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AnsSol JEEMain 2023 PH 2-06-04 2023 Evening Paper
AnsSol JEEMain 2023 PH 2-06-04 2023 Evening Paper
Evening
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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.
(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out
of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks
for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be
-1-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - A 2023 = 172 × 7
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 m = 17, n = 7
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices m2 – n2 = 289 – 49
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. = 240
Choose the correct answer: 3. In a group of 100 persons 75 speak English and 40
speak Hindi. Each person speaks at least one of the
1 1 1 1 1 1
2 two languages. If the number of persons who speak
1. lim 2 − 2 3 2 5
2 − 2 ..... 2 − 2 +1 is
2 2 n
n → only English is and the number of persons who
speak only Hindi is , then the eccentricity of the
equal to ellipse 25(2x2 + 2y2) = 22 is
(1) 1 (2) 0
119 117
(1) (2)
1 12 12
(3) 2 (4)
2
3 15 129
(3) (4)
Answer (2) 12 12
1 1 1 1 1 1 Answer (1)
Sol. lim 2 2 − 2 3 2 2 − 2 5 ..... 2 2 − 2 2n +1
n → Sol.
1 1
Since 2 2 − 2 3 1
1 1
22 − 25 1
--------------------
1 1
2 2 − 2 2n+1 1 n Now = 100 – 75 = 25
1 1 1 1 1 1 = 75 – [40 – 25]
lim 2 2 − 2 3 2 2 − 2 5 ..... 2 2 − 2 2n +1 = 60
n →
x2 y2
Now, ellipse 25 + =1
2
=0 (60) 252
2. If gcd (m, n) = 1 and 12 – 22 + 32 – 42 + ….. + (2021)2
x2 y2
– (2022)2 + (2023)2 = 1012m2n then m2 – n2 is equal + =1
36 4 25
to
25 119
(1) 240 (2) 200 e = 1− =
36 4 12
(3) 220 (4) 180
4. Let the vectors a, b, c represent three
Answer (1)
coterminous edges of a parallelopiped of volume V.
Sol. 12 – 22 + 32 – 42 + ….. + (2021)2 – (2022)2 + (2023)2 Then the volume of the parallelopiped, whose
= −3 − 7 − 11 + (2023)2 coterminous edges are represented by a, b + c
1011 times
and a + 2b + 3c is equal to
−1011
= [6 + (1010)4] + (2023)2 (1) 2V (2) 6V
2
(3) V (4) 3V
= 2023(1012) Answer (3)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
Sol. [a, b + c, a + 2b + 3c ]
Sol. I = f ( x ) sin x dx
1 0 0 0
= 0 1 1 [a b c ]
1 2 3 I = f ( − x ) sin x dx
0
= [a b c ]
=V 2I = sin x ( f ( x ) + f ( − x ) ) dx
0
5. If the solution curve f(x, y) = 0 of the differential
dx
equation (1 + loge x ) − x loge x = e y , x > 0, 2I = 2 sin x dx
dy 0
passes through the points (1, 0) and (, 2), then aa
is equal to 2
2I = 22 sin x dx
2e2 e2
(1) e (2) e 0
2 2 I = 2
(3) e 2e (4) e 2e
Answer (1) 7. If the tangents at the points P and Q on the circle
9
dx x 2 + y 2 − 2 x + y = 5 meet at the point R , 2 ,
Sol. (1 + ln x ) − x ln x = e y 4
dy
then the area of the triangle PQR is
Put x ln x = t
5 13
(1 + ln x) dx = dt (1) (2)
4 8
dt
− t = ey 5 13
dy (3) (4)
8 4
− dy
I.F = e
Answer (3)
= e–y
Sol.
