CBSE 9 MathsSciSST MockPaper 2023 Q S

SCIENCE
MATHS
CBSE CLASS 9
SAMPLE MOCK PAPERS
WITH SOLUTIONS
Score good marks with extensive systematic practice
with TopperLearning's Sample Mock Test Papers
What’s in store for students?

Sample mock papers with Solutions for Maths, Science & Social Science
Board based PERFECT answers curated by EXPERIENCED teachers
Click on the next page to start

Solving Sample Mock Papers
in Maths, Science & Social Science
Have an Academic Doubt?
Find answers to over

Search your answer by text or 3,00,000+ questions
by a voice from the pool of
already answered queries by Download the App Now
experienced and qualiﬁed
faculty members in a
convenient way.
CBSE
CLASS 9
MATHEMATICS
MOCK PAPER
CBSE CLASS 9 MOCK PAPER
This file belongs to Greycells18 Media Ltd.
CBSE
Class 9 Mathematics
Mock Paper
Time: 3 Hours. Total Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A - E.
2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with subparts
of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2 Qs of 3
marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has been provided
in the 2marks questions of Section E.
8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π = 22/7 wherever required if not stated.
Section A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [20]
1. Zero is a ___________
A. rational number
B. positive number
C. negative number
D. none of above
1
2. On rationalizing the denominator of we get
6
A. 6
B. 6
1
C.
6
6
D.
6
3. If the measures of the sides of a triangle is given by a, b and c, then we calculate the semi-
perimeter by the formula
a bc
A.
2
a bc
B.
3
a bc
C.
4
D. None of the above
www.topperlearning.com 1
4. The total surface area of a sphere is given by
A. 5r2
B. 2r2
C. 4r2
D. 3r2
5. Write the degree of the polynomial 5x2.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
6. Write the coefficient of x in the polynomial 4x3 + 6x2 – 8.

A. 0
B. 1
C. 4
D. 6
7. Let ABCD be a parallelogram. The diagonals bisect in E. If DE = 5 cm and AE = 7 cm, then

find BD.
A. 14 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 7 cm
D. 5 cm
8. Which of the following is (are) not test(s) of congruency of two triangles?

A. ASA
B. AAA
C. SAS
D. SSS
9. If two lines intersect, vertically opposite angles are ______

A. equal
B. supplementary
C. complementary
D. none of the above
10. The diagonal divides a parallelogram into two ______triangles.
A. Right angled
B. equilateral
C. similar
D. congruent
11. In a parallelogram opposite sides are _______

A. parallel
B. equal
C. both A and B
D. None is true
12. Two distinct lines can intersect each other in _____ point/points.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
13. Sum of two linear pair of angles is

A. 45°
B. 90°
C. 160°
D. 180°
14. The sides opposite to equal angles of a triangle are ______.

A. parallel
B. perpendicular
C. equal
D. none of the above
15. Angles in the same segment of a circle are _______

A. equal
B. supplementary
C. complementary
D. can’t say
16. ΔABC and ΔDEF are congruent, then…

A. ∠B = ∠E
B. AC = DF
C. BC = EF
D. all of above
17. Equal ______ of a circle subtend equal angles at the centre.

A. radii
B. tangents
C. chords
D. secants
18. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram in which ∠A = 70°. Calculate ∠B.
A. 70°
B. 100°
C. 90°
D. 110°
DIRECTION: In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option
19. Statement A (Assertion): ΔABC and ΔDEF are congruent, then ∠A = ∠D

Statement R (Reason): Corresponding parts of congruent triangles are equal.
A. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of assertion (A)
B. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A)
C. Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
D. Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
20. Statement A (Assertion): In a circle, minor arc AXB subtends an angle of 45° at the centre
of the circle, and 90° on the remaining part of the circle.
Statement R (Reason): The angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angle
subtended by it at any point on the remaining part of the circle.
A. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of assertion (A)
B. Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is not the correct
C. Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
D. Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Section B
Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 mark each.
21. Find the remainder when x4 + x2 – 8x + 6 is divided by x – 1. Interpret the result. [2]
22. Evaluate 203 × 205 without multiplying directly. [2]
10
23. Express in the decimal form. [2]
7
24. Without actually dividing, state whether the number is a terminating decimal or not: 13
20
[2]
OR
p
Express 0.7777… in the form of .
q
3 3 3
 1   3   5 
25. Without actually calculating the cubes, find the value of         [2]
 2  4  4 
OR
3
a b
Write the cubes in the expanded form:   
2 3
Section C
Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.
26. Sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 12: 17: 25 and its perimeter is 540 cm. Find its
area. [3]
27. Determine which of the following polynomials has (x + 1) as a factor: [3]

(i) x3 + x2 + x + 1
(ii) x4 + x3 + x2 + x + 1
(iii) x4 + 3x3 + 3x2 + x + 1
28. In the given figure, PQR = 100, where P, Q and R are points on a circle with centre O.
Find OPR. [3]
OR
ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral whose diagonals intersect at a point E. If DBC = 70, BAC
is 30, find BCD. Further, if AB = BC, find ECD.
29. Is it possible to construct a frequency polygon without histogram? If yes, construct a

frequency polygon for the below data. [3]
Classes Frequency
Under 10 7
Under 20 19
Under 30 34
Under 40 44
Under 50 50
OR
The below data is given for constructing histogram.
Classes Frequency
0-10 5
10-20 7
20-30 8
30-60 15
Anvi represented this data as below:
Teacher said that there is an error in this histogram.

What do you think? Support your answer with proper reason and graph.
30. Curved surface area of a cone is 308 cm2 and its slant height is 14 cm. Find
(i) radius of the base and (ii) total surface area of the cone. [3]
31. Distribution of weight (in kg) of 100 people is given below: [3]
Weight in Kg Frequency
40–45 13
45–50 25
50–55 28
55–60 15
60–65 12
65–70 5
70–75 2
Construct a histogram for the above distribution.
Section D
Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.
32. Write the following cubes in expanded form: [5]

2x  1 2a  3b
3 3
(i) (ii)
3 3
3   2 
(iii)  x  1 (iv) x  3 y 
2   
OR
Factorise:
i) 4x2 +9y 2 +16z2 +12xy-24yz-16xz
ii) 2x2  y2  8z2  2 2xy  4 2yz  8xz
33. What length of tarpaulin 3 m wide will be required to make conical tent of height 8 m and
base radius 6 m? Assume that the extra length of material that will be required for
stitching margins and wastage in cutting is approximately 20 cm. (Use π = 3.14). [5]
34. ABC and DBC are two isosceles triangles on the same base BC and vertices A and D are
on the same side of BC (see the given figure). If AD is extended to intersect BC at P, show
that
(i) ABD  ACD
(ii) ABP  ACP
(iii) AP bisects A as well as D.
(iv) AP is the perpendicular bisector of BC. [5]
OR
Two sides AB and BC and median AM of one triangle ABC are respectively equal to sides
PQ and QR and median PN of PQR (see the given figure). Show that:
(i) ABM  PQN
(ii) ABC  PQR
35. If D is the mid-point of the hypotenuse AC of a right-angled ΔABC, then prove that BD = ½
AC. [5]
Section E
Case study-based questions are compulsory.
36. To examine the preparation of class 9 students on topic ‘Number System’, Mathematics
teacher writes two numbers on blackboard, and asks few questions to students. Based on
the above information, answer the following questions.
2
i. Write the decimal form of . [1]
11
p
ii. Write form of 0.38 . [2]
q
OR
p m
If form of 0.38 is , then value of (m + n) is [2]
q n
iii. The decimal expansion of 0.38 is _________________ [1]
37. Rita and Renu are playing a board game of TREASURE ISLAND.
Answer the following questions.

i. The coordinates of CAVE of DEATH [1]
ii. The coordinates of THREE PALMS [1]
iii. The distance between FOUR CROSS CLIFF and the CAVE of DEATH is? [2]
OR
What is the distance of SKULL ROCK from x – axis? [2]
38. Advait’s mother gave him some money to buy Papaya from the market at the rate of p(x)
= x2 – 12x – 220. Let α, β are the zeroes of p(x). Based on the above information, answer
the following questions.
i. Find the values of α and β, where α < β. [1]
ii. The value of p(4) is [1]
1 1
iii. If α, β are the zeroes of p(x) = x2 + x – 2, then  is equal to [2]
 
OR
Factorise the polynomial p(x) = x2 – 24x + 128. [2]
CBSE
CLASS 9
SCIENCE
MOCK PAPER
CBSE
Class 9 Science
Mock Paper
Time: 3 Hours. Total Marks: 80
i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions.
A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these
questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to
these questions should be in the range of 50 to 80 words.
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to
these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each
with sub-parts.
SECTION - A
Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions
1-20. There is no negative mark for incorrect response.
1. Valency of hydrogen is 1 and that of sulphur is 2. What should be the formula of

hydrogen sulphide? [1]
a) HS
b) HS2
c) H2S
d) H2S2
2. Which of the following statements is true for colloids? [1]

a) A colloid is a homogeneous mixture.
b) Particles of a colloid can be seen by the naked eye.
c) Particles of a colloid scatter a beam of light passing through it.
d) All the above.
3. Which of the following equations are true for an Element? [1]

