MR Tét Banh

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MR - hem hem
Marketing Research (Western Sydney University)
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MARKETING RESEARCH: AN APPLIED ORIENTATION
Chapter 1 Introduction to Marketing Research
1) Boeing commissioned Harris Interactive, Inc. to conduct a study to determine the aircraft
preferences of fliers. Boeing did this because they understood the importance of continuously
monitoring the dynamic marketplace and understanding the needs and priorities of Boeing
customers.
Answer: TRUE
2) Satmetrix capitalizes on the need for "recent" marketing research by providing clients with
data on a weekly basis.
Answer: FALSE
3) Toyota conducted a secret market research project code-named Genesis which led to the
development of the Scion line of cars.
Answer: TRUE
4) The Scion line of cars was advertised through traditional channels such as network television
and magazines.
Answer: FALSE
5) Quick-Track® is a syndicated market research project conducted quarterly to track key

consumer behavioral and attitudinal measures for all major fast food and pizza chains in
individual markets.
Answer: TRUE
6) Marketing research is the systematic and objective identification, collection, analysis,

dissemination, and use of information for the purpose of assisting management in decision
making related to the identification and solution of problems (and opportunities) in marketing.
Answer: TRUE
7) Marketing research is classified into two areasproblem identification and problem solving
research.
Answer: TRUE
8) Sales analysis research is a type of problem solving research.

Answer: FALSE
9) Once a problem or opportunity has been identified, market potential research is undertaken to
arrive at a solution.
Answer: FALSE
10) Problem identification research provides information about the marketing environment and
helps diagnose a problem.
Answer: TRUE
11) The findings of problem solving research are used in making decisions that will solve
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specific marketing problems.

Answer: TRUE
12) In the Kellogg's example given in your text, as a result of problem-solving research,
Kellogg's found out that it was not being creative in introducing new products to meet the needs
of the adult market.
Answer: FALSE
13) The task of marketing research is to assess the information needs and provide management
with relevant, accurate, reliable, cheap, and current information.
Answer: FALSE
14) Marketing management decisions are complicated by interactions between the uncontrollable
marketing variables and the uncontrollable environmental factors.
Answer: FALSE
15) Marketing researchers are becoming more involved in decision making, whereas marketing
managers are not becoming more involved with research.
Answer: FALSE
16) Effective competitive intelligence is a continuous process involving the legal and ethical
collection of information, analysis that avoids unwelcome conclusions, and controlled
dissemination of actionable intelligence to decision makers.
Answer: FALSE
17) It is best to do marketing research even if the resources are not available to conduct a quality
project.
Answer: FALSE
18) If a firm lacks the resources to implement the findings arising from marketing research,
spending the resources to conduct the research may not be warranted.
Answer: TRUE
19) Marketing research suppliers can be classified as internal or external.

Answer: TRUE
20) Field service organizations are limited service suppliers that specialize in interviewing or
specialize in collecting data through the mail or though personal or telephone interviewing.
Answer: TRUE
21) Analytical services include designing and pretesting questionnaires, determining the best
means of collecting data, designing sampling plans, and conducting statistical analysis of
quantitative data.
Answer: FALSE
22) Branded marketing research products and services are specialized problem identification,
data collection and analysis procedures developed to address specific types of marketing research
problems. These procedures are patented, given brand names, and marketed like any other
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branded products.
Answer: FALSE
23) Operational supervisor, project manager, research director, analyst, and statistician/data
processing specialist are all positions in the marketing research field.
Answer: TRUE
24) More information can be obtained from MIS than from ad hoc marketing research projects,
but MIS is limited in the amount and nature of information it provides and the way this
information can be used by the decision maker.
Answer: TRUE
25) DSS differs from MIS in that the DSS is more rigidly structured than the MIS.
Answer: FALSE
26) When conducting international research, the environment prevailing in the countries, cultural
units, or international markets that are being researched, influences the way the six steps of the
marketing research process should be performed.
Answer: TRUE
27) International marketing research is much simpler to conduct than domestic research.
Answer: FALSE
28) Companies that base their business on the Web do not have international marketing
problems.
Answer: FALSE
29) International marketing research is expected to grow at a faster rate than domestic research.
Answer: TRUE
30) Most marketing research is conducted for clients representing commercial firms.
Answer: TRUE
31) Ethical issues arise when the interests of the stakeholders are in conflict and when one or
more of the stakeholders are lacking in their responsibilities.
Answer: TRUE
32) Marketing research has often been described as having three stakeholders.
Answer: FALSE
33) NBC utilized Satmetrix services to obtain feedback from viewers. Which of the following is
true about their relationship?
A) It helps the network to learn what viewers are looking for.
B) NBC created the show "Will and Grace" as a result of the research results.
C) Viewer feedback has been instrumental in composing and modifying scripts and storylines.
D) all of the above
Answer: D

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34) According to the text, marketing research has become ________.

A) global
B) real time
C) more integrative with marketing and product development
D) all of the above
Answer: D
35) Marketing Research, as defined by the author, is everything except ________.

A) systematic
B) politically biased
C) objective
D) useful for the purpose of improving decision-making
Answer: B
36) The procedures followed at each stage of marketing research are methodologically sound,
well documented, and, as much as possible, planned in advance. The previous statement defines
the ________ aspect of the definition of marketing research.
A) systematic
B) accuracy
C) identification of information
D) collection of information
Answer: A
37) Each phase of the marketing research process is important. If in the first phase of the process
the problem is identified, what is done after that but before data is collected?
A) Determine the solution to the problem, identify relevant information sources and evaluate
data collection methods
B) Determine what information is needed, identify relevant information sources, and evaluate
data collection methods
C) Determine the solution to the problem, determine what information is needed, and identify
relevant information sources.
D) Determine what information is needed, evaluate data collection methods, and analyze the data
Answer: B
38) ________ is undertaken to help identify problems that are perhaps not apparent on the
surface and yet exist or are likely to arise in the future.
A) Problem identification research
B) Segmentation research
C) Problem solving research
D) Marketing information systems
Answer: A
39) ________ is a type of problem identification research.

A) Distribution research
B) Pricing research
C) Market characteristics research
D) Promotion research
Answer: C
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40) Which of the issues listed below would be addressed using problem-solving research?
A) the need to understand market potential
B) the need to understand current cultural trends
C) the need to understand changes in consumer behavior
D) the need to determine where to locate retail outlets
Answer: D
41) In the Kellogg's example given in your text, Kellogg's performed several tasks to identify
their problem. Which of the tasks below was not used by Kellogg's to identify their problem?
A) They spoke to decision makers within the company.
B) They developed and tested several new flavors of cereal using mall intercept interviews with
adult customers
C) They interviewed industry experts.
D) They surveyed customers about their perceptions and preferences for cereals.
Answer: B
42) ________ is conceptualized as consisting of six steps which include problem definition,
developing an approach to the problem, research design formulation, field work, data preparation
and analysis, and report generation and presentation.
A) The marketing research process
B) Marketing information systems
C) Marketing research problem
D) A decision support system
Answer: A
43) Which of the tasks below might be conducted by the researcher during the "problem
definition" and the "development of an approach to the problem" steps of the marketing research
process?
A) analysis of secondary data
B) interviews with industry experts
C) qualitative research
D) all of the above
Answer: D
44) Which of the tasks below might be conducted by the researcher during the "problem
definition," the "development of an approach to the problem," or the "research design
formulation" steps of the marketing research process?
A) analysis of secondary data
C) qualitative research
D) all of the above
Answer: D
45) The emphasis in marketing is on the identification and satisfaction of ________.

A) business needs
B) marketing goals
C) market needs
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D) customer needs
Answer: D
46) In order to determine customer needs and to implement marketing strategies and programs
aimed at satisfying those needs, marketing managers need information about ________.
A) customers
B) competitors
C) other forces in the marketplace
D) all of the above
Answer: D
47) Marketing managers need the information provided by marketing research for many reasons.
Which of the following is not a reason to need information provided by marketing research?
A) Firms have become national and international in scope.
B) Consumers have become more affluent and sophisticated.
C) Competition has become more intense.
D) All of the above are reasons to need information provided by marketing research.
Answer: D
48) Marketing research helps the marketing manager link the ________ with the ________ and
the customer groups.
A) marketing variables; environment
B) marketing variables; marketing information system
C) marketing information system; environment
D) none of the above
Answer: A
49) ________ may be defined as the process of enhancing marketplace competitiveness through
a greater understanding of a firm's competitors and the competitive environment.
A) Market intelligence
B) Competitive intelligence
C) A marketing information system
D) A decision support system
Answer: B
50) Competitive intelligence ________.

A) enables senior managers in companies to make informed decisions about everything
B) consists of integrated systems of hardware, communications networks, and software
C) is a continuous process involving the legal and ethical collection of information
D) A and C are both correct
Answer: D
51) Which of the following is not a consideration when making the decision to conduct
marketing research?
A) the consumer's attitude toward research
B) the costs versus the benefits of research
C) the resources available to conduct the research
D) the resources available to implement the research findings
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Answer: A
52) Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning big firms?
A) Many firms maintain in-house marketing research departments.
B) The marketing research department's place in the organizational structure may vary
considerably.
C) Firms with in-house research departments never use external research suppliers.
D) Both A and B are correct.
Answer: D
53) External research suppliers can be classified as ________ and ________.

A) limited-service; partial-service
B) full-service; partial-service
C) full-service; limited-service
Answer: C
54) Which of the following is not an example of a full-service supplier (Figure 1.4 in the text)?
A) syndicated services
B) customized services
C) Internet services
D) analytical services
Answer: D
55) The Nielsen Television Index is a set of information of known commercial value that is
provided to multiple clients on a subscription basis. The Nielsen Index is an example of
________.
A) syndicated services
B) customized services
C) standardized services
D) analytical services
Answer: A
56) Syndicated services ________.

A) specialize in one or a few phases of the marketing research project
B) are research studies conducted for different client firms but in a different way
C) are companies that collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs
shared by a number of clients
D) offer a wide variety of marketing research services customized to suit a client's specific needs
Answer: C
57) Customized services ________.

C) collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs shared by a
number of clients
D) offer a wide variety of marketing research services tailored to suit a client's specific needs
Answer: D
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58) Limited-service suppliers ________.

C) collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs shared by a
number of clients.
D) offer a wide variety of marketing research services tailored to suit a client's specific needs
Answer: A
59) Synovate (www.synovate.com) offers several products under the TeleNation® family. One of
their products, TeleNation®, is a twice-a-week multi-client telephone study among households
selected at random from the U.S. population. Clients are charged based on the number of
questions they ask. TeleNation® is a ________.
A) field service
B) branded market research product
C) data analysis service
D) analytical service
Answer: B
60) When a firm cannot conduct an entire marketing research project in house, it must select an
external supplier for one or more phases of the project. One of the things that the firm does not
need to consider or do when selecting an external research supplier is ________.
A) compile a list of prospective suppliers
B) realize that the cheapest bid is not always the best bid
C) develop criteria for selecting an outside supplier
D) All of the above must be considered or done.
Answer: D
61) There are many entry level marketing research positions available for persons with BBAs or
MBAs. Which one of the following is not an entry-level position?
A) operational supervisor
B) senior analyst
C) junior research analyst
D) research analyst
Answer: B
62) A ________ is a formalized set of procedures for generating, analyzing, storing, and
distributing pertinent information to marketing decision makers on an ongoing basis.
A) marketing information system
B) management information system
C) decision support system
Answer: A
63) The definition of a(n) ________ is similar to marketing research, except that a(n) ________
provides information continuously rather than on the basis of ad hoc research studies.
A) marketing information system (MIS); MIS
B) management information system (MIS); MIS
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C) decision support system (DSS); DSS

Answer: A
64) ________ are integrated systems including hardware, communications network, data base,
model base, software base, and the ________ user (decision maker) that collect and interpret
information for decision making.
A) Marketing information systems (MIS); MIS
B) Management information systems (MIS); MIS
C) Decision support systems (DSS); DSS
Answer: C
65) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a decision support system?

A) rigidly structured problems
B) "what-if" analysis available
C) easy-to-use interactive mode
D) all of the above
Answer: A
66) Which of the following is true about a decision support system?

A) DSS can enhance decision-making effectiveness by using "what if" analysis.
B) DSS have been further developed to expert systems that utilize artificial intelligence
procedures to incorporate expert judgment.
C) The information provided by a DSS is rigidly structured and cannot be easily manipulated.
Answer: D
67) According to the author of the text, international research refers to which of the following
types of research?
A) foreign research
B) multinational research
C) cross-cultural research
D) all of the above
Answer: D
68) Marketing research has often been described as having four stakeholders. These
stakeholders have certain responsibilities to each other and to the research project. Which of the
following is not one of the stakeholders?
A) the marketing researcher
B) the respondent
C) the public
D) the environment
Answer: D
69) ________ features statistical programs such a Missing Values, SamplePower, Decision Time
and Data Entry.
A) SAS
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B) MINITAB
C) SPSS
D) EXCEL
Answer: C
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Chapter 2 Defining the Marketing Research Problem and Developing an Approach
1) Problem definition is the most important step in the marketing research project.
Answer: TRUE
2) Better communication and more involvement in problem definition are the most frequently
mentioned ways of improving the usefulness of research.
Answer: TRUE
3) The organizational status of the researcher or the research department may make it easy to
reach the key DM in the early stages of the project.
Answer: FALSE
4) The problem audit provides a useful framework for interacting with the researcher and
identifying the underlying causes of the problem.
Answer: FALSE
5) DMs tend to focus on symptoms rather than causes.

Answer: TRUE
6) "The DM and the researcher must interact continually rather than sporadically" is an
explanation of one of the 7 Cs known as continuity.
Answer: TRUE
7) The purpose of interviewing experts is to help define the marketing research problem rather
than to develop a conclusive solution.
Answer: TRUE
8) Analysis of available secondary data is a non-essential step in the problem definition process.
Answer: FALSE
9) Information obtained from the DM, industry experts, and secondary data may not be sufficient
to define the research problem.
Answer: TRUE
10) To understand the background of a marketing research problem, the researcher must
understand the client's firm and industry.
Answer: TRUE
11) Past information and forecasts of trends with respect to sales, market share, profitability,
technology, population, demographics, and lifestyle can help the researcher understand the
underlying marketing research problem.
Answer: TRUE
12) Where appropriate, analysis of past information and forecasts of trends should be carried out
at the firm's department level.
Answer: FALSE
13) In instances where the resources are too limited to allow a high-quality project, the firm
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should be advised not to undertake formal marketing research.

Answer: TRUE
14) "The number and geographical location of the buyers and non-buyers" is a factor that should
be considered in the "objectives" component of the environmental context of the problem.
Answer: FALSE
15) The economic environment includes public policies, laws, government agencies, and
pressure groups that influence and regulate various organizations and individuals in society.
Answer: FALSE
16) The economic environment component of the environmental context is comprised of

purchasing power, gross income, disposable income, discretionary income, prices, savings, credit
availability, and general economic conditions.
Answer: TRUE
17) The marketing research problem asks what the DM needs to do, whereas the management
decision problem asks what information is needed and how it can best be obtained (Table 2.1 in
the text).
Answer: FALSE
18) The management decision problem is action oriented.

Answer: TRUE
19) The marketing research problem is information oriented.

Answer: TRUE
20) To properly identify the marketing research problem, it is best to state the problem in narrow,
specific terms and identify its broad concepts.
Answer: FALSE
21) The second part of the marketing research problem definition is specific components. The
specific components focus on the key aspects of the problem and provide clear guidelines on
how to proceed further.
Answer: TRUE
22) Verbal, graphical, and mathematical models depict the same phenomenon or theoretical
framework in different ways.
Answer: TRUE
23) Graphical models are analytical models that provide a visual picture of the relationships
between variables.
Answer: TRUE
24) Research questions ask what general information is required with respect to the problem
components.
Answer: FALSE
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25) Hypotheses go beyond research questions because they are statements of relationships or
propositions rather than merely questions to which answers are sought.
Answer: TRUE
26) Being too familiar with the environmental factors of the country where the research is being
conducted can greatly increase the difficulty of understanding the problem's environmental
context and uncovering its causes.
Answer: FALSE
27) SPSS can be used to perform forecasts and "what-if" analyses to help the researcher in
isolating the underlying causes, identifying the relevant variables that should be investigated, and
formulating appropriate research questions and hypotheses.
Answer: TRUE
28) In the example given in your text, the Harley Davidson management decision problem and
the marketing research problem were defined with the help of all of the following except
________.
A) discussions with industry experts
B) discussions with a committee of top management
C) secondary data on motorcycle owners
D) focus groups with motorcycle owners
Answer: B
29) According to the Chain Restaurant Study in your text, the researcher had collected data but
did not know ________.
A) the marketing research problem
B) the management decision problem
C) the data collection process
D) the approach to the problem
Answer: A
30) The ________ is a broad statement of the general problem and identification of the specific
components of the marketing research problem.
A) problem audit
B) management problem
C) problem definition
Answer: C
31) According to the problem definition and approach development process as shown in Figure
2.1 in the text, the tasks involved in problem definition consist of all of the following except
________.
A) discussions with the decision makers
C) analysis of project costs
D) analysis of secondary data
Answer: C
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32) According to Figure 2.1 in the text, the components of the ________ consist of:
objective/theoretical foundations, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses, and
specification of the information needed.
A) approach to the problem
B) management decision problem
C) marketing research problem
D) environmental context of the problem
Answer: A
33) The need for the researcher to understand the nature of what decision managers face and
what they hope to learn from research is one of the reasons to conduct ________.
A) discussions with decision makers
B) interview with experts
C) secondary data analysis
D) qualitative research
Answer: A
34) To identify the management problem, the researcher must possess considerable skill in
interacting with the DM. Which of the following is a factor that might complicate this
interaction?
A) Access to the DM may be difficult and some organizations have complicated protocols for
access to top executives.
B) The organizational status of the researcher or the research department may make it difficult to
reach the key DM in the early stages of the project.
C) There may be more than one key DM and meeting with them collectively or individually may
be difficult.
D) All of the above are correct.
Answer: D
35) The ________ provides a useful framework for interacting with the DM and identifying the
underlying causes of the problem.
A) problem audit
Answer: A
36) The ________ is a comprehensive examination of a marketing problem with the purpose of
understanding its origin and nature.
A) problem audit
Answer: A
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37) It is important to perform a problem audit because ________.

A) the DM knows the cause of the problem
B) DMs tend to focus on symptoms rather than on causes
C) the DM, in most cases, has only a vague idea of what the problem is
D) both B and C are correct
Answer: D
38) The interaction between the DM and the researcher should be characterized by the seven Cs.
Which of the following is not one of the seven Cs?
A) continuity
B) communication
C) causality
D) candor
Answer: C
39) As one of the seven Cs that characterize the interaction between the DM and the researcher,
confidence is best defined as: ________.
A) there should not be any hidden agendas, and an attitude of openness should prevail
B) the interaction between the DM and the researcher should be guided by mutual trust
C) marketing research is a team project in which both parties (DM and researcher) must
cooperate
D) the interaction between the DM and the researcher should be creative rather than formulaic
Answer: B
40) Interviews with industry expertsindividuals knowledgeable about the firm and the
industrymay help formulate the marketing research problem. Which of the following
statements is true about interviews with industry experts?
A) These experts may be found both inside and outside the firm.
B) Typically, expert information is obtained by unstructured personal interviews without
administering a formal questionnaire.
C) It is helpful to prepare a list of topics to be covered during the interview.
D) All of the above are true.
Answer: D
41) Because of potential difficulties when seeking advice from experts, it is best to use
interviews with experts when conducting marketing research ________.
A) for industrial firms
B) for products of a technical nature
C) in situations where little information is available from other sources
D) all of the above
Answer: D
42) Which of the following statements about secondary data is true?

A) Secondary data are originated by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the
research problem at hand.
B) Secondary data are an economical and quick source of background information.
C) Primary data should not be collected until the available secondary data have been fully
analyzed.
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D) Both B and C are true.

Answer: D
43) ________ is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples

intended to provide insight and understanding of the problem setting.
A) Primary research
B) Qualitative research
C) Secondary research
D) Quantitative research
Answer: B
44) ________ is not a qualitative research technique.

A) Depth interview
B) Word association
C) Focus group
D) Conclusive research
Answer: D
45) ________ consists of the factors that have an impact on the definition of the marketing
research problem, including past information and forecasts, resources and constraints of the firm,
objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic environment, and
marketing and technological skills of the firm.
A) The approach to the problem
B) Research design
C) The environmental context of the problem
D) Problem definition
Answer: C
46) Many factors have an impact on the definition of the marketing research problem. These
factors encompass the environmental context of the problem. Which of the following is not one
of the factors?
A) marketing and technological skills of the firm
B) objectives
C) past information and forecasts pertaining to the industry and the firm
D) political environment
Answer: D
47) To formulate a marketing research problem of appropriate scope, it is necessary to take into
account both the resources available, such as money and research skills, and the constraints on
the organization, such as cost and time. These considerations refer to which of the factors related
to the environmental context of the problem?
A) resources and constraints
B) buyer behavior
C) legal environment
D) economic environment
Answer: A
48) Media consumption behavior and response to promotions, price sensitivity, and retail outlets
patronized are factors that should be considered in the ________ component of the
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environmental context of the problem.

A) objectives
B) legal environment
C) economic environment
D) buyer behavior
Answer: D
49) The "Got Milk?" campaign sponsored by the California Milk Processor Board and
mentioned in your text, used an understanding of ________ to identify the real causes that led to
the decline in milk consumption.
A) objectives
B) the legal environment
C) the economic environment
D) buyer behavior
Answer: D
50) Regulatory policies and norms within which organizations must operate, refer to the
________ factor of the environmental context of the problem.
A) legal environment
B) economic environment
C) objectives
D) buyer behavior
Answer: A
51) ________ is the problem confronting the decision maker. It asks what the decision maker
needs to do.
A) The environmental context of the problem
B) The management decision problem
C) The marketing research problem
Answer: B
52) ________ is a problem that entails determining what information is needed and how it can be
obtained in the most feasible way.
A) The environmental context of the problem
B) The management decision problem
C) The marketing research problem
Answer: C
53) The management decision problem focuses on ________, while the marketing research
problem focuses on ________.
A) symptoms; solutions
B) symptoms; underlying causes
C) solutions; underlying causes
Answer: B
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54) Based on Table 2.1 in the text, which statement is true about the management decision
problem?
A) It asks what information is needed and how it should be obtained.
B) It is information oriented.
C) It asks what the decision maker needs to do.
D) It focuses on the underlying causes.
Answer: C
55) Based on Table 2.1 in the text, which statement is true about the marketing research
problem?
A) It focuses on underlying causes.
B) It focuses on symptoms.
C) It is information oriented.
D) Both A and C are correct.
Answer: D
56) If the management decision problem is: "Should a new product be introduced?" what is the
most appropriate marketing research problem?
A) determining the price elasticity of demand and the impact on sales and profits of various
levels of price changes
B) determining consumer preferences and purchase intentions for the proposed new product
C) determining the effectiveness of the current advertising campaign
D) determining the impact of new distribution outlets
Answer: B
57) Which statement is true concerning defining the marketing research problem?
A) The definition should allow the researcher to obtain all the information needed to address the
management decision problem.
B) The definition should guide the researcher in proceeding with the project.
C) The marketing research problem should be stated in broad, general terms with specific
components identified.
Answer: D
58) The outputs of the approach development process should include all of the following
components except ________.
A) objective/theoretical framework
B) analytical models
C) hypotheses
D) all of the above
Answer: D
59) A conceptual scheme based on foundational statements called axioms, which are assumed to
be true, is ________.
A) objective evidence
B) a theory
C) an analytical model
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Answer: B
60) Unbiased evidence that is supported by empirical findings is ________.

B) a theory
Answer: A
61) In the process of developing an approach, research should be based on objective evidence
and supported by theory. A theory ________.
A) serves as a foundation on which the researcher can organize and interpret the findings
B) also plays a vital role in influencing the research procedures adopted in basic research
C) is incomplete
D) all of the above
Answer: D
62) The researcher should rely on ________ to determine which variables should be investigated.
B) theory
D) all of the above
Answer: D
63) A(n) ________ is a set of variables and their interrelationships designed to represent, in
whole or in part, some real system or process.
A) mathematical model
B) graphical model
C) verbal model
D) all of the above
Answer: D
64) ________ are refined statements of the specific components of the problem.
A) Hypotheses
B) Research questions
C) Marketing research problems
D) Analytical models
Answer: B
65) Which statement about hypotheses is not true?

