Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region III
SCHOOLS DIVISION OF ZAMBALES
Iba, Zambales
Tel./Fax No. (047) 602-1391 / (047) 307-2076
E-mail Address: zambales@deped.gov.ph
Website: www.depedzambales.com

SCHOOLS DIVISION POST TEST

ORGANIZATION AND MANAGEMENT

Direction: Encircle the letter of the correct answer.

1. What are the four main functions of management?

a. communicating, developing, planning, and scheduling
b. planning, organizing, leading, and controlling
c. hiring, communicating, appraising, and leading
d. globalizing, conceptualizing, interviewing, and participating
2. Which feature does NOT form one of Fayol's 14 principles of management?
a. esprit de corps c. order
b. initiative d. individualism
3. All of the following are important elements in determining what management is and
why organizations need managers except:
a. managers set and achieve goals through people and other resources.
b. a manager's sole consideration in organizations is maximizing profit.
c. establishing and sticking to organizational values increases the probability of success.
d. managers are needed to create organizations.
4. Which of these is NOT part of the recognized challenges for modern managers?
a. micro-managing the workforce c. managing change
b. managing communications d. managing the learning organization
5. Conceptual skills are needed by ___________ managers, but especially by
___________managers.
a. few, first-line c. intellectual, personnel
b. all, middle d. all, top
6. It is a statement that sets out what the organization wishes to achieve in the long-term:
a. mission c. core values
b. vision d. strategic context
7. Organizational values are important because they:
a. help shape mission statements c. help guide behavior, recruitment and
selection
b. help increase sales d. help define market research
8. In SWOT analysis, situations where organizations are able to convert weaknesses into
strengths and threats into opportunities, these are called:
a. strategic windows c. conversion strategies
b. strategic leverage d. vulnerability
9. PEST analysis is:
a. a broad framework to help managers understand the environment in which their
business operates.
b. a checklist to ask how political, economic, strategic or technological developments
can influence a company or industry.
c. a checklist for forecasting political, economic, strategic or technological factors.
d. a framework for strategic analysis of internal or external environment.
10. Which of the following would NOT be a reason for management carrying out an
environmental analysis?
a. To identify all potential influences on the future of the organization
b. To determine the external factors most likely to impact an organization
c. To consider how organizational strategy should take account of changes in the
outside world.
d. To determine environmentally responsible business practices
11. Where is the component STRENGTH located in a SWOT analysis?
a. internal environment c. internal and external environments
b. external environment d. internal environment for service organizations
12. Which of the following is an example of resource constraint?
a. pollution control laws c. excessive production cost
b. inadequate demand d. inadequate financial capital
13. What is an SME?
a. sound and media experience c. short to medium term event
b. small or medium sized enterprise d. significant main event
14. Unlimited liability for sole proprietors means that:
a. they can lose everything they own if they fail.
b. they should form corporations instead.
c. proprietors are liable for all the value of all the shares they own in a business.
d. a partnership appears relatively more attractive.
15. Planning cannot eliminate change. Managers plan in order to:
a. be prepared for when changes in management at the top happens.
b. anticipate changes and the develop the most effective response to changes.
c. decide what needs to be done when a change in environments happen.
d. have the appropriate materials available when the demand for them comes about.
16. Research has identified certain factors that characterize effective goals. Which of the
following is NOT a characteristic of an effective goal?
a. challenging but realistic c. covers key result areas
b. general d. linked to rewards
17. Which of the following reasons contribute to bad decisions by managers?
a. seeing what they want to see c. demanding evidence
b. balancing decisiveness and humility d. practicing the five whys
18. Which of the following is not a type of plan in business?
a. strategic planning c. crisis planning
b. contingency planning d. building planning
19. Plans that address unique events that do not reoccur are called:
a. operating plans c. single use plans
b. strategic plans d. unique plans
20. Management by objectives (MBO) is a system, introduced by Peter Drucker, whereby
managers and employees define goals for every department, project, and person and
use them to monitor subsequent performance. Which of the following is a weakness of
the MBO?
a. Employees are motivated.
b. Performance can be improved at all levels.
c. Constant change prevents MBO from taking hold.
d. Manager and employee efforts are focused on activities that will lead to goal
attainment.
21. Which of the following is NOT a key management skill in planning?
a. IT skills c. conceptual skills
b. analytical skills d. communication skills
22. Company A arranges a visit to Leading Company A. Company A wanted to find out
the best practices of Leading Company A as basis of their own improvement. This
planning tool is called:
a. benchmarking c. pareto analysis
b. brainstorming d. Delphi method
23. Which of the following statements about preparing for a crisis is most accurate?
a. Preparation requires everyone in the organization to be a spokesperson for the
organization.
b. Preparation requires a general plan of how to deal with the crisis.
c. Managing the aftermath of the crisis is taken care of in the containment stage.
d. Preparation requires an organization to designate a crisis management team.
24. Which of the following types of organizational structure is most suited for small,
entrepreneurial types of companies?
a. line and staff organization c. committee structure
b. line organization d. matrix structure
25. Which of the following is an advantage of a team structure approach?
a. in depth skill and specialization
b. top manager direction and control
c. flexibility to changing environment
d. better morale, enthusiasm from employee involvement
26. It is the formal and legitimate right of a manager to make decisions, issue orders, and
allocate resources to achieve organizationally desired outcomes.
