1.

The following are the four basic components of Strategic Communication Plan,
EXCEPT
A. Rationale Statement
B. Situational Analysis
C. Goals and Objectives
D. Financial Requirements
E. Key Stakeholders the Message, and Media

2. Which of the following is TRUE about Strategic Communication?

I. The most important and often least understood factor that moves an
organization from strategy development to implementation is strategic
communication.
II. Strategic communication entails packaging a core message that reflects an
agency's overall strategy, values, purpose and mission to persuade key
stakeholders and enhance positioning
III. Strategic Communication establishes organizational clarity and dissuades
freelance endeavours that may serve a few well, but detract from the
organization’s overall direction and purpose
IV. A Solid Strategic Communication Plan (SCP) should synchronize
organizational units and align resources to deliver a common core message.

A. Statements I, II and III are true.

B. Statements II, III and IV are true.
C. Statements III, IV and I are true.
D. Statements IV, I, and II are true.
E. All statements are true.

3. One of the major parts of Strategic Communication Plan is the Rationale

Statement. Which of the following is NOT related to Rational Statement?

A. The rationale statement should underscore this sense of here-but-not-et

tension and also summarize the SCP goals and objectives that will move the
organization toward strategy implementation.
B. The rationale statement serves as a kind of introduction to the broader SCP.
C. In the rationale statement, the agency needs to diagnose the existing culture, or
how things are done now.
D. The rationale statement makes a concise case for the desired change.
E. In the rationale statement, the agency must articulate why the current process is
insufficient.

4. Which of the following refers to the PNP Masterplan for Anti-Criminality

Campaign?

A. Santinig – communications plan media pcr

B. Sandugo – ISO master plan
C. Sandigan
D. Saklolo- support strategy in times of disaster
E. Sang-banat – campaign against illegal drugs
5. The following are the major parts of a Strategic Communication Plan. Arrange the
following major parts according to its proper order presented in the lecture?
I. Goals and Objectives
II. Situational Analysis
III. Rationale Statement
IV. Key Stakeholders, the Message and Media
V. Budgetary Requirements

A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, III, V, II
C. V, IV, III, II
D. II, V, I, III
E. III, II, I, IV

6. Which of the following is TRUE about Key Stakeholders, the Message and Media?
A. Stakeholders include anyone affected by the strategic communication goal,
including employees, citizens, lawmakers, or other groups who have a vested
interest in the outcome.
B. The messages must be tailored for the respective target or audience, and an
agency must answer the “what’s in it for me questions that inevitably emerge.
C. For law enforcement departments, the message for employees must address how
the change will increase effectiveness, esprit de corps, or other relevant cultural
issues.
D. Selecting the right medium to either inform of or discuss the change depends on
the stakeholders.
E. All of the choices.

7. Which of the following refers to the PNP Masterplan for Anti-Illegal Drugs
Campaign?
A. SANTINIG
B. SANDUGO
C. SANDIGAN
D. SAKLOLO
E. SANG-BANAT

8. What does the following sentence describe It is the process of infusing

communications efforts with an agenda and a master plan?
A. Mass Communication
B. Strategic Communication
C. Corporate Communication
D. Company Communication
E. Government Communication

9. The following are the major parts of a Strategic Communication Plan. Which of the
following is the SECOND major part?
A. Goals and Objectives
B. Budgetary Requirements
C. Situational Analysis
D. Rationale Statement
E. Key Stakeholders, the Message, and Media
10. The following are the major parts of a Strategic Communication Plan. Which of
the following is the FIRST major part?
A. Goals and Objectives
B. Budgetary Requirements
C. Situational Analysis
D. Rationale Statement
E. Key Stakeholders, the Message, and Media

11. The BEST way to accomplish the PNP mandate is done through-.
A. Individual
B. Teamwork
C. Unit
D. Division
E. Section

12. Which among the following values is considered PARAMOUNT to the leadership
of PNP heads?
A. Integrity
B. Faithfulness
C. Religious
D. Commitment
E. Honesty

13. These are easier to define or identify and management can directly influence
them:
A. Hard elements
B. Skills
C. Soft elements
D. Style
E. None of the above

14. According to John Maxwell, the price tag of leadership is:

A. Hardwork
B. Integrity
C. Honesty
D. Self-control
E. Dedication

15. Values refer to something that we have enduring preference, while character,
positively speaking, means good reputation or good moral constitution. Which of the
following is your stand regarding this statement:
a. The statement is too vague
b. The statement is false
c. The statement is true
d. The statement has no basis
e. The statement is half truth

16. Servant-leadership empowers people through:

A. Guidance, caring, and trust
B. Example, understanding, and sensitivity
C. Appreciation and encouragement
D. A and B
E. All of the above

17. The process of becoming a servant leader is a ____________ process:

a. Difficult
b. Very hard
c. Life-long
d. Challenging
e. Problematic

18. Character is made up of which two interacting parts:

a. Tactical and technical skills
b. Values and culture
c. Values and attributes
d. Balance and stability
e. Mental and emotional

19. Coaching, Teaching, Counseling, Motivating and Empowering are leadership

skills known as:
A. Technical Skills
B. Conceptual Skills
C. Tactical Skills
D. Interpersonal Skills
E. Decision-making Skills

20. In the question "What a leader must be, special emphasis is placed on character.
Which of the following is/are the reason/s therefore?
A. Character contributes significantly to how a person acts
B. A person of character will act faultlessly.
C. Character helps a person to know what is right and do what is right all the time
and at whatever cost.
D. A and B
E. A and C

21. It refers to the conceptual skills in leadership

A. Analytical reasoning
B. Planning
C. Decision-making
D. Influencing
E. Controlling

22. Adaptive Leadership is:

A. A "reality on the ground" approach to leadership.
B. An approach to command.
C. Based on the situation and factors such as mission, personnel's capabilities
geography, weaponry, and more.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

23. The following describe an "adaptive leader, EXCEPT:

A. Anticipate and employ a broad-based style of command.
B. Take risks and make decisions, learn from events, and adjust plans accordingly
C. Gives emphasis on detailed solution of a problem.
D. Able to switch from one critical task to another without hesitation.
E. None of the above

24. Which among the three aspects Contemporary Operating Environment

a. Ambiguity, Technicality, and Change
b. Clarity, Complexity, and Change
c. Ambiguity, Complexity and Change
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

25. To be and adaptive leader, one must have the following:

a. Training and education which is the foundation of this leadership style
b. Embrace lifetime learning to build the technical and critical-thinking
skills
c. Entrust subordinates with responsibility and authority, empower them to
take prudent risks, accept mistakes as opportunities to learn, and help
others to learn to cope with constant change
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

26. This identifies what needs to be realigned to improve the organization's

performance and maintain alignment during a period of change.
A. McKinsey's 5's Framework
B. McKinsey's 8's Framework
C. Strategy
D. McKinsey's 7's Framework
E. All of the above

