THIS IS AN AI-GENERATED MOCK TEST.

SCIENCE OF PSYCHOLOGY AND PSYCHOGENESIS

1. Who is often referred to as the "father of modern psychology" and established

the first psychology laboratory?
a) Sigmund Freud
b) B.F. Skinner
c) Wilhelm Wundt
d) Abraham Maslow

2. What approach to psychology emphasizes the study of observable behavior and

the influence of the environment on behavior?
a) Humanism
b) Structuralism
c) Functionalism
d) Behaviorism

3. The cognitive revolution in psychology emphasized the study of:

a) Observable behavior
b) Unconscious motivations
c) Mental processes and thinking
d) Social interactions

4. Structuralism, founded by Edward Titchener, focused on the:

a) Functional purposes of behavior
b) Study of observable behavior
c) Analysis of unconscious desires
d) Exploration of basic sensory experiences

5. The Great Greek triumvirates that significantly contributed to the development of

Psychology.
a)Plato, Aristotle, Socrates
b)Plato, Archimedes, Socrates
c)Socrates, Plato, Democritus
d)Socrates, St. Aquinas, St. Augustine

PRINCIPLES OF GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

 6. Which stage of Erik Erikson's psychosocial development theory occurs during
infancy?
a) Autonomy versus Shame and Doubt
b) Initiative versus Guilt
c) Identity versus Role Confusion
d) Trust versus Mistrust

7. Piaget's cognitive development theory consists of four stages. In which stage do

children start to think logically and understand conservation?
a) Sensorimotor stage
b) Preoperational stage
c) Concrete operational stage
d) Formal operational stage

8. According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, which level of moral

reasoning is characterized by making decisions based on societal norms and
laws?
a) Preconventional level
b) Conventional level
c) Postconventional level
d) Principled level

9. Vygotsky's sociocultural theory emphasizes the role of:

a) Genetics in cognitive development
b) Individual exploration and discovery
c) Social interactions and cultural context
d) Biological maturation in learning

10. According to Erikson, the psychosocial crisis of adolescence revolves around:

a) Trust versus mistrust
b) Autonomy versus shame and doubt
c) Identity versus role confusion
d) Intimacy versus isolation

11. Which term describes the process by which a learned response becomes
associated with a particular stimulus through repeated pairings?
a) Operant conditioning
b) Classical conditioning
c) Observational learning
d) Insight learning

12. The concept of "zone of proximal development" refers to:

a) The difference between a child's current ability and their potential ability
b) The stage at which a child reaches formal operational thinking
c) The point at which a child develops object permanence
d) The time period during which critical periods of development occur

13. During which stage of development do individuals typically experience physical

and cognitive decline, often marked by memory loss and decreased cognitive
function?
a) Adolescence
b) Early adulthood
c) Middle adulthood
d) Late adulthood

14. Which stage of development occurs before birth?

a) Infancy
b) Adolescence
c) Prenatal
d) Adulthood

15. During which prenatal stage does rapid cell division and implantation occur?
a) Germinal stage
b) Embryonic stage
c) Fetal stage
d) Neonatal stage

16. Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development includes how many stages?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10

17. Which stage of Jean Piaget's cognitive development theory is characterized by

egocentrism and symbolic thinking?
a) Sensorimotor
b) Preoperational
c) Concrete operational
d) Formal operational

18. At which stage of development do individuals typically experience puberty?

a) Infancy
b) Childhood
c) Adolescence
d) Adulthood

19. According to Erikson, the primary task during adolescence is the development of:
a) Intimacy
b) Generativity
c) Identity
d) Autonomy

20. Which stage of development is often characterized by the "midlife crisis"?

a) Early adulthood
b) Middle adulthood
c) Late adulthood
d) Elderhood

21. The concept of "ego integrity vs. despair" is a key idea in which theory of aging?
a) Disengagement theory
b) Activity theory
c) Socioemotional selectivity theory
d) Erikson's psychosocial theory