A) A hypothesis is an unproven statement or proposition about a factor or phenomenon that is of
interest to the researcher.
B) Hypotheses are declarative and can be tested empirically.
C) It is possible to formulate hypotheses in all situations.
D) An important role of a hypothesis is to suggest variables to be included in the research design.
Answer: C
66) Before defining the problem, the researcher must isolate and examine the impact of the self-
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reference criterion (SRC), or the unconscious reference to one's own cultural values. Which of
the following steps does not help researchers account for environmental and cultural differences
when defining the problem in an international marketing context?
A) Define the marketing research problem in terms of domestic environmental and cultural
factors. This involves an identification of relevant American (domestic country) traits,
economics, values, needs, or habits.
B) Define the marketing research problem in terms of foreign environmental and cultural factors.
Make no judgments. This involves an identification of the related traits, economics, values,
needs, or habits in the proposed market culture. This task requires input from researchers familiar
with the foreign environment.
C) Isolate the self-reference criterion (SRC) influence on the problem and examine it carefully to
see how it complicates the problem.
Answer: D
67) Ethical issues arise if the process of defining the problem and developing an approach is
compromised by the personal agendas of the client (DM) or the researcher. Which of these
statements concerning ethics in marketing research is not true?
A) The DM has the obligation to be candid and disclose to the researcher all the relevant
information that will enable a proper definition of the marketing research problem.
B) The researcher is ethically bound to offer the most expensive set of services to each client.
C) The problem definition process is adversely affected when the DM has hidden objectives such
as gaining a promotion.
D) The researcher is ethically bound to define the problem so as to further the best interest of the
client, rather than the interest of the research firm.
Answer: B
68) Which of the following ethical issues is/are pertinent in developing an approach?
A) When a client solicits proposals, not with the intent of subcontracting the research, but with
the intent of gaining the expertise of research firms without pay, an ethical breach has occurred.
B) The research firm has the ethical obligation to develop an appropriate approach.
C) Proprietary models and approaches developed by a research firm are the property of that firm
and should not be reused by the client in subsequent studies without the permission of the
research firm.
D) All of the issues are pertinent.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3 Research Design
1) A research design is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project.
Answer: TRUE
2) Specifying the measurement and scaling procedures is one of the components involved in
research design.
Answer: TRUE
3) Specifying the format of the marketing research proposal is one of the components involved in
research design.
Answer: FALSE
4) There are three main types of research designs employed in marketing research: exploratory,
descriptive, and conclusive.
Answer: FALSE
5) Exploratory research is used in cases when you must define the problem more precisely,
identify relevant courses of action, or gain additional insights before an approach can be
developed.
Answer: TRUE
6) The insights gained from exploratory research might be verified or quantified by conclusive
research.
Answer: TRUE
7) The objective of conclusive research is to test specific results and examine specific
relationships.
Answer: FALSE
8) Conclusive research is typically more formal and structured than exploratory research.
Answer: TRUE
9) The objective of exploratory research is to explore or search through a problem or situation to

provide insights and understanding (Table 3.2 in the text).
Answer: TRUE
10) Identifying alternative courses of action and establishing priorities for further research are
purposes for which exploratory research is used.
Answer: TRUE
11) When conducting exploratory research, the focus of the investigation may shift constantly as
new insights are discovered.
Answer: TRUE
12) Shorter Labs is conducting experiments to see if shoppers will buy unknown products if they
are sent coupons. Shorter Labs is conducting causal research.
Answer: TRUE
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13) One reason to conduct causal research is to determine the degree to which marketing
variables are associated. For example, to what extent is shopping at department stores related to
eating out?
Answer: FALSE
14) A major difference between exploratory and descriptive research is that exploratory research
is characterized by the prior formulation of specific hypotheses.
Answer: FALSE
15) A descriptive design requires a clear specification of the who, what, when, where, why, and
way (the six Ws) of the research.
Answer: TRUE
16) The cross-sectional study is the least used descriptive design in marketing research.
Answer: FALSE
17) Cross-sectional designs involve the collection of information from any given sample of
population elements only once.
Answer: TRUE
18) In single cross-sectional designs, there are two or more samples of respondents, and
information from each sample is obtained only once.
Answer: FALSE
19) Cohort analysis is a type of multiple cross-sectional design that consists of a series of surveys
conducted at appropriate time intervals, where the cohort serves as the basic unit of analysis.
Answer: TRUE
20) In cohort analysis, it is likely that many of the individuals studied at time one will also be in
the sample at time two.
Answer: FALSE
21) A longitudinal design differs from a cross-sectional design in that the sample or samples
remain the same over time.
Answer: TRUE
22) Sometimes, the term sample survey is used interchangeably with the term longitudinal
design.
Answer: FALSE
23) A major advantage of longitudinal design over the cross-sectional design is the ability to
detect change as a result of repeated measurement of the same variables on the same sample.
Answer: TRUE
24) Longitudinal data enable researchers to examine changes in the behavior of individual units
and to link behavioral changes to marketing variables, such as changes in advertising, packaging,
pricing, and distribution.
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Answer: TRUE
25) Marketing managers continually make decisions based on assumed causal relationships.
Because these assumptions may be justifiable, the validity of the causal relationships need not be
examined via formal research.
Answer: FALSE
26) According to the text, the combination of research designs employed depends on the nature
of the results desired.
Answer: FALSE
27) The total error is the variation between the true mean value in the population of the variable
of interest and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research project.
Answer: TRUE
28) In formulating a research design, the researcher should attempt to minimize a particular
source of error, not just the total error.
Answer: FALSE
29) Random sampling error has been found to be the major contributor to total error, whereas
non-sampling error is relatively small in magnitude.
Answer: FALSE
30) A useful approach for managing a project is the critical path method (CPM), which involves
dividing the research project into component activities, determining the sequence of these
activities, and estimating the time required for each activity.
Answer: TRUE
31) The marketing research proposal contains the essence of the project and serves as a contract
between the researcher and the respondent.
Answer: FALSE
32) Budgeting and scheduling management tools help ensure that the marketing research project
is completed within the available resources.
Answer: TRUE
33) The marketing research proposal does not include a reporting section because a separate final
report of the research project findings is provided at the end of the project.
Answer: FALSE
34) The research design suitable for one country may not be suitable in another country.
Answer: TRUE
35) The example given in the text stated that focus groups conducted in Saudi Arabia to
determine attitude towards major appliances could be conducted the same as in the U.S. Men
and women could participate jointly in the focus group.
Answer: FALSE
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36) The client should not take undue advantage of the research firm to solicit unfair concessions
for the current project by making false promises of future research contracts.
Answer: TRUE
37) Which statement is not true about research design?

A) Research design is a framework for conducting the marketing research project.
B) Research design specifies the measurement and scaling procedures.
C) Research design is undertaken before developing the approach to the problem.
D) Research design is undertaken after the marketing research problem is defined.
Answer: C
38) ________ is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project. It
specifies the details of the procedures necessary for obtaining the information needed to structure
and/or solve marketing research problems.
A) Research classification
B) Research design
C) Design formulation
D) None of the above
Answer: B
39) Typically, a ________ involves the tasks of designing the information needed, specifying the
measurement and scaling procedures, and developing a plan of data analysis.
A) research classification
B) research design
C) design formulation
Answer: B
40) Which of the following tasks is not a component of research design?

A) Design the exploratory, descriptive, and/or causal phases of the research.
B) Construct and pretest a questionnaire (interviewing form) or an appropriate form for data
collection.
C) Specify the sampling process and sample size.
D) Develop hypotheses.
Answer: D
41) Research designs may be broadly classified as ________ or ________ (Figure 3.1 in the
text).
A) exploratory; causal
B) conclusive; causal
C) exploratory; conclusive
D) conclusive; descriptive
Answer: C
42) Exploratory research is used in all of the following cases except ________.
A) selecting the course of action to take in a given situation
B) when you must define the problem more precisely
C) when you must identify relevant courses of action
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D) when you must gain additional insights before an approach can be developed
Answer: A
43) The primary objective of ________ is to provide insights into, and an understanding of, the
problem confronting the researcher.
A) exploratory research
B) conclusive research
C) causal research
D) descriptive research
Answer: A
44) ________ is research designed to assist the decision maker in determining, evaluating, and
selecting the best course of action to take in a given situation.
A) Exploratory research
B) Conclusive research
C) Complex research
D) Problem-identification research
Answer: B
45) Cross-sectional and longitudinal designs are types of ________ (Figure 3.1 in the text).
A) causal research
B) exploratory research
C) descriptive research
Answer: C
46) Joan needs to determine which variables and relationships she should examine further as part
of the research she is conducting for the Flager Truck Company. Joan is about to embark on
what type of research?
A) simple research
D) causal research
Answer: B
47) Which of the objectives below would best represent exploratory research?
A) Describe market characteristics or functions.
B) Determine cause and effect relationships.
C) Provide insights and understanding.
D) Test specific hypotheses and examine relationships.
Answer: C
48) Which of the objectives below would best represent conclusive research?
A) Describe market characteristics or functions.
B) Determine cause and effect relationships.
C) Provide insights and understanding.
D) A and B are correct.
Answer: D
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49) If there were a need to isolate key variables and relationships for further examination, it
would be best to perform ________.
A) descriptive research
B) causal research
C) exploratory research
D) conclusive research
Answer: C
50) Which of the following statements is not true about exploratory research?
A) It is flexible.
B) It is a pre-planned and structured design.
C) It is versatile.
D) It is often the front end of total research design.
Answer: B
51) Which data collection method is used in causal research?

A) experiments
B) surveys
C) expert surveys
D) panels
Answer: A
52) Jerry and the team working on the Roger Tire Company marketing research project are
developing ways to test their hypothesis that drivers of larger trucks prefer dual belted radial
tires. What type of research are they conducting?
A) simple research
D) causal research
Answer: C
53) You work for Innovative Focus, an internationally recognized consulting firm. You are
working on the Waterpik account to help them with finding their next successful product. You
are meeting with the Waterpik marketing professionals tomorrow to conduct a trends meeting to
list and prioritize key consumer wants and needs. You have also scheduled a meeting with the
Waterpik engineers to uncover applicable technologies and the company's internal competencies.
What type of research are you conducting in your meetings with Waterpik?
A) simple research
D) causal research
Answer: B
54) ________ is a type of conclusive research that has as its major objective the description of
somethingusually market characteristics or functions.
A) Exploratory research
B) Conclusive research
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C) Causal research
D) Descriptive research
Answer: D
55) Descriptive research is conducted for all of the following reasons except ________.
A) to describe the characteristics of relevant groups, such as consumers, salespeople,
organizations, or market areas
B) to determine the degree to which marketing variables are associated
C) to understand which variables are the cause and which variables are the effect of a
phenomenon
D) to determine the perceptions of product characteristics
Answer: C
56) A formal research design specifies the methods for selecting the sources of information and
for collecting data from those sources. A ________ design requires a clear specification of the
who, what, when, where, why, and way (the six Ws) of the research.
A) descriptive
B) causal
C) exploratory
Answer: A
57) Descriptive research, in contrast to exploratory research, is marked by all of the following
except ________.
A) a clear statement of the problem
B) specific hypotheses
C) detailed information needs
D) flexibility
Answer: D
58) ________ designs involve the collection of information from any given sample of population
elements only once.
A) Exploratory
B) Causal
C) Cross-sectional
Answer: C
59) ________ is a cross-sectional design in which one sample of respondents is drawn from the
target population and information is obtained from this sample once.
A) Multiple cross-sectional design
B) Single cross-sectional design
C) Cohort analysis
Answer: B
60) ________ is the most used descriptive design in marketing research.

A) Longitudinal design
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B) Exploratory design
C) Cross-sectional design
Answer: C
61) Single cross-sectional designs are also called ________.

A) experiment designs
B) sample survey research designs
C) qualitative research designs
Answer: B
62) ________ is a cross-sectional design in which there are two or more samples of respondents
and information is obtained from each sample only once.
C) Cohort analysis
Answer: A
63) ________ is a multiple cross-sectional design consisting of a series of surveys conducted at

appropriate time intervals, where the cohort serves as the basic unit of analysis.
C) Cohort analysis
Answer: C
64) Which of the following statements is true about cohort analysis?

A) A cohort is a group of respondents who experience the same event within the same time
interval.
B) It is unlikely that any of the individuals studied at time one will also be in the sample at time
two.
C) The term cohort analysis refers to any study in which there are measures of some
characteristics of one or more cohorts at two or more points in time.
D) All are correct.
Answer: D
65) ________ is a type of research design involving a fixed sample of population elements that is
measured repeatedly. The sample remains the same over time thus providing a series of pictures
which, when viewed together, portray a vivid illustration of the situation and the changes that are
taking place over time.
A) Exploratory research design
B) Causal research design
C) Cross-sectional research design
D) Longitudinal research design
Answer: D
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66) The question, "How did the American people rate the performance of George W. Bush
immediately after the war in Afghanistan?" would be addressed using a ________. However, a
________ would be used to address the question, "How did the American people change their
view of Bush's performance during the war in Afghanistan?"
A) longitudinal design; multiple cross-sectional
B) cross-sectional design; longitudinal design
C) longitudinal; cross-sectional design
Answer: B
67) Sometimes the term ________ is used interchangeably with the term longitudinal design.
A) experiment
B) panel
C) survey
Answer: B
68) ________ refers to a sample of respondents who have agreed to provide information at
specified intervals over an extended period.
A) Experiment
B) Survey
C) Panel
Answer: C
69) A major advantage of ________ over the cross-sectional design is the ability to detect
change as a result of repeated measurement of the same variables on the same sample.
A) longitudinal design
B) descriptive research design
C) causal research design
D) conclusive research design
Answer: A
70) All of the following are advantages of longitudinal designs over cross-sectional designs
(Table 3.4 in the text) except ________.
A) detecting change
B) accuracy
C) large amount of data collection
D) representative sampling
Answer: D
71) Which of these statements is true about panels?

A) Relatively large amounts of data can be collected.
B) Panel data can be more accurate than cross-sectional data.
C) Panels may not be representative.
D) All of the above statements are correct.
Answer: D
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72) According to your text, non-representativeness in panels may arise because of all of the
following except ________.
A) respondent intelligence
B) mortality
C) refusal to cooperate
D) payment
Answer: A
73) When trying to determine which research design is best to choose, it is best to begin with
exploratory research if the objective of the research is to ________.
A) test hypotheses
B) conduct an annual customer satisfaction survey
C) define the problem more precisely
D) quantify the relative salience of social causes that businesses should be concerned about
Answer: C
74) ________ is the variation between the true mean value in the population of the variable of
interest and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research project.
A) Measurement error
B) Recording error
C) Total error
D) Cheating error
Answer: C
75) ________ is the error due to the particular sample selected being an imperfect representation
of the population of interest. It may be defined as the variation between the true mean value for
the sample and the true mean value of the population.
A) Random sampling error
B) Non-response error
C) Non-sampling error
D) Response error
Answer: A
76) ________ are errors that can be attributed to sources other than sampling, and they can be
random or nonrandom.
D) Response error
Answer: C
77) ________ is a type of non-sampling error arising from respondents who do respond but give
inaccurate answers, or their answers are mis-recorded or mis-analyzed. It may be defined as the
variation between the true mean value of the variable in the net sample and the observed mean
value obtained in the marketing research project.
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D) Response error
Answer: D
78) ________ is a type of non-sampling error that occurs when some of the respondents included
in the sample do not respond. This error may be defined as the variation between the true mean
value of the variable in the original sample and the true mean value in the net sample.
D) Response error
Answer: B
79) The variation between the population defined by the researcher and the population as implied
by the sampling frame (list) used is ________.
A) questioning error
B) unwillingness error
C) sampling frame error
D) recording error
Answer: C
80) The error that arises from the respondent's unwillingness to provide accurate information is
________. Respondents may intentionally misreport their answers because of a desire to provide
socially acceptable answers, avoid embarrassment, or please the interviewer.
A) questioning error
B) unwillingness error
C) sampling frame error
D) recording error
Answer: B
81) In a recent study, the population of the affluent households was defined in four different
ways: (1) households with income of $50,000 or more; (2) the top 20 percent of households, as
measured by income; (3) households with net worth over $250,000; and (4) households with
spendable discretionary income 30 percent higher than that of comparable households. The
number and characteristics of the affluent households varied depending upon the definition,
underscoring the need to avoid ________.
A) sampling frame error
B) respondent selection error
C) measurement error
D) population definition error
Answer: D
82) Which of the following is not a budgeting and scheduling approach for managing a project?
A) program evaluation and review technique (PERT)
B) critical evaluation and review technique (CERT)
C) critical path method (CPM)
D) graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT)
Answer: B
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83) ________ is defined as the official layout of the planned marketing research activity for
management. It describes the research problem, the approach, the research design, data
collection methods, data analysis methods, and reporting methods.
A) Research design
B) The critical path method
C) The marketing research proposal
D) The marketing research problem
Answer: C
84) The marketing research proposal consists of many sections. The ________ section is
normally a statement of the problem, including the specific components.
A) problem definition/objectives of the research
B) approach to the problem
C) executive summary
D) research design
Answer: A
85) The ________ section of the marketing research proposal should discuss how the data will
be collected and who will collect it. The ________ section of the proposal discusses the kind of
data analysis that will be conducted and how the results will be interpreted.
A) appendices; data analysis
B) fieldwork/data collection; reporting
C) research design; data analysis
D) fieldwork/data collection; data analysis
Answer: D
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Chapter 4 Exploratory Research Design: Secondary Data
1) Secondary data are originated by a researcher for the specific purpose of addressing the
problem at hand.
Answer: FALSE
2) Primary data are data that have already been collected for purposes other than the problem at
hand.
Answer: FALSE
3) As compared to primary data, secondary data are collected rapidly and easily, at a relatively
low cost, and in a short time.
Answer: TRUE
4) Examination of available primary data is a prerequisite to the collection of secondary data.

Answer: FALSE
5) Secondary data can help you develop an approach to the problem, answer certain research
questions and test some hypotheses, and interpret primary data more insightfully.
Answer: TRUE
6) It is easy to evaluate the accuracy of secondary data because the researcher did participate in
the research.
Answer: FALSE
7) One of the problems when evaluating secondary data is that the data may be updated too
frequently for the purpose of the problem at hand.
Answer: FALSE
8) Data collected with a specific objective in mind is always appropriate in another situation.
Answer: FALSE
9) Secondary data may be measured in units that may not be appropriate for the current problem.
Answer: TRUE
10) It is not possible to reconfigure the available data, for example, convert the units of
measurements, so that the resulting data are more useful to the problem at hand.
Answer: FALSE
11) Data published anonymously or in a form that attempts to hide the details of the data
collection methodology and process should be viewed with suspicion.
Answer: TRUE
12) Secondary data may be classified as either internal or extant.

Answer: FALSE
13) Primary data should be the starting point in the search for external data.
Answer: FALSE
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14) External data are those generated within the organization for which the research is being
conducted.
Answer: FALSE
15) Before collecting external secondary data, it is useful to analyze internal secondary data.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 105
16) Chrysler's Personal Information Centers collect data from car owners on all aspects of
buying a car. These PICs give the company the ability to engage in customized marketing.
Chrysler is using internal secondary data in its database marketing efforts.
Answer: TRUE
17) Secondary internal data have two significant advantages. They are easily available and
inexpensive.
Answer: TRUE
18) Secondary internal sources of data are often not fully exploited by organizations.
Answer: TRUE
19) Private sources update census data at a detailed geographic level for between-census years.
Answer: TRUE
20) Directory databases provide information on individuals, organizations, and services.

Answer: TRUE
21) Syndicated sources, also referred to as syndicated services, are companies that collect and
sell common pools of data of known commercial value, designed to serve information needs
shared by a number of clients.
Answer: TRUE
22) Syndicated sources collect data for marketing research problems specific to individual
clients.
Answer: FALSE
23) Syndicated services data are not collected for the purpose of marketing research problems
specific to individual clients.
Answer: TRUE
24) Syndicated sources can be classified based on the unit of measurement

(households/consumers or institutions).
Answer: TRUE
25) When institutions are the unit of measurement, the data may be obtained from retailers,
wholesalers, or households.
Answer: FALSE
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26) A lifestyle may be defined as a distinctive pattern of living that is described by the activities
people engage in, the interests they have, and the opinions they hold of themselves and the world
around them (AIOs).
Answer: TRUE
27) Surveys are the primary means of obtaining information about consumers' motives, attitudes,
and preferences.
Answer: TRUE
28) The distinguishing feature of purchase and media panels is that the respondents record
specific behaviors as they occur.
Answer: TRUE
29) Scanner data is obtained by passing merchandise over a laser scanner that reads the UPC
code from the packages.
Answer: TRUE
30) Scanner data have an obvious disadvantage over surveys and purchase panels, because they
reflect purchasing behavior that is not subject to interviewing, recording, memory, or expert
biases.
Answer: FALSE
31) An advantage of scanner data is that in-store variables like pricing, promotions, and displays
are part of the data set.
Answer: TRUE
32) Audits can help consumer product firms determine the size of the total market and
distribution of sales by type of outlet and by different regions.
Answer: TRUE
33) Financial, operating, and employment data are also collected by industry services' syndicated
research firms for one in 10 North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) industrial
categories.
Answer: FALSE
34) The range and sources of syndicated data available for industrial goods firms are more
limited than those available to consumer goods firms.
Answer: TRUE
35) Maps that solve marketing problems are called thematic maps.
Answer: TRUE
36) Ethical issues also arise if the users of secondary data are unduly critical of the data that do
not support their interests and viewpoints.
Answer: TRUE
37) As compared to primary data, secondary data are collected ________.
A) rapidly and easily
B) at a relatively low cost
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C) in a short time
D) all of the above
Answer: D
38) The ________ for primary data is very involved and the ________ is high.
A) collection purpose; collection time
B) collection process; collection cost
C) collection process; collection purpose
D) collection cost; collection time
Answer: B
39) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of secondary data?

A) The objectives, nature, and methods used to collect the secondary data may not be appropriate
to the present situation.
B) Secondary data may be lacking in accuracy.
C) Secondary data may be expensive and time consuming.
D) Secondary data may not be completely current or dependable.
Answer: C
40) Which of the following statements refer to the currency criteria when evaluating secondary
data?
A) Data should be reliable and generalizable to the problem at hand.
B) Syndicated firms periodically update census data.
C) The objective will determine the relevance of the data. Reconfigure the data to increase their
usefulness, if possible.
D) Assess accuracy by comparing data from different sources.
Answer: B
41) Which of the following statements refer to the objective criteria when evaluating secondary
data?
A) Data should be reliable and generalizable to the problem at hand.
B) Syndicated firms periodically update census data.
C) The objective will determine the relevance of the data. Reconfigure the data to increase their
usefulness, if possible.
D) Assess accuracy by comparing data from different sources.
Answer: C
42) Based on the criteria for evaluating secondary data shown in Table 4.2 in the text, the data
collected by Nielsen Media Research may be suspect because of all of the following criteria
except ________.
A) specification/methodology
B) error/accuracy
C) objective
D) dependability
Answer: C
43) Errors in the approach, research design, sampling, data collection, analysis, and reporting
stages of the project refer to the ________ criteria for evaluating secondary data.
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A) nature
B) objective
C) error/accuracy
D) currency
Answer: C
44) Which of the following statements is not true about the currency of secondary data?
A) The time lag between data collection and publication may be long.
B) The value of secondary data is diminished as it becomes dated.
C) The data may not be updated frequently enough for the problem at hand.
Answer: D
45) When evaluating secondary data, the ________ criteria asks the question of "why the data
were collected in the first place."
A) nature
B) objective
C) error/accuracy
D) currency
Answer: B
46) If the key variables have not been defined or are defined in a manner inconsistent with the
researcher's definition, then the usefulness of the data is limited. This statement refers to the
________ criteria for evaluating secondary data.
A) nature
B) objective
C) error/accuracy
D) currency
Answer: A
47) You are reviewing secondary data to help with a project concerning consumer preferences
for television programs based on viewer income. Which of the following statements would not
be of concern when considering the nature criteria for evaluating secondary data?
A) The relationships examined should be taken into account.
B) Secondary data may be measured in units that may not be appropriate for the current problem.
C) The researcher must determine if the data are accurate enough for the purpose of the present
study.
D) It is possible to reconfigure the available data so that the resulting data are more useful to the
problem at hand.
Answer: C
48) An overall indication of the dependability of data may be obtained by examining the
________, credibility, reputation, and ________ of the source.
A) accuracy; trustworthiness
B) trustworthiness; expertise
C) expertise; accuracy
D) None of the above is correct.
Answer: B
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49) Which of the following classifications of secondary data is not a classification for external
secondary data (Figure 4.1 in the text)?
A) published materials
B) computerized databases
C) ready-to-use
D) syndicated services
Answer: C
50) Creating a marketing database involves all of the following steps except ________.
A) transferring raw sales information to a microcomputer
B) enhancing consumer purchase information by overlaying it with demographic and
psychographic information
C) analyzing information in terms of a customer's activity over the life of the business
relationship
Answer: D
51) The CRM system used by Chrysler is an example of ________.

A) directory databases
B) database marketing
C) audits
Answer: B
52) Caterpillar needed to know what truck fleets should test their two new engines; how they
could get a marketing strategy that could be measured; and how to adjust for the coming
downturn in sales. To answer these questions, they gave their salesforce laptops and paid them
to enter customer information related to each sale they made. Caterpillar analyzed the newly
acquired customer data and developed strategies to address their marketing questions.
Caterpillar utilized ________.
A) secondary marketing
B) external marketing
C) database marketing
D) internal marketing
Answer: C
53) ________ are an excellent source of standard or recurring information.

A) Directories
B) Indexes
C) Guides
D) Statistical published data
Answer: C
54) Published external secondary data sources may be broadly classified as ________ or
________ sources (Figure 4.2 in the text).
A) public business; government
B) general business; government
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C) general business; federal

D) public business; federal
Answer: B
55) ________ are helpful for identifying individuals or organizations that collect specific data.
A) Directories
B) Indexes
C) Guides
D) Statistical published data
Answer: A
56) It is possible to locate information on a particular topic in several different publications by

using ________.
A) directories
B) indexes
C) guides
D) statistical published data
Answer: B
57) Examples of other government publications published by the federal government include all
of the following except ________.
A) Periodical Abstract
B) Business Conditions Digest
C) Statistical Abstract of the United States
D) Survey of Current Business
Answer: A
58) ________ are databases stored in computers that require a telecommunications network to
access.
A) Offline databases
B) Bibliographic databases
C) Online databases
D) Special purpose databases
Answer: C
59) You are researching secondary data on the shopping habits of households for your project. A
marketing research firm that had done research in the area has agreed to allow you to dial into
their mainframe computer to access the data. You will be accessing a(n) ________.
A) online database
B) special purpose database
C) offline database
D) customer database
Answer: A
60) You are researching secondary data on the shopping habits of households for your project.
You found a data source available via CD-ROM at the library. You are about to check out a(n)
________.
A) online database
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B) internet database
C) offline database
D) customer database
Answer: C
61) ________ are databases composed of citations to articles in journals, magazines, newspapers,
marketing research studies, technical reports, government documents, and the like.
A) Offline databases
B) Bibliographic databases
C) Online databases
D) Internet databases
Answer: B
62) InfoUSA (www.infousa.com) is a leading provider of sales and marketing support data.
InfoUSA provides data via a ________.
A) offline database
B) bibliographic database
C) online database
D) internet database
Answer: D
63) ________ databases provide information on individuals, organizations and services.

