ my uncle Ravi, (B)/ would reach (C)/ the United States (D).
(a) B (b) A (c) D (d) C
ALL ANSWERS ARE BOLD

TERRITORIAL ARMY COMMISSION : DECEMBER 2022
PAPER–2: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & ENGLISH C

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with Black ball pen only.
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rough work.
7.
8.
separately and a minimum of 50% aggregate in total.
This question paper contains 20 number of pages.
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Paper 2 has part I & Part II. To be eligible to qualify, candidate must obtain minimum 40% marks each in PartI & II
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Q1. The word ‘vaccination’ has been derived from a Latin word which relates to?
(a) Pig (b) Horse (c) Cow (d) Dog
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Q2. Prince of Wales Cup is associated with the game of?

(a) Hockey (b) Golf (c) Sailing (d) Rowing
Q3. Who was the first Indian Commander in Chief (C-in- C) of the Indian Army?
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(a) Gen KM Cariappa (b) Gen Maharaja Rajendra Singhji

(c) Gen Bipin Rawat (d) Gen Anil Chauhan
Q4. Which racing Driver won the Formula One Monaco Grand Prix 2022 title?
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(a) Charles Leclerc (b) Lewis Hamilton (c) Sergio Perez (d) Sebastian Vettel
Q5. Which City is the Headquarters the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)?
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(a) Vienna (b) Tehran (c) Moscow (d) Riyadh
Q6. For the first time, a Weapon System Branch for Officers has been approved for which Armed Force in India?
(a) Indian Army (b) Indian Navy (c) Indian Coast Guard (d) Indian Air Force
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Q7. Which neighbouring country of India has been removed from FATF Grey List?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Nepal (c) Pakistan (d) Myanmar
Q8. As of 2022, which country is the largest lender to Sri Lanka? 2022
(a) China (b) USA (c) Australia (d) India
Q9. Which country has partnered with China for its Moon Exploration Missions in 2022?
(a) Pakistan (b) Bangladesh (c) UAE (d) Iran
Q10. Viva Engage is a new application of which tech major?

(a) Meta (b) Amazon (c) Microsoft (d) Google
Q11. Which country’s ‘Artificial Sun’ project set a New World Record in Nuclear Fusion reaction of more than 17 minutes in Jan
2022?
(a) Russia (b) USA (c) China (d) Brazil
Q12. The first city in India to have Water Metro Project is

(a) Kolkata (b) Kochi (c) Chennai (d) Mumbai
Q13. Murree is a popular Hill Station of which country?

(a) Sri Lanka (b) Nepal (c) Bhutan (d) None of above
Q14. What is the name of the first indigenously developed microprocessor of India?
(a) Shiv (b) Shakti (c) Bharat (d) Aakash
Q15. How many countries are part of the Schengen Area in EU?
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 26 (d) 32
Q16. Durgavati Tiger Reserve is located in which state?

(a) Bihar (b) Rajasthan (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Kerala
Q17. India approved a deal with which country for providing AK 203 Rifles?
(a) France (b) Kazakhstan (c) Tajikistan (d) None of above
Q18. What was the position of India in 2022 Commonwealth Games?

(a) 3rd (b) 4th (c) 5th (d) 7th
Q19. Which country announced a plan to send a probe to land on an asteroid between Mars and Jupiter?
(a) Israel (b) India (c) China (d) UAE
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Q20. Which company has launched the technology named ‘UFill?
(a) Indian Oil (b) NTPC (c) BPCL (d) TATA Power
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Q21. My Parkings’ is an app launched to book parking slots by which state / UT?
(a) Delhi (b) Rajasthan (c) UP (d) Chandigarh
Q22. The Challenge’ the world’s first movie in space, is being made by which country?
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(a) Russia (b) USA (c) China (d) UK
Q23. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with it’s amendment?
(a) Part VIII (b) Part X (c) Part XIX (d) Part XX
(b) HTTP lar

