Chapterwise Super Thirty Final

CHAPTERWISE SUPER THIRTY
PHYSICS PROBLEMS
AK PHYSICS CLASSES
TIRUPATI.
CELL NO.9440025125.
CHAPTERWISE SUPER THIRTY PHYSICS PROBLEMS
TRANSFERENCE OF HEAT
SL NO PROBLEM
1a A block of steel heated to 100 0C is left in a room to
cool. Which of the curves shown in the figure
represents the decrease of temperature with time?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) None of these
2b In Ingen Hausz experiment the wax melts up to 5 cm
and 10 cm on bars A and B, respectively. The ratio of
the thermal conductivities of A and B is
a) 1 : 2
b) 1 : 4
c) 1 : 8
d) 1 : 16
3b Two vessels A and B of different materials are similar
in shape and size. The same quantity of ice filled in
them melts in time t1 and t2 respectively. The ratio
of the thermal conductivities of A and B is
a) t1 : t2
b) t2 : t1
c) t12 : t22
d) t22 : t12
4d A planet having average surface temperature T0 is at
an average distance d from the sun. Assuming that
the planet receives radiant energy from the sun only
and it loses radiant energy only from its surface and
neglecting all other atmospheric effects we conclude
a) T0  d2
b) T0  d-2
c) T0  d1/2
d) T0  d-1/2
5c Two rods of the same material have diameters in the
ratio 1 : 2 and length in the ratio 2 : 1. If the
temperature difference between their ends is the
same, the ratio of the heats conducted by them in a
given time is
a) 1 : 4
b) 4 : 1
c) 1 : 8
d) 8 : 1
AK PHYSICS CLASSES, TIRUPATI.CELL NO.9440025125. 1

6d Water is being boiled in a flat bottomed kettle
placed on a stove. The area of the bottom is 300 cm2
and the thickness is 2 mm. If the amount of steam
produced is 1 g min-1, then the difference of the
temperature between the inner and the outer
surfaces of the bottom is (thermal conductivity of
the material of the kettle = 0.5 cal cm-1s-1 0C-1, latent
heat of the steam is equal to 540 calg-1)
a) 12 0C
b) 1.2 0C
c) 0.12 0C
d) 0.012 0C
7c A and B are two points on a uniform metal ring whose
centre is O. The angle AOB = θ. A and B are
maintained at two different constant temperatures.
When θ = 1800, the rate of total heat flow from A to
B is 1.2 W. When θ = 900, this rate will be
a) 0.6 watt
b) 0.9 watt
c) 1.6 watt
d) 1.8 watt
8b A point source of heat of power P is placed at the
centre of a spherical shell of mean radius R. The
material of the shell has thermal conductivity k. If
the temperature difference between the outer and
the inner surface of the shell is not to exceed T, then
the thickness of the shell should not be less than
2 R 2 kT
a)
P
4 R 2 kT
b)
P
 R kT
2
c)
P
 R 2 kT
d)
4P
9c The thermal conductivities of copper, mercury and
glass are, respectively, KC, KM and KG such that KC >
KM > KG. If the same quantity of heat flows per second
per unit area of each and the corresponding
temperature gradients are XC, XM and XG, then
a) XC = XM = XG
b) XC > XM > XG
c) XC < XM < XG
d) XM > XC > XG

10b The plots of intensity verses wavelength for three
black bodies at temperature T1, T2 and T3
respectively are as shown. Their temperatures are
such that
a) T1 > T2 > T3
b) T1 > T3 > T2
c) T2 > T3 > T1
d) T3 > T2 > T1
11b, d A planet having surface temperature T K has a solar
constant S. An angle θ is subtended by the sun at the
planet.
a) S  T2
b) S  T4
c) S  θ0
d) S  θ2
12b A system S receives heat continuously from an
electrical heater of power 10 W. The temperature of
S becomes constant at 50 0C when the surrounding
temperature is 20 0C. After the heater is switched
off, S cools from 35.1 0C to 34.9 0C in 1 minute. The
heat capacity of S is
a) 750 J(0C)-1
b) 1500 J(0C)-1
c) 3000 J(0C)-1
d) 6000 J(0C)-1
13d An object is at the temperature of 400 0C. At what
temperature would it radiate twice as fast? The
temperature of the surroundings may be assumed to
be negligible
a) 200 0C
b) 200 K
c) 200 F
d) 800 K
14c The temperature of an isolated body of mass m, gram
specific heat c falls from T1 to T2 in time t.
mc  1 1 
a) t=  3− 3
  T2 T1 
2mc  1 1 
b) t=  3− 3
  T2 T1 
mc  1 1 
c) t=  3− 3
3  T2 T1 
3  1 1 
d) t=  3− 3
mc  T2 T1 

15c A closed cubical box made of perfectly insulating
material has wall of thickness 8 cm and the only way
for heat to enter or leave the box is through two solid
metal plugs A and B, each of cross-sectional area 12
cm2 and length 8 cm fixed in the opposite walls of
the box as shown in the figure. Outer surface A is
kept at 100 0C. The thermal conductivity of the
material of the plugs is 0.5 cals-1 cm-1 (0C)-1. A source
of energy generating 36 cals-1 is enclosed inside the
box. The equilibrium temperature of the inner
surface of the box (assuming that it is same at all
points on the inner surface)
a) 38 0C
b) 57 0C
c) 76 0C
d) 85 0C
16a While measuring the thermal conductivity of a liquid,
we keep the upper part hot and the lower cool
because
a) It stops convection
b) It stops radiation
c) Heat conduction is easier downwards
d) It is easier and more convenient to do so
17b A black body at 227 0C radiates heat at the rate of 5
cals-1cm-2. The rate of heat radiated in cals-1cm-2 at
727 0C is
a) 40
b) 80
c) 160
d) 240
18a A graph is drawn between λ and Eλ. The area A under
the graph is related to the absolute temperature T
as
a) A  T4
b) A  T2
c) A  T-2
d) A  T-4
19b Three rods A, B and C of same length and cross-
sectional area are joined in series. Their thermal
conductivities are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 1.5. If the open
ends of A and C are at 200 0C and 18 0C, respectively.
At equilibrium, the temperature at the junction of A
and B is
a) 74 0C
b) 116 0C
c) 156 0C
d) 148 0C

20a Four rods of same material but different radii r and
lengths l are used to connect two reservoirs of heat
at different temperatures. The one which will
conduct most heat is
a) r = 2 cm, l = 0.5 m
b) r = 2 cm, l = 2 m
c) r = 1 cm, l = 1 m
d) R = 0.5 cm, l = 0.5 cm
21a The rate of radiation from a black body at 0 0C is E.
Then the rate of radiation from this black body at
273 0C will be
a) 16E
b) 8E
c) 4E
d) E
22a, d One end of the metal rod of area A and length l is
kept in steam. A steady state is reached after some
time in which the amount of heat passing through
any cross-section of rod per second is Q. Q will
increase if
a) A is increased
b) l is increases
c) The room temperature is increased
d) The room temperature is decreased
23d The thermal conductivity of the plate depends upon
a) The temperature difference between the
two sides
b) The thickness of the plate
c) The area of the plate
d) None of the above
24a A polished metal plate with a rough black spot on it
is heated to about 1400 K and quickly taken to dark
room. Then the spot
a) Will appear brighter than the plate
b) Will appear darker than the plate
c) And the plate will appear equally bright
d) The plate will not be visible in dark room
25a Five rods having thermal conductivities k1, k2, k3, k4
and k5 are arranged as shown. The points A and B are
maintained at different temperatures such that no
thermal current flows through the central rod.
a) K1k4 = k3k2
b) K1 = k3, k2 = k4
c) K1k3 = k2k4
k1 k3
d) =
k4 k2
26a, b Two bodies A and B have thermal emissivities of 0.01
and 0.81, respectively. The outer surface areas of
two bodies are the same. The two bodies emit total
radiant power at the same rate. The wavelength λB
corresponding to maximum spherical spectral
radiance in the radiation from B is shifted from the
wavelength corresponding to the maximum spectral
radiance in from A by 1.00 µm. If the temperature of
A is 5802 K, then
a) The temperature of B is 1934 K
b) λB = 1.5 µm
c) The temperature of B is 11604 K
d) The temperature of B is 2901 K
27b Two spherical black bodies of radii r1 and r2 and with
surface temperatures T1 and T2 respectively radiate
r1
the same power. must be equal to
r2
2
 T1 
a)  
 T2 
2
 T2 
b)  
 T1 
4
 T1 
c)  
 T2 
4
 T2 
d)  
 T1 
28c It is hotter for the same distance over the top of the
flame than it is on one side of it as
a) More heat is radiated upwards
b) Air conducts more heat upwards
c) Convection takes heat upwards
d) Some other reason not mentioned here
29a A black body radiates power P and maximum energy
is radiated by it around a wavelength λ0. The
temperature of the black body is now changed such
that it radiates maximum energy around the
30
wavelength . The power radiated by it now is
4
256
a) P
81
16
b) P
9
64
c) P
27
4
d) P
3

30c A spherical black body of radius r0 radiates a power
P at temperature T0. Another spherical black body of
r0
radius and at temperature 2T0 emits a power
2
a) P
b) 2P
c) 4P
d) 8P

HEAT & THERMODYNAMICS
SL NO PROBLEM
1d The Bulk modulus of a diatomic gas at atmospheric
pressure is
a) 0 Nm-2
b) 1 Nm-2
c) 1.4 x 104 Nm-2
d) 1.4 x 105 Nm-2
2b A gas, is heated at constant pressure. The fraction of
heat supplied used for external work is
1
a)

 1
b) 1 − 
 
c) γ–1
 1 
d) 1 − 2 
  
3b Mean free path of the molecules of a gas depends on
the pressure P as
a) P
b) P-1
c) P-2
d) P2
4a A piece of glass is heated to a high temperature and
then allowed to cool. If it cracks, a possible reason
for this is the following property of the glass
a) Low thermal conductivity
b) High thermal conductivity
c) High specific heat
d) Low specific
5c The temperature of source and sink of a Carnot
Engine are 327 0C and 27 0C, respectively. The
efficiency of the engine is
 27 
a) 1–  
 327 
27
b)
327
c) 0.5
d) 0.7
6a, c A body of mass m has gram specific heat c.

a) Heat capacity of the body is mc
b) Water equivalent of the body is m
c) Water equivalent of the body is mc
d) Heat capacity of the body is c
7a, b For a gas if CP is the specific heat at constant
pressure, CV is the specific heat at constant volume,
R is the Universal Gas constant and f be the degrees
of freedom then

2CV
a) f =
R
C 
b) f = 2  P − 1
 R 
C
c) f = V
R
CP
d) f = −1
R
8a A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure P and
volume V are related as PVn = constant, where n is a
CP
constant. If  = , then molar heat capacity for
CV
the gas in this process is zero for
a) n=γ
b) n=γ–1
c) n=γ+1
d) n=1–γ
9b R 2
For a gas = . Possibly the gas is
CP 3
a) Diatomic
b) Monatomic
c) A mixture of diatomic and monatomic
d) Polyatomic
10d Two rods of length L2 and coefficient of linear
expansion α2 are connected freely to a third rod of
length L1 of coefficient of linear expansion α1 to form
an isosceles triangle. The arrangement is supported
on the knife edge at the midpoint of L1 which is
horizontal. The apex of the isosceles triangle is to
remain at a constant distance from the knife edge if
L1  2
a) =
L2 1
L1 2
b) =
L2 1
L1 
c) =2 2
L2 1
L1 
d) =2 2
L2 1
11d A sealed container with negligible coefficient of
expansion contained helium. When it is heated from
27 0C to 327 0C, the average kinetic energy of helium
becomes
a) 12 times
b) 8 times
c) 4 times
d) 2 times

12c A substance of mass M kg requires an input power P
watt to remain in the molten state at its melting
point. When the power source is turned off, the
sample completely solidifies in time t second. The
specific latent heat of fusion of the substance is
2Pt
a)
M
Pt
b)
2M
Pt
c)
M
PM
d)
t
13c Two metal rods having same length and area of cross-
section are fixed end to end between two rigid
supports. The coefficient of linear expansion of the
rods are α1 and α2 and their respective Young’s
moduli are Y1 and Y2. The system is now cooled and
it is observed that the junction between the rods
does not shift at all for the condition.
a) Y1α2 = Y2α1
b) Y112 = Y2 22
c) Y1α1 = Y2α2
d) Y1 22 = Y212
14a, c  7 
Three moles of an ideal gas  CP = R  at pressure
 2 
PA and temperature TA is isothermally expanded to
twice its initial volume. It is then compressed at
constant pressure to its original volume. Finally the
gas is compressed at constant volume to its original
pressure PA. The correct P – T diagrams indicating the
process are
15b The first law of thermodynamics is concerned with

the conservation of
a) Number of molecules
b) Energy
c) Number of moles
d) Temperature

16a A steel rod of length L0 has a cross-sectional area A.
The force required to stretch this rod by the same
amount as the expansion produced by heating it
through ΔT is (Coefficient of linear expansion of steel
is α and Young’s Modulus for steel is Y)
a) YAαΔT
1
b) YAαΔT
2
c) 2YAαΔT
d) None of these
17a, b CP is always greater than CV due to the fact that
a) No work is being done on heating the gas at
constant volume
b) When a gas absorbs heat at constant pressure
its volume must change so as to do some
external work
c) The internal energy is a function of
temperature only for an ideal gas
d) For the same rise of temperature, the
internal energy of a gas changes by a smaller
amount at constant volume that an constant
pressure.
18a A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of oxygen
and two moles of nitrogen at 300 K. The ratio of the
average rotational kinetic energy per oxygen
molecule to per nitrogen molecule is
a) 1 : 1
b) 1 : 2
c) 2 : 1
d) Depends on the moment of inertia of the two
molecules
19b A gas behaves as an ideal gas
a) At low pressure and high temperature
b) At very low pressure and high temperature
c) High pressure and low temperature
d) High pressure and high temperature
20a An ideal gas is taken through A → B → C → A, as
shown in figure. If the net heat supplied to the gas
in the cycle is 5 J, the work done by the gas in the
process C → A is
a) - 5J
b) - 10 J
c) - 15 J
d) - 20 J

21b  7
The pressure and density of a diatomic gas   = 
 5
change adiabatically from (P1, ρ1) to (P2, ρ2). If
 2   1 
  = 32, then   is
 1   2 
a) 128
1
b)
128
c) 32
d) None of these
22b A cyclic process is shown in the p – T diagram. Which
of the curves show the same process on a V – T
diagram?
23d A wire of length L0 is supplied heat to raise its

temperature by T. If γ is the coefficient of volume
expansion of the wire and Y is the Young’s modulus
of the wire then the energy density stored in the wire
is
1 2 2
a)  T Y
2
1 2 2
b)  T Y
3
1  2T 2
c)
18 Y
1 2 2
d)  T Y
18

24b The average degrees of freedom per molecule for a
gas is 6. The gas performs 25 J of work when it
expands at constant pressure. The heat absorbed by
gas is
a) 75 J
b) 100 J
c) 150 J
d) 125 J
25a In a given process of an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ <
0. Then for the gas
a) The temperature will decrease
b) The volume will increase
c) The pressure will remain constant
d) The temperature will increase
26c The average translational kinetic energy of O2
(relative molar mass 32) molecules at a particular
temperature is 0.048 eV. The translational kinetic
energy of N2 (relative molar mass 28) molecules in eV
at the same temperature is
a) 0.0015
b) 0.003
c) 0.048
d) 0.768
27b A cycle process ABCD is shown in the P – V diagram.
Which of the following curves represent the same
process?
28c 3.2 kg of ice at -10 0C just melts with a mass m of

steam
a) m= 400 g
b) m= 800 g
c) m= 425 g
d) m= 900 g

29c The plot of isotherms will not be a straight line when
a plot is drawn between
a) PV and V
b) S (entropy) and T
c) V and P
d) P and T
30d A monatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T 1,
is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless
piston. The gas is allowed to expand to a
temperature T2 by releasing the piston suddenly. If
L1 and L2 be the lengths of the gas column before and
T1
after the expansion respectively, then is given by
T2
2
 L1  3
a)  
 L2 
L1
b)
L2
L2
c)
L1
2
 L2  3
d)  
 L1 

MECHANICAL WAVES
SL NO PROBLEM
1c A string stretched by a weight of 4 kg is vibrating in
its fundamental mode. The additional weight
required to produce an octave of the first is
a) 4 kg
b) 8 kg
c) 12 kg
d) 16 kg
2b The equation of a wave travelling in a string can be
written as y = 3 cos {π(100t – x)} where y and x are
in cm and t is in second. Its wavelength is
a) 100 cm
b) 2 cm
c) 5 cm
3d At t = 0, a transverse wave pulse in a wire is
6
described by the function y = where x and y
x −3
2
are in metre. The function y(x, t) that describes this

wave equation if it is travelling in the positive x
direction with a speed of 4.5 ms-1 is
6
a) y=
( x + 4.5t ) 2 − 3
6
b) y=
( x − 4.5t ) 2 + 3
6
c) y=
( x + 4.5t ) 2 + 3
6
d) y=
( x − 4.5t ) 2 − 3
4b A transverse wave of amplitude 0.5 m, wavelength 1
m and frequency 2 Hz is propagating in a string in the
negative x direction. The equation of this wave is
a) Y = 0.5sin (2πx - 4πt)
b) Y = 0.5cos (2πx + 4πt)
c) Y = 0.5sin (πx – 2πt)
d) Y = 0.5cos (2πx + 2πt)
5a x x 
The equation of a wave is y = 4sin   2t + 
2  8 
where y, x are in cm and time in second. The
amplitude, wavelength, velocity and frequency of
the wave are, respectively,
a) 4 cm, 32 cm, 16 cms-1, 1.5 Hz
b) 8 cm, 16 cm, 32 cms-1, 1.0 Hz
c) 4 cm, 32 cm, 32 cms-1, 0.5 Hz
d) 8 cm, 16 cm, 16 cms-1, 1.0 Hz

6b In PROBLEM 5, the phase difference between two
positions of the same particle which are occupied at
time interval of 0.4 s is
a) 0.2 π
b) 0.4 π
c) 0.6 π
d) 0.8 π
7c In PROBLEM 5, the phase difference at any instant
between two particles 12 cm apart is

a)
4

b)
2
3
c)
4
d) π
8c Two identical sonometer wires have a fundamental
frequency of 500 Hz when kept under the same
tension. The percentage increase in the tension of
one wire that would cause an occurrence of 5 bps,
when both wires vibrate together, is
a) 1%
b) 1.5%
c) 2%
d) 4%
9d The equation of a wave travelling on a string is y =
  x 
4sin   8t −   , where x, y are in cm and t in
2  8 
second. The velocity of the wave is
a) 64 cms-1 in – x direction
b) 32 cms-1 in – x direction
c) 32 cms-1 in + x direction
d) 64 cms-1 in + x direction
10b Two speakers connected to the same source of fixed
frequency are placed 2.0 m apart in a box. A
sensitive microphone placed at a distance of 4.0 m
from their midpoint along the perpendicular bisector
shows maximum response. The box is slowly rotated
until the speakers are in line with the microphone.
The distance between the midpoint of the speakers
and the microphone remains unchanged. Exactly five
maximum responses are observed in the microphone
in doing this. The wavelength of the sound wave is
a) 0.2 m
b) 0.4 m
c) 0.6 m
d) 0.8 m

11c A person speaking normally produces a sound
intensity of 40 dB at a distance of 1 m. If the
threshold intensity for reasonable audibility is 20 dB,
the maximum distance at which he can be heard
clearly is
a) 4 m
b) 5 m
c) 10 m
d) 20 m
12a An engine is moving on a circular track with a
constant speed. It is blowing a whistle of frequency
500 Hz. The frequency received by an observer
standing stationary at the centre of the track is
a) 500 Hz
b) More than 500 Hz
c) Less than 500 Hz
d) More or less than 500 Hz depending on the
actual speed of the engine.
13b The frequency of a radar is 780 MHz. When it is
reflected from an approaching aeroplane, the
apparent frequency is more than the actual
frequency by 2.6 kHz. The speed of the aeroplane is
a) 0.25 kms-1
b) 0.5 kms-1
c) 1.0 kms-1
d) 2.0 kms-1
14a Two tuning forks of frequencies 256 Hz and 258 Hz
are sounded together. The time interval, between
two consecutive maxima heard by an observer is
a) 0.5 s
b) 2 s
c) 250 s
d) 252 s
15b The frequency of the whistle of an engine is 600 Hz.
It is moving with a speed of 30 ms -1 towards a
stationary observer. The apparent frequency is
(speed of sound is 330 ms-1)
a) 630 Hz
b) 660 Hz
c) 570 Hz
d) 540 Hz
16b Two sounding bodies producing progressive waves
given by y1 = 4 sin(400πt) and y2 = 3 sin(404πt), where
t is in seconds, are situated near the ears of a person.
The person will hear
4
a) 2 beats per second with intensity ratio
3
between maxima and minima
b) 2 beats per second with intensity ratio 49
c) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 7

4
d) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio
3
17b Two loudspeakers L1 and L2, driven by a common
oscillator and amplifier, are arranged as shown. The
frequency of the oscillator is gradually increased
from zero and the detector at D records a series of
maxima and minima. If the speed of sound is 330 ms-
1
then the frequency at which the first maximum is
observed is
a) 165 Hz
b) 330 Hz
c) 495 Hz
d) 660 Hz
18a If the tension in a string stretched between two fixed
points is made four times, the frequency of the
second harmonic will become
a) Two times
b) Three times
c) Four times
d) Six times
19b, c, The velocity of sound in air is affected by change in
d the
a) Atmospheric pressure
b) Moisture content of air
c) Temperature of air
d) Composition of air
20b A train is moving at 30 ms-1 in still air. The frequency
of the locomotive whistle is 500 Hz and the speed of
sound is 345 ms-1. The apparent wavelengths of
sound in front of and behind the locomotive are
respectively
a) 0.63 m, 0.80 m
b) 0.63 m, 0.75 m
c) 0.60 m, 0.85 m
d) 0.60 m, 0.75 m
21a In PROBLEM 20, what would be the apparent
wavelengths as heard by stationary listeners in front
of and behind the locomotive if a wind of speed 10
ms-1 were blowing in the same direction as that in
which the locomotive is travelling?
a) 0.65 m, 0.73 m
b) 0.60 m, 0.73 m
c) 0.65 m, 0.78 m
d) 0.60 m, 0.71 m

22b An organ pipe P1, closed at one end and vibrating in
its first overtone, and another pipe P 2 open at both
ends and vibrating in its third overtone, are in
resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the
length of P1 to that of P2 is
8
a)
3
3
b)
8
1
c)
2
1
d)
3
23c Choose the correct statement(s)
a) Sound waves are transverse waves
b) Sound waves travel fastest through vacuum
c) Sound waves travel faster in solids than in
gases
d) Sound waves travel faster in gases than in
liquids.
24d A wave is reflected from a rigid support. The change
of phase on reflection will be
a) 0

b)
4

c)
2
d) π
25d A man standing in front of a mountain beats a drum
at regular intervals. The rate of drumming is
generally increased and he finds that the echo is not
heard distinctly when the rate becomes 40 per
minute. He then moves nearer to the mountain by 90
m and finds that echo is again not heard when the
drumming rate becomes 60 per minute. The distance
between the mountain and the initial position of the
man is
a) 205 m
b) 300 m
c) 180 m
d) 270 m
26a A source of sound in moving with a constant speed of
20 ms-1 emitting a note of a fixed frequency. The
ratio of the frequencies observed by a stationary
observer when the source is approaching him and
after it has crossed him is
a) 9 : 8
b) 8 : 9
c) 10 : 9
d) 9 : 10