A) Special purpose
B) Bibliographic
C) Directory
D) Numeric
Answer: C
64) Which of the following is a disadvantage of audit services (Table 4.3 in the text)?
A) interviewer errors; respondent errors
B) data is lacking in terms of content, quantity, and quality
C) data may not be representative; quality of data limited
D) coverage may be incomplete; matching of data on the competitive activity may be difficult
Answer: D
65) Which of the following is a disadvantage of surveys (Table 4.3 in the text)?
A) interviewer errors; respondent errors
B) data is lacking in terms of content, quantity, and quality
C) data may not be representative; quality of data limited
D) coverage may be incomplete; matching of data on the competitive activity may be difficult
Answer: A
66) Which of the following is a characteristic of purchase panels (Table 4.3 in the text)?
A) household purchases recorded through electronic scanners in supermarkets
B) households provide specific information regularly over an extended period of time;
respondents asked to record specific behaviors as they occur
C) verification of product movement by examining physical records or performing inventory
analysis
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D) data banks on industrial establishment created through direct inquiries of companies, clipping
services, and corporate reports
Answer: B
67) Which of the following is a characteristic of audit services (Table 4.3 in the text)?
A) household purchases recorded through electronic scanners in supermarkets
B) households provide specific information regularly over an extended period of time;
respondents asked to record specific behaviors as they occur
C) verification of product movement by examining physical records or performing inventory
analysis
D) data banks on industrial establishment created through direct inquiries of companies, clipping
services, and corporate reports
Answer: C
68) Surveys can be used for which of the following purposes?

A) to evaluate advertising
B) to examine purchase and consumption behavior
C) for market segmentation
D) all of the above
Answer: D
69) Gallup and Robinson Magazine Impact Research Service (MIRS) test ads using an at-home
in-magazine context among widely dispersed samples. Test ads may naturally appear in the
magazine or are inserted as tip-ins. It provides strong, validated measures of recall, persuasion,
and ad reaction with responsive scheduling. The MIRS is an example of surveys being used
________.
A) to evaluate advertising
B) to examine purchase and consumption behavior
C) for market segmentation
D) all of the above
Answer: A
70) A data gathering technique that is comprised of samples of respondents whose television
viewing behavior is automatically recorded by electronic devices, supplementing the purchase
information recorded online or in a diary is referred to as ________.
A) scanner diary panels/cable TV
B) scanner panels
C) purchase panels
D) media panels
Answer: D
71) According to your text, volume tracking data and scanner panels with cable TV are sources
of scanner data. Which of the following is also a type of scanner data?
A) grocery panels
B) scanner panels
C) Both A and B are correct.
Answer: B
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72) Scanner data where panel members are identified by an ID card allowing each panel
member's purchases to be stored with respect to the individual shopper are referred to as
________.
A) scanner panels with cable TV
B) volume tracking data
C) scanner panels
Answer: C
73) The different types of scanner data are useful for a variety of purposes. Which of the
following purposes applies to scanner data?
A) data used for consumer beliefs
B) data used for establishing consumer attitudes
C) data used to determine customer motives
D) making advertising decisions, including budget, copy and media, pricing
Answer: D
74) The uses of retail and wholesale audit data include all of the following except ________.
A) identifying shelf space allocation and inventory problems
B) establishing profiles of specific user groups
C) developing sales potentials and forecasts
D) analyzing distribution problems
Answer: B
75) Information provided by industry services is useful for which of the following?
A) sales management decisions such as defining territories and setting quotas
B) advertising decisions such as allocating advertising budgets
C) segmenting the market and designing custom products and services for important segments
D) all of the above
Answer: D
76) ________ combines geography with demographic information and a company's sales data or
other proprietary information to develop thematic maps.
A) Single-source data
B) Demographic mapping
C) Computer mapping
D) Thematic mapping
Answer: C
77) Sales & Marketing Management's annual Survey of Buying Power provides data to help you
analyze each of your U.S. markets, whether they are cities, counties, metro areas, or states. What
of the following information is also true of the Survey of Buying Power?
A) It features statistics, rankings, and projections for every county and media market in the
United States with demographic broken out by age, race, city, county, and state.
B) It features information on retail spending; and projections for future growth in these areas.
C) It features a unique measure of spending power that takes population, EBI, and retail sales
into account to determine a market's ability to buy.
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D) All of the above are true.

Answer: B
78) Which of the following concerns are important when evaluating secondary data for
international projects?
A) Measurement units may not be equivalent across countries.
B) The accuracy of secondary data may vary from country to country.
D) None of the above are correct.
Answer: C
79) Which of the following practices might be unethical?

A) the use of secondary data alone when the research requires primary data collection
B) the client is billed a fixed fee for the project
C) the unnecessary collection of expensive primary data when the research problem can be
addressed based on secondary sources alone
Answer: D
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Chapter 5 Exploratory Research Design: Qualitative Research
1) Qualitative research is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small

samples that provides insights and understanding of the problem setting.
Answer: TRUE
2) Quantitative research seeks to quantify the data and, typically, applies some form of statistical
analysis.
Answer: TRUE
3) The findings of qualitative research should be regarded as conclusive and used to make
generalizations to the population of interest.
Answer: FALSE
4) Qualitative research procedures are classified as either descriptive or causal.

Answer: FALSE
5) Projective techniques are different from focus groups and depth interview techniques in that
projective techniques attempt to disguise the purpose of the research.
Answer: TRUE
6) The main purpose of focus groups is to gain insights by listening to a group of people from the
appropriate target market talk about issues of interest to the researcher.
Answer: TRUE
7) An indirect qualitative projective technique is best to use when conducting research to

determine what milk drinkers prefer to eat with their milk.
Answer: FALSE
8) A focus group generally includes 10 to 16 members.

Answer: FALSE
9) A focus group should be homogeneous in terms of demographic and socioeconomic

characteristics.
Answer: TRUE
10) Typical information obtained from the screening questionnaire includes product familiarity
and knowledge, usage behavior, attitudes toward and participation in focus groups, and standard
demographic characteristics.
Answer: TRUE
11) Use of a moderator's outline reduces some of the validity problems inherent in focus groups,
such as those caused by different moderators not covering the same content areas in comparable
ways.
Answer: FALSE
12) The number of focus groups that should be conducted on a single subject depends upon (1)
the nature of the issue, (2) the number of distinct market segments, (3) the number of new ideas
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generated by each successive group, and (4) time and cost.

Answer: TRUE
13) Resources permitting, one should conduct additional focus groups until the participants can
anticipate what will be said.
Answer: FALSE
14) Telesession groups are focus group sessions by Internet using chat rooms.
Answer: FALSE
15) Synergism, snowballing, simulation, and security are some of the advantages of focus
groups.
Answer: FALSE
16) One advantage of focus groups is synergism which results because the participants' feelings
are similar to those of other group members; they feel comfortable and therefore willing to
express their ideas and feelings.
Answer: FALSE
17) One advantage of focus groups is serendipity because ideas are more likely to arise out of the
blue in a group than in an individual interview.
Answer: TRUE
18) Focus groups can be misused and abused by considering the results as conclusive.
Answer: TRUE
19) The quality of focus group results depends heavily on the skills of the moderator.
Answer: TRUE
20) A disadvantage of focus groups is that the unstructured nature of the responses makes
coding, analysis, and interpretation difficult.
Answer: TRUE
21) Focus groups can be used to address substantive issues such as deciding on alternative
courses of action.
Answer: FALSE
22) Unlike traditional focus groups, online focus group participation is by invitation only.
Answer: FALSE
23) Participants in online focus groups receive a time, a URL, a room name, and a password via
e-mail.
Answer: TRUE
24) The cost of online focus groups is much less than for traditional focus groups. Firms are able
to keep costs between one-fifth and one-half the cost of traditional focus groups.
Answer: TRUE
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25) Only audio and visual stimuli can be tested via online focus groups.
Answer: TRUE
26) Online focus group participants don't have the potential to be distracted by external stimuli.
Answer: FALSE
27) Online focus groups are appropriate for every research situation.
Answer: FALSE
28) There are fewer people in an online focus group than in a traditional focus group (Table 5.3
in the text).
Answer: TRUE
29) During depth interviews, probing is of critical importance in obtaining meaningful responses
and uncovering hidden issues.
Answer: TRUE
30) Laddering requires interviewers to be trained in specific probing techniques in order to

develop a meaningful "mental map" of the consumer's view toward a target product.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 154-155
31) Symbolic analysis attempts to analyze the symbolic meaning of objects by comparing them
with their opposites.
Answer: TRUE
32) Depth interviews uncover less depth of insights than focus groups.
Answer: FALSE
33) In role playing, the researcher assumes that the respondents will project their own feelings
into the role.
Answer: TRUE
34) Projective techniques generally require personal interviews with highly trained interviewers.
This is an advantage of projective techniques.
Answer: FALSE
35) Data determination is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing
qualitative data.
Answer: FALSE
36) Qualitative research may reveal the differences between the foreign and domestic markets.
Answer: TRUE
37) To minimize negative effects that may arise from disguising the purpose of the qualitative
research, the respondents should be informed up front that the true purpose of the research is
being disguised so as not to bias the responses.
Answer: TRUE
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38) Focus groups, depth interviews, and projective techniques can be implemented over the
Internet.
Answer: TRUE
39) Baby boomers are a large consumer target for many products and "show and tell" focus
groups are being used by consumer researchers. Which of the following statements is not true
about "show and tell" focus groups?
A) Respondents' attitudes are uncovered by analyzing their responses to scenarios that are
deliberately unstructured, vague, and ambiguous.
B) They provide the needed insight into the core values boomers hold close to their hearts.
C) Participants bring in three or four items that represent their ideal environment.
D) Group discussion is centered on the items brought in for "show and tell."
Answer: A
40) Whenever a new marketing research problem is being addressed, ________ research must be
preceded by appropriate ________ research.
A) qualitative; quantitative
B) observational; experimental
C) quantitative; qualitative
D) experimental; observational
Answer: C
41) According to Table 5.1 in the text, which of the following does not apply to qualitative
research?
A) a small number of nonrepresentative cases
B) non-statistical data analysis
C) unstructured form of data collection
D) outcome is used to recommend a final course of action
Answer: D
42) There are several reasons to use qualitative research. Which of the following is not a reason
to use qualitative research?
A) It is not always possible, or desirable, to use fully structured or formal methods to obtain
information from respondents.
B) People may be unwilling or unable to answer certain questions.
C) People are unwilling to give truthful answers to questions that invade their privacy, embarrass
them, or have a negative impact on their ego or status.
Answer: D
43) The ________ is one type of qualitative research in which the purposes of the project are
disclosed to the respondent or are obvious, given the nature of the interview.
A) indirect approach
B) direct approach
C) focus group approach
D) descriptive approach
Answer: B
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44) An interview conducted by a trained moderator among a small group of respondents in an

unstructured and natural manner is a(n) ________.
A) depth interview
B) projective technique
C) association technique
D) focus group
Answer: D
45) Focus groups are a(n) ________ research procedure and projective techniques are a(n)
________ research procedure.
A) experimental; direct
B) indirect; direct
C) direct; experimental
D) direct; indirect
Answer: D
46) ________ are the most important qualitative research procedure.

A) Focus groups
B) Depth interviews
C) Projective techniques
D) Association techniques
Answer: A
47) Which of the following is not one of the key qualifications of focus group moderators?
A) joviality
B) kindness with firmness
C) flexibility
D) sensitivity
Answer: A
48) The procedure for planning and conducting focus groups is described in Figure 5.3 in the
text. Planning begins with ________.
A) specifying the objectives of qualitative research
B) writing a screening questionnaire
C) developing a moderator's guide
D) determining objectives of the marketing research project and defining the problem
Answer: D
49) Constructing a detailed moderator's outline for use during the focus group interviews
involves extensive discussions among the ________, ________, and ________.
A) researcher; moderator; and respondents.
B) researcher; client; moderator.
C) researcher; client; respondent.
D) client; respondent; moderator.
Answer: B
50) The Real Research Mall of Atlanta focus group example in the text used focus groups to
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uncover ________.
A) information on the mall visit experience
B) information on mall brand identity versus other malls
C) information on the brand value of the mall
D) all of the above
Answer: D
51) It is recommended that at least ________ focus groups be conducted.

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five
Answer: A
52) A focus group interview conducted by two moderators where one moderator is responsible
for the smooth flow of the session, and the other ensures that specific issues are discussed is
called a ________.
A) two-way focus group
B) dueling-moderator group
C) dual-moderator group
D) respondent-moderator group
Answer: C
53) Focus groups can use several variations of the standard procedure. Which of the following is
not one of the variations mentioned in your text?
A) respondent-moderator group
B) client-participant group
C) tag-team moderator group
D) mini-group
Answer: C
54) A focus group interview conducted by two moderators where the moderators deliberately
take opposite positions on the issues to be discussed is called a ________.
A) dueling-moderator group
B) two-way focus group
C) dual-moderator group
D) respondent-moderator group
Answer: A
55) One of the findings of the Mall of Atlanta focus group research mentioned in the text was
that respondents who go to the mall for entertainment try to hold costs to under $30, except for
special occasions. The client reviewed this information and decided to design a mall experience
package that would cost $29.95 The client has fallen victim to which disadvantage of focus
groups?
A) misuse
B) misrepresentation
C) messy
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Answer: D
56) Which of the following is a methodological application of focus groups?

A) obtaining impressions of new product concepts
B) generating alternative courses of action
C) Both B and D are correct.
D) generating hypotheses that can be tested quantitatively
Answer: C
57) Focus groups can be used to address substantive issues such as ________.
A) defining a problem more precisely
B) generating new ideas about older products
C) developing an approach to a problem
D) interpreting previously obtained quantitative results
Answer: B
58) Which statement is not true about online focus groups?

A) The group interaction lasts for about an hour.
B) The general practice is for moderators to pose their questions in all capital letters and the
respondents to respond using upper and lower case.
C) The whole process is much faster than the traditional method.
D) To enter the online focus group, participants must supply the room name, user name, and
password to the moderator via email.
Answer: D
59) Which of the following statements is not an advantage of online focus groups?
A) The researcher can reach segments that are usually hard to survey.
B) Researchers can re-contact group participants at a later date.
C) The cost of the online focus group is much less.
D) Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate.
Answer: D
60) Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of online focus groups?
A) Moderators may also be able to carry on side conversations with individual respondents,
probing deeper into interesting areas.
B) It can be difficult to verify that a respondent is a member of a target group.
C) Only audio and visual stimuli can be tested.
D) Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate.
Answer: A
61) Which of the situations mentioned below is not suitable for online focus groups?
A) highly emotional issues
B) companies that use the Internet to sell products or services and want to either gain market
share or gather intelligence
C) corporations that want to gather feedback on workplace issues like downsizing, job changes,
and diversity
Answer: A
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62) A ________ is an unstructured, direct, personal interview in which a single respondent is

probed by a highly skilled interviewer to uncover underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, and
feelings on a topic.
A) focus group
B) qualitative interview
C) projective interview
D) depth interview
Answer: D
63) Depth interviews are like focus group in all of the following ways except________.
A) both are unstructured interviews
B) both are direct ways of obtaining information
C) both are qualitative research methods
D) both are one-on-one interviews
Answer: D
64) "Why do you say that?", "That's interesting, can you tell me more?" or, "Would you like to
add anything else?" are examples of ________.
A) focusing
B) projecting
C) probing
Answer: C
65) ________ is a technique for conducting depth interviews in which a line of questioning
proceeds from product characteristics to user characteristics.
A) Hidden issue questioning
B) Symbolic analysis
C) Laddering
Answer: C
66) In a study the researcher was investigating attitudes toward airlines among male middle
managers. Each airline attribute, such as wide-body aircrafts, was probed (why do you like to
travel in wide-body aircrafts?) to determine why it was important (I can get more work done) and
then that reason was probed (I accomplish more), and so on (I feel good about myself). The
depth interview techniques used in the study is called ________.
A) hidden issue questioning
B) symbolic analysis
C) laddering
Answer: C
67) In a study the researcher was investigating attitudes toward airlines among male middle
managers. Questions asked included, "What would it be like if you could no longer use
airplanes?" Responses like, "Without planes, I would have to rely on e-mail, letters, and
telephone calls" were received. This suggests that what airlines sell to the managers is face-to-
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face communication. The depth interview techniques used in the study is called ________.
A) hidden issue questioning
B) symbolic analysis
C) laddering
Answer: B
68) ________ is a type of depth interview that attempts to locate personal sore spots related to
deeply felt personal concerns.
C) Laddering
Answer: A
69) ________ is a technique for conducting depth interviews in which the symbolic meaning of
objects is analyzed by comparing them with their opposites.
C) Laddering
Answer: B
70) In a depth interview, the interviewer should ________.

A) avoid appearing superior and put the respondent at ease
B) be detached and objective, yet personable
C) probe the respondent
D) all of the above
Answer: D
71) In a depth interview, the interviewer should ________.

A) not accept brief "yes" or "no" answers
B) not probe the respondent
C) ask questions in an informative manner
D) A and C are both correct
Answer: D
72) Depth interviews suffer from many of the disadvantages of focus groups and often to a
greater extent. Which of the following disadvantages is not shared with focus groups?
A) Skilled interviewers capable of conducting depth interviews are expensive and difficult to
find.
B) The lack of structure makes the results susceptible to the interviewer's influence.
C) The data obtained are difficult to analyze and interpret.
D) All of the above are shared with focus groups.
Answer: D
73) A(n) ________ is an unstructured, indirect form of questioning that encourages respondents
to project their underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, or feelings regarding the issues of
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concern.
A) projective technique
B) focus group
C) association technique
D) depth interview
Answer: A
74) In ________, an individual is presented with a stimulus and asked to respond with the first
thing that comes to mind.
A) completion techniques
B) focus groups
C) association techniques
D) depth interviews
Answer: C
75) Word association is the best known of the ________ techniques.

A) expressive
B) association
C) completion
D) construction
Answer: B
76) With ________ respondents are presented with a list of words, one at a time. After each
word, they are asked to give the first word that comes to mind.
A) word association
B) sentence completion
C) story completion
Answer: A
77) In word association, responses are analyzed by calculating ________.

A) the frequency with which any word is given as a response
B) the amount of time that elapses before a response is given
C) the number of respondents who do not respond at all to a test word within a reasonable period
of time
D) all of the above
Answer: D
78) ________ is a projective technique that requires the respondent to complete an incomplete
stimulus situation.
A) Association technique
B) Expressive technique
C) Construction technique
D) Completion technique
Answer: D
79) ________ is a projective technique in which respondents are presented with a number of
incomplete sentences and asked to complete them.
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A) Word association
B) Sentence completion
C) Story completion
D) Expression completion
Answer: B
80) ________ is a projective technique in which the respondents are provided with part of a story
and required to give the conclusion in their own words.
A) Word association
C) Story completion
D) Expression completion
Answer: C
81) ________ require the respondent to construct a response in the form of a story, dialogue, or
description.
A) Association techniques
B) Expressive techniques
C) Construction techniques
D) Impression techniques
Answer: C
82) In ________, cartoon characters are shown in a specific situation related to the problem. The
respondents are asked to indicate what one cartoon character might say in response to the
comments of another character.
A) picture response techniques
B) cartoon tests
C) third-person techniques
D) role playing
Answer: B
83) The two main expressive techniques are ________ and ________.
A) role playing; word association
B) role playing; third-person technique
C) word association; sentence completion
D) third-person technique; word association
Answer: B
84) ________ is a projective technique in which the respondent is presented with a verbal or
visual situation and asked to relate the beliefs and attitudes of a third person to the situation.
A) Role playing
C) Cartoon test
D) Third-person technique
Answer: D
85) In ________, respondents are asked to play the role or assume the behavior of someone else.
A) role playing
B) sentence completion
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C) cartoon test
D) third-party technique
Answer: A
86) Projective techniques are used less frequently than unstructured direct methods (focus groups
and depth interviews). A possible exception may be ________, which is used commonly to test
brand names and occasionally to measure attitudes about particular products, brands, packages,
or advertisements.
A) story completion
B) word association
C) sentence completion
D) cartoon tests
Answer: B
87) Which of the following guidelines does not enhance the usefulness of projective techniques?
A) Projective techniques should be used because the required information cannot be accurately
obtained by direct methods.
B) Projective techniques should be used for exploratory research to gain initial insights and
understanding.
C) Given their complexity, projective techniques should not be used naively.
Answer: D
88) ________ is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing
qualitative data. In this step, the researcher chooses which aspects of the data are emphasized,
minimized, or set aside for the project at hand.
A) Data display
B) Data reduction
C) Data determination
D) Conclusion drawing and verification
Answer: B
qualitative data. In this step, the researcher develops a visual interpretation of the data with the
use of such tools as a diagram, chart or matrix.
A) Data display
B) Data reduction
Answer: A
qualitative data. In this step, the researcher considers the meaning of analyzed data and assesses
its implications for the research question at hand.
A) Data display
B) Data reduction
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Answer: D
91) When conducting international marketing research, focus group moderators should not only
be trained in focus group methodology but should also be familiar with the ________ of the
country.
A) language
B) culture
C) patterns of social interaction
D) all of the above
Answer: D
92) Which of the following is not an ethical issue of concern to the researcher?
A) disguising the purpose of the research and the use of deceptive procedures
B) videotaping and recording the proceedings
C) comfort level of the respondents
Answer: D
93) The 2000, 2004 and 2008 presidential elections were cited in your text for negative attacks
by both the Republican and Democratic parties. The negative attacks were based on qualitative
marketing research used to help design the messages. Which ethical concern is this use of
marketing research related to?
A) disguising the purpose of the research and the use of deceptive procedures
B) using qualitative research for questionable purposes
C) comfort level of the respondents
Answer: B
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Chapter 6 Descriptive Research Design: Survey and Observation
1) With the survey method of obtaining information respondents are asked a variety of questions
regarding their behavior, intentions, attitudes, awareness, motivations, and demographic and
lifestyle characteristics.
Answer: TRUE
2) In structured data collection, a formal questionnaire is prepared and the questions are asked in
a prearranged order; thus the process is also direct. Direct means that the purpose of the project
is not disclosed to the respondents.
Answer: FALSE
3) The most popular data-collection method is the structured direct survey.

Answer: TRUE
4) Survey questionnaires may be administered in four major modes: (1) telephone interview, (2)
personal interviews, (3) mall interviews, and (4) electronic interviews (Figure 6.1 in the text).
Answer: FALSE
5) With computer automated telephone surveying, human intervention is needed to record the
questions to be asked during the phone survey.
Answer: TRUE
6) In the traditional mail interview, questionnaires are mailed to random potential respondents.
Answer: FALSE
7) A mail panel consists of a large, nationally representative sample of businesses that have
agreed to participate in periodic mail questionnaires and product tests.
Answer: FALSE
8) Because of the mail panel members' commitment, the response rates can approach 80 percent.
Answer: TRUE
9) Mail panels can be used to obtain information from the same respondents repeatedly.
Answer: TRUE
10) Electronic surveys can be conducted by e-mail or administered on the Internet or the Web.
Answer: TRUE
11) To conduct an e-mail survey, the survey is written within the body of the e-mail message.
Answer: TRUE
12) Not all survey methods are appropriate in a given situation.

Answer: TRUE
13) If the use of physical stimuli is necessary, such as the product, a product prototype,
commercials, or promotional displays during the interview, in-home interviews are preferable to
personal interviews conducted at central locations (mall intercept and CAPI).
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Answer: FALSE
14) Telephones offer access to geographically dispersed respondents and hard to reach areas.
Answer: TRUE
15) A sampling frame is a representation of the elements of the target population. It consists of a
list or set of directions for identifying the target population.
Answer: TRUE
16) The random digit dialing (rdd) technique is used to overcome the bias of business and recent
numbers.
Answer: FALSE
17) Personal interviews conducted at central locations (mall intercept and CAPI) offer the least
degree of environmental control.
Answer: FALSE
18) Mail surveys, mail panels, e-mail, and Internet surveys require a large field force.
Answer: FALSE
19) Less effort is required of the respondent in a personal interview than in a telephone or mail
interview.
Answer: TRUE
20) The potential for non-response bias increases as the response rate decreases.
Answer: TRUE
21) Computer assisted personal interviews tend to be the most expensive mode of data collection
per completed response.
Answer: FALSE
22) The various data-collection modes are mutually exclusive.

Answer: FALSE
23) Unstructured observation is most appropriate for conclusive research.

Answer: FALSE
24) In unstructured observation, potential for observer bias is high. For this reason, the
observation findings should be treated as hypotheses to be tested rather than as conclusive
findings.
Answer: TRUE
25) An example of structured observation would be an auditor performing inventory analysis in a

store.
Answer: TRUE
26) Observing children playing with new toys is an example of unstructured observation.
Answer: TRUE
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27) A primary method of observation using the Internet is to count the number of times a Web
page is visited.
Answer: TRUE
28) Voice pitch analysis measures emotional reactions through changes in the respondent's voice
and is a type of mechanical observation.
Answer: TRUE
29) Response latency is used as a measure of the relative preference for various alternatives.
Answer: TRUE
30) Generally, the pantry audit is conducted in conjunction with one of the survey methods.
Answer: TRUE
31) The pantry audit is a type of audit where the researcher inventories the brands, quantities,
and package sizes of products in a consumer's home.
Answer: TRUE
32) Content analysis could be profitably employed in the analysis of structured questions.
Answer: FALSE
33) It is best to view observation as a complement to survey methods, rather than as being in
competition with them.
Answer: TRUE
34) Questions that require respondents to choose from a set of predetermined answers are
________ questions.
A) dual response
B) fixed alternative
C) open-ended
Answer: B
35) Which of the following is a disadvantage of the survey method of data collection?
A) The questionnaire is simple to administer.
B) The data obtained are reliable because the responses are limited to the alternatives stated.
C) Wording questions properly is not easy.
D) Coding, analysis, and interpretation of data are relatively simple.
Answer: C
36) Telephone interviews may be further classified as traditional telephone interviews or

________ (Figure 6.1 in the text).
A) in-home
B) computer-assisted telephone interviews (CATI)
C) both A and B are correct
Answer: B
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37) Which telephone interview method involves phoning a sample of respondents and asking
them a series of questions with the interviewer using a paper questionnaire to record the
responses with a pencil?
A) traditional telephone
B) in-home
C) computer-assisted telephone interviewing (CATI)
D) Internet
Answer: A
38) ________ interviewing uses a computerized questionnaire administered to respondents over

the telephone.
A) Traditional telephone
B) In-home
C) Computer-assisted telephone interviews (CATI)
D) Internet
Answer: C
39) Which of the following statements is not correct about computer-assisted telephone
interviewing (CATI)?
A) The computer checks the responses for appropriateness and consistency.
B) Interviewing time is reduced, data quality is enhanced, and the laborious steps in the data-
collection process, coding questionnaires and entering the data into the computer, are eliminated.
C) Multiple questions appear on the screen at one time.
D) Interim and update reports on data collection or results can be provided almost
instantaneously.
Answer: C
40) Which of the following is not a personal interview method?

