FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & DETAILED SOLUTION

(Held On Tuesday 6th JUNE, 2023)
PHYSICS 2. A bullet of mass m hits a block of mass M
Section A elastically. The transfer of energy is the
1. The variation of susceptibility (x) with absolute maximum, when:
temperature (T) for a paramagnetic material is (1) M = m (2) M = 2m
represented as: (3) M << m (4) M >> m
Sol. (1)
In elastic collision maximum energy is transferred
 when ratio of the masses is 1, i.e., M = m
(1) 3. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –
13.6 eV. The energy needed to ionize hydrogen
1/T atom from its second excited state will be:
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 6.8 eV
(3) 1.51 eV (4) 3.4 eV
 Sol. (3)
(2) Total energy of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen
13.6
atom is given by En 
n2
1/T
Eground = E1 = –13.6eV
13.6
Esecond excited state = E3   1.51eV
32

(3) 13.6
  1.51eV
 3 2
To ionize, the e– must go to th orbit
1/T E  0
So, ionization energy = E  E3 =1.51eV

 4. The escape velocity of a body on the earth

(4)
surface is 11.2 km/s. If the same body is
projected upward with velocity 22.4 km/s, the
1/T velocity of this body at infinite distance from
Sol. (1) the centre of the earth will be:
By Curies Law for paramagnetic materials, (1) 11.2 2 km/s (2) Zero
1

T (3) 11.2 km/s (4) 11.2 3 km/s
1
So, vs graph will be straight line. Sol. (4)
T
2Gm
Ve  when u = 22.4 km/s
R
 GMm mu 2 mv 2
 
R 2 2
2GM 2 2
 v  u2    22.4   11.2 
R
1/T
 11.2 3km/s

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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

5. A lens is made up of 3 different transparent 8. The mechanical quantity, which has

media as shown in figure. A point O is placed dimensions of reciprocal of mass (M–1) is
on its axis beyond 2f. How many real images (1) angular momentum
will be obtained on the other side? (2) coefficient of thermal conductivity
(3) torque
(4) gravitational constant
Sol. (4)
Angular momentum = mvr
  Angular momentum    M  LT 1  L 
  ML2T 1 
(1) 2
Coefficient of thermal conductivity.
(2) 1 T
Q /t  KA
(3) No image will be formed L
(4) 3 QL
K
Sol. (4) At T
The lens is made up of three materials. So the lens ⇒ [ ] =[ ]
will behave like three different lenses. So, three Torques   rF
different images will be formed.     L  MLT 2    ML2T 2 
6. The diameter of a spherical bob, when Fr 2
Gravitational constant G 
measured with vernier calipers yielded the Mm
following values:  F  r 2   MLT 2  L2 
 G   
3.33 cm, 3.32 cm, 3.34 cm. 3.33 cm and 3.32  M  m   M  M 
cm. The mean diameter to appropriate  G    M 1 L3T 2 
significant figures is: Only gravitational constant contains the
dimension [M–1]
(1) 3.328 cm (2) 3.3 cm
9. The position of a particle is given by
(3) 3.33 cm (4) 3.32 cm 
Sol. (3) r (t )  4tiˆ  2t 2 ˆj  5kˆ
Mean diameter of the bob, dmean where t is in seconds and r is in metre. Find the
3.33  3.32  3.34  3.33  3.32
 magnitude and direction of velocity v(t), at t =
5
1 s,with respect to x-axis.
= 3.328
Rounding off to appropriate significant figures (1) 4 2ms 1 , 45 (2) 4 2ms 1 , 60
dmean = 3.33
(3) 3 2ms 1 ,30 (4) 3 2ms 1 , 45
7. On the basis of electrical conductivity, which
one of the following materials has the smallest Sol. (1)
resistivity?
 dr
(1) Germanium (2) Silver V  4iˆ  4tjˆ at t = 1sec
dt
(3) Glass (4) Silicon
 4iˆ  4 jˆ
Sol. (2)
V  4iˆ  4 ˆj
Metal has lowest resistivity. Silver is the only 4
metal among the given materials, hence its 
4
resistivity will be the least. 
V  4 2  42  4 2
4
tan    1
4
  45

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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

10. For the given cycle, the work done during 12. An ac source is connected in the given circuit.
isobaric process is: The value of  will be:
P(N/m2 )
 1
A B  H
3 × 102  

2 × 102

102 (1) 60° (2) 90°

C
(3) 30° (4) 45°
O V(m3) Sol. (4)
1 2 3
 is the phase difference between R and Z
(1) 200 J (2) Zero
(3) 400 J (4) 600 J
Sol. (4) Z
AB is Isobaric process 
WAB = PV R
= P(V2 – V1) R
cos  
WAB = 3 × 102 (3–1) Z
WAB = 3 ×100 × 2
Z  X L2  R 2
WAB = 600 J
11. The equivalent capacitance of the arrangement  1 2
  100    100 
shown in figure is:  
 100 2
100
 cos  
100 2
   45
13. The given circuit is equivalent to:

(1) 30 F (2) 15 F A
(3) 25 F (4) 20 F Y
Sol. (4) B
15F

A
15F E (1) Y
15F B

15 F
A


(2) Yv
B
 5 + 15
15 = 20
5 15 A
3
(3) Y
Ceq  20F B

A
(4) Y
B
Sol. (4)

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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

A Sol. (2)
A
A +B 1
Y Vmedium 
B 
B
1

Y  A  B  A B  A B 1.5 0  2 0
which is AND gate 1 1
 
3  0 0 3c
c

14. A particle moves with a velocity Vmedium
(5iˆ  3 ˆj  6kˆ ) ms–1 horizontally under the  3
action of constant force (10iˆ  10 ˆj  20kˆ) N. 17. The amount of elastic potential energy per unit
The instantaneous power supplied to the volume (in SI unit) of a steel wire of length 100
particle is: cm to stretch it by 1 mm is (if Young’s modulus
(1) 200 W (2) Zero of the wire = 2.0 × 1011 N m–2):
(3) 100 W (4) 140 W (1) 1011 (2) 1017
Sol. (4)
  (3) 107 (4) 105
P  F V
Sol. (2)
 P  10iˆ  10 ˆj  20 kˆ    5iˆ  3 ˆj  6 kˆ  Elastic potential energy per unit volume
 P = 50 – 30 + 120 1
  Stress  Strain
 P = 140W 2
15. A certain wire A has resistance 81. The 1
 
resistance of another wire B of same material 2
1
and equal length but of diameter thrice the  Y 
2
diameter of A will be:
1
(1) 81 (2) 9  Y 2
2
(3) 729 (4) 243 1
2
 1/10 
Sol. (2)   2  1011   
2  100 
l 1
We know that, R  ,   2  1011  106  105
A 2
, l are constant
18. The 4th overtone of a closed organ pipe is same
1
 R  as that of 3rd overtone of an open pipe. The ratio
A
1 of the length of the closed pipe to the length of
 R 2 the open pipe is:
D
R  D 
2
1
2
(1) 8:9 (2) 9:7
      R  81   9 
R  D  3 (3) 9:8 (4) 7:9
16. 0 and 0 are the electric permittivity and Sol. (3)
v
magnetic permeability of free space 4th overtone of closed pipe, f  9
4l
respectively. If the corresponding quantities of 3rd overtone of open pipe,
a medium are 20 and 1.5 0 respectively, the 4v
f
refractive index of the medium will nearly be: 2l 
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 3 (4) 2
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

 f  f 21. A ball is projected from point A with velocity 20

9v 4v l 9 ms–1 at an angle 60° to the horizontal direction. At
    the highest point B of the path (as shown in figure),
4l 2l  l  8 the velocity v ms–1 of the ball will be:
19. A long straight wire of length 2 m and mass 250
g is suspended horizontally in a uniform
horizontal magnetic field of 0.7T. The amount
of current flowing through the wire will be (g =
(1) 20 (2) 10 3
9.8 ms–2):
(3) Zero (4) 10
(1) 2.45 A (2) 2.25 A Sol. (4)
(3) 2.75 A (4) 1.75 A 
v  20 cos60iˆ  20sin 60 ˆj
At highest point, only horizontal component
Sol. (4) remains
Fm
 vtop  20cos60  10m/s
×B
22. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) Coefficient of viscosity is a scalar quantity
i (2) Surface tension is a scalar quantity
(3) Pressure is a vector quantity
mg (4) Relative density is a scalar quantity
For equilibrium Sol. (3)
Fm = mg Pressure does not have a direction, so it is a scalar
 Bil  mg quantity.
23. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic
mg field are acting along the same direction in a certain
i
lB region. If an electron is projected in the region such
0.250  9.8 that its velocity is pointed along the direction of
i  0.250  7
2  0.7 fields, then the electron:
i = 1.75A (1) will turn towards right of direction of motion
(2) will turn towards left of direction of motion
20. According to Gauss law of electrostatics, (3) speed will decrease
electric flux through a closed surface depends (4) speed will increase
on: Sol. (3)
(1) the area of the surface
(2) the quantity of charges enclosed by the  
FE –
u E,B
e
surface
(3) the shape of the surface
(4) the volume enclosed by the surface
Sol. (2) Force due to magnetic field,
  
According to Gauss’ Law, F  q v  B
q Fm = qvBsinθ
  enclosed
0 Since, θ = 0 ⇒ Fm = 0
Force due to electric field is
 only depends on charge enclosed by the surface  
and is independent of shape, volume or area of the FE  qE
 
region. Here, FE  eE
∴ Force due to electric field will be opposite to the
direction of projection of the e–. So, the e– will
decelerate in subsequent motion.

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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

24. A horizontal ray of light is incident on the right
angled prism with prism angle 6°. If the refractive
index of the material of the prism is 1.5, then the
angle of emergence will be:
27.
 of glass is such that green has grazing angle. For
large wavelengths larger ic will be needed. But
given ic is not sufficient.
So, Yellow, orange, red will emerge out in air.
If Z1 and Z2 are the impedances of the given circuits
(a) and (b) as shown in figures, then choose the
correct option

(1) 9° (2) 10°

(3) 4° (4) 6°
Sol. (1)
6°
(1) Z1 < Z2 (2) Z1 + Z2 = 20Ω
90 – 6° e (3) Z1 = Z2 (4) Z1 > ZX2
6° Sol. (1)
For fig(a), voltage source is a DC, So inductor
90° will behave as a connecting wire in steady state.
A+=i+e Z1  R  10
A+=e …(1) For fig (b),   2f = 100
A  r1  r2
1 1
 A  r2 XC    10
C 103 6
100   10
 6 
     1 A Z 2  R2  ( X C )2
   1.5  1  6 = 3°
 Z 2  (10) 2  (10) 2  10 2
Put in equation (1),
Z1 < Z2
6  3  e  e  9
28. The wavelength of Lyman series of hydrogen atom
25. A p-type extrinsic semiconductor is obtained when
Germanium is doped with: appears in:
(1) Antimony (2) Phosphorous (1) visible region (2) far infrared region
(3) Arsenic (4) Boron (3) ultraviolet region (4) infrared region
Sol. (4) Sol. (3)
To obtain a p-type semiconductor trivalent I line of Lyman series, appears where e–transits
impurity has to be added. Boron is a trivalent from n = 2 to n = 1
element. hC hC
 1  
26. Which set of colours will come out in air for a E E2  E1
situation shown in figure? 12400

3.4   13.6 
1215.6Å
Last line appears when transition happens from
n   to n  1
12400
(1) Yellow, Orange and Red   
13.6
(2) All
912Å
(3) Orange, Red and Violet
(4) Blue, Green and Yellow So, Lyman series lies in UV range.
Sol. (1) Alternate:
Critical angle is given as, From the order of series
1 Lyman  UV
sin ic    Balmer  visible

 ic  

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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

