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PEP PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. A supply chain that includes the distribution of finished products and services is ..........

A. Outbound logistics

B. Inbound logistics

C. Supply of goods

D. Transportation

Ans: A

2. What additional factor does overall equipment effectiveness take into account which makes it more
meaningful than efficiency or utilization?

A. Flexibility

B. Speed

C. Cost

D. Qaulity

Ans: A

3. Which of the following is true for supply chain management?

A. The physical material moves in the direction of the end of the chain.

B. Flow of the cash backwards through the chain.

C. Exchange of information moves in both the direction.

D. All of the above

Ans: D

4. The purpose is supply chain management is

A. Provide customer satisfaction

B. Improve qaulity of a product

C. Integrate supply and demand management

D. Increasing production.

Ans: C
5. VMI stands for?

A. Vendor material inventory.

B. Vendor managed inventory.

C. Variable material inventory.

D. Valuable material inventory

Ans: Ans: C

6. The major decision areas in supply chain management are?

A. Location, production, distribution, inventory

B. Planning, production, distribution, inventory

C. Location, production, scheduling, inventory

D. Location, production, distribution, marketing

Ans: B

7. Logistics is the part of supply chain involved with the forward and reserve flow of ?

A. Goods

B. Service

C. Cash

D all of the above

Ans: D

8. Reserve logistics is required because?

A. Goods are defective

B. Goods are unsold

C. The customer simply change their mind

D. All of the above

Ans: D

9. 3-PL stands for


A. Three points logistics

B. Third party logistics

C. Three points location

D. Non of the above

Ans: B

10. The supply concept originated from what discipline

A. Operation

B marketing

C. Logistics

D. Production

Ans: B

11. The supply chain management philosophy emerged in ........

A. 1960's

B 1970's

C. 1980's

D 1990's

Ans: D

12. Positive, long term relationships between supply chain participants refers to?

A. Co-operation

B. Tailor logistics

C. Partnership

D. Supply chain management

Ans: D

13. The input to a transformation process include all of the following except?

A. Material
B. People

C. Information

D. Assembly

Ans: D

14. Which came last in the development of manufacturing techniques?

A. Learn production

B. Division of labour

C. Mass production

D. Interchangeable parts

Ans: D

15. Which one of the following would not generally be considered as an aspect of operations
management?

A. Work methods

B. Secured financial resources

C. Maintain qaulity

D. Product or service design

Ans: B

16. All the following costs are likely to decrease a result of better qaulity except?

A. Customer dissatisfaction

B. Maintenance cost

C. Scrap cost

D. Warranty and service cost

Ans: B

17. Inspection, scarp, and repair are example of ?

A. Internal cost

B. External cost
C. Cost of dissatisfaction

D. Warranty and service cost

Ans: A

19. Which level of management is responsible for establishing a vision for the organization, developing
board plans and strategies, and directing subordinate manager?

A. First level manager

B. Middle level manager

C. Executive manager

D. Second level manager

Ans: C (executive manager)

20. Using your whole body to communicate is called what?

A. Miming

B. Body language

C. Single language

D. Full communication

Ans: B

21. ........ Plans have clearly defined objectives?

A. Directional

B. Specific

C. Flexible

D. Standing

Ans: B (specific)

22. The principle of objective states

A. Delegation of authority

B. Existence for a purpose

C. Formal organization
D Non of the above

Ans: B (Existence for a purpose)

23. Wich management function involves measuring results, comparing results to expectations, and
taking corrective actions?

A. Planning

B. Organising

C. Leading

D. Controlling

Ans: D (controlling)

24. Staffing needs

A. Man power planning

B. Communication

C. Authority

D. Coordination

Ans: A (man power planning)

25. According to Fayol's 14 principle of management, "Espirit De Corps" refers to which of the following?

A. Being treated fairly and kindly

B. Spirit of cooperation

C. Team work and harmony

D. Spirit of work

Ans: C (team work and harmony)

26. First step of planning is

A. Developing premises

B. Setting objectives

C. Identifying alternatives

D. Follow up
Ans: B

27. How many types of communication are there?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Ans: C (6)

28. A manager who possess knowledge of the process, equipment, and potential problem of an industry
would posses what type of managerial skill?

