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ENTHUSIAST COURSE TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024
PRINCIPAL OF INHERITANCE # 01 (INTRODUCTION TO RECIPROCAL CROSS)
1. The character which can express only in 6. In man brown eyes (B) are dominant to blue (b)

homozygous condition in case of garden pea is- and dark hairs (R) dominant to red hairs (r). A

(A) Constricted pod (B) Green seed colour man with brown eyes and dark hairs marries a

(C) Axial flower (D) Yellow pod colour woman with blue eyes & dark hairs. They have
one child with blue eyes and red hairs, what will
(1) A, B & D (2) A, C & D
be possible genotype of man, woman and child
(3) B, C & D (4) A, B & C
respectively?
2. Mendel published his work on inheritance of
(1) BBRR, bbRR, bbrr (2) BBRr, bbRr, bbrr
characters in 1865, but it remained unrecognised
(3) BbRr, bbRr, bbrr (4) BbRR, bbRR, bbRr
till 1900 due to the reason (s) 7. What is the frequency of pure round seeded pea
(A) Communication was not easy in those days. plants in F 2 generation of a dihybrid cross -

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(B) His contemporaries did not accept factors as (1) 4/16 (2) 6/16 (3) 1/16 (4) 2/16
discrete units of heredity. 8. How many types of gametes are produced from
(C) Mathematical approach to explain individual of AABBCcDdee genotype
inheritance was totally new. (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) 7
(D) Mendel could not provide any physical proof 9. How many kinds of gametes can be produced by

for the existence of factors A B C D e F

an individual of genotype :–
a b c d e f
(1) Only A and B are correct
(1) 32 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 4
(2) Only B and C are correct
10. Proportion of progenies with round seed and
(3) Only C and D are correct
violet flowered pea plants if cross is made
(4) All are correct.
between BbWw and bbWw would by -
3. Which is not true for test cross -
(1) 3 / 8 (2) 1 / 8
(1) F 2 Dihybrid test cross ratio is 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (3) 4 / 8 (4) 2 / 8
(2) Performed to know the alleles of a gene in 11. Ratio of dominant and recessive for both
an individual. character plants in F 2 generation of dihybrid
(3) A test cross is a back cross cross :-
(4) Dominant offsprings in test cross is always (1) 1 : 1 (2) 5 : 3
homozygous. (3) 9 : 1 (4) 3 : 1

4. What percentage of offsprings would have the 12. Which will not the genotype of pollen grain of a

genotype AA Bb Cc in F 2 generation of a plant with genotype HHbbDdnnMMaa :-

(1) HbdNMa (2) HbDnMa
trihybrid cross -
(3) HbdnMa (4) All the above
(1) 12.5% (2) 6.25%
13. What is the probability of gamete AbC produced
(3) 25% (4) 37.5%
by a plant having genotype AaBbCc (If all the
5. Total number of genotypes and phenotypes in a
genes are situated on different chromosomes) ?
dihybrid test cross is -
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 13 2 4 6 8

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TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024 ENTHUSIAST COURSE
14. A plant has genotype TtRrGgPP. On selfing of 19. Which of the following crossess will produce
this plant, what is the sum total of phenotypic 1 : 1 phenotypic ratio :-
categories ? (1) AaBb × aabb (2) AaBB × aaBB
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) aabb × aabb (4) AABB × aabb
(3) 4 (4) 27 20. How many mendelian characters in pea plant
15. Location of a particular gene on sex were based on colour.
chromosome or autosomes can be identified by - (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
(1) Test cross (2) Out cross 21. 81 genotypes in a hybrid selfing will produces
(3) Back cross (4) Reciprocal cross how many phenotypes ?
16. In a dihybrid cross involving (1) 81 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 32
RRTT(red tall) × rrtt(white dwarf), what will be 22. What is the probability of obtaining pure
the ratio of red & tall plants in F 2 generation - homozygous individuals, if a cross is