t e − y = e y e − y dy + c
t × e–y = y + c
x ln x = y ey + c ey
Put x = 1, y = 0
c=0
Put x = a, y = 2
2
a ln a = 2e2 9 9
L = S1 = + ( 2 ) − 2 + 2 − 5
2
2 4 4
a a = e 2e
5
6. Let f(x) be a function satisfying f ( x ) + f ( − x ) = 2 , =
4
x . Then f ( x ) sin x dx is equal to
3
5 5
0 RL3 2 4
Area = =
2 R 2 + L2 2
5 5
2
(1) (2) 22 2 + 4
4
2 25
(3) 2 (4)
2 5
= 8 =
Answer (3) 4 +1 8
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
8. The area bounded by the curves y = x − 1 + x − 2 10. Let the sets A and B denote the domain and range
and y = 3 is equal to 1
respectively of the function f ( x ) = , where
(1) 4 (2) 6 x − x
(3) 3 (4) 5
x denotes the smallest integer greater than or
Answer (1)
equal to x. Then among the statements
Sol.
( S1) : A B = (1, ) − and
( S2) : A B = (1, )
(1) Only (S2) is true
(2) Only (S1) is true
(3) Neither (S1) nor (S2) is true
1
Area = 1 + 3 2 (4) Both (S1) and (S2) are true
2
Answer (3)
=4
1
1
11
Sol. f ( x ) =
9. If the coefficients of x7 in ax 2 + and x–7 in x − x
2bx
11
1 1
ax − are equal, then =
3bx 2 − x
(1) 729ab = 32 (2) 32ab = 729
Domain =
(3) 64ab = 243 (4) 243ab = 64
Answer (1) 11. Let P be a square matrix such that P2 = I – P. For
2 1
11
, , , , if P + P = I – 29P and
Sol. Coefficient of x7 in ax +
2bx
P – P = I – 13P, then + + – is equal to
r
( ) 1
11−r
Tr +1 = 11Cr ax 2 (1) 18 (2) 40
2bx
(3) 22 (4) 24
r
11− r 1 22−3r
= Cr ( a )
11
x Answer (4)
2b
22 − 3r = 7 r = 5 Sol. P2 = I – P
1
11
P 4 = (I − P )(I − P ) = I + P 2 – 2P = 2I − 3P
Coefficient of x–7 in ax −
3bx 2
P 6 = 2I − 5P + 3P 2 = 2I − 5P + 3(IP ) = 5I − 8P …(i)
r
11−r 1
Tr +1 = 11Cr ( ax ) −
3bx 2 P 8 = 5I − 13P + 8P 2 = 13I − 21P …(ii)
r (ii) + (i)
1
= 11Cr a11−r − x11−3r
3b P 8 + P 6 = 18I − 29P
11 − 3r = −7 r = 6
(ii) – (i)
5 6
6 1 1
C5 ( a ) = 11C6 a5 −
11
P 8 – P 6 = 8I − 13P
2b 3b
= 8, = 6, = 18, = 8
36 ab = 32
729 ab = 32 8 + 6 + 18 + 8 = 24
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
12. Among the statements Sol. If numbers are different on all three dice then
(S1) : ( p q ) ( (~ p ) q ) is a tautology number of ways
= 6 × 5 × 4 = 120
(S2) : ( q p ) ( (~ p ) q ) is a contradiction
120 120 5 p
(1) Neither (S1) and (S2) is True P (E ) = = = =
3 216 9 q
6
(2) Both (S1) and (S2) are True
Now, q – p = 9 – 5 = 4
(3) Only (S2) is True
15. Among the statements :
(4) Only (S1) is True (S1) : 20232022 – 19992022 is divisible by 8.
Answer (1) (S2) : 13(13)n – 11n – 13 is divisible by 144 for
Sol. S-I : ( p → q ) ( ~ p q ) infinitely many n
13. All the letters of the word PUBLIC are written in all 24 divides (2023)2022 – (1999)2002
possible orders and these words are written as in a
8 will divide (2023)2022 – (1999)2002
dictionary with serial numbers. Then the serial
number of the word PUBLIC is (S1) is correct.
(1) 576 (2) 578 (S2) : 13(13)n – 11n − 13 is divisible by 144 for
(3) 580 (4) 582 n .
Answer (4)
13(1 + 12)n – 11n − 13
5 6 1 4 3 2
Sol.