Q24. Which of these protocol is used to login into a remote computer?
(a) IMAP (c) SMTP
Q25. Which of the following money transfer system involves a waiting period?
(d) Telnet
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(a) RTGS (b) IMPS (c) NEFT (d) All of the above
Q26. The Treaty of Amritsar was concluded between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and who of the following?
(a) Lords Cornwallis (b) Lord Dalhousie (c) Lord Hastings (d) Lord Minto
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Q27. A Forgotten Empire’ written by renowned historian Robert Sewell is about one of the following empires?
(a) Kushan Empire (b) Mauryan Empires (c) Vijaynagar Empire (d) Mughal Empire
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Q28. The Russian revolutionaries derived their ideology from the doctrines of ?
(a) Lenin and Stalin (b) Marx and Lenin (c) Marx and Engels (d) Lenin and Engels
Q29. Which one among the following Indus valley cities was known for water management?
(a) Lothal (b) Mohenjo-Daro (c) Harappa (d) Dholavira
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Q30. Which chemical was an important symbol of our freedom struggle?

(a) Magnesium Chloride (b) Potassium Chloride (c) Sodium Flounde (d) Sodium Chloride
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Q31. In scuba diving, while ascending towards the water surface there is a danger of bursting the lungs. This is because of
(a) Archimedes’ Principle (b) Boyle’s Law
(c) Gay- Lussacs Law of Combining Volumes (d) Graham’s law of Diffusion
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Q32. Which type/types of pen use/uses capillary action in addition to gravity for flow of
(a) Fountain Pen (b) Ballpoint
(c) Gel pen (d) Both Ballpoint & Gel Pen
Q33. Magnetic, electrostatic and gravitational forces come under the category of?
(a) non-contact forces (b) contact forces (c) frictional forces (d) non-frictional forces
Q34. In which of the following is the percentage of carbon higher?

(a) Rann of Kutch (b) Arabian Sea (c) Gulf of Cambay (d) Lake Sambhar
Q35. Which country among the following has the largest cultivated area of cotton in the world?
(a) Egypt (b) India (c) Pakistan (d) USA
Q36. The boundary between North Korea and South Korea is marked by which one of the following?
(a) 16th Parallel (b) 29th Parallel (c) 38th Parallel (d) 49th Parallel
Q37. In which of the following is the percentage of carbon higher?

(a) Lignite Coal (b) Peat Coal (c) Bituminous Coal (d) Anthracite Coal
Q38. What is the name of the Strait where the Adam’s Bridge is situated?
(a) Bering Strait (b) Cook Strait (c) Palk Strait (d) Taiwan Strait
Q39. Which one of the following is the secondary source of light in a fluorescent lamp?
(a) Argon gas (b) Neon gas (c) Mercury vapour (d) Fluorescent coating
Q40. Which one of the following is the strong smelling agent added to LPG cylinder to help the detection of gas leakage?
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethyl Mercaptan (c) Methane (d) Chloroform
Q41. Which one amongst the following would expand the most on being heated?
(a) Water (b) Alcohol (c) Glass (d) Air
Q42. Which one of the following causes the Chikungunya disease?

(a) Bacteria (b) Helminthic worm (c) Protozoan (d) Virus
Q43. Which one of the following glands in the human body stores iodine?
(a) Parathyroid (b) Thyroid (c) Pituitary (d) Adrenal
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Q44. Which of the following nutrients is not a structural component of the plant?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Calcium (c) Phosphorous (d) Potassium
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Q45. Which one of the following plants are preferred for mixed cropping in order to enhance the bio availability of nitrogen?
(a) Wheat (b) Gram (c) Maize (d) Barley
Q46. “Golden Handshake Scheme” in India is a term related to?
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(a) Voluntary Retirement (b) Indian Gold Dealers
(c) Foreign Gold Dealers in India (d) Foreign Gold Dealers in India
Q47. The concept of ‘Vicious Circle of Poverty is related to?

(a) Karl Marx
Q48. Which one is not a member of the ASEAN?

