PW-AITS_NT-11

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PHYSICS

1. In the network shown 7. What is the current in the circuit shown in figure ?

(A) 0 amp (B) 10–2 amp

(C) 1 amp (D) 0.10 amp

8. Which of the following figure represents the

(A) The potential difference across D2 is 5V variation of particle momentum and the associated
(B) Current through resistor equals 0.25 A de-Broglie wavelength ?
(C) Current through diode D1 is 1.25A
(D) Current through diode D2 is 1.25 A.
(A)
2. In figure the approximate value of potential drop.
V0 across R is
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(B)

(A) 0 (B) –5V

(C) 5V (D) 10V
(C)
3. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor
increase when electromagnetic radiation of
wavelength shorter than 2480 nm is incident on it.
The band gap (in eV) for the semiconductor is
(A) 0.9 (B) 0.7
(C) 0.5 (D) 1.1. (D)

4. Resistance of semiconductor at 0 K is
(A) Zero
(B) Infinite 9. The diode used in the circuit, shown in the figure,
(C) Large but infinite has a constant voltage drop of 0.5 V at all currents
(D) Small but finite and a maximum power rating 100 mW. What
should be the value of resistor R connected in series
5. With rise in temperature, the specific resistance of with the diode for obtaining maximum current ?
semiconductors
(A) Increases
(B) Remains unchanged
(C) First decreases then increases
(D) decreases (A) 1.5  (B) 5 
(C) 6.67  (D) 7.5 
6. A p-type semiconductor can be obtained by adding
(A) Antimony to pure germanium 10. Region without free electrons and holes in a p-n
(B) Phosphorous to pure germanium junction is
(C) arsenic to pure silicon (A) junction (B) depletion region
(C) n-region (D) p-region
(D) gallium to pure silicon
11. The base current in a transistor is 1 mA and emitter 18. The frequency of the first line of the Lyman series
current is 80 mA. The collector current will be in the hydrogen atom is v. What will be the
(A) 79 mA (B) 80 mA frequency of the corresponding line for the singly
(C) 81 mA (D) 1 mA ionized helium atom?
(A) v (B) 2v
12. Which logic gate is represented by the following (C) 4v (D) 8v
combination of logic gates in figure ?
19. The transition of the electron takes place from n = 2
orbit to n = 1 orbit. Which of the following gives the
shortest wavelength?
(A) Hydrogen atom
(A) OR (B) NAND (B) Deutrium atom
(C) AND (D) NOR (C) Singly ionized helium
(D) Doubly ionized lithium.
13. A metal surface of work function 1.07 eV is
irradiated with light of wavelength 332 nm. 20. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.06
The retarding potential required to stop the escape eV. The ionization energy of helium atom would be
of photo-electrons is (A) 1.6 eV (B) 27.2 ev
(A) 4.81 eV (B) 3.74 eV (C) 6.8 eV (D) 54.4 eV
(C) 2.66 eV (D) 1.07 eV
21. The ionization potential of a hydrogen atom is 13.6
14. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The V. What will be the energy of the electron in the
longest wavelength of light that can second orbit?
cause photoelectron emission from this substance is
(A) –0 10·2eV (B) –3·40 eV
approximately
(C) –1·51 eV (D) – 0·85eV
(A) 540 nm (B) 400 nm
(C) 310 nm (D) 220 nm
22. The total energy of an electron in the excited state
15. The value of stopping potential in the following corresponding to n = 3 is E. What is its potential
diagram energy with proper sign?
(A) – 2 E (B) 2E
(C) – E (D) E

23. The orbital electron of the hydrogen atom jumps

from the ground state to a higher energy state and
its orbital velocity is reduced to one-third of its
initial value. If the radius of the orbit in the ground
(a) –4V (B) –3V state is r, then what is the radius of the new orbit?
(C) –20 (D) –1V (A) 21 (B) 3r
(C) 4r (D) 9r
16. In the following diagram if V2 > V1, then,
24. The radius of Bohr's first orbit of hydrogen atom is
r. What is the radius of the first orbit in the singly
ionized helium atom?
(A) 4r (B) 2r
(C) r/2 (D) r/4