P U B L I C ( )
13 nC0 + nC112 + nC2 122 + ... + nCn 12n – 11n − 13
4 4 0 2 1 0
12 13n − 11n + 122
5! 4! 3! 2! 1! 0!
145n + 144 is not divisible by 144.
Rank = (1 × 1! + 2 × 2! + 4 × 4! + 4 × 5!) + 1
= (1 + 4 + 96 + 480) + 1 (S2) is incorrect.
= 582 16. Let the line L pass through the point (0, 1, 2),
x −1 y − 2 z − 3
14. Three dice are rolled. If the probability of getting intersect the line = = and be
2 3 4
p
different numbers on the three dice is , where p parallel to the plane 2x + y – 3z = 4. Then the
q
distance of the point P(1, –9, 2) from the line L is
and q are co-prime, then q – p is equal to
(1) 74 (2) 69
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 54 (4) 9
Sol. 1 1 1
Sol. D = 1 2
1 3 5
= 1(10 − 3 ) − (5 − ) + (3 − 2)
= 6 − 2
D0 3
a b c
Unique solution 3
1 1 1 =0
2 3 4 18. The sum of all values of , for which the points
whose position vectors are iˆ − 2 jˆ + 3kˆ, 2iˆ − 3 jˆ + 4kˆ,
a − 2b + c = 0
a=b=c ( + 1) iˆ + 2kˆ and 9iˆ + ( − 8) ˆj + 6kˆ are coplanar, is
2a + b − 3c = 0
equal to
x y −1 z − 2
L= = = = (1) –2 (2) 2
1 1 1
(3) 6 (4) 4
So any point on L can be taken as
Answer (2)
Sol. Let the points be A, B, C, D
AB = iˆ − jˆ + kˆ
AC = iˆ + 2 jˆ − kˆ
AD = 8iˆ + ( − 6) ˆj + 3kˆ
AP · 1, 1, 1 = 0
So, vectors AB, AC, AD are coplanar.
− 1 + + 10 + = 0
1 –1 1
3 + 9 = 0 2 −1 = 0
= −3 8 ( − 6) 3
2 − 2 − 14 = 0
AP = 74
Sum of values of = 2
17. For the system of equations
19. A plane P contains the line of intersection of the
( ) ( )
x+y+z=6
plane r iˆ + ˆj + kˆ = 6 and r 2iˆ + 3 jˆ + 4kˆ = − 5.
x + 2y + z = 10
If P passes through the point (0, 2, –2), then the
x + 3y + 5z = , which one of the following is NOT square of distance of the point (12, 12, 18) from the
true? plane P is
(1) System has no solution for = 3, = 24 (1) 620 (2) 155
(2) System has a unique solution for = –3, = 14 (3) 310 (4) 1240
Answer (1)
(3) System has infinitely many solutions for = 3,
Sol. P1 : x + y + z − 6 = 0
= 14
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
Plane P passes through (0, 2, –2) SECTION - B
−6 + (3) = 0 Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
=2 questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
P : 5 x + 7 y + 9z + 4 = 0 correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
2
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
5(12) + 7(12) + 9(18) + 4 e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
Square of distance =
25 + 49 + 81 the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
the place designated to enter the answer.
310 310
= = 620 21. The value of tan9° – tan27° – tan63° + tan81° is
155
_________.
20. Let a b be two non-zero real numbers. Then the Answer (4)
number of elements in the set Sol. tan9 − tan 27 − tan 63 + tan81
X = z C : Re(az 2 + bz ) = a and Re(bz 2 + az ) = b = (cot 81 + tan81) − (tan 27 + cot 27)
= (tan9 + cot 9) − (tan 27 + cot 27)
is equal to
2 2
(1) 0 (2) 1 = −
sin18 sin54
(3) 3 (4) 2 2 4 2 4
= − =4
Answer (1*) 5 −1 5 + 1
Sol. Let z = x + iy 22. The number of 4-letter words, with or without
meaning, each consisting of 2 vowels and 2
Re(az2 + bz) = a consonants, which can be formed from the letters
of the word UNIVERSE without repetition is
Re(a( x + iy )2 + b( x + iy )) = a ________.
