ALLEN - NCERT Based Objective - Biology

NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS Serial
C O N T E N T S
Page
No. No.
1. The Living World 1
2. Biological Classification 2
3. Plant Kingdom 7
4. Animal Kingdom 11
(CLASS-XI)
5. Morphology of Flowering Plants 25
6. Anatomy of Flowering plants 29
7. Structural organisation in 32
animals/animal tissue/cockroach
8. Cell - The unit of life 34
9. Biomolecules 40
10. Cell Cycle & Cell Division 44
11. Plant Physiology :
Transport in plants 48
Mineral nutrition 49
Photosynthesis 51
Respiration in plants 52
Growth & development 54
12. Digestion and Absorption 57
13. Breathing & Exchange of gases 60
14. Body fluid & Circulation 62
15. Excretory products & their elimination 65
16. Locomotion & Movement 67
17. Neural Control & Coordination 69

E 18. Chemical Coordination & Integration 72
ALLEN NCERT-Biology 1
THE LIVING WORLD

1. The number of species that are known and described 6. Taxonomical aid which contain actual account of
ranges between : habitat and distribution of plants of a given area :
(1) 1-2 million (2) 1.7 - 1.8 billion (1) Flora (2) Fauna
(3) 1.7 - 1.8 million (4) 7 million (3) Manual (4) Monograph
2. Grouping of any thing into convenient categories 7. The taxonomic aid, which is useful in providing
based on some easily observable characters called: information for identification of names of species
found in an area, called :
(1) Nomenclature (2) Identification
(1) Flora (2) Museum
(3) Classification (4) Taxonomy
(3) Manual (4) Monograph
3. Branch of biology, which deals with study of
8. Monographs are concerned with :
evolutionary relationship between organism :-
(1) Information of any species only
(1) Plant anatomy (2) Systematics
(2) Information of any genus only
(3) Ecology (4) Physiology
(3) Information of any family only
4. In taxonomic hierarchy plant families are
characterised by (4) Information of any one taxon
(1) Only vegetative features of plant species 9. ICZN is used for
(2) Genetic features of plant species (1) Virus
(3) Both vegetative and floral features of plant (2) Bacteria

species (3) Cultivated plants
(4) Neither vegetative nor floral features of plant (4) Animals
species
10. Plant Ocimum sanctum belongs to kingdom plantae.
5. In botanical gardens various plant species are grown As per taxonomic terminology term kingdom and
for which purpose? plantae are respectively :
(1) Identification (1) taxon and category
(2) Nomenclature (2) category and taxon
(3) Classification (3) taxon and division
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) taxonomy and systematics
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT_OBJECTIVE_BIO\CLASS_XI\ENGLISH.P65
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 3 2 3 1 1 3 4 4 2
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2 NCERT-Biology ALLEN
BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION
1. Which group shows the most extensive metabolic 8. Choose the correct set of bacterial disease :-
diversity ? (1) Mumps, cholera, dengue
(1) Plantae (2) Animalia (2) Chicken pox, typhoid, mumps
(3) Monera (4) Fungi (3) Mumps, tetanus, chicken pox
(4) Cholera, typhoid, tetanus
2. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in :-
(1) Nucleoid 9. Choose the incorrect statement regarding
Mycoplasma :-
(2) Composition of cell wall
(1) They lack cell wall
(3) Composition of cytoplasm
(2) They are smallest living cell
(4) Composition of genetic material
3. Which group of organisms is responsible for the (3) They can survive without oxygen
production of biogas from the dung of cows and (4) They have mesosome for respiration
buffaloes ? 10. According to five kingdom system single-celled
(1) Methanomonas (2) Methanogens eukaroytes are placed under :-
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Mycoplasma (1) Plantae (2) Monera
4. Choose the correct statement :- (3) Protista (4) Fungi
(1) Most of the bacteria are autotrophs 11. According to five kingdom system, kingdom protista
includes :-
(2) All bacteria are heterotrophs
(1) Dinoflagellates, Diatoms, Euglenoids, Slime
(3) Some bacteria are heterotrophs
mould, Bacteria
(4) Most of the bacteria are heterotrophs
(2) Eunglenoids, Fungi, Slime mould, Dinoflagellates,
5. Which of the following character is common in both Protozoans
cyanobacteria and green plants ?
(3) Slime mould, Protozoans, Dionflagellates,
(1) Cell wall composition Diatoms, Euglenoids
(2) Presence of chlorophyll 'a' (4) Protozoans, Moss, Euglenoids, Slime mould,
(3) Presence of Nif gene Diatoms
(4) Presence of 80s ribosome 12. Cell wall of diatoms are embedded with :-
6. Nostoc can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised (1) Calcium oxylate crystals
cell, called :- (2) Silica particles
(1) Harmocyst (3) Iron
(2) Harmogonium
(4) Calcium carbonate crystals

(3) Heterocyst
13. Which are chief producers of oceans ?
(4) Akinete
(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates
7. Which process is not performed by bacterial activity?
(3) Euglenoid (4) Green algae
(1) Production of antibiotics
14. Which organism is responsible for making the sea
(2) Fixing nitrogen in legumes appear red by rapid multiplication ?
(3) Making curd from milk
(1) Euglena (2) Noctiluca
(4) Production of pseudomycelium
(3) Gonyaulax (4) Trypanosoma
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15. Euglenoids have a protein rich layer instead of a 22. Mycelium of members of phycomycetes is :-
cell wall. This layer is called as :- (1) Septate and coenocytic
(1) Epidermis (2) Skin (2) Aseptate and coenocytic
(3) Pellicle (4) Middle layer (3) Septate and multicellular
(4) Septate and unicellular
16. Choose the incorrect statement from following:
23. Ch oose the incorrect statement abo ut
(1) Dinoflagellates have stiff cellulosic plates on the
phycomycetes :-
outer surface
(1) Members are found in aquatic habitats
(2) Euglenoids have two flagella, one lies
(2) Spores are endogenously produced in sporangium
longitudinally and the other transversely
(3) Zygospore is formed by reduction division
(3) Slime mould spores are dispersed by air (4) Its members reproduce sexually may be
currents isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous.
(4) In diatoms, the cell walls form two thin 24. Which is not a member of Phycomycetes ?
overlapping shells, which fit together as in a (1) Albugo (2) Aspergillus
soap box. (3) Rhizopus (4) Mucor
17. The cell wall of fungi are composed of :- 25. Which fungus is used extensively in biochemical and
(1) Chitin and cellulose genetic work ?
(1) Agaricus (2) Aspergillus
(2) Cellulose and polysaccharides
(3) Claviceps (4) Neurospora
(3) Chitin and polysaccharides
26. Ch oose the incorrect statement abo ut
(4) Chitin, polysaccharides and glycogen ascomycetes :-
18. Which group of organisms is used to make bread (1) Mycelium is branched and septate
and beer ? (2) Sexual spores are produced endogenously
(1) Rhizopus (2) Yeast (3) They have sac like structure in which karyogamy
(3) Albugo (4) Neurospora takes place
(4) Reduction division occurs in fruiting bodies and
19. Fungus prefers to grow in :-
form conidia
(1) Warm and humid places
27. Which group of organism is related with
(2) Cold and humid places basidiomycetes ?
(3) Warm and cold both (1) Mushroom, Ustilago, Aspergillus
(4) Warm, cold and humid places (2) Puffballs, Agaricus, Aspergillus
20. In fungi when the hyphae are continuous and (3) Mushroom, Ustilago, Agaricus
branched tubes and fibled with multinucleated (4) Ustilago, Aspergillus, Agaricus
cytoplasm, these are called :- 28. Which set of diseases is caused by members of
basidiomycetes ?
(1) Unicellular hyphae
(1) Rust and smut

(2) Coenocytic hyphae (2) Ergot and smut
(3) Multicellular hyphae (3) Ergot and rust
(4) Powdery mildew and rust
(4) Both 1 and 3
29. Fungi imperfacti are called,
21. In fungi sexual reproduction is by :-
(1) members of phycomycetes
(1) Fragmentation, Ascospores and Basidiospores
(2) members of ascomycetes
(2) Budding, Conidia, and Basidiospores
(3) members of basidiomycetes
(3) Oospores, Ascospores and Basidiospores
(4) members of deuteromycetes
(4) Fission, Zoospores, Oospores
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30. Which is not found in members of deuteromycetes ? 37. Endomycorrhizal fungus is :-
(1) Asexual reproduction (1) Pythium (2) Mucor (3) Glomus (4) Rhizopus
(2) Mode of nutrition
38. Generally plant viruses are :-
(3) Structure of mycelium
(1) Double stranded DNA viruses
(4) Sexual reproduction
(2) Single stranded RNA viruses
31. Which disease is not caused by a fungus ?
(1) Late blight of potato (2) Black rust of wheat (3) Single stranded DNA viruses
(3) Red rust of pea (4) Ergot of rye (4) Double stranded RNA viruses
32. Which of the following are noncellular organisms that 39. Which of the following are not included in the five
are characterized by having an inert crystalline kingdom system of classification ?
structure outside the living cell:-
(a) Viruses (b) Viroid (c) Lichen (d) Prions
(1) Bacteria
(1) only a and b
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Virus (2) only b, c and d
(4) Lichen (3) only a and c

33. Select false statement :- (4) All a, b, c and d
(1) Lichens are symbiotic association between algae 40. Select incorrect statement about lichens :-
& fungi
(1) These are very good pollution indicators
(2) Viruses are smaller than bacteria
(2) The algal component of lichen is known as
(3) Virus name are obligate parasites
phycobiont
(4) Viruses are facultative parasite
(3) The fungal component of lichen is known as
34. Which one of the following statement is true about
mycobiont
bacteriophages ?
(4) The algal component of lichen is known as
(1) They are generally single stranded RNA viruses.
mycobiont
(2) They are generally double stranded DNA viruses
41. Select incorrect statement :-
(3) They are generally single stranded DNA viruses.
(1) W.M. Stanly showed that viruses could be
(4) They are generally double stranded RNA viruses crystallized.
35. Select incorrect statement about viroid :- (2) In addition to protein coat viruses also contain
genetic material that could be either RNA or DNA
(1) Free infectious RNA
(3) The small sub units of capsid called capsomeres
(2) It was discovered by T.O. Diener
(4) The small subunits of capsid are called peplomers

(3) It causes potato spindle tuber disease
42. Which among the following was not the criteria for
(4) It contains high molecular weight RNA
classification of organisms into 5 kingdoms proposed
36. Which is incorrect statement ? by Whittaker ?
(1) The Mycoplasma are organisms that completely (1) Complexity of cell
lack a cell wall (2) Phylogenetic relationship
(2) Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen (3) Mode of nutrition
(3) Mycoplasma are the smallest living cells. (4) Metabolism
(4) Mycoplasma are sensitive to penicillin
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43. Find out the wrong statement about kingdom fungi 50. Single celled eukaryotes placed under protista and
proposed by Whittaker : they link with fungi, plants and animals. Slime moulds
(1) Eukaryotic organism are saprophytic protists. What is incorrect about slime
moulds :
(2) Chitinous cell wall
(3) Multicellular with well distinct tissue system (1) Body moves along decaying twigs and leaves
engulfing organic matter
(4) Heterotrophic (saprophytic or parastic) mode of
nutrition (2) Under suitable conditions they form plasmodium
which may grow and spread over several feet
44. In five kingdom classification of Whittaker, all
prokaryotic organism were grouped together under (3) Under favourable conditions plasmodium
kingdom monera. Among the following statements differentiate and form fruiting body
findout incorrect for Bacteria : (4) Their spores possesses cell wall
(1) Bacteria are gouped under four groups based
51. Which of the following group of organisms show a
on their shape
great diversity in morphology and habitat :-
(2) They are simple in structure, but complex in
(1) Chrysophytes
behaviour
(3) They show most extensive metabolic diversity (2) Dinoflagellates
(4) The vast majority of bacteria are autotrophs (3) Protozoan protists
45. According to five kingdom system of classification, (4) Fungi
single celled eukaryotes are placed under protista,
members of protista are primarily 52. Fungi constitute a unique kingdom of heterotrophic
organisms. About their reproduction which
(1) Terrestrial (2) Aquatic
combination is not true :
(3) Saprophytic (4) Epiphytic
(1) Fragmentation, Fission, Budding
46. Which kingdom out of five kingdoms proposed by
Whittaker, forms a link with others dealing with (2) Conidia, Sporangiospores, Zoospores
plants, animals and fungi ? (3) Oospore, Ascospore, Basidiospores
(1) Monera (2) Protista (4) Fragmentation, Zoospores, Ascospore
(3) Plantae (4) Fungi 53. On the basis of intervening dikaryotic stage which
47. Chrysophytes involves : of the following fungal group is odd :
(1) diatoms (2) dinoflagellates (1) Phycomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes
(3) desmids (4) both 1 and 3
(3) Ascomycetes (4) Club fungi
48. Released toxins of which group of protista is the cause
54. Kingdom fungi classify into various classes based on
of death of other marine animals such as fishes :-
some parameters except :
(1) Chrysophytes
(1) Morphology of mycelium

(2) Dianoflagellates
(2) Mode of spore formation
(3) Desmids
(3) Dikaryophase
(4) Euglenoids
(4) Fruiting body
49. In deprived of sunlight which group of protista behave
55. Which of the following is not applicable on
like heterotrophs by predating on other smaller
phycomycetes :
organisms :-
(1) Obligate parasites on plants
(1) Slime moulds (2) Protozoans
(2) Found in moist and damp places
(3) Euglenoids (4) Dinoflagellates
(3) Septate, Coenocytic mycelium
(4) Endogenously produced spores
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56. In which class of fungi generally sex organs are 60. Match the column-I (name of scientist) with column-
absent but plasmogamy is brought about by fusion II (their contribution) and select correct option.
of two vegetative or somatic cells which have
Column-I Column-II
different strains or genotypes.
(1) Phycomycetes a D.J. Ivanowsky i Discovery of viroids
(2) Ascomycetes b Beijerineck ii Crystallisation of virus
(3) Basidiomycetes c W.M. Stanley iii Contagium vivum
(4) Deuteromycetes fluidum

d T.O. Diener iv Discovery of TMV
57. Ones perfect (Sexual) stages of members of
deuteromycetes were discovered they were often
moved to (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(1) Phycomycetes (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
61. About pathogenecity of viruses which among the
(2) Ascomycetes only
following is not correct ?
(3) Basidiomycetes only (1) Plant infecting viruses having ssRNA
(4) Either ascomycetes or basidiomycetes (2) Animal infecting viruses having single or double
stranded RNA or double stranded DNA
58. Majority of members of deuteromycetes are (3) Bacteriophages usually have double stranded
(1) Autotrophs RNA
(4) Bacterophages usually have double stranded
(2) Parasites DNA
(3) Decomposers 62. Virus is a connecting link between living and non
living organisms, when it attack on plant, Which
(4) Symbiotic
among the following donot appear
59. In kingdom plantae, alternation of generation is not (1) Gall formation
associated with (2) Mosaic formation
(3) Leaf rolling and curling
(1) Sporophytic and gametophytic phase
(4) Yellowing and vein clearing
(2) Length of haploid & diploid phases 63. Which among the following is the characteristic of
viroids
(3) Number of haploid and diploid phases
(1) Larger than viruses
(4) Freeliving or dependent nature of haploid & diploid (2) Have free infectious DNA
phases (3) Have free infectious RNA
(4) Have high molecular weight RNA
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 2 2 4 2 3 4 4 4 3 3 2 1 3 3 2 3 2 1 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 2 3 2 4 4 3 1 4 4 3 3 4 2 4 4 3 2 4 4
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 4 3 4 2 2 4 2 3 3 4 4 1 3 3 3 4 3 3 1
Que. 61 62 63
Ans. 3 1 3
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PLANT KINGDOM
1. Which group does not produce embryo ? 11. The megaspore mother cell in gymnosperms is
differentiated from :-
(1) Algae (2) Moss
(1) Integument (2) Embryosac
(3) Liverworts (4) Club moss
(3) Nucellus (4) Endosperm
2. Which group of plants conduct water and minerals
by xylem tracheids ? 12. Which is not common in Chlorella and Spirulina ?
(1) Algae (2) Mosses (1) both are unicellular
(3) Liverworts (4) Gymnosperms (2) both are rich in protein
3. In which group the male and female sex organs (3) both are used as food supplement
are called antheridia and archegonia, respectively ?
(4) both are prokaryotes
(1) Blue green algae (2) Eubacteria
13. Majority of red algae tend to grow in :-
(3) Protista (4) Bryophyta
(1) Marine and warmer areas
4. The group of plants, in which body is differentiated
(2) Marine and colder areas
into root, stem and leaf :-
(3) Freshwater and warmer areas
(1) Chlorophyceae (2) Phaeophyceae
(4) Brackish water and colder areas
(3) Lycopsida (4) Hepaticopsida
14. Pyriform, biflagellate gametes are produced in:-
5. Which is not an example of moss plants ?
(1) Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia
(1) Funaria (2) Polytrichum
(2) Ectocarpus, Laminaria
(3) Sphagnum (4) Colletotrichum
(3) Ulothrix, Polysiphonia
6. Strobilli or cones are not formed in :-
(4) Fucus, Porphyra
(1) Lycopods (2) Sphenopsids
15. Autotrophic aquatic organisms which usually
(3) Conifers (4) Ferns
reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation, asexual
7. In which group of plants both male and female by non motile spores and perform sexual
gametophytes do not have an independent free reproduction also by the non-motile gametes. These
living existence ? organisms are :-
(1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes (1) Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gracilaria
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Both 1 and 2 (2) Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria
8. Sporophylls are arranged spirally along an axis, (3) Laminaria, Fucus, Sargassum
when they aggregate, to form :-
(4) Volvox, Chara, Spirogyra
(1) Strobillus (2) Flowers
16. Which is not true about agar ?
(3) Inflorescence (4) Thalamus
(1) It is obtained from red alga

9. The gametophyte of pteridophytes require to grow :-
(2) It is used to grow (culture) microbes
(1) Warm, damp, and shady place
(3) It is used to make ice-cream and gellies
(2) Cool, damp, and shady place
(4) It is used as food supplement even by space
(3) Warm, dry, and shady place travellers
(4) Cool, dry, and place of well sunshine 17. At present most acceptable system of classification
10. Zygotic meiosis occurs in :- is :-
(1) Artificial system (2) Natural system
(1) Pinus (2) Funaria
(3) Phylogenetic system (4) Practical system
(3) Pteridium (4) Chara
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18. Fill in the blanks a, b, c and d by observing the 23. Predominant stage of them is gametophyte, they
characters given in the table and choose the correct vegetatively reproduce by fragmentation and
answer from the following options :- budding. They produce male and female gametes
Plant Main Fertilisation Vascular Female in antheridia and archegonia, respectively. After
group body tissue sex organ fertilisation zygote develops into a sporophyte
consisting of foot, seta and capsule, in them spore
Bryophyta Gameto- By Zoido- Absent (c)
formed in their capsule form protonema on
phyte gamy
germination. The above description is about the
Pterido- (a) By Zoido- (b) Arche-
group :-
phyta gamy gonium
(1) Lycopsida (2) Bryopsida
Gymno- Sporo- By Siphono- present (d)
(3) Hepaticopsida (4) Psilopsida
sperm phyte gamy and
Zoidogamy 24. Integumented megasporangia are formed in :-
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Phanerogames (2) Cryptogames only

(1) Sporophyte Present Archegonium Archegonium (3) Gymnosperms only (4) Pteridophytes only
(2) Sporophyte Absent Oogonium Archegonium 25. Evolutionary first terrestrial plants to possess
(3) Gametophyte Present Oogonium Carpel vascular tissues xylem and phloem are :-
(4) Gametophyte Present Archegonium Carpel (1) Psilopsids (2) Lycopods
19. A group of algae, having following characters:- (3) Pteropsids (4) Sphenopsids
(a) Chlorophyll a and b are present 26. Needle like leaves to reduce the surface area, thick
(b) Chloroplast has one or many pyrenoids cuticle, and sunken stomata to reduce water loss
etc. are the xerophytic characters present in :-
(c) Cell wall made of cellulose and pectose
(1) Pteridophytes
(d) Reserve food material is starch
(2) Gymnosperms
Which one of the following is also a very important
character including above characters to call it as (3) Angiosperms
a member of chlorophyceae ? (4) Sphenopsida
(1) Plant body colonial only 27. Most reduced gametophyte is found in :-
(2) Plant body is made of haploid cells called (1) Bryophyta
as gametophyte (2) Pteridophyta
(3) Its flagellar character may be 2–8 in number, (3) Gymnosperms
equal and apical (4) Angiosperms
(4) It may occur in fresh water, brackish water or 28. Consider the following characters :-
salt water
(A) Formation of only one functional megaspore in
20. In which member chlorophyll a, c and fucoxantin a megasporangium
are present ?
(B) Formation of hard covering around
(1) Ectocarpus (2) Gelidium megasporangium
(3) Volvox (4) Vaucheria (C) Development of embryo from zygote within the
21. Floridean starch is characteristic feature of :- female gametophyte

(1) Polysiphonia, Gracilaria, Porphyra (D) Ret ention o f megaspore inside t he
(2) Laminaria, Sargassum, Porphyra megasporangium
(3) Polysiphonia, Laminaria, Porphyra These were very essential events occurred during the
(4) Chara, Dictyota, Polysiphonia course of evolution for the phenomenon of:-
22. Gemmae are the structures of :- (1) Heterospory

(1) Asexual reproduction produced in Marchantia (2) Seed habit
(2) Sexual reproduction produced in most mosses (3) Fruit formation
(3) Asexual reproduction produced in most mosses
(4) Covered seed formation
(4) Sexual reproduction produced in most liverworts
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29. In gymnosperms, the megaspore forms :- 37. The habitat where algae can be found in ?
(1) Endosperm (2) Female gamete (1) Moist stones (2) Moist wood
(3) Male gamete (4) Male cone (3) Moist soil (4) All of the above
30. Find the odd one with respect to ploidy?
38. The most common type of spores produced in algae
(1) Spore (2) Sporophyte
during asexual reproduction are :-
(3) Archegonium (4) Antheridium
(1) Aplanospores (2) Conidia
31. Which of the following is odd one from the following
about liverworts ? (3) Zoospores (4) Hypnospores
(1) Foot, Seta, Capsule 39. Fusion between a large, nonmotile (static) female
(2) Spore, Archegonium, Antheridium gamete and a smaller, motile male gamete is termed
(3) Multicellular rhizoids , Primary protonema & as :-
Secondary protonema (1) Isogamy
(4) Rhizoids, Gemmae, Scales (2) Oogamy
32. Which is not true about fern plants ? (3) Anisogamy
(1) They produce sori on sporophylls
(4) Autogamy
(2) They produce male and female cone by spiral
arrangement of sporophylls 40. Non vascular archegoniate plants are :-
(3) Some fern plants are heterosporous also (1) Thallophytes

(4) Some ferns are aquatic also (2) Bryophytes
33. In a sphenopsid plant number of chromosome in (3) Pteridophytes
the cells of scaly leaves is 24, what will be the
(4) Gymnosperm
number of chromosomes in its cells of stem, spore,
and prothallus respectively :- 41. Vascular plants pro ducing i ntegumented
(1) 24, 12, 12 (2) 24, 24, 12 megasporangia but not ovary are :-
(3) 12, 24, 12 (4) 24, 12, 24 (1) Pteridophytes
34. Which group of plants is of less economic (2) Gymnosperms
importance but have ecological importance?
(3) Angiosperms
(1) Gymnosperms (2) Angiospems
(4) Bryophytes
(3) Bryophyta (4) Pteridophyta
42. The same type of relation occuring in magaspore
35. Normally in gymnosperms how many archegonia
mother cell and nucellus can also be seen in :-
are produced in an ovule ?
(1) One (1) Female gamete and antheridium
(2) Two (2) Male gamete and endosperm
(3) Two or more (3) Egg cell and archegonium
(4) Always one
(4) Neck canal cell and antheridium

36. Select the false statement ? 43. Which is not true about the uses of algae ?
(1) Cyanobacteria, that are also referred to as blue-
(1) They increase the level of dissolved oxygen in
green algae are not algae any more
their immediate environment
(2) Green algae, brown algae, red algae,
bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and (2) They are of paramount importance as primary
angiosperms are included under the kingdom producer of energy
plantae (3) Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are used
(3) Artificial systems gave equal weightage to as food
vegetative and sexual characteristics.
(4) Certain marine brown algae produce agar which
(4) Cytotaxonomy uses the chemical constituents of
is used to make ice-creams
the plant cells to resolve confusions of taxonomy.
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44. Which one of the following is not the ecological 45. In most of the plants reduction division occurs during
importance of moss plants ? the formation of :-
(1) Some mosses provide food for herbaceous (1) Male gamete and female gamete
mammals birds and other animals (2) Male sex organ and female sex organ
(2) Very high water holding capacity of mosses is (3) Microspore and megaspore
useful for trans-shipment of living materials
(4) Microsporangium and Megasporangium
(3) Mosses algong with lichens are the pioneering
organisms to colonise rocks
(4) Mosses form dense mats on the soil and reduce
the impact of falling rain.
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 4 4 3 4 4 3 1 2 4 3 4 1 2 1 4 3 1 3 1
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 1 2 1 1 2 4 2 1 2 3 2 1 3 3 4 4 3 2 2
Que . 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 3 4 2 3
E
ANIMAL KINGDOM
Protozoans, basis of classification and Phylum 9. Spongilla and Euspongia are the members of
porifera phylum porifera, bearing which of the following
1. Pick the odd pair out :- characters?
(1) Cellular level : Porifera (1) They have a water transport or canal system.
(2) Tissue level : Aschelminthes (2) These are hermaphrodites with internal
(3) Organ level : Platyhelminthes fertilization
(4) Organ system level : Annelida (3) Both 1 and 2
2. Animals possess various type of symmetry, select (4) These are exclusively marine
the correctly matched :-
10. Select the set of organisms which have metameric
(1) Echinodermates – radial symmetry segmentation :-
(2) Arthropods – bilateral symmetry
(1) Physalia, Fasciola, Hirudinaria
(3) Sponges – mostly asymmetrical
(2) Gorgonia, Aedes, Chaetopleura
(4) All of these
(3) Asterias, Balanoglossus, Branchiostoma
3. Select the group of organism given below those have
(4) Pheretima, Periplaneta, Frog
diploblastic members only :-
(1) Ctenoplana, Taenia, Fasciola 11. Locomotory structure are absent in :-
(2) Physalia, Meandrina (1) Flagellated protozoans
(3) Wuchereria, Culex, Limulus (2) Sporozoans

(4) Aedes, Ascaris, Hydra (3) Ciliated protozoans
4. Open blood vascular system is found in :- (4) Amoeboid protozoans
(1) Saccoglossus (2) Anopheles 12. Amoeboid protozoans are characterised by :-
(3) Pila (4) All of these (1) Cilia
5. Select the option with all pseudocoelomates animals ? (2) Flagella
(1) Ascaris, Fasciola, Taenia (3) Pseudopodia
(2) Culex, Locusta, Limulus (4) None of these
(3) Wuchereria, Ascaris, Ancylostoma 13. Which of the following pair is not correctly
(4) Nereis, Hirudinaria, Wuchereria matched ?
6. Closed blood vascular system is found in :- (1) Entamoeba : Dysentry
(1) Bombyx (2) Sepia
(2) Plasmodium : Malaria
(3) Balanoglossus (4) Ascidia
(3) Trypanosoma : Kala azar
7. The members of phylum porifera are called
sponges, having numerous distinguishable character, (4) Giardia : Diarrhoea
but which of the following is considered as their 14. The correct set for porifera is :-
peculiar character? (1) Acoelomates, Fresh water, Zooplanktonic,
(1) These are diploblastic animals Triploblastic, Cell aggregate body plan
(2) Mostly members are marine and some are (2) Eucoelomat es, Marine, Sedentary,
fresh water
diploblastic, blind sac body plan
(3) Choanocytes which line the spongocoel
(3) Celluar level of organisation, Mostly Marine,
(4) Intracelluar digestion
Sedentary, diploblastic
8. Organ level of organisation is found in :-
(4) Acoelo mates, Mari ne, Sedentary,
(1) Spongilla (2) Pleurobranchia
diploblastic, blind sac body plan
(3) Taenia (4) Obelia
E
15. Which one of the following invertebrates is a 24. The symmetry found in an animal which can be
protos tomic, bilateral symmetric and divided into indentical left and right halves in only
pseudocoelomate :- one plane is:-
(1) Pila (2) Aphrodite (1) Spherical (2) Bilateral
(3) Wuchereria (4) Hirudinaria
(3) Radial (4) Biradial
16. Choose the correct statement from the following :-
25. Gullet of Paramecium is meant for :-
(1) Poriferans are generally marine
(2) Mostly poriferans are asymmetrical (1) Osmoregulation (2) Ingestion
(3) Ch oanocytes or collar cells line t he (3) Egestion (4) Reproduction

spongocoel and the canals.
26. Which one is monogenetic parasite ?
(4) All of the above
(1) Trypanosoma (2) Plasmodium
17. Digestion in Cnidarians is :-
(1) Extracellular (2) Intracellular (3) Entamoeba (4) Liver fluke
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) None of these Phylum Coelenterata to Hemichordata
18. Which of the following sponge is also known as 'Bath 27. Echinodermates are considered as the first
sponge' ? deuterostomic animals. They possess which of the
(1) Spongilla (2) Scypha following common characters?
(3) Euspongia (4) Leucosolenia
(1) The adult echinoderms are radially
19. Which of the following is not locomotory organelles symmetrical but larvae are bilatera lly
of protozoans ?
symmetrical.
(1) Cilia (2) Flagella
(2) Excretory system is absent
(3) Tubefeet (4) Pseudopodia
20. Metamerism is found in :- (3) Development is indirect with free
swimming larva.
(1) Arthropoda, Annelida, Chordata
(2) Mollusca, Porifera, Echinodermata (4) All of the above
(3) Aschelminthes, Annelida, Chordata 28. Phylum Arthropoda considered as the largest
(4) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca phylum among the kingdom animalia. They possess
21. Trypanosoma belongs to group :- which of the following common characters?
(1) Amoeboids protozoans (1) They have jointed appendages
(2) Sporozoans
(2) Open blood circulation
(3) Flagellated protozoans
(3) Both1 and 2
(4) Ciliated protozoans
22. Paramecium moves about by :- (4) Excretion takes place through flame cells.
(1) Pseudopodia 29. Fasciola and Taenia are the members of phylum
(2) Cilia platyhelminthes bearing which of the following
(3) Both 1 and 2 characters ?
(4) Flagella (1) They have organ level of organisation

23. The phyla showing radial symmetry :- (2) Flame cells help in osmoregulation and
(1) Echino dermata, coelen tera ta and excretion
ctenophora
(3) They have dorso-ventrally flattened body
(2) Porifera, mollusca and echinodermata
(3) Protozoa and coelenterata (4) All of the above
(4) Coelenterata, ctenophora and annelida
E
30. The biological name of animals and their popular 35. Distinguishing character of hemichordate is :-
common name are given below, select the correctly (1) Open circulatory system
matched among following :-
(2) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
(1) Ancylostoma - Hookworm
(3) They are dioecious
(2) Octopus - Squid
(3) Antedon - Brittle star
36. Select the distinguish able charact ers of
(4) Laccifer - Locust Echinodermates from Hemichordates :-
31. The members of phylum Aschelminthes are called (1) These animals have an endoskeleton of
round worms, having numerous distinguishable calcareous ossicles
character, but which of the following can not be
(2) They have water vascular system
considered as their character?
(3) The adult echinoderms are radially
(1) These are pseudocoelomate animals symmetrical
(2) They are bilaterally symmetrical (4) All of the above
(3) Organ system level of body organisation 37. An observer collect some sample like Pheretima,
(4) Round worms are monoecious. Herudinaria and Bombyx, Select the common
characters among them :-
32. Members of phylum annelida and arthropoda show
metamerism and have a lot of common features (1) Ventral Nerve chord
like? (2) They show metamerism
(1) Solid, double ventral nerve cord (3) Both 1 and 2
(2) Schizocoelomate (4) Open circulatory system
(3) Both 1 and 2 38. Which of the following may be considered as the
(4) Open blood circulation unique feature of members of phylum arthropoda?
33. The body cavity which is lined by mesoderm is called (1) They have ventral nerve cord
coelom, if the mesoderm is present as scattered (2) They have open circulatory system
pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm, (3) They have jointed appendages
such a body cavity is called pseudocoelom, select (4) Development may be direct or indirect
the pseudocoelomate phylum :-
39. Nereis and Pheretima are similar to Sepia and
(1) Annelida Octopus in which one of the following features?
(2) Arthropoda (1) Dorsal nerve cord
(3) Echinodermata (2) They are dioecious
(4) Aschelminthes
(3) Both 1 and 2
34. Apis, Bombyx, Laccifer and Anopheles are the
(4) Closed circulatory system
members of phylum Arthropoda. Select the
characters those are exclusive to the members of 40. In which one of the following organism its respiratory
Phylum-Arthropoda :- organs are correctly matched ?
(1) They have jointed appandages (1) Starfish - Pharyngeal Gills
(2) Excretion takes place through malpighian (2) King crab - Book gills
tubules. (3) Cuttle fish - Book lungs
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Earthworm - Tracheal system
(4) Enterocoelomic coelom
E
41. Which one of the following statements is correct 47. What is common to Pheretima, Culex and Limulus?
either for Physalia or Pila or both. (1) Ventral nerve cord
(1) Th ey h ave orga n syste m level of (2) Metamerism
organisation. (3) Coelomate
(2) They are bilaterally symmetrical. (4) All of the above
(3) Pila has a rasping organs for feeding called 48. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
radula (A) Flame cells - Taenia, Fasciola
(4) Pila is also called as Fresh water mussel (B) Notochord - Balanoglossus
42. Which one of the following statements about certain (C) Metagenesis - Physalia and Obelia
given animals is correct? (D) Open circulatory system - Apis, Pila and
Laccifer
(1) Octopus shows metamerism
(1) A, B and C
(2) Flat worms are pseudocoelomates
(2) A and C
(3) Insects are coelomates
(3) A, C and D
(4) Adult e chin oderms are b ilaterally (4) A and B
symmetrical
49. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a
43. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of body feature and the animal possessing it?
phylum mollusca ? (1) Canal system - Asterias
(1) Coelomates (2) Segmentation (2) Metagenesis - Obelia
(3) Mantle (4) Shell (3) Dorsal nerve cord - Pheretima
44. Which one of the following phyla is correctly (4) Muscular pharynx - Taenia
matched with its general characteristics ? 50. What is true about Neries, Apis, Columba,
(1) Porifera - Cellular level of organisation and Macropus and Chelone?
external fertilisation (1) Dorsal hollow nerve cord
(2) Coelenterata - Diploblastic and internal fertilisation (2) Ventral solid nerve cord
(3) Aschelminthes - Pseudocoelomates and (3) Closed circulatory system
dioecious
(4) Metamerism
(4) Hemichordata - Coelomates and closed
51. Which one of the following is a living fossil?
circulatory system
(1) Echinus (2) Pinctada
45. Which of the following pair of animals comprise
(3) Hirudinaria (4) Limulus
'Comb jellies'?
52. Which one of the following is a matching pair of an
(1) Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibits :-
(2) Pleurobranchia and Ctenoplana (1) Octopus - Metamerism
(3) Sea anemone and sea pen (2) Hydra - Metagenesis

(3) Ascaris - Sexual dimorphism
(4) Sea lily and brittle star
46. Select the incorrect statement among the following:- (4) Pheretima - Indirect development
53. Fasciola belongs to a group of animals. Which are
(1) Members of phylum ctenophora are commonly
best described as :
known as "Comb Jellies".
(1) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and
(2) When any plane passing through the central
Acoelomates.
axis of the body divides the organism into two
identical halves, is called radial symmetry (2) Dorso-ventrally flattened body
(3) Earthworm and Nereis are monoecious (3) Mostly monoecious
(4) Body of Balanoglossus is composed of (4) All of the above
proboscis, collar and trunk
E
54. Which one of the following group of animals is 59. Which one of the following characters is not typical
correctly matched with their two characteristic of the class Aves ?
morphological features?
(1) The long bones are hollow with air cavities.
(1) Pavo, Camelus, Delphinus - Dorsal hollow
(2) They are oviparous and development is direct.
nerve cord and poikilothermous
(3) Air sacs connected to lungs supplement
(2) Ast erias, o phiu ra , Balanoglossus an d
respiration
Saccoglossus - Enterocoelomate and Deute
rostomic (4) The Avian skin is moist with scales.
(3) Ascaris, Ancylostoma and Pheretima - 60. What is true for Reptilia ?
Pseudocoelomates and metamerism
(1) They have external ear opening
(4) Pila, Octopus, Apis and Bombyx - Open
(2) Sexes are separate and fertilization is external
circulatory system and Dorsal nerve cord
Chordata (3) Both 1 and 2
55. Which one of the following pair of animals belongs (4) Snakes and lizard shed their scales as skin cast
to 'Cartilaginous fishes'?
61. Reptiles are considered as the first amniote
(1) Labeo and Catla animals.They possess which of the following common
(2) Pterophyllum and Scoliodon characters?
(1) Tympanum represents ear. They do not have
(3) Pristis and Carcharodon
external ear opening
(4) Petromyzon and Myxine (2) Heart is usually four chambered.
56. Select the incorrect statement from the following : (3) Both 1 and 2
(1) Cyclostomates have an elongated body bearing (4) They are oviparous and development is indirect.
6-15 pairs of gill slits 62. Rana and Hyla are the members of class-Amphibia
bearing which of the following characters?
(2) All chordates are vertebrates
(1) A tympanum represents the ear.
(3) Bony fishes have four pairs of gills with operculum
(2) These are cold blooded animals.
(4) Reptiles are poikilotherms. (3) They have moist skin without scales.
57. Which one of the following is a correct matching set (4) All of these
of class and its examples? 63. The biological name and their popular common
(1) Mammalia - Ornithorhynchus, Pteropus and name of animals are given below, select the
Aptenodytes. correctly matched among the following ?
(2) Reptilia - Chameleon, Calotes, Neophron (1) Trygon - Saw Fish
(3) Amphibia - Rana, Ichthyophis, Crocodilus (2) Carcharodon - Great white shark
(3) Ornithrohynchus - Penguin