27b A wave of frequency 500 Hz has a velocity 360 ms -1.
The distance between two nearest points which are
600 out of phase, is
a) 0.7 cm
b) 12 cm
c) 70 cm
d) 120 cm
28a A column of air at 51 0C and a tuning fork produce 4
bps when sounded together. As the temperature of
the air column is decreased, the number of bps tends
to decrease and when the temperature is 16 0C, the
two produce 1 bps. The frequency of the fork is
a) 50 Hz
b) 75 Hz
c) 100 Hz
d) 150 Hz
29a The intensity in Wm-2 of a 70 dB noise is
a) 10-5
b) 10-7
c) 105
d) 107
30c A car, sounding a horn of frequency 1000 Hz, is
moving directly towards a huge wall at a speed of 15
ms-1. If speed of sound is 340 ms-1, then the
frequency of the echo heard by the driver is
a) 1046 Hz
b) 954 Hz
c) 1092 Hz
d) 908 Hz

OSCILLATIONS
SL NO PROBLEM
1b Figure shows a mass m suspended with a massless
inextensible string passing over a frictionless pulley.
The other end of string is connected a spring of force
constant K, whose other end is connected to a rigid
floor. If mass I stretched a little and allowed to
vibrate; the time period of oscillations of mass is
K
a) 2
m
m
b) 2
K
2m
c) 2
K
m
d) 2
2K
2a A mass M is attached to four springs of spring
constants 2K, 2K, K, K as shown in figure. The mass
is capable of oscillating on a frictionless horizontal
floor. If it is displaced slightly and released, the
frequency of resulting S.H.M> would be
1 3K
a)
2 M
1 4K
b)
2 M
1 11K
c)
2 2M
1 2K
d)
2 3M

3c Two pendulums of lengths 1 m and 16 m are in phase
at mean position at a certain instant of time. If T is
time period of shorter pendulum, the minimum time
after which they will again be in phase is
T
a)
3
2T
b)
3
4T
c)
3
8T
d)
3
4a Two springs fixed at one end are stretched by 5 cm
and 10 cm, respectively, when masses 0.5 kg and 1
kg are suspended at their lower ends. When
displaced slightly from their mean positions and
released, they will oscillate with time periods in the
ratio
a) 1: 2
b) 1:2
c) 2 :1
d) 2:1
5a k k
Two springs of force constant and are joined
5 4
in series and then connected to a mass m. The
frequency of oscillation of the mass will be
1 k
a)
6 m
3 k
b)
2 m
1 k
c)
2 m
2 k
d)
 20 m
6b In PROBLEM 5, if the springs are connected in
parallel, the frequency of oscillation will be
3 k
a)
2 m
3 k
b)
2 20 m
2 k
c)
 20 m
3 k
d)
 m

7a A particle executing S.H.M. of period 4 s. Then the
time taken by it to move from the mean position to
half the amplitude starting from the mean position
1
a) s
3
1
b) s
2
2
c) s
3
d) 4 s
8b A simple pendulum is suspended from the roof of a
trolley that moves freely down a plane of inclination
α. The time period of oscillation is
L
a) 2
g
L
b) 2
g cos 
L
c) 2
g sin 
L
d) 2
g tan 
9d One end of a spring of force constant K is fixed to a
vertical wall and other to a body of mass m resting
on a smooth horizontal surface. There is another wall
at a distance x0 from the body. The spring is then
compressed by 2x0 and released. The time taken to
strike the wall from its compressed position is
4 m
a) 
3 K
5 m
b) 
6 K
1 m
c) 
6 K
2 m
d) 
3 K

10d The ratio of the amplitudes of a simple harmonic
 A
oscillations given by y1 = A sin(ωt) and y2 =   sin
2
 A
(ωt) +   cos (ωt) is
2
a) 1
b) 2
1
c)
2
d) 2
11c When the potential energy of the particle executing
S.H.M. is one-fourth of its maximum value during the
oscillation, the displacement of the particle from the
equilibrium position in terms of its amplitude a is
a
a)
4
a
b)
3
a
c)
2
2a
d)
3
12b A mass m attached to a spring oscillates with a period
of 3 s. If the mass is increased by 1 kg the period
increases by 1 s. The initial mass m in kg is
7
a)
9
9
b)
7
14
c)
9
18
d)
7
13a The total energy of the particle executing S.H.M. of
amplitude A s proportional to
a) A2
b) A-2
c) A
d) A-1
14b A particle executes S.H.M. with frequency f. The
frequency with which its kinetic energy oscillates is
a) 4f
b) 2f
c) f
f
d)
2

15a A system exhibiting S.H.M. must have
a) Elasticity as well as inertia
b) Elasticity, inertia and an external force
c) Elasticity only
d) Inertia only
16d The period of a particle executing S.H.M. is 8 s. At t
= 0 it is at the mean position. The ratio of the
distances covered by the particle in the 1st second to
the 2nd second is
1
a)
2 +1
b) 2
1
c)
2
d) 2 +1
17b A pan with a set of weights is attached to a light
spring. The period of vertical oscillations is 0.5 s.
When some additional weights are put on the pan,
the period of oscillations increases by 0.1 s. The
extension caused by the additional weights is
a) 1.3 cm
b) 2.7 cm
c) 3.8 cm
d) 5.5 cm
18b A weakly damped harmonic oscillator of frequency n1
is driven by an external periodic force of frequency
n2. When the steady state is reached, the frequency
of the oscillator will be
a) n1
b) n2
1
c) (n1 + n2)
2
d) n1 + n2
19c A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible
mass. The spring is pulled a little and then released
so that it executes simple harmonic oscillations with
a period T. If the mass is increased by m, the period
5T m
becomes . The ratio   is
4 M 
4
a)
5
5
b)
4
9
c)
16
25
d)
16

20a d2y
The equation of S.H.M. of a particle is + ky = 0 ,
dx 2
where k is a positive constant. The time period of
motion is given by
2
a)
k
2
b)
k
k
c)
2
k
d)
2
21b A simple pendulum is vibrating in an evacuated
chamber. It will
a) Come to rest eventually
b) Oscillate forever with the same amplitude
and frequency
c) Oscillate with the same frequency but
amplitude will decrease with time
d) Oscillate with the same amplitude but
frequency will decrease with time
22c A particle of mass 0.5 kg executes S.H.M. Its energy
is 0.04 J. If its time period is π second, its amplitude
is
a) 10 cm
b) 15 cm
c) 20 cm
d) 40 cm
23c A particle executes S.H.M. with frequency f. The
frequency with which its kinetic energy oscillates is
f
a)
2
b) f
c) 2f
d) 4f
24b, d A cylindrical log of wood is floating in a large pool of
water with its length normal to water’s surface. The
log has a radius r, mass m, length l and has density
σ. If the log is depressed below its equilibrium depth
d (but not beneath the surface of water) and then
released it executes harmonic oscillations with time
period T. (Assume density of water to be ρ)
m
a) T = 2
2 rl g
2 m
b) T=
r  g
m
c) d =
2 r  l

m
d) d=
 r2
25d A simple harmonic oscillator has amplitude A and
time period T. Its maximum speed is
4A
a)
T
2A
b)
T
4 A
c)
T
2 A
d)
T
26a A simple harmonic oscillator has time period T. The
time taken by it to travel from extreme position to
half the amplitude
T
a)
6
T
b)
4
T
c)
3
T
d)
2
27b Springs of constants k, 2k, 4k, 8k, …., 2048k are
connected in series. A mass m is attached to one end
and the system is allowed to oscillate. The time
period is approximately
m
a) 2
2k
2m
b) 2
k
m
c) 2
4k
4m
d) 2
k
28b A loaded spring vibrates with a period T. The spring
is divided into four equal parts and the same load is
suspended from one of these parts. The new time
period is
T
a)
4
T
b)
2
c) 2T
d) 4T

29c Two linear simple harmonic motions of equal
amplitudes a and frequencies ω and 2ω are
impressed on a particle along x and y axis
respectively. If the initial phase difference between

them is , the resultant trajectory equation of the
2
particle is
a) a2y2 = x2(a2 – x2)
b) a2y2 = 2x2(a2 – x2)
c) a2y2 = 4x2(a2 – x2)
d) a2y2 = 8x2(a2 – x2)
30c The bob of a simple pendulum of period T is given a
negative charge. If it is allowed to oscillate above a
positively charged plate, the new time period will be
a) Equal to T
b) More than T
c) Less than T
d) Infinite

PROPERTIES OF MATTER
SL NO PROBLEM
1a Young’s modulus of steel in is 2 x 1011 Nm-2. A steel
wire has a length of 1 m and area of cross section 1
mm2. The work required to increase its length by 1
mm is
a) 0.1 J
b) 1 J
c) 10 J
d) 100 J
2c Bulk modulus of water is 2 x 109 Nm-2. The change in
pressure required to increase the density of water by
0.1% is
a) 2 x 109 Nm-2
b) 2 x 108 Nm-2
c) 2 x 106 Nm-2
d) 2 x 104 Nm-2
3b A rubber cord of length L is suspended vertically.
Density of rubber is D and Young’s modulus is Y. If
the cord extends by a length l under its own weight,
then
L2 Dg
a) l=
Y
2
L Dg
b) l=
2Y
2
L Dg
c) l=
4Y
2
L Dg
d) l=
8Y
4b If Young’s modulus of iron is 2 x 1011 Nm-2 and the
interatomic spacing between two molecules is 3 x 10-
10
m, the interatomic force constant is
a) 30 Nm-1
b) 60 Nm-1
c) 120 Nm-1
d) 240 Nm-1
5c For a given material the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times
the modulus of rigidity. Its Poisson’s ratio is
a) 0.1
b) 0.15
c) 0.2
d) 0.4
6a A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.20. If a uniform rod
of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 x 10-3, then the
percentage change in volume is
a) + 0.12
b) - 0.12
c) + 0.28
d) - 0.28

7c A cube of side 10 cm is subjected to a tangential
force of 5 x 105 N at the upper face, keeping lower
face fixed and the upper face is displaced by 0.001
rad relative to lower face along the direction of
tangential force. Then shear modulus of the material
of the cube is
a) 5 x 106 Nm-2
b) 5 x 108 Nm-2
c) 5 x 1010 Nm-2
d) 5 x 1011 Nm-2
8b The length of a rubber cord is L1 metres when the
tension 4 N and L2 metres when the tension is 5 N.
The length in metres when the tension is 9 N is
a) 5L1 – 4L2
b) 5L2 – 4L1
c) 9L1 – 8L2
d) 9L2 – 8L1
9b A copper wire and a steel wire of the same diameter
and length are connected end to end. A force is
applied which stretches their combined length by 1
cm. Then the two wires have
a) The same stress and strain
b) The same stress but different strains
c) The same strain but different stresses
d) Different stresses and strains
10a The compressibility of water is 5 x 10-5 per unit
atmospheric pressure. The decrease in volume of 100
cm3 of water under a pressure of 100 atmosphere will
be
a) 0.5 cm3
b) 5 x 10-5 cm3
c) 0.025 cm3
d) 0.005 cm3
11a If the work done in stretching a wire by 1 mm is 2 J,
the work necessary for stretching another wire of the
same material but double the radius and half the
length by 1 mm is
a) 16 J
b) 8 J
c) 4 J
1
d) J
4
12b Which of the following relations is true?
a) 3Y = K(1 – σ)
Y 
b)  =  −1
 2 
9Y
c) K=
Y +
d) σ = (6K + η)Y

13a A metal beam supported at the two ends is loaded at
the centre. If Y is the Young’s modulus, then the
depression at the centre is proportional to
1
a)
Y
b) Y
1
c)
Y2
d) Y2
14a The following four wires are made of the same
material. Which of these will have the largest
extension when the same tension is applied on all?
a) Length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm
b) Length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm
c) Length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm
d) Length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm
15d The extension produced in a wire by the application
of a load is 3.0 mm. The extension in a wire of the
same material and length but half the radius, by the
same load, is
a) 0.75 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 6.0 mm
d) 12.0 mm
16d Which of the following is most elastic?
a) Rubber
b) Wet clay
c) Plastic
d) Steel
17b A steel rod of length l, area of cross-section A,
Young’s modulus Y and coefficient of linear
expansion α is heated through t 0C. The work that
can be performed by a rod when heated is
a) (YAαt)(lαt)
1
b) (YAαt)(lαt)
2
1 1 
c) (YAαt)  l t 
2 2 
d) 2(YAαt)(lαt)
18c A wire can support a load W without breaking. It is
cut into two equal parts. The maximum load that
each part can support is
W
a)
4
W
b)
2
c) W
d) 2W

19d A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.5. If a uniform rod of
it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 x 10-3, the
percentage increase in its volume is
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 0.5
d) 0
20a A metal wire is stretched by suspending weight to it.
If X is the longitudinal strain and Y is the Young’s
modulus of elasticity, then the elastic potential
energy per unit volume is
1
a) YX 2
2
X2
b)
2Y
Y2
c)
2X
X2
d)
2Y 2
21a If a bar is made of copper whose coefficient of linear
expansion is one and a half times that of iron, the
ratio of the force developed in the copper bar to the
iron bar of identical lengths and cross-sections, when
heated through the same temperature range
(Young’s modulus for copper may be taken to be
equal to that of iron) is
3
a)
2
2
b)
3
9
c)
4
4
d)
9
22d A steel wire of length 20 cm and uniform cross-
section 1 mm2 is tied rigidly at both the ends. The
temperature of the wire is altered from 40 0C to 20
0
C. What is the magnitude of force developed in the
wire? (Coefficient of linear expansion for steel, α =
1.1 x 10-5 0C-1 and Y for steel is 2.0 x 1011 Nm-2)
a) 2.2 x 106 N
b) 16 N
c) 8 N
d) 44 N
23a Two wires of copper have lengths in the ratio 1 : 2
and radii in the ratio 2 : 1. Their Young’s moduli are
in the ratio
a) 1 : 1
b) 1 : 8
c) 8 : 1
d) 1 : 4
24b A solid sphere of radius R made of material of Bulk
modulus K is surrounded by a liquid in a cylindrical
container. A massless piston of area A floats on the
surface of the liquid when a mass m is placed on the
piston to compress the liquid, the fractional change
dR
in the radius of the sphere, is
R
mg
a)
4 AK
mg
b)
3 AK
mg
c)
2 AK
mg
d)
AK
25a The modulus of rigidity of a liquid is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 
d) None of these
26c The Young’s modulus for a perfectly rigid body is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 
d) None of these
27c Two rods of different materials having coefficients
of linear expansions α1, α2 and Young’s moduli Y1, Y2
respectively are fixed between two rigid massive
walls. The rods are heated such that they undergo
the same increase in temperature. There is no
bending of the rods. If α1 : α2 = 2 : 3, the thermal
stresses developed in the two rods are equal
provided Y1 : Y2 is equal to
a) 2 : 3
b) 1 : 1
c) 3 : 2
d) 4 : 9
28d When an elastic material with Young’s modulus Y is
subjected to a stretching stress X, the elastic energy
stored per unit volume is
2X
a)
Y
Y2
b)
2X
X 2Y
c)
2
X2
d)
2Y

29b One end of a long metallic wire of length L is tied to
a ceiling. The other end is tied to a massless spring
of spring constant K. A mass M hangs from the free
end of the spring. The area of cross-section and the
Young’s modulus of the wire are A and Y
respectively. If the mass is slightly pushed down and
released, it will oscillate with a time period T equal
to
M
a) 2
K
(YA + KL) M
b) 2
YAK
MYA
c) 2
KL
ML
d) 2
AY
30c Two wires A and B, made of the same material, have
equal lengths and radii in the ratio 1 : 2. Same load
is hung from both of them. If the strain in A is 0.04,
that in B is
a) 0.04
b) 0.02
c) 0.01
d) 0.005

GRAVITATION & SATELLITES

SL NO PROBLEM
1a Two planets of radii R1 and R2 are made of the same
material. The ratio of the acceleration due to gravity
at the surfaces of the two planets is
R1
a)
R2
R2
b)
R1
2
 R1 
c)  
 R2 
2
 R2 
d)  
 R1 
2d Consider the earth to be a homogenous sphere.
Scientist A goes down in a mine and scientist B goes
high up in a balloon. The gravitational field
measured by
a) A goes on decreasing and that by B goes on
increasing
b) B goes on decreasing and that by A goes on
increasing
c) Each goes on increasing
d) Each goes on decreasing
3b A particle is projected vertically upwards with a
velocity gR , where R denotes the radius of the
earth and g the acceleration due to gravity on the
surface of the earth. Then the maximum height
ascended by the particle is
R
a)
2
b) R
c) 2R
5R
d)
4
4b The orbital speed of Jupiter is
a) Greater than the orbital speed of the earth
b) Less than the orbital speed of the earth
c) Equal to the orbital speed of the earth
d) Zero
5a, d A point P is lying at a distance r(< a) from the centre
of shell of radius a. If E and V be the gravitational
field and potential at the point P then,
a) E = 0
GM
b) E= −
r2
c) V=0

GM
d) V= −
a
6c The period of a satellite moving in a circular orbit
near the surface of a planet is independent of
a) Radius of the planet
b) Mass of the planet
c) Mass of the satellite
7d The mean radius of the earth’s orbit around the sun
is 1.5 x 1011 m and that of the orbit of mercury is 6 x
1010 m. The mercury will revolve around the sun in
nearly
2
a)
5
2
b) year
5
2
2
c)   year
5
3/2
2
d)   year
5
8a In PROBLEM 7, the ratio of the orbital velocity of
mercury to that of the earth is
10
a)
2
2
b)
10
c) 2 10
1
d) 10
2
9b Two identical thin rings each of radius R are coaxially
placed at a distance R. If the rings have a uniform
mass distribution and each has mass m1 and m2
respectively, then the work done in moving a mass m
from centre of one ring to that of the other is
a) Zero
Gm(m1 − m2 )( 2 − 1)
b)
2R
Gm 2(m1 + m2 )
c)
R
Gmm1 ( 2 + 1)
d)
m2 R

10c The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a
circular orbit just above the earth’s surface is v. For
a satellite orbiting at an altitude of half the earth’s
radius, the orbital velocity is
3
a) v
2
3
b) v
2
2
c) v
3
2
d) v
3
11c A body released from a height h takes time t to reach
earth’s surface. The time taken by the same body
released from the same height to reach the moon’s
surface is
a) t
b) 6t
c) 6t
t
d)
6
12c A geostationary satellite orbits around the earth in a
circular orbit of radius 36000 km. Then the time
period of a spy satellite orbiting a few hundred
kilometer above the earth’s surface (Rearth = 6400 km)
will approximately be
1
a) hour
2
b) 1 hour
c) 2 hour
d) 4 hour
13b A body of mass m is taken from the earth’s surface
to a height equal to the radius R of the earth. If g is
the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the
earth, then the change in the potential energy of the
body is
mgR
a)
4
mgR
b)
2
c) mgR
d) 2mgR
14d If the distance between two masses is doubled, the
gravitational attraction between them
a) Is doubled
b) Becomes four times
c) Is reduced to half
d) Is reduced to a quarter

15d The gravitational force between two particles, each
of mass 1 kg, separated by a distance of 1 m in
vacuum is
a) Zero
b) 6.67 x 10-5 N
c) 6.67 x 10-8 N
d) 6.67 x 10-11 N
16c The radius of the earth is R and acceleration due to
gravity at its surface is g. If a body of mass m is sent
R
to a height of from the earth’s surface, the
4
potential energy increases by
mgR
a)
3
mgR
b)
4
mgR
c)
5
mgR
d)
16
17d In PROBLEM 16, the minimum speed with which the
body must be thrown from the surface of the earth
R
so as to reach a height of is
4
1
a) gR
2
b) gR
1
c) gR
5
2
d) gR
5
18b The kinetic energy of a satellite in an orbit close to
the surface of the earth is E. What should be its
kinetic energy so that it escapes from the
gravitational field of the earth?
a) 2E
b) 2E
c) 2 2 E
d) 4E
19b The distance of Neptune and Saturn from the sun are
1013 m and 1012 m respectively. Assuming that they
move in circular orbits, their time periods are in the
ratio
a) 10
b) 10 10
c) 100
d) 1000

20c A satellite is orbiting close to the surface of the
earth. In order to make it move to infinity its velocity
must be increased by about
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 60%
21b An infinite number of masses, each of 1 kg, are
placed on the positive x – axis at 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m,
…… from the origin. The value of the gravitational
field at the origin die to this distribution is
a) 2G
4G
b)
3
3G
c)
4
d) 
22d If R is the radius of the earth, then the height above
the earth’s surface where the value of g will be half
its value at the earth’s surface, is
a) R
b) 2R
c) (2 – 2 )R
d) ( 2 - 1)R
23a If mean radius of earth is R, its angular velocity is ω,
and the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of
the earth is g, then the cube of the radius of the orbit
of geostationary satellite will be
R2 g
a)
2
R2 g
b)

R 2 2
c)
g
Rg
d)
2
24b If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one
percent, its mass remaining the same, the value of g
on the earth’s surface would
a) Increase by 0.5%
b) Increase by 2%
c) Decrease by 0.5%
d) Decrease by 2%
25a The angular speed at which the earth would have to
rotate in order to make the effective acceleration
due to the gravity at the equator equal to zero is
a) 1.2 x 10-3 rads-1
b) 2.4 x 10-3 rads-1
c) 1.2 x 10-2 rads-1
d) 2.4 x 10-2 rads-1

26b A particle is placed in a field characterized by a value
of gravitational potential given by V = - kxy, where k
is a constant. If Eg is the gravitational field then,
a) (
Eg = k xiˆ + yjˆ ) and is conservative in
nature
b) (
Eg = k yiˆ + xjˆ ) and is conservative in
nature
c) ( )
Eg = k xiˆ + yjˆ and is non-conservative in
nature
d) ( )
Eg = k yiˆ + xjˆ and is non-conservative in
nature
27c If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface
of the earth, then the value of acceleration due to
R
gravity at a height equal to from the surface of
2
the earth is (R is the radius of the earth)
g
a)
2
2g
b)
3
4g
c)
9
5g
d)
9
28b Two bodies of masses 103 kg and 105 kg are separated
by a distance of 2 m. At what distance from the
smaller body will the intensity of the gravitational
field be zero?
1
a) m
11
2
b) m
11
1
c) m
9
2
d) m
9
29a The value of g at a particular point is 9.8 ms -2.
Suppose the earth suddenly shrinks uniformly to half
its present size without losing any mass. The value of
g at the same point (distance of the point from the
centre of earth does not change) will now be
a) 9.8 ms-2
b) 4.9 ms-2
c) 19.6 ms-2
d) 39.2 ms-2

