Post-Lecture Exam: Parasitology

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Prepared by: Prince Reneir A. Malacaste, RMT

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Section 4

Post-Lecture Exam: Parasitology 17 of 25 points

Prepared by: Prince Reneir A. Malacaste, RMT

Skin snip is best sample to detect: 0/1

a. Leishmania

b. Onchocerca

c. Microfilaria

d. Loa loa

The most common STH is 1/1

a. Ancylostoma

b. Ascaris

c. Strongyloides

d. Trichuris

Which stain is used to demonstrate the uterine branches of Taenia 0/1

species?

a. Periodic Acid Schiff

b. Lugol’s Iodine

c. India Ink

d. Toluidine blue
Which of the following is an interfering substance during stool 0/1
examination?

a. Mineral oil

b. Cooking oil

c. Calcium

d. Hair dye

Which parasite has different route of entrance to infect human? 1/1

a. S. japonicum

b. S. stercolaris

c. duodenale

d. H. heterophyes

In cellophane tape preparation for pinworms, what is added in the tape to 0/1
aid in visualization of the eggs?

a. Xylene

b. Formalin

c. PVA

d. Alcohol
Human is an accidental host in which parasitic infection? 1/1

a. Cysticercosis

b. Visceral/Cutaneous/Ocular larva migrans

c. Gnathostoma spinigerum infection

d. Dipylidium caninum infection

e. All of the choices

Which statement is false regarding Microsporidia? 1/1

a. Can be acquired via ingestion of spore-contaminated food/water

b. More likely seen in patients with diarrhea and AIDS/immunosuppressive disease

c. Can be recovered in different sites (Liver, spleen, Lung, Muscle, Skin, Urogenital,
Eye)

d. Stained permanently using MODIFIED Trichrome strain

e. None of the choices

Which parasite involve autoinfection? 1/1

I. Capillaria philippinensis

II. Strongyloides stercolaris

III. Enterobius vermicularis

IV. Hymenolepis nana

V. Taenia solium

VI. Cryptosporidium

a. II, III

b. II, III, V

c. I, II, III

d. I to VI

A parasite harboring host that is not exhibiting any clinical symptoms but 1/1
can infect others is

a. Transport host

b. Accidental host

c. Reservoir host

d. Carrier host
Periodicities associated with filarial infection are: 0/1

a. Periods of increased microfilariae in the blood

b. Always regular during nighttime hours between 10 PM and 4 AM

c. Present in all filarial infections

d. Correlated directly with the patient’s symptoms

In routine O&P examination, transport of fresh liquid stool should at least 1/1
be within:

a. 15 minutes

b. 30 minutes

c. 60 minutes

d. 24 hours

Which is known as a liver fluke? 0/1

a. Fasciolopsis

b. Paragonimus

c. Clonorchis

d. Heterophyes
Which plant artifacts resembles some parasites? 0/1
I. Plant cell/fiber

II. Starch granule

III. Pollen grain

IV. Vegetable spiral

a. II and III

b. III and IV

c. II to IV

d. I to IV

From top to bottom, what is the second layer in formalin-ethyl acetate 1/1
concentration test tube after centrifugation?

a. Debris plug

b. Ethyl acetate

c. Formalin

d. Sediment
Which drug is used to enhance the recovery of microfilariae in urine 1/1
samples?

a. Hetrazan/Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)

b. Dehydroemetine

c. Zentel/Albendazole

d. Flagyl/Metronidazole

Duodenal contents is obtained through the use of which laboratory 1/1

method?

a. Kato-Katz technique

b. Direct Fecal smear

c. Entero-test

d. Cellophane preparation technique

The anticoagulant of choice for detection of parasites in peripheral 1/1
circulation is

a. No anticoagulant/Fresh blood is required

b. Heparin

c. Citrate

d. EDTA

Infections that under normal conditions cannot be transmitted in the 1/1

laboratory are:

a. Cryptosporidiosis

b. Cysticercosis

c. Ascariasis

d. Pinworm infection
What is the preferred specific gravity of zinc sulfate solution for the 1/1
floatation method?

a. 1.15

b. 1.18

c. 1.20

d. 1.25

The infective stage of a fluke is the 1/1

a. Miracidium

b. Cercariae

c. Metacercariae

d. Pleurocercariae

The type of host that harbors the immature and developing stage of a 0/1
parasite is:

a. Primary/Definitive host

b. Secondary/Intermediate host

c. Reservoir host

d. Paratenic host
The feeding stage of nematodes is known as the 1/1

a. Cutaneous larva

b. Filariform larva

c. Either Rhabditiform or Filariform larva

d. Rhabditiform larva

In specimen quantity, which of the following is an incorrect pair? 1/1

a. 5-6 tbps – liquid stool (routine collection)

b. 2 mg stool – Direct Fecal smear

c. 5 mg – formed stool (routine collection)

d. 50 mg – Kato thick smear

If a man accidentally ingested Taenia solium egg, he becomes the 1/1

a. Definitive host

b. Paratenic host

c. Accidental Intermediate host

d. Reservoir host
Untitled Section 6 of 25 points

Prepared by: Prince Reneir A. Malacaste, RMT

Ingestion of which of the following eggs will result in infection? 0/1

a. Strongyloides stercolaris

b. Schistosoma japonicum

c. Toxocara canis

d. Opisthorchis sinensis

Society worm infection is diagnosed by: 0/1

a. Identification of eggs in concentrated stool specimen

b. Wet prep and Iodine prep of fresh stool

c. Baermann funnel method

d. Cellophane tape examination

e. Both Baermann funnel and Cellophane tape methods

Which has no intermediate host? 0/1

a. Schistosoma

b. Trypanosoma

c. Entamoeba

d. Wuchereria

Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale are similar because they: 0/1

a. Exhibit Schuffner dots and have true relapse

b. Have no malarial pigment

c. Have applique forms in RBC

d. Have true stippling

e. None of the choices

Which parasite has an egg stage with terminal spine that is considered as 0/1
acid fast?