(4) Osteichthyes - Clarias , Pterophyllum, Catla
(4) Clarias - Fighting Fish
58. What is common about Corvus, Columba, Camelus
64. The members of class osteichthyes are called bony
and Elephas ?
fishes having numerous distinguishable character but
(1) They are viviparous and development is direct
which of the following can not be considered as their
(2) They are homiothermous animals and have 12 character?
pairs of cranial nerves. (1) Skin is covered with cycloid / Ctenoid scales.
(3) The digestive tract of these animals has (2) Air bladder is present which regulates buoyancy.
additional chambers, the crop and gizzard. (3) In males pelvic fins bear claspers
(4) They have dicondylic skull. (4) Mouth is mostly terminal
E
65. Members of class Reptilia, Aves and mammalia are 71. Which of the following pair are correctly matched?
amniotes and have a lot of common feature, but they (A) Protochordates - Lancelet
differ from each other remarkably, select the (B) Amniotes - Struthio, Aptenodytes, Chelone,
common features among them :- Equus
(1) They have 12-Pairs of cranial nerves. (C) Cartilaginous Fishes - Scoliodon, Trygon,
(2) One pair of metanephric kidney help in Hippocampus
excretion (D) Tunicates - Salpa, Doliolum, Ascidia
(3) They are dioecious and fertilization is internal (1) A, B and D (2) A, C and D
(4) All of these (3) A, B and C (4) Only A and B
72. Which one of the following class is correctly matched
66. Corvus, Psittacula and Pavo are the members of
with its general characteristics?
class Aves. Select the characters those are
exclusively found in class-Aves :- (1) Aves - The hind limbs generally have scales and
are modified for walking.
(1) A cover of soft feathers is present all over the
(2) Reptilia - 10 pairs cranial nerves and dicondylic
body of all the birds.
skull
(2) They are warm-blooded.
(3) Cyclostomata - Skin is covered with scales.
(3) They are oviparous and development is direct.
(4) Osteichthyes - Gill slits are separate and without
(4) They have 4-chambered heart operculum.
67. Distinguishing characters of mammals are :- 73. What is true about Psittacula, Ornithorhynchus and
(1) Diaphragm is present in the body cavity. Crocodilus?
(2) Mammary glands are found in females for baby (1) Four - Chambered heart
feeding. (2) Oviparous
(3) Their body is covered by a coat of hair. (3) 12 paris of cranial nerve
(4) All of these (4) All of these
74. Select the distinguishable characters of cyclostomata
68. Select the distinguishable characters of Reptiles
from Amphibians ? from Pisces :-
(1) Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins.
(1) Cranial nerves are 12 pairs
(2) Cyclostomates include jaw less fishes.
(2) Monocondylic skull
(3) Internal ear contains one or two semicircular
(3) An amniotes canals
(4) All of these (4) All of these
69. Which one of the following statements about all the 75. Which one of the following is a matching pair of body
four of Bufo, Rana, Rattus and Camelus is correct? feature and the animal possessing it?
(1) All are poikilotherms (1) Vertebral column – Salpa, Petromyzon
(2) Gnathostomata – Corvus, Myxine
(2) All have 12 pairs of cranial nerve
(3) Air baladder – Labeo, Pristis
(3) All have dicondylic skull (4) Pneumatic bones – Corvus, Columba
(4) Sexes are separate and fertilisaion is internal 76. Pristis and Carcharodon are the members of class
70. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of chondrichthyes, bearing which of the following
cyclostomates? characters?
(1) Cyclostomstes have a sucking and circular mouth (1) Air bladder is present.
without jaws. (2) Respiration by 4-pairs of gills and these gills are
(2) Cranium and vertebral column are bony covered by operculum.
(3) Male fishes have 'claspers' as copulatory organ
(3) Circulation is closed type
so that fertilization is internal.
(4) Cyclostomates are marine but migrate for
(4) All of these
spawning to fresh water.
E
77. Which of the following fish is also known as "Great 82. Presence of notochord, dorsal tubular nerve cord
white shark'? and pharyngeal gill slits are the three fundamental
(1) Pristis (2) Trygon characters of the phylum chordata.
(3) Clarias (4) Carcharodon In which one of the following chordate all the three
characters are found throughout the life?
78. Select the correct statement from the following :-
(1) In Amphibians endoskeleton is fully ossified and (1) Doliolum
the long bones are hollow with air cavities. (2) Ascidia
(2) Body of most of mammals is divided into head, (3) Balanoglossus
neck, trunk and tail.
(4) Branchiostoma
(3) Reptiles and Birds are warm blooded.
83. Consider the following features :-
(A) Anadromous migration.
79. Which one of the following groups of animals each
is correcly matched with their characteristic feature? (B) Absence of jaws.
(1) Rana, Clarias, Testudo, Struth io - (C) Ectoparasites on Fishes.

Poikilothermous (D) Larval stages are Fresh water
(2) Chameleon, Psittacula, Salamendra - Amniotes Which of the following animal has all the above
(3) Corvus, Columba, Camelus, Elephas - mentioned features?
Dicondylic skull (1) Doliolum
(4) Naja, Bungarus, Viper - Poisonous snake (2) Herdmania
80. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer (3) Petromyzon
using the codes given below the lists :-
(4) Amphioxus
List-I List-II
84. Which one of the following is neither a Fish nor a
(Name of the Animal) (The group to which they belong)
snake but an amphibian?
A. Sting ray (i) Amphibia
(1) Cuttle fish (2) Hag Fish
B. Alligator (ii) Chondrichthyes
(3) Ichthyophis (4) Horned toad
C. Ichthyophis (iii) Reptilia
Animal Kingdom
D. Doliolum (iv) Tunicata
(v) Osteichthyes 85. Which one of the following animals requires
A B C D comparatively less energy for body maintenance?
(1) (v) (ii) (i) (iv) (1) Camel (2) Bird

(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) Fish (4) Elephant
(3) (i) (ii) (v) (iii) 86. Match list-I (Animals) with list-II (Organ of
(4) (v) (iii) (iv) (i) locomotion) and select the correct answer using the
81. Amphibians are considered to be intermediate codes gives below the lists :-
between Pisces and Reptilia because :- List-I List-II

(A) They possess vertebral column A. Star fish (i) Muscular foot
(B) Both branchial and pulmonary respiration occur B. Apple snail (ii) Comb plates
in their life history. C. Nereis (iii) Tubefeet
(C) Oviparity and viviparity are represented. D. Sea walnuts (iv) Parapodia
(D) They have 3-chambered heart. A B C D
Select the correct answer using the codes given (1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
below? (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) A and C (2) B and D (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) A and B (4) C and D (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
E
87. Which one of the following is a molluscan? C B
(1) Sea horse (2) Sea lily

93.
(3) Sea mouse (4) Sea hare
A
D
88 Metameric segmentation in the animal hierarchy
first developed in phylum? A schematic representation of a typical chordate is
shown in the above figure.
(1) Ctenophora
The structures maked A, B, C and D are
(2) Chordata
respectively :-
(3) Annelida
(1) Notochord, Nerve cord, Intestine and gill slits
(4) Arthropoda
(2) Postanal part, Gillslits, Nerve cord and
89. Which of the following pairs of respiratory structures Notochord
and animals is/are correctly matched?
(3) Postanal part, nerve cord, Notochord and Gill
(A) Ctenidia - Honey bee
(4) Post anal part, Notochord, Nerve cord and Gill
(B) Book lungs - Scorpion slits.
(C) Tracheal system - Sepia 94. Consider the following statements :-
(D) Book gills - Limulus (A) Aptenodytes belongs to the class Aves.
(1) A and B (2) B and C (B) Locomotory organelle of Trypanosoma is

flagella.
(3) B and D (4) B,C and D
(C) Euspongia is common bath sponge.
90. Presence of calcareous plates in the dermis in the
adult and a free swimming bilaterally symmetrical (D) Coelenterates are pseudocoelomates.
larva are typical characteristics of :-
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) Annelida (2) Arthropoda
(1) C alone (2) B and C
(3) Mollusca (4) Echinodermata
(3) A, B and C (4) B, C and D
91. Consider the following statements :
95. Which one of the following feature is not applicable
Hydra typically has to all the three helminthes - Taenia, Fasciola and
Planaria?
A. A radially symmetrical body
(1) Triploblastic forms
B. A gastovascular cavity
(2) Absence of metamerism
C. Both a polyp and medusoid form.
(3) Parasitism
(1) A, B and C are correct

(4) Absence of definite circulatory and respiratory
(2) B and C are correct
systems.
(3) A and B are correct
96. Which one of the following pair is not correctly
(4) A and C are correct matched?
92. Which of the following insects is/are consider as (1) Chaetopleura - Chiton
vectors ?
(2) Ascaris - Round worm
(1) Culex (2) Aedes
(3) Wuchereria - Filarial worm
(3) Anopheles (4) All of the above
(4) Enterobias - Hook worm
E
97. Most of lower aquatic animals such as protozoans, 103. Which one of the following is a bilaterally
poriferans, coelenterates etc. are ammonotelic, symmetrical, blind sac body plan and triploblastic
because :- and acoelomate invertebrate?
(1) Water available to these animals contains less (1) Ascaris (2) Wuchereria
nitrogen.
(3) Hydra (4) Fasciola
(2) Ammonia can be converted into urea.
104. With reference to scorpions, which one of the
(3) Excretion of ammonia requires large amount following statements is correct ?
of water, which is available to these animals.
(1) The body consists of head, Thorax and abdomen
(4) Ammonia helps in checking inflow of water into
body. (2) They display mosaic and stereoscopic vision.
98. Which of the following statements regarding (3) They have book lungs which corresponds to the
mammals are correct? gills of prawn.
1. Delphinus and Balaenoptera are aquatic (4) All of the above
mammals. 105. Consider the following characteristics of organisms
2. Ornithorhynchus is oviparous (A) Diploblastic body
3. Mammals have double occipital condyles.
(B) Possessing cnidocytes
Select the correct answer :-
(C) Presence of both intracellular and extracellular
(1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 1 alone digestion.
(3) 1 and 2 only (4) 2 and 3 only Which of the above are characteristics of organism
99. Which one of the following endoparasite absorbs nutrients of coelenterata?
from the host directly through their body surface? (1) A and B (2) B and C
(1) Fasciola (2) Ascaris (3) A and C (4) A, B and C
(3) Taenia (4) All of the above
106. Metagenesis in Obelia signifies by :-
100. Reptiles, Birds and Mammals resemble in the
(1) Alternation of generation between haploid
character of their :-
medusa and diploid polyp.
(1) Occipital condyle
(2) Polyps produce medusae sexually and medusae
(2) Homeothermous
form the polyps asexually.
(3) Poikilothemous
(3) Alternation of generation between diploid
(4) Amnion medusa and diploid polypoid.
101. The symmetry of coelenterates is similar to that of :-
(1) Larvae of a phylum, whose members possess
107. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer:
canal system.
List-I List-II
(2) Larvae and adults of a phylum whose member
possess a water vascular system. (Animal) (Type of coelom)
(3) Adults of a phylum whose members possess a A. Echinodermata (i) Coelom absent
spiny body wall and dermal calcareous ossicle. B. Arthropoda (ii) Haemocoel
(4) All of the above C. Aschelminthes (iii) Enterocoelous coelom
102. Echinoderms are considered to be the most evolved D. Annelida (iv) Pseudo coelom
invertebrates because they :- (v) Schizocoelous coelom
(1) Are triploblastic and have organ system level of A B C D
organisation
(1) (iii) (i) (v) (iv)
(2) Have a great power of regeneration (2) (iii) (ii) (v) (iv)
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (v)
(4) Are enterocoelic and deuterostomic (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
E
108. Consider the following statements : 112. Select the correctly matched example of Bony fishes
During the alternation of generation or Metagenesis with their common names :-
in dimorphic coelenterates, the medusae are (1) Betta - Fighting fish
necessarily :
(2) Clarias - Magur
(A) Free living
(3) Pterophyllum - Angel fish
(B) Sedentary
(C) Medusae form the polyps asexually
113. Select the incorrectly matched animals with their
(D) medusae form the polyps sexually
common names :-
(1) A, C and D are correct
(1) Ophiura - Brittle star
(2) A and D are correct
(2) Ancylostoma - Hookworm
(3) A and C are correct
(3) Aptenodytes - Penguin
(4) B and C are correct
(4) Meandrina - Stag - horn coral
109. Which of the following types of protozoans may be
responsible for the origin of sponges? 114. Exocoetus, Bufo and Labeo on one hand and
Elephas, Psittacula and Columba on the other differ
(1) Amoeboid protozoans
in the following ?
(2) Flagellated protozoans
(1) The body temperature of the former changes
(3) Ciliated protozoans
with environmental temperature, t he
(4) Sporozoans temperature of the latter remains more or less
110. In which one of the following protochordate, constant.
notochord present from head to the tail in adult (2) The former have mesonephric kidney, The
stage. latter have metanephric kidney.
(1) Ascidia (3) Both 1 and 2
(2) Salpa
(4) The former are oviparous, the latter are
(3) Doliolum viviparous
(4) Branchiostoma 115. Which of the following sets of animals belong to the
same group ?
111. In the evolutionary history of the animal kingdom,
which of the following features have evolved for the (1) Bangarus, Testudo
first time in phylum annelida? (2) Pavo, Hyla
1. Metameric segmentation (3) Clarias, Rana
2. organ system level of organisation (4) Felis, Calotes
3. Closed circulatory system 116. Identify true statements :

4. True coelom (A) Cnidarians have blind-sac body plan
5. Bilateral symmetry (B) Digestion in Ctenophora is both intra as well as
Select the correct answer - extracellular
(1) 1, 2 and 5 (C) Agnathans are endoparasite in fishes.

(D) Ichthyophis belongs to tetrapoda group
(2) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(1) A, C and D (2) A, B and D
(3) 1, 3 and 4
(3) B and D (4) A and D
(4) only 1 and 2
E
117. Identify the correct statements from the following 123. In osteichthyes group :
with reference to the cartilaginous fishes : (1) Fertilization is internal
(A) Male pectoral fin bears claspers (2) Placoid scales are more
(B) Teeth are modified cycloid scales (3) Gill cover is found
(C) Air bladder is absent (4) Air bladder is absent
(D) They have internal fertilization 124. Acraniates are those lower Chordates which posses
(1) A and B (2) B and C (1) Unpaired appendages
(3) C and D (4) A and D (2) Cranium and vertebrae
118. Over two third of all named species on earth are (3) Paired appendages
Arthropods. Identify their category which is not
(4) Jaws and exoskeleton
matching
125. A phylum which has triploblastic, Acoelomate and
(1) Living fossil - King crab
Blind-sac body plan is :
(2) Vector - Culex
(1) Ctenophora (2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Gregarious pest - Limulus
(3) Coelenterata (4) All of the above
(4) Economically important - Apis
126. First phylum to have complete digestive tract can
119. Identify correct statements : be represented by :
(A) Fertilization is internal in Ascaris (1) Taenia (2) Wuchereria
(B) Parapodia help in swimming in few Arthropods (3) Pheretima (4) Apis
(C) Nereis is an aquatic form and it is monoecious 127. Which of the following animals belong to same
(D) Radula is a rasping organ of star fish group ?
(1) A and C (2) B and C (1) Hyla, Aedes, Crab,
(3) D only (4) A only (2) Sea urchin, Sea lily, Sea cucumber
120. In which of the following animals muscular pharynx (3) Sea pen, Sea fan, Sea hare
is more distinct ? (4) Sand worm, Round worm, Earthworm
(1) Taenia 128. The phenomenm of Autotomy and regeneration is
(2) Ancylostoma well marked in :
(3) Loligo (1) Mollusca (2) Annelida
(4) Fasciola (3) Arthropoda (4) Echinodermata
121. Identify incorrect statement with regard to 129. Which one is not a correct statement ?
Coelenterata
(1) The Larva of Scoliodon exists
(1) Sea anemone is a polyp
(2) Lateral line is absent in Bangarus
(2) Jelly fish is free swimming Coelenterate

(3) Meandrina exhibit two basic body forms called (3) Air bladder is present in Betta
polyp and medusa (4) All Chordates are deuterostomes
(4) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular 130. Which of the following trait does not relate to
122. Identify correct statement : Class-Reptilia ?
(1) Fertilization is internal in Ctenophora (1) Calotes is a garden lizard
(2) Clasper is a modified form of scales in Scoliodon
(2) Fertilization is always internal
(Dog fish)
(3) Cyclostomates have teeth and body is scale less (3) Body is covered with glandular skin
(4) Radula is a rasping organ of Arthropods (4) They have copulatory organs.
E
131. Which one of the followig bird is different from rest 139. Identify false statements :
of the birds ?
(A) Cyclostomates are ectoparasite on true fishes
(1) Neophron (2) Aptenodytes
(3) Psittacula (4) Corvus (B) Ctenophores are sessile and bear Cnidocytes
132. Which of the following statement is/are true for birds (C) Aschelminthes included parasitic as well ss
(A) Hind limb are partially modified into wings. non-parasitic round worms
(B) Humming bird is exceptionally viviparous
(D) Arthropods are most abundant group with
(C) Fertilization is internal. Calcareous exoskeleton.
(D) Air sac connected to lung supplement respiration
(1) B, D (2) A, B
(1) A, B (2) B, C (3) A, D (4) C, D
133. Which of the following is correct pair ? (3) C, D (4) A, D
(1) Struthio – Vulture 140. Which of the following animal belongs to the correct
(2) Chameleon – Garden lizard class ?
(3) Chelone – Turtle (1) Euglena – Ciliata
(4) Betta – Flying fish (2) Paramecium – Flagellata
134. Which of the following is correct pair ? (3) Plasmodium – Sporozoa
(1) Hyla – Coelenterate (4) Entamoeba – Mastigophora
(2) Pteropus – Flying fish 141. Identify the true statement :
(3) Doliolum – Protochordate (1) Protozoans are mostly heterotrophic animals
(4) Carcharodon – Bony fish
(2) Water enters inside the body through the osculum
135. Which one of the following set of animal will have
in sponges.
bronchial respiration ?
(1) Prawn, Cyclops (2) Spider, Cyclops (3) Ctenophores are fresh water animals
(3) Clarias, Pavo (4) Fish, Ichthyophis (4) All parasites are triploblastic
136. Which one of the following set of animal will have 142. Identified the incorrect statement from the following
tracheal respiration. with reference to round worm :
(1) Silk worm, Laccifer (A) Syncytial epidermis
(2) Limulus, Prawn
(B) Most and free livings of ectoparasites
(3) Spider, Cyclops
(C) All parasites are unisexual
(4) Apis, King crab
(D) Incomplete alimentary canal
137. Which one of the following statement is true?
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(1) All members of Bilateria are always Deuterostomes
(3) B and D (4) A and D
(2) Eumetazoan are Deuterostomes
143. Identify the correct statement :

(3) All acoelomates are Diploblastic
(1) Gills of the bony fishes are covered by operculum
(4) All Haemocoelomates are bilateral symmetrical
(2) Alimentary canal of amphibian opens outside
138. The mammal which posses both reptilian and
through anus at posterior end
mammalian Characters is ?
(3) Crocodile has three chambered heart
(1) Macropus
(4) Birds are poikilotherm animals
(2) Scaly ant eater
144. Presence of canal system is characteristic feature
(3) Ornithorhynchus of
(4) Ichthyophis (1) Ascaris (2) Euspongia
(3) Pila (4) Amphioxus
E
145. In which of the following fishes, jaws are absent? 153. In which of the following animals respiration takes
(1) Exocoetus (2) Hippocampus place by book lungs?
(3) Myxine (4) Trygon (1) Honey bee (2) Silk worm
146. In which of the following flat worm, segmented body (3) Scorpion (4) Grass hopper
is found? 154. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair?
(1) Liver fluke (2) Tape worm (1) Ophiura - Sea lily
(3) Filarial worm (4) Sand worm (2) Octopus - Cuttle fish
147. Which of the following is not the feature of Mollusca (3) Torpedo - Electric ray
phylum?
(4) Aptenodytes - Ostrich
(1) It is the second largest phylum of animal kingdom.
155. Which of the following groups belongs to cold
(2) Muscular foot for locomotion.
blooded animals ?
(3) They are acoelomate animals.
(A) Chondrichthyes (B) Amphibia
(4) Presence of shell around the body.
(C) Aves (D) Mammalia
148. Which of the following pair is correct ?
(1) A and C (2) B and D
(1) Parapodia - Leech
(3) C and D (4) A and B
(2) Flagella - Ascaris
156. Which of the following bird is flight less?
(3) Archacocyte - Obelia
(1) Pigeon (2) Ostrich
(4) Antenna - Anophelese
(3) Crow (4) Peacock
149. Which of the following phylum is pseudocoelomate?
157. Which of the following is not feature of Cartilaginous
(1) Cnidaria fishes?
(2) Ctenophora (1) Presence of placoid scales
(3) Platyhelminthes (2) Notochord present whole life

(3) Three chambered heart
(4) Aschelminthes
(4) Sexes are separate
150. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
158. In amphibians, cloaca is the common opening for
(1) Polyp is asexual stage
(1) Alimentary canal
(2) Photosynthesis take place in Englena during day
(2) Urinary tract
time
(3) Reproductive tract
(3) Sleeping sickness is caused by Leishmania
(4) Tentacles are locomotory organ of coelenterates 159. Reptiles are most successful land vertebrate. Which
151. Which of the following statement is correct for type of locomotion is found in them?
hemichordates? (1) Jumping (2) Saltatorial

(A) Fish like body
(3) Crawling (4) None of the above
(B) Body is triploblastic
160. Which of the following group of the animals belongs
(C) Body is devided into two parts
to the same class ?
(D) Excretion through probosis gland
(1) Chelone, Corvus (2) Macropus, Myxine
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and C (4) B and D
152. In which of the following group notochord is present (3) Loligo, Octopus (4) Bombyx, Peripatus
in whole life? 161. Monkey, Lion, Bat, Kangaroo are classified in same
(1) Hemichordata (2) Urochordata (1) Order (2) Family
(3) Cephalochordata (4) Vertebrata
(3) Class (4) None of the above
E
162. Binomial system of nomenclature is established by 164. Match the column-I with the column-II and find out
(1) Huxley (2) John Ray the correct answer :
Column-I Colum-II
(3) Lamarck (4) Linnaeus
(A) Spongocoel (i) Arthropoda
163. Which type of locomotory organ are found in "Soft
bodied animals" ? (B) Dorso-ventrally (ii) Cnidaria
(1) Cilia (2) Tube feet flattened body
(3) Tentacles (4) Muscular Foot
(C) Coelenteron (iii) Porifera
(D) Chitinous exoskeleton (vi) Platyhelminthes
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 4 2 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 2 3 3 3 3 4 3 3 3 1
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 2 1 2 2 3 4 3 4 1 4 3 4 3 4 4 3 3 4 2
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 3 2 3 2 3 4 3 2 4 4 3 4 2 3 2 4 2 4 4
Que . 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 1 4 2 3 4 1 4 4 3 2 1 1 4 4 4 3 4 2 4 2
Que . 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 2 4 3 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 3 4 4 3 3 4 3 1 3 4
Que . 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 3 4 4 3 4 3 3 2 2 4 3 4 4 3 1 2 3 3 4 2
Que . 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 3 3 3 1 2 2 2 4 1 3 2 4 3 3 1 1 4 3 1 3
Que . 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 1 3 1 2 3 2 3 4 4 3 4 3 3 3 4 2 3 4 3 3
Que . 161 162 163 164

Ans. 3 4 4 3
E
MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
1. A slender lateral branch arises from the base of the 8. When single leaf arises at each node then phyllotaxy
main axis and after growing aerially for some time is called :-
arch downwards to touch the ground. Such type of (1) Alternate (2) Opposite
modification is
(3) Whorled (4) Pinnate
(1) Runner (2) Sucker
9. Opposite phyllotaxy is present in :-
(3) Stolon (4) Offset
(1) Mustard (2) Guava
2. A lateral branch with short internodes and each
(3) China rose (4) Alstonia
node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots
10. In flower, different whorls arranged successively on
in aquatic plants, such type of modification is
the swollen end of the pedicel, that swollen end is
(1) Runner (2) Stolon called :-
(3) Sucker (4) Offset (1) Thalamus (2) Calyx
(3) Peduncle (4) Corolla
3. Lateral branches originate from the basal and
underground portion of the main stem, grow 11. Ovary is superior in
horizontally beneath the soil and then comes out (1) Rose (2) Mustard
obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots, such (3) Peach (4) Guava
type of modification is
12. Ovary is inferior in
(1) Runner (2) Stolon
(1) Guava (2) Rose
(3) Sucker (4) Offset
(3) China rose (4) Peach
4. In some leguminous plants the leaf base may 13. If one margin of the sepal or petal overlaps that of
become swollen, it is called :- the next one and so on this aestivation is called :-
(1) Pulvinus (2) Lamina (1) Twisted (2) Imbricate
(3) Leaf margin (4) Stipule (3) Valvate (4) Vexillary
5. When the veins run parallel to each other within a 14. If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one
lamina, the venation is termed as :- another but not in any particular direction, the
(1) Parallel (2) Reticulate aestivation is called :-
(1) Imbricate (2) Valvate
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Pinnate
(3) Twisted (4) Vexillary
6. If the leaflets are present on a common axis, the
rachis, leaf is called :- 15. Each ovary bears one or more ovules attached to
a flattened cusion like structure called :-
(1) Palmate compound leaf
(1) Stigma (2) Ovary
(2) Pinnate compound leaf

(3) Placenta (4) Style
(3) Simple leaf
16. In this placentation the ovules develop on the inner
(4) Trifoliate leaf wall of ovary or on peripheral part it is called :-
7. If the leaf lets are attached at the tip of petiole, leaf (1) Marginal (2) Parietal
is called :- (3) Axile (4) Basal
(1) Pinnate compound leaf 17. Mango and Coconut develops from
(2) Palmate compound leaf (1) Monocarpellary gynoecium, inferior ovary
(3) Simple leaf (2) Monocarpellary gynoecium, superior ovary

(3) Multicarpellary gynoecium, inferior ovary
(4) Unipinnate leaf
(4) Multicarpellary, superior ovary
E
18. Inflorescence in members of papilionatae is 28. A lateral branch with short internodes and each
(1) Racemose (2) Cymose node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots
is found in
(3) Cyathium (4) Hypanthodium
(1) Ginger (2) Banana
19. Sesbania belongs to
(3) Eichhornia (4) Potato
(1) Liliaceae (2) Fabaceae
(3) Solanaceae (4) Cruciferae 29. Leaves are lateral, generally flattened structure
born on nodes. They originate from .............. and
20. In Solanum, inflorescence is arranged in ............ manner
(1) Cymose (2) Racemose (1) Apical meristem, Acropetal
(3) Umbel (4) Verticillaster
(2) Lateral meristem, Acropetal
21. Seeds in fabaceae are
(3) Apical meristem, Basipetal
(1) Non endospermic (2) Endospermic
(4) Lateral meristem, Basipetal
(3) Perispermic (4) Monosporic
22. In monocots fibrous root system arise from 30. About leaf which of the following statement is not
correct ?
(1) Radicle (2) Apex of stem
(1) Axillary buds are present in axil of leaflets
(3) Base of stem (4) Any where from stem
(2) In pinnately compound leaf leaflets are present
23. Regarding to adventitious roots find out the odd on rachis, which represents the midrib
one
(1) Grasses (2) Monstera (3) In palmately compound leaf, leaflets are
(3) Banyan (4) Mustard attached at a common point, it is tip of the petiole
24. Find out the right sequence to various regions of
(4) In compound leaf incisions of lamina reach upto
root tip from apex to base
the mid rib, breaking it into number of leaflets
(1) Maturation zone, elongation zone, Meristematic
zone & root cap 31. Regarding phyllotaxy which of the following is odd
(2) Root cap, Meristematic zone, elongation zone (1) China rose (2) Mustard
& Maturation zone
(3) Sunflower (4) Alstonia
(3) Root cap, elongation zone, Meristematic zone
& Maturation zone 32. When two leaves arise from same node, this type
of phyllotaxy called
(4) Maturation zone, meristematic zone, elongation
zone & root cap (1) Alternate (2) Opposite
25. Regarding to modification of root, find out the odd (3) Whorled (4) Spiral
match
33. Arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is termed
(1) Storage of food – Potato as inflorescence. Regarding to inflorescence which
(2) Support – Banyan of the following statement is not correct
(3) Gaseous exchange – Rhizophora (1) In racemose – main axis is continues to grow
(4) Photosynthesis – Tinospora (2) In cymose – main axis terminates into flower
26. Regarding to conversion of Axillary bud into tendril,
(3) In racemose – flowers are in basipetal succession
which of the following is odd
(4) In cymose –growth of main axis is limited
(1) Cucumber (2) Pumpkins
34. Regarding to symmetry of flower which of the
(3) Watermelon (4) Bougainvillea
following plant is odd
27. Fleshy cylindrical photosynthetic stem is found in
(1) Pea (2) Mustard
(1) Opuntia (2) Euphorbia
(3) Datura (4) Chilli
(3) Bougainvillea (4) Cuscuta
E
35. Find out the wrong match 42. Which type of aestivation is found in petals of cotton?
(1) Actinomorphic – Datura (1) Valvate (2) Twisted
(2) Radial symmetry – Mustard (3) Imbricate (4) Vexillary
(3) Zygomorphic – Bean 43. Match the following
(4) Bilateral Symmetry – Chilli
(a) Epiphyllous stamen (i) Citrus
36. In which of the following plant flower can not be
divided into two similar halves by any vertical plane (b) Monoadelphous stamen (ii) Pea
(1) Mustard (2) Cassia (c) Diadelphous stamen (iii) Chinarose
(3) Canna (4) Datura (d) Polyadelphous stamen (iv) Lily
37. In which of the following plant gynoecium occupies (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
the highest position while the other parts situated (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
below it ?
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(1) Brinjal (2) Plum
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Rose (4) Guava
44. Variation in length of the filament of stamen with in
38. Match the following and select correct option :- flower can be seen in
(a) Hypogynous (i) Lily, Onion (1) Salvia (2) Mustard
(b) Perigynous (ii) Cucumber, Ray (3) Chinarose (4) Both 1 & 2
florets of sunflower 45. Match the following and select correct option :-
(a) Parietal (i) Dianthus
(c) Epigynous (iii) Plum, Peach
(b) Axile (ii) Sunflower
(d) Perianth (iv) Chinarose, Brinjal
(c) Free central (iii) Mustard
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (d) Basal (iv) China rose
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
39. Calyx is the outermost accessory whorl of flower. (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
What is the function of calyx? (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Helps in pollination (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) Helps in protection of flower during bud condition 46. In which type of placentation, ovules are present
on central axis
(3) Helps in fertilization
(1) Axile (2) Parietal
(4) Helps in seed germination (3) Free central (4) Both 1 & 3
40. The mode of arrangent of sepals or petals in floral
47. A dot on the top of the floral diagram shows
buds with respect to other members of the same
whorl is known as (1) Adhesion (2) Aestivation
(1) Adhesion (2) Cohesion
(3) Mother axis (4) Position of ovary

(3) Aestivation (4) Plancentation
41. Match the following with respect to aestivation in 48. In old classifications family leguminosae was
petals and select correct option :- classified into of three subfamilies. Which of the
subfamily of leguminosae is now considered as
(a) Valvate (i) Chinarose
Fabaceae
(b) Twisted (ii) Calotropis
(1) Papilionatae
(c) Imbricate (iii) Pea
(2) Caesalpinoidae
(d) Vexillary (iv) Cassia
(3) Mimosoidae
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Compositae
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
E
49. Swollen placenta with oblique septum can be seen 52. Match the following and select correct option
in (a) Mustard (i) Liliaceae
(1) Brassicaceae (2) Fabaceae (b) Mulaithi (ii) Solanaceae
(3) Liliaceae (4) Solanaceae (c) Ashwagandha (iii) Fabaceae
50. Colchicine a mitotic poison can be obtained from (d) Tulip (iv) Brassicaceae
a plant of
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) Brassicaceae (2) Fabaceae
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) Solanaceae (4) Liliaceae
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
51. Perianth condition is characteristic of
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Brassicaceae (2) Fabaceae
(3) Solanaceae (4) Liliaceae
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 4 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 1 3 2 2 1 2 1
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 3 4 2 1 4 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 1 4 3 1 1 2 3
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52
Ans. 1 2 4 4 2 4 3 1 4 4 4 1
E
ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
1. Growth in plants is largely restricted to specialised 8. Consider the following statements.
regions of active cell division, which are called
(a) Phloem fibres are made up of sclerenchy-matous
(1) Permanent (2) Meristems cells
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Xylem
(b) Phloem parenchyma are generally present in
2. Tissue that produce woody axis and appear later monocots
than primary meristem is called
(c) The first formed primary phloem consists of
(1) Apical meristem
narrow sieve tube and is referred to as
(2) Intercalary meristem
protophloem and the later formed phloem has
(3) Secondary meristem bigger sieve tubes and is referred to as
(4) Both 1 and 2 metaphloem
3. Example of lateral meristem/s is/are :- Which statement(s) is/are false ?
(A) Intrafascicular cambium (Fascicular vascular
(1) Only a (2) Only b
cambium)
(3) Only c (4) a, b, and c
(B) Interfascicular cambium
(C) Cork cambium 9. The outside of the epidermis is often covered with
(1) Only A (2) Only B a waxy thick layer, called
(3) Only C (4) All A, B and C (1) Hypodermis (2) Cuticle

4. Permanent tissue, having all cells similar in structure (3) Root hair (4) Stem hair
and function is called 10. Cuticle is absent in
(1) Simple tissue (1) Roots (2) Dicot Stem
(2) Complex tissue (3) Leaves (4) Monocot stem
(3) Cambium 11. Parenchymatous cells with large intercellular spaces
(4) Apical meristem which occupy the central portion of the stem
5. Which of the following statement is incorrect for constitute
parenchyma? (1) Cortex (2) Pith
(1) Cells are generally isodiametric (3) Hypodermis (4) Epidermis
(2) Their cell walls are thin and made up of cellulose 12. In grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells along the
(3) Th ey perfo rm various function s like veins modify themselves into large, empty, colourless
photosynthesis, storage etc.
cells. These cells are called :-
(4) Their cell walls are thick and lignified
(1) Bulliform cells (2) Starch sheath cells
6. Collenchyma cells are much thickened at the corners
(3) Companion cells (4) Complimentary cells
due to deposition of :-
13. In dicot stem, the cells of cambium present between
(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose, lignin
primary xylem and primary phloem is the