30a A satellite is revolving round the earth in an orbit of
radius r with time period T. If the satellite is
revolving round the earth in an orbit of radius r + Δr
(Δr << r) with time period T + ΔT (ΔT << T) then,
T 3 r
a) =
T 2 r
T 2 r
b) =
T 3 r
T r
c) =
T r
T r
d) =−
T r

ROTATIONAL DYNAMICS & CIRCULAR MOTION
SL NO PROBLEM
1c A shaft rotating initially at 1725 rpm is brought to
rest in 20 second. The number of revolutions that the
shaft will make during this interval of time is
a) 1680
b) 840
c) 287
d) 627
2c A solid sphere of mass 2 kg rolls down an inclined
plane from rest from a height of 7 m. Its rotational
kinetic energy on reaching the foot of the plane is (g
= 10 ms-2)
a) 10 J
b) 20 J
c) 40 J
d) 100 J
3c R
A circular plate of radius is cut from one edge of
2
a thin circular plate of radius R. The moment of
inertia of the remaining portion about an axis
through O perpendicular to plane of the plate (i.e.
about the y-axis) is
11
a) MR 2
24
7
b) MR 2
12
13
c) MR 2
24
5
d) MR 2
7
4a A particle is moved in a circle with a constant angular
velocity. Its angular momentum is L. If the radius of
the circle is halved keeping the angular velocity
same, the angular momentum of the particle will
become
L
a)
4
L
b)
2
c) L
d) 2L

5a, c, d A uniform bar of length 6a and mass 8m lies on a
smooth horizontal table. Two point masses m and 2m
moving in the same horizontal plane with speeds 2v
and v, respectively, strike the bar as shown in the
figure and stick to if after collision. Denoting angular
velocity (about the centre of mass), total energy and
the centre of mass velocity by ω, E and VC
respectively, we have after collision
a) VC = 0
3v
b) =
5a
v
c)  =
5a
3mv 2
d) E =
5
6a The radius of a wheel is R and its radius of gyration
about its axis passing through its center and
perpendicular to its plane is K. If the wheel is rolling
without slipping, the ratio of its rotational kinetic
energy to its translational energy is
K2
a)
R2
R2
b)
K2
R2
c)
R2 + K 2
K2
d)
R2 + K 2
7a In PROBLEM 6, the ratio of the rotational kinetic
energy to total kinetic energy is
K2
a)
R2 + K 2
R2
b)
R2 + K 2
1
c)
R + K2
2
d) None of these

8b In PROBLEM 6, the ratio of the translational kinetic
energy to the total kinetic energy is
K2
a)
R2 + K 2
R2
b)
R2 + K 2
1
c)
R + K2
2
d) None of these
9b, d A particle of mass m is projected with velocity v
making an angle of 450 with the horizontal. The
magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile
about point of projection when the particle is at
maximum height h is
a) Zero
mv 3
b)
4 2g
mv3
c)
2g
d) m 2 gh3
10d A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls from rest
down a plane inclined at an angle θ to the horizontal.
The velocity of the centre of mass of the cylinder
after it has rolled down a distance d is
2
a) gd tan 
3
b) gd tan 
3
c) gd sin 
4
4
d) gd sin 
3
11c The rotational kinetic energy of the body is E and the
moment of inertia is I. The angular momentum of the
body is
a) EI
b) 2 EI
c) 2EI
E
d)
I
12c A motor car of mass m travels with a uniform speed
v on a circular bridge of radius r. When the car is at
the highest point of the bridge, then the force
exerted by the car on the bridge is
a) mg
mv 2
b) mg +
r
mv 2
c) mg −
r
mv 2
d)
r
13a A solid sphere and a spherical shell roll down an
inclined place from rest from same height. The ratio
of the times taken by them is
21
a)
25
21
b)
25
25
c)
21
25
d)
21
14a A mass m slides, from rest, down the surface of a
frictionless hemispherical bowl of radius r from the
highest point A (see figure). The velocity of the mass
when it reaches the bottom is
a) 2gr
b) mgr
c) 2mgr
d) gr
15a A particle of mass m is tied to a light string and
rotated with a speed v along a circular path of radius
r. If T is tension in the string and mg is gravitational
force on the particle then the actual forces acting on
the particle are
a) mg and T only
mv 2
b) mg, T and an additional force on
r
directed inwards
mv 2
c) mg, T and an additional force of
r
directed outwards
mv 2
d) Only a force directed outwards
r

16b A thin uniform, circular disc is rolling down an incline
plane of inclination 300 without slipping. Its linear
acceleration along the plane is
g
a)
4
g
b)
3
g
c)
2
2g
d)
3
17d A solid cylinder R is free to rotate about its axis
which is horizontal. A string is wound around it and
a mass m is attached to its free end. When m falls
through a distance h, its speed at that instant is
proportional to
a) R
1
b)
R
1
c)
R2
d) None of these
18a Two masses m and M are connected by a light string
that passes through a smooth hole O at the centre of
a table. Mass m lies on the table and M hangs
vertically, m is moved round in a horizontal circle
with O as the centre. If l is the length of the string
from O to m then the frequency with which m should
revolve so that remains stationary is
1 Mg
a)
2 ml
1 Mg
b)
 ml
1 Ml
c)
2 mg
1 Ml
d)
 mg

19d The ratio of the time taken by a solid sphere and that
taken by a disc of the same mass and radius to roll
down a smooth inclined plane from rest from the
same height
a) 15 : 14
b) 15 : 14
c) 14 : 15
d) 14 : 15
20b A cord is wound round the circumference of wheel of
radius r. The axis of the wheel is horizontal and
moment of inertia about its axis is I. A weight mg is
attached to the end of the cord and is allowed to fall
from rest. The angular velocity of the wheel, when
the weight has fallen through a distance h, is
2 gh
a)
1 + mr
2mgh
b)
1 + mr 2
2mgh
c)
1 + 2mr 2
d) 2gh
21a A particle P with a mass 2.0 kg has position vector r
= 3.0 m and velocity V = 4.0 ms-1 shown. It is
accelerated by the force F = 2.0 N. All three vectors
lie in the common plane. The angular momentum
vector is
a) 12 kgm2s-1 out of the plane of the figure

b) 12 kgm2s-1 into the plane of the figure
c) Zero
d) 24 kgm2s-1 out of the plane of the figure
22b In PROBLEM 21, the torque is
a) 6 Nm out of the page
b) 3 Nm out of the page
c) 6 Nm into the page
d) 3 Nm into the page
23c The moment of inertia of a thin uniform circular disc
about one of its diameters is l. The moment of inertia
about an axis perpendicular to the circular surface
and passing through its centre is
I
a)
2
I
b)
2
c) 2I
d) 2I
24a, c The density of a rod AB increases linearly from A to
B. Its midpoint is O and its centre of mass is at C.
Four axes pass through A, B, O and C, all
perpendicular to the length of the rod. The moments
of inertia of the rod about these axes are IA, IB, IO and
IC respectively
a) IA > IB
b) IA < IB
c) IO > IC
d) IO < IC
25b An equilibrium triangle ABC formed from a uniform
wire has two small identical beads initially located
at A. The triangle is set rotating about the vertical
axis AO. Then the beads are released from rest
simultaneously and allowed to slide down, one along
AB and the other along AC as shown. Neglecting
frictional effects, the quantities that are conserved
as beads slide down are
a) Angular velocity and total energy (kinetic

and potential)
b) Total angular momentum and total energy
c) Angular velocity and moment of inertia
about the axis of rotation
d) Total angular momentum and moment of
inertia about the axis of rotation
26b A uniform disc of mass M = 2.50 kg and radius R =
0.20 m is mounted on an axle supported on fixed
frictionless bearings. A light cord wrapped around
the rim is pulled with a force 5 N. on the same system
of pulley and string instead of pulling it down, a body
of weight 5 N is suspended. If the first process is
termed A and the second B, the tangential
acceleration will be
a) Equal in the processes A and B

b) Greater in process A than in B
c) Greater in process B than in A
d) Independent of the two processes
27b Refer to PROBLEM 26, where a disc of mass M and
radius R is once pulled by a force 5 N by means of a
string, and is then tied with a mass whose weight is
5 N. If the two processes are termed A and B
respectively, then
a) Mechanical energy is conserved in both A and
B
b) Mechanical energy is conserved in B only
c) Mechanical energy is conserved in A only
d) Mechanical energy is conserved neither in A
nor in B
28c A force F = aiˆ + 3 ˆj + 6kˆ is acting at a point
r = 2iˆ − 6 ˆj − 12kˆ . The value of a for which angular
momentum is conserved is
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) 2
29c Three point masses of 1 g, 2 g and 3 g have their
centre of mass at (2, 2, 2). A fourth mass of 4 g is
placed at position vector r such that the centre of
mass of new system is now at (0, 0, 0)
a) r = (-1, -1, -1)
b) r = (-2, -2, -2)
c) r = (-3, -3, -3)
d) r = (-4, -4, -4)
30b A thin rod of mass m and length 2l is made to rotate
about an axis passing through its centre and
perpendicular to it. If its angular velocity changes
from 0 to ω in time t, the torque acting on it is
ml 2
a)
12t
ml 2
b)
3t
ml 2
c)
t
4ml 2
d)
3t

WORK, ENERGY, POWER & COLLISIONS
SL NO PROBLEM
1b A man pulls a bucket of water from a depth of h from
a well. If the mass of the rope and that of bucket full
of water are m and M respectively, the work done by
the man is
a) (M + m)gh
 m
b)  M +  gh
 2
M +m
c)   gh
 2 
M 
d)  + m  gh
 2 
2c A body of mass 2 kg makes an elastic collision with
another body at rest and then continues to move in
the original direction with one-fourth of its initial
speed. The mass of the struck body is
a) 0.6 kg
b) 1 kg
c) 1.2 kg
d) 2 kg
3a The coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic
collision is
a) 1
b) 0
c) 
d) - 1
4a If the kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300%,
its momentum will increase by
a) 100%
b) 150%
c) 200%
d) 400%
5b A bomb of mass 1 kg, initially at rest, explodes into
three fragments of masses in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The
two pieces of equal mass fly off perpendicular to
each other, each with a speed of 30 ms-1. What is the
velocity of the heavier fragment?
a) 10 2 ms-1 at 450 with each of the other two
fragments
b) 10 2 ms-1 at 1350 with each of the other
two fragments
c) 20 ms-1 at 450 with each of the other two
fragments
d) 20 ms-1 at 1350 with each of the other two
fragments

6c A bullet of mass 0.01 kg, travelling at a speed of 500
ms-1, strikes a block of mass 2 kg, which is suspended
by a string of length 5 m, and emerges out. The block
rises by a vertical distance of 0.1 m. The speed of
the bullet after it emerges from the block is
a) 55 ms-1
b) 110 ms-1
c) 220 ms-1
d) 440 ms-1
7b A 6000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. If the
exhaust speed is 1000 ms-1, the amount of gas that
must be ejected per second to supply the thrust
needed to overcome the weight of the rocket is (g =
10 ms-2)
a) 30 kg
b) 60 kg
c) 75 kg
d) 90 kg
8d In PROBLEM 7, the amount of gas that must be
ejected to give the rocket an initial upward
acceleration of 20 ms-2 is
a) 90 kgs-1
b) 120 kgs-1
c) 150 kgs-1
d) 180 kgs-1
9b An electric motor creates a tension of 4500 N in a
hoisting cable and reels it in at the rate of 2 ms -1.
The power of the motor is
a) 15 kW
b) 9 kW
c) 225 W
d) 9000 H.P.
10a A crate of mass m falls from a height h onto the end
of a platform, as shown in the figure. The spring is
initially unstretched and the mass of the platform
can be neglected. Assuming that there is no loss of
energy, the maximum elongation of the spring is
mg + m2 g 2 + 2mghk
a)
k
mg − m2 g 2 + 2mghk
b)
k
k
c)
m 2 g 2 + 2mghk
m2 g 2 + 2mghk
d)
k

11c A body of mass 2 kg, initially at rest, is acted upon
simultaneously by two forces, one of 4 N and the
other of 3 N, acting at right angles to each other.
The kinetic energy of the body after 20 s is
a) 500 J
b) 1250 J
c) 2500 J
d) 5000 J
12c When the velocity of a body is doubled
a) Its kinetic energy is doubled
b) Its potential energy is doubled
c) Its momentum is doubled
d) Its acceleration is doubled
13a A car is moving on a straight road with a speed V0. If
the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the
road is µ, the distance travelled by the car before it
comes to rest is
V02
a)
2 g
2
 V0 
b)  
 g 
V0
c)
g
V02
d)
g
14c A particle moves with a velocity v = 5iˆ − 3 ˆj + 6kˆ ms-1
under the influence of a constant force
ˆ . The instantaneous power
F = 10iˆ + 10 ˆj + 20kN
applied to the particle is
a) 200 Js-1
b) 40 Js-1
c) 140 Js-1
d) 170 Js-1
15a A railway truck of mass 2 x 104 kg, travelling at 0.5
ms-1, collides with another truck of half its its mass,
moving in the opposite direction at 0.4 ms -1. If the
trucks couple automatically on collision, their
common velocity after collision is
a) 0.2 ms-1
b) 0.47 ms-1
c) 0.1 ms-1
d) 0.3 ms-1
16c A moving body need not have
a) Velocity
b) Momentum
c) Potential energy
d) Kinetic energy

17c A body is gently dropped on a conveyor belt moving
at 3 ms-1. If µ = 0.5, how far will the body move
relative to the belt before coming to rest? (g = 10 ms -
2
)
a) 0.3 m
b) 0.6 m
c) 0.9 m
d) 1.8 m
18d A pump can take out 36000 kg of water per hour from
a 100 m deep well. If the efficiency of the pump is
50%, its power is (g = 10 ms-2)
a) 5 kW
b) 10 kW
c) 15 kW
d) 20 kW
19a A man weighing 60 kg climbs a staircase carrying a
20 kg load, on his hand. The staircase has 20 steps
and each step has a height of 20 cm. If he takes 20
second to climb, his power is
a) 160 W
b) 230 W
c) 320 W
d) 80 W
20c A running man has half the kinetic energy of a boy of
half his mass. The man speeds up by 1.0 ms-1 and
then has the same kinetic energy as the boy. The
original speed of the boy was
a) 2.4 ms-1
b) 9.6 ms-1
c) 4.8 ms-1
d) 7.2 ms-1
21d A bullet of mass m and velocity a is fired into a large
block of wood of mass M. The final velocity of the
system is
a
a) a
m+M
m+M
b) a
m
m+a
c) a
M
m
d) a
m+M
22b, c A bag of mass M hangs by a long thread. A bullet of
mass m comes horizontally with a velocity v and gets
embedded in the bag. Then for the combined
system, immediately after the collision, the
mvM
a) Momentum is
M +m
b) Momentum is mv
m2v 2
c) Kinetic energy is
2( M + m)

mv 2
d) Kinetic energy is
2
23c The potential energy of a particle in a certain field
a b
is given by U = − , where a and b are positive
r2 r
constants and r is the distance from the centre of the
field. The distance of particle in the stable
equilibrium position is
a
a)
b
a
b) −
b
2a
c)
b
2a
d) −
b
24a A loaded bus and an unloaded bus are both moving
with the same kinetic energy. The mass of the former
is twice that of the latter. Brakes are applied to both
so as to exert equal retarding forces. If S1 and S2 are
the distances covered by the two buses,
respectively, before coming to rest, then
a) S1 = S2
b) 2S1 = S2
c) S1 = 2S2
d) S1 = 4S2
25b A ball of mass m moving with a certain velocity
collides against a stationary ball of mass m. The two
balls stick together during collision. If E be the initial
kinetic energy, then the loss of kinetic energy in the
collision is
a) E
E
b)
2
E
c)
3
E
d)
4
26c A ball A of mass 1 kg, moving with a speed of 12 ms -
1
, collides obliquely and elastically with another ball
B which was initially at rest. Ball A then moves off at
right angles to its initial direction with a speed of 5
ms-1. The momentum of ball B after collision is
a) 5 kgms-1
b) 11 kgms-1
c) 13 kgms-1
d) 17 kgms-1

27d An object, initially at rest, explodes into three
fragments. The momenta of two parts are 2 piˆ and
pjˆ where p is a positive number. The momentum of
the third part
a) Will be of magnitude 3p inclined at tan-1
1
  with x-axis
2
b) Will be of magnitude 5 p inclined at tan-
1
(2) with x-axis
c) Will be of magnitude 3p inclined at π – tan-
1
(2) with x-axis
d) Will be of magnitude 5 p inclined at π – tan-
1 1
  with x-axis
2
28a Two particles, each of mass m, moving in opposite
directions with equal speeds along the same straight
line strike elastically. If the velocities of the first and
the second particle before collision are denoted by
+v , and −v , respectively, then if there is no change
in the line of motion of the two particles, their
velocities after collision are, respectively,
a) −v and +v
b) +v and −v
c) 0 and 2v
d) 2v and 0
29a A 2 kg block is dropped from a height of 0.4 m on a
spring of force constant k = 1960 Nm-1. The maximum
compression of the spring is
a) 0.1 m
b) 0.2 m
c) 0.3 m
d) 0.4 m
30a A uniform rod of length 1 m and mass 100 g is pivoted
at one end and is hanging vertically. It is displaced
through 600 from the vertical. The increase in its
potential energy is (g = 10 ms-2)
a) 0.25 J
b) 0.5 J
c) 0.75 J
d) 1.0 J

NEWTON’S LAWS OF MOTION & FRICTION
SL NO PROBLEM
1d The distance x covered in time t by a body, having
initial velocity u and having constant acceleration a
1 2
is given by x = ut + at . This result follows from
2
a) Newton’ First law
b) Newton’s second law
c) Newton’s third law
2a When one walks on the ground, the force of friction
exerted by ground on him is in
a) Forward direction
b) Backward direction
c) First forward and then backward
d) Zero
3a A mass m is placed on an inclined plane. If the mass
is in equilibrium, the maximum inclination of the
plane with the horizontal would be (where µ is the
coefficient of friction between the mass and surface)
a) tan-1µ

b) tan-1 

2

c) tan-1  
m
d) cos-1µ
4d A man is standing on a weighing machine placed in a
lift. When stationary, his weight is recorded as 40 kg.
If the lift is moved upwards with an acceleration of
2 ms-2, then the weight recorded in the machine will
be (g = 10 ms-2)
a) 32 kg
b) 40 kg
c) 42 kg
d) 48 kg
5b A homogeneous rod of length L is acted upon by two
forces F1 and F2 applied to its ends and directed
opposite to each other. If F2 > F1, then with what
force F will the rod be stretched at the cross-section
at a distance l from the end where F1 is applied?
( F2 − F1 ) l
a)
L
( F2 − F1 ) l + F
b) 1
L
( F2 + F1 ) l
c)
2L
d)
( F2 − F12 ) l
2
L
6b While launching a rocket of mass 2 x 104 kg from the
surface of the earth, a force of 5 x 105 N is applied
for 20 s. The velocity of the rocket after 20 s is (g =
10 ms-2)
a) 500 ms-1
b) 300 ms-1
c) 200 ms-1
d) 100 ms-1
7c A body is projected up a 450 rough incline. If the
coefficient of friction is 0.5, then the retardation of
the block is
g
a)
2 2
g
b)
2
3g
c)
2 2
g
d)
2
8b A body of mass 2 kg collides with a wall with a speed
of 100 ms-1 and rebounds with the same speed. If the
1
time of constant is s, the force exerted on the
50
wall is
a) 8 N
b) 2 x 104 N
c) 4 N
d) 104 N
9a A force vector applied on a body is given by
F = 6iˆ − 8 ˆj + 10kˆ and acquires on acceleration 1 ms-
2
. Then the mass of the body is
a) 10 2 kg
b) 2 10 kg
c) 10 kg
d) 20 kg
10b A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough inclined
plane. The inclination of the plane is gradually
increased till the block just begins to slide down. The
inclination of the plane is then 3 in 5. The coefficient
of friction between the block and the plane is (g = 10
ms-2)
3
a)
5
3
b)
4
4
c)
5
2
d)
3
11c In PROBLEM 10, the minimum force required to move
the block up the plane at this inclination is
a) 30 N
b) 40 N
c) 60 N
d) 120 N
12a A batsman deflects a ball at an angle 900 without
changing its initial speed which is equals to 54 kmh-
1
. The impulse imparted to the ball (m = 0.5 kg) is
a) 10.6 Ns
b) 15 Ns
c) 5 Ns
d) 7.5 Ns
13d A body of mass 1 kg strikes a wall with velocity 8 ms -
1
along the normal to the wall and returns with
velocity 4 ms-1. The impulse of the force experienced
by the wall is
a) 4 Ns towards the wall
b) 4 Ns away from the wall
c) 12 Ns along the normal towards the wall
d) 12 Ns along the normal away from the wall
14a A block of mass m, lying on a rough horizontal plane,
is acted on by a horizontal force P and another force
Q inclined at an angle θ to the vertical. The block
will remain in equilibrium, if the coefficient of
friction between the block and the surface is
P + Q sin 
a)
mg + Q cos 
P cos  + Q
b)
mg − Q sin 
P + Q sin 
c)
mg + Q sin 
P sin Q − 
d)
mg − Q cos 
15b A large block of wood of mass 40 kg is dragged along
the platform of a railway station with 30 kgf force.
The coefficient of friction between wood and
concrete of platform is 0.5. The force of friction is
a) 30 kgf
b) 20 kgf
c) 10 kgf
d) Zero

16b The mechanical advantage of a system of pulleys is
four. The force needed to lift a mass of 100 kg will
be
a) 20 kgwt
b) 25 kgwt
c) 5 kgwt
d) 15 kgwt
17b A satellite in force-free space sweeps stationary
dM
interplanetary dust at a rate = av , where M is
dt
the mass and v is the velocity of the satellite and α
is a constant. The deceleration of the satellite is
−2 v 2
a)
M
− v 2
b)
M
− v 2
c)
2M
d) -av2
18b A rough vertical board has an acceleration a along
the horizontal so that a block of mass M pressing
against it does not fall. The coefficient of friction
between the block and the board is
g
a)
a
g
b) 
a
g
c) 
a
a
d) 
g
19b In a tug-of-war contest, two men pull on a horizontal
rope from opposite sides. The winner will be the man
who
a) Exerts greater force on the rope
b) Exerts greater force on the ground
c) Exerts a force on the rope which is greater
than the tension in the rope
d) Makes a smaller angle with the vertical