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(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 3 made between AaBbCcDd × aaBBCCdd
17. Offsprings of which cross will be phenotypically individuals ?
& genotypically similar - 2 1 16 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) Dd × Dd (2) DD × dd 16 16 248 64
(3) DD × Dd (4) Ww × Ww 23. A human male is heterozygous for two
18. What will be the phenotypic ratio of offsprings of autosomal genes A & B and homozygous
F 2 generation obtained by selfing of F 1 plant dominant for 3rd autosomal gene C.
having AABbCC genotype The individual is having sry gene (S) on its
(1) 3 : 1 Y–chromosome. What will be the probability of
(2) 1 : 1 sperms to carry abcS condition?
(3) 0 : 3 : 3 : 1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) 0 (4)
(4) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1 4 8 16

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ENTHUSIAST COURSE TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024
PRINCIPAL OF INHERITANCE # 02 (GENE INTERACTION TO CYTOPLASMIC INHERITANCE)
1. Genes or alleles which can express independently 7. In a plant, two genes have cumulative influence
when they are present together and also follow on the weight of fruits. Each dominant allele adds
the law of segregation are - 10g to a minimum basic weight of 30g. In a
(1) Multiple genes cross between dihybrid plants having fruits
(2) Codominant genes weighing 50g each, what percentage of the
(3) Epistatic genes offspring would have fruits weighing 40g :-
(4) Complementary genes (1) 12.5% (2) 25%
2. Maximum height of a plant is 30ft. and minimum (3) 37.5% (4) 50%
height is 10 ft. If plant height is controlled by 8. Multiple alleles can be found only when a
3 pairs of genes, then the height of plant with population is studied because -
genotype AaBbCc will be - (1) An individual has only two alleles.

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(1) 13.2 ft. (2) 23.2 ft. (2) A single trait is controlled by more than two
(3) 16.6 ft. (4) 19.9 ft. alleles.
3. What percentage of pea seeds would have (3) A single gene affects different characters.
intermediate size of starch grains in F2 (4) It has quantitative inheritance.
generation? 9. What phenotypic ratio is obtained by selfing of a
(1) 0% (2) 25% dihybrid, in which one gene pairs is completely
(3) 50% (4) 75% dominant and one gene pair is incompletely
4. Select wrong statement with respect to multiple dominant ?
alleles - (1) 18 : 6 : 6 : 2 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(1) It can be detected only in a population. (2) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 1 : 3 : 3
(2) They are mutant forms of the same gene. (3) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1
(3) Number of phenotypes in multiple alleles is (4) 18 : 6 : 6 : 2 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 : 1 : 2 : 1
calculated by formula 2n + 1. 10. If all the four children of a family will not have
(4) They occupy same locus on homologous
similar blood group, than what will be the blood
chromosomes.
group genotype of father & mother ?
5. In co-dominance the genes of an allelomorphic
(1) IA IA and IB IB
pair express ............ and follow law of ..........
(2) IA IO and IB IB
(1) Equally independent assortment
(2) Unequally, dominance (3) IA IO and IB IO
(3) Equally, segregation (4) IA IA and IB IO
(4) Equally, dominance 11. The ratio between carrier, disease free &
6. In Mirabilis jalapa, the percentage of plants diseased individual on marriage between two
having pink and red flowers would be .............. carriers of sickle cell anaemia will be -
when pink flower plant is test crossed. (1) 0 : 2 : 1
(1) 25% pink & 25% red (2) 0 : 1 : 1
(2) 50% pink & 50% red (3) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 50% pink & 0% red (4) 2 : 1 : 1
(4) 0% pink & 50% red

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TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024 ENTHUSIAST COURSE
12. A monohybrid cross between two plants, one 15. In a complimentary gene interaction calculate the
having 24 cm long internode and other having number of phenotype and genotype produced in
12 cm long internode, produces F 1 hybrid, all a cross AaBb × aaBB.
having 18 cm long internodes. This is a case of (1) 1 phenotype, 2 genotypes
(1) Complete dominance (2) 2 phenotypes, 4 genotypes
(2) Incomplete dominance (3) 4 phenotypes, 4 genotypes
(3) Co-dominance (4) 2 phenotypes, 2 genotypes
(4) Multiple allelism 16. How many genotype are produced in F 2
13. In a polygenic inheritance of skin colours generation in a dihybrid cross if both genes are
controlled by two gene pairs, how many pleiotropic -
phenotypes, mulattoes and total progenies are (1) 3
formed in F 2 (2) 4
(1) 3, 3, 16 respectively (3) 9
(2) 5, 6, 16 respectively (4) Cannot be calculated