Paschen 32. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted

Bracket → Infrared photoelectrons in photoelectric effect is
Pfund independent of :
(1) work function of material
(2) intensity of incident radiation
(3) frequency of incident radiation
29. (4) wavelength of incident radiation
Sol. (2)
By Einstein’s equation
KEmax  hf  
The above figure shows the circuit symbol of a
hc
transistor. Select the correct statements given or KEmax  
below: 
(A) The transistor has two segments of p-type So, maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron is
semiconductor separated by a segment of n- independent of intensity of radiation.
type semiconductor. 33. Two particles A and B initially at rest, move
(B) The emitter is of moderate size and heavily towards each other under mutual force of
doped. attraction. At an instance when the speed of A is v
(C) The central segment is thin and lightly doped. and speed of B is 3v, the speed of centre of mass is:
(D) The emitter base junction is reverse biased in (1) 2v (2) zero
common amplifier circuit. (3) v (4) 4v
(1) (C) and (D) (2) (A) and (D)
Sol. (2)
(3) (A) and (B) (4) (B) and (C)
Ucom = 0
Sol. (4)   
The arrow shows that B is p-type, E is n-type. So, Since, Fext  0  acm  0 . So, Vcm will remain
C is also n-type. So transistor is NPN. zero.
Emitter is heavily doped. 34. A charge Q μC is placed at the centre of a cube.
Base is very lightly doped. The flux coming out from any one of its faces will
Emitter is of moderate size. be (in SI unit):
Base is of thin size. Q 2Q
(1)  10 6 (2)  10 3
E-B junction is forward biased for transistor to 0 3 0
function Q Q
30. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an (3)  10 3 (4)  10 6
6 0 6 0
electron, accelerated by a potential difference of 81
V is given by: Sol. (4)
(1) 13.6 nm (2) 136 nm Flux through the whole cube,
(3) 1.36 nm (4) 0.136 nm q
Sol. (4) net 
0
12.27 12.27 Charge is paced symmetrically wrt all faces, the
e  Å Å
V 81 flux through one face,
 = 1.36Å q
= 0.136nm net 
6 0
31. The maximum power is dissipated for an ac in a/an:
(1) resistive circuit Q  106

(2) LC circuit 6 0
(3) inductive circuit 35. The viscous drag acting on a metal sphere of
(4) capacitive circuit diameter 1 mm, falling through a fluid of viscosity
Sol. (1) 0.8 Pa s with a velocity of 2 ms–1 is equal to:
Pavg  Vrms I rms cos  (1) 15 × 10–3 N (2) 30 × 10–3 N
 Vrms I rms R /Z (3) 1.5 × 10–3 N (4) 20 × 10–3 N
2 Sol. (1)
But, Z  R 2   X L  X C  By stokes’ law
Z min  R Fd  6rv
Pavg is max when circuit is resistive

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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

 1  10 3 
  6  3.14     0.8   2 
 2 
 15 × 10–3 N
Section B
36. If R is the radius of the earth and g is the
acceleration due to gravity on the earth surface.
Then the mean density of the earth will be: hi
m  1
RG 3R h0
(1) (2)
12g 4gG v
  1  v  u
3g 4 G u
(3) (4)
4RG 3gR  x      4 f  x  
Sol. (3) x4f x
4 x2f
g  GR
3 x
3g or f 
 2
4RG 39. If a conducting sphere of radius R is charged. Then
37. A copper wire of radius 1 mm contains 1022 free the electric field at a distance r(r > R) from the
electrons per cubic metre. The drift velocity for centre of the sphere would be, (V = potential on the
free electrons when 10 A current flows through the surface of the sphere)
wire will be rV R 2V
(Given, charge on electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C): (1) 2
(2)
R r3
6.25  104 6.25
(1) ms1 (2)  103 ms 1 RV V
  (3) 2
(4)
r r
6.25 1 6.25  105 Sol. (3)
(3) ms (4) ms 1
  KQ
Sol. (2) E 2 …(1)
r
I  neAVd
KQ
I 10 V 2 …(2)
Vd   22 r
neA 10  1.6  1019    106 Diving (1) by (2)
6.25 E R
Vd   103 m/sec 
 V r2
38. An object is mounted on a wall. Its image of equal VR
size is to be obtained on a parallel wall with the E 2
r
help of a convex lens placed between these walls.
40. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on inclined rough
The lens is kept at distance x in front of the second
surface AC (as shown in figure) of coefficient of
wall. The required focal length of the lens will be:
friction μ. If g = 10 ms–2, the net force (in N) on the
x block will be:
(1) less than
4
x x
(2) more than but less than
4 2
x
(3)
2
x
(4)
4 (1) 10 3 (2) zero
Sol. (3) (3) 10 (4) 20
Sol. (2)
Angle of repose,
  tan 1   

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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

 1  Emax  NBA
  tan 1  
 3 = 100 × 0.05 × 1 × 2
= 30° = 10 × 
So, block will not slide. Hence, net force on the = 31.4 V
block is zero. 44. For very high frequencies, the effective impedance
41. A container of volume 200 cm3 contains 0.2 mole of the circuit (shown in the figure) will be:
of hydrogen gas and 0.3 mole of argon gas. The
pressure of the system at temperature 200 K (R =
8.3 JK–1 mol–1) will be:
(1) 6.15 × 105 Pa (2) 6.15 × 104 Pa
5
(3) 4.15 × 10 Pa (4) 4.15 × 106 Pa
Sol. (4)
By Dalton’s law of partial pressure (1) 4 Ω (2) 6 Ω
Pnet = P1 + P2 (3) 1 Ω (4) 3 Ω
n RT n2 RT
 1  Sol. (4)
V V
RT 1
  n1  n2  XC  , X L  L
V C
8.3  200(0.2  0.3) At very high frequencies
 X C  0, X L  
200  106
= 4.15 × 106 Pa So, capacitors behave as simple wires and
42. To produce an instantaneous displacement current inductors behave as broken wire.
of 2 mA in the space between the parallel plates of Effective circuit will be
a capacitor of capacitance 4 μF the rate of change
 dV 
of applied variable potential difference  
 dt 
must be:
(1) 800 V/s (2) 500 V/s
(3) 200 V/s (4) 400 V/s
Sol. (2)
id  ic Effective impedance of circuit will be 1 + 2 =
dQ d 3
  (CV )
dt dt 45. A constant torque of 100 N m turns a wheel of
dV moment of inertia 300 kg m2 about an axis passing
C through its centre. Starting from rest, its angular
dt
velocity after 3s is:
dV id
  (1) 1 rad/s (2) 5 rad/s
dt C (3) 10 rad/s (4) 15 rad/s
2  103 V Sol. (1)
 6
 500
4  10 s   0  t
43. An emf is generated by an ac generator having 100    t
turn coil, of loop area 1 m2. The coil rotates at a t
speed of one revolution per second and placed in a 
uniform magnetic field of 0.05 T perpendicular to I
the axis of rotation of the coil. The maximum value 100
  3 = 1rad s–1
of emf is: 300
(1) 3.14 V (2) 31.4 V 46. The emf of a cell having internal resistance 1Ω is
(3) 62.8 V (4) 6.28 V balanced against a length of 330 cm on a potential
Sol. (2) wire. When an external resistance of 2Ω is
rad connected across the cell, the balancing length will
  2f  2 be:
sec
For a rotating coil induced emf is, (1) 220 cm (2) 330 cm
(3) 115 cm (4) 332 cm
E = NBAsint
[9]
 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

Sol. (1)
Case-A


p 2mv sin 60
F 
t t
Case-B
1
2 11
 2  10 3N
0.1
48. The angular momentum of an electron moving in
h
an orbit of hydrogen atom is 1.5   . The energy

in the same orbit is nearly.
(1) –1.5 eV (2) –1.6 eV
For case A (3) –1.3 eV (4) –1.4 eV
No current flows in lower circuit, Sol. (1)
VPQ  E h
Given L  1.5

For balancing,
nh 1.5h
VPQ  VAB  
2 
 E  RAB  i ….(1)
n3
For case B 13.6
i' current flows in the lower circuit, So, E3   2 eV  1.5eV
 3
E
i  49. A particle is executing uniform circular motion
3  
with velocity v and acceleration a . Which of the
For balancing, following is true?
VPQ  VAB  
(1) v is a constant; a is not a constant
 
 E  i  1  R AB  i (2) v is not a constant; a is not a constant
 
(3) v is a constant; a is a constant
E  
E  RAB   i ….(2) (4) v is not a constant; a is a constant
3 Sol. (2)
Dividing (1) by (2) Speed is constant but direction of velocity is
3 R  
  AB changing. So v is not constant. a is towards
2 RAB  
centre, so its direction is also variable. a is not
3 l AB  l  constant.
   R   50. A simple pendulum oscillating in air has a period
2 lAB  A
of 3 s. If it is completely immersed in non-
2l AB
 l AB   220cm th
3 1
viscous liquid, having density   of the material
47. A 1 kg object strikes a wall with velocity 1 ms–1 at  4
an angle of 60° with the wall and reflects at the of the bob, the new period will be:
same angle. If it remains in contact with wall for 2
0.1 s, then the force exerted on the wall is: (1) 2 3 s (2) s
3
(1) 30 3 N (2) Zero
3
(3) 10 3 N (4) 20 3 N (3) 2s (4) s
2
Sol. (3) Sol. (3)

[10]
 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

 Ans. (3)
T  2
geff Sol. Due to an increase in nuclear charge which
accompanies the filling of electrons in the inner d
T ( geff ) air
  orbitals, there is an increase in ionisation enthalpy
Tair  geff  with small variations with small variations along
g each series of the transition elements, from left to
 right.
  
g 1    53. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
 bob 
Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason
1 2 (R).
  T  3   T  2s
1 3
1 Assertion (A): Lithium and beryllium unlike their
4
other respective group members from compounds
CHEMISTRY with pronounced ionic character.
Reason (R) : Lithium and Magnesium have similar
Section A
properties due to diagonal relationship.
51. Incorrect set of quantum numbers from the
In the light of the above statements, choose the
following is
(1) n =4, 1 =3, m1 = 3, 2, 1, 0, +1, +2, +3, correct answer from the options given below :
ms = 1/2 (1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) n =5, 1 = 2, m1 = 2, 1, 1, +2, ms = 1/2 (2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) n = 4, 1 = 2, m1 = 2, 1, 0, +1, +2, (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
ms = 1/2 explanation of (A).
(4) n =5, 1 = 3, m1 = 3, 2, 1, 0, +1, +2, +3, ms (4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
= 1/2
correct explanation of (A).
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
Sol. For any value of l; ml value will be –l to +l Sol. Due to exceptionally small atomic and ionic sizes
including zero of Li & Be they form compounds with
For n = 5 and l = 2: ml = –2, –1, 0, +1, +2 and ms predominately covalent character. Hence,
1 1 Assertion statement is wrong.
= + or 
2 2 Lithium and Magnesium have similar properties
due to diagonal relationship hence, reason
52. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as statement is correct
Assertion (1) and the other is labelled as Reason 54. For a weak acid HA, the percentage of dissociation
(R). is nearly 1% at equilibrium. If the concentration of
Assertion (A): Ionisation enthalpy increases along acid is 0.1 mol L, then the correct option for its
each series of the transition elements from left to
Ka at the same temperature is :
right. However, small variations occur.
(1) 1 × 10 (2) 1 × 10
Reason (R) : There is corresponding increase in
(3) 1 × 10 (4) 1 × 10
nuclear charge which accompanies the filling of
Ans. (3)
electrons in the inner d-orbitals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Sol. Given:
most appropriate answer from the options given
= 1%
below:
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false. Concentration of HA = 0.1 mol L–1
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true. Ka = C2
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A). Ka = (0.1) × (0.01)2
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the Ka = 1 × 10-5
correct explanation of (A).