A) in-home
B) mall intercept
C) computer-assisted personal interview (CAPI)
D) e-mail
Answer: D
41) Which personal interviewing method utilizes help screens and courteous error messages?
A) in-home
B) mall intercept
C) computer-assisted personal interview (CAPI)
D) e-mail
Answer: C
42) Decisions related to the ________ portion of the mail interview package involve
sponsorship, personalization, and type of appeal (Table 6.1 in the text).
A) outgoing envelope
B) cover letter
C) questionnaire
D) incentive
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Answer: B
43) Decisions related to "monetary versus non-monetary" and "prepaid versus promised amount"
relate to which portion of the mail interview package?
A) outgoing envelope
B) cover letter
C) questionnaire
D) incentive
Answer: D
44) Limitations of e-mail surveys include all of the following except ________.
A) Questionnaires cannot utilize programmed skip patterns, logic checks, or randomization
B) Skipping instructions (e.g., "If the answer to question 5 is yes, go to question 9") must appear
explicitly, just as on paper
C) There is inherent self-selection bias
D) Some e-mail software products limit the length of the body of an e-mail message
Answer: C
45) Advantages of Web surveys over e-mail surveys include which of the following?
A) Graphs, images, animations, and links to other Web pages may be integrated into or around
the survey.
B) It is possible to validate responses as they are entered.
C) Skip patterns can be programmed and performed automatically.
Answer: D
46) The extent to which the respondent can interact with the interviewer and survey
questionnaire refers to the ________.
A) flexibility of data collection
B) sample control
C) response rate
D) control of data collection environment
Answer: A
47) The degree of interaction the respondent has with the interviewer and the questionnaire, as
well as the ability to actually see the questions, refers to the ________.
A) respondent control
B) sample control
C) diversity of questions that can be asked in a survey
Answer: C
48) Table 6.2 in the text provides a comparative evaluation of survey methods. Which two
methods were shown as high on the flexibility of data collection criteria?
A) in-home interviews; computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI)
B) in-home interviews; mall intercept interviews
C) Internet; mall intercept interviews
D) computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI); mall intercept interviews
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Answer: B
49) Table 6.2 in the text provides a comparative evaluation of survey methods. Mall intercept
surveys allow for diversity of questions. Which two additional methods are also shown as high
on the diversity of question criteria?
A) in-home interviews; computer assisted personal interviews (CAPI)
B) in-home interviews; computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI)
C) Internet; computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI)
D) computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI); mall-intercept interviews
Answer: A
50) The use of physical stimuli is not limited in ________.

A) traditional telephone interviews
B) CATI
C) e-mail surveys
D) mall-intercept interviews
Answer: D
51) The ability of the survey mode to reach the units specified in the sample effectively and
efficiently refers to the ________.
A) flexibility of data collection
B) sample control
C) diversity of questions that can be asked in a survey
Answer: B
52) Which of the following statements about sample control is true?

A) Mailing lists for mail surveys are sometimes unavailable, outdated, or incomplete.
B) It is possible to identify specific user groups within a mail panel and to direct the survey to
households with specific characteristics.
C) It can be difficult to prevent respondents from completing an Internet survey multiple times.
D) All of the above statements are true.
Answer: D
53) According to Table 6.2 in the text, the comparative evaluation of survey methods,
interviewers and supervisors involved in data collection refers to the ________ criteria.
A) response rate
B) control of field force
C) social desirability/sensitive information
D) perceived anonymity
Answer: B
54) Table 6.2 in the text provides a comparative evaluation of survey methods. Which two
methods are shown as low on the quantity of data criteria?
A) traditional telephone interviews; computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI)
B) in-home interviews; mall intercept interviews
C) Internet; mall intercept interviews
D) computer assisted telephone interviews (CATI); mall intercept interviews
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Answer: A
55) According to Table 6.2 in the text, the comparative evaluation of survey methods, the
percentage of the total attempted interviews that are completed refers to the ________ criteria.
A) response rate
Answer: A
56) According to Table 6.2 in the text, the comparative evaluation of survey methods, the
tendency of the respondents to give answers that are socially acceptable whether or not they are
true refers to the ________ criteria.
A) response rate
Answer: C
57) The Internet is the fastest method of obtaining data from a large number of respondents.
There are many reasons for this speed. Which of the following is not one of those reasons?
A) the speed with which the questionnaire can be created
B) the speed with which the incentive is sent
C) the speed with which the questionnaire is distributed to respondents
D) the speed with which the data are returned
Answer: B
58) Observational methods may be ________ or ________.

A) structured; unstructured
B) direct; indirect
C) conducted in a natural environment; conducted in a contrived environment
D) all of the above
Answer: D
59) ________ involves observation techniques where the researcher clearly defines the behaviors
to be observed and the methods by which they will be measured.
A) Natural observation
B) Contrived observation
C) Structured observation
D) Unstructured observation
Answer: C
60) ________ is observation that involves a researcher monitoring all relevant phenomenon,
without specifying the details in advance.
A) Natural observation
B) Contrived observation
C) Structured observation
D) Unstructured observation
Answer: D
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61) When Canon Cameras was losing market share in the United States to Minolta, Canon
decided that its distributor, Bell & Howell, was not giving adequate support. Canon sent
Tatehiro Tsuruta to the United States to look into the problem. On entering a camera store, he
would act just like a customer. He would note how the cameras were displayed and how the
clerks served customers. Canon utilized ________, ________ observation in a ________ setting.
A) unstructured; disguised; contrived
B) unstructured; disguised; natural
C) structured; undisguised; natural
D) structured; undisguised; contrived
Answer: B
62) Which statement is not true about natural observation?

A) The observed phenomenon will more accurately reflect the true phenomenon.
B) A disadvantage of natural observation is the cost of waiting for the phenomenon to occur.
C) A test kitchen set up in a shopping mall would be used in a natural observation.
D) A disadvantage is the difficulty of measuring the phenomenon in a natural setting.
Answer: C
63) In the department store project, license plate observations could be used to establish the
primary trading area of a shopping mall. Observers record the license plate numbers of the
automobiles in a parking lot. This is an example of ________.
A) mechanical observation
B) personal observation
C) content analysis
D) trace analysis
Answer: B
64) Nielsen uses audimeters attached to television sets to continually record what channel the set
is tuned to. This is an example of ________.
C) content analysis
D) trace analysis
Answer: A
65) ________ includes observation as well as analysis.

A) Trace analysis
B) Mechanical observation
C) Personal observation
D) Content analysis
Answer: D
66) In the department store patronage project, ________ may be used to analyze magazine
advertisements of the sponsoring and competing stores to compare their projected images.
C) content analysis
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D) trace analysis
Answer: C
67) ________ is an approach in which data collection is based on physical traces, or evidence, of
past behavior.
A) Mechanical observation
B) Personal observation
C) Content analysis
D) Trace analysis
Answer: D
68) In the context of the department store patronage project, analyzing store charge card slips to
examine customer store credit usage behaviors is an example of ________.
C) content analysis
D) trace analysis
Answer: D
69) Which of the following marketing applications is not an example of trace analysis?
A) A sample of 100 magazines were examined to determine how the portrayal of women in U.S.
magazine advertisements has changed over the past 10 years.
B) The selective erosion of tiles in a museum indexed by the replacement rate was used to
determine the relative popularity of exhibits.
C) The age and condition of cars in a parking lot were used to assess the affluence of customers.
D) The magazines people donated to charity were used to determine people's favorite magazines.
Answer: A
70) Which statement is false concerning the different observation methods?

A) Mechanical observation can vary widely from low to high structure depending upon on the
methods used.
B) The degree of disguise is low in the case of audits, as it is difficult to conceal the identity of
auditors.
C) Observation bias is high in the case of mechanical observation because a human observer is
involved.
D) The ability to observe in a natural setting is low in trace analysis because the observation
takes place after the behavior has occurred.
Answer: C
71) Which of the following advantages is not a reason why data analysis bias is low for audits
and content analysis?
A) because the variables are precisely defined
B) because the phenomenon to be observed can be recorded continuously
C) because the data are quantitative
D) because statistical analysis is conducted
Answer: B
72) ________ is a method of last resort.

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A) The mail interview

B) Content analysis
C) Trace analysis
D) The mall intercept interview
Answer: C
73) Which of the following advantages is the greatest advantage of observation methods?
A) If the observed phenomenon occurs frequently or is of short duration, observational methods
may be cheaper and faster than survey methods.
B) The data obtained are reliable because the responses are limited to the alternatives stated.
C) Observational methods permit measurement of actual behavior rather than reports of intended
or preferred behavior.
D) Coding, analysis, and interpretation of data are relatively simple.
Answer: C
74) The most serious disadvantage of observation is ________.

A) if the observed phenomenon occurs frequently or is of short duration, observational methods
may be cheaper and faster than survey methods.
B) the reasons for the observed behavior may not be determined because little is known about the
underlying motives, beliefs, attitudes, and preferences.
C) observational methods permit measurement of actual behavior rather than reports of intended
or preferred behavior.
D) observational data is often time consuming and expensive and it is difficult to observe certain
forms of behavior, such as personal activities.
Answer: B
75) Which of the following statements is true about ethnographic research?

A) It is the study of human behavior in its natural context and involves observation of behavior
and setting along with depth interviews.
B) Sometimes audio and visual recordings are obtained.
D) None are correct.
Answer: C
76) ________ involves trained observers posing as consumers and shopping at company  or
competitor-owned stores to collect data about customer-employee interaction and other
marketing variables. (Choose the best answer.)
A) Personal observation
B) Structured observation
C) Mystery shopping
D) Contrived observation
Answer: C
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Marketing Research: An Applied Orientation, 6e (Malhotra)

Chapter 7 Causal Research Design: Experimentation
1) Causality refers to when the occurrence of X causes the occurrence of Y.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
2) The everyday meaning of causality is more appropriate to marketing research than is the
scientific meaning.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
3) The conditions of concomitant variation, time order of occurrence of variables and elimination
of other possible causal factors, are necessary but not sufficient to demonstrate causality.
Answer: TRUE
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
LO : 1
4) Concomitant variation is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or
vary together in the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
5) Evidence pertaining to concomitant variation can only be obtained in a qualitative manner.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
6) In an after-the-fact examination of a situation, we can confidently rule out all other causal
factors.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
7) With experimental designs, it is possible to control for some of the other causal factors.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
1
Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. publishing as Prentice Hall

lOMoARcPSD|16784245
8) Evidence of concomitant variation, time order of occurrence of variables, and elimination of

other possible causal factors, when combined, demonstrate conclusively that a causal
relationship exists.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
9) Price levels, package designs, and advertising themes are examples of independent variables
manipulated by the researcher.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
10) Independent variables are variables or alternatives that are manipulated and whose effects are
measured and compared.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
11) Test units are individuals, organizations, or other entities whose response to independent
variables or treatments is being studied.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
12) Independent variables are the variables that measure the effect of the dependent variables on
the test units.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
13) Extraneous variables are all variables other than the independent variables that affect the
response of the test units.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
14) An experiment is formed when the researcher manipulates one or more dependent variables
and measures their effect on one or more independent variables, while controlling for the effect
of extraneous variables.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
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15) If the goal of the researcher is to make valid generalizations to a larger population of interest,
then, the researcher is concerned with internal validity.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
16) There is no problem developing experimental designs that have high levels of both internal
and external validity.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
17) To control for extraneous variables, a researcher may conduct an experiment in an artificial
environment. This enhances external validity, but it may limit the generalizability of the results,
thereby reducing internal validity.
Answer: FALSE
AACSB: Analytic Skills
LO : 3
18) History (H) refers to the occurrence of events before the experiment.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
19) The longer the time interval between observations, the greater the possibility that history will
confound an experiment.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
20) Extraneous variables are also called confounding variables because unless they are controlled
for, they affect the independent variable and thus confound the results.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
21) Matching is a method of controlling extraneous variables that involve matching test units on
a set of key background variables before assigning them to the treatment conditions.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
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22) Experimental designs may be classified as preexperimental, true experimental, quasi-

experimental, or statistical.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
23) Also known as the after-only design, the one-shot case study may be symbolically
represented as:
X O1.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
24) In practice, a control group is sometimes defined as the group that receives the current level
of marketing activity, rather than a group that receives no treatment at all because it is difficult to
reduce current marketing activities, such as advertising and personal selling, to zero.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
25) The distinguishing feature of the true experimental designs, as compared to preexperimental
designs, is lack of randomization.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
26) Quasi-experimental designs are useful because they can be used in cases when true
experimentation cannot, and because they are quicker and less expensive.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
27) Full experimental control is available in quasi-experimental designs; therefore, the researcher
does not need to take into account the specific variables that are not controlled.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
28) Time series design is a quasi-experimental design that involves periodic measurements on
the dependent variable for a group of test units.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
4

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29)
The above design is an example of a multiple time series design.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
30) When more than one variable must be controlled, the researcher must use true experimental
designs.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
31) A Latin square is conceptualized as a table, with the rows and the columns representing the
blocks in the two external variables.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
32) Unlike the randomized block design and the Latin square, factorial designs allow for
interactions between variables.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
33) Factorial design is a true experimental design that is used to measure the effects of two or
more independent variables at various levels and to allow for interactions between variables.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
34) The main disadvantage of a factorial design is that the number of treatment combinations
increases multiplicatively with an increase in the number of variables or levels.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
35) A field environment is synonymous with actual market conditions.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
5

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36) Field experiments have some advantages over laboratory experiments. The field experiment
offers a high degree of control because it isolates the experiment in a carefully monitored
environment.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 5
37) The Internet can provide a mechanism for controlled experimentation, although in a
laboratory type of environment.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
38) All of the types of experimental designs mentioned in the chapter on Causal Research Design
(Latin Square, factorial, true experimental, and preexperimental designs for example) can be
implemented on the Internet.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
39) Only causal designs are truly appropriate for inferring cause-and-effect relationships.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
40) Descriptive survey studies do not meet all conditions required for causality.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
41) Experimentation is becoming increasingly important in marketing research, but there are
limitations of time, cost, and administration of an experiment.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
42) Standard text markets can cost as much as $1 million; simulated test markets cost less than
10 percent as much.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 6
6

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43) In many countries, the marketing, economic, structural, information, and technological
environments are not developed to the extent that they are in the United States.
Answer: TRUE
AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity
LO : 7
44) The internal and external validity of field experiments conducted overseas is generally lower
than in the United States.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 7
45) Debriefing occurs after the experiment and entails informing test subjects what the
experiment was about and how the experimental manipulations were performed
Answer: TRUE
AACSB: Ethical Reasoning
LO : 8
46) The scientific concept of causality is complex. "Causality" means something very different to
the average person on the street than to a scientist. If the ordinary meaning of a statement is "X
is the only cause of Y," its related scientific meaning is: ________.
A) the occurrence of X makes the occurrence of Y
B) we can never prove that X is a cause of Y. At best, we can infer that X is a cause of Y
C) X is only one of a number of possible causes of Y
D) None of the above is correct.
Answer: C
LO : 1
47) The conditions that must be satisfied before making causal inferences include all of the
following except ________.
A) time order of occurrence of variables
B) role of evidence
C) concomitant variation
D) elimination of other possible factors
Answer: B
LO : 1
7

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48) ________ is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary together
in the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration.
A) The time order of occurrence of variables
B) The role of evidence
C) Concomitant variation
D) The elimination of other possible factors
Answer: C
LO : 1
49) The statement 'An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has
taken place,' refers to ________.
A) the time order of occurrence of variables
B) the role of evidence
D) the elimination of other possible factors
Answer: A
LO : 1
50) Which of the following statements is not true concerning the time order of occurrence of
variables?
A) In an after-the-fact examination of the situation, we can never confidently rule out all other
causal factors.
B) The causing event must occur either before or simultaneously with the effect; it cannot occur
afterwards.
C) An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has taken place.
D) It is possible for each event in a relationship to be both a cause and an effect of the other
event.
Answer: A
LO : 1
51) ________ means that the factor or variable being investigated should be the only possible
causal explanation.
A) The time order of occurrence of variables
B) The role of evidence
C) Concomitant variation
D) The absence of other possible causal factors
Answer: D
LO : 1
8

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52) When considering ________, accumulated evidence from several investigations increases
our confidence that a causal relationship exists.
A) the time order of occurrence of variables
B) the role of evidence
D) the elimination of other possible factors
Answer: B
LO : 1
53) Experimental design is the set of experimental procedures specifying the test units and
sampling procedures and all of the following except ________.
A) specifying the independent variables
B) specifying the dependent variables
C) specifying the plan for data analysis
D) specifying how to control the extraneous variables
Answer: C
LO : 1
54) In the New York coupon experiment mentioned in your text, the experiment was conducted
to test the effects of the face value of coupons on the likelihood of coupon redemption. Subjects
were randomly assigned to 2 treatment groups. One group was offered 15-cent coupons and the
other 50-cent coupons for four products. During the interviews, the respondents answered
questions about which brands they used and how likely they were to cash coupons of the given
face value the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the dependent variable that
was ________.
A) brand usage
B) the value of the coupon (15-cent versus 50-cent coupon)
C) the likelihood of cashing the coupon
D) individual shoppers
Answer: C
LO : 1
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face value the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the independent variable
that was manipulated was ________.
A) brand usage
Answer: B
LO : 1
face value the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the test units were
________.
A) brand usage
Answer: D
LO : 1
57) Using the set of symbols commonly used in marketing research to denote experimental
designs, which symbol below represents the exposure of a group to an independent variable,
treatment, or event the effects of which are to be determined?
A) T
B) O
C) R
D) X
Answer: D
LO : 1
10

lOMoARcPSD|16784245
designs, which symbol below represents the random assignment of test units or groups to
separate treatments?
A) T
B) O
C) R
D) X
Answer: C
LO : 1
designs, which symbol below represents the process of observation or measurement of the
dependent variable on the test units or group of units?
A) T
B) O
C) R
D) X
Answer: B
LO : 1
60) Which experimental design means that two groups of test units were randomly assigned to
two different treatment groups at the same time, and the dependent variable was measured in the
two groups simultaneously?
A) R X1 O1
R X2 O2
B) R X1 O1
O2 X2 O2
C) X O1 O2
X O1 O2
D) R X1 O1
R X1 O1
Answer: A
LO : 1
11

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61) ________ is a measure of accuracy of an experiment. It measures whether the manipulation

of the independent variables, or treatments, actually caused the effects on the dependent
variable(s).
A) External validity
B) Extraneous validity
C) Internal validity
Answer: C
LO : 2
62) All of the following statements are true about external validity except ________.
A) threats to external validity arise when the specific experimental conditions do not realistically
take into account the interactions of other relevant variables in the real world.
B) external validity is the basic minimum that must be present in an experiment before any
conclusion about treatment effects can be made
C) factors that threaten internal validity may also threaten external validity, the most serious of
these being extraneous variables.
D) A and C are true
Answer: D
LO : 2
63) ________ is a determination of whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the

experiment can be generalized. Can the results be generalized beyond the experimental situation
and if so, to what populations, settings, times, independent variables and dependent variables can
the results be projected?
A) External validity
B) Extraneous validity
C) Internal validity
Answer: A
LO : 2
64) ________ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to changes in the test units themselves
that occur with the passage of time.
A) Mortality
B) Interactive testing effect
C) Maturation
D) Main testing effect
Answer: C
LO : 3
12

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65) ________ refers to an effect of testing occurring when a prior observation affects a latter
observation.
A) Mortality
C) Maturation
Answer: D
LO : 3
66) ________ refers to an effect in which a prior measurement affects the test unit's response to
the independent variable.
A) Mortality
C) Maturation
Answer: B
LO : 3
67) ________ refers to an extraneous variable involving changes in the measuring instrument or
in the observers or scores themselves.
A) Instrumentation
B) Statistical regression
C) Selection bias
Answer: A
LO : 3
68) ________ refers to an extraneous variable that occurs when test units with extreme scores
move closer to the average score during the course of the experiment.
A) Instrumentation
C) Selection bias
Answer: B
LO : 3
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69) ________ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the improper assignment of test
units to treatment conditions.
A) Instrumentation
C) Selection bias
Answer: C
LO : 3
70) ________ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the loss of test units while the
experiment is in progress.
A) Mortality
C) Maturation
Answer: A
LO : 3
71) If the experimental design called for the respondents to be randomly assigned to one of three
experimental groups and for one of three versions of a test commercial to be randomly
administered to each group, this design would be using ________.
A) design control
B) statistical control
C) randomization
D) matching
Answer: C
LO : 3
72) ________ involves measuring the extraneous variables and adjusting for their effects through
statistical analysis.
A) Design control
B) Statistical control
C) Randomization
D) Matching
Answer: B
LO : 3
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73) If in test marketing a new product, the researcher ensures that the product is positioned in the
correct aisle in each store and obtains the right level of store acceptance and all commodity
volume distribution, more than likely, the researcher used ________ to help control for
extraneous variables.
A) design control
B) statistical control
C) randomization
D) matching
Answer: A
LO : 3
74) The one-group pretest-posttest is a type of ________. These designs do not control for
extraneous factors by randomization.
A) quasi-experimental design
B) true experimental design
C) statistical design
D) preexperimental design
Answer: D
LO : 4
75) Pretest-posttest control group and Solomon four-group designs are ________ distinguished
by the fact that the researcher can randomly assign test units to experimental groups and also
randomly assign treatments to experimental groups.
A) quasi-experimental designs
B) true experimental designs
C) statistical designs
D) preexperimental designs
Answer: B
LO : 4
76) ________ result when the researcher is unable to achieve full manipulation of scheduling or
allocation of treatments to test units but can still apply part of the apparatus of true
experimentation.
A) Quasi-experimental designs
B) True experimental designs
C) Statistical designs
D) Preexperimental designs
Answer: A
LO : 4
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77) ________ allow for the statistical control and analysis of external variables.
A) Quasi-experimental designs
B) True experimental designs
C) Statistical designs
D) Preexperimental designs
Answer: C
LO : 4
78) Which of the following is true of the one-shot case study preexperimental design (X O1)?
A) It does not provide a basis of comparing the level of O1 to what would happen when X was
absent.
B) There is no random assignment of test units.
D) In this design, a group of test units is measured twice.
Answer: C
LO : 4
79) The one-group pretest-posttest design may be symbolized as O1 X2 O2. In this

design, a group of test units is measured ________.
A) once
B) twice
C) not at all
Answer: B
LO : 4
80) A ________ design to measure the effectiveness of a test commercial for Sears would be
implemented as follows. Respondents are recruited to central theater locations in different test
cities. At the central location, respondents are first administered a personal interview to
measure, among other things, attitudes toward the store (O1). Then they watch a TV program,
the respondents are again administered a personal interview to measure attitudes towards the
store (O2). The effectiveness of the test commercial is measured as O2 - O1.
A) one-shot case study
B) pretest-posttest control group
C) static group
D) one-group pretest-posttest
Answer: D
LO : 4
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81) A ________ design to measure the effectiveness of a test commercial for Sears would be
implemented as follows. Two groups of respondents would be recruited on the basis of
convenience. Only the experimental group would be exposed to the TV program containing the
test (Sears) commercial. Then attitudes toward the department store of both the experimental
and control group respondents would be measured. The effectiveness of the test commercial is
measured as O1 - O2.
A) one-shot case study
B) pretest-posttest control group
C) static group
Answer: C
LO : 4
82) The static group is a two-group experimental design. One group, called the ________, is
exposed to the treatment, and the other, called the ________, is not. Measurements on both
groups are made only after the treatment, and test units are not assigned at random.
A) experimental group (EG); control group (CG)
B) experimental group (EG); random group (RG)
C) pretest group (PG); control group (CG)
D) control group (CG); experimental group (EG)
Answer: A
LO : 4
83)
In the pretest-posttest control group design shown above, selection bias is eliminated by
________.
A) design control
B) randomization
C) matching
D) statistical control
Answer: B
LO : 4
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84)
The true experimental design shown above is a ________ design.

A) pretest-posttest control group
B) one-shot case study
C) post-test-only control group
Answer: C
LO : 4
85) In the posttest-only control group design, the treatment effect (TE) is obtained by ________.
A) TE= O1 - O2
B) TE= (O1 - O2) - (O3 - O4)
C) TE= (O2 - O1) - (O4 - O3)
D) TE= O1
Answer: A
LO : 4
86) Which of the following statements is true about the Solomon four-group design?
A) The Solomon four-group design should be used to examine the changes in the attitudes of
individual respondents.
B) The Solomon four-group design explicitly controls for interactive testing effect.
C) The Solomon four-group design is expensive and time consuming to implement.
Answer: D
LO : 4
87) O1 O2 O3 O4 O5 X O6 O7 O8 O9 O10
The above design is an example of a ________.
A) one group pretest-posttest design
B) multiple time series design
C) pretest-posttest control group design
D) time series design
Answer: D
LO : 4
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88) The major weakness of the time series design is the failure to control ________.
A) mortality
B) history
C) selection bias
D) instrumentation
Answer: B
LO : 4
89) The effectiveness of a test commercial (X) may be examined by broadcasting the commercial
a predetermined number of times and examining the data from a preexisting test panel. Although
the marketer can control the scheduling of the test commercial, it is uncertain when or whether
the panel members are exposed to it. The panel members' purchases before, during, and after the
campaign are examined to determine whether the test commercial has a short-term effect, a long-
term effect, or no effect. A ________ design was used in this research project.
A) pretest-posttest control group
B) time series
C) one-group pretest-posttest design
D) multiple time series design
Answer: B
LO : 4
90) Which of the following statements is an advantage of statistical designs?

A) The effects of more than one independent variable can be measured.
B) Specific extraneous variables can be statistically controlled.
C) Economical designs can be formulated when each test unit is measured more than once.
D) All of the statements are advantages.
Answer: D
LO : 4
91) ________ is a statistical design in which the test units are blocked on the basis of an external
variable to ensure that the various experimental and control groups are matched closely on that
variable.
A) Randomized block design
B) Latin square design
C) Factorial design
D) Solomon four-group design
Answer: A
LO : 4
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92) What is the main limitation of randomized block designs?