27. One of the following is a technique used to identify the key people who have to
be won over. This is typically used when you do your programs and projects to build
the support that will help you succeed:
A. SWOT
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Environmental scanning
D. PESTEL
E. All of the above

28. Stacy Adams' Equity Theory of Motivation states ONE of the following:
A. Positive outcomes and high level of motivation can be expected only when
employees perceive their treatment to be fair.
B. All organizations have policies which are statements of goals and objectives,
C. Encompasses conflicts between government and citizens.
D. Involves allocating time and influence.
E. All of the above
29. Expectation management is often said the driver to managing staff well known as
Pygmalion effect and the Galatea effect. Which among the following succinctly
describes this concept?
A. The ways managers treat their subordinates is subtly influenced by what they
expect of them.
B. They leave scar on the careers of young people, cut deeply onto their self-esteem
and distort their image of themselves as human beings.
C. The time horizon of the work in terms of days, months and years.
D. Their rate of change overtime.
E. All of the above

30. According to Hambrick and Fredrickson, there are five (5) elements of strategy.
In this case, the following are these elements, EXCEPT:
A. Vehicles
B. Political Logic
C. Arenas
D. Differentiators
E. None of the above

31. Strategy formulation requires a series of steps performed in sequential order that
must be taken to build upon one another. But, these two processes are continually
performed throughout the strategy formulation.
A. Values assessment and culture awareness.
B. Vision and mission formulation
C. Strategy design and thrusts
D. Environmental scanning and continuous implementation
E. None of the above

32. Strategic planning is done unless the external and internal context has changed
dramatically and does a strategic review every year to look at the strategic
framework or reality check.
A. Annually
B. Daily
C. Once every three years
D. Quarterly
E. Semi-Annually

33. These are qualitative manifestations that the objectives are being attained:
A. Key Result Areas
B. Mission
C. Core Values
D. Vision
E. All of the Above

34. Project Management is:

A. Solely a science in planning, implementing, monitoring and evaluating project
B. Both science and art in planning, implementing, monitoring and evaluating
projects
C. Solely an art in planning, implementing, monitoring and evaluating projects
D. Neither a science nor art in planning, implementing, monitoring, evaluating project
E. All of the Above

35. Project Management differs from other forms of management in the sense that:
A. It has a fixed timeline, budget, objectives/goal, and management structure
B. It is an ongoing concern with unlimited timeline, budget, objective and
management
C. It does not consider external conditions or threats in designing an intervention
D. It considers internal capabilities in designing an intervention
E. All of the Above

36. The goal or end result in Project Management refers to

A. Direct benefits to the project beneficiaries
B. Contribution to society/sector, to include direct beneficiaries and other people
C. Products and services delivered to the beneficiaries
D. Tasks performed by the project implementers
E. Resources needed for the project

37. The output or immediate result in Project Management refers to:

A. Direct benefits to the project beneficiaries
B. Contribution to society/sector, to include direct beneficiaries and other
people
C. Products and services delivered to the beneficiaries
D. Tasks performed by the project implementers
E. Resources needed for the project

38. Risks and Assumptions in Project Management look into:

A. Internal strengths and weaknesses
B. External opportunities and threats
C. Strategies how to implement the project
D. All factors that can negatively impact on project
E. Resources needed for the project

39. Indicators are measures of performance. Which of the following is not a good
indicator?
A. Number of police officers trained in Project Management
B. Increase in crime incidence rate
C. Number of intelligent police officers
D. Ratio of the number of police personnel versus land area covered by
E. None of the above

40. Implementation of project means?

A. Launching the project
B. Executing the activities and plans of the project
C. Checking of accomplishments versus plans
D. Checking of expenditures versus budget
E. All of the choices
41. Which of the following is least important in setting up the project team?
A. Names and address of the managers and staff
B. Roles and responsibilities of the managers and staff
C. Hierarchy of decision making
D. Office layout for efficiency and effectiveness
E. All of the choices

42. Evaluation a Project means?

A. Looking at the grand scheme of things upon project
B. Tracking end results versus planned goal
C. Tracking output and outcome accomplishments versus target
D. All of the above
E. A and C

43. Project completion Date best describes the:

A. Day when you submit the Project Completion Report
B. Day when project goal and objectives will be attained
C. Last day of conducting activities and disbursing funds
D. Last working day of the Project Management Team
E. All of the choices

44. When we say vision in Project Management, we mean:

A. What you want to see
B. What you want to be
C. What you want to do
D. All of the above
E. A and B only

45. The following are definitions of Financial Management, EXCEPT:

A. It is the planning, organizing, directing and controlling, and monitoring of the
monetary resources of an organization.
B. It is the wise utilization of available resources towards the achievement of
organizational goal.
C. It means planning, organizing, directing and controlling the financial activities such
as procurement and utilization of funds of the enterprise. It means applying general
management principles to financial resources of the enterprise.
D. It is the Operational Activity of a business that is responsible for obtaining and
effectively utilizing the funds necessary for efficient operation.
E. It refers to the efficient and effective management of money (funds) in such a
manner as to accomplish the objectives of the organization.

46. The following are the objectives of Financial Management, EXCEPT:

A. Profit maximization
B. Wealth maximization
C. Minimization on capital cost
D. Investment decision
E. Maintaining proper cash flow
47. Under existing laws, rules and regulations, the following are some of the
fundamental principles in financial transactions in government, EXCEPT:
A. No money shall be paid out of any public treasury or depository except in
pursuance of an appropriation, law or other specific statutory authority.
B. No obligation of the government shall be paid without the prior approval of the
Resident Auditor of the Commission on Audit.
C. Fiscal responsibility, shall to the greatest extent, be shared by all those exercising
authority over the financial affair, transactions, and operations of the government
agency.
D. Claims against government funds shall be supported with complete
documentation.
E. Disbursements or disposition of government funds or property shall invariably
bear the approval of the proper officials.

48. The following are the basic requirements applicable to all classes of
disbursements in government EXCEPT:
A. Duly approved purchase order by the head of agency or his duly authorized
representative.
B. Certificate of availability of fund.
C. Documents to establish validity of claim.
D. Conformity of the expenditure to existing laws and regulations.
E. Proper accounting treatment.