(i) Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons
(ii) Atomic number = number of protons + number of electrons
(iii) Atomic mass = number of protons = number of neutrons
(iv) Atomic number = number of protons = number of electrons
a) (i)and(ii)
b) (ii)and(iv)
c) (ii)and(iii)
d) (i) and (iv)
4. Formula unit mass of CaCl2 is: (changed since 2 queries on conservation law) [1]
a) 111 u
b) 75. 5 u
c) 40 u
d) 35.5 u
5. The condition from the following given options which will increase the evaporation of
water is: [1]
a) Less exposed surface area of water
b) Decrease in temperature of water
c) More exposed surface area of water
d) Adding common salt to water
6. There are three isotopes of carbon which are named as C-12, C-13 and C-14. Which one
of the following options is true for the composition of nucleus of these three isotopes?[1]
a) C-12 : 6p+6n, C-13 : 7p+6n, C-14 : 8p+6n
b) C-12 : 6p+6n, C-13 : 6p+7n, C-14 : 6p+8n
c) C-12 : 6p+6n, C-13 : 5p+8n, C-14 : 5p+9n
d) C-12 : 6p+6n, C-13 : 12p+1n, C-14 : 7p+7n
7. According to the law of conservation of mass, mass of reactants will be equal to the mass
of: [1]
a) Products
b) Catalysts
c) Gases evolved
d) Apparatus used for reaction
8. The given figure shows a cell organelle. Which part is associated with the light reactions
of photosynthesis? [1]
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
9. The given figure shows a certain structure of a cell. How is this structure important for
the cell? [1]
a) Regulates cell division

b) Synthesises proteins
c) Provides energy
d) Removes waste products
10. Given below are few statements about hybridisation. Identify the correct statements.[1]
(i) Hybridisation means crossing between genetically dissimilar plants.
(ii) Cross between two varieties is called interspecific hybridisation.
(iii) Introducing genes of desired characters into a plant gives a genetically modified
crop.
(iv) Cross between plants of two species is called intervarietal hybridisation.
a) (ii) and (iv)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (iii) and (iv)
d) (i) and (iii)
11. An archer shoots an arrow. Consider the action force to be the bowstring against the
arrow. What will be the reaction force? [1]
a) Arrow pushing against the bowstring.
b) Weight of the arrow
c) Air resistance against the bow
d) Grip of the archer's hand on the bow
12. A student lowers a body in a container filled with some liquid. He finds that there is a
maximum apparent loss in weight of the body when [1]
a) It just touches the surface of the liquid.
b) It is completely immersed in the liquid.
c) It is partially immersed in the liquid.
d) It is partially immersed and touches the sides of the container.
13. If the velocity of a body changes uniformly from u to v in time t, then what will be the sum
of average velocity and acceleration? [1]
2𝑢
a) 𝑡
2𝑣
b) 𝑡
𝑢+𝑣
c) 𝑡
𝑢−𝑣
d) 𝑡
14. In which one of the following cases is work scientifically said to be done? [1]
a) Mira is studying for her exam.
b) Manish pulls the trolley up to a certain distance.
c) Manoj pushes the wall with no change in the position of the wall.
d) Aruna standing at a bus stop holding a bag in her hand.
15. A type of muscle is shown below. Identify the characteristic feature of this muscle. [1]
a) Long, cylindrical, branched, uninucleate

b) Isodiametrical, spherical, unbranched, uninucleate
c) Long, cylindrical, unbranched, multinucleate
d) Isodiametrical, spherical, unbranched, multinucleate
16. Where is the given tissue likely to be found in the body? [1]
a) Wall of the heart

b) Cavity of the nose
c) Lining of the digestive tract
d) Around the muscles, blood vessels and nerves
Question No. 17 to 20 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
17. Assertion: An atom is the smallest particle in the element that has the properties of
element.
Reason: Molecules are formed by the combination of two or more atoms. [1]
18. Assertion: The inner mitochondrial membrane is highly folded.

Reason: This increases the surface area for ATP synthesis. [1]
19. Assertion: The sensation of sound persists in our brain for about 0.1 s.
Reason: The sound returning towards the source after getting reflected from a distant
obstacle is called an echo. [1]
20. Assertion: Epithelial tissues are covering or protective tissues.

Reason: Materials are exchanged at the surface across the epithelial tissues. [1]
SECTION – B
Question No. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.
21. What are the types of molecules? [2]
22. Figures A, B and C represent the cross-section of three different types of plant tissues.[2]
(a) Which tissue - A, B or C, provides mechanical strength and flexibility to the plant
body?
(b) Which tissue – A, B or C, can be modified to form air cavities in aquatic plants?
23. Why does the skin of your fingers shrink when you wash clothes for a long time? [2]
OR
Why does a person start vomiting after consuming a concentrated salt solution?
24. A moving train is brought to rest within 20 seconds by applying brakes. Find the initial
velocity if retardation due to applying brakes is 2 m/s2. [2]
25. Why do we always prefer to use seat belts in cars? Justify your answer with appropriate
reasons. [2]
OR
Why do the fruits and leaves fall off the branches in strong wind?
26. Crossbreeding is done among poultry breeds to improve the quality and productivity of
eggs and chicken. List any four desirable traits for which cross breeding is done among
poultry breeds. [2]
SECTION – C
Question No. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.

27. Name the type of colloid from the following in which the dispersed phase and the
dispersing medium are [3]
(a) Liquid and gas
(b) Liquid and liquid
(c) Liquid and solid
Give one example of each.
28. Elements are classified as metals, non-metals and metalloids. Give any one property of
each. Also give one example of each. [3]
OR
Amisha was asked by her teacher to fill up the empty spaces given in the below illustration
based one element symbol, atomic number and atomic mass number. Could you help her
to do so?
29. Observe the figure carefully and answer the questions based on it. [3]
(a) Identify P and Q.

(b) What is the role of P in the cell?
(c) What will happen in the absence of Q in the cell?
30. Explain what is meant by the term vermicompost. Suggest two reasons why it is useful
for the germination of seeds that are free from plant diseases. [3]
31. [3]
(a) Define 1 watt of power. A lamp consumes 1000 J of electrical energy in 10 s. Calculate
its power.
(b) An electric bulb is rated 15 watts. What does it mean?
(c) For the above case, what is the energy consumed in joules if it is used for 10 minutes?
32. [3]
(a) Define force and state its three effects.
(b) Why do the fruits and leaves fall off the branches in a strong wind?
(c) Calculate the force which produces an acceleration of 3m/s2 on a body of mass 20 g.
33. [3]
(a) List two factors on which speed of sound depends.
(b) Distinguish between intensity of sound and loudness of sound.
(c) The frequency and wavelength of sound wave are 2 kHz and 0.35 m respectively. Find
the time it will take to travel a distance of 1.5 km.
SECTION – D
Question No. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.

34. [5]
(a)
(i) Reena stood there watching her mother roll papads large enough to last a year.
Reena questioned her mother about why she only produces ready-to-fry raw
crispy papad in the summer and not in the monsoon or winter seasons. Could you
please explain?
(ii) Meenal wanted to enjoy her mother's hot Manchurian soup before leaving the
house. The soup was too hot to swallow, but Meenal was in a hurry.
So, her mother told her to pour the hot soup into a saucer and sip it gently. What
do you suppose the rationale is?
(b) Write the chemical formulae of the following compounds:
(i) Magnesium sulphate
(ii) Ammonium bicarbonate
OR
Answer the following questions:
(a) What happens when a liquid is left exposed to air?
(b) List the factors which affect the rate of evaporation and explain their effect on it.
35. [5]
(a) How does cork act as a protective tissue?
(b) Observe the figure carefully and answer the questions based on it.
(i) Label the parts marked A and B.

(ii) What is the role of A and B in plants?
OR
(a) Write the location and function of collenchyma tissue.

(b) Draw a diagram of collenchyma tissue and label any four of its parts.
(c) Identify the region of the stem marked 'A' in the diagram below and the type of
simple permanent tissue found in this region.
(d) Mention any two characteristic features of the cells found in this tissue.
36. [5]
(a) State the Universal Law of Gravitation.
(b) Calculate the force of gravitation between the earth and the sun. [Given that the mass
of the earth = 6 x 1024 kg, mass of the sun = 2 x 1030 kg, average distance between the
two is 1.5 x 10-11 m and G = 6.67 x 10-11 Nm2kg-2].
(c) A planet’s weight is twice that of earth and the radius is 3 times that of earth. Find the
acceleration due to gravity of that planet.
OR
(a) Explain why swimmers are provided with an inflated rubber jacket/tube?
(b) It is easier to swim in seawater than in river water. Why?
(c) The density of turpentine at 293 K is given as 870 kg/m3.
Identify and write the names of substances that sink in turpentine at the same
temperature.
Sr. No Substance Density (kg/m3)
1 Wood 690
2 Ice 920
3 Rubber 970
4 Paraffin Wax 900
5 Cork 240
6 Bone 1850
(d) State the conditions under which the object will float? Ships are made of iron and
steel, yet they float on water. Why?
SECTION - E
Question No. 37 to 39 are case-based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-parts.
Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.
37. In 1911, Earnest Rutherford, a scientist from New Zealand, overturned Thomson’s atomic
model by his gold foil experiment. Rutherford selected a gold foil as he wanted a very thin
layer. The gold foil used by Rutherford was 0.004 millimetres in thickness. That is, the foil
was about 1000 atoms thick. In his experiment, fast moving α-particles (alpha particles)
were made to fall on a thin gold foil. The α-particles are helium ions with a +2 charge. Their
atomic mass is 4 u. Hence, a high velocity beam of α-particles has a lot of energy. These
particles were studied by means of flashes of light they produced on striking a zinc
sulphide screen. The α-particles are much heavier than the sub-atomic particles present
in gold atoms. Hence, he expected the α-particles to pass through the gold foil with little
deflection and strike the fluorescent screen.
But the observations he made were quite unexpected.