(2) Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin
(1) Interfascicular cambium
(3) Cellulose, suberin (2) Vascular cambium
(4) Suberin, ligin (3) Intra fascicular cambium
7. Sclereids are present in (4) Cork cambium
(A) Fruit wall of nuts 14. By the activity of cambium ring, the cells cut off
(B) Pulp of guava, pear and sapota toward pith, mature into
(C) Seed coat of legume (1) Secondary phloem
(1) Only A (2) Only B (2) Primary xylem
(3) Only C (4) All A, B and C (3) Secondary xylem
(4) Primary phloem
E
15. During secondary growth in dicot stem, At some 24. Collenchyma is consist of cells which are much
places, the cambium forms a narrow band of thickened at the corners due to deposition of
parenchyma, which passes through the secondary (1) Cellulose only
xylem and secondary phloem in radial directions. (2) Hemicellulose only
These are called :- (3) Pectin only
(1) Sap wood (4) Pectin, cellulose and hemicellulose
(2) Heart wood 25. Regarding to collenchyma find out the incorrect
(3) Secondary medullary rays statement
(4) Primary medullary rays (1) It's cell walls show pecto-cellulosic unlignified
thickenings
16. Bark that is formed early in the season is called
(2) Intercellular spaces are generally absent
(1) Late bark (2) Soft bark
(3) Provide mechanical support to petiole of a leaf
(3) Hard bark (4) Ring bark
(4) Found in the form of a layer below epidermis in
17. At certain regions, the phellogen cuts off closely monocots
arranged parenchymatous cells on the outer side 26. Match the following :-
instead of cork cells. These are called :-
(a) Parenchyma (i) Pericycle of root
(1) Phellem (2) Periderm
(b) Collenchyma (ii) Hypodermis of dicot
(3) Bark (4) Complimentary cells stem
18. The cells of secondary cortex are :- (c) Sclerenchymatous (iii) Pericycle of stem
(1) Sclerenchymatous (2) Parenchymatous fibres of Linum
(3) Collenchymatous (4) Meristematic (d) Sclerenchymatous (iv) Pulp of pear

sclereids
19. In dicot root, the vascular cambium is.
a b c d
(1) Primary in origin
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) Completely secondary in origin
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) Both primary and secondary in origin (3) i ii iv iii
(4) Neither primary nor secondary in origin (4) i iii ii iv
20. Which of the following is primary meristem ? 27. Obliterated central lumen (cavity) is the characteristic
(1) Apical meristem (2) Intercalary meristem feature of
(3) Lateral meristem (4) both 1 and 2 (1) Tracheids (2) Vessels
21. Select odd one with respect to origin :-
(3) Xylem fibres (4) Xylem parenchyma
(1) Interfascicular cambium
28. Select out the incorrect statement regarding to xylem
(2) Cork cambium
(1) On the basis of origin xylem is differentiated into
(3) Vascular cambium in dicot roots
primary xylem and secondary xylem.
(4) Intrafascicular cambium

22. During the formation of primary plant body, specific (2) On the basis of development, secondary xylem
regions of the apical meristem donot produce :- is differentiated into protoxylem & metaxylem
(1) Dermal tissues (2) Ground tissue (3) In stems, protoxylem lies towards centre and
(3) Bark (4) Vascular tissue metaxylem towards periphery
23. Cells of parenchyma are generally isodiametric but (4) In roots, metaxylem lies towards centre &
different in shape. Which of the following is not a protoxylem towards periphery
shape of parenchyma :- 29. Phloem fibres are generally present in :-
(1) Spherical (2) Fibrous
(1) Primary phloem (2) Secondary phloem
(3) Oval (4) Elongated
(3) Protophloem (4) Metaphloem
E
30. Classification of various tissue system is based on 36. The activity of cambium is under the control of :-
(1) Structure (2) Location (1) Phloem activity (2) Physiological factors
(3) Type of cells (4) Both 1 & 2 (3) Environmental factors (4) Both 2 and 3
31. The innermost layer of cortex of dicot root is 37. Regarding to wood find out the wrong statement :-
characterised by presence of suberin thickening.
(1) Vessels of spring wood have wider cavities
This suberin thickening occurs on
(1) Radial walls (2) Transverse wall (2) Vessels of autumn wood have wider cavities
(3) Tangential wall (4) Both 1 & 3 (3) Spring wood is lighter in colour
32. The parenchymatous cells lies between xylem & (4) Autumn wood has a higher density
phloem of root is known as 38. Match the following
(1) Cambium (2) Conjunctive tissue (a) Early wood (i) Innermost mass
of wood
(3) Pith (4) Pericycle
(b) Late wood (ii) Wood just inner to
33. Regarding to stele which of the following statement vascular cambium
is correct ?
(c) Heart wood (iii) Low density
(1) All the tissues lies inner to pericycle (d) Sap wood (iv) High density
(2) All the tissues lies inner to endodermis a b c d
(3) All the tissues lies inner to hypodermis (1) iii iv i ii
(4) All the tissues lies inner to epidermis (2) iii iv ii i
34. Due to continuous growth of secondary xylem (3) iv iii ii i
which of the following get crushed gradually (4) iv iii i ii
(1) Primary phloem 39. Impervious nature of cork for water is due to
deposition of which chemical ?
(2) Earlier formed secondary phloem
(1) Lignin (2) Suberin
(3) Either 1 or 2
(3) Pectin (4) Hemicellulose
(4) both 1 and 2
40. During secondary growth in root, cambium ring arises
35. After secondary growth what is the actual future of from
primary xylem ?
(1) Tissues located below phloem bundles
(1) Converts into secondary xylem
(2) Portion of pericycle tissue above protoxylem
(2) Remains more or less intact in or around the (3) Endodermis
centre
(4) Both 1 and 2
(3) Converts into secondary phloem
(4) Gets crushed
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 3 4 1 4 2 4 2 2 1 2 1 3 3 3 2 4 2 2 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 3 2 4 4 1 3 2 2 4 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 1 2 4
E
STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS / ANIMAL TISSUE / COCKROACH
1. Mark correct statements ? 7. Which tissue faces either a body fluid or the outside
(A) Tight junction facilitate to communicate cells with environment ?
each other (1) Epithelium tissue (2) Muscular tissue
(B) Columnar cells are found in the lining of stomach (3) Connective tissue (4) Nervous tissue
(C) Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner surface 8. Which tissue is associated with filtration and
diffusion ?
of hollow organs.
(1) Simple squamous epithelium
(D) Compound epithelium has limited role in
secretion. (2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(1) A, C, D (2) A, B
(4) All of these
(3) B, C, D (4) B, D
9. Which of the following contributes maximum part
2. In all connective tissues cells secrete fibre of
of our body weight?
structural protein except :
(1) Epithelium tissue (2) Connective tissue
(1) Bone (2) Blood
(3) Muscular tissue (4) Nervous tissue
(3) Cartilage (4) All of the above
10. How many pores in the body wall are found
3. Which of the following statements is wrong ? concerned with reproduction in Pheretima ?
(1) Intercellular material of cartilage is solid (1) 11 (2) 8
(2) The bone cells are present in the lacunae (3) 3 (4) 2
(3) Communication junctions are present in cardiac 11. What is the main function of prostomium in
muscles earthworm ?
(4) Bone has pliable ground substance (1) Digging the soil
4. Which one of the statements is not related with loose (2) as a sensory organ
connective tissue ? (3) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Often serves as a support frame work for (4) as a mouth
epithelium 12. What is true for earthworm ?
(2) It contains fibroblast, macrophages and mast cell (1) Cephalisation present
(3) Fibres and fibroblast are compactly packed (2) Usually hermaphrodite and no free living larva
stage
(4) Cells of this tissue are also specialised to store
(3) Parapodia present
fats.
(4) Excretory organ malpighi tubules
5. Which one of the intercellular junction will check the
flow of material from epithelial surface? 13. What is the principal role of blood glands in
earthworm ?
(1) Tight junction

(1) Produce blood cells and haemoglobin
(2) Desmosome
(2) Produce RBC
(3) Interdigitation
(3) In digestion
(4) Gap junction
(4) In reproduction
6. When two or more organs perform a common
14. In which part of earthworm chemoreceptors are
function by their physical and chemical interaction, found ?
they form :
(1) Buccal cavity (2) Gizzard
(1) Body system (2) Organ system
(3) Intestinal caecae (4) Stomach
(3) Tissue system (4) None
E
15. What is the function of spiracular nervous system in 18. Male and female cockroach differ due to presence
cockroach? or absence of which structure ?
(1) Regulate the activity of hindgut (1) Anal cerci and anal style
(2) Regulate the activity of gonads (2) Anal cerci
(3) Regulate the activity of foregut (3) Anal style
(4) Control the activities of spiracles (4) Anal setae
16. Function of Antennae in cockroach is : 19. Which structure is absent in male cockroach ?
(1) Tactile and olfactory receptor (1) Labium (2) Phallomeres
(2) Gustato receptor (3) Spermatheca (4) None of these
(3) Auditory receptor
(4) Olfactory receptor
17. In cockroach stink gland is found in ?
(1) 4th and 5th terga
(2) 5th and 6th terga
(3) 5th and 6th sterna
(4) 4th and 5th sterna
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
Ans. 3 2 4 3 1 2 1 1 3 1 3 2 1 1 4 1 2 3 3
E
CELL - THE UNIT OF LIFE
1. .............was a German scientist, who observed that 7. An improved model of the structure of cell
all plant tissues are made up of cells. At the same membrane was proposed by Singer and Nicolson
time..........., British scientist studied different type in.... , widely accepted as.....
of animal cells. (1) 1959, Fluid mosaic model
(1) Rudolf Virchow and Nageli respectively (2) 1900, Lipoidal model
(2) Mathias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann (3) 1938, Unit membrane model
respectively
(4) 1972, Fluid mosaic model
(3) Theodore Schwann and Mathias Schleiden
8. According to fluid-mosaic model, the quasi-fluid
respectively
nature of............enables lateral movement
(4) Robert Hooke and Schleiden respectively of..............within the overall bilayer. This ability to
2. Main arena of cellular activities in both plant and move within the membrane is measured as its...
animal cells is :- (i) Carbohydrates
(1) Nucleus (2) Cell organelles (ii) Lipids
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Centriole (iii) Proteins
3. Who proposed "Omnis cellula e cellula" ? (iv) Fluidity
(1) Robert Hooke (v) Selective permeability
(2) Rudolf Virchow Correct sequence is :-
(3) Schwann (1) ii, iii, iv (2) iii, i, iv
(4) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek (3) iii, ii, v (4) i, ii, iv
4. Algal cell wall is made of :- 9. The fluid nature of the membrane is also important
(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin from the point of view of functions like :-
(i) Cell growth
(2) Cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals
(ii) Formation of intercellular junctions
(3) Hemicellulose and xylan
(iii) Secretions
(4) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, protein and pectin
(iv) Endocytosis
5. The detailed structure of the cell membrane was
(v) Cell division
studied only after the advent of electron microscope
in the year :- (1) i, iii, iv only (2) ii, iii, v only
(3) i, iii, iv, v only (4) i, ii, iii, iv, v
(1) 1931 (2) 1913

(3) 1950 (4) 1973 10. One of the most important functions of the plasma
6. Depending upon the........, membrane proteins can membrane is :-
be classified as integral or peripheral :- (1) Formation of nuclear membrane
(1) Size (2) Transport of molecules across it
(2) Sedimentation rate (3) Exocytosis
(3) Ease of extraction
(4) Detoxification
(4) Molecular weight
E
11. ........can not pass through the lipid bilayer, they 17. Diameter of Golgi cisternae is :-
require a carrier protein of the membrane to (1) 0.5 mm – 1.0 mm (2) 0.2 – 1.0 mm
facilitate their transport across the membrane
(3) 1.0 – 4.1 mm (4) 10 – 50 nm
(1) Nonpolar molecules
18. A Golgi complex has :-
(2) Polar molecules
(1) Fixed number of cisternae
(3) Hydrophobic molecules
(2) Varied number of cisternae
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) One cisterna in higher plants
12. Na+/K+ pump is an example of :-
(4) Convex trans face and concave cis face cisternae
(1) Passive transport
19. Which cell organelle divides the intracellular space
(2) Osmosis
into two distinct compartments, i.e. luminal (inside)
(3) Active transport and extra luminal (cytoplasm) compartments ?
(4) Simple diffusion (1) Golgibody
13. Mark the incorrect match for transport of molecules (2) Mitochondria
across the membrane :-
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Neutral solute – simple diffusion
(4) Lysosome
(2) Water – osmosis
20. Which one of the following is not a component of
(3) Non polar molecules – facilitate diffusion endomembrane system ?
(4) ATP utilized – active transport (a) Endoplasmic reticulum
14. Mitochondria :- (b) Golgibody
(a) are easily visible under the microscope (c) Lysosome
(without specifically stained) (d) Vacuole
(b) are typically sausage-shaped or cylindrical (e) Nucleus
(c) are double membrane bound structures (1) Both a and c (2) Only c
(d) have two aqueous compartments (3) d and e both (4) Only e
(1) a, d correct and b, c incorrect 21. Membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the
process of packaging in the Golgi apparatus and
(2) a, b correct and c,d incorrect
filled with hydrolytic enzymes, are called :-
(3) a incorrect and b, c, d correct
(1) Vacuoles
(4) a, d incorrect and b, c correct
(2) Transitional vesicles
15. Inner mitochondrial membrane forms infoldings
(3) Lysosomes
called :-
(4) Centrosome
(1) Thylakoid (2) Cisternae
22. (a) Granular structure
(3) Oxysomes (4) Cristae
(b) First observed under the electron microscope as
16. The number of mitochondria per cell is variable, dense particles by George Palade
depending on :- (c) Composed of RNA and proteins
(1) Size of cells (d) Not surrounded by any membrane
(2) Shape of cells Above given all statements are true for which cell
(3) Physiological activity of cells organelle ?
(4) Type of genes present in mt DNA (1) Nucleolus (2) Ribosomes

(3) Cristae (4) Chloroplast
E
23. Eukaryotes have 80S, while prokaryotes have 70S 29. Nucleus as a "cell organelle" was first described
ribosomes in cytoplasm. Here "S" explains :- by.....as early as........
(a) Sedimentation coefficient (1) Robert Hooke, 1665
(b) Measure of density (2) Robert Brown, 1831
(c) Measure of size (3) Flemming, 1931
(1) a only (2) a and b only (4) Strasburger, 1831
(3) b and c only (4) a, b and c 30. Term "chromatin" was given by Flemming, after
24. In r-RNA, ''r'' stands for :- staining of nucleus with.....dyes :-
(1) Ribophorins (2) Ribozyme (1) Acidic (2) Basic

(3) Ribosomal (4) Recognition (3) Neutral (4) Both (2) and (3)
25. Find incorrect statement with regard to centrosome 31. Space between parallel nuclear membranes is called
and centrioles :- perinuclear space which is :-
(a) Centrosomes are surrounded by amorphous
(1) 10–50 nm (2) 0.1 – 0.4 mm
pericentriolar material
(3) 10 – 50 Å (4) 1 – 4 nm
(b) In centrosome, both centrioles lie parallel to
32. A single human cell has approximately.....long
each other in which each has an organisation like
th read of DNA dis trib uted among
the cartwheel
its....chromosomes:-
(c) Centrioles are made up of nine unevenly spaced
(1) 2 cm, 46 (2) 2 metre, 46
peripheral fibrils of tubulin
(d) Hub is the central proteinaceous part of (3) 2 cm, 23 (4) 2 metre, 23
centriole 33. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and
(e) Proteinaceous radial spokes connect hub to glycolipid is :-
peripheral triplets (1) Vacuole
(1) a,b, e (2) only b (2) Golgi apparatus
(3) b, c (4) All are correct (3) Plastid
26. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous (4) Lysosome
structures present in the cytoplasm which helps in
34. Peptide bond synthesis in cytoplasm of cell takes
the maintenance of cell shape is called :-
place on :-
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Chloroplast
(2) Plasmalemma
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Cytoskeleton (3) Chromoplast
27. Carotenoid pigments are found in :- (4) Ribosomes
(1) Chromoplast (2) Chloroplast 35. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles
(3) Leucoplast (4) Both (1) and (2) eukarotic cell is :-
28. Interphase nucleus has a loose and indistinct network (1) Plasma membrane (2) Nucleus
of nucleoprotein fibres called chromatin, but during (3) Cytoskelton (4) Cell wall
different stages of cell division, cells show "structured
36. Basic unit of life is :-
chromosomes" in place of the:-
(1) Nucleus (2) Nucleosome (1) Cell (2) Tissue
(3) Solenoid (4) Plasmosome (3) Organ (4) Organ system
E
37. Cristae are found in :- 44. In plasma membrane of human erythrocyte which of
the following is ratio of proteins and lipids respectively-
(1) Golgi apparatus (2) ER
(1) 50 & 50 (2) 60 & 40
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Mitochondria (3) 52 & 40 (4) 40 & 52
38. The physio-chemical approach to study and 45. Fluidity of plasma membrane is due to -
understand living organisms is called - (1) Lipids (2) Proteins
(1) Physiochemical biology (3) Carbohydrates (4) Cholesterol
(2) Reductionist biology 46. Regarding to cell membrane find out the odd one -
(3) Fundamental biology (1) Fluid mosaic model is widely accepted model
(4) Biochemical biology (2) Quasi fluid nature of lipids enables the lateral
movement of proteins
39. Which of the following scientist explained that cells
(3) All types of molecules can easily pass through
divided and new cells are formed from pre-existing
membrane
cells?
(4) Fluid nature of membrane is also important for
(1) Schwann (2) Schleiden cell growth & formation of intercellular junctions
(3) Rudolf Virchow (4) Robert Hooke 47. Which type of solutes may move across plasma
40. Which of the following scientist give the cell theory a membrane from higher to lower concentration along
con centration g radient without o f help of
final shape ?
transmembrane proteins?
(1) Leewenhoek
(1) Positively charged solutes
(2) Schleidin & Schwann
(2) Negatively charged solutes
(3) Robert Hooke (3) Neutral solutes
(4) Rudolf Virchow (4) Any of the above
41. Which among the following is not a function of 48. Select out the wrong statement -
mesosome ? (1) Neutral solute can move according to
(1) Synthesis of food concentration gradient across the nonpolar lipid
bilayer
(2) Help in cell wall formation
(2) Water can also move according to concentration
(3) Help in DNA replication gradient across the nonpolar lipid bilayer.
(4) Distribution of DNA in daughter cells (3) Non polar molecules can not pass through non
42. In prokaryotes like cyanobacteria, besides mesosome polar lipid bilayer
other membranous extensions into cytoplasm is/are- (4) Na+ & K+ can move across membrane through
active transport
(1) GERL
49. Which of the following is not a function of cell wall ?
(2) Chromatophores
(1) Protection from mechanical damage and
(3) Ribosomes infection
(4) Mitochondria (2) Cell to cell interaction
43. Regarding to inclusion bodies - find out the incorrect (3) Barrier to undesirable macromolecules
statement
(4) Secretion
(1) It is site of food storage
50. Which of the following component is not a
(2) It is single membrane bounded constituent of algal cell wall ?
(3) They lie freely in cytoplasm (1) Cellulose (2) Galactans
(4) May found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
(3) Mannans (4) Hemicellulose
E
51. Which of the following constituent is right for 58. Regarding to cilia and flagella which of the
endomembrane system ? following statement is incorrect -
(1) ER, Golgi complex, lysosome & nucleus (1) Cilia is small and flagella is long
(2) ER, Golgi complex, lysosome & vacuole (2) Cilia can move either cell or surrounding fluid
(3) ER, Golgi complex, lysosome & microbodies (3) Flagella is responsible for movement of
surrounding fluid
(4) ER, Golgi complex, plastids & vacuole
(4) Cilia work like oars
52. Regarding to endoplasmic reticulum which of the
following statement is wrong - 59. Plasma membrane covering of flagella and cilia
surrounds the central core, that is known as -
(1) ER divides the intra cellular space into two distinct
compartments (1) Shaft (2) Axonema
(2) RER frequently observed in cells actively involved (3) Radial spoke (4) Arms
in secretion 60. Radial spokes of flagella helps in connection
(3) In animals steroidal hormones are synthesized in between-
RER (1) Peripheral doublets
(4) SER is the major site of lipid synthesis (2) Central singlet microtubules
53. Golgi complex receives proteins for modification (3) One of the peripheral doublet and central sheath
from RER at which face - (4) Two successive peripheral doublets
(1) Cis face 61. What is the orientation of centrioles in centrosome?
(2) Trans face (1) Parallel (2) Perpendicular
(3) Concave face (3) Oblique (4) None of the above
(4) Maturing face 62. Match the following -
54. Which of the following reasons explains best, the (A) Robert Brown (I) Ribonucleoproteins
close association of Golgi complex with ER ? (B) Flemming (II) Nucleus as cell organelle
(1) Its enzymes works close to ER (C) Palade (III) Packaging of materials
(2) It receives material from ER for packaging (D) Camillo Golgi (IV) Staining of nucleus material
(3) It becomes active close to ER (1) A - (II) B - (IV) C - (I) D - (III)
(4) All of the above (2) A - (II) B - (IV) C - (III) D - (I)
55. In plant cells how much volume of cell can be occupied (3) A - (I) B - (II) C - (III) D - (IV)
by vacuole ?
(4) A - (IV) B - (III) C - (II) D - (I)
(1) 10% (2) 50%
63. Nucleolus is the site of -
(3) 90% (4) 80%
(1) Synthesis of r - RNA

56. Classification of plastids into ch loroplast,
chromoplast and leucoplast is based on - (2) Synthesis of m - RNA
(1) Stored food (2) Pigments (3) Synthesis of t- RNA
(3) Structure (4) Size (4) Synthesis of n- RNA
57. Chloroplast of higher plants contains - 64. Classification of chromosomes with respect to shape
based on -
(1) Only chlorophyll
(1) Structure
(2) Only carotenoids
(2) Number of telomere
(3) Both chlorophyll and carotenoids
(3) Position of centromere
(4) Phycobillins (4) Position of kinetochore
E
65. Chromosome with centromere slightly away from 67. Find out the incorrect statement about secondary
center is known as - constriction -
(1) Metacentric (2) Submetacentric (1) Non staining
(3) Acrocentric (4) Telocentric (2) Constant position
66. Match the following - (3) Known as satellite
(A) Metacentric (I) Terminal Centromere (4) Present in some chromosomes
(B) Submetacentric (II) Centromere very close
to its end
(C) Acrocentric (III) Centromere sligthly
away from the center
(D) Telocentric (IV) Middle centromere
(1) A-(IV) B-(II) C-(III) D-(I)
(2) A-(IV) B-(III) C-(II) D-(I)
(3) A-(I) B-(II) C-(III) D-(IV)
(4) A-(I) B-(IV) C-(III) D-(II)
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 3 2 2 3 3 4 1 4 2 2 3 3 3 4 3 1 2 3 4
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 2 4 3 3 4 4 1 2 2 1 2 2 4 1 1 4 2 3 4
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 2 2 3 1 3 3 3 4 4 2 3 1 2 3 2 3 3 2 3
Que . 61 62 63 64 65 66 67
Ans. 2 1 1 3 2 2 3
E
BIOMOLECULES
1. A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar 9. Which of the following AA is basic ?
through : (1) Valine (2) Lysine
(1) Phosphodiester linkage (3) Glutamic acid (4) Glycine
(2) N-glycosidic linkage 10. How many total carbons are found in palmitic acid?
(3) Ester linkage (1) 15 (2) 16
(4) Phosphoester linkage (3) 17 (4) 18
2. Which of the following is a nucleoside of DNA ? 11. Lipid may be :
(1) Adenosine (1) Monoglyceride (2) Diglyceride
(2) Guanine (3) Triglyceride (4) All the above
(3) Deoxyguanosine
COOH
(4) Deoxyguanylic acid H–C–NH2 This amino acid is :
12.
3. Which of the following is not the feature of double CH3
helix structure of DNA ?
(1) Serine (2) Alanine
(1) It is made of two polynucleotide chains
(3) Glycine (4) Arginine
(2) The two chains have anti-parallel polarity
13. Which functional group is common in fatty acid &
(3) The bases in two strands are paired through
amino acid ?
N-glycosidic bond.
(1) –COOH (2) –NH2
(4) The two chains are coiled in a right handed
(3) –OH (4) All
fashion.
14. Which of the following is micromolecule ?
4. Which of the following compound is present in acid
soluble poo l when w e an alyse chemical (1) Lipid (2) DNA
composition? (3) Protein (4) All
(1) Protein (2) Lipid 15. Antibiotics are :
(3) Glucose (4) Carotenoid (1) Primary metabolites
5. Which of the following elements present most (2) Secondary metabolites
abundantly on earth crust? (3) The product obtained from virus
(1) Carbon (2) Hydrogen (4) None of them
(3) Oxygen (4) Silicon 16. In proteins, amino acids are attached together by :
6. If –NH2 group and –COOH group are attached on (1) Peptide bond (2) Amide bond
same carbon in any amino acid, then these types
(3) Ester bond (4) 1 & 2 both
of amino acids are known as :

17. Proteins can act as :
(1) a-AA (2) b-AA
(1) transporter of nutrients across cell membrane
(3) g-AA (4) All
(2) Hormones
7. Variations in amino acids depend on :
(3) Enzymes
(1) Side group (2) Ester group
(4) All
(3) Complexity of cell (4) None of them
18. Which of the following is homopolysaccharide?
8. How many carbon atoms are found in arachidonic
(1) Cellulose (2) Starch
acid?
(3) Glycogen (4) All
(1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 20 (4) 22
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19. Which of the following statements is correct ? 26. Which of the following can be included alongwith
(1) 3' end of polynucleotide chain will be present biomolecules?
(a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein
where –OH group of 3' carbon of pentose sugar will
(c) Lipids (d) Nucleic acid
be free.
(e) Vitamins (f) Minerals
(2) Both the strands of DNA are antiparallel due to (g) Water
opposite directing phosphodiester bond. (1) a, b, c, d, e, f, g (2) a, b, c, d, e, f
(3) DNA is more stable than RNA (3) a, b, c, d, e (4) a, b, c, d
27. Which of the following is maximum in human body
(4) All
20. Which N-base is odd in the case of DNA? (1) Hydrogen (2) Carbon
(1) Cytosine (2) Guanine (3) Oxygen (4) Nitrogen
(3) Uracil (4) 5-Methyl uracil 28. Inulin is a polymer of
21. How many H-bonds are present bewteen cytosine (1) Glucose (2) Amino acids
and guanine in double stranded DNA formation? (3) Fructose (4) Nucleotides
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1 29. When a dry piece of tissue is fully burnt, all the
carbon compounds are oxidised to gaseous form
22. A
DNA ¾¾ B
® RNA ¾¾ ® Protein, Name the and the remaining is called 'ash'. The ash contains
process 'B' all of the following, except.
(1) Replication (2) Trancription (1) Calcium (2) Magnesium
(3) Translation (4) Taminism (3) Sulphure (4) Nucleic acid
23. There is a wide diversity in living organism in our 30. Pigments are considered as the secondary
biosphere and all living organism made of the same metabolites, having some particular functions.
chemical. This statement can be justified by all of Which of the following is an example of pigments?
the following statement except :
(1) Carotenoids (2) Codeine
(1) Plant tissue, animal tissue and a microbial paste
(3) Concanavalin-A (4) Curcumin
having same elements
(2) Organisms having similar mode of genetic 31. Which of the following is/are good source of
transfer mechanism. different type of secondary metabolites?
(3) Mechanism of energy transfer process are (1) Plants (2) Fungi
almost similar in all organism (3) Animals (4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Mechanism of energy production is similar in all
32. Which of the following can not be considered as the
organism.
example of polymeric substances?
24. All the elements present in a sample of earth's crust
(1) Rubber (2) Gums
are also present in a sample of living tissue, but which
of the following element is higher in any living (3) Cellulose (4) Vinblastin
organism than in earth's crust? 33. Match the following with their suitable groups.
(1) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Carbon. Column-A Column-B
(2) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Carbon and Nitrogen
(a) Drugs (i) Morphine
(3) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Carbon, Nitrogen and
Sulphur. (b) Toxins (ii) Lemon grass oil
(4) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Carbon, Nitrogen, Sulphur (c) Terpenoides (iii) Abrin
and Sodium
(d) Alkaloides (iv) Vinblastin
25. Which of the following compounds is used in the
chemical analysis of living tissue? (v) Diterpens
(1) CH3COOH (2) Cl3CCOOH (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-i (2) a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) HCHO (4) C6H12O6 (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-iii
E
34. Select the correctly matched. 42. Which of the following statements is not correct with
(1) Anthocyanins - Alkaloids reference to amino acid?
(2) Carotenoids - Toxins (1) NH2 group of amino acids having ionizable
nature.
(3) Ricin - Drugs
(2) COOH group of amino acids having ionizable
(4) Lemon grass oil - Essential oils.
nature.
35. Which of the following amino acid having
(3) The structure of amino acids changes in solutions
H(Hydrogen) as R group?
of different pHs
(1) Glycine (2) Alanine
(4) Amino acids found in protein belong to D-forms
(3) Serine (4) Leucine
mostly
36. Which of the following statements is correct with 43. Which of the following structures represents serine?
reference to amino acids? COOH
(1) These are substituted methane (1) H–C–NH2
(2) They contains a-carbon hance called a-amino
H
acids
COOH
(3) Variable group of amino acid is designated as
R-group (2) H–C–NH2
(4) All of the above CH3
37. Amino acids are basically classified into different COOH
groups; mainly bassed on which of the following?
(3) H–C–NH2
(1) Nature of R group
CH2OH
(2) Number of amino group
H H COOH
(3) Number of caboxylic group
(4) OH CH2–C–H
H H NH2
38. Physical and chemical properties of amino acids
44. Which of the following is the structure of a-D-glucose?
depend on
(1) Amino group CH2OH
H O H
(2) Carboxylic group H
(1) OH H
(3) R-group HO OH
H OH
39. Which of the following is acidic amino acid. CH2OH
H O OH
(1) Glutamic acid H
(2) OH H
(2) Aspartic acid HO H
(3) Ascorbic acid H OH
(4) Both (1) and (2) CH2OH

40. Which of the following amino acid is/are basic in HO O H
H
nature? (3) OH H
H OH
(1) Lysine (2) Arginine H HO
(3) Histidine (4) All of the above
CH2OH
41. Which of the following is not the example of H O H
aromatic amino acid? H
(4) OH OH
(1) Tyrosin (2) Tryptophan HO OH
H H
(3) Threonin (4) Phenylalanine
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45. Which of the following represents the structure of O
Ribose ? O CH2–O–C–R1
HOCH2 H 48. R2–C–O–CH O
O
H H CH2–O–C–R3
(1)
H OH
HO H The given structure represents the structure of
HOCH2 tri-aster derivative while R1, R2 and R3 is/are :
H
O
H H (1) Fatty acid, Amino acid & Adenylic acid
(2)
H OH respectively.
HO OH
(2) Amino acid, Fatty acid and Phosphoric acid
CH2OH
CH2OH respectively.
O
(3) H OH (3) Fatty acids only.
H OH
OH H (4) Amino acid, Glucose & Lactic acid respectively.
CH2OH 49. The structure given below is the structure of which
H O CH2OH
of the following compounds.
(4) H HO
HO OH O
OH H O CH2–O–C–R1
46. Which of the following is the molecular formula of R2–C–O–CH O
Palmitic acid ?
CH2–O–P–O–CH2–CH2
(1) CH3(CH2)2COOH (2) CH3(CH2)14COOH HO N+
(3) CH3(CH2)16COOH (4) CH3(CH2)18COOH H3C CH3

CH3
CH2–OH (1) Lecithin (Phosphatidyl choline)
47. CH–OH is the structure of which of the following (2) Cephaline (Phosphatidyl serine)
CH2–OH
(3) Kephaline (Phosphatidyl ethanol amine)
compounds?
(4) Phosphosphingomyelins.
(1) Glyceraldehyde (2) Glycerol
(3) Glyceric acid (4) Triglycerides

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 3 3 3 3 1 1 3 2 2 4 2 1 1 2 4 4 4 4 3
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 1 4 4 1 4 1 4 1 4 4 4
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
Ans. 3 4 3 1 2 2 2 3 1
E
CELL CYCLE & CELL DIVISION
1. Prophase–I of meiotic division is typically longer and 6. Mark incorrect statements :-
more complex, it is subdivided into five phases, on (A) Meiosis involves only a single cycle of DNA
the basis of :- replication
(B) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of
(1) Staining
meiosis–I
(2) Behaviour of chromosomes (C) Mitosis may occurs in haploid and diploid cells
(3) Duration (D) In yeast, cell cycle takes about 90 minutes.
(4) Number of chromosomes (1) A and B (2) A and C

(3) Only B (4) All are correct
2. Match the columns :-
7. It is significant to note that in the 24 hour average
Column–I Column–II
duration of cell cycle of human cell, cell division
A. Leptotene (i) Compaction of proper lasts for only about :-
B. Zygotene chromosomes
(1) Four hours (2) 90 minutes
C. Pachytene (ii) Recombination
(3) An hour (4) 10 hours
D. Diplotene nodule
8. In which stage of mitotic division, cells do not show
E. Diakinesis (iii) Synapsis
Golgicomplex, ER, nucleo lus and nuclear
(iv) Terminalisation of
envelope ?
chiasmata
(1) Metaphase (2) Late prophase
(v) Dissolution of (3) Anaphase (4) All of these
synaptonemal
9. Karyotype of chromosomes is prepared at :-
complex
(1) Prophase (2) Interphase
(1) A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–v, E–iv
(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
(2) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–v, E–iv 10. In which phase of mitosis, cell does not have
nucleolus ?
(3) A–v, B–iii, C–ii, D–i, E–iv
(1) Interphase (2) Telophase
(4) A–iii, B–ii, C–v, D–iv, E–i
(3) Late prophase (4) All of these
3. Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and 11. "X-shaped structures" occurs during which phase of
diakinesis are 5 phases of prophase–I. Which one meiotic division ?
is the longest in human oogenesis? (1) Prophase I (2) Metaphase I
(1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene (3) Anaphase II (4) Telophase I
Q. No. 12 to 17 are based on given figure :
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
E
4. Interkinesis is stage between :-
(1) Two mitotic divisions Cy

tok A
Telo ines
phas is
(2) Two phases of meiotic divisions D Anaphasee
Metaphase
(3) Anaphase and telophase phas
e B
Telo
C
(4) Leptotene and zygotene
5. In which phase of mitosis, chromosomes loose their

individuality ? 12. DNA replication occurs in ......... phase :-
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) E
13. Which phase shows structured chromosomes ?
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
(1) B (2) D (3) C (4) E
E
14. Heart cells are found in ...... phase :- 27. Regarding to cell cycle which of the following
(1) E (2) D (3) C (4) B statement is wrong ?
15. Quiescent stage is :-
(1) Cytoplasm increase is a continuous process
(1) A (2) B (3) D (4) E
16. Centriole duplicates in ...... phase :- (2) DNA synthesis occurs only during one specific
(1) B (2) C (3) A (4) D stage
17. Cell differentiates in ...... phase :-
(3) replicated chromosomes distributed to daughter
(1) C (2) E (3) B (4) D
nuclei by complex series of events
18. In which stage of mitosis, Golgi complexes, ER,
nucleolus and nuclear envelope begins to (4) events for replicated chromosomes distribution
disappear? are not under genetic control
(1) Early prophase (2) Late prophase 28. Which of the following phase corresponds to interval
(3) Prometa phase (4) Metaphase
between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication ?
19. Chiasmata appear in which stage?
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (1) G1 phase (2) G2 phase
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene (3) S - phase (4) M - phase
20. Which phase is marked by terminalization of
29. If there are 16 chromosomes in each root cell of
chiasmata?
onion, then what will be th e number of
(1) Diakinesis (2) Pachytene
chromoso me in G 1 phase and G 2 phase
(3) Diplotene (4) Zygotene
respectively -
21. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex is started and
chiasmata are first seen during? (1) 32 & 16 (2) 16 & 32
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene (3) 16 & 16 (4) 32 & 32
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene 30. About cell - cycle, which of the following statement is
22. Crossing over occurs during :- correct ?
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene (1) In Go phase cells are metabolically inactive
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene (2) In Go phase cells are metabolically active
23. 'Dyad of cell' form after : (3) Diploid somatic cells of animals divide by only
(1) Anaphase-I (2) Telophase-I meiotic division
(3) Telophase-II (4) Anaphase-II (4) In plants only haploid cells can show mitotic
24. The movement of homologous chromosomes divisions
towards opposite poles occur by shortening of 31. The most dramatic period of cycle, involving a major
spindle fibre during :- reorganisation of virtually all components of cell is -
(1) Anaphase-II (2) Anaphase-I (1) G1 (2) S
(3) Telophase (4) Metaphase-I (3) G2 (4) M
25. In human being which cell(s) do/does not show 32. Chromatin condensation and movement of duplicated
division?
centriole towards opposite pole can be observed