49. A massive and reinvigorated conduct of anti-illegal drugs operations targeting

illegal drug personalities and drug syndicates.
A. Project Double Barrel
B. Oplan Tokhang
C. Project High Value Target
D. Project Double Barrel Alpha
E. None of the above

50. It refers to a level of drug personalities whose arrest will decrease drug activities and
lessens crime incidents in the area and shall increase the safety and security of the
community.
A. High Impact Target (HIT)
B. Drug-Affected Barangay
C. Project High Value Target
D. Project Double Barrel Alpha
E. None of the above

51. It refers to the PNP Anti-Illegal Drugs Campaign, Command Memorandum

Circular No. 16-2016
a. Project: Kontra Droga Charlie
b. Project: Double Barrel
c. Project: HVT
d. Project: Double Barrel Alpha
e. Project: HIT
52. A practical and realistic means of accelerating the drive against illegal drugs in
affected barangays. This concept involves the conduct of house to house visitation to
persuade suspected illegal drug personalities to stop their illegal activities.
a. Project: Kontra Droga Charlie
b. Project: HVT
c. Project: Tokhang
d. Project: Double Barrel Alpha
e. Project: HIT

53. Issued on the 16th of June 2015 with Subject: Revitalization of the Barangay Anti-
Drug Abuse Council (BADAC) and their role in Drug Clearing Operations.
a. DILG Memo Circular No. 2015-63
b. DILG Memo Circular No. 98.227
c. DILG Memo Circular No. 2012-94
d. DILG Memo Circular No. 2007
e. DILG Memo Circular No. 2015-227

54. It provides the implementing guidelines in the formulation and institutionalization

of a standard preventive information and education program of the PNP to protect
the youths from the harmful effects and dangerous drugs.
a. Project: HVT
b. Project: Baraks Ni Good Brother
c. Project: Ready
d. CARE: Project
e. Project: SPARE

55. In the hierarchy of Drug Trafficking Syndicate they are the mastermind of the
complicated, compartmentalized network. The source orchestrates not only the
distribution of the illegal drugs but also the actual selection and deployment of the
elements needed to run the laboratory and manufacturing operations
A. Wholesaler
B. Distributor
C. Street Pushing
D. Source
E. Manufacturing

56. A new drug group operating in the Philippines. They associated with the Chinese
drug Group to penetrate the Philippine market.
A. Chinese or Filipino-Chinese drug syndicates
B. African Drug Syndicate (ADS)
C. Local Drug Syndicate
D. Mexican-Sinaloa Drug Cartel
E. African Drug Syndicate

57. Performance excellence STARTS with the management functions on .

A. Organizing
B. Directing
C. Staffing
D. Controlling
E. Planning

58. The BEST time to set performance standards for any activity to be done
is .
A. Before the start of the work
B. During the work process
C. Any time of the activity
D. Before the final payment
E. All of the above

59. The leadership EMPHASIS during the 20th Century was more of .
A. Service
B. Authority
C. Credentials
D. Job knowledge
E. None of the above

60. The flow of information and feedbacking in an organization should be:

A. Top-down only
B. Bottoms-up
C. Top-down and vice-versa
D. It depends
E. All of the above

61. Which of the following does not define peace building?

A. address the root causes of conflict
B. Reconcile differences
C. Normalize relations
D. Building institutions that can manage conflicts without restoring to violence
E. Social Media

62. Which of the following does NOT belong to the four channels of communication
flows?
A. Between individuals in conflict
B. Within a group where conflict exist
C. Social media versus traditional media
D. Within groups or communities in conflict
E. Between Communities and organizations such as multilaterals government
and NGOs

63. It includes the key challenges in communications:

A. Collaboration and management of information flows
B. Social Media
C. Credibility
D. Environmental factors
E. Privacy
64. Functional analysis media in conflict prevention and peace building includes:
A. Media as information provider and interpreter
B. Media as watchdog
C. Media as jury
D. Media as peace promoter
E. Media as bridge builder

65. The process of developing aligned Scorecards throughout an organization. Each

level of the organization will develop Scorecards based on the objectives and
measures they can influence from the Scorecard of the group to whom they report.
A. Cascading
B. Workshop
C. Lead Indicator
D. Balanced Scorecard
E. None of the above

66. An integrated framework for describing strategy through the use of linked
performance measures in four, balanced perspectives - Financial, Customer, Internal
Process, and Employee Learning and Growth. It acts as a measurement system,
strategic management system, and communication tool.
A. Cascading
B. Workshop
C. Lead Indicator
D. Balanced Scorecard
E. None of the above

67. The specific programs, activities, projects or actions an organization will

undertake in an effort to meet performance targets
A. Initiatives
B. Measures
C. Workshop
D. Balanced Scorecard
E. None of the above

68. Measures in this perspective are often considered "enablers" of measures

appearing in the other three perspectives. Employee skills, availability of information,
and organizational climate are often measured in this perspective.
A. Community Perspective
B. Learning and Growth Perspective
C. Lead Indicators
D. Balanced Scorecard
E. None of the above

69. PACREP stands for?

A. Periodic Analysis Crime Report
B. Periodic Area Commander's Report
C. Police Analysis Commander's Report
D. PRO Area Commanders Report
E. None of the above

70. UCPER stands for'?

A. Unit Crime Preparation Report
B. Unit Case Performance Report
C. Unit Crime Periodic Report
D. Unit Case Periodic Report
E. None of the above

71. The formula on how to get the Total Crime Solution Efficiency:
A. Index Crime + Non-Index Crimes
B. Total Solved Cases/Total Crime Volume x 100%
C. Total Cleared Cases/Total Crime Volume x 100%
D. Crime Volume/Population x 100,000
E. None of the above

72. What is the acronym of the first e-Projects?

A. e-Blotter
B. e-Warrant
C. e-Subpoena
D. e-Rogue
E. None of the above

73. Aside from incidents recorded in the main blotter book, what are the two (2)
incidents that should be included in the entry of CIRAS/e-Blotter?
A. Theft and Robbery Cases
B. Drugs and Special Law Cases
C. Traffic and Women's and Children Concern Cases
D. Heinous and Sensational Cases
E. None of the above

74. What Memorandum Circular authorizes the implementation of CIRAS?

A. MC 2014-006
B. MC 2014-008
C. MC 2014-010
D. MC 2014-007
E. MC 2014-009

75. Which of the following system is named as the investigator's digital notebook?
A. CIRAS
B. CMAS
C. CIDMS
D. CBIS
E. None of the above

76. In e-Rogue Gallery System, which among the following shall be uploaded?
A. All arrested person with Warrant of Arrest
B. All arrested person without Warrant of Arrest
C. All arrested person with or without Warrant of Arrest
E. All person applying for Police Clearance

77. Which level of PNP units can upload in the e-Rogue Gallery System?
A. All PNP units
B. All Police Stations
C. All PPOs/CPOs
D. All PROs
E. All of Districts

78. How many views of mug shots are required for uploading in e-Rogue Gallery?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 5

79. It refers to the PNP unit that initially used CIDMS.

A. DIDM
B. CIDG
C. ITMS
D. WCPC
E. None of the above

80. What does the following describe? “It is a process where community members
come together to take collective action and generate solution to community
problems:
A. Unit Development
B. Community Enhancement
C. Community Development
D. Organizational Development
E. Community immersion Program

81. Below are the characteristics of community development EXCEPT:

A. Long term endeavour

B. Well-planned
C. Exclusive and undivided
D. Holistic and integrated into bigger pictures
E. Initiated and supported by community members