(a) Answer the following questions: [2]
(i) What are the alpha particles in Rutherford scattering experiment?
(ii) What happened to the particles that Rutherford used in his experiment?
(b) What information does it give about the structure of the atom? [2]
OR
(b) How did Rutherford detect where the particles were strike at the gold foil?
38. Plastids are an important cell organelle found only in plant cells. There are different types
of plastids each with a varied characteristic and function. Some provide colour to the
flowers and fruits, some assist in food production while some store starch and proteins.
[4]
(a) What is the function of leucoplasts?

(b) Which plastid provides colour to flowers and fruits?
(c) What is chloroplast? State its function.
OR
(c) Explain what are amyloplasts, elaioplasts and proteinoplasts.
39. Assume Raj is driving a taxi from point O to point F on a straight road, and the velocity of
the car was measured every 4 seconds with a device. Now, consider the velocity vs. time
graph was plotted for the given case, as shown below. [4]
Answer the following questions based on the given information.

(a) During which part of the journey was the car moving fastest?
(b) During which part of the journey did the car have the greatest acceleration?
(c) During which part of the journey was the car moving with zero acceleration? Calculate
the acceleration between points D and E.
OR
(c) What is the quantity which is measured by the area occupied below the velocity-time
graph? If sudden brakes are applied between point B and C then, find the rate of
deceleration of car if it stops after 6 seconds after applying the brakes.
CBSE
CLASS 9
SOCIAL SCIENCE
MOCK PAPER
CBSE
Class 9 Social Science
Mock Paper
Time: 3 Hours. Max. Marks: 80
(i) Question paper comprises six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A – Question no. 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
(iii) Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are VeryShort Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
(iv) Section C – Question no. 25 to 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
(v) Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are Long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
(vi) Section E – Question no. 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are
of 4 marks each.
(vii) Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37.a from History
(2 marks) and 37.b from Geography (3 marks).
(viii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(ix) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question,
wherever necessary.
SECTION A
Answer the following multiple choice questions. [1x20]
1. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and chose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The American government introduced the Dawes Plan in 1924 to bail out
Germany from its economic crisis.
Reason (R): In 1923, Germany started printing paper currency on a massive scale
leading to hyperinflation. [1]
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
2. Who was the author of ‘The Spirit of the Laws?’ [1]

(a) Rousseau
(b) Montesquieu
(c) John Lock
(d) Thomas Hobbes
3. The collective farms in Russia were known as [1]

(a) Kolkhoz
(b) Aurora
(c) Jadidists
(d) Kulaks
4. The below picture depicts which event related to the French Revolution? [1]
(a) Storming of the Bastille Prison

(b) The Tennis Court oath
(c) The ‘Reign of Terror’ under Robespierre
(d) The crowning ceremony of Napoleon Bonaparte
5. In which division of the Himalayas are the famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu
located? [1]
(a) The Himadri
(b) The Himachal
(c) The Shiwaliks
(d) The Duns
6. Which of the following is NOT a tributary of Godavari? [1]

(a) Purna
(b) Wardha
(c) Wainganga
(d) Lohit
7. In which of the following case, the real power was exercised by the external powers and not
the government? [1]
(a) Communist rule in Poland
(b) Military rule in Pakistan
(c) Indians in Sri Lanka
(d) Government in former USSR
8. Who among the following was the Vice Chairman of the Constitutional Assembly? [1]
(a) T.T. Krishnamachari
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Jaidev Singh
(d) H.C. Mookherjee
9. President Nelson Mandela spent 28 years in prison in which of the following islands? [1]
(a) Maui Island
(b) St. Lucia Island
(c) Robben Island
(d) Australia
10. The percentage of eligible voters who cast their votes in an election are known as [1]
(a) Turnout
(b) Rigging
(c) Incumbent
(d) Turndown
11. Who among the following is NOT a part of the permanent executive? [1]
(a) District Collector
(b) Minister of State of Defence
(c) Superintendent of Police
(d) Accountant General of India
12. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as
per the codes provided below: [1]
Assertion (A): President is not the real head of the country.
Reason (R): President is not elected directly by the people of India.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
13. Abolition of untouchability is included under which of the following rights? [1]
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right against exploitation
(d) Right to freedom of religion
14. Which of the following statements is true about seasonal unemployment? [1]
(a) Unwillingness of the educated people to work
(b) People are employed but do not add to economic production.
(c) People are employed for only a few months in a year.
(d) People want to get employed but do not get work.
15. Which of the following is a cause of poverty? [1]

(a) Hunger
(b) Lack of shelter
(c) Illiteracy
(d) Unemployment
16. Why are rural women employed in low-paid jobs? [1]

(a) They are not allowed by their families to do high paid jobs
(b) They are not aware of the wage structure
(c) They do not need to work in high-paid jobs
(d) They lack in education or the necessary skill
17. In which of the following regions has poverty remained the same in the last three
decades? [1]
(a) Russia
(b) Sub Saharan African region
(c) Southeast Asia
(d) Latin America
18. In which sector is banking included? [1]

(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Both secondary and tertiary
19. Which state accounts for the largest number of food insecure? [1]
(a) Bihar
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Assam
20. Which of the following groups are likely to be more food insecure? [1]
(a) Small entrepreneur
(b) Farmers having medium sized farms
(c) Traditional artisans
(d) A person owing a medical shop
SECTION B
21. Explain the term 'Lebensraum' in the context of Germany. [2]
22. One person, one vote, one value”. Justify the statement. [2]
23. Why is density of population highest in Delhi? [2]
OR
What do you mean by the quality of population?
24. Explain the role of Academy of Development Science in facilitating a network of NGOs to set
up grain banks in various regions. [2]
SECTION C
25. Describe any three steps taken by Lenin to improve the agriculture and economy of
Russia. [3 ]
OR
What was considered as the basis of socialist society?
26. Discuss three main features of the Indus River system. [3]
27. ‘Human capital is superior to other resources such as land and physical capital’. Elaborate.
[3]
28. Discuss three main features of the South African constitution. [3]
29. Explain the concept of ‘Poverty Line’. [3]
SECTION D
30. While the National Assembly was busy at Versailles drafting a constitution, the rest of
France seethed with turmoil. Explain. [5]
OR
Discuss the role of the Jacobins in the revolutionary France.
31. Discuss any five climatic conditions that determine the climate of India. [5]
OR
Discuss five main features of the cold climate season in India.
32. Briefly describe the procedure for Impeachment of the President. [5]
OR
Distinguish between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
33. The proportion of poor people is not the same in every state. With reference to the statement,
bring out the inter-state disparities in India. [ 5]
OR
What is poverty? Discuss major causes of poverty in India.
SECTION E
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
34. Read the source given below and answer the question that follows:
The period of the early Planned Economy was linked to the disasters of the collectivisation of
agriculture. By 1927- 1928, the towns in Soviet Russia were facing an acute problem of grain
supplies. The government fixed prices at which grain must be sold, but the peasants refused
to sell their grain to government buyers at these prices. In 1928, Party members toured the
grain-producing areas, supervising enforced grain collections, and raiding ‘kulaks’. As
shortages continued, the decision was taken to collectivise farms.
34.1 Who was heading the Communist party in 1928? [1]
34.2 Who were the ‘kulaks’? [1]
34.3 What is meant by collectivisation? Who started it? [2]
Rivers have been the lifelines of human civilisations. Greatest civilisations originated on the
banks of rivers. India is the land of many rivers.
The drainage systems of India are mainly controlled by the broad relief features of the
subcontinent. Accordingly, the Indian rivers are divided into two major groups- the
Himalayan rivers and the Peninsular rivers. Apart from originating from the two major
physiographic regions of India, the Himalayan and the Peninsular rivers are different from
each other in many ways.
35.1 What is the meaning of the term ‘drainage basin’? [1]
35.2 What is a ‘water divide’? [1]
35.3 List two differences between the Himalayan and the Peninsular river system. [2]
One simple way of checking whether elections are fair or not is to look at who conducts the
elections. Are they independent of the government? Or can the government or the ruling party
influence or pressurise them? Do they have enough powers to be able to conduct free and fair
elections? Do they actually use these powers? The answer to all these questions is quite
positive for our country. In our country elections are conducted by an independent and very
powerful Election Commission (EC).
36.1 Who heads the Election Commission of India? Who appoints him? [1]
36.2 Explain any two functions of the Election Commission [2]
36.3 How can you say that the Election Commission is an independent body? [1]
SECTION F
MAP BASED QUESTIONS
37. (A) On an outline map of the world, two nations A and B are marked. These are Allied powers
that participated in the First World War. Identify these countries and write their correct names
on the lines marked on the map. [2]
37 (B) On the given political outline map of India locate any THREE of the following features
with appropriate symbols: [3]
(a) Tropic of Cancer
(b) Malwa Plateau
(c) Wular lake
(d) The state having a high density of population
CBSE
CLASS 9
MATHEMATICS
MOCK PAPER
SOLUTIONS
CBSE
Class 9 Mathematics
Mock Paper
Section A
1. Correct option: A
Explanation:
0 0
0 can be expressed as ,
4 34
p
( Form, where p and q are integers and q ≠ 0).
q
2. Correct option: D
1 6 6
 
6 6 6
Explanation:
abc
Semi-perimeter is given by
2
4. Correct option: C
Explanation:
The total surface area of a sphere is given by 4r2
5. Correct option: B
Explanation:
Degree of a polynomial is the highest sum of the exponents of the variable in any single
term of the polynomial. Here exponent of x is 2, hence, the degree is 2.
Explanation:
Given polynomial is 4x3 + 6x2 – 8. It can be written as 4x3 + 6x2 + 0x – 8.
Hence, the coefficient of x is 0.
Explanation:
DE = 5 cm and AE = 7 cm
∴ BD = 2DE = 2 × 5 = 10 cm ∵ E is the mid-point of BD
Explanation:
AAA is not a test of congruency of two triangles.
Explanation:
If two lines intersect, vertically opposite angles are equal.