25. If a hydrogen atom at rest emits a photon of

wavelength , the recoil speed of the atom of mass
(A) 1   2 (B) 1   2 m is
(C) 1   2 (D) 1   2 h
(A) (B) mh
m
17. The difference in angular momentum associated mh 
with the electron in the two successive orbits of (C) (D)
hydrogen atom is  mh
h h
(A) (B) 26. The radius of electron's in second stationary orbit of
 2 Bohr's atom is R. The radius of third orbit will be
h h
(C) (D)  n  1 (A) 3R (B) 2.25R
2 2 (C) R/3 (D) 9 R
27. In any Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom, the ratio of 37. A heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two fragments
kinetic energy to potential energy of the electron is which fly off with velocities in the ratio 8 : 1. The
(A) 1/2 (B) 2 ratio of radii of the fragments is
(C) –1/2 (D) –2 (A) 1:2 (B) 1:4
(C) 4:1 (D) 2:1
28. A proton and an -particle are accelerated through
a potential difference of 100 V. The ratio of the 38. A nuclear reaction is given as
wavelength associated with the proton to that 41H1 → 2He4 + 0e1 + energy.
associated with an -particle is Mention the type of reaction.
(A) 2 :1 (B) 2 : 1 (A) fusion
1 (B) fission
(C) 2 2 :1 (D) :1
2 2 (C) just chemical reaction
(D) none of these.
29. In a radioactive substance at t = 0, the number of
atoms is 8 × 104. Its half life period is 3 year. The 39. If Mo is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8O17, MP and
number of atoms 1 × 104 will remain after an MN are the masses of a proton and a neutron
interval of respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the
(A) 9 year (B) 8 year isotope is
(C) 6 year (D) 24 year
(A) (M0 – 17 MN) C2
30. 238
on absorbing a neutron goes over to 92U239. (B) (M0 – 8 MP)C2
92U
This nucleus emits an electron to go over to (C) (M0 – 8 MP – 9 MN) C2
Neptunium which on further emitting an electron (D) M0 – C2
goes over to Plutonium. The resulting Plutonium
can be expressed as 40. On bombarding U235 by slow neutron, 200 MeV
(A) 94Pu239 (B) 92Pu239 energy is released. If the power output of atomic
240
(C) 93Pu (D) 92Pu240 reactor is 1.6 MW, then the rate of fission will be
(A) 8 × 1016/s (B) 20 × 1016/s
31. If T is half-life of a radioactive material, the fraction (C) 5 × 10 /s22
(D) 5 × 1016/s
that would remain after a time T/2 is
(A) 1/2 (B) 1 / 2 41. Binding energy per nucleon vs. mass number curve
2 1 for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y and Z are
(C) 3/4 (D)
2 four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process that
would release energy is
32. The average binding energy per nucleon in the
nucleus of an atom is approximately
(A) 8 eV (B) 8 MeV
(C) 8 kev (D) 8 Volt

33. In the decay series

A 4
z X  z 1Y  z 1R
A A
 z 1R A  4
the emitted particles, respectively, will be (A) Y → 2Z (B) W→ X + Z
(A) , ,  (B) , , (C) W  2Y (D) X → Y + Z.
(C) , ,  (D) , , 
42. For uranium nucleus how does its mass vary with
34. The particle which is deflected by electric field is volume?
(A) -rays (B) X-rays
(A) m  V (B) m  1/ V
(C) Neutrons (D) -particles.
(C) m  v (D) m  V2
35. If 10% of a radioactive material decays in 5 days,
the amount of original material left after 20 days is 43. A particle of mass M at rest decays into two
approximately (A) 35% (B) 45% particles of masses m1 and m2, having non-zero
(C) 55% (D) 65% velocities. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths
of the particles, 1/2 is
36. In the nuclear reaction 85X297  Y + 4, Y is (A) m1/m2 (B) m2/m1
(A) 77Y281 (B) 77Y285
(C) 81Y 293
(D) 81Y281 (C) 1 : 1 (D) m 2 / m1
44. A radioisotope X with half life 1.4 x 109 years 45. Emission of beta rays in a radioactive decay results
decays to Y which is stable. A sample of the rock in a daughter element showing a
from a cave was found to contain X and Y in the (A) Change in mass but not in charge
ratio 1:7. The age of the rock is (B) Change in charge but not in mass
(A) 1.96 x 109 years (C) Change in neither charge nor mass
(B) 3.92 × 109 years (D) Change in both charge and mass number
(C) 4.20 × 109 years
(D) 8.40 109 years