[11]
 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

55. The density of 1 M solution of a compound 'X' is Sol. Tl+3 /Tl have greater E° value i.e. 1.26V which
1.25 g mL. The correct option for the molality of means Tl3+ act as an oxidising agent not reducing
solution is (Molar mass of compound X = 85 g) : agent.
(1) 0.705 m (2) 1.208 m 58. The correct order of dipole moments for molecules
(3) 1.165 m (4) 0.858 m NH3, H2S, CH4 and HF, is
Ans. (4)
(1) CH4 > H2S > NH3 > HF
Sol. Relation between Molality (m), Molarity (M) and (2) H2S > NH3 > HF > CH4
density (d) is (3) NH3 > HF > CH4 > H2S
1000  M (4) HF > NH3 > H2S > CH4
m Ans. (4)
1000  d  M  M solute H

Msolute denotes molar mass of solute. Sol. H—F > N > S > C

1000  1 1000 H H H H H H
H H
m   0.858
(1000  1.25)  (1 85) 1165  = 1.78  = 1.47  = 1.10 =0
56. Consider the given reaction : 59. Molar conductance of an electrolyte increase with
2 dil Ba (OH) dilution according to the equation:
CH3COCH 3   "X"
 m   m  A c
The functional groups present in compound "X"
are: Which of the following g statements are true?
(1) ketone and double bond (A) This equation applies to both strong and weak
(2) double bond and aldehyde electrolytes.
(3) alcohol and aldehyde (B) Value of the constant A depends upon the
(4) alcohol and ketone nature of the solvent.
Ans. (4) (C) Value of constant A is same for both BaCl2
and MgSO4
Sol. The given reaction is a type of aldol reaction: (D) Value of constant A is same for both BaCl2
and Mg(OH)2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
option given below:
(1) (A) and (B) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (C) only
(4) (B) and (D) only
Ans. (4)
Sol.  m   0m  A c
The value of ‘A’ depends on the type of electrolyte.
All electrolytes of particular type have the same
value for ‘A’
57. The E values for 60. Cheilosis occurs due to deficiency of_____.
Al+/Al = + 0.55 V and Tl+ / Tl =  0.34 V (1) thiamine (2) nicotinamide
Al3+/Al =  V and Tl3+ / Tl =  1.26 V (3) pyridoxamine (4) riboflavin
Identify the incorrect statement Ans. (4)
(1) Al is more electropositive than Tl Sol. Cheilosis occurs due to deficiency of vitamin B2
(Riboflavin).
(2) Tl3+ is a good reducing agent than Tl1+
61. The correct value of cell potential in volt for the
(3) Al+ is unstable in solution
reaction that occurs when the following two half
(4) Tl can be easily oxidized to Tl+ then Tl3+
cells are connected, is
Ans. (2) 2
Fe(aq)  2e   Fe(s), E  0.44V

[12]
 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

Cr2O72  (aq)  14H   6e  2Cr 3  7H 2O, (2) Gattermann-Koch reaction

(3) Etard reaction
E° = V
(4) Rosenmund reaction
(1) +1.77V (2) +2.65V
Ans. (4)
(3) +0.01 V (4) +0.89 V
Sol. Reduction of acid chloride with H2/Pd-BaSO4 to
Ans. (1)
form aldehyde is called Rosenmund reduction.
Sol. E ocell  E Cathode
o o
 E anode 65. Which amongst the following is used in controlling
depression and hypertension?
= (1.33) – (-0.44) (1) Seldane (2) Valium
= 1.33 + 0.44 = +1.77 V (3) Equanil (4) Prontosil
Ans. (3)
(i) " X "
62. R  COOH 
(ii)H O / HCl
 R  CH 2 OH Sol. Equanil is used in controlling depression and
2
hyper tension.
66. Which one of the following represents all
(i)"X"
R  CH  CH 2 
(ii)H O,NaOH,H O
 R  CH 2  CH 2  OH isoelectronic species?
2 2 2

(1) B2H6 (2) LiAlH4 (1) Na+, Cl, O, No+

(3) NaBH4 (4) H2/Pd (2) N2O, N2O4, NO+, NO
Ans. (1) (3) Na+, Mg2+, O, F
 2 6 i B H (4) Ca2+, Ar, K+, Cl
Sol. R  COOH 
ii H2 O HCl  R  CH 2 OH Ans. (4)
Sol. Ca2+ = 20 – 2 = 18 e–;
 i  B2 H 6
R  CH  CH 2 
 ii  H 2 O,NaOH,H 2 O2
 R  CH 2  CH 2OH Ar = 18 e–;
63. For a reaction 3A  2B K+ = 19 – 1 = 18 e–;
The average rate of appearance of B is given by
Cl– = 17 + 1 = 18 e–;
[B]
.The correct relation between the average
t Ca2+, Ar, K+ and Cl– all have same number of
rate of appearance of B with the average rate of electrons i.e., 18e–. hence, the given species are
disappearance of A is given in option : isoelectronic in nature.
67. Given below are two statements:
[A] 3[A]
(1) (2) Statement I : The value of wave function, 
t 2t depends upon the coordinates of the electron in the
2[A] [A] atom.
(3) (4)
3t t Statement II:- The probability of finding an
Ans. (3) electron at a point within an atom is proportional to
the orbital wave function.
Sol. For a reaction, 3A  2B In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
Average rate of reaction (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
1 Δ  A 1 Δ  B (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
  (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
3 Δt 2 Δt (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(differential rate law)
Δ  B 2 Δ  A Ans. (1)
 
Δt 3 Δt Sol. The value of wave function,  depends upon the
coordinates of the electron in the atom. So,
Statement I is true.
The probability of finding an electron at a point
64. The following conversion is known as: within an atom is proportional to the square of the
orbital wave function i.e. ||2 at that point. So,
Statement II is false.

(1) Stephen reaction

[13]
 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

68. The correct van der Waals equation for 1 mole of a 72. Match List-I with List-II
real gas is : List-I List-II (Technique
 a  (Mixtures/Sample) used for
(1)  p  2  (V  b)  RT purification)
 V 
(A) Glycerol from (I) Steam
 V2  spent lye distillation
(2)  p   (V  b)  RT
 a  (B) Chloroform + (II) Fractional
Aniline distillation
 an 2 
(3)  p  2  (V  b)  RT (C) Fractions of (III) Distillation
 V  crude oil under reduced
 an 2  pressure
(4)  p   (V  nb)  RT (D) Aniline + (IV) Distillation
 V 
Water
Ans. (1) Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
Sol. For n moles of gas, vander waal equation is:
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)- (II), (D)-(I)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)- (I), (D)-(III)
 an 2 
 P    V  nb   nRT (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)- (III), (D)-(IV)
 V2  (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)- (II), ()-(IV)
Ans. (1)
For n = 1 mole Sol. Chloroform (b.p. 334 K) and aniline (b.p. 457) are
easily separated by the technique of distillation as
 a 
 P  2   V  b   RT both the liquids have sufficient difference in their
 V  boiling points.
The fractions of crude oil in petroleum industry is
69. The correct option in which the density of argon
separated using fractional distillation due to less
(Atomic mass = 40) is highest:
difference in boiling points of liquids.
(1) STP (2) 0°C, 2atm
(3) 0°C, 4 atm (4) 273°C, 4 atm Glycerol can be separated from spent-lye using
Ans. (3) distillation under reduced pressure.
Aniline is separated by steam distillation from
P aniline-water mixture.
Sol. = or d 
T 73. Which amongst the following reactions of alkyl
halides produces isonitrile as a major product?
70. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(A) R  X + HCN
(1) Basic oxides  In2O3, K2O, SnO2
(2) Neutral oxides  CO, NO2N2O (B) R  X + AgCN
(3) Acidic oxides  Mn2O7, SO2, TeO3 (C) R  X + KCN
(4) Amphoteric oxides  BeO, Ga2O3, GeO H 2O
(D) R  X + NaCN  
C H OH 2 5
Ans. (3)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
Sol. Mn2 O7 , SO2 , TeO3 , GeO, NO2 options given below :
acidic acidic acidic acidic acidic
oxide oxide oxide oxide oxide (1) (D) only
71. Which of the following is a positively charged sol? (2) (C) and (D) only
(1) Methylene blue sol (2) Congo red sol (3) (B) only
(3) Silver sol (4) Sb2S3 sol (4) (A) and (B) only
Ans. (1)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Sol. R-X + Ag-CN  R-NC
Isonitrile
Positively Charged sol Negatively Charged sol
Methylene blue sol Silver sol
Sb2S3 sol
Congo red sol

[14]
 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

74. The List-I with List-II 77. Reagents which can be used to convert alcohol to
List-I (Hydride) List-II(Type of Hydride) carboxylic acids, are
(A) CrO3 – H2SO4
(B) K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4
(A) NaH (I) Electron precise (C) KMnO4 + KOH/H3O+
(B) PH3 (II) Saline (D) Cu, 573 K
(C) GeH4 (III) Metallic (E) CrO3, (CH3CO)2O
(D) LaH2.87 (IV) Electron rich Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) (B), (C) and (D) only
below: (2) (B), (D) and (E) only
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)- (II), (D)-(I) (3) (A), (B) and (C) only
(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)- (IV), (D)-(I) (4) (A), (B) and (E) only
(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)- (II), (D)-(IV) Ans. (3)
(1) alkaline
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)- (I), (D)-(III) KMnO 4
+ R COOH
(2) H 3O
Ans. (4)
Sol. Hydride Type of Hydride Sol. CrO 3.H2 SO4
R CH2 OH R COOH
(A) NaH Saline or Ionic hydride Jones reagent
(B) PH3 Electron rich hydride K2 Cr2 O7
(C) GeH4 Electron precise H 2SO 4
R COOH
(D) LaH2.87 Metallic or Non-stoichiometric 78. Select the element (M) whose trihalides cannot be
hydrides hydrolysed to produce an ion of the from
75. Which one of the following statements is incorrect [M(H2O6]3+
related to Molecular Orbital Theory? (1) Ga (2) In
(1) The π* antibonding molecular orbital has a (3) Al (4) B
node between the nuclei. Ans. (4)
(2) In the formation of bonding molecular orbital, Sol. The maximum covalency of boron is 4 due to
the two electron waves of the bonding atoms absence of d-orbitals. Hence, it can not form
reinforce each other. [B(H2O)6]3+ complex.
(3) Molecular orbitals obtained from 2px and 2py
79. The correct options for the rate law that
orbitals are symmetrical around the bond axis.
corresponds to overall first order reaction is
(4) A π-bonding molecular orbital has larger
(1) Rate = k[A]0 [B]2
electron density above and below the
(2) Rate = k[A] [B]
internuclear axis.
(3) Rate = k[A]1/2 [B]2
Ans. (3)
(4) Rate = k[A]–1/2 [B]3/2
Sol. According to molecular orbital theory, the sigma Ans. (4)
() molecular orbitals are symmetrical around the 1 2 32
Sol. r  k A  B
bond-axis while pi() molecular orbitals are
unsymmetrical. 1 3 2
order =    1
76. An acidic buffer is prepared by mixing 2 2 2
(1) Weak acid and it's salt with strong base
(2) equal volumes of equimolar solutions of weak 80. Which amongst the following compounds/species
acid and weak base is least basic?
(3) strong acid and it's salt with strong base
(4) strong acid and it's salt with weak base (1)
Ans. (1)
Sol. Acidic buffer is a mixture of weak acid and its salt
(2)
1
with strong base in a molar ratio ranging from
10
(3)
to 10
e.g.  CH3COOH + CH3COONa
(4)
(Weak acid) (Salt of weak acid with
strong base NaOH) Ans. (2)

[15]
 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

Sol. All lone pair of option (2) are involved in CH3 — CH2 CH3
resonance. C=C
81. Which of the following forms a set of complex and H3C CH2 — CH3
a double salt, respectively?
(1) CuSO4.5H2O and CuCl2.4NH3 trans-3,4-Dimethylhex-3-ene.
(2) PtCl2.2NH3 and PtCl4.2HCl In trans-form both methyl group are present on
(3) K2PtCl2.2NH3 and KAl(SO4)2.12H2O opposite side.
(4) NiCl2.6H2O and NiCl2(H2O)4
84. Given below are two statements:
Ans. (3)
Statement -I :- Hydrated chlorides and bromides
Sol. K2PtCl2 .2NH3 is complex compound
of Ca, Sr and Ba on heating undergo hydrolysis.
H3N Cl Statement – II :- Hydrated chlorides and bromides
K2 Pt of Be and Mg on heating undergo dehydration.
H3N Cl In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the option given below:
KAl(SO4)2.12H2O is empirical formula of a double
(1) Statement – I is correct but Statement-II is
salt called Potash Alum (K2SO4 .Al2(SO4)3 .24H2O)
false
82. Given below are two statements:
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement – II is
Statement I:- High density polythene is formed in
true
the presence of catalyst triethylaluminium and
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
titanium tetrachloride.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
Statement II:- High density polymers are
Ans. (4)
chemically inert.
Sol. Since hydrated chlorides and bromides of Ca, Sr
In the light of the above statements, choose the
and Ba are ionic in nature they will get dehydrated
correct answer from the options given below :
on heating and hydrolysis will not take place, while
(1) Statement – I is correct but Statement-II is
chloride and bromide of Be and Mg has covalent
false
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement – II is nature hence, they will get hydrolysed.
true 85. The correct order for the rate of , -
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true. dehydrohalogenation for the following compounds
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false. is ___.
Ans. (3)
Sol. High density polythene is formed by addition
polymerisation of ethene in the presence of catalyst
TiCl4 + Et3Al (Ziegler Natta Catalyst). So,
(1) (i) < (ii) < (iii)
Statement I is correct. High density polymers are
(2) (ii) < (i) < (iii)
chemically inert. So, Statement II is also correct.
(3) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
83. Which amongst the following compounds will
(4) (ii) < (iii) < (i)
show geometrical isomerism?
Ans. (4)
(1) Pent-1-ene
(2) 2, 3-Dimethylbut-2-ene Sol. (I)
(3) 2-Methylprop-1-ene
(4) 3, 4-Dimethylhex-3-ene –HI (Conjugated diene
I most stable)
Ans. (4)
Sol. 3, 4-Dimethylhex-3-ene will show geometrical
isomerism (II)
CH3 — CH2 CH2 — CH3
C=C
H3C CH3 –HI (6 – H)

cis -3,4-Dimethylhex-3-ene. (III) I

In cis form both methyl groups are present on Order of stability of alkene :
same side. > >