Explanation:
The diagonal divides a parallelogram into two congruent triangles.

Explanation:
In a parallelogram opposite sides are equal and parallel.

Explanation:
Two distinct points can intersect each other in only one point.

Explanation:
Sum of two linear pair of angles is 180°.

Explanation:
The sides opposite to equal angles of a triangle are equal.

Explanation:
Angles in the same segment of a circle are equal.

Explanation:
If ΔABC and ΔDEF are congruent, then by c.p.c.t.
∠B = ∠E
AC = DF
BC = EF

Equal chords of a circle subtend equal angles at the centre.

From the given figure,
In the parallelogram, adjacent angles are supplementary.
∴ ∠A + ∠B = 180°
∴ 70° + ∠B = 180°
∴ ∠B = 110°
If ΔABC and ΔDEF are congruent, then ∠A = ∠D by c.p.c.t.
Hence, both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct

The angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angle subtended by it at any
point on the remaining part of the circle.
Hence, assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Section B
21. p(x) = x4 + x2 – 8x + 6
p(1) = 1 + 1 – 8 + 6
p(1) = 0
Hence, x – 1 is the factor of the given polynomial or x = 1 is the zero of the given
polynomial.
22. 203 × 205 = (200 + 3) (200 + 5)

= 2002 + (3 + 5) × 200 + 3 × 5 ∵ (x + a)(x + b) = x2 + (a + b)x + ab
= 40000 + 1600 + 15
= 41615
23.
1.428571
7 10
07
30
28
20
14
60
56
40
35
50
49
10
7
3
10
 1.428571
7
24.
13 13  5 65
   0.65
20 20  5 100
Therefore, the given number is terminating decimal.
OR
Let x = 0.7777… (i)
10x = 7.7777… (ii)
Subtracting (i) from (ii),
9x = 7
7
x=
9
25.
3 3 3
 1   3   5 
 2   4   4 
     
1 3 5
Consider x = , y = and z =
2 4 4
1 3  5  5 5
∴ x + y + z =     0
2 4  4  4 4
∴ x3 + y3 + z3 = 3xyz
3 3 3
 1   3   5  1 3 5 45
         3    
2  4  4  2 4 4 32
OR
3
a b
2  3
 
a b
Comparing the given expression with (x – y)3, we get x = and y =
2 3
3 3 3
a b a  b a ba b
 2  3    2    3   3 2  3  2  3 
       
a3 b3 ab  a b 
   
8 27 2  2 3 
a3 b3 a2 b ab2
   
8 27 4 6
Section C
26. Let the common ratio between the sides of given triangle be x.
So, side of triangle will be 12x, 17x, and 25x.
Perimeter of this triangle = 540 cm
12x + 17x + 25x = 540 cm
54x = 540 cm
x = 10 cm
Sides of triangle will be 120 cm, 170 cm, and 250 cm.
perimeter of triangle 540 cm
s   270 cm
2 2
By Heron’s formula
Area of triangle  s  s  a  s  b  s  c 
  270  270  120  270  170  270  250   cm2

 
  270  150  100  20  cm2
 
 9000 cm 2
So, area of this triangle will be 9000 cm2.
27.
(i) If (x + 1) is a factor of p(x) = x3 + x2 + x + 1, p(–1) must be zero.
Here, p(x) = x3 + x2 + x + 1
p(–1) = (–1)3 + (–1)2 + (–1) + 1
= –1 + 1 – 1 + 1 = 0
Hence, x + 1 is a factor of this polynomial.
(ii) If (x + 1) is a factor of p(x) = x4 + x3 + x2 + x + 1, p(–1) must be zero.

Here, p(x) = x4 + x3 + x2 + x + 1
p(–1) = (–1)4 + (–1)3 + (–1)2 + (–1) + 1
=1–1+1–1+1=1
As, p(–1) ≠ 0
So, x + 1 is not a factor of this polynomial.
(iii) If (x + 1) is a factor of polynomial p(x) = x4 + 3x3 + 3x2 + x + 1, p(– 1) must be 0.

p(–1) = (–1)4 + 3(–1)3 + 3(–1)2 + (–1) + 1
=1–3+3–1+1=1
As, p(–1) ≠ 0
So, x + 1 is not a factor of this polynomial.
28.
Consider PR as a chord of circle.

Take any point S on major arc of circle.
Now PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral.
PQR + PSR = 180 (Opposite angles of cyclic quadrilateral)
 PSR = 180 – 100 = 80
We know that angle subtended by an arc at centre is double the angle subtended by it
any point on the remaining part of the circle.
 POR = 2PSR = 2 (80) = 160
In POR
OP = OR (radii of same circle)
 OPR = ORP (Angles opposite to equal sides of a triangle)
OPR + ORP + POR = 180 (Angle sum property of a triangle)
2 OPR + 160 = 180
2 OPR = 180 – 160 = 20°
OPR = 10
OR
For chord CD
CBD = CAD (Angles in same segment)
CAD = 70
BAD = BAC + CAD = 30 + 70 = 100
BCD + BAD = 180 (Opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral)
BCD + 100 = 180
BCD = 80
In ABC
AB = BC (given)
 BCA = CAB (Angles opposite to equal sides of a triangle)
 BCA = 30
We have BCD = 80
 BCA + ACD = 80
30 + ACD = 80
 ACD = 50
 ECD = 50
29.
Yes, it is possible to construct a frequency polygon without histogram.
The data represented in table is as follows:
Classes Frequency Class Mark
0-10 7 5
10-20 19 – 7 = 12 15
20-30 34 – 19 = 15 25
30-40 44 – 34 = 10 35
40-50 50 – 44 = 6 45
The frequency polygon is as follows:
OR
Yes, teacher is correct. There is an error in the histogram created by Anvi as she showed
frequency 15 for classes 30-40, 40-50 and 50-60 each.
We find that the class width of classes 0-10, 10-20, 20-30 is 10 each. But the class width
of class 30-60 is 30. So, here, we need to adjust frequency of this class. And,
Adjusted frequency of a class
Minimum class-size
  Frequency of the class
Class-size
Classes Frequency Adjusted Frequency
0-10 5 10
5 5
10
10-20 7 10
7  7
10
20-30 8 10
8 8
10
30-60 15 10
 15  5
30
Then, the histogram is as follows:
30.
(i) Slant height of cone = 14 cm
Let radius of circular end of cone be r.
CSA of cone = πrl
 22 
308 cm2    r  14  cm
 7 
 308 
r  cm  7 cm
 44 
Thus, the radius of circular end of the cone is 7 cm.
(ii) Total surface area of cone = CSA of cone + Area of base

= rl + r2
 22 2
 308   7   cm2
 7 
 308  154  cm2
 462 cm2
Thus, the total surface area of the cone is 462 cm2.
31. Steps of construction:

a. We represent the weights on the horizontal axis. We choose the scale on the
horizontal axis as 1 cm = 5 kg. Also, since the first class interval is starting from 35
and not zero, we show it on the graph by marking a kink or a break on the axis.
b. We represent the number of people (frequency) on the vertical axis. Since the
maximum frequency is 28, we choose the scale as 1 cm = 5 people.
c. We now draw rectangles (or rectangular bars) of width equal to the class-size and
lengths according to the frequencies of the corresponding class intervals.
d.
Section D
32. We know that

 a  b  a3  b3  3ab a  b
3
and  a  b  a3  b3  3ab  a  b
3
(i)  2x  1   2x   1   3 2x 1 2x  1 

3 3 3
 8x3  1  6x 2x  1
 8x3  1  12x2  6x
 8x3  12x2  6x  1
(ii)  2a  3b    2a   3b   3 2a 3b 2a  3b 

3 3 3
 8a3  27b3  18ab  2a  3b 

 8a3  27b3  36a2 b  54ab2
3 3
3  3  3  3 
(iii)  x  1   x   1  3  x  1  x  1 
3
2  2  2  2 
27 3 9 3 
 x  1  x  x  1
8 2 2 
27 3 27 2 9
 x 1 x  x
8 4 2
27 3 27 2 9
 x  x  x 1
8 4 2
3 3
 2  2   2  2 
(iv)  x  y   x3   y   3  x   y  x  y 
 3  3   3  3 
8 3  2 
 x3  y  2xy  x  y 
27  3 
8 3 4
 x3  y  2x2 y  xy 2
27 3
OR
We know that  x  y  z   x  y  z  2xy  2yz  2zx
2 2 2 2
(i) 4x2  9y 2  16z2  12xy  24yz  16xz

  2x   3y    4z   2  2x 3y   2 3y  4z   2 2x  4z 
2 2 2
  2x  3y  4z 
2
  2x  3y  4z  2x  3y  4z 
(ii) 2x2  y2  8z2  2 2xy  4 2yz  8xz
    y   2 2z   2   2x   y   2  y  2 2z   2   2x 2 2z 
2 2 2
  2x
   2x  y  2 2z 
2
   2x  y  2 2z   2x  y  2 2z 
33. Height (h) of conical tent = 8 m

Radius (r) of base of tent = 6 m
Slant height (l) of tent = r2  h2   
62  82 m   
100 m  10 m
CSA of conical tent = πrl = (3.14 × 6 × 10) m2 = 188.4 m2

Let length of tarpaulin sheet required be L.
As 20 cm will be wasted so, effective length will be (L – 0.2 m)
Breadth of tarpaulin = 3 m
Area of sheet = CSA of tent
[(L – 0.2 m) × 3] m = 188.4 m2
L – 0.2 m = 62.8 m
L = 63 m
Thus, the length of the tarpaulin sheet will be 63 m.
34.
i) In ABD and ACD