CHEMISTRY

46. The conversion of benzene diazonium chloride to

bromobenzene can be accomplished by 52. Which of the following term means pain killer?
(A) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (A) Antibiotic (B) Analgesic
(B) Friedel-Crafts reaction (C) Antipyretic (D) Penicillin
(C) Gattermann reaction
(D) Azo-Coupling reaction 53. Substance used for the preservation of coloured
fruit juices is
47. 3, 5-dibromotoluene can be best synthesised by (A) benzene
(B) benzoic acid
(C) phenol
(A)
(D) sodium meta bisulphite

54. Caprolactum is used for the manufacture of:

(A) Nylon-6 (B) Teflon
(C) Terylene (D) Nylon-6, 6
(B)
55. Biodegradable polymer which can be produced
from glycine and aminocaproic acid is:
(A) PHBV (B) Buna-N
(C) (C) Nylon-6, 6 (D) Nylon 2-nylon 6

56. Hydrolysis of sucrose is called:

(D) (A) Hydration
(B) Saponification
(C) Esterification
(D) Inversion
48. Which is correct statement?
(A) Starch is a polymer of -glucose 57. Iso-electric point of alanine is (pH = 6). At which
(B) In cyclic structure of fructose, there are four pH, maximum concentration of zwitter ion of
carbons and one oxygen atom alamine will be present?
(C) Amylose is a component of cellulose (A) pH > 6 (B) pH < 6
(D) Proteins are composed of only one type of (C) pH = 6 (D) pH = 7
amino acids
58. If one strand of DNA has the sequence
49. A vitamin that contains both N and P is ATGCTTGA, the sequence in the complimentary
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin K strand would be:
(C) Vitamin B12 (D) Vitamin D (A) TACGAACT (B) TCCGAACT
50. Given the polymers: (i) Nylon-6, 6; (ii) Buna-S; (C) TACGTACT (D) TACGTAGT
(iii) Polythene. Arrange these in increasing order of
their inter-molecular forces (lower to higher) 59. Arrange the following three compounds in order of
(A) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (B) (ii) > (iii) > (i) decreasing acidity
(C) (ii) < (iii) < (i) (D) (iii) < (i) < (ii)

51. Nylon 6, 6 is a polyamide obtained by the reaction

of
(A) COOH(CH2)4COOH + NH2C6H4NH2- (p)
(B) COOH(CH2)4COOH + NH2(CH2)6 NH2
(C) COOH(CH2)6COOH + NH2(CH2)4 NH2 (A) B > A > C (B) B > C > A
(D) COOHC6H4COOH–(p) + NH2(CH2)6 NH2 (C) C > B > A (D) C > A > B
60. Which statement is true regarding the following 63. Night blindness is caused by deficiency of
structure? (A) vitamin B12 (B) vitamin A
(C) vitamin C (D) vitamin E

64. Complete hydrolysis of starch gives:

(A) glucose only
(A) It is a chiral molecule
(B) galactose and fructose in equimolar amounts
(B) It exists in two resolvable optically active
(C) glucose and galactose
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) glucose and fructose in equimolar amounts
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
65. Natural glucose is termed D-glucose because:
61. What is the product of the following series of
(A) –OH on the second carbon is on the right side
reactions?
in Fischer projection
(B) –OH on the sixth carbon is on the right side in
Fischer projection.
(C) –OH on the fifth carbon is on the right side in
Fischer projection.
(D) It is dextrorotatory.