20a A block of mass 2 kg rests on a rough inclined plane
coefficient of static friction between the block and
the plane is 0.7. The frictional force on the block is
a) 9.8 N
b) 0.7 x 9.8 N
c) 9.8 x 3 N
d) 0.7 x 9.8 x 3 N
21a The magnitude of the force in newton acting on a
body varies with time t (in micro-second) as is shown
in figure. AB, BC and CD are straight line segments.
The magnitude of total impulse of the force on the
body from t = 4 µs and t = 16 µs is
a) 5 x 10-3 Ns
b) 5000 Ns
c) 5 Ns
1
d) Ns
500
22b How much force is required to push a 100 N wooden
block up a frictionless plane that is inclined at an
angle of 300 with the horizontal so that it has an
acceleration along the plane of 2.5 ms-2? The force is
to be applied along the plane. (g = 10 ms-2)
a) 50 N
b) 75 N
c) 100 N
d) 125 N
23c An aeroplane requires for take-off a speed of 80 kmh-
1
, the run on the ground being 100 m. The mass of
the plane is 10,000 kg and the coefficient of friction
between the plane and the ground is 0.2. Assuming
that the plane accelerates uniformly during the take-
off, the minimum force required by the engine for
take-off is
a) 2 x 104 N
b) 2.43 x 104 N
c) 4.43 x 104 N
d) 8.86 x 104 N
24c A spring of force constant k is cut into three pieces.
The force constant of each part is
a) k
2k
b)
3
c) 3k

k
d)
3
25c A cricket ball of mass 150 g is moving with a velocity
of 12 ms-1 and is hit by a bat so that it is turned back
with a velocity of 20 ms-1. The force of blow acts for
0.01 s. The average force exerted by the bat on the
ball is
a) 120 N
b) 240 N
c) 480 N
d) 960 N
26b A bird is sitting in a large closed cage which is placed
on a spring balance. It records a weight of 25 N. The
bird of mass 0.5 kg files upward in the cage with an
acceleration of 2 ms-2. The spring balance will now
record a weight of
a) 24 N
b) 25 N
c) 26 N
d) 27 N
27a Two blocks A and B are arranged as shown in the
figure. The pulley is frictionless. The mass of A is 10
kg. The coefficient of friction of A with the
horizontal surface is 0.2. The minimum mass of B to
start the motion will be
a) 2 kg
b) 0.2 kg
c) 5 kg
d) 10 kg
28d In the system shown in figure, the acceleration of the
1 kg mass is
g
a) downward
4
g
b) upward
4
g
c) downward
2
g
d) upward
2

29b A particle of mass m moving with velocity u makes
an elastic one-dimensional collision with a stationary
particle of mass m. They are in contact for a very
brief time T. Their force of interaction increases
1
from zero to F0 linearly in time T , and decreases
2
1
linearly to zero in further time T . The magnitude
2
of F0 is
mu
a)
T
2mu
b)
T
mu
c)
2T
d) None of these
30d Two boxes, one of mass 20 kg and the other of mass
40 kg, are sliding down a frictionless inclined plane
that makes an angle of 300 with the horizontal. Their
respective accelerations in ms-2 are
a) 9.8 : 9.8
b) 4.9 : 9.8
c) 9.8 : 4.9
d) 4.9 : 4.9

DESCRIPTION OF MOTION IN TWO & THREE DIMENSIONS
SL NO PROBLEM
1a The path of one projectile as seen by an observer on
another projectile is a/an
a) Straight line
b) Parabole
c) Ellipse
d) Circle
2a A particle is projected with a velocity v, so that its
range on a horizontal plane is twice the greatest
height attained. Then its range is
4v 2
a)
5g
4g
b)
5v 2
4v
c)
5g
2v 2
d)
5g
3c A body is projected with a velocity v 1 from a point A
making an angle of 300 with the horizontal. At the
same time another body is projected vertically
upwards with a velocity v2 from the point B. The
point B lies vertically below the highest point. For
v2
both the bodies to collide is
v1
a) 2
b) 0.866
c) 0.5
d) 1
4a A boy throws a ball with a velocity u at an angle θ
with the horizontal. At the same instant he starts
running with uniform velocity to catch the ball
before it hits the ground. To achieve this he should
run with a velocity of
a) u cos θ
b) u sin θ
c) u tan θ
d) u 2 tan 
5c A football is kicked in parabolic path. Which of the
following statements is false?
a) The angle between acceleration and velocity
is changing continuously
b) At some stage acceleration is perpendicular
to velocity
c) At some stage acceleration is parallel to
velocity
d) Velocity cannot be zero at some stage

6b For a given angle of projection if the maximum
height reached by a projectile is increased by 10%
the horizontal range will
a) Remain constant
b) Increase by 10%
c) Increase by 20%
d) Increase by 40%
7b If acceleration due to gravity increases by 1%, the
horizontal range of projectile
a) Increases by 1%
b) Decreases by 1%
c) Increases by 2%
d) Decreases by 2%
8a A body of mass m thrown horizontally with velocity v
from the top of the tower of height h touches the
ground at a distance of 250 m from the foot of the
tower. A body of mass 2m thrown with a velocity of
v
from the top of the tower of height 4h will touch
2
the ground at a distance of
a) 250 m
b) 500 m
c) 1000 m
d) 125 m
9b The angle of projection for which the horizontal
range and the maximum height of the projectile are
equal is
a) 450
b) θ = tan-1(4)
c) θ = tan-1(0.25)
d) None of these
10c A gun fires two bullets at 600 and 300 with the
horizon. The ratio of the maximum heights for the
two bullets is
a) 1 : 1
b) 2 : 1
c) 3 : 1
d) 4 : 1
11b A ball rolls of the top of a stair way with a horizontal
velocity u ms-1. If the steps are h m high and b m
wide, the ball will hit the edge of the nth step, if
2hu
a) n=
gb 2
2hu 2
b) n=
gb 2
2hu 2
c) n=
gb
hu 2
d) n= 2
gb

12b An arrow is shot in air. Its range is 60 m and its time
of flight is 3 s. If g = 10 ms-2, then the ux and uy are
given as
a) 20 ms-1, 25 ms-1
b) 20 ms-1, 15 ms-1
c) 25 ms-1, 20 ms-1
d) 15 ms-1, 20 ms-1
13d A body is projected, making an acute with the
horizontal. If θ is the angle between velocity v and
the acceleration due to gravity g, then θ is given by
a) θ = 900
b) θ = 00
c) 900 < θ < 00
d) 00 < θ < 1800
14b A projectiles time of flight t is related to the
horizontal range by the equation gt2 = 2R. The angle
of projection in degrees is
a) 300
b) 450
c) 600
d) 900
15c The vertical height y and the horizontal distance x
along the plane of the projectile thrown in air point
of projection as origin are given by y = 8t – 5t2 and x
= 6t where t is second. The velocity with which the
body is projected is
a) 8 ms-1
b) 6 ms-1
c) 10 ms-1
d) Data insufficient
16b In PROBLEM 15, the angle of projection of this
projectile is
8
a) tan −1  
5
4
b) tan −1  
3
5
c) tan −1  
6
3
d) tan −1  
4
17c In PROBLEM 15, the distance of the body from the
origin after one second is
a) 10.69 m
b) 8.69 m
c) 6.69 m
d) 5.69 m

18d A motor cyclist starts from the bottom of the slope
of angle 450 and travels along the slope to jump and
clear the valley AB as in figure. The width of the
valley is 160 m and length of slope is 160 2 . The
minimum velocity with which he should leave bottom
at O so that he can clear the valley is (nearest to ms-
1
)
a) 50
b) 56
c) 60
d) 70
19a If for the given angle of projection the time of flight
is doubled the horizontal range becomes
a) 4 times
b) 2 times
c) 2 times
d) 1/ 2 times
20c For the given angle of projection, the horizontal
range is doubled the time of flight becomes
a) 4 times
b) 2 times
c) 2 times
d) 1/ 2 times
21b A hunter aims at a monkey sitting on a stree at a
considerable distance. At the instant he fires at it,
the monkey drops. The bullet hit the monkey at a
height s below the point where the monkey was
sitting and after a time t. Then the value of s is given
by
a) Zero
1 2
b) gt
2
c) gt2
1 2
d) gt
4
22d The angular momentum with respect to origin when
the projectile hits a horizontal plane is (m is mass of
projectile, R is horizontal range, α is the angle of
projection)
a) Zero
b) mvR sin α
c) mvR cos α
d) -mvR sin α

23c A body falls from the window of the railway carriage
moving horizontally with an acceleration a. The path
followed by the body as observed by a person on the
ground is a
a) Vertical straight line
b) Straight line inclined with the vertical
c) Parabola
d) Helix
24b A projectile of mass m is thrown with a speed v
change in momentum from its departure to its arrival
along the vertical and the horizontal direction
respectively are
a) 2mv, 2mv
b) 1.41 mv, zero
c) mv, mv
d) 0.71mv, zero
25b Two bodies are projected at angles θ and (900 – θ) to
the horizontal with the same speed. The ratio of
their times of flight is
a) 1 : 1
b) tan θ : 1
c) 1 : tan θ
d) tan2 θ : 1
26a In PROBLEM 25, the ratio of their horizontal ranges is
a) 1 : 1
b) tan θ : 1
c) 1 : tan θ
d) tan2 θ : 1
27d In PROBLEM 25, the ratio of their maximum heights
is
a) 1 : 1
b) tan θ : 1
c) 1 : tan θ
d) tan2 θ : 1
28a At the top of the trajectory of an oblique projectile,
the directions of its velocity and acceleration are to
each other
a) Perpendicular
b) Parallel
c) 450
d) None of these
29d Two stones are projected with same initial speed but
making different angles with the horizontal such that
their horizontal ranges are equal. If the angle of

projection of one projectile is and its height is H,
3
then the maximum height of other projectile will be
a) H
b) 2H
c) 3H
H
d)
3

30b A projectile is projected in the upwards direction
making an angle of 600 with the horizontal with a
velocity of 147 ms-1. Then the time after which its
inclination with the horizontal is 450 is nearly
a) 1.732 s
b) 5.49 s
c) 11.27 s
d) 9.81 s

DESCRIPTION OF MOTION IN ONE DIMENSION
SL NO PROBLEM
1a The velocity acquired by a body when if falls through
a height h is v. If it further falls through a height x(x
<< h), the increase in velocity is approximately
vx
a)
2h
2v
b)
xh
2vx
c)
h
v
d)
2 xh
2b A body falling from a given height H hits an inclined
plane in its path at a height h. As a result of this
impact, the direction of the velocity of the body
h
becomes horizontal. Then the value of for which
H
the body will take the maximum time to reach the
ground is
1
a)
2
1
b)
2
c) 2
d) 2
3c In PROBLEM 2, the time taken will be
2 H
a)
g
2H
b)
g
H
c) 2
g
H
d) 4
g
4b 1
A bullet loses of its velocity in passing through a
20
plank. The least number of planks required to stop
the bullet is
a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) 23

5c A ball is thrown vertically upwards. It was observed
at a height h twice with a time interval Δt. The initial
velocity of the ball is
a) 8 gh + g 2 (t ) 2
 g t 
2
b) 8 gh +  
 2 
1
8 gh + g 2 ( t )
2
c)
2
8 gh + 4 g 2 ( t )
2
d)
6b A bus starts moving with acceleration 2 ms-2. A cyclist
96 m behind the bus starts simultaneously towards
the bus at 20 ms-1. After what time will he be able to
overtake the bus?
a) 4 s
b) 8 s
c) 12 s
d) 16 s
7c A body covers a total distance of 3S. The first S is
covered with a velocity u the second S with v and the
last S with w. Then the average velocity during the
whole journey is
u+v+w
a)
3
3uvw
b)
u+v+w
3uvw
c)
uv + vw + uw
d) Zero
8b, c A body falls from a large height h in t second. The
time taken to cover the last metre is
1
a)
gh
1
b)
2gh
1
c)
gt
1
d)
2gt
9a If a particle takes t second less and acquires a
velocity of v ms-1 more in falling through the same
distance on two planets where the accelerations due
to gravity are 2g and 8g respectively then
a) v = 4gt
b) v = 5gt
c) v = 2gt
d) v = 16gt

10a An armoured car 2m long and 3 m wide is moving at
10 ms-1 when a bullet hits it in a direction making an
3
angle tan-1   with the length of the car as seen by
4
a stationary observer. The bullet enters one edge of
the car at the corner and passes out at the diagonally
opposite corner. Neglecting any interaction between
the car and the bullet, the time for the bullet to
cross the car is
a) 0.20 s
b) 0.15 s
c) 0.10 s
d) 0.50 s
11c A graph between the square of the velocity of a
particle and the distance s moved by the particle is
shown in the figure. The acceleration of the particle
in kilometer per hour square is
a) 2250
b) 225
c) -2250
d) -225
12b A body falls from rest, in the last second of its fall,
it covers half of the total distance. If g is 9.8 ms -2,
then the total time of its fall is (in second)
a) 2
b) 2+2
c) 2 - 2
d) 2 ± 2
13d In PROBLEM 12, the total height of the fall is
a) 4.9 m
b) 9.8 m
c) 14.6 m
d) 57.1 m
14c The position x of the particle varies with time t as a
= at2 – bt3. The acceleration of the particle will be
equal to zero at time t given by
2a
a)
3b
a
b)
b
a
c)
3b

d) Zero
15d A stone tied to a string of length L is whirled in a
vertical circle with the other end of the string at the
centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is at
the lowest position and has a speed u. The magnitude
of the change in velocity as it reaches a position
where the string is horizontal is
a) u 2 − 2 gL
b) 2gL
c) u 2 − gL
d) 2(u 2 − gL)
16c A ball is dropped from a bridge 122.5 m above the
river. After the ball has been falling for 2 s, a second
ball is thrown straight after it. What must be the
initial velocity of the second ball so that both hit
water at the same time
a) 49 ms-1
b) 55.5 ms-1
c) 26.1 ms-1
d) 9.8 ms-1
17a The numerical ratio of the numerical value of
velocity to speed is
a) Less than one
b) Less than zero
c) Greater than one
d) None of these
18b A particle moves in a straight line with a velocity v 1
= |t – 4|ms-1 where t is time in second. The
distance covered by the particle in 8 s is
a) 8 m
b) 16 m
c) 4 m
d) 2 m
19a Six persons are initially at the six corners of a
hexagon of side a. Each person now moves with a
uniform speed v in such a manner that 1 is always
directed towards 2, 2 towards 3, 3 towards 4 and so
on. The time after which they meet is
2a
a)
v
a
b)
v
2a
c)
3v
a
d)
2v

20a A parachutist drops freely from an airplane for 10 s
before the parachute opens. He then descends with
a uniform retardation of 2.5 ms-2. If the bails out of
the plane at a height of 2495 m and g is 10 ms -2, his
velocity on reaching the ground will be
a) 5 ms-1
b) 10 ms-1
c) 15 ms-1
d) 20 ms-1
21b A body starts from origin and moves along x axis such
that at any instant velocity is vt = 4t3 – 2t where t is
in second and vt is in ms-1. The acceleration of the
particle when it is 2 m from the origin is
a) 28 ms-2
b) 22 ms-2
c) 12 ms-2
d) 10 ms-2
22a Galileo’s experiment showed that if two bodies of
unequal masses are dropped from the same height,
the times required by them to reach the ground are
equal. If they are thrown vertically upwards with the
same initial velocity, then the ratio of the times
required to reach the ground is equal to
a) Unity
b) The ratio of their masses
c) The inverse of the ratio of their masses
d) The product of their masses
23c The variation of velocity of a particle moving along a
straight line is shown in figure. The distance
traversed by the particle in 4 second is
a) 60 m
b) 25 m
c) 55 m
d) 30 m
24a The acceleration is constant when the relationship
between the
a) Position coordinate s and the square of the
velocity v is linear
b) Position coordinate s and the velocity v is
linear
c) Position coordinate and the reciprocal of the
d) Square of the position coordinate s and the

25d The displacement of a particle undergoing
rectilinear motion along the x-axis is given by x = (2t3
+ 21t2 + 60t + 6)m. The acceleration of the particle
when its velocity is zero is
a) 36 ms-2
b) 9 ms-2
c) -9 ms-2
d) -18 ms-2
26a The motion of a body falling from rest in a resisting
dv
medium is described by the equation = a − bv
dt
where a and b are constants. The velocity at any
time t is
a)
a
v1 =
b
(1 − e−bt )
b − bt
b) v1 = e
a
a − bt
c) v1 = (1 + e )
b
b − bt
d) v1 = e
a
27b The engineer of a train moving at a speed v 1 sights a
freight train a distance d ahead of him on the same
track moving in the same direction with a slower
speed v2. He puts on the brakes and gives his train a
constant deceleration α. Then there will be no
collision is
v1 − v2
a) d=
2
(v − v ) 2
b) d 1 2
2
(v − v ) 2
c) d 1 2
2
(v − v )
d) d 1 2
2
28b A body starts from the origin and moves along X axis
such that the velocity at any instant is given by 4t3 –
2t where t is in second and velocity in ms -1. What is
the acceleration of the particle when it is 2 m from
the origin
a) 28 ms-2
b) 22 ms-2
c) 12 ms-2
d) 10 ms-2

29b An express elevator can accelerate or decelerate
with values whose magnitudes are limited to 0.4 g.
The elevator attains a maximum vertical speed of
400 metre per minute. The minimum time required
by the elevator to start from rest from the 10th floor
and to stop at the 30th floor, a distance 100 m apart
is
a) 1.67 s
b) 16.7 s
c) 167 s
d) 1670 s
30a, c At the instant a motor bike starts from rest in a given
direction, a car overtakes the motor bike, both
moving in the same direction. The speed time graphs
for motor bike and car are represented by OAB and
CD respectively. Then
a) At t = 18 s the motor bike and car are 180 m

apart.
b) At t = 18 s the motor bike and car are 720 m
apart.
c) The relative distance between motor bike
and car reduces to zero at t = 27 s and both
are 1080 m far from origin.
d) The relative distance between motor bike
and car always remains same.

VECTORS
SL NO PROBLEM
1c The sides of the triangle representing three force
vectors are in the ratio 2000 : 1732 : 1000. The angles
of the triangle (in degrees) are
a) 70, 65, 45
b) 80, 55, 45
c) 90, 60, 30
d) 90, 61, 39
2c If two non parallel vectors A and B are equal in
magnitude, then the vectors ( A − B ) and ( A + B )
will be
a) Parallel to each other
b) Parallel but oppositely directed
c) Perpendicular to each other
d) Inclined at an angle θ < 900
3a A particle starts from rest at the origin with a
constant acceleration a = 2iˆ + 8 ˆj − 6kˆ ms-2. Its
position at t = 5 s is
a) ( 25iˆ + 100 ˆj − 75kˆ ) m
b) ( 25iˆ −100 ˆj − 75kˆ ) m
c) (100iˆ − 25 ˆj + 75kˆ ) m
d) ( 25iˆ −100 ˆj + 75kˆ ) m
4b If your non zero vectors satisfy a x b = c x d and
a x c = b x d with a  d and b  c , then
a) ( a − d ) and (b − c ) are perpendicular
b) ( a − d ) and (b − c ) are parallel
c) ( a − d ) must equal (b − c )
d) ( a − d ) must equal − (b − c )
5c A point of application of force F = −5iˆ + 3 ˆj + 2kˆ is
moved from r1 = 2iˆ + 7 ˆj + 4kˆ to r2 = 5iˆ + 2 ˆj + 4kˆ .
The work done will be
a) -22 unit
b) 22 unit
c) -30 unit
d) +30 unit

6a dA ˆ
If Â is a unit vector. The value Aˆ . =
dt
a) 0
b) 1

c)
2
d) π
7a
( ) (
Three forces F1 = 3iˆ + 2 ˆj − kˆ N, F2 = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj − 5kˆ )
( )
N and F3 = A iˆ + ˆj − kˆ N act simultaneously on a
particle. In order that the particle remains in
equilibrium, the value of A should be
a) -6
b) 6
c) 9
d) -9
8a The vector having module equal to 6 and
perpendicular to the two vectors A = 2iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ and
B = 2iˆ − 2 ˆj + 3kˆ is
(
a)  4iˆ − 2 ˆj − 4kˆ )
b)  ( 6iˆ + 2 ˆj − 4kˆ )
c) − ( 6iˆ − 2 ˆj − 6kˆ )
d) ( 6iˆ − 2 ˆj − 6kˆ )
9b If vectors a = 2iˆ + 4 ˆj − kˆ and b = 3iˆ − 2 ˆj + xkˆ are to
be perpendicular to each other, the value of x should
be
a) 2
b) -2
c) 3
d) -3
10c A vector C = A − B has a magnitude equal to A + B,
the angle between A and B is
a) Zero

b)
2
c) π
d) 2π
11c Three forces F1 = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj , F2 = 2iˆ − ˆj − kˆ and
F3 = 4iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ act simultaneously on a particle.
The force F4 that must be applied in order to keep
particle in equilibrium should be
a) (8iˆ + 4kˆ)
b) −8iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ

c) −(8iˆ + 4kjˆ)
d) 8iˆ − 4 ˆj + kˆ
12d 2 2
AxB + A.B is equal to
( A + B)
2
a)
( A − B)
2
b)
c) A2 + B2
d) A2B2
13c
( )
In equation F = q vxB , the quantity F
a) Is perpendicular v only
b) Is perpendicular to B only
c) Is perpendicular to both v and B
d) Is perpendicular to q and B
14b In the arrangement shown in figure, the
instantaneous velocities of masses m1 and m2 are v1
and v2 respectively and ACB = 2θ at the instant,
then
 v1 
a) θ = cos-1  
 2v2 
 v2 
b) θ = cos-1  
 2v1 
 v1 
c) θ = tan-1  
 2v2 
 v1 
d) θ = sin-1  
 v2 
15a The correct expression in the following is
a) ( )
ax bxc + bx ( cxa ) + cx axb = 0 ( )
b) a. ( b .c ) + b . ( c .a ) + c . ( a.b ) = 0
c) a. ( bxc ) + b . ( cxa ) + c. ( axb ) = 0
d) a. ( b + c ) + b . ( c + a ) + c. ( a + b ) = 0

16c A particle moves from point (1, 0, 25) to the point (-
2, 3, 4)m when a force F = (iˆ + 4kˆ) N acts on it. The
work done on it is
a) 6 J
b) 30 J
c) 3 J
d) 9 J
17c The vector that is added to (iˆ − 5 ˆj + 2kˆ) and
(3iˆ + 6 ˆj − 7kˆ) to give a unit vector along the x-axis
is
a) 3iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ
b) iˆ + 3 ˆj + 5kˆ
c) −3iˆ − ˆj + 5kˆ
d) 3iˆ + ˆj − 5kˆ
18b Forces of 1 N and 2 N act along the lines x = 0 and y
= 0. The equation of the line along which the
resultant lies is given by
a) Y – 2x = 0
b) 2y – x = 0
c) Y + x = 0
d) Y – x = 0
19a The radius vector of a point is r = (iˆ − 2 ˆj + 3kˆ) m and
a force F = (4iˆ + 5kˆ) acts at the point. The moment
of the force in Nm is
a) −15iˆ + 12 ˆj + 13kˆ
b) 15iˆ − 12 ˆj + 13kˆ
c) −15iˆ − 12 ˆj + 13kˆ
d) 15iˆ + 12 ˆj + 13kˆ
20c The area of a triangle bounded by vectors a, b and
c is
1
a) a +b +c
2
1
b) a.b + b .c + c .a
2
1
c) (bxc ) + (cxa ) + (axb ) 
6 
1
d) (a.b ) + (b .c ) + (c .a )
2
21d If a = 2iˆ − 3 ˆj + kˆ and b = 3iˆ + ˆj − 2kˆ , the cosine of
angle θ between them is equal to
5
a)
14
1
b)
7