82. What is the ultimate goal of Community Development?

A. Improve the quality of life
B. Diversity of interests within a community
C. Relationship to building capacity
 D. Reduce poverty and suffering
E. Create employment opportunities

83. Community Development is a grassroots process by which communities

_________.
A. Become more responsible
B. Organize and plan together
C. Develop healthy lifestyle options
D. Empower themselves
E. All of the above

84. Which of the following are effective Community Development results in mutual
benefit and shared responsibility among community members?
I. The connection between social, cultural, environmental, and economic matters
II. The diversity of interests within a community
III. Its relationship to building capacity
IV. Benefit to the community
V. Grounded in experience that leads to best practices
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. III, IV, V
D. IV, V, I
E. V, II, III

85. Which of the following factors can be used to define a community?

A. Beliefs
B. Language
C. Cultural heritage
D. Shared interests
E. All of the above

86. Which of the following are NOT tools for managing change?
I. A holistic and integrated into the bigger picture
II. An initiated and supported by community members
III. A quick fix or a short-term response to a specific issue within a community
IV. A process that seeks to exclude community members from participating
V. An initiative that occurs in isolation from other related community activities

A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. III, IV, V
D. IV, V, I
E. V, II, III

87. Which of the following statements is TRUE about community?

I. Often when we think of community, we think in geographic terms.
II. Our community is the city, town or village where we live.
 III. When community is defined through physical location, it has precise
boundaries that are readily understood and accepted by others.
IV. Defining communities in terms of geography, however, is only one way of
looking at them.

A. Statements I, II and III are true.

B. Statements II, III and IV are true.
C. Statements III, IV and I are true.
D. Statements IV, I and II are true.
E. All statements are true.

88. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Community Development?

I. Community Development is a tool for managing change.
II. Community Development helps to build community capacity in order to
address issues and take advantage of opportunities, find common ground
and balance competing interests.
III. Community Development helps to build community capacity in order to
address issues and take advantage of opportunities, find common ground
and balance competing interests.
IV. Community Development balances the need for long-term solutions with
the day-to-day realities that require immediate decision-making and short-
term action.
V. Community Development is a process that seeks to exclude community
members from participating.

A. I, II, III, and IV

B. II, III, IV, and V
C. III, IV, V, and I
D. IV, V, I, and II
E. V, I, II, and III

89. Community policing is a that promotes organizational

strategies, which support the systematic use of partnerships and problem-solving
techniques.
A. Philosophy
B. Sociology
C. Science
D. Psychology
E. Psychology and Science

90. This requires the police to make a conscious effort to create an atmosphere in
which community partners actively and willingly co-operate with the police.
A. Cooperation
B. Friendship
C. Collaboration
D. MOU
E. Partnership
91. Community policing is , promoting the concept of
community as client, and police as provider. The needs of the client become the
goals of the provider in delivering professional, client-centered service that is
effective, efficient, and accountable.
A. Vision-oriented
B. Mission-oriented
C. Service-oriented
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

92. Community Policing is an agent of creating a sense of joint responsibility and a

joint capacity for addressing issues of concern to the community and police
personnel.
A. Cooperation
B. Empowerment
C. Partnership
D. Collaboration
E. Understanding

93. The study of Terrorism is basically described as an act or threat of violence with
the purpose of sowing or planting fear among the populance, which ultimate
objectives are for religious, ideological, or political control and/or influence. Counter-
terrorism, on the other hand, is the PNP’s strategy famously known as the “Three-
Tiered Defense System”. It involves into various cycles, such as: Intelligence,
Target, Hardening, Incident Management, and Legal Offensive at the core. The
imaginary double arrows among the variables are said to symbolize
.

A. Corroboration
B. Interdependence
C. Collaboration
D. Close cooperation
E. Interoperability

94. During the last quarter of 1973 (December), there were reported skirmishes
between the AFP troopers and muslim rebel groups in western Mindanao. This
situation escalated into the MNLF rebellion led by Prof. Nur Misuari from 1974 to
1976 resulting to the loss of numerous lives, displacement of local inhabitants, and
destruction of properties among others which seriously affected the security, stability
and development in that part of the country. Accordingly, the main root causes of
secessionist movement in the southern Philippines aggravated by the famous
Jabidah massacre on 18 March 1968 in Corregidor island are:
A. Ancestral Domain
B. Self-Determination
C. Military Abuses
D. Both A and B
E. Poverty
95. Based on the book, Inside the Revolution” Joel Rosen Berge according to him
around 1.2 billion Muslims all over the world, 90 million of whom are “radicals” who
espouse Islamic extremism, while about 1.1 billion as “reformist” who still believe in
traditional Islam. The most dangerous issue that differs one from the other is the
radical interpretation of “JIHAD” Which one below does not quality as the extremist
way of Jihads.
A. A holy war on behalf of Islam
B. Use of Mujahideen of freedom fighter
C. A religious duty to kill Americans and Jaws
D. Martydom as a consequences of struggle
E. None of the Above

96. Filipino Muslims are basically known as Bangsamoro people who profess the
Islamic faith based on the Holy Qur’an and the Shariah Law. Salamat Hashim, the
former Vice Chairman of MNLF broke away from Prof. Nur Misuari when the latter
forged a peace agreement with the government in 1976 hosted by Moammar
Khadaffy in Tripoli, Libya. This secessionist group presently known as Moro Islamic
Liberation Front continues to fight for their cause which aims to:
A. Break away from the Republic of the Philippines
B. Establish an Islamic Theocratic government
C. Establish an independent Republic
D. Form the Bangsamoro Islamic Armed Forces
E. All of the above

97. On September 11, 2001, the world’s dreaded terrorist group attacked the U.S.
mainland using four hijacked commercial planes that slammed through the twin
towers, and the Pentagon which caused the death of around three thousand lives
and the destruction of properties worth billions of dollars. Al Qaeda is an Islamic
extremist group which is basically stateless and army-less but advocates religious-
political objective. Through terror tactics it ultimately aims to establish pan
Islamization of caliphate.
A. the Middle East
B. the whole world
C. Southeast Asia
D. the western world
E. Asia and Pacific

98. Russian communism adopted the Marxist-Leninist doctrines which basically

called for a proletarian revolution to overthrow the government. In the Philippines,
the CPP/NPA/NDF has espoused the Mao Tse Tung's dogma of "encircling the cities
from the countryside’s" thus, leading to the formation of the peasant farmers as the
main force of the revolution first, followed by workers to act as the leading force
during the final stage of the ward. This is otherwise known as:
A. Guerilla Warfare
B. Unorthodox War
C. Protracted People's War
D. War of Movements
E. Unconventional Warfare
99. The private talks that transpired between Pres. Aquino and Chairman Al Hur
Murad sometime in 2011 in Tokyo, Japan precipitated into further conflict which
prompted revel Comdr. Ameril Umbra Kato to break away from the MILF and for
another secessionist group in southern Philippines. Reportedly, there had be armed
confrontations between the two groups where in the latter accredit Chairman Murad
of diverting the true cause of the Bansamoro people independence and autonomy by
apparently submitting the MILF to the government’s conditions. This separatist
group is known as:
A. Misuari Breakaway Group
B. Bangsamoro Islamic Freedom Fighters
C. Rajah Sulaiman Group
D. Abu Sayyaf Group
E. Royal Forces of the Sultanate of Sulu