A) They require an equal number of rows, columns, and treatment levels, which is sometimes
problematic.
B) They do not allow the researcher to examine interactions of the external variables with each
other or with the independent variable.
C) The researcher can control for only one external variable.
D) The number of treatment combinations increases multiplicatively with an increase in the
number of variables or levels.
Answer: C
LO : 4
93) ________ is a statistical design that allows for the statistical control of two non-interacting
external variables in addition to the manipulation of the independent variable.
C) Factorial design
Answer: B
LO : 4
94) Which of the following statements is a limitation of Latin square designs?

problematic.
Answer: D
LO : 4
95) ________ is a statistical experimental design that is used to measure the effects of two or
more independent variables at various levels and to allow for interactions between variables.
C) Factorial design
Answer: C
LO : 4
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96) What is the main disadvantage of factorial designs?

problematic.
D) The number of treatment combinations increases multiplicatively with an increase in the
number of variables or levels.
Answer: D
LO : 4
97) Which statement is not true about laboratory experiments?

A) The laboratory environment offers a high degree of control because it isolates the experiment
in a carefully monitored environment.
B) The artificiality of the environment may cause reactive error, in that the respondents react to
the situation itself, rather than to the independent variable.
C) Laboratory experiments are likely to have higher external validity than field experiments.
D) Laboratory experiments allow for more complex designs than field experiments.
Answer: C
LO : 5
98) Which of the following statements is true when considering experimental versus non-
experimental designs?
A) It is difficult in descriptive studies to establish the prior equivalence of the respondent groups
with respect to both the independent and dependent variables. However, experiments can
establish this equivalence.
B) Descriptive research offers little control over other possible causal factors.
C) In descriptive research, it is also difficult to establish time order of occurrence of variables.
However, in an experiment, the researcher controls the timing of the measurements and the
introduction of the treatment.
Answer: D
LO : 5
99) Which of the following is a reason why experiments may be hard to administer?
A) It may be impossible to control for the effects of the extraneous variables.
B) Competitors may deliberately contaminate the results of a field experiment.
C) Both A and B are reasons why experiments may be hard to administer.
D) Neither A nor B is a reason why experiments may be hard to administer.
Answer: D
LO : 5
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100) A ________ is a test market in which the product is sold through regular distribution
channels.
A) Simulated test market
B) Partial test market
C) Controlled test market
D) Standard test market
Answer: D
LO : 6
101) Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?

A) It is a one-shot case study.
B) Test markets are selected and the product is sold through regular distribution channels.
C) Where external validity is important, at least four test markets should be used.
D) All statements are correct.
Answer: D
LO : 6
102) Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?

A) One or more combinations of marketing mix variables (product, price, distribution, and
promotional levels) are employed.
B) While a firm's test marketing is in progress, competitors have an opportunity to beat it to the
national market.
C) Competitors often take actions such as increasing their promotional efforts to contaminate the
test marketing program.
D) All statements are correct.
Answer: D
LO : 6
103) Which statement is not true about simulated test markets?

A) While a firm's test marketing is in progress, competitors have an opportunity to beat it to the
national market.
B) Competitors often take actions such as increasing their promotional efforts to contaminate the
test marketing program.
C) Both A and B are not true about simulated test markets.
D) They yield mathematical estimates of market share based on initial reaction of consumers to a
new product.
Answer: C
LO : 6
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104) A ________ is a test marketing program conducted by an outside research company in field
experimentation. The research company guarantees distribution of the product in retail outlets
that represent a pre-determined percentage of the market.
Answer: C
LO : 6
105) A ________ is a quasi-test market in which respondents are pre-selected, then interviewed
and observed on their purchases and attitudes toward the product.
Answer: A
LO : 6
106) Which statement is not true about why it is difficult to conduct field experiments in the
international arena?
A) In many countries, the TV stations are owned and operated by the government with severe
restrictions on television advertising. This makes field experiments manipulating advertising
levels extremely difficult.
B) The lack of major supermarkets in the Baltic states makes it difficult to conduct field
experiments to determine the effect of in-store promotions on the sales of products.
C) Even when basic infrastructures such as roads, transportation, and warehouse facilities are
adequate, they do not help in achieving desired levels of distribution.
D) Even when experiments are designed, it is difficult to control for the time order of occurrence
of variables and the absence of other possible causal factors, two of the necessary conditions for
causality.
Answer: C
LO : 7
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107) Which of the following is an ethical concern associated with doing experiments?
A) how to disguise the purpose of the research in a manner that does not violate the rights of the
respondents
B) how to find respondents for the experiment
C) ensuring that the appropriate experimental design for the problem was used
Answer: D
LO : 8
108) Which of the following is not true about the debriefing procedure?
A) After the data have been collected, the true purpose of the study and the nature of the disguise
should be fully explained to the respondents and they should be given an opportunity to
withdraw their information.
B) Debriefing can alleviate stress and make the experiment a learning experience for the
respondents.
C) Inform the respondents at the beginning that the experiment has been disguised.
D) Both A and C are not true.
Answer: C
LO : 8
24

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Chapter 8 Measurement and Scaling: Fundamentals and Comparative Scaling
1) When we measure the perceptions, attitudes, and preferences of consumers, we are not
measuring the object but some characteristic of it.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
2) In measurement, when assigning numbers to the characteristics there must be a one-to-one

correspondence between the numbers and the characteristics being measured.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
3) Measurement involves creating a continuum upon which measured objects are located.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
4) The four basic scale characteristics are nominal, order, distance and origin.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
5) The origin characteristic means that the scale has no unique or true zero point.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
6) If a scale has the description characteristic, it also has order.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
7) The origin is the highest level characteristic, i.e., a scale that has origin also possesses all the
other basic characteristics.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
8) There are three primary scales of measurement: nominal, ordinal, and ratio.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
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9) A nominal scale can only involve the assignment of numbers; alphabets or symbols cannot be
assigned.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
10) Preference rankings, market position, and social class are examples of interval scales.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
11) Only a limited number of statistics, all of which are based on frequency counts, are
permissible on the numbers in a nominal scale.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
12) An ordinal scale indicates relative position and the magnitude of the differences between the
objects.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
13) In addition to the counting operation allowable for nominal scale data, ordinal scales permit
the use of statistics based on percentiles.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
14) Because the zero point is fixed in interval scales, it is not meaningful to take ratios of scale
values. Ratios of differences between scale values are permissible.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
15) Statistical techniques that may be used on interval scale data include all of those that can be
applied to nominal, ordinal, and ratio data.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
16) Ratio scales allow proportionate transformations of the form y = bx, where b is a positive
constant. One can add an arbitrary constant, as in the case of an interval scale.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
26

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17) All statistical techniques can be applied to ratio data.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
18) It is possible to construct a nominal scale that provides partial information on order (the
partially ordered scale).
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
19) Comparative scales involve the direct comparison of stimulus objects.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
20) In non-comparative scales, the scaling of each object is dependent on the others in the
stimulus set.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
21) Non-comparative scaling data are generally assumed to be interval or ratio scaled.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
22) In paired comparison scaling, the data obtained are interval in nature.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
23) Transitivity of preference is an assumption made in order to convert constant sum data to
rank order data. It implies that if brand A is preferred to brand B and brand B is preferred to
brand C, then brand A is preferred to brand C.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
24) Paired comparisons resemble the marketplace situation that involves selection from multiple
alternatives.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
27

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25) Paired comparison scaling is useful when the number of brands is large, because it requires
direct comparison and overt choice.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
26) Rank order scaling is commonly used to measure preferences for brands as well as attributes.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
27) In constant sum scaling, if an attribute is twice as important as some other attribute, it
receives twice as many points.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
28) In constant sum scaling, respondents allocate a constant sum of units, such as points, dollars
or chips among a set of stimulus objects with respect to some criterion.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
29) Constant sum scale data are sometimes treated as metric.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
30) The constant sum should be considered an ordinal scale.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
31) Q-sort scaling was developed to discriminate quickly among a relatively small number of
objects.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
32) When using constant sum scales, if respondents allocate more points than those allotted, the
researcher must modify such data in some way or eliminate the respondent from analysis.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
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33) From the viewpoint of the respondents, ratio scales are the simplest to use, whereas the
nominal scales are the most complex.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
34) In the four primary scales, the level of measurement increases from ordinal to nominal to
ratio to interval scale. This increase in measurement level is obtained at the cost of complexity.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
35) It is the obligation of the researcher to obtain data that are most appropriate, given the
research questions to be answered.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 6
36) When ordinal scaled data are collected, statistical procedures developed for use with interval
or ratio data should be used.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 6
37) ________ is the assignment of numbers or other symbols to characteristics of objects

according to certain pre-specified rules.
A) Ranking
B) Measurement
C) Scaling
D) Rating
Answer: B
LO : 1
38) ________ is the generation of a continuum upon which measured objects are located.
A) Ranking
B) Measurement
C) Scaling
D) Rating
Answer: C
LO : 1
29

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39) Which statement is not correct about measurement?

A) The assignment of numbers to characteristics must be isomorphic.
B) The rules for assigning numbers should be standardized and applied uniformly.
C) The placement of individual companies on the annual revenue continuum represents
measurement.
D) All of the above statements are not true.
Answer: C
LO : 1
40) Consider a scale from 1 to 100 for locating consumers according to the characteristic
"attitude toward department stores." Each respondent is assigned a number from 1 to 100
indicating the degree of (un)favorableness, with 1 = extremely unfavorable, and 100 = extremely
favorable. ________ is the actual assignment of a number from 1 to 100 to each respondent.
________ is the process of placing the respondents on a continuum with respect to their attitude
toward department stores.
A) Measurement; Scaling
B) Scaling; Ranking
C) Scaling; Measurement
D) Ranking; Measurement
Answer: A
LO : 1
41) A(n) ________ is a scale whose numbers serve only as labels or tags for identifying and
classifying objects with a strict one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the objects.
A) ordinal scale
B) interval scale
C) ratio scale
D) nominal scale
Answer: D
LO : 3
42) When a ________ scale is used for the purpose of identification, there is a strict one-to-one
correspondence between the numbers and the objects.
A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio
Answer: A
LO : 3
30

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43) When used for classification purposes, the ________ scaled numbers serve as labels for
classes or categories.
A) ordinally
B) intervally
C) nominally
D) ratio scale
Answer: C
LO : 3
44) Which of the following statistics is not permissible with nominally scaled data (Table 8.1 in
the text)?
A) chi-square
B) median
C) range
D) Both B and C are not permissible.
Answer: D
LO : 3
45) Which of the following statistics is not permissible with ordinally scaled data (Table 8.1 in
the text)?
A) range
B) mode
C) rank order correlation
D) all of the above
Answer: A
LO : 3
46) Which of the following statistics is not permissible for interval data (Table 8.1 in the text)?
A) factor analysis
B) harmonic mean
C) binomial test
D) t-tests
Answer: B
LO : 3
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47) In the department store project, numbers 1 through 10 were assigned to the 10 stores
considered in the study (Table 8.2 in the text). Thus, store number 9 referred to Sears and store
number 6 referred to Neiman Marcus. Using this information, which of the following statements
is true?
A) Sears is in some way superior or inferior to Neiman Marcus.
B) It is meaningful to state that the number of the average store is 5.5.
C) Both A and B are true.
D) None of the above statements are true.
Answer: D
LO : 3
48) ________ is a ranking scale in which numbers are assigned to objects to indicate the relative
extent to which some characteristic is possessed. Thus it is possible to determine whether an
object has more or less of a characteristic than some other object.
A) Ordinal scale
B) Interval scale
C) Ratio scale
D) Nominal scale
Answer: A
LO : 3
49) The rankings of teams in a tournament constitute a ________ scale.

A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio
Answer: B
LO : 3
50) In marketing research, ________ scales are used to measure relative attitudes, opinions,
perceptions, and preferences. In the opening example for Chapter 8, this was shown by the rank
order of the most admired companies.
A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio
Answer: B
LO : 3
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51) ________ is a scale in which the numbers are used to rate objects such that numerically
equal distances on the scale represent equal distances in the characteristic being measured.
A) Ordinal scale
B) Interval scale
C) Ratio scale
D) Nominal scale
Answer: B
LO : 3
52) In marketing research, attitudinal data obtained from rating scales are often treated as
________ data.
A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio
Answer: C
LO : 3
53) Which statement is not true about the interval scale?

A) Numerically equal distances on the scale represent equal values in the characteristics being
measured.
B) Both the zero point and the units of measurement are arbitrary.
C) Only proportionate transformations of the form y = bx, where b is a positive constant are
allowed.
Answer: C
LO : 3
54) The ________ is the highest scale. It allows the researcher to identify or classify objects,
rank order the objects, and compare intervals or differences. It is also meaningful to compute
ratios of scale values.
A) ordinal scale
B) interval scale
C) ratio scale
D) nominal scale
Answer: C
LO : 3
33

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55) In marketing, sales, cost, market share, and number of customers are variables measured on a
________ scale.
A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) interval
D) ratio
Answer: D
LO : 3
56) ________ are one of two types of scaling techniques in which there is direct comparison of
stimulus objects with one another.
A) Preference scales
B) Comparative scales
C) Non-comparative scales
Answer: B
LO : 4
57) Which of the following statements is not true about the comparative scales technique?
A) An example of using comparative scales is asking respondents to evaluate Coke on a 1 to 6
preference scale.
B) Comparative scale data must be interpreted in relative terms and have only ordinal or rank
order properties.
C) Comparative scaling is also referred to as non-metric scaling.
D) Comparative scales include paired comparisons, rank order, and constant sum scales.
Answer: A
LO : 4
58) The benefits of comparative scaling includes all of the following except ________.
A) comparative scales involve fewer theoretical assumptions
B) comparative scales are easily understood and can be applied easily
C) comparative scales tend to reduce halo or carryover effects from one judgment to another
D) small differences between stimulus objects can be detected
Answer: C
LO : 4
59) The disadvantages of comparative scaling includes all of the following except ________.
A) the resulting data are generally assumed to be interval or ratio scaled
B) the inability to generalize beyond the stimulus objects scaled
C) the ordinal nature of the data
D) None of the above are disadvantages.
Answer: A
LO : 4
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60) Which of the following scales is not a type of comparative scale (Figure 8.2 in the text)?
A) semantic differential
B) constant sum
C) Likert
D) both A and C
Answer: D
LO : 4
61) ________ are one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled
independently of the other objects in the stimulus set.
A) Preference scales
B) Comparative scales
C) Non-comparative scales
Answer: C
LO : 4
62) Which of the following is not a type of non-comparative scale?

A) semantic differential
B) constant sum
C) Likert
D) both A and C
Answer: B
LO : 4
63) Which of the following is a type of comparative scale?

A) continuous rating
B) constant sum
C) itemized rating
D) both A and C
Answer: B
LO : 4
64) ________ is a comparative scaling technique in which a respondent is presented with two
objects at a time and asked to select one object in the pair according to some criterion. The data
obtained is ordinal in nature.
A) Constant sum
B) Q-sort
C) Paired comparison
D) Rank order
Answer: C
LO : 4
35

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65) Paired comparison data can be analyzed in several ways. One way is for the researcher to
calculate the percentage of respondents who prefer one stimulus to another. The researcher can
also perform all of the following analyses on paired comparison data except
A) simultaneous evaluation of all the stimulus objects
B) convert paired comparison data to a rank order
C) derive an interval scale from paired comparison data
D) order a set of objects into an internally consistent, uni-dimensional scale
Answer: D
LO : 4
66) Which of the following is not one of the suggested modifications of the paired comparison
technique?
A) inclusion of a neutral/no difference opinion response
B) graded paired comparisons
C) obtaining similarity judgments in multidimensional scaling
D) ranked paired comparisons
Answer: D
LO : 4
67) The most common method of taste testing is paired comparison. A minimum of ________
responses is considered an adequate sample.
A) 500
B) 1000
C) 2000
D) 4000
Answer: B
LO : 4
68) ________ is a comparative scaling technique in which respondents are presented with
several objects simultaneously and asked to order or rank them according to some criterion.
A) Constant sum
B) Q-sort
D) Rank order
Answer: D
LO : 4
36

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69) After paired comparisons, the most popular comparative rating scale is ________.
A) constant sum
B) q-sort
C) metric
D) rank order
Answer: D
LO : 4
70) ________ scaling and ________ scaling both are comparative in nature. Both result in
ordinal data and might result in the respondent disliking the brand ranked 1 in an absolute sense.
A) Paired comparison; constant sum
B) Rank order; paired comparison
C) Rank order; constant sum
D) Q-sort; constant sum
Answer: B
LO : 4
71) ________ is a comparative scaling technique in which respondents are required to allocate a
constant sum of units such as point, dollars, chits, stickers, or chips among a set of stimulus
objects with respect to some criterion.
A) Constant sum
B) Q-sort
D) Rank order
Answer: A
LO : 4
72) If respondents are asked to allocate 100 points to attributes of a toilet soap in a way that
reflects the importance they attach to each attribute, ________ scaling is being used.
A) constant sum
B) q-sort
C) paired comparison
D) rank order
Answer: A
LO : 4
73) Which statement is true concerning constant sum scaling?

A) It does not have an absolute zero.
B) It allows for fine discrimination among stimulus objects without requiring much time.
C) Respondents may allocate more or fewer units than those specified.
D) Both B and C are correct.
Answer: D
LO : 4
37

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74) ________ scaling is a comparative scaling technique that uses a rank order procedure to sort
objects based on similarity with respect to some criterion.
A) Constant sum
B) Q-sort
D) Rank order
Answer: B
LO : 4
75) ________ is being used if respondents are given 100 attitude statements on individual cards
and asked to place them into 11 piles, ranging from "most highly agreed with" to "least highly
agreed with."
A) Constant sum
B) Q-sort
D) Rank order
Answer: B
LO : 4
76) When using Q-sort scaling ________ to ________ objects is a reasonable range.
A) 60; 90
B) 90; 140
C) 60; 140
D) 40; 60
Answer: A
LO : 4
77) ________ is a comparative scaling technique where numbers are assigned to objects such
that ratios between the assigned numbers reflect ratios on the specified criterion.
A) Q-sort scaling
B) Magnitude estimation
C) Guttman scaling
D) Constant sum scaling
Answer: B
LO : 4
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78) ________ is a procedure for determining whether a set of objects can be ordered into an
internally consistent, uni-dimensional scale.
A) Magnitude estimation
B) Q-sort scaling
C) Guttman scaling
Answer: C
LO : 4
79) Which statement is not correct concerning international marketing and the use of
comparative scaling techniques?
A) Opinion formation may not be well crystallized.
B) In some developing countries, preferences can be best measured by using ordinal scales.
C) Respondents in many developed countries, due to higher education and consumer
sophistication levels, are quite used to providing responses on interval and ratio scales.
D) None of the above statements are incorrect.
Answer: D
LO : 5
80) The Wall Street Journal wanted information on the personality profiles of its readers and
nonreaders? Which of the steps below does not belong in the process used by the Wall Street
Journal to obtain the needed information?
A) Each respondent was given a several cards, each listing one personality characteristic.
B) Respondents are asked to sort cards and to rank order the personality characteristics.
C) Use interval scale data to examine differences in the personality characteristics of readers and
nonreaders and relate them to marketing strategy variables.
D) All of the above statements belong in the process.
Answer: C
LO : 6
39

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Chapter 9 Measurement and Scaling: Noncomparative Scaling Techniques
1) A noncomparative scale is one of two scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is
scaled independent of the other objects in the stimulus set.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
2) Noncomparative scaling techniques are comprised of continuous and itemized rating scales.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
3) Non-comparative scales are often referred to as monadic scale.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
4) Respondents using a non-comparative scale employ whatever rating standard seems

appropriate to them.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
5) The New York City Transit used Likert scales to determine people's perceptions of the
subway system and address their concerns, leading to increased ridership.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
6) In an itemized rating scale, the respondents are provided with a scale that has a number or
brief description associated with each category.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
7) Itemized rating scales are widely used in marketing research and form the basic components
of more complex scales.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
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8) Typically, each Likert scale item has seven response categories, ranging from "strongly
disagree" to "strongly agree."
Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
9) Likert scale analysis can be conducted on an item-by-item basis (profile analysis).

Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
10) Profile analysis involves determining the average respondent ratings for each item.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
11) The Likert scale is also referred to as a summated scale.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
12) The negative adjective or phrase sometimes appears at the left side of the scale and
sometimes at the right. This controls the tendency of some respondents, particularly those with
very positive or negative attitudes, to mark the right-or-left-hand sides without reading the labels.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
13) The semantic differential is a five-point rating scale with endpoints associated with bipolar
labels that have semantic meaning.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
14) Individual items on a semantic differential scale may be scored on either a -3 to +3 or a 1 to

7 scale.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
15) Although the mean is most often used as a summary statistic with semantic differential scale
data, there is some controversy as to whether the data obtained should be treated as an interval
scale.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
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16) The Stapel scale is usually presented horizontally.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
17) An advantage of the Stapel scale is it can be administered over the telephone.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
18) Of the three itemized rating scales considered, the semantic differential scale is used the
least.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
19) The size of the correlation coefficient, a common measure of relationship between variables
in itemized rating scales, is influenced by the number of scale categories. The correlation
coefficient increases with a reduction in the number of categories.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
20) The smaller the number of scale categories, the finer the discrimination among stimulus
objects that is possible.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
21) When determining the number of scale categories to use in a non-comparative itemized
rating scale, the nature of the object is relevant.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
22) When determining the number of scale categories to use in a non-comparative itemized
rating scale, if individual responses are of interest, or the data will be analyzed by sophisticated
statistical techniques, five or more scale categories may be required.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
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23) The Likert scale is a balanced rating scale with an odd number of categories and a neutral
point.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
24) A forced rating scale forces the respondents to express an opinion because "no opinion" or
"no knowledge" options are not provided.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
25) In situations where the respondents are expected to have no opinions, as opposed to simply
being reluctant to disclose it, the accuracy of data may be improved by a non-forced scale that
includes a "no opinion" category.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
26) It has been found that providing a verbal description for each scale category consistently
improves the accuracy or reliability of the data.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
27) Non-comparative itemized rating scales with strong adjectives as anchors (1=generally
disagree, 7=generally agree) result in less variable and more peaked response contributions.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
28) The number of scale categories used in noncomparative itemized scales is fixed at five.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
29) A construct is the theory being measured.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
30) The scale development process is an iterative one.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
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31) XO = XT + XS + XR represents the pure score model.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
32) Reliability refers to the extent to which a scale produces valid results if repeated
measurements are made.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
33) Systematic sources of error do have an adverse impact on reliability because they affect the
measurement in a constant way and do not lead to inconsistency.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
34) Reliability can be defined as the extent to which measures are free from random error, XR.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
35) Reliability is assessed by determining the proportion of random variation in a scale.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
36) In alternative-forms reliability, the same respondents are measured at two different times
with an equivalent scale form being administered each time.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
37) With alternative forms reliability, a low correlation may reflect either an unreliable scale or
nonequivalent forms.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
38) An important property of coefficient alpha is that its value tends to decrease with an increase
in the number of scale items.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
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39) Coefficient alpha assists in determining whether the averaging process used in calculating
coefficient beta is masking any inconsistent items.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
40) Perfect validity requires that there be no measurement error, therefore:

(XO = XT, XR = 0, XS = 0).
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
41) Given its subjective nature, content validity alone is a sufficient measure of the validity of a
scale.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
42) Construct validity is the simplest and easiest type of validity to establish.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
43) Using several scale items to measure the characteristic of interest provides more accurate
measurement than a single-item scale.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
44) The semantic differential scale may be said to be pan-cultural or free of cultural bias.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
45) The researcher can bias the scales by either biasing the wording of the statements (Likert
type scales), the scale descriptors, or other aspects of the scale.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
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46) In a ________, respondents rate the objects by placing a mark at the appropriate position on
a line that runs from one extreme of the criterion variable to the other.
A) semantic differential scale
B) Likert scale
C) continuous rating scale
D) Stapel scale
Answer: C
LO : 1
47) How would you rate Sears as a department store?
Version 1
Probably the worst - - - - - - I - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Probably the best
Version 2
Probably the worst - - - - - - I - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Probably the best
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
The above scales are all examples of a ________.

A) continuous rating scale
B) Stapel scale
C) Semantic differential scale
D) Likert scale
Answer: A
LO : 1
48) Scores assigned to continuous rating scales by the researcher are typically treated as
________ data.
A) nominal
B) ordinal
C) ratio
D) interval
Answer: D
LO : 1
49) Which non-comparative scale has the advantage of being easy to construct and the
disadvantage of cumbersome scoring unless the scoring is computerized (Table 9.1 in the text)?
B) Likert scale
D) Stapel scale
Answer: C
LO : 1
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50) Which scale is not an itemized rating scale (Table 9.1 in the text)?
A) Stapel scale
B) semantic differential scale
C) Likert scale
D) continuous rating scale
Answer: D
LO : 1
51) Which of the following statements does not pertain to non-comparative scales?
A) Noncomparative scales are often referred to as monadic scales.
B) Respondents using a non-comparative scale employ whatever rating standard seems
appropriate.
C) Data must be interpreted in relative terms and have only ordinal or rank order properties.
D) Non-comparative techniques consist of continuous and itemized rating scales.
Answer: C
LO : 1
52) A ________ is a measurement scale with five response categories ranging from "strongly
disagree" to "strongly agree," which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement
or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to the stimulus objects.
B) Likert scale
D) Stapel scale
Answer: B
LO : 1
53) The author of your text and his colleagues have developed a scale for measuring Internet
users' information privacy concerns. The Awareness (of Privacy Practices) scale uses seven-
point scales anchored with "strongly disagree" and "strongly agree." This is an example of a
________.
B) Stapel scale
C) semantic differential scale
D) Likert scale
Answer: D
LO : 1
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54) Neither
agree
Strongly nor Strongly
disagree Disagree disagree Agree agree
1. Sears has poor in-store service 1 2X 3 4 5
2. I like to shop at Sears. 1 2X 3 4 5
The above scale is an example of a ________.

B) Stapel scale
D) Likert scale
Answer: D
LO : 1
55) Which non-comparative scale is analyzed using profile analysis?