(a) Cambodia
(b) Nurkse
(b) Malaysia
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(c) Singapore
(d) Engels
(d) South Korea

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Q49. The basis of the European Union began with the signing of?
(a) Maastricht Treaty (b) Treaty of Paris (c) Treaty of Rome (d) Treaty of Lisbon
Q50. Arihant is a ?
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(a) Multi Barrel Rocket Launcher (b) A Regional Command of the Indian Coast Guard
(c) Unarmed Combat Aerial Vehicle (d) Nuclear – Powered Ballistic Missile Submarine
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PART–II : ENGLISH
Directions Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the most appropri
ate word from the options:
Q51. Democracy requires the equal right of all to the development of such capacity for good as nature _____________ has them
with
(a) presented (b) endowed (c) fortfield (d) replenished
Q52. It is no use in crying over _____________.

(a) spoiled milk (b) spirited milk (c) split milk (d) spilt milk
Q53. The country owes a deep debt of _____________ for the freedom fighters.
(a) patriotism (b) sincerity (c) gratitude (d) remembrance
Q54. In this University, there is no _____________ of merit in examination alone for awarding scholarships on the basis
(a) precedence (b) opportunity (c) chance (d) possibility
Q55. The consequences of economic growth have now _____________ to the lowest level.
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(a) drawn (b) slipped (c) percolated (d) crept
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Directions In each of the following one word is spelt incorrectly. Select the word with the incorrect spelling.
Q56. (a) Amorous (b) Amphibious (c) Amorphous (d) Ampitheatre
Q57. (a) Omnivorous (b) Omnipotent (c) Omnicient (d) Omnipresent
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Q58. (a) Indignant (b) Indicment (c) Indoctrinate (d) Incredible
Q59. (a) Retrogade (b) Reminiscent (c) Remembrance (d) Remuneration
Q60. (a) Dialogue (b) Diversionary

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(c) Diagramatic
Directions Choose appropriate meaning of the Idioms from the choices given
(d) Diabetic
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Q61. Between the devil and the deep
(a) In a fix (b) A devil in the sea (c) In a worst situation (d) A compromising situation
Q62. Gird up one’s loins

(a) Get ready for the job (b) Leave bag and baggage
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(c) Hunt for Lions (d) A loincloth
Q63. Wash dirty linen in public

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(a) To criticise (b) Make personal quarrels public

(c) To talk dirty things in public (d) To wash clothes
Q64. Throw up one’s cards

(a) Accept defeat (b) Spoil the cards game
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(c) Throw cards in air (d) Throw away the game
Directions Choose the appropriate word which best describes the sentence
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Q65. Unfair advantages for members of one’s own family

(a) Optimism (b) Plagiarism (c) Nepotism (d) Regionalism
Q66. Signs regarding principles of classification

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(a) Taxidermy (b) Taxonomy (c) Toxicology (d) Classicology
Q67. Flowers fastened in a circle

(a) Vespers (b) Wreath (c) Sonorous (d) Scurry
Q68. Bitter and violent attacks in word or writing