(a) Heart cell during-
(b) Muscle cell (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(c) Nerve cell (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
(1) only a (2) only a and b 33. Which of the following organelles or components can
(3) only a and c (4) a, b and c be observed in cell even after completion of
26. Cell cycle involves - prophase?
(1) Duplication of genome (1) Golgi complex
(2) Synthesis of cell constituents (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Division of cell (3) Nucleolus
(4) All the above (4) Mitochondria
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34. Regarding arrangement of chromosome on equator 39. Meiosis ensures the production of ........... phase in
during metaphase, which of the following statements life cycle of sexually reproducing organism, where
is incorrect ? as fertilisation restores ......... phase.
(1) Each chromatid remains connected by one (1) diploid, haploid (2) haploid, triploid
spindle fiber from both poles (3) diploid, triploid (4) haploid, diploid
(2) Each chromosome remains connected by spindle 40. Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear
fibres from both poles and cell division called meiosis - I & meiosis - II, but
(3) Spindle fibre remains attached on kinetochore how many cycles of DNA replication can be seen
of both chromatids during this type of division ?
(4) Each chromosome remains connected at both poles (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
by spindle fibres 41. Regarding key features of meiosis select out the
35. During poleward movement of chromosomes in wrong one -
anaphase centromere (kinetochore) of each daughter (1) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear
chromosome facing towards - and cell division called meiosis- I & meiosis- II
(1) Pole (2) Meiosi s is ini tiat ed after th e parent al
(2) Equatorial plate chromosomes have replicated to produce
(3) Lateral identical sister chromatids at the S - Phase
(4) It is random , sometimes towards pole and (3) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous
sometimes towards equatorial plate chromosomes and recombination between non
36. Match the following - homologous chromosome
(a) Prophase (I) Decondensation (4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II
of chromosome 42. Select the odd one -
(b) Metaphase (II) Division of centromere (1) Zygotene - Synaptonemal complex appearance
(c) Anaphase (III) Attachment of spindle fibres (2) Pachytene - Appearance of recombination
on kinetochores of nodule
chromosomes (3) Diplotene - Terminalisation of chiasmata
(d) Telophase (IV) Initiation of assembly (4) Diakinesis - Assembly of meiotic spindle
of mitotic spindles
43. Match the following -
(1) a (IV) b (III) c (I) d (II)
(a) Metaphase- I (I) Splitting of centromere of
(2) a (IV) b (III) c (II) d (I)
each chromosome
(3) a (III) b (IV) c (II) d (I)
(b) Anaphase - I (II) Separation of homologous
(4) a (III) b (IV) c (I) d (II)
chromosomes
37. Precursor of cell wall is -
(c) Telophase - I (III) Alignment of bivalents on

(1) Cell membrane (2) Cell fragments
equatorial plate
(3) Cell Plate (4) Nuclear membrane
(d) Anaphase -II (IV) Appearance of diad of cells
38. Which of the following is not a significance of
mitosis
(1) Maintenance of identical genetic complement a b c d
(2) Cell repair (1) III II IV I

(3) Restore nucleo cytoplasmic ratio (2) II III IV I
(4) Genetic variability (3) IV III II I
(4) I II III IV
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44. Match the following - 45. Which of the following is not a significance of
(a) Prophase- II (I) Enclosure of meiosis ?
chromosomes in (1) Helps in conservation of specific chromosome
nuclear envelope number in each species
(b) Metaphase - II (II) Separation of (2) Increase in genetic variability
sister chromatids (3) Helps in evolution and adaptation
(c) Anaphase- II (III) Chromosome (4) Helps in growth of organism
alignment on equator
(d) Telophase -II (IV) Disappearance of nuclear
membrane
(1) a (IV) b (III) c (I) d (II)
(2) a (IV) b (III) c (II) d (I)
(3) a (IV) b (II) c (III) d (I)
(4) a (IV) b (I) c (II) d (III)
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 1 3 2 4 3 3 4 3 3 1 2 2 1 4 1 2 2 4 1
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 1 2 2 4 4 4 1 3 2 4 1 4 1 1 2 3 4 4 1
Que . 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 3 1 2 4
E
PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
TRANSPORT IN PLANTS 6. All the following statements are correct except that :
1. Over small distance, substances can move by : (1) the symplastic movement of absorbed water may
(1) Diffusion be aided by cytoplasmic streaming
(2) Cytoplasmic streaming (2) the xylem vessels and tracheids are non living
conduits so are parts of the apoplast
(3) Active transport
(3) the movement through the apoplast does not
involve crossing the cell membrane
2. Substances that have a....... moiety, find it difficult
(4) the apoplast ic system is t he system of
to pass through the membrane.
interconnected protoplasts that is continuous
(1) Hydrophilic (2) Hydrophobic
through the plant, except at the casparian strips
(3) Neutral (4) Lipophilic of the endodermis in the roots.
3. Transport methods those require special membrane 7. As various ions from the soil are actively transported
proteins also show : into the vascular tissues of the roots, water follows
(1) Always uphill movement and increases the pressure inside the xylem. This
pressure :
(2) Always movement according to concentration
gradient (1) is responsible for water loss from leaves in liquid
phase
(3) Always transport saturation
(2) may re-establish the continuity of water column
(4) Always ATP expenditure
in xylem
4. Which of the following statements are correct?
(3) is considered as positive pressure
(A) If two systems containing water are in contact,
random movement of water molecules will result
in net movement of water down a gradient of 8. The cause of the opening or closing of the stomata is:
free energy is called diffusion. (1) a change in the turgidity of the guard cells
(B) The less the solute molecules in a solution, the (2) the crescent shape of thick and nonelastic outer
lower is the solute potential wall of the guard cells
(C) If a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure (3) the longitudinal orientation of cellulose
is applied to a solution, its water potential microfibrils in the inner walls of guard cells
increases. (4) All of the above
(D) By convention, the water potential of pure water 9. Most of the nitrogen in plants is transported in :
at standard temperature which is not under any
(1) Organic form via phloem
pressure, is taken to be zero i.e. minimum value
(2) Organic form via xylem

of water potential.
(3) Inorganic form via phloem
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(4) Inorganic form via xylem
(3) B and D (4) C and D
10. In plants the accepted mechanism for the
5. Imbibition :
translocation of sugars from source to sink :
(1) is a special type of osmosis
(1) involves the modest push by root pressure
(2) involve adsorbtion
(2) involves the transport according to pressure
(3) is the characteristic feature of lipophilic coloids
potential gradient
(4) occurs against the water potential gradient
(3) is completely based upon transpiration pull
(4) Does not requires metabolic energy
E
11. Mineral translocation in plants is carried out by : 18. Which of the following is not observed during
(1) Xylem exclusively stomatal opening ?
(2) Phloem exclusively (1) High turgidity of guard cells
(3) Mainly xylem & little bit by phloem (2) Radially oriented microfibrils
(4) Mainly phloem & little bit by xylem (3) Outer wall bulge out
12. Diffusion is very important to plants since it is the (4) Low turgor of guard cells
only means for : 19. Which of the following is not a significance of
transpiration ?
(1) Water translocation in root
(1) Absorption of water
(2) Gaseous movement within plant
(2) Absorption of minerals
(3) Mineral translocation in root
(3) Cooling of leaf surface
(4) Sugar transport from source to sink (4) Maintain the shape and structure of plant
13. Which of the following is not a similarity between MINERAL NUTRITION
facilitated diffusion and active transport ?
20. Which of the following is the method by which
(1) Transport saturation essential elements were identified in plants ?
(2) Sensitivity towards protein inhibitors (1) Plant ash analysis
(2) Hydroponics
(3) Selectivity
(3) Plant tissue culture
(4) Uphill transport
(4) Nitrogen fixation
14. Water will move from it's region of :
21. Which of the following essential elements is required
(1) lower yp to higher yp
by plants in excess of 10 m mole kg–1 of dry matter?
(2) lower ys to higher ys
(1) Magnesium (2) Manganese
(3) lower yw to higher yw
(3) Molybdenum (4) Selenium
(4) higher yw to lower yw
22. Choose the pair from the following in which one
15. Which of the following is ultimately responsible for element is essential to plant while other is beneficial
enlargement of plant cells ? but not essential.
(1) Osmotic pressure (1) Copper and Molybdenum
(2) Turgor pressure (2) Sodium and Silicon
(3) Wall pressure (3) Chlorine and Cobalt
(4) Osmotic potential (4) Selenium and Cobalt
16. Beside water potential gradient, which of the 23. Which of the following element is an activator for
following is also prerequisite for imbibition ? both ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase oxygenase
(1) permeable membrane enzyme and phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
enzyme?
(2) impermeable membrane

(1) Zinc (2) Copper
(3) affinity between adsorbant & liquid
(3) Magnesium (4) Chlorine
(4) selectively permeable membrane
24. Choose the pair from the following in which both
17. Regarding mycorrhiza select out the incorrect the elements share common function during
statement : photosynthesis in plants.
(1) they have large surface area (1) Chlorine and Magnesium
(2) the fungus provides minerals & water
(2) Potassium and Phosphorus
(3) roots provide nitrogenous compounds
(3) Boron and Molybdenum
(4) it can never be of obligate nature
(4) Manganese and Chlorine
E
25. If deficiency symptoms of any element appear first 32. Water potential of a cell is mainly determined by
in the senescent leaves, this element should not be : which of the following element ?
(1) Calcium (2) Nitrogen (1) Mg++ (2) Ca++
(3) Potassium (4) Magnesium (3) K+ (4) Fe2+
26. Which of the following bacteria oxidise the ammonia 33. The element is said to be deficient, when present:
into nitrite? (1) below critical concentration
(1) Nitrococcus (2) above critical concentration
(2) Nitrobacter (3) at critical concentration

(4) both below and above critical concentration
(3) Both (1) and (2)
34. Deficiency symptoms of element can be visualised
(4) Thiobacillus
by what kind of changes ?
27. Which of the following is correct regarding non (1) Physiological changes
leguminous plant Alnus?
(2) Morphological changes
(1) Free living nitrogen fixation by Beijernickia
(3) Chemical changes
(2) Free living nitrogen fixation by Frankia (4) Anatomical changes
(3) Symbiotic nitrogen fixation by filamentous 35. Deficiency symptoms for which of the following
microbe element tend to appear first in young tissues?
(4) Symbiotic nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium (1) N & P (2) N & Ca
28. During biological nitrogen fixation the energy input (3) Ca (4) S & K
is : 36. Mn toxicity leads to Ca deficiency by :
(1) 16 ATP for each NH3 (1) competing with Ca uptake
(2) 8 ATP for two NH3 (2) inhibiting translocation to shoot apex
(3) 32 ATP for two NH3 (3) competetive inhibition for enzymes
(4) 8 ATP for each NH3 (4) All of the above
29. During nitrogen metabolism in plants, transaminase 37. What is the major fate of NH 3 produced by
enzyme is used in conversion of : ammonification ?
(1) Volatilise to re-enter in the atmosphere
(1) Glutamic acid into other amino acids
(2) Absorbed by plants
(2) a-Ketoglutaric acid into glutamic acid
(3) Converted into nitrates
(3) Glutamic acid into glutamine
(4) Denitrification
(4) NH4+ into glutamic acid
38. In which of the following root tissues nodule
30. Proper aeration is required in hydroponics.
formation is initiated after successful infection ?

(1) to avoid the toxicity of minerals (1) Epidermis (2) Cortex
(2) for translocation of mineral from root to shoot (3) Endodermis (4) Root hairs
(3) for absorption of minerals 39. First stable product of biological nitrogen fixation is:
(4) to decrease the osmotic pressure in root cells (1) HN = NH
31. Which of the following is not a beneficial element (2) H2N – NH2
for plant life ? (3) NH3
(1) Na (2) Sr (4) NO3– or NO2–
(3) Si (4) Co
E
PHOTOSYNTHESIS (D) Reduction of NADP+ to NADPH+H+ is also a
40. During photosynthesis, plants mainly utilise the red cause for creation of proton gradient.
and blue regions of visible spectrum, for the first time (1) All statements are correct
it was concluded by :
(2) C and D
(1) Jan Ingenhousz (2) Joseph Priestley
(3) A and B
(3) T.W. Engelmann (4) Cornelius Van Niel
(4) B, C and D
41. Which of the following conclusions regarding
46. What is the correct ratio of ATP utilisation in steps
photosynthesis was proved by using radioisotopic
of Calvin cycle?
techniques ?
(1) Light is essential (1) Reduction : Regeneration :: 1 : 1
(2) O2 comes from H2O and not from CO2 (2) Reduction : Regeneration :: 2 : 1
(3) Glucose is stored as starch (3) Reduction : Regeneration :: 2 : 2

(4) Exchange of gases with environment (4) Reduction : Regeneration :: 1 : 2
42. The dark reactions of the photosynthesis : 47. The cells of C4 plants those are rich in RuBisCO
(1) occur in darkness enzyme, also have which of the following
(2) are not light dependent characteristic (s)?
(3) are not directly light driven (1) Intercellular spaces absent
(4) occur in membrane system of chloroplast (2) Thick walls impervious to gaseous exchange
43. Electrons from which of follwing reduces NADP+ to (3) Large number of chloroplast
NADPH+H+ during Z-scheme of photosynthesis? (4) All of the above
(1) Photosystem-I (2) Water
48. The productivity is better in C4 plants because :
(3) Carbon dioxide (4) Photosystem-II
(1) they increase the intracellular concentration of
44. During photosynthesis the stroma lamellae of CO2 in mesophyll cells
chloroplast could perform :
(2) in these plants RuBisCO has much greater
(1) the process of dark reaction in which ATP utilised
affinity for O2 than for CO2
(2) the process of light reaction which produce
(3) these plants can prevent competitive binding
NADPH+H+
phenomena related to RuBisCO
(3) the process of dark reaction which utilise
(4) these plants minimise the carboxylase activity of
NADPH+H+
RuBisCO
(4) the process of light reaction which produce ATP
49. C3 plants respond to higher CO2 concentration by
45. Which of the following statements are correct
showing increased rates of photosynthesis because:
regarding synthesis of ATP in chloroplast during
photosynthesis ? (1) Current availability of CO2 levels is limiting to the

(A) Splitting of water in stroma helps in creation of C3 plants
proton gradient
(2) C3 plants show saturation at about 360 mlL–1
(B) Cytochrome complex helps in the release of concentration of CO2
protons in the lumen of thylakoid by accepting
electrons from hydrogen carrier. (3) these plants responds to high CO2 concentration
even in low light conditions
(C) Movement of protons across the membrane to
the stroma through the F 0 of the ATPase (4) in these plants RuBisCO shows only carboxylation
is coupled with ATP synthesis.
E
50. 2H2A + CO2 ¾¾¾ 56. In C4 plants there is no photorespiration, because :
light
® 2A + CH2O + H2
(1) The have large number of chloroplast
in this given equation H2A represents to : (2) Increased CO2 concentration at RuBisCO site
(1) Suitable reducible compounds (3) Concentric arrangement of mesophyll cells
(4) Greater affinity of RuBisCO for CO2
(2) Suitable oxidisable compound
57. Which of the following is not a plant factor regulating
(3) Suitable buffer photosynthesis ?
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) Age of leaf
(2) Number of mesophyll cells
51. The membrane system of chloroplast is responsible
for : (3) Atmospheric CO2 concentration
(4) Amount of chlorophyll
(1) Trapping the light energy
58. Increase in CO2 concentration upto .......... percent
(2) Synthesis of ATP & NADPH can cause an increase in CO2 fixation rate, beyond
this the level can become damaging over long
(3) Enzymatic reactions for CO 2 incorporation
periods.
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) 0.03 percent (2) 0.04 percent
52. How does PS-II supply electrons continuously ? (3) 0.045 percent (4) 0.05 percent
(1) by removing electrons from photon RESPIRATION IN PLANTS
(2) by removing electrons from H 2O 59. The energy released by oxidation of respiratory
(3) by removing electrons from CO2 substrates :
(4) by removing electrons from constituent (A) Comes out in a single step to increase the
carotenoids possibility of maximum ATP production
53. Which of the following is not always required for (B) is not used directly
chemiosmosis ? (C) is used directly in the energy requiring processes
of the organisms
(1) Membrane (2) Proton pump
(D) is trapped as chemical energy in the energy
(3) OEC (4) ATPase
currency of the cell
54. Classification of biosynthetic phase of dark reaction (1) C and D are incorrect
as C3 & C4 is primarily based on.
(2) B and D are correct
(1) Initial CO2 fixation (3) A and B are correct
(2) Final CO2 assimilation (4) A and D are incorrect
(3) First CO2 receptor 60. How many ATP molecules and during which steps,
are directly synthesised in EMP pathway from one

(4) Number of ATP get consumed
glucose molecule?
55. Which of the following is not special about C4 plants? (1) 4 ATP, 2 in each PEP to pyruvic acid and BiPGA
(1) Responsiveness to high light intensities to PGA
(2) Lack of photorespiration (2) 8 ATP, 4 in each PEP to pyruvic acid and BiPGA
to PGA
(3) Greater productivity
(3) 2 ATP, 1 in each Glucose to Glucose-6-P and
(4) Scotoactive stomata Fructose-6-P to Fructose 1, 6 BiP
(4) 4 ATP, 2 in each Glucose to Glucose-6-P and
Fructose-6-P to Fructose 1, 6 BiP
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61. Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are involved in 67. An enzyme catalysing a transfer of a group, G
the conversion of pyruvic acid into CO2 and ethanol? between a pair of substrate S and S' as follows :
(1) Pyruvic acid dehydrogenase S – G + S' ¾® S + S' – G
(2) Alcohol decarboxylase G = phosphate or hydrogen or any other group, the
(3) Both (1) and (2) enzyme is related with which of the following class?
(4) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase (1) Transferases (2) Dehydrogenases
62. The complete oxidation of one molecule of pyruvate
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Either (1) or (2)
by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms:
68. Enzyme, which catalyzes the breakdown of hydrogen
(1) leaving six molecules of CO2
peroxide to water and oxygen, has which type of
(2) leaving two molecules of CO2
cofactor?
(3) leaving four molecules of CO2
(1) Tightly bound inorganic compound
(4) leaving three molecules of CO2
(2) Tightly bound organic compound
63. In aerobic respiration, the ultimate or final electron
acceptor is : (3) Permanently bound inorganic compound
(1) Atomic oxygen (4) Loosely bound organic compound
(2) Molecular oxygen 69. What is the significance of respiration ?

(3) Cytochrome a3 (1) Production of cellular energy currency
(4) Water (2) Provides carbon skeleton as precursor for
64. Fermentation differs from aerobic respiration : synthesis of various chemicals
(1) in having partial breakdown of glucose (3) loss of weight
(2) in producing less ATP per glucose (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) in having slow oxidation of NADH2 to NAD+ 70. Plants donot present great demands for gaseous
exchange because :
(1) They are autotrophic
65. Complete oxidation of which of the following
(2) Photosynthesis and respiration work mutually
respiratory substrate evolve less volume of CO2 as
(3) In plants there is less need of energy
compare to volume of O2 consumed ?
(4) Plants are regulators
(1) Fats
71. Select out the correct sequence of glycolytic steps:
(2) Proteins
(1) PGAL ® 3-PGA ® 1,3-BiPGA ® PEP
(3) Carbohyrates
(2) PGAL ® 1,3-BiPGA ® PEP ® 3-PGA
(4) Both (1) and (2)

(3) PGAL ® 1,3-BiPGA ® 3-PGA ® PEP
66. Enzymes differ from inorganic catalysts because
enzymes get damaged at high temperatures. This (4) PGAL ® PEP ® 1,3-BiPGA ® 2-PGA
difference : 72. During respiration of Yeast which of the following
enzyme is not used in oxygen stressed conditions ?
(1) is applicable to all enzymes
(1) Enolase
(2) is not applicable to thermolabile enzymes
(2) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
(3) is not applicable to the enzymes of thermophilic
(3) Alcohol dehydrogenase
organisms
(4) Aconitase
(4) is applicable to thermostable enzymes
E
73. How much amount of energy present in glucose, get (1) All the statements are correct
released during lactic acid and alcohol fermentation? (2) A and B
(1) 7 percent (3) B, C and D
(2) less than seven percent (4) A, C and D
(3) more than seven percent 80. Meristematic phase of growth is characterised by :
(4) always 2 percent (1) Increased vacuolation
74. Pyruvic acid ¾¾¾¾¾¾

Pyruvate
® Acetyl CoA (2) Maximal size in ter ms of prot oplasmic
dehydrogenase
+ modifications
CO2 + NADH2
(3) Cells those are rich in protoplasm and having thin
Inthis given reaction which of the following coenzyme cell walls with abundant plasmodesmata
is not used ? (4) Cell enlargement
(1) Mg++ (2) NAD+
81. Which of the following is/are related to the type of
(3) Co-A (4) TPP growth in which both the progeny cells, arise from
75. TCA cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group mother cell, retain the ability to divide?
with :
(A) Sigmoid curve
(1) OAA (2) Water
(B) expressed as W1 = W0 + rt
(3) NAD (4) both (1) and (2)
(C) Linear curve
76. During TCA which of the following intermediate is
a result of two successive decarboxylations ? (D) Three phases - Lag, exponential and stationary
(1) Oxalosuccinic acid (2) a-ketoglutaric acid (1) A and D (2) A, B and D
(3) Succinyl Co-A (4) Cis aconitic acid (3) Only C (4) B and C
77. Which of the following ETC complex is directly
82. In plants, cells/tissues arising out of the same
involved in reduction of oxygen ?
meristem have different structures at maturity, this
(1) complex-I (2) complex-II statement shows that plants have :
(3) comlex-III (4) comlex-IV
(1) Open indeterminate growth
78. When proteins are respiratory substrates the ratio
(2) Open determinate growth
of CO2/O2 would be about :
(1) 1.0 (2) 0.7 (3) Open differentiation
(3) 0.9 (4) 1.3 (4) Capacity of dedifferentiation

83. Match the following :
GROWTH & DEVELOPMENT
(A) Auxin (i) Derivatives of carotenoids
79. Which of the following statements are correct
(B) Gibberellin (ii) Gas

regarding growth?
(C) Cytokinin (iii) Adenine derivatives
(A) In plants, the form of growth is open and
(D) Ethylene (iv) Terpenes
localised
(E) Abscisic acid (v) Indole compounds
(B) Swelling of piece of wood in water is considered
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - v
as growth since it involve the increase in size
(2) A - ii, B - i, C - v, D - iii, E - iv
(C) Growth is accompanied by metabolic processes
(3) A - v, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii, E - i
(D) Growth, at a cellular level, is a result of increase
(4) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii, E - v
in the amount of protoplasm
E
84. Math the following : 90. Plant growth is unique because :
(A) Human urine (i) Ethylene (1) It is intrinsic
(B) Coconut milk (ii) GA3 (2) It occurs at the expense of energy
(C) Ripened oranges (iii) Auxin (3) Plant retains the capacity for unlimited growth
(D) Gibberella fujikuroi (iv) Cytokinin throughout their life
(1) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii (4) Its accompanied by metabolic processes
(2) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv 91. Growth at a cellular level, is principally a
(3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i consequence of increase in amount of :
(4) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii (1) Cell wall material (2) Water
85. Match the following : (3) Protoplasm (4) Cell sap
(A) Cytokinin (i) Weed free lawns 92. Cells with increased vacuolation, cell enlargement
(B) Auxin (ii) Brewing industry and new cell wall deposition are the characteristic
features of which phase of growth ?
(C) Abscissic acid (iii) Root hair formation
(D) Ethylene (iv) Overcome apical dominance (1) Meristematic phase
(E) Gibberellin (v) Stress hormone (2) Elongation phase
(1) A - iv, B - i, C - v, D - ii, E - iii (3) Maturation phase
(2) A - i, B - ii, C - v, D - iii, E - iv (4) Differentiation phase
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - v, D - i, E - ii 93. Trees showing seasonal activities, represent what
(4) A - iv, B - i, C - v, D - iii, E - ii kind of growth curve ?
86. Which of the following occur naturally in plants? (1) Sigmoid (2) Linear
(1) 2, 4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (3) J-shaped (4) double sigmoid
(2) Indole butyric acid 94. Quantitative comparisions between the growth of
(3) Naphthalene acetic acid living systems can be made by :
(4) Kinetin (1) Absolute growth rate
87. Plants, in which there is no correlation between (2) Relative growth rate
exposure to light duration and induction of flowering (3) Exponential growth rate
response, are called : (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Day - neutral plants 95. Nutrients both macro and micro essential elements
(2) Long day plants are required by plant during growth for :
(3) Short day plants (1) Synthesis of protoplasm
(4) Monocarpic plants (2) As source of energy
88. Which of the following is not a biennial plant? (3) Enzyme of activation
(1) Barley (2) Sugarbeet (4) All of the above

(3) Cabbages (4) Carrots 96. Parenchyma cells that are made to divide under
89. Swelling of piece of wood when placed in water is controlled laboratory conditions during plant tissue
not considered as growth because : culture, represents :
(1) It does not occur at expense of energy (1) Differentiation
(2) It is not a metabolic change
(2) Dedifferentiation
(3) It is reversible process
(4) It is extrinsic process (3) Redifferentiation
(4) Undifferentiated mass of cells
E
97. Which of the following is an intercellular intrinsic 98. Select out the incorrect match :
factor regulating development ? (1) GA - speed up malting process
(1) genetic constitution (2) Auxin - Xylem differentiation
(2) PGR (3) Cytokinin - Adventitious shoot formation
(3) Water (4) Ethylene - Lateral shoot growth
(4) Oxygen
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 1 3 2 2 4 4 1 2 2 3 2 4 4 2 3 4 4 2 2
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 3 3 4 1 1 3 4 1 3 2 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 3 3
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 3 1 4 4 2 4 3 1 2 4 2 3 1 4 2 3 4 2 1
Que . 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 4 4 2 4 4 3 4 2 4 2 3 4 2 1 4 3 4 3 4 3
Que . 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98
Ans. 1 3 3 1 4 2 1 1 3 3 3 2 1 4 4 2 2 4
E
DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION
1. 5. The below diagram represents a section of small
Oesophagus
intestinal mucosa showing villi. Identify A, B, C and
A D :-
B
Duodenum
D A
B
C
C
Anatomical regions of human stomach are :- Artery
(1) A-Fundus; B-Pyloric; C-Cardia; D-Body D
Vein
(2) A-Cardia; B-Fundus; C-Pyloric; D-Body
(3) A-Fundus; B-Cardia; C-Pyloric; D-Body (1) A - Villi, B - Lacteal, C - Capillaries, D - Crypts
(4) A-Pyloric; B-Fundus; C-Cardia; D-Body (2) A - Lacteal, B - Villi, C - Capillaries, D - Crypts
2. The wall of alimentary canal from stomach to rectum (3) A - Villi, B - Lacteal, C - Crypts , D - Capillaries
posses four layers. The sequence of these layers (4) A - Crypts, B - Lacteal, C - Capillaries, D - Villi
from outside to inside is :- 6. Find out the correct match :-
(1) Serosa ® Mucosa ® Submucosa ® Muscularis Column-I Column-II
(2) Mucularis ® Serosa ® Mucosa ® Submucosa A Hepatic lobule I Base of Villi
(3) Serosa ® Muscularis ® Mucosa ® Submucosa
B Crypts of leiberkuhn II Glisson's capsule
(4) Serosa ® Muscularis ® Submucosa ® Mucosa
C Sphincter of Oddi III Gall bladder
3. The below diagram represents the TS of gut. Identify
A, B, C and D :- D Cystic duct IV Hepato-pancreatic duct
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
A (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
7. The below diagram is a duct system of liver, gall
B
bladder and pancreas. The names of ducts from A
C
D to D :-
Lumen
Gall bladder
A Ducts from liver
(1) A - Serosa; B - Muscularis; C - Submucosa;
D - Mucosa
B
(2) A - Muscularis; B - Serosa; C - Submucosa;
D - Mucosa Pancreas
(3) A - Serosa; B - Muscularis; C - Mucosa; C
Duodenum
D - Submucosa
(4) A - Serosa; B - Submucosa; C - Muscularis;

D - Mucosa D
4. Which of the following statement is false ?
(1) A - Cystic duct, B - Bile duct, C - Pancreatic duct,
(1) Mucosal epithelium has goblet cells which
secrete mucus for lubrication. D - Hepato-pancreatic duct.
(2) Mucosa forms gastric glands in the stomach and (2) A - Bile duct, B - Cystic duct, C - Pancreatic duct,
crypts in between the bases of villi in intestine. D - Hepato-pancreatic duct.
(3) Cells lining the villi has brush border or (3) A - Cystic duct, B - Bile duct, C - Hepato-
microvilli.
(4) All the four basic layer in the wall of gut never pancreatic duct, D - Pancreatic duct.
show modification in different parts of the (4) A - Cystic duct, B - Pancreatic duct, C - Bile duct,
alimentary canal. D - Hepatio-pancreatic duct.
E
8. Optimum pH of saliva is :- 15. Match the columns and choose the correct option :-
(1) 6.8 (2) 8.6 (3) 7 (4) 9.5
Column-I Column-II
9. About 30% starch is digestied in :-
A Salivary amylase I Proteins
(1) Oral cavity (2) Stomach
B Bile Salts II Milk protein
(3) Small intestine (4) Colon C Rennin III Starch
10. Find out the correct matching between the cells of
D Pepsin IV Lipids
gastric gland and their respective secretory
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
products:-
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Column-I Column-II
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
A Mucus neck cells I HCl, Intrinsic factor
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
B Peptic/Chief cells II Mucus
16. The secretion of the brush border cells along with
C Parietal/Oxyntic cells III Pepsinogen
secretions of goblet cells present in the mucosa of
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-I small intestine constitutes :-
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III (4) A-II, B-I, C-III (1) Chyme
11. Enterokinase is :- (2) Chyle
(1) Pancreatic hormone
(3) Succus entericus
(2) Intestinal hormone
(4) Gastric juice
(3) Pancreatic enzyme
17. The juice having maltase, dipeptidase, lipase,
(4) Component of intestinal juice
nucleotidase, nucleosidase etc is called :-
12. First step in digestion of fat in intestine is :-
(1) Pancreatic juice
(1) Emulsification
(2) Enzyme action (2) Gastric juice
(3) Absorption by lacteals (3) Intestinal juice / Succus entericus
(4) Storage in adipose tissue (4) Bile
13. Identify enzymes A, B, C, and D in digestion of 18. Which of the following processes is aided by the bile
carbohydrates :- salts ?
(1) Nucleic acid ¾¾¾¾
Nuclease
® Nucleotid es
Starch
¾¾¾¾¾
Nucleotidase
® Nucleosid es ¾¾¾¾¾
Nucleositidase
®
A
Sugar + bases
Lactose Maltose Sucrose
(2) Sucrose ¾¾¾®
Sucrase Glucose + Fructose
B C D
Galactose Glucose Fructose (3) Fat s ¾¾¾
Lipase
® Diglycerides ¾¾¾
Lipase
®
Monoglycerides
(1) A-Amylase, B-Invertase, C-Maltase, D-Lactase Proteins ü

ï Trypsin/Chymotrypsin
(2) A-Amylase, B-Lactase, C-Maltase, D-Invertase Peptones ý ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® Dipeptides

(4) Carboxypeptidase
(3) A-Amylase, B-Maltase, C-Lactase, D-Invertase Proteoses ïþ

(4) A-Amylase, B-Maltase, C-Invertase, D-Lactase 19. Which of the following statement is false ?
14. Find out the correct sequence of substrate, enzyme (1) The break down of most of biomacromolecules
and product :- occurs in duodenum.
(1) Small intestine : Proteins ¾¾¾
Pepsin
® Amino acids (2) Simple substances (digested foods) are absorbed
in the jejunum and ileum.
(2) Stomach : Fats ¾¾¾
Lipase
® Micelles (3) Very significant digestive acitivity occurs in large
(3) Duodenum : Triglycerides ¾¾¾®
Trypsin Monoglycerides intestine.
(4) Undigested and unabsorbed substances are
(4) Small intestine : Starch ¾¾¾¾
a -Amylase
® Maltose passed into the large intestine.
E
20. Which of the following is not the function of large 23. Which of the following statement is wrong about
intestine? chylomicrons?
(1) Absorption of some water, minerals and certain drugs. I. Chylomicrons are produced in the epithelial cells
(2) Nutrient absorption of small intestine.
(3) Secretion of mucus to lubricate faeces II. It contains triglycerides, cholesterol and
(4) Temporary storage of faeces in rectum phospholipids.
21. In addition to neural control, hormones also III. It is carbohydrate coated.
influence the :-
IV. Chylomicrons released from the epithelial cell
(1) gastric secretions
into lacteals.
(2) intestinal secretions
(1) I and IV (2) II and III
(3) muscular activities of different parts of
(3) I, II, III and IV (4) Only III
alimentary canal
24. Chylomicrons are concerned with :-
(4) All of these
22. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (1) digestion of fats
I. Absorption of simple sugar, alcohol, some water (2) absorption of proteins
and medicines takes place in stomach. (3) digestion of protein
II. Maximum water absorption occurs in small (4) absorption of fats
intestine. 25. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
III. Small intestine is the major site of digestion and (1) Faecal accumulation in the rectum initiates a
absorption of food. neural reflex causing an urge for its removal.
IV. Fatty acid and glycerol are absorbed by lacteals. (2) Reflex action for vomiting is controlled by
V. Nothing is absorbed in mouth and large medulla.
intestine. (3) Irregular bowel mo vements causes
(1) I, IV and V (2) V constipation
(3) IV (4) II and III
(4) In diarrhoea the absorption of food get enhanced
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 4 1 4 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 1 2 4 1 3 3 3 3 2
Que . 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 4 2 4 4 4
E
BREATHING & EXCHANGE OF GASES
1. Which of the following is a common passage for 7. Match the column-A with column-B
food and air ?
Column-A Column-B
(1) External nostrils
i IRV a 1200 ml
(2) Oesophagus ii ERV b 1000 ml
(3) Trachea iii TV c 2500 ml
(4) Pharynx iv RV d 500 ml
2. Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the.... (1) i - c, ii - b, iii - d, iv - a
(1) end of thoracic cavity (2) i - a, ii - c, iii - d, iv - b
(2) anterior of thoracic cavity (3) i - b, ii - c, iii - a, iv - d
(3) end of the neck (4) i - d, ii - b, iii - d, iv - a
(4) middle of the neck 8. The total volume of air accommodated in the lungs
at the end of forced inspiration is sum total of :
3. Primary, secondary, tertiary bronchi and initial
bronchioles are supported by : (1) IRV + TV + ERV
(1) Complete cartilaginous rings (2) ERV + TV + RV + IRV
(2) Incomplete cartilaginous rings (3) TV + IRV

(4) IRV + TV + RV
(3) Complete chitinous rings
9. Which of the following is primary muscle of
(4) Incomplete chitinous rings
inspiration ?
4. Which statement is true ?
(1) Abdominal muscles (2) Oblique muscles
(1) By the contraction in diaphragm, volume of
(3) Intercoastal muscles (4) Diaphragm
thoracic cavity increases dorso-ventrally.
10. The partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air and
(2) By the contraction in diaphragm, volume of oxygenated blood respectively :
thoracic cavity increases antero-posterior axis.
(1) 40 mm Hg, 45 mm Hg
(3) By the contraction in EICM, volume of thoracic
(2) 104 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg
cacity increases antero-posterior axis
(3) 159 mm Hg, 104 mm Hg
(4) By the contraction in IICM, volume of thoracic
cavity increases in antero-posterior axis. (4) 104 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg
5. A - Diaphragm 11. Which of the following statement is/are true ?
B - EICM (1) Diffusion capacity of CO2 is 20-25 times higher

than that of O2
C - IICM
(2) The solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than
D - Abdominal muscles
that of O2
We have the ability to increase the strength of
expiration by the contraction of which set of (3) The diffusion capacity of O2 is 20-25 times higher
muscles? than that of CO2
(1) A, B, C and D (2) A, C and D (4) More than one statements are correct.
(3) C and D (4) A and D 12. Which of the following statement are/is true ?
6. Which of the following muscles help to increase the (1) Alveolar wall is one celled thick.
volume of thoracic cavity ? (2) The total thickness of diffusion membrane is much
(1) Diaphragm and EICM less than a millimeter.
(3) At the level of alveoli gaseous exchange occurs
(2) EICM and IICM
by simple diffusion.
(3) Diaphragm and Abdominal muscles
(4) All of these
(4) IICM and abdominal muscles
E
13. Find out correct statement : 14. The amount of O2 delivered by 100 ml blood to the
(1) About 97 percent of O 2 is transported by RBCs tissue under normal physiological condition :
in the blood (1) 200 ml (2) 5 ml
(2) About 90-93 percent of CO2 is transported by (3) 1.34 ml (4) 20 ml
RBCs is the blood
(3) About 7 percent of O2 and 3 percent of CO2 is
carried in dissolved form through plasma
(4) More than one are correct
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. 4 2 2 2 3 1 1 2 4 2 4 4 1 2
E
BODY FLUID & CIRCULATION
1. Match the columns and pick out the correct 5. The opening between the right atrium and the right
answer :- ventricle is guarded by a valve called __x__, whereas
Column-I Column-II __y__ guards the opening between the left atrium
(a) Fishes (i) 4 chambered heart and the left ventricle :-
(b) Amphibians (ii) 3 chambered heart (1) x is bicuspid valve, y is tricuspid valve
(c) Crocodile (iii) 2 chambered heart
(2) x is semilunar valve, y is tricuspid valve
(d) Mammals
(3) x is bicuspid valve, y is semilunar valve
(1) (a)®(i), (b)®(ii), (c)®(ii),(d)®(iii)
(4) x is tricuspid valve, y is bicuspid
(2) (a)®(iii), (b)®(ii), (c)®(ii),(d)®(i)
6. Which of the following is considered as pacemaker
(3) (a)®(iii), (b)®(ii), (c)®(i),(d)®(i) of human heart?
(4) (a)®(iii), (b)®(i), (c)®(i),(d)®(ii) (1) SA node (2) AV node
2. In amphibians and reptiles, the left atrium receives (3) Purkinje fibres (4) Bundle of His
oxygenated blood from the gills/lungs/skin and the 7. Which of the these has a double closed type of
right atrium gets the deoxygenated blood from circulatory system ?
other body parts. However, they get mixed up in
(1) Cockroach, Fish
the single ventricle which pumps out mixed blood
called:- (2) Fish, Frog
(1) Incomplete single circulation (3) Earthworm, Human
(2) Complete single circulation (4) Birds, Human