A. Tactical

B. Administrative

C. Interpersonal

D. Organisational

Ans: A (Tactical)

29. What is good way to continue the communication?

A. Make good eye contact

B. Be active Listener

C. Ask a question

D. Don not interrupt

Ans: C (Ask a question)

30. Which is the primary function of management?

A. Controlling

B. Planning

C. Staffing

D Directing

Ans: B (planning)
31. Planning increases the chances of success

A. True

B. False

C. Depends

D. Non of the above

Ans: A (true)

32. Non-financial incentives has many things to do with?

A. Directing

B. Motivation

C. Planning

D. Organising

Ans: B

33. Gangplank mean

A. Direct contact

B. Contact not allowed

C. Appointment before contact

D. Indirect contact

Ans: A (Direct contact)

34. Which is the oldest form of organization?

A. Line organization

B. Committee organization

C. Line and staff organization

D. Functional organization

Ans: A (Line organization)

35. Which statement is related to principle of division of work?


A. Development should be divided into subsection

B. Work should be divided into small tasks

C. Labour should be divided

D. Resources should be divided into among the jobs

Ans: B (works should be divided into small tasks)

36. Management ........

A. Reduces effectiveness

B cause chaos

C. Increases efficiency

D. Causes delay

Ans: C

37. Name the process which coordinate human efforts, assemble resources, and integrate both into an
untitled hold to be utilized in achieving specific goals

A. Management

B. Planning

C. Directing

D. Organising

Ans: D

38. As the pan of management increases in an organization, the number of level of management in the
organization.......

A. Increases

B. Decreases

C. Remain unaffected

D. Non of the above

Ans: B (Decreases)

39. Which of the following is not a limitation of planning


A. It involves cost

B. Not a guarantee to success

C. Work in dynamic manner

D. Involves time

Ans: C (work in dynamic manner)

40. Which plan involves sequence of activities

A. Policy

B. Method

C. Procedure

D. Objective

Ans: C

41. Management is..

A. An art

B. A science

C. An art and a science

D. Neither an art nor a science

Ans: C (An art and a Science)

42. Who is known as the father of management?

A. Alfred Marsala

B. Mathew Bolton

C. F. W. Taylor

D. Henry Gantt

Ans: C (F. W. Taylor)

43. Management is considered important because;

A. It helps an organization to adapt to changes


B. Seeks to integrate individual efforts

C. It helps in the development of the society

D. All of the above

Ans: D

44. Which technique of scientific management best describe 'Division of work'

A. Time study

B. Fatigue study

C. Functional foremanship

D. Method study

Ans: C

45. Assigning duties and responsibilities to the employee is the function of?

A. Top level Management

B middle level Management

C. Lower level Management

D. All of the above

Ans: D

46. Policy formulation is the function of

A. Top level Management

B. Middle level Management

C. Operation management

D. A feature of management

Ans: A

47. Pick the odd one out

A. Foreman

B. Sales manager
C. Supervisor

D. First line manager

Ans: B

48. Which management function put the right people at the right place

A. Directing

B. Staffing

C. Planning

D. Organising

Ans: B

49. ...... Means giving the right work to the right person

A. Delegation of authority

B. Responsibility

C. Effective delegation

D. All oProject

Ans: C

50. Supply of human and materials resources and help to achieve the objectives of the business is

A. Planning

B. Organising

C. Management

D. Controlling

Ans: C

51. Discipline starts from

A. Bottom to top

B. From middle

C. Top to Bottom
D. Non of the above

Ans: C

52. The content of communication is ....

A. A message

B. Noise

C. Media richness

D. Jargon

Ans: A

53. The systemic flow of services of goods or information from buying materials for product delivery to
customers is known as

A. Supply chain

B. Value chain

C. Material flow chain

D. Manufacturing flow chain

Ans: A

54. Decision model to calculate optimal quantity of inventory to be ordered is called

A. Efficient order quantity

B. Economic order quantity

C. Rational order quantity

D. Optimized order quantity

Ans: B (economic order quantity)

55. The following classes of cost are usually involved in inventory decisions

A. Cost of ordering

B. Carrying cost

C. Cost of shortage

D. All of the above


Ans: D

56. Which of the following is an inventory

A. Raw materials

B. Finished products

C. Consumable tools

D. All of the above

Ans: D

57. The cost of product failure, error prevention, and appraisal is

A. Stocking cost

B. Stock-out cost

C. Cost of quality

D. Shrinkage cost

Ans: C

58. Which of the following is not an inventory

A. Machine

B. Raw materials

C. Finished products

D. Consumable tools

Ans: A

59. Forecast

A. Becomes more accurate with longer time horizon

B. Are rarely perfect

C. Are more accurate for individual items than for group of items

D. Non of the above

Ans: B
60. A systemic process for originating, developing and evaluating new product ideas is known as

