Prescott MCQ's

1
MCQ, s Of Prescott Microbiology book
Chapter # 1 History and Scope of Microbiology
1) Which event came first?

a) Koch demonstrates that, a bacterium, anthrax, can cause the disease.
b) Fizeau measures the velocity of the light.
a) Avery demonstrates that DNA carries genetic information
b) World war ii begins
a) Watson and crick describe DNA double helix
b) First hydrogen bomb exploded.
a) Lyme disease discovered
b) Neil Armstrong walks on moon
5) Who first describe microorganisms such as bacteria
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Robert Koch
c) Fannie hesse
d) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
6) Who first develop the process of colony purification?
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Robert Koch
c) Fannie hesse
d) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
7) What was the first successful solid medium for colony purification of bacteria?
a) Agar
b) Potato
c) Gelatin
d) Meat
8) Who first suggested using the thickening agent most commonly used for colony purification today?
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Robert Koch
c) Fannie hesse
d) Richard petri
9) The most important innovation (new idea) in Pasteur's 'swan neck flask' experiments was
a) A glass barrier prevented contamination
b) Heating media prevented microbial growth
c) Fresh air could directly contact the medium
d) The experimenter could look for contamination without disturbing the experiment
10) Credit for the first vaccine for prevention of human disease is generally given to
a) Edward Jenner for the prevention of small pox
b) Louis Pasteur for prevention of rabies
c) Louis Pasteur for prevention of anthrax
d) Robert Koch for the prevention of the tuberculosis
11) To make a vaccine against chicken cholera that would not kill the chicken , Pasteur
a) Treated the sample with heat to kill the microorganisms
b) Attenuated the strain by repeatedly passaging it culture
c) Used a related but different microorganism from animal
d) Used very small, non-lethal amounts of material
12) When Louis Pasteur first tried his vaccine on young boy, there was possibility that the vaccine itself could kill the
child. This was permissible under the standards of the day because
a) The importance of the science was worth the risk
b) Less value was placed on human life than today.
c) The child was from a poor family
d) The child had rabies, which was already fatal.
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13) Agostino Bassi first showed that a disease, in silkworms, was caused by microorganism. What kind microorganism
caused the disease?
a) Virus
b) Fungus
c) Bacterium
d) Protozoan
14) What was the first bacterium shown to cause human disease?
a) Anthrax
b) Mycobacterium
c) Diphtheria
d) Streptococcus
15) What was the first virus shown to cause disease?
a) Polio
b) Hepatitis
c) Tobacco Mosaic Virus
d) Potato blight
16) The primary use of Koch 's postulate is to
a) Clearly identify and characterize a particular microorganism
b) Isolate a microorganism from diseased animal
c) Demonstrate that a disease is caused by microorganism
d) Develop vaccine for specific disease
17) Which of the following is not part of Koch 's postulate
a) The microorganism is never found in healthy organism
b) The microorganism is always found in diseased animal
c) The microorganism must cause disease in healthy animal
d) The microorganism must secrete toxin in the medium
18) The rule of fighting disease was first demonstrated by
a) Vaccination of human with rabies
b) Injection of rabbit autotoxin to protect against diphtheria
c) Attenuation of rabies by passage in atypical host
d) Observation of phagocytosis of bacteria
19) The role of blood cells in fighting disease was first demonstrated by
a) Pasteur with his swan neck flask
b) Koch with acid fast staining of mycobacteria
c) Metchnikoff with his observation of phagocytosis
d) Chamberland with his filtration of virus through porcelain.
20) The first observation that bacteria-like organism could be found in normal air was by
a) Anton von leeuvonhoek
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Robert Koch
d) Joseph meister
21) The first physician to make practical application of the germ theory of the disease to surgery was
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Robert Koch
c) Joseph Leister
d) Edward Jenner
22) Louis Pasteur's studies on the unwanted production of acid from beet sugar was the first demonstration that
a) Sugar are unstable and can break into either ethanol or acid
b) Bacteria can cause specific chemical reaction
c) Ethanol is unstable and can convert to acid
d) Microorganism can be found in air
23) Which of the following discoveries is not attributed to Sergei Winoogradsky?
a) Colony isolation on solid phase medium
b) Colony enrichment on selective medium
c) Bacteria oxidation of iron and sulpher to obtain energy
d) Co2 fixation by non-photosynthetic microorganisms
Chapter # 2 Study of Microbial Structure: Microscopy and Specimen Preparation

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1) The sub stage condenser

a) Changes the wavelength of the light reaching the specimen.
b) Focuses light on the specimen
c) Decreases the amount of light reaching the specimen
2) A 40X objective and 10X ocular produce a total magnification of.
a) 50
b) 400
c) 90
3) Living, unstained cells and organisms can be observed best using
a) Fluorescent microscopy
b) TEM
c) Phase contrast microscopy
4) Scanning electron microscopy (SEM) is best used to study
a) Small internal cell structure
b) Surface morphology
c) All of the above
5) A microscope in which an image is formed by passing an electron beam through a specimen and focusing the
scattered electrons with magnetic lenses is called
a) Transmission electron microscope
b) Scanning electron microscope
c) Phase contrast microscope
6) Resolution is the ability of a lens to distinguish between small objects close together. What approximate resolution
can be obtained with a lower power (10X, N.A 0.25) objective lens?
a) 0.2 microns
b) 0.3 microns
c) 0.9 micron
d) 0.25 microns
7) Fixation is the process by which structures of the cells are preserved and fixed in position. An advantage of
chemical fixation over heat fixation is that it
a) Magnify the specimen
b) Does not destroy the internal structures
8) Monochromatic (one color) light is sometimes used to increase the resolution of light microscope s. light of which
color below would give you the best resolution?
a) Red
b) Orange
c) Green
d) Blue
9) Which of the following objective would give you the best resolution of the small objectives?
a) 10X air, N.A, 0.25
b) 40X air, N.A, 0.65
c) 64X oil, N.A, 1.4
d) 100X oil, N.A, 1.25
10) Transmission electron microscopy is best for high magnification viewing of
a) Internal structure of fixed cells
b) Internal structure of live, motile cells
c) Surface structure of fixed cells.
d) Surface membranes of live, motile cells
11) Which of the following statement is most correct about the differential Gram stain?
a) Crystal violet differentially strains Gram positive cells.
b) Gram's iodine differentially strains Gram positive cells.
c) Acetone differentially destains Gram negative cells.
d) Saffron red differentially stains Gram negative bacteria
12) Which of the following statement is most correct about Atomic Force Microscopy
a) AFM can visualize protein bound to DNA molecule.
b) AFM can visualize unfixed specimens in water or buffer.
c) AFM moves a very sharp tip over the surface of the specimen to "feel" its shape.
d) All of the statements above are true
13) Which of the following statements about Transmission Electron Microscopy is not true

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a) The specimen must be stained with osmium or other heavy metal.

b) The specimens are placed in high vacuum for viewing.
c) The specimens must be sliced thin, 20-100 nm in thickness
d) The beam is focused by electromagnetic lenses.
14) Phase Contrast Microscopy
a) Continuously changes the phase of the incident light from the condenser to improve contrast in the specimen.
b) Uses circular filters in the condenser and objective to give contrast to parts of the cell with different refractive
indices.
c) Uses special lenses to distinguish between solid and liquid phases of the cell.
d) Uses special lenses to change the color of light passing through them.
15) Differential Interference Contrast Microscopy
a) Compares two identical specimens on the same microscope.
b) Illuminates the specimen with light of two different colors.
c) Illuminates the specimen with light of two different phases.
d) Illuminates the specimen with both reflected and transmitted light
16) Which of the following is not equivalent to 10 micrometers,
a) 0.0001cm
b) 0.01mm
c) 10,000 nm
d) 100,000 angstroms
17) "Parfocal" refers to microscopes with multiple objectives where
a) Objectives are used in pairs for stereoscopic effects.
b) Each objective has the same working distance above the specimen,
c) Each objective is positioned to be in focus at the same stage height
d) Sequential objectives increases power by a factor of two.
Chapter # 3 Eukaryotic Cell structure and Function.
1) The significance of the plasma membrane is that

a) It selectively allows some molecules to pass into the organism
b) It is the site of protein synthesis
c) All of the above.
2) The most commonly encountered bacteria are roughly spherical. The microbiological term describe this shape is
a) Coccus
b) Bacillus
c) Pleomorphic
3) Another common bacterial shape is that of a rod, often called
a) Coccus
b) Bacillus
c) Pleomorphic
4) In bacterial cell, ribosomes are packed into the cytoplasmic matrix and also loosely attached to the plasma
membrane. What is true function of ribosomes?
a) Site of energy production
b) Site of protein synthesis
c) Site of genetic reproduction.
5) What is a plasmid?
a) Self-replicating segment of double stranded DNA
b) Self-replicating segment of single stranded RNA.
c) A bacterial chromosome.
6) Plasmids are important to the genetics of manly bacteria. This is because
a) They are inherited from one generation to the next.
b) They may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage.
c) They can render bacteria drug-resistance.
d) All of the above
7) Bacteria don’t always swim aimlessly but are attracted by such nutrients such as a sugar and amino acids, and are
repelled by harmful substances and bacterial waste products. Movement toward chemical attractants and away
from repellants is called
a) Gliding motility

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b) Tumbling
c) Chemotaxis
8) Some bacteria are considered pleomorphic. This means
a) They are shaped like bent rods.
b) They have a corkscrew shape.
c) They do not have just one shape
d) They are not either bacilli or cocci
9) Poly-beta-dehydroxybutyrate inclusion bodies
a) Protect bacteria from excessive drying.
b) Store carbon for energy and biosynthesis
c) Turn reddish brown when stained with iodine
d) Are composed of polymers of glucose
10) Gas vesicle in bacteria
a) Help cell to optimal nutrient level
b) Store oxygen for growth anaerobically.
c) Are bounded by lipid bilayer membrane.
d) Are bounded by a membrane impervious to gas
11) Magnetisome in bacteria
a) Help cell to attach metal objects.
b) Help cells to magnetically attach to each other.
c) Help cell to float on the surface of fresh water ponds.
d) Help cell to orient in earth's magnetic field
12) The 70s prokaryotic ribosome consists of
a) Two 40s subunits.
b) A 50s and 30s subunit.
c) A 40s and 30s subunit.
d) A 50s and 20s subunit.
13) Gram positive cells
a) Have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain.
b) Have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain.
c) Have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain.
d) Have a periplasmic, space that traps the crystal violet.
14) The presence of D-amino acids in the crosslinks of the peptidoglycan layer is most likely because
a) Most peptidase can only leave L-amino acids.
b) D-amino acids fit the structural constrains of the cell wall better than L-amino acids
c) Most L-amino acids have already been used for protein synthesis
d) D-amino acids are easier to cross link in the absence of ribosome
15) The third amino acid in the peptidoglycan crosslinking chain is either diaminopimilic acid lysine because this
amino acid must
a) The positively charged for salt bridge to form.
b) Be hydrophilic
c) Have a free amino group for peptide bond formation.
d) Have a large R-side chain to fill space in the cell wall.
16) Gram positive cells
a) Have thick homogenous cell walls.
b) Have large amount of teichoic acids.
c) Don’t have an outer membrane
d) All of the above are true
17) The outer membrane of Gram negative cell is more permeable than the plasma membrane because
a) LPS is larger than most membrane phospholipid
b) Lipoprotein stretches the outer membrane.
c) Porin proteins establish holes in the outer membrane
d) The core polysaccharide Spain the lipid bilayer
18) The most important role of the prokaryotic cell wall is to
a) Maintain the shape of the cell.
b) Protect the cell from osmotic pressure
c) Prevent ions from diffusing away from the cell.
d) Blocks the effects of antibiotic like penicillin.

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19) Which of the following is not true about capsules and slime layer
a) They consist of secreted material lying outside of the bacterial cell wall.
b) They can prevent desiccation of bacteria cells.
c) They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture
d) They help bacteria resist phagocytosis by macrophages
20) Fimbriae
a) Attach bacteria to various surfaces
b) Cause bacteria move through fluids
c) Sense changes in nutrient concentration
d) Are pathways for the secretion of Exoenzyme?
21) A bacillus bacterium with a single flagellum at each end is described as
a) Monotrichous
b) Amphitrichous
c) Lopotrichous
d) Peritrichous
22) Which of the following is not true about bacterial flagella?
a) Most of their length consists of a hollow, rigid protein tube.
b) They are constructed largely of a single protein called flagellum
c) Self-assembly of subunits traveling through the hollow flagellum to the tip
d) Self-insertion of subunits along the length of the filament.
23) How does a bacterium control the direction of swimming?
a) The length of the flagellum acts as a rudder to steer the bacterium.
b) The speed of the rotation is faster when the bacterium is headed the correct way.
c) The bacterium can stop and spin until it is pointed the correct way.
d) The bacterium does not control the direction of its swimming
24) The methyl-accepting chemotaxis proteins of bacteria
a) Are directly connected to the flagellar motor to guide the bacterium.
b) Can only sense condition that is favorable for bacterial growth.
c) Integrate multiple signal trough a two component poshpo-relay system
d) Tell the bacterium which may be go.
25) Bacteria accomplish chemotaxis by
a) Steering toward better growth conditions
b) Making long, uninterrupted runs when conditions are good
c) Frequently stopping and tumbling to better sense good conditions
d) Stopping movement when conditions are good
26) What is the purpose of bacterial endospores?
a) Allow the bacterium to make hundreds of "seeds" to spread in the wind.
b) Help the bacterium to differentiate into faster growing stages of the bacteria.
c) Allow the bacterium to survive in the absence of oxygen.
d) Allow the bacterium to survive extended periods of heat or dryness
Chapter # 4 Prokaryotic Cell Structure and Function
1) The diploid stage of the microorganisms refers to the times when cell contain _______ copies of each chromosome
and occurs after mitotic cell division.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
2) The mitochondria is the site of
a) Protein synthesis
b) Lipid synthesis
c) Energy production
3) The cytoplasmic matrix is best described as
a) A dilute aqueous solution that fills most of the cell
b) A solution of inorganic salts intended to balance osmotic pressure in the cell.
c) Semicrystaline mixture mostly of proteins and bound water molecules
d) Material in transit between membrane bound organelles
4) Which of the following statement about Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) is not true

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a) ER can transport protein and lipids to the plasma membrane or for secretion
b) ER is the main site for cell membrane biosynthesis
c) ER is continuous with the nuclear membrane
d) ER is the main site for synthesis of cytoplasmic proteins
5) When Listeria monocytogenes invades a Eukaryotic cell, it secretes the ActA protein that
a) Polymerizes actin filaments , causing the bacterium to move through the cytoplasm
b) Depolarizes microfilaments, allowing the bacterium to move more easily in the cytoplasm
c) Degrades the cytoskeleton, allowing the bacterium to travel through the plasma membrane to adjacent cells.
d) Attachés to microtubules, allowing the bacterium to move along the fibers.
6) Colchicine treatment of cells to disrupt microtubules can result in
a) Loss of cell shape
b) Loss of directional movement
c) Loss of nutrient transport
d) All of the above
7) Which of the following is not the mechanism for a cell to degrade its own cytoplasmic proteins?
a) Autophagic vacuoles
b) Phagocytosis and secondary lysosome fusion
c) 26S proteasome degradation
d) All the above are correct mechanisms
8) Lysosomes of the cell are where
a) Lysosome is synthesized
b) Secondary proteins are transported to the surface
c) Endocytosed material is degraded.
d) Glycogen is stored as an energy sources
9) Mitochondria are similar to bacteria in several ways. Which of the following is not a similarity?
a) Both have peptidoglycan in their cell wall
b) Both have circular, single standard DNA
c) Both are about the same size
d) Both have the 70S ribosome
10) The F1 particles of mitochondria are
a) A type of ribosomes that synthesizes mitochondrial proteins.
b) A structural component of the mitochondrial inner membrane
c) An enzyme complex that synthesizes ATP during respiration
d) A storage complex for calcium phosphate in the mitochondria
11) Plastids are
a) Protrusions of plasma membrane that bud off of plant cells.
b) Cytoplasmic organelles that often contain photosynthetic pigments
c) Piece of circular, double stranded DNA that carry drug resistance
d) Areas of the nucleus where rRNA is transcribed
12) The light reaction of photosynthesis is where
a) Carbohydrates are formed from CO2 and water
b) Polysaccharides are formed in the pyrenoid
c) Protein with in the stroma are made to give off photons of light
d) Photons from light are trapped to generate ATP and O 2
13) The nucleus of the cell is where
a) Energy for cell division is generated
b) Ribosomes translate mRNA into proteins
c) Chromatin is kept with in membrane delimited body
d) Endocytic vacuoles fuses with lysosomes
14) The nuclear pores are passageways between the nuclear matrix and the cytoplasm which
a) Allow DNA to reach the cytoplasm to be translated to RNA
b) Allow ribosome to enter the nuclear matrix
c) Allow proteins synthesized in the cytoplasm to enter the nucleus
d) Structurally reinforce the nuclear membrane
15) DNA is the primary molecule for information storage in
a) Prokaryotic only
b) Eukaryotic only
c) Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic

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16) Cell walls, when they exists, usually contain peptidoglycan in

a) Prokaryotic only
b) Eukaryotic only
c) Both
17) When flagella exists, their movement is powered by ATP in
a) Prokaryotic only
b) Eukaryotic only
c) Both
18) Membrane bounded organelles such as mitochondria and Golgi are found in
a) Prokaryotic only
b) Eukaryotic only
c) Both
19) Ribosomes are required for synthesis of protein in
a) Prokaryotic only
b) Eukaryotic only
c) Both
20) Exoenzyme are contained in the periplasmic space in
a) Prokaryotic only
b) Eukaryotic only
c) Both
21) All the cells chromosomes are contained in the cell nucleus for
a) Prokaryotic only
b) Eukaryotic only
c) Both
Chapter # 5 Microbial Nutrition
1) All of the following are true about agar except it

a) Liquefies at 100 C
b) Is a polysaccharide derived from red algae
c) Solidifies at approximately 40 0C
d) Is metabolized by many bacteria
Below are three different media. Use them to answer the following questions
Medium A Medium B Medium C
Tributyrin (alipid) Glucose Na2HPO 4
PO4 Peptone KH 2PO4
MgSO4 KH 2PO2 CaCl2
(NH4)2SO4 Na2HPO4 NaHCO3
2) Which of these media, if any are chemically defined?
a) A
b) B
c) A & B
d) A & C
e) None of these
3) On which medium would a chemoorganotrophic heterotroph grow?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) A & B
e) None of these
4) On which medium would a photolithotrophic autotroph grow?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) A and C
e) None of these
5) If you are designing an experiment involving a photolithotrophic autotroph : in addition to light, which of the
following would be most essential to maintaining growth of the organism

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a) a continual supply of abundant oxygen

b) a nutrient medium containing glucose
c) a source of CO2
d) keeping the culture at 37C
e) adding chlorophyll to the culture medium
6) If you are designing an experiment involving a cheolithotrophic autotroph : in addition to light, which of the
following would be most essential to maintaining growth of the organism
a) nutrient medium containing glucose
b) a continual supply of abundant oxygen
c) keeping the culture at 37C
d) a source of reduced inorganic compound such as NH4
e) adding agar to the culture medium
7) the addition of which of the following would change a chemically defined medium into a complex medium
a) biotin (a Vitamin)
b) K2HPO4
c) NH4CO3
d) Maltose
e) Yeast extract
8) Which of the following procedure can be used to isolate a pure culture of a bacterium from a mixture?
a) Streak plating
b) Dilute plating
c) All the above can be used to isolate a pure culture of a bacterium from a culture.
d) None of the above can be used to isolate a pure culture of a bacterium form a culture.
9) Which of the following is micronutrient?
a) Carbon
b) Manganese
c) Potassium
d) Magynesum
e) Nitrogen
10) Which of the following is macro nutrient?
a) Manganese
b) Magnesium
c) Molybdenum
d) Zinc
e) Cobalt
11) Which of the following uses radiant energy as their energy source?
a) Chemotroph
b) Lithotroph
c) Autotroph
d) Heterotroph
e) Phototroph
12) Which of the following obtain energy from the oxidation of inorganic or organic chemicals?
a) Chemotroph
b) Lithotroph
c) Autotroph
d) Heterotroph
e) Phototroph
13) An organism is capable of oxidizing H2S using the energy obtained from the reaction to reduce carbon dioxide.
Which type of metabolism does this organism possess?
a) Photolithotrophic autotroph
b) Chemoorganotrophic heterotroph
c) Photoorganotrophic heterotroph
d) Chemolithotrophic autotroph
e) Not enough information to determine which type
14) An organism is capable of oxidizing fatty acids to obtain energy, hydrogen, electrons and carbon. Which type of
metabolism does this organism possess?