66. Synthetic polymer bakelite can be prepared from

following compounds
(A) (A) Styrene and vinyl chloride
(B) Acrylonitrileand vinyl chloride
(C) Adipic acid and ethylene glycol
(D) Phenol and formaldehyde

(B) 67. Melamine plastic crockery polymer of

(A) HCHO and melamine
(B) HCHO and ethylene
(C) Melamine and ethylene
(D) None of these
(C)
68. The correct structure of the drug paracetamol is

(D) (A)

62. In a reaction of aniline a coloured product C was

obtained.

(B)

The structure of C would be:

(A)

(C)

(B)

(C)
(D)
(D)
69. Heroin is a derivative of 78. Carbylamine forms from aliphatic or aromatic
(A) Cocaine (B) Morphine primary amine via which of the following
(C) Caffeine (D) Nicotine intermediates?
(A) Carbanion (B) Carbene
70. Which of the following polymer is a polyamide? (C) Carbocation (D) Carbon radical
(A) Terylene (B) Nylon
(C) Rubber (D) Vulcanised rubber 79. The correct order of basicities of the following
compounds is
71. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) Artificial silk is derived from cellulose.
(B) Nylon-6,6 is an example of elastomer.
(C) The repeat unit in natural rubber is isoprene.
(D) Both starch and cellulose are polymers of
glucose.

72. The process by which synthesis of protein takes

place based on the genetic information present in (A) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4 (B) 1 > 3 > 2 > 4
m-RNA is called (C) 3 > 1 > 2 > 4 (D) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
(A) Translation
(B) Transcription 80. An organic compound 'A' having molecular
(C) Replication formula C2H3N on reduction gave another
(D) Messenger hypothesis compound 'B’. Upon treatment with nitrous acid,
‘B' gave ethyl alcohol. On warming with
73. Glucose-D has a great tendency to be converted chloroform and alcoholic KOH, B formed an
into cyclic isomer. Which two carbon atoms get offensive smelling compound 'C’. The compound
joined through ‘O’ to form this hemiacetal? ‘C’ is:
(A) C1 and C4 (B) C1 and C5 (A) CH 3CH 2 NH 2 (B) CH 3CH 2 N  C
(C) C1 and C6 (D) C2 and C6
(C) CH 3C  N (D) CH 2CH 2OH
74. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is
the operation of: 81. Glucose molecule reacts with X number of
(A) Electrostatic attractions molecules of phenylhydrazine to yield osazone.
(B) van der Waals forces The value of X is
(C) Dipole-Dipole interactions (A) Three (B) Two
(D) Hydrogen bonding (C) One (D) Four

75. The correct order of decreasing basic character of 82. Which is not a true statement?
the three aliphatic primary amines is (A) -carbon of -amino acid is asymmetric
(B) All proteins are found in L-form
(C) Human body can synthesize all proteins they
need
(D) At pH = 7 both amino acids and carboxylic
(A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I groups exist in the ionised form
(C) I > II  III (D) I = II  III
83. Which amino acid is achiral?
76. Predict about the relative boiling point of the (A) Alanine (B) Valine
following two amines. (C) Proline (D) None of these

84. In which of the following polymers, empirical

formula resembles with monomer?
(A) Bakelite (B) Teflon
(A) Boiling point of I > II (C) Nylon-6, 6 (D) Dacron
(B) Boiling point of II > I
(C) Both should have equal boiling points 85. When condensation product of hexamethylene
(D) It can’t be predicted diamine and adipie acid is heated to 525 K in an
atmosphere of nitrogen for about 4-5 hours, the
77. An organic compound (A) on reduction gives product obtained is
compound (B). (B) on treatment with CHCl3 and (A) Solid polymer of nylon 6, 6
alcoholic KOH gives (C). (C) on catalytic reduction (B) Liquid polymer of nylon 6,6
gives N-methylaniline. The compound A is (C) Gaseous polymer of nylon 6, 6
(A) Methylamine (B) Nitromethanc (D) Liquid polymer of nylon 6
(C) Aniline (D) Nitrobenzene
86. Which of the following is used as an antibiotic? 90. Which of the following amines can be resolved into
(A) Ciprofloxacin (B) Paracetamol two enantiomers?
(C) Ibuprofen (D) Tocopherol