Answer (432)
a( x 2 − y 2 ) + bx = a …(i) Sol. UNIVERSE
E, E, I, U, (Vowels) + N, R, S, V (Consonants)
Re(bz 2 + az ) = b
Two different vowels + 2 consonants
from (i) and (ii), (i) – (ii) 23. For , , z and > 1, if − 1 is the radius of
2 2
the circle z − + z − = 2, then | – | is equal
( x 2 − y 2 )(a − b ) − x(a − b ) = a − b
to __________.
x −y −x =1
2 2
…(iii) Answer (2)
( z − )( z − ) + ( z − )( z − ) = 2
(( x 2
)
− y 2 ) + x − 1 (a + b ) = 0
+ + +
zz − z −z + =
(here a + b 0 is considered but it is not clear 2 2 2
from the question) 2
+ +
Radius = − − = −1
x2 − y 2 + x − 1 = 0 …(iv) 2 2
from (iii) and (iv) | + |2 −2( + ) = −4
x = 0, y2 = –1 (No solution) | − |2 = 4 | − | = 2
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
Put X = 0 (1 + ) x n n
Y = y – mx
if f n(x) = (fofof….. upto n times) (x), then
x(y – mx) = 3
1
n −2
or y −
xdy 3
dx
=
x
lim
n →
x (f n ( x )) dx is equal to
0
ydx − Xdy 3dx 1
or = . Answer (00.00)
X2 x x2
x
x −2 Sol. f n ( x ) =
−y 1
or d
x
= 3d
−2
(1 + n ) x n n
y 3
x n −1
1
= +C
x 2x 2 I= 1
dx
0 n n
C=0 (1 + nx )
1 3
= 1 + nxn = tn
2 22
n 2 x n −1 dx = nt n −1 dt
OR = 3
1
3 1 (1+ n ) n 1 t n −1 dt
P 1, Q 3,
2 2
I= n
t
(PQ)2 =4+1=5 1
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
1 2 19
21 21 21
(1+ n ) n k = 1 + 2· + 3 20 + .... + 20 20
1 t n −1 20
=
n n −1
1 2
21 21 21
k= + 2
1−
1 20 20 20
1
= (1 + n ) n − 1
n(n − 1) 19 20
21 21
+ ... 19 + + 20
1 1 20 20
(1 + n )1− n −1 (1 + n )1− n
lim = lim 21 21 21
2
n → n(n − 1) n → n(n − 1) k− k = 1+ +
20 20 20
=0
19 20
21 21
28. The number of points, where the curve +.... + − 20
y = x5 – 20x3 + 50x + 2 crosses the x-axis, is 20 20
________. 20
21
−1
−k 20
Answer (5) 20
21
= − 20
Sol. f(x) = x5 – 20x3 + 50x + 2 20 21
−1 20
20
f(x) is continuous for all x R
Also, f(–5) = – 873 21 20 21
20
= − 1 20 − 20
20 20
f(–2) = 30
f(–1) = –29 −k
= −20
f(0) = 2 20
f(2) = –26 k = 400
f(5) = 877 x −1 2 − y z − 3 x − 4 y −1
30. If the lines = = and =
Hence by intermediate value theorem 2 −3 5 2
PHYSICS
df 0.2 2 0.2 2
SECTION - A = +
f2 6400 400
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
16 16 0.2 6800 2
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices df = = 0.136 2
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 6400 400
df
Choose the correct answer: = 0.0085 2 = 1.70
f
31. The work functions of Aluminium and Gold are
34. A capacitor of capacitance 150.0 F is connected
4.1 eV and 5.1 eV respectively. The ratio of the
to an alternating source of emf given by E = 36
slope of the stopping potential versus frequency
sin(120t) V. The maximum value of current in the
plot for Gold to that of Aluminium is
circuit is approximately equal to:
(1) 1.24 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 1.5 (1) 2 A (2) 2A
Answer (3) 1
(3) 2 2 A (4) A
Sol. Al = 4.1eV 2
Answer (1)
Au = 5.1eV
36 60 150 10−6 2
h Sol. Imax =
Slop of V vs graph = 1
e
= 2.036 A
32. The weight of a body on the surface of the earth is
2A
100 N. The gravitational force on it when taken at a
height, from the surface of earth, equal to one- 35. The energy density associated with electric field E
fourth the radius of the earth is: and magnetic field B of an electromagnetic wave