3
c)
14
1
d)
14
22d A particle is moving in a circle of radius r centred at
O with constant speed v. The change in velocity in
moving from P to Q( POQ = 400) is
a) 2v cos 400
b) 2v sin 400
c) 2v cos 200
d) 2v sin 200
23d Following set of forces act on a body. In which case
the resultant cannot be zero?
a) 10 N, 10 N, 20 N
b) 10 N, 10 N, 10 N
c) 10 N, 20 N, 20 N
d) 10 N, 20 N, 40 N
24b d
dt
(AxB )
dB dA
a) Ax + Bx
dt dt
dA dB
b) xB + Ax
dt dt
dB dA
c) − Ax − xB
dt dt
d) 0
25a If l1, m1, n1 and l2, m2, n2 are the direction cosines of
two vectors and θ is the angle between them, then
the value of cos θ is
a) l1l2 + m1m2 +n1n2
b) l1m1 + m1n1 + n1l1
c) l2m2 + m2n2 + n2l2
d) m1l2 + l1m2 + n1m2
26d When t = 0, a particle at (1, 0, 0), moves towards (4,
4, 12) with a constant speed of 65 ms-1. The position
of the particle is measured in meter and the time in
second. Assume constant velocity, the position of the
particle for t = 2 s is
a) (30iˆ − 120 ˆj + 40kˆ) m
b) (40iˆ + 31 ˆj − 120kˆ) m
c) (13iˆ − 40 ˆj + 12kˆ) m

d) (31iˆ + 40 ˆj + 120kˆ) m
27a A force F = (−3iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ) N acts at a point (7, 3, 1).
The torque about the origin (0, 0, 0) will be
a) 14iˆ − 38 ˆj + 16kˆ
b) 14iˆ + 38 ˆj − 16kˆ
c) 14iˆ − 38 ˆj − 16kˆ
d) 14iˆ + 38 ˆj + 16kˆ
28b The two vectors Aand B that are perpendicular to
each other are
a) A = 3iˆ + 3 ˆj + 2kˆ, B = 2iˆ − 2 ˆj + kˆ
b) A = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 2kˆ, B = 2iˆ − 2 ˆj + kˆ
c) A = 2iˆ − 3 ˆj + 2kˆ, B = 2iˆ − 2 ˆj − kˆ
d) A = iˆ + 3 ˆj + 2kˆ, B = 2iˆ − 2 ˆj + kˆ
29d If F1 xF2 = F1.F2 , then F1 + F2 is
a) F1 + F2
2 2
b) F1 + F2
2 2 F1 F2
c) F1 + F2 +
2
2 2
d) F1 + F2 + 2 F1 F2
30d ABCD is a quadrilateral. Forces BA, BC , CD and DA
act at the point. Their resultant is
a) 2 AB
b) 2 DA
c) 2 BC
d) 2 BA

UNITS, SIGNIFICANT FIGURES, MEASUREMENT & ERRORS
SL NO PROBLEM
1d The measurement 8,987652 km is rounded to 4
significant figures. The value of measurement will be
written as
(a) 8.9876
(b) 8.9877
(c) 8.987
(d) 8.988
2c The volume of one sphere is 1.76 cm3. What is the
volume of 25 such spheres (according to the idea of
significant figures)?
(a) 44.000 cm3
(b) 44.00 cm3
(c) 44.0 cm3
(d) 44 cm3
3b The value of resistance is 10.845Ω and the value of
current is 3.23 A. The potential difference is
35.02935 V. Its value is significant number would be
a) 35 V
b) 35.0 V
c) 35.03 V
d) 35.029 V
4c If y = a + b, the maximum percentage error in the
measurement of y will be
 a b 
a)  +  x100%
 a b 
 a b 
b)  −  x100%
 a b 
 a b 
c)  +  x100%
 a+b a+b 
 a b 
d)  −  x100%
 a+b a+b 
5a The length, breadth and thickness of a block is
measured to be 50 cm, 2.0 cm and 1.00 cm. What is
the percentage error in the measurement of volume?
a) 8%
b) 0.8%
c) 10%
d) 12.5%
6b The density of a material of a cube is calculated by
measuring its mass and a side. What is the maximum
percentage error in the density if the errors in the
measurement of a side and mass are 3% and 4%
respectively.
a) 15%
b) 13%
c) 7%
d) 5%

7d The rate of change of velocity of a body falling from
rest in a resisting medium is described by equation
dv
= At – Bv. The dimensions for A and B are
dt
a) LT-3, T
b) LT, T-1
c) LT, T
d) LT-3, T-1
8d Two resistances are expressed as R1 = (4 ± 0.5)Ω and
R2 = (12 ± 0.5)Ω. What is the net resistance when
they are connected (i) in series and (iv) in parallel,
with percentage error?
a) 16Ω ± 23%, 3 Ω ± 6.25%
b) 16 Ω ± 2.3%, 3 Ω ± 6.25%
c) 3 Ω ± 23%, 16 Ω ± 6.25%
d) 16 Ω ± 6.25%, 3 Ω ± 23%
9b The length of string of simple pendulum is 101.4 cm
and the diameter of bob is 2.64 cm. What is the
effective length of simple pendulum upto required
significant figures?
a) 102.72 cm
b) 102.7 cm
c) 102.73 cm
d) 102.6 cm
10d Dimensional representation of thermal resistance is
equal to
a) ML2T-3K-1
b) ML2T-2K-1
c) ML2T-3K-2
d) M-1L-2T3k
11a  a 
In vander Waal’s equation  p +  (V – b) = RT,
 V2 
dimensions of a would be
a) ML5T-2
b) ML3T-2
c) ML-1T-2
d) M0L0T0
12b A cube has numerically equal volume and surface
area. The volume of such a cube is
a) 212 unit
b) 216 unit
c) 200 unit
d) 215 unit
13d The solar constant is defined as the energy incident
per unit area per second on the earth. The
dimensions of solar constant are thus given by
a) M0L0T0
b) MLT-2
c) ML2T-2
d) MT-3

14a If E, m, L, G denote energy, mass, angular
momentum and gravitational constant respectively
EL2
then dimensions of will be that of
m 5G 2
a) Angle
b) Length
c) Mass
d) Time
15b The frequency of vibration n of the stretched string
of length l under tension T in P loops is given by n =
P T
. Then m has got dimensions as that of
2l m
a) Density (M1L-3)
b) Linear Density (M1L-1)
c) Tension (M1L1T-2)
d) Surface Tension (MT-2)
16b One centimeter on the main scale of a vernier
calipers is divided into 10 equal parts. If 10 divisions
of vernier coincide with 8 small divisions of the main
scale, the least count of calipers is
a) 0.01 cm
b) 0.02 cm
c) 0.05 cm
d) 0.005 cm
17d Which of the following pairs of physical quantities
DOES NOT have same dimensions
a) Latent heat and gravitational potential
b) Angular frequency and velocity gradient
c) Surface energy and spring factor
d) Impulse and rate of change of potential
18c A screw gauze has 100 parts on circular scale and on
rotation of a full circular scale, the screw advances
a distance of 1 mm. The least count of screw gauze
is
a) 0.1 cm
b) 0.01 cm
c) 0.001 cm
d) 0.02 cm
19a The error in the measurement of radius of the sphere
is 0.3%. what is the permissible error in its surface
area?
a) 0.6%
b) 1.2%
c) 1.8%
d) 2.4%
20d Assuming that the mass m of the largest stone that
can be moved by a flowing river depends upon the
velocity v of water, its density d and acceleration
due to gravity g. Then m is directly proportional to
a) v3
b) v4
c) v5
d) v6
21a S.I. unit of universal gas constant is
a) JK-1mole-1
b) NK-1mole-1
c) WK-1mole-1
d) ergK-1mole-1
22c While measuring the acceleration due to gravity by a
simple pendulum a student makes a positive error of
1% in the length (l) of the pendulum and an error of
3% in the value of time period (T). His percentage
error in the measurement of g will be
a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 7%
d) 10%
23a The damping force on an oscillating body is
proportional to it velocity. The constant of
proportionality has the dimensions of
a) MT-1
b) MLT-2
c) MT-3
d) M0L0T0
24b A scientist performs an experiment and takes 100
readings. He repeats the same experiment and now
takes 400 readings. By doing so
a) The probable error remaining the same
b) The probable error is halved
c) The probable error is doubled
d) The probable error is reduced by a factor of
1
4
25b Tesla is the unit of
a) Magnetic flux
b) Magnetic field
c) Magnetic induction
d) Magnetic moment
26a The relative density of a material may be found by
weighing it first in air and then in water. If its weight
in air is (5.00 ± 0.05)N and weight in water is (4.00 ±
0.05)N. Then the relative density along with
maximum permissible error will be quoted as
a) 5.0 ± 11%
b) 5.0 ± 6%
c) 5.0 ± 1%
d) 1.25 ± 5%
27c Dimensional formula for entropy is identical to that
of
a) Universal Gas constant
b) Specific Heat
c) Boltzmann constant
d) Gravitational Potential
28c If y = ab, the maximum percentage error in the
measurement of y will be

 a 
 x100% 
a)  a 
 b 
 x100% 
 b 
 a   b 
b)  x100%  x  x100% 
 a   b 
 a b 
c)  +  x100%
 a b 
 a b 
d)  −  x100%
 a b 
29a An athletic’s coach told him that muscle times speed
equals power. What dimensions does the coach view
for muscle
a) MLT-2
b) ML2T-2
c) MLT2
d) M0L1T0
30d The formula, W = (F + 2Ma)vn, where W is the work,
F is the force, M is the mass, a is the acceleration
and v is the velocity can be made dimensionally
correct for
a) n = 0
b) n = 1
c) n = -1
d) No value of n

CHAPTERWISE SUPER THIRTY
PHYSICS PROBLEMS
VOLUME-II
AK PHYSICS CLASSES
TIRUPATI.
CELL NO.9440025125.
ELECTROSTATICS
SL NO PROBLEM
1c A and B are two points in an electric field. If the work
done in carrying 4.0 C of electric charge from A to B is
16.0 J, the potential difference between A and B is
(a) Zero
(b) 2.0 V
(c) 4.0 V
(d) 16.0 V
2b The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by
d cm. A plate of thickness t cm with dielectric constant
k1 is inserted and the remaining space is filled with a
plate of dielectric constant k2. If Q is the charge on the
capacitor and area of plates is A cm2 each, then
potential difference between the plates is
Q  t d −t 
(a)  + 
 0 A  k1 k2 
4 Q  t d − t 
(b)  + 
A  k1 k2 
4 Q  k1 k2 
(c)  + 
A  t d −t 
Q  k1 d − t 
(d)  + 
0 A  t k2 
3d In the circuit shown, which of the following statements
is true if V1 (potential across C1) is 30 V and V2 (potential
across C2) is 20 V.
(a) With S1 closed, V1 = 15 V, V2 = 25 V

(b) With S3 closed, V1 = V2 = 25 V
(c) With S1 and S2 closed, V1 = V2 = 0
(d) With S1 and S3 closed, V1 = 30 V, V2 = 20 V
4b A parallel plate capacitor of value 1.77 µF is to be
designed using a dielectric material (dielectric constant
= 200, breakdown strength = 3 x 106 Vm-1). In order to
make such a capacitor, which can withstand a potential
difference of 20 V across the plates, the separation
between the plates d and the area A of the plates can
be (  0 = 8.85 x 10-12 C2 N-1 m-2)
(a) d = 10-6 m, A= 10-3 m2
(b) d = 10-5 m, A= 10-2 m2
(c) d = 10-4 m, A= 10-4 m2
(d) d = 10-4 m, A= 10-5 m2
AK PHYSICS CLASSES,TIRUPATI.CELL NO.9440025125 1

5a Two point charges q1 = 4 µC and q2 = 9 µC are placed 20
cm apart. The electric field due to them will be zero on
the line joining them at a distance of
(a) 8 cm from q1
(b) 8 cm from q2
80
(c) cm from q1
13
80
(d) cm from q2
13
6a If a solid body is negatively charged by friction, it means
that the body has
(a) Acquired excess of electrons
(b) Lost some protons
(c) Acquired some electrons and lost a lesser
number of protons
(d) Lost some positive ions
7b An oil drop is found floating freely between the plates of
a parallel plate condenser, the plates being horizontal
and the lower plate carrying a charge +Q. The area of
each plate is A and the distance of separation between
them is D. The charge on the oil drop must be (g is the
acceleration due to gravity)
Ag
(a)
QM
 MgA
(b) 0
Q
AgQ
(c) −
D
MgA
(d) −
0
8d A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform
electric field E parallel to the cylinder axis. The total
flux for the surface of the cylinder is given by
(a) 2πR2E
(b) πR2E
(c) (πR2 + πL2)E
(d) Zero
9c Three identical charges are placed at the corners of an
equilateral triangle. If the force between any two
charges is F, then the net force on each will be
(a) 2F
(b) 2F
(c) 3F
(d) 3F

10c Two concentric, thin metallic spheres of radii R 1 and R2
(R1 > R2) bear charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. Then the
potential at distance r between R1 and R2 will be
 1 
k = 
 4 0 
 Q + Q2 
(a) k  1 
 r 
 Q1 Q2 
(b) k  + 
 r R2 
Q Q 
(c) k  2 + 1 
 r R1 
 Q1 Q2 
(d) k  + 
 R1 R2 
11b If a charge is moved against the Coulomb force of an
electric field
(a) Work is done by the electric field
(b) Energy is used from some outside source
(c) The strength of the field is decreased
(d) The energy of the system is decreased
12b, A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 100 µF is
d charged to 500 V. The plate separation is then reduced
to half its original value. Then
(a) The potential on the capacitor becomes 1000 V
(b) The potential on the capacitor becomes 250 V
(c) The change in stored energy is 3.75 x 10-5 J
(d) The change in stored energy is 6.25 J
13b A parallel plate capacitor has circular plates of 0.08 m
radius and 1.0 x 10-3 m separation. If a potential
difference of 100 V is applied, the charge on the
capacitor will be
(a) 1.8 x 10-10 C
(b) 1.8 x 10-8 C
(c) 1.8 x 10-20 C
(d) None of the above
14b A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is connected
to a battery and is charged to a potential difference V.
Another capacitor of capacitance 2C is similarly charged
to potential difference 2V. The charging battery is now
disconnected and the capacitors are connected in
parallel to each other in such a way that the positive
terminal of one is connected to the negative terminal of
the other. The final energy of the configuration
(a) Zero
3 2
(b) CV
2
25 2
(c) CV
6
9 2
(d) CV
2
15c The work done in increasing the voltage across the plates
of a capacitor from 5 V to 10 V is W. The work done in
increasing the voltage from 10 V to 15 V will be
(a) W
4W
(b)
3
5W
(c)
3
(d) 2W
16d A flat circular disc has a charge +Q uniformly distributed
on the disc. A charge +q is thrown with kinetic energy E,
towards the disc along its normal axis. The charge q will
(a) Hit the disc at the centre
(b) Return back along its path after touching the
disc
(c) Return back along its path without touching the
disc
(d) Any of the above three situations is possible
depending on the magnitude of E
17b The radii of two spheres forming a spherical condenser
are 0.5 m and 0.6 m. If a medium of dielectric constant
6 is completely filled in between, the capacity of the
condenser will be
(a) 3.3 x 10-10 F
(b) 2 x 10-9 F
(c) 2 F
(d) 18 F
18c The electric intensity due to a uniformly charged infinite
cylinder of radius R, at a distance r(> R), from its axis is
proportional to
(a) r2
(b) r3
1
(c)
r
1
(d) 2
r
19b, c In the given circuit is steady state
(a) The potential difference across C1 is 10 V

(b) The potential difference across C2 is 10 V
(c) The charge on C1 is 20 µC
(d) The charge on C2 is 8 µC

20c Two capacitors C1 and C2 in a circuit are joined as shown
in figure. The potentials of points A and B are V1 and V2
respectively; then the potential of point D will be
(V1 + V2 )
(a)
2
C2V1 + C1V2
(b)
C1 + C2
C1V1 + C2V2
(c)
C1 + C2
C2V1 − C1V2
(d)
C1 + C2
21d The radius of a hollow metallic sphere is R. if the
potential difference its surface and a point at a distance
of 3R from its centre is V, then the electric field intensity
at a distance of 3R from its centre is
V
(a)
2R
V
(b)
3R
V
(c)
4R
V
(d)
6R
22c The electric field due to a point charge at a distance R
from it is E. If the same charge is placed on a metallic
sphere of radius R, the electric field on the surface of
the sphere will be
(a) Zero
E
(b)
2
(c) E
(d) 2E
23c Two free charges q and 4q are placed at a distance d
apart. A third charge Q is placed between them at a
distance x from charge q such that the system is in
equilibrium. Then
4q d
(a) Q = ,x =
9 3
4q d
(b) Q = ,x =
9 4
4q d
(c) Q = − ,x =
9 3
4q d
(d) Q = − ,x =
3 4

24d Two particles having charges Q1 and Q2, when kept at a
certain distance exert a force F on each other. If the
distance between the two particles is reduced to half
and the charge on each particle is doubled, the force
between the particles would be
(a) 2F
(b) 4F
(c) 8F
(d) 16F
25c Potential at a point at a distance r from the centre of a
uniformly charged sphere of radius a(< r) is proportional
to
(a) a3
(b) r
1
(c)
r
1
(d) 3
a
26c If 4 x 1020 eV of energy is required to move a charge of
0.25 C between two points, then the potential
difference between the points is
(a) 64 V
(b) 128 V
(c) 256 V
(d) 512 V
27a How many electrons will have a charge of one coulomb?
(a) 6.25 x 1018
(b) 6.25 x 1019
(c) 5.25 x 1018
(d) 5.25 x 1019
28a A parallel plate capacitor is located horizontally such
that one of the plates is submerged in a liquid while the
other is above the liquid surface. When plates are
charged the level of liquid
(a) Rises
(b) Falls
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) May rise or fall depending on the amount of
charge

29a Two isolated, charged conducting spheres of radii R 1 and
R2 produce the same electric field near their surfaces.
The ratio of electric potentials on their surfaces is
R1
(a)
R2
R2
(b)
R1
R12
(c)
R22
R22
(d)
R12
30c A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released
from rest in a uniform electric field E. The kinetic energy
of the particle after time t is
2E 2t 2
(a)
mq
Eq 2 m
(b)
2t 2
E 2 q 2t 2
(c)
2m
Eqm
(d)
2t

CURRENT ELECTRICITY
SL NO PROBLEM
1b The sensitivity of potentiometer can be increased by
(a) Increasing e.m.f. of cell
(b) Increasing length of potentiometer wire
(c) Decreasing length of potentiometer wire
(d) Decreasing e.m.f. of battery of main circuit
2c A 10 m long wire of resistance 20Ω is connected in
series with a battery of e.m.f. 3V and a resistance of
10Ω. The potential gradient along the wire in volt per
metre is
(a) 0.02
(b) 0.1
(c) 0.2
(d) 1.2
3a Density of copper is 9 x 103 kgm-3 and its atomic
weight is 63. A current of 1.1 A is flowing in a copper
wire of diameter 1 mm. If every atom of copper
contributes one free electron then the drift velocity
of electrons is approximately
(a) 0.1 mms-1
(b) 0.2 mms-1
(c) 0.3 mms-1
(d) 0.2 cms-1
4c A cell of emf E is connected across a resistance r. The
potential difference between the terminals of the cell
is found to be V. The internal resistance of the cell
must be
2( E − V )V
(a)
r
2( E − V )r
(b)
E
( E − V )r
(c)
V
(d) (E – V)r
5d In the circuit shown each battery is 5V and has an
internal resistance of 0.25Ω. The reading of the
voltmeter is V. Then V equals
(a) 5V
(b) 10 V
(c) 15 V
(d) Zero

6d Seven resistors, each of 1Ω, are connected as shown
in the figure. The effective resistance between A and
B is
4
(a) 
3
3
(b) 
2
(c) 7Ω
8
(d) 
7
7c In the given circuit, as the sliding contact C is moved
from A to B
(a) The readings of both the ammeter and the

voltmeter remain constant
(b) The readings of both the ammeter and the
voltmeter increase
(c) The reading of the ammeter remains constant
but that of the voltmeter increases
(d) The reading of the ammeter remains constant
but that of the voltmeter decreases
8d Two resistances R1 and R2 are made of different
materials. The temperature coefficient of the
material of R1 is a and that of material of R2 is –β.
The resistance of the series combination of R 1 and R2
R1
will not change with temperature if equals
R2

(a)

 +
(b)
 −
2 + 2
(c)
2

(d)


9c Sixteen resistors each of resistance 16Ω are
connected in the circuit as shown. The net resistance
between AB is
(a) 1Ω
(b) 2Ω
(c) 3Ω
(d) 4Ω
10c When an unknown resistance is connected across a
series combination of two identical batteries, each of
1.5 V, the current through the resistor is 1.0 A. When
it is connected across a parallel combination of the
same batteries, the current through it is 0.6 A. the
internal resistance of each battery is
1
(a) 
5
1
(b) 
4
1
(c) 
3
1
(d) 
2
11d A potentiometer wire is 10 m long and has a resistance
of 20Ω. It is connected in series with a battery of emf
3V and a resistance of 10Ω. The potential gradient
along the wire in Vm-1 is
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.1
(d) 0.2
12c In the circuit shown in figure, with steady current, the
potential drop across the capacitor must be
(a) V
V
(b)
2
V
(c)
3
2V
(d)
3

13c A galvanometer with 50 divisions on the scale has a
resistance of 25Ω. A current of 2 x 10-4 A gives a
deflection of one scale division. The additional series
resistance required to convert it into a voltmeter
reading up to 25 V is
(a) 1200Ω
(b) 1225Ω
(c) 2475Ω
(d) 2500Ω
14a A cell has an emf of 1.5 V. When short circuited, it
gives a current of 3 A. The internal resistance of the
cell is
(a) 0.5Ω
(b) 2.0Ω
(c) 4.5Ω
1
(d) 
4.5
15b, c A battery of e.m.f. E and internal resistance r is
connected to a variable resistor R as shown. Which
one of the following is true?
(a) Potential difference across the terminals of

the battery is maximum where R = r
(b) Power delivered to resistor is maximum when
R=r
(c) Current in the circuit is maximum when R = r
(d) Current in the circuit is maximum when R >>
r
16d A steady current is flowing in a conductor of non-
uniform cross-section. The charge passing through any
cross-section per unit time is
(a) Directly proportional to the area of cross-
section
(b) Inversely proportional to the area of cross-
section
(c) Proportional to square of the area of cross-
section
(d) Independent of the area of cross-section
17a The equivalent resistance between A and B (of the
circuit shown) is
(a) 4.5Ω
(b) 12Ω
(c) 5.4Ω
(d) 20Ω
18d When a resistor of 20Ω is connected across a battery,
the current is 0.5 A. When a resistor of 10Ω is
connected across the same battery, the current is 0.8
A. The emf and internal resistance of the battery are
10
(a) 10 V, 
3
20
(b) 20 V, 
3
40 10
(c) V, 
3 3
40 20
(d) V, 
3 3
19a In the network shown, the equivalent resistance
between A and B is
4
(a) 
3
3
(b) 
4
24
(c) 
17
17
(d) 
24
20a For which of the following dependences of drift
velocity vd, on electric field E, is Ohm’s Law obeyed?
(a)  d  E
(b) d  E 2
(c) d  E
(d) vd = constant
21a, Constantan is used for making standard resistances
d because it has
(a) High specific resistance
(b) Low specific resistance
(c) Negligible temperature coefficient of
resistance
(d) High melting point