AB = AC (given)
BD = CD (given)
AD = AD (common)
 ABD  ACD (by SSS congruence rule)
 BAD = CAD (by CPCT)
 BAP = CAP …. (1)
ii) In ABP and ACP

AB = AC (given).
BAP = CAP [from equation (1)]
AP = AP (common)
 ABP  ACP (by SAS congruence rule)
 BP = CP (by C.P.C.T.) … (2)
iii) From equation (1)
BAP = CAP
Hence, AP bisects A
Now in BDP and CDP
BD = CD (given)
DP = DP (common)
BP = CP [from equation (2)]
 BDP  CDP (by S.S.S. Congruence rule)
 BDP = CDP (by C.P.C.T.) … (3)
Hence, AP bisects D.
iv) We have BDP  CDP

 BPD = CPD (by C.P.C.T.) …. (4)
Now, BPD + CPD = 180  (linear pair angles)
BPD + BPD = 180 
2BPD = 180  [from equation (4)]
BPD = 90  … (5)
From equations (2) and (5), we can say that AP is perpendicular bisector of BC.
OR
i) In ABC, AM is median to BC
1
BM = BC.
2
In PQR, PN is median to QR
1
QN = QR
2
But BC = QR
1 1
 BC = QR
2 2
 BM = QN … (1)
Now, in ABM and PQN
AB = PQ (given)
BM = QN [from equation (1)]
AM = PN (given)
 ABM  PQN (SSS congruence rule)
ABM = PQN by CPCT
ABC = PQR … (2)
ii) Now in ABC and PQR
AB = PQ (given)
ABC = PQR [from equation (2)]
BC = QR (given)
 ABC  PQR (by SAS congruence rule)
35.
Given: ΔABC is right angled at B, and D is the mid-point of AC.

To prove: BD = ½ AC
Construction: Produce BD to E such that BD = DE. Join EC.
Proof: In ΔADB and ΔCDE,
AD = CD
DB = DE (Construction)
∠ADB = ∠CDE (Vertically opposite angles)
∴ ΔADB ≅ ΔCDE by SAS congruence rule
∴ AB = CE ∵ c. p. c. t.
∴ ∠ABD = ∠CED ∵ c. p. c. t.
∴ AB parallel to EC
∵ Converse of the alternate interior angle test
∴ ∠ABC + ∠ECB = 180° ∵ Sum of co-interior angles
∴ ∠ECB = 90° ∵ ∠ABC = 90°
In ΔABC and ΔECB,
AB = CE
BC = CB ∵ Common
∠ABC = ∠ECB = 90°
∴ ΔABC ≅ ΔECB by SAS congruence rule
∴ AC = EB c. p. c. t.
∴ ½ AC = ½ EB
∴ ½ AC = BD ∵ BD = ½ EB Construction
∴ BD = ½ AC
Section E
36.
2
i) The decimal form of is 0.18 .
11
ii) Let x = 0.38 ….. (1)
⇒ 100x = 38.38 ….. (2)
Subtract (1) from (2), we get
100x – x = 38.38 - 0.38 ⇒ 99x = 38
38
x
99
OR
Let x = 0.38 ….. (1)
⇒ 100x = 38.38 ….. (2)
Subtract (1) from (2), we get
100x – x = 38.38  0.38
⇒ 99x = 38
38
x
99
38
0.38 
99
m = 38 and n = 99
⇒ m + n = 38 + 99 =137
iii) The decimal expansion of 0.38 is non – terminating repeating.

37.
i) Coordinates of CAVE of DEATH is (5, 3).
ii) The coordinates of THREE PALMS is (6, 4).
iii) The distance between FOUR CROSS CLIFF and the CAVE of DEATH is 3 units.
OR
Distance of SKULL ROCK from x – axis is 5 units.
38.
i) p(x) = x2 – 12x – 220
⇒ p(x) = x2 – 22x + 10x – 220
⇒ p(x) = x (x – 22) + 10(x – 22)
⇒ p(x) = (x – 22) (x + 10)
Take x – 22 = 0 and x + 10 = 0
⇒ x = 22 or x = –10
So, the zeroes are 22 and –10.
Since α < β,
Therefore, α = –10 and β = 22
ii) As p(x) = x2 – 12x – 220
Therefore, p(4) = 16 – 48 – 220 = –252
iii) As p(x) = x2 + x – 2
⇒ p(x) = x2 + 2x – x – 2
⇒ p(x) = x (x + 2) – (x + 2)
⇒ p(x) = (x + 2) (x – 1)
So, the zeroes are –2 and 1.
1 1 1 1
Therefore,     1 
  2 2
OR
p(x) = – 24x + 128
x2
⇒ p(x) = x2 – 8x – 16x + 128
⇒ p(x) = x(x – 8) – 16(x – 8)
⇒ p(x) = (x – 8)(x – 16)
CBSE
CLASS 9
SCIENCE
MOCK PAPER
SOLUTIONS
CBSE
Class 9 Science
Mock Paper
SECTION - A
1. Correct option- c: H2S
While writing the chemical formula for hydrogen sulphide, first write the constituent
elements and their valencies, after this, cross over the valencies of the combining atoms.
Hydrogen Sulphur
Symbols H S
Valency 1+ 2-
Interchanging 2 1
Valency
Formula H2S
2. Correct option – c: Particles of a colloid scatter a beam of light passing through it.
Colloids are big enough to scatter a beam of light passing through it.
3. Correct option – d: (ii) and (iv)

Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons
Atomic number = number of protons = number of electrons
4. Correct option – a: 111 u

Formula unit mass of CaCal2:
Atomic mass of Ca + 2(atomic mass of Cl)
= 40 + 2(35.5) = 40 + 71 = 111 u
5. Correct option – c: More exposed surface area of water

Evaporation is surface phenomenon. More the exposed area of water, more is the rate of
evaporation.
6. Correct option – b: C-12 : 6p+6n, C-13 : 6p+7n, C-14 : 6p+8n

Atoms of the same elements differing in the number of neutrons in their nuclei are known
as isotopes.
7. Correct option - a: Products

According to the law of conservation of mass, in a chemical reaction, mass can neither be
created nor destroyed. The total mass of the reactants is equal to the total mass of the
products.
8. Correct option – d: 4
The given cell organelle is mitochondria.
1 - Outer membrane, 2 - Inner membrane, 3 - Stroma, 4 - Granum
Grana is the site of the light reactions of photosynthesis.
9. Correct option – a: Regulates cell division
The given structure is nucleus. The nucleus is the controlling centre of the cell. It controls
the metabolic activities of the cell and regulates cell division.
10. Correct option – d: (i) and (iii)

The process of crossing two genetically dissimilar plants to produce a hybrid having
desirable traits of both is called hybridisation. The crossing may be intervarietal (between
different varieties), intergeneric (between different genera) or interspecific (between
different species of the same genus). Genetically modified crops are produced by the
insertion of genes of desired traits.
11. Correct option – a: Arrow pushing against bow string.

Action and reaction force acts in opposite direction. Action force: Bowstring against the
arrow; Reaction force: Arrow pushing against the bow string.
12. Correct option – b: It is completely immersed in the liquid.

When a solid is completely immersed in a liquid, there is a maximum apparent loss in its
weight due to the maximum volume of liquid displaced.
2𝑣
13. Correct option – b: 𝑡
(u + v ) ( v - u)
Average velocity = and Acceleration =
t t
(u + v ) (v − u)
Thus, the sum of average velocity and acceleration= +
t t
2v
=
t
14. Correct option – b: Manish pulls the trolley up to a certain distance.

Work is done when a force is applied, and that force brings about some change in the
position of the body. And for the given case, displacement will be made only by pulling the
trolley up to a certain distance.
15. Correct option – c : Long, cylindrical, unbranched, multinucleate

The given figure shows striated muscle fibre. Striated muscle fibres are multi-nucleated,
long, cylindrical and unbranched. The cells are enclosed in connective tissue sheaths in
the form of bundles.
16. Correct option – d : Around the muscles, blood vessels and nerves
The given figure shows areolar tissue. Areolar tissue is found around the muscles, blood
vessels and nerves.
17. Both A and R are true, and the R is not the correct explanation of A.
According to postulates of Dalton’s Theory, Matter is made up of small particles called
atoms. According to these postulates, it is also true that atoms of different element exhibit
different properties of element and atoms of same element have the similar properties.
So, from these two postulates, we can say that assertion is true. Molecules are formed by
combination of two or more atoms for example- CO2, NH3. So, the reason is also true. But,
reason is not the correct explanation for assertion. Thus, both statements are true, and
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
18. Both A and R are true, and the R is the correct explanation of A.
To increase the capacity of the mitochondrion to synthesize ATP, the inner membrane is
folded to form cristae. These folds allow a much greater amount of electron transport
chain enzymes and ATP synthase to be packed into the mitochondrion.
19. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
The sensation of sound persists in our brain for about 0.1 seconds. This is called
persistence of hearing. An echo is a sound that is heard after it has been reflected off a
surface such as a wall or a cliff.
However, the reason for the sensation of sound persisting in our brain for about 0.1
seconds is not related to the definition of an echo.
20. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Epithelial tissue forms a continuous layer over the free surfaces of many other tissues.
Consequently, it covers the external surface of the animal body and the internal surfaces
of visceral organs, body cavities and blood vessels. The epithelial tissue protects the
underlying and overlying tissues. It also helps in the exchange of materials.
SECTION - B
21. There are two types of molecules - molecules of elements and molecules of compounds.
Molecules of Elements
• The molecule of an element contains two or more similar atoms combined together.
• They are classified as diatomic, triatomic, tetra-atomic and polyatomic molecules
depending upon the number of atoms present.
Molecules of Compounds
• The molecule of a compound contains two or more different types of atoms chemically
combined together.
• Atoms of different elements join together in definite proportions to form molecules of
compounds.
22. A – Parenchyma, B – Collenchyma, C – Sclerenchyma