[16]
 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

 Order of - dehydrohalogenation :  stability CO2  Acidic ZnO  Amphoteric

of alkene product
89. Read the following statements and choose the set
> > of correct statements:
I I
I (A) Chrome steel is used for cutting tools and
(i) (iii) (ii) crushing machines.
(B) The fine dust of aluminium is used in paints
Section B
and lacquers.
86. How many number of tetrahedral voids are formed
(C) Copper is used for reduction of alcohol
in 5 mol of a compound having cubic close packed
(D) Zinc dust is used as a reducing agent in the
structure?
(Choose the correct option) manufacture of paints
(1) 1.550 × 1024 (2) 3.011 × 1025 (E) Iron is used for galvanizing zinc
(3) 3.011 × 1024 (4) 6.022 × 1024 Choose the most appropriate answer from the
Ans. (4) option given below:
(1) (D) and (E) only
Sol. Number of molecules = 5NA
(2) (A) and (D) only
Total Number of THV = 2 × number of molecules (3) (A), (B) and (D) only
in CCP (4) (B), (C) and (D) only
= 2 × 5NA Ans. (3)

= 2 × 5 × 6.023 × 1023
= 6.023 × 1024
87. Type of isomerism exhibited by compounds
[Cr(H2O)6Cl3],[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O,
[Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O and the value of
coordination number (CN) of central metal ion in
all these compounds, respectively is
(1) Geometrical isomerism, CN = 2
(2) Optical Isomerism, CN = 4
(3) Ionisation isomerism, CN = 4
(4) Solvate Isomerism, CN = 6
Ans. (4)
Sol. Solvate isomerism or hydrate isomerism is due to
exchange of solvent molecules between
coordination sphere and Ionisation sphere.
Given complexes show solvate isomerism.
Co-ordination number of Cr = 6.
88. The correct sequence given below containing
neutral acidic, basic and amphoteric oxide each,
respectively, is
(1) NO, ZnO, CO2, CaO
(2) ZnO, NO, CaO, CO2
(3) NO, CO2, ZnO, CaO
(4) NO, CO2, CaO, ZnO
Ans. (4)
Sol. NO  neutral CaO  Basic
Sol. Chrome steel is used for cutting tools and
crushing machines.
The fine dust of aluminium is used in paints and
lacquers.
Zinc dust is a reducing agent for manufacture of
dye-stuffs and paints.
So, statements A, B and D are correct.
Copper is used for oxidation of primary and
secondary alcohols into aldehydes and ketones.
So, statement (C) is incorrect.
Zinc is used for galvanizing iron.
Hence, correct statements are (A), (B) and (D)
only
90. Choose the correct sequence of reagents in the
conversion of 4-nitrotoluene to 2-bromotoluene.
(1) NaNO2/HCl ; Sn/HCl ; Br2 ; H2O/H3PO2
(2) Sn/HCl ; NaNO2/HCl ; Br2 ; H2O/H3PO2
(3) Br2;Sn/HCl;NaNO2/HCl;H2O/H3PO2
(4) Sn/HCl;Br2 ; NaNO2/HCl;H2O/H3PO2
Ans. (3)
Sol.

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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

91. How are edge length ‘a’ of the unit cell and radius 93. Given below are two statements:
‘r’ of the sphere related to each other in ccp Statements – I:- In an organic compounds, when
structure? inductive and electromeric effect operate in
opposite directions, the inductive effect
(Choose correct option for your answer) predominates.
(1) a = 2r Statement – II:- Hyperconjugation is observed in
(2) a  r / 2 2 o-xylene.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) a  4r / 3
correct answer from the options given below:
(4) a  2 2r (1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
Ans. (4) (2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.
(3) Both statement-I and Statement-II are true
Sol. For CCP (FCC) (4) Both statement-I and Statement-II are false
Ans. (2)
4r  a 2
Sol. In an organic compound during approach of a
4r
a reagent when inductive and electromeric effects
2 operate in opposite directions, the electromeric
effect is predominating.
a  2 2r
CH3
92. Identify the product in the following reaction CH 3

o-xylene

(Hyper conjugation due to presence of α – H

attached to sp3α – C)
(1)
94. The correct option for a redox couple is:
(1) Both are oxidised forms involving same
element.
(2)
(2) Both are reduced forms involving same
element.
(3) Both the reduced and oxidized forms involve
(3) same element.
(4) Cathode and anode together.
Ans. (3)
(4) Sol. A redox couple or half electrode involve both
reduced and oxidised forms of same element.
95. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Ans. (2) Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Sol. Assertion(A): Ionisation enthalpies of early
actinoids are lower than for early lanthanoids.
Reason(R): Electrons are entering 5f orbitals in
actinoids which experience greater shielding from
nuclear charge.
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is ture.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
Ans. (3)

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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

Sol. Ionisation enthalpies of early actinoids are lower 99. Identify ‘X’ in the following reaction.
than early lanthanoids. This is because 5f orbitals
will penetrate less into the inner core of electrons.
The 5f electrons, will be more effectively shielded
from the nuclear charge than the 4f electrons of
corresponding lanthanoids.
(1)
96. Consider the following reaction:-
2H 2 (g)  O 2 (g)  2H 2 O(g) : f H   483.64kJ
What is the enthalpy change for decomposition of (2)
one mole of water? (Choose the right option).
(1) 120.9kJ (2) 241.82 kJ
(3) 18 kJ (4) 100 kJ (3)
Ans. (2)

Sol. 2H2O(g)  2H2(g) + O2(g); H° = 483.64 k/mol (4)

For decomposition of 2 moles of H2O, enthalpy
Ans. (1)
change = 483.64 kJ
Sol.
For decomposition of 1 mole of H2O, enthalpy
483.64
change = kJ = 241.82 kJ
2
97. Which statement is not true about photochemical
smog?
(1) Photochemical smog is harmful to humans but
has no effect on plants. 100. The major product formed in the following
(2) Plants like Pinus, Juniparus can help in conversion is ____.
reducing the photochemical.
(3) Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and
sunny climate.
(4) Common components of photochemical smog
are ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein,
formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate. (1) (2)
Ans. (1)
Sol. Photochemical smog is harmful to humans as well
as plants. (3) (4)
98. Which amongst the following aqueous solution of
electrolystes will have minimum elevation in
boiling point? Choose the correct option Ans. (1)
(1) 0.05 M NaCl (2) 0.1 M KCl
(3) 0.1 M MgSO4 (4) 1 M NaCl
Ans. (1)
Sol.
Sol. ΔTb   i  M 
Experimental molarity = i × M
0.1 M MgSO4 0.1 × 2 = 0.2
1 M NaCI 1×2=2
0.05 M NaCI 0.05 × 2 = 0.1
0.1 M KCI 0.1 × 2 = 0.2

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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

BOTANY already there, the rate of succession is much faster

Section A and hence, climax is also reached more quickly.
103. In Calotropis, aestivation is :
101. Match List-I with List-II:
(1) Valvate (2) Vexillary
List-I List-II
(3) Imbricate (4) Twisted
(A) Protein (I) C=C double bonds
Ans. (1)
(B) Unsaturated fatty (II) Phosphodiester
Sol. When sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one
acid bond another at the margin, without overlapping, as in
(C) Nucleic acid (III) Glycosidic bonds Calotropis, it is said to be valvate.
(D) Polysaccharide (IV) Peptide bonds 104. Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given List-I List-II
below : (A) Chlorophyll a (I) Yellow to yellow
orange
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(B) Chlorophyll b (II) Yellow green
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(C) Xanthophyll (III) Blue green
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (D) Carotenoid (IV) Yellow
(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) Choose the correct answer from the options given
Ans. (3) below :
Sol. In Proteins, amino acids are bonded by Peptide (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
bonds. Unsaturated fatty acid contains C = C (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
double bonds. Phosphodiester bonds bind (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
successive nucleotides in nucleic acid. Glycosidic (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
bonds are present in polysaccharide. Ans. (1)
102. Match List-I with List-II. Sol. Chlorophyll a (bright or blue green in the
List-I List-II chromatogram), chlorophyll b (yellow green),
(A) Hydrarch (I) Gradual change in xanthophylls (yellow) and carotenoids (yellow to
yellow-orange).
Succession the
105. Nitrates and phosphates flowing from agricultural
species composition farms into water bodies are a significant cause of :
(B) Xerarch succession (II) Faster and climax (1) Eutrophication (2) Humification
reached quickly (3) Mineralisation (4) Stratification
Ans. (1)
(C) Ecological (III) Lichens to mesic
Sol. Eutrophication is the natural aging of a lake by
succession conditions nutrient enrichment of its water. In a young lake the
(D) Secondary (IV) Phytoplankton to water is cold and clear, supporting little life. With
succession mesic conditions time, streams draining into the lake introduce
Choose the correct answer from the options given nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus, which
below : encourage the growth of aquatic organisms.
106. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
List-I List-II
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (Phenotypic ratio) (Type of cross)
(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (A) Monohybrid Cross (I) 1 : 1
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (B) Dihybrid Cross (II) 1 : 2 : 1
(C) Incomplete (III) 3 : 1
Ans. (4) dominance
Sol. The gradual and fairly predictable change in the (D) Test Cross (IV) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
species composition of a given area is called Choose the correct answer from the options given
ecological succession. Hydrarch succession takes below :
place in wet areas and the successional series (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
progress from hydric to the mesic conditions. As (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
against this, xerarch succession takes place in dry (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
conditions. In secondary succession, since soil is