100. Jemaah Islamiyah (JI) is an Islamic extremist group which claimed responsibility
in several bombing attacks particularly in Bali, Indonesia and Marriot Hotel, the Rizal
and Valentine's Days in the Philippines, among others, killing and wounding several
hundreds of innocent civilians. Accordingly, JI is closely link with Al Queda and the
Abbu Sayyaf Group (ASG) and its objectives is to undertake intensified terror
assaults in order to establish an Islamic caliphate or empire in:
A. The Philippines
B. Asia and the Pacific
C. Southeast Asia
D. Malaysia
E. Indonesia

101. Abu Sayyaf Group a local terrorist group operating in southwestern Philippines
has been reportedly associated with the Al Qaeda and Jemaah Isalamiyah.
Apparently its main objective is the establishment of an Islamic caliphate in the
country. One of its terror tactics is the decapitation of their captured enemies as
evidenced by search and retrieval operations. Accordingly, beheading is just
considered a normal activity against those who are considered enemies of Allah
which a justified under the following factors and circumstances EXCEPT;
A. As part of traditional Jihad
B. As part of offensive or defensive Jihad
C. No to entertain guilty feelings/conscience
D. Expect blessing from Allah in return
E. As an offering that gives pleasure to Allah

102. Islamic extremism portulates that “Al Akbak” is the greater type of Jihad which
simply means the offering of one’s life as a supreme sacrifice in the cause of Allah
(Jihad Fi Sabililah-laggu”) or Jihad in the way of God is the greatest devotion Islamic
radicals believe that a Martyrdom is the highest expression of Jihad and every martyr
shall be rewarded with the following, EXCEPT:
A. To be accompanied by 72 virgins upon death
B. To receive the grace of salvation
C. To live at the highest place in paradise
D. To enjoy eternal life with Allah
E. None of the above

103. It is the process of using a geographic information system in combination with

crime analysis techniques to focus on the spatial context of criminal and other police
activity.
A. Computerized Crime Mapping
B. Quantitative Crime Analysis
C. Qualitative Crime Analysis
D. Spatial Crime Analysis
E. None of the above

104. Most police organizations have extensive and directives to guide officer conduct
in a number of situations?
A. Police Operations Manuals
B. Rules and regulations
C. Decorum manual
D. Police Ethics
E. None of the above

105. A process grounded in data, begins with collecting, analysing and mapping
crime occurrences.
A. Qualitative Crime Analysis
B. Quantitative Crime Analysis
C. COMPSTAT
D. Crime Rate
E. None of the above

106. Who is responsible for the review all police/barangay reports and blotter entries
every day with the goal of identifying patterns as they emerge?
A. Station Commander
B. Investigators
C. Crime Analysts
D. Chief, Investigation
E. None of the above

107. This is used to communicate response goals, objectives and support activities
throughout the ICS organization and is developed for each operational period
(usually 12-24 hours)?
A. Incident Command System
B. Incident Action Plan
C. Incident Command Post
D. Staging Area
E. None of the above

108. An occurrence that requires response actions to prevent or minimize loss of

lives, or damage to property.
A. Incident Command System
B. Incident Commander
C. Incident
D. Command
E. None of the above

109. Under the Operations Section, the is divided

geographically based on the needs of the incident.
A. Group
B. Division
C. Branch
D. Task Force
E. None of the above

110. This facility is the temporary location where helicopters can safely land and
take off?
A. Staging Area
B. Helispot
C. Base
D. Incident Command Post
E. Camp

111. Executive Order Nr is one of the legal basis of ICS signed by

President Benigno Aquino III.
A. 81
B. 82
C. 83
D. 84
E. 85

112. This facility is the location for out-of-service equipment (for repair) and
personnel (for medication).
A. Incident Command Post
B. Camp
C. Base
D. Staging Area
E. None of the above

113. Which among the following situations is not contemplated in “mistake” under
Article 4, paragraph 1, Revised Penal Code?
A. Mistake of Fact
B. Praeter Intentionem
C. Aberatio Ictus
D. None of the above
E. Error in Personae

114. generally gives rise to a complex crime. The penalty for

the more most serious crime is imposed in the maximum period.
A. Mistake of Fact
B. Error in Personae
C. Aberratio Ictus
D. Praeter Intentionem
E. None of the above

115. Even if there is conspiracy, if a con-conspirator merely cooperated with

insignificant or minimal acts, such co-conspirator should be punished as an
accomplice only, EXCEPT when the felony constitutes a .
A. Composite Crime
B. Compound Crime
C. Complex crime
D. impossible crime
E. None of the above

116. The Obligation of suffering the consequences of a crime.

A. Guilt
B. Responsibility
C. lmputability
D. Liability
E. None of the above

117. X threatened to kill Y if Y will not sign a Deed of Sale of Y’s property in favor of
X. Y signed the Deed of Sale. What felony did X commit?
A. Grave Threats
B. Robbery
C. Grave Coercion
D. Estafa
E. None of the above

118. X kidnapped children A, B and C and asked for ransom from their parents.
When. The parents failed to give the ransom money, X killed A, B and C. What
crime/s did X commit?
A. Kidnapping with Murder
B. Kidnapping with Multiple Murder
C. Kidnapping with Homicide
D. Kidnapping with Multiple Homicide
E. None of the above

119. X was able to have carnal knowledge of his girlfriend while the latter was
drunk. What crime did X commit?
A. Acts of Lasciviousness
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Rape
D. None of these
E. All of the above

120. X stole a Rolex watch from a locker by means of the key of the owner. What
crime did he commit?
A. Theft
B. Possession of Picklock
C. Robbery
D. Possession of False Key
E. None of the above

121. A took several jewelry from a room by entering through the window. A is liable
for:
A. Robbery
B. Brigandage
C. Theft
D. Estafa
E. None got the above

122. Any person who, by means of violence, shall seize anything belonging to his
debtor for the purpose of applying the same to the payment of the debt, commits:
A. Grave Threats
B. Grave Coercion
C. Light Threats
D. Light Coercion
E. None of the above

123. A PNP member inflicted physical injuries on a detainee to obtain information in

the commission of a crime. What crime did he commit?
A. Physical Injuries
B. Misfeasance
C. Maltreatment of Prisoners
D. Malfeasance
E. None of the above

124. A PNP member who entered the dwelling of X against the latter’s will to search
for unlicensed firearms in liable for:
A. Violation of Domicile
B. Expulsion
C. Trespass to Dwelling
D. Abuse of Authority
E. None of the above