(1) 64 N (2) 25 N in free space is given by (0– permittivity of free
(3) 50 N (4) 100 N space, 0 – permeability of free space)
Answer (1)
E2 B2
2 (1) UE = , UB =
Sol. W = 100
R
= 64 N
20 20
2
R
0E 2
R + 4 (2) UE = , UB =
B2
2 20
33. A 2 meter long scale with least count of 0.2 cm is
used to measure the locations of objects on an 0E 2 B2
(3) UE = , UB = 0
optical bench. While measuring the focal length of 2 2
a convex lens, the object pin and the convex lens E2 B2
are placed at 80 cm mark and 1 m mark, (4) UE = , UB = 0
20 2
respectively. The image of the object pin on the
other side of lens coincides with image pin that is Answer (2)
kept at 180 cm mark. The % error in the estimation Sol. Correct option is
of focal length is:
1 1 B2
(1) 0.85 (2) 1.70 UE = E2 UB =
2 0 2 0
(3) 1.02 (4) 0.51
Answer (2) 36. The ratio of speed of sound in hydrogen gas to the
speed of sound in oxygen gas at the same
Sol. u = 1 m – 80 cm = 20 cm
temperature is:
v = 1.8 m – 1 m = 80 cm
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 4 : 1
1 1 1 1 1 5
= − = + = (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1
f v u 80 20 80
f = 16 cm Answer (2)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
Sol. Linear speed varies as the planet moves in elliptical 44. Figure shows a part of an electric circuit. The
orbit. potentials at points a, b and c are 30 V, 12 V and
2 V respectively. The current through the 20
2 1
v = GM − resistor will be,
r a
42. A child of mass 5 kg is going round a merry-go-
round that makes 1 rotation in 3.14 S. The radius of
the merry-go-round is 2 m. The centrifugal force on
the child will be
(1) 80 N (2) 40 N (1) 1.0 A (2) 0.4 A
(3) 100 N (4) 50 N (3) 0.6 A (4) 0.2 A
Answer (2) Answer (2)
2 30 − x 12 − x 2 − x
Sol. = = 2 rad/s Sol. + + =0
3.14 10 20 30
r=2m x 2 x
30 − x + 6 − + − =0
Fr = m2r = 5 × (2)2 × 2 2 3 3
= 40 N x = 20 V
43. A dipole comprises of two charged particles of 8
I= A = 0.4 A
identical magnitude q and opposite in nature. The 20
mass ‘m’ of the positive charged particle is half of 45. A particle starts with an initial velocity of 10.0 ms –1
the mass of the negative charged particle. The two
along x-direction and accelerates uniformly at the
charges are separated by a distance ‘l’. If the dipole
rate of 2.0 ms–2. The time taken by the particle to
is placed in a uniform electric field ‘ E ’; in such a reach the velocity of 60.0 ms–1 is ___________.
way that dipole axis makes a very small angle with
(1) 25 s (2) 3 s
the electric field, ‘ E ’. The angular frequency of the
(3) 6 s (4) 30 s
oscillations of the dipole when released is given by:
Answer (1)
4qE Sol. 60 = 10 +2t
(1)
3ml
t = 25 s
8qE 46. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(2)
ml Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Diffusion current in a p-n junction is
4qE
(3) greater than the drift current in magnitude if the
ml
junction is forward biased.
8qE Reason R: Diffusion current in a p-n junction is
(4)
3ml form the n-side to the p-side if the junction is
Answer (Bonus) forward biased.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Sol. Z = pE
most appropriate answer from the options given
m 2m 2m 2
( )2 = below.