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(3) 7, 20, 64 respectively 17. If a particular trait is controlled by 2 gene pairs
(4) 7, 6, 16 respectively (polygenic), then calculate the total number of
14. What would be the phenotypic ratio in F 2 phenotype and genotypes in F 2 generation
generation in a dihybrid cross if both the genes (1) 13 (2) 8 (3) 14 (4) 27
show incomplete dominance. 18. In Pea plant, when homozygous round seeded
(1) 2 : 2 : 2 : 2 plant is crossed with homozygous wrinkled
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 seeded plant, then the offsprings will be :-
(3) 6 : 3 : 2 : 1 (1) 100 % with large starch grains
(4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 75 % with medium sized starch grains
(3) 25 % with small sized starch grains
(4) 0 % with small sized starch grains

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ENTHUSIAST COURSE TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024
PRINCIPAL OF INHERITANCE # 03
(CHROMOSOMAL THEORY OF INHERITANCE TO SEX DETERMINATION)
1. What percentage of progenies when there is 8. Two genes a and b are linked and show 30%
marriage between colourblind father's son and recombination. If ++ / ++ individual married
colourblind mother's daughter - with ab / ab then the types and proportion of
(1) 50% sons colour blind gametes in F 1 will be -
(2) 50% daughters carriers
(1) ++ 35% : ab : 35% : + a 15% : +b 15%
(3) 50% daughters normal
(2) ++ 15% : ab : 15% : + a 35% : +b 35%
(4) All of these
(3) ++ 35% : ab : 15% : + a 35% : +b 15%
2. Red eyed female Drosophila is crossed with
(4) ++ 15% : ab : 35% : + a 15% : +b 35%
white eyed male. If this cross results in 50%
progeny being red eyed, we can say that - 9. How many types of gametes are formed by a
(1) Both parents were hemizygous plant having AaBbCc genotype, in which all
(2) Female parent was heterozygous genes shows complete linkage with Cis

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(3) Female parent was pure arrangement.
(4) Both parents were pure (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 8
3. In a linear chromosome, map distance between 10. Which of the following gametic combination will
four loci are ab = 12, bc = 4, ad = 2, ac = 8.
not form in plant having AaBbCc genotype, in
The distance between c and d will be -
which A & B genes shows complete linkage &
(1) 10% (2) 6%
cis arrangement.
(3) 10% or 6% (4) 3% or 6%
4. How many linkage groups are present in female (1) ABC (2) ABc

honey bee ? (3) abC (4) aBC

(1) 32 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 4 11. If father is normal and mother is colour blind.
5. In a certain taxon of insects some have then :-
17 chromosomes and the other have (1) All offsprings will be affected
18 chromosomes. The 17 and 18 chromosome (2) Only female child will be affected
bearing organisms are :- (3) Only male child will be affected
(1) Male and females, respectively (4) One male and female child will be affected
(2) Females and males, respectively
12. If both parent are bald and their first female child
(3) All males
is normal, then the chances of baldness in their
(4) All females
6. What will be the percentage inheritance of a second male child is :-

disorder from an X-linked diseased father to his (1) 50% (2) 100% (3) 25% (4) 0%
son. 13. A dihybrid plant with genotype PpNn. It
(1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 100% produces four types of gametes in following
7. A homozygous recessive with cd genes was number
crossed with dominant (+ +). If their hybrid is test PN = 200, pn = 200, Pn = 800, pN = 800
crossed and the following result was obtained then what is the distance between linked genes?
++ - 900 (1) 30 cM (2) 10 cM
cd - 880
(3) 25 cM (4) 20 cM
+d - 115
14. Find out the % of plants, which are dominant for
+c - 105
than what will be the distance between genes c ++
both the character by the cross of with it's
ab
and d.
(1) 5.75 unit (2) 11 unit recessive form, if 20% recombination is present:-
(3) 44 unit (4) 90 unit (1) 10% (2) 20% (3) 45% (4) 40%