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15) An organism is capable of photosynthesis but use organic matter as their electron donor and carbon source. Which
type of metabolism does this organism possess?
16) An organism uses radiant energy as their energy source and carbon dioxide as their carbon source. Which type of
metabolism does this organism possess?
b) Chemoorganotrophic hetertroph
c) Photoorganotrophic hetrotroph
17) Addition of blood to a culture medium only allows the hemolytic bacteria that grow on the plate to be picked out.
This is an example of a
a) Differential media
b) Liquid media
c) Chemically defined media
d) Complex media
For the next two items each item lists two categories, numbered I and II. Select the answer from the following key
18) I II
______ Chemoorganotrophic heterotroph Staphylococcus
a) All members of I are also members of II, but not all members of II are the members of I
b) All members of II are also members of I, but not all members of I are members of II.
c) All members of I are members of II and all members of II are members of I
d) No member of I is member of II
e) Some members of I are members of II and some are not, and some members of II are members of I and some
are not
19) I II
_____ nitrifying bacteria chemolithotophic autotroph
a) All members of I are also members of II, but not all members of I I are the members of I
are not
20) I II
___Gram negative bacteria chemoorganotrophic heterotroph
a) All members of I are also members of II, but not all members of I I are the members of I
are not
21) I II
___ Photoorganotrophic heterotroph chemolithotophic autotroph
are not
22) I II

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____ Cyanobacteria photolithotrophic autotroph

are not
23) I II
____Photolithotrophic autotroph Plants
are not
24) I II
____Bacteria and archaebacteria prokaryotic organism
are not
25) Vitamins are
a) Organic compounds that are the building blocks of proteins
b) Organic molecules that are used for the transfer of energy and information within the cell.
c) Small organic molecules that make up a part of enzyme cofactor
d) A major energy source for bacteria when they are metabolized
e) Part of nucleic acid
26) A bacterial cell is analyzed for its elemental composition and determined to have a high concentration of
potassium ion inside the cell relative to the outside. Several hours later another bacterium of the same strain is
analyzed and determined to have the same distribution of potassium ions: high inside to low outside. Which of the
following processes is involved in maintaining this ionic distribution
a) Passive diffusion
b) Facilitated diffusion
c) Active transport
d) Endocytosis
e) Exocytosis
27) Carrier proteins are involved in which of the following processes?
a) Passive diffusion
b) Facilitated diffusion
c) Active transport
d) Endocytosis
e) More than one of the above processes utilize carrier proteins
28-29. Compare the following entities (I and II)
28) I. the ability of ions and polar molecules to cross a membrane by passive diffusion.
II. The ability of the lipophilic compounds to cross a membrane by passive diffusion.
a) I is greater than II, mark A
b) I is less than II, Mark B
c) It is exactly or approximately equal to II.
d) I may stand more than one of the above relations to II.
29) I. The amount of energy expended passing an ion across a membrane utilizing active transport.
II. The amount of energy expended passing an ion a cross a membrane utilizing facilitated diffusion.
a) I is greater than II, mark A
c) It is exactly or approximately equal to II.

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d) I may stand more than one of the above relations to II.

30) Addition of salt to a culture medium only allows the salt-tolerant bacteria to grow. This is an example of a
a) Complex media
b) Chemically defined media
c) Enriched media
d) Differential media
e) Selective media
Chapter # 6 Bacterial Growth
1) Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 0.1 ml of sample with drawn from a solution diluted to 10-5 in a
standard plate count procedure. How many samples were in the original sample?
a) 360
b) 3600
c) 360000
d) 3600000
2) Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 0.1 ml of sample with drawn from a solution diluted to 10-3 in a
standard plate count procedure. How many samples were in the original sample?
a) 360
b) 3600
c) 360000
d) 1800000
e) 3600000
3) Which of the following is the best definition of generation time?
a) The length of time it takes for lag phase
b) The length of time it takes for population of cells to double
c) The maximum rate of doubling divided by the initial count
d) The duration of log phase
e) The time it takes for nuclear division.
4) An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the cells go through
a) 64
b) 32
c) 6
d) 5
e) 4
5) If you start out with a population density of 200 CFU/ml of bacterium that divides every 20 minutes, what will be
the population density be at the end of 2 hours, assuming the cells are in the log phase of growth.
a) 1200 CFU/ml
b) 26CFU/ml
c) 3200
d) 12800 CFU/ml
Use the typical bacterial growth curve to answer the following question
6) Which section shows the growth phase where the number of cells dying equals the number of cells dividing?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) A & C
7) Which section shows a growth phase where the number of cell dying is greater than the number of cells dividing?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) a and b
8) Which section shows a growth phase where cells dividing at their maximum rate of division?
a) A

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b) B
c) C
d) D
e) A & C
9) If you start out with a population density of 200 CFU/ml of bacterium that divides every 30 minutes, what will be
the population density be at the end of 2 hours, assuming the cells are in the log phase of growth.
a) 800 CFU/ml
b) 24 CFU/ml
c) 3200 CFU/ml
d) 12800 CFU/ml
e) 2004 CFU/ml
10) A culture of bacteria produces 5 generation in 2 hours. What is the generation time for this bacterium under those
conditions
a) 15 min
b) 24 min
c) 30 min
d) .75 hr.
e) 1 hour
11) A bacterial population increase from 100 to 100,000,000 in 15 hours. What is the generation time for this culture?
a) 30 min
b) 45 min
c) 60 min
d) 2 hour
e) Not enough information to determine the generation time
12) Starvation proteins are produced by culture during which of the following parts of the growth curve?
a) Lag phase
b) Exponential phase
c) Stationary phase
d) Balance phase growth
e) Death phase
13) Which of the following is used to grow bacterial cultures continuously
a) Chemo stat
b) Coulter counter
c) Hemostat
d) Ptroff-hausser chamber
e) Bacteria cannot be grown continuous
14) Which of the following procedures uses a photocell to measure absorbance of a culture to regulate the flow of
culture media?
a) Chemo stat
b) Coulter counter
c) Hemostat
d) Ptroff-hausser chamber
e) Trubidostat
15) An organism is completely dependent on atmospheric oxygen for growth. This organism is an
a) Osmotolerant
b) Acidophile
c) Facultative anaerobe
d) Aerotolerent anaerobe
e) Obligate aerobe
16) An organism has optimal growth rate when the hydrogen ion concentration is very high. The organism is a /an
a) Osmotolerant
b) Acidophile
e) Obligate aerobe
17) An organism that expends energy to grow in a habitat with a low water activity in order to maintain solute
concentration to retain water is
a) Osmotolerant

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b) Acidophile
e) Obligate aerobe
18) The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that
a) Does not use oxygen but tolerates it
b) Is killed by oxygen
c) Uses oxygen when present or grows without oxygen when oxygen is absent
d) Requires less oxygen than is present in air
e) Prefers to grow without oxygen
19) The term obligate anaerobe refers to an organism that
20) The term Aerotolerent anaerobe refers to an organism that
21) A microbiology student noticed that a fluid thioglycollate culture broth tube was very turbid at the surface and
turbid throughout the rest of the tube. she can conclude that
a) Broth is sterile
b) Organism cannot tolerate oxygen
c) Organisms are aerobes
d) Organisms should be put in a candle jar
e) Organisms are facultative anaerobes
22) A microbiology student noticed that a culture broth tube was very turbid at the surface but clear throughout the rest
of the tube. she can conclude that
a) Organisms are aerobes
b) Organisms should be grown in an anaerobic chamber
c) Organisms cannot produce superoxide dismutase and/ or catalase
d) Organisms cannot tolerate oxygen
e) Broth is sterile
23) A microbiology student noticed that culture broth tube was very turbid at the bottom but clear at the top of the
tube. she can conclude that
a) Broth is sterile
b) Organism cannot tolerate oxygen
c) Organisms cannot produce superoxide dismutase and/ or catalase
d) Organisms should be grown in an anaerobic chamber
e) Organisms are aerobes
24) Postgate assay technique is useful in determination if a cell is viable even though it is
a) Incapable of cell division
b) Too small to see
c) Killed by naturally occurring antibiotics in soil
d) An obligate anaerobe
e) A thermophile
Compare the following entities (I and II)
25) I. average size of cells during the exponential phase of growth

II. Average size of cells during the lag phase of the growth
a) I is greater than II
b) I is less than II
c) I is exactly or approximately equal to II
d) I may stand in more than one of the above relations to II.

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26) I. Generation time of cells during exponential phase of growth

II. Generation time of cells during lag phase of growth
27) I. Generation time of culture that produces 2 generations per hour.
II. Generation time of culture that produces 3 generation per hour.
28) I. Number of viable cells detected in culture using an electronic counting devise
II. Number of viable cells detected in same culture using a dilution and spread plating procedure
d) I may stand in more than one of the above relations to II
29) The total biomass of an organism will be determined by the nutrient present in the lowest concentration relative to
the organism's requirements is a statement of
a) Liebig's law of the minimum
b) Shelford's law of tolerance
c) The second law of thermodynamics
d) Quorum sensing
e) Heisenberg's principle of uncertainty
30) The ability of Vibrio fischeri to produce bioluminescence chemicals only when a certain population density has
been reached is an example of
a) Liebig's law of the minimum
b) Shelford's law of tolerance
c) The second law of thermodynamics
d) Quorum sensing
e) Heisenberg's principle of uncertainty
Chapter # 7 Control of Microorganisms by Physical and Chemical agents
1) Preserve food by salts and sugars works by

a) Raising PH
b) Depleting nutrients
c) Lowering osmotic pressure
d) Creating a hypertonic environment
e) Creating a hypotonic environment
2) Which of the following method will not sterile?
a) 500 mg/L ethylene oxide at 50 1/4 C for 4 hours
b) Aquas gluteraldehyde for 10 mins
c) Dry heat at 171 1/4 C for 1 to 2 hours
d) 121 1/4 Cat 15lb/in pressure for 15 to 20 minutes
e) 100 1/4 C boiling water for 30 min
3) Which of the following does not kill endospores?
a) Autoclave
b) Incineration
c) Hot air sterilization
d) Pasteurization
e) All of these process kill endospores
4) Which of the following is best to sterilize heat labile solutions?
a) Dry heat
b) Autoclave
c) Membrane filtration
d) Pasteurization

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e) None of these
5) Which of the following is bactericidal?
a) Membrane filtration
b) Ionizing radiation
c) Freeze-drying
d) Deep-freezing
e) All of these process kill bacteria
6) Which of the following substance can sterilize?
a) Alcohol
b) Cetylpridinium chloride
c) Ethylene oxide
d) Chlorine
e) Silver nitrate
7) Which of the following is not a disinfectant containing a heavy metal?
a) Silver nitrate
b) Mercurochrome
c) Merthlloate
d) Copper sulphate
e) Chlorine
8) Which of the following is most effective for sterilizing mattresses and plastic petri plates?
a) Chlorine
b) Ethylene oxide
c) Gluteraldehyde
d) Autoclave
e) UV radiation
Use this information to answer the following questions
Phenol coefficient
Compound salmonella Typhi staphylococcus aurous
Phenol 1 1
Cetylpyridinium chloride 228 337
Hexachlorophene 5-15 15-40
Merthlolate 600 62.5
Ethanol 0.04 0.04
9) Which disinfectant was the most effective against Salmonella?

a) Phenol
b) Cetylpyridinium chloride
c) Hexachlorophene
d) Merthlolate
e) Can't tell
10) Which disinfectant could be most effective against Bacillus cereus?
a) Phenol
c) Hexachlorophene
d) Merthlolate
e) Can't tell
11) Which disinfectant would be most effective agains staphyalococcus found in blood spill?
a) Phenol
c) Hexachlorophene
d) Merthlolate

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e) Can't tell
12) If canning procedure is not properly followed, which type of microbe is most likely to grow in the canned food?
a) Obligate aerobe
b) Acidophile
c) Microaerophile
d) Mesophile
e) Obligate anaerobe
13) Sweet and salty food frequently don't require refrigeration to prevent spoilage because they have
a) Insufficient nutrient
b) Low PH
c) High concentration of solute
d) Toxic alkaline chemicals
e) Naturally occurring antibiotics
14) If a 1:600 dilution of test compound kills a standard population of Staphylcoccus aureus in 10 minutes but not 5
minutes while a 1:600 dilution of phenol kills the same population in the same time, what is the phenol coefficient
of test compound?
a) 1
b) 5
c) 10
d) 50
e) 100
15) The lowest temperature that kills all microorganisms in a liquid suspension in 10 minutes is known as the
a) Decimal reduction time
b) Thermal death point
c) Thermal death temperature
d) Thermal death time
e) D value
16) The time require to kill 90% of the microorganisms in a sample at specific temperature is the
d) Thermal death time
e) D value
17) The time in minutes at a specific temperature needed to kill a population of cells is the
d) F value
e) D value
18) Which of the following is the limitation of the autoclave?
a) It takes too long to sterile
b) It lakes the ability to inactivate viruses
c) It lakes ability to kill the endospores
d) It will destroy heat labile materials
e) It cannot be used with glass wares
19) A (n) ________ is used to prevent infection by killing or inhibiting pathogen growth on animal tissues?
a) Bacteriostatic agent
b) Sterilant
c) Sanitizer
d) Disinfectant
e) Antiseptic
20) If 90% of the population of the bacteria that had 106 CFU/ml are killed there will be ______ remaining
a) 107
b) 9* 10
c) 105
d) 110
e) No
21) Which of the following items could be sterilized by dry heat sterilization?

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a) Intravenous solution (IV)

b) Plastic bags
c) Glass pipets
d) Rubber gloves
e) Plastic petri dishes
22) Which of the following is best used for long term storage of microbial samples when carried out properly?
a) Storage in a freezer at -10 1/4 C
b) Storage in a freezer at a ultra-low temperature (-70 1/4) C
c) Storage in a refrigerator on an agar slant
d) Storage on a petri plate at room temperature
e) It is not possible to routinely store viable microbial samples
23) Which of the following disinfectant acts by disturbing microbial membranes?
a) Cationic detergents
b) Halogens
c) Heavy metals
d) Aldehydes
e) Sterilizing gases
24) Which of the following was the first used antiseptic and disinfectant?
a) Chlorine
b) Phenol
c) Iodine
d) Alchol
e) Merthlolate
Compare the following entities (I & II)
25) I. The percentage of cells killed by a procedure with a D100 value of 8 minutes.
II. The percentage of cells killed by a procedure with a D100 value of 5 minutes
a) I is greater than II, Mark A
c) I is exactly or approximately equal to II, Mark C
d) I may stand more than one of the above relations to II, Mark D
26) I. ability of boiling a solution for 15 minutes to sterile the solution
II. Ability of membrane filtration a solution for 15 minutes to sterile the same solution
27) I. Time require to autoclave a liter of culture media that has been dispensed 5 ml/tube.
II. Time require to autoclave a liter of culture media that is in a 2-liter flask
28) I. Ability of membrane filtration to sterilize a heat labile culture medium.
II. Ability of autoclaving to sterilize the same heat labile culture medium.
29) Who is credited with developing a procedure to heat wine at temperatures well below boiling to prevent spoilage
of wine?
a) Lister
b) Gram
c) Koch
d) Pasteur
e) Watkins
30) All of the following are parricidal except

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a) Gluteraldehyde
b) Ethylene oxide
c) Formaldehyde
d) Alcohol
e) Stabilized hydrogen peroxide
Chapter # 8 Metabolism: Energy, Enzyme and Regulation
1) Which compound is being reduced in this reaction?

a) Puyrate
b) Lactate
c) NAD+
d) NADH+H
2) Which compound is being oxidized in this reaction?
a) Puyrate
b) Lactate
c) NAD+
d) NADH+H
3) Which of the following is / are true about enzymes
I. All enzyme are proteins
II. All proteins are enzymes
a) I is only true
b) II only is true
c) Both I and II are true
d) Neither I nor II are true
4) If the keq for enzymatic reaction is greater than I.
I the reaction will be endrogenic
II the reaction cannot occur without the input of energy
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
5) A complex enzyme is broken down into its constituent parts. Apo enzyme and cofactor. Proteins of the separate
parts are heated for 3 minutes at 100C. Various combinations are tested for their ability to perform the enzymatic
function. Which of the following combinations would still be functional
a) Unheated apoenzyme and heated cofactor
b) Heated apoenzyme and heated cofactor
c) Unheated apoenzyme and unheated cofactor
d) Heated apoenzyme and unheated cofactor
e) More than one of the above combination would functional
6) An enzyme that is always produce, regardless of the presence of substrates or the end products, is called
a) A constitutive enzyme
b) An isoenzyme
c) A repressible enzyme
d) An allosteric enzyme
e) A regular enzyme
7) About 7.3 kcal/mole are released when
a) NAD+ is reduced to NADH
b) ATP hydrolysis is coupled to sucrose synthesis
c) The terminal phosphate bond of ATP is broken by hydrolysis
d) A phosphoester bond of ATP is formed
e) Glucose is converted to CO 2 and H2O
8) In the following reaction, which component is being reduced?
C6H12O6 + 6O2 ---------> 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy
a) C 6H12O6
b) O 2
c) CO2
d) H 2O

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e) Energy
9) In the following reaction, which component is being oxidized?
C6H12O6 + 6O2 ---------> 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy
a) C6H12O6
b) O2
c) CO2
d) H2O
e) Energy
10) Adenosine triphosphate is a type of
a) Fatty acid
b) Amino acid
c) Enzyme
d) Steroid
e) Nucleotide
11) A substrate binds to an enzyme at a location called the ______ site.
a) Coenzyme
b) Substrate
c) Active
d) Polypeptide
e) Cofactor
12) The Vitamin niacin is part of the __________ molecule.
a) Ferredoxin
b) Iron-sulfur
c) Pyridoxal phosphate
d) Pyrophosphate
e) NAD+
13) Denaturation of an enzyme refers to the
a) Proper arrangement of the enzyme in a metabolic pathway
b) Improper arrangement of the enzyme in a metabolic pathway
c) Loss of enzyme proper's shape
d) Formation of the enzyme's proper shape
e) Formation of new isozyme for that enzyme
14) ATP is required to do
a) Chemical work
b) Transport work
c) Mechanical work
d) All of the types of the work
e) None of the above, another compound provides the necessary energy
15) The ability of Vibrio fischeri to convert chemical energy directly into radiant energy in bioluminescence is an
example of __?____at work.
a) Shelford's law of tolerance
b) Liebig's law of the minimum
c) The first law of thermodynamics
d) Heisenberg's principle of uncertainty
e) The third law of thermodynamics
16) An exergonic reaction is one that
a) Acquires energy in order to proceed.
b) Release energy for work
c) Gives off heat much
d) Wastes energy
e) None of the above
17) An endergonic reaction is one that
a) Acquires energy in order to proceed.
b) Release energy for work
c) Gives off heat much
d) Wastes energy

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18) The reaction A + B------ AB takes place slowly at 20 0C unless either compound X or Y is present. Compound
X is a metallic catalyst for the reaction and Y is an enzyme which catalysis the reaction. Ten ml of solution A and
B is placed in each of four test tubes to which varing amounts of X or Y are added as follows.
I II III IV
2mg- X 0 mg- X 1 mg – X 0 mg – X
0 mg-Y 2 mg –Y 1mg – Y 0 mg – Y
If A and B are heat stable at 100 0 C and the reaction occurs at that temperature, the reaction is probably
a) Greatest in tube
b) Greatest in tube II
c) Greatest in tube III
d) Greatest in tube IV
e) Equal in all tubes
19) The vitamin riboflavin is part of the ______ molecule.
a) Ferredoxin
b) FAD
c) Pyridoxal phosphate
d) Pyrophosphate
e) NAD+
20) Hydrogen and oxygen release enormous amounts of energy when they react –witness the hinderberg explosion.
Yet, hydrogen and oxygen can be mixed to gather in a balloon and nothing will happen. Why?
a) Competitive inhibitors are blocking the reaction from occurring in the active site.
b) There must be contaminating elements in the balloon that prohibit the reaction from occurring.
c) The energy of activation to form the transition-state complex is too high to allow the reaction to occur without
assistance
d) The person mixing the oxygen and hydrogen in the balloon must have done something wrong.
e) The transition-state complex has too low an energy barrier
21) The fact that the beta-oxidation (Breakdown) of the fatty acids occurs in the mitochondria whereas fatty acids
synthesis occurs in the cytoplasmic matrix is an example of regulation of enzymatic activity by the ___mechanism.
a) Compartmentation
b) Induction
c) Repression
d) Competitive inhibition
e) Non-competitive inhibition
Compare the entities I and II
22) I. The affinity of an enzyme for its substrate when the enzyme has a Km of 0.50M.
II.The affinity of an enzyme for its substrate when the enzyme has a Km of 0.05M
b) II is greater than I
d) I may stand greater than one of the above relation to II
23) I. The ability of the competitive inhibitor to bind to an active site in an allosterically controlled enzyme.
II.the ability of non-competitive inhibitor to bind to an active site in the same allosterically controlled enzyme.
24) I. The ability of NADH +H+ to be reduced
II.the ability of NAD+ to be reduced
25) I. The ability of FADH to be oxidized
II.The ability of FAD to be oxidized

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26) I. The Vmax of an enzyme without a competitive inhibitor
II.The Vmax of an enzyme with a competitive inhibitor
27) To a living organism, which of the following has the greatest amount of available energy per molecule
a) ATP
b) ADP
c) AMP
d) H2O
e) CO2
28) Which of the following is best evidence for the lock and key theory of enzyme action?
a) All isolated enzymes have been identified as proteins.
b) Compounds similar in structure to the substrate inhibit enzyme activity
c) Enzymes are found in living organisms and speed up certain reactions.
d) Enzyme speed up reactions by definite amounts.
e) Enzyme determine the direction of reaction
29) The ability of CTP to bind to aspartate carbamoyltransferase and shut down the synthesis of more CTP is an
example
a) Enzyme induction
b) Enzyme repression
c) Feedback inhibition of enzyme activity
d) Channeling
e) Compartmentation
Chapter # 9 Energy Releases and Conservation
1) Identify the reaction below

Lactose + H2O -- glucose + galactose
a) Synthesis reaction
b) Hydrolysis reaction
c) Exchange reaction
d) Reversible reaction
e) Dehydration reaction
2) A yeast or fungal cell produces how many net ATP molecules per molecules of glucose when completely
oxidized?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 36
e) 38
3) Which of the following is the best most complete definition of fermentation?
a) The reduction of glucose to pyruvic acid
b) The oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptor
c) The complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and H 2O
d) The production of energy by substrate-level phosphorylation
e) The production of ethyl alcohol from glucose
4) In lactic acid fermentation the final electron acceptor would be
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrate
c) Pyruvate
d) Glucose
e) Acetyl- CoA
5) Which of the following best explains why the production of ethanol is important in yeast cells that are under
anaerobic conditions?