(3) Incomplete double circulation 8. Role of pacemaker is :-
(4) Complete double circulation (1) To initiate and maintain the rhythmic contractile
3. Heart is __a__ derived organ, is situated in the activity of the heart
__b__ cavity, in between the two __c__ slightly tilted (2) To initiate and maintain the arhythmic contractile
to the __d__:- activity of the heart
a b c d (3) To initiate and maintain the rhythmic contractile
(1) Endodermally Thoracic lungs left activity of blood vessels
(2) Mesodermally Thoracic lungs left (4) To generate minimum action potentials for
(3) Mesodermally Thoracic lungs right initiating and maintaining the rhythmic
(4) Endodermally Thoracic lungs left contractile activity of the heart
4. Choose the wrong statement :- 9. Duration of a cardiac cycle:-
(1) Heart has the size of a clenched first (1) 0.8 seconds (2) 1.2 seconds
(2) Heart is protected by a dou ble walled (3) 1.8 seconds (4) 2.0 seconds
membranous bag, the pericardium
10. The second heart sound "dub" is associated with :-
(3) Human heart has four chambers, two relatively
(1) Opening of semilunar valves
large upper chambers called atria and two
smaller lower chambers called ventricles (2) Opening of AV valves
(4) The atrium and ventricle of the same side are (3) Closure of AV valves
separated by a thick fibrous tissue called the (4) Closure of the semilunar valves
atrio-ventricular septum
E
11. A unique vascular connection exists between the 16. Match the columns and choose the correct answer :-
digestive tract and liver called :- Columne-I Column-II Column-III
a 1 . Blood b1. Blood pressure c1. 120/80 mmHg
(1) Renal portal system pressure higher than normal
(2) Hypophyseal portal system
a 2 . Hypertension b2. Blood pressure c2. 140/90 mmHg
(3) Gastric portal system lower than normal
(4) Hepatic portal system a 3 . Hypotension b3 . Pressure applied by c3. 100/70 mmHg
flowing blood on the
12. All arteries carry oxygenated blood except :-
walls of arteries
(1) Hepatic
(2) Systemic (1) a1b3c1 , a2b2c2, a3b1c3
(3) Coronary (2) a1b3c1, a2b1c2, a3b2c3
(4) Pulmonary
(3) a1b2c2, a2b3c3, a3b1c1
13. The volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle
(4) a1b1c1, a2b2c2, a3b3c3
per minute and average 5l in a healthy individual
17. In humans, blood passes from the ventricles to the
is called :- pulmonary artery and aorta due to :-
(1) Stroke volume (2) Joint diastole (1) Increase in atrial pressure
(3) Cardiac output (4) Ventricular diastole (2) Increase in ventricular pressure
14. Cardiac output is :- (3) Decrease in ventricular pressure
(1) Stroke volume x heart beat (4) Suction pull
(2) Stroke volume - heart beat 18. Cause of closure of semilunar valves in human heart
(3) Stroke volume + heart beat is :-
(1) Ventricular diastole and increase in ventricular
(4) Stroke volume ÷ heart beat pressure
15. Identify a, b, c, d and e in the diagram given below- (2) Ventricular systole and increase in ventricular
pressure
f (3) Ventricular diastole and decrease in ventricular
a b pressure
(4) Atrial diastole and decrease in atrial pressure
19. Choose the schematic diagram which properly
represents pulmonary circulation in humans:-
d c
Heart (Ventral view) (1) Left atrium
Oxygenated
Lungs
Deoxygenated
Right ventricle
blood blood
Deoxygenated Oxygenated
e (2) Left atrium blood
Lungs blood
Right ventricle
a b c d e (3) Right ventricle

Deoxygenated Oxygenated
blood
Lungs blood
Left atrium
(1) Pulmonary Pulmonary Ventral Vena Body
Oxygenated Deoxygenated
artery vein aorta cava parts (4) Right ventricle blood
Lungs blood
Left atrium
(2) Pulmonary Pulmonary Dorsal Vena Body 20. During each cardiac cycle two prominent sounds are
artery vein aorta cava parts produced which can be easily heard through a :-
(3) Pulmonary Pulmonary Dorsal Vena Lungs (1) Electro cardiograph
vein artery aorta cava
(2) Stethoscope
(4) Pulmonary Pulmonary Dorsal Vena Body
(3) Sphygmomanometer
vein artery aorta cava parts
(4) Galvanometer
E
21. Acute chest pain when no enough oxygen is reaching 24. Which of the following statements are true ?
the heart muscle is called :- (1) Albumin helps in osmotic balance.
(1) Heart failure (2) Plasma without the clotting factors is called
serum.
(2) Heart attack
(3) Globulins are involved in defence mechanism.
(3) Cardiac arrest (4) All of these
(4) Angina pectoris 25. A healthy individual has ...... gms of haemoglobin
in every 100 ml of blood.
22. Which of the following is not a function of
sympathetic nervous system ? (1) 12-16 gm
(2) 16-20 gm
(1) Increase the rate of heart beat
(3) 10-12 gm
(2) Decrease the rate of heart beat (4) 9-12 gm
(3) Increase the cardiac output 26. ............ are the most abundant cells of the total
WBCs and ............. are the least among them.
(4) Increase the strength of ventricular contraction
(1) Acidophils, Basophils
23. Which one of the statements is incorrect ?
(2) Basophils, Neutrophils
(1) Factors for blood clotting present in blood plasma
(3) Neutrophils, Monocyte
found in an inactive form
(4) Neutrophils, Basophils
(2) Plasma without clotting factor is called serum
(3) Basophils are involved in inflammatory reactions
(4) Neutrophil are the most and eosinophils are the
least among leucocytes
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 2 3 4 1 4 1 1 4 4 4 3 1 2 2 2 3 3 2
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26
Ans. 4 2 4 4 1 4
E
EXCRETORY PRODUCTS & THEIR ELIMINATION
1. Which is not correctly matched ? 7. Correct match list-1 with list-2
List-1 List-2
(1) Malpighian tubules - Cockroaches
(A) Glycosuria (i) Inflammat ion of
(2) Antennal glands - Planaria glomeruli of kidney
(B) Ketonuria (ii) Presence of glucose
(3) Nephridia - Earthworm
in urine
(4) Protonephridia - Amphioxus (C) Glomerulonephritis (iii) Excess of urea in
2. Which part of nephron is not situated in the cortical blood
region of the kidney ? (D) Uremia (iv) Presence of ketone
(1) Malpighian body bodies of urine
(2) PCT
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) DCT
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(4) Loop of Henle
3. Which of the following group of animals are (3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
ammonotelic in nature ? (4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(1) Many bony fishes, amphibians, Insects. 8. Find out the correct statement :
(2) Marine Fishes, amphibians, aquatic insects (1) An increase in body fluid volume, stimulate the
ADH release.
(3) Mammals, birds, Reptiles
(2) A fall in glomerular blood flow can activate the
(4) Many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians, aquatic
insects. JG cells to release renin.
4. Which statement is not true regarding the (3) Angiotensin-II, being a powerful vasodialator,
reabsorption ? decreases the glomerular blood pressure.
(1) Nearly 99 percent of the filtrate has to be (4) Decrease in blood flow to the atria of the heart
reabsorbed by the renal tubules. can cause the release of atrial natriuretic
factor(ANF)
(2) Nearly all of the essential nutrients are
reabsorbed by PCT. 9. HCO3– is reabsorbed in which part of nephron :
(3) DCT is also capable of reabsorption of HCO3– (1) PCT, DCT
(4) Reabsorption of hydrogen and potassium ions (2) PCT, Henle's loop
occur in DCT. (3) DCT, Henle's loop
5. Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes
(4) Collecting duct, Bowman's capsule
place in :
(1) PCT 10. Which substances are reabsorbed actively in
(2) DCT nephron ?

(3) Henle's loop (1) Glucose, water (2) Glucose, Na+
(4) Bowman's capsule
(3) Amino acids, Urea (4) Na+, Water
6. Which segment of nephron allows passage of small
amount of urea into the medullary interstitium ? 11. Micturition is due to :
(1) Relaxation of smooth muscles of the urinary
(1) PCT
bladder
(2) DCT
(2) Contraction of the urethral sphincter
(3) Collecting duct (3) Relaxation of the urethral sphincter
(4) Henle's loop (4) Peristalsis in ureter
E
12. Which points are not correct about angiotensin-II ? 17. In interstitial fluid of the kidney an increasing
(a) Decreases the glomerular blood pressure. osmolarity from cortex to the inner medulla. This
gradient is mainly caused by :
(b) Activates the adrenal cortex to release
aldosterone (1) Na+, K+
(c) Powerful vasoconstrictor (2) NaCl and Urea
(d) Decreases the GFR (3) NaCl, Water, HCO3–
(e) Activates the JG cells to release renin. (4) Urea, K+, HCO3–
(1) a, b, c (2) a, d, e
18. Which of the following is not secreted into the filtrate
(3) c, d, e (4) b, c, e
in the PCT by active process?
13. Which substances are reabsorped in collecting duct?
(1) Glucose, Water (2) Water only (1) H+ ions
(3) H+, K+ ions (4) Water, H+ ions (2) Ammonia
14. In which part of nephron electrolytes are not
(3) Creatinine
reabsorped?
(1) PCT (4) Urea
(2) DCT
19. Which of the following plays a significant role in
(3) Descending limb of Henle's loop producing concentrated urine?
(4) Ascending limb of Henle's loop
15. In which part of nephron water is not reabsorbed? (1) PCT and Henle's loop
(1) PCT (2) Henle's loop and Vasa recta
(2) DCT
(3) Collecting duct and DCT
(3) Descending limb of Henle's loop
(4) Ascending limb of Henle's loop (4) Collecting duct and PCT
16. Find out the incorrect statement 20. Which statement is not correct about glomerular
(1) Ammonia is the most toxic form and requires filtration?
large amount of water for its elimination. (1) On an average 1100-1200 ml of blood is filtered
(2) Kidneys do not play any significant role in by the kidney per minute.
ammonia removal. (2) Glomerular filtrate is blood plasma except
protein.
(3) Human kidneys can produce only hypertonic
urine nearly five times concentrated than the (3) GFR in a healthy individual is approxiamately
initial filtrate. 125 ml/minute or 180 lit per day.
(4) Urea may be retained in the kidney matrix of (4) Complete blood plasma is filtered in ultrafiltration
process.
some animals to maintain a desired osmolarity.
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 4 4 4 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 3 4 3 2 4 2 4
E
LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT
1. Which joint is present between atlas and axis : 8. Which is correctly matched :
(1) Saddle joint (2) Gliding joint (1) Fibrous joint - between the adjacent vertebrae
(3) Pivot joint (4) Hinge joint (2) Hinge joint - between atlas and axis
2. Cartilaginous joint is found : (3) Cartilaginous joint - pubic symphysis
(1) Between skull bones (4) Pivot joint - between the carpals
(2) Between the carpals 9. Correctly match list-1 with list-2
(3) Between the adjacent vertebrae List-1 List-2
(4) Between humerus and petctorial girdle (A) Cranial bones (i) 5
3. Acromian process is a part of : (B) Facial bones (ii) 6
(1) Clavicle bone (2) Coxal bone (C) Axial skeleton (iii) 7
(3) Humerus bone (4) Scapula bone (D) Vertebrochondral ribs (iv) 8
4. Which statement is not correct : (E) Lumbar vertebrae (v) 14
(1) The number of cervical vertebrae are seven in (F) Ankle bones (vi) 80
almost all mammals. (1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(vi), E-(v), F-(vi)
(2) Number of floating ribs in human are two pairs. (2) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(vi), D-(iii), E-(i), F-(ii)
(3) Number of cranial bones in human are 22. (3) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(vi), D-(ii), E-(i), F-(iii)
(4) Number of vertebrochondral ribs in human are (4) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(vi), D-(ii), E-(i), F-(iii)
3 pairs.
10. Which statement is not correct about osteoporosis?
5. Correctly match list-1 with list-2
(1) In this bone mass decreased
List-1 List-2
(2) It is age related disorder
(A) Collar bone (i) Pectoral girdle
(3) Increased levels of estrogen is a common cause
(B) Glenoid cavity (ii) Pelvic girdle
of it.
(C) Acetabulum (iii) Patella
(4) In this chances of fractures increased.
(D) Knee cap (iv) Clavicle
11. The portion of the myofibril between two successive
(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
"Z" line is considered as :-
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(1) H-zone (2) Sarcomere
(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(3) A-band (4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
12. Which of the following can be taken as a character
6. Rib cage is formed by :
of skeletal muscle fibre?
(1) Pectorial girdle, ribs and sternum
(1) Excitability (2) Extensibility
(2) Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum

(3) Contractibility (4) All of these
(3) Lumbar vertebrae, ribs and strenum
13. Which points are incorrect with the regarding of
(4) Fore limb, pectorial girdle and sternum
white muscle fibres.
7. In which the following bones are the example of flat (A) Number of mitochondria are high
bone :
(B) Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is low
(A) Skull bones (B) Vertebrae
(C) Myoglobin content is low
(C) Sternum (D) Ribs (D) Depend on anaerobic process for energy
(E) Carpals (E) Appear pale or whitish.
(1) A, B, C (2) A, C, D (1) A, B (2) C, D
(3) B, D, E (4) B, C, E (3) D, E (4) B, C
E
14. The muscle fatigue occurs due to accumulation of: 18. Find out correct points with the regarding of cardiac
(1) Ca++ muscle.
(2) CO2 (A) These are unstriated
(3) Lactic acid (B) These are involuntary
(4) Creatine phosphate (C) These are branched
15. Which one is not the character of red skeletal (D) They have more mitochondria
muscle? (E) They have less blood supply
(1) More mitochondria (1) A, B, C (2) B, C, D
(2) More myoglobin (3) B, D, E (4) A, C, E
(3) More sarcoplasmic reticulum 19. Active ATPase enzyme is located on :
(4) More blood capillaries (1) Actin protein
16. The functional unit of contraction of muscle is : (2) Myosin head
(1) Muscle fibre (3) Myosin tail
(2) Sarcomere (4) Troponin protein
(3) Fasiculi 20. Select the true statement :
(4) Actin and myosin filament (A) H-zone is present in the middle of I-band
17. Which is not correctly matched ? (B) A-band is present in the middle of sarcomere.
(1) Muscular movement - in Jaw, limbs (C) During contraction of mucle, I-bands get reduced
(2) Ciliary movement - in Fallopian tube (D) The light bands contain actin and myosin protein
(3) Amoeboid movement - in macrophages, leucocytes
(1) A, B (2) B, C
(4) Flagellated movement - in trachea
(3) C, D (4) A, B
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 4 3 3 2 2 3 4 3 2 4 1 3 3 2 4 2 2 2
E
NEURAL CONTROL & COORDINATION
1. Part of brain involved in the interpretation, storage 7. The medulla contains centres which controls :
of information and initiation of response on the basis (1) respiration
of past experience is called association area it is :
(2) Cardiovascular reflexes
(A) Neither sensory nor motor
(3) Gastric secretion
(B) Memory bank
(C) Motor area (4) All of these
(D) Sensory area 8. Polarized and depolarized conditions of neuron are
(1) C and D maintained by which specific ions respectively?
(2) A and B (1) K+ and Na+
(3) B and D (2) Na+ and K+
(4) B and C (3) Ca+2 and K+
2. At least how may afferent and efferent neurons are (4) Na+ and Ca+2
involved is any reflex pathway ? 9. Along with which structure limbic system is also
(1) One afferent, one efferent involved in regulation of sexual behaviour,
expression of emotional reaction and motivation.
(2) One afferent, one efferent and one interneuron
(1) Thalamus
(3) One afferent, one efferent and two interneuron
(2) Association area
(4) Two afferent, Two efferent and one interneuron
(3) Corpus callosum
3. Transmission of a nerve impulse across......... is very
(4) Hypothalamus
similar to impulse conduction along a single axon.
10. The inner parts of cerebral hemisphere and group
(1) Ranvier's node
of associated deep structure form a complex
(2) Chemical synapse structure called limbic systems these associated deep
(3) Electrical synapse structures include
(4) Myelin sheath (A) Amygdala
4. In mechanism of vision, action potential is developed (B) Hippocampus
in : (C) Outer parts of cerebral cortex
(1) Pigmented layer of retina (D) Association area
(2) Photo receptor cells
(1) A and D
(3) Ganglionic cells
(2) A and B
(4) Optic nerve
(3) A and C
5. Gray matter gives the greyish appearence due to
(4) C and D
highly concentrated :
(1) Axon 11. Motor areas, sensory areas and large regions called
(2) Myelin sheath as association areas are present in :

(3) Cell bodies (A) Cerebral cortex
(4) Dendron
(B) White matter
6. The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract
of nerve fibres called corpus callosum. These fibres (C) Inner part of cerebral hemisphere
are covered by : (D) Gray matter
(1) Myelin sheath or medullary sheath
(1) B and C (2) A and C
(2) Unmylinated or non medullated
(3) Gray matter (3) A and B (4) A and D
(4) Neurilemma
E
12. When the sensation for white light is produced? 18. Eustachian tube connects the middle ear to ........
which helps in equalising the pressure on either side
(1) By various combination of cones & their
of...........
photopigment
(1) Pharynx, basilar membrane
(2) When the cones are stimulated equally
(2) Pharynx, tympanic membrane
(3) When the cones are stimulated unequally (3) Buccal cavity, reissner's membrane
(4) By various combination of rods and their (4) Buccal cavity, tympanic membrane
photopigments 19. What is true regarding mechanism of hearing
13. Short fibers which branch repeatdly, project out of (1) The movements of hair cells bend basilar
cell body and also contains Nissl's granules called membrane, pressing it against the tectorial
(1) Dendrites (2) Cyton membrane
(3) Axon (4) Axon terminale (2) The movements of basilar membrane bend the
tectorial membrane pressing it against hair cells
14. The photosensitive compounds (Photopigments) in
(3) The movements of tectorial membrane bend the
the human eyes are composed of opsin (a protein)
hair cells pressing it against the basilar
and retinal this retinal is formed by :
membrane
(1) an aldehyde of vitamin -A
(4) The movements of basilar membrane bend the
(2) a ketone of vitamin -A
hair cells pressing them against the tectorial
(3) an aldehyde of vitamin -D membrane
(4) a ketone of vitamin -D 20. The specific receptors of the vestibular apparatus
15. At the base of cochlea, the scala vestibuli ends at....., responsible for maintenance of balance of body &
where as scala tympani terminates at the ....... which posture are
opens to the middle ear. (A) Organ of corti (B) Crista
(1) oval window, round window (C) Macula (D) Cochlea
(2) round window, oval window (1) A and D (2) B and C
(3) circular window, oval window (3) A and C (4) C and D
(4) round window, circular window 21. In an accident, a person's brain was injured due to
which body temperature, hunger and water balance
16. In mechanism of hearing, impulses are trasnsmitted
are not being regulated. Which one of the following
by afferent fibres via auditory nerves to the auditory
parts of his brain is affected ?
cortex of the brain, which cells remain inthe close
contact with the afferent nerves fibres. (1) Medulla oblongata (2) Cerebellum
(1) Basal end of hair cell. (3) Hypothalamus (4) Corpora quadrigemina
(2) Apical part of each hair cell. 22. Which one of the following statements are correct?
(3) Any part of hair cells. (i) Impulse transmission through electrical synapse
is slow than a chemical synapse
(4) Stereocilia of hair cells.
(ii) Unmyelinated nerve fibres are commonly found

17. Which one is incorrect statement regarding ear :
in ANS and somatic neural systems.
(1) Each semicircular canal lies in a different plane
at right angles to each other. (iii) Multipolar neurons are specially found in cerebral
(2) The membranous semicircular canals are cortex.
suspended in endolymph of bony canals (iv) Neural organisation is very simple in human
(3) Saccule & utricle contains a projecting ridge beings.
called macula (1) (i) and (ii)
(4) Crista & macula are the specific receptors of the (2) (ii) and (iv)
vestibular apparatus responsible for balance & (3) (i) and (iii)
posture. (4) (ii) and (iii)
E
23. Neuron is specific for following characters like 27. Transmission of nerve impulse is unidirectional due
(1) Modification, destruction and transmission of to –
stimuli (1) insulation of nerve fibre by medullary sheath
(2) Detection, receiving and transmission of stimuli (2) neurotransmitter releases only at axon ending.
(3) Formation, destruction and transmission of stimuli (3) neurotransmitter releases only at dendrite ends
(4) sodium pump starts from cyton and proceeds
(4) Modification, receiving and destruction of stimuli
upto axon ends.
24. Select the part of nervous system which transmit
28. Wh ich one of t he f ollo wing groups of
impulses from cerebrum to gastrocnemius muscle
neurotransmitter is inhibitory in nature ?
of body –
(1) Histamine, ACh, serotonin
(1) Sympathetic neural system
(2) Serotonin, Glutamate, Ach
(2) Parasympathetic neural system
(3) Somatic neural system (3) Serotonin, GABA, Dopamine
(4) Basal cortex of brain (4) GABA, Glutamate, Glycine

25. Which statement is true for nerve conduction? 29. These are few steps of synaptic transmission.
(1) During resting stage axonal membrane is less Arrange them in correct order of synaptic
permeable for K+ and more permeable for Na+. transmission.
(2) Concentration gradient generated when active
(a) Action of cholinestrase on acetylcholine
transportation of ions occurs by Na+–K+ pump.
(3) During transmission of impulse Na+ out flux decomposes it into choline & acetate.
continuously. (b) Development of AP causes entry of Ca+2 into
(4) Rise in stimulus induced permeability to Na+ is axon telodendria.
long lived. (c) Development of EPSP causes opening of Na+
26. Cerebrum has more number of neurons on its channels
surface due to its – (d) Release of ACh into synaptic cleft after bursting
of vesicles.
(1) Narrow sur face with more gyri &
sulci (1) d ® c ® b ® a (2) b ® d ® c ® a
(3) b ® d ® a ® c (4) d ® a ® b ® c
(2) Co nvoluted surface with less gyri &
30. Cerebral cortex is referred to as gray matter due
sulci
to –
(3) There are only pseudounipolar neurons present (1) Fibers of tract covered by myelin sheath
with gyri & sulci (2) Presence of neuron cell bodies collection
(4) None of these (3) Due to presence of association area
(4) Due to (1) and (2) both
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 1 3 3 3 1 4 1 4 2 4 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 4 2
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 2
E
CHEMICAL COORDINATION & INTEGRATION
1. Gland which is major regulator of metabolism and 8. Which of the following is not related with pineal gland?
development process is :- (1) Defense capability
(1) Pituitary gland (2) RBC formation
(2) Thyroid gland (3) Menstrual cycle regulation
(3) Pineal gland (4) Pigmentation
(4) Adrenal gland 9. Which of the following is true for thyroid gland ?
2. Position of thyroid gland is :- (1) Thyroid lobes are connected through
non glandular isthmus
(1) At upper side of Larynx
(2) Intracellular hormone storage is unique to
(2) On eitherside of trachea thyroid
(3) At junction of trachea & Larynx (3) Thyroxine derived from arginine amino acid
(4) (2) & (3) both (4) 'C' cells are major constituent of thyroid gland
increase Ca+2 in ECF.
3. Storage of iodothyronine occurs into :-
10. Thyroid gland secretes hormone mostly in the form
(1) Connective tissue band of thyroid gland
of :-
(2) Inside the thyroid follicular cell
(1) TSH (2) Tri-iodothyronine
(3) In blood stream
(3) Tetra iodothyronine (4) Calcitonin
(4) Extra cellular space of thyroid gland
11. Gland which helps in development of immune
4. Gland which is neuroectodermal in origin ? system of body :-
(1) Thymus gland (1) Adrenal gland (2) Thyroid gland
(2) Thyroid gland (3) Thymus gland (4) Pituitary gland
(3) Adrenal cortex 12. Which of the following hormone stimulates
(4) Posterior pituitary gland breakdown of glycogen and increases blood glucose
concentration ?
5. Find out the correct match :-
(1) Hormone of b-cell of pancreas
(1) Insulin – Hyperglycemic effect
(2) Hormone of adrenal medulla
(2) STH – Hypoglycemic effect
(3) Hormone of parathyroid
(3) Epinephrine – Hyperglycemic effect
(4) Hormones of pineal gland
(4) Thyroxine – Decrease amino acid up
13. Find out the incorrect match :-
take
(a) PTH – Decreases Ca+2 absorption from intestine
6. Cancer of pituitary gland generally causes which of
the following :- (b) Adrenaline – Piloerection
(c) Glucocorticoids – Immune system supression
(1) Vision problems
(d) Melatonin - T-cell differentiation

(2) Hearing problems
options :-
(3) decreaes insulin secretion
(4) More PRL secretion (1) (a), (b) (2) (b), (c)
7. Which of the following hormone functions through (3) (a), (c) (4) (a), (d)
generating second messengers? 14. Which one regulates growth of mammary glands?
(1) Iodothyroglobulin (a) PRL (b) Estrogen
(2) Estrogen (c) Progesteron (d) Adrenalin
(3) Adrenaline options :-
(4) Estradiole (1) a, b,d (2) a, b, c

(3) a, c, d (4) b, c, d
E
15. Diurnal rhythms of human body are related with 21. Hormone is :-
(1) Adrenaline (2) Cortisol (1) Non nutrient chemical
(3) Melatonin (4) Thymosin (2) Intercellular messengers
16. Which one is actually synthesized in hypothalamus ? (3) Produced in traces
(1) Cortisol (2) Oxytocin (4) All of these
(3) ACTH (4) STH
22. Which one is not an organised endocrine gland of
17. Find out the correct match :- human body ?
(1) Oxytocin – Milk synthesis (1) Pancreas (2) Pituitary gland
(2) FSH – Maintains corpus luteum
(3) Adrenal gland (4) Kidney
(3) Thyroxine – Requires I2 and glycin
23. Vigorous contraction of uterus at time of delivery
(4) Vasopressin – Transport through neural axon is regulated by activity of :-
18. Which one supports red blood cell formation?
(1) Adrenal cortex hormone
(a) Thyroxine (b) Cortisol
(2) Anterior pituitary hormone
(c) PTH (d) ACTH
(1) (c), (d) (2) (b), (d) (3) Posterior pituitary hormone
(3) (a), (b) (4) (b), (c) (4) a-cell of pancreas
19. Hormones of fight and flight are :- 24. Which one is secreted from hypothalamus and
(1) Cortisol and adrenaline inhibits mitotic divisions of bones?
(2) Only adrenaline (1) Growth hormone (2) Thyroxine
(3) Adrenaline and noradrenaline (3) Cortisol (4) Somatostatin
(4) Insulin and glucagon 25. Hypothalamic portal system regulates activity of :-
20. Which of the following hormones helps in duct (1) Medulla of adrenal gland
formation in mammary gland (2) Pancreatic acini
(1) Testosterone (2) Progesterone (3) Adenohypophysis
(3) Estrogen (4) LH (4) Melatonin secreting cells
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 4 4 4 3 1 3 2 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 3 3
Que . 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 4 4 3 4 3
E
74
NCERT-Biology
IMPORTANT NOTES
ALLEN
E
NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS Serial Page
C O N T E N T S
No. No.
1. Reproduction in Organisms 1
2. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 3
3. Human reproduction & Reproductive 6

health
(CLASS-XII)
4. Genetics : Principles of Inheritance 8
and Variations
5. Genetics : Molecular Basis of Inheritance 14
6. Evolution 20
7. Human Health & Disease 22
8. Strategies for Enhancement in Food 24
production
9. Microbes in Human Welfare 28
10. Biotechnology : Principles and Processes 30
11. Biotechnology and its Applications 36
12. Organisms and Populations 40
13. Ecosystem 43
14. Biodiversity and Conservation 46
15. Environmental Issues 49
E
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
1. Find out incorrect statement : 6. Interaction of which of the following factors regulate
the reproductive processes and the associated
(1) Period from birth to natural death called life span
behavioral expression of organisms :
(2) Life span of organisms are necessarily correlated (1) Only hormones
with their size
(2) Only environmental factors
(3) Except single celled organisms, all others are (3) Both (1) and (2)
mortal (4) Photosynthetic efficiency
(4) Reproduction enables the continuity of species, 7. Which of the following is not a distinct stage of sexual
generation after generation reproduction :
2. Match the following (with respect to life span) : (1) Pre gametogenesis stage
A. Dog (I) 200-300 years (2) Pre fertilisation stage
B. Butterfly (II) 20 years (3) Fertilisation stage
C. Rice plant (III) 1-2 week (4) Post fertilisation stage
D. Banyan Tree (IV) 3-4 month 8. Match the following regarding to number of
(1) A(II), B(III), C(IV), D(I) chromosomes in meiocyte :
(2) A(III), B(II), C(IV), D(I) (A) Ophioglossum (i) 20
(3) A(II), B(III), C(I), D(IV) (B) Apple (ii) 24
(4) A(III), B(IV), C(II), D(I)
(C) Rice (iii) 34
3. Regarding to reproduction which of the following
(D) Maize (iv) 1260
statement is correct :
(1) Asexual reproduction is common among (1) A(iv), B(iii), C(i), D(ii)
multicellular plants and animals (2) A(iv), B(i), C(ii), D(iii)
(2) In monerans cell division itself is a mode of (3) A(iv), B(ii), C(iii), D(i)
reproduction
(4) A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i)
(3) During bud formation in yeasts meiotic division
9. Where does syngamy occur in algae?
occurs
(4) In fungi, fission is most common method of (1) In archegonium (2) In water or oogonium
asexual reproduction (3) In Ovary (4) In the soil
4. "Water hyacinth" or Eichhornia is one of the important 10. From the formation of embryo point of view, which
problematic weed of static water in India. Which of of the following plant group is the odd one :
the following statement is incorrect about it :
(1) Algae (2) Bryophytes
(1) It is also known as "Terror of Bengal"
(3) Pteridophytes (4) Gymnosperms
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\NCERT_OBJECTIVE_BIO\CLASS_XII\ENGLISH.P65
(2) It is native plant of India

11. Which of the following plant possess non motile male
(3) It increases biological oxygen demand of
waterbody gametes :
(4) It spreads rapidly through vegetative reproduction (1) Marchantia (2) Pteridium
5. What is the duration of juvenile phase in bamboo (3) Ginkgo (4) Pisum
and interflowering period of Strobilanthus kunthiana
12. Which of the following structure is the vital link that
respectively :
ensures continuity of species between organisms of
(1) 50-100 years and 21 years
one generation and the next :
(2) 50-100 years and 12 years
(3) 25-300 years and 12 years (1) Endosperm (2) Zygote
(4) 25-30 years and 21 years (3) Embryo (4) Sex organs
E
13. First cell of sporophytic generation is : 16. Find out the incorrect statement :
(1) Gamete (2) Spore (1) Cucurbits are monoecious plants
(3) Zygote (4) Embryo (2) Papaya is a dioecious plant
14. During embryogenesis zygote go through which of (3) Meiocytes are haploid
the following process/processes : (4) Male gametes are transfered through pollen
(1) Cell division tube in spermatophytes
(2) Cell differentiation 17. Which of the following is a dioecious plant :
(3) Both 1 and 2 (1) Datepalm (2) Cucumber
(4) Either cell division or cell differentiation (3) Maize (4) Chara
15. Sexual reproduction is of isogamous type in :- 18. Cultivation of floral plants is known as
(1) Riccia (2) Selaginella (1) Horticulture (2) Floriculture
(3) Cladophora (4) Cycas (3) Sericulture (4) Vermiculture
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Ans. 2 1 2 2 2 3 1 4 2 1 4 2 3 3 3 3 1 2
E
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
1. What would be the ploidy of cells of tetrad ? 11. Endosperm development precedes embryo
(1) n (2) 2n (3) 3n (4) 4n development, because
(1) Embryo provides nutrition to developing
2. Which of the following statements are correct ?
endosperm
(1) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients. (2) Endosperm provides nutrition to developing
(2) In some cereals like rice and wheat pollen grains embryo
lose viability within 30 minutes of their release (3) Endosperm development starts after embryo
development
(3) In some members of rosaceae, leguminosae and
solanaceae, pollen grains maintain viability for
12. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of
months
cotyledons is called
(4) All of the above (1) Hypocotyl (2) Epicotyl
3. The number of ovules in an ovary may be (3) Tigellum (4) Scutellum
13. The portion of embryonal axis below the level of
(1) One (2) Many
cotyledons is called
(3) Two (4) One to many (1) Hypocotyl (2) Epicotyl
4. Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes (3) Tigellum (4) Scutellum
called 14. Genetically geitonogamy is
(1) Micropyle (2) Integuments (1) Allogamy (2) Xenogamy
(3) Hilum (4) Chalaza (3) Autogamy (4) Cleistogamy
5. Chalaza represents the 15. Endosperm is completely consumed by developing
(1) Tip of the ovule (2) Base of the ovule embryo in
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Stalk of the ovule (1) Castor (2) Coconut
6. Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore (3) Wheat (4) Pea

mother cell in the 16. Endosperm may persist in mature seed in
(1) Micropylar region (2) Chalazal region (1) Pea (2) Castor
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Integument region (3) Groundnut (4) Beans
7. Polar nuclei are situated in the central cell 17. Usually, How many embryosacs are present in an
(1) Below the egg apparatus ovule?
(2) Above the egg apparatus (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Below the antipodals (3) 3 (4) Many
(4) All of the above 18. What would be the genetic nature of apomictic
embryo?
8. In embryosac, three cells are grouped together at
(1) n
the micropylar end to constitute
(2) 3n
(1) Antipodals (2) Synergids (3) 2n

(3) Egg apparatus (4) Polar nuclei (4) n or 2n like mother plants
9. The synergids have special cellular thickening at the 19. What will be the ploidy of the cells of functional
micropylar tip, called megaspore and female gametophyte respectively:
(1) Antipodals (2) Filiform apparatus (1) n, n (2) 2n, 2n (3) n, 2n (4) 2n, n
(3) Obturators (4) Vascular tissue 20. In Castor plant :
10. An example of insect pollinated flower, in which (1) Autogamy is possible
flower provides safe place to lay eggs for insect is (2) Geitonogamy is possible
(1) Vallisneria (2) Salvia (3) Both are possible
(3) Amorphophallus (4) Maize (4) Both are not possible
E
21. Each lobe of a typical anther in angiosperm having 31. From outer to inner what is the sequence of wall
two theca it is called : layers in anther lobes?
(1) Monothecous (2) Dithecous (1) Epidermis, middle layers, tapetum, endothecium
(2) Epidermis, endothecium, tapetum, middle layers
(3) Monosporangiate (4) Tetrasporangiate
(3) Epidermis, endothecium, middle layer, tapetum
22. Which of the following part of the flower serves as
(4) Tapetum, middle layers, endothecium, epidermis
a landing platform for pollen grain ?
32. Due to which of the following chemical deposition
(1) Stigma (2) Ovary pollen grains are well preserved as fossils
(3) Style (4) Ovule (1) Pollenkitt (2) Callose
23. Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of cells (3) Sporopollenin (4) Pectocellulose
called 33. Which of the following pollen structure exhibits a
(1) Micropyle (2) Nucellus fascinating array of patterns and designs
(Sculpturing pattern)?
(3) Chalaza (4) Embryosac
(1) Germpores (2) Exine
24. Example of plants, which contains cleistogamous
flowers : (3) Intine (4) Tapetum
(1) Oxalis 34. Regarding to formation of pollen grain from
microspore which of the following statement is
(2) Commelina
incorrect
(3) Viola (Common pansy)
(1) Generative cell is bigger
(2) Vegetative cell possess irregularly shaped nucleus
25. Cleistogamous flowers are invariably :
(3) Generative cell floats in cytoplasm of vegetative
(1) Autogamous (2) Xenogamous
cell
(3) Geitonogamous (4) All are possible
(4) Vacuole is present in vegetative cell
26. Wind pollinated flowers often have.....ovule in each 35. Which of the following is not a pollen grain caused
ovary. disease?
(1) Many (2) Two (3) One (4) Three (1) Asthma (2) Bronchitis
27. Pollen tube enters into the embryosac through : (3) Hayfever (4) Malaria
(1) Chalaza (2) Integument 36. Regarding to number of ovules in ovary select out
(3) Filiform apparatus (4) Funiculus the odd one
28. Syngamy results in the formation of : (1) Wheat (2) Orchids
(1) Zygote (3) Paddy (4) Mango
(2) Primary endosperm nucleus 37. Nucellus, the mass of cells enclosed within the
integuments, provide nutrition to
(3) Endosperm
(1) Embryosac (2) Embryo
(4) Fruit
(3) Seed (4) Ovule
29. Embryo develops at which end of embryosac?
38. During embryo sac formation how many nuclei
(1) Micropylar end
out of eight nucleus go through cytokinesis or wall
(2) Chalazal end formation?