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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)
107. How many times decarboxylation occurs during
each TCA cycle ?
(1) Thrice (2) Many
(3) Once (4) Twice
Ans. (4)
Sol. During TCA cycle, decarboxylation occurs twice;
first during the conversion of Oxalosuccinic acid
into α-ketoglutaric acid and second during the
conversion of α-ketoglutaric acid into succinyl
CoA.
108. The dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs
during :
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene
(3) Diakinesis (4) Leptotene
Ans. (2)
Sol. The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the
dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and the
tendency of the recombined homologous
chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from
each other except at the sites of crossovers.
109. Identify the correct statements regarding Mass
flow hypothesis.
(A) Mass flow is faster than diffusion.
(B) Mass flow is the result of pressure difference
between the end points.
(C) Different substances involved in mass flow
move at different paces.
(D) Mass flow can result through either a positive
or a negative hydrostatic pressure gradient.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) (A), (C), (D) only (2) (B), (C), (D) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) only (4) (A), (B), (D) only
Ans. (4)
Sol. Diffusion is a slow process. Special long distance
transport systems become necessary so as to move
substances across long distances and at a much
faster rate. Mass flow is the movement of
substances in bulk or en masse from one point to
another as a result of pressure differences between
the two points. It is a characteristic of mass flow
that substances, whether in solution or in
suspension, are swept along at the same pace, as in
a flowing river. Bulk flow can be achieved either
through a positive hydrostatic pressure gradient
(e.g., a garden hose) or a negative hydrostatic
pressure gradient
(e.g., suction through a straw).
110. Doubling of the number of chromosomes can be
achieved by disrupting mitotic cell division soon
after :
(1) Anaphase (2) Telophase
(3) Prophase (4) Metaphase
Ans. (4)
Sol. Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase. If the
mitotic cell division is disrupted soon after
metaphase (just before anaphase), doubling of
chromosomes can be achieved.
111. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : RuBisCO is the most abundant
enzyme in the world.
Statement II : Photorespiration does not occur in
C4 plants.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
Ans. (3)
Sol. RuBisCO that is the most abundant enzyme in the
world. In C plants photorespiration does not occur.
4
This is because they have a mechanism that
increases the concentration of CO at the enzyme
2
site.
112. In 'rivet popper hypothesis', Paul Ehrlich compared
the rivets in an airplane to :
(1) species within a genus
(2) genetic diversity
(3) ecosystem
(4) genera within a family
Ans. (1)
Sol. According to Paul Ehrlisch, in an airplane
(ecosystem) all parts are joined together using
thousands of rivets (species).
113. In a pea flower, five petals are arranged in a
specialized manner with one posterior, two lateral
and two anterior. These are named as _______,
_______ and ________ respectively.
(1) Keel, Wings and Standard
(2) Vexillum, Keel and Standard
(3) Keel, Standard and Carina
(4) Standard, Wings and Keel
Ans. (4)
Sol. In pea and bean flowers, there are five petals, the
largest (standard) overlaps the two lateral petals
(wings) which in turn overlap the two smallest
anterior petals (keel).
114. In which of the following sets of families, the
pollen grains are viable for months ?
(1) Solanaceae, Poaceae and Liliaceae
(2) Brassicaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae
(3) Rosaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae
(4) Leguminosae, Solanaceae and Rosaceae
Ans. (4)
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)
Sol. In some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen
grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their
release, and in some members of Rosaceae,
Leguminoseae and Solanaceae, they maintain
viability for months.
115. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of
another flower of same plant is known as :
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Xenogamy
(3) Autogamy (4) Cleistogamy
Ans. (1)
Sol. Geitonogamy – Transfer of pollen grains from the
anther to the stigma of another flower of the same
plant.
116. The phenomenon which is influenced by auxin and
also played a major role in its discovery:
(1) Phototropism (2) Root initiation
(3) Gravitropism (4) Apical Dominance
Ans. (1)
Sol. Charles Darwin and his son Francis Darwin
observed that the coleoptiles of canary grass
responded to unilateral illumination by growing
towards the light source (phototropism). After a
series of experiments, it was concluded that the tip
of coleoptile was the site of transmittable influence
that caused the bending of the entire coleoptile. It
was identified as Auxin.
117. The transverse section of a plant part showed
polyarch, radial and exarch xylem, with
endodermis and pericycle. The plant part is
identified as :
(1) Monocot root (2) Dicot root
(3) Dicot stem (4) Monocot stem
Ans. (1)
Sol. Monocot root has epidermis, cortex, endodermis,
pericycle, vascular bundles and pith. As compared
to the dicot root which have fewer xylem bundles,
there are usually more than six (polyarch) xylem
bundles in the monocot root. In roots, the
protoxylem lies towards periphery and metaxylem
lies towards the centre. Such arrangement of
primary xylem is called exarch.
118. What will happen if fresh water lake gets
contaminated by addition of polluted water with
high BOD ?
(1) Amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake will
decrease
(2) The lake will remain unaffected
(3) Number of submerged aquatic plants in the
lake will increase
(4) Number of aquatic animals in the lake will
increase
Ans. (1)
Sol. Some of the changes that one may notice following
discharge of sewage into a river: Micro-organisms
involved in biodegradation of organic matter in the
receiving water body consume a lot of oxygen, and
as a result there is a sharp decline in dissolved
oxygen downstream from the point of sewage
discharge. This causes mortality of fish and other
aquatic creatures.
119. The last chromosome sequenced in Human
Genome Project was :
(1) Chromosome 6 (2) Chromosome 1
(3) Chromosome 22 (4) Chromosome 14
Ans. (2)
Sol. The sequence of chromosome 1 was completed
only in May 2006 (this was the last of the 24 human
chromosomes – 22 autosomes and X and Y – to be
sequenced).
120. The amount of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen,
potassium and calcium present in the soil at any
given time is referred to as :
(1) Standing state (2) Standing crop
(3) Humus (4) Detritus
Ans. (1)
Sol. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
phosphorus, calcium, etc., present in the soil at any
given time, is referred to as the standing state.
121. Plants offer rewards to animals in the form of
pollen and nectar and the animals facilitate the
pollination process. This is an example of :
(1) Amensalism (2) Competition
(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism
Ans. (4)
Sol. Plants need the help of animals for pollinating their
flowers and dispersing their seeds. Animals
obviously have to be paid ‘fees’ for the services
that plants expect from them. Plants offer rewards
or fees in the form of pollen and nectar for
pollinators and juicy and nutritious fruits for seed
dispersers. This association is called mutualism.
122. The species of plants that plays a vital role in
controlling the relative abundance of other species
in a community is called _____ .
(1) alien species (2) endemic species
(3) exotic species (4) keystone species
Ans. (4)
Sol. The species of plants that play a vital role in
controlling the relative abundance of other species
in a community are called keystone species.
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