125. Children used by any person as beggars are liable under:

A. RA 9344
B. RA 9262
C. RA 9208
D. RA 7610
E. RA 9775

126. What is the criminal liability of Alfredo if he entered a motel with a sixteen (16)
year old girl?
A. Trafficking in Person
B. Child Abuse
C. Sexual Assault
D. Violence against Women and Children
E. Sexual Harassment
127. lf Alfredo was the coach of Aileen and in order for the latter to continue her
100% varsity scholarship, she agreed to have a date with Alfredo. What is Alfredo’s
criminal liability?
A. Trafficking in Person
B. Child Abuse
C. Sexual Assault
D. Violence against Women and Children
E. Sexual Harassment

For nos..128 — 131, refer to the paragraph below:

Susan, is a business woman who secured MAC Construction Corporation for the
construction of a 7 storey bldg. Susan approve for the structural design and all plans
presented by said construction Corporation. The Service Contract between them
stipulates that all the plans and permit for the construction as well as the occupancy
permit are included on their contract. MAC started the construction when it applied
all the requirements for the construction from the appropriate agency.
Representative from BFP issued a written notice to the owner &/or contractor to stop
the work due to absence or violation of approved plans and specifications, permit
and/or clearance or certification as approved by the duly authorized representative of
BFP.

128. What is the criminal liability of Susan?

A. RA 8749
B. PD 705
C. RA 9514
D. RA 7183
E. None

129. Which of the following law shall apply for the criminal liability of Mac
Construction Corporation?
A. RA 8749
B. PD 705
C. RA 9514
D. RA 7183
E. RA 7778

130. If the BFP will issue administrative measure to committed stop the construction due to
violation committed on the construction as the same hazardous to life and property, what is
should it issue?
A. Fire Safety Inspection Certification (FSIC)
B. Summary abatement
C. Chief, BFP or his authorize representative shall issue a sign in front of the building or
structure is fire hazard.
D. Chief, BFP or his authorized representative shall issue “WARNING: THIS
BUILDING/STRUCTURE IS A FIRE HAZARD
E. File case in court for judicial abatement
131. The following are prohibited acts committed by MAC Construction Corporation
EXCEPT:
A. Not securing a permit from the BFP
B. Not installing fire which is not a prohibited act committed by the Mac Construction
company
C. Use of jumpers or tampering with electrical wiring or overloading the electrical
system beyond its designated capacity
D. Abandoning or leaving a building or structure by the occupant or owner without
appropriate safety measures
E. Securing a Fire Safety Inspection Certification (FSIC) from Chief, BFP, or his/her
duly authorized representative

132. The PNP members who refrain from indulging themselves in any corruption
and/or dishonest practice in accordance with the provision of RA 6713 and other
applicable laws are imbued with
A. Integrity
B. Humility
C. Kindness
D. Orderliness
E. Perseverance

133. Term of imprisonment for a person found to have illegally use fire crackers and
pyrotechnic devices.
A. Not less than six (6) years but not more than twelve (12) years
B. Six (6) years to twelve (12) years
C. Not less than six (6) months not more than one (1) year
D. Six (6) months to one (1) year
E. Not less than one (1) year not more than two (2) years

134. Which of the following is the best description of the PNP members endowed
with humility? (DOUBLE ENTRY)
A. Respect and protect human dignity and uphold the human rights of all
persons.
B. Conduct themselves properly at all times in keeping with the rules and
regulations of the organization.
C. Uphold the Constitution and are loyal to the country, people and organization,
above their loyalty to any person.
D. Obey lawful orders of are courteous to superior officers and other appropriate
authorities within the chain of command.
E. Recognized the fact that they are public servants and not the masters of the
people and toward this end, they perform their duties without arrogance.

135. Which is NOT a requirement in securing a license and permit for the
manufacturing or selling either of whole sale or retail of firecrackers and other
pyrotechnic devices?
A. Filipino citizens of good moral character
B. Duly registered at (DTI) or (SEC)
C. Filipino citizens
D. 100% capital of Filipino
E. All of the above

136. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE?

A. Neighborhood sanitation through burning waste is allowed
B. Food preparation is allowed.
C. Crematoria is allowed.
D. Incineration is allowed.
E. None of the above

137. A Division in the DENR that has the power to impose fine and penalties against
owner or operator of stationary source of pollution:
A. Land Transportation Office
B. Pollution Adjudication Board
C. Bureau of Science and Technology
D. Department of Science and technology
E. Environmental Management Bureau

138. LOL Corporation is an owner of a fourteen-storey building situated beside

another fourteen-storey building. The air conditioner of LOL Corp causes pollution
and noise nuisance to its adjacent fourteen-storey building. What action can be filed
by the adjacent building owner against LOL Corp?
A. Writ of kalikasan
B. Writ of continuing mandamus
C. Abatement
D. Environmental Protection Order
E. All of the above

139. The absence of marriage certificate proves that no marriage took place.
A. True, the marriage certificate is the sole evidence of marriage, failure to present
proves that no marriage took place.
B. False, the marriage certificate is considered only as primary evidence and not the
sole evidence of marriage.
C. True, marriage certificate details the essential and formal requisites of marriage.
hence; its absence proves no- marriage took place. ,
D. False, testimonies of witness and department of persons as husband and wife
cannot prove marriage but merely evidence it.
E. insufficient data to form a conclusion.

140. Elise got married to Benidic when he was only 18 years of age. Two years later,
Elise died. Benidic later married without the consent of his parents with Shannon. Is
the marriage between Benidic and Shannon valid?
A. The marriage is valid as Benidic was already previously married, thus, parental
consent is no longer necessary.
B. The marriage is invalid, parental consent is necessary despite previous marriage-
C. The marriage is valid, parental consent is neither an essential nor a formal
requisite.
D. The marriage is invalid, as marriage license should not have been issued.
E. Insufficient data to form a conclusion.
141. Statement No.1- In order to classify the marriage as a marriage in Articulo
Mortis, the law requires that the party who is at the point of death must die
immediately after the celebration of the marriage.
Statement No.2- A voidable marriage is inexistent from the time of its performance,
whereas a void marriage is binding until annulled by a competent court.
Statement No.3- The effect of lack of marriage counseling will result in the
annulment of the marriage.
A. All statements are valid.
B. All statements are void.
C. No. 1 is valid; No.2 is void; No.3 is valid
D. No.1 is void; No.2 is valid; No.3 is void
E. No. 1 is valid; No. 2 is valid; No. 3 is void

142. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A. After the filing of the legal separation, the parties are already entitled to live
separately from each other.
B. After filing of the petition for declaration of nullity of marriage, the parties are
already entitled to live separately from each other.
C. After the filing of the petition for annulment of marriage, the parties are already
entitled to live separately from each other.
D. None of the above
E. All of the above

143. The following are the kinds of Administrative Law. EXCEPT:

A. Statutes setting up administrative authorities
B. Rules, regulations or orders of such administrative authorities promulgate pursuant to
purposes for which they are created
C. Determinations, decisions and orders of such administrative authorities made in the
settlement of controversies arising in their particular field.
D. Determinations, decisions and orders of such administrative authorities made in exercise
of their quasi-judicial functions in the settlement of controversies arising before them
E. Body of doctrines and decisions dealing with the creation, Operation and effect of
determinations and regulations of such administrative authorities.