a. Schistosoma mansoni

b. Schistosoma intercalatum

c. Schistosoma japonicum

d. Schistosoma mekongi

Zinc sulfate floatation method may not be able to detect: 0/1

I. Operculated eggs

II. Heavy eggs

III. Clonorchis eggs

IV. Unfertilized Ascaris eggs

a. I and II

b. III and IV

c. II and IV

d. I to IV
Which is an incorrect match between organism and the appropriate test? 1/1

a. Onchocerca – Examination of skin snip

b. Cryptosporidium – Modified Acid-fast stain

c. Echinococcus – Routine O&P examination

d. S. haematobium – Examination of Urine sediment

Which is an always STAT procedure? 0/1

a. O&P for Giardiasis

b. Baermann’s concentration

c. Blood film for parasites

d. Examination for Corneal scrapping

An outbreak of diarrheal diseases from a municipal water supply is most 0/1

likely caused by

a. Cryptosporidium spp.

b. Cytoisospora spp.

c. Entamoeba histolytica

d. D. fragilis
The diagnostic stage of Strongyloides stercolaris is? 1/1

a. Egg

b. Cyst

c. Larva

d. Trophozoite

Which is essential for complete and accurate O&P fecal examination? 1/1

a. Antigen detection

b. Direct wet mount

c. Permanent stained slide

d. Concentration wet mount

e. Culture of specific organisms

Which is/are hermaphroditic? 0/1
I. Fluke

II. Roundworm

III. Tapeworm

a. I and II

b. II and III

c. I and III

d. I, II, and III

Which specimen is the least likely to provide recovery of T. vaginalis? 1/1

a. Urine

b. Urethral discharge

c. Vaginal discharge

d. Feces
The characteristic adult female worm of this parasite has a spiral, winding, 0/1
and barber’s pole appearance of uterus?

a. Parastrongylus cantonensis

b. Gnathostoma spinigerum

c. Dracunculus medinensis

d. Eustrongylides tubifex

Which of the following causes heart-to-lung migration except? 0/1

a. Ascaris

b. Trichuris

c. Ancylostoma

d. Strongyloides
Which tapeworm cannot be identified to species level based on its egg 0/1
morphology?

a. Dipylidium

b. Diphyllobothrium

c. Taenia

d. Hymenolepis

Which is true regarding thick blood film examination? 0/1

a. It allows the parasite to be seen inside RBC

b. It allows ID of parasite to species level

c. Less volume of blood is examined compared to thin blood film

d. The size of the smear is about 2 cm in diameter

When malaria smears are requested, what patient information should be 0/1
obtained?

a. Diet, Age, Sex

b. Age, Antimalarial prophylaxis taken, Sexual activity

c. Travel history, Date of return

d. Fever patterns, Travel history, Diet

Modified acid-fast stain utilizes: 0/1

a. 1-3% sulfuric acid decolorizer; examined at HPO (300 fields)

b. 3-5% sulfuric acid decolorizer; examined at HPO (300 fields)

c. 1-3% sulfuric acid decolorizer; examined at LPO (300 fields)

d. 3-5% sulfuric acid decolorizer; examined at LPO (300 fields)

What is the best technique to differentiate pathogenic from non- 0/1

pathogenic parasite that is morphologically similar to Entamoeba
histolytica?

a. Permanently-stained smear

b. Immunoassay

c. Concentration technique

d. Molecular technique

Which of the following can kill the trophozoites and/or lose their motility? 0/1

a. Iodine

b. Refrigeration

c. Any of the two

d. None of the choices

Which has different infective stage? 1/1

a. Ascaris

b. Enterobius

c. Hymenolepis nana

d. Capillaria

Which of the following is the best technique to identify Dientamoeba 0/1

fragilis in stool?

a. Formalin concentrate

b. Trichrome-stained smear

c. Modified acid-fast stain

d. Giemsa’s stain

The stain of choice for detection of malaria in PBS is? 0/1

a. Wright stain

b. Giemsa stain

c. H&E

d. Brilliant Cresyl Blue

 The tech found larva with long buccal capsule and small, reduced genital 1/1
primordium. The larva is most likely:

a. duodenale

b. S. stercolaris

c. T. trichiura

d. Unable to determine

Untitled Section 13 of 25 points

Prepared by: Prince Reneir A. Malacaste, RMT

Which has a different vector? 1/1

a. Wuchereria bancrofti

b. Dengue virus

c. Dirofilaria immitis

d. Onchocerca volvulus
Ascaris condition that causes peripheral eosinophilia characterized by 0/1
immune-mediated hypersensitivity pneumonia is called:

a. Halzoun effect

b. Jarisch-Herxheimer syndrome

c. Loffler syndrome

d. Ascariasis

Which is not included in “unholy three” (parasites always seen together in 1/1
an infected stool sample)?

a. Trichuris

b. Ascaris

c. Hookworm

d. Strongyloides

e. All of the choices

Modified trichrome is useful for demonstration of 1/1

a. Microsporidium

b. Oocyst

c. Amebic trophozoites

d. Amebic cyst
Which is a correct statement? 1/1

a. A. duodenale has 2 pairs of teeth

b. N. americanus has no buccal cutting plates

c. A. braziliense has 4 pairs of teeth

d. A. caninum has 3 pieces of teeth

An immunosuppressed patient is susceptible to autoreinfection with which 0/1

of the following nematodes?