a. responsibility c. accountability
b. authority d. power
27. When authority is delegated, responsibility is created. This statement means that:
a. the supervisor’s responsibility increases with each delegated task
b. the subordinate’s position description is expanded with each delegated task
c. regardless of acceptance, the subordinate is obligated to perform the duties
d. once accepted, the subordinate is obligated to perform the duties
28. The following guidelines can help a manager delegate effectively, except:
a. Assume that the subordinate knows the expectations for the delegated job.
b. Ensure that authority equals responsibility.
c. Delegate the whole task.
d. Evaluate and reward performance.
29. Groups which are formed as the consequence of organisational structure and work
division are known as:
a. operational groups c. formal groups
b. target groups d. informal groups
30. The “Peter Principle” states that in a hierarchy, every employee:
a. tends to rise to their natural level of competence.
b. tends to rise to their natural level of incompetence.
c. tends to challenge the views of their senior managers.
d. tends to seek promotion
31. Which of the following is not true about the informal organization?
a. It is present in all organizations
b. It should be understood and nurtured by the manager and supervisor
c. This organization is always disruptive and interferes with the functioning of an
organization.
d. Management cannot eliminate it
32. The process of acquiring, deploying, and retaining a workforce of sufficient quantity
and quality to create positive impacts on the organization's effectiveness is called
________.
a. staffing c. recruitment
b. selection d. placement
33. Which of the following statements is true regarding staffing?
a. The organization is the only active player in the staffing process.
b. The staffing process is composed of a series of interrelated parts including
recruitment, selection, decision making and job offers.
c. The staffing process should only be viewed from the perspective of the individual
(line) manager.
d. none of the above
34. Which best defines the process of locating and encouraging potential employees to
apply for jobs?
a. Human Resource Planning c. Recruitment
b. Selection d. Job Analysis
35. Which reinforces why it is NOT recommended that personality tests be only used for
selection?
a. Tests can predict job performance. c. Tests cannot show the performance.
b. Tests can show the performance d. Test cannot predict the job
performance.
36. Which function is not included in training and development programs?
a. helping new employees learn about and fit into the organization
b. designing training activities
c. evaluating training activities to meet the identified needs
d. conducting employee evaluation
37. It is a feeling of being accepted by and belonging to a group of employees through
adherence to common goals, confidence in the desirability of those goals and the
desire to progress toward the goals.
a. job satisfaction c. workplace affiliation
b. organization morale d. internal equity
38. Which of the following best explains why an employee behaves as he/she does?
a. The environment is the most important consideration in understanding individual
employee behaviour.
b. Both the environment and individual differences are important considerations in
understanding individual employee behaviour.
c. Neither the environment nor individual differences are important considerations in
understanding individual employee behaviour.
d. Employee personality and attitudes are primarily dictated by the environment.
39. When a manager monitors the work performance of workers in his department to
determine if the quality of their work is 'up to standard', this manager is engaging in
which function?
a. planning c. leading
b. controlling d. organizing
40. Improving quality through small, incremental improvements is a characteristic of what
type of quality management system?
a. Just in Time c. Kaizen
b. Six Sigma d. Total Quality Management
41. Which of the following is leadership rather than management?
a. setting vision and direction c. setting up control systems
b. managing staff workloads d. developing systems
42. Which of the following is NOT a recognised trait of good leaders?
a. task competence c. valuing diversity
b. ego-based behaviours d. intelligence
43. Which of the following best describes how people are motivated according to process
theories of motivation?
a. People make subjective judgments based on past experiences and individual
thought processes.
b. People are located at different positions on a framework.
c. Behavior is modified through punishment and reward.
d. People have different orientations on work.
44. Which of the following are reasons why organizations engage in managing culture and
diversity?
a. To make employees feel inferior
b. To become more flexible and to adapt to the changing environment
c. To ensure fairness and inclusivity for all employees and stakeholders
d. An organization does not need to manage culture and diversity
45. It refers to the systematic process of regulating organizational activities to make them
consistent with the expectations established in plans, targets, and standards of
performance.
a. organizational planning c. organizational control
b. total quality management d. system audit
46. Which of the following is the most likely purpose of budgeting?
a. planning and control of an organization’s income and expenditure
b. preparation of a five-year business plan
c. company valuation
d. assess the non-financial performance of an organization

47. Which of the following is not an advantage of budgeting?

a. It forces managers to plan.
b. It provides resource information that can be used to improve decision making.
c. It aids in the use of resources and employees by setting a benchmark that can be
used for the subsequent evaluation of performance.
d. It provides organizational independence.
48. Which of the following is a weakness of a common Filipino family business according to
Newsweek?
a. informality c. reliability and pride
b. commitment d. knowledge continuity
49. If you desire to start a business as a cooperative, which instrumentality of the
government will allow your registration of your business?
a. Bureau of Internal Revenue c. Cooperative Development Authority
b. Department of Trade and Industry d. Securities and Exchange Commission
50. Which of the following is not a requirement for registration of a business under sole
proprietorship in the Philippines?
a. Certificate of Business Name Registrations (from the DTI)
b. Barangay Clearance
c. Business Permit from the Mayor’s Office
d. Certificate of Incorporation