(3) Funiculus (1) All eight (2) Two
(4) Outside the ovary
(3) Six (4) Four
30. The microsporangia develop further and become
39. Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from
pollen sacs. In anther these pollen sacs extends
anther to stigma of another flower of the same plant
(1) Transverslly is :-
(2) Longitudinally (1) Functionally cross pollination
(3) Obliquely (2) Genetically self pollination
(4) Sometimes transversaly and some times (3) Ecologically cross pollination
longitudinally
(4) All the above
E
40. Regarding to cross pollination which of the 45. In which of the following plants both autogamy and
following statement is incorrect? geitonogamy is absent
(1) Plants use two abiotic and one biotic agent (1) Maize (2) Mango
(2) Majority of plants use abiotic agents for
(3) Papaya (4) Castor
pollination
46. Perisperm is present in
(3) Production of enormous amount of pollen grains
is concerned to compensate uncertainity and loss (1) Mango (2) Guava
of pollens (3) Black pepper (4) Pea
(4) Pollination by wind is more common among
47. Which of the following is not involved in post
abiotic pollinations
fertilisation events
41. About wind pollination which of the following is
incorrect? (1) Endosperm and embryo development
(1) Light and non sticky pollengrains (2) Maturation of ovules into seed
(2) Well exposed stamens (3) Maturation of ovary into fruit

(3) Feathery stigma (4) Degeneration of nucellus
(4) Highly scented flowers 48. The structure in which few leaf primordia and
42. Which of the following is probable reason of shoot apex of monocot embryo remain enclosed
limited distributio n of bryophytes and is
pteridophytes?
(1) Coleoptile (2) Coleorhiza
(1) Jacketed multicellular sex organs
(3) Epiblast (4) Epicotyl
(2) Absence of roots
49. In mature seed how much amount of moisture is
(3) Absence of seeds
present
(4) Need of water for transfer of male gametes
(1) 5-10 percent
43. Regarding to type of pollination which of the
following is odd one (2) 10-15 percent
(1) Vallisneria (2) Hydrilla (3) 15-20 percent
(3) Water lily (4) Zostera (4) 20-25 percent

44. The genetic mechanism which inhibit pollen 50. Seed is the basis of our agriculture. Which of the
germination or pollentube growth in pistil so that following is/are crucial for storage of seeds, so
self pollination can be prevented is known as that they can be used as food through out the
year and also to raise crop in the next season
(1) Inbreeding depression
(1) Dehydration (2) Dormancy
(2) Self incompatibility
(3) Vermiculture (4) Both 1 and 2
(3) Inter specific incompatibility
(4) Heterosis
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 4 4 2 2 1 1 3 2 3 2 2 1 3 4 2 1 4 1 2
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 1 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 1 3 4 2
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 4 4 3 2 3 3 4 1 2 4
E
HUMAN REPRODUCTION & REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
1. The head of sperm contains the nucleus having a 8. During the first two months of pregnancy the basic
haploid set of chromosomes in a : structures are formed. During this period, the
(1) Compact and inactive state developing stage is called as :
(2) Compact and active state (1) Infant (2) Foetus
(3) Rare and inactive state (3) Child (4) Embryo
(4) Rare and active state
9. Which is not correct about amnion ?
2. Placenta acts as a/an :
(1) It acts as a shock absorber
(1) Ultrafilter (2) Endocrine gland
(2) It provides a fluid medium to the developing
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of above
3. In humans which of the following undergoes embryo.
meiosis II ? (3) It takes part in the formation of human placenta
(1) Second polar body (2) Spermatogonia (4) None of the above
(3) Secondary oocyte (4) Both (1) and (3) 10. Zona pellucida is synthesised by :
4. Which of the following statement is not correct ? (1) Follicle cells
(1) Cleavage divisions are rapid (2) Oocyte
(2) Cleavage divisions are asynchronous
(3) Both follicle cells and Oocyte
(3) Cleavage divisions are repeated mitotic divisions.
(4) Granulosa cells
(4) Approximately one month after fertilisation, the
blastocyst embedded itself in the thickened wall of 11. Corpus luteum is formed by :
the uterus. (1) Granulosa cells
5. The base of the sertoli cells adhere to the basal (2) Interstitial cells
lamina and their apical ends frequently expand into (3) Follicle cells + Granulosa cells
the ........... of the seminiferous tubules. (4) Granulosa cells + Theca cells
(1) Surface (2) Lumen
12. Which of the following set is correct ?
(3) Outer membrane (4) Inner layer
(1) Ovarian follicle - Estrogen
6. Intra testicular genital duct system includes :
(2) Corpus luteum - Progesterone & Estrogen
(1) Tubuli recti, rete testis and ductuli efferentes
(2) Tubuli recti, vas deferens and ejaculatory duct (3) Placenta - HCG hormone
(3) Urethra, epididymis and Tubuli recti (4) All of the above
(4) Seminal vesicle, ejaculatory duct and ampulla 13. Which pair is correct ?
7. Hypothalamus (1) Progesterone ® Steroid
GnRH
Estrogen ® Protein
Positive Anterior pituitary Negative
feedback feedback (2) Progesterone & Estrogen ® Protein
LH/FSH
(3) Progesterone & Estrogen ® Steroid
A
(4) Progesterone ® Protein
Estrogen ® Steroid
Estrogen
& 14. Which of the following method of contraception is
Progesterone effective only upto a maximum period of six months
following parturition ?
B (1) Cortus interruptus
Find out 'A' and 'B' respectively : (2) Lactational amenorrhea
(1) Uterus, Ovary (3) Periodic abstinance
(2) Ovary, Uterus (4) Condoms
(3) Oviduct, Ovary
(4) Seminal vesicle, Uterus
E
15. Which of the following are included in barrier 19. Which of the following method of contraception is
method ? highly effective but having poor reversibility :
(1) Condoms (1) Sterilisation (2) Oral pills
(2) Diaphrams (3) IUD (4) Barrier methods
(3) Cervical caps and vault 20. Which of the following statements is correct :
(4) All of the above (1) MTP has a significant role in decreasing the
16. Which of the following statements is correct ? population.
(1) Hormone releasing I.U.D. make uterus unsuitable (2) Goverment of India legalised MTP in 1971 with
for implantation some strict conditions.
(2) IUD are ideal contraceptives for the female who (3) MTP is relatively safe during the first trimester.
want to delay pregnancy (4) All the above
(3) IUD is most widely accepted method of 21. Couple unable to produce children inspite of
contraception in India. unprotected sexual co-habitation is termed as :
(4) All the above (1) Impotency (2) Infertility
17. Which of the following statements is correct for (3) STD (4) PID
Saheli ? 22. Infertility cases due to inability of male partner to
(1) It is weekly pill. inseminate the female corrected by :
(2) It has high contraceptive value (1) ZIFT (2) GIFT
(3) It has nonsteroidal preparation (3) Artificial insemination (4) ICSI
(4) All the above 23. In which of the following methods zygotes or early
18. Which of the following can be used as an emergency embryo upto 8 blastomeres could be transferred into
contraceptives to avoid possible pregnancy : the fallopian tube ?
(1) Progestogens (2) IUD within 72 hours (1) GIFT (2) IUT
(3) Diaphrams (4) 1 and 2 (3) ZIFT (4) ICSI
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 3 3 4 2 1 2 4 3 2 4 4 3 2 4 4 4 4 1 4
Que . 21 22 23
Ans. 2 3 3
E
GENETICS : PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE & VARIATIONS
1. Variations are : 8. Recessive traits are seen due to :
(1) Degree by which progeny differs from their (1) Formation of non functional enzyme
parents
(2) Enzyme is not produced
(2) Degree by which progeny similar to their
(3) 1 and 2 both
parents
(3) Process by which characters are passed on from (4) Formation of functional enzyme
parent to progeny 9. Multiple alleles can be found only when :
(4) True breeding lines (1) Population studies are made
2. Mendel found that the F1 always resembled either (2) Individual study is made
one of the parents and that the trait of the other
(3) Mutation is absent
parent was not seen in them. This is due to :
(4) Dominance is present
(1) Segregation (2) Dominance
10. Which of the following is correct ?
(3) Partial dominance (4) Unit factor
3. In monohybrid cross the allele do not show any (1) When genes are grouped o n the same
blending and that both the characters are recovered chromosome, some genes are very tightly
as such in F 2 generation. This statement is linked and showed very low recombination
explained on the basis of : (2) When genes are loosely linked show very low
(1) Dominance recombination
(2) Segregation (3) When genes are tightly linked show higher
(3) Independent assortmant recombination
(4) All the above (4) When genes are loosely linked show no
4. In monohybrid cross proportion of 3 : 1 explains: recombination
(1) Dominance (2) Segregation 11. In Morgan's experiment, what will be percentage
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Unit factor of recombination in case of body colour and eye
colour in Drosophila ?
5. It was found that sometimes the F 1 - had a
(1) 37.2% (2) 1.3% (3) 98.7% (4) 37.2%
phenotype that did not resemble either of the two
12. In a large number of insects the mechanism of sex
parents and was in between the two. This is the case
determination is of :
of :
(1) XO type (2) XY type
(1) Dominance (2) Incomplete dominance
(3) ZW type (4) All the above
(3) Codominance (4) Pleiotropism
13. Male heterogamety found in :
6. Theoratically, the modified allele could be
responsible for the production of : (1) Human (2) Grasshopper
(3) Many birds (4) 1 and 2 both
(1) less efficient enzyme

(2) A non functional enzyme 14. Which symbol of pedigree is correctly matched ?
(3) Non enzyme at all
(1) – Female
(4) All the above
7. The modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified
(2) 5 – affected offspring
allele when it produces :
(1) Normal enzyme (3) – Affected male of autosomal recessive
(2) A non functional enzyme
disease
(3) No enzyme at all
(4) – Marriage between relatives
(4) Inactive enzyme
E
15. Given pedigree represents inheritance of myotonic 19. In case of codominance :
dystrophy which is an autosomal dominant disorder. (1) F1 - generation resembles both parents
What will be genotype of parents ?
(2) F1 - generation is in between both parents
(3) F 1- generation resembles either of the two
parents
(4) All the above
20. Mendelian disorder are mainly determined by :
(1) Alternation or mutation in single gene
(2) Absence of one chromosome
(3) Excess of one of more chromosome
(4) All the above
21. Which of the following characters of Drosophila is
not suitable for genetical studies ?
(1) Mother - aa Father - AA
(a) They could be grown on simple synthetic medium
(2) Mother - AA Father - aa
in laboratory
(3) Mother - Aa Father - aa
(b) They complete their life cycle in about 2-weeks
(4) Mother - aa Father - aa
(c) Single mating produces few number of progeny
16. Given pedigree chart shows inheritance of flies.
autosomal recessive trait (for eg - sickle cell
(d) They have many types of heredilaty variations
anaemia) then what will be genotype of parent ?
that can be seen with low power microscope.
(e) Male & Female flies are not easily distinguishable
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) d and e (4) c and e
22. Incomplete dominance can be seen in :
(1) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa
(2) Flower colour in Pisum sativum
(3) Size of starch grains in pea
(4) 1 and 3 both
(1) Father - (Aa) Mother - (aa) 23. Which of the following cow breed comes in existance
(2) Father - (aa) Mother - (aa) through artifical selection and domestication from
(3) Father - (Aa) Mother - (Aa) ancestral wild cows
(4) Father - (AA) Mother - (AA) (1) Brown swiss (2) Jamanapari
(3) Murrah (4) Sahiwal
17. A diploid organism is heterozygous for 4 loci, how
many types of gametes can be produced? 24. Which of the following was/were applied first time to
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 2 (4) 32 problems in biology during Mendel's investigations
into inheritance
18. When a cross is made between tall plant with yellow
seed (TtYy) and tall plant with green seed (Ttyy), (1) Statistical analysis
what proportion of phenotype in the offspring could (2) Mathematical logic
be expected to be tall and green. (3) Computational devices
(1) 25% (2) 12.5%
(4) Both 1 and 2
(3) 37.5% (4) 50%
E
25. A true breeding line is that 33. The fact that the alleles donot show any blending
(1) Having undergone continuous cross pollination and that both the characters are recovered as such
in F2 generation, become the basis of
(2) Having undergone continuous self pollination
(1) Law of Dominance
(3) Having undergone continuous vegetative
(2) Law of paired factors
propagation
(3) Law of segregation
(4) Obtain through tissue culture (Meristem)
(4) Law of independent assortment
26. How many true breeding pea plant varieties were
34. In the theoritical explanation of allelic interaction for
selected by Mendel
dominant and recessive forms, the recessive trait is
(1) 7 (2) 14
seen due to production of
(3) 21 (4) 28
(1) Normal enzyme
27. Regarding to pair of dominant and recessive trait
(2) A non functional enzyme
which of the following combination is wrong
(3) No enzyme production
(1) Flower colour – Violet / white
(4) Either 2 or 3
(2) Flower position – Axial / terminal
35. Genes responsible for ABO blood group determines
(3) Pod shape – Inflated / constricted which of the following biomolecules of RBC plasma
(4) Seed colour – Green / yellow membrane
28. Segregation of alleles is a random process so what (1) Phospholipid (2) Proteins
would be the chances of a gamete containing either (3) Sugars (4) Cholesteroles
alleles 36. If there are four allelic forms for the gene
(1) 25 % (2) 50 % controlling ABO blood group then what will be
(3) 75 % (4) 100 % the number of possible genotypes
29. Graphical representation to calculate the probability (1) 6 (2) 10

of all possible genotypes of offspring in a genetic (3) 12 (4) 14
cross, is known as 37. Multiple alleles can be found during study of
(1) Mendel square (2) Punnett square (1) Gametes (2) Individual
(3) Crossboard method (4) Emasculation method (3) Population (4) All above
30. If F1 individual of genotype (Tt) go through sexual 38. Shape of seed depends on starch granules size, so
reproduction, then it's gamete (pollengrain) with inheritance of seed shape show ......... relationship
genotype (T) have what chances to pollinate eggs of while inheritance of starch grains show ...........
the genotype (T) (1) Dominant recessive, codominance
(1) 25 % (2) 50 % (2) Incomplete dominance, codominance
(3) 75 % (4) 100 % (3) Dominant - recessive, incomplete dominance
31. Mendel proposed how many conclusions to consolidate (4) Codominance, incomplete dominance
his understanding of inheritance in monohybrid cross

39. Inheritance of starch grains size shows
(1) One (2) Two
(1) Dominant recessive relationship
(3) Three (2) Codominance
(4) None of the rules, he proposed laws / principles (3) Incomplete dominance
32. The law of dominance is used to explain the expession (4) Multiple allelism
of only one of the parental characters in a monohybrid
40. Dominance of any character generally depends on
cross in ..................... and the expression of both
(1) Gene or product related informations of any gene
in .......
(2) Character choosen by ourself in study
(1) F1 and F2 (2) F2 and F3
(3) Environmental factors
(3) F1 and F3 (4) F2 and F1
(4) Both 1 and 2
E
41. In any dihybrid cross segregation of one pair of 47. Drosophila melanogaster is best material for study
characters is independent of other pair of of inheritance. Which of the following reason is not
characters, is known as appropriate for selection of Drosophila
(1) They can grow on simple synthetic medium
(1) Law of segregation
(2) They complete their life cycle in about two weeks
(2) Law of purity of gametes
(3) Single mating could produce small number of
(3) Law of independent assortment
progeny
(4) Law of dominance (4) Clear differentiation of the sexes
42. In dihybrid mendelian cross how many types of 48. Who among the following used the frequency of
genotype and phenotype will be obtain recombination between gene pairs on the same
(1) 4 and 9 respectively chromosome as a measure of distance between
genes and mapped their position
(2) 9 and 4 respectively
(1) Davenport (2) Sturtevant
(3) 9 & 16 respectively
(3) Morgan (4) Nillson
(4) 4 & 16 respectively
49. If yellow body, white eyed drosophila is crossed with
43. Mandel published his work in 1865 but it remained wild brown body red eyes drosophila. Then what
unrecognised till 1900. Which of the following would be frequency of recombinants in F1 generation
reason was not responsible for it (1) 100 % (2) 1.3 %
(1) Communication was not easy (3) 98.7 % (4) 0 %
(2) His concept of genes (factors) as stable and 50. Which of the following structure was discovered by
dis crete un it was n ot accepted by h is Henking
co ntemporaries as an explanation f or (1) y-body (2) Bar body
apparently continuous variations (3) x-body (4) Nu-body
(3) Use of mathematics to explain biological 51. In some insects half of the sperms possess X
phenomenon chromosome along with autosomes while half of the
sperms carries
(4) Use of emasculation technique
(1) Only autosomes
44. Parallelism between charomosome and behaviour of
gene was established by (2) y chromosome along with autosome
(1) de Vries, Correns and Tschermark (3) x chromosome only
(2) Sutton and Boveri (4) x chromosome along with autosomes
(3) Bateson and Punnet 52. Female heterogamety can be seen is
(4) Landsteiner and de Castello (1) Human beings (2) Drosophilla
45. Who among the following united the knowledge of (3) Hen (4) Honey bees
chromosomal segregation with Mendelian principles 53. Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed
and called it chromosomal theory of inheritance in :-
(1) Bateson (2) Boveri (1) Germinal cells (2) Cancer cells
(3) Sutton (4) Correns (3) Nail base cells (4) Gametes
46. Experimental verification of chromosomal theory 54. Study of family history about inheritance of a
of inheitance was proposed by particular trait in several generations of a family
called
(1) Tschermark (2) de Vries
(1) Phylogeny (2) Ontogeny
(3) Sutton (4) Morgan
(3) Pedigree analysis (4) Cladistics
E
55. Symbols 5 used in pedigree analysis, represents 61. Polymerisation of mutant haemoglobin molecule in
sickle cell anaemia is due to
(1) Five offspring with unspecified sex
(1) Sulphadrugs
(2) Five diseased offspring
(2) High oxygen
(3) Five unaffected offspring
(3) Low oxygen concentration
(4) Five affected offsprings
(4) Plasmodium falciperum
56. Genetic disorders determined by alteration or
mutation in single gene are known as 62. Regarding to phenylketonuria which of the following
statement is wrong
(1) Chromosomal disorders
(1) Phenylalanine can not convert into tyrosine
(2) Mendelian disorders
(2) Phenylalanine convert into phenylpyruvate and
(3) Non inheritable disorders
derivatives
(4) All above
(3) Phenylpyruvate deposited in heart, liver and
57. Which of the following is not a Mendelian disorder kidney
(1) Haemophilia (4) This is inborn error of metabolism
(2) Cystic fibrosis 63. Chromosomal disorders arise due to
(3) Cryduchat syndrome
(1) Absence of one or more chromosomes
(4) Sickle cell anaemia
(2) Excess of one or more chromosomes
(3) Abnormal arrangement of one or more
58. chromosomes
(4) All the above
64. Which of the following symptom is not assocoated

with Down's syndrome
In this given pedigree what is the mode of inheritance
(1) Flat back of head
(1) Autosomal dominant
(2) Many loops on finger tips
(2) Autosomal recessive
(3) X-linked dominant (3) Big and wrinked tongue
(4) X-linked recessive (4) Congenital liver diseases

59. In sickle cell anaemia which of the following
65. Match the folloiwng
genotype will show disease phenotype
(1) HbA HbA (A) Down's Syndrome (i) 44 + XY
(2) HbS HbS (B) Klinefelter's Syndrome (ii) 45 + XY

(3) HbS HbA
(C) Turner's Syndrome (iii) 44 + XO
(4) Both 1 and 2
(D) Phenylketonuria (iv) 44 + XXY
60. Which of the following is not concerned with sickle
cell anaemia A B C D
(1) Sixth position of b-chain (1) I IV III I
(2) a chain of Hb (2) II IV III I
(3) Valine (3) I II III IV

(4) I II IV III
(4) Haemoglobin
E
66. Retarted physical, psychomotor and mental 68. Match the folloiwng
development are consequences observed during (A) Haemophilia (i) Board plam with
(1) Down's syndrome characteristic
palm creased
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome (B) Down's Syndrome (ii) Delayed clotting of
(3) Turner's syndrome blood
(4) Lesch nyhan syndrome (C) Klinefelter's syndrome (iii) Some feminine
character
67. Gynaecomastia state can be seen in
(D) Turner's Syndrome (iv) Rudimentary
(1) Down's syndrome ovaries
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome A B C D
(3) Turner syndrome (1) I II III IV
(4) Edward's syndrome (2) III II I IV
(3) II I IV III
(4) II I III IV
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 2 2 3 2 4 1 3 1 1 2 1 4 4 3 3 2 3 1 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 4 4 4 2 2 4 2 2 2 3 1 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 4
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 2 4 2 3 4 3 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 2 3 2 2 2
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
Ans. 3 3 4 4 2 1 2 4
E
GENETICS : MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
1. Which of the following is not the feature of human 7. By which of the following bond phosphoric acid
genome ? remain linked with 5' carbon of sugar in one nucleotide
(1) Less than 2 percent of the genome code for (1) Phosphoester bond
protein (2) Phosphodiester bond
(2) Chromosome 1 has fewest gene (231) (3) N-Glycosidic bodn
(3) Repetitive sequences make up very large portion (4) Hydrogen bond
of human genome 8. The backbone in a polynucleotide chain is formed
due to
(4) The functions are unknown for over 50% of the
(1) Sugars and nitrogenous bases
discovered genes
(2) Phosphates and nitrogenous base
2. The sequence of which chromosome number was (3) Nitrogenous bases and histones
completed in May 2006 ? (4) Sugar and phosphates
(1) Chromosome number 1 9. In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional
– OH group at which of the following position
(2) Chromosome number 2
(1) 2' position of deoxyribose
(3) Chromosome number 5 (2) 1' possition of ribose sugar
(4) Chromosome number 10 (3) 3' position of ribose sugar
3. The repressor of the operon is synthesized : (4) 2' position of ribose sugar
10. DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was
(1) All the time (2) Certain time
first identified by
(3) Non constitutively (4) None of these (1) Wilkins and Franklin
4. Match the following (2) Watson and Crick
(3) Friedich meischer
(A) f x 174 (i) 48502 bp (4) Altmann
11. Double helix model of DNA proposed by watson and
(B) Lambda phage (ii) 5386 Nucleotides
crick was based on
(C) E.Coli (iii) 6.6 x 109 bp (1) X-ray diffraction data of Meischer
(D) Human somatic cell (iv) 4.6 x 106 bp (2) X-ray crystallography data of Wilkins and
Franklin
(1) A(i), B(ii), C(iv), D(iii)
(3) X-ray diffraction data of Watson and Crick
(2) A(ii), B(i), C(iv), D(iii) (4) X-ray diffraction data of Chargaff
(3) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv) 12. Regarding to features of double helix struture of DNA
which of the following is wrong
(4) A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i)
(1) Two polynucleotide chains have antiparallel
5. Which of the following pyrimidine base is common in polarity
both DNA and RNA (2) The bases in two strands are paired through
(1) Adenine (2) Guanine phosphodiester bonds

(3) Adenine form two hydrogen bonds with thymine
(3) Cytosine (4) Thymine (4) The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm
6. In nucleoside which of the following bond exists 13. In addition to hydrogen bonding which of the following
between sugar and nitrogenaous base feature confers stability to helical structure
(1) Phosphodiester bond
(1) Phosphodiester bond
(2) Pairing between one purine and one pyrimidine
(2) Hydrogen bond (3) Glycosidic linkage bet ween sug ar and
(3) Phosphoester bond nitrogenous base
(4) The plane of one base pair stacks over the other
(4) N-glycosidic bond
E
14. Which of the following is responsible for constant 22. The packaging of chromatin at higher level
distance between two polynuclestide chains in DNA requires additional set of proteins that is known as
(1) Antiparallel polarity of two polynucleotide strands (1) Histone proteins
(2) Hydrogen bonding (2) NHC proteins
(3) Pairing between one purine and one pyrimidine
(3) Homeotic proteins
(4) All the above
(4) Domain proteins
15. Phosphoric acid remain associated with which of the
23. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
following carbon of sugar in a nucleotide :-
material came from the experiments of
(1) Ist (2) 3rd (1) Griffith
(3) 4th (4) 5th (2) Avery, Macleod & Mccarty
16. In there are 3.3 x 109 bp present in genome, then (3) Hershey and Chase
what would be the length of the DNA of any (4) Watson and Crick
somatic cell 24. Radioactive (35S) was detected in
(1) 1.1 meter (2) 2.2 meter (1) Supernatant (2) Sediment
(3) 3.3 meter (4) 6.6 meter (3) Both (4) Either 1 or 2
17. Positive charge and basic nature of histone is due 25. Which of the folloiwng is not a criteria for
to abundance of determination of genetic material
(1) Lysines and tryptophanes (1) Ability of replication
(2) Arginines & threonines (2) Chemically and structurally stable
(3) Lysines and arginines (3) It should be non mutable
(4) Tryptophanes and threonines (4) Ability to expres itself in from of Mendelian
characters
18. Negative charge of DNA is due to which of the
following constituent 26. Which of the folloiwng feature of RNA make it
labile and easily degradable
(1) Sugar (2) Nitrogenous base
(1) Single stranded nature
(3) Phosphoric acid (2) 2'–OH group on sugar
(4) Hydroxyl group (–OH) present on sugar (3) Phosphodiester bond
19. A typical nucleosome contains how much amount (4) Absence of Hydrogen bond
of DNA 27. Regarding to RNA which of the following feature is
(1) 100 bp (2) 146 bp wrong
(3) 200 bp (4) 346 bp (1) Catalytic property
20. In a mammalian somatic cell ho w many (2) Labile and easily degradable
nucleosomes are present (3) Absence of thymine
(1) 6.6 x 109 (2) 3.3 x 109 (4) Presence of methylated uracil
28. Which fo the folloiwng reason is suitable to expalin
(3) 3.3 x 107 (4) 3.3 x 105 that RNA is best for expression of characters
21. Which of the following is actual sequence of (1) It shows catalytic properties
packaging of DNA in eukaryotic cells (2) Presence of 2'–OH group on ribose sugar
(1) DNA ® Chromatin ® Nucleosome ® (3) It can directly code for the synthesis of protein
Chromosome (4) Presence of uracil
(2) DNA ® Nucleosome ® Chromosome ® 29. Which of the following is responsible for short life
Chromatin span and fast rate of mutation and evolution
(3) DNA ® Nucleosome ® Chromatin ® (1) Presence of DNA
Chromosome (2) Presence of highly reactive RNA
(4) DNA ® Chromosome ® Chromatin ® (3) Double stranded genetic material
Nucleosome (4) Single stranded genetic material
E
30. Which of the following evidence suggests that 36. During replication large amount of energy get
essential life processes evolved around RNA exhausted. The source of this energy is
(1) RNA used to act as genetic material (1) Deoxy ribonucleotide triphosphophate
(2) RNA can act as catalyst
(2) Deoxyribonucleoside monoplosphate
(3) RNA is highly reactive
(3) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate
(4) Both 1 and 2
(4) Both 1 and 2
31. Regarding to Meselson and Stahl experiment for
semi conservative nature of DNA replication select 37. Regarding to direction of DNA replication select out
out the wrong statement the correct one
(1) 15N of 15NH4Cl was incorporated in DNA and (1) 5' ® 3' Template – continuous synthesis
other compounds
(2) 3' ® 5' Template – discontinuous synthesis
(2) 15N & 14N can be differentiate on the basis of
radioactive activity (3) 3' ® 5' Template – continuous synthesis
(3) Heavy and normal DNA molecules could be (4) 5' ® 3' Template – synthesis leadingstrand
distinguished by CsCl density gradient centrifugation
38. Which of the following scheme of replication fork is
(4) 15N used in 15NH
4Cl was not a radioactive true
isotope
5’
32. If E.Coli is allow to grow for 80 minutes in 15NH4Cl
3
medium then what would be the proportion of hybrid (1) 5
and heavy density DNA molecules
3’
(1) 1 : 7 (2) 7 : 1
5’
(3) 14 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
3
33. Semiconservative replication of DNA in chromosomes (2) 5’
was proved by 3’
(1) Meselson & Stahl by using 15NH4Cl 5’
(2) Taylor by using 15NH4Cl 3’

(3) 5’
(3) Meselson & Stahl by using tritiated thymidine
3’
(4) Taylor by using tritiated thymidine
5’
34. How much duration of time required for replication
3’
of 4.6 x 106pb in E.coli (4) 5’
(1) 83 minutes 3’
(2) 20 minutes 39. During transcription only one of the strand of DNA
(3) 2 minutes get transcribed. Which of the following reason
explain it
(4) 3 hrs
(1) Otherwise one segment of DNA would be coding
35. What is the rate of polymerisation in E.coli for two different proteins
(1) 20,000 bp per second
(2) Otherwise dsRNA comes in existance
(2) 2000 nucleotides per second
(3) Otherwise antisense RNA arise which donot
(3) 2000 bp per minute participate in Translation
(4) 2000 bp per second (4) All the above
E
40. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by 47. Which of the following was not involved in deciphering
three regions in DNA. These regions are of genetic code
(1) Promoter, regulator and structural gene (1) Physi cist geor ge Gamow 's permut ation
combination of 43 bases
(2) Promoter, structural gene and terminator
(2) H.G. Khorana's based synthesis of RNA
(3) Promoter, regulator and terminator
molecules with defined combination of bases
(4) Promoter, regulator and operator gene (3) Severo ochoa enzyme for polymerising DNA with
41. In transcription unit promoter and terminator defined sequences
are determined on the basis of (4) Marshall Nirenberg's cell free system for protein
(1) Coding strand (2) Template strand synthesis
(3) Noncoding strand (4) Antisense strand 48. Which of the following mutation forms the genetic
basis of proof that codon is a triplet and it is read in
42. In eukaryotes as well as prokaryotes those DNA
a continuous manner
sequences that appear in mature or processed
RNA are known as (1) Chromosomal structural mutations
(1) Introts (2) Exons (2) Chromosomal numerical mutations

(3) Substitutional mutation
(3) Recons (4) Mutons
(4) Frame shift insertion or deletion mutation
43. Regarding to role of RNA in protein synthesis find
out the odd one 49. An adapter molecule that would on one hand read
the code and on the other hand would bind to specific
(1) m-RNA - provides the template amino acids is
(2) t-RNA - brings aminoacids (1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA
(3) r-RNA - read genetic code (3) t-RNA (4) hm-RNA
(4) sn-RNA splicing 50. Which of the following r-RNA show structural as well
as functional role in bacteria :-
44. Which of the following exclusive property of
trancription found in RNA-polymerase (1) 16s rRNA (2) 23s rRNA
(1) Initiation (2) Elongation (3) 5s rRNA (4) 28s rRNA
(3) Termination (4) Processing 51. A m-RNA also has some additional sequences that are
not translated called UTR. The function of UTR is
45. What is the length and constituent base of tail in
functional m-RNA (1) Charging of t-RNA
(2) Formation of peptide bond
(1) Poly U – 200-300 bp
(3) Helps in efficient translation
(2) Poly A – 200-300 bp
(4) Helps in translocation
(3) Poly C – 200-300 nucleotides
52. The t-RNA move away from ribosomes after
(4) Poly A – 200-300 nucleotides
translocation of ribosome in relation to m-RNA, is

46. DNA dependent RNA polymerases mediated known as
synthesis of RNA over DNA called transcription.
(1) Acylated t-RNA (2) Peptidyle t-RNA
About it which of the following statement is wrong
(3) Deacylated t-RNA (4) Charged t-RNA
(1) In bacteria m-RNA doesnot required any
processing to become active 53. At which of the following levels, regulation of gene
expression in eukaryotes donot occur
(2) In eukaryotes there is clearcut division of labour
(1) Transcription level
in RNA polymerases
(2) Processing level
(3) Absence of introns in RNA of eukaryotes is
reminiscent of antiquity (3) Transport of ribosomal subunits from nucleus to
cytoplasm level
(4) RNA polymerase - III is responsible for synthesis
of sn-RNA (4) Translation level
E
54. In prokaryotes predominant site for control of gene 61. Regarding to salient features of human genome
expression is the select out the incorrect one
(1) Control of rate of processing of primary (1) Human genome contains 3164.7 million
transcript nucleotide bases
(2) Control of rate of transcription initiation (2) Human genome contain 30,000 genes
(3) Control of transport of m-RNA from nucleus to (3) y-chromosome has largest number of genes
cytoplasm (4) 1.4 million locations are associated with SNPs
(4) Control of Translation 62. Match the following
55. HGP was closely associated with the rapid A. SNPs i 3164.7 million
development of a new area in biology called as B. Genes of ii 1.4 Million
(1) Biofortification chromosome No. 1
(2) Bioinformatics C. Total No. of Human iii 30000
(3) Biomining genes
(4) Biotransformation D. Total nucleotides of iv 2968
56. Which of the following is not a goal of HGP human genome
(1) Identify all the approximately 20,000–25,000 A B C D
genes (1) ii iii iv i
(2) Store this information in database (2) ii iv iii i
(3) Restrict the related technologies so that other (3) ii iv i iii
sector donot benefited with it (4) iv ii iii i
(4) Address the ethical, legal and social issues
63. If an inheritable mutation is observed in a
57. The human genome project was coordinated by population at high frequency, it is referred as
(1) U.S. department of energy
(1) DNA polyploidy
(2) National institute of health
(2) DNA polymorphism
(3) Sanger centre
(3) DNA redundancy
(4) Both 1 and 2
(4) Sequence annotation
58. Which of the following organism was not used as
model organism is human genome project 64. Due to high degree of polymorphism, size of VNTR
varies in size from
(1) Arabidopsis
(1) 0.1 – 2 kb
(2) Caenorhabdities elegans
(2) 0.1 – 2000 kb
(3) Rice
(3) 0.1 – 20 kb
(4) Hyacinthus orientalis
(4) 0.1 – 200 kb
59. Approach of HGP focused on identifying all the
genes that expressed as RNA is known as 65. What is the basis of heredity
(1) Variations
(1) Expressed sequence tags
(2) Inheritance
(2) Sequence annotation
(3) Genetics
(3) Polymerase chain reaction
(4) Recombination
(4) Dermatoglyphics
66. Change in a single base pair of DNA can be termed as
60. Automated DNA sequencers worked on the
principle of a method developed by (1) Chromosomal aberrations
(1) Watson (2) Point mutation
(2) Chargaff (3) Genomatric mutation
(3) Frederick sanger (4) Frame shift mutation
(4) Singer and Nicolson
E
67. Which of the following cell cycle event is responsible 68. Which of the folloiwng cell cycle event is responsible
for aneuploidy based chromosomal disorders for polyploidy phenomenon
(1) Failure of G1 phase (1) Failure of karyokinesis
(2) Failure ofDNA replication in s-phase (2) Failure of cytokinesis
(3) Failure of segregation/Disjunction (3) Failure of segregation
(4) Failure of movement of chromosomes (4) Failure of non-disjunction
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 1 1 2 3 4 1 4 4 3 2 2 4 3 4 2 3 3 3 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 2 3 1 3 2 4 3 2 4 2 1 4 2 4 3 3 2 4 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 2 3 2 4 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 4 1 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68
Ans. 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 2
E
EVOLUTION
1. Stellar distance is measured in : 9. The biggest dinosour, which appeared during
(1) Kilometer (2) Light years evolution was :
(3) Per socond (4) None (1) Thecodont
2. Darwin worked on, which island for explanation of (2) Stegosaurus
natural selection ? (3) Triceratops
(1) Malay archipelago (2) Galapagos (4) Tyrannosaurus rex
(3) Sumatra (4) Port Blaier 10. Mutations are :
3. During natural selection which variety of Biston (1) Random
betularia was completely wiped out from England?
(2) Directionless
(1) White winged moth
(3) Both 1 and 2
(2) Dark winged moth
(4) Always small
(3) Both of them
11. Fore limbs of whale, bat, cheetah and human are
(4) None of them example of :
4. What was the food habit of the original variety of (1) Analogous organs
Darwin's finches from which many other varieties
(2) Homologous organs
were developed ?2
(3) Homoplastic organs
(1) Seed eater (2) Cactus eater
(4) Vestigial organs
(3) Wood pecker (4) Fruit eater
12. Hugo de vries called the single step large mutation
5. Tasmanian Wolf, Tiger Cat, Sugar glider are
as :
example of :
(1) Mutation (2) Sports
(1) Convergent evolution
(3) Micro evolution (4) Saltation
(2) Adaptive radiation
13. Stanley Miller performed his experiment for
(3) Australian marsupials
explanation of origin of life, in which year ?
(4) 2 and 3 both
(1) 1953 (2) 1970
6. Which of the following statements is true ?
(3) 1870 (4) 1960
(1) During evolution, the rate of appearance of new
14. Which was absent in Miller's experiment ?
form of organisms is linked to the life cycle/life
span. (1) Vacuum pump (2) Electrodes
(2) The essence of Darwinian theory is natural (3) Condenser (4) None
selection. 15. During human evolution the body of which primitive
ancestors covered by hairs and walk they walked
(3) Fitness is based on characteristics which are
gorilla and chimpanzee?
inherited.
(1) Dryopithecus and Cromagnon man
(4) All of them
(2) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
7. What were two main key points of Darwinian theory