87. Which one of the following compounds is an anti-

fertility drug?
(A) Aspirin (B) Chloromycetin
(C) Saheli (D) Penicillin

88. Which of the following is an antidiabetic drug?

(A) Insulin (B) Penicillin
(C) Chloroquine (D) Aspirin
(A) I, IV (B) I, II
89. Ethyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium (C) I, III, IV (D) III, IV
generates
(A) Propanoic acid and ammonium salt
(B) Ethanoic acid and ammonium salt
(C) Methylamine salt and ethanoic acid
(D) Cthylaminc salt and mcthanoic acid

BIOLOGY

91. Consider the following matched-

(1) Allen’s rule – Morphological adaptation 95. On what factors value of ‘r’ (intrinsic rate of natural
(2) Sunken stomata – Physiological adaptation increase) depends-
(3) Desert lizard – Behavioural adaptation (A) Birth rate (B) Death rate
(4) Antifreeze protein – Anatomical adaptation (C) Population density (D) Both A and B
How many are correctly matched-
96. Which of the following is an example of
(A) One (B) Two
commensalism
(C) Three (D) Four
(A) Cuckoo bird and crow
(B) Prickly pear cactus and moth
92. Which is not necessary condition to define any group
(C) Mango tree and orchid
as population-
(D) Lichen
(A) Share resources
(B) Compete for resources 97. Which of the following is best method to avoid
(C) Common geography competition-
(D) Product of sexual reproduction (A) Suspension
(B) Resources partitioning
93. In most of the case the most appropriate measure to (C) Predation
calculate population density is – (D) Migration
(A) Counting colonies
(B) Calculating surface area 98. A population of rose plant show 15 new plant in 10
(C) Counting number days’ time and now become 45 rose plant in field than
(D) Counting faecal pellet birth rate is -
(A) 0.5 individual/ rose/day
94. Consider the following statement- (B) 0.33 individual/ rose/day
(A) In newly colonise city birth and death are main (C) 0.5 individual/rose/ 10day
parameters which affect population density (D) 0.03/individual/rose/10day
(B) In a village having epidemic which is non-fatal,
migration is main cause affect population density 99. The most ecologically relevant environmental factor
is
how many correct-
(A) Soil (B) Water
(A) Only A (B) Only B (C) Temperature (D) Light
(C) Both correct (D) Both incorrect
100. Regulators are the animals which 108. What percentage of forest for hills has been
(A) Does not maintain their body homeostasis recommended by National Forest Policy (1988) of
(B) Can maintain their body homeostasis India?
(C) Can regulate their heart beat (A) 33% (B) 67%
(D) Can regulate their circulation (C) 19.4% (D) 23%

101. What percentage of animals on this earth are 109. Recognizing the deleterious effects of ozone
conformers? depletion an international treaty known as ………….
(A) 2% (B) 3% was signed at ……..
(C) 4% (D) 99% (A) Montreal Protocol, Canada
(B) Kyoto Protocol, Brazil
102. By the end of 2002 in Delhi which step is completed (C) Earth Summit, Montreal
for reducing vehicular pollution? (D) World Summit, South Africa
(A) Phasing out of old vehicles
110. Government of India has introduced a concept to
(B) Uses of unleaded petrol
work closely with local communities for protection
(C) Buses were converted to run on CNG and management of forests called
(D) Use of catalytic converters (A) Chipko movement
(B) Jhum cultivation
103. The domestic sewage in large cities (C) Joint Forest Management
(A) Has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and (D) Appiko movement
anaerobic bacteria
(B) Is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic 111. Thermal pollution is more prevalent near
bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage (A) Hot water springs
Treatment Plants (STPs) (B) Coal based power plants
(C) When treated in STPs does not really require the (C) Temperate zones
aeration step as the sewage contains adequate (D) Tropical zones
oxygen 112. Pollutants which can be removed by a scrubber
(D) Has very low amounts of suspended solids and (A) Particulate matter (B) Unburnt hydrocarbon
dissolved salts (C) SO2 (D) Sewage