A) Likert scale
B) semantic differential scale
C) Stapel scale
D) all of the above
Answer: D
LO : 1
56) Which itemized rating scale takes longer to complete than other itemized rating scales
because respondents have to read each statement?
B) Likert scale
D) Stapel scale
Answer: B
LO : 1
57) The Likert scale has several advantages. Which of the following is not an advantage?
A) It does not require a pretest of the adjectives or phrases to ensure bipolarity.
B) Respondents readily understand how to use the scale.
C) It is suitable for mail, telephone, or personal interviews.
D) It is easy to construct and administer.
Answer: A
LO : 1
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58) A ________ is a seven point rating scale with endpoints associated with bi-polar labels that
have semantic meaning.
B) Likert scale
D) Stapel scale
Answer: A
LO : 1
59) Sears is:

Powerful -:-:-:-:-X-:-:-: Weak
Unreliable -:-:-:-:-:-X-:-: Reliable
The above scale is an example of a ________ scale.

A) continuous rating
B) Stapel
C) semantic differential
D) Likert
Answer: C
LO : 1
60) The ________ is known for its versatility and is very popular with marketing researchers.
B) Stapel scale
D) Likert scale
Answer: C
LO : 1
61) A ________ is a scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle
of an even-numbered range of values, from -5 to +5, without a neutral point (zero).
B) Likert scale
D) Stapel scale
Answer: D
LO : 1
49

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62) Which scale asks the respondent to indicate how accurately or inaccurately each term
describes the object by selecting an appropriate numerical response category?
B) Stapel scale
D) Likert scale
Answer: B
LO : 1
63) The data obtained by using a Stapel scale can be analyzed in the same way as a ________.
B) Constant sum scale
D) Ranking scale
Answer: C
LO : 1
64) The ________ is confusing and difficult to apply. It is the least used of the itemized scales.
B) Stapel scale
D) Likert scale
Answer: B
LO : 1
65) Which of the following statements is not a consideration when making non-comparative
itemized rating scale decisions?
A) the number of scale categories to use
B) forced versus non-forced choice
C) the order of the scale questions
D) balanced versus unbalanced scales
Answer: C
LO : 2
50

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66) Which statement is not true if deciding on the number of scale categories to use in a non-
comparative itemized rating scale?
A) Traditional guidelines suggest that the appropriate number of categories should be seven plus
or minus two: between five and nine.
B) The smaller the number of scale categories, the finer the discrimination among stimulus
objects that is possible.
C) If the respondents are not very knowledgeable or not involved with the task, fewer categories
should be used.
D) How the data are to be analyzed and used should also influence the number of categories.
Answer: B
LO : 2
67) Which statement is true if deciding on the number of scale categories to use in a non-
comparative itemized rating scale?
A) If the respondents are interested in the scaling task and are knowledgeable about the objects, a
larger number of categories may be employed.
B) Space limitations may restrict the number of categories in mail questionnaires.
C) If telephone interviews are involved, many categories may confuse the respondents.
D) All of the statement above are true.
Answer: D
LO : 2
68) Which statement is not true when deciding on whether to use balanced or unbalanced scales
when developing a non-comparative itemized rating scale?
A) The scale should be balanced to obtain objective data.
B) In a balanced scale, the number of favorable and unfavorable categories are equal.
C) If the distribution of responses is likely to be skewed, either positively or negatively, a
balanced scale with more categories in the direction of skewness may be appropriate.
D) If an unbalanced scale is used, the nature and degree of unbalance in the scale should be taken
into account in data analysis.
Answer: C
LO : 2
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69) Which statement is not true when deciding on whether to use an odd or even number of
categories when developing a non-comparative itemized rating scale?
A) With an odd number of categories, the middle scale position is generally designated neutral or
impartial.
B) The decision to use an odd or even number of categories depends on whether some of the
respondents may be neutral on the response being measured.
C) A rating scale with an even number of categories should be used if the researcher wants to
force a response.
Answer: D
LO : 2
70) Deciding whether to present scales as vertical or horizontal is related to which of the non-
comparative itemized rating scale decisions?
A) number of scale categories
B) physical form or configuration
C) odd or even number of categories
D) nature and degree of verbal description
Answer: B
LO : 2
71) The scale descriptors "very bad," "bad," "neither bad nor good," "good," and "very good" are
commonly used when studying the ________ construct (Table 9.3 in the text).
A) attitude
B) satisfaction
C) purchase frequency
D) purchase intent
Answer: A
LO : 2
72) The scale descriptors "never," "rarely," "sometimes," "often," and "very often" are
commonly used when studying the ________ construct (Table 9.3 in the text).
A) attitude
B) satisfaction
C) purchase frequency
D) purchase intent
Answer: C
LO : 2
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73) ________ is the first step in developing a multi-item scale. ________ is the last step.
A) Generate an initial pool of items; Prepare the final scale
B) Develop a theory; Prepare a final scale
C) Develop a theory; Develop a purified scale
D) Generate an initial pool of items; Develop a purified scale
Answer: B
LO : 2
74) A multi-item scale should be evaluated for accuracy and applicability. This involves an
assessment of all of the following except ________.
A) reliability
B) generalizability
C) stability
D) validity
Answer: C
LO : 2
75) Validity can be assessed by examining all of the following except ________.
A) item validity
B) content validity
C) criterion validity
D) construct validity
Answer: A
LO : 3
76) ________ is the variation in the information sought by the researcher and the information
generated by the measurement process employed.
A) Systematic error
B) Measurement error
C) Random error
D) Variable error
Answer: B
LO : 3
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77) Which of the following is not an approach to assess multi-item scale reliability?
A) test-retest reliability
B) construct reliability
C) alternative forms reliability
D) internal consistency reliability
Answer: B
LO : 3
78) XO = XT + XS + XR
In the true score model shown above, XT represents ________.
A) random error
B) the observed score or measurement
C) the true score of the characteristic
D) systematic error
Answer: C
LO : 3
79) Situational factors, such as the lack of clarity of the scale, including the instructions or the
items themselves, and analysis factors, such as differences in scoring and statistical analysis are
both ________ in measurement.
A) random error
B) potential sources of reliability
C) potential sources of error
D) systematic error
Answer: C
LO : 3
80) ________ represents stable factors that affect the observed score in the same way each time
the measurement is made, such as mechanical factors (see Fig. 9.6 in the text).
A) Systematic error
C) Random error
D) Variable error
Answer: A
LO : 3
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81) ________ is not constant. It represents transient factors that affect the observed score in
different ways each time the measurement is made, such as transient personal or situational
factors.
A) Systematic error
C) Random error
D) Variable error
Answer: C
LO : 3
82) ________ is the extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated measurements
are made on the characteristic.
A) Validity
B) Generalizability
C) Reliability
Answer: C
LO : 3
83) A measure is perfectly reliable if ________.

A) XO = 0
B) XT = 0
C) XS = 0
D) XR = 0
Answer: D
LO : 3
84) ________ is an approach for assessing reliability in which respondents are administered
identical sets of scale items at two different times under as nearly equivalent conditions as
possible.
A) Internal consistency reliability
B) Split-half reliability
C) Test-retest reliability
D) Alternative-forms reliability
Answer: C
LO : 3
55

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85) In ________ the degree of similarity between two measurements is determined by computing
a correlation coefficient. The higher the correlation coefficient, the greater the reliability.
A) test-retest reliability
B) internal consistency reliability
C) coefficient alpha
D) coefficient beta
Answer: A
LO : 3
86) There are several problems associated with the test-retest approach to determining reliability.
If measuring respondents' attitude toward low-fat milk may cause them to become more health
conscious and develop a more positive attitude toward low-fat milk, then there is a problem with
________.
A) the time interval between testing
B) the initial measurement altering the characteristic being measured
C) it being impossible to make repeated measurements
D) the first measurement having a carryover effect to the second or subsequent measurements
Answer: B
LO : 3
87) Which of the following is not a problem with alternative-forms reliability?

A) The results will depend on how the scale items are split.
B) It is time consuming and expensive to construct an equivalent form of the scale.
C) It is difficult to construct two equivalent forms of a scale.
D) Both B and C are correct.
Answer: A
LO : 3
88) ________ is an approach for assessing the internal consistency of the set of items when
several items are summated in order to form a total score for the scale.
Answer: A
LO : 3
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89) ________ is a form of internal consistency reliability in which the items constituting the
scale are divided into two halves and the resulting half scores are correlated.
Answer: B
LO : 3
90) ________ is a measure of internal consistency reliability that is the average of all possible
split-half coefficients resulting from different splittings of the scale items.
A) Coefficient delta
B) Coefficient alpha
C) Coefficient beta
D) Coefficient eta
Answer: B
LO : 3
91) ________ is the extent to which differences in observed scale scores reflect true differences
among objects on the characteristics being measured, rather than systematic or random errors.
A) Validity
B) Generalizability
C) Reliability
Answer: A
LO : 3
92) ________ is a type of validity, sometimes called face validity, that consists of a subjective
but systematic evaluation of the representativeness of the content of a scale for the measuring
task at hand.
A) Construct validity
B) Content validity
C) Criterion validity
D) Internal consistency validity
Answer: B
LO : 3
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93) A scale designed to measure store image would be considered inadequate if it omitted any of
the major dimensions (quality, variety, assortment of merchandise, etc.). This inadequacy would
be reflected in the ________ of the scale.
A) construct validity
B) content validity
C) criterion validity
D) internal consistency validity
Answer: B
LO : 3
94) ________ is a type of validity that examines whether the measurement scale performs as
expected in relation to other variables selected as meaningful criteria.
B) Content validity
Answer: C
LO : 3
95) ________ is assessed when the data on the scale being evaluated on the criterion variables
are collected at the same time.
A) Convergent validity
B) Predictive validity
C) Concurrent validity
D) Discriminant validity
Answer: C
LO : 3
96) To assess ________, a type of criterion validity, the researcher collects data on the scale at
one point in time and data on the criterion variables at a future time.
A) convergent validity
B) predictive validity
C) concurrent validity
D) discriminant validity
Answer: B
LO : 3
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97) ________ is a type of validity that addresses the question of what construct or characteristic
the scale is measuring. An attempt is made to answer theoretical questions of why a scale works
and what deductions can be made concerning the theory underlying the scale.
B) Content validity
Answer: A
LO : 3
98) ________ is a measure of construct validity that measures the extent to which the scale
correlates positively with other measures of the same construct.
B) Discriminant validity
C) Nomological validity
D) Concurrent validity
Answer: A
LO : 3
99) ________ is a type of construct validity that assesses the extent to which a measure does not
correlate with other constructs from which it is supposed to differ.
Answer: B
LO : 3
100) ________ is the a type of validity that assesses the relationship between theoretical
constructs. It seeks to confirm significant correlations between the constructs as predicted by
theory.
Answer: C
LO : 3
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101) Which statement is not true regarding the relationship between reliability and validity?
A) If a measure is perfectly valid, it is also perfectly reliable.
B) Unreliability implies invalidity.
C) If a measure is perfectly reliable, it is perfectly valid.
D) Reliability is a necessary, but not sufficient, condition for validity.
Answer: C
LO : 3
102) ________ is the degree to which a study based on a sample applies to a universe of
generalizations.
A) Validity
B) Generalizability
C) Reliability
Answer: B
LO : 3
103) Which statement about generalizability is not true?

A) The set of all conditions of measurement over which the investigator wishes to generalize is
the universe of generalizations.
B) In generalizability studies, measurement procedures are designed to investigate the universes
of interest by sampling conditions of measurement from each of them.
C) To generalize to other universes, facet theory procedures must be employed.
D) Traditional reliability methods can be viewed as single-facet generalizability studies.
Answer: C
LO : 3
104) When choosing a scaling technique, which of the following factors should be considered?
A) the capabilities of the respondents
B) the levels of information needed (nominal, ordinal, interval, or ratio)
C) the method of administration
D) all of the above
Answer: D
LO : 3
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105) When developing scales for international research, the researcher must pay special attention
to details that can make the measurement instrument specific to the country in which the
instrument will be used. Which of the following should be of concern to the marketing
researcher when developing scales for international research?
A) Special attention should be devoted to determining equivalent verbal descriptors in different
languages and cultures.
B) Scale endpoints and the verbal descriptors should be employed in a manner that is consistent
with the culture.
C) It is critical to establish the equivalence of scales and measures used to obtain data from
different countries.
Answer: D
LO : 4
106) A researcher developed scales using a 7-point scale with anchor descriptors of "horrible"
and "good." This researcher has created an ethical violation in the area of ________.
A) generalizability
B) bias
C) validity
Answer: C
LO : 5
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Chapter 10 Questionnaire and Form Design
1) A standardized questionnaire or form will ensure comparability of the data, increase speed and
accuracy of recording, and facilitate data processing.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
2) Another name for questionnaire is schedule instrument.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
3) A questionnaire is an informal set of questions for obtaining information from respondents.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
4) Two apparently similar ways of posing a question always yields the same information.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
5) A well-designed questionnaire can motivate the respondents and increase the response rate.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
6) The steps in the questionnaire design process are interrelated and the development of a
questionnaire will involve some iteration and looping.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
7) A questionnaire is a major source of response error.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
8) The more diversified the respondent group, the more difficult it is to design a single
questionnaire that is appropriate for the entire group.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
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9) All questions on a questionnaire should contribute to the information needed or serve some
specific purpose.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
10) Respondents may not be able to respond because they are unable to articulate a response,
they may not be informed, or they may not remember.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
11) Respondents do not answer questions on which they are not informed.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
12) Filter questions enable the researcher to filter out respondents who are not adequately
informed.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
13) A "don't know" option does not appear to reduce uninformed responses without reducing the
overall response rate or the response rate for questions about which the respondents have
information.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
14) Questions such as "What did you have for lunch a week ago?" are correct questions because
consumers are very good at remembering quantities of products consumed.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
15) Creation error is the inability to recall an event that actually took place.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
16) Research indicates that questions that rely on unaided recall can underestimate the actual
occurrence of an event.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
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17) Omission error takes place when a respondent "remembers" and event that did not actually
occur.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
18) Omission, telescoping, and creation are errors that may occur if the respondent has a problem
remembering the information asked in the questionnaire.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
19) Respondents that are unwilling to give responses should be given aids such as pictures,
maps, and descriptions to help them articulate their responses.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
20) Respondents with responses that are difficult to articulate should be given aids such as
pictures, maps, and descriptions to help them articulate their responses.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
21) Respondents may be unwilling to answer a particular question because too much effort is
required or they may not remember the information that is being asked.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
22) The researcher can manipulate the context in which the questions are asked so that the
questions seem appropriate.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
23) Sensitive topics should be placed at the beginning of the questionnaire to get the difficult
questions over with.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
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24) "What is your occupation?" is a free-answer question.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
25) Free-response questions are good as first questions on a topic.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
26) A principal disadvantage of structured questions is that potential for interviewer bias is high.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
27) A principal disadvantage of unstructured questions is that potential for interviewer bias is
high.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
28) Respondents exhibiting order or position bias tend to check the first or last statement in a list.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
29) To control for order bias, several forms of the questionnaire should be prepared with the
order in which alternatives are listed varied from form to form.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
30) Dichotomous questions cannot have neutral alternatives such as "don't know" or "no
opinion."
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
31) Choosing question structure is probably the most difficult task in developing a questionnaire.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
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32) When developing questions, the researcher should avoid leading questions like "What is your
favorite brand of toothpaste?"
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
33) Mentioning the sponsor of a project in the question might bias the respondent towards the
sponsor.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
34) An alternative that is not explicitly expressed in the options is an explicit alternative.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
35) There is evidence that the response to a question is influenced by the directionality of the
question.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
36) Opening questions should be used to get at the purpose of the questionnaire quickly.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
37) Qualifying questions should not serve as opening questions.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
38) Information should be obtained in the following order: basic, identification, classification.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
39) The inverted funnel is a strategy for ordering questions in a questionnaire in which the
sequence starts with the general questions that are followed by progressively specific questions
in order to prevent specific questions from biasing general questions.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
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40) The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong feelings or have not
formulated a point of view.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
41) In questionnaire design, assigning a code to every conceivable response before data
collection is called pre-coding.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
42) All aspects of the questionnaire should be tested, including question content, wording,
sequence, form and layout, question difficulty, and instructions.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
43) Respondents for the pretest and for the actual survey should not be drawn from the same
population.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
44) Pretests are best done by personal interviews, even if the actual survey is to be conducted by
mail, telephone, or electronic means.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
45) Protocol analysis and debriefing are two commonly used procedures in pretesting.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
46) The responses obtained from the pretest should be coded and analyzed.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
47) Forms for recording observational data are more difficult to construct than questionnaires.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
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48) Observational forms and questionnaires require adequate pretesting.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
49) The questionnaire or research instrument should be biased in terms of the country in which it
will be used.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
50) Information on demographic characteristics such as marital status, education, household size,
occupation, income, and dwelling unit may have to be specified differently for different
countries, as these variables may not be directly comparable across countries.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
51) Unstructured questions reduce cultural bias because they do not impose any response
alternatives.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
52) To minimize discomfort, it should be made clear at the beginning of the interview that
respondents are not obligated to answer a question that makes them uncomfortable.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
53) The researcher has the ethical responsibility of designing the questionnaire so as to obtain the
required information in a biased manner.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 5
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54) According to your test, SurveySite recruited 87 American and Canadian Web sites to
participate in a study to determine what design features and experiences make visitors return to a
site. The results of the survey found that ________ was the most important factor in determining
whether or not a site would receive repeat visit visitors.
A) whether or not the respondent found the site visit enjoyable
B) content
C) quality of the organization of the site and its degree of uniqueness
D) frivolous content
Answer: B
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 6
55) Typically, a questionnaire is only one element of a data-collection package that might also
include all of the following except ________.
A) some reward
B) communication aids
C) a data code book
D) fieldwork procedures
Answer: C
LO : 1
56) Which of the following is not an objective of a questionnaire?

A) A questionnaire must translate the information needed into a set of specific questions that the
respondents can and will answer.
B) A questionnaire must be easy to use.
C) A questionnaire must uplift, motivate, and encourage the respondent to become involved in
the interview, to cooperate, and to complete the interview.
D) A questionnaire should minimize response error.
Answer: B
LO : 1
57) Which of the following is not a part of the questionnaire design process?
A) Specify the type of interviewing method.
B) Arrange questions in proper order.
C) Reproduce the questionnaire.
D) Develop sampling plan.
Answer: D
LO : 2
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58) The great weakness of questionnaire design is lack of ________.

A) precision
B) accuracy
C) theory
D) consensus
Answer: C
LO : 2
59) The first step in the questionnaire design process is ________.

A) specify the type of interview method
B) identify the form and layout
C) specify the information needed
D) determine the content of individual questions
Answer: C
LO : 2
60) When developing a questionnaire, to ensure that the information obtained fully addresses all
components of the problem, the researcher should ________.
A) review components of the problem and the approach
B) prepare a set of dummy tables
C) have a clear idea of the target population
D) all of the above
Answer: D
LO : 2
61) A ________ describes how the analysis will be structured once the data have been collected.
A) dummy table
B) analysis table
C) dummy plan
Answer: A
LO : 2
62) The type of method influences questionnaire design. Considering how the questionnaire is
administered under each method, which method is most appropriate if lengthy, complex, and
varied questions need to be asked?
A) mail questionnaire
B) telephone interview
C) personal interview
D) Internet questionnaire
Answer: C
LO : 2
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63) If you are deciding between personal interviews or computer-assisted interviewing, you are
at which step of the questionnaire design process?
A) Specify the type of interviewing method.
B) Determine the content of individual questions.
C) Arrange the questions in proper order.
D) Eliminate bugs by pretesting.
Answer: A
LO : 2
64) Deciding if a question is necessary or if several questions are needed rather than one are
decisions involved with ________.
A) determining the order of scales
B) choosing question wording
C) choosing question structure
D) individual question content
Answer: D
LO : 2
65) "Do you think Coca-Cola is a tasty and refreshing soft drink?" is an example of a ________.
A) structured question
B) dichotomous question
C) double-barreled question
D) branching question
Answer: C
LO : 2
66) A ________ is a single question that attempts to cover two issues.

A) structured question
B) dichotomous question
C) double-barreled question
D) branching question
Answer: C
LO : 2
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67) When determining if a question is necessary, in some situations it may be necessary to ask
questions that are not directly related to the information that is needed. Which of the reasons
stated below were given in your text as reasons why questions not related to the information
needed might be included in the questionnaire?
A) to establish involvement and rapport
B) to disguise the purpose or sponsorship of the project
C) to generate client support for the project
D) all of the above
Answer: D
LO : 2
68) Most "why" questions about the use of a product or choice alternative involve two aspects:
________ and ________.
A) attributes of the product; influences leading to knowledge of the product
B) attributes of the product; how the product is used
C) how the product is used; influences leading to knowledge of the product
Answer: A
LO : 2
69) ________ that measure familiarity, product use, and past experience should be asked before
questions about the topics themselves.
A) Branching questions
B) Filler questions
C) Dichotomous questions
D) Filter questions
Answer: D
LO : 2
70) "Is the respondent informed?", "Can the respondent remember?", and "Can the respondent
articulate?", are all questions asked in the ________ stage of the questionnaire design process.
A) overcoming unwillingness to answer
B) specify the type of interviewing method
C) overcoming inability to answer
D) choosing question wording
Answer: C
LO : 2
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71) Respondents' inability to remember leads to three types of error. Which of the errors listed
below is not mentioned in the text as one of the types of errors created by respondents?
A) telescoping
B) creation error
C) recall error
D) omission error
Answer: C
LO : 2
72) The respondents' ability to remember an event is influenced by all of the following
except________.
A) the event itself
B) the time elapsed since the event
C) the presence or absence of events that would aid memory
D) where you were when the event occurred
Answer: D
LO : 2
73) Which of the following is not a reason why a respondent might be unwilling to answer a
particular question?
A) The respondent may not be informed.
B) Too much effort is required.
C) The situation or context may not seem appropriate for disclosure.
D) No legitimate purpose or need for the information requested is apparent.
Answer: A
LO : 2
74) When trying to overcome respondents' unwillingness to answer, the researcher might list the
possible responses a respondent might make. More specifically, the list is an effort by the
researcher to ________.
A) increasing the unwillingness of respondents
B) obtain sensitive information
C) put the information request in context
D) reduce the effort required of the respondents
Answer: D
LO : 2
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75) Sally was reluctant to answer questions about her personal hygiene until she saw that the
survey was sponsored by the American Medical Association. Sally's understanding of who
sponsored the survey helped with which aspect of "overcoming the respondent's unwillingness to
answer"?
A) legitimate purpose
B) context
C) sensitive information
D) increasing the willingness of the respondent
Answer: A
LO : 2
76) All of the statements below are ways in which the researcher can encourage respondents to
provide information they are unwilling to give except ________.
A) preface the question with a statement that the behavior of interest is common
B) provide response categories rather than asking for specific figures
C) use randomized techniques
D) all of the above
Answer: D
LO : 2
77) ________ refer to open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words.
A) Dichotomous questions
B) Structured questions
C) Unstructured questions
D) Branching questions
Answer: C
LO : 2
78) "Describe your college experience" and "What is your occupation?" are ________ questions.
A) dichotomous
B) filter
C) structured
D) unstructured
Answer: D
LO : 2
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79) Which of the following statements is not an advantage of unstructured questions?

A) Unstructured questions are good as first questions on a topic.
B) Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more articulate.
C) Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than structured
questions.
D) Unstructured questions are useful in exploratory research.
Answer: B
LO : 2
80) Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of unstructured questions?

A) Unstructured questions are not suitable for self-administered questionnaires.
B) Coding of responses is costly and time consuming.
C) Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than structured
questions.
D) Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more articulate.
Answer: C
LO : 2
81) Which of the following statements is not true about unstructured questions?
A) Open-ended questions are useful in exploratory research.
B) Precoding can overcome some of the disadvantages of unstructured questions.
C) Open-ended questions are useful as opening questions.
D) Unstructured questions can suffer from order or position bias.
Answer: D
LO : 2
82) ________ specify the set of response alternatives and the response format.
A) Filter questions
B) Structured questions
C) Unstructured questions
D) Branching questions
Answer: B
LO : 2
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83) Which of the following is not a type of structured question?

A) multiple choice
B) dichotomous
C) scale
Answer: D
LO : 2
84) When developing questionnaire questions, if you are considering order position bias and the
set of all possible response alternatives, you are developing ________ questions.
A) multiple choice
B) dichotomous
C) scale
D) branching
Answer: A
LO : 2
85) Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of structured questions?

A) Coding and processing of data are much less costly and time consuming.
B) Considerable effort is required to design effective multiple choice questions.
C) Showing respondents the list of possible answers produces biased responses.
D) It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.
Answer: A
LO : 2
86) What is the one acute problem of dichotomous questions?

A) There is potential for position bias.
B) It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.
C) The response can be influenced by the wording of the question.
Answer: C
LO : 2
87) ________ is the translation of the desired question content and structure into words that
respondents can clearly and easily understand.
A) The questionnaire design process
B) Question wording
C) Overcoming inability to answer
D) Determining the content of individual questions
Answer: B
LO : 2
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88) When developing a questionnaire, the following guidelines: (1) use positive and negative
statements, (2) avoid implicit alternatives, and (3) avoid leading questions, are used when
________.
A) arranging questions in proper order
C) designing questions to overcome the respondent's inability to answer
D) determining the content of individual questions
Answer: B
LO : 2
89) When developing a questionnaire, the six Ws (who, what, when, where, why, and way) are
used when ________.
A) defining the issue
C) avoiding generalizations and estimates
D) determining the content of individual questions
Answer: A
LO : 2
90) Choosing between the questions "Do you think the distribution of soft drinks is adequate?"
(Incorrect) and "Do you think soft drinks are readily available when you want to buy them?"
(Correct) are examples of situations that pertain to ________.
A) avoiding leading questions
B) avoiding ambiguous words
C) using positive and negative statements
D) using ordinary words
Answer: D
LO : 2
91) Which of the words below is an ambiguous word?

A) once
B) never
C) often
Answer: C
LO : 2
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92) When developing a questionnaire, if the researcher is asking him/herself if the word means
what he/she intended; if it has any other meanings; if the word has more than one pronunciation;
or if a simpler phrase is suggested, then he/she is probably concerned with ________.
A) avoiding leading questions
B) avoiding ambiguous words
C) using defining the issue
D) using ordinary words
Answer: B
LO : 2
93) A ________ is a question that gives the respondent a clue as to what answer is desired or
leads the respondent to answer in a certain way.
A) leading question
B) implicit alternative
C) filter question
D) structured question
Answer: A
LO : 2
94) Which of the following statements is correct about implicit alternatives?