123. Match List-I List-II. is inactivated by interaction with the inducer.

List-I List-II 127. A heterozygous pea plant with violet flowers was
(A) Pteropsida (I) Psilotum crossed with homozygous pea plant with white
(B) Lycopsida (II) Equisetum flower. Violet is dominant over white. Which one
(C) Psilopsida (III) Adiantum of the following represents the expected
(D) Sphenopsida (IV) Selaginella combinations among 40 progenies formed ?
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) 30 produced violet and 10 produced white
below : flowers
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (2) 20 produced violet and 20 produced white
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) flowers
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (3) All 40 produced violet flowers
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (4) All 40 produced white flowers
Ans. (4) Ans. (2)
Sol. The pteridophytes are further classified into four Sol. Vv (heterozygous violet) x vv (white)
classes: Psilopsida (Psilotum); Lycopsida Gametes V and v x v
(Selaginella, Lycopodium), Sphenopsida Cross V v
(Equisetum) and Pteropsida (Dryopteris, Pteris, v Vv (Violet) vv (White)
Adiantum).
124. Inulin is a polymer of : Therefore, 50% progenies will have violet
(1) Fructose (2) Galactose (heterozygous) flowers and 50% will have white
(3) Amino acids (4) Glucose flowers.
Ans. (1) 128. Fatty acids are connected with the respiratory
Sol. Option (1) inulin is a polymer of fructose. pathway through :
Option (2) polymers of glucose are cellulose, starch (1) Acetyl CoA
and glycogen. (2) -Ketoglutaric acid
Option (3) amino acids are building blocks of (3) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate
(4) Pyruvic acid
proteins.
Ans. (1)
Option (4) glucose and galactose are
Sol. Fats would need to be broken down into glycerol and
monosaccharides.
fatty acids first. If fatty acids were to be respired they
125. Thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR was
would first be degraded to acetyl CoA and enter the
isolated from :
(1) Thermus aquaticus pathway. Glycerol would enter the pathway after
(2) Escherichia coli being converted to PGAL.
(3) Agrobacterium tumifaciens 129. Ligation of foreign DNA at which of the following
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis site will result in loss of tetracyclin resistance of
Ans. (1) pBR322 :
Sol. Option (1) Thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq (1) Pst I (2) Pvu I
polymerase) used in PCR was isolated from a (3) EcoR I (4) BamH I
bacterium Thermus aquaticus. Ans. (4)
Option (3) Agrobacterium tumifaciens is a pathogen Sol. In pBR322, the restriction site for BamH I is
of several dicot plants. present in tetR gene. Therefore, ligation of a
Option (4) specific Bt toxin genes were isolated from foreign DNA will result in loss of tetracycline
Bacillus thuringiensis and incorporated into the resistance and recombinants will be tetracycline
several crop plants for the development of pest sensitive.
resistant crops. 130. Match List-I with List-II.
126. Name the component that binds to the operator List-I List-II
region of an operon and prevents RNA polymerase (A) Auxin (I) Promotes female
from transcribing the operon. flower formation
(1) Promotor (2) Regulator protein in cucumber
(3) Repressor protein (4) Inducer (B) Gibberellin (II) Overcoming
Ans. (3) apical dominance
Sol. The repressor protein binds to the operator region (C) Cytokinin (III) Increase in the
of the operon and prevents RNA polymerase from length of grape
transcribing the operon. In the presence of an stalks
inducer, such as lactose or allolactose, the repressor
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)
(D) Ethylene (IV) Promotes
flowering in
pineapple
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Ans. (2)
Sol. Auxins promote flowering e.g. in pineapples.
Cytokinins help overcome the apical dominance.
Gibberellins cause an increase in length of axis Sol.
is
used to increase the length of grapes stalks.
Ethylene promotes female flowers in cucumbers
thereby increasing the yield.
131. During symport two different molecules move
across the membrane :
(1) in same direction with the help of different
carriers located at a common site
(2) in same direction with the help of different
carriers located at different sites in the same
cell
(3) in same direction with the help of same carrier
(4) in opposite direction with the help of same
carrier
Ans. (3)
Sol. In a symport, both molecules cross the membrane
in the same direction; in an antiport, they move in
opposite directions, with the help of same carrier.
132. Which classes of algae possess pigment
fucoxanthin and pigment phycoerythrin,
respectively ?
(1) Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(3) Chlorophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(4) Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae
Ans. (2)
Sol. The members of brown algae or phaeophyceae vary
in colour from olive green to various shades of
brown depending upon the amount of the
xanthophyll pigment, fucoxanthin present in them
and members of rhodophyceae are commonly
called red algae because of the predominance of the
red pigment, r-phycoerythrin in their body.
133. In which disorder change of single base pair in the
gene for beta globin chain results in change of
glutamic acid to valine ?
(1) Thalassemia
(2) Sickle cell anemia
(3) Haemophilia
(4) Phenylketonuria
Ans. (2)
Sol. The sickle cell anaemia defect is caused by the
substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val)
at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the
haemoglobin molecule. The substitution of amino
acid in the globin protein results due to the single
base substitution at the sixth codon of the beta
globin gene from GAG to GUG.
134. For chemical defence against herbivores,
Calotropis has :
(1) cardiac glycosides (2) strychnine
(3) toxic ricin (4) distasteful quinine
Ans. (1)
Calotropis growing in abandoned fields produces
highly poisonous cardiac glycosides and that is why
you never see any cattle or goats browsing on this
plant.
135. Consider the following tissues in the stelar region
of a stem showing secondary growth.
(A) Primary xylem
(B) Secondary xylem
(C) Primary phloem
(D) Secondary phloem
Arrange these in the correct sequence of their
position from pith towards corts.
(1) (A), (B), (D), (C) (2) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(3) (A), (B), (C), (D) (4) (B), (A), (D), (C)
Ans. (1)
Sol. During secondary growth, starting from the pith,
the arrangement of tissues will be in the order
Primary xylem → Secondary Xylem →
Secondary Phloem → Primary Phloem
Section B
136. Which of the following mineral ion is not
remobilized in plants ?
(1) Potassium (2) Calcium
(3) Nitrogen (4) Phosphorus
Ans. (2)
Sol. Elements most readily mobilised are phosphorus,
sulphur, nitrogen and potassium. Some elements
that are structural components like calcium are not
remobilised.
137. Which out of the following statements is incorrect ?
(1) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both
PS I and PS II
(3) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
(4) Stroma lamellae lack PS II and NADP
reductase
Ans. (2)
Sol. While the membrane or lamellae of the grana have
both PS I and PS II the stroma lamellae membranes
lack PS II as well as NADP reductase enzyme. The
excited electron does not pass on to NADP but is
+
cycled back to the PS I complex through the
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)
electron transport chain. The cyclic flow hence,
results only in the synthesis of ATP, but not of
NADPH + H . Cyclic photophosphorylation also
+
occurs when only light of wavelengths beyond 680
nm are available for excitation.
138. Match Column-I with Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Nitrococcus (I) Denitrification
(B) Rhizobium (II) Conversion of
ammonia to nitrite
(C) Thiobacillus (III) Conversion
nitrite to nitrate
(D) Nitrobacter (IV) Conversion of
atmospheric
nitrogen to
ammonia
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Ammonia is first oxidised to nitrite by the bacteria
Nitrosomonas and/or Nitrococcus. The nitrite is
further oxidised to nitrate with the help of the
bacterium Nitrobacter. Denitrification is carried by
bacteria Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus. The
process of conversion of nitrogen (N ) to ammonia
2 142. Consider the following plant tissues :
is termed as nitrogen fixation, performed by
Rhizobium.
139. In angiosperms the correct sequence of events in
formation of female gametophyte in the ovule is:
(A) 3 successive free nuclear divisions functional
megaspore.
(B) Degeneration of 3 megaspores.
(C) Meiotic division in megaspore mother cell.
(D) Migration of 3 nuclei towards each pole.
(E) Formation of wall resulting in seven celled
embryosac.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
(2) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
(3) (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)
(4) (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)
Ans. (4)
Sol. The nucleus of the functional megaspore divides
mitotically to form two nuclei which move to the
opposite poles, forming the 2-nucleate embryo sac.
Two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions
result in the formation of the 4-nucleate and later
the 8-nucleate stages of the embryo sac. It is of
interest to note that these mitotic divisions are
strictly free nuclear, that is, nuclear divisions are
not followed immediately by cell wall formation.
After the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are laid down
leading to the organisation of the typical female
gametophyte or embryo sac.
140. Which of the following statements is true ?
(1) All pteridophytes exhibit haplo-diplontic
pattern.
(2) Seed bearing plants follow haplontic pattern
(3) Most algal genera are diplontic
(4) Most bryophytes do not have haplo-diplontic
life cycle.
Ans. (1)
Sol. Most algal genera are haplontic. All seed bearing
plants i.e., gymnosperms and angiosperms, follow
of diplontic pattern. All pteridophytes exhibit haplo-
diplontic pattern.
141. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
Agrobacterium tumifaciens ?
(1) It is used to deliver gene of interest in both
prokaryotic as well as eukaryotic host cells.
(2) 'Ti' plasmid from Agrobacterium tumifaciens
used for gene transfer is not pathogenic to
plant cell.
(3) It transforms normal plant cells into tumor
cells.
(4) It delivers 'T-DNA' into plant cell.
Ans. (1)
Sol. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to deliver gene
of interest into a variety of plant i.e., in eukaryotic
host cells.
(A) Axillary buds
(B) Fascicular vascular cambium
(C) Interfascicular cambium
(D) Cork cambium
(E) Intercalary meristem
Identify the lateral meristems among the above.
(1) (A), (C) and (D) only
(2) (B), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (E) only
(4) (A), (B), (D) and (E) only
Ans. (2)
Sol. Fascicular vascular cambium, interfascicular
cambium and cork-cambium are examples of
lateral meristems.
143. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(A) Kanamycin (I) Delivers genes
into animal cells
(B) ClaI (II) Selectable marker
(C) Disarmed (III) Restriction site
retroviruses
(D) Kanamycin Rgene (IV) Antibiotic
resistance
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Ans. (3)
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)
Sol. Kanamycin is an antibiotic which can be used as
selectable marker for E. coli. ClaI is a restriction
site on plasmid pBR322. Disarmed retroviruses are
used to deliver genes into animal cells, which is an
indirect method of gene transfer. Kanamycin
Rgene exhibits resistance against kanamycin which
is an antibiotic.
144. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The process of copying genetic
information from one strand of the DNA into RNA
is termed as transcription.
Statement II : A transcription unit in DNA is
defined primarily by the three regions in the DNA
i.e., a promotor, the structural gene and a
terminator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Ans. (3)
Sol. The process of copying genetic information from
one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as
transcription. A transcription unit in DNA is
defined primarily by the three regions in the DNA:
(i) A Promoter (ii) The Structural gene (iii) A
Terminator.
145. Which scientist conducted an experiment with 32P
and 35S labelled phages for demonstrating that
DNA is the genetic material ?
(1) james D. Watson and F.H. C. Crick
(2) A. D Hershey and M.J. Chase
(3) F. Griffith
(4) O.T. Avery, C.M. MacLeod and M. McCarty
Ans. (2)
Sol. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
material came from the experiments of Alfred
Hershey and Martha Chase. They grew some
viruses on a medium that contained radioactive
phosphorus and some others on medium that
contained radioactive sulfur.
146. A certain plant homozygous for yellow seeds and
red flowers was crossed with a plant homozygous
for green seeds and white flowers. The F1 plants
had yellow seeds and pink flowers. The F1 plants
were selfed to get F2 progeny. Assuming
independent assortment of the two characters, how
many phenotypic categories are expected for these
characters in the F2 generation ?
(1) 9 (2) 16
(3) 4 (4) 6
Ans. (4)
Sol. In the given case, 6 phenotypes will be obtained in
the F generation: yellow seeds with red flowers,
2
yellow seeds with pink flowers, yellow seeds with
white flowers, green seeds with red flowers, green
seeds with pink flowers, green seeds with white
flowers.
147. During which stages of mitosis and meiosis,
respectively does the centromere of each
chromosome split ?
(1) Mataphase, Metaphase II
(2) Prophase, Telophase I
(3) Telophase, Anaphase I
(4) Anaphase, Anaphase II
Ans. (4)
Sol. Splitting of centromere is a characteristic feature of
anaphase of mitosis and anaphase II in meiosis.
148. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) Phase of cell elongation of plant cells is
characterized by increased vacuolation.
(2) Cells in the meristematic phase of growth
exhibit abundant plasmodesmatal
connections.
(3) Plant growth is generally determinate.
(4) Plant growth is measurable.
Ans. (3)
Sol. Plant Growth Generally is Indeterminate.
149. Match the following :
Type of flower Example
(A) Zygomorphic (I) Mustard
(B) Hypogynous (II) Plum
(C) Perigynous (III) Cassia
(D) Epigynous (IV) Cucumber
Select the correct option :
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
Ans. (4)
Sol. When it can be divided into two similar halves only
in one particular vertical plane, it is zygomorphic,
e.g., pea, gulmohur, bean, Cassia. In the
hypogynous flower the gynoecium occupies the
highest position while the other parts are situated
below it. The ovary in such flowers is said to be
superior, e.g., mustard, china rose and brinjal. If
gynoecium is situated in the centre and other parts
of the flower are located on the rim of the thalamus
almost at the same level, it is called perigynous.
The ovary here is said to be half inferior, e.g., plum,
rose, peach. In epigynous flowers, the margin of
thalamus grows upward enclosing the ovary
completely and getting fused with it, the other parts
of flower arise above the ovary. Hence, the ovary
is said to be inferior as in flowers of guava and
cucumber, and the ray florets of sunflower.
150. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The process of translocation through
phloem is unidirectional but through xylem, it is
bidirectional.
Statement II : The most readily mobilized
elements are phosphorus, sulphur, nitrogen and
potassium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Ans. (2)
Sol. Since the source-sink relationship is variable, the
direction of movement in the phloem can be
upwards or downwards, i.e., bi-directional. This
contrasts with that of the xylem where the
movement is always unidirectional, i.e., upwards.
Elements most readily mobilised are phosphorus,
sulphur, nitrogen and potassium.
ZOOLOGY
Section A
151. Which of the following sexually transmitted
infections are completely curable ?
(1) HIV infection and Trichomoniasis
(2) Syphilis and trichomoniasis
(3) Hepatitis – B and Genital herpes
(4) Genital herpes and Genital warts
Ans. (2)
Sol. Genital warts, trichomoniasis, and syphilis
can be completely cured if they are detected early
and treated properly. Effective treatment can
eliminate the infection and its symptoms.
However, hepatitis B, genital herpes, and HIV
infections are not completely curable. While
treatments can help manage the symptoms and
slow down the progression of the diseases, there is
currently no known cure to eliminate these
infections from the body.
152. Match List - I with List - II.
List-I List-II
(A) Typhoid (I) Protozoan
(B) Elephantiasis (II) Salmonella
(C) Ringworm (III) Aschelminthes
(D) Malaria (IV) Microsporum
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Ans. (3)
Sol. (1) Typhoid is caused by the pathogenic bacteria
Salmonella typhi.
(2) Elephantiasis or filariasis is caused by the
nematode Wuchereria bancrofti.
(3) Many fungi belonging to the genera
Microsporum, Trichophyton, and
Epidermophyton are responsible for
ringworm.
(4) Malaria is caused by the tiny protozoan
Plasmodium.
153. Which of the following is not a secondary
metabolite?
(1) Curcumin (2) Morphine
(3) Anthocyanin (4) Lecithin
Ans. (4)
Sol. Lecithin is a type of phospholipid that is commonly
found in cell membranes. It plays a crucial role in
maintaining the structure and integrity of cell
membranes. In contrast, anthocyanins, morphine,
and curcumin are examples of secondary
metabolites, which are compounds produced by
organisms for various biological functions.
154. Arrange the sequence of different hormones for
their role during gametogenesis.
(A) Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and
secretion of Androgen
(B) Gonadotropin releasing hormone from
hypothalamus
(C) Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis
(D) Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of
spermiogenesis
(E) Gonadotropins from anterior pituitary gland.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) (E), (A), (D), (B), (C)
(2) (C), (A), (D), (E), (B)
(3) (B), (E), (A), (C), (D)
(4) (D), (B), (A), (C), (E)
Ans. (3)
Sol. The correct sequence of different hormones and
their roles during gametogenesis:
A. B. Gonadotropin releasing hormone from
hypothalamus.
B. E. Gonadotrophin from anterior pituitary
gland.
C. Gonadotropin LH stimulates synthesis and
secretion of Androgen.
D. Androgen stimulates spermatogenesis.
E. Gonadotropin FSH helps in the process of
spermiogenesis
55. House fly belongs to _____ family.
(1) Cyprinidae (2) Hominidae
(3) Calliphoridae (4) Muscidae
Ans. (4)
Sol. Housefly belongs to the family Muscidae.
Option (1) is incorrect because Cyprinidae is the
family of freshwater fishes.
Option (2) is incorrect because Hominidae is the
family of apes.
Option (3) is incorrect because Calliphoridae is the
family of blow flies.
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)
156. Select incorrect statement, regarding chemical
structure of insulin.
(1) Mature insulin molecule consists of three
polypeptide chains-A, B and C.
(2) Insulin is synthesized as prohormone which
contains extra stretch of C-peptide.
(3) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin
molecule.
(4) Polypeptide chains A and B are linked by
disulphide bridges.
Ans. (1)
Sol. Option (1) is correct because mature insulin does
not contain the C-peptide chain, which is removed
during the maturation of pro-insulin into insulin.
As a result, mature insulin consists of only two
polypeptide chains, A and B.
Option (2) is incorrect because the extra stretch of
C-peptide is not present in mature insulin, but it is
present in pro-insulin.
Option (3) is incorrect because mature insulin
indeed lacks the C-peptide chain.
Option (4) is incorrect because the polypeptide
chains A and B in mature insulin are indeed linked
by disulphide bridges.
157. Which one of the following is the quiescent stage
of cell cycle ?
(1) M (2) G2
(3) G1 (4) G0
Ans. (4)
Sol. Some cells in the adult animals do not appear to
exhibit division (e.g., heart cells) and many other
cells divide only occasionally, as needed to replace
cells that have been lost because of injury or cell
death. These cells that do not divide further exit G1
phase to enter an inactive stage called quiescent
stage (G ) of the cell cycle.
0
158. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : RNA being unstable, mutate at a
faster rate.
Statement II : RNA can directly code for synthesis
of proteins hence can easily express the characters.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Ans. (3)
Sol. RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster rate. RNA
can directly code for the synthesis of proteins,
hence can easily express the characters.
159. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R) Assertion (A) :
Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to
water and allows transport of electrolytes actively
or passively.
Reason (R) : Dilution of filtrate takes place due to
efflux of electrolytes in the medullary fluid.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Statement (A) correctly states that dilution of the
filtrate occurs because of the passage of
electrolytes actively or passively to the medullary
interstitium when the concentrated filtrate passes
through the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is
impermeable to water but allows the transport of
electrolytes.
However, Statement (R) is not the correct
explanation of Statement (A). The dilution of the
filtrate in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle
is primarily due to the active transport of sodium
and chloride ions out of the tubular fluid.
160. The Cockroach is :
(1) Ammonotelic only
(2) Uricotelic only
(3) Ureotelic only
(4) Ureotelic and Uricotelic
Ans. (2)
Sol. In cockroaches, the excretion process is carried out
by specialized structures called Malpighian
tubules. These tubules are lined with glandular and
ciliated cells.
The main function of Malpighian tubules is to
absorb nitrogenous waste products and convert
them into uric acid, which is then excreted through
the hindgut.
Due to their ability to excrete uric acid,
cockroaches are classified as uricotelic organisms.
Ammonotelic organisms, such as many bony
fishes, aquatic amphibians, and aquatic insects,
excrete ammonia as their primary waste product.
Ureotelic organisms, including mammals, many
terrestrial amphibians, and marine fishes, excrete
urea.
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)
161. Which of the following statements are correct with
respect to the hormone and its function?
(A) Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) regulates the blood
calcium level.
(B) In males, FSH and androgens regulate
spermatogenesis.
(C) Hyperthyroidism can lead to goitre.
(D) Glucocorticoids are secreted in Adrenal
Medulla.
(E) Parathyroid hormone is regulated by circulating
levels of sodium ions.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) (C) and (E) only (2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (B) and (C) only (4) (A) and (D) only
Ans. (2)
Sol. Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) plays a role in regulating
blood calcium levels. Spermatogenesis in human
males is regulated by follicle-stimulating hormone
(FSH) and androgens indirectly through Sertoli
Cells.
Option (1), (3), and (4) are not the correct answers
because exophthalmic goitre is a specific condition
associated with hyperthyroidism, not
thyrocalcitonin. Glucocorticoids are hormones
secreted by the adrenal cortex, not specifically
related to calcium regulation. Parathyroid
hormone, along with thyrocalcitonin, is involved in
maintaining calcium balance in the body.
162. Select the sequence of steps in Respiration.
(A) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across
alveolar membrane.
(B) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
tissues.
(C) Transport of gases by the blood
(D) Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric
air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is
released out.
(E) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic
reactions are resultant release of CO2
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) (D), (A), (C), (B), (E)
(2) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)
(3) (B), (C), (E), (D), (A)
(4) (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
Ans. (1)
Sol. It presents the accurate sequence of stages involved
in respiration:
1. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation, which
involves inhaling atmospheric air and
exhaling CO2-rich alveolar air.
2. Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across the
alveolar membrane.
3. Transport of gases by the blood.
4. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between the blood
and tissues.
5. Utilization of O2 by cells for catabolic
reactions and the subsequent release of CO2.
163. Which of the following is/are cause(s) of
biodiversity losses ?
(1) Over-exploitation, habitat loss and
fragmentation.
(2) Climate change only
(3) Over-Exploitation only
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation only
Ans. (1)
Sol. Causes of biodiversity losses: Habitat loss and
fragmentation, Over-exploitation, Alien species
invasions, Co-extinctions.
164. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(A) Contractile vacuole (I) Asterias
(B) Water vascular system (II) Amoeba
(C) Canal system (III) Spongilla
(D) Flame cells (IV) Taenia
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Ans. (4)
Sol. Amoeba possesses a contractile vacuole, which
plays a role in osmoregulation.
Echinoderms, such as Asterias and Echinus,
exhibit the water vascular system as their
distinguishing feature.
Spongilla, have a water transport or canal system.
Platyhelminthes like Taenia have specialized cells
called flame cells that aid in osmoregulation and
excretion.
165. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(A) Palm bones (I) Phalanges
(B) Wrist bones (II) Metacarpals
(C) Ankle bones (III) Carpals
(D) Digit bones (IV) Tarsals
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Ans. (4)
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)
Sol. The anatomy of the limbs matches the given
information. In each forelimb, there are 5
metacarpals (Palm Bones) and 8 carpals (wrist
bones). 14 phalanges (digits) present in each limb.
In each hind limb, there are 7 tarsals (ankle bones)
and 5 metatarsals. Ans.
166. Match List-I with List-II. Sol.
List-I List-II
(A) Non-medicated IUDs (I) Multiload 375
(B) Copper releasing IUDs (II) Rubber barrier
(C) Hormone releasing IUDs (III) Lippes loop
(D) Vaults (IV) LNG-20
169.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) A-(IV), B-(III), C-(I), D-(II)
(2) A-(II), B-(IV), C-(III), D-(I)
(3) A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)
(4) A-(III), B-(IV), C-(II), D-(I)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Non-medicated IUDs like the Lippes loop.
Copper-releasing IUDs such as CuT, Cu7, and
Multiload 375.
Hormone-releasing IUDs like LNG-20 and
Progestasert.
Vaults are barriers made of rubber.
167. Which of the following can act as molecular
scissors?
(1) Restriction enzymes (2) DNA ligase
(3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA polymerase Ans.
Ans. (1) Sol.
Sol. Restriction enzymes can cut DNA at specific
locations, earning them the nickname "molecular
scissors." This ability allows for precise
manipulation of DNA fragments during genetic
engineering processes.
DNA ligase, on the other hand, is known as the
"molecular glue" as it can join DNA fragments
together by catalysing the formation of 170.
phosphodiester bonds between them.
DNA polymerase plays a crucial role in the
extension step of PCR (polymerase chain reaction),
where it synthesizes new DNA strands by adding
nucleotides to a DNA template.
168. Select the correct statements about sickle cell
anaemia.
(A) There is a change in gene for beta globin.
(B) In the beta globin, there is valine in the place
of Lysine.
(C) It is an example of point mutation.
(D) In the normal gene U is replaced by A.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
Ans.
(1) (B), (C) and (D) only
(2) (B) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B) and (D) only
(4) (A) and (C) only
(4)
The sickle cell anaemia defect is caused by the
substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val)
at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the
haemoglobin molecule. The substitution of amino
acid in the globin protein results due to the single
base substitution at the sixth codon of the beta
globin gene from GAG to GUG.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I :- Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection
(ICSI) is another specialised procedure of in-vivo
fertilisation.
Statement II :- Infertility cases due to inability of
the male partner to inseminate female can be
corrected by artificial insemination (AI).
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
false
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(2)
Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) is a
specialized procedure used in in-vitro fertilization
to address infertility cases where the male partner
is unable to inseminate the female or has very low
sperm counts in the ejaculate. This procedure
allows for artificial insemination to overcome these
challenges and increase the chances of successful
fertilization.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(ECG) (Electrical activity of heart)
(A) P-wave (I) Depolarisation of
ventricles
(B) QRS complex (II) End of systole
(C) T wave (III) Depolarisation of
atria
(D) End of T wave (IV) Repolarisation of
ventricles
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(III), D-(II)
(2) A-(I), B-(IV), C-(III), D-(II)
(3) A-(IV), B-(III), C-(I), D-(II)
(4) A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)
(4)
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)
Sol. P-wave corresponds to the electrical excitation
(depolarization) of the atria, which triggers the
contraction of both atria. The QRS complex
represents the depolarization of the ventricles,
leading to their contraction. The T-wave signifies
the repolarization of the ventricles, as they return
to their resting state. The completion of the T-wave
marks the end of systole, the contraction phase of
the cardiac cycle.
171. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(A) Eosinophils (I) 6 – 8%
(B) Lymphocytes (II) 2 – 3%
(C) Neutrophils (III) 20 – 25%
(D) Monocytes (IV) 60 – 65 %
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(II), D-(III)
(2) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(III), D-(II)
(3) A-(II), B-(III), C-(IV), D-(I)
(4) A-(II), B-(III), C-(I), D-(IV)
Ans. (3)
Sol. The percentages of eosinophils, lymphocytes,
neutrophils, and monocytes in total white blood
cells (WBCs) are approximately 2-3%, 20-25%,
60-65%, and 6-8% respectively.
172. Given below are two statements :
Statement I :- Goblet cells are unicellular glands.
Statement II :- Earwax is the secretion of exocrine
gland.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Ans. (3)
Sol. Certain columnar or cuboidal cells undergo
specialization for secretion and are referred to as
glandular epithelium. Goblet cells found in the
alimentary canal are examples of unicellular
glands. Exocrine glands are responsible for
secreting substances such as mucus, saliva, earwax,
oil, milk, digestive enzymes, and other cellular
products.
173. Given below are two statements regarding
oogenesis:
Statement I:- The primary follicles get surrounded
by more layers of granulosa cells, a theca and
shows fluid filled cavity antrum. Now it is called
secondary follicle.
Statement II :- Graffian follicle ruptures to release
the secondary oocyte from the ovary by the process
called ovulation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Ans. (2)
Sol. Each primary follicle is surrounded by additional
layers of granulosa cells and a new theca, forming
secondary follicles. These secondary follicles then
develop into tertiary follicles, which are
characterized by the presence of a fluid-filled
cavity called an antrum. Eventually, the Graafian
follicle ruptures through the process of ovulation,
releasing the secondary oocyte (ovum) from the
ovary. Therefore, Statement I is incorrect, but
Statement II is correct.
174. If there are 250 snails in a pond, and within a year
their number increases to 2500 by reproduction.
What should be their birth rate per snail per year ?
(1) 10 (2) 9
(3) 25 (4) 15
Ans. (2)
Sol. Birth rate = number of births/original number of
individuals
= 2250/250 = 9.
175. Given below are two statements :
Statement I :- The nose contains mucus – coated
receptors which are specialised for receiving the
sense of smell and are called olfactory receptors.
Statement II :- Wall of the eye ball has three
layers. The external layer is called choroid (dense
connective tissue), middle layer is sclera (thin
pigmented layer) and internal layer is retina
(ganglion cells, bipolar cells and photoreceptor
cells).
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Ans. (1)
Sol. The wall of the eyeball is composed of three layers,
as follows:
The external layer is made up of dense connective
tissue and is referred to as the sclera.
The middle layer is known as the choroid, which
contains numerous blood vessels and appears
bluish in colour. The choroid layer is thin over the
posterior two-thirds of the eyeball and becomes
thicker in the anterior portion, forming the ciliary
body.
The innermost layer is the retina, which consists
of three layers of neural cells: ganglion cells,
bipolar cells, and photoreceptor cells. These layers
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