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a) Ethanol keeps the electron transport system functioning

b) Yeast would be unable to activate the enzymes of the kerb cycle without ethanol.
c) The process generates oxygen, which is required for glycolysis
d) The process regenerates NAD+, which is required for glycolysis
e) Ethanol stimulates mitochondrial activity
6) Most bacterial fermentations yield how many NET ATP molecules per molecule of glucose?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 36
e) 38
7) Organisms can synthesize ATP by oxidative phosphorylation
a) When they ferment
b) When they oxidize glucose to pyruvate
c) When they pass electron to oxygen through an electron transport system containing cytochromes
d) When they pass electrons from the oxidation of chlorophyll through an electron system.
e) Under none of the condition described above
8) I. the amount of the energy in an ATP molecule produced by cell from glucose by fermentation
II. the amount of the energy in ATP molecule produced by cell from glucose by aerobic metabolism means
a) I is greater than II.
b) I is less than II.
c) I is exactly or approximately equal to II.
d) I may stand more than one of the above relation to II
9) I. the amount of ATP can be obtained by complete oxidation of 12 C fatty acid.
II.The amount of ATP that can be obtained by complete oxidation of 12 C carbohydrates
10) I. The amount of ATP produced by cell from glucose when metabolizing it by fermentation means.
II.The amount of ATP produced by cell from glucose when metabolizing it by aerobic metabolism
11) I. The number of ATP molecules produced from one glucose molecule by bacterium producing lactic acid
II.The number of ATP molecules produced from one glucose molecule by bacterium producing ethanol.
12) I. The amount of the ATP that can be obtained by complete oxidation of a glucose by bacterium
II.The amount of the ATP that can be obtained by complete oxidation of glucose by a yeast cell
13) Which of the following best explains why the production of ethanol is important in yeast cells that are under
anaerobic conditions?
a) Ethanol keeps the electron transport system functioning
b) Yeast would be unable to activate the enzymes of the kerb cycle without ethanol
c) The process generates oxygen, which is required for glycolysis
d) The process generates NAD+ which is required for glycosis
e) Ethanol stimulate mitochondrial activity
14) In anaerobic respiration the final electron acceptor can be

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a) Oxygen
b) Nitrate
c) Pyruvate
d) Glucose
e) Acetyl Co A
15) Aerobic respiration differs from anaerobic respiration in which of the following respects?
a) Anaerobic respiration is glycosis
b) The final electron acceptors are different.
c) Aerobic respiration requires the electron transport chain
d) Aerobic respiration gets electrons from the kerb's cycle
e) Aerobic respiration produces less ATP
16) Suppose a eukaryotic cell had a mutation that prevented the production of cytochrome c. as a result of this
mutation which of the following process would not occur
a) Cellular respiration
b) Photosynthesis
c) Mitosis
d) DNA replication
e) Cell wall synthesis
17) Which of the following is not produced in any of the steps of the glycolysis
a) NAD+
b) NADH
c) ADP
d) ATP
e) Pyruvic acid
18) How many oxygen molecules are required in the fermentation of one molecule of glucose to ethanol and CO2
a) 0
b) 1
c) 24
d) 36
e) 38
19) The enzyme for glycolysis are located
a) On the inner surface of the cell membrane
b) In the cytoplasm
c) On the inner membrane of the mitochondria
d) On the outer membrane of the chloroplast
e) In the Golgi apparatus
20) You are growing animal cells in culture and notice that the cells don’t look very healthy. After some checking you
discover that there is a lot of lactic acid in the culture fluid. What is probably wrong with this culture?
a) Too much sugar is in the medium
b) Ethyl alcohol is being produced in excess
c) The cells don’t have enough oxygen
d) The cells have too much oxygen
e) Glycolysis is being inhibited
21) The enzymes that catalyze the reaction of the kerb's cycle are found in which sub cellular organelle of eukaryotes?
a) Chloroplast
b) Ribosomes
c) Lysosome
d) Mitochondrion
e) Endoplasmic Reticulum
22) Before most molecule can enter the kerb citric acid cycle, they must be converted to
a) Citric acid
b) Oxaloacetic acid
c) Carbon dioxide and water
d) NADH or FADH
e) Acetyl co A
23) How many molecules of carbon dioxide will be given off during ten turns of kerb cycle
a) 10
b) 20

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c) 30
d) 40
e) 100
24) Which one of the following is produced in the greatest numbers during the "turn " of kerb cycle
a) NADH
b) Acetyl co A
c) FADH2
d) Carbon dioxide
e) ATP
25) In cellular metabolism, O2 is used
a) To provide electron for photophosphorylation
b) In glycolysis
c) In fermentation
d) As a terminal electron acceptor
e) In the kerb cycle
26) Which of the following is accomplished in chemiosmosis?
a) The oxidation of ATP
b) The oxidation of water
c) The oxidation of NADH
d) The oxidation of H+
e) The oxidation of CO 2
27) The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is
a) CoQ
b) A cytochrome
c) FMN
d) Oxygen
e) CO2
28) For each pair of electrons passing from NADH located inside the mitochondrial to oxygen, how many ATP
molecules can be generated?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
e) 4
29) Glucose can be broken down to pyruvate by
I. The entner-doudroff pathway
II. The tricarboxylic acid cycle
a) I is only true
b) II only is true
d) Neither I or II are true
30) In glycolysis ATP is created by
a) Oxidative phosphorylation
b) Photophosphorylation
c) The chemosmotic mechanism
d) Substrate level phsophryaltion
e) The pentose phosphate pathway
31) Fatty acid are oxidized to acetyl co A by which of the following pathway
a) Beta oxidation
b) Enter-Doudroff pathway
c) The pentose phosphate pathway
d) The Embden-Meyerhof pathway
e) The TCA pathway
Chapter # 10 Metabolism: Use of energy in biosynthesis

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In the next set of questions we are considered with light and dark reactions of the photosynthesis. The light
reactions to be considered reaction group I. the enzymatic reactions are to be considered group II. Categorize the
next set of questions according to the following keys.
1) Oxidation
a) A reaction of I but not II.
b) A reaction of II but not I
c) A reaction of both I and II
d) Not a reaction of either I or II but necessary if either I or II or both are to occur
e) Not a reaction of either I or II but occur as a result of I or II or both
2) Photophosphorylation
3) Production of photons
4) Production of carbohydrate
5) Production of O2
6) If you could label the oxygen in CO 2 and provide this CO2 to plant, where would you except to find this labeled
oxygen after the plant had undergone photosynthesis
a) In the water used
b) In NADH
c) In the carbohydrate produced
d) In the oxygen given off by the plant
7) Which one of the following is the product of both cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation?
a) NADPH
b) O2
c) H2O
d) ATP
e) Carbohydrate
8) In noncyclic photophosphorylation, the ultimate acceptor of electrons that have been produced from the splitting of
the water is
a) Oxygen
b) NADP+
c) Chlorophyll a
d) Carbon dioxide
e) Chlorophyll b
9) All of the following are products of the light reactions of the photosynthesis except
a) ATP
b) Oxygen
c) NADPH
d) Glucose
10) In oxygenic photosynthesis, water is split in order to provide the

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a) O2 needed for the dark reaction

b) Electrons needed to reduce NADH
c) Electrons needed for cyclic phosphorylation
d) Electrons needed to reduce p680A reaction of I but not II.
11) The end product of the noncyclic phosphorylation are
a) O2, ATP, and NADPH
b) CO2, PGAL and H 2
c) Water, ADP and NADP
d) PGAL, ADP and rbulose
e) CO2, ATP and water
12) CO2 is reduced in
a) Cyclic phosphorylation
b) Noncyclic phosphorylation
c) The Calvin cycle
d) The light reactions
e) Both light and dark reactions
13) Which of the following is/are the products of light reactions of photosynthesis?
a) ATP only
b) NADPH only
c) O2 only
d) ATP and O2 only
e) ATP, NADPH and O2
14) All of the following produce oxygen as a product of photosynthesis except?
a) Cyanobacteria
b) Oak trees
c) Purple sulfur bacteria
d) Algae
e) Phytoplankton
15) The chlorophyll molecule used by eukaryotes and cyanobacteria absorb radiant in the _____ portion (s) of the
visible spectrum
a) Infrared
b) Green
c) Blue
d) Green and UV
e) Red & Blue
16) The bacteriochlorophylls used by the anoxygenic bacteria have absorbance maxima located in the _______
portion(s) of the spectrum
a) Infrared
b) Green
c) Blue
d) UV
e) Green & UV
17) Which of the following is an example of a polymer
a) Nucleotide
b) Amino acid
c) Monosaccharide
d) Polysaccharide
e) Fatty acid
18) Radioisotopes are frequently used in the study of the cells. Assume a culture of E.Coli is grown in a culture
medium containing radioactive sulfur. At the end of 48 hours you would except to find the radioactive label
located in
a) Enzyme
b) DNA
c) RNA
d) Phospholipid
e) All of the above

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19) Radioisotopes are frequently used in the study of the cells. Assume a culture of E.Coli is grown in a culture
medium containing radioactive phosphorous. At the end of 48 hours you would except to find the radioactive label
located in
a) Enzyme
b) DNA
c) RNA
d) Phospholipid
e) All of the above
20) Anabolic and catabolic pathways don’t get "mixed up" in the cytoplasmic milieu because some of the enzyme
utilize different cofactors, hence
I NADP+ is usually used for catabolic pathways
II NAD+ is usually used for anabolic pathways
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
c) Both I & II are true
21) In order to get inorganic phosphorous into organic compounds, the phosphate ion is incorporated via
I substrate level phosphorylation
II oxidative phosphorylation
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
22) The major route for incorporation of ammonia into organic compounds is via
I reduction of pyruvate or alpha-ketoglutarate by enzymes
II atmospheric nitrogen fixation
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
23) Nitrogen fixation is process which requires
I energy
II an anaerobic environment
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
24) During the carboxylation phase of Calvin cycle, CO2 combines with
a) Ribolose 1,5- biphosphate
b) Phosphoglyceraldhyde
c) Phosphglyceric acid
d) Pyruvic acid
e) Oxaloacetic acid from the kerb cycle
25) During the reduction phase of the Calvin cycle, phosphoglyceric acid is reduced to ________ utilizing _______as
the reduction source.
a) Phosphoglyceraldehyde, NADH+H+
b) Ribulose 1,5-biophosphate, NADH+H+
c) Phosphoglyceraldehyde, NADPH+H+
d) Ribulose 1,5-biophosphate , NADPH+H+
e) Pyruvic acid; NADPH+H+
26) Which of the following nucleoside biphosphate is used most often in carbohydrate anabolism?
a) Adenosine diphosphate
b) Guanine diphosphate
c) Thymine diphosphate
d) Cytosine diphosphate
e) Uridine diphosphate
27) Assimilatory sulfate reduction involves the nucleotide ______ during the incorporation of the H 2S in the
production of ________

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a) ATP, methionine
b) UTP, methionine
c) ATP, cytosine
d) UTP, cytosine
e) GTP, cytosine
28) Incorporation of atmospheric N2 to NH4+ occurs via the process of
a) Assimilatory nitrate reduction
b) Nitrogen fixation
c) Transamination
d) Deamination
e) None of the above, atmospheric N 2 cannot be incorporated to NH4+
29) Which of the following describes how purine nucleotide like adenosine or guanine triphosphate is synthesized?
a) The double ring structure of the purine base is synthesized first and then attached to the ribose sugar that has
three phosphates attached.
b) The single ring structure of the purine base is synthesized first and then attached to the ribose that has the tree
phosphates attached.
c) The double ring of the purine base is constructed on top of ribose- 5- phosphate and is phosphorylated
frequently utilizing ATP
d) The single ring structure of the purine base is constructed on top of ribose 5- phosphate and is phosphorylated
subsequently utilized ATP
e) None of the above describe the general strategy for synthesis of purine nucleotide
30) If radioactive bicarbonate was supplied to bacterial cells that were actively synthesizing fatty acids, you would
accept to find the bulk of the radioactivity in
a) In the fatty acids
b) As cellular bicarbonate
c) The cytoplasmic membrane
d) Nucleic acids
e) None of the above places because bacteria can't synthesizes fatty acid.
Chapter # 11 Genes: Structure, Replication and Mutation
1) The flow of genetic material in microbial cells usually proceeds from

a) Protein through DNA to RNA
b) RNA through proteins to DNA
c) DNA through RNA to proteins
2) A new copy of DNA molecule is precisely synthesized during a process called
a) Translation
b) Transcription
c) Replication
3) The final step in gene expression is protein synthesis or
a) Translation
b) Transcription
c) Replication
4) The chromosomes of all most all bacteria is in the shape of
a) An open circle
b) A closed circle
c) A linear chromosome
5) The enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of DNA is called
a) Helicase
b) DNA gyrase
c) DNA polymerase
6) The actual process of protein synthesis takes place on ribosomes that serve as workbenches, with the ________
acting as blueprint or template
a) DNA
b) mRNA
c) tRNA
7) DNA polymerase catalyze the synthesis of DNA in the
a) 3' to 5' direction
b) 5' to 3' direction
8) The basis of one strand of DNA match-up with the bases of the second strand according to the base pairing rules,
therefore the two strands are said to be
a) Oppositively charged
b) Complementary
c) Identical
9) Eukaryotes are able to replicate their chromosomes in a relatively short period of time because
a) Each chromosome contain multiple replicons

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b) The eukaryotic replicative machinery is 1000 times faster than the prokaryotic replicative machinery
c) Eukaryotic DNA is always single stand.
10) The enzyme that unwind the short stretches of DNA helix immediately ahead of replication fork are
a) Single stranded bonding proteins
b) Topoisomerases
c) Helicases
11) The enzyme that repairs the nicked DNA by forming a phosphodiester bond between adjacent nucleotides is
a) DNA gyrase
b) Helicase
c) DNA ligase
12) The approximate rate of DNA replication in prokaryotes is
a) 10 bases per second
b) 1000 bases per second
c) 100,000 bases per second
13) Another name for the three stop codons which aid in the termination of the translation is
a) Nonsense codon
b) Missense codon
c) Pause codons
14) The enzyme that catalyze the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template is
a) DNA gyrase
b) DNA ligase
c) RNA polymerase
15) Another name for RNA polymerase recognition/bonding site upstream of the gene is the
a) Promoter
b) Terminator
c) Facilitator
16) The _________ is non-translated sequence that is located between the transcription start site and the translation
start site
a) Reading frame
b) Leader sequence
c) Tailer sequence
17) The shine-dalgarno sequence is
a) A short sequence that acts as a ribosomal binding site
b) Another name for a stop codon
c) The reading frame of a gene
18) Most prokaryotic proteins begin with this modified amino acid
a) N-formylleucine
b) N-formylmethionine
c) N-formylserine
19) Mutation may be characterized by
a) Changes in genotype
b) Changes in phenotype
c) Changes in either genotype or phenotype
20) Mutations that raises without exposure to external agents are called
a) Induced mutation
b) Analogous mutations
c) Spontaneous mutations
21) A mutagen is
a) A chemical or physical agent that induces mutations
b) An enzyme that repairs mutations
c) A molecule that stabilizes DNA thus prevents mutation from occurring
22) A mutation that effects only single nucleotide is called
a) Regional mutation
b) A site mutation
c) A point mutation
23) A nonsense mutation results in
a) An abnormal elongation of polypeptide
b) A premature termination of the synthesis of a polypeptide
c) A large deletion within the reading frame of a gene
24) The process by which the thymidine dimers are directly repaired with the help of visible light is called
a) Photosynthesis
b) Excision repair
c) Photoreactivation
25) DNA repair mechanism are able to distinguish newly synthesized strands from older strands because
a) New strands don't contain cytosine bases
b) Old strands are methylated wile new strands are not

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c) New strand are methylated while new strands are not

26) The ability of the anticodon of tRNA is to interact multiple codons of mRNA is called
a) Promiscuity
b) Wobble
c) Stagger
Chapter # 12 Genes: Expression and Regulation
1) Which form of RNA acts as blueprint for polypeptide biosynthesis by the ribosome?
a) mRNA
b) tRNA
c) rRNA
2) RNA is synthesized under the direction of DNA by this enzyme
a) DNA polymerase
b) DNA ligase
c) RNA polymerase
3) Which component of RNA polymerase facilitates the recognition of promoter sequences?
a) A subunit
b) B subunit
c) S subunit
4) The first hexameric sequence typically found in prokaryotic promoters is located
a) At the transcription start site
b) Approximately 35 bases upstream of the transcription start site
c) Approximately 10 bases upstream of the transcription start site
5) What is the usual sequence of the prinbow box
a) TTGACA
b) TATAAT
c) UUUUUU
6) Following binding to promoter, RNA polymerase next
a) Unwinds a short segment of DNA
b) Nicks one strand of DNA
c) Begins to replicate DNA
7) Which of the following components is found in all prokaryotic transcription promoters?
a) Rho factor
b) A poly U- region
c) A hair pin structure
8) Posttranscriptional modification of more common in
a) Prokaryotic
b) Eukaryotes
9) Which structure is found on eukaryotic mRNA but not on prokaryotic mRNA
a) 3' ply-A tail
b) 5' cap
10) Which region of interrupted genes codes for RNA that will present in the final RNA product?
a) Introns
b) Exons
c) Promoters
11) What is a ribozyme?
a) A protein that synthesize RNA
b) A RNA molecule that catalyzes a self-spicing reaction
c) A DNA molecule that acts a template for RNA synthesis
12) What happens during amino acid activation?
a) A methyl group is attached to the amino acid
b) An amino acid is bound to the mRNA
c) An amino acid is bound to the tRNA
13) Which portion of the tRNA is complementary to the mRNA triplet encoding a particular amino acid?
a) D arm
b) Anticodon triplet
c) An amino acid stem
14) The most common inhibitor codon is
a) GUA
b) UAA
c) AUG
15) Which part of translation involves the addition of amino acids to an existing polypeptide chain?
a) Initiation
b) Elongation
c) Termination

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16) What molecule catalyzes the transpeptidation reaction?