(a) Tissue B or collenchyma provides mechanical strength and flexibility to the plant body.
(b) Tissue A or parenchyma can be modified to aerenchyma with air cavities in aquatic
plants.
23.
• Clothes are washed with soap or detergent solution. This solution is hypertonic
because it contains lower water concentration as compared to the osmotic
concentration of our skin cells.
• Therefore, when skin cells come in contact with the detergent solution, they begin to
lose more water by exosmosis.
• As a result, the skin over the fingers shrinks while washing clothes for a long time.
OR
• Concentrated salt solution is a hypertonic solution.
• When a person consumes a hypertonic solution, it causes irritation and excessive
dehydration in the walls of the alimentary canal due to exosmosis.
• There is uncomfortable stretching of the digestive muscles which causes reverse
movements and results in vomiting.
24. Given:
Final velocity, v = 0
Time taken t = 20 s
Acceleration a = -2 m/s2
From the equation v = u + at, we have
u = v - at
u = 0 - (-2) × 20
∴ u = 40 m/s
25. The cars are provided with seat belts for passengers to prevent injuries in case of an
accident. In an accident, the fast-running car stops suddenly. Due to this the momentum
of the car reduces to zero in a very short time. The stretchable seat belts worn by the
passengers increase the time taken by the passengers to fall forward. Due to longer time,
the rate of change of momentum is reduced, and hence less stopping force acts on them.
So, the passengers are saved from fatal injuries.
OR
In the beginning the fruits and leaves on the branches are in state of rest. When a strong
wind blows, the branches move rapidly. However, on account of inertia of rest, the fruits
and leaves tend to continue in their state of rest and fall off the branches.
26. Improvement in poultry variety is achieved through the process of hybridisation or

crossbreeding.
Some desirable traits for which improvement of poultry is done are as follows: (Any four)
• Quality and size of eggs
• Low maintenance breeds
• High resistance to diseases
• Tolerance to high temperature
• Quality and quantity of chicks
• Ability to utilise cheaper diets produced from agricultural wastes
SECTION – C
27.
(a) Aerosol, e.g., clouds
(b) Emulsion, e.g., butter
(c) Gel, e.g., jelly
28.
(i) Metals: Iron
They are lustrous and good conductors of electricity.
(ii) Non-metals: Oxygen
They are non-lustrous and poor conductors of electricity.
(iii) Metalloids: Germanium
They show intermediate properties between those of metals and non-metals and are
semiconductors.
OR
The answer is as follows:
29. The given figure shows a plant cell.

(a) P – Vacuole; Q – Mitochondria
(b) Vacuoles (P) help maintain the osmotic pressure in a cell. They store toxic metabolic
by-products of plant cells. They also provide turgidity and rigidity to plant cells.
(c) Mitochondria (Q) synthesise energy-rich compounds (ATP) for the cell. In the absence
of mitochondria, the cell will not have energy to carry out important life processes such
as photosynthesis, respiration, and protein synthesis.
30. Vermicompost is formed by the activity of earthworms on organic remains. It is manure-

rich pulverised organic matter and worm castings.
Vermicompost is useful for the germination of seeds that are free from plant diseases
because:
• It is rich in nutrients.
• It is sterile.
• It is inexpensive to produce.
• It recycles organic matter.
31.
(a) If one joule of work is done in one second, the power is said to be one watt.
Energy
Power =
Time
1000
= = 100 watt
10
(b) If power of an electric bulb is 15 W, it consumes 15 joules of energy per second.
(c) Energy consumed by the bulb in 10 minutes, E = 15 W x 600 s
∴ E = 9000 joules
32.
a. A force is a push or pull acting upon an object as a result of its interaction with another
object. Effects of force: (Any two)
1. It may move a body at rest.
2. Stop a moving body.
3. Change the speed of a body.
4. Change the direction of a moving body.
5. Change the size and shape of a body.
b. In the beginning the fruits and leaves on the branches are in state of rest. When a
strong wind blows, the branches move rapidly. However, on account of inertia of rest,
the fruits and leaves tend to continue in their state of rest and fall off the branches.
(c) Given that,
Mass = 20g = 0.02 kg
a = 3 m/s2
Now,
F = ma
∴ F = 0.02 x 3 = 0.06N
33.
(a) Speed of sound depends upon
(i) Medium (ii) Temperature.
(b) The amount of sound energy passing each second through unit area is called the
intensity of sound. Loudness is a measure of the response of the ear to the sound.
(c) Given that,
Frequency, ν=2 kHz = 2000 Hz
Wavelength, λ = 35 cm = 0.35 m
Now,
We know that speed v = ν × λ
= 2000 × 0.35 = 700 m/s
Now time taken by a wave to travel a distance of 1.5 km is:
d
t=
v
15 00
t= = 2.1s
7 00
SECTION - D
34.
(c)
(i) Food products such as papad need appropriate drying to be kept for the entire
year. Any residual water in the papads might cause them to go rancid or spoil
quickly.
The rate of evaporation of water increases on a hot, dry day due to the increase in
temperature. Furthermore, air dryness, or a reduction in air humidity, increases
the rate of evaporation.
The humidity in the atmosphere is higher during the monsoon season, while the
temperature is very low during the winter season. The weather is sunny and dry
during the summer. So, papad making is preferred to be done in the summer season
by most of the households.
(ii) When soup is poured in a saucer, it cools faster. Evaporation is a surface
phenomenon. Particles of soup on the surface absorb heat of vaporisation from the
remaining particles of soup and evaporate. Soup thus loses heat and cools faster.
(d)
(i) Formula of Magnesium sulphate
Magnesium Sulphate
Symbols/Formula Mg SO4
Valency 2+ 2-
Formula Mg2(SO4)2 = MgSO4
Therefore, the molecular formula of Magnesium sulphate is MgSO4.
(ii) Formula of Ammonium bicarbonate

Ammonium bicarbonate
Symbols/Formula NH4 HCO3

Valency 1+ 1-
Formula NH4HCO3
Therefore, the molecular formula of Ammonium bicarbonate is NH4HCO3.

OR
(a) When a liquid is left exposed to air, its volume decreases gradually because of
evaporation of some of the water from its surface.
(b) The four factors affecting the rate of evaporation are:
1. Surface area: Evaporation is a surface phenomenon. If the surface area is increased,
then the rate of evaporation increases.
2. Temperature: With the increase of temperature, more particles get enough kinetic
energy to go into the vapour state, and hence, the rate of evaporation increases.
3. Humidity: If the humidity of air is high, then the rate of evaporation decreases.
4. Wind speed: With the increase in wind speed, the particles of water vapour move
away with the wind, decreasing the amount of water vapour in the surroundings;
hence, the rate of evaporation increases.
35.
(a) Cork acts as a protective tissue in the following manner:
• Cork cells are dead and compactly arranged without intercellular spaces.
• Cell walls are coated with an organic substance called suberin which makes these
cells impermeable to water and gases.
• As a result, cork cells prevent desiccation, infection, and mechanical injury to the
plant body.
(b)
(i) A – Apical meristem; B – Intercalary meristem
(ii) Role of apical meristem (A): It increases the length of the plant as it is present in
the tip of roots and shoots.
Role of intercalary meristem (B): It increases the length of the internodes as it is
present at the nodes.
OR
a) Collenchyma tissue:
• Location: It is present in the leaf stalk and below the epidermis.
• Function: It allows easy bending in various parts of the plant without breaking
(i.e., it provides flexibility to the plants).
b) Structure of collenchyma tissue:
c) 'A' is pith. The type of simple permanent tissue found in this region is parenchyma.
d) Characteristic features of parenchyma tissue:

• Cells are thin-walled and loosely packed.
• These are living cells and help in storage.
36.
(a) Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force which is
proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square
of the distance between them.
Mm Mm
F 2 F = G 2
d d
Here, G is the constant of proportionality and is known as universal constant of
gravitation.
(b)
Given m1 = 6  1024 kg, m2 = 2  1030 kg, d = 1.5  1011 m
m1 m2 6.67  10−11  6  1024  2  1030
F =G 2 =
a (1.5  1011 )2
F = 35.573 x 1021N
(c) Let the mass of earth be M Then the mass of planet is Mp = 2M