a. S. stercolaris

b. T. spiralis

c. lumbricoides

d. T. trichiura

Which is a characteristic of rhabditiform larva of Ancylostoma? 1/1

a. Enhanced genital primordium

b. Long buccal cavity

c. Sheathed tail

d. Infective stage
Appendicitis, rectal prolapse, and petechial hemorrhage of large intestine 0/1
is attributed to

a. Ascariasis

b. Enterobiasis

c. Trichuriasis

d. Strongyloidiasis

Knott’s concentration technique is primarily used for? 0/1

a. Babesia

b. Plamsodia

c. Microfilaria

d. Strongyloides

e. Schistosoma
Which scientific and common name pair is correct? 1/1

a. Parastrongylus cantonensis – Dog heartworm

b. Dirofilaria immitis – Rat lungworm

c. Fasciola hepatica – Giant Liver fluke

d. Ascaris lumbricoides – Giant intestinal roundworm

Which statement is incorrect? 1/1

a. Oviparous– lays egg which hatch after leaving the parent (external embryo
development)

b. Ovoviviparous– lays egg which hatch before leaving the parent (internal embryo
development)

c. Viviparous – lays larva

d. None of the choices

e. All of the choices

Which statement is true? 0/1

I. Toxocara canis and Toxocara cati causes Visceral larva migrans

II. Ancylostoma braziliense and Ancylostoma caninum causes

Cutaneous larva migrans

III. Toxocara canis and Toxocara cati causes Ocular larva migrans

a. I and II

b. II only

c. I only

d. I, II, and III

Harada-Mori technique is a technique used to 1/1

a. Culture hookworm and Strongyloides

b. Concentrate nematodes

c. Separate trophozoite from cyst

d. Any of the choices

e. None of the choices

The inner layer of fertilized Ascaris eggs is composed of: 1/1

a. Mamillated albuminous coating

b. Glycogen layer

c. Vitelline, Lipoidal layer

d. Protoplasm

Creeping eruption is associated to 0/1

a. Ancylostoma duodenale & Necator americanus

b. Toxocara canis and Toxocara cati

c. Ancylostoma braziliense and Ancylostoma caninum

d. All of the above

Which pair of parasite and vector is incorrect? 0/1

a. Leishmania – Sand fly

b. T. cruzi – Reduviid bug

c. Loa loa – Tabanid fly

d. Onchocerca – Black fly

e. None of the choices

Which of the following has different mode of transmission? 0/1

a. Hymenolepis nana

b. Ascaris lumbricoides

c. Enterobius vermicularis

d. Trichuris trichiura

Which of the following attributes to Wuchereria bancrofti as seen in PBS? 1/1

a. Sheathed; Nuclei does not extend to the tip of the tail

b. Unsheathed; Nuclei does not extend to the tipoff the tail

c. Sheathed; Tail nuclei extend to the tip in continuous row

d. Sheathed; Two nuclei extend to the tip of the tail

Megaloblastic anemia (Macrocytic Normochromic) due to Vitamin B12 1/1

deficiency is caused by what infection?

a. Hookworm

b. Diphyllobothrium

c. Dipylidium

d. Strongyloides
Which of the following is not a characteristic of nematodes? 1/1

a. Elongated and cylindrical worms

b. Separate sexes

c. Has mouth and anus

d. Anterior end may have teeth/hook/plate

e. Body is composed of muscular and circulatory system

Which ciliate is pathogenic to humans? 0/1

a. Balantidium coli

b. Entamoeba coli

c. Microsporidia

d. Giardia lamblia
Which of the following can be transmitted vertically (placental 0/1
transmission)?
I. Hookworm

II. Ascaris

III. Strongyloides

IV. Plamsodium

V. Toxocara

a. I, II, III

b. I, II, III, V

c. I, III

d. I to V

The eggs of which of the following pair of parasites is used as a diagnostic 0/1
stage to identify the parasite specie?

a. Taenia solium and Taenia saginata

b. Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus

c. Any of the choices

d. None of the choices

 Detection of Histidine-rich protein II (HRP-II) in Mala-Quick kit is used 1/1
primarily for?

a. Plasmodium spp.

b. Plasmodium falciparum

c. Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale

d. Plasmodium spp. and Babesia spp.

Which cyst of the following parasite can be observed in a wet prep? 0/1

a. T. vaginalis

b. D. fragilis

c. E. gingivalis

d. Neither of the choices

e. Any of the choices

Untitled Section 8 of 25 points

Prepared by: Prince Reneir A. Malacaste, RMT

Faust and Meleney miracidial hatching egg technique is for 0/1

a. Hookworms (Ancylostoma, Necator)

b. Blood flukes (Schistosoma)

c. Tapeworm (Taenia spp.)

d. Liver fluke (Faciola spp.)

Which statement regarding trematode structure is untrue? 1/1

a. Most flukes have 2 suckers: oral and ventral

b. Ventral sucker is called acetabulum

c. Heterophyes heterophyes has 4 suckers.

d. Genital sucker is called gonotyle.

Which has different type of 1st intermediate host? 0/1

a. Fasciola gigantica

b. Paragonimus westermani

c. Fasciolopsis buski

d. None of the choices

Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis is caused by 1/1

a. Gnathostoma spp.

b. Ascaris lumbricoides

c. Strongyloides spp.

d. Parastrongylus cantonensis

Paragonimus and Diphyllobothrium egg are similar. But the two eggs may 0/1
be distinguished by the operculum, opercular shoulder, thickened shell at
the opposite end, and abopercular knob of the latter.

a. 1st statement is true. 2nd statement is false.

b. 1st statement is false. 2nd statement is true.

c. Both statements are true.

d. Both statements are false.