a) Peptidyl transferase
b) RNA polymerase
c) DNA ligase
17) Aminoacyl-tRNA binds to which site of the ribosome during elongation?
a) P site
b) A site
c) E site
18) Which of the following is not a nonsense codon?
a) AUG
b) UAA
c) UGA
19) What is the rule of molecular chaperones?
a) To facilitate binding of ribosome to mRNA
b) To degrade newly synthesized polypeptides that contain in accurate sequences
c) To aid a newly synthesized polypeptide in following to its proper site
20) Many chaperones often are called ________ because of their expression under high temperatures
a) Heat-shock protein
b) Cold-shock protein
c) Thermostable protein
21) An enzyme whose amount is reduced by the presence of the end product are
a) Inducible enzymes
b) Repressible enzymes
c) Corepressors
22) A small molecule that causes the increase in levels of an inducible enzyme
a) Repressor
b) Corepressor
c) Inducer
23) The operator is
a) Another name of the terminator of a gene
b) A DNA site bound by repressor proteins
c) A protein that coordinates gene expression
24) The tryptophan operon in the E.Coli demonstrates a level of regulation called______ by the termination of the
transcription if tryptophan is abundant in cells
a) Activation
b) Corepression
c) Attenuation
25) Prokaryotes have developed global regulatory systems
a) To aid in DNA replication
b) To regulate the regulation many genes under varying environmental conditions
c) To determine the exact location of the cell on the globe
26) A collection of genes or operons that is controlled by a common regulatory proteins is called
a) A gene cluster
b) A genome
c) A regulon
27) A molecule of RNA that is complementary to a segment of another RNA molecule to which it will bind is called
a) Antisense RNA
b) Missense RNA
c) Nonsense RNA
28) Which is not an essential part of a two-component phosphorelay system
a) Sensor kinase
b) Response regulator
c) Autoinducer
Chapter # 13 Microbial Recombination and Plasmids
1) The transfer of genetic material between bacteria is in direct physical contact is called
a) Conjugation
b) Transformation
c) Transduction
2) The transfer of naked fragment of DNA between bacteria is called
a) Conjugation
b) Transformation
c) Transduction
3) The transport of bacterial DNA to another bacteria via bacteriophage is called
a) Conjugation

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b) Transformation
c) Transduction
4) The type of recombination commonly occurs between pairs of homologous DNA sequences
a) General recombination
b) Site-Specific recombination
c) Replicative recombination
5) This type of recombination does not require homologous sequence and is important for the integration of viral
genomes into bacterial chromosomes
6) This type of recombination does not require homologous sequence and is utilized by mobile genetic elements that
move about chromosomes
7) Horizontal transfer can best be described
a) The transmission of genetic information from parents to off springs
b) The transmission of genetic information from one independent, mature organism to another
c) The synthesis of RNA from DNA template
8) Plasmid can best be described as:
a) Small, circular DNA molecules that can exist indepently of chromosomes commonly found in bacteria
b) A complex membrane structure that covers the chromosome of bacteria
c) Another name of the chloroplast
9) The name of the process in which plasmids can be eliminated from a cell is:
a) Fixing
b) Breaking
c) Curing
10) This type of plasmid can exist with or without being integrated into the host's chromosome
a) Lysogen
b) Episome
c) Medisome
11) F factor plasmids play a major in what bacterial process
a) Transduction
b) Replication
c) Conjugation
12) This type of plasmid make the host more pathogenic
a) Metabolic plasmid
b) Virulence plasmid
c) F factors
13) This type of plasmid carries genes encoding enzymes that degrade substances such as aromatic compounds,
pesticides or sugar
a) Metabolic plasmid
b) Virulence plasmid
c) F factors
14) Mobile genetic elements that carries the genes required for the integration in the host chromosome
a) Plasmids
b) Transposons
c) Replicon
15) This simplest transposable element contains inverted repeated sequences at each end and a gene encoding
transposase
a) Composite transposon
b) Insertion element
c) Virus
16) The transposase gene encodes an enzyme that
a) Facilitates general recombination
b) Facilitates viral replication within a genome
c) Facilitates site-specific integration of transposable elements
17) Composite transposons are formed when
a) An IS elements integrates into the plasmid
b) Small deletion occurs in the transposase gene of an IS element
c) Two IS elements integrate into a chromosome with only a small distance between separating the
18) Which of the following are true in regards to F+ × F- mating events?
a) DNA is transferred from F+ to F- cells
b) DNA is transferred from F- to F+ cells
c) No DNA is transferred because F- cells are unable to perform conjugation

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19) A bacterial cell that is able to take up naked DNA is said to be

a) Competent
b) Liable
c) Infected
20) The relationship between a virus and host where no new viral particles are produces and the viral genome is
replicated along the host chromosomes
a) Lysogeny
b) Lysis
c) Transformation
21) Interrupted mating experiments used to determine what information?
a) DNA nucleotide sequences
b) Level of DNA homology
c) Bacterial genome maps
22) Which of the following can be used as a tool by microbial geneticists?
a) Plasmids
b) Bacteriophage
c) Transposable elements
d) All of the above
23) In which of transduction does the transducing particle carry only specific portions of the bacterial genome?
a) General transduction
b) Abortive transduction
c) Specialized transduction
24) Recombination of virus genome occurs
a) By transformation
b) By transduction
c) When two viruses with homologous chromosomes infect a host cell simultaneously
25) These are bacterial proteins that destroy other bacteria
a) Viruses
b) Transposable elements
c) Bacteriocins
26) A replicon is
a) A DNA molecule that is able to replicate and be maintained
b) The enzyme responsible for transposition
c) A DNA molecule that encodes pili for conjugation.
Chapter # 14 Recombinant Technology
1) The deliberate modifications of an organism's genetic information by directly changing its nucleic acid content.
a) Genetic engineering
b) Population genetics
c) Microbiology
2) Enzymes that recognize and cleave specific 4 to 8 base pair sequences
a) DNA ligase
b) Helicase
c) Restriction endonucleases
3) What is the normal role of these enzymes in bacterial cells
a) To degrade the bacterial chromosome into small pieces during replication
b) To degrade invading phage DNA
c) To produce RNA primers for replication
4) Which type of restriction endonucleases cuts the DNA within the recognition site?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
5) Bacterial cells protect their own DNA from degradation by restriction endonucleases
a) By methylating the DNA at the sites that the enzyme recognizes
b) By deleting all recognition sites from the genome
c) By not producing any restriction endonucleases
6) Vectors are:
a) Molecules that degrade nucleic acids
b) Molecules that is able to covalently bond to and carry foreign DNA into cells.
c) Molecules that protect host cells from invasion by foreign DNA
7) Separation of charged molecules are based on varying rate of migration through a solid matrix when subjected to
an electric field
a) Photoreactivation
b) Gel electrophoresis
c) Autoradiography

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8) The southern blotting technique depends on

a) Similarities between the sequences of probe DNA and experimental DNA
b) The molecular mass of proteins
c) The amino acid sequence of a protein
9) A short (2-20 nucleotide) molecule
a) Plasmid
b) Vector
c) Oligonucleotide
10) A molecular technique in which the DNA sequences between two oligonucleotide primers can be amplified
a) Southern blotting
b) Northern blotting
c) Polymerase chain reaction
11) The advantage to using DNA polymerases from thermophilic organism in PCR is:
a) The DNA polymerase of these bacteria are much faster than those from other organisms
b) The DNA polymerase of these bacteria can withstand the high temperature needed to denature the DNA
strands
c) The DNA polymerase of these bacteria never make mistake while replicating DNA
12) The enzyme used to covalently bond foreign DNA to a vector plasmid
a) DNA polymerase
b) Restriction endonuclease
c) DNA ligase
13) A genomic library is:
a) A database where the sequences of an organism's genome is stored
b) Collection of many clones possessing different DNA fragments from the same organism bound to vectors
c) A book that describes how to isolate DNA from a particular organism
14) DNA that is obtained using processed mRNA molecules as a template
a) rDNA
b) mDNA
c) cDNA
15) for gen probes to be useful they must:
a) be large enough to contain gene-specific sequences
b) be labeled in some manner to allow detection
c) both of the above
16) which of the following is not commonly used as vector
a) artificial chromosome
b) Cosmid
c) fungi
17) in genetic engineering, a chimera is:
a) an enzyme that links DNA molecules
b) a plasmid that contains foreign DNA
c) a virus that infects bacteria
18) Which of the following vector can maintain the largest fragment of foreign DNA?
a) YAC
b) Cosmid
c) Plasmid
19) An animal that has gained new genetic information from the acquisition of foreign DNA
a) A chimera
b) A transgenic animal
c) A vector
20) Electroporation is:
a) The process of separating charged molecules through a gel maintained in an electric field
b) The process of combining foreign DNA to an electrically charged vector molecule
c) The process of introducing DNA into cells by the application of high voltage pulses
21) The piece of equipment that introduces DNA into cell via DNA-coated microinjectiles
a) Laser
b) DNA probe
c) Gene gun
22) Problems in obtaining large amounts of proteins encoded by recombinant genes can often be overcome by the use
of these special cloning vectors
a) BACs
b) Expression vectors
c) YACs
23) In which ways recombinant DNA technologies are playing an important role in human health
a) Help to determine the molecular causes of diseases
b) Producing the effective means to express proteins such as insulin and growth hormone
c) Both of the above

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24) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is:

a) a disease in humans that causes loss of sight
b) a bacterium that can be used to introduce DNA into plants
c) a fungi that is used to produce antibiotics in large amounts
Chapter # 15 Microbial Genomics
1) the study of molecular organization of genomes, their information content and the gene product they encode
a) genetics
b) genomics
c) ergonomics
2) which type of genomics studies are the physical nature of genomes
a) comparative genomics
b) structural genomics
c) functional genomics
3) Which type of genomics studies the transcripts and protein expressed by a genome?
4) Which type of genomics studies similarities and differences among the genomes of multiple organisms?
5) who first develop the DNA sequencing approach using di deoxy nucleoside triphosphates in DNA synthesis
a) pauling
b) Watson
c) Sanger
6) How the four different bases distinguished in automated sequencing system?
a) Each base has a different radioactive tag
b) Each base has a distinctive fluorescent tag
c) Each base has a unique antibody bound to it
7) Which bacterial was the first to be completely sequenced?
a) E. coli
b) Streptococcus pneumonia
c) Haemophilus influenza
8) The whole-genome shot gun sequencing approach depends primarily on
a) Rapidly sequencing thousands of small randomly cloned fragments
b) Methodical sequencing a few large cloned fragments of DNA
c) Sequencing the bacterial chromosome while it is still intact
9) The goal of ____ to determine the location of specific genes within the genome.
a) Cloning
b) Annotation
c) Proteomics
10) An open reading frame (ORF) is
a) The sequence of a complete genome
b) A plasmid vector used in genome sequencing
c) A possible gene predicted by DNA sequencing
11) The field that is concerned with the management and analysis of biological data using computers
a) Statics
b) Genomics
c) Bioinformatics
12) Which of the following organism has the smallest genome
a) Haemophilus influenza
b) Mycoplasma genitalium
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
13) The minimum set of genes required for life is approximately
a) 50-100 genes
b) 250-300 genes
c) 1000- 1500 genes
14) Deinococcu radiodurans is able to survive massive exposure to radiation because
a) It produces a thick shell which acts as a shield from radiation
b) It has unique DNA repair mechanism
c) It has many copies of genes encoding DNA repair
15) The genomic sequence of the obligate intracellular parasite Rickettsi prowazekii supported the theory that:
a) All bacteria evolved from viruses
b) Mitochondria have evolved from endosymbiotic bacteria

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c) Parasitic bacteria have very large genome

16) The bacterium Treponema palladium is difficult to culture because
a) It lakes the genes needed for TCA cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
b) It is unable to use carbohydrate as energy source
c) It require a great deal of water to reproduce
17) Which species of bacteria possesses 250 genes for lipid biosynthesis
a) E.Coli
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Mycoplasma genitalium
18) In the time since E.Coli and Salmonella diverged evolutionarily
a) There has been little change in either genome
b) E.Coli has lost approximately 50% of its genome
c) E.Coli has acquired may genes via horizontal transfer
19) small solid supports onto which are spotted hundreds of thousands of tiny drops of DNA that can be used to screen
gene expression
a) DNA microarray
b) Cloning library
c) Southern blot
20) Proteomics is:
a) The branch of quantum physics
b) The study of algal genomes
c) The study of the entire collection of proteins expressed by an organism
21) The first dimension of separation for two-dimensional electrophoresis is based on______
a) Molecular mass
b) Isoelectric point
c) Folding
Chapter # 16 Viruses: Introduction and General Characteristics
1) The conquest of the Azetic Empire in Mexico was made possible by an ______ epidemic that ravaged Mexico city.
a) Measles
b) Small pox
c) Rabies
d) Influenza
e) Chicken pox
2) Edward Jenner began inoculating human with material from _________ lesions.
a) Small pox
b) Avian pox
c) Cow pox
d) Chicken pox
e) Dog pox
3) Viruses require ______ for growth.
a) Plants
b) Bacteria
c) Animals
d) Living cells
e) Fungi
4) Holes produced in bacterial "lawns" by viruses are called
a) Colonies
b) Plaques
c) Patches
d) Lysis
e) Clearnance
5) Which is not true of virions?
a) Contain DNA
b) Contain RNA
c) Are extracellular
d) Reproduce independtly
e) Induce host metabolism
6) Which of the following are obligate intracellular parasites
a) Viruses
b) Chlamydia
c) Richettsia
d) All of the above
7) Plant viruses may be cultivated in

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a) Tissue culture
b) Culture of separated cells
c) Culture of protoplasts
d) Whole plant
e) All of the above
8) Viruses can be purified based on their size and density by use of
a) Gradient centrifugation
b) Differential centrifugation
c) Precipitation
d) Filtration
e) All of the above
9) Which of the following may effect proteins and nucleic acids, but NOT viruses
a) Denaturation
b) Enzyme treatment
c) Heat
d) Drastic PH changes
e) All of the above
10) The most popular indirect method of counting viruses particles is
a) Microscopically
b) By haemagglutination assay
c) By plaque assay
d) By counting plaque forming units
e) By colony counting
11) What kind of embryo is often used for viral assays?
a) Mouse
b) Rat
c) Cat
d) Dog
e) Chicken
12) Enveloped viruses have a ____ shape.
a) Icosahedral
b) Helical
c) Hexagonal
d) Roughly spherical
e) Complex
13) The most efficient way to enclose a space is within a/an
a) Sphere
b) Cube
c) Icosahedral
d) Helix
14) Usually viruses are separated into several large groups based primarily on
a) Nature of the host
b) Nucleic acid characteristics
c) Capsid symmetry
d) Presence of an envelope and either sensitivity
e) Diameter of the virion or nucleic acid
Chapter # 17 the Viruses: Bacteriophages
1) a/an ____ is specifically able to have long-tern relationship with the host known as Lysogeny
a) temperate virus
b) adsorbed virus
c) virion
d) RNA phage
e) DNA phage
2) a/an____ protein keeps the prophage dormant and prevents virus reproduction
a) operator
b) promotor
c) represser
d) inducer
e) enhancer
3) T-even phage binding to E.Coli probably involves
a) Electrostatic interaction
b) Hydrophobic interaction
c) Covalent bonds

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d) All of the above

4) A specific _____ factor helps RNA polymerase bind to late promoters and transcribe late genes
a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) Gamma
d) Delta
e) Sigma
5) A bacterial defense mechanism against bacteriophage is called
a) Concatamerization
b) Restriction
c) Polymerization
d) Lysogeny
e) Lysis
6) Which of the following is / are synthesized from late mRNA
a) Phage structural proteins
b) Proteins that helps with phage assembly without becoming part of the virion structure
c) Protein involved in cell lysis and phage release
d) All of the above
7) The pro-capsid is assembled with the aid of _________ proteins.
a) Ladder
b) Framing
c) Scaffolding
d) Form
8) The filamentous bacteriophage infect male E.Coli cells by attaching to
a) Lipopolysaccharide
b) The cell wall
c) The tip of the pilus
d) The cell membrane
e) The periplasmic space
9) When PhiX174 DNA enters the host, it is immediately copied by the bacterial DNA polymerase to from a double-
stranded DNA, which direct the synthesis of all But the following?
a) More replicative form copies
b) mRNA
c) the +DNA genome
d) the –DNA genome
e) none of the above
10) one of the first enzymes synthesized by many bacteriophage is ________ , an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
called
a) RNA replicase
b) RNA transcriptase
c) Reverse transcriptase
d) RNA polymerase
e) RNA ligase
11) The process by which phage reproduction is initiated in lysogenized culture is called
a) Infection
b) Integration
c) Repression
d) Induction
e) Enhancement
Chapter # 18 the Viruses: Viruses of Eukaryotes
1) _______ is probably the most important characteristic for classification of viruses in eukaryotes.
a) Host preference
b) Morphology
c) Physical nature of virions constituents
d) Chemical nature of virions constituents
e) Genetic relatedness
2) The ______ of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell receptor site
a) Pili
b) Fimbriae
c) Flagella
d) Hemagluttinin

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e) Neuraminidase
3) The hapadnaviruses such as hepatitis B virus are quite different from other DNA viruses with respect to genome
replication. They replicate their DNA using
a) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
b) Reverse transcriptase
c) Rnase H
d) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
e) DNA ligase
4) Viral RNA is replicated in the host cell
a) Cytoplasmic matrix
b) Nucleus
c) Wall
d) Mitochondria
e) Lysosomes
5) Virulent and nonvirulent viruses may do any of the following but NOT
a) Inhibit host cell DNA synthesis
b) Inhibit host cell RNA synthesis
c) Inhibit host cell proteins synthesis
d) Stimulate host cell macromolecule synthesis
e) Degrade host cell DNA
6) Intracellular structure formed during many viral infections, called ________, which can directly disrupt cell
structure
a) Prokaryotes
b) Chromosomal disruptions
c) Inclusion bodies
d) Cytocidal bodies
e) All of the above
7) With which of the following is virus always detectable after infections?
a) Hepatitis B virus
b) Herpes simplex virus
c) Varicella-zoster virus
d) Cytomegalo virus
e) Epstien Barr Virus
8) In cancer, the reversion of cells to a more primitive or less differentiated state is called
a) Neoplasia
b) Anaplasia
c) Metastasis
d) Oncogenic
e) All of the above
9) Which of the following has been linked to cervical cancer?
a) Epstien bar virus
b) Human T cell lymphotropic virus
c) Human immunedifficency virus
d) Human papilloma virus
e) Human herpes virus B
10) Which of the following has been linked to Kaposi's sarcoma
a) Epstien bar virus
b) Human T cell lymphotropic virus
c) Human immunedifficency virus
d) Human papilloma virus
e) Human herpes virus B
11) Which family has received most interest in their development as a biological control agent against insects?
a) Reoviridae
b) Baculoviridae
c) Iridoviridae
d) Poxviridae
e) Rhabdoviridae
12) Viroids are composed of
a) Single-stranded DNA
b) Double-stranded DNA
c) Single-stranded RNA
d) Double-stranded RNA
e) DNA and RNA
13) Which of the following is the agent associated with development of neurodegenerative disease in livestock and in
humans
a) Viroid

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b) Virions
c) Virions
d) Prions
e) Viruses
14) Eating meat from cattle with bovine spongiform encephalitis can cause a variant of _______in humans
a) Kuru
b) Fatal familial insomnia
c) Creutzfeldt-jakob disease
d) Deistmann-Straussier-Scheinker syndrome
e) Alzheimer's disease
15) More support for the "protein only" hypothesis for the prions has been supplied by studies on a prion found in
a) Humans
b) Cattle
c) Sheep
d) Yeast
e) Bacteria
Chapter # 19 Microbial Taxonomy
1) Microorganisms belongs to the same ________ would be expected to have the most characteristics in common
with each other.
a) Order
b) Species
c) Family
d) Kingdom
e) Genus
2) The Cavalier-Smith's eight kingdom system of the classification includes all the following except
a) Fungi
b) Bacteria
c) Viruses
d) Algae
e) Slime molds
3) To which kingdom do the cyanobacteria belongs
a) Fungi
b) Eubacteria
c) Protista
d) Plantae
e) Animalia
4) A unicellular heterotroph with a nucleus but possesses 70S ribosome and lack Golgi apparatus should be placed in
which kingdom?
a) Fungi
b) Eubacteria
c) Archaea
d) Chromista
e) Animallia
5) Which is not true of the name Escherichia coli
a) Escherichia is the genus to which it belongs
b) Coli is the stain to which it belongs
c) It is a scientific name
d) More characteristic have to be met to belong to the coli taxon compared to escherchia taxon
e) The name is based on binomial nomenclature
6) Which kingdom would an organism with the following characteristics most likely belong: true nucleus, non-
photosynthetic, non-motile, absorb nutrients and reproduce by forming spores?
a) Fungi
b) Eubacteria
c) Protista
d) Plantae
e) Animal
7) What is being compared during DNA hybridization studies of these bacteria
a) Rate of DNA replication
b) Mechanism of RNA synthesis from DNA
c) Ratio of nitrogenous bases to all other bases
d) Similarity of the sequences
e) Nature of 16S RNA sequences
8) Which pair of microorganism would you except to be most closely related
a) Yeasts and actinomycetes