I =
m + 2m 3 (1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
3pE 3qE correct explanation of A
= 2
= (2) A is correct but R is not correct
2m 2m
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
3qE
= (4) Both A and R is correct and R is the correct
2m
explanation of A
No option is correct. Answer (2)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
Sol. In forward bias movement of electrons is eased due 49. As shown in the figure, a particle is moving with
to external electric field. constant speed m/s. Considering its motion from
A is correct A to B, the magnitude of the average velocity is:
R is incorrect as diffusion current in p-n junction is
from p side to n-side.
47. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: When you squeeze one end of a tube
to get toothpaste out from the other end, Pascal’s
principle is observed.
(1) 3 m/s
Reason R: A change in the pressure applied to an
enclosed incompressible fluid is transmitted (2) m/s
undiminished to every portion of the fluid and to the (3) 1.5 3 m/s
walls of its container.
(4) 2 3 m/s
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given Answer (3)
below. Sol. v = m/s
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the x = 2R sin60 = 3R
correct explanation of A
3R v 3 3
(2) A is not correct but R is correct v avg = =
2 2
(3) A is correct but R is not correct R
3
(4) Both A and R is correct and R is the correct
explanation of A = 1.5 3 m/s
Answer (4) 50. A body cools in 7 minutes from 60°C to 40°C. The
Sol. Pascal’s law is applicable for an enclosed liquid. temperature of the surrounding is 10°C. The
A is correct temperature of the body after the next 7 minutes will
be
R is correct and explains A.
(1) 30°C
48. A small particle of mass m moves in such a way
(2) 32°C
1
that its potential energy U = m r where is
2 2
(3) 34°C
2
constant and r is the distance of the particle from (4) 28°C
origin. Assuming Bohr’s quantization of momentum Answer (4)
and circular orbit, the radius of nth orbit will be 60 − 40 60 + 40
Sol. = C − 10
proportional to 7 2
1 40 − x 40 + x
(1) n (2) = C − 10
n 7 2
(3) n2 (4) n
x = 28
Answer (1)
SECTION - B
1
Sol. U = m2r 2 = cr 2 Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
2
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
Fr questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
mv 2 nh NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
= c ' r and mvr = correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
r 2
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
vr
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
r2 n the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
r n the place designated to enter the answer.
- 13 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
v12
= 16
v 22
v12 – v 22 15
=
v12 16
Answer (20)
x 15
= 100 Sol. V2 = 3V – 2V = 1V
4 16
5 Rv
x = 375 = 2 2 = 4
5 + Rv
52. A ring and a solid sphere rotating about an axis
passing through their centres have same radii of Rv = 20
gyration. The axis of rotation is perpendicular to
55. Two concentric circular coils with radii 1 cm and
plane of ring. The ratio of radius of ring to that of
1000 cm and number of turns 10 and 200
2 respectively are placed coaxially with centers
sphere is . The value of x is _____.
x coinciding. The mutual inductance of this
arrangement will be ________ × 10–8 H. (Take, 2
Answer (5)
= 10)
2
Sol. mk 2 = mRr2 = mRS2 Answer (4)
5
n0 I 2000I
Sol. B = =
Rr
=
2
x =5 2 10 2 10
Rs 5
200 0I 10
= (0.01)2
53. A simple pendulum with length 100 cm and bob of 2 10
mass 250 g is executing S.H.M of amplitude 10 cm.
The maximum tension in the string is found to be 200 0 10−4
L = 200 0 × = 4 × 10–8 H
x 2
N . The value of x is ______.
40 56. A proton with a kinetic energy of 2.0 eV moves into
Answer (99) a region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude
10−3 T . The angle between the direction of
g 2
Sol. = = 10
l magnetic field and velocity of proton is 60°.