Removal and gradual retraction of adult gravid female worm is 1/1

recommended in infections with:

a. A. duodenale

b. D. medinensis

c. T. spiralis

d. T. canis
What is the 3rd larval stage of trematodes? 0/1

a. Cercaria

b. Sporocyst

c. Miracidium

d. Redia

Which is not included in the pathogenicity of Schistosoma spp.? 0/1

a. Granuloma formation in blood vessels

b. Bilharziasis

c. Katayama’s disease (lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly)

d. Halzoun

e. None of the above

Which infection may resemble acute appendicitis due to migration of the 0/1
parasite in the gut causing inflammation and lesions to the intestine; this
parasite is acquired through ingestion of salad contaminated with
slugs/snails?

a. Parastrongylus costaricensis

b. Gnathostoma spp.

c. Toxocara cati

d. Parastrongylus caninum

Which of the following set of blood fluke and intermediate host is correct? 0/1

a. S. japonicum – Oncomelania quadrasi

b. S. mansoni – Biomphalaria

c. S. haematobium – Bulinus

d. Any of the choices

e. None of the choices

Addition of iodine to stool samples with amebas will 0/1

a. Stain the cyst bright yellow

b. Stain the cyst yellow-brown

c. Stain the trophozoite bright yellow

d. Stain the trophozoite yellow-brown

Which is not true regarding Anisakis sp.? 0/1

a. Eating of raw fish is a risk to infection

b. Herring’s disease is attributed to Anisakis

c. Definitive host are whales and dolphins

d. Intermediate host are small fishes like salmon

e. None of the choices

Egg with large lateral spine is attributed to what blood fluke? 1/1

a. Schistosoma mekongi

b. Schistosoma mansoni

c. Either of the choices

d. Neither of the choices

Borborygmi (gurgling noise from intestine) and malabsorption is caused by 1/1
ingestion of raw seafood (fish, shrimp, crab, snails) infected with what
parasite?

a. Anisakis

b. Heterophyes heterophyes

c. Capillaria philippinensis

d. Clonorchis sinensis

Which blood fluke is seen in stool with characteristic egg with terminal 0/1
spine?

a. Schistosoma mansoni

b. Schistosoma intercalatum

c. Schistosoma japonicum

d. Schistosoma haematobium
Ingestion of raw/undercooked contaminated freshwater fish, frog, eels, 0/1
birds, and reptiles may result to infection of which parasite that causes
inflammatory migration in different parts of body [patient exhibits
eosinophilia (bec. of larval migration)]?

a. Dracunculus medinensis

b. Toxocara cati

c. Gnathostoma spinigerum

d. Trichinella spiralis

The intestinal nematode capable of vertical transmission and cause 0/1

congenital infections is:

a. A. lumbricoides

b. E. vermicularis

c. T. trichiura

d. A. duodenale
Infection with this fluke is mistaken as tuberculosis as this also causes 0/1
lesions in the chest X-ray and hemoptysis (endemic hemoptysis):

a. Echinostoma ilocanum

b. Paragonimus westermani

c. Opisthorchis felineus

d. Heterophyes heterophyes

The larval stage of Fasciola spp. That emerges from the 1st intermediate 0/1
host to infect the 2nd intermediate host is:

a. Miracidia

b. Redia

c. Cercaria

d. Metacercaria

A simple, convenient method for collecting duodenal contents and a 1/1

diagnostic test for demonstrating characteristic pear‐shaped trophozoites
with sucking disk is?

a. Forshay tets

b. String test

c. Wet smear prep

d. Duodenal Intubation
Which parasite is mistaken as adult Diphyllobothrium latum? 0/1

a. Spirometra mansonoides

b. Paragonimus westermani

c. Hymenolepis nana

d. Taenia asiatica

Not all stages of parasite occur in peripheral blood (usually young 0/1
trophozites/ring forms only) in infections with:

a. P. malariae

b. P. vivax

c. P. falciparum

d. P. knowlesi
Which is true regarding Dracunculus medinensis? 1/1

a. Intermediate host is copepods

b. Adults inhabits subcutaneous tissue of the host

c. L3 larva is the infective stage

d. Any of the choices

e. None of the choices

Fugitive/Calabar swelling, and cardiomyopathy may result from which 0/1

infection?

a. Blinding worm

b. Threadworm

c. New world hookworm

d. Eye worm
 Milky urine (Chyluria), Hydrocele, Chylocele and eosinophilia are key 1/1
features in infections with:

a. Wuchereria bancrofti

b. Loa loa

c. Mansonella perstans

d. Mansonella ozardi

Untitled Section 9 of 25 points

Prepared by: Prince Reneir A. Malacaste, RMT

Which of the following has mismatched 2nd intermediate host-parasite 0/1

pair?

a. Fish – Clonorchis

b. Watercress – Fasciolopsis

c. Snail – Echinostoma

d. Crab – Heterophyes
Which parasite resembles the egg of Diphyllobothrium latum? 1/1

a. Paragonimus westermani egg

b. Spirometra egg

c. Fasciola hepatica egg

d. Clonorchis sinensis egg

Clam-digger’s itch or swimmer’s itch is associated to: 0/1

a. S. mansoni

b. S. japonicum

c. S. haematobium

d. Any of the choices

Which is not true regarding cellophane tape prep for pinworm? 0/1

a. Specimen is collected late at night after the patient has been sleep for
several hours

b. Specimen is collected first thing in the morning before shower/toilet

c. At least 1 to 2 consecutive negative tapes to rule out infection

d. If there is one positive member of the family, the others are suggested to be
tested as well.

e. None of the choices

Which sex of Schistosoma has gynecophoral canal? 0/1

a. Male who holds the female during copulation

b. Female who holds the male during copulation

c. Any of the sexes

d. There is no canal present in Schistosomes.