144. It is a branch of public law which fixes the organization and determines the
competence of administrative authorities and indicates to the individual remedies for
violation of his rights.
A. Law on Public Officers
B. Political Law
C. Administrative Law
D. Constitutional Law
E. Public International Law

145. It is defined under the 1987 Administrative Code as acts of President providing
for rules of a general or permanent character in implementation or execution of
constitutional or statutory powers.
A. Administrative Orders
B. Memorandum Orders
C. Proclamations
D. Memorandum Circulars
E. Executive Orders
146. It is a fundamental principle in the Philippine System of Government which
confers upon each department of the government exclusive authority over matters
within its jurisdiction, it is supreme within its own sphere. Its mandates is separate
and distinct, absolutely unrestrained and independent of each other.
A. Check and Balances
B. Separation of Powers
C. Blending of Powers
D. Balancing of Powers
E. Delegation of Powers

147. What is the power of the President over local governments?

A. Control
B. Administration
C. Decentralization
D. Subordination
E. Supervision

148. What will happen if the local chief executive will not act on the submitted
ordinance enacted by the Sanggunian?
A. It is deemed disapproved.
B. it will be archived.
C. it will lapse into law.
D. it will be remanded back only to the Sangunian
E. None of the above

149. Which among the following is not an inherent power of the government.
A. Police Power
B. Power of Taxation
C. Executive Power
D. Eminent Domain
E. None of the above

150. Under existing laws, which local chief executive who may act as a court sheriff
in levying certain properties of the debtor under a given circumstance?
A. The Provincial Governor
B. The City Mayor
C. The Municipal Mayor
D. The Punong Barangay
E. None of the above

151. Which among the following offices cannot conduct diversion under the law?
A. Office of the Mayor
B. Office of the Punong Barangay
C. Women and Children’s Desk
D. DSWD/LSWD
E. Prosecutor’s Office

152. Which of the following is NOT a local government unit/political subdivision?

A. Metropolitan Manila Development Authority
B. City of Manila
C. Autonomous Region of Muslim Mindanao
D. Barangay Baclaran
E. None of the above

153. It is the foundation for unity as well as the sense of social justice.
A. Joy and Humor
B. Faith and Religiosity
C. Pakikipagkapwa-tao
D. Hard Work and integrity
E. Flexibility, Adaptability and Creativity

154. It refers to broad beliefs or ideal about what is or is not appropriate behaviour.
A. Ethics
B. Values
C. Education
D. Culture
E. Morality

155. It results in the dampening of community spirit and in the trampling upon of the
rights of others.
A. Extreme personalism
B. The kanya-kanya syndrome
C. Passivity and lack of initiative
D. Extreme family centeredness
E. Lack of self analysis and self reflection

156. It refers to the development of the appropriate sensibilities such as moral,

cultural, spiritual and the ability to make proper value judgment and internalize them
in one’s life.
A. Esteem
B. Self Development
C. Moral Development
D. Values Education
E. Human Development

157. Under this ethical standard, the Philippine National Police (PNP) members
shall take a legitimate means to achieve goals despite of internal or external
difficulties.
A. Perseverance
B. Devotion to Duty
C. Secrecy of Discipline
D. Loyalty
E. Orderliness
158. The PNP members who refrain from indulging themselves in any corruption
and/or dishonest practices in accordance with the provisions of RA 6713 and other
applicable laws are imbued with
A. Integrity
B. Humility
C. Orderliness
D. Perseverance
E. Secrecy of Discipline

159. Which of the following statements best describes ethics?

A. Individual's own principles regarding right and wrong.
B. Defining what is right and wrong for an individual or a community.
C. Individual’s choice of action and responses to challenges, incentives and rewards.
D. A manner of thinking, feeling or behaving that reflects a state of mind or
disposition.
E. The capacity to determine right conduct and the knowledge of what is right from
wrong.

160. This is an ethical standard that requires PNP members to follow logical
procedures in accomplishing their duties in order to minimize waste in the use of
time, money and effort.
A. Loyalty
B. Devotion to duty
C. Secrecy discipline
D. Orderliness
E. Perseverance

161. Which of the following is the best description of the PNP members endowed
with humility?
A. Respect and protect human dignity and uphold the human rights of all
persons.
B. Conduct themselves properly at all times in keeping with the rules and regulations
of the organization.
C. Uphold the Constitution and are loyal to the country, people and organization,
above their loyalty to any person.
D. Obey lawful orders of are courteous to superior officers and other appropriate
authorities within the chain of command.
E. Recognize the fact that they are public servants and not the masters of the people
and toward this end, they perform their duties without arrogance.

162. Which of the following is NOT one of the objectives of the values education
program?
A. Develop Filipinos who manifest, in actual life, an abiding faith in God as a
reflection of their spiritual being.
B. Develop Filipinos who are social beings with sense of responsibility for their
community and environment.
C. Develop Filipinos who are self-actualized integrally developed human beings
imbued with the sense of human dignity.
D. Develop Filipinos who are productive persons who contribute to the economic
security and development of the family and the nation.
E. Develop Filipinos who respect the dignity of human sexuality by practicing
chastity in marriage through sexual love that is romantic, procreative, exclusive and
lasting, or if unmarried, by having no experience of sexual pleasure.

163. You are a bank manager and one of your valued clients is dividing his deposits
into 2 by filling up two deposit slips upon the effectivity of AMLA but his total average
deposit of P700k remained the same. Upon query, he explained to you that he is
hiding his deposits from his wife. How do you consider the deposit?
a. Covered transaction.
b. Possible suspicious transaction
c. confidential transaction
d. Immoral transaction
e. Illegal transaction

164. Coco Martin wanted to open a Peso Savings Account. As a standard operating
procedure the branch manager requested for the pertinent “Know Your Client” KYC
documents. He only left a xerox copy of driver’s license claiming that he is a very
famous actor in the Philippines and everybody knows him and specially his teleserye
“Probinsyano”. Will the branch manager allow the opening of a Peso Savings
Account?

a. No, simply because he is an actor.

b. Yes, because he is an actor and his identity is publicly known.
c. No, because the AMLA required these KYC documents and other
information before a bank can establish business relationship with a
client.
d. Yes, because the branch can attain its quota requirement.
e. Yes, for marketing purposes.

165. In question No. 164. How about if the client is a low profile business man, will
the branch manager allow the opening of a Peso Savings Account?
a.No, simply because he is a low profile businessman
b.Yes, because he is a businessman
c.No, because the AMLA required these KYC documents and other information
before a bank can establish business relationship with a client.
d.Yes, because the branch can attain its quota requirement.
e.Yes, for marketing purposes.