104. Euro-II is emission norms for reducing 113. In a polluted lake

(A) O3 and CO (A) BOD and DO are high
(B) NO2 and N2O (B) BOD is high and DO is low
(C) Both are low
(C) Sulphur and aromatic hydrocarbons
(D) BOD is low and DO is high
(D) CO2 and particulate matter
114. In automobiles catalytic converters change unburnt
105. Hospital wastes are hydrocarbons into
(A) Methane
(A) Hazardous and disposed by incinerator
(B) Carbon dioxide and Methane
(B) Non-hazardous and disposed by incinerator
(C) Carbon monoxide
(C) Hazardous and disposed into water (D) Carbon dioxide and Water
(D) Non-hazardous and disposed into water
115. A chemical weed in troposphere and protectant in
stratosphere is
106. In an aquatic food chain, if water body is having 0.003
(A) CH4 (B) O3
ppb of DDT, its maximum concentration can be
(C) CFC (D) NO2
observed in
(A) Large fish (B) Phytoplankton
116. Release of phosphates and nitrates in water bodies
(C) Fish eating birds (D) Small fish (i.e. in rivers and lakes) leads to
(A) Decreased nutrient content
107. Electrostatic precipitator is an instrument to remove (B) Reduced algal growth
which type of pollutants from air? (C) Increased algal growth
(A) Particulate matter (B) Gaseous pollutant (D) Increased growth of decomposers
(C) SO2 only (D) NOX only
117. Wastes may be sealed in concrete-filled drums and 125. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the
discharged to a depth of about 500 m. This specific trees indicates that the
statement is true for (A) Trees are very healthy
(A) y-radiation pollutants (B) Trees are heavily infested
(B) U.V. radiation pollutants (C) Location is highly polluted
(C) P-particle pollutants (D) Location is not polluted
(D) All radioactive pollutants
126. Which one of the following statements is wrong in
118. The e-wastes case of Bhopal tragedy?
(A) Represents municipal solid (A) It took place in the night of December 2/3,
(B) Is produced in developing countries and exported (B) Methyl Isocyanate gas leakage took place
to developed countries (C) Thousands of human beings died
(C) Are buried in landfills or incinerated (D) Radioactive fallout engulfed Bhopal
(D) Does not involve recycling
127. dB is a standard abbreviation used for the quantitative
119. Arrange CFC, CH4, N2O and CO2 in decreasing order expression of
according to their contribution in greenhouse effect (A) A certain pesticide
(A) CO2 > N2O > CFC > CH4 (B) The density of bacteria in a medium
(B) CFC > CO2 > CH4 > N2O (C) A particular pollutant
(D) The dominant Bacillus in a culture
(C) CH4 > CFC > N2O > CO2
(D) CO2 > CH4 > CFC > N2O
128. In most Ecosystem:
(A) Primary producers are more than primary
120. Greenhouse gases are consumers
(A) Absorbers of long-wave radiations from earth (B) Primary consumers are larger than primary
(B) Transparent to both solar radiations and producers
longwave radiations from earth (C) Secondary consumers are larger than primary
(C) Absorbers of solar radiations for warming the producers
atmosphere (D) Primary consumers are least depending on
(D) Transparent to emissions from earth for passage primary producers
into outer space
129. Large ecosystems are called –
121. Which one of the following was the objective of (A) Biomes (B) Ecotone
signing the ‘Montreal protocol’? (C) Ecads (D) Biocoenosis
(A) Protection of wild life
(B) Protection of ozone layer 130. Vultures in an ecosystem are –
(C) Control of noise pollution (A) Predators (B) Scavengers
(D) Control the over use of insecticides (C) Consumers (D) Top carnivores

122. A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in 131. The maximum energy is stored at following tropical
(A) Increased population of aquatic organisms due to level in any ecosystem –
minerals (A) Producers (B) Herbivores
(B) Drying of the lake due to algal bloom (C) Carnivores (D) Top carnivores
(C) Increased population of fish due to lots of
nutrients 132. The source of energy in an ecosystem is –
(A) Sunlight (B) DNA
(D) Mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen
(C) ATP (D) RNA
133. The importance of ecosystem lies in –
123. Increase in concentration of the toxicant a successive (A) Flow of energy
trophic level is known as: (B) Cycling of materials
(A) Biogeochemical cycling (B) Biomagnification (C) Both the above
(C) Biodeterioration (D) Biotransformation (D) None of the above