This test intends to detect patient’s antibodies to Schistosoma spp. with a 0/1
positive result of bleb-formation or segmented precipitate due to Ag-Ab
reaction:

a. Precipitin test

b. Exoantigen test

c. COPT

d. Xenodiagnosis

Which blood fluke infection is prevalent in areas with abundant in rice 0/1
paddies?

a. S. mansoni

b. S. japonicum

c. S. haematobium

d. Any of the choices

Von Siebold’s fluke is also known as the 1/1

a. Deadliest fluke of man

b. Smallest fluke of man

c. Heterophyes heterophyes

d. All of the choices

e. Smallest fluke and Heterophyes heterophyes

What laboratory finding is common in Fasciolopsis buski infections? 1/1

a. Increased levels of Vitamin B12

b. Increased serum bilirubin

c. Decreased RBC count

d. Eosinophilia

Which drug of choice and parasite pair is correct? 0/1

a. Chloroquine – Plasmodium

b. Albendazole – T. solium

c. Praziquantel – Flukes

d. All of the above

Schistosomulae is: 0/1

a. Free-swimming cercaria

b. Metacercaria

c. Ciliated cercaria

d. Cercaria without tail

Which of the following is true regarding the structure of cestodes? 0/1

a. Leaf-like structure

b. Cylindrical elongated worms that is long and segmented

c. Scolex is for attachment at the anterior end

d. Rostellum, the crown-like structure armed with teeth

The largest trematode is Fasciola gigantica and the smallest is 1/1

Heterophyes heterophyes.

a. 1st statement is true. 2nd statement is false.

b. 1st statement is false. 2nd statement is true.

c. Both statements are true.

d. Both statements are false.

Which eggs are dissimilar to each other? 0/1

I. Taenia solium and Taenia saginata

II. Ancylostoma and Necator

III. Fasciolopsis buski and Fasciola hepatica

IV. Heterophyes heterophyes and Metagonimus yokogawai

a. II and III

b. I to III

c. III and IV

d. All of the choices

e. None of the choices

Profile of man blood fluke is also known as: 0/1

a. S. mansoni

b. S. japonicum

c. S. haematobium

d. S. mekongi
In trematodes, the ciliated free-swimming larva that emerges from the egg 1/1
after reaching the water is?

a. Redia

b. Cercaria

c. Miracidia

d. Sporocyst

Which of the following can bypass the need for an intermediate host? 0/1

a. Diphyllobothrium latum

b. Dipylidium caninum

c. Hymenolepis diminuta

d. Hymenolepis nana

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a cestode worm? 1/1

a. Ribbon-like

b. Separate sexes

c. Creamy-white/Yellowish in color

d. Flatworm
An infected stool sample that is recorded as brown and liquid will most 1/1
likely yield an __ upon microscopic examination.

a. Amebic cyst

b. Amebic trophozoite

c. Either of the choices

d. Neither of the choices

Heavy infections of these parasites may result to biliary obstruction, 1/1

jaundice, cirrhosis, cholecystitis, or even cholangiocarcinoma:

a. Fasciola hepatica and Faciola gigantica

b. Clonorchis sinensis and Opisthorchis viverrini

c. Paragonimus westermani and Paragonimus africanus

d. None of the choices

All but one of the following adult parasite does not inhabit bile duct, which 1/1
one is it?

a. Fasciola spp.

b. Clonorchis spp.

c. Paragonimus spp.

d. Opisthorchis spp.
In duodenal capsule test after about 4-6 hours or overnight while the 0/1
patient is in fasting, string is retrieved and bile-stained mucus should be
seen as a control that it reaches the duodenum, this is examined in the lab
within _____ of removal.

a. 1 hour

b. 2 hours

c. 4 hours

d. 5 minutes

The urine sample for detection of S. haematobium is? 0/1

a. First morning urine

b. Timed urine (12 nn to 2 pm)

c. Any of the choices

d. Late evening urine

 To identify Taenia saginata and Taenia solium from one another, the tech 0/1
should look on the:

a. Gravid proglottid

b. Scolex

c. Either A or B

d. Neither A nor B

Halzoun/Suffocation due to temporary obstruction of the worm in pharynx 0/1

is associated to

a. Fasciola spp.

b. Fasciolopsis spp.

c. Clonorchis spp.

d. Opisthorchis spp.

Untitled Section 11 of 25 points

Prepared by: Prince Reneir A. Malacaste, RMT

To which scenario Hymenolepis diminuta will most likely infect humans? 1/1

a. Opened sacks of grains and flours

b. Any of the choices

c. Unsanitary places

d. Rodent-infested areas

e. None of the choices

Which tapeworm is considered as the shortest with 3-5 proglottids only? 1/1

a. Echinococcus

b. Taenia

c. Hymenolepis

d. Diphyllobothrium
Which immunologic test detects Echinococcus granulosus infection? 1/1

I. Roentgenogram

II. Bentonite flocculation

III. X-ray

IV. Casoni intradermal test

a. I and IV

b. I to IV

c. I and III

d. II and IV

Which tapeworm has rosette-shaped uterine structure, which spatulate 1/1

scolex that contains two shallow sucking grooves?

a. Diphyllobothrium latum

b. Dipylidium caninum

c. Hymenolepis diminuta

d. Spirometra mansonoides
Which tapeworm infection can be misdiagnosed as Enterobius 0/1
vermicularis infection because the infected human host will usually pass
proglottids in a bowel movement and stick to skin of anal area?

a. Dipylidium caninum

b. Taenia asiatica

c. Diphyllobothrium latum

d. Fasciola hepatica

What is a hexacanth embryo? 0/1

a. Larva tapeworm within an embryonic envelope

b. Intestinal fluke within an abopercular egg

c. L3 filariform larva encysted in a sac

d. Eggs within a strobila

Which statement is true regarding Dipylidium caninum? 1/1

a. Dog and cat are primary host

b. Dog and cat fleas are secondary host

c. Man is accidental intermediate host

d. All of the choices

Which scenario will least likely lead to human cysticercosis: 0/1

a. T. solium eggs are ingested

b. Reverse peristalsis returns gravid segments into the intestine

c. Humans ingest raw or undercooked beef

d. All of the choices

Which of the following is not an appropriate prevention measure for 0/1

cestodes?