The pitch of the helical path taken by the proton is
vmax = 10 0.1 ____ cm. (Take, mass of proton = 1.6 × 10–27 kg
and charge on proton = 1.6 × 10–19 C).
mv 2
Maximum tension = mg +
r Answer (40)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
Sol. KE = 2 eV d = 2.5 × 10–3 m
D = 1.5 m
B= 10−3
2
n1 = m2
= 60°
n7 = 5.5 m
2m
Pitch = v cos n14 = 11 m n = 11 & m = 14
qB
11 7 10−7 1.5
1 y=
2 2mKE 2 2.5 10–3
= 2
1.6 10−19 10−3 = 46.2 × 10–4 = 462 × 10–5
2 2 1.6 10−27 2 1.6 10−19 103 59. As shown in the figure, two parallel plate capacitors
= having equal plate area of 200 cm2 are joined in
1.6 10−19
such a way that a b. The equivalent capacitance
= 2 × 2 × 10–1 = 0.4 m of the combination is x0 F. The value of x is ____.
57. Experimentally it is found that 12.8 eV energy is
required to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton
and an electron. So the orbital radius of the electron
9
in a hydrogen atom is 10−10 m .
x
The value of the x is: _______.
1
(1 eV = 1.6 × l0–19 J, = 9 109 Nm2 /C2 and
40
Answer (5)
electronic charge = 1.6 x 10–19 C)
0 200 10−4
Answer (16) Sol. Ceq =
4 10−3
2
kq
Sol. = 12.8 1.6 10−19 = 50 F
2r
9 109 1.6 10−19 60. A metal block of mass m is suspended from a rigid
r = support through a metal wire of diameter 14 mm.
12.8 2
The tensile stress developed in the wire under
9 equilibrium state is 7 × 105 Nm–2. The value of mass
r= 10−10 m
16 m is ______ kg.
Sol. 1 = 7000 Å 49 22
m= = 11
98
2 = 5500 Å
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A Answer (1)
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
Sol.
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Choose the correct answer:
61. In the following reaction, ‘B’ is
(3) (4)
Answer (3)
Choose the correct option
Sol. Number of Number of Rate
Intermediates Activated determining
Complexes step
(1) 2 3 I
(2) 2 3 III
(3) 2 3 II
(4) 3 2 II
Answer (3)
Sol. As the reaction profile, clearly the number of
intermediates are 2 and the number of activated
62. Find out the major product from the following complexes/transition state is 3. Rate determining
reaction. step is II.
64. From the figure of column chromatography given
below, identify incorrect statements.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
A. Compound ‘c’ is more polar than ‘a’ and ‘b’ Sol. As Br2, Li and Cs can react with H2O, Ga remains
C. Comound ‘b’ comes out of the column before ‘c’ 68. During the reaction of permanganate with
(3) Sodium chlorate, DDT, PAN Sol. Most basic oxide is Tl2O3
(4) Dieldrin, Sodium arsinite, Tetrachloroethene Basic character → Tl2O3 > Ga2O3 > Al2O3 > B2O3
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
72. Given below are two statements: one is labelled Answer (1)
as “Assertion A” and the other is labelled as Sol. Nessler’s Reagent is K2HgI4.
“Reason R” So, N is not present
Assertion A : In the complex Ni(CO)4 and Fe(CO)5, 75. If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0,
then de Broglie’s wavelength of electron in 3rd orbit
the metals have zero oxidation state.
is
Reason R : Low oxidation states are found when a
a0 a0
complex has ligands capable of -donor character (1) (2)
6 3
in addition to the -bonding. (3) 6a0 (4) 3a0
In the light of the above statements, choose the Answer (3)
most appropriate answer from the options given nh
Sol. mvr =
below 2
3h
(1) A is correct but R is not correct mvr =
2
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
2r h
=
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the 3 mv
correct explanation of A 29a0
= = 6a0
3
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A 76. The strongest acid from the following is
Answer (1)
oxidation state.
Answer (1)
73. Ion having highest hydration enthalpy among the
given alkaline earth metal ions is: Sol. Acidic strength order is :
Answer (1)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
77. Given below are two statements: 80. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (C) Asparagine (III) A
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Alanine (IV) R
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
below:
Answer (4)
(1) (A)–(IV, B–I, (C)–II, (D)–III
Sol. Morphine is a narcotic analgesic which produces
(2) (A)–I, B–III, (C)–IV, (D)–II
sleep.