124. The UN Conference of Parties on climate change in 134. Largest ecosystems of the world are
the year 2011 was held in (A) Forests (B) Grass lands
(A) Qatar (B) Poland (C) Great lakes (D) Oceans
(C) South Africa (D) Peru
135. Which of the following is a man-made artificial 145 Which of the following represents the sedimentary
ecosystem type of nutrient cycle?
(A) Grassland ecosystem (A) Nitrogen (B) Carbon
(B) Forest ecosystem (C) Oxygen (D) Phosphorus
(C) Ecosystem of artificial lakes & dams
(D) None of these 146. Path of energy flow in an ecosystem is:
(A) Herbivorous  producer  carnivorous 
136. A pond is a: -
decomposer
(A) Biome
(B) Herbivorous  carnivorous  producer 
(B) Natural ecosystem
decomposer
(C) Artificial ecosystem
(C) Producer  carnivorous  herbivorous 
(D) Community of plants & animals
decomposer
(D) Producer  herbivorous  carnivorous 
137. Which one is omnivorous –
decomposer
(A) Frog (B) Lion
(C) Deer (D) Man 147. Pyramids of energy are –
(A) Always upright (B) Always Inverted
138. Which biotic components mainly help in recycling of (C) Mostly upright (D) Mostly inverted
minerals –
(A) Producers (B) Consumers 148. The ecological pyramid of numbers in pond
(C) Decomposers (D) All the above ecosystem is –
(A) Upright
139. Trophic levels are formed by - (B) Inverted
(A) Only plants (C) May upright or Inverted
(B) Only carnivores (D) First upright then inverted
(C) Only animals
(D) Organisms linked in food chain 149. Vertical distribution of different species occupying
different levels is called:
140. In a forest ecosystem green plant are – (A) Stratification (B) Eutrophication
(A) Primary producers (B) Consumers (C) Soil Profile (D) Productivity
(C) Primary consumers (D) Decomposers
150. Thickness of ozone is measured in
141. In an ecosystem the function of the producers is to (A) Decibel (B) Decimetre
(A) Convert organic compounds into inorganic (C) Dobson (D) Miles
compounds
(B) Trap solar energy and convert it into chemical 151. The storage of energy at consumer level is known as-
energy (A) Grass primary production
(B) Secondary productivity
(C) Utilize chemical energy
(C) Net primary productivity
(D) Release energy
(D) Net productivity

142. What is the percentage of photosynthetically active 152. Gross primary productivity is –
radiation (PAR) in the incident solar radiations? (A) Rate at which organic molecules are formed by
(A) 100 % (B) 50 % an autotroph
(C) 1–5 % (D) 2 – 10 % (B) Rate at which organic molecules are used up by
an autotroph
143. Which of the following is an abiotic component of
(C) Storage of organic molecules in the body of an
the ecosystem?
autotroph
(A) Bacteria (B) Humus
(D) Rate at which organic molecules are transferred
(C) Plants (D) Fungi to next higher trophic level

144. Which of the following processes helps in Nutrient 153. Which of the following shows maximum genetic
conservation? diversity in India?
(A) Mineralisation (A) Maize (B) Mango
(B) Immobilisation (C) Groundnut (D) Rice
(C) Leaching
(D) Nitrification
154. The term ‘biodiversity’ was Popularized by 163. Water hyacinths (Eicchornia crassipes) was
(A) Alexander von Humboldt introduced in Indian water to reduce pollution. It is
(B) Edward Wilson an example of
(C) David Tilman (A) Disturbance and degradation
(D) Paul Ehrlich (B) Coextinctions
(C) Alien species invasions
155. The medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria produces a (D) Over-exploitation
chemical called 164. Which of the following is an exotic species?
(A) Opine (B) Reserpine (A) Lantana (B) Parthenium
(C) Vinblastine (D) Taxol (C) Eicchornia (D) All of these