are arranged from the inside to the outside of the Option (1) is incorrect because amphetamine is a
retina. type of stimulant.
176. Which one of the following acts as an inducer for Option (2) is incorrect because barbiturates are
lac operon ? classified as sedatives.
Option (3) is incorrect because cocaine, derived
(1) Sucrose (2) Lactose from the coca plant, is commonly referred to as
(3) Glucose (4) Galactose coke or crack.
Ans. (2) 179. 'X' and 'Y' are the components of Binomial
Sol. Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme beta- nomenclature. This naming system was proposed
galactosidase and it regulates switching on and off by 'Z' :
of the operon. Hence, it is termed as inducer for lac (1) X-Generic name, Y-Specific epithet, Z-Carolus
operon. Linnaeus
(2) X-Specific epithet, Y-Generic name, Z-R.H.
177. Match List-I with List-II. Whittaker
List-I List-II (3) X-Specific epithet, Y-Generic name, Z-
(A) Deforestation (I) Responsible for Carolus Linnaeus
(4) X-Generic name, Y-Specific epithet, Z-R.H.
heating of Earth's Whittaker
surface and Ans. (1)
atmosphere Sol. Biologists follow universally accepted principles to
(B) Reforestation (II) Conversion of provide scientific names to known organisms. Each
name has two components – the Generic name and
forested areas to the specific epithet. This system of providing a
non-forested areas name with two components is called Binomial
(C) Green-house (III) Natural ageing of nomenclature. This naming system was given by
Effect lake by nutrient Carolus Linnaeus.
180. Which of the following statements are correct ?
enrichment of its (A) Reproductive health refers to total well-being
water in all aspects of reproduction.
(D) Eutrophication (IV) Process of restoring (B) Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex
a forest that once determination in India.
existed but was (C) "Saheli" – a new oral contraceptive for
females was developed in collaboration with
removed ICMR (New Delhi).
Choose the correct answer from the options given (D) Amniocentesis is used to determine genetic
below : disorders and survivability of foetus.
(1) A-(IV), B-(III), C-(II), D-(I) Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(2) A-(I), B-(II), C-(III), D-(IV) options given below :
(1) (B) and (C) only
(3) A-(III), B-(I), C-(II), D-(IV) (2) (D) and (C) only
(4) A-(II), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(III) (3) (A), (B) and (D) only
Ans. (4) (4) (A) and (C) only
Sol. The greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring Ans. (3)
phenomenon that is responsible for heating of Sol. Reproductive health, as defined by the World
Earth’s surface and atmosphere. Deforestation is Health Organization, encompasses the overall
the conversion of forested areas to non-forested well-being in all aspects related to reproduction. A
ones. Reforestation is the process of restoring a statutory ban on amniocentesis is implemented to
forest that once existed but was removed at some prevent sex-determination tests and address the
point of time in the past. Eutrophication is the growing issue of female foeticide. Saheli, an oral
natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its contraceptive for females, has been developed by
water. scientists at the Central Drug Research Institute
178. Diacetyl morphine is also called as : (CDRI) in Lucknow, India.
(1) Amphetamine (2) Barbiturate 181. Match List-I with List-II.
(3) Crack (4) Smack List-I List-I
Ans. (4) (A) Terpenoides (I) Codeine
Sol. Heroin, also known as smack, is a chemical (B) Lectins (II) Diterpenes
compound called diacetyl morphine. Morphine, on (C) Alkaloids (III) Ricin
the other hand, is commonly used as a sedative. (D) Toxins (IV) Concanavalin A