A) Making an implied alternative explicit may increase the percentage of people selecting that
alternative.
B) When alternatives are close in preference or large in number, the alternatives at the end of the
list have a greater chance of being selected.
C) The split ballot technique should be used to rotate the order in which a list of alternatives
appear.
Answer: D
LO : 2
95) "Do you like to fly when traveling short distances?" is an example of a(n) ________.
A) implicit assumption
C) generalization
Answer: B
LO : 2
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96) "Are you in favor of a balanced budget?" is an example of a(n) ________.

A) implicit assumption
C) generalization
Answer: A
LO : 2
97) The statement "Questions should be specific, not general." pertains to the ________ aspect of
questionnaire development.
A) avoid implicit assumptions
B) avoid implicit alternatives
C) avoid generalizations and estimates
D) use unambiguous words
Answer: C
LO : 2
98) The information that is of the most importance to the research project and should be obtained
first is ________.
A) qualifying information
B) identification information
C) basic information
D) classification information
Answer: C
LO : 2
99) ________ is information that relates directly to the research problem.

A) Qualifying information
B) Identification information
C) Basic information
D) Classification information
Answer: C
LO : 2
100) ________ is socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to classify respondents.

Answer: D
LO : 2
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101) ________ is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name, address,
and phone number.
Answer: B
LO : 2
102) Which of the following statements is true about difficult questions?

A) Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the section on basic information.
B) Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the identification section.
C) Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the classification section.
D) All of the statements are correct.
Answer: D
LO : 2
103) Which statement is correct concerning the effect on subsequent questions?

A) As a rule of thumb, general questions should precede specific questions to prevent specific
questions from biasing responses to general questions.
B) The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong feelings or have not
formulated a point of view.
C) The inverted funnel approach is particularly useful when information has to be obtained about
respondents' general choice behavior and their evaluations of specific products.
D) All are correct.
Answer: D
LO : 2
104) ________ are questions used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing the
interviewer to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers given.
A) Leading questions
B) Branching questions
C) Opening questions
D) Multiple choice questions
Answer: B
LO : 2
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105) Experiments on mail questionnaires for census of population revealed what about
questionnaire form and layout?
A) Questions at the top of the page received more attention than those placed at the bottom.
B) Sensitive information placed at the end of the questionnaire was answered more frequently
than sensitive information placed elsewhere.
C) Instructions printed in red made little difference except that they made the questionnaire
appear more complicated to the respondents.
Answer: D
LO : 2
106) Which of the following practices should be avoided when reproducing the questionnaire?
A) If the printed questionnaire runs to several pages, it should take the form of a booklet.
B) Sideways formatting and splitting should be done to conserve space.
C) Directions or instructions should be placed as close to the questions as possible.
D) Surveys directed at different respondent groups can be reproduced on different colored paper.
Answer: B
LO : 2
107) ________ is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for the
purpose of improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential problems.
A) Funneling
B) Telescoping
C) Posttesting
D) Pretesting
Answer: D
LO : 2
108) Which statement is not true about pretests?

A) To the extent possible, a pretest should involve administering the questionnaire in an
environment and context similar to that of the actual survey.
B) A variety of interviewers should be used for pretests.
C) The project director, the researcher who developed the questionnaire, and other key members
of the research team should conduct some pretest interviews.
D) It is a good practice to employ only experienced interviewers to conduct pretests.
Answer: D
LO : 2
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109) Observational forms should specify the who, what, and when of the behavior to be
observed. The forms should also specify all of the items below except
A) where
B) whether
C) why
D) way
Answer: B
LO : 3
110) Which of the following statements are true concerning questionnaire design for
international marketing research?
A) The questionnaire may have to be suitable for administration by more than one method.
B) It is desirable to have two or more simple questions rather than a single complex question.
C) Unstructured or open-ended questions should be used with caution in countries with high
illiteracy rates.
Answer: D
LO : 4
111) According to the guidelines of the Professional Marketing Research Society of Canada,
with the exception of ________, questionnaires that take more than ________ minutes to
complete are generally considered "overly" long.
A) in-home personal interviews; 60
B) computer-assisted personal interviews; 60
C) in-home personal interviews; 30
D) computer-assisted personal interviews; 30
Answer: C
LO : 5
82

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Chapter 11 Sampling: Design and Procedures
1) The inferences that link sample characteristics and population parameters are estimation
procedures and tests of hypotheses.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
2) A census can greatly decrease nonsampling error.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
3) It is not always possible to reduce nonsampling error sufficiently to compensate for sampling
error.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
4) Examples of a sampling frame include the telephone book, an association directory, a city
directory, or a map.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
5) The Bayesian approach to sampling is theoretically appealing, however, it is not widely used
in marketing research because much of the required information on costs and probabilities is not
available.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
6) The statistical distinction between sampling with replacement and sampling without
replacement is important only when the sampling frame is not large compared to the sample size.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
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7) If the sampling unit is different from the element, it is necessary to specify precisely how the
elements within the sampling unit should be selected. Selecting the person within the sampling
unit with the next birthday is an appropriate way to precisely specify which element to sample.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
8) The larger the sample, the greater the gain in precision by increasing the sample size by one
unit.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
9) Sample size is influenced by the average size of samples in similar studies.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
10) Nonprobability samples do not allow for objective evaluation of the precision of the sample
results.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
11) Every potential nonprobability sample needs to have the same probability of selection.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
12) Confidence intervals, which contain the true population value with a given level of certainty,
can be calculated from nonprobability samples.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
13) Convenience sampling is the least expensive and least time consuming of all sampling
techniques.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
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14) The second stage in quota sampling is to develop the control categories, or quotas, of
population elements.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
15) Quota sampling ensures that the composition of the sample is the same as the composition of
the population with respect to the characteristics of interest.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
16) Quota sampling permits assessment of sampling error.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
17) Probability sampling is used to select the initial respondents for snowball sampling.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
18) Sampling efficiency is a concept that reflects a tradeoff between sampling cost and precision.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
19) In simple random sampling, each element in the population has a known and equal
probability of selection.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
20) Systematic sampling is different from simple random sampling in that only the permissible
samples of size n that can be drawn have a known and equal probability of selection. The
remaining samples of size n have zero probability of being selected.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
21) For simple random sampling, the researcher assumes that the population elements are
ordered in some respect
Answer: FALSE
LO : 5
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22) When conducting stratified sampling only simple random sampling should be employed in
selecting the elements from each stratum.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
23) Stratified sampling differs from quota sampling in that the sample elements are selected
probabilistically rather than based on convenience or judgment.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
24) The elements within a stratum should be as heterogeneous as possible, but the elements in
different strata should be as homogeneous as possible.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 5
25) The number of strata to use is a matter of judgment, but experience suggests the use of no
more than eight.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 5
26) The logic behind proportionate sampling is simple. Strata with larger relative sizes are more
influential in determining the population mean, and these strata should also exert a greater
influence in deriving the sample estimates.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 5
27) A common form of cluster sampling is area sampling, in which the clusters consist of
geographic areas such as counties, housing tracts, or blocks.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
28) A major issue related to Internet sampling is representativeness because of lack of computer
ownership and Internet access in many households in the United States.
Answer: TRUE
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 9
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29) To avoid sampling errors, the Internet researcher must be able to control the pool from which
respondents are selected.
Answer: TRUE
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 9
30) The online recruited Internet sampling technique can be further classified as convenience or
judgment.
Answer: FALSE
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 9
31) Only the nonprobability sampling techniques can be implemented using both types of
Internet panels.
Answer: FALSE
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 9
32) Sampling techniques and procedures vary in accuracy, reliability, and cost from country to
country.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 7
33) If the same sampling procedures are used in each country, the results should be comparable.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 7
34) The researcher has an ethical responsibility to the client to develop a sampling design that is
appropriate for controlling the sampling and nonsampling errors.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 8
35) It is ok to treat nonprobability samples as probability samples and to project the results to a
target population.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 6
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36) The researcher has the ethical obligation to protect the identities of the respondents, even if it
means limiting the level of sampling detail that is reported to the client and other parties.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 8
37) There are several basic questions involved in sampling design. "Should a sample be taken?
If so, what process should be followed?" are two such questions. Which of the following
questions is also involved in sampling design?
A) What kind of sample should be taken?
B) How large should the sample be?
C) What can be done to control and adjust for nonresponse errors?
Answer: D
LO : 2
38) The aggregate of all the elements, sharing some common set of characteristics, that
comprises the universe for the purpose of the marketing problem is the ________.
A) population
B) sampling frame
C) element
D) census
Answer: A
LO : 2
39) A complete enumeration of the elements of a population or study objects is a ________.

A) population
B) target population
C) element
D) census
Answer: D
LO : 2
40) A subgroup of the elements of the population selected for participation in the study is a
________.
A) judgmental sample
B) sample
C) sampling unit
D) sampling frame
Answer: B
LO : 2
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41) Which of the following conditions does not favor the use of a census (Table 11.1 in the
text)?
A) There is high variance in the characteristic to be measured.
B) The cost of nonsampling errors is low.
C) The population is large.
D) The cost of sampling errors is high.
Answer: C
LO : 2
42) Which of the following conditions does not favor the use of a sample (Table 11.1 in the
text)?
A) There are budget and time limit constraints.
B) The population is large.
C) The cost of nonsampling errors is high.
D) The cost of sampling errors is high.
Answer: D
LO : 2
43) The collection of elements or objects that possess the information sought by the researcher
and about which inferences are to be made is a ________.
A) population
C) element
D) census
Answer: B
LO : 2
44) The object that possesses the information sought by the researcher and about which
inferences are to be made is a ________.
A) population
C) element
D) census
Answer: C
LO : 2
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45) The basic unit containing the elements of the population to be sampled is the ________.
B) sample
C) sampling unit
D) sampling frame
Answer: C
LO : 2
46) Which statement is correct about defining the target population?

A) Imprecise definition of the target population will result in research that is ineffective at best
and misleading at worst.
B) Defining the target population involves translating the problem definition into a precise
statement of who should and should not be included in the sample.
C) The target population should be defined in terms of elements, sampling units, extent, and
time.
Answer: D
LO : 2
47) The target population should be defined in terms of all of the following except ________.
A) sampling units
B) extent
C) time
D) size
Answer: D
LO : 2
48) The target population for the department store project was defined as "male or female head
of household responsible for most of the shopping at department stores in metro Atlanta in
2009." "Metro Atlanta" is what part of the target population definition?
A) elements
B) sampling unit
C) extent
D) time
Answer: C
LO : 2
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49) The target population for the department store project was defined as "male or female head
of household responsible for most of the shopping at department stores in metro Atlanta in
2009." "Male or female head of household responsible for most of the shopping at department
stores" is what part of the target population definition?
A) elements
B) sampling unit
C) extent
D) time
Answer: A
LO : 2
50) A representation of the elements of the target population consisting of a list or set of
directions for identifying the target population is a ________.
B) sample
C) sampling unit
D) sampling frame
Answer: D
LO : 2
51) Decisions concerning whether to use a Bayesian or traditional sampling approach, to sample
with or without replacement, and to use nonprobability or probability sampling pertain to which
step in the sampling design process (Figure 11.1 in the text)?
A) Determine the sampling frame.
B) Select a sampling technique(s).
C) Determine the sample size.
D) Execute the sampling process.
Answer: B
LO : 2
52) ________ is a selection method where the elements are selected sequentially. It explicitly
incorporates prior information about population parameters as well as the costs and probabilities
associated with making wrong decisions.
A) Bayesian approach
B) Sampling with replacement
C) Sampling without replacement
D) Simple random sampling
Answer: A
LO : 2
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53) ________ is a sampling technique in which an element cannot be included in the sample
more than once.
A) Bayesian approach
B) Sampling with replacement
C) Sampling without replacement
Answer: C
LO : 2
54) If the researcher is concerned about the number of variables, the nature of the analysis, and
completion rates, then, he/she is at which stage of the sampling design process (Figure 11.1 in
the text)?
A) Determine the sampling frame.
B) Select a sampling technique(s).
C) Determine the sample size.
D) Execute the sampling process.
Answer: C
LO : 2
55) The sample size decision should be guided by certain qualitative considerations. Which of
the following is not one of those considerations?
A) the resource constraints
B) the average size of samples in similar studies
C) the sampling technique to be used
D) the nature of the results
Answer: D
LO : 2
56) ________ requires a detailed specification of how the sampling design decisions with respect
to the population, sampling frame, sampling unit, sampling techniques, and sample size are to be
implemented.
A) Determination of the sampling frame
B) Selection of a sampling technique(s)
C) Determination of the sample size
D) Execution of the sampling process
Answer: D
LO : 2
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57) ________ is a sampling procedure in which each element of the population has a fixed
probabilistic chance of being selected for the sample.
A) Nonprobability sampling
B) Probability sampling
C) Convenience sampling
D) Judgmental sampling
Answer: B
LO : 3
58) ________ attempts to obtain a sample of convenient elements. The selection of sampling
units is left primarily to the interviewer.
Answer: C
LO : 4
59) ________ is a form of convenience sampling in which the population elements are selected
based on the judgment of the researcher.
Answer: D
LO : 4
60) ________ does not allow direct generalizations to a specific population, usually because the
population is not defined explicitly.
A) Snowball sampling
B) Judgmental sampling
Answer: B
LO : 4
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61) Which statement is not true about judgmental sampling?

A) It does not allow direct generalizations to a specific population.
B) It may be useful if broad population inferences are not required.
C) Each population element has a known and equal probability of selection.
D) An extension of the technique involves the use of quotas.
Answer: C
LO : 4
62) Which of the following statements is not true about quota sampling?
A) There is no assurance that the sample is representative.
B) Many sources of selection bias are potentially present.
C) Under certain conditions, quota sampling obtains results close to those for conventional
probability sampling.
D) An important decision involves the use of proportionate or disproportionate sampling.
Answer: D
LO : 4
63) Which of the following statements is true about snowball sampling?

A) In snowball sampling a decision rule is used to indicate whether sampling should be
continued or whether enough information has been obtained.
B) Snowball sampling is used in industrial buyer-seller research to identify buyer-seller pairs.
C) In snowball sampling an initial group of respondents is selected, usually at random.
D) Both B and C are true.
Answer: D
LO : 4
64) All of the following statements are true about snowball sampling except ________.
A) snowball sampling can result in samples that are very large or spread over large geographic
areas, thus increasing the time and cost of data collection
B) a major objective of snowball sampling is to estimate characteristics that are rare in the
population
C) the major advantage of snowball sampling is that it substantially increases the likelihood of
locating the desired characteristics in the population
D) snowball sampling results in relatively low sampling variance and costs
Answer: A
LO : 4
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65) The major advantage of ________ is that it substantially increases the likelihood of locating
the desired characteristic in the population.
A) snowball sampling
B) quota sampling
C) judgmental sampling
D) convenience sampling
Answer: A
LO : 4
66) The efficiency of a probability sampling technique may be assessed by comparing it to that
of ________.
A) nonprobability sampling
B) systematic sampling
C) simple random sampling
D) stratified sampling
Answer: C
LO : 5
67) ________ is a probability sampling technique in which each element in the population has a
known and equal probability of selection. Every element is selected independently of every
other element and the sample is drawn by a random procedure from a sampling frame.
A) Stratified sampling
B) Simple random sampling
C) Systematic sampling
D) Cluster sampling
Answer: B
LO : 5
68) The ________ method is equivalent to a lottery system in which names are placed in a
container, the container is shaken, and the names of the winners are then drawn out in an
unbiased manner.
A) nonprobability sampling
C) simple random sampling
Answer: C
LO : 5
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69) All of the following statements are limitations of simple random sampling except ________.
A) it is often difficult to construct a sampling frame that will permit a simple random sample to
be drawn
B) simple random sampling often results in lower precision with larger standard errors than other
probability sampling techniques
C) simple random sampling may or may not result in a representative sample
D) the sample results may be projected to the target population
Answer: D
LO : 5
70) ________ is a probability sampling technique in which the sample is chosen by selecting a
random starting point and then picking every ith element in succession from the sampling frame.
D) Cluster sampling
Answer: C
LO : 5
71) Systematic sampling is similar to simple random sampling. Which of the statements below
about systematic sampling does not relate to the systematic sampling and simple random
sampling similarity?
A) Each population element has a known and equal probability of selection.
B) If the population elements are arranged in a manner unrelated to the characteristic to interest,
systematic sampling will yield results quite similar to simple random sampling.
C) The random numbers do not have to be matched with individual elements.
D) Systematic sampling is a type of probability sampling.
Answer: C
LO : 5
72) ________ is a probability sampling technique that uses a two-step process to partition the
population into subpopulations, or strata. Elements are selected from each stratum by a random
procedure.
D) Cluster sampling
Answer: A
LO : 5
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73) A major objective of ________ is to increase precision without increasing cost.

A) quota sampling
B) cluster sampling
C) sequential sampling
Answer: D
LO : 5
74) The criteria for the selection of stratification variables consist of all of the following except
________.
A) homogeneity
B) relatedness
C) cost
D) order
Answer: D
LO : 5
75) Which of the statements below is not true about stratified sampling?
A) Stratified sampling can ensure that all the important subpopulations are represented in the
sample.
B) The researcher assumes that the population elements are ordered in some respect.
C) Most approaches to statistical inference assume that the data have been collected by stratified
sampling.
D) Both B and C are not true.
Answer: D
LO : 5
76) In ________, the target population is first divided into mutually exclusive and collectively
exhaustive subpopulations, or clusters.
A) stratified sampling
B) simple random sampling
C) systematic sampling
D) cluster sampling
Answer: D
LO : 5
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77) Which of the following is not a form of nonprobability sampling?

A) convenience sampling
B) cluster sampling
C) quota sampling
D) snowball sampling
Answer: B
LO : 4
78) Which of the following is not a stage of cluster sampling?

A) one-stage sampling
B) two-stage sampling
C) zero-stage sampling
D) multi-stage sampling
Answer: C
LO : 5
79) Cluster sampling and stratified sampling differ in all of the following ways except ________.
A) the number of subpopulations chosen
B) their objectives
C) classification of sampling techniques
D) with respect to homogeneity and heterogeneity
Answer: C
LO : 5
80) Which statement is not true about cluster sampling?

A) The researcher may have to rely on intuition and logic to determine sample sizes for each
cluster.
B) Cluster sampling is the most cost-effective probability sampling technique.
C) It can be difficult to compute and interpret statistics based on clusters.
D) The two major advantages of cluster sampling are feasibility and low cost.
Answer: A
LO : 5
81) Which sampling technique can help the researcher estimate rare characteristics (Table 11.4 in
the text)?
A) convenience sampling
B) quota sampling
C) judgmental sampling
D) snowball sampling
Answer: D
LO : 4
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82) Which sampling technique can increase representativeness, is easier to implement than
simple random sampling and does not require a sampling frame (Table 11.4 in the text)?
C) cluster sampling
D) area sampling
Answer: B
LO : 5
83) In ________ the sample size is not known in advance, but a decision rule is stated before the
sampling begins. At each stage, this rule indicates whether sampling should be continued or
whether enough information has been obtained.
B) double sampling
C) sequential sampling
D) systematic sampling
Answer: C
LO : 5
84) ________ can be useful when no sampling frame is readily available for selecting final
sampling units but when the elements of the frame are known to be contained within a broader
sampling frame.
B) Double sampling
C) Sequential sampling
D) Systematic sampling
Answer: B
LO : 5
85) ________ has been used to determine preferences for two competing alternatives.
A) Area sampling
B) Double sampling
C) Probability proportionate to size sampling
D) Sequential sampling
Answer: D
LO : 5
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86) The choice between nonprobability and probability samples should be based on all of the
following considerations except (Table 11.5 in the text) ________.
A) the nature of the research
B) size of the population
C) variability in the population
D) statistical and operational considerations
Answer: B
LO : 6
87) All of the factors listed below favor the use of probability sampling except (Table 11.5 in the
text) ________.
A) nonsampling errors are likely to be an important factor
B) the nature of the research is conclusive
C) the population is heterogeneous with respect to variables of interest
D) highly accurate estimates of population characteristics are required
Answer: A
LO : 6
88) All of the following are examples of nonpanel recruited sampling methods used in Internet
research except ________.
A) use of e-mail lists that have been rented from suppliers
B) offline techniques such as short telephone screening interviews to recruit Internet samples
C) a store may hand its customers a flier directing them to a specific-password protected site
D) All of the above are nonpanel recruited sampling methods.
Answer: D
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 9
89) Probability sampling techniques are uncommon in international marketing research because
of all of the following reasons except ________.
A) lack of suitable sampling frames
B) the inaccessibility of certain respondents, such as women in some cultures
C) the dominance of personal interviewing
D) lack of trained researchers
Answer: D
LO : 7
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90) Consumer research conducted in Mexico and Saudi Arabia used different sampling
techniques for the same study. In Mexico, ________ was used by having experts identify
neighborhoods where the target respondents lived; homes were then randomly selected for
interviews. In Saudi Arabia, ________ employing the snowball procedure was used because
there were no lists from which sampling frames could be drawn and social customs prohibited
spontaneous personal interviews.
A) systematic sampling; convenience sampling
B) systematic sampling; quota sampling
C) judgmental sampling; convenience sampling
D) quota sampling; judgmental sampling
Answer: C
LO : 7
91) Which situation poses ethical concerns for the researcher in terms of preserving the
anonymity of the respondents?
A) when the population size is large
B) sampling details that are too revealing
C) verbatim quotations in reports to the client
D) both B and C
Answer: D
LO : 8
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Chapter 13 Fieldwork
1) Fieldwork is the sixth step in the marketing research process.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
2) The persons who design the research frequently collect marketing research data.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
3) All fieldwork involves the selection, training, and supervision of persons who collect data.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
4) Researchers generally agree that the more characteristics the interviewer and the respondent
have in common, the smaller the probability of a successful interview.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
5) The typical interviewer is a married woman age 25 to 34, with an above-average education
and an above-average household income.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
6) Training of field workers can be conducted by video conferencing or using the Internet.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
7) Training ensures that all interviewers administer the questionnaire in the same manner so that
the data can be collected uniformly.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
8) A slight change in the wording, sequence, or manner in which a question is asked does not
distort its meaning or bias the response.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
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9) (AO?) stands for the probing comment "any other reason."

Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
10) Interviewers should record responses after the interview.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
11) The general rule for recording answers to unstructured questions is to check the box that
reflects the respondent's answer.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 2
12) When recording respondents' answers, interviewers should include all probes and comments.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
13) As a part of central office control, supervisors should keep a record of hours worked and
expenses.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
14) Cheating involves falsifying part of a question or the entire questionnaire.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
15) To validate the study, the supervisors call 25 to 30 percent of the respondents to inquire
whether the field workers actually conducted the interviews.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
16) The evaluation of field workers should be based on the criteria of cost and time, response
rates, quality of interviewing, and quality of data.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
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17) If interviewer costs differ by city size, comparisons should be made only among field
workers working in comparable cities.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
18) Supervisors can help interviewers with an inordinate number of refusals by listening to the
introductions they use and providing immediate feedback.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
19) The quality of interviewing should be evaluated in terms of the appropriateness of the
introduction.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
20) In their guidelines on interviewing, the Council of American Survey Research Organizations
suggests that interviewers do not reveal the identity of the ultimate client unless instructed to do
so.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
suggests that interviewers have unnecessary side conversations with the respondent in an effort
to make the respondent more comfortable.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
suggests that interviewers keep a tally on each terminated interview and the reason for each
termination.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
23) Marketing research is being given a negative image because of the misperception that
marketing researchers misuse information they collect.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 7
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24) To make the respondents more comfortable and informed, some marketing research firms
and fieldwork agencies provide potential respondents with toll free numbers to verify the
information given by the field workers and to take the survey over the phone.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 7
25) Which of the following activities is not fieldwork?

A) a worker mailing questionnaires from an office
B) an observer counting customers in a particular section of a store
C) a statistician analyzing the results of a survey
D) a telephone interviewer calling from a central location
Answer: C
LO : 1
26) The Council for Marketing and Opinion Research offered several guidelines for reducing
refusal rates related to fieldwork. Which of the following is not one of those guidelines?
A) The subject matter should always be disclosed to the respondents.
B) Courtesy should be exercised when deciding what hours of the day to call respondents.
Calling between 9 a.m. and 9 p.m. is recommended.
C) If mall respondents indicate the time is not convenient, an appointment should be made to
conduct the interview later.
D) Interviewer training programs should be routinely administered so that field workers will be
effective at their jobs.
Answer: A
LO : 1
27) Which of the following is not one of the general qualifications of fieldworkers?
A) healthy
B) outgoing
C) experienced and middle-aged
D) pleasant appearance
Answer: C
LO : 1
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28) The training of field workers is critical. Which of the following statements is not true
regarding making the initial contact?
A) Interviewers should be trained to make opening remarks that will convince potential
respondents that their participation is important.
B) The interviewer should specifically ask the respondent's permission.
C) The interviewer should be instructed on handling objections and refusals.
D) The initial contact can result in cooperation or the loss of potential respondents.
Answer: B
LO : 2
29) Which of the following initial contact statements should be avoided?

A) May I have some of your valuable time?
B) We highly value your opinion and would like to ask you a few questions.
C) Would you like to answer a few questions?
D) Both A and C should be avoided.
Answer: D
LO : 2
30) If you are receiving field worker training and you are being told to "Ask questions in the
order in which they appear in the questionnaire;" and to "Repeat questions that are not
understood," then you are learning about which aspect of field worker training?
A) probing
B) making initial contact
C) asking questions
D) recording the answer
Answer: C
LO : 2
31) If you are receiving field worker training and are told to use an expectant pause or to reassure
the respondent with comments like, "There are no right or wrong answers. We are just trying to
get your opinions." then you are learning about which aspect of field worker training?
A) probing
B) making initial contact
C) asking questions
D) recording the answer
Answer: A
LO : 2
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32) Which statement is not true about probing?