a. Controlling the flea and rat population

b. Avoiding consumption of raw meat/fish

c. Immunization

d. Practicing good hygiene

Which pair is correct regarding the cestode and larval stage? 0/1

a. Cysticercus – Hymenolepis

b. Cysticercoid – Taenia

c. Hydatid – Echinococcus

d. All of the choices

Which pair of cestode and infective stage is mismatched? 0/1

a. Dipylidium – Cysticercoid

b. Echinoccocus – Embryonated egg

c. Diphyllobothrium – Cysticercus

d. Hymenolepis – Cysticercoid

Which of the following is incorrect regarding Echinococcus multilocularis? 0/1

a. Causes Alveolar hydatid disease

b. Fox, coyotes, and dogs are definitive host

c. Fleas are intermediate host

d. Also known as “Small fox tapeworm”

Definitive diagnosis of cysticercus is made by: 1/1

a. Identification of cysticerci in tissue

b. CT or MRI scan

c. Immunoblot assay

d. All of the choices

Which specimen is least likely to be submitted for a Taenia solium 0/1
infection?

a. Stool

b. CSF

c. Serum

d. Nasal aspirate

Which of the following is hermaphrodite except? 0/1

a. Tapeworms

b. Earthworms

c. Roundworms

d. Flukes

The gravid proglottids of this parasite resemble rice grains (dry) or 1/1
cucumber seeds (moist) in which dogs and cats serves as reservoir host:

a. Diphyllobothrium latum

b. Dipylidium caninum

c. Hymenolepis diminuta

d. Hymenolepis nana
Which larval stage of D. latum is located in crustaceans such as 0/1
copepods?

a. Coracidium

b. Procercoid

c. Plerocercoid

d. Proceroid and Plerocercoid

What differs Cyclophyllidean (True tapeworm) from Pseudophyllidean 0/1

(False tapeworm)?

a. Has oval and operculated egg

b. Has apolytic/Shedding strobila segments

c. Has 2 intermediate hosts: crustaceans and fish

d. Has spoon/spatulate-shaped sucking grooves

In which cestode infection humans can serve as both intermediate and 0/1
definitive host?
I. Hymenolepis diminuta

II. Diphyllobothrium latum

III. Taenia saginata

IV. Dipylidium caninum

V. Hymenolepis nana

VI. Taenia solium

a. I, II

b. II, IV, VI

c. V, VI

d. All of the choices

Which is true regarding Taenia multiceps? 1/1

a. Most common “canid/dog” tapeworm

b. Coenurosis is the disease in humans

c. Coenurus is the larval form of the parasite

d. The scolex has four suckers and a proboscis (tubular appendage)

e. All of the choices

In tapeworm infection, larval stage in intermediate host is often found 0/1
encysted in:

a. Large intestine

b. Small intestine

c. Tissues

d. None of the choices

Which Taenia spp. can grow up to 25 meters has gravid proglottid of 15 to 1/1
20 dichotomous/tree-like branches?

a. Taenia saginata

b. Taenia solium

c. Taenia asiatica

d. Taenia hydatigena

What is the mode of transmission of Diphyllobothriasis? 1/1

a. Skin penetration of sparganum larva

b. Accidental inhalation of plerocercoid

c. Ingestion of Sparganum in fish

d. Ingestion of Plerocercoid in copepods

 Which parasite has double-pore or double genital pore with many small 1/1
proglottids consisting of egg packets that can be passed in stool?

a. Diphyllobothrium latum

b. Dipylidium caninum

c. Hymenolepis diminuta

d. Hymenolepis nana

Which is a true statement regarding Taenia asiatica except? 0/1

a. Cycticercus larva is seen in liver

b. Reported in Taiwan, Korea, Thailand, Indonesia

c. Intermediate host involves pig, cattle, goat, wild boar, monkey

d. The larva is called cycticercus cellulosae

Untitled Section 8 of 25 points

Prepared by: Prince Reneir A. Malacaste, RMT

Which parasite has an oocyst that can survive in the environment for 0/1
several months to more than 1 year and are resistant to disinfectants,
freezing, and drying. However, is killed by heating to 70˚C for 10 minutes?

a. Cryptosporidium parvum

b. Toxoplasma gondii

c. Ascaris (embryonated egg)

d. Sarcocystis suihominis

This granulomatous, localized lesion that occur in chronic ulcerative colitis 0/1
and may be confused with colon cancer caused by E. histolytica is called:

a. Colonoma

b. Ameboma

c. Histomata

d. Coloroma

The vegetative stage of amoebas is commonly found in 0/1

a. Semi-formed stool

b. Liquid stool

c. Formed stool

d. Scybalous stool
Which chromatoidal bodies has splinter shape with rough, pointed ends? 0/1

a. Entamoeba histolytica

b. Endolimax nana

c. Entamoeba coli

d. Entamoeba hartmanii

Which is true regarding Sarcocystis bovihominis (cattle) and Sarcocystis 0/1

suihominis (pig)?

I. Both have obligatory two-host cycle: Primary and Secondary host

II. Intermediate host is herbivore or omnivore

III. Definitive host is carnivore or omnivore

IV. Sarcocysts develop in human muscle

a. II and III

b. I to III

c. II to IV

d. I to IV
To identify the parasite causing amebic dysentery, 0/1

a. a minimum of 3 stool sample collected within a period of not more than 10 days.

b. a minimum of 2 stool sample collected within a period of not more than 10

days.

c. a minimum of 2 stool sample collected within a period of not more than 14days.

d. a minimum of 3 stool sample collected within a period of not more than 14 days.