156. The greatest threat to genetic diversity in agricultural 165. Extinction induced by human activities is called
crops is (A) Natural extinction
(A) Extensive use of biofertilizers (B) Mass extinction
(B) Extensive mixed cropping (C) Background extinction
(C) Introduction of high yielding varieties (D) Anthropogenic extinction
(D) Extensive use of fertilisers 166. What is/are the correct explanations about higher
diversity in tropical areas in comparison to the
157. Which one of the following expanded form of the temperate areas?
following acronyms is correct? I. There are no favourable seasons in tropics.
(A) UNEP – United Nations Environmental Policy II. Less solar energy is available in tropics.
(B) IUCN – International Union for Conservation of III. Rate of extinction is low in tropics.
Nature and Natural Resources IV. Resource availability is higher in tropics.
(C) EPA – Environmental Pollution Agency Choose the correct option
(D) IPCC – International Panel for Climate Change (A) I, III and IV (B) I, II, III and IV
(C) I, II, III (D) III and IV
158. India comprises of ...... global species diversity.
(A) 22% (B) 8.1% 167. The species listed in Red Data Book are
(C) 70% (D) 5.1% (A) Endangered (B) Vulnerable
(C) Rare (D) All of these
159. As estimated by Robert May, what is the total number 168. Identify the names of two hot spots of biodiversity in
of species present on earth? India.
(A) 3 Million (B) 5 Million (A) Himalayan and Deccan Plateau
(C) 7 Million (D) 9 Million (B) Western Ghats and Himalayas
(C) Deccan and Western Ghats
160. ‘Two closely related species competing for same (D) Western Ghats and Gangetic plains
resources cannot co-exist indefinitely’. This law is
169. Modern ex situ conservation includes
called:
(A) In vitro fertilisation
(A) Gause’s law
(B) Cryopreservation techniques
(B) Competitive exclusion principle
(C) Plants can be propagated using tissue culture
(C) Both (A) and (B) methods
(D) Competition release principle (D) All of the above

161. Connell’s elegant field experiments are related to: 170. Dodo, Passenger pigeon and Steller’s sea cow
(A) Paramecium (B) Barnacles became extinct in the last 500 years due to
(C) Viruses (D) Protozoans (A) Habitat destruction
(B) Over-exploitation
162. Amazon rain forest is considered as lungs of the (C) Bird-flu virus infection’
planet as they contribute ...... of the total oxygen in (D) Pollution
earth’s atmosphere the most appropriate word to fill 171. ‘Broadly utilitarian’ argument for the conservation of
the blank is
biodiversity does not include
(A) 15% (B) 10% (A) Bioprospecting
(C) 30% (D) 20% (B) Pollination
(C) Aesthetic value
(D) Climatic regulation
172. Itai-itai disease is due to 177. In exponential growth model b – d is represented by
(A) Oil spill in water r, then ‘r’ may be called as
(B) Cadmium pollution (A) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(C) Industrial waste having mercury in water (B) Extrinsic rate of natural increase
(D) Organic waste in drinking water (C) Morphological rate of natural increase
173. Salt concentration in sea water is (salinity in parts per (D) Phenotypical rate of natural increase
thousand):
(A) Less than 5 178. According to Allen’s Rule, the mammals from colder
(B) 30 - 35 climates have:
(C) 100 (A) Shorter ears and longer limbs
(D) All of these (B) Longer ear and shorter limbs
(C) Longer ears and longer limbs
174. Sunlight is available as a source of energy. The (D) Shorter ears and shorter limbs
sunlight is very much important in
(A) Chemosynthesis 179. Ecological niche is:
(B) Photosynthesis (A) the surface area of the ocean
(C) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition (B) an ecologically adapted zone
(D) All of the above (C) the physical position and functional role of a
species within the community
175. Which characteristics determine the percolation and (D) formed of all plants and animals living at the
water holding capacity of soils? bottom of a lake
(A) Soil composition
(B) Grain size 180. Orchid growing on the branch of mango is an
(C) Aggregation example of:
(D) All of these (A) Commensalism (B) Mutualism
(C) Parasitism (D) Competition
176. Logistic growth occurs when there is
(A) No resistance from increasing population
(B) Unlimited food
(C) Fixed carrying capacity
(D) All of the above