(a) Loquacious (b) Stubborn (c) Diatribe (d) Epicurean
Directions Read each sentence and find out whether there is any grammatical or matic error in it. The error if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The alphabet responding to that part is your answer.
Q69. If I would have arrived (A)/ sooner, would (B)/ not have (C) / missed the train
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Q70. The prospective buyer (A)/ of the house (B)/left the premises because he was asked to pay a (C)/considerable higher price
than he could afford (D).
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Q71. We can’t hardly believe (A)/ that the situation (B)/ is so serious as to (C)/justify such precautions as you have taken (D)
(a) A (b) C (c) B (d) D
Directions Each question below consists of a word in capital letters followed by four words or group of words Select the
word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the words in capital letters.
Q72. ENSCONCE
(a) to promote (b) to surround (c) to settle comfortably (d) to honour
Q73. SPLEEN
(a) surface (b) lustre (c) bad temper (d) smoothness
Q74. PROPRIETY
(a) rightness (b) brand name (c) cultivate land (d) market share
Q75. SLOTHFUL
(a) fraught with risk (b) lazy (c) revengeful (d) lenient
Q76. QUAGMIRE
(a) rugged off (b) lacking in moral (c) quizzical (d) whirlpool
n
word or group of words that is opposite in meaning to the words in capital letters.
y.i
Q77. IGNOMINY
(a) entrance (b) activity (c) eligibility (d) honour
Q78. ABHORRENCE
m
(a) admiration (b) abomination (c) repilsion (d) acceptance
Q79. REJUVENATED
(a) reaffirmed (b) reincarnated (c) exhausted (d) devastated
Q80. DENIGRATE
(a) belittle
Q81. PROBITY
(b) belive lar
(c) doubt (d) praise
ria
(a) dishonesty (b) timidity (c) treachery (d) insincerity
Directions Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow-
It is possible to give wedding presents, birthday and Christmas presents, without any thought of affection at all, they can be
to
ordered by postcard; but the unbirthday present demands the nicest care. It is therefore the best of all, and it is the only kind to
which the golden rule of present-giving imperatively applies - the golden rule which insists that you must never give to another
person anything that you would not rather keep: nothing that does not cost you a pang to part from. It would be better if this
rri
rule governed the choice also of those other three varieties of gifts, but they can be less exacting
Q82. The author says that wedding, birthday and Christmas presents
(a) are always indicators of the giver’s affection. (b) May not always be given with any thought of affection
(c) are given only to flatter the recipient (d) are given only to fulfil an obligation.
te
Q83. They can be ordered by postcard’ means that

(a) the present may only be a postcard (b) the present would be an expensive one
w.
(c) the choice does not involve much care (d) the present would not be worth giving.
Q84. The ‘unbirthday’ present is the best of all because

(a) It cannot be ordered by postcard. (b) It means giving expensive presents
ww
(c) It’s choice needs the utmost care (d) Other occasions are better than birthdays for giving presents
Q85. A golden rule’ is a rule which

(a) brings profit (b) is very important
(c) is very difficult. (d) is very easy
Q86. The writer is of the view that one should give a present that
(a) One would like to possess oneself (b) One would like to get rid off
(c) cannot be ordered by mail (d) is highly expensive and attractive
Directions In the following questions, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these
parts which are labelled PQ, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your answer
sheet accordingly.
Q87. In the post-genetic

P of choice for the entire spectrum of research
Q has acquired the status of the experimental animal or the animal model
R particularly in the last two decades or so the mouse system
S engineering era of modern biology sequence?
Which of the following is the correct
(a) QRSP (b) SPQR (c) QPSR (d) SRQP
Q88 Technology transfer
P from one country to another
Q either through a government policy
R or via private channels of communications
S implies the transfer of technical knowledge
(a) SPRQ (b) PSQR (c) SPQR (d) PSRQ
Q89. How strange that a refugee

P: should fall in love
Q: when he had got to America
R: with a girl less than half his age
S: who had by the skin of his teeth escaped death in Germany
(a) RQPS (b) SPRQ (c) RPQS (d) SQPR
Q90. Reuters reports that soldiers
n
P fought each other in the streets of the capital today
Q cracked down on demonstrators
y.i
R: of armies loyal to rival political factions
S: following the week-end military
(a) RPSQ (b) QSPR (c) RSPQ (d) QPSR
m
Directions Each question in this section has three underlined parts (a), (b) and (c). Find out whether there is any error in the
underlined part and mark your responses accordingly
Q91. As an Officer
(a)
Q92. Radar equipments

he not only was competent
(b)
that is to be used
lar but also honest.
(c)
for ships must be installed carefully

no error
(d)
no error
ria
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Q93. Neither of these two documents support your claim. on the property. no error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
to
Q94. The boy’s parents pleaded with the Principal, that they were too poor
(a) (b)
to pay his tuition fee no error

rri
(c) (d)
Q95. His friends feel that. he will be suspended.