22c A potentiometer wire is 10 m long. It has a resistance
20Ω. It is connected in series with a battery of e.m.f.
3V and negligible internal resistance and a resistance
of 10Ω. The potential gradient along the wire in volt
per metre is
(a) 0.02
(b) 0.1
(c) 0.2
(d) 1.2
23c A voltmeter of range 1 V has a resistance of 1000Ω.
To extend the range to 10 V, the additional series
resistance required is
1000
(a) 
9
(b) 1000Ω
(c) 9000Ω
(d) 10000Ω
24c A primary cell has an emf of 1.5 V. When a 5Ω resistor
is connected across it, the current is 0.2 A. The
internal resistance of the cell is
(a) 0.5Ω
(b) 1.25Ω
(c) 2.5Ω
(d) 3.0Ω
25c The best instrument for accurate measurement of
e.m.f. of a cell is
(a) A voltmeter
(b) An ammeter
(c) A potentiometer
(d) Wheatstone’s Bridge
26a, c In the circuit shown E, F, G and H are cells of e.m.f.
2V, 1V, 3V and 1V respectively and their internal
resistances are 2Ω, 1Ω, 3Ω and 1Ω respectively.
2
(a) VD - VB = − V.
13
2
(b) VD – VB = V
13
21
(c) VG = V = Potential difference across G.
13
19
(d) VH = V = Potential difference across H.
13

27d The carrier density (number of free electrons per m3)
in metallic conductors is of the order of
(a) 1010
(b) 1016
(c) 1022
(d) 1028
28d Three resistors of 2Ω, 3Ω and 5Ω are connected in
parallel across a battery of 10V and of negligible
internal resistance. The potential difference across
the 3Ω resistor is
(a) 2V
(b) 3V
(c) 5V
(d) 10V
29b A potentiometer wire of length 100 cm has a
resistance of 10Ω. It is connected in series with a
resistance and an accumulator of emf 2 V and of
negligible internal resistance. A source of emf 10 mV
is balanced against a 40 cm length of the
potentiometer wire. The value of the external
resistance is
(a) 395Ω
(b) 790Ω
(c) 405Ω
(d) 810Ω
30d A piece of copper and another of germanium are
cooled from room temperature to 80K. The resistance
of
(a) Each of them increases
(b) Each of them decreases
(c) Copper increases and that of germanium
decreases
(d) Copper decreases and that of germanium
increases

THERMAL, CHEMICAL AND THERMOELECTRIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT

SL NO PROBLEM
1b In an antimony-bismuth thermocouple the direction
of current in the circuit is
(a) From antimony to bismuth at hot junction
(b) From antimony to bismuth at cold junction
(c) From antimony to bismuth at both junction
(d) From bismuth to antimony at both junctions
2a Two bulbs which consume powers P 1 and P2 are
connected in series. The power consumed by the
combination is
(a) P1 + P2
(b) PP
1 2
P1 P2
(c)
P1 + P2
2P1 P2
(d)
P1 + P2
3d Three equal resistors connected in series across a
source of emf together dissipate 10 W power. If the
same resistors are connected in parallel across the
same source, the power dissipated will be
(a) 10 W
(b) 30 W
10
(c) W
3
(d) 90 W
4a One junction of a thermocouple is at a particular
temperature Tr and another is at T. Its thermo e.m.f.
is expressed as
 1 
E = K(T – Tr) T0 − (T + Tr ) 
 2 
T0
At a temperature T = , the value of thermo electric
2
power will be
1
(a) KT0
2
(b) KT0
1
(c) KT02
2
1
(d) K(T0 – Tr)2
2

5b A long resistance wire is divided into 2n parts. Then n
parts are connected in series and the other n – parts
in parallel separately. Both combinations are
connected to identical supplies. Then the ratio of
heat produced in series to parallel combinations will
be
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : n2
(c) 1 : n4
(d) n2 : 1
6b Three equal resistors are connected as shown in
figure. The maximum power consumed by each
resistor is 18 W. Then maximum power consumed by
the combination (in watt) is
(a) 18
(b) 27
(c) 36
(d) 54
7d Above the neutral temperature, the thermo e.m.f.
(a) Changes sign
(b) Is constant
(c) Increases with the rise in temperature
(d) Decreases with the rise in temperature.
8b If a current is passed in a thermo-couple formed of
two dissimilar metals, one junction is heated and
other is cooled. If π1 and π2 are the Peltier
coefficients of cold and hot junctions, then the net
e.m.f. across the junction is
1 +  2
(a)
2
(b) (π2 – π1)
(c)  22 + 12
(d)  1 2
9d A piece of fuse wire melts when a circuit of 15 A flows
through it. With this current, if it dissipates 22.5 W,
the resistance of fuse wire will be
(a) Zero
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 1 Ω
(d) 0.10 Ω
10a A current is passes for a time t in several voltameters
connected in series. The masses of different
substances deposited/liberated on electrodes are
directly proportional to their
(a) Chemical equivalents
(b) Molecular weights
(c) Atomic weights
(d) Atomic numbers

11b A secondary battery has a 20 hour charge rate of 10 A
and delivering 5 A for 36 hour and discharges with a
mean terminal voltage of 1.96 V. The ampere hour
efficiency is
(a) 9%
(b) 90%
(c) 20%
(d) 100%
12c A bulb rated 220 V, 100 W is connected across 160 V
line. The power dissipated will be
(a) 100 W
(b) 75 W
(c) 52 W
(d) 26 W
13c When a battery sends current through a resistance R1
for time t, the heat produced in the resistor is H.
When the same battery sends current through another
resistance R2 for time t, the heat produced in R2 is
again H. The internal resistance of the battery is
R1 + R2
(a)
2
R − R2
(b) 1
2
(c) R1 R2
R1 R2
(d)
2
14b The temperature of inversion of a thermocouple is
700 0C and the neutral temperature is 365 0C. Then
the temperature of cold junction must be
(a) 0 0C
(b) 30 0C
(c) 35 0C
(d) 65 0C
15d The power of a heater is 500 W at 800 0C. what will
be its power at 200 0C. (given temperature coefficient
of resistance, α = 4 x 10-4 0C-1)
(a) 484 W
(b) 672 W
(c) 526 W
(d) 620 W
16a A current is passed for time t in several voltameters
put in series. The masses of different substances
deposited or liberated on electrodes are directly
proportional to their
(a) Chemical equivalents
(b) Molecular weights
(c) Atomic weights
(d) Atomic numbers

17d A copper voltameter has a resistance of 1 Ω. It is
connected in series with a 2 V battery and a resistor
of 2 Ω. The mass of Cu deposited in 1 hour is (E. C. E.
of Cu = 0.00033 gC-1)
(a) 0.2 g
(b) 0.4 g
(c) 0.6 g
(d) 0.8 g
18d In PROBLEM 17, if the 2 Ω resistor is connected in
parallel with the voltameter, the amount of Cu
deposited will be
(a) 0.6 g
(b) 1.2 g
(c) 1.8 g
(d) 2.4 g
19c Two bulbs, one of 25 W, 220 V and another of 100 W,
220 V are connected in series across 220 V mains. The
current
(a) Through 25 W bulb is more
(b) Through 100 W bulb is more
(c) Is same in the two bulbs
(d) It is difficult to draw any conclusion
20a Two heating coils, one of fine wire and the other of
thick wire made of same material and of same length
are connected in series and then in parallel. Which of
the following statement is correct
(a) In series, fine thin wire liberates more energy
while in parallel, thick wire liberates more
energy.
(b) In series, fine thin wire liberates less energy
while in parallel, thick wire liberates less
energy .
(c) In series, thick wire liberates more energy
while in parallel, it liberates less energy.
(d) Both wires liberate equal energies in series
and parallel.
21a Two electric bulbs 40 W, 200 V and 100 W, 200 V are
connected in series. Then the maximum voltage that
can be applied across the combination, without fusing
either bulb (in V) is
(a) 280
(b) 400
(c) 3000
(d) 200
22b A 24 V battery of internal resistance 4 Ω is connected
to a variable resistor. The rate of heat production in
the resistor is maximum when the current in the
circuit is
(a) 2 A
(b) 3 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 6 A

23a If N is the Avogadro’s number and e is the electronic
charge then the Faraday constant F is equal to
(a) Ne
(b) N2e
(c) Ne2
1
(d)
Ne
24c A coil develops heat of 800 cal s -1 when a potential
difference of 20 V is applied across its ends. The
resistance of the coil is (1 cal = 4.2 J)
(a) 1.2 Ω
(b) 1.4 Ω
(c) 0.12 Ω
(d) 0.14 Ω
25b A current of 1.5 A flows through a copper voltameter.
The thickness of copper deposited on the electrode
surface of area 50 cm2 in 20 minute is (density of Cu
= 9000 kgm-3; E. C. E. of Cu = 3.3 x 10-7 kgC-1)
(a) 1.3 x 10-4 m
(b) 1.3 x 10-5 m
(c) 2.6 x 10-4 m
(d) 2.6 x 10-5 m
26a A 25 W-120 V bulb and a 100 W- 120 V bulb are
connected in series across 120 V line. The bulb which
glows brightly is
(a) 25 W-120 V
(b) 100 W-120 V
(c) Both will have the same incandescene
(d) Neither will give any light
27a Which of the following is not reversible
(a) Joule effect
(b) Peltier effect
(c) Seebeck effect
(d) Thomson effect
28a For a given temperature difference which of the
following pairs will generate maximum thermo e. m.
f.?
(a) Antimony – bismuth Silver – gold
(b) Iron – copper Lead – nickel
29a Two bulbs 100 W, 250 V and 200 W, 250 are connected
in series across a 500 V line. Then
(a) 100 W bulb will be fused
(b) 200 W bulb will be fused
(c) Both bulbs will be fused
(d) No bulb will be fused

30d A torch bulb rated as 4.5 W, 1.5 V is connected as
shown. The e. m. f. of the cell needed to make the
bulb glow at full intensity 4.5 W is
(a) 4.5 V 1.5 V

(b) 2.67 V 13.5 V

MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT
SL NO PROBLEM
1c A long thin wire is bent as shown in the figure. The
radius of the semicircular part is r metres. If a
current of I ampere flows through the wire, then the
magnetic induction at O in tesla is
0 I  1
(a) 1 +  out of the page
2r   
0 I  1 
(b) 1 +  into the page
2r   
0 I  2 
(c) 1 +  out of the page
4r   
0 I  2 
(d) 1 +  into the page
4r   
2d A potential difference of 600 V is applied across the
plates of a parallel plate capacitor. The separation
between the plates is 3 mm. A magnetic field also
exists between the plates. An electron projected
parallel to the plates as shown with a speed of 2 x
106 ms-1 moves undeflected between the plates. The
magnitude and direction of the magnetic field is
(a) 0.2 T, into the page

(b) 0.2 T, out of the page
(c) 0.1 T, into the page
(d) 0.1 T, out of the page
3d A current of I ampere flows along an infinitely long
straight thin walled hollow metallic cylinder of radius
r. The magnetic field at any point inside the cylinder
at a distance x from the axis of the cylinder is
(a) 
0 I
(b)
2 r
0 I
(c)
2 x
(d) Zero

4a In PROBLEM 3, the magnetic field at any point outside
the cylinder at a distance x from the axis is
0 I
(a)
2 x
0 I
(b)
2 ( x − r )
0 I
(c)
2 x 2
0 I
(d)
2 ( x − r ) 2
5b The strength of the magnetic field due to a long
straight conductor is
(a) The same everywhere around the conductor
(b) Inversely proportional to the distance from
the conductor
(c) Inversely proportional to the square of the
distance from the conductor
(d) Inversely proportional to the cube of the
distance from the conductor
6b In the given loop, the magnetic field at the centre O
is
0 I  r1 + r2 
(a)   out of the page
4  r1r2 
0 I  r1 + r2 
(b)   into the page
4  r1r2 
0 I  r1 − r2 
(c)   out of the page
4  r1r2 
0 I  r1 − r2 
(d)   into the page
4  r1r2 

7d A charged particle having kinetic energy E enters
normally a region of uniform magnetic field between
two plates P1 and P2 as shown in the figure. If the
particle just misses hitting the plate P 2, then the
magnetic field B in the region between the plates is
mE
(a)
2qd
2mE
(b)
qd
mE
(c)
2qd
2mE
(d)
qd
8b Magnetic lines of force
(a) Always intersect
(b) Always form closed loops
(c) Tend to crowd far away from the poles of a
magnet
(d) Do not pass through vacuum
9a A long straight wire carries a current of 10 A. An
electron travels with a speed of 5 x 106 ms-1 parallel
to the wire 0.1 m away from it. The force exerted by
the magnetic field of the current on the electron is
(a) 1.6 x 10-17 N
(b) 3.2 x 10-17 N
(c) 1.6 x 10-18 N
(d) 3.2 x 10-18 N
10d A current carrying circular coil is bent so as to
convert it into a double loop, both the loops being
concentric and carrying current in the same
direction. If B is the initial magnetic field at the
centre, the final magnetic field at the centre will be
(a) Zero
(b) B
(c) 2B
(d) 4B

11a A portion of a long straight wire, carrying a current
I, is bent in the form of a semicircle of radius r as
shown in the figure. The magnetic field at the centre
O of the semicircular, in tesla, is
I
(a) x 10-7
r
I
(b)
r
I
(c) x 107
r
(d) Zero
12d A current I flows in a circular arc of wire which
3
subtends an angle at the centre. If the radius of
2
the circle is r then the magnetic induction at B is
0 I
(a)
r
0 I
(b)
2r
30 I
(c)
4r
30 I
(d)
8r
13b A proton enters a magnetic field of flux density 1.5
Wbm-2 with a speed of 2 x 107 ms-1 at angle of 300
with the field. The force on the proton will be
(a) 0.24 x 10-12 N
(b) 2.4 x 10-12 N
(c) 24 x 10-12 N
(d) 0.024 x 10-12 N
14d A strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary
electron. Then the electron
(a) Moves in the direction of the field
(b) Moves opposite to the field
(c) Starts spinning
(d) Remains stationary
15a In cyclotron the gyro radius is
(a) Proportional to momentum
(b) Proportional to energy
(c) Inversely proportional to momentum
(d) Inversely proportional to energy

16c A proton and an α – particle are projected with the
same kinetic energy at right angles to a uniform
magnetic field. Then
(a) The α – particle will be bent in a circular path
of smaller radius than that of the proton.
(b) The α – particle will be bent in a circular path
of larger radius than that of the proton
(c) The α – particle and the proton will be bent
in a circular path of the same radius
(d) The α – particle and the proton will go
through the field undeflected.
17a Two very thin metallic wires placed along X and Y
axes carry equal currents as shown. AB and CD are
lines at 450 with the axes having origin at O. the
magnetic field will be zero on the line.
(a) AB (B) CD
(b) Straight segment OB only of line AB
(c) Straight segment OC only of line CD
18c Two free parallel wires carrying currents in opposite
directions
(a) Do not affect each other
(b) Attract each other
(c) Repel each other
(d) Get rotated to be perpendicular to each
other
19d An electric charge q moves with a constant velocity
v parallel to the lines of force of a uniform magnetic
field B. The force experienced by the charge is
(a) Bqv
B
(b)
q
B
(c)
q
(d) Zero
20c The magnetic field inside a current carrying toroidal
solenoid is B. If its radius is doubled and the current
through it is also doubled, the magnetic field inside
the solenoid will be
B
(a)
2
(b) B
(c) 2B
(d) 4B

21a A unit of magnetic induction is
(a) Wbm-2
(b) WbAm-1
(c) Wbm-1
(d) Wb
22a,c,d The current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer
depends on
(a) The number of turns in the coil
(b) Moment of inertia of the coil
(c) Strength of the magnetic field
(d) Torsional constant of the suspension fibre
23b Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance
b are carrying a current I ampere each. The
magnitude of the force per unit length exerted by
one wire on the other is
0 I 2
(a)
b2
0 I 2
(b)
2 b
0 I
(c)
2 b
0 I
(d)
2 b 2
24c Two particles X and Y having equal charge, after

being accelerated through the same potential
difference enter a region of uniform magnetic field
and describe circular paths of radii R 1 and R2
respectively. The ratio of the mass of X to that of Y
is
R1
(a)
R2
2
R 
(b)  2 
 R1 
2
R 
(c)  1 
 R2 
R2
(d)
R1
25a In a moving coil galvanometer the current i is related
to the deflection θ as
(a) I  θ
(b) I  tan θ
(c) I  θ2
(d) I  

26b The radius of curvature of the path of a charged
particle in a uniform magnetic field is directly
proportional to the
(a) Charge of the particle
(b) Momentum of the particle
(c) Energy of the particle
(d) Strength of the field
27d A 2 MeV proton (mass = 1.6 x 10-27 kg) is moving
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 2.5 T.
The magnetic force on the proton is
(a) 2.5 x 10-10 N
(b) 8 x 10-11 N
(c) 2.5 x 10-11 N
(d) 8 x 10-12 N
28a A charged particle is released from rest in a region of
steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields
which are parallel to each other. The particle will
move in a
(a) Straight line
(b) Circle
(c) Helix
(d) Cycloid
29c A moving charge produces
(a) An electric field only
(b) A magnetic field only
(c) Both electric and magnetic fields
(d) Neither an electric nor a magnetic field
30d A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field
exist in a region in the same direction. An electron is
projected with velocity pointed in the same
direction. The electron will
(a) Turn to its right
(b) Turn to its left
(c) Keep moving in the same direction but its
speed will increase
(d) Keep moving in the same direction but its
speed will decrease

MAGNETOSTATICS
SL NO PROBLEM
1c SI unit for measuring magnetic flux is called
(a) Oersted
(b) Maxwell
(c) Weber
(d) Gauss
2b In the case of bar magnet, the lines of magnetic
induction
(a) Start from N – pole
(b) Run continuously through the bar and outside
(c) Emerge in circular paths from the middle of
the bar
(d) Are produced only at N – pole like rays of
light from a bulb
3c A freely suspended magnet oscillates with period T
in earth’s horizontal magnetic field. When a bar
magnet is brought near it, the period decreases to
T
. The ratio of the field of the magnet, F to the
2
earth’s magnetic field(H) is
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 9 : 1
4d Hardness of a magnetic material is measured by the
value of
(a) Magnetic induction
(b) Intensity of magnetization
(c) Density of magnetic material
(d) Coercive force
5b A thin magnet is cut into two equal parts by cutting.
What is the new magnetic moment of each part?
What is the time period of each part as compared to
that of original magnet if vibrated in the same
magnetic field?
M T
(a) m = ,T ' =
2 2
M
(b) m = ,T ' = T
2
(c) m = M,T’ = T
(d) m = M, T’ = 2T
6a A watch glass containing some powdered substance
is placed between the pole pieces of a magnet. Deep
concavity is observed at the centre. The substance
in the watch glass is
(a) Iron
(b) Chromium
(c) Carbon
(d) Wood

7a An electromagnet uses
(a) Soft iron core
(b) Steel core
(c) Nickel core
(d) Copper core
8b The angle between geographical and magnetic
meridian is called
(a) Angle of dip
(b) Angle of declination
(c) Latitude
(d) Longitude
9d (i) Soft iron conducts electricity.
(ii) Soft iron is a magnetic material
(iii) Soft iron is an alloy of iron
(iv) Soft iron is used for magnetic permanent
magnets.
Out of the statements given above
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iiI) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iv)are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
10a Agonic lines on magnetic map represent lines of
(a) Zero declination
(b) Equal declination
(c) Zero dip
(d) Equal dip
11c Which of the following is most suitable for the core
of the electromagnets?
(a) Air
(b) Steel
(c) Soft iron
(d) Cu – Ni alloy
12b Isogonic lines on magnetic map represent lines of
(a) Zero declination
(c) Equal dip
(d) Equal horizontal field
13c The isoclinic lines on magnetic map represent lines
of
(a) Zero dip
(c) Equal dip
(d) Equal horizontal field
14a The relative magnetic permeability of paramagnetic
substance is of the order of
(a) 1
(b) 10-2
(c) 10-4
(d) Zero
15b The ratio of SI units to C.G.S. unit for magnetic flux
density is
(a) 103
(b) 104
(c) 10-4
(d) 10-3
16a Current I is flowing in a circular loop of area A placed
in a magnetic field B, then the maximum couple
acting on it is
(a) BIA
B
(b)
IA
I
(c)
BA
1
(d)
BIA
17d If the earth’s field induction at a place is 0.36 G and
the angle of dip is 600. The horizontal and vertical
components of the field are BH and BV respectively
0.18
(a) BH = 0.18 G, BV = G
3
(b) BH = 0.18 3 G, BV = 0.18 G
(c) BH = 0.18 G, BV = 0.36 G
(d) BH = 0.18 G, BV = 0.18 3 G
18d A permanent magnet
(a) Attracts all substance
(b) Attracts only ferromagnetic substance
(c) Attracts magnetic substances and repels all
others
(d) Attracts some substances and repels others
19d 1 Wbm-2 is equal to
(a) 1 G
(b) 10 G
(c) 102 G
(d) 104 G
20c Two identical thin bar magnets, each of length l and
pole strength m are placed at right angles to each
other with the north pole of one touching the south
pole of the other. The resultant magnetic moment of
the system is
(a) Zero
(b) 2ml
(c) 2 ml
ml
(d)
2
21b For which of the following substances the
susceptibility obeys Curie law
(a) Diamagnetics
(b) Paramagnetics
(c) Ferromagnetic
(d) Superconductors
22b Magnetic field is measured by a
(a) Thermopile
(b) Fluxmeter
(c) Pyrometer
(d) Thermometer

23b A steel wire of length l has a magnet moment M. it is
then bent into a semi-circular arc. The new magnetic
moment is
M
(a)

2M
(b)

3M
(c)

4M
(d)

24c A curve between magnetic moment and temperature
of magnet is
25c The magnetic permeability is maximum for

(a) Diamagnetic
(b) Paramagnetic
(c) Ferro magnetic
(d) Is equal for all
26c If the magnetic flux is expressed in weber, then
magnetic induction can be expressed as
(a) Wbm
(b) Wbm2
(c) Wbm-2
(d) Wbm-1
27a The source of magnetic field as a/an
(a) Current loop
(b) Static electric charge
(c) Isolated magnetic pole
(d) None of these
28a The line joining the points of horizontal components
of earth’s field is called
(a) Magnetic meridian
(b) Magnetic axis
(c) Magnetic line
(d) Magnetic equator