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TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024 ENTHUSIAST COURSE
15. Four genes A, B, C and D located on 18. By the cross of F 1 linked dihybrid plant with a
chromosome and cross over frequencies between plant of genotype aabb, we get the 1300 plants
different genes are : out of 2000 of parental type. The distance
A – D ⇒ 20%, A – C ⇒ 4% between A and B gene is :-
C – D ⇒ 16%, B – C = 9% (1) 35 map unit
A – B = 5% (2) 15 map unit
based on above data, what is the arrangement of (3) 65 map unit
linked gene on chromosome (4) 65 kello meter
(1) A – B – C – D (2) B A C D ++
19. Genotype of plant is and there is 18%
(3) C B A D (4) C A B D ab
16. A woman of normal vision whose father was recombination present in it then percentage of
colourblind, marries a man of normal vision, gametes will be :-
whose father was also colourblind. The sons of (1) AB = 9% (2) ab = 18%
this marriage would be :- (3) Ab = 9% (4) aB = 41%

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(1) All normal (2) All colourblind
(3) 50% colourblind (4) 100% colourblind
17. If a colourblind female marries a normal male
(XY) then :-
(1) All the sons are normal
(2) All the sons are colourblind
(3) All the daughter are colourblind
(4) Both sons and daughters are colourblind

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ENTHUSIAST COURSE TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024
PRINCIPAL OF INHERITANCE # 04 (HUMAN GENETICS TO POPULATION GENETICS)
1. Find out the number of dominant individual in a 6. What is the number of tongue roller (dominant)
population of 6000, if the frequency of recessive persons in a population of 4000 if frequency of
phenotype is 25% non-roller allele is 0.4 ?
(1) 3000 (2) 4500 (1) 3360 (2) 1920 (3) 1440 (4) 640
(3) 1500 (4) 2000 7. What is the probability of all the offsprings to be
2. The frequency of an autosomal recessive gene is girls to a couple if mother delivers three alive and
0.4. Then what will be the frequency of two still births ?
heterozygotes in progeny among 4000 (1) 1/8 (2) 1/4 (3) 1/32 (4) 1/16
individual ?
8. In the given pedigree, find out the shaded
(1) 2000 (2) 1920 (3) 2400 (4) 1600
symbols indicate whether the trait is dominant or
3. In this given pedigree what will be the nature of

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recessive :
inheritance :

(1) Dominant
(2) Recessive
(1) X-linked dominant
(3) Co-dominant
(2) Y-linked
(4) May be dominant or recessive
(3) Autosomal dominant
9. Find out the number of heterozygous free ear
(4) Autosomal recessive
lobed persons in a population of 3000 if the
4. In this pedigree if III–2 married to a normal
proportion of fused ear lobed persons is 9%:
female, what will be the chances of first child
(1) 1260 (2) 1470
being a diseased child ?
(3) 270 (4) 2730
I
1 2
10. In pedigree analysis the symbol represents :-
II
3 (1) Consanguineous marriage
1 2 4 5 6
III (2) Sex unspecified
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 (3) Monozygotic twin
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(4) Dizygotic twin
(3) 100% (4) Both (2) & (3)
11. If in a population, frequency of organisms of
5. I recessive trait is 25% then calculate the
1 2
frequency of recessive allele :
II
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 5%
1 2 3 4 12. If the frequency of recesive phenotype is 9%
If II-2 marries to a normal man, what is the then find out the number of homozygous
chance of her first child being a haemophilic boy: organisms in population of 50,000 individuals:-
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 100% (1) 42,000 (2) 29,000
(3) 4500 (4) 24,500

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TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024 ENTHUSIAST COURSE
13. Given pedigree (a) & (b) shows the inheritance of 14. In the pedigree shown below, individuals with the
a particular genetical disorder. Choose the solid symbols suffers from albinism. You would
correct combination. counsel the couple A & B that the probability
(a) that each of their child will have the disease is :-

A B
?
(1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75%
(b)

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(1) a – Sickle cell Anaemia,
b – Myotonic dystrophy
(2) a – Myotonic dystrophy,
b – Sickle cell Anaemia
(3) a – Pseudoricketes,
b – Colourblindness
(4) a – Colourblindness,
b – Pseudoricketes

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ENTHUSIAST COURSE TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE # 01
(NUCLEIC ACIDS TO MECHANISM OF DNA REPLICATION)
1. A DNA molecule in which both stands have 6. Consider the following four statements A, B, C
radioactive thymidine is allowed to duplicate in and D and select the right option for two correct
an environment containing non-radioactive statement :-
thymidine. What will be the exact number of Statements :-
DNA molecules that contain some radioactive (A) RNA was first genetic material
thymidine after 3 duplication ?
(B) 5-methyl uracil found in all RNA
(1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Eight
(C) DNA polymerase-III does not require RNA
2. Enzyme, that is not participates in the process of
primer for the synthesis of DNA strand
DNA-replication in prokaryotes :-
(D) RNA primer formed during the process of
(1) DNA ligase
DNA replication.
(2) DNA topoisomerase