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b) Stapylococcus and Escherichia

c) Streptococcus pyogenes type a and streptococcus pyogenes b
d) Enterobactor aerogenes and enterobactor cloacai
e) Micricoccus and staphylococcus
9) What was the first and most useful microscopic tests for classifying bacteria that is still important today
a) Gram Stain
b) Flagella Stain
c) Simple Stain
d) Negative stain for capsule
e) Metachromatic granule strain
10) Organism A has 65% G + C organism B has 35% G + C. which of the following can be concluded from these data
a) The two organisms are related
b) The two organisms are unrelated
c) The organism makes entirely different enzymes
d) Their nucleic acids will not hybridize
e) Nothing can concluded from G + C information
11) The bacterial strains A and B both have percentage GC of 51. This would indicate that they
a) Are closely related
b) Are the same species
c) Have the same habitat
d) Might be closely related
e) Would undergo genetic recombination
12) Staphaylococcus and streptococcus are not in the same family. This indicates that which of the flowing is not
sufficient to assign an organism to to a taxon?
a) Biochemical characteristics
b) Amino acid sequencing
c) Phage typing
d) Serology
e) Morphological characteristics
13) Amino acid sequencing infers information about
a) Morphology
b) Identification of an organism
c) Nucleotide bases making up a gene
d) Antigenic composition
e) Enzymatic activities
14) Biochemical tests are used to determine
a) Enzymatic activities
b) Nucleic acid base composition
c) Amino acid sequences
d) Staining characteristics
e) All of the above
15) Which kingdom would an organism with the following characteristics most likely belong: true nucleus,,
multicellular, photosynthetic, chloroplast within cytoplasmic matrix?
a) Chromsita
b) Eubacteria
c) Protozoa
d) Plantae
e) Animal
16) Which of the following is the arrangement of organisms into groups or taxa?
a) Nomenclature
b) Identification
c) Systematics
d) Classification
e) Phylogeny
17) Extensive sequential nucleotide analysis and analysis of rRNA has divided the living world into three domains
called
a) Bacteria, archaea and eukarya
b) Prokarya, eukarya and animals
c) Fungi, plants and animals
d) Archaea, eukarya and viruses
e) Bacteria, archaea and cyanobacteria
18) a/an ________ classification system arrange organisms into groups whose members shares many characteristics
and reflects as much as possible the biological nature of the organisms.
a) Artificial
b) Natural
c) Phylogenetic

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d) Molecular
e) Phrenetic
19) I. the similarity between a pair of species that has a simple matching coefficient of 0.9
Ii. The similarity between a pair of species that has a simple matching coefficient of 0.6
d) I may stand in more than of the above relations to II
20) I. degree of similarity of base sequences between species A and B when A has G + C content of 44
ii. Degree of similarity of base sequences between species A and B when B has G + C contents of 44
21) A ______ is a diagram usually placed on its side with the X-axis graduated in units of similarity
a) Similarity matrix
b) Simple matching coefficient
c) Dendogram
d) Profile number
e) Harvard matrix transformation
22) All of the following are the examples of morphological features used for classification and identification of
prokaryotes except
a) Staining behavior
b) Colonial shape and color
c) Endospore morphology and location
d) Cell shape
e) Fermentation products
23) All of the following are examples of physical and metabolic characteristics used for classification and
identification of prokaryotes except
a) Oxygen relationship
b) Staining behavior
c) Luminescence
d) Cell wall consituents
e) Fermentation products
24) Molecular chronometer is used on the concept that nucleic acid and amino acid sequences
i. Of similar molecules are quite different in two groups of organisms indicating a recent divergence
between the groups
ii. Changes over time without destroying their function because changes are neutral
25) An oligonucleotide signature sequence is a set of nucleotide sequences that
i. Occur in large number of phylogenetic groups
ii. Occurs in most or all members of a particular phylogenetic groups
26) Even though the two domains are prokaryotic, the archaea domain differs from the bacteria domain in that the
archaea
I. Lack muramic acid in their cell walls
II. Possess membrane lipids with either-linked branched aliphatic chains
27) The whittaker five kingdom system of classification divides living organisms in which of the following kingdoms
a) Archea, bacteria, fungi, plantae, animals
b) Monera, Protista, plants, animals, fungi
c) Monera, archea, Protista, animals, fungi
d) Monera, Protista, plants, animals, archaea
e) Viruses, Protista, plants, animals, fungi

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28) All of the following are useful to characterize prokaryotic organisms for first edition of bergey's manual of
systemic bacteriology except
a) Gram staining properties
b) Presence of endospores
c) Oxygen relationship
d) Phylogenetic information
e) Motility
Chapter # 20 The Archaea
1) Archaea live in some restricted or specialized habitats, such as

a) Anaerobic
b) Hyper saline
c) Extremely hot
d) Extremely cold
e) All of these
2) Methanogenic bacteria are Archaea that are
a) Strict anaerobe that obtain energy through the synthesis of methane
b) Strict anaerobes that obtain energy through the consumption of methane
c) Strict aerobes that obtain energy through the synthesis of methane
3) The Archaea lack which of the following that are normally found in gram negative bacteria
a) Outer membrane
b) A complex peptidoglycan network
c) They lack the outer membrane and a complex peptidoglycan network
d) They lack neither outer membrane nor a complex peptidoglycan network
4) Which of the following is currently the largest group of Archaea
a) Extreme halophiles
b) Methanogens
c) Extreme thermophile
d) Sulfate reducers
5) Methanogens are potentially of great importance because
a) The produce methane
b) The consume methane
c) Methane is excellent energy source
d) Both a and c
6) Archaea may constitute up to ______% of prokaryotic biomass in Antarctic surface waters
a) 23
b) 28
c) 34
d) 43
7) Which of the following have been suggested to be among the first living organisms to have developed?
a) Methanococcus
b) Methanopyrales
c) Methylococcus
d) None of the above is correct
8) Extreme halophiles are found in
a) Animal intestine
b) Salt lakes
c) The Antarctic ice mass
Chapter # 21 Bacteria: The Deinococci and Nonproteobacteria Gram Negatives
1) The Deinococci are gram-positive cocci and rods that are distinctive in their usually great resistance to
a) Radiation
b) Desiccation
c) Radiation and desiccation
d) Extreme temperatures
2) Which of the following is not a group of photosynthetic bacteria
a) The green bacteria
b) The purple bacteria
c) The cyanobacteria
d) All of these are groups of photosynthetic bacteria
3) The infectious stage of chlamydia is called a ____ body
a) Elementary
b) Reticulate
c) Contagious
d) Oogonal

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4) Cyanobacteria are prokaryotes which carry out oxygenic photosynthesis like eukaryotes in that they:
a) Use water as their electron sources
b) Produce oxygen as a by-product of photosynthesis
c) Both of these answers are correct
d) Neither of these answers are correct
5) Cyanobacteria have
a) Are gram-negative cell wall
b) Are gram-positive cell wall
c) An unique cell wall that is neither gram negative or gram positive
d) No cell wall
6) Some bacterial groups, such as the ______ are deeply branched and very cold
a) Hyper thermophiles, thermotoga and Aquifex
b) Cyanobacteria
c) Spirochetes
7) Bacteroids constitute as much such as _____ % of the bacteria isolated from human feces.
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
8) Cyanobacteria are frequently the photosynthetic partner in ______ associations
a) Mycorrhizal
b) Rhizobial
c) Lichen
9) The spirochetes include the causative agents for
a) Syphilis
b) Lyme disease
c) Both syphilis and Lyme disease
d) Neither syphilis nor Lyme disease
10) The bacteriochlorophylls pigments of purple and green bacteria enable them to live
a) Saline environments
b) Deeper, anaerobic zones of aquatic habitats.
c) Shallow, warm aquatic habitats.
Chapter # 22 the Proteobacteria
1) Proteobacteria are gram-negative bacteria of considerable important as

a) Disease agents
b) Nitrogen fixer
c) Major experimental organisms
d) All of these
2) Which of the following genera grow symbiotically within the root nodules of legumes as nitrogen-fixing
Bacteroids?
a) Agrobacterium
b) Rhizobium
c) Pseudomonas
d) Bacteroids
3) Mineralization refers to
a) The breakdown of the organic materials to inorganic materials
b) The release of various minerals from ores
c) The utilization of minerals as energy source
d) The incorporation of inorganic material into organic materials
4) Pseudomonas are a large group of bacteria which can
a) Spoil refrigerated food
b) Cause disease
c) Photosynthesis
d) A and b
e) A and c
5) Rickettsia rickettsia is responsible for
a) Q-fever
b) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
c) Lyme disease
d) Typhoid fever
6) Helicobacter pylori is responsible
a) Gasterioentertitis
b) Cholera
c) Bacterial dysentery

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d) Peptic ulcer disease

7) Whooping cough is caused by
a) Klebsiella pneumonia
b) Vibrio parahaeminfluenza
c) Brodetella perteusis
d) Yersinia pestis
8) In which of the following regions in the host bacterium are you most likely to find Bdellovibrio?
a) The cytoplasm
b) The nucleoid
c) The space between the plasma membrane and the cell wall
d) The space within flagella
9) Hyphomicrobium may constitute as such as ______ of the total bacterial population in oligotropic (nutrient poor)
fresh water habitats.
a) 10
b) 25
c) 40
d) 60
10) Bacteria that are capable of bioluminescence have been found in which of the following genera?
a) Vibrio
b) Photobacterium
c) Vibrio and photobacterium
d) Neither vibrio nor photobacterum
11) Which of the following is true of agrobacterium tumefaciens?
a) It is not capable of nitrogen fixation
b) It causes crown gall disease when it carries tumor inducing plasmid
c) It has been used to introduce forigein DNA into plant cells
d) All of the above
12) Which of the following genera fix nitrogen nonsymbiotically?
a) Rhizobium
b) Nitromonas
c) Nitrobacter
d) Azotobacter
13) The causative agent for cholera in humans is a member of the genus
a) Escherichia
b) Vibrio
c) Enterobacter
d) Shigella
Chapter # 23 the low G + C Gram Positives
1) The low G + C gram-positive group contains

a) Clostridia, bacilli and lactobacilli
b) Clostridia and relatives only
c) Bacilli and lactobacilli only
2) Staphylococcus grows on/in the _______ of warm blooded animals.
a) Skin and mucous membrane
b) Teeth
c) Large intestine
3) Thermoactinomyces vulgaris is a causative agent for
a) Cystic fibrosis
b) Farmer's lung disease
c) Primary atypical pneumonia
d) Vaginalis
4) Which of the following is a normal skin resident?
a) Staphylococcus epidermis
b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Thermoactinomyces vulgaris
5) Which of the following is responsible for food spoilage even in canned foods?
a) Clostridium perfringens
b) Clostridium botulinum
c) Clostridium tetani
6) Which of the following is associated with dental caries?
a) Streptococcus pneumonia
b) Streptococcus mutans
c) Lactococcus lactis
d) Staphyalococcus aureus

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7) Which of the following is used in the production buttermilk and cheese

a) Streptococcus mutans
b) Streptococcus faecelis
c) Lactococcus lactis
8) Which of the following is true of the genus lactobacillus?
a) They are used in the production of fermented vegetable foods, beverages, sourdough, hard cheeses, yogurt
and sausages.
b) They are responsible for the spoilage of beer, milk, and meat
c) Many species are pathogenic in humans
d) All of these are true about the genus lactobacillus
e) Only a and b are true
9) Members of the genus lactobacillus are normal micro flora of the
a) Mouth
b) Skin
c) Hair
d) All of the above
10) Which of the following genera produce useful antibiotics?
a) Clostridium
b) Leuconostic
c) Bacillus
d) All of the above
11) Spore-forming bacteria are found mainly in
a) Freshwater environments
b) Marine environments
c) Soil environments
Chapter # 24 the High G + C Gram Positives
1) Actinomycetes are usually found in ______

a) Soil
b) Fresh water
c) Marine
d) All of these
2) Actinomycetes form
a) Substrate mycelia
b) Aerial mycelia
c) Both of the above
3) Actinomycetes form spores that
a) Asexual
b) Are used for sexual reproduction
c) Both sexual and asexual
d) They don’t form spores
4) The spreptomycetes represent _______of the viable organisms in the soil.
a) 50%
b) 10%
c) 1-20%
d) 1-10%
5) Diphtheria is caused by a member of which of the following genera?
a) Mycobacterium
b) Corynbacterium
c) Streptomyces
Chapter # 25 the Fungi (Eumycota), Slime Molds, and Water Molds
1) Fungi
a) Are photosynthetic
b) Are prokaryotic cells
c) Have cell walls of peptidoglycan
d) Secrete extracellular enzymes to break down nutrients
e) Reproduce by binary fission
2) The most significant reason why fungi are not in the kingdom Plantae is that fungi
a) Are chemoorganotrophic heterotrophs
b) Have unicellular and multicellular forms
c) Are prokaryotes
d) Are eukaryotes
e) Can survive in low moister
3) Which of the following structures would NOT be associated with fungi

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a) Mitochondria
b) Cell walls
c) Chloroplasts
d) Hyphae
e) Spores
4) A mycologist studying an organism that has all the following EXCEPT
a) Cell wall with chitin
b) Asexual spores
c) Absorptive nutrition
d) Ascospores, basidiospores, or zygospores
e) A nucleus
Match the fungus characteristic with the type of fungus
5) ________ produce basidiospores

a) Slime molds
b) Dimorphic fungi
c) Club fungi
d) Black break molds
e) Sac fungi
f) Water molds
6) ________ produce ascospores in an ascus
a) Slime molds
b) Dimorphic fungi
c) Club fungi
e) Sac fungi
f) Water molds
7) _______ produce motile sexual and asexual spores.
a) Slime molds
b) Dimorphic fungi
c) Club fungi
e) Sac fungi
f) Water molds
8) _______ produces zygospores
a) Slime molds
b) Dimorphic fungi
c) Club fungi
e) Sac fungi
f) Water molds
9) _______ exhibit yeast-like growth at human body temperature and mold-like growth at room temperature
a) Slime molds
b) Dimorphic fungi
c) Club fungi
e) Sac fungi
f) Water molds
Use the following choices to answer the following question(S):
1- Arthrospore 5- Chlamydospore
2- Ascospore 6- Conidiospore
3- Basidiospore 7- Sporangiospore
4- Blastospore 8- Zygospore
10) Which of these spores are characteristic of the black bread mold Rhizopus?
a) 1 and 2
b) 6 and 7
c) 2 and 8
d) 1 and 4
e) 7 and 8
11) Which spore is on a club and results from the fusion of the two nuclei from different strains of the same fungi?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6

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e) 8
12) Which of these spores are asexual spores?
a) 1,4,5,6,7
b) 2,3,6,8
c) 1,3,5,8
d) 2,4,6,7,8
e) All of the spores listed above
13) Nutritionally, fungi may best be characterized as
a) Photosynthetic autotrophs
b) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
c) Absorptive heterotrophs
d) Ingestive heterotrophs
e) Obligate anaerobes
14) Fungi are important in the production of the following commercial products except
a) Bread
b) Beer
c) Cheese
d) Rubber
e) Antibiotics
For next 5 items each item lists two categories numbered I and II. Select the answers from the following key
15) I II
Heterotrophic organism fungi
a) All members of I are also members of II, but not all members of II are members of I
b) All members of II are also members of I, but not all members of I are members of II
c) All members of I are members of II, and all members of II are members of I
d) No member of I is also a member of II
are not.
16) I II
Organisms with septate hyphae gilled mushrooms
are not.
17) I II
Sac fungus chemolithotophic autotroph
are not.
18) I II
Deuteromycota produces spores sexually
are not.
19) I II
Organisms with chitin cell walls oomycota
are not.
20) The bread mold rhizopus stolonifer belongs to which of the following fungal divisions
a) Ascomycota
b) Basidiomycota
c) Deuteromycota

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d) Oomycota
e) Zygomycota
21) The fungus responsible for ergotism belongs to which of the following division
a) Ascomycota
b) Basidiomycota
c) Deuteromycota
d) Oomycota
e) Zygomycota
22) Ergotism is responsible for all of the following except
a) Hallucination
b) Irish potato famine
c) St. Anthony's Fire
d) Gangrene
e) Nerves spasm
23) Ascospores located in asci are found in
a) Condiocrps
b) Sorocarps
c) Basidiocarps
d) Ascocarps
e) Plasmmodiocarps
24) The fruiting body of mushroom is called
a) Conidiocarps
b) Sorocarps
c) Basidiocarps
d) Ascocarps
e) Plamodiocarps
25) Which of the following divisions of fungi produce unflagellated zoospores?
a) Ascomycota
b) Baidiomycota
c) Chytridiomycota
d) Oomycota
e) Zygomycota
26) Water molds belong to which of the following
a) Ascomycota
b) Basidiomycota
c) Chytridiomycota
d) Oomycota
e) Zygomycota
27) The organism that starts out as amoeboid, phagocytic cell and converts to a sluglike pseudoplasmodium which
migrates prior to development of a sorocarp belongs to which division?
a) Ascomycota
b) Basidiomycota
c) Chyritidiomycota
d) Myxomycota
e) Oomycota
28) Ecologically fungi are important because
i. They acts a decomposer and aid in nutrient cycling
iii. Are major cause of plant disease
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
29) Saprophytic fungi
i. Engulf their food in order to break it down
j. Secure their food from dead organic material
a) I only is true
b) J only is true
c) Both I and J are true
d) Neither I nor J are true
30) Slime mold differs from the moldy fungi
i. In their mode of nutrition: phagocytosis for the slime molds; absortive heterotoph for moldy fungi
j. In that the moldy fungi produce ameobiod or flagellated cells and the slime mold don’t
a) I only is true
b) J only is true
d) Neither I nor j are true

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31) The ascrasiomycota differ from the myxomycota

i. In their mode of nutrition: phagocytosis for thee ascrasiomycota; absorptive heterotroph for myxomycota
j. In their cellular organization: ascrasiomycota have a pseudoplasmodum where the myxomycota have a true
plasmodium
a) I only is true
b) J only is true
32) Fungi
i. Are major cause of plant diseases
j. Are pest organisms that have no commercial value
a) I only is true
b) J only is true
Compare the following entities
33) i. the number of nuclei per cell in a diakaryotic cell

k. the number of nuclei per cell in a diploid cell
a) I is greater than k
b) K is greater than i
c) I is exactly or approximately equal to k
d) I may stand in more than one of the above relation to k
34) i. the number of chromosmomes in daikaryotic cell
k. the number of chromosomes in diploid cell
35) i. the amount of chitin in the cell walls of slime mold plasmodium
k. the amount of chitin in the cell walls of the water mold mycelium
36) i. the amount of phagocytosis done by the slime mold plasmodium
k. the amount of phagocytosis done by the water mold mycelium
37) i. the amount of peptidoglycan in the cell walls of mushroom
j. the amount of chitin in the cell walls of mushroom
a) I is greater than j
b) J is greater than I
c) I is exactly or approximately equal to j
d) I may stand in more than one of the above relation to j
Chapter # 26 the Algae
Select your answer based on their relationship
1) i. photolithotrophic autotrophs
k. algae
a) all members of I are also members of k but not all members of k are members of i
b) all members of k are also members of I but not all members of I are members of k
c) all members of I are members of k, and all members of k are members of i
d) no member of I is member of k
e) some members of I are members of k and some are not, and some members of k are members of I and some
are not
2) i. produce motile cells
l. rhodophyta
b) all members of k are also members of I but no all members of I are members of k
d) no member of I is member of k

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e) some members of I are members of k and some are not, and some members of k are members of I and some
are not
3) i. algae
j. possess chlorophyll
a) all members of I are also members of k but not all members of k are members of I
d) no member of I is member of k some members of I are members of k and some are not, and some members of
k are members of I and some are not
4) i. phaeophyta
l. marine algae
a) all members of I are also members of k but not all members of k are members of I
5) i. bioluminescent organisms
l. pyrrophyta
6) Which algal division never produces motile, flagellated cells among any of its member?
a) Chlorophyta
b) Chrysophyta
c) Phaeophyta
d) Pyrrophyta
e) Rhodophyta
7) Zooxanthellae are algal symbionts that live within coral reef animals. These algae belong to which algal division
a) Chlorophyta
b) Chrysophyta
c) Phaeophyta
d) Pyrrophyta
e) Rhodophyta
8) Bioluminescence is a phenomenon associated with which algal division
a) Chlorophyta
b) Chrysophyta
c) Phaeophyta
d) Pyrrophyta
e) Rhodophyta
9) Agar, which is solidifying agent in many bacterial culture media, is part of the cell wall of which algal division
a) Chlorophyta
b) Chrysophyta
c) Phaeophyta
d) Pyrrophyta
e) Rhodophyta
10) Floridian starch is an energy storage material characteristic of which algal division
a) Chlorophyta
b) Chrysophyta
c) Phaeophyta
d) Pyrrophyta
e) Rhodophyta
11) Laminarin is an energy storage material characteristic of which algal division
a) Chlorophyta
b) Chrysophyta
c) Phaeophyta
d) Pyrrophyta
e) Rhodophyta
12) Algae are found in all of the following places except
a) Oceans
b) Soils
c) Lakes and streams
d) Association with fungi
e) Are found in all the above spaces
13) Characteristics used to place algae into divisions include all of the following except