(3) Ramapithecus and Homo habilis
of natural selection ?
(4) Java man and Peking man
(1) Branching descent
16. Cranial capacity of homo erectus was about :
(2) Natural selection
(1) 650-800 cc (2) 1400 cc
(3) Fitness
(3) 900 cc (4) 1600 cc
(4) Both 1 and 2
17. Why, pouched mammals survived in Australia?
8. During evolution the first cellular form of life
appeared before how many million years ? (1) Divergent evolution
(1) 2000 (2) 400 (2) Continental drift
(3) 100 (4) 50 (3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Convergent evolution.
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18. Dinosours disappeared around : 23. The industrial melanism phenomenon demonstrate:
(1) 200 million years ago (2) 20 million years ago (1) Gene mutation (2) Genetic drift
(3) 65 million years ago (4) 65 billion years ago (3) Natural selection (4) Migration
19. The animals which evolved into the first amphibian 24. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared
that lived on both land and water, were : to have occurred in an isolated geographical area,
it is called as :
(1) Jawless fish (2) Lobefins
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Ichthyosours (4) Shrew (3) Parallel evolution (4) Continental drift
20. In which type of natural selection the peak gets 25. Out of the following which is an example of
higher and narrower ? convergent evolution ?
(1) Stabilising selection (2) Directional selection (A) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(B) Flippers of penguins and Dolphins
(3) Disruptive selection (4) None of these
(C) Sweet potato and potato
21. Out of the following the theory of natural selection (1) A and C (2) A and B
is based on certain observations, which are : (3) B and C (4) A, B and C
(A) Natural resources are limited 26. In some animals, the same structures developed
(B) Populations are stable in size except for seasonal along different directions due to adaptions to
fluctuations. different needs this is called as :
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(C) Members of a population vary in characteristics
(3) Parallel evolution (4) None of these
even though they look superficially similar
27. Conventional religious literature tells us about the
(D) Most of variations are inherited theory of special creation. Which of the following
(1) A, C and D (2) A, B, C and D is/are included in the theory ?
(3) B and C (4) A, B and C
(1) All living organisms that we see today were
22. The process of evolution of different species in a
created as such
given geographical area starting from a point and
literally radiating to other areas is called as : (2) The diversity was always the same since creation
(1) Convergent evolution and will be the same in future.
(2) Adaptive radiation (3) Earth is about 4000 year old.
(3) Parallel evolution (4) All of these
(4) Continental drift
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 2 4 1 4 4 4 1 4 3 2 4 1 4 2 3 2 3 2 1
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
Ans. 2 2 3 2 4 1 4
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HUMAN HEALTH & DISEASE
1. The factor which has effect on health is :- 11. Incubation period for AIDS is usually :-
(1) Genetic disorders (2) Infections (1) 5–10 month (2) 5–10 years
(3) Life style
(3) 2–12 month (4) 2–12 weeks
12. Which cell acts as factory of HIV ?
2. Which is required for maintenance of good health ?
(1) Balanced diet (2) Personal hygiene (1) Macrophage (2) TH cells
(3) Regular exercise (4) All of the above (3) TK cells (4) N.K. cells
3. Which is necessary for achieving good health? 13. In full blown AIDS, opportunistic infections are
(a) Awareness about diseases especially caused by :-
(b) Proper disposal of wastes (1) Mycobacterium (2) Toxoplasma
(c) Control of vectors
(3) Viruses and fungi (4) All of the above
(d) Maintenance of hygienic food and water
(1) a (2) a and c 14. ELISA is diagnostic test for :-
(3) b and c (4) a, b, c and d (1) Bacteria
4. Find out the incorrect matching with regards to (2) Viruses
innate immunity :- (3) AIDS
(1) Physical barriers = Skin, mucosa
(4) Dreaded diseases only
(2) Cytokine barriers = Interferons
15. "Don't die of ignorance" slogan is used to create
(3) Cellular barriers = PMNL, neutrophils
(4) Physiological barriers = Epithelial lining awareness for :-
5. Find the odd one out with regards to secondary (1) AIDS (2) Cancer
immune response :- (3) Typhoid (4) Rabies
(1) Booster 16. Which is a safe technique to detect cancer ?
(2) Anamnestic
(1) Radiography
(3) Low intensified
(2) CT (Computed tomography) Scanning
(4) Develops after subsequent contact of same antigen
6. H2L2 represents ............ molecule :- (3) MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
(1) Antibody (2) Antigen (4) Biopsy
(3) Pathogen (4) Both (1) and (2) 17. Most of cancers are treated by combination of:-
7. Which immune response / immunity is mainly
(a) Surgery
responsible for graft rejection ?
(b) Radiotherapy
(1) Cell-mediated (2) Humoral
(3) Antibody mediated (4) All of the above (c) Chemotherapy
8. Antibodies are found in :- (1) a and b (2) a and c
(1) Blood (2) Pathogen (3) b and c (4) a, b and c

(3) Antigen (4) Neurons 18. Cancer detection is based on :-
9. ATS provides :- (a) Biopsy
(1) Natural active innate immunity (b) Histopathological study of tissues
(2) Natural passive innate immunity (c) Blood test
(3) Artificial active acquired immunity (d) Bone marrow test
(4) Artificial passive acquired immunity (1) a, b
10. AIDS don't spread due to :- (2) a, c & d
(1) Mere touch (2) Physical contact (3) a, b & c
(3) Body fluids (4) Both (1) and (2) (4) a, b, c & d
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19. Which type of radiations can cause DNA damage 24. Which disorder is not related with smoking?
leading to neoplastic transformation ? (a) Lung cancer
(a) Ionising radiations (b) Bronchitis
(c) Emphysema
(b) X-rays
(d) Coronary heart disease
(c) Non-ionising radiations
(e) Gastric ulcer
(d) UV-rays (f) Urinary bladder cancer
(1) a and c (2) b and d (g) Throat cancer
(3) a and b (4) a, b, c and d (1) a, b, e, g
(2) a, b, c, f, g
20. Which interferon is a biological response modifiers,
(3) c, d, f
that activates immune system for destroying tumor ? (4) All are related
(1) a (2) b 25. Withdrawal syndrome is characterised by:-
(a) Anxiety (b) Shakiness
(3) g (4) Both (2) and (3)
(c) Nausea (d) Sweating
21. The drugs, which are commonly abused are opioid,
(1) a, c (2) b, c
cannabinoids and coca alkaloid. Majority of these (3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c and d
are obtained from........., while some are obtained 26. Which measure would be particularly useful for
from ......... prevention and control of alcohol and drug abuse
(1) Fungi, non-flowering plants among adolescents ?
(2) Flowering plants, fungi (a) Avoid undue peer pressure
(b) Seeking professional and medical help
(3) Fungi, flowering plants
(c) Looking for danger sign
(4) Non flowering plants, fungi
(d) Education and counselling
22. (a) Smack (e) Seeking help from parents and peers
(b) Diacetylmorphine (1) a, b, d (2) a, c, d, e
(c) White (3) c, e (4) a, b, c, d, e
27. Which is related with ringworm ?
(d) Odourless
(a) Microsporum (b) Trichophyton
(e) Bitter crystalline compound (c) Epidermophyton
(f) Extracted from latex of poppy plant (1) a (2) a, b
Above statements/informations are correct for:- (3) a, c (4) a,b,c
28. (a) Salmonella is pathogenic bacterium
(1) Morphine (2) Heroin
(b) Sustained high fever (39°C to 40°C)
(3) Cocain (4) Barbiturates (c) Intestinal perforation in severe cases
23. The period between.......of age may be thought of (d) Confirmed by "widal test"
as adolescence period (e) "Marry Mallon" was a carrier
(1) 18-21 yrs. (2) 12-21 yrs. Above statements are true for :-
(1) Plague (2) Diphtheria
(3) 12-18 yrs. (4) 18-25 yrs.
(3) Typhoid (4) Dysentery
ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 4 4 4 3 1 1 1 4 4 2 1 4 3 1 3 4 4 4 1
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. 2 2 3 4 4 4 4 3
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STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION
1. Root of any plant breeding programme is : 10. Which character of maize leads to resistance to
(1) Mutation (2) Genetic variability maize stem borers naturally ?
(3) Hybridisation (4) Selection (1) High aspartic acid
2. The contribution of agriculture in indian GDP is (2) Low nitrogen content
approximately : (3) Low sugar content
(1) 62% (2) 90% (4) All of the above
(3) 33% (4) 5% 11. "Atlas 66" is high protein contained variety of :
3. 'P-1542' is a hybrid variety of which plant ? (1) Wheat (2) Maize
(1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Rice (4) Bhindi
(3) Maize (4) Pea 12. Production of thousands of plants through tissue
4. "Jaya" and "Ratna" are better yielding semi dwart culture method is called :
varieties of rice. These varieties are doveloped in (1) Macropropagation (2) Micropropagation
which country ?
(3) Somatic embryo (4) Totipotency
(1) Japan (2) India
13. Which variety of Bhindi is resistance to shoot and
(3) Phillipins (4) Mexico fruit borer ?
5. Saccharum barberry had poor sugar content and (1) Pusa Gaurav (2) Pusa sem-2
yield. This veriety of sugar cane mainly grown in
(3) Pusa komal (4) Pusa sawani
which part of india ?
14. Plants produced by tissue culture method are called:
(1) South India (2) East India
(1) Explant
(3) North India (4) West India
(2) Somaclones
6. Himgiri variety of wheat, which developed by
(3) Micropropagation
hybridisation and selection is mainly resistance for
(4) SCP (Single cell protein)
(1) Leaf and stripe rust
15. India has maximum genetic diversity of :
(2) White rust
(1) Wheat (2) Rice
(3) Bacterial blight
(3) Mango (4) Apple
(4) Chilly mosaic virus
16. In India, how many varieties of rice are present ?
7. The conventional method of breeding for disease
resistance in plants is : (1) 200000 (2) 50000
(1) Hybridisation (2) Selection (3) 10000 (4) 1000

(3) Mutation (4) Both (1) and (2) 17. Pomato is an example of :
8. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and (1) Somatic hybrid (2) Somatic embryo
powdery mildew were induced by : (3) Androgenic haploid (4) SCP
(1) Plant introduction (2) Plant tissue culture 18. Which chemical is used in somatic hybridisation ?
(3) Hybridisation (4) Mutation (1) Polyethyline glycole (2) Acredine
9. Parbhani Kranti, which has resistance to yellow (3) HNO2 (4) Ethenol
mosaic virus is a variety of : 19. Sonalika is variety of :
(1) Wheat (2) Cow pea (1) Wheat (2) Rice
(3) Bhindi (4) Chilli (3) Maize (4) Pea
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20. "International center for wheat and maize" 27. The entire collection of plants / seeds having all the
improvement" is situated at : diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is known
(1) Phillipins (2) India as
(3) Mexico (4) Brazil (1) Genetic erosion

21. Biological principles as applied to animal husbandry (2) Germplasm collection
and food production. Which of the following technique
(3) Gene pool
is not going to play a pivotal role in further enhancing
food production (4) Genetic drift
(1) Embryo transfer technique 28. For how many growing seasons, new selected lines is
(2) Tissue culture technique tested in farmer's field
(3) Mutations (1) Two growing seasons
(4) Biomining (2) Three growing seasons
22. Green revolution was dependent to a large extent
(3) Four growing seasons
on plant breeding techniques for development of
(1) High yielding varieties (4) Five growing seasons
(2) Disease resistant varieties 29. Which of the following rice variety were developed
(3) Wild varieties in India
(4) Both 1 and 2 (1) IR - 8 (2) IR - 36

23. Purposeful manipulation of plant species in order to (3) TN - 1 (4) Jaya
create desired plant type that are better suited for
30. Which of the following sugarcane species were
cultivation, give better yields and disease resistant is
crossed to combine desirable qualities of high yield,
(1) Plant systematics (2) Plant breeding thick stem, high sugar content and ability to grow in
(3) Plant monitoring (4) Biofortification sugarcane areas of North India
24. Classical plant breeding involves (1) Saccharum officinale x Saccharum barberi
(1) Hybridisation of pure lines exclusively
(2) S. officinarum x S. baberi
(2) Hybridisation of pure lines followed by artificial
(3) S. barberi x S.indica
selection
(3) Artificial selection exclusively (4) S. officinarum x S. officinale
(4) Mutation breeding 31. Match the following

25. Which of the following is not a step of plant breeding A. Himgiri variety i. White rust
(1) Collection of variability
B. Pusa swarnim ii. Hill bunt
(2) Evalution and selection of parents
C. Pusa shubhra iii. Leaf curl

(3) Cross hybridisation within a pure line
D. Pusa sadabahar iv. Black rot
(4) Selection and testing of superior recombinants
26. Which of the following is root of any plant breeding A B C D
programme (1) ii i iii iv
(1) Genetic variability
(2) i ii iv iii
(2) Evaluation and selection of parents
(3) ii i iv iii
(3) Cross hybridisation among selectied parents
(4) i ii iii iv
(4) Selection of superior recombinants
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32. About disease resistant varieties of plant select out 39. Which of the following is not a consiquence of
the incorrect match hidden hunger
(1) Wheat – Himgiri (1) Increased the risk of disease

(2) Reduced life span
(2) Brassica – Pusa swarnim
(3) Reduced mental abilities
(3) Cauliflower – Pusa shubhra
(4) Reduced skin pigmentation
(4) Cowpea – Pusa snowball K1
40. Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and
33. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosic virus and minerals, higher proteins and healthier fats is
powdery mildew were induced by known as
(1) Conventional breeding (1) Bioremediation (2) Biomagnification

(3) Biofortification (4) Biotransformation
(2) Mutation breeding
41. Which of the following is not an objective of plant
(3) Germplasm collection
breeding for improved nutritional quality
(4) Polyploidy breeding (1) Protein content and quality
34. Parbhani kranti variety of Ablemoschus esculentus (2) Oil content and quality
was created for resistance against which of the (3) Vitamin content
following disease
(4) Carbohydrate content
(1) Yellow mosaic virus 42. Which of the following nutrient was enhanced in
(2) Curl blight black rot hybrid maize developed in the year 2000
(3) White rust (1) Lysine (2) Tryptophane
(4) Powdery mildew (3) Threonine (4) Both 1 and 2
35. Resistance to jassids in cotton and cereal leaf 43. Which of the following wheat variety have high
beetles in wheat is due to which of the following protein content
morphological / physiological / Biochemical
(1) Kalyansona (2) Sharbati sonaro
characteristic
(3) Atlas 66 (4) IR - 8
(1) Solid stem (2) Nectorlessness
(3) High aspartic acid (4) Hairy leaves 44. Biofortified rice are enriched in which of the
following nutrient
36. In maize resistance to maize stem borer is due to
(1) Iron (2) Amino acids
(1) High aspartic acid (3) Fatty acids (4) Essential amino acids
(2) Low nitrogen and sugar content 45. Match the following
(3) High nitrogen and suger content A. Vitamin A rich i Lablab
(4) Both 1 and 2 B. Vitamin C rich ii Spinach

37. Select the incorrect match C. Fe and Ca Rich iii Bitter gaurd
(1) Pusa gaurav – Aphids D. Protein Rich iv Carrot
(2) Pusa sem 2 – Shoot borers A B C D
(3) Pusa sem 3 – Jassids & Aphids (1) iv iii ii i
(4) Pusa sawani – Fruit borers (2) iv iii i ii
38. Hidden hunger is associated with deficiency of (3) iii iv ii i
(1) Proteins (2) Vitamins (4) iii iv i ii
(3) Micronutrients (4) All the above
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46. Which of the following can be used for cultivation 49. Each of the plant obtained through tissue culture are
of SCP genetically identical to the original plant from which
(1) Waste water from potato processing plants they were grown are known as
(2) Straw (1) Genocopies

(3) Sewage (2) Somaclonal variants
(4) All above (3) Somaclones
47. 250 gm Methylophilus methylotrophus can produce (4) Phenocopies
how much amount of proteins in a day :-
50. Fusion between two naked protoplasts is known as
(1) 2.5 tonnes (2) 25 tonnes
(1) Somatic hybridisation
(3) 250 tonnes (4) 25 Kg
(2) Germinal hybridisation
48. Which of the following cell property is the basis of
(3) Parasexual hybridisation
plant tissue culture
(4) Both 1 and 3
(1) Homeostasis (2) Thermoperiodicity
(3) Meristematic (4) Totipotency

ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 3 4 2 3 1 4 4 3 4 1 2 4 2 2 1 1 1 1 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 4 2 2 3 1 2 2 4 2 3 4 2 1 4 4 2 4 4 3
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 4 4 3 1 1 4 2 4 3 4
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MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
1. Nutritionally curd is more suitable then milk. Which 9. Match the following
of the following reason not supporting to this view A. Pectinases i. Blood cholesterol lowering
(1) It increasing vitamin B12 agents
(2) It checks disease causing microbes B. Streptokinases ii. Immunosuppressive agents
(3) LAB convert lactose into lactic curd C. Cyclosporin - A iii. Clot-busters
(4) It provide additional proteins D. Statin iv. Clearifying agents
2. Large holes in "Swiss cheese" are due to production A B C D

of large amount of CO2 by ............... bacterium (1) iv iii ii i
(1) Leuconostoc mesenteroides (2) iv iii i ii
(2) Propionibacterium sharmanii (3) iii iv ii i

(4) i ii iii iv
(3) Thermococcus proteus
10. Match the following
(4) Staphylococcus thermophilus
A. Citric acid i. Haemolytic
3. Which of the following is not a product of distillation
streptococcus
(1) Whisky (2) Brandy
B. Streptokinase ii. Aspergillus niger
(3) Wine (4) Rum
4. Find out odd one with refrence to distillation C. Cyclosporin - A iii. Monascus purpureus
(1) Beer (2) Wine D. Statins iv. Trichoderma polysporum

(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Vodka A B C D
5. Which of the following bacteria was associated with (1) i ii iii iv
discovery of penicillin (2) ii i iii iv
(1) Streptococus (3) ii i iv iii
(2) Staphylococcus (4) iv ii iii i

11. Functioning of statin is based on
(3) Saccharomyces cerveisiae
(1) Competitive inhibition
(4) Propionobacterium
(2) Endproduct inhibition
6. Full potential of penicillin as an effective antibiotic (3) Allosteric inhibition
was established by (4) Negative feed back inhibition
(1) Alexander Flemming (2) Ernest chain
12. The technology of biogas production was developed
(3) Howard florey (4) Both 2 and 3
in India mainly due to efforts of

7. Which of the following is "Clot buster" (1) IARI (2) KVIC
(1) Citric acid (2) Streptokinase (3) IPM (4) Both 1 and 2
(3) Cyclosporin (4) Statins 13. Bacillus thuringiensis show their inhibitory effect on
which part of the insect body
8. Which of the following chemicals, used as an
immunosuppressive agent in organ transplantation (1) Gut
(1) Streptokinase (2) Cyclosporin - A (2) Respiratory tract
(3) Statins (4) Citric acid (3) Nervous system

(4) Circulatory system
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14. Which of the following biological agents are used 17. Use of biofertilizer is the part of
for species specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal
(1) Inorganic farming
applications
(2) Organic farming
(1) Adenoviruses
(2) Nucleopolyhedrosis viruses (3) Energy cropping
(3) Retroviruses (4) Energy plantation
(4) Trichoderma 18. Members of which of the following fungal genus
15. Which of the following is one of the advantage of mainly participate in the mycorrhiza formation
application of viruses as bioinsecticides (1) Azotobacter (2) Fusarium
(1) They are less effective (3) Rhizopus (4) Glomus
(2) They are host specific 19. Which of the following is not an advantage of
(3) They are costly mycorrhiza
(4) They can not obtain easily (1) Phosphorus absorption
16. In which of the following conditions use of (2) Resistance to root borne pathogens
baculoviruses is desirable (3) Nitrogen fixation
(1) When they are used as part of IPM (4) Tolerance to salinity and draught
(2) When an ecologically sensitive area is being 20. Cultivation of which of the following crop plant
treated specially get b enif itted by application of
(3) When beneficial insects are being conserved cyanobacteria
(4) All of the above (1) Maize (2) legumes
(3) Wheat (4) Rice
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 2 3 4 2 4 2 2 1 3 1 4 1 2 2 4 2 4 3 4
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BIOTECHNOLOGY : PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES
1. The science, which deals with techniques of using live 8. The vessels, where large volumes of culture can be
organisms or enzymes from organism to produce processed are :
products and processes useful to human is : (1) Bioreactors (2) Biovessels
(1) Genetics (2) Biotechnology (3) Biocontainers (4) All of above
(3) Bioinformatics (4) None of these 9. Which of the following enzymes is known as 'genetic
2. A restriction endonucleases which always cut DNA glue'?
molecules at a particular point by recognising a (1) DNA polymerase
specific sequence of six base pairs is :
(2) Alkaline phosphatase
(1) Hind-II (2) Psu I
(3) DNA ligase
(3) Hae-III (4) All of these
3. The first letter of the name of Restriction
10. Small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that
endonuclease came from the
are complementary to the regions of DNA at 3' end
(1) Genus of organism used in PCR are :
(2) Species of organism (1) Primers (2) Dimers
(3) Family of organism (3) Small strands (4) Large fragments
(4) Class of organism 11. Bombardment of high velocity micro-particles of
4. Autono mous ly replicat ing circular ext ra gold or tungsten coated with DNA on target cells
chromosomal DNA of bacteria is : is :
(1) Plastid (2) Nucleus (1) Biolistics
(3) Plasmid (4) None of these (2) Micro-injection
5. The specific DNA sequence in a chromosome which (3) Electroporation
is responsible for initiation of replication is : (4) Bombing
(1) Cloning region 12. In micro injection :
(2) Termination region (1) DNA is bombarded on target cells
(3) Initiation region (2) DNA is placed through a vector
(4) Origin of replication (3) DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animal cell
6. Which of the following reproduction preserves the (4) None of the above
genetic informations ?
13. pBR322 has two antibiotic resistance genes, they
(1) Asexual reproduction are :
(2) Sexual reproduction (1) Streptomycin and Ampicillin resistant gene
(3) Both (1) and (2) (2) Chloromycetin and tetracycline resistant gene
(4) None of these (3) Tetracycline and neomycin resistant genes
7. Taq polymerase is used in, polymerase chain (4) Ampicillin and tetracyclin resistant genes
reaction, because :
14. Most common matrix is agarose a natural polymer
(1) It becomes inactive at high temperature used in gel electrophoresis is extracted from :
(2) it makes o ther enz yme acti ve at high (1) an animal
temperature
(2) a fungus
(3) It remains active during high temperature
(3) Sea weeds
(4) It is obtained from thermostable virus.
(4) None of these
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15. To isolate DNA from the plant cells we have to break 23. The construction of the first recombinant DNA was
the wall this is done by : done by ?
(1) Lysozyme (2) Cellulase (1) Stanley cohen and Herbert Boyer
(3) Chitinase (4) Invertase (2) Nathan's and Smith
16. Agrobacterium tumifaciens a pathogen transform (3) Maeselson and Stahl

normal plant cells into a tumor, similarly in animals (4) Allec Jeffreys
the normal cells transformed into cancerous cells by: 24. The most commonly used bioreactors are of
(1) Retro viruses (2) DNA viruses (1) Simple stirring type
(3) Ribo viruses (4) None of these (2) Sparged stirring type
17. Insertional inactivation results into inactivation of (3) Both (1) and (2)
which enzyme ? (4) None of the above
(1) Transacetylase 25. Downstream processing is :
(2) Permease (1) Process of separation of DNA fragments
(3) Taq polymerase (2) Process of joining the vector and the host DNA
(4) b-galactosidase (3) Process including separation and purification of
18. If the bacterium does not have any insert, then the the product
presence of chromogenic substrate, it gives : (4) Process of transferring DNA.
(1) Red coloured colonies 26. EcoRI recognises palindromic sequence
(2) Colourless colonies (1) 5'
GGGCCC3' (2) 5'
-GAATTC-3'
(3) Blue colonies 3'
CCCGGG 3
-CTTAAG-5'
(4) Green colonies (3) 5
-AAGCTT3' (4) None of the above
19. To make cell competent to take up DNA, heat 3
-TTCGAA-5
shock is given to cells, the temperature of shock is : 27. The enzymes responsible for restricting the growth
(1) 30°C (2) 42°C of bacteriophage in E-coli were isolated in 1963,
(3) 60°C (4) 90°C these enzyme are :
20. In gel electrophoresis technique the DNA fragments (1) DNA ligases
are forced to move through a medium towards : (2) Alkaline phosphatases
(1) Anode (2) Cathode (3) DNA polymerases
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above (4) Restriction endonuclease
21. Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of 28. Vector which is commonly used to transfer foreign
enzymes called : gene in a crop plant is :
(1) Cellulases (2) Hydrolases (1) Plasmids of Salmonella

(3) Polymerases (4) Nucleases (2) l bacterio phage vector
22. Which one is not a basic step in genetically modifying (3) Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens
an organism (4) None of the above
(1) Identification of DNA with desirable genes 29. Father of genetic engineering is :
(2) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host (1) Paul Berg
(3) Introduction of unidentified DNA into the host (2) Nathans
(4) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and (3) Herbert Boyer
transfer of the DNA to its progeny.
(4) Stanley Cohen
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30. A definition of biotechnology that encompasses both 37. In a chromosome there is a specific DNA sequence
traditional view and modern view are given by : which is responsible for initiating replication is :
(1) European forum on Biotechnology (1) Ori
(2) European focus on Biotechnology (2) Palindromic sequence
(3) European Federation of Biotechnology (2) Initiation sequence
(4) European Centre of Biotechnology (4) Promoter sequence
31. Which one of the following is must in Biotechnology? 38. First recombinant DNA was made by Stanley Cohen
(1) Restriction endonuclease + DNA ligase and Herbert Boyer in :
(2) Restriction exonuclease + DNA polymerase (1) 1968 (2) 1970
(3) Alkaline phosphate + DNA Ligase (3) 1972 (4) 1974
(4) RNA polymerase + DNA polymerase 39. The first restriction endonuclease discovered, was
32. Taq. polymerase is obtaned from : (1) Eco RI (2) Sam I
(1) Bacillus thuriengiensis
(3) Bam HI (4) Hind II
(2) Thermus aquaticus
40. In the vector pBR322 there is
(3) Salmonella typhimurium
(1) One selectable marker
(4) Eischerichia coli
(2) Two selectable markers
33. To denature the DNA template in PCR it is heated
(3) Three selectable markers
to
(4) None of the above
(1) 70°C (2) 54°C
(3) 80°C (4) 94°C 41. When the isolation of genetic material is done the
RNA can be removed by treatment with :
34. Roman numbers following the names of restriction
endonuclease indicate : (1) Protease
(1) The order in which the enzymes were isolated (2) Chitinase
from that strain of bacteria (3) Ribonuclease
(2) strain of bacteria (4) Deoxyribonuclease
(3) the order in which genus is taken to isolate the
42. If DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of b-
enzyme
galactosidase enzyme then
(4) none of the above
(1) Non-recombinants will give blue coloured colonies
35. Exonuclease removes nucleotides from in presence of chromogenic substrate
(1) Specific positions
(2) Recombinant will give blue coloured colonies in
(2) the ends of the DNA presence of chromogenic substrate
(3) any where in DNA (3) Both recombinants and non-recombinants give
(4) All the above blue colour
36. Alternative selectable markers developed to (4) Non-recombinants do not produce colour due to
differentiate non-recombinants from recombinants insertional inactivation.
on the basis of :
43. Knife of DNA :
(1) Ability of separate them according to size
(1) DNA - ligase
(2) Ability to produce colour in the presence of a
chromogenic substrate (2) Restriction endonuclease
(3) Ability to not produce colour (3) Exonuclease
(4) None of the above (4) Peptidase
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44. Large vessel in which raw materials are biologically 50. Which type of ends are produced by EcoRI ?
converted into specific products, individual enzymes (1) Blunt ends (2) Sticky ends
etc using microbial plant, animal or human cell is:
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above
(1) Biotank 51. The sequence which is responsible for controlling the
(2) Biovessel copy number of the linked DNA is :
(3) Bioreactor (1) Coding sequence
(4) None of the above (2) Promoter sequence
45. Which one of the following is not required in PCR? (3) Terminator sequence
(1) Oligonucleotide primer (4) Ori
(2) DNA template 52. In gel electrophoresis the DNA fragments separate
according to size (smaller the fragment size, the
(3) Taq polymerase
faster it moves) this effect is called :
(4) Helicase enzyme
(1) Sieving effect (2) Movement effect
46. Select incorrect statement :
(3) Size effect (4) Spooling
(a) Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce
proteins that kill certain insects such as 53. Extraction, purification and packaging of products
Lepidopterans, Coleopterans and Dipterans is collectively known as :
(b) RNA interference takes place in all eukaryotic (1) Upstream processing
organisms as a method of cellular defence (2) Distillation
(c) Genetically modified crops are more sensitive to
(3) Downstream processing
abiotic stresses
(4) Genetic engineering
(d) Golden rice is protein enriched rice
(e) Agrobacterium is used to deliver desirable genes 54. You have three copies of a particular DNA molecule
into animal cell what technique would you use to make more copies
(1) only a (2) a, b and c of the molecule?
(3) a, c and d (4) c, d and e (1) Gel electrophoresis
47. The enzymes, which remove nucleotides from the (2) Sequencing
ends of the DNA are : (3) PCR
(1) Exonuclease (2) Endonuclease (4) Restriction fragment analysis
(3) Cellulase (4) Hydrolase 55. Which of the following is best way to determine
48. When a recombinant DNA is inserted within the paternity ?
coding sequence of an enzyme b-galatosidase, it (1) Gene counting (2) Chromosome counting
results into inactivation of the enzyme gene this is (3) DNA finger printing (4) Protein analysis
called :
56.
Ti plasmid is present in :
(1) Insert inactivation
(1) E.coli
(2) Insertional inactivation
(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(3) Insertional activation
(3) Agrobacterium orifaciens
(4) Vibrio cholerae
49. Group of letters that form the same words when
57. Apart from DNA in the bacterial nucleoid, there is
read both forward and backward is called :
a circular extrachromosomal DNA in a bacterial cell
(1) Palindrome (2) Same words
called :
(3) Opposite words (4) None of the above
(1) Plasmid (2) Mesosomes
(3) Chromosome (4) None of these
E
58. DNA cannot pass through cell membrane as it is : 64. Which of the following method of vectorless gene
(1) hydrophilic (2) hydrophobic transfer is suitable for plants ?
(3) lipophilic (4) All the above (1) Biolistics method

(2) Micro injection
59. Which type of bioreactor is usually cylindrical or with
a curved base to facilitate the mixing of the contents? (3) Liposome mediated
(1) Sparged tank bioreactor (4) Electroporation
(2) Stirred tank bioreactor 65. The linking of antibiotic resistant gene in the plasmid
vector become possible with the enzyme :
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Restriction endonuclease
(2) DNA ligase
60. The stickiness of the ends, facilitates the action of
(3) DNA polymerase
enzyme :
(4) RNA polymerase
(1) DNA ligase
66. In gel electrophoresis, separated bands of DNA are
(2) DNA polymerase cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from
(3) Alkaline phosphatase the gel pieces, This step is known as :
(1) Blotting (2) Elution
(3) Cloning (4) Tagging
61. Two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth
67. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a hetero
of bacteriophage in E.coli were isolated in 1963,
logous host then protein is known as :
one of these cut DNA, while other :
(1) Recombinant gene
(1) Add propyl group to DNA
(2) Recombinant protein
(2) Add ethyl group to DNA
(3) Selectable marker
(3) Add methyl group to DNA (4) Homogenous protein
(4) None of the above 68. Which enzyme is used in PCR technique ?
62. In PCR-technology primer is a : (1) Thermostable DNA polymerase
(1) Small chemically synthesized oligonucleotide (2) Thermostable RNA polymerase

that are complementary to region of DNA (3) Thermostable ligase
(4) Thermostable vector
(2) Large chemically synthesized oligonucleotide that
are identical to region of DNA 69. If the plasmid in the bacteria dose not have any
insert then the colonies produce :
(3) Small segment of RNA
(1) Blue colour in the presence of X-gal
(4) None of these

(2) No colour in the presence of X-gal
63. In gel electrophoresis the DNA fragment separate (3) Blue colour in the absence of X-gal
according to their size through sieving effect, which
is provided by :
70. Which of the following is used to deliver desirable
(1) Agarose gel gene in to animal cell :
(2) Nylone membrane (1) Disarmed retrovirus
(3) Polyethylene glycol (2) Disarmed agrobacterium
(4) Ethidium Bromide (3) Disarmed E.coli

(4) Disarmed plant pathogen
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71. Agrobacterium tumifaciencs, a pathogen of several 72. The normal E-coli cell carries resistance gene against:
dicot plants is able to deliver a piece of DNA and (1) Ampicillin
it is known as :
(2) Chloramphenicol
(1) R-DNA
(3) Tetracycline
(2) S-DNA
(3) M-DNA
(4) T-DNA
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 1 1 3 4 1 3 1 3 1 1 3 4 3 2 1 4 3 2 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 3 1 3 3 2 4 3 1 3 1 2 4 1 2 2 1 3 4 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 1 2 3 4 4 1 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 3 2 1 1 2 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72
Ans. 3 1 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 1 4 4
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BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATION
1. A transgenic food crop, which may help in solving 8. Which peptide is not present in the mature insulin
the problem of night blindness in developing and is removed during maturation into insulin?
countries is :
(1) A-peptide (2) B-peptide
(1) Bt soyabean
(3) C-peptide (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Golden rice
9. Two polypeptide chains of insulin are linked together
(3) Flavr savr tomatoes
by :
(4) Starlink maize
(1) disulphide bonds
2. Bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in
(2) hydrogen bonds
contemporary biology as
(1) Source of industrial enzyme (3) Phosphodiester bonds
(2) Indicator of water pollution (4) Glycosidic bonds
(3) Insecticide 10. 'Flavr Savr' is a transgenic variety of :

(4) Agent for production of dairy products. (1) Potato (2) Tomato
3. Bt toxin is produced by Bacillus thuringiensis which (3) Soyabean (4) Rice
is : 11. Golden rice is enriched in :
(1) Bacterium (2) Protozoa (1) Vitamin C (2) Vitamin D
(3) Fungus (4) Virus (3) Vitamin A (4) Vitamin E
4. GEAC stands for : 12. For the control of the cotton bollworms, which one
(1) Gene evaluation approval committee of the genes is useful ?
(2) Genetic engineering approval committee (1) Cry 1 Ac (2) Cry 1 Ab
(3) Genetic engineering applied committee (3) Cry 1 Ad (4) All of these
(4) Gene enhancement approval committe 13. Process involving silencing of a specific mRNA due
5. Conventional methods to diagnose a disease are : to a complementary dsRNA molecule is called :
(1) Serum and urine analysis (1) Transcription (2) RNA interference
(2) PCR (3) DNA interference (4) None of these
(3) ELISA 14. Meloidegyne incognitia which infects the roots of

tobacco plants causing a great reduction in yield is
a:
6. The first transgenic cow, which produced human
(1) Nematode (2) Bacterium
protein enriched milk was named :
(3) Virus (4) Alga

(1) Andy (2) Dolly
15. Toxin present in Bacillus thuringiensis does not kill
(3) Rosie (4) Dumpy
the bacterium because it is inactive form what makes
7. Milk of transgenic cow 'Rosie' contains a substance
it active inside the insect ?
that was nutritionally more balanced product for
(1) the alkaline pH of the gut, which solubilises the
human babies is :
crystals
(1) a-lactalbumin (2) b-lactalbumin
(2) the acid pH of the gut
(3) g-lactalbumin (4) d-lactalbumin
(3) the neutral pH of the gut
E
16. Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do 23. Use of bio-resources by multinational companies and
not kill the bacteria themselves because : other organisations without proper autorisation
(1) bacteria are resistant to the toxin from the countries and people concerned without
(2) toxin is immature compensatory payment is called :
(3) toxin is inactive (1) Biotheft
(4) bacteria enclose toxin in a special sac (2) Biopatent
17. Which one of the following statements about (3) Biopiracy

genetically engineered insulin is incorrect. (4) None of the above
(1) E.coli is used for producing humulin 24. Which of the following plants is genetically modified
(2) Chains A, B were produced separately for improved nutritional value of food?
(3) Eli lily company prepared it for first time (1) Potato (2) Wheat
(4) Genetically engineered insulin has C-peptide (3) Rice (4) Maize
18. Infection by pathogen can be detected by the 25. Which animal is being used to test the safety of polio
presence of antigens or by detecting the antibodies vaccine?
synthesised against the pathogen, on this principle (1) Transgenic mice
a test is based which is ?
(2) Transgenic pig
(1) PCR
(3) Transgenic cow
(2) ELISA
(4) Transgenic cat
(3) Both (1) and (2)
26. Cry1 Ab gene produces proteins which control?
(1) Bollworms
19. Indian parliament recently cleared, which
(2) Corn borer
amendment of the Indian patents bill,
(1) First amendment (2) Second amendment (3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Third amendment (4) Fourth amendment (4) None of the above
20. How many documented varities of basmati rice 27. Nematode-specific genes were introduced into the
distinct for its unique aroma and flavour are grown host plant (tabacco plant) by using which vector?
in India? (1) Plasmid vector
(1) 27 varities (2) 25 varities (2) Cosmid vector
(3) 28 varities (4) 26 varities (3) Bacteriophage vector
21. Over 95 percent of all existing transgenic animals (4) BAC
are : 28. Which one of the following statements are true
(1) Pigs (2) Cows regarding genetic modifications ?