Humans become infected with E. multilocularis when they: 0/1

a. Ingest an oncosphere from an infected deer

b. Ingest coracidia from an infected copepod

c. Ingest eggs from an infected fox

d. Ingest eggs from human feces

Which amebic trophozoite and cyst is so much similar in structure to E. 0/1

histolytica but a lot smaller in size (5-12 um)?

a. Entamoeba polecki

b. Endolimax nana

c. Entamoeba coli

d. Entamoeba hartmanii
Which of the following is an incorrect pair regarding amoeba and their 1/1
characteristic feature?

a. Iodamoeba butschlii – Basket nucleus

b. Endolimax nana – 4 cross-eyed nuclei

c. Entamoeba coli – Witch broom chromatoidal body

d. All of the choices

e. None of the choices

Which of the following is true regarding Coccidians? 0/1

a. Merogony is a sexual multiplication process

b. Sheather’s sugar floatation and Acid fast stain are key procedure for
identification

c. Sporogony is an asexual multiplication process

d. None of the choices

String test/Entero-test is a diagnostic procedure that uses nylon cord 1/1
coiled inside a gelatin capsule that is swallowed by patient and retrieved
after 4 hours to examine parasites such as:
I. S. stercolaris

II. G. duodenalis

III. Cryptosporidium

IV. Microsporidia

V. Eggs of Clonorchis

a. II

b. I and II

c. I to III

d. I to V

Antigen detection kits for water and outbreak season will usually detect 1/1
which parasites?

a. Ascaris and Hookworm

b. Plasmodium and Babesia

c. Dientamoeba and E. histolytica

d. Cryptosporidium and Giardia

Which is false regarding Cyclospora cayetanensis? 0/1

a. Unstained part in modified acid-fast stain appear as glassy, wrinkled spheres

(wrinkled cellophane)

b. The oocyst autofluoresce green or blue depending on the excitation filter

used

c. Either of the choices

d. Neither of the choices

Malabsorption, steatorrhea, water- and food-borne diarrhea, gay bowel 1/1

syndrome are caused by

a. G. duodenalis

b. D. fragilis

c. C. philippinensis

d. Cryptosporidium spp.
This hyaluronidase-producing invasive ciliate can be confused with 0/1
helminth eggs (esp if cilia are not visible) because of its very large size
(both cyst and trophozoite). It can cause intestinal ulcer, pneumonia-like
illness, UTI, and necrotic debris. Identify the parasite.

a. Cytoisospora belli

b. Enterocytozoon bieneusi

c. Balantidium coli

d. Blastocyctis hominis

Which is not a characteristic of E. histolytica? 0/1

a. Chromatoidal bodies are seen as blunt, rounded, smooth edges

b. Compact karyosome located centrally

c. Progressive motility with finger-like pseudopodia

d. Clumped solid peripheral chromatin

Which is true regarding Rhizopoda amebas? 0/1

a. Entamoeba genus is considered true amoeba

b. Non-Entamoeba spp. consists of peripheral chromatin

c. Chromatoidal bar of true amoeba exists in cyst and trophozoite stage

d. All of the choices

Which statement is false regarding D. fragilis? 0/1

a. 60-80% of trophozoite is binucleated and can be transmitted by pinworm

b. The only pathogenic intestinal flagellate aside from G. duodenalis

c. Causes diarrhea, fatigue, poor weight gain

d. Trophozoite and cyst is diagnostic stage in stool

In permanently stained smear, E. histolytica trophozoite in liquid stool 0/1

appears as:

a. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBC, clear pseudopodia

b. Ingested RBC, clear pseudopodia, uneven chromatin in nuclear membrane

c. Ingested RBC, clear pseudopodia, large glycogen vacuole in cytoplasm

d. Large, blot-like karyosome, ingested white blood cell, granular pseudopod

Which pair is incorrect regarding the flagellate and their characteristic 0/1
structure?

a. Undulating membrane and flagella (anterior/posterior) – Trichomonas spp.

b. Nipple-like protrusion in cyst (Lemon-shaped) and shepherd’s crook –

Chilomastix mesnili

c. Sucking disk, flagella, and axoneme – Trichomonas tenax

d. All of the choices

In a patient with diarrhea, occasionally E. histolytica/E. dispar cyst are 1/1
misidentified as

a. Macrophage

b. Neutrophil/PMN

c. Epithelial cell

d. Eosinophil

Which protein is detected in E. histolytica immunoassays? 1/1

a. SREHP

b. SHEHP

c. LREHP

d. LHEHP
Which of the following is morphologically indistinguishable to E. 1/1
histolytica?
I. Entamoeba dispar

II. Entamoeba moshkovskii

III. Entamoeba bangladeshi

a. I and II

b. II and III

c. I and III

d. All of the choices

Which among the following is considered as the most common parasite 1/1
found in intestinal tract? It can be detected in 1 to 40% of fecal specimen
depending on geographic location.

a. Iodamoeba butschlii

b. Blastocystis hominis

c. Giardia duodenalis

d. Endolimax nana
 Infection with this parasite mimics acute viral enteritis, bacillary dysentery, 0/1
food poisoning, acute intestinal amebiasis, or traveler’s diarrhea caused by
ETEC:

a. G. duodenalis

b. B. hominis

c. E. histolytica

d. lumbricoides

Untitled Section 7 of 25 points

Which is true regarding Toxoplasma gondii? 1/1

a. Human is the secondary host, while cats are definitive host

b. Bradyzoites stay dormant while Tachyzoites are continuously replicating

c. Sabin-Feldman test utilizes methylene blue, patient serum, and trophozoite of T.