Morphine narcotics are obtained from opium poppy. (4) (A)–IV, B–I, (C)–III, (D)–II
78. Formation of which complex, among the following, Sol. Natural Amino acid One Letter Code
is not a confirmatory test of Pb2+ ions (A) Arginine (IV) R
(1) Lead sulphate (2) Lead nitrate (B) Aspartic acid (I) D
(3) Lead chromate (4) Lead iodide
(C) Asparagine (II) N
Answer (2)
(D) Alanine (III) A
Sol. As lead nitrate is water soluble, it cannot be a
SECTION - B
confirmatory test.
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
Also, it is colourless. contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
79. Structures of BeCl2 in solid state, vapour phase and questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
at very high temperature respectively are:
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
(1) Monomeric, Dimeric, Polymeric truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
(2) Dimeric, Polymeric, Monomeric e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
(3) Polymeric, Monomeric, Dimeric
the place designated to enter the answer.
(4) Polymeric, Dimeric, Monomeric 81. Number of crystal systems from the following where
Answer (4) body centred unit cell can be found, is _______.
Sol. BeCl2 is dimeric in vapour phase. Cubic, tetragonal, orthorhombic, hexagonal,
BeCl2 is monomeric at high temperature. rhombohedral, monoclinic, triclinic
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
Sol. Crystal systems where body centred unit cell can 0.4 + X = 20(0.06 + X2 – 0.5 X)
be found 0.4 + X = 1.2 + 20 X2 – 10 X
Cubic, orthorhombic and tetragonal
20 X2 – 11 X + 0.8 = 0
Hence, correct answer is 3
11 121 − 64
82. The number of species having a square planar X=
40
shape from the following is
11 − 7.55
− − 2+ = 0.08625
XeF4 ,SF4 ,SiF4 ,BF ,BrF ,[Cu(NH3 )4 ] ,
4 4 40
[FeCl4 ]2− ,[PtCl4 ]2−
(PCl5 ) = 0.48625 48.625 10−2 or 49 10−2
Answer (4)
84. Consider the following pairs of solution which will
Sol. XeF4 → Square planar
be isotonic at the same temperature. The number
SF4 → See saw of pairs of solutions is/ are _____
SiF4 → Tetrahedral
A. 1 M aq. NaCl and 2 M aq. urea
−
BF → Tetrahedral
4 B. 1 M aq. CaCl2 and 1.5 M aq. KCI
[Cu(NH3)4]2+ → Square planar C. 1.5 M aq. AlCl3 and 2 M aq. Na2SO4
[FeCl4]2– → Tetrahedral D. 2.5 M aq. KCI and 1 M aq. Al2(SO4)3
[PtCl4]2– → Square planar Answer (4)
−
BrF → Square planar
4 Sol. A. isotonic (product of i × C is same)
So, 4 square planer shape compounds are present. B. isotonic
83. The equilibrium composition for the reaction C. isotonic
PCl3 + Cl2 PCl5 at 298 K is given below: D. isotonic
[PCl3]eq = 0.2 mol L–1, [Cl2]eq = 0.1 mol L–1, So, number of isotonic pairs = 4
[PCl5]eq = 0.40 mol L–1
85. The number of colloidal systems from the following,
If 0.2 mol of Cl2 is added at the same temperature,
which will have 'liquid' as the dispersion medium,
the equilibrium concentrations of PCl5 is ______ ×
is ______.
10–2 mol L–1
Gem stones, paints, smoke, cheese, milk, hair
Given: Kc for the reaction at 298 K is 20
cream, insecticide sprays, froth, soap lather
Answer (49)
Answer (5)
Sol. PCl3 (g)+ Cl2 (g) PCl5 (g)
0.2 0.1 0.4 Sol. Paints, milk, froth, soap lather and hair cream
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (06-04-2023)-Evening
Sol. C8H11N Fe3+ (aq) + 3e– → Fe E = –0.04 V
Degree of unsaturation = 4 Ag+ (aq) + e– →Ag(s) E = 0.80 V
V2+ (aq) + 2e– → V E = –1.19 V (c), (d), (e) & (f) give iodoform reaction
❑ ❑ ❑
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