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The correct statements are :-
(3) Reverse transcriptase
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)
(4) DNA polymerase
(3) (A) and (D) (4) (A) and (C)
3. Which of the following is not a characteristic
feature of genetic material ? 7. If E.coli containing N -N
15 15
DNA was allowed to
14
(a) It should be chemically and structurally grow for 80 minutes in medium containing N
less stable then, what would be the percentage of light
(b) It should be able to produce its replica density and hybrid density DNA molecule ?
(c) It should be more reactive (1) 87.5% light density ; 12.5% hybrid density
(d) It does not follow Mendelian inheritance (2) 75% light density ; 25% hybrid density
(e) It provides scope for slow changes i.e. (3) 25% light density ; 75% hybrid density
mutation (4) 12.5% light density ; 87.5% hybrid density
(1) only a, b, c and d
8. Which is not found in DNA ?
(2) b, c, a, d, e
(1) Deoxy ribose sugar
(3) c, d, e
(2) 5-methyl uracil
(4) a, c, d
(3) Demethylated thymine
4. Viruses having RNA genome evolve faster,
(4) H 3 PO 4
because :-
(1) RNA is comparatively unstable, so mutate 9. A segment of DNA molecule contains 20,000

at a faster rate base pairs. What is the number of phosphate

(2) RNA is stable, and mutate at a slow rate molecule in this DNA molecule ?
(3) RNA is chemically less reactive (1) 20,000 (2) 40,000
(4) RNA is double stranded (3) 10,000 (4) 5,000
5. DNA is better genetic material than RNA, 10. In a segment of ds-DNA molecule there occurs
because:- 200 molecules of adenine nitrogen bases and
(1) DNA is chemically less reactive and 200 molecules of cytosine nitrogen bases. What
structurally more stable as compared to RNA
will be the total number of purine nitrogen bases
(2) Presence of thymine at the place of uracil
in this segment ?
provides additional stability to DNA
(1) 800 (2) 400
(3) DNA being stable, so mutate at a slow rate
(3) 100 (4) 200
(4) All the above

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TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024 ENTHUSIAST COURSE
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE # 02
(RIBO NUCLEIC ACID TO TRANSLATION)
1. The following features occur during protein 4. Several proteins may be produced at the same
synthesis: time from a single m-RNA by :-
(i) Movement of m-RNA from the nucleus (1) the action of several ribosomes in a string
into the cytoplasm, where it binds to the
called a polyribosome
ribosomes
(2) several RNA polymerase molecules
(ii) Transcription of specific segments of DNA
into m-RNA molecules in the nucleus working sequentially

(iii) Binding of N-terminal amino acid, (3) single peptides that associate ribosomes
methionine t-RNA to the 'P' site of the with rough E.R.
ribosome. The t-RNA anticodon "pairs (4) the involvement of multiple spliceosomes
with AUG on m-RNA" complex
(iv) Formation of peptide bond between first

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5. All of the following would be found in a
and second amino acids at the 'A' site
prokaryotic cell except :-
(v) Release of the completed polypeptide
chain from ribosomes (1) m-RNA
(vi) Migration of dipeptide to form a tripeptide (2) r-RNA
and then a polypeptide (3) simultaneous transcription and translation
The correct order of events is (4) sn-RNA
(1) (iii) – (ii) – (i) – (iv) – (v) – (vi)
6. A functional unit of gene which speciefic the
(2) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (v) – (vi)
synthesis of one polypeptide is known as :-
(3) (iii) – (i) – (ii) – (iv) – (v) – (vi)
(4) (ii) – (i) – (iii) – (iv) – (vi) – (v) (1) recon (2) clone

2. TMV infects a variety of plants, including Zinnia (3) codon (4) cistron
and tobacco. When TMV-RNA is used for 7. A DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis
infection, the amino acid sequence of the coat of all the following except :
protein of the progeny is the same whether the (1) t-RNA molecule
host is Zinnia or tobacco. This proves that the
(2) m-RNA molecule
genetic code is :-
(3) another DNA strand
(1) degenerate
(2) universal (4) protein synthesis