gondii

d. All of the choices

e. None of the choices

Which is not true regarding Trichomonas vaginalis? 0/1

a. Parasite resides in vagina (female) or prostate/urethra (male)

b. Modified diamond medium/Feinberg-Whittington’s medium is used for culture

c. With 3-5 anterior flagella, and 1 posterior

d. Trophozoite is usually seen, but rarely cyst stage can be observed in culture

Which helminth can be possibly transmitted through breastfeeding? 0/1

a. Ancylostoma

b. Strongyloides

c. Either of the choices

d. Neither of the choices

These extremely small ectoparasite burrows into the skin and hair follicle 1/1
causing pimple-like lesions and itching (Crabs):

a. Pthirus pubis

b. Sarcoptes scabei

c. Dermacentor andersoni

d. Xenopsylla cheopis
Which statement regarding Leishmania is correct? 0/1

a. Oriental sore/Jericho boil is caused by L. tropica

b. Dr. Montenegro skin test is used for detection of Leishmania braziliensis

c. L. donovani causes Kala-azar/Dumdum fever/Black fever

d. Phlebotomus sand fly is the vector

e. All of the choices

Which free-living amoeba and their characteristic disease pair is incorrect? 0/1

I. Acanthamoeba castellani – GAE and contact lens keratitis

II. Balamuthia mandrillaris – GAE-like illness& Cutaneous infection

III. Naegleria fowleri – PAM

IV. Sappinia pedata – headache & encephalitis

V. Hartmanella – brain disease in immunocompromised only

a. III to V

b. II, IV, V

c. I, III, IV

d. None of the choices

e. Any of the choices

Which artifact and the parasitic stage is a correct pair in terms of their 1/1
resemblance/similarity in structure?

a. Stain precipitate – Malarial pigment

b. PMN – E. histolytica cyst

c. Pollen grain – Taenia egg

d. Vegetable spiral – helminth larva

e. All of the choices

Which of the following is incorrect regarding East African 0/1

trypanosomiasis?

a. Agent is T. brucei gambiense

b. Vector is Tsetse fly (Glossina palpalis)

c. Acute CNS invasion with high parasitemia

d. Diagnostic stage is trypomastigote

What is the stain used for T. vaginalis? 0/1

a. Giemsa

b. Papaniculaou

c. Either of the choices

d. Neither of the choices

A transplant patient on immunosuppressive drugs developed increasing 0/1

diarrhea. The most likely combination of disease and lab method is:

a. Trichinosis and trichrome stain

b. Microsporidiosis and modified trichrome stain

c. Toxoplamsosis and Sabin feldman dye

d. Paragonimiasis and wet preparation

In wet prep examination, epithelial cell may be mistakenly identified as: 0/1

a. Amebic trophozoite

b. Nematode egg

c. Amebic cyst

d. Oocyst
All are spinal fluid laboratory finding observed in primary amebic 0/1
meningoencephalitis except?

a. Normal or decreased glucose

b. Decreased protein

c. >20 000/uL WBC

d. Multiple PMN with absence of bacteria

Recrudescence may be observed more commonly in which malarial 0/1

parasite?

a. P. vivax & P. ovale

b. P. vivax, P.ovale, & P. malariae

c. P. malariae & P. falciparum

d. P. knowlesi

Which infective stage and parasite combination is correct? 0/1

a. Embryonated egg – Strongyloides stercolaris

b. Cyst – Dientamoeba fragilis

c. Cercaria – Echinostoma ilocanum

d. Cysticercus bovis – Taenia saginata

Flies are not associated to which of the following? 0/1

a. T. brucei

b. Bartonella

c. Onchocerca

d. Borrelia

Which of the following is true regarding Plasmodium life cycle? 0/1

a. Sporogony is asexual stage in human.

b. Schizogony is sexual stage in mosquito.

c. The hypnozoites often causes true relapse within 1 year or up to more than 5
years later

d. Hypnozoites remain in the bone marrow, liver, and lymph nodes for a year or
more.

Which of the following is a recommended test to detect Trypanosoma 1/1

species with highest sensitivity?

a. Thick blood smear

b. Thin blood smear

c. Quantitative Buffy coat smear

d. Any of the choices

Sedimentation concentration techniques is ideal for detection of 1/1

a. Schistosomal and operculated eggs

b. Cestode and trematode eggs

c. T. trichiura and C. philippinensis eggs

d. All of the choices

Which is not a correct statement regarding Plasmodium spp. and their 0/1
characteristic feature?

a. P. vivax infects reticulocytes only in which trophozoite has ameboid rings

b. P. ovale has serrated/fimbriated edges of tropohozoite

c. P. knowlesi has characteristic band form of trophozoite

d. P. falciparum exhibits multiple ring and applique/accole ring

What is the diagnostic stage of T. cruzi seen in Chagas disease? 1/1

a. Amastigote

b. Trypomastigote

c. Either of the choices

d. Neither of the choices

Which is not true regarding Babesia? 0/1

a. Causes redwater fever/disease or Nantucket fever

b. Has maltese-cross formation in RBC

c. Resembles P. malariae ring forms

d. Infective stage is sporozoites transmitted through ticks

Which is true regarding the simian malaria/Plasmodium knowlesi? 0/1

a. Old trophozoites exists as band form

b. Multiple rings (2-3) may be seen in younger forms

c. Cross-reacts with P. vivax in PCR

d. Has 24 hour cycle

e. All of the choices

Which is least associated to Trypanosoma cruzi? 0/1

a. Unilateral swelling of eyelids (Romaña’s sign)

b. Chagas disease (Cardiac, CNS, RES involvement)

c. Triatoma, Rhodnius, Panstrongylus bug

d. Promastigote is infective stage

Which test and parasite combination is mismatched? 0/1

a. Sheather’s sugar floatation – Coccidians

b. Circumoval precipitin test – Fasciola

c. Non nutrient agar culture – Acanthamoeba

d. Bentonite flocculation – T. spiralis/E. granulosus

Paroxysm (recurrent chills and fever) due to synchronized rupture of red 1/1
cells for P. falciparum occurs:

a. Every 32 hour

b. Every 36 hours

c. Every 72 hours

d. Every 46 hours

This form was created inside of perc.com.ph.

Forms