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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) A-(II), B-(IV), C-(III), D-(I)
(2) A-(II), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(III)
(3) A-(II), B-(III), C-(I), D-(IV)
(4) A-(II), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(III)
Ans. (4)
Sol. Diterpenes are classified as a type of terpenoids,
and Concanavalin A is categorized as a lectin.
 Codeine is classified as an alkaloid.
 Ricin is classified as a toxin.
182. Given below are two statements
Statements I :- In bacteria, threesomes are formed
by the extensions of plasma membrane.
Statements II :- The mesosomas, in bacteria, help
in DNA replication and cell wall formation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
Ans. (3)
Sol. A special membranous structure in bacteria is the
mesosome which is formed by the extensions of
plasma membrane into the cell. They help in cell
wall formation, DNA replication and distribution
to daughter cells.
183. Select correct sequence of substages of Prophase-I
of Meiotic division :
(A) Zygotene (B) Pachytene
(C) Diakineses (D) Leptotene
(E) Diplotene
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) (D), (B), (A), (E), (C)
(2) (A), (B), (D), (E), (C)
(3) (D), (A), (B), (E), (C)
(4) (A), (D), (B), (C), (E)
Ans. (3)
Sol. The correct sequence of sub-stages of prophase I of
meiosis is
Leptotene – Zygotene – Pachytene – Diplotene –
Diakinesis
184. Brainstem of human brain consists of :
(1) Mid-brain, Pons and Medulla Oblongata
(2) Forebrain, Cerebellum and Pons
(3) Thalamus, Hypothalamus and Corpora
quadrigemina
(4) Amygdala, Hippocampus and Corpus
Callosum
Ans. (1)
Sol. The human brain stem is composed of three
major regions: the midbrain, pons, and medulla
oblongata.
The amygdala and hippocampus together form a
complex structure known as the limbic system.
The hindbrain consists of the pons, cerebellum, and
medulla.
185. Identify the fossil of man who showed the
following characteristics.
(A) Brain capacity of 1400 cc
(B) Used hides to protect their body
(C) Buried their dead bodies
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below :
(1) Homo erectus (2) Neanderthal man
(3) Homo habilits (4) Australopithecus
Ans. (2)
Sol. The Neanderthal man had a brain capacity of
1400 cc. They utilized hides to protect their bodies.
They also engaged in burying their deceased
individuals.
Homo habilis had a brain capacity ranging
from 650 to 800 cc, while Homo erectus had an
approximate brain capacity of 900 cc.
Section B
186. With reference to Hershey and Chase experiments.
Select the correct statements.
(A) Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive
phosphorus contained radioactive DNA.
(B) Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur
contained radioactive proteins.
(C) Viruses grown on radioactive phosphorus
contained radioactive protein.
(D) Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur
contained radioactive DNA.
(E) Viruses grown on radioactive protein
contained radioactive DNA.
Choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below :
(1) (D) and (E) only (2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (A) and (C) only (4) (B) and (D) only
Ans. (2)
Sol. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
material came from the experiments of Alfred
Hershey and Martha Chase. They grew some
viruses on a medium that contained radioactive
phosphorus and some others on medium that
contained radioactive sulfur. Viruses grown in the
presence of radioactive phosphorus contained
radioactive DNA but not radioactive protein
because DNA contains phosphorus but protein
does not. Similarly, viruses grown on radioactive
sulfur contained radioactive protein but not
radioactive DNA because DNA does not contain
sulfur.
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)
187. Select the correct sequential steps regarding
absorption of fatty acids and glycerol, in intestine.
(A) Micelles are reformed into small protein
coated fat globules called chylomicrons.
(B) Micelles move into intestinal mucosa.
(C) Fatty acids and glycerol are incorporated into
small droplets called micelles
(D) Lacteals release the absorbed substances into
blood stream.
(E) Chylomicrons are transported into lacteals.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) (A), (E), (B), (D), (C)
(2) (D), (E), (B), (C), (A)
(3) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)
(4) (B), (C), (E), (A), (D)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Correct sequential steps involved in the
absorption of fatty acids and glycerol in the
intestine:
(C) Fatty acid and glycerol are incorporated into
small droplets called micelles.
(B) Micelles move into the intestinal mucosa.
(A) Micelles are reformed into small protein-
coated fat globules called chylomicrons.
(E) Chylomicrons are transported into lacteals.
(D) Lacteals release the absorbed substances into
the bloodstream.
188. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) : and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : A person goes to high altitude and
experiences "Altitude Sickness" with symptoms
like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.
Reason (R) : Due to low atmospheric pressure at
high altitude, the body does not get sufficient
oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
Ans. (3)
Sol. At high altitude place, a person faces altitude
sickness. Its symptoms include nausea, fatigue and
heart palpitations. This is because in the low
atmospheric pressure of high altitudes, the body
does not get enough oxygen.
189. The salient features of genetic code are :
(A) The code is palindromic
(B) UGA act as initiator codon
(C) The code is unambiguous and specific
(D) The code is nearly universal
Choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below :
(1) (A) and (D) only (2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (B) only (4) (C) and (D) only
Ans. (4)
Sol. The salient features of genetic code are as follows:
(i) The codon is triplet. 61 codons code for
amino acids and 3 codons do not code for
any amino acids, hence they functionas stop
codons.
(ii) Some amino acids are coded by more than
one codon, hence the code is degenerate.
(iii) The codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous
fashion. There are no punctuations.
(iv) The code is nearly universal: for example,
from bacteria to human UUU would code
for Phenylalanine (phe). Some exceptions to
this rule have been found in mitochondrial
codons, and in some protozoans.
(v) AUG has dual functions. It codes for
Methionine (met) , and it also act as initiator
codon.
(vi) UAA, UAG, UGA are stop terminator
codons.
190. Arrange the events of Renin - Angiotensin
mechanism in correct sequence.
(A) Activation of JG cells and release of renin.
(B) Angiotensin II activates release of
aldosterone.
(C) Fall in glomerular blood pressure.
(D) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from distal
convoluted tubule.
(E) Angiotensinogen is converted to
Angiotensin I and then to Angiotensin II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) (C), (A), (E), (B), (D)
(2) (A), (D), (E), (C), (B)
(3) (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)
(4) (B), (A), (E), (D), (C)
Ans. (1)
Sol. Correct sequence & events associated with the
renin-Angiotensin mechanism:
(C) Fall in glomerular blood pressure.
(A) Activation of J.G cells and release of renin.
(E) Conversion of angiotensinogen to
angiotensin I and then to angiotensin II.
(B) Activation of aldosterone release by
angiotensin II.
(D) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from the
distal convoluted tubule.
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

191. Select the correct statements regarding dissolved 193. Select the correct statements :
Oxygen and Biochemical Oxygen Demand. (A) Platyhelminthes are triploblastic
(A) BOD is inversely related to dissolved pseudocoelomate and bilaterally
oxygen.
(B) Low dissolved oxygen and high BOD lead symmetrical organisms.
to loss of aquatic life. (B) Ctenophores reproduce only sexually and
(C) High BOD leads to high dissolved oxygen. fertilization is external.
(D) Both BOD and dissolved oxygen are indicator (C) In tapeworm, fertilization is internal but sexes
of health of a water body. are not separate.
(E) Both BOD and dissolved oxygen are
affected by amount of organic matter in the (D) Ctenophores are exclusively marine,
water body. diploblastic and bioluminescent organisms.
Choose the most appropriate answer from (E) In sponges, fertilization is external and
the options given below : development is direct.
(1) (A), (B), (C), (E) only Choose the correct answer from the options
(2) (A), (B), (D), (E) only
(3) (A), (B), (C), (D) only given
(4) (B), (C), (D), (E) only (1) (A), (C) and (D) only
Ans. (2) (2) (B), (C) and (D) only
Sol. BOD is inversely related to dissolved oxygen. (3) (A) and (E) only
Micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of
organic matter in the receiving water body (4) (B) and (D) only
consume a lot of oxygen, and as a result there is a Ans. (2)
sharp decline in dissolved oxygen downstream Sol. Statements (A) and (E) are false because
from the point of sewage discharge. Higher the platyhelminths are acoelomate invertebrates, and
BOD, lower the dissolved oxygen of water body. sponges do not exhibit internal fertilization.
BOD and dissolved oxygen is affected by amount 194. Match List-I with List-II
of organic matter in water body. List-I List-I
192. Given below are two statements I:
(A) Gene therapy (I) Separation of
Statements I:- Parathyroid hormone acts on bones
DNA fragments
and stimulates the process of bone resorption.
(B) RNA (II) Diagnostic test
Statements II:- Parathyroid hormone along with
interference for AIDS
Thyrocalcitonin plays a significant role in
(C) ELISA (III) Cellular defence
carbohydrate metabolism. In the light of the above
(D) Gel (IV) Allows
statements, choose the correct answer from the
Electrophoresis correction of a
options given below :
gene defect.
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
Choose the correct answer from the options given
false below :
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
true (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
false. Ans. (3)
Ans. (1) Sol. A. The correction of a gene defect is made
Sol. Parathyroid hormone is a hormone that increases possible through gene therapy.
the levels of calcium in the blood, and it exerts its B. RNA interference occurs in all eukaryotes and
effect on the bone by promoting bone resorption. serves as a cellular defence mechanism.
PTH, in conjunction with TCT, plays a crucial role C. ELISA is utilized as a diagnostic test for
in maintaining calcium balance within the body. AIDS.
Therefore, Statement I is accurate, but Statement II D. Gel Electrophoresis is employed to separate
is incorrect. DNA fragments.

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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

195. Which of the following statements are correct with while they emerge from the mesothorax.
respect of Golgi apparatus ? Furthermore, the wings of cockroaches are not
(A) It is the important site of formation of transparent, but rather opaque, dark, and leathery.
glycoprotein and glycolipids. Statement II is also incorrect as it states that the
(B) It produces cellular energy in the form of hind wings of cockroaches are opaque and leathery,
ATP. whereas they are transparent, membranous, and
(C) It modifies the protein synthesized by originate from the metathorax.
ribosomes on ER. 198. Match List-I with List-II.
(D) It facilitates the transport of ions. List-I List-I
(E) It provides mechanical support. (A) Columnar (I) Ducts of glands
Choose the most appropriate answer from epithelium
the options given below : (B) (II)
Ciliated Inner lining of
(1) (B) and (C) only
epithelium stomach and
(2) (A) and (C) only
(3 (A) and (D) only intestine
(4) (D) and (E) only (C) Squamous (III) Inner lining of
Ans. (2) epithelium bronchioles
Sol. A number of proteins synthesised by ribosomes on (D) Cuboidal (IV) Endothelium
the endoplasmic reticulum are modified in the epithelium
cisternae of the golgi apparatus before they are Choose the correct answer from the options given
released from its trans face. Golgi apparatus is the below :
important site of formation of glycoproteins and (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
glycolipids.
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
196. Select the incorrect statement with respect to
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (MOET)
(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Technology.
Ans. (4)
(1) Fertilised eggs at 4 to 6 cells - stages are Sol. (A) The inner lining of the stomach and intestine
recovered non-surgically from super- is composed of columnar epithelium.
ovulating cow and transferred to surrogate (B) The inner lining of the bronchioles is
mother. comprised of ciliated epithelium.
(2) It is used to increase herd size in a short time (C) The inner lining of blood vessels is composed
(3) Cow is administered with hormones to of squamous epithelium, known as
induce super-ovulation. endothelium.
(4) Super-ovulating cow is either mated with elite (D) The lining of renal tubules and ducts of glands
bull or is artificially inseminated. consists of cuboidal epithelium.
Ans. (1) 199. Match List-I with List
Sol. Option (1) does not align with the process of
MOET. In MOET, fertilized eggs at the 8-32 cell List-I List-I
stages are recovered non-surgically from super- (A) Cytokine (I) Mucus coating of
ovulated cows and subsequently transferred to barriers respiratory tract
surrogate mothers. (B) Cellular (II) Interferons
197. Given below are two statements : barriers
Statement I : In cockroach, the forewings are (C) Physiological (III) Neutrophils and
transparent and prothoracic in origin. barriers Macrophages
Statement II : In cockroach, the hind wings are (D) Physical (IV) Tears and Saliva
opaque, leathery and mesothoracic in origin. barriers
In the light of the above statements, choose the Choose the correct answer from the options given
correct answer from the options given below : below :
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
false (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
true (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Ans. (1)
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are Sol. Cytokine barriers encompass interferons, which
false. are proteins secreted by virus-infected cells. These
Ans. (4) interferons serve to protect non-infected cells from
Sol. Statement I is incorrect because the first pair of further viral infection.
wings in cockroaches arises from the prothorax,
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 FINAL NEET(UG)–2023 PHASE 2 (MANIPUR EXAMINATION)

Cellular barriers involve specific types of white Choose the correct answer from the options given
blood cells (W.B.C) in our body, such as below:
neutrophils, monocytes, natural killer cells in the (1) (B) and (D) only
blood, as well as macrophages in tissues. (2) (A), (C) and (D) only
Physiological barriers consist of various defence (3) (A) only
mechanisms, including stomach acid, tears from (4) (A) and (C) only
the eyes, and saliva in the mouth. These barriers
Ans. (1)
collectively prevent microbial growth.
Sol. Grasshopper is an example of XO type of sex
Physical barriers include the skin and the mucus
determination in which the males have only one X-
coating of the respiratory tract, gastrointestinal
chromosome besides the autosomes, whereas
tract (GIT), and other areas.
females have a pair of X-chromosomes.
200. Select the correct statement/s with respect to
mechanism of sex determination in Grasshopper
(A) It is an example of female heterogamety
(B) Male produces two different types of gametes
either with or without X chromosome.
(C) Total number of chromosomes (autosomes
and sex chromosomes) is same in both males
and females.
(D) All eggs bear an additional X chromosome
besides the autosomes.

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