(3) unidirectional 8. Because most of the amino acids are represented

(4) non-overlapping by more than one codons, the genetic code is
3. Transfer RNA :- said to be :-
(1) forms hydrogen bonds between its codon (1) deaminated
and the anticodon of an m-RNA in the 'A'
(2) comma less
site of a ribosome
(3) degenerate
(2) binds specific amino acid by the help of
(4) overlapping
aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase
9. Which of the following RNA has structural and
(3) uses GTP as the energy source to bind its
catalytic role in translation ?
amino acid
(1) m-RNA (2) t-RNA
(4) is translated from m-RNA
(3) r-RNA (4) g-RNA

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ENTHUSIAST COURSE TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024
10. Match the column–I with column–II and select
the correct answer :-
Column-I Column-II
(A) Replication (i) RNA→DNA
(B) Transcription (ii) m-RNA→protein
(C) Translation (iii) DNA→mRNA
(D) Reverse transcription (iv) DNA→DNA
(E) Ribosome (v) r-RNA + protein
(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv, E–v
(2) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv, E–v
(3) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i, E–v
(4) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i, E–v

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TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2024 ENTHUSIAST COURSE
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE # 03
(REGULATION OF GENE EXPRESSION TO HUMAN GENOME PROJECT)
1. Which of the following statement is incorrect 7. Find an incorrect statement with respect to
with respect to Lac operon ? results of HGP :-
(1) Single promoter for three structural genes, (1) Dystrophin protein gene, is the largest gene
lac z, lac y, lac a of human genome.
(2) Polycistronic m-RNA formation (2) Chromosome Y has minimum 231 genes
(3) Glucose results in induction of Lac operon (3) SNPs are identified at about 2.4 million
locations.
(4) Repressor protein shows negative control
(4) The functions are unknown for over 50%
2. In structure of normal DNA, replacement of one
of discovered genes.
nitrogenous base by another nitrogenous base is
8. If there are four different types of nitrogeneous
called as 'A' and replacement of adenine by
bases (A, T, G and C) then how many different
guanine is called as 'B'. In the above statement A
types of transitions and transversions are

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& B here refers to :-
possible?
(1) A → Substitution B → Transition (1) Transition = 8, Transversion = 4
(2) A →Point mutation B → Transversion (2) Transition = 4, Transversion = 4
(3) A → Frame shift mutation B → Transversion (3) Transition = 8, Transversion = 8
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) Transition = 4, Transversion = 8
3. In the octaploid wheat, the haploid(n) and basic 9. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. HGP :
numbers(X) of chromosomes are :- (1) Expressed Sequence Tags - Identifying all the
(1) n = 21, X = 7 (2) n = 7, X = 21 genes that are expressed as RNA
(3) n = 28, X = 7 (4) n = 7, X = 28 (2) Sequence Annotation - Sequencing both
4. A classical example of point mutation is a change coding and non-coding sequences then
assigning different regions with functions
of single base pair in the gene for beta globin
(3) YAC and BAC - Cloning vectors
chain that results in the change of amino acid
(4) Human chromosome number 22 - The last
residue glutamate to valine. It result into a
chromosome to be sequenced
diseased condition called as :-
10. Which one is correct for variable number tandem
(1) Sickle cell anemia (2) Phenylketonuria
repeat (VNTR) :
(3) Haemophila (4) Thalassemia
(1) Is a location in a genome where nucleotide
5. Select the incorrect statement for RFLP :-
sequence is organised as tandem repeat
(1) It is the basis of DNA fingerprinting (2) The number of repeat varies from
(2) It is due to variable length of restricted chromosome to chromosome in an individual
fragment. and also between individuals
(3) It is due to variable number of minisatellite. (3) Its size varies from 0.1 to 20 kbp
(4) It is same for all human beings. (4) All are correct
6. Any Allelic sequence variation has traditionally
been described as DNA polymorphism if more
than one allele at a locus show : -
(1) Frequency greater than 0.01
(2) Frequency less than 0.01
(3) Frequency greater than 1.0
(4) Frequency less than 0.01%

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