(3) Fish (4) Mice (1) Genetic modifications reduced reliance on
22. The organisation set up for making decisions chemical pesticides
regarding the validity of GM research and the safety
(2) Genetic modifications has enhanced nutritional
of introducing GM organism for public services is :
value of food.
(1) Genetic engineering approval committee
(3) Genetic modifications made crops more tolerant
(2) Genetic engineering advanced company
to abiotic stresses.
(3) Genetic engineering applied committee
(4) All are correct
(4) None of these
E
29. Critical research areas of biotechnology are : 36. Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains,
(1) providing the best catalyst in the form of improved which are linked together by?
organism usually a microbe or pure enzyme. (1) Sulphide bridges (2) Peptide bridges
(2) Creating optimal conditions through engineering (3) Chloride bridges (4) Disulphide bridges
for a catalyst to act. 37. Meloidegyne incognitia infects the root of which
plant ?
(3) Down stream processing technologies to purify
the protein/organic compound. (1) Potato (2) Soyabean
(3) Tobacco (4) Tomato
(4) All the above
38. Genetics modified crops (GMC) are useful in
30. Bacterium genetically engineered for cleaning oil
agriculture because :
spills is :
(1) They are more tolerant to abiotic stresses
(1) Eischerichia coli
(2) They increase reliance on chemical pesticide
(2) Pseudomonas putida
(3) They have reduced nutritional value
(3) Salmonella typhimurium
(4) All the above
(4) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
39. The protien encoded by the gene cryIAc and cryIIAb,
31. Bacterium which is known as 'Super bug' is : controls :
(1) Pseudomonas putida (1) Cotton bollworm (2) Corn borer
(2) Salmonella (3) Cotton borer (4) All the above
(3) Eischerichia 40. A nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects the root
(4) Agrobacterium of tobacco plant and causes a great reduction in
32. Animals those have had their DNA manipulated to yield. A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this
possess and express an extra (foreign) gene are infection which was based on the process of :
known as : (1) DNA interference
(1) Transgenic animals (2) RNA interference
(2) Genetically modified animals (3) PCR technique
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) DNA test
(4) None of the above 41. In RNA interference (RNAi) :
33. When cut by the restriction enzyme, the DNA (1) The silencing of a specific mRNA due to a
fragments can be joined together using : complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to
(1) DNA polymerase (2) DNA ligase and prevent translation of the mRNA :
(3) Alkaline phosphatase (4) DNA gyrase (2) The silencing of a specific mRNA due to dsDNA
34. Genetically engineered human insulin is made in (3) The silencing of a specific mRNA due to tRNA
(1) Fungus (2) Protista (4) All the above
(3) Plants (4) Bacterium 42. Transgenic animals produces biological product such
as a-1-antitrypsin, which is used to treat :
35. Genetically engineered bacteria are being used in
commercial production of : (1) Emphysema
(1) melatonin (2) testosterone (2) Cystic fibrosis
(3) thyroxine (4) human insulin (3) Phenyl ketonuria

(4) Sickle cell anaemia
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43. The first transgenic cow was 'Rosie', produces : 45. The technique that serves the purpose of early
(1) Human protein-enriched milk (a-lactabumin) diagnosis of disease or pathogen :
(2) Human protein a-1 antitrypsin riched milk (1) Recombinant DNA technology
(3) Human protein enriched milk (insulin) (2) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
(4) All the above (3) Enzyme linked immuno sorbent assay (ELISA)
44. Transgenic mice are being developed for use in : (4) All the above
(1) Testing the safety of polio vaccines before they 46. Transgenic tobacco which is developed through
are used on human RNA interference, prevents the infection of :
(2) Molecular diagnosis of diseases (1) A nematode - Meloidegyne incognitia
(3) Production of human protein enriched milk (2) A bacterium - Pseudonomonas putida
(3) A fungi - Tricoderma
(4) Production of human insulin
(4) An insect
47. The first clinical gene therapy was given to a 4-year
old girl with ADA deficiency in :
(1) 1984 (2) 1986
(3) 1992 (4) 1990
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 3 1 2 1 3 1 3 1 2 3 1 2 1 1 3 4 2 2 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 1 3 3 1 2 4 4 4 2 1 3 2 4 4 4 3 1 1 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47
Ans. 1 1 1 1 4 1 4
E
ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS
1. At organismic level which type of ecology exists 8. Next to temperature, water is the most important
(1) Synecology factor influencing the life of organism. Which among
the following water characteristics is not an influencing
(2) Physiological ecology
character?
(3) Behavioural ecology
(1) pH (2) Turbidity
(4) Systematic ecology
(3) Colour (4) Salinity
2. Formation of different kind of biomes depends on
9. What is the salinity of hypersaline lagoons?
(1) Light (2) Temperature
(1) 5 ppt
(3) Precipitation (4) Both 2 and 3
(2) 30–35 ppt
3. Regional and local variation within each biome lead (3) More than 100 ppt
to formation of –
(4) Less than 50 ppt
(1) Climate (2) Weather 10. Among the following algae that inhabit the sea,
(3) Habitat (4) Niche which is likely to be found in the deepest water?
4. What is / are key elements that leads to so much (1) Red algae (2) Brown algae
variation in the physical and chemical conditions of (3) Green algae (4) Golden brown algae
different habitats?
11. Percolation and water holding capacity of soil does
(1) Temperature (2) Water and light
not depend on –
(3) Soil (4) All above
(1) Soil composition (2) Biota
5. Temperature is the most ecologically relevant
environmental factor. In which of the following (3) Size of grains (4) Aggregation
habitats temperature can exceed 100° C ? 12. Which of the following is main reason for non
(1) Tropical desert occurence of small size conformers ?
(2) Thermal springs (1) Karyoplasmic index
(3) Deep sea hydrothermal vents (2) Area : volume ratio
(4) Both 2 and 3 (3) Basal metabolism
(4) All the above

6. Find out the correct match with reference to their
habitat – 13. Which of the following alternative used by
(1) Mango tree – Canada zooplanktons to overcome partial stressful
(2) Snow leopards – Kerela forest conditions ?
(3) Tuna fish – Temperate latitudes in oceans (1) Migration (2) Diapause
(4) Lion – Gujarat
(3) Hibernation (4) Aestivation
7. Temperature is one of the important abiotic factor.
14. Majority of plants belongs to which of the following
Significance of temperature on living beings can be
category
realised through –
(1) Kinetics of enzymes (1) Regulators
(2) Basal metabolism (2) Conformers

(3) Physiological functions (3) Partial regulators
(4) All the above (4) Eurytherms
E
15. Shortening of ears, limbs and other extremeties of 22. Match the following given population interactions
mammals so that heat loss can be minimise, is (a) + / + (i) Predation
associated with –
(b) – / – (ii) Ammensalism
(1) Allen's rule (2) Bergeman's rule (c) + / – (iii) Competition
(3) Jordan's rule (4) Rensch's rule (d) – / 0 (iv) Mutualism
16. Altitude sickness can be seen at which specific (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
height ? (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) < 3500 m (2) > 3500 m 23. The famous 'Australian havoc' is associated with
which of the following invasive species :-
(3) 5300 m (4) < 530 m
17. Which of the following is not an adaptation for altitude (1) Nile pearch (2) Princkly pear cactus
sickness ? (3) Red fox (4) Rabbit
(1) Increase in red blood cell production
24. In rocky intertidal communities removal of which of
(2) Decrease in binding capacity of oxygen with the following predator became the cause of
haemoglobin destruction of 10 species of invertebrates?
(3) Increased breathing rate
(1) Monarch butterfly
(4) Increased heart palpitations
(2) Starfish pisater
18. Behavioural response to cope with variations in the
(3) Paramecium aurelia
environment can be seen in
(4) Abingdon tortoise
(1) CAM plants
25. Phytophagous insects show which of the following
(2) Opuntia plant
interaction :-
(3) Desert lizards
(1) Predation
(4) C4 - plants
(2) Competetion
19. Population ecology is an important area of ecology
because it links ecology with (3) Mutualism
(1) Population genetics (2) Evolution (4) Commensalism
(3) Physiognomy (4) Both 1 and 2 26. Which of the following cannot be used by prey for
defence against predator :-
20. The tiger counting in our national parks and tiger
reserves is often based on (1) Cardiac glycosides (2) Strychnine
(1) Pug marks (2) Manual counting (3) Nectar (4) Quinine
27. Regarding competition find out the wrong

(3) Fecal pellets (4) Both 1 and 3

21. Match the following statement.
(a) Breeding once in life (i) Mammals (1) Unrelated species could compete for same
(b) Breeding several times (ii) Oysters resource
in life
(2) Fitness of one species is lowered in presence of
(c) Large number of small (iii) Most of birds
other species
sized offsprings
(d) Small number of large (iv) Pacific salmon (3) Abingdon tortoise become extinct due to
sized offsprings fish competitor starfish
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) Balanus leads to exclusion of Chathamalus from
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) rock coasts of scotland
E
28. Which of the following mean was used by warblers 31. During interaction between sea anemone and clown
to avoid competition and coexist fish, which get benefitted :-
(1) Difference in foraging activities (1) Sea anemone only (2) Clown fish only
(2) Habitat fragmentation (3) Both (4) Neither 1 nor 2
(3) Competitive release 32. Which of the following is not an example of

coevolution?
(4) All of these
(1) Orchid and Bee
29. Which of the following is not an adaptation of
parasites for assurance of parasite host interaction (2) Opuntia and Cactophagous moth
(1) Loss of sensory organs (3) Yucca and Pronuba
(2) Presence of adhesive organs (4) Wasp and Fig
(3) Loss of digestive system
(4) Low reproductive potential
30. Which of the following match is incorrect for

commensalism interaction?
(1) Epiphytes on trees
(2) Egrets with grazing cattles
(3) Hermit crab and sea anemone
(4) Sea anemone and clown fish
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 4 3 4 4 4 4 3 3 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 4 3 4 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32
Ans. 2 3 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 3 2 2
E
ECOSYSTEM
1. The components of ecosystem are seen to function 7. Leaching i s on e of the important step of
as an unit, when we consider which of the folloiwng decomposition. During leaching, which of the
aspect following nutrient go down into the soil horizon ?
(1) Water soluble inorganic substance
(1) Productivity and decomposition
(2) Water insoluble inorganic substances
(2) Decomposition and energy flow (3) Water soluble organic substances
(3) Productivity and energy flow (4) Both water soluble organic substances and
inorganic substances
(4) Productivity, decomposition, energy flow and
nutrient cycling 8. During decomposition, humification leads to
accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous
2. Amount of biomass or organic matter produced per
substance called humus. Which of the following is
unit area over a time period by plants is represented
correct regarding humus ?
or expressed in terms of :-
(1) Susceptible to microbial action
(1) Weight (g–2) – g–2 yr–1
(2) Undergoes decomposition at an extremely high
(2) Energy (Kcal m–2) – Kcal m–2 / yr–1 rate
(3) Fresh weight (3) Colloidal in nature
(4) It promote compaction of soil
(4) Dry weight
9. Which of the following chemical will not reduce the
3. The rate of biomass production is called productivity.
rate of decomposition of detritus
It may be primary or secondary productivity. Primary
productivity does not depends on (1) Lignin (2) Chitin
(1) Plants species inhabitating a particular area (3) Cutin (4) Sugars
(2) Predation 10. Which among the following factors are most
(3) Environmental factors important climatic factors that regulate decomposition
(4) Photosynthetic capacity through their effects on the activities of soil microbes
4. The annual net primary productivity of the whole (1) Temp & soil moisture
biosphere is approximately
(2) Temp and pH of soil
(1) 170 billion tons (3) Temp and oxygen
(2) 50 billion tons (4) pH of soil and oxygen
(3) 55 billion tons 11. Decomposition is one of the important functional
(4) 710 billion tons aspect of ecosystem. Which of the following statement
is not correct for decomposition ?
5. In net primary productivity of whole biosphere what
is the contribution of oceans in billion ton ? (1) Warm an d mo ist environment favo urs
(1) 50 (2) 70 decomposition
(3) 42 (4) 55 (2) Nitrogen and sugar component favours
6. By digestion and pulverisation detritus get decomposition
fragmen ted. This fragmentat ion step of (3) Low temperature and anaerobiosis favours
decomposition helps in decomposition
(1) Increasing porocity of detritus (4) Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring
(2) Increasing surface area of detritus process
(3) Increasing rate of sedimentation
(4) All of these
E
12. How much amount of incident solar radiation and 18. Ecol ogical pyramids sho w diagramat ic
PAR is capture as GPP respectively :- representation of ecological parameters like
(1) 1–5% and 2–10% number, biomass and energy. Which is / are
limitation of ecological pyramids ?
(2) 2–10% and 1–5%
(1) It does not take into account the same species
(3) 1–4% and 2–8%
belonging to two or more trophic levels
(4) 0.4–4% and 0.8–8%
(2) It does not accomodate a food web
13. In an aquatic ecosystem which type of food chain
(3) Saprophytes are not given any place in pyramids
is major conduit for energy flow is
(4) All the above
(1) GFC (2) Parasitic food chain
19. The gradual and fairly predictable changes in the
(3) DFC (4) Both 1 and 3 species composition of a given area is called :-
14. About flow of food energy by the process of eating (1) Bioprospecting
and being eaten, which of the following is incorrect (2) Biofortification
(1) In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC is major conduit (3) Ecological succession
for energy flow
(4) Ecological assessment
(2) In terrestrial ecosystem, DFC major conduit for
20. The gradual and fairy predictable changes in the
energy flow
species composition of a given area is not
(3) In predator food chain there is increase in size characterised by :-
of organism with trophic level
(1) Increase in number of species
(4) DFC can never be connected with GFC
(2) Increase in number of individuals of species
15. Mass of the living material at a particular time
(3) Increase in biomass
called as the standing crop. Biomass of a species
(4) Decrease in niche specialisation
is expressed in terms of ............. is more accurate
21. About succession, which of the following statement
(1) Fresh weight
is correct :-
(2) Dry weight
(1) In xerosere, xeric conditions progress to hydric
(3) Both (1) and (2)
conditions
(4) Kcal m–2/yr–1
(2) In hydrosere, mesic environment progress to
16. In an ecosystem based on production of nearly
hydric conditions
6 million plants, how many top consumers can be
(3) In hydrosere, hydric environment progress to
supported ?
mesic conditions
(1) 708000 (2) 354000
(4) Abandoned farm lands show primary succession
(3) 3 (4) 30000

22. All successions whether taking place in water or on
17. In an ecosystem if dry weight of producers is
land proceeds to which climax community :-
809 kgm–2. Then what will be the biomass of
tertiary consumers (1) Hydric (2) Xeric
(1) 37 dry weight (Kg m–2) (3) Mesic (4) Halophytic
(2) 11 (Kg m–2) 23. Which of the following regulate the rate of release
(3) 15 kg m–2 of nutrients into atmosphere
(4) 1.5 kgm–2 (1) Soil (2) Moisture

(3) pH and Temperature (4) All the above
E
24. What percentage of carbon constitute the dry 27. Robert Constanza and his colleagues have put price
weight of organisms tags on natures life support services with refrence
(1) 49 % (2) 71 % to this which of the following is not true?
(3) 30 % (4) 20 % (1) Fundamental ecosystem services = $ 33 trillions
25. How much amount of carbon is fixed in biosphere (2) Soil formation = $ 16.5 trillions
through photosynthesis annually (3) Nutrient cycling = less than $ 3.3 trillions
(1) 2 x 1013 kg (2) 4 x 1013 kg (4) Climate regulation = $ 5 trillions
(3) 5 x 1013 kg (4) 6 x 1013 kg

26. Which among the following is not considered as
an ecological service?
(1) Generation of fertile soil
(2) Wild life habitat formation
(3) Products of antibiotics
(4) Crop pollination
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 4 2 1 4 2 4 3 4 1 3 1 1 4 2 3 4 4 3 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
Ans. 3 3 4 1 2 3 4
E
BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
1. Match the following– 7. Which method is thought to be best for estimation of
mirobial biodiversity –
(a) Ants (i) 20,000 species
(1) Bio statistical method
(b) Beetles (ii) >28,000 species
(2) Bio chemical or molecular method
(c) Fishes (iii) >3,00,000 species
(d) Orchids (iv) >20,000 species (3) Paleobotanical method
(1) a (iv), b (ii), c (iii), d (i) (4) Culture method
(2) a (ii), b (iii), c (iv), d (i) 8. What is the contribution of India in global species
diversity –
(3) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i)
(1) 2.4 % (2) 12 %
(4) a (iii), b (ii), c (i), d (iv)
(3) 8.1 % (4) 7.1 %
2. In biosphere, diversity (heterogeneity) exist at –
9. Find out the right one –
(1) Species level
(1) India has 7.1% species diversity
(2) Genetic level
(2) India is one of the 22 mega diversity countries
(3) Ecosystem level of world
(4) All the above (3) According to Robert May's global estimate only
22% of the total species have been recorded
3. Term "biodiversity" was popularised by– so for
(1) Edward Wilson (2) Humboldt (4) According to Robert May's estimation, more
(3) Tilman (4) Paul Ehrlich than 3,00,000 plant species yet to be
discovered in India
4. In India, how many genetically different strains of rice
10. Pattern of Biodiversity depends upon –
and mango varieties are present –
(1) Latitudinal gradient
(1) <50,000 and 1,0000 respectively
(2) Altitudinal gradient
(2) 1000 and 50000 respectively
(3) Species - area relationship
(3) >50.000 and 1.000 respectively
(4) All of these
(4) >50,000 and 5,000 respectively
11. Which of the following is not the reason of great
5. Find out incorrect statement – biodiversity in tropics ?
(1) Biodiversity exists at all levels of biological (1) Undisturbed climate for millions of years
organisation
(2) Less seasonal variations
(2) A single species cannot show more diversity at (3) More nutritive soil
genetic level
(4) More solar energy
(3) Western ghats have a greater amphibian

species diversity 12. Which statement is incorrect –
(1) There is increase in biodiversity from pole to
(4) India has greater ecological diversity than
equator
Scandinavian country.
(2) There is increase in biodiversity from low
6. According to IUCN (2004), how many plant and altitude to high altitude
animal species have been described so far – (3) There is directly proportional relationship
(1) <1.5 billion (2) >1.5 million between area & biodiversity
(4) Tropics has less seasonal, relatively more
(3) 7.1 million (4) 7.1 billion
constant and predictable environment.
E
13. In species area relationship, on a logarithmic scale. 20. According to ecologists warn that if the present
The relationship is – trends continue. Nearly half of the species on earth
might be wiped out within how many years –
(1) Rectangular hyperbola
(1) 100 (2) 1000
(2) Rectangular parabola
(3) 50 (4) 500
(3) Straight line
21. In general, the loss of biodiversity in a region may
(4) Sigmoid not lead to –
14. In equation log S = log C + Z log A, what is Z – (1) Decline in plant production
(1) Species richness (2) Lo wered resist ance to environ ment al
perturbations
(2) Area
(3) Constant pest and disease cycles
(3) Regression coefficient
(4) Increased variability in certain ecosystem
(4) Y-intercept
processes such as plant productivity
15. For frugivorous birds and mammals in tropical 22. From 'The Evil Quartet' which of the following is
forest of different continents, the slope(Z) is found most important cause of biodiversity loss –
to be :-
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(1) 0.1 - 0.2 (2) 0.6 - 1.2 (2) Over - exploitation
(3) 1.15 (4) 11.5 (3) Alien species invasion
16. More species in community, tends to more stability (4) Co-extinctions

than communities with less species'. It was 23. The most dramatic examples of habitat loss come
supported by– from tropical rain forests. Once covering more that
14 present of earths land surface and now cover
(1) David Tilman (2) Paul Ehrlich no more than –
(3) Humboldt (4) Tansley (1) 5% (2) 6%
17. "Rivet popper hypothesis" was proposed by – (3) 10% (4) 13%
24. The Amazon rain forest 'lungs of Planet" harbouring
(1) Tilman (2) Hombolat
probably millions of species is being cut & cleared
(3) Paul Ehrlich (4) Mayer for which purpose –
(1) For cultivation of soyabeans
18. Select the wrong match for extinction of species as
per the IUCN red list 2004 – (2) For conversion to grasslands for raising beef
cattles
(1) Vertibrates – 338
(3) For cuttivation of Medicinal plants
(2) Invertebrates - 359 (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Plants - 87 25. When large habitats are broken up in to small

fragments due to human activities, which of the
(4) Prokaryotes - 2001
following get badly affected –
19. Careful analysis of records shows that extinction (1) Mammals and birds requiring large territories
across taxa are not random, some groups like (2) Animals with migratory habitats
______ appear to be more vulnerable to extinction.
(3) Animals with large bodysize
(1) Reptiles (2) Mammals (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Aves (4) Amphibians
E
26. Alien species invasion is one of the cause of 31. Find out the odd one with respect to 'Biodiversity
Biodiversity loss. Introduction of Nile perch in hot spots' –
victoria lake lead to extinction of more than 200
(1) Western Ghats & Srilanka
species of –
(1) Cichlid fish (2) Gambusia (2) Indo - Burma
(3) Salmon fish (4) Cat fish (3) Himalaya

27. The recent illegal introduction of which African fish (4) Gangatic plains
becomes severe cause of threatening of indigenous
cat fishes – 32. Find out the wrong match –
(1) Gambusia (2) Labeo (1) Bioshpere reserves – 14

(3) Clarias gariepinus (4) Dog fish (2) National parks – 85
28. Find out the following w.r.t. economic importance
of biodiversity – (3) Wild life sanctuaries – 448
(1) Production of oxygen (2) Pollination (4) Indian Biodiversity hot spot – 3
(3) Medicinal utility (4) All
33. 'Sacred groves is also one of the important mean
29. When we conserve and protect the whole of Biodiversity conservation. In respect of this find
ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels is called – out the odd one –
(1) In situ conservation (2) Ex -situ conservation
(1) Khasi and Jaintia – Meghalaya
(3) On site conservation (4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) Aravalli hills – Rajasthan
30. Which among the following is the criterion for
determination of 'Biodiversity hot spot' – (3) Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar – Mizoram
(1) Very high level of species richriess (4) Western Ghat – Maharashtra
(2) High degree of habitat loss and fragmentation
(3) High degree of Endemism
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 4 1 3 2 2 2 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 1 3 4 4 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33
Ans. 3 1 2 4 4 1 3 3 4 4 4 2 3
E
ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
1. Pollution is undesirable changes in physical, chemical (3) Electrostatic precipitators

and biological properties. Which among the following
(4) Filters
is not air pollution induced plant injury –
7. Which of the following is not associated with catalytic
(1) Reduced growth and yield
convertors –
(2) Premature death of plant
(1) Conversion of unburnt hydrocarbon to CO2 & H2O
(3) Clogging of Stomata
(2) Conversion of CO to CO2
(4) Oxygen binding ability
(3) Conversion of NOx to N2
2. Harmful effects of air polluntants depends on –
(4) Conversion of SO2 to S
(1) Concentration of pollutants
8. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic convertor should
(2) Duration of exposure
use unleaded petrol because –
(3) Organism
(1) Lead in petrol inactivates the catalyst
(4) All the above
(2) Lead in petrol act as catalyst
3. Electrostatic precipitators can remove how much
percentage of particutate matter present in exhaust (3) Lead in petrol start to burn along petrol
from a thermal power plant –
(4) Lead in petrol leads to checking burning of petrol
(1) 90% (2) 95%
9. In 1990s what was the rank of Delhi among the 41
(3) 99% (4) 100% most polluted cities of the world –
4. Scrubber is one of the device used to remove air (1) 1st (2) 2nd
pollutants. Which of the following gaseous pollutant
(3) 3rd (4) 4th
can be remove through it –
10. What was the main step taken in Delhi to control air
(1) NOx (2) SO 2
pollution after Public interest litigation (PIL) filed in
(3) CO (4) CO 2 Supreme court. –
5. According to CPCB particulate size £ 2.5 micrometer (1) Reduction in vehicles
are responsible for cousing greatest harm to human
(2) Use of CNG in buses instead of Diesel
health. They can cause various harms except –
(1) Breathing and Respiratory symptoms (3) Use of catalytie convertor

(2) Respiratory Irritation (4) Plantation
(3) Inflammation and damage to lungs 11. All the buses of Delhi were converted to run on CNG
by The end of 2002. Why CNG is better than Diesel–
(4) Lack of sleep
(1) CNG burns most efficiently
6. Which of the following devices is best for reducing
emission of poisonous gases – (2) Little of it is left unburnt
(1) Scrubber (3) Inactivate catalyst of catalytical convertor

(2) Catalytic convertors (4) Both (1) and (2)
E
12. What is the main problem with switching over to CNG 17. The goal of Euro-IV norms, according to roadmap is
from petrol and diesel ? to reduce sulphur to –
(1) High cost (1) 50 ppm in petrol and diesel
(2) Difficulty of lying down pipelines to deliver CNG (2) 150 ppm in petrol and diesel
for uninterrupted supply
(3) 350 ppm in petrol and diesel
(3) Lack of suitable engines
(4) 250 ppm in petrol and diesel
(4) All the above
18. According to Euro-III norms, In petrol or diesel aromatic
13. Beside use of CNG, simultaneously parallel steps hy drocarbo ns a re to b e contained at
taken in Delhi for reducing vehicular pollution, 42 percent and goal of it to bring down the level of
except– sulphur –
(1) Use of unleaded petrol (1) 30% (2) 40%
(2) Use of low sulphur petrol and diesel (3) 42% (4) 35%
(3) Use of catalytic convertors 19. The Bharat Stage-III, norms for reducing the level of
(4) Use of Electrostatic precipitators vehicular pollutant, is equivalent to –
14. The Government of India through a new auto fuel (1) Euro-I norms (2) Euro-II norms
policy has laid out a road map to cut down vehicular
(3) Euro-III norms (4) Euro-IV norms
pollution in Indian cities. Most stringent norms for
fuels means– 20. The Bharat Stage-III norms of Automobiles are
applicable throughout the country from –
(1) Steadily reducing the sulphur content in petrol
(1) 1 October 2005 (2) 1 October 2010
(2) Steadily reducing the aromatics content in petrol
(3) 1 October 2009 (4) 1 October 2012
(3) Steadily reducing the sulphur and aromatics
content in petrol and diesel 21. All automobiles and fuel petrol and diesel - were to
have met the Euro-IV emission specification in
(4) Steadily reducing the particulated matter in
13 highly polluted cities of India from –
petrol and Diesel
(1) 1 April 2002
15. According Euro-III norms, what should be the level of
sulphur in diesel and petrol respectively – (2) 1 April 2005
(1) 150 ppm & 350 ppm (3) 1 April 2010
(2) 350 ppm & 150 ppm (4) 1 April 2012

(3) 250 ppm & 350 ppm 22. In India, the Air (prevention and control of
(4) 350 ppm & 250 ppm pollution) act, came in to force in –
16. According to Euro-III norms, which among the following (1) 1972 (2) 1981
standard is not true – (3) 1987 (4) 1992
(1) Sulphur should be controlled at 350 ppm in 23. Air (Prevention and control of pollution) act 1981
Diesel was amended in 1987 to include __________ as an
(2) Sulphur should be controlled at 150 ppm in air pollutant. –
petrol (1) Particulated matter
(3) Aromatic hydrocarbons should be contained at (2) Hydrocarbons
42 percent
(3) Noise
(4) Sulphur content should be controlled at 50 ppm
(4) Radioactive pollutants
in petrol and diesel
E
24. The Specific intensity of noise, which may damage 30. Unlike domestic sewage, waste water from industries
ear drums and causes permanently impairing hearing like petroleum, paper manufacturing, metal
ability is – extractions and processing etc. are often important
source of water pollution. Out of these heavy metals
(1) Equal and less than 150 dB
are –
(2) Equal and more than 150 dB
(1) Elements with density < 5 g/cm3
(3) Less than 20 dB
(2) Elements with density < 5 g/cm2
(4) Less than 80 dB
(3) Elements with density > 5g /cm3
25. Noise as one of the important air pollutant is not
(4) Elements with density > 5g/ cm2
responsible for –
31. Biomagnification - an increase in concentration of
(1) Sleeplessness
toxic substances at successive trophic levels, is well
(2) Increase heart beating known for –
(3) Altered breathing pattern (1) DDT
(4) Decreased oxygen carrying capacity (2) Mercury
26. To safe guard our water resources, water (prevention (3) CO
and control of pollution) act was came in force –
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) 1971 (2) 1972
32. Pollutants from man’s activities like effluents from
(3) 1974 (4) 1981 industries and homes can radically accelerate the
27. Regarding to composition of waste water which among aging of lake, that is known as –
the following is not true – (1) Cultural Eutrophication
(1) Suspended solid – sand, silt & clay (2) Accelerated Eutrophication
(2) Colloidal matter – faecal matter, bacteria & cloth (3) Rising Eutrophication
(3) Dissolved material – nitrate, ammonia & (4) Both (1) & (2)
phosphate
33. Integrated waste water treatment plant of town of
(4) Dissolved material – faecal matter, bacteria & Arcata is supported by biologists of Humboldt state
nutrients university, involves –
28. Domestic sewage primarily contains – (1) Conventional sedimentation
(1) Suspended solid (2) Filteration
(2) Colloidal matter (3) Series of six marshes
(3) Biodegradable matter (4) All the above

(4) Dissolved matter 34. Series of six connected marshes over 60 hectares of
29. About highly sewage polluted water, what is true – marshland, with appropriate plants, algae, fungi and
bacteria is responsible for –
(1) High DO and BOD
(1) Neutrilisation of pollutants
(2) High DO and less BOD
(2) Absorbtion of pollutants
(3) Low DO and low BOD
(3) Assimillation of pollutants
(4) Low DO and high BOD
(4) All the above
E
35. Practical ,hygienic efficient and cost effective solution 42. Green house effect leads to deleterious changes in
to human waste disposal is – the environment and resulting in odd climatic
changes. Which among the following is not the control
(1) Eco - San toilets (2) Natural toilets
measure of it –
(3) Ecofriendly toilets (4) Ecological sanitation
(1) Cutting down the use of fossil fuel
36. Open dumps often serve as breeding ground for rats
(2) Improving efficiency of energy usage
and flies and not burnt to completion. Which among
(3) Increasing deforestration
the following were adopted as the substitute for open
burning dumps – (4) Slowing down the human population
43. The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from
(1) Eco san
ground to top of the atmosphere is measured in terms
(2) Electronic Burners of –
(3) Sanitary Landfills (1) Decibel (2) Dobson
(4) Solar Burners (3) Deby (4) Dalton
37. Which among the following was developed by 44. Cl atoms released from CFC show degradation of
company of Ahmed Khan by a fine powder of ozone in which layer of atmoshpere –
recycled modified plastic – (1) Trophosphere
(1) Polysterene (2) Polyblend (2) Stratosphere
(3) Polyethylene (4) Polyplastic (3) Ionosphere

(4) Thermosphere
38. With which polyblend was mixed to lay roads. Which
show increased water repellant properties – 45. Which among the following is not the influence of
UV-B on human health –
(1) Polysterene (2) Bitumen
(1) Aging of skin
(3) Polyethylene (4) Plastic
(2) Inflammation of cornea
39. e - wastes generated in developed countries, is used (3) Cancer of skin
by developing countries for recovery of –
(4) Depigmentation
(1) Gold (2) Nickel 46. Montreal Protocol was come in action from –
(3) Copper (4) All the above (1) 1987 (2) 1988
40. Which among the following is a cyclical, zero waste (3) 1989 (4) 1992
procedure, where waste products from one process 47. The ozone hole over Antarctica develops each year
are cycled in as nutrients for other processes– between –
(1) Integrated organic farming (1) Late August and early October
(2) Integrated remedy for plastic waste
(2) Early August and late October

(3) Integrated waste water treatment (3) Early October and early December
(4) Sustainable waste treatment (4) Late October and late December
41. The unique idea of integrated organic farming was 48. Which of the following is not a result of water logging–
executed by– (1) Deposition of salt crust on land
(1) Ramesh Chandra Dagar (2) Collection of salts around root
(2) Ahmed Khan (3) Damage to agriculture
(3) Amrita Devi (4) Leaching of salts
(4) Sunderlal Bahuguna
E
49. According to National forest policy (1988) of India 52. Realising the significance of participation by local
has recommended 33% forest cover for plains communities, the goverment of India in 1980s has
and_______% area for hills.– introduced the concept of –
(1) 30% (2) 19.4% (1) Integrated Forest Management [IFM]
(3) 67% (4) 76% (2) Joint forest management [JFM]
50. Slash and Burn agriculture are associated with – (3) National Forest Policy
(1) Deforestration (2) Jhum cultivation (4) Chipko movement
(3) Shifting cultivation (4) All the above
51. Which among the following is not a result of
Deforestration –
(1) Enhanced carbondioxide concentration
(2) loss of biodiversity
(3) Ozone depletion
(4) Disturbed hydrological cycle
ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 4 3 2 4 2 4 1 4 2 4 2 4 3 2 4 1 4 3 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 2 3 2 4 3 4 3 4 3 4 4 4 4 4 3 2 2 4 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52
Ans. 1 3 2 2 4 3 1 4 3 4 3 2

ALLEN - NCERT Based Objective - Biology

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ALLEN - NCERT Based Objective - Biology

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NCERT BASED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS Serial

1. The Living World 1

5. Morphology of Flowering Plants 25

6. Anatomy of Flowering plants 29

8. Cell - The unit of life 34

10. Cell Cycle & Cell Division 44

11. Plant Physiology :

Growth & development 54

12. Digestion and Absorption 57

13. Breathing & Exchange of gases 60

14. Body fluid & Circulation 62

15. Excretory products & their elimination 65

16. Locomotion & Movement 67

17. Neural Control & Coordination 69

THE LIVING WORLD

(1) Only vegetative features of plant species 9. ICZN is used for

(2) Genetic features of plant species (1) Virus

(3) Both vegetative and floral features of plant (2) Bacteria

(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Mycoplasma (1) Plantae (2) Monera

4. Choose the correct statement :- (3) Protista (4) Fungi

(4) Calcium carbonate crystals

(1) Rust and smut

(4) Lichen (3) only a and c

(4) The small subunits of capsid are called peplomers

(1) Morphology of mycelium

(2) Ascomycetes b Beijerineck ii Crystallisation of virus

(3) Basidiomycetes c W.M. Stanley iii Contagium vivum

(4) Deuteromycetes fluidum

(1) It is obtained from red alga

(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Phanerogames (2) Cryptogames only

21. Floridean starch is characteristic feature of :- female gametophyte

22. Gemmae are the structures of :- (1) Heterospory

(3) Some fern plants are heterosporous also (1) Thallophytes

(4) Neck canal cell and antheridium

(2) Physalia, Meandrina (1) Flagellated protozoans

(3) Wuchereria, Culex, Limulus (2) Sporozoans

(3) Ch oanocytes or collar cells line t he (3) Egestion (4) Reproduction

(4) Flagella (1) They have organ level of organisation

(4) Coelenterata, ctenophora and annelida

(3) Sea anemone and sea pen (2) Hydra - Metagenesis

(2) Reptilia - Chameleon, Calotes, Neophron (1) Trygon - Saw Fish

(3) Ornithrohynchus - Penguin

(1) Rana, Clarias, Testudo, Struth io - (C) Ectoparasites on Fishes.

(1) (v) (ii) (i) (iv) (1) Camel (2) Bird

between Pisces and Reptilia because :- List-I List-II

(1) Sea horse (2) Sea lily

(C) Tracheal system - Sepia 94. Consider the following statements :-

(1) A and B (2) B and C (B) Locomotory organelle of Trypanosoma is

(1) A, B and C are correct

3. Closed circulatory system 116. Identify true statements :

(1) 1, 2 and 5 (C) Agnathans are endoparasite in fishes.

(2) Jelly fish is free swimming Coelenterate

143. Identify the correct statement :

(3) Platyhelminthes (2) Notochord present whole life

hemichordates? (1) Jumping (2) Saltatorial

(D) Chitinous exoskeleton (vi) Platyhelminthes

Que . 161 162 163 164

(2) Pinnate compound leaf

(3) Simple leaf (2) Monocarpellary gynoecium, superior ovary

(1) Helps in pollination (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)

(3) Mother axis (4) Position of ovary

(1) Only A (2) Only B a waxy thick layer, called

(3) Only C (4) All A, B and C (1) Hypodermis (2) Cuticle