(a) (b)
te
unless he does not report for duty immediately no error

(c) (d)
w.
Directions Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the underlined
part are given. Indicate your responses accordingly
Q96. Unless you do not work hard, you won’t succeed in life.
ww
cannot work hard (b) will not work hard (c) work hard (d) no improvement
Q97. The police investigated into the matter

(a) with the matter (b) the matter (c) at the matter (d) No improvement
Q98. As you look across the street, lighted windows can be seen.
(a) You saw lighted windows (b) Lighted windows may be seen.
(c) You can see lighted (d) No improvement windows.
Q99. We need honest workers, not people of redoubtable integrity.

(a) doubting (b) doubtful (c) doubtless (d) No improvement
Q100. The executive council is consisted of ten members.

(a) consists of (b) comprises of (c) constituted of (d) No improvement
ANSWERS ARE BOLD

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PRELIMINARY INTERVIEW BOARD

TERRITORIAL ARMY COMMISSION : 28 JULY 2019

1. Paper 1 has two parts: Part I & Part II

Q1. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ___, 17

(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15

Q2. 23, 48, 99, 203, 413 ___

Q3. 225, 336, 447, 558, ___ 7710

Q4. ABC, CAE, EZG, ___ , LXK

(a) HUL (b) FAH (c) GYI (d) FYH

Q5. ___ ___ G ___ C ___ G K ___ P G ___

(a) K C P C P K (b) C P K P C K (c) P K C P K P (d) C P P K C P

Q6. Menu : Food : : Catalogue : ?

Direction Choose the odd one out in question 8 to 11.

Q8. Find the odd one out.

Q9. Find the odd one out.

Q10. Find the odd one out.

Q12. If √AFI : 13 : : √DDA : ?

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 17

(a) 5279431 (b) 5978213 (c) 8251896 (d) 8543691

Q23. If ACNE can be coded as 3-7-29-11, then BOIL will be coded as ?

Q25. If × means –, + means ÷ , - means × and ÷ means + than

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q33. Find out the next ﬁgure

Q34. Find out the next ﬁgure

(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q35. Find out the next ﬁgure

Q36. What number must be added to 6, 16 and 8 to get an average of 13?

Q38. Find the pair where relationship does not exist?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q40. Which diagram depicts the correct relationship?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q42. How many maximum squares are in the following ﬁgure?

(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 13 (d) 14

Q43. Count the number of rectangles in the ﬁgure.

(a) 8 (b) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18

Q46. Find the missing number.

Q48. Fill up the missing letter and number.

(a) L10 (b) K15 (c) J15 (d) K8

Q49. Fill up the missing number.

(a) 937 (b) 824 (c) 769 (d) 678

Q50. From a meaningful word and answer as per given code.

(a) 5 4 3 6 7 8 2 1 (b) 5 4 8 2 6 7 3 1 (c) 5 4 8 6 2 7 3 1 (d) 5 4 8 6 2 7 1 3

(a) 9 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 4

Q60. Find the square root of

0.324 × 0.64 × 129.6

Q61. The duplicate ratio of 2√2 : 3√5 is?

Q62. Find out the value of x if logx 4 + logx 16 + logx 64 = 12

Then what is (a2 –b2) : (a2 + b2) equal to

Q64. Find the value of x and y in the equation

(a) ` 262 (b) ` 270 (c) ` 320 (d) ` 258

Q83. Find the value of x in the given ﬁgure where PA is parallel to QC

(a) 75° (b) 185° (c) 285° (d) 245°

Q89. What is the value of

Q91. Find the value of .

(a) 0 (b) –1 (c) –3 (d) 2

(a) 10 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 8 cm

ANSWERS ARE BOLD

1. Paper 2 has two parts: Part I & Part II

(a) Part I : General Knowledge (50 marks)

(b) Part II: English (50 marks)

Q5. _ _ G _ C _ G K _ P G _

Q5. _ _ G _ C _ G K _ P G _