A. Marketing research

B. Product planning and development

C. Marketing forecast

D. All of the above

Ans: B

61. The length of time for which sellers extend credit terms to buyers is known as

A. Marker

B. Dating

C. Buying

D. Price tag

Ans: B

62. What is the primary objective for materials management

A. Efficient material planning

B. Maintaining good supplier and customer relationship

C. Supply and distribution of materials

D. All of the above

Ans: B

63. Which of the following is not an input into logistics

A. Land

B. Competitive advantage

C. Facilities

D. Equipment

Ans: B (Competitive advantage)

64. Which one of these is responsible for hardness of tablet?


A. Die filling

B. Compression force

C. a & b

D. Non of the above

Ans: C

65. Friabilator is operated for ........ Revolutions per minute.

A. 100

B. 75

C. 50

D. 25

Ans: A

66. In dissolution test, flask is maintained at

A. 31°C +/- 5C

B. 41°C +/-0.1C

C. 39°C +/- 0.6C

D. 40°C +/-0.1C

Ans: A

67. Enteric coated tablet disintgerate in .... Hours in a simulated intestinal fluid?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Ans: B

68. 5m separation of tablet in 2 or more distinct layers is called

A. Capping
B. Mottling

C. Lamination

D. Air entrapment

Ans: C

69. Capping is prevented by using ...punch

A. Flat

B. Circular

C. Square

D. Rectangular

Ans: A

70. Plating of punch forces is done by

A. Chromium

B. Zinc

C. Iron

D Any of the above

Ans: A

71. Unequal distribution of colour is called

A. Capping

B. Lamination

C. Mottling

D. Non of the above

Ans: C

72. ........ Is a directly compressible exipient

A. Spray dried lactose

B. Dibasic calcium phosphate


C. Non of the above

D. All of the above

Ans: A (Spray dried lactose)

73. Sta-Rx 1500 contain ......% of moisture

A. 15

B. 10

C. 18

D. 50

Ans: B

74. The pH of the small intestine is .....

A. 1-2

B. 3-4

C. 6

D. 7-8

Ans: D (7-8)

75. Perforated pan is used for

A. Sugar coating

B. Film coating

C. A&B

D. Non of the above

Ans: C

76. Subcoating is done to

A. Round the edges

B. Increase in the bulk of tablet

C. A&b
D. Make water resistant

Ans: C (a&b)

77. Which is an example of an opacifier

A. TiO2

B. MgO

C. Silicate

D. Non of the above

Ans: A (TiO2)

78. Empty capsule has moisture content in the range of

A. 60%

B. 12-15%

C. 50-70%

D. 30%

No. 15

Ans: C (50-70%)

79. Which machine is designed for filling of pellets?

A. Rotofil

B. Rotosort

C. Ordinary machine

D. Non of the above

Ans: A

80. Soft gelatin capsules should not contain more than ...... ppm of iron as impurity.

A. 5

B. 15

C. 40
D. 60

Ans: B (15)

81. Enteric resin used for coating is .....

A. Zein

B. Shellac

C. Cellulose acetate pthalate

D. All of the above

Ans: B (shellac)

82. Base for chewable tablets includes

A. Mannitol

B. Glucose

C. Lactose

D. Non of the above

Ans: A

83. Enteric coated tablet disintgerate in the .......

A. Stomach

B. Liver

C. Intestine

D. Mouth

Ans: C

84. One of these is not used as tablet glidant

A. Colloidal silica

B. Starch

C. Talc

D. Magnesium stearate
Ans: B (starch)

85. Rotosort is used for

A. Sorting filled capsules

B. Filling the capsules

C. Mixing of powder

D. None of the above

Ans: A (sorting filled capsules)

86. Hardness of tablet is measured by

A. Pfizer tester

B. Erweka tester

C. Strong cobb

D. All of the above

Ans: D

87. Shells of gelatin capsules is made elastic by adding

A. Sorbitol

B. PEG

C. Povidone

D. Lactose

Ans: A (sorbitol)

88. A retardant material that forms a hydrophilic matrix in the formulation of matrix tablet is

A. HPMC

B. CAP

C. Polyethylene

D. Carnuba wax

Ans: D (carnuba wax)