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a) Cell wall chemistry and morphology

b) Form of storage material
c) Flagella number and location
d) Accessor pigments used in photosynthesis
e) All of the above
14) The ____ is the vegetative body of algae
a) Mycelium
b) Plasmodium
c) Pseudoplasmodum
d) Thallus
e) Gametophyte
15) Which of the following algal division is characterized by possession of chlorophyll a and b, starch as the energy
storage material, cellulosic cell walls and live in fresh water and marine water habitats
a) Chlorophyta
b) Chrysophyta
c) Phaeophyta
d) Pyrrophyta
e) Rhodophyta
16) Which of the following algal division is characterized by possession chlorophyll a and b, paramylon as the energy
storage material, and the presence of a pellicle instead of cell wall
a) Chlorophyta
b) Chrysophyta
c) Phaeophyta
d) Pyrrophyta
e) Rhodophyta
17) Which algal division is divided up into three main groups consisting of golden-brown algae, the yellow-green algae
and the diatoms
a) Chlorophyta
b) Chrysophyta
c) Phaeophyta
d) Pyrrophyta
e) Rhodophyta
18) Chrysolaminarin is an energy storage material characteristic of which algal division
a) Chlorophyta
b) Chrysophyta
c) Phaeophyta
d) Pyrrophyta
e) Rhodophyta
19) Frustules made of silica are characteristic of which group of algae
a) Euglenoids
b) Diatoms
c) Desmids
d) Seaweeds
e) Kelp
20) The kelp is algae found in which algal divison?
a) Chlorophyta
b) Chrysophyta
c) Phaeophyta
d) Pyrrophyta
e) Rhodophyta
Compare the entities (I and II)
21) I the number of flagella produce by motile cells in the members of Rhodopyta
II the numbers of flagella produce by motile cells in the members of Phaeophyta
a. I is greater than II
b. II is greater than I
c. I is exactly or approximately equal to II
d. I may stand more than one of the above relation to II
22) I the number of flagella produce by motile cells in the members of Phaeophyta
II the number of flagella produce by motile cells it the members of the oomycota
23) I the number of the members of the division phaeophyta that live in fresh water habitats

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II the number of the members of the division chlorophyta that live in fresh water habitats
24) I the ability of the members of the division chrysophyta to produce silica cell walls
II the ability of the members of the division Euglenophyta to produce silica cell walls
Compare the validity of the two statements
25) Algae is non-valid taxonomic term that refers to

I eukaryotic organisms that have chlorophyll and produce oxygen
II well developed cellular structure inducing a conducting system
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
26) Stromtopiles and alveolates have recently been created because of
I results of rRNA comparisons
II ultrastructural observation on the mitochondria
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
27) All stromatopiles
I are photosynthetic
II have hallow hairs on their flagella
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
28) All algae possess
I nuclei
II chloroplast
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
29) Sexual reproduction in algae involves the production of
I male sperm in oogonium
II female egg in antheridium
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
30) Chlamydomonas and volvox
I they both are motile
II members of chlorophyta
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
Chapter # 27 the protozoa
Select the answer based on their relations
1) I Chemoorganotrophic heterotrophic
II protozoa
a) all members of I are also members of k but not all members of k are members of II
b) all members of II are also members of I but not all members of I are members of II
c) all members of I are members of II, and all members of II are members of i
d) no member of I is member of II

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e) some members of I are members of II and some are not, and some members of II are members of I and some are
not
2) I protozoa
II produce oxygen
b) all members of II are also members of I but no all members of I are members of II
not
3) I planktonic organisms
II protozoa
not
4) I protozoa
II ciliate organisms
e) some members of I are members of II and some are not, and some members of II are members of I and some
are not
5) I protozoa
II parasitic organisms
are not
6) A protozoan is defined as a usually
a) motile prokaryotic unicellular protest
b) motile eukaryotic unicellular portist
c) motile eukaryotic unicellular photosynthetic protest
d) motile eukaryotic multicellular protest
e) non motile eukaryotic unicellular protest
7) Protozoa have several types of vacuoles. Which of the following describes the function of a contractile vacuole?
a) Sites of food deposition
b) Contain specific enzymes that perform various functions
c) Maintain osmatic balance by continuous water expulsion
d) Structure that accepts male gametes during sexual reproduction
e) Sites for photosynthesis
8) Protozoa have several types of vacuoles. Which of the following describes the function of a phagocytic vacuole?
9) Protozoa have several types of vacuoles. Which of the following describes the function of a secretory vacuole?
10) Holozoic nutrition is characterized by
a) Phagocytosis of solid nutrients and subsequent formation of phagocytic vacuoles.
b) Pinocytosis of solid nutrients and subsequent formation of phagocytic vacuoles
c) Phagocytosis of soluble nutrients and subsequent formation of phagocytic vacuole
d) Encysment of solid nutrients and subsequent formation of phagocytic vacuole
e) Photosynthesis
11) Saprozoic nutrition is characteristics by
a) Phagocytosis of solid nutrients and subsequent formation of phagocytic vacuoles.

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b) Pinocytosis of solid nutrients and subsequent formation of phagocytic vacuoles

c) Phagocytosis of soluble nutrients and subsequent formation of phagocytic vacuole
d) Encysment of solid nutrients and subsequent formation of phagocytic vacuole
e) Photosynthesis
12) Which of the following is not function of cysts for protozoa
a) Protect against adhesive environment
b) Site for nuclear organization and cell division
c) Serves as a mean of transfer between host and parasitic species
d) All of the above may be a function of cyst for protozoa
e) None of the above may be a function of cyst for protozoa
13) Members of protozoa may motile by all the following methods except
a) Pseudopodia
b) Flagella
c) Gliding by slime secretion
d) Cilia
14) The most common method of asexual reproduction in the protozoa is by
a) Conjugation
b) Gametangial contact
c) Coidiospore production
d) Binary fission
e) Binary fusion
15) The most common method of sexual reproduction in the protozoa is by
a) Conjugation
b) Gametangila contact
c) Conidiospore production
d) Binary fission
e) Binary fusion
16) At time where two cells contact and their pellicles fuse, the macro nuclei are degraded. The micronuclei divide by
meiosis but only the haploid nucleus form each micronucleus survives and ultimately divides by mitosis, one
nucleus being stationary and the other migratory. The cells exchange migratory nuclei which fuse, undergo mitosis
three times; four of the resulting nuclei fuse to become the macronucleus and one of the remaining 4 remains
viable as a micronucleus. The cells separate. This description characterizes
a) Encystation
b) Schizogony
c) Binary fission
d) Excystation
e) Conjugation
17) Organisms with amoeboid cells that move within a network of mucous tracks using a typical gliding motion
belong to which phylum of protozoa?
a) Sacromastigphora
b) Labyinthomorpha
c) Apicomplexa
d) Mycxozoa
e) Ciliophora
18) An organism which has spore-forming state in their life cycle and lack special locomatory organelle belongs to
which phylum of protozoa?
a) Sacromastigphora
b) Labyinthomorpha
c) Apicomplexa
d) Mycxozoa
e) Ciliophora
19) Organisms are parasitic and have resistant spores with one to six coiled polar filaments belong to which phylum of
protozoa?
a) Sacromastigphora
b) Labyinthomorpha
c) Apicomplexa
d) Mycxozoa
e) Ciliophora
20) Members of which phylum of protozoa are being studied as biological control agents for certain insects because
the parasitize insects?
a) Sacromastigphora
b) Microspore
c) Apicomplexa
d) Mycxozoa
e) Ciliophora

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21) Organisms with complex life cycles which include a mammalian host and an insect host and involve schizogony as
part of the cycle belongs to which phylum of protozoa?
a) Sacromastigphora
b) Labyinthomorpha
c) Apicomplexa
d) Mycxozoa
e) Ciliophora
Compare entities I and II
22) Number of motility structures on

I flagellated cells
II ciliated cells
d) I may stand more than on the above relations to II
23) The number of nuclear divisions in a ciliate undergoing
I binary fission
II conjugation
24) The length of
I flagella in flagellates
II cilia in ciliates
25) The importance of protozoa as
I planktonic organisms in aquatic food webs
II cause of human and animal disease
26) In protozoa that have macronuclei and micronuclei the

I – macronucleus is diploid and involed in both genetic recombination and regeneration of micronuclei
II- micronuclei are associated with tropical activities and regeneration processes
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
27) Protozoa lack cell wall but possess a pellicle the
I – outer part of the pellicle is ectoplasm that is semisolid giving some rigidity to the cell body
II – indo part of the pellicle is endoplasm which is more fluid and granular in composition and contains the cell
organelle
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
28) Most anaerobic protozoa
I – have no mitochondria
II – can form hydrogen gas
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
29) Sacromastigophora include
I – zooflagellates
II- amoeboid cells
a) I only is true

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b) II only is true
30) Ciliates
I – are unable to capture many particles in blood in a short time so feed primarily by absorbing nutrients directly
through the pellicle
II – use the cytoproct to dump waste material to the outside of the cell
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
Chapter # 28 Microorganism Interaction and Microbial Ecology
1) Which of the following statement is true?

a) Symbiosis refers to different organisms live together
b) Members of symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.
c) Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting each other
d) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host
2) The reservoir of nitrogen is
a) The atmosphere
b) Rocks
c) Ammonia
d) Nitrate
e) Amino acids
3) Higher plants most often absorb nitrogen from soil in the form of
a) N2
b) Nitrites
c) Ammonia
d) Nitrates
e) Amino acids
4) All of the following are examples of negative symbiosis except
a) Amensalism
b) Completion
c) Predation
d) Commensalism
e) Parasitism
5) In its broadest sense _____ is the association of two or more different species of organisms
a) Symbiosis
b) Population
c) Mutation
d) Parasitism
e) Organogenesis
6) An obligatory association between two different species that is beneficial to both population of organisms is
a) Parasitic
b) Protocooperation
c) Predatory
d) Symbiotic
e) Mutualistic
7) All of the following are examples of mutualistic relationships except
a) Protozoan-termite interaction
b) Algal-fungal interaction in lichens
c) Zooxanthelae and corals in coral reefs
d) Red gutless tube worms of thermal vents and sulfur oxidizing bacteria of thermal vents
e) Legionella infection of a lung
8) The function of ruminant organisms is to
a) Digest cellulosic materials into organic acids which can be used as energy source
b) Construct cellulose from organic acid and use the cellulose as energy source
c) Produce methane gas and increase global warming
d) Reduce carbon to water and carbon dioxide
e) None of the above because there are no such things as ruminant organisms
9) Understanding ruminant ecology is important because ruminant organism like ______ obtain much of their
energetic needs by digesting cellulose into organic acids
a) Dog
b) Cat
c) Bear

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d) Sheep
e) Ducks
10) In a rumen the largest percentage of each carbohydrate metabolized into _______
a) CO2
b) Volatile fatty acids
c) Organic acids of the kerb's cycle
d) Nuclic acid
e) O2
11) Interspecies hydrogen transfer as occur between Methanosprillium and Syntrophobacter is an example of
a) Completion
b) Syntrophsim
c) Oxidation
d) Fixation
e) Carboxylation
12) A non-obligatory association between two different species that is beneficial to both population of organism is
a) Parasitic
b) Protocoperative
c) Predatory
d) Symbiotic
e) Mutualistic
13) Which of the following is/are examples of Protocoperative
a) Desulfovibrio and Chromatium
b) The pompeli worm and sulfur-oxidizing bacteria
c) Shrimp Rimicaris exocalata and filamentous sulfur-oxidizing bacteria
d) Nematode Eubostrichus parasitiferus and sufur-oxidizing bacteria
e) All of the above
14) An association in which one population of organisms benefits while the other is neither harmed nor helped is
called a(n) _____ association
a) Parasitic
b) Protocooperative
c) Commenalistic
d) Symbiotic
e) Mutualistic
15) Nitromonas and Nitrobactor interacts in the nitrogen cycle here Nitrosomonas oxidizes ammonium ions to nitrite
and Nitrobacter oxidizes nitrite to nitrate is an example of
a) Parasitism
b) Protocooperative
c) Commensalism
d) Syntrophsim
e) Mutualism
16) Which of the following association is characterize by some degree of coexistence whereby one organism benefits
at the expense of other
a) Predation
b) Protocooperation
c) Commensalism
d) Parasitism
e) Mutualism
17) _____ describes the negative effect that one organism has on other organism because of release of specific
compound that determentally effects the second organism
a) Amensalism
b) Protocooperation
c) Commensalism
d) Parasitism
e) Mutualism
18) In leaf cutter ant colonies a streptomycete bacterium produces an antibiotic that controls Escovopis, a persistent
fungus that can destroy the ant's fungal garden. This is an example of
a) Mutualism
b) Syntrophism
c) Commensalism
d) Amensalism
e) Protocooperation
19) ______ is the process in which organic matter is decomposed to release simpler, inorganic compunds
a) Ammonification
b) Nitrogen fixation
c) Mineralization
d) Immobilization

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e) Nitrification
20) I – the amount of energy required for ammonia oxidation to nitrite.

II – the amount of energy required for nitrogen fixation
21) I- the amount of reduction potential required for nitrate assimilation
II – the amount of reduction potential required for nitrification
22) I – the use of manganese in magnetosomes by magneto-aerotactic bacteria
II – the use of iron in magnetosomes by magneto-aerotactic bacteria
23) The Mad Hatter of Lewis carroll's Alice in Wonderland and the people surrounding japan's Minamata Bay are
linked by toxicity to which element?
a) Magenese
b) Magnesium
c) Mercury
d) Molybedium
e) Iron
24) Ruminant organisms include

I – obligate aerobes
II – anaerobic fungi
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
25) Predatory bacteria
I – don’t exist because bacteria are too small
II – have to be large than their prey
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
26) Example of predatory organism include
I – bacteria
II – fungi
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
27) Biodegradation of lignin is
I – is very likely to occur when wooden pilings are sunk into ground below water tables
II – depends on oxygen availability
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
28) Microorganism play a significance in cycling nutrients in the
I – sulfur cycle
II – iron cycle
a) I only is true
b) II only is true

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29) The amount of the mercury per gram of tissue in Japan's Minamata Bay in
I – phytoplanktonic organism
II – herbivorous organism
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
30) I – parasitic organisms
II – Bacteria
are not
31) I – nitrogen fixing organisms
II – symbiotic bacteria
are not
Chapter # 29 Microorganism in Aquatic environment
1) all of the following are true about releasing untreated sewage into river except
a) it is a health hazard
b) in increases the BOD
c) it decreases the dissolved oxygen
d) it kills bacteria
Match the types of wastewater treatment
2) removal of solids
a) primary treatment
b) secondary treatment
c) tertiary treatment
d) none of these
3) activated sludge
d) none of these
4) chemical precipitation of phosphorus
d) none of these
5) trickling filter
d) none of these
6) routinely results in drinking water
d) none of these
7) removal of solids group I = primary treatment process
a) a reaction of I but not II group II = secondary treatment process
b) a reaction of II but not I
c) a reaction of both I and II
d) don’t a reaction of either I or II but necessary if either I or II or both are to occur
e) not a reaction of either I or II but occurs as a results of I or II or Both
8) aerobic digestion of dissolved organic materials

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a) a reaction of I but not II

9) gravitational separation
10) incorporation of dissolved phosphates into algae
11) anaerobic sludge digestion
12) removal of stones and sand
13) ______ is an environment like ____ where microorganisms are functionally in an extremely thin film of water and
where oxygen containing air is closed to them
a) Low oxygen diffusion environment; soils
b) High oxygen diffusion environment; soils
c) Low oxygen diffusion environment; lakes
d) High oxygen diffusion environment; lakes
14) Members of all of the following genera of bacteria typically found in a maturing winogradsky column except
a) Clostridium
b) Rhodospirillum
c) Chlorobium
d) Desulfovibrio
e) Eschercia
15) The redfield ratio is an index of concentration of
a) Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
b) Nitrogen, potassium and iron
c) Carbon, nitrogen and sulfur
d) Carbon, nitrogen and phosphors
e) Carbon, phosphors and sulfur
16) Metabolism of dissolved organic material released by phytoplankton allows heterotrophic bacteria to become part
of the particulate organic matter that is passed up the food web to metabolized and released as mineral element and
carbon dioxide at each transfer. This sentence describe the
a) Microbial loop
b) Winogradsky column
c) Redfield ratio
d) Sheffield law
e) Gibbs free energy
17) All of the following species are considered coliforms except
a) Enterobacter aerogenes
b) Klebsiella pneumonia
c) Salmonella Typhi
d) Escherichia coli
18) Fecal coliform differ from coliform by virtue of
a) The ability of the coliform to ferment lactose within 48 hours and coliform cannot
b) Fact that fecal coliforms are Gram Positive rods and coliform are Gram Negative rods
c) Are derived from warm blooded animals and can grow at 44,5 0C.
d) Fact that fecal coliform are facultatively anaerobic whereas coliforms are obligate anaerobes

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19) Because it can be used with a variety of media and allow a resuscitation step the ____ technique has become the
common and often preferred method of evaluating the microbiological characteristics of water
a) Most probable number
b) P-A
c) MUG
d) Membrane filtration
e) Winogradsky
20) I – the rate of flux of oxygen in air

II – the rate of flux of oxygen in water
21) I – the solubility of oxygen at 25 oC
II – the solubility of oxygen at 15 oC
22) I - Loss of carbon through the microbial loop in oligotrophic environment
II – loss of carbon through the microbial loop in copitrophic environment
23) I – the amount of oxygen dissolved in hypolimnion water in the winter
II – the amount of oxygen dissolved in hypolimnion water in the summer
24) I – the BOD of wastewater after tertiary stage in treatment
II – the BOD of wastewater after primary stage in treatment
Compare
25) I – ultramicrobacteria
II – algae
are not,
26) I – hyphomycetes
II – Fungi
are not,
27) I – anoxic zones of aquatic environments develop; oxygen can be used by aerobic microbes faster than it can be
replenished
II – anoxic zones of aquatic environments develop; oxygen diffuses slowly in aquatic environment
a) I only is true
b) II only is true

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28) I – a winogradsky column is used to filter out microorganisms from a water simple taken from a deep black
smoker
II – a winogradsky column is used to demonstrate interaction and gradients that occur in aquatic environments
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
29) I – Ultra microbacteria or nanobacteria are the dominant bacteria in marine systems
II – ultra microbacteria or nanobacteria are so numerous that they are a major source for heterotrophic flagellates
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
30) The "sulfur pearl of Namibia ,"Thiomargarita namibiensis,
I – is the world's largest bacterium
II – stores high concentration of nitrate in a huge internal vacuole which takes up 98% of the organism vacuole
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
31) Hyphomycete fungi
I – grow in leaves in aquatic environments and produce nonmotile tetradiate conidia
II – growing in leaves in aquatic environment. These infected leaves are preferred food source for some aquatic
insects
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
32) Coliform are used as indicator organisms because
I – they are present wherever enteric pathogens are present
II – a testing procedure with great specificity is easy to perform
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
Chapter # 30 Microorganisms in Terrestrial Environment
1) In relation to bacterium's optimal growth requirements, which group would you expect to be most likely involved
in decomposition of compost files?
a) Acidophiles
b) Psychrophiles
c) Extreme halophiles
d) Mesophiles
e) Thermophiles
2) Because the soil primarily is a ______ environment; the elements, such as carbon, nitrogen, sulfur and iron will
tend to be in the _____ state in the soil.
a) Aerobic, oxidized
b) Aerobic, reduced
c) Anaerobic, oxidized
d) Anaerobic, reduced
3) ____ is the process in which microorganisms are used as a food source resulting in nitrogen and phosphors
mineralization
a) Nitrogen fixation
b) Ammonification
c) Microbivory
d) Eutrophication
e) Homeostasis
4) A microbial community that develops in puddles in low areas and retained on the soil surface is called a
a) Zooglea
b) Desert crust