A) Probing is intended to motivate respondents to enlarge on, clarify, or explain their answers.
B) Probing helps respondents focus on the specific content of the interview and provide only
relevant information.
C) Changing the phrasing or order of questions during the interview can make significant
differences in the response obtained.
D) Probing should not introduce any bias.
Answer: C
LO : 2
33) All of the following are commonly used probing techniques except ________.
A) using objective/neutral questions or comments
B) ask each applicable question
C) boosting or reassuring the respondent
D) eliciting clarification
Answer: B
LO : 2
34) "Do not summarize or paraphrase the respondent's answers." would be instructions included
in the ________ aspect of field worker training?
A) terminating the interview
B) probing
C) recording the answer
D) asking questions
Answer: C
LO : 2
35) Which statement is correct about terminating the interview?

A) Any spontaneous comments the respondent offers after the formal questions have been asked
should be recorded.
B) The interviewer should answer the respondent's questions about the project.
C) The respondent should be left with a positive feeling about the interview.
Answer: D
LO : 2
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36) Supervision of field workers includes all of the following except ________.
A) quality control and editing
B) sampling
C) control of cheating
D) central office control
Answer: B
LO : 3
37) Which aspect of supervising field workers requires checking to see if the field procedures are
being properly implemented?
B) control of cheating
C) central office control
D) sampling control
Answer: A
LO : 3
38) Supervisors involved in quality control and editing should do all of the following except
________.
A) supervisors should do some interviewing
B) supervisors should provide tabulation of important demographic characteristics
C) supervisors should collect questionnaires and other forms and edit them daily
D) supervisors should keep a record of hours worked and expenses
Answer: B
LO : 3
39) Which aspect of supervision ensures that the interviewers strictly follow the sampling plan
rather than select sampling units based on convenience or accessibility?
D) sampling control
Answer: D
LO : 3
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40) Supervisors should keep daily records of the number of calls made, number of not-at-homes,
number of refusals, number of completed interviews for each interviewer, and the total for all
interviewers under their control. These daily records are a part of ________.
D) sampling control
Answer: D
LO : 3
41) Which aspect of supervision includes tabulation of quota variables, important demographic
characteristics, and answers to key variables?
D) sampling control
Answer: C
LO : 3
42) ________ means verifying that the field workers are submitting authentic interviews.
A) Validation of fieldwork
B) Sampling control
C) Control of cheating
D) Evaluation of field workers
Answer: A
LO : 3
43) The evaluation of field workers should be based on which of the following criteria?
A) cost and time
B) response rates
C) quality of the data
D) all of the above
Answer: D
LO : 4
44) Field workers should be evaluated on which of the following?

A) time spent interviewing
B) time spent on administration activities
C) time spent traveling
D) all of the above
Answer: D
LO : 4
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45) The quality of interviewing should be evaluated in terms of ________.

A) interpersonal skills displayed during the interview
B) the ability to record all replies verbatim
C) the manner in which the interview is terminated
D) A and C are correct.
Answer: D
LO : 4
46) The quality of interviewing should be evaluated in terms of ________.

A) the precision with which the field worker asks questions
B) the ability to ask sensitive questions
C) the ability to probe in an unbiased manner
Answer: D
LO : 4
47) Indicators of quality data include all of the following except ________.
A) providing a tally on each terminated interview and the reason for termination
B) item nonresponse occurs infrequently
C) all instructions, including skip patterns, are followed
D) the answers to unstructured questions are meaningful and complete enough to be coded
Answer: A
LO : 4
48) Which statement does not apply only to international research?

A) Local fieldwork agencies are unavailable in many countries.
B) Local field workers can create an appropriate climate for the interview and be sensitive to the
concerns of the respondents.
C) A global approach to marketing research is desired, which may require using the same
methodologies for studies conducted in the United States so that U.S. data can be compared to
other countries.
D) Interviewer cheating may be more of a problem in many foreign countries than in the United
States.
Answer: C
LO : 5
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49) Respecting the respondent's privacy, feelings, and dignity and ensuring the integrity of the
data collection process are aspects of ________.
A) ethics in marketing research
B) evaluation of field workers
C) training of field workers
D) supervision of field workers
Answer: A
LO : 6
50) Which SPSS data entry product allows you to simply print the form after it has been
designed for a mail survey or personal interviewing?
A) SPSS DE Builder
B) SPSS Data Entry Station
C) SPSS Data Entry Enterprise Server (DEES)
Answer: A
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 7
51) Which SPSS data entry product allows you to upload a copy of the questionnaire to a Web
server so that data-entry operators or respondents can log on using a password and enter their
results without having to install anything on their local machine?
A) SPSS DE Builder
Answer: C
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 7
52) Which SPSS data entry product allows you to simulate a proper CATI system because you
can prepopulate the data with the phone number and basic details of the respondent so the
information appears as the operator moves through the list?
A) SPSS DE Builder
Answer: B
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 7
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Chapter 14 Data Preparation
1) The data preparation process begins after the fieldwork is done.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 1
2) The data-preparation process is guided by the preliminary plan of data that was formulated in
the research design phase.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 1
3) The initial step in questionnaire checking involves a check of all questionnaires for
completeness and interviewing quality.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
4) If quotas or cell group sizes have not been met, additional interviews should be conducted in
the underrepresented cells before the data are edited.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
5) At the editing stage, the researcher makes a preliminary check for consistency.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
6) Unsatisfactory respondents may differ from satisfactory respondents in systematic ways and
the decision to designate a respondent as unsatisfactory may be subjective. Both of these factors
bias the results.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 2
7) When entering respondent data into a spreadsheet, each column contains the data for one
respondent.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
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8) The following codes should be included for each respondent: project code, interviewer code,
date and time codes, category codes, and validation code.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
9) If possible, standard codes should be used for missing data.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
10) Missing value codes should be distinct from the codes assigned to the legitimate responses.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
11) When setting up the code book for a questionnaire, you would allow 2 columns to code the
response to the question
"Do you have a valid passport? 1. yes 2. no"
Answer: FALSE
LO : 3
12) A codebook contains coding instructions and the necessary information about variables in
the data set. It guides the coders in their work and helps the researcher to properly identify and
locate the variables.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 3
13) Given the time and cost constraints, as well as the fact that experienced keypunch operators
are quite accurate, it is sufficient to verify only 15-25 percent of the data entered by
keypunching.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
14) Scanning of questionnaires has allowed Princess Cruises to increase the accuracy of their
survey results.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
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15) The selection of data-transcription method is guided by the type of interviewing method used
and the availability of equipment.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
16) Data cleaning includes consistency checks and treatment of missing responses. The checks
at this stage are less extensive than the checks made during editing.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
17) Computer packages like SPSS, SAS, EXCEL, and MINITAB can be programmed to identify
out-of-range values for each variable and print related code information to make it easy to check
each variable systematically for out-of-range values.
Answer: TRUE
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 10
18) Responses can be logically inconsistent.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
19) All extreme values result from errors and point to problems with the data.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 4
20) Missing responses represent values of a variable that are unknown, either because
respondents provided ambiguous answers or their answers were not properly recorded.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
21) Treatment of missing responses poses problems, particularly if the proportion of missing
responses is more than 10 percent.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 4
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22) The value 1.0 represents the weighted case.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 5
23) The effect of weighting is to increase or to decrease the number of cases in the sample that
possess certain characteristics.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
24) When utilizing weighting, categories underrepresented in the sample receive lower weights,
whereas overrepresented categories receive higher weights.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 5
25) The purpose of respecification is to create variables that are consistent with the objectives of
the study.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
26) Square root and log transformations are seldom used in the respecification of variables.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 5
27) An important variable respecification procedure involves the use of dummy variables.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
28) The use of dummy variables refers to a respecification procedure using variables that take on
only two values, usually 0 or 1.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
29) Dummy variables are used to respecify categorical variables.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
115

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30) The general rule for respecifying categorical variables with K categories is that K dummy
variables are needed.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 5
31) When respecifying a categorical variable with K categories, only K - 1 dummy variables are
needed because only K - 1 categories are independent.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
32) To standardize a scale Xi, we first subtract the mean, , from each score and divide by the
standard error, S .
Answer: FALSE
LO : 5
33) Standardized zi scores can be obtained as: Zi = (X - )/s.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 5
34) Statistical techniques can be classified as univariate or multivariate.

Answer: TRUE
LO : 7
35) Univariate techniques can be classified based on whether the data are metric or nonmetric.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 7
36) Metric data are measured on a nominal or ordinal scale.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 7
116

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37) Nonmetric data are measured on an interval or ratio scale.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 7
38) When using univariate techniques, the number of samples is determined based on how the
data are treated for the purpose of analysis, not based on how the data were collected.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 7
39) Univariate techniques can be classified as dependence techniques or interdependence

techniques.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 7
40) Analysis of interobject similarity can be conducted by cluster analysis and multiple
discriminant analysis.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 7
41) In interdependence techniques, the variables are classified as dependent or independent.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 7
42) The major technique for examining variable interdependence is factor analysis.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 7
43) When conducting international marketing research, enough data must be obtained from each
individual to allow analysis at the individual level.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 8
117

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44) Within-country analysis is also referred to as intercultural analysis.

Answer: FALSE
LO : 8
45) Consider the example of a respondent who indicates an extremely favorable attitude toward
spectator sports on all of the positively worded statements in a survey and an extremely negative
attitude on statements that were reversed. Decisions whether such respondents should be
discarded, that is, not included in the analysis, can raise ethical concerns. A good rule of thumb
is to make such decisions during the data-preparation phase before conducting the analysis.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 9
46) The objective of Pancultural analysis is to assess the comparability of findings from one
country to another.
Answer: FALSE
LO : 8
47) When doing international research, differences in means, differences in distribution, and
differences in variance should be assessed.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 8
48) Ethical issues that arise during the data preparation and analysis step of marketing research
process pertain mainly to the researcher.
Answer: TRUE
LO : 9
49) Information useful for formulating a data analysis strategy is not readily available on the
internet.
Answer: FALSE
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 10
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50) SPSS Data Entry allows you to verify that respondents have answered completely by setting
rules. These rules can be used on existing datasets to validate and check the data only of
questionnaires that were constructed in Data Entry.
Answer: FALSE
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 10
51) SPSS Missing Values Analysis can assist in diagnosing missing values and replacing missing
values with estimates. The missing values can also be treated within the context of the SPSS
Base module.
Answer: TRUE
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 10
52) Which of the following is not a step in the data-preparation process?

A) editing
B) select a sampling technique
C) transcribing
D) data cleaning
Answer: B
LO : 1
53) If you are counting and classifying questionnaires to determine if quotas and cell group sizes
have been met, you are at the ________ step of the data-preparation process.
A) questionnaire checking
B) coding
C) data cleaning
D) editing
Answer: A
LO : 2
54) A questionnaire returned from the field may be unacceptable for several reasons. Which of
the reasons below is not one of those reasons?
A) Parts of the questionnaire may be incomplete.
B) The returned questionnaire is physically incomplete.
C) The questionnaire is answered by someone who does not qualify for participation.
D) The questionnaire does not uplift, motivate, or encourage the respondent to become involved.
Answer: D
LO : 2
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55) If you discover that a respondent has consistently checked the same response on a series of
scales or that skip patterns were not followed on a questionnaire, more than likely you are
participating in the ________ step of the data-preparation process.
A) coding
B) data cleaning
C) questionnaire checking
D) editing
Answer: C
LO : 2
56) The ________ step of the data-preparation process consists of screening questionnaires to
identify illegible, incomplete, inconsistent, or ambiguous responses.
A) coding
B) data cleaning
D) editing
Answer: D
LO : 2
57) During a preliminary check for consistency, you found a respondent had reported an annual
income of less than $20,000, yet indicated frequent shopping at prestigious department stores
such as Saks Fifth Avenue and Neiman Marcus. You are at the ________ step of the data-
preparation process.
A) coding
B) data cleaning
D) editing
Answer: D
LO : 2
58) Unsatisfactory responses uncovered in the editing stage of the data-preparation process are
commonly handled by doing any of the following except ________.
A) recoding unsatisfactory responses
B) assigning missing values
C) discarding unsatisfactory responses
D) returning to the field to get better data
Answer: A
LO : 2
120

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59) Which treatment of unsatisfactory responses is particularly attractive for business and
industrial marketing surveys where the sample sizes are small and the respondents are easily
identifiable?
A) returning to the field to get better data
B) recoding unsatisfactory responses
D) assigning missing values
Answer: A
LO : 2
60) Which treatment of unsatisfactory responses is desirable if (1) the number of respondents
with unsatisfactory responses is small; (2) the proportion of unsatisfactory responses for each of
these respondents is small; or (3) the variables with unsatisfactory responses are not the key
variables?
B) classifying and counting questionnaires accordingly
Answer: D
LO : 2
61) Which treatment of unsatisfactory responses is desirable if (1) the unsatisfactory respondents
do not differ from satisfactory respondents in obvious ways (e.g., demographics, product usage
characteristics), (2) the proportion of unsatisfactory responses for each of these respondents is
large, or (3) responses on key variables are missing?
B) classifying and counting questionnaires accordingly
Answer: C
LO : 2
62) ________ is the assignment of a code to represent a specific response to a specific question
along with the data record and column position that code will occupy.
A) Coding
B) Data cleaning
C) Assignment of missing values
D) Editing
Answer: A
LO : 3
121

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63) A code in which the number of records for each respondent are the same, and the same data
appear in the same columns for all respondents, is a ________.
A) respondent code
B) fixed-field code
C) category code
D) record code
Answer: B
LO : 3
64) The general guidelines for coding unstructured questions and questionnaires include all of
the following except ________.
A) category codes should be mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive
B) category codes should be assigned for critical issues even if no one has mentioned them
C) answers should be abbreviated as much as possible
D) data should be coded to retain as much detail as possible
Answer: C
LO : 3
65) A codebook generally contains all of the following information except ________.
A) record number
B) category number
C) instructions for coding
D) variable name
Answer: B
LO : 3
66) ________ involves transferring the coded data from the questionnaires or coding sheets onto
disks or magnetic tapes, or directly into computers by keypunching.
A) Coding data
B) Editing data
C) Transcribing data
D) Data Cleaning
Answer: C
LO : 4
122

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67) If the data have been collected via ________, transcribing data is unnecessary because the
data are entered directly into the computer.
A) CATI
B) mark sense forms
C) CAPI
Answer: D
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 4
68) ________ require(s) responses to be recorded with a special pencil in a pre-designated area
coded for that response.
A) CATI or CAPI
B) Computerized sensory systems
C) Mark sense forms
D) Optical scanning
Answer: C
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 4
69) ________ involves direct machine reading of the codes and simultaneous transcription.
A) CATI or CAPI
C) Mark sense forms
D) Optical scanning
Answer: D
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 4
70) ________ utilizes questions that appear on a computerized gridpad. The responses are
recorded directly into the computer using a sensing device.
A) CATI or CAPI
C) Mark sense forms
D) Optical scanning
Answer: B
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 4
123

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71) Respondents have been asked to express their degree of agreement with a series of lifestyle
statements on a 1-to-5 scale, assuming that 9 has been designated for missing values, data values
of 0, 6, 7, and 8 are out of range. Where in the data-preparation process might any out-of-range
data be caught?
A) coding
B) transcribing
C) data cleaning
D) statistically adjusting the data
Answer: C
LO : 4
72) Respondents have been asked to express their degree of agreement with a series of lifestyle
statements on a 1-to-5 scale, assuming that 9 has been designated for missing values, data values
of 0, 6, 7, and 8 are out of range. Where in the data cleaning process might any out-of-range data
be caught?
A) consistency checks
B) returning to the field
C) treatment of missing responses
Answer: A
LO : 4
73) Which of the following is an option available for the treatment of missing values?
A) substitute a neutral value
B) substitute an imputed response
D) returning to the field
Answer: C
LO : 4
74) If the researcher uses the mean response for the missing value, he/she is using which option
for the treatment of missing values?
A) returning to the field
B) casewise deletion
C) substitute an imputed response
D) substitute a neutral value
Answer: D
LO : 4
124

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75) Which option for the treatment of missing values involves the researcher using the
respondents' pattern of responses to calculate a suitable response to the missing questions?
C) substitute an imputed response
Answer: C
LO : 4
76) Which option for the treatment of missing values involves cases, or respondents, with any
missing responses being discarded from the analysis?
C) pairwise deletion
Answer: B
LO : 4
77) Which option for the treatment of missing values involves the researcher using only cases or
respondents with complete responses for each calculation?
C) pairwise deletion
Answer: C
LO : 4
78) The effect of ________ is to increase or decrease the number of cases in the sample that
possess certain characteristics.
A) weighting
B) variable respecification
C) scale transformation
D) standardization
Answer: A
LO : 5
125

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79) In ________, each case or respondent in the database is assigned a weight to reflect its
importance relative to other cases or respondents.
A) standardization
B) variable respecification
C) scale transformation
D) weighting
Answer: D
LO : 5
80) You would use weighting under which circumstance?

A) to create new variables that are composites of several other variables
B) to adjust the sample so that greater importance is attached to respondents with certain
characteristics
C) to compare attitudinal scores measured on a seven-point semantic differential scale with
lifestyle or image scores measured on a five-point Likert scale
Answer: B
LO : 5
81) If in conducting a study to determine what modifications should be made on an existing

product the researcher assigns weights of 4.0 to heavy users, 3.0 to medium users, 2.0 to light
users, and 1.0 to nonusers. Which group's opinion has greater importance?
A) nonusers
B) light users
C) medium users
D) heavy users
Answer: D
LO : 5
82) ________ involves the transformation of data to create variables or modify existing
variables.
A) Standardization
B) Variable respecification
C) Scale transformation
D) Weighting
Answer: B
LO : 5
126

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83) Dummy variables are also called all of the names below except ________.
A) binary
B) instrumental
C) quantitative
D) dichotomous
Answer: C
LO : 5
84) You would use variable respecification under which circumstance?

characteristics
C) to compare attitudinal scores measured on a seven-point semantic differential scale with
lifestyle or image scores measured on a five-point Likert scale
Answer: A
LO : 5
85) ________ involves a manipulation of scale values to ensure comparability with other scales
or otherwise make the data suitable for analysis.
A) Standardization
B) Variable respecification
C) Scale transformation
D) Weighting
Answer: C
LO : 5
86) You would use scale transformation under which circumstance?

characteristics
C) to compare image variables measured on a seven-point semantic differential scale with
attitude variables measured on a continuous rating scale and lifestyle variables measured on a
five-point Likert scale
Answer: C
LO : 5
127

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87) Which statement is not true about standardization?

A) The standardized scale will have a mean of zero and a standard deviation of 1.
B) Standardization allows the researcher to compare variables that have been measured using
different types of scales.
C) Standardization is the process of correcting data to reduce them to the same scale by
subtracting the sample mean and dividing by the standard error.
D) Standardization is the process of correcting data to reduce them to the same scale by
subtracting the sample mean and dividing by the standard deviation.
Answer: C
LO : 5
88) Which is not a part of the process of selecting a data analysis strategy?
A) known characteristics of the data
B) classification of statistical techniques
C) background and philosophy of the researcher
D) properties of statistical techniques
Answer: B
LO : 6
89) ________ are appropriate when there is a single measurement of each element in the sample,
or there are several measurements of each element but each variable is analyzed in isolation.
A) Interdependence techniques
B) Dependence techniques
C) Multivariate techniques
D) Univariate techniques
Answer: D
LO : 7
90) ________ are suitable for analyzing data when there are two or more measurements of each
element and the variables are analyzed simultaneously.
Answer: C
LO : 7
128

lOMoARcPSD|16784245
91) Data that are interval or ratio in nature are ________.

A) metric data
B) independent data
C) nonmetric data
D) paired data
Answer: A
LO : 7
92) Data derived from a nominal or ordinal scale are ________.

A) metric data
B) independent data
C) nonmetric data
D) paired data
Answer: C
LO : 7
93) Univariate techniques can be classified based on ________.

A) whether the data are metric or nonmetric
B) whether one, two, or more than two samples are involved
C) whether interdependence techniques or dependence techniques are to be used
D) A and B are correct
Answer: D
LO : 7
94) When utilizing univariate techniques, for the purpose of analysis, data pertaining to different
groups of respondents, e.g., males and females, are generally treated as ________ samples while
the samples are ________ when the data for the two samples relate to the same group of
respondents.
A) metric; paired
B) independent; metric
C) independent; paired
D) paired; independent
Answer: C
LO : 7
129

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95) When utilizing univariate techniques, the samples are ________ if they are drawn randomly
from different populations.
A) metric data
B) independent
C) nonmetric data
D) paired
Answer: B
LO : 7
96) When utilizing univariate techniques, the samples are ________ when the data for the two
samples relate to the same group of respondents.
A) metric data
B) independent
C) nonmetric data
D) paired
Answer: D
LO : 7
97) When utilizing univariate techniques, for metric data, when there is (are) ________ the z test
and the t test can be used.
A) only one sample
B) two independent samples
C) more than two independent samples
Answer: D
LO : 7
98) When utilizing univariate techniques, for metric data, when there is (are) ________, one-way
analysis of variance (one-way ANOVA) can be used.
A) only one sample
D) two or more related samples
Answer: C
LO : 7
130

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99) When utilizing univariate techniques, for metric data, when there is (are) ________, the
paired t test can be used.
A) only one sample
Answer: D
LO : 7
100) When utilizing univariate techniques, for nonmetric data, when there is (are)________, chi-
square, Mann-Whitney, Median, K-S, and K-W one-way ANOVA tests can be used.
A) only one sample
C) more than two dependent samples
Answer: B
LO : 7
101) When utilizing univariate techniques, for nonmetric data, when there is (are)________,
sign, McNemar, and Wilcoxon tests can be used.
A) only one sample
C) more than two dependent samples
Answer: D
LO : 7
102) Univariate techniques can be classified based on ________.

A) whether the data are metric or nonmetric
B) whether one, or two or more samples are involved
C) whether interdependence techniques or dependence techniques are to be used
Answer: D
LO : 7
131

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103) ________ are appropriate when one or more variables can be identified as dependent
variables and the remaining are independent variables.
Answer: B
LO : 7
104) ________ are statistical techniques that attempt to group data based on underlying
similarity, and thus allow for interpretation of the data structures. No distinction is made as to
which variables are dependent and which are independent.
Answer: A
LO : 7
105) For multivariate statistical techniques, when there is ________, cross-tabulation, analysis of
variance and covariance, regression, two-group discriminant analysis, and conjoint analysis can
be used.
A) variable interdependence
B) one dependent variable
C) more than one dependent variable
D) interobject similarity
Answer: B
LO : 7
106) For multivariate statistical techniques, when there is ________, multivariate analysis of
variance and covariance and canonical correlation, and multiple discriminant analysis can be
used.
Answer: C
LO : 7
132

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107) ________ is a multivariate dependence technique with more than one dependent variable.
A) Two-group discriminant analysis
B) Multiple regression
C) Multidimensional scaling
D) Multiple discriminant analysis
Answer: D
LO : 7
108) The major multivariate technique for examining ________, is factor analysis.
Answer: A
LO : 7
109) For multivariate statistical techniques, when there is ________, cluster analysis and
multidimensional scaling can be used.
Answer: D
LO : 7
110) ________ requires that the data from each respondent be analyzed separately.
A) Cross-cultural analysis
B) Individual-level analysis
C) Pancultural analysis
D) Intracultural analysis
Answer: B
LO : 8
133

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111) ________ is within-country analysis of international data.

Answer: D
LO : 8
112) In ________, also known as across-countries analysis, the data of all the respondents can be
pooled and analyzed.
Answer: C
LO : 8
113) In ________, also known as across-countries analysis, the data can be aggregated for each
country and these aggregate statistics analyzed.
Answer: A
LO : 8
114) ________ is similar to that conducted in domestic marketing research. The objective is to
gain an understanding of the relationships and patterns existing in each country or cultural unit.
Answer: D
LO : 8
134

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115) The objective of this level of analysis is to assess the comparability of findings from one
country to another.
Answer: A
LO : 8
116) Which statement is true concerning ethical issues concerned with data preparation?
A) Researchers should try to get some idea about the quality of the data.
B) Discarding respondents after analyzing the data raises ethical concerns.
C) Any departure from the assumptions underlying the statistical techniques used to analyze the
data raises ethical concerns.
Answer: D
LO : 9
117) In Minitab the ________ and ________ statements can be used to select cases with missing
or out-of-range values.
A) Select If; ElseIf
B) Select If; Process If
C) If; ElseIf
D) If; If-Then
Answer: C
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 10
118) In Excel the ________ statement can be used to make a logical check.
A) If
B) ElseIf
C) Else
D) EndIf
Answer: A
AACSB: Use of IT
LO : 10
135

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lOMoARcPSD|16784245

Marketing Research (Western Sydney University)

Studocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university

MARKETING RESEARCH: AN APPLIED ORIENTATION

Chapter 1 Introduction to Marketing Research

5) Quick-Track® is a syndicated market research project conducted quarterly to track key

6) Marketing research is the systematic and objective identification, collection, analysis,

8) Sales analysis research is a type of problem solving research.

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specific marketing problems.

19) Marketing research suppliers can be classified as internal or external.

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34) According to the text, marketing research has become ________.

35) Marketing Research, as defined by the author, is everything except ________.

39) ________ is a type of problem identification research.

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45) The emphasis in marketing is on the identification and satisfaction of ________.

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50) Competitive intelligence ________.

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53) External research suppliers can be classified as ________ and ________.

56) Syndicated services ________.

57) Customized services ________.

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58) Limited-service suppliers ________.

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C) decision support system (DSS); DSS

65) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a decision support system?

66) Which of the following is true about a decision support system?

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Chapter 2 Defining the Marketing Research Problem and Developing an Approach

5) DMs tend to focus on symptoms rather than causes.

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should be advised not to undertake formal marketing research.

16) The economic environment component of the environmental context is comprised of

18) The management decision problem is action oriented.

19) The marketing research problem is information oriented.

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Downloaded by Nam Nguyen (22003308@student.westernsydney.edu.vn)

37) It is important to perform a problem audit because ________.

42) Which of the following statements about secondary data is true?

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D) Both B and C are true.

43) ________ is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples

44) ________ is not a qualitative research technique.

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environmental context of the problem.

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60) Unbiased evidence that is supported by empirical findings is ________.

65) Which statement about hypotheses is not true?

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Chapter 3 Research Design

9) The objective of exploratory research is to explore or search through a problem or situation to

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37) Which statement is not true about research design?

40) Which of the following tasks is not a component of research design?

53) External research suppliers can be classified as and .