29b In a vibration magnetometer, the time period of a
bar magnet oscillating in a horizontal component of
earth’s magnetic field is 2 s. When the magnet is
brought near and parallel to it, the time period
H
reduces to 1 s. The ratio   of the horizontal
F
component H and the field F due to magnet will be
(a) 3
1
(b)
3
(c) 3
1
(d)
3
30d A magnet of magnetic moment M is rotated through
3600 in a magnetic field H, the work done will be
(a) MH
(b) 2MH
(c) 2πMH
(d) Zero

ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION & ALTERNATING CURRENTS
SL NO PROBLEM
1b When a wheel with metal spokes, 1.2 m long, is
rotated in a magnetic field of flux density 5 x 10-5
Wbm-2 normal to the plane of the wheel, an emf of
0.01 V is induced between the rim and the axle. The
frequency of rotation of the wheel is
(a) 22 revolutions per second
(b) 44 revolutions per second
22
(c) revolutions per second

44
(d) revolutions per second

2d A conducting square loop of side L and resistance R
moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v
perpendicular to one of its sides. A magnetic
induction B, constant in time and space, pointing
perpendicular and into the plane of the loop exists
everywhere. The current induced in the loop is
BL
(a) clockwise
R
BL
(b) anticlockwise
R
2BL
(c) anticlockwise
R
(d) Zero
3a Two identical coaxial circular loops carry a current I
each circulating in the same direction. If the loops
approach each other the current in
(a) Each decreases
(b) Each increases
(c) Each remains the same
(d) One increases whereas that in the other
decreases
4b A step up transformer connected to 220 V ac line is
to supply 22 kV for a neon sign in secondary circuit.
In primary circuit a fuse wire is connected which is
to blow when the current in the secondary circuit
exceeds 10 mA. The turn ratio of the transformer is
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200

5a The mutual inductance of a pair of coils, each of N
turns, is M henry. If a current of I ampere in one of
the coils is brought to zero in t second, the emf
induced per turn in the other coil, in volt, will be
MI
(a)
t
NMI
(b)
t
MN
(c)
It
MI
(d)
Nt
6d If the number of turns per unit length of a coil of
solenoid is doubled, the self inductance of solenoid
will be
(a) Remain unchanged
(b) Be halved
(c) Be doubled
(d) Becomes four times
7c In a step-down transformer the input voltage is 22 kV
and the output voltage is 550 V. The ratio of the
number of turns in the secondary to that in the
primary is
(a) 1 : 20
(b) 20 : 1
(c) 1 : 40
(d) 40 : 1
8c Consider the situation shown. The wire AB is sliding
on fixed rails with a constant velocity. If the wire AB
is replaced by semi-circular wire, the magnitude of
induced emf will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
(d) Increase or decrease depending on whether
the semi-circular buldges towards the
resistance or away from it

9c A magnet is moving towards a coil along its axis and
the emf induced in the coil is ε. If the coil also starts
moving towards the magnet with the same speed,
the induced emf will be

(a)
2
(b) ε
(c) 2ε
(d) 4ε
10b Which one of the following curves represents
variation of current (I) with frequency (f) in series
LCR circuit
11d To induce an emf in a coil, the linking magnetic flux

(a) Must decrease
(b) Must increase
(c) Must remain constant
(d) Can either increase or decrease
12c An ideal transformer is used to step up and
alternating emf of 220 V to 4.4 kV to transmit 6.6 kW
of power. The current rating of the secondary is
(a) 30 A
(b) 3 A
(c) 1.5 A
(d) 1 A
13a The tuning circuit of a radio receiver has a resistance
of 50 Ω, an inductor of 10 mH and a variable
capacitor. A 1 MHz radio wave produces a potential
difference of 0.1 mV. The value of the capacitor to
produce resonance is (Take π2 = 10)
(a) 2.5 pF
(b) 5.0 pF
(c) 25 pF
(d) 50 pF
14c In PROBLEM 13, the current at resonance is
(a) 1 µA
(b) 1.5 µA
(c) 2 µA
(d) 4 µA

15d In a transformer, the number of turns in the primary
an secondary coils are 1000 and 3000 respectively. If
the primary is connected across 80 V A.C., the
potential difference across each turn of the
secondary will be
(a) 240 V
(b) 0.24 V
(c) 0.8 V
(d) 0.08 V
16a A coil is rotated in a uniform magnetic field about an
axis perpendicular to the field. The emf induced in
the coil would be maximum when the plane of the
coil is
(a) Parallel to the field
(b) Perpendicular to the field
(c) At 450 to the field
(d) In none of the above positions
17b According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic
induction
(a) The direction of induced current is such that
it opposes the cause producing it.
(b) The magnitude of induced emf produced in
a coil is directly proportional to the rate of
change of magnetic flux
(c) The direction of induced emf is such that it
opposes the cause producing it.
18a A coil of area 10 cm2, 10 turns and resistance 20 Ω is
placed in a magnetic field directed perpendicular to
the plane of the coil and changing at the rate of 108
gauses/second. The induced current in the coil will
be
(a) 5 A
(b) 0.5 A
(c) 0.05 A
(d) 50 A
19d Which one of the following represents the variation
of capacitance reactance (XC) with the frequency (v)
of the voltage source?

20b Capacitor C1 of capacitance 1 µF and capacitor C 2 of
capacitance 2 µF are separately charged fully by a
common battery. The two capacitors are then
separated allowed to discharge through equal
resistors at time t = 0
(a) The current in each of the two discharging
circuits is zero at t = 0
(b) The currents in the two discharging circuits
at t = 0 are equal but not zero
(c) The currents in the two discharging circuits
at t = 0 are unequal
(d) The capacitors C1 and C2 lose their 50%
charge in same duration
21c An LCR series circuit contains L = 8 H, C = 0.5 µF and
R = 100 Ω. The resonant frequency of the circuit is
1000
(a) Hz

500
(b) Hz

250
(c) Hz

125
(d) Hz

22b An emf of 15 V is applied in a circuit containing 5 H
inductance and 10 Ω resistance. The ratio of the
currents at time t =  and at t = 1 s is
e1/2
(a)
e1/2 − 1
e2
(b) 2
e −1
(c) 1 – e-1
(d) e-1
23c In a circuit given in figure 1 and 2 are ammeters. Just
after key K is pressed to complete the circuit, the
reading is
(a) Zero in both 1 and 2

(b) Maximum in both 1 and 2
(c) Zero in 1 and maximum in 2
(d) Maximum in 1 and zero in 2

24b In a dc motor, if E is the applied emf and e is the
back emf, then the efficiency is
E −e
(a)
E
e
(b)
E
 E −e
2
(c)  
 E 
2
e
(d)  
E
25b A conducting rod of length l is falling with a velocity
v perpendicular to a uniform horizontal magnetic
field B. The potential difference between its two
ends will be
(a) 2 Blv
(b) Blv
Blv
(c)
2
(d) B2l2v2
26a,b,c A rectangular coil is placed in a region having a
uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane
of the coil. An emf be induced in the coil if the
(a)Magnetic field is increased uniformly

(b)Magnetic field is switched off.
(c)Coil is rotated about the axis XX’
(d)Coil is rotated about an axis perpendicular
to the plane of the coil and passing through
its centre O.
27a,c,d Two different coils have self-inductances L1 = 8 mH,
L2 = 2 mH. The current in one coil is increased at a
constant rate. The current in the second coil is also
increased at the same constant rate. At a certain
instant of time, the power given to the two coils is
the same. At that time the current, the induced
voltage and the energy stored in the first coil are i 1,
V1 and W1 respectively. Corresponding values for the
second coil at the same instant are i2, V2 and W2
respectively. Then
i1 1
(a) =
i2 4
i
(b) 1 = 4
i2
W2
(c) =4
W1
V 1
(d) 2 =
V1 4
28b A coil is wound on a frame of rectangular cross-
section. If all the linear dimensions of the frame are
increased by a factor 2 and the number of turns per
unit length of the coil remains the same, self-
inductance of the coil increases by a factor of
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 16
29b A metal rod moves at a constant velocity in a
direction perpendicular to its length. A constant
uniform magnetic field exists in space in a direction
perpendicular to the rod as well its velocity. Select
to correct statement(s) from the following
(a) The entire rod is at the same potential
(b) There is an electric field in the rod
(c) The electric potential is highest at the
centre
(d) The electric potential is lowest at its centre
and increases towards its ends
30c Two coils of inductances L1 and L2 are placed so close
together that the same flux is linked with both. The
mutual inductance of the pair is
(a) L1 L2
(b) (L1 L2)2
(c) L1 L2

RAY OPTICS & OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
SL NO PROBLEM
1c An observer moves towards a plane mirror with a
speed of 2 ms-1. The speed of the image with respect
to the observer is
(a) 1 ms-1
(b) 2 ms-1
(c) 4 ms-1
(d) 8 ms-1
2d A plane mirror is approaching you at 10 cms-1. You
can see your image in it. The image will approach
you with a speed
(a) 5 cms-1
(b) 10 cms-1
(c) 15 cms-1
(d) 20 cms-1
3b A plane mirror reflects a beam of light to form a real
image. The incident beam is
(a) Parallel
(b) Convergent
(c) Divergent
(d) Any one of the above
4b A man of height 1.6 m wishes to see his full image in
a plane mirror placed at a distance of 2 m. The
minimum length of the mirror should be
(a) 0.4 m
(b) 0.8 m
(c) 1.6 m
(d) 2.4 m
5c A boy of height 1.5 m with his eye level at 1.4 m
stands before a plane mirror of length 0.75 m fixed
on the well. The height of the lower edge of the
mirror above the floor is 0.8 m. Then
(a) The boy will see his full image
(b) The boy cannot see his hair
(c) The boy cannot see his feet
(d) The boy cannot see both his hair and feet
6b Two plane mirrors are placed perpendicular to each
other. A ray strikes one mirror and after reflection
falls on the second mirror. The ray after reflection
from the second mirror will be
(a) Perpendicular to the original ray
(b) Parallel to the original ray
(c) At 450 to the original ray
(d) Can be at any angle to the original ray
7a A bulb is placed between two plane mirrors inclined
at an angle of 600. The number of images formed is
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 3

8d An object is placed between two parallel mirrors.
The number of images formed is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) Infinite
9c A man stands in a room with his eyes at the centre
of the room. The height of the ceiling is H. The
length of the shortest plane mirror, fixed on the wall
in front of the man, so that the man can see the full
image of the wall behind him is
2H
(a)
3
H
(b)
2
H
(c)
3
H
(d)
4
10b Two plane mirrors are inclined at 700. A ray incident
on one mirror at angle θ, after reflection falls on the
second mirror and is reflected from there parallel to
the first mirror. θ is
(a) 450
(b) 500
(c) 550
(d) 600
11b A number of images of a candle flame are seen in a
thick mirror
(a) The first image is the brightest
(b) The second image is the brightest
(c) The last image is the brightest
(d) All images are equally bright
12a When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air
(a) Its wavelength decreases
(b) Its wavelength increases
(c) Its frequency increases
(d) Neither its wavelength nor its frequency
changes
13a A monochromatic beam of light passes from a denser
to a rarer medium. As a result its
(a) Velocity increases
(b) Velocity decreases
(c) Frequency decreases
(d) Frequency increases
14c When light passes from one medium to another, the
physical quantity that remains unchanged is
(a) Velocity
(b) Wavelength
(c) Frequency
(d) None of these

15c A well cut diamond appears bright because
(a) It emits light
(b) It is radioactive
(c) Of total internal reflection
(d) Of dispersion
16b The refractive index of a given piece of transparent
quartz is greatest for
(a) Red light
(b) Violet light
(c) Green light
(d) Yellow light
17a Total internal reflection can occur when light tends
to pass from
(a) A denser to a rarer medium
(b) A rarer to a denser medium
(c) One medium to another of different
refractive index irrespective of which
medium has greater refractive index
(d) One medium to another of equal refractive
index
18b Mirage is observed in a desert due to the
phenomenon of
(a) Interference
(b) Total internal reflection
(c) Scattering
(d) Double refraction
19d Critical angle of light passing from a glass to water is
minimum for
(a) Red colour
(b) Green colour
(c) Yellow colour
(d) Violet colour
20c A diver in a lake wants to signal his distress to a
person sitting on the edge of the lake flashing his
water proof torch. He should direct the beam
(a) Vertically upwards
(b) Horizontally
(c) At an angle to the vertical which is slightly
less than the critical angle
(d) At an angle to the vertical which is slightly
more than the critical angle
21c 3
Glass has refractive index and water has
2
4
refractive index . If the speed of light in glass is
3
2.00 x 108 ms-1, the speed of light in water in ms-1 is
(a) 1.50 x 108
(b) 1.78 x 108
(c) 2.25 x 108
(d) 2.67 x 108

22a The critical angle of light going from medium A into
medium B is θ. The speed of light in medium A is v.
The speed of light in medium B is
v
(a)
sin 
(b) v sin θ
v
(c)
tan 
(d) v tan θ
23d A ray of light travelling inside a rectangular glass
block of refractive index 2 is incident on the glass-
air surface at an angle of incidence of 450. The
refractive index of air is 1. The ray will
(a) Emerge into air without any deviation
(b) Be reflected back into glass
(c) Be absorbed
(d) Emerge into air with an angle of refraction
equal to 900.
24c The speed of light in glass of refractive index 1.5 is
2 x 108 ms-1. In a certain liquid the speed of light is
2.5 x 108 ms-1. The refractive index of the liquid is
(a) 0.64
(b) 0.80
(c) 1.20
(d) 1.44
25b The speed of light in medium A is 2.0 x 108 ms-1 and
that in medium B is 2.4 x 108 ms-1. The critical angle
of incidence for light tending to go from medium A
to medium B is
 5
(a) Sin-1  
 12 
5
(b) Sin-1  
6
2
(c) Sin-1  
3
3
(d) Sin-1  
4
26c 4
If the refractive index of water is and that of glass
3
5
is , then the critical angle of incidence for light
3
tending to go from glass to water is
3
(a) Sin-1  
4
3
(b) Sin-1  
5
4
(c) Sin-1  
5
2
(d) Sin-1  
3
27a A diver inside water sees the setting sun at
(a) 410 to the horizon
(b) 490 to the horizon
(c) 00 to the horizon
(d) 450 to the horizon
28c A fish looking up through the water sees the outside
world contained in a circular horizon. If the
4
refractive index of water is and the fish is 12 cm
3
below the surface of water, the radius of the circle
in cm is
(a) 36 5
(b) 36 7
36
(c)
7
(d) 4 5
29c Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and
having refractive index n. if c is the velocity of light
in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this
thickness of glass is
t
(a)
nc
t
(b) 2
nc
nt
(c)
c
n 2t
(d)
c
30a, b A ray of light from a denser medium strikes a rarer
medium at angle of incidence i. The reflected and
the refracted rays make an angle of 900 with each
other. The angles of reflection and refraction are r
and r’ respectively. The critical angle is
(a) Sin-1(tan r)
(b) Sin-1(tan i)
(c) Sin-1(tan r’)
(d) Tan-1(sin i)

WAVE OPTICS
SL NO PROBLEM
1c A person standing at a distance of 3.6 km can just
resolve two poles. The distance between the poles is
(a) 0.1 m
(b) 100 m
(c) 1 m
(d) 10 m
2b In an interference pattern produced by two identical
slits, the intensity at the site of the central maximum
is I. The intensity at the same spot when either of
two slits is closed is
I
(a)
2
I
(b)
4
I
(c)
2 2
I
(d)
2
3d Which of the following has the longest wavelength?
(a) Blue light
(b) Gamma ray
(c) X – ray
(d) Red light
4a Atomic spectrum should be
(a) Pure emission line spectrum
(b) Emission band spectrum
(c) Absorption line spectrum
(d) Absorption band spectrum
5d Finger prints of a piece of paper may be detected by
sprinkling fluorescent powder on the paper and than
looking into it under
(a) Yellow light
(b) Brightness
(c) Infrared light
(d) Ultraviolet light
6a Young’s experiment establishes that
(a) Light consists of waves
(b) Light consists of particles
(c) Light is neither particle nor wave
(d) Light is both particle and wave
7a In Young’s double-slit experiment the separation
between the slits is doubled and the distance
between the slit and the screen is halved. The fringe-
width becomes
(a) One – fourth
(b) Half
(c) Double
(d) Quadruple

8a In Young’s experiment, using red and blue lights of
0 0
wavelengths 7800  and 5200  respectively, the
value of n for which nth red fringe coincides with (n
+ 1)th blue fringe is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
9b A point source emits light equally in all directions.
Two points P and Q are at distances 9 m and 25 m
respectively from the source. The ratio of the
amplitudes of the waves P and Q is
(a) 9 : 25
(b) 25 : 9
(c) 92 : 252
(d) 252 : 92
10a When light is incident on a transparent surface at the
polarizing angle, which of the following is completely
polarized?
(a) Reflected light
(b) Refracted light
(c) Both reflected as well as refracted light
(d) Neither reflected nor refracted light
11b A grating has 5000 lines/cm. The maximum order
0
visible with wavelength 6000 
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 0
12a, c White light is used to illuminate the two slits in a
Young’s double-slit experiment. The separation
between the slits is b and the screen is at a distance
d(>> b) from the slits. At a point on the screen
directly in front of one of the slits, certain
wavelengths are missing. Some of these missing
wavelengths are
b2
(a) =
d
2b 2
(b) =
d
b2
(c) =
3d
2b 2
(d) =
3d

13a Diffraction pattern of a single slit consists of a
central bright band which is
(a) Wide, and is flanked by alternate dark and
bright bands of decreasing intensity
(b) Narrow, and is flanked by alternate dark and
bright bands of equal intensity
(c) Wide, and is flanked by alternate dark and
bright bands of equal intensity
(d) Narrow, and is flanked by alternate dark and
bright bands of decreasing intensity
14d A nicol prism is based on the action of
(a) Refraction
(b) Double refraction
(c) Dichroism
(d) Both (b) and (c)
15b Energies of photons of four different
electromagnetic radiations are given below. The
energy value corresponds to a visible photon is equal
to
(a) 1 eV
(b) 2 eV
(c) 5 eV
(d) 1000 eV
16b Which of the following cannot be polarized?
(a) Radio waves
(b) β rays
(c) Infrared rays
(d) γ rays
17d At sunrise or at sunset the sun appears to be reddish
while at mid-day the sun looks white. The reason is
that
(a) The sun is less hot at sunrise or at sunset that
at noon
(b) Diffraction sends red rays to the earth at
these time
(c) Refraction is responsible for this effect
(d) Scattering due to dust particles and air
molecules
18d Plane polarized light is passed through a Polaroid. On
viewing through the Polaroid we find that when the
Polaroid is given one complete rotation about the
direction of light
(a) The intensity of light gradually decreases to
zero and remains at zero
(b) The intensity of light gradually increases to
a maximum and remains maximum
(c) There is no change in the intensity of light
(d) The intensity of light varies such that it is
twice maximum and twice zero

19c A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass
plate at an angle of incidence equal to Brewster’s
angle φ. If µ represents the refractive index of glass
with respect to air, then the angle between
reflected and refracted rays is
(a) 900 + φ
(b) Sin-1(µ cos φ)
(c) 900
 sin  
(d) 900 – sin-1  
  
20c A green book viewed through a red glass will appear
(a) Magenta
(b) Red
(c) Black
(d) Green
21c In order that a thin film of oil floating on the surface
of water shows colours due to interference, the
thickness of the oil film should be of the order of
(a) 1 cm
0
(b) 10 
0
(c) 5000 
0
(d) 10000 
22b If two slightly different wavelengths are present in
the light used in Young’s double-slit experiment,
then
(a) The sharpness of fringes will be more than the
case when only one wavelength is present
(b) The sharpness of fringes will decrease as we
move away from the centre fringe
(c) The central fringe will be white
(d) The central fringe will be dark
23b The resolution of the human eye is 1’. The resolving
power of the human eye is nearly
(a) 360
(b) 3600
(c) 36000
(d) 360000
24d Two waves originating from sources S1 and S2 having
zero phase difference and common wavelength λ will
show completely destructive interference at a point
P if S1P – S2P is
(a) 5λ
3
(b)
4
(c) 2λ
11
(d)
2

25c Ray optics is valid when characteristic dimensions
are
(a) Of the same order as the wavelength of light
(b) Much smaller than the wavelength of light
(c) Much larger than the wavelength of light
(d) Of the order of 1 mm
26a At sunset, the sun seems to be
(a) Higher than it really is
(b) Lower than it really is
(c) Exactly where it really is
(d) Lower than it would be at sunrise
27c Interference fringes were produced in Young’s
double-slit experiment using light of wavelength
0
5000  . When a film of thickness 2.5 x 10-3 cm was
placed in front of one of the slits, the fringe pattern
shifted by a distance equal to 20 fringe - width. The
refractive index of the material of the film is
(a) 1.25
(b) 1.35
(c) 1.4
(d) 1.5
28d The blue colour of the sky is explained by
(a) Refraction
(b) Reflection
(c) Polarization
(d) Scattering
29c A slit of width a is illuminated by red light of
0
wavelength 6500  . The first minimum will fall at θ
= 300 if a is
0
(a) 3250 
(b) 6.5 x 10-4 mm
(c) 1.3 µm
(d) 2.6 x 10-4 cm
30c In Huygens’ wave theory, the locus of all the points
in the same state of vibration is called a
(a) Half period zone
(b) Vibrator
(c) Wavefront
(d) Ray

ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
SL NO PROBLEM SOLUTION
1c The ozone layer of atmosphere absorbs
(a) Visible radiations
(b) Infrared radiations
(c) Ultraviolet radiations
(d) Radiowaves
2a Which of the following has the shortest wavelength
(a) X – rays
(b) Microwaves
(c) Ultraviolet rays
(d) Radiowaves
3d In an electromagnetic wave
(a) Power is transmitted along the magnetic
field
(b) Power is transmitted along the electric field
(c) Power is equally transferred along the
electric and magnetic fields
(d) Power is transmitted in a direction
perpendicular to both the fields
4d Waves used for telecommunication are
(a) Visible light
(b) Infrared
(c) Ultraviolet
(d) Microwaves
5c Which of the following radiations form part of the
electromagnetic spectrum?
(a) Alpha rays
(b) Beta rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) Cathode rays
6a,c,d Electromagnetic waves
(a) Travel in free space at the speed of light
(b) Travel with the same speed in all media
(c) Are transverse
(d) Are produced by an accelerating charge
7a Electromagnetic waves are
(a) Transverse
(b) Longitudinal
(c) May be longitudinal or transverse
(d) Neither longitudinal nor transverse
8d In vacuum the speed of electromagnetic waves
depends upon
(a) Wavelength
(b) Frequency
(c) Electric and magnetic field
(d) None of these
9a The ozone layer absorbs radiation of wavelengths
(a) Less than 3 x 10-7 m
(b) More than 3 x 10-7 m
(c) Less than 3 x 10-5 m
(d) More than 3 x 10-5 m