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c) Mychirrhizae
d) Microfilm
e) Rhizosphere
5) The _______ is where organisms that are found on and in the areal surface plants are growing
a) Zooglea
b) Desert crust
c) Mychirrhizae
d) Phyllosphere
e) Rhizosphere
6) The function of growth promoting rhizobacteria is to
a) Decompose the organic materials secreted by the plants making the elements available to the plant again
b) Stimulate mineral uptake by inhibiting activities of other bacteria in vicinity
c) Enhance mycorrhizal activity
d) Inhibit competing bacteria by producing antibiotics
e) Promote plant growth by producing chemical signals
7) Which of the following genera synthesize Nod factors in order to activate plant to allow development of an
infection thread?
a) Agrobacterium
b) Escherichia
c) Frankia
d) Rhizobium
8) Nodulation and the development of an anaerobic environment to facilitate nitrogen fixation is characteristic of
which genus
a) Agrobacterium
b) Escherichia
c) Frankia
d) Rhizobium
9) The nitrogen-fixation form of the Rhizobum bacterium is called a
a) Bacteriod
b) Symbiosome
c) Infection thread
d) T-plasmid
e) Mycorrhiza
10) Which of the following genera possess a tumor inducing plasmid?
a) Rhizobium
b) Agrobacterium
c) Franka
d) Pseudomonas
e) Erwinia
11) When it induces tumor in plants, Agrobacterium introduces _____ into the DNA of the plant cell.
a) mRNA
b) Ti plasmid
c) cDNA
d) T-DNA
e) Induction factor
12) Nitrogen fertilizers disrupt ecosystem structure and function by
a) Promoting hetertrophic growth causing an imbalance
b) Decreases filamentous fungal development which cause loss of soil crumb structure and subsequent soil
fertility
c) Causing more antibiotic producing bacteria to grow and produce antibiotics which stunt the growth of plants
d) Reducing the number of nitrogen fixing bacteria in soils
e) Causing formation of nitrosoamine carcinogens
13) Addition of nitrogen containing fertilizers affects gas exchange process in the soil
a) Resulting in release of NO and N2O which are greenhouse gases
b) Causes methane gas to be consumed
c) Causes methane gas to be produced
d) Causing antibiotic production in bacteria which leads to antibiotic resitane
e) Assimilation of NO3 by the plants

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14) Methanotrophic bacteria

a) Oxidize methane gas
b) Produce methane gas
c) Utilize methane as the electron source for reduction process
d) Are responsible for the greenhouse effect
e) Are most active in anaerobic environment
15) Which of the following genera of the fungi produces a black slime that dries out to produce a dusty layer fungal
spores and it implicate in "sick builing" diagnosis
a) Mycobacterium
b) Agaricus
c) Stachybotrys
d) Puccina
e) Penicillium
16) I – the concentration of CO2 in air

II – the concentration of CO2 in soil atmospheric spaces
17) I – the percentage of microorganisms in soil have been cultivated
II – the percentage of microorganism in soil have not been cultivated
18) I – the amount of nutrients in tropical soil in tropical ecosystems
II – The amount of nutrients bound up in plant and animal materials in tropical ecosystem
19) I – The percentage of vascular plants with mycorrizae
II – The percentage of vascular plants without mycorrizae
20) I – The rate of occurrence of chestnut blight when the pathogenic fungus is not infected with a hypovirus
II – The rate of occurrence of chestnut blight when the pathogenic fungus is infected with a hypovirus
21) I – The ability of lignin to be degraded in aerobic environment
II – The ability of lignin to be degraded in anaerobic environment
22) I – Endophytes
II – Fungi

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are not,
23) I – Bacteria
II – Endophytes
are not
24) I – Ectomycorrhizae
II – Bacteria
are not
25) I – Zygomycete fungi
II – Endomycorrhizae
are not
26) Tropical environments like the rain forest have abundant vegetation because
I – The soil contain so many nutrients required by plants
II – The ecosystem is very efficient at recycling nutrients as soon as an organism dies
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
27) _____ snow mold
I – Attack plants even when covered by layers of snow
II – Can grow at temperatures slightly below 0
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
28) __ the function of mycorrhizae is to
I – Increase the availability of nutrients to plants
II – Aid in water uptake for plants in arid environments
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
29) Members of the genus frankia
I – Capable of nitrogen fixation for trees and shrubs
II – Ready cultivated bacteria
a) I only is true
b) II only is true
30) Throughout the world, soils are being impacted by mineral nitrogen release from
I – Agricultural fertilizer run off
II- Fossil fuel combustion
a) I only is true

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b) II only is true
Chapter # 31 Normal Microbiota and Nonspecific Host Resistance
1) A majority of microorganism associated with the human body are

a) Protozoa
b) Bacteria
c) Fungi
d) Viruses
e) Parasites
2) The dynamics of the microorganisms associated with the human body are most commonly to be all the following
except
a) Symbiotic
b) Mutualistic
c) Pathogenic
d) Commensalisitc
3) Germfree animals are almost completely resistant to the intestinal protozoan that causes amebic dysentery because
of
a) A thin intestinal wall
b) A low antibody titer
c) A lower metabolic rate
d) The absence of a bacterial food source
e) A reduced cardiac input
4) A pimple contain all but the following
a) Sebum
b) Keratin
c) Viruses
d) Bacteria
e) Lipases
5) Which genus of bacterium contributes to plaque, caries, gingivitis, and periodontal disease?
a) Streptococcus
b) Staphyaloccus
c) Bacillus
d) Escherichia
e) Proteus
6) The stomach usually contain a very low concentration of bacteria due to
a) The neutral PH
b) The high PH
c) The low PH
d) The high turnover rate of contents
e) The inhibitory action of bile
7) Disruptive factors to microbial status quo in the intestine include all BUT
a) Stress
b) Desquamation of the epithelial cells
c) Change in altitude
d) Starvation
e) Parasitic organisms
8) Probiotic exhibit all but the following characteristics
a) Nontoxic to nonpathogenic to host
b) Have beneficial effect on host
c) Mimic antibiotics
d) Remain viable for a long time
e) Withstand with acidic nature of host's stomach
9) Which of the following may results in an immunocompromised host?
a) Alcoholism

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b) Diabetes
c) Cancer
d) All of the above
10) Lymphocytes are the major cells of the specific immune system, they include
a) T cells
b) B cells
c) Natural killer cells
d) All of the above
11) Macrophages have all the following properties except
a) Are derived from granulocytes
b) May be larger than monocytes
c) Have a plasma membrane covered with ruffles or microvilli
d) Possess reciptors for carbohydrates not normally exposed on the cells of vertebrates
12) Which of the following corresponds to secondary lymphoid tissue?
a) Thymus
b) Bone marrow
c) Spleen
d) Lymph nodes
13) The complement system aid the host defense by
a) Mediating inflammation
b) Attracting phagocytic cells
c) Activating phagocytic cells
d) All of the above
14) The complement system acts in a _________ fashion, amplifying the response
a) Synergistic
b) Cascade
c) Avalanche
d) Classical
e) Mutualistic
15) Phagocytosis DOES NOT involve
a) Lectin-carbohydrate interactions
b) Protein-protein interactions
c) Hydrophobic interactions
d) Hygroscopic interaction
e) Phagolysosomes
16) Which of the following is a generic term for a protein or glycoprotein released by one cell population that acts as
intracellular mediator?
a) Cytokine
b) Monokine
c) Lymphokines
d) Interleukin
e) Colony-stimulating factor
Chapter # 32 Specific immunity
1) Specific immunity can be acquired either naturally or artificially and involves

a) Antigens
b) Antibodies
c) The classical complement pathway
d) All of the above
2) An anamnestic response involves a/an
a) Intense response
b) Effector response

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c) High intensity
d) Rapid memory
e) All of the above
3) Which DOES NOT provide long term immunity
a) Natural acquired active immunity
b) Artificially acquired active immunity
c) Artificially acquired passive immunity
d) All of the above
4) An epitope is
a) The antigen determinant site
b) T cell
c) A B cell
d) An antibody
e) A heptane
5) Cell-associated differentiation antigens (CDs) are functional cell surface proteins or receptors that can be measured
in situ
a) In normal individuals the concentration of these molecules in serum is always low
b) Detecting these soluble molecules may help in the management of disease
c) Thousands of CDs have been characterized
d) All of the above are true
e) None of the above are true
6) An immunoglobulin is as
a) Protein
b) Carbohydrate
c) Glycoprotein
d) Fatty acid
e) Nucleic acid
7) Isotypes refers to variation in the
a) Light chain variable region
b) Light chain constant region
c) Heavy chain variable region
d) Heavy chain constant region
8) The fc region mediates all of the below except binding to
a) Host tissue
b) Various cells of the immune system
c) Some phagocytic cells
d) Lysosomes
e) Antigens
9) Which of the following is major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting 80% of the immunoglobulin pool?
a) Ig A
b) IgD
c) IgE
d) IgG
e) IgM
10) Which immunoglobulin is least prevalent?
a) IgA
b) IgD
c) IgE
d) IgG
e) IgM
11) The first tent of clonal selection theory relies specifically on
a) Combinatorial joinings
b) Somatic mutations
c) Variations in the splicing process
d) B-cell clones
e) T-cell clones
12) Which of the following is useful to stimulate antibody production

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a) An adjuvant
b) A hapten
c) Antiserum
d) Purified antigen
e) Crude antigen
13) Compared to secondary antibody response, the primary response
a) Has a longer lag phase
b) Has a more rapid lag phase
c) Persists for a longer plateau period
d) Attains a high IgG titer
e) Produces antibodies with a higher affinity to the antigen
14) Monoclonal antibodies are produced by
a) Lymphocytes
b) Myeloma cells
c) Hybridoma
d) Spleen cells
e) Plasma cells
15) Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all the following except
a) The type of tissue
b) The identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms
c) The identification of tumor antigens
d) The classification of leukemias
e) The manipulation of the immune response
16) Which of the following DOES NOT play a role in antigen presentation?
a) MHC class I molecules
b) MHC class II molecules
c) MHC class III molecules
d) All of the above
17) Which of the following is used for typing when a patient is being prepared for an organ transplant
a) MHC class I molecules
b) MHC class II molecules
c) MHC class III molecules
d) All of the above
18) Which of the following is responsible for opening the calcium ion channel during T-helper cell stimulation
a) CD 28
b) CD 80
c) Tyrosine kinase
d) Inositol triphosphate
e) Protein kinase C
19) B-cell do which of the following
a) Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
b) Respond to antigens by making antibodies
c) Acts as antigen-presenting cells
d) All of the above
20) Which of the following is NOT a T-dependent antigen?
a) Viruses
b) Bacteria
c) Foreign red blood cells
d) Certain proteins
e) Hapten-carrier combinations
21) Opsonisation refers to
a) Parasitic lysosomal degranulation
b) Agglutination of red blood cells
c) Coating of microorganism or other particles by antibody and/or complement
d) Adherence to mucosal epithelial cells

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e) Antibody mediated viral infections

22) Which type of antibody is most effective in activating complement
a) IgE
b) IgG1
c) IgG2
d) IgG3
e) IgM
Chapter # 33 Medical Immunology
1) Which of the following best describes type I hypersensitivity?

a) The reaction of the Td,Th cells, cytokines, and macrophages
b) The formation of immune complexes that are deposited on basement membranes
c) Complement-dependent lysis of cells
d) The release of physiological mediators from IgE-bound mast cells and basophils
e) Overreaction of the immune system
2) An attenuated vaccine is composed of
a) Killed microorganism
b) Living, weakened microorganism
c) Purified macromolecules
d) Recombinant vectors
3) Passive immunization is routinely administered to individuals exposed to certain microbial pathogen that cause
diseases, except
a) Botulism
b) Diphtheria
c) Hepatitis
d) Chicken pox
e) Rabies
4) Vaccines are available for all of the following except
a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Tetanus
e) Measles
5) Which is considered the "gold standard" of existing vaccines?
a) Purified proteins
b) Whole organism
c) DNA-based
d) Inactivated exotoxins
e) Capsular polysaccharides
6) Which macromolecule is currently NOT being used as a vaccine in humans?
a) Capsular polysaccharide
b) Recombinant surface antigens
c) Inactivated exotoxins
d) DNA-based
e) All of the above
7) In type I hypersensitivity, which of the following DOES NOT happen upon second exposure to the antigen?
a) IgE binds to Fc receptors of mast cells
b) Degranulation of sensitized mast cells
c) Histamine release
d) Smooth muscle contraction
e) Vasodilation
8) Respiratory impairment during systemic anaphylaxis is primarily due to
a) Arteriole dilation
b) Reduced blood pressure
c) Increased capillary permeability
d) Circulatory shock
e) Smooth muscle contraction in the bronchioles

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9) Desensitization to an allergen involves injection of the allergen beneath the skin to induce production of which of
the following immunoglobulin
a) IgA
b) IgD
c) IgE
d) IgG
e) IgM
10) Cytokines attract which of the following to the affected tissue?
a) Lymphocytes
b) Macrophages
c) Basophils
d) All of the above
11) Which of the following is responsible for marked female predominance of autoimmune diseases?
a) Androgens
b) Estrogens
c) Stress
d) Viral infection
e) Bacterial infection
12) Which of the following assays is currently being used for the detection of Helicobacter Pylori
a) Agglutination
b) Complement fixation
c) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
d) Immunodiffusion
e) Flow cytometry
13) A chromogen may be used in which of the following assays
a) Direct immunosorbent assay
b) Indirect immunosorbent assay
c) Western blotting
d) All of the above
14) Attenuated viral vaccines
a) Are viable
b) Are non-pathogenic
c) Infected cells
d) Produce antigens in the context of MHC I
e) All of the above
15) The single radial diffusion assay (Mancini technique) quantifies
a) Antibodies
b) Antigen
c) Immune complexes
d) Cytokins
e) All of the above
16) Which of the following involves separation of antigens by size on a gel, followed by diffusion and precipitation
a) Flow cytometry
b) Double diffusion immunoassay
c) Immunoelectrophoresis
d) Direct immunosorbent assay
e) Indirect immunosorbent assay
Chapter # 34 Pathogenicity of Microorganisms
1) The host on or in which the parasitic organism either attains sexual maturity or reproduce is the
a) Intermediate host
b) Final host
c) Transfer host
d) Reservoir host
e) Secondary host

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2) Which of the following virus is spread by way of nerves

a) Rabies
b) Varicella-zoster
c) Herpes simplex
d) All of the above
3) Recovery mechanism from viral infection involve
a) Cellular immunity
b) Interferons
c) Cytokines
d) All of the above
4) Which of the following does not represent direct contact from host-to-host?
a) Coughing
b) Sneezing
c) Body contact
d) Shedding on to surface
5) Which of the following represents a passive mechanism by which a bacterium can penetrate a host?
a) Attacking the intestinal lining
b) Degrading carbohydrate protein complex
c) Disrupting the cell surface
d) Tissue damage caused by other organisms
e) All of these
6) For a bacterial pathogen to be successful in growth and reproduction, it must find which of the following?
a) Appropriate nutrients
b) Appropriate PH
c) Appropriate temperature
d) Appropriate redox potential
e) All of the above
7) Expression of the virulence gene of bordetella pertussis (the pathogen causing whooping cough) is dependent
upon
a) Temperature
b) Osmolality
c) Available iron
d) PH
e) Specific ions
8) Which of the following is true for exotoxins?
a) Effect on host similar for all
b) Heat stable
c) Produce a fever
d) Weakly immunogenic
e) Frequently encoded on plasmids
9) Which is true for endotoxins?
a) Highly antigenic
b) Found only in Gram Negative cells
c) Usually binds to specific cellular reciptors
d) Highly toxic and fatal in microgram quantities
e) Toxoids are used to immunize
10) True enterotoxins have what effect on the intestinal mucosa
a) Cause a change in PH
b) Elicit profuse fluid secretion
c) Increase temperature
d) Bind to mucosal cells
11) Cytokins having a specific toxic action upon cells/tissues of the kidney are
a) Hepatotoxin
b) Cardiotoxin

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c) Intestotoxin
d) Neurotoxin
e) Nephrotoxin
12) Staphylococcal food poisoning is caused by:
a) Ingestion of preformed exotoxin
b) Colonization of a mucosal surface followed by the production of exotoxin
c) Colonization of a wound or abscess followed by local exotoxin production
d) All of the above
13) Most Gram-negative bacteria have a lipopolysaccharide (LPS) which is found in the
a) Plasma membrane
b) Cell wall
c) Inner membrane
d) Outer membrane
e) Periplasmic membrane
14) Which endogenous molecules are specifically involved in fever induction
a) Cytokine
b) Lymphokines
c) Pyrogens
d) Macrophage
e) Interferons
15) Which subunit of the exotoxin is the binding portion of the molecule?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d
e) e
Chapter # 35 Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
1) How develop the concept of specific toxicity?

a) Jenner
b) Pasteur
c) Fleming
d) Watson
e) Ehrlich
2) Most antibiotics are isolated from
a) Viruses
b) Fungi
c) Aquatic organisms
d) Soil microorganisms
e) Plants
3) The larger the _____, the better the chemotherapeutic agent
a) Therapeutic index
b) Toxic dose
c) Therapeutic dose
d) Selective toxicity
e) Spectrum
4) Which of the following is not a semisynthetic chemotherapeutic agent?
a) Ampicillin
b) Carbenicillin
c) Methicillin
d) Penicillin
e) Sulfonamide
5) Which of the following test is used to determine the minimal lethal concentration
a) Broth dilution test
b) Agar dilution test
c) Dilution susceptibility tests

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d) All of the above

6) The most selective antibiotics are those that interfere with the synthesis of
a) Bacterial DNA
b) Bacterial RNA
c) Bacterial cell walls
d) Bacterial plasma membrane
e) Bacterial cell
7) Which of the following protein synthesis mechanisms may be affected by particular drug
a) Peptide bond formation
b) mRNA reading
c) mRNA translation
d) amicoacyl-tRNA binding
e) all of the above
8) a parenteral route of drug administration refers to
a) oral
b) nonoral
c) intravenously
d) intramuclulary
e) subcutaneously
9) quinolones are
a) antimetabolites
b) penicillin derivatives
c) bacteriostatic
d) broad-spectrum
e) narrow-spectrum
10) Which antibiotic has a beta-lactam ring?
a) Cephalosporin
b) Penicillin
c) Tetracycline
d) Chloramphenicol
e) Streptomycin
11) Which of the following is used only in life-threatening situations when no other drug is adequate?
a) Cephalosporin
b) Penicillin
c) Tetracycline
d) Chloramphenicol
e) Streptomycin
12) Russian physicians are currently using which of the following to treat bacterial infections
a) Other bacteria
b) Bacteriophage
c) Viruses
d) Fungi
e) Plant products
Chapter # 36 Clinical Microbiology
1) Which of the following represents a molecular method of testing?

a) Microscopy
b) Differential media
c) Selective media
d) Plasmid fingerprinting
e) Bacteriophage typing
2) The clinical microbiologist identifies agents and organisms based on which of the following
a) Morphological properties
b) Biochemical properties
c) Immunological properties
d) Molecular properties

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e) All of the above

3) Which medium allows for the detection of various morphological or biochemical properties
a) Characteristic
b) Differential
c) Enrichment
d) Selective
e) All of the above
4) The clinical microbiology laboratory is concerned with
a) Isolation of the organism
b) Identification of the organism
c) Antimicrobial testing
d) All of the above
5) Which of the following refers to specific procedures used to prevent unwanted microorganisms from
contaminating the clinical specimen
a) Aseptic technique
b) Needle aspiration
c) Intubation
d) Catheterization
e) Disinfectant technique
6) Which of the following would be used to collect urine specimens over a prolonged period
a) Hard catheter
b) Soft catheter
c) Italian catheter
d) Foley catheter
7) When cleaning a spill of blood or blood containing fluids, a bleach solution should be used as follows;
a) 1/100 dilution for smooth surfaces
b) 1/10 dilution for porous surfaces
c) Solution should be no more than 24 hours old
d) With disposable towels
e) All of the above
8) The most common method used for the collection of urine is
a) The clean-catch method
b) With hard catheter
c) With soft catheter
d) With French catheter
e) With Foley catheter
9) Which is the most common specimen collected in suspected cases of lower respiratory infections?
a) Saliva
b) Breath
c) Sputum
d) Any of the above
10) Which is least satisfactory for anaerobic specimen collection or transport
a) Aspirates
b) Swabs
c) Tissues
d) Capped springs
e) Anaerobic transport vial
11) Which of the following identification test is restricted to research settings and the centers for disease control and
prevention (CDC)?
a) Microscopic examination of specimen
b) Study of the growth and biochemical properties of isolated microorganisms
c) Immunological tests that detect antibodies or microbial antigens
d) Bacteriophage typing
e) Molecular methods
12) The Gram stain and the acid-fast stain are based on chemical properties of the
a) Plasma membrane