Let the radius of earth be R Then the radius of planet is Rp = 3R
GM
g e = 2 = 9.8 m / s2
R
Thus, the acceleration due to gravity of planet is
GMp
gp = 2
Rp
G(2M)
gp =
(3R)2
2 GM
gp =
9 R2
2
gp = ge
9
2
g p =  9.8 m/s2
9
g p = 2  10.8 m / s2
g p = 2.17 m/s2
OR
(a) Swimmers are provided with an inflated rubber jacket or rubber tube. The jacket tube
has low weight and large volume. Hence, it displaces large volume of water. As a result,
up thrust due to water increases and the person remains afloat, i.e., there is no chance
of drowning of the swimmer in such case.
(b) It is easier to swim in sea water because density of sea water is more due to added
salts. Hence, up thrust acting on the swimmer in sea water is more than in fresh water.
So, it is easier to swim in sea water.
(c) Ice, rubber, paraffin wax and bone will sink in turpentine as their densities are larger
than turpentine.
(d) An object will float in a liquid:
• If its density is less than that of liquid
• If its density is equal to the density of the liquid
A ship is made up of iron but is not a solid block of iron, it is filled with air spaces.
Air has density lower than that of water. Hence, due to presence of air, the density
of ship becomes less than that of water and hence floats on water. Also, a ship is
able to displace volume of water equal to its own volume. Hence, a ship is able to
float on water.
SECTION - E
37.
(a)
(i) The α-particles are helium ions with a +2 charge.
(ii) While the experiment Rutherford observed that few particles bounced back, some
particles were deflected and most of them continued moving in a straight line.
(b) The Rutherford α-particle experiment shows that most of the α-particles pass through
almost unscattered while some are scattered through large angles. This suggests that
atom is hallow and the whole mass of the atom is concentrated in a small positively
charged centre called nucleus.
OR
(b) To detect alpha-particles after scattering, zinc sulphide screen was used. When alpha-
particles strike the zinc sulphide screen, they produced flashes of light which were
detected. By examining these flashes on different portions of screen, it was possible to
determine proportions of alpha-particles which got deflected through various angles.
38.
(a) Leucoplasts are colourless plastids. They store starch, oil, and proteins.
(b) Chromoplasts provide colour to various flowers and fruits.
(c) Chloroplast is a type of plastid which contains a green pigment called chlorophyll.
Chlorophyll traps light energy and converts it into chemical energy in the form of food
during photosynthesis.
OR
(c) Leucoplasts are of three types - amyloplasts, elaioplasts and aleuroplasts also called
proteinoplasts. Amyloplasts store starch, aleuroplasts store proteins and elaioplasts
store fats.
39.
(a) From the given graph we can conclude that, the velocity will be maximum between
point A and B. Hence, we can conclude that between points A and B the car will be
moving fastest.
(b) As we know, from the given graph the slope of OA is maximum and since the slope of
velocity vs time graph will be directly proportional to acceleration.
Δ𝑣 𝑦 −𝑦
i.e., 𝑆𝑙𝑜𝑝𝑒, 𝑚 = … (∵ 𝑚 = 𝑥2−𝑥1 )
Δ𝑡 2 1
Hence from the given graph we can conclude that, acceleration will be maximum
between point O and A.
Note:
From the image we can see that, the slope of AB is greater than OA but since between
point A and B the velocity of the car will keep on decreasing as a result, we can say
that the acceleration will be negative (Decelerating) or in other words car will be
slowing down between point AB.
(c) Between point AB and EF, the car will be moving with zero acceleration since the
change in velocity will be zero for the given case.
i.e., a = Δv/t = 0 … (∵ Δv = 0)
Also,
Given that
Velocity of car at point D, vD = 0 m/s
The velocity of car at point E, vE ≈ 10 m/s
Now,
10−0 10
Acceleration between point DE, 𝑎𝐷𝐸 = 42−32 = 10 = 1 𝑚/𝑠 2
OR
(c) The distance is measured by the area occupied below the velocity time graph.
Given that,
Initial velocity at point B, u = 20 m/s
Final velocity at point C, v = 0 m/s
Time, t = 6 sec
Now,
v − u 0 − 20
Rate of deceleration, a = = = 3.33m / s2
t 6
CBSE
CLASS 9
SOCIAL SCIENCE
MOCK PAPER
SOLUTIONS
CBSE
Class 9 Social Science
Mock Paper
1.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2.
(b) Montesquieu
3.
(a) Kolkhoz
4.
(b) The Tennis Court oath
5.
(b) The Himachal
6.
(d) Lohit
7.
(a) Communist rule in Poland
8.
(d) H.C. Mookherjee
9.
(c) Robben Island
10.
(a) Turnout
11.
(b) Minister of State of Defence
12.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
13.
(b) Right to equality
14.
(c) People are employed for only a few months in a year
15.
(d) Unemployment
16.
(d) They lack in education or the necessary skill
17.
(d) Latin America
18.
(c) Tertiary
19.
(a) Bihar
20.
(c) Traditional artisans
21.
The term ‘Lebensraum’ literally means 'living space'. It was a basic principle of the Nazi foreign
policy. Hitler believed that Eastern Europe had to be conquered to create a vast German empire
for more physical space, a greater population, and new territory to supply food and raw
materials. It means that he wanted to settle the growing German population in conquered
territories. This according to him also helped in acquiring raw materials.
22.
The fundamental principle in democracy is political equality. It means each adult citizen must
have one vote and each vote must have one value. This gives the citizens the freedom of choice
by voting for those people which they prefer.
In Fiji for example, the electoral system is in a way that the vote of an indigenous (local) Fiji has
more value than that of the vote of an Indian Fijian in the elections.
23.
Delhi has a high population density mainly because of historical and geographical reasons. Delhi
is located on the fertile Indo Gangetic plains. The fertility of soil has supported agricultural
activities. Besides, the flat terrain has helped in the building of various means of transportation.
OR
Quality of population is measured by health standards, educational levels and technology.
Health facilities affect the life expectancy, strength and vitality of the people, on-the-job training
enhances the skill of the labour force. So, people who are educated, healthy and possess stock
of skills and technical knowledge are known as the quality population.
24.
In Maharashtra, the Academy of Development Science (ADS) has organised training and
capacity in building programs on food security for NGOs. ADS has set up ‘Grain Banks’ to
facilitate replication through other NGOs and to influence the government’s policy on food
security. The ADS Grain Bank program is acknowledged as a successful and innovative food
security intervention.
25.
Three steps taken by Lenin to improve the agriculture and economy of Russia were:
 All land was taken away from the aristocratic class and was granted to the village Soviets.
 Peasants were allowed to buy and sell in the open markets. They could also sell their
surpluses and hire labourers.
 Agricultural banks and collective farms were set up.
OR
Various socialist had different ideologies and principles as the basis of the socialist society.
 While Robert Owen believed in the idea of cooperatives, others believed that capitalist model
of economy should be replaced by socialist model of economy.
 Karl Marx believed that the profits earned by factory owners are produced by workers.
 He held that to establish a socialist society, workers have to overthrow capitalism and the rule
of private property. Thus, for Marx, the basis of socialist society was the state ownership of
resources.
26.
Three main features of the Indus river system are:
 The river Indus rises in Tibet, near Lake Mansarowar. Flowing towards west, it enters India
in the Ladakh district of Jammu and Kashmir.
 Several tributaries, the Zaskar, the Nubra, the Shyok and the Hunza, join it in the Kashmir
region.
 The Satluj, the Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab and the Jhelum join together to enter the Indus near
Mithankot in Pakistan. Then, the Indus flows southwards eventually reaching the Arabian Sea,
east of Karachi.
27.
We consider human capital to be most important as compared to land and physical capital. It is
because land and capital cannot be put to use or yield results on its own. Only when land is
made fit for cultivation or buildings are built by human effort, it yields results. Similarly, capital
can generate value only when it is used by humans.
Human resource is the greatest resource for a nation as it includes various skills and productive
knowledge which enhance the value of any other resource.
28.
The three main features of the South African constitution are:
 The constitution gave to its citizens the most extensive rights and protection by the law.
 The constitution stressed on improving the quality of life of all its citizens and that no one
must be excluded or ill-treated
 The constitution honoured those who worked to build and develop the country.
29.
Poverty line is a common method used to measure poverty. It is based on income or
consumption expenditure.
 A person is considered poor if his/her income or consumption level falls below the
“minimum level’ necessary to fulfill basic needs.
 Each country uses an imaginary line as an estimate for measuring poverty.
 For example, poverty line in India is determined by calorie requirement or intake in rural
and urban areas.
30.
When the National Assembly was busy at Versailles drafting a constitution, the rest of France
seethed with turmoil. This was because:
 At this time, a severe winter resulted in a bad harvest and the price of bread rose. In such
circumstances, bakers often hoarded the supplies.
 After spending hours in long queues at the bakery, crowds of angry women stormed into
the shops. At the same time, the king ordered troops to move into Paris. On 14 July, the
agitated crowd stormed and destroyed the Bastille.
 In the countryside rumours spread in village that the lords had hired bands of brigands
who were on their way to destroy the ripe crops.
 Caught in a frenzy of fear, peasants in several districts seized hoes and pitchforks and
attacked mansions of the lords and nobles. They looted hoarded grain and burnt down
documents containing records of manorial dues. A large number of nobles fled from their
homes, many of them migrating to neighbouring countries.
 Faced with the power of his revolting subjects, Louis XVI finally gave recognition to the
National Assembly and accepted the principle that his powers would from now on be
checked by a constitution.
OR
Role of the Jacobins in revolutionary France:
 After the French Revolution and the drafting of the constitution of 1791, large sections of
the population were convinced that the revolution had to be carried further.
 The Jacobin clubs had members all over France who demanded greater equality. The
members of the Jacobin club belonged mainly to the less prosperous sections of society
such as shopkeepers, shoemakers, watch makers etc.
 In the summer of 1792, the Jacobins planned an insurrection of a large number of
Parisians who were angered by the short supplies and high prices of food.
 On the morning of August 10, 1792, they stormed the Palace of the Tuileries, massacred
the king’s guards and held the king as hostage for several hours.
 Later the Assembly voted to imprison the royal family. Elections were held. From now on
all men of 21 years and above, regardless of wealth, got the right to vote.
31.
Five climatic conditions that determine the climate of India are:
Latitude: The Tropic of Cancer passes through India at 23 26′ to the north of the equator. Tropic
of Cancer divides the country into two halves. The areas in India which lie to the north of the
Tropic of Cancer are sub-tropical regions, while areas to the south of the Tropic of Cancer are
tropical regions. Temperature remains high throughout the tropical regions.
Altitude: As we go above the sea level, the temperature starts declining. Thus, temperature
decreases with an increase in altitude. There is a decrease of 10C for every 166 m rise in the
height. This is the reason that hill stations like Nainital are cooler than the plain region.
The Himalayas: The Himalayas act as a barrier to moisture laden Southwest monsoon winds.
This causes rainfall over the northern plains. It also acts as a barrier to cold winds that blow
from central Asia and thus prevent the Northern Plains from becoming freezing cold
Air Pressure and Surface Winds: During summer season Northwest Monsoon winds blow over
India brining rainfall over much of the country. During winters, Northeast Winds blow from
land to sea and does not cause much precipitation except in some parts of Tamil Nadu.
Relief Features: Presence of relief features like hills and mountains all over the country
determine the amount of rainfall that a place get. Northeastern India receive heavy rainfall
because of the presence of mountains in the region. Rajasthan receive scarce rainfall because it
lies in the rain shadow region of the Aravalli ranges.
OR
Five main features of the cold climate season in India are:
 The cold weather season begins from mid-November in northern India and lasts till
February. December and January are the coldest months in north India.
 Temperature decreases from South to north.
 Northeast trade winds blow over most of the country. These are dry winds and hence do
not cause rainfall over most parts of the country. Coromandel Coast and some parts of
Andhra Pradesh receive rainfall from NE winds during winter months.
 Due to westerly depression, the North and Northwestern parts of the country receive light
rainfall in winter season. This rainfall is beneficial for rabi crops.
 The peninsular plateau in India does not have a marked and well-defined cold season
because of the moderating influence of the sea.
32.
The President can be removed from office by the procedure of impeachment in the following
ways:
 The charges for impeachment can be filed by both Houses of Parliament. However, a
procedure needs to be followed for the filing of the resolution.
 The charges need to be filed only after a notice of 14 days. The notice has to be signed by
at least quarter of the total number of members of the House.
 The resolution then needs to be passed by a majority of at least two-thirds of the total
membership of the House.
 The charges against the President are then to be investigated by the other House, where
the President has the right to appear and be represented for the investigation.
 If the charges against the President are confirmed by two-thirds of the total members of
the other House, the President stands removed from office.
OR
Differences between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are:
Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha
Lok Sabha is also known as House of Rajya Sabha is also known as Council of States
People or Lower House. or Upper House.
Members of Lok Sabha are directly Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by the
elected by the people and it exercises the Legislative Assembly of each state through
real power on behalf of the people. proportional representation.
It has a maximum of 552 members. At It has a maximum of 250 members, out of
present, there are 545 members out of which 12 are nominated by the President,
which 2 are nominated by the President who have earned a distinction in the fields of
from the Anglo-Indian community. literature, art, science and social service.
The term for Lok Sabha is five years. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body. However,
one-third of its members retire every two
years.
In money matters, Lok Sabha exercises Rajya Sabha has the right to only suggest
more power. changes or delay the bill for 14 days. It is up to
Lok Sabha to accept or reject the changes.
33.
In India, the proportion of poor people is not the same in every state. Estimates for 2015-16
show all India Head Count Index (HCI) was 21.9 per cent.
 Bihar and Orissa are the two poorest states in India with poverty ratios of 33.7 and 32.6
per cent.
 Rural and urban poverty is high in Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
 In comparison, there has been a significant decline in poverty in the states of Kerala,
Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and West Bengal.
 Punjab and Haryana have reduced the level of poverty with the help of agricultural growth
rates, while the state of Kerala has focused more on human resource development.
 Land reform measures in West Bengal have helped in reducing poverty. In Andhra
Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, public distribution of food grains could have been responsible
for the improvement in these states.
 Thus, in analysing the inter-state disparities, it is well observed that the state of poverty
and proportion of poor people are not the same in every state.
OR
Poverty is a state or condition in which a person or community lacks the financial resources
and essentials to maintain a minimum standard of living. The major causes of poverty in India
are:
 Low level of economic development under the British colonial rule:
The British formulated policies which did not encourage the Indian economy. In order to
give protection to the British industries, the traditional and village handicraft industries
was systematically ruined by the British government. This resulted in widespread
unemployment and low growth rate of income.
 Lack of job opportunities both in the public and private sector forced people to pick up odd
jobs such as vendors, domestic servants, and rickshaw pullers. Due to irregular and low
income they could not afford housing and they started to live in slums in villages and the
problem of rural poverty emerged which further spread to the urban sector.
 Income inequalities: One of the major reasons for this is the unequal distribution of land
and other resources. Despite various policies, the problem could not be tackled in a
meaningful manner. Various reform policies have not been implemented properly and
effectively by most of the state governments. This lack of land resources has been one of
the major causes of poverty.
 Socio-cultural and Economic Factors: Various expenditures on such as marriage, religious
ceremonies and agricultural inputs forced the small farmers, low and lower middle class
to borrow money from non-institutional sources at a higher rate of interest. Therefore,
this resulted in poor people becoming poorer.
34.
34.1 Joseph Stalin was heading the Communist party in 1928.
34.2‘Kulaks’ were well to do or rich peasants.
34.3 The collectivisation programme was started by Stalin. Under this programme, small
landholdings of many peasants into one collective large farm. All large, collectivised farms
were cultivated by the farmers with the help of tools pooled together. The profits of the
farms were shared among the cultivators.
35.
35.1 The area drained by a single river system is called a drainage basin.
35.2 Any elevated area, such as a mountain or an upland, separates two drainage basins. Such an
upland is known as a water divide.
35.3 Two differences between the Himalayan and the Peninsular River system are:
The Himalayan River System The Peninsular River System