10c Electromagnetic waves are produced by
(a) Charges at rest only
(b) Charges in uniform motion only
(c) Accelerated or decelerated charges only
(d) All of the above
11a The range of microwaves is
(a) 1 mm – 3 cm
(b) 3 cm – 1 m
(c) 1 m – 300 m
(d) All of above
12d Ultra High Frequency (UHF) band stands for
(a) 0 – 300 kHz
(b) 3 – 30 MHz
(c) 300 – 3000 kHz
(d) 300 – 3000 MHz
13c A wave is propagating in a medium of electric
dielectric constant 2 and relative magnetic
permeability 50. The wave impedance of such a
medium is
(a) 5 Ω
(b) 376.6 Ω
(c) 1883 Ω
(d) 3776 Ω
14c Medium Frequency band (MF band) stands for
(a) 0 – 300 kcs-1
(b) 3 – 30 MHz
(c) 300 – 3000 kHz
(d) 300 – 3000 MHz
15a The wavelength 21 cm emitted by atomic hydrogen
in interstellar space belongs to
(a) Radiowaves
(b) Infraredwaves
(c) Microwaves
(d) γ – rays
16a The ionosphere
(a) Reflects back radiowaves in the AM band
(b) Reflects back radiowaves in the FM band
(c) Absorbs radiowaves in the AM band
(d) Absorbs radiowaves in the FM band
17d A radar beam consists of
(a) X – rays
(b) Infra red rays
(d) Microwaves
18d The scientist who first produced and observed the
electromagnetic waves was
(a) Maxwell
(b) J.C. Bose
(c) Marconi
(d) Hertz
19c The frequency modulated waves are
(a) Reflected by atmosphere
(b) Absorbed by atmosphere
(c) Bend by atmosphere

(d) Radiowaves
20b To which region of electromagnetic spectrum, the
frequency 1 BHz correspond?
(a) Ultraviolet rays
(b) Radiowaves
(c) Visible radiation
(d) X – rays
21d The ozone layer absorbs
(a) Infrared radiation
(b) Microwaves
(c) Radiowaves
(d) Ultraviolet radiation
22b The first Indian Scientist who experimentally
confirmed the existence of electromagnetic waves is
(a) Sir C.V. Raman
(b) J.C. Bose
(c) M.N. Saha
(d) Hertz
23c Which of the following waves are relevant to
telecommunication
(a) Ultraviolet
(b) Infrared
(c) Microwaves
(d) Visible light
24c An LC resonant circuit contains a 400 pF capacitor
and a 100 µH inductor. It is sent into oscillations
coupled to an antenna. The wavelength of the
radiated electromagnetic wave is
(a) 377 mm
(b) 377 cm
(c) 377 m
(d) 3.77 cm
25b In the absence of atmosphere around the earth, the
average surface temperature of earth
(a) Will increase
(b) Will decrease
(c) Will remain unchanged
(d) Cannot be decided
26c The relation between electric field E and magnetic
field H in an electromagnetic wave is
(a) E = H
0
(b) E = H
0
0
(c) E = H
0
0
(d) E = H
0

27a The ratio of electric filed vector E and magnetic field
E
vector H i.e.,   has the dimensions of
H
(a) Resistance
(b) Inductance
(c) Capacitance
(d) Product of inductance and capacitance
28b In an electromagnetic wave, the direction of the
magnetic field induction B is
(a) Parallel to electric field E
(b) Perpendicular to electric field E
(c) Antiparallel to Pointing vector S
(d) Random
29b The wave associated with 2.7 K belongs to

(a) Radiowaves
(b) Microwaves
(d) Infrared waves
30c A parallel plate capacitor consists of two circular

plates each of radius 2 cm, separated by a distance
of 0.1 mm. If voltage across the plates is varying at
the rate of 5 x 1013 Vs-1, then the value of
displacement current is
(a) 5.50 A
(b) 5.56 x 102 A
(c) 5.56 x 103 A
(d) 2.28 x 104 A

DUAL NATURE OF LIGHT&PEE
SL NO PROBLEM
1a In photoelectric emission the number of electrons
ejected per second is proportional to the
(a) Intensity of light
(b) Wavelength of light
(c) Frequency of light
(d) Work function of the material
2b If the specific charge of a person is 9.6 x 107 Ckg-1,
that of an α – particle is
(a) 2.4 x 107 Ckg-1
(b) 4.8 x 107 Ckg-1
(c) 19.2 x 107 Ckg-1
(d) 38.4 x 107 Ckg-1
3b The de-Broglie wavelength of a molecule of thermal
energy kBT (kB = Boltzmann constant and T = absolute
temperature), is
h
(a)  =
2mk BT
h
(b)
2mk BT
(c) h 2mk BT
h
(d)
4m k B2T 2
2
4b Figure represents the graph of photo current i versus

applied voltage (V). The maximum energy of the
emitted photoelectrons is
(a) 2 eV
(b) 4 eV
(c) 0 eV
(d) 4 J
5c The maximum velocity of an electron emitted by
light of wavelength λ incident on the surface of a
metal of work-function φ is
2(hc +  )
(a)
m
2(hc −  )
(b)
m
2(hc −  )
(c)
m
2(h −  )
(d)
m

6b The potential difference between the cathode and
anode in a cathode ray tube is V. Then the speed
acquired by the electrons is proportional to
(a) V
(b) V
(c) V2
(d) V3/2
7b The stopping potential (V0) versus frequency plot of
a substance is shown in figure the threshold
wavelength is
(a) 5 x 1014 m
0
(b) 6000 
0
(c) 5000 
(d) Can not be estimated from given data
8a Boron has two isotopes 5B10 and 5B11. If the atomic
weight of boron is 10.81, the ratio of 5B10 and 5B11 in
nature is
19
(a)
81
20
(b)
53
15
(c)
10
10
(d)
11
9c de Broglie waves are associated with
(a) Moving charged particles only
(b) Moving neutral particles only
(c) All moving particles
(d) All particles whether in motion or at rest
10c Einstein’s photoelectric equation is E K = hv – φ. In
this equation EK refers to
(a) Kinetic energy of all the emitted electrons
(b) Mean kinetic energy of emitted electrons
(c) Maximum kinetic energy of emitted
electrons
(d) Minimum kinetic energy of emitted electrons

11d The maximum kinetic energy (EK) of photoelectrons
varies with the frequency (v) of the incident
radiation as
12c, d The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission

0
from a material is 5200  . Photoelectrons will be
emitted when this material is illuminated with
monochromatic radiation from a
(a) 50 watt infrared lamp
(b) 1 watt infrared lamp
(c) 50 watt ultraviolet lamp
(d) 1 watt ultraviolet lamp
13a Hydrogen has three isotopes 1H1, 1H2, 1H3. If a beam
containing mixture of these isotopes is allowed to
enter along X – axis in simultaneous electric and
magnetic fields along Y – axis. Then on a fluorescent
screen, we will observe
(a) Three parabolas
(b) Three straight lines
(c) Three ellipses
(d) Three circles
14d The maximum kinetic energy (Emax) of photoelectrons
emitted in a photoelectric cell varies with frequency
(v) as shown in the graph. The slope of the graph is
equal to
(a) Charge of the electron

e
(b) of the electron
m
(c) Work function of the emitter
(d) Planck’s constant

15b An electron at rest is accelerated through a potential
difference of 200 V. If the specific charge of the
electron is 1.76 x 1011 Ckg-1, the velocity acquired by
the electron is
(a) 8.4 x 105 ms-1
(b) 8.4 x 106 ms-1
(c) 4.2 x 105 ms-1
(d) 4.2 x 106 ms-1
16b The ratio of the specific charge of the electron to
that of the hydrogen ion is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1840 : 1
(c) 1 : 1840
17d In a photoemissive cell with exciting wavelength λ,
the fastest electron has a speed v. If the exciting
3
wavelength is changed to , the speed of the
4
fastest emitted electrons will be
3
(a) v
4
4
(b) v
3
4
(c) Less than v
3
4
(d) Greater than v
3
18b In photoelectric effect, the graph showing the
variation of cut-off voltage (V0) with the frequency
of incident radiation (v) is

19b, d A metallic surface ejects electrons when exposed to
green light of intensity I but no photoelectrons are
emitted when exposed to yellow light of intensity I.
It is possible to eject electrons from the same
surface by
(a) Yellow light of some intensity which is more
than I.
(b) Green light of any intensity
(c) Red light of any intensity
(d) Violet light of any intensity
20c Stopping potential for photoelectrons
(a) Does not depend on the frequency of the
incident light.
(b) Does not depend on the nature of cathode
material
(c) Depends on both the frequency of the
incident light and the nature of the cathode
material
(d) Depends on the intensity of the incident light
21c A moving particle is associated with a wave packet
or group of waves. The group velocity is equal to
(a) Velocity of light
(b) Velocity of sound
(c) Velocity of particle
1
(d)
particle velocity
22a A particle of mass 10-31 kg is moving with a speed of
105 ms-1. The de Broglie wavelength of the particle is
(a) 6.63 x 10-8 m
0
(b) 6.63 
0
(c) 66.3 
(d) 6.63 x 10-7 m
23b A neutron is confined to a nucleus of size 10-14 m. The
minimum momentum of the electron may be
(a) 6.6 x 10-20 kgms-1
(b) 3.3 x 10-20 kgms-1
(c) 3.3 x 10-48 kgms-1
(d) 6.6 x 10-48 kgms-1
24d The electron beam in a cathode ray tube passes
undeflected through crossed electric and magnetic
fields, E = 6.6 x 106 NC-1 and B = 1.2 T. The speed of
the electron in ms-1 is
(a) 1.1 x 106
(b) 1.1 x 105
(c) 5.5 x 105
(d) 5.5 x 106

25c When a metallic surface is illuminated by a
monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the stopping
potential for photoelectric current is 3V0. When the
same surface is illuminated by light of wavelength
2λ, the stopping potential is V0. The threshold
wavelength for this surface for photoelectric effect
is
(a) 6λ
4
(b)
3
(c) 4λ
(d) 8λ
26a, b It is necessary to consider light as a stream of
photons to explain
(a) Photoelectric effect
(b) Compton effect
(c) Polarization of light
(d) Diffraction of light
27d A small photocell is placed at a distance of 4 m from
a photosensitive surface. When light falls on the
surface the current is 5 mA. If the distance of cell is
decreased to 1 m, the current will become
(a) 1.25 mA
 5
(b)   mA
 16 
(c) 20 mA
(d) 80 mA
28b An electron of mass m, when accelerated through a
potential difference V has de-Broglie wavelength λ.
The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a proton
of mass M accelerated through the same potential
difference will be
m
(a)   
M 
m
(b) 
M
M 
(c)   
m
M
(d) 
m

29d Cathode rays are made of pass between the poles of
a magnet as shown. The effect of the magnetic field
is
(a) To increase the velocity of rays

(b) To deflect them towards the north pole
(c) To deflect them towards the south pole
(d) To deflect them out of the plane of the
paper.
30c In Millikan’s oil drop experiment, an oil drop is held
stationary by a potential difference of 400 V. If
another drop of double the radius, but carrying the
same charge, is to be held stationary, the potential
difference required is
(a) 800 V
(b) 1600 V
(c) 3200 V
(d) 400 V

ATOMS & NUCLEI
SL NO PROBLEM
1c Nuclear fission was discovered by
(a) Rutherford
(b) Chadwick
(c) Hahn and Strassman
(d) Bequerel
2d The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in
the first to the second excited state
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 4 : 9
(d) 9 : 4
3a The Bohr radius of the fifth electron of phosphorus
atom (atomic number 15) acting as a dopant in
silicon (relative dielectric constant 12) is
(a) 380.9 pm
(b) 390.8 pm
(c) 930.8 pm
(d) 830.9 pm
4b, c The momentum of a single photon of red light of
frequency 400 x 1012 Hz moving through free space
is
(a) Zero
(b) 8.8 x 10-28 kgms-2
(c) 1.65 x 10-6 MeVc-1
(d) Data Insufficient
5c The speed of the electron in the first orbit (ground
state) of the hydrogen atom in terms of velocity of
light c is
c
(a)
2
c
(b)
11
c
(c)
137
c
(d)
274
6a If 1 mg of U235 is completely annihilated, the
energy liberated is
(a) 9 x 1010 J
(b) 9 x 1019 J
(c) 9 x 1018 J
(d) 9 x 1017 J
7d The radioactivity of a sample is R1 at time t1 and
R2 at time t2. If the half life of the sample be T,
the number of atoms that have disintegrated in
time (t2 – t1) is proportional to
(a) R1t1 – R2t2
(b) (R1 – R2)-1
( R1 − R2 )
(c)
T
(d) (R1 – R2)T
8a, c H+, He+ and O++ all having the same kinetic energy
pass through a region in which there is a uniform
magnetic field perpendicular to their velocity. The
masses of H+, He+ and O++ are 1 u, 4 u and 16 u
respectively.
(a) H+ will be deflected the most
(b) O++ will be deflected the most
(c) He+ and O++ will be deflected equally
(d) All will be deflected equally.
9d The rate of decay of a radioactive element
(a) Increases with increase in time
(b) Decreases with increase in time
(c) Remains constant with increase in time
(d) Decreases exponentially with time
10b For large principal quantum number n the
frequency of revolution of electron is equal to the
frequency of transition of the electron between
two adjacent orbits. This frequency f is
proportional to
1
(a)
n2
1
(b) 3
n
1
(c)
n
1
(d) 0
n
11b The more readily fissionable isotope of uranium
has an atomic mass of
(a) 234
(b) 235
(c) 236
(d) 238
12a Consider α particles, β-particles and γ-rays, each
having an energy of 0.5 MeV. In increasing order of
penetrating powers, the radiations are
(a) α, β, γ
(b) α, γ, β
(c) Β, γ, α
(d) γ, β, α
13b In the given reaction, the radioactive radiations
are emitted in the sequence as
Z X A →Z +1 Y A →Z −1 T A−4 →Z −1 T A−4
(a) α, β, γ
(b) β, α, γ
(c) γ, α, β
(d) α, γ, β

14a,b,d A radioactive sample has initial concentration N0
of nuclei
(a) The number of undecayed nuclei present
in the sample decays exponentially with
time
(b) The activity (R) of the sample at any
instant is directly proportional to the
number of undecayed nuclei present in the
sample at that time
(c) The number of decayed nuclei grows
linearly with time
(d) The number of decayed nuclei grows
exponentially with time
15a, d Which of the following statement(s) is (are)
correct?
(a) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is less
than the sum of the rest masses of its
separated nucleons
(b) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is greater
than the sum of the rest masses of its
separated nucleons
(c) In nuclear fission, is released by fusing two
nuclei of medium mass (approximately 100
u)
(d) In nuclear fission, energy is released by
fragmentation of a very heavy nucleus.
16c A hydrogen atom emits a photon corresponding to
an electron transition from n = 5 to n = 1. The
recoil speed of hydrogen atom is almost
(a) 10-4 ms-1
(b) 2 x 10-2 ms-1
(c) 4 ms-1
(d) 8 x 102 ms-1
17c The SI units of decay constant is
(a) m-1
(b) mm-1
(c) s-1
(d) Year
18c Nuclear force is a
(a) Repulsive and short range
(b) Repulsive and long range
(c) Attractive and short range
(d) Attractive and long range
22
19b Ne nucleus, after absorbing energy, decays into
two α- particles and an unknown nucleus. The
unknown nucleus is
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Carbon
(c) Oxygen
(d) Boron

20c A metal of atomic number Z is used as a target in
a Coolidge tube. Let v be the frequency of the Kα
line. For a number of values of Z and v which plot
gives a straight line.
(a) v vs Z
1
(b) v vs
Z
(c) v vs Z
(d) v vs Z
21a,c,d In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, let R, V, T
and E represent the radius of the orbit, speed of
the electron, time period of revolution of electron
and the total energy of the electron respectively.
The quantities proportional to the quantum
number n are
(a) VR
(b) RE
V
(c)
E
T
(d)
R
22b The ratio of the wavelength of first line of Lyman
series to the first line of Balmer series is
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 5 : 27
(c) 27 : 20
(d) 20 : 27
23b The total energy of the electron in the hydrogen

atom in the ground state is – 13.6 eV. The kinetic
energy of the electron is
(a) 0
(b) 13.6 eV
(c) 6.8 eV
(d) - 13.6 eV
24d Radioactivity is
(a) Spontaneous process
(b) Irreversible process
(c) Self disintegration process
(d) All the above
25a First atomic reactor was designed by
(a) Fermi
(b) Teller
(c) Wilson
(d) Rutherford
26d The helium atom does not contain
(a) Two protons
(b) Two neutrons
(c) Two electrons
(d) Six nucleons

27a A nuclear reactor is based on
(a) Nuclear fission
(b) Nuclear fusion
(c) Gravitational contraction
(d) Photoelectric effect
28a The half life of 215At is 100 µs. The time taken for
the radioactivity of a sample of 215At to decay to
1
th of its initial value is
16
(a) 400 µs
(b) 6.3 µs
(c) 40 µs
(d) 300 µs
29b Rutherford is a unit of

(a) Energy
(b) Radioactivity
(c) Photoelectric current
(d) Magnetic field
30c The activity of a sample of radioactivity material
is R1 at time t1 and R2 at time t2(t2 > t1). If mean
life of the radioactive sample is T, then
(a) R1t1 = R2t2
R1 − R2
(b) = constant
t2 − t1
 t1 − t2 
(c) R2 = R1 exp  
 T 
 t 
(d) R2 = R1 exp  1 
 Tt2 

SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES
SL NO PROBLEM
1a The packing fraction for a simple cubic crystal is

(a)
6

(b)
3 2
3
(c)
8
2
(d)
6
2c Which of the following has greatest packing
fraction?
(a) Simple cubic
(b) Body centred cubic
(c) Face centred cubic
(d) All have equal packing fraction
3a A solid that is not transparent to visible light and
whose electrical conductivity decreases with
temperature is formed by
(a) Metallic binding
(b) Covalent binding
(c) Ionic binding
(d) Vander Waal’s binding
4b In an npn transistor circuit, the collector current is
10 mA. If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the
collector
(a) The emitter current will be 9 mA
(b) The emitter current will be 11 mA
(c) The base current will be 10 mA
(d) The base current will be 0.1 mA
5d A gas of free electrons is present in
(a) Ionic crystals
(b) Covalent crystals
(c) Molecular crystals
(d) Metallic crystals
6c To get an output Y = 1 from circuit of figure, the
inputs must be

7b The frequency response curve of RC coupled
amplifier is shown in figure. The band width of the
amplifier will be
(a) f3 – f2
(b) f4 – f1
f4 − f2
(c)
2
(d) f3 – f1
8c A semiconductor device is connected in series
circuit with a battery and a resistance. A current is
found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of
the battery is reversed, the current drops almost
to zero. The device may be
(a) A p-type semiconductor
(b) A n-type semiconductor
(c) A pn junction
(d) An intrinsic semiconductor
9b An oscillator is basically an amplifier with again
(a) Less than unity
(b) More than unity
(c) Zero
(d) 0.5
10c The diode used in figure requires minimum current
of 1 mA to be above the knee voltage 0.7 V of
current versus voltage characteristics. The
maximum value of R so that the voltage is above
knee point is
(a) 5 kΩ
(b) 5.7 kΩ
(c) 4.3 kΩ
(d) 3.5 kΩ
11d A piece of copper and another of germanium are
cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
resistance of
(a) Each of them increases
(b) Each of them decreases
(c) Copper increases and germanium
decreases
(d) Copper decreases and germanium
increases

12c In a full wave rectifier with input frequency 50 Hz,
the ripple in the output is mainly of the frequency
(in Hz)
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 502
13c The diagram of a logic circuit is given below. The
output F of the circuit is represented by
(a) W.(X + Y)
(b) W.(X . Y)
(c) W + (X . Y)
(d) W + (X + Y)
14d For a transistor the value of α = 0.9, the value of β
is
(a) 1
(b) 0.09
(c) 0.9
(d) 9
15a 1 1 is equal to
−
 
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) αβ
(d) α – β
16c In good conductors of electricity, the type of
bonding that exits is
(a) Ionic
(b) Covalent
(c) Metallic
(d) Vander Waal’s
17b The conductivity of semiconductors like Ge and Si
(a) Increases when it is doped with tetravalent
impurity
(b) Increases when it is doped with
pentavalent trivalent impurity
(c) Increases when it is doped with
pentavalent impurity and decreases when it
is doped with trivalent impurity
(d) Decreases when it is doped with
pentavalent impurity and increases when it
is doped with trivalent impurity

18b If A is the atomic mass number of an element, N is
the Avogadro number and a is the lattice
parameter, then the density of the element, if it
has bcc crystal structure, is
A
(a)
Na 3
2A
(b)
Na 3
3A
(c)
Na 3
2 2A
(d)
Na 3
19a A solid possesses a definite shape
(a) Negligibly small thermal motion
(b) Long range order
(c) Higher kinetic energy of molecules
20a In a semiconductor diode P side is earthed and N,
side is applied a potential of -2 V. The diode shall
(a) Conduct
(b) Not conduct
(c) Conduct partially
(d) Breakdown
21b A crystal lattice is
(a) A random arrangement of atoms in a
crystal
(b) An ordered arrangement of points in space
at which the atoms, ions or molecules are
positioned.
(c) A random arrangement of molecules but
orderly arrangement of atoms
(d) A piece of crystal
22d Given sets of elements are phosphorus, arsenic,
indium and bismuth. The addition of which in pure
semiconductors will result in p-type semiconductor
(a) Phosphorus, arsenic and indium
(b) Phosphorus, arsenic, indium and bismuth
(c) Indium and arsenic
(d) Indium only
23d Vander Waal’s crystals are
(a) Very hard
(b) Of high melting point
(c) Non-volatile
24d The output from a logic gate is 1 when inputs A, B
and C are such that
(a) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1
(b) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
(c) A=B=C=0
(d) A=B=C=1
25a The symbol represents
(a) NOT gate

(b) OR gate
(c) AND gate
(d) NOR gate
26c Which of the following is not a characteristic of an
ionic compound?
(a) Crystalline in solid form
(b) Bad conductor of electricity when dry
(c) Low melting point
(d) High melting point
27b NAND and NOR gates are called universal gates
primarily because they
(a) Are available universally
(b) Can be combined to produce OR, AND and
NOT gates
(c) Are widely used in integrated circuit
packages
(d) Are easiest to manufacture
28b The value of β
(a) Is always less than 1
(b) Lies between 20 and 200
(c) Is always greater than 200
(d) Is always infinity
29c The forbidden energy gap in conductors, semi-
conductors and insulators are EG1, EG2 and EG3
respectively. The relation among them is
(a) EG1 = EG2 = EG3
(b) EG1 > EG2 > EG3
(c) EG1 < EG2 < EG3
(d) EG1 < EG2 > EG3
30b The current gain α of a transistor is 0.95. The
change in emitter current is 10 mA. The change in
base current is
(a) 9.5 mA
(b) 0.5 mA
(c) 10.5 mA
(d)  200  mA
 19 

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CHAPTERWISE SUPER THIRTY

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6a, c A body of mass m has gram specific heat c.

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15b The first law of thermodynamics is concerned with

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23d A wire of length L0 is supplied heat to raise its

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28c 3.2 kg of ice at -10 0C just melts with a mass m of

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are in metre. The function y(x, t) that describes this

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GRAVITATION & SATELLITES

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a) 12 kgm2s-1 out of the plane of the figure

a) Angular velocity and total energy (kinetic

a) Equal in the processes A and B

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