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b) Outer membrane
c) Cell walls
d) Periplasmic space
e) All of the above
13) Which of the following CANNOT be used to identify a virus?
a) Cell wall
b) Gram stain
c) Radioimmunoassay
d) Enzyme immunoassay
e) Latex agglutination
14) A clinical microbiologist would be looking for evidence of a _____ infection if he or she doing a microscopic
examination for the presence of eggs, cyst, or a larvae.
a) Bacterial
b) Viral
c) Fungal
d) Parasitic
e) Any
15) Morphological studies examining the pseudo hypha or chlamydospores are for the detection of
a) Bacteria
b) Viruses
c) Fungi
d) Parasite
16) Which of the following inhibits the growth of Gram negative bacteria
a) Eosin methylene blue agar
b) MacConkey agar
c) Hektoen enteric agar
d) All of these
e) None of these
17) Which of the following have characteristic intracellular inclusion bodies?
a) Candida
b) Chlamydia
c) Escherichia
d) Mycoplasma
e) Rickettsia
18) There has been a shift from the multistep method previously used to systems that incorporate
a) Miniaturization
b) Mechanization
c) Automation
d) All of the above
19) The API 20E system for the identification of members of the family Enterobacteriacae involves a series of
a) Microscopic analysis
b) Biochemical tests
c) Immunological test
d) Genomic tests
e) Antibiotic sensitivity tests
20) A phagovar is
a) A lawn of cells on plate
b) Strains having the same phage sensitivity
c) A variety of phage
d) A test that identifies a phage
e) A phage that is capable of varying its identity
21) To determine fatty acid composition which of the following tests would be performed
a) Ribotyping
b) Fingertyping
c) DNA probing
d) Gas-Liquid chromatography
e) Immunoassay

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22) Which has often been demonstrated to be the most accurate method for identification
a) Antibiotic resistance pattern
b) Biotyping
c) Phagetyping
d) Plasmid fingerprinting
e) Serotyping
Chapter # 37 The Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases
1) A hospital acquired infection is

a) Familial
b) Nosocomial
c) Genial
d) Viral
e) Potential
2) The science of epidemiology originated and evolved in response to the great _______ diseases
a) Bacterial
b) Viral
c) Fungal
d) Parasitic
e) Epidemic
3) Disease is a response due to
a) Environmental factor
b) Specific infective agents
c) Inherent defects of the body
d) All of the above
4) Who was the first epidemiologist?
a) Francis crick
b) Walter Gilbert
c) Fred Sanger
d) John Snow
e) James Watson
5) The classical epidemiological studies carried out in London between in 1849-1854 were due to _____ out-break
a) Small pox
b) Cholera
c) Influenza
d) Typhoid fever
e) Yellow fever
6) Usually, pandemic disease spread among
a) People
b) Animals
c) Insects
d) States
e) Continents
7) Animal diseases that can be transmitted to humans are termed
a) Epizootiology
b) Enzootic
c) Epizootic
d) Panzootic
e) Zoonoses
8) Which of the following refers to the total number of individuals infected in a population at any one time?
a) Morbidity rate
b) Prevalence rate
c) Mortality rate
d) Epidemic rate
e) Outbreak rate
9) Typhoid Mary spread disease through her

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a) Teaching
b) Cleaning
c) Cooking
d) All of the above
10) Remote sensing can be used to study the distribution, dynamics, and environmental correlates of microbial
diseases, it involves which of the following
a) Blood samples
b) Questionnaires
c) Physical exams
d) Digital images
e) All of the above
11) The first link in the infectious cycle is the
a) Source
b) Pathogen
c) Replication cycle
d) Mutation cycle
e) Antimicrobial susceptibility
12) Which of the following harbors a pathogen for long period of time?
a) Casual carrier
b) Acute carrier
c) Transient carrier
d) Chronic carrier
e) All of the above
13) Which zoonotic is contracted by eating insufficiently cooked meat?
a) Trichinosis
b) Anthrax
c) Brucellosis
d) Tuberculosis
e) Tularemia
14) Which virulence-enhancing mechanism of a pathogen is considered to be a mobile genetic element?
a) Bacteriophage
b) Plasmids
c) Transposons
d) All of the above
15) The key factor responsible for the rise in drug-resistant pathogen is
a) Antigenic drift
b) Antigenic shift
c) Inappropriate use of antimicrobial therapy
d) Bad hygiene
e) Vaccination
16) Which of the following control measures is designated to break the connection between the source of the infection
and susceptible individuals?
a) Quarantine and isolation of cases and/or carriers
b) Destruction of an animal reservoir of infection
c) Treatment of sewage to reduce water contamination
d) Therapy that reduces or eliminates infectivity of the individual
e) Destruction of vectors by spraying with insecticides
Chapter # 38 Human Diseases Caused by Viruses
1) Which of the following is arthropod-born disease?

a) Chicken pox
b) Colorado tick fever
c) Influenza
d) Measles
e) Mumps

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2) Which of the following is NOT transmitted by the fecal-oral route

a) Viral gastroenteritis
b) Hepatitis A
c) Hepatitis E
d) Poliomyelitis
e) Kuru
3) Which disease has been completely eradicated?
a) Small pox
b) Chicken pox
c) Polio
d) Mumps
e) Measles
4) Influenza viruses are classified into groups based on the ________ antigenic of their protein coats
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) N
e) All
5) The genetic material in influenza viruses is
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) Protein
d) All of the above
6) The most dangerous cause of lower respiratory tract infection in young children is
a) Laryngitis
b) Bronchitis
c) Parainfluenza virus
d) Respiratory syncytial virus
e) Poliovirus
7) Which of the following is FALSE statement about yellow fever?
a) Endemic to the united states
b) The first human disease found to be caused by virus
c) The first confirmation that an insect could transmit a virus
d) Caused by flavivirus
e) Its first name was yellow jack
8) The virus causing yellow fever first spread to
a) Liver
b) Spleen
c) Local lymph nodes
d) Kidneys
e) Heart
9) Which group is most at risk for acquiring AIDS?
a) Intravenous drug users
b) Homosexual/bisexual men
c) Prostitutes
d) Bisexuals
e) Children born of infected mothers
10) Infection with HIV will result in a depletion of
a) CD1+ cells
b) CD2+ cells
c) CD3+ cells
d) CD4+ cells
e) CD5+ cells
11) Which is the best diagnostic for AIDS?
a) Viral isolation
b) Viral culture
c) Viral reverse transcriptase activity

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d) Viral antigens
e) Anti-HIV antibodies in the blood
12) Which of the following is caused by DNA virus
a) Herpes
b) AIDS
c) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
d) Colorado tick fever
e) Measles
13) Certain leukemia in humans are caused by retroviruses, which are transmitted by
a) Contaminated blood
b) Sexual contact
c) Mother's milk
d) Mosquitoes
e) All of the above
14) In hairy cell leukemia, what becomes "hairy"?
a) Red blood cells
b) White blood cells
c) Macrophages
d) Lysozomes
e) Epithelial cells
15) Which has been called the kissing disease?
a) AIDS
b) Herpes/cold sores
c) Tonsillitis
d) Mononucleosis
e) Laryngitis
16) In the past, the diagnosis of rabies consisted of solely of examining nervous tissue for the presence of
a) Inclusions
b) Viruses
c) Negri bodies
d) Encephalitis
e) All of the above
17) Which hepatitis is some time called serum hepatitis?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
e) E
18) The hepatitis D virus has a special dependence upon which hepatitis virus?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) F
19) Prion diseases share important clinical, neurppathological, and the cell biological features with
a) Kuru
b) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
c) Gerstmann-Strassuler syndrome
d) Alzheimer's disease
e) Fatal familial insomnia
Chapter # 39 Human diseases Caused by Bacteria
1) Which of the following rickettsias DOES NOT need to use an insect vector as others do?
a) R.prowazekii
b) R.typhi
c) R.rickettsi
d) Ehrilichia chaffeenis

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e) Coxiella brunette
2) The most common disease in human is
a) The common cold
b) Pneumonia
c) Tooth decay
d) Tuberculosis
e) Cat-scratch disease
3) Legionella spp. multiply intracellularly within ______, just as they do within human monocytes and macrophages
a) Amoeba
b) Bacteria
c) Fungi
d) Viruses
e) Plants
4) The most common cause of permanent heart valve damage in children is
a) Strep throat
b) Toxic shock syndrome
c) Fifths disease
d) Rheumatic fever
e) Scarlet fever
5) The preferred site for tick attachment is/are
a) Scalp
b) Armpits
c) Groin
d) All of the above
6) The Q in Q fever stands for
a) Quiescent
b) Query
c) Quick
d) Qulet
7) Pathogenic staphylococci usually produce a biofilm referred to as
a) Exudate
b) Pus
c) Slime
d) Mucous
e) Exotoxin
8) Which disease has been referred to as the great pox?
a) Small pox
b) Chicken pox
c) Avain px
d) Syphilis
e) Chlamydia
9) Approximately 100 cases of tetanus are reported annually in the united states, the majority of which are
a) Intravenous drug users
b) Hospital employees
c) Day care employees
d) Children
e) Elderly
10) Respiratory diseases are the leading causes of death in adults. The second highest cause of adult death is
a) Cancer
b) Diarrheal diseases
c) Heart attack
d) Stroke
e) Diabetes
11) Botulinum toxin is being used as a treatment for
a) Crossing of the eyes
b) Migraine headaches

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c) Tensions headaches
d) All of the above
12) Which of the following is not true of listeria monocytogenes
a) An intracellular parasite
b) Can be found as part of the normal gasterointestinal microbiota
c) Is not food borne
d) Causes primarily gastrointestinal illness
e) An increased risk of infection in pregnant women
13) Salmonella is the most frequently acquired from
a) Beef
b) Poultry
c) Human-to-human
d) Fish
e) All of the above
14) The major type of food intoxication in the United States is caused by
a) Listeria
b) Shigella
c) Salmonella
d) Staphylococcus
e) Escherichia
15) The major causative agent of traveler's diarrhea is
a) Listeria
b) Shigella
c) Salmonella
d) Staphylococcus
e) Escherichia
16) Which of the following infective agents can cause septic shock?
a) Gram-positive bacteria
b) Gram-negative bacteria
c) Fungi
d) All of the above
Chapter # 40 Human Diseases Caused by Fungi and Protozoa
1) Which of the following designates a dermophytic infection of the groin

a) Tinea carporis
b) Tinea cruris
c) Tinea pedis
d) Tinea manum
e) Tinea ungmanum
2) Histoplasmosis is an occupational disease among
a) Home garden
b) Florists
c) Farmers
d) Spelunker
e) Verterians
3) Only ____ and humans demonstrate the disease and harbor the fungus causing histoplasmosis
a) Aphid
b) Spider mites
c) Rats
d) Bats
e) Cats
4) Of all the fungi that cause disease in compromised hosts, none are as widely distributed as of the following species
a) Aspergillus
b) Candid
c) Pneumocystis

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d) Blastomyces
e) Coccodiosis
5) What is true of the pathogenic Entomoeba Histolytica, but not the nonpathogenic strain E. dispar?
a) Cyst production
b) Encystation
c) Trophozoite production
d) Production of cysteine proteinase
e) Metacysts
6) Which of the following is NOT true about Cryptosproidium?
a) Caused the largest outbreak of waterborne illness in US history
b) A common intestinal parasite of many animals and birds
c) Excystation occurs within the small intestine
d) Extremely sensitive to disinfectants such as chlorine
e) Not easily removed by sand filters used to produced drinking water
7) Which of the following by van leewonhook in the late 1600s when he examined his own stool?
a) Naegleria
b) Gardia
c) Pneumocystis
d) Cryptosporidium
e) Entamoeba
8) Which is responsible for causing primary amebic meningeoencephalitis?
a) Naegleria
b) Gardia
c) Pneumocystis
d) Cryptosporidium
e) Entamoeba
9) The causative agent of malaria a/an
a) Amoeba
b) Protozoa
c) Sporozoa
d) Flagellated protozoa
e) Mosquito
10) The malarial parasite CANNOT grow and replicate in individuals with sickle cell diseases because
a) Erythrocyte have low oxygen binding capacity
b) Hemoglobin S is different only in one amino acid from hemoglobin A
c) The parasite has a very active aerobic metabolism
d) All of the above
11) Which of the following represents the form of plasmodium that is released from the erthryocyte by lysis
a) Trophozoite
b) Schizont
c) Merozoite
d) Macromastigote
e) Micromastigote
12) When an infected _____ takes a human blood meal, it introduces flagellated promastigotes into the skin of the
definitive host
a) Mosquito
b) Beer fly
c) Sand fly
d) Deer fly
e) Buffalo gnat
13) Which is reservoir for the causative agent of trypanasomaisis
a) Canines
b) Cattle
c) Rodents
d) Sand fly
e) Testes fly
14) Which is the intermediate host for the causative agent of trypanasomaisis ?

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a) Canines
b) Cattle
c) Rodents
d) Sand fly
e) Testes fly
15) The definitive host for the causative agent of toxoplasmosis is the
a) Cat
b) Dog
c) Bird
d) Horse
e) Cow
Chapter # 41 Food Microbiology
1) Which of the following is NOT intrinsic factor in food spoilage?

a) PH
b) Moisture content
c) Available nutrients
d) Temperature
e) Physical structure
2) Grinding and mixing of foods such as sausage and hamburger
a) Increased the food surface area
b) Alter cellular structure
c) Distribute contaminating microorganisms throughout the food
d) All of the above
3) Which is not true about aflatoxins?
a) Cause frame shift mutation
b) Are carcinogenic
c) Are alkaloid
d) Fluoresce
e) Have been found in beer
4) There is an increased sensitivity to aflatoxins in individuals previously infected with
a) Hepatitis B
b) Measles
c) Mumps
d) Chicken pox
e) Rabies
5) Complex algal toxins, most of which are temperature stable, are known to cause peripheral neurological system
effects, often in less than ______ after ingestion
a) One hour
b) Two hours
c) Three hours
d) Four hours
e) Five hours
6) Louis Pasteur established the modern era of food microbiology in 1857 when he showed that microorganism cause
_____ spoilage
a) Beer
b) Wine
c) Juice
d) Milk
e) Grain
7) Several major brands of beer are _______ rather than pasteurized to better preserve the flavor and aroma of the
original product.
a) Centrifuged
b) Precipitated
c) Filtered
d) Heat-treated

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e) All of the above

8) Which of the following term describes organisms that thrive in the cold?
a) Mesophiles
b) Thermophiles
c) Psychrophiles
d) Aerophiles
e) Basophiles
9) Despite efforts to eliminate spoilage organisms during canning, sometimes canned foods are spoiled. This may be
due to
a) Spoilage before canning
b) Under processing during canning
c) Leaking of contaminated water through can seams during cooling
d) All of the above
10) The effectiveness of many chemical preservatives depends primarily on the food
a) Temperature
b) pH
c) water content
d) acidity
e) all of the above
11) sodium nitrate is responsible for
a) protecting against botulism
b) reducing rate of spoilage
c) maintaince of red color in meat
d) all of the above
e) none of these
12) Which is NOT true of the bacterium produced by Streptococcus Lactis?
a) A small hydrophobic protein
b) Nontoxic to humans
c) Affects mainly gram negative bacteria
d) Improves inactivation of C.Botulinum spores
e) Inhibits germination of the c. bolulinm spores
13) E.coli 0157: H7 is thought to have acquired enterohemorrhagic genes from
a) Clostridium
b) Bacillus
c) Campylobacter
d) Shigella
e) Listeria
14) The main reservoir of Staphylococcus aureus is
a) Human feaces
b) Human nasal cavity
c) Human red blood cells
d) All of the above
15) A major advance in the detection of food borne pathogens is the use of standardized pathogen DNA patterns or
"food borne pathogen _________"
a) Fingerprinting
b) Plasmid pattern
c) Chromosomal pattern
d) Polymerase chain reaction
e) All of the above
16) Which type of fermentation is used to produce yogurt?
a) Mesophilic
b) Thermophilic
c) Therapeutic
d) Yeast-lactic fermentation
e) Mold-lactic fermentation

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17) Which of the following refers to the addition of microorganisms to the diet in order to provide health benefits
beyond basic nutritive value
a) Antibiotics
b) Adjuvants
c) Prebiotics
d) Probiotics
e) Synbiotics
Chapter # 42 Industrial Microbiology and Biotechnology
1) "Superbug" was a name coined for organisms engineered for

a) Antibiotic production
b) Probiotic production
c) Hydrocarbon degradation
d) Enzyme production
e) Insulin production
2) Which of the following is easiest method of gene transfer?
a) Protoplasm fusion
b) Electroporation
c) Transformation
d) Gene gun
e) Viral vectors
3) Lycopene is an important antioxidant normally present in high levels in
a) Artichokes
b) Bananas
c) Tomatoes
d) Oranges
e) Soybeans
4) Lyophilization is synonymous with
a) Freeze-drying
b) Pasteurization
c) Filtration
d) Spoilage
e) Fermentation
5) Continuous feed during fermentation is used to maintain
a) Temperature
b) Water level
c) Product concentration
d) Substrate concentration
e) Cell number
6) Antibiotics tend to be
a) Primary metabolites
b) Secondary metabolites
c) Tertiary metabolites
d) Quaternary metabolites
e) Any of the above
7) Amino acids are used as food additives for which of the following reasons?
a) As natural antibiotics
b) As natural growth inhibitors
c) For nutritive purpose
d) As antioxidants
e) As food preservatives
8) ________ are microbially produced and serve as gelling agents.
a) Amino acids
b) Biopolymers
c) Lipids
d) Polysaccharides
e) Fatty acids

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9) Which of the following have NOT been used in various bioconversions?

a) Unicellular bacteria
b) Actinomycetes
c) Yeasts
d) Molds
e) Viruses
10) Which of the following best describes biodegradation?
a) A minor change in organic molecules
b) Fragmentation of a complex molecule
c) Complete transformation of the organic molecule to mineral forms
d) All of the above
11) _____- corroding organisms are becoming very problematic
a) Titanium
b) Gold
c) Aluminum
d) Steel
e) Iron
12) Which of the following was/were used to increase biodegradation after the Exxon valdez oil spell?
a) Nutrient additions
b) Chemical dispersants
c) Biosurfactant additions
d) High pressure steam
e) All of the above
13) Nonbiological foreign chemicals are term
a) Antibiotics
b) Probiotics
c) Prebiotics
d) Xenobiotics
e) Neurobiotics
14) _____ seems to be most efficient at degradation of nonbiological chemicals
a) Algae
b) Animals
c) Bacteria
d) Fungi
e) Plants
15) Which organism produces insecticidal activity?
a) Bacillus cereus
b) Bacillus substilis
c) Bacillus stearothermophilis
d) Bacillus thuringiensis
e) Escherichia coli
16) _____ open frames can be typically scanned in the microarray format.
a) Few
b) Tons of
c) Hundreds of
d) Thousands of
e) Millions of

03459602978

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1

MCQ, s Of Prescott Microbiology book

Chapter # 1 History and Scope of Microbiology

1) Which event came first?

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

Chapter # 2 Study of Microbial Structure: Microscopy and Specimen Preparation

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

1) The sub stage condenser

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

a) The specimen must be stained with osmium or other heavy metal.

Chapter # 3 Eukaryotic Cell structure and Function.

1) The significance of the plasma membrane is that

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

Chapter # 4 Prokaryotic Cell Structure and Function

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

16) Cell walls, when they exists, usually contain peptidoglycan in

Chapter # 5 Microbial Nutrition

1) All of the following are true about agar except it

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

a) a continual supply of abundant oxygen

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

____ Cyanobacteria photolithotrophic autotroph

28-29. Compare the following entities (I and II)

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

d) I may stand more than one of the above relations to II.

Chapter # 6 Bacterial Growth

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

Compare the following entities (I and II)

25) I. average size of cells during the exponential phase of growth

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

26) I. Generation time of cells during exponential phase of growth

Chapter # 7 Control of Microorganisms by Physical and Chemical agents

1) Preserve food by salts and sugars works by

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

Use this information to answer the following questions

Compound salmonella Typhi staphylococcus aurous

Cetylpyridinium chloride 228 337

Hexachlorophene 5-15 15-40

Merthlolate 600 62.5

Ethanol 0.04 0.04

9) Which disinfectant was the most effective against Salmonella?

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

a) Intravenous solution (IV)

Compare the following entities (I & II)

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

Chapter # 8 Metabolism: Energy, Enzyme and Regulation

1) Which compound is being reduced in this reaction?

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

Compare the entities I and II

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

c) I is exactly or approximately equal to II

Chapter # 9 Energy Releases and Conservation

1) Identify the reaction below

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com

a) Ethanol keeps the electron transport system functioning

Compare the following entities (I and II)

By M.Nadeem Khan goloden_star1992@outlook.com