Most of the Himalayan rivers are perennial. It A large number of the Peninsular rivers are
means that they have water throughout the seasonal, as their flow is dependent on
year like the Ganga and Brahmaputra. rainfall.
The Himalayan rivers have long courses from The Peninsular rivers have shorter and
their source to the sea. shallower courses as compared to the
Himalayan Rivers.
36.
36.1 The Chief Election Commissioner heads the Election Commission of India. He is appointed by
the President of the country.
36.2 Two functions of the Election Commission:
 It implements the Code of Conduct and punishes any candidate or party that violates
it.
 During the election period, the EC can order the government to follow some
guidelines, to prevent use and misuse of governmental power to enhance its chances
to win elections, or to transfer some government officials.
36.3 The Election Commission is an independent body because the Election Commission along
with its head is not answerable to the President or the government. Even if the ruling party
or the government does not like what the Commission does, it is virtually impossible for
it to remove it.
37 (A).
37 (B).
Get the
Latest Updated Study Material
as per your Need
Test Series Test Generator Last Minute

starting at starting at Revision Pack
₹6999 ₹4999 starting at
₹1499
Need Help To Select A Plan?
8929263204 / 9321924448
School, Tuition Centre or Private Tutor Study Material Enquiry
Call +91 8178372169

or
Email: prakash.mishra@nw18.com

CBSE 9 MathsSciSST MockPaper 2023 Q S

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

CBSE 9 MathsSciSST MockPaper 2023 Q S

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

SCIENCE

What’s in store for students?

Click on the next page to start

Have an Academic Doubt?

Find answers to over

5. Write the degree of the polynomial 5x2.

6. Write the coefficient of x in the polynomial 4x3 + 6x2 – 8.

7. Let ABCD be a parallelogram. The diagonals bisect in E. If DE = 5 cm and AE = 7 cm, then

8. Which of the following is (are) not test(s) of congruency of two triangles?

9. If two lines intersect, vertically opposite angles are ______

11. In a parallelogram opposite sides are _______

13. Sum of two linear pair of angles is

14. The sides opposite to equal angles of a triangle are ______.

15. Angles in the same segment of a circle are _______

16. ΔABC and ΔDEF are congruent, then…

17. Equal ______ of a circle subtend equal angles at the centre.

19. Statement A (Assertion): ΔABC and ΔDEF are congruent, then ∠A = ∠D

Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 mark each.

22. Evaluate 203 × 205 without multiplying directly. [2]

Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.

27. Determine which of the following polynomials has (x + 1) as a factor: [3]

29. Is it possible to construct a frequency polygon without histogram? If yes, construct a

Anvi represented this data as below:

Teacher said that there is an error in this histogram.

Construct a histogram for the above distribution.

32. Write the following cubes in expanded form: [5]

Answer the following questions.

What is the distance of SKULL ROCK from x – axis? [2]

1. Valency of hydrogen is 1 and that of sulphur is 2. What should be the formula of

2. Which of the following statements is true for colloids? [1]

3. Which of the following equations are true for an Element? [1]

a) Regulates cell division

a) Long, cylindrical, branched, uninucleate

a) Wall of the heart

18. Assertion: The inner mitochondrial membrane is highly folded.

20. Assertion: Epithelial tissues are covering or protective tissues.

Question No. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.

21. What are the types of molecules? [2]

Question No. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.

(a) Identify P and Q.

Question No. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.

(i) Label the parts marked A and B.

(a) Write the location and function of collenchyma tissue.

But the observations he made were quite unexpected.

(a) What is the function of leucoplasts?

Answer the following questions based on the given information.

2. Who was the author of ‘The Spirit of the Laws?’ [1]

3. The collective farms in Russia were known as [1]

(a) Storming of the Bastille Prison

6. Which of the following is NOT a tributary of Godavari? [1]

15. Which of the following is a cause of poverty? [1]

16. Why are rural women employed in low-paid jobs? [1]

18. In which sector is banking included? [1]

21. Explain the term 'Lebensraum' in the context of Germany. [2]

23. Why is density of population highest in Delhi? [2]

What do you mean by the quality of population?

What was considered as the basis of socialist society?

29. Explain the concept of ‘Poverty Line’. [3]

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

10. Correct option: D

11. Correct option: C

12. Correct option: A

13. Correct option: D

14. Correct option: C