166. What are the transactions covered by AMLA?

a.Covered and Suspicious transactions.
b.Covered transactions only.
c.Suspicious transactions only.
d.Bank transactions only
e.Insurance transactions only

167. The Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC) is composed of:

a.The Governor of the BSP as Chairman, Commissioner of the Insurance
Commission and the Chairman of the SEC
b.The Governor of the BSP only
c.The Commissioner of the Insurance Commission only
d..The Chairman of the SEC only
e.The Cabinet Secretaries.

168. Rationale for enacting AMLA, the Dirty Money Law.

a For the Philippines to contribute its share and play a vital role in the global fight
against money laundering.
b.To ensure that the Philippines is not used as a site to launder proceeds of unlawful
activities.
c.To increase investor’s confidence.
d.All of the above
e.None of the above

169. AMLC also extends cooperation in transnational investigation and prosecutions

of persons involve in _____________activities wherever committed.
a. Money laundering
b. Criminal
c. International
d. Financial
e. Social

170. What law is the General Rule or the Law of General Application?
a. RA 1405- Secrecy of Bank Deposits
b. AMLA
c. Plunder
d. Malversation
e. Graft and Corruption

171. What are some of the predicate crimes/unlawful activities under AMLA?
a.Kidnapping for ransom, Drug Trafficking and related offense, graft and corrupt
practices
b.Plunder, Robbery and extortion, Jueteng and Masiao, Piracy, Qualified Theft,
swindling smuggling
c.Violations under Electronic Commerce Act of 2000
d.Hijacking, destructive arson, murder
e. All of the above

172. Which of the following are included as predicate crimes/unlawful activities under
AMLA?
a.Fraudulent practices and other violations under SEC
b.Felonies or offenses of similar nature that are punishable under the penal laws of
other countries like hijacking
c.Terrorism Financing and organizing or directing others to commit terrorism
d.Bribery and corruption of Public officers
e. All of the above

173. Republic Act No. 9262 is known as the “Anti-Violence Against…?

a. Women and their children
b. Men and their children
c. Women and their husband
d. Men and their wives
e. Men and women

174. Violence against women and their children refers to any act or series of acts
committed by any person:
a. Against a woman who is his wife, former wife,
b. Against a woman with whom the person has or had sexual dating relationship,
or with whom he has a common child
c. Against her child whether legitimate or illegitimate,
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

175. Violence against women and their children includes:

a. Physical violence
b. Sexual violence
c. Psychological violence
d. Economic abuse
e. All of the above

176. Physical Violence refers to acts:

a. That include bodily or physical harm
b. Sexual in nature
c. Causing or likely to cause mental or emotional suffering.
d. That make or attempt to make a woman financially dependent
e. Unreasonably ordering around

177. Sexual Violence refers to acts:

a. That include bodily or physical harm
b. Sexual in nature
c. Causing or likely to cause mental or emotional suffering.
d. That make or attempt to make a woman financially dependent
e. Unreasonably ordering around

178. Psychological Violence refers to acts :

a. That include bodily or physical harm
b. Sexual in nature
c. Causing or likely to cause mental or emotional suffering.
d. That make or attempt to make a woman financially dependent
e. All of the above

179. Economic Abuse refers to acts:

a. That include bodily or physical harm
b. Sexual in nature
c. Causing or likely to cause mental or emotional suffering.
d. That make or attempt to make a woman financially dependent
e. Unreasonably ordering around
180. Name the protection order/s that may be issued under RA 9262?
a. Barangay Protection Order (BPO)
b. Temporary Protection Order (TPO)
c. Permanent Protection Order (PPO)
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

181. All TPOs and PPOs issued under the RA 9262 shall be enforceable:
a. Anywhere in the Philippines
b. Only inside the residence of the respondent.
c. Only inside the residence of the women and children
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

182. Violence against women and their children shall be considered:

A. A public offense
B. A private offense
C. A labor offense
D. A commercial offense
E. A Official Office

183. The treaty clause of the 1987 Constitution

A. Article VI, Section 21
B. Article VI, Section 20
C. Article VII, Section 21
D. Article VIII, Section 21
E. None of the above

184. Article VII of the 1987 Constitution refers to:

a. Legislative Department
b. Executive Department
c. Judicial Department
d. Police Department
e. none of the above

185. It refers to Norms of international Law based on multilateral treaties

A. Customary
B. Conventional
C. Missionary
D. Bilateral
E. Jus cogens

186. Which law is applicable in times of war?

A. International human rights law
B. International humanitarian law
C. UN convention on the rights of the child
D. UN convention against torture
E. All of the above
187. Which law is not part of international bill of Rights?
A. UN convention of civil and political rights
B. UN convention on economic social and cultural rights
C. UN Declaration of human Rights
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

188. It is a principle that national courts and the ICC have concurrent jurisdiction
A. complimentary jurisdiction
B. complementary jurisdiction
C. Universal jurisdiction
D. Territorial jurisdiction
E. All of the above

189. Article II. Section 2 of the 1987 Constitution is known as

A. archipelagic doctrine
B. universal jurisdiction
C. incorporation clause
D. Establishment clause
E. Non-derogability doctrine

190. It risked to the international institution tasked to implement and monitor IHL
compliance.
A. International Committee of the Red Cross
B. International Committee of the Red Crescent
C. International Committee of the Red Crystal
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

191. It is doing the right thing with the highest quality maximum satisfaction of
customers;
A. Efficiency
B. Effectiveness
C. Productivity
D. Management
E. All of the above

192. It is doing it right the first time to minimize cost and maximize utilization of
resources:
A. Efficiency
B. Effectiveness
C. Productivity
D. Management
E. All of the above

193. This is a principle that assures consistent quality of product or service of an

organization that defines the purpose of quality for the organization it represents:
a. Competitiveness
b. Quality
c. Quality Management
d. Pillars
e. None of the above

194. One of the following is NOT a Quality Management principle:

a. Leadership
b. Involvement of people
c. Customer focused organization
d. Approaches
e. None of the above

195. In the PDCA cycle, C stands for:

a. Check
b. Coherence
c. Concise
d. Correct
e. All of the above

196. One of the following improves productivity

a. Leadership approach
b. Innovation approach
c. Precise approach
d. Management approach
e. All of the above

197. There are three (3) critical dimensions of productivity, except:

a. Conceptual perspective
b. Improvement perspective
c. Human perspective
d. Goal perspective
e. All of the above

198. Productivity is an attitude of the mind, which means:

a. An attitude of the mind
b. Discretion of management
c. Standard operating procedures
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

199. This can be a product of service:

a. Output
b. Input
c. Procedures
d. All of the above
e. Outcome

200. Manpower, machine, materials, money, method and inputs:

a. Management
b. Memory
c. Molecules
d. Melody
e. Mastery

CITE THE PNP BADGE OF HONOR

DISIPLINA