89. How much amount is accepted to dissolve in a dissolution medium in 20mins at 50rpm?

A. Not less than 70%

B. Not more than 80%

C. Not less than 80%

D. 80%

Ans: C

90. Which tablet compression machine is best in compressing granules

A. Single press

B. Longitudinal press

C. Rotary press

D. Stamping press

Ans: C

91. Low melting point substances causes processing problem in tablet. Identify it

A. Poor flow

B. Weight variation

C. Sticking

D. Picking

Ans: C (sticking)

92. Which capsule size number has the highest capacity

A. 5

B. 3

C. 1

D. 000

Ans: D

93. Gelatin and glycerin are used for the preparation of lamellae in a specific ratio?
A. 1:1

B. 5:1

C. 9:1

D. 10:1

Ans: C (9:1)

94. You are required to make 350 g of a paste that contains 15% w/w zinc

oxide. Which of the following is the amount of zinc oxide required?

A. 5.25 g

B. 52.50 g

C. 35.00 g

D. 3.50 g

E. 15.00 g

Ans: If the paste is 15% w/w, then 100 g paste contains 15.0 g zinc oxide. The

total amount of zinc oxide can thus be calculated:

350/100 = 3.50

15% × 3.5 = 52.50 g.

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

95. Given a 20% w/v solution of chlorhexidine gluconate, what volume is

required to make 400 mL of a 2% w/v solution?

A. 40 mL

B. 20 mL

C. 80 mL

D. 2 mL

E. 4 mL

Ans: A. 40ml
C1V1= C2V2

C1= 20%, V1=?

C2=2%, V2=400ml

V1= C2*V2/C1

V1= 2%*400ml/20%

V1=40ml

96. A 1 in 10 000 solution of potassium permanganate contains which of

the following concentrations?

A. 50.0 mg potassium permanganate in 500 mL solution

B. 1.0 mg potassium permanganate in 100 mL solution

C. 5.0 mg potassium permanganate in 500 mL solution

D. 1.0 mg potassium permanganate in 1000 mL solution

E. 3.0 mg potassium permanganate in 300 mL solution

Ans: I: 10000 means 1g in 10000ml

Convert the grams to mg ( multiply 1 by 1000) to get the unit volume which will be 1000 divide by 10000
will give you 0.1mg/ml

And out of all the options. It’s only A that gives us the unit volume of 0.1mg/ml

97. In your pharmacy you have a stock solution of drug F with a

concentration of 25% w/v. Drug F is used as a mouthwash at a concentration

of 0.25% w/v. You are requested to supply 50 mL of a solution

of intermediate strength, such that the patient will dilute this solution 1

in 20 to get the correct concentration immediately before use. Which of

the following should be the concentration of the intermediate solution?

A. 5% w/v

B. 10% w/v

C. 2.5% w/v
D. 0.5% w/v

E. 15% w/v

Ans :Drug F is used as a mouthwash at a concentration of 0.25% w/v. If this has

been prepared from a solution that has been diluted 1 in 20, multiplication

by 20 gives the concentration of the intermediate solution, which is,

therefore, 5% w/v.

The correct answer is A.

98. Which of the following volumes of an adrenaline 1 in 100 solution

would be given by intramuscular injection to a 2-year-old child for

treatment of anaphylaxis if the dose were 120 micrograms stat?

A.12.00 mL

B.120.00 mL

C. 0.12 mL

D. 24.0 mL

E. 0.24 mL

Here 👉1 in 1000 solution contains 1.0 g, or 1000 000 micrograms, in 1000 mL.

This means that there are 1000 micrograms in 1 mL. The total volume of

solution required can thus be calculated:

(1 mL/1000 micrograms) × 120 micrograms = 0.12 mL.

Therefore, 120 micrograms is contained in 0.12 mL. Accordingly, the correct

answer is C.

99. A child requires a single oral daily dose of 7.0 mg/kg body weight of

drug A. The child’s weight is 8.0 kg. Which of the following oral daily

doses of drug A is received by this child?

A.0.82 mg
B. 8.20 mg

C. 82.00 mg

D. 5.60 mg

E. 56.00 mg

Ans: 7mg in 1kg, Therefore in 8kg, it would require 7 × 8 = 56mg (E)

100. You are presented with a prescription for allopurinol tablets 100 mg at

a dose of 300 mg each day for 14 days, reducing to 200 mg for a further

7 days. How many packs of 28 tablets should you supply?

A. Two

B. Three

C. One

D. Four

E One and a half

Ans: 3×14=42

2×7=14

42+14=56

56/28= 2pcks (A)

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