22. Which cognitive ability tends to decline with age, as highlighted in Schaie's
stages of cognitive development?
a) Fluid intelligence
b) Crystallized intelligence
c) Sensory perception
d) Physical strength

23. According to Kubler-Ross, what are the stages of coping with impending death?
a) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
b) Shock, disbelief, acceptance, remorse, closure
c) Panic, resentment, negotiation, hope, serenity
d) Avoidance, sadness, reconciliation, understanding, peace
 24. Miscarriages, often known as spontaneous abortions, can occur due to various
factors. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of miscarriages?
a) Genetic abnormalities in the fetus
b) Maternal infections during pregnancy
c) Adequate intake of prenatal vitamins
d) Hormonal imbalances in the mother

25. Which method of birth involves surgically delivering the baby through an incision
in the mother's abdomen and uterus?
a) Transverse birth
b) Breech birth
c) Cesarean birth
d) Instrumental birth

PHYSIOLOGICAL BASES OF BEHAVIOR

26. The communication system that controls bodily functions using hormones is
known as the:
a) Nervous system
b) Endocrine system
c) Immune system
d) Circulatory system

27. The part of the neuron that receives information from other neurons or sensory
receptors is called the:
a) Axon
b) Dendrite
c) Synapse
d) Myelin sheath

28. The "fight or flight" response is associated with the activation of which part of
the nervous system?
a) Central nervous system
b) Autonomic nervous system
c) Somatic nervous system
d) Sympathetic nervous system

29. The area of the brain responsible for regulating basic bodily functions such as
breathing, heart rate, and digestion is called the:
a) Hippocampus
b) Cerebellum
c) Hypothalamus
d) Amygdala

30. Which neurotransmitter is associated with mood regulation, sleep, and appetite?
a) Serotonin
b) Dopamine
c) Acetylcholine
d) GABA

31. The process by which the brain can reorganize itself by forming new neural
connections throughout life is known as:
a) Neuroplasticity
b) Myelination
c) Neurulation
d) Neurogenesis

32. The junction between two neurons where information is transmitted through
chemical signals is called the:
a) Axon
b) Dendrite
c) Synapse
d) Myelin sheath

SENSATION AND PERCEPTION

33. Which term refers to the process of organizing and interpreting sensory
information to give it meaning?
a) Sensation
b) Perception
c) Interpretation
d) Sensorization

34. What term describes the minimum difference in stimulation required to detect a
difference between two stimuli?
a) Sensory adaptation
b) Absolute threshold
c) Perceptual constancy
d) Sensory discrimination

L.I.M.

35. When information is being moved from sensory memory to short-term memory,
what process is taking place?
a) Encoding
b) Retrieval
c) Consolidation
d) Sensory Adaptation

36. Which type of memory is responsible for holding a limited amount of information
for a short duration?
a) Long-term Memory
b) Episodic Memory
c) Semantic Memory
d) Short-term Memory

37. According to Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences, which

intelligence involves understanding oneself and having a deep awareness of
one's emotions?
a) Logical-Mathematical Intelligence
b) Spatial Intelligence
c) Interpersonal Intelligence
d) Intrapersonal Intelligence

38. Which learning theory focuses on mental processes such as attention,

perception, and problem-solving, and emphasizes the use of mnemonic devices
to enhance memory recall?
a) Behaviorist Theory
b) Constructivist Theory
c) Cognitive Learning Theory
d) Social Learning Theory

39. When information is better recalled if the context of learning matches the context
of retrieval, what phenomenon is being described?
a) State-Dependent Memory
b) Spacing Effect
c) Context-Dependent Memory
d) Retroactive Interference

EMOTION AND MOTIVATION

40. What is the James-Lange theory of emotion?

a) Emotions are caused by physiological responses.
b) Emotions precede physiological reactions.
c) Emotions result from cognitive appraisal.
d) Emotions are universal and hardwired.

41. Which brain structure plays a crucial role in the regulation of emotions, such as
fear and aggression?
a) Hippocampus
b) Prefrontal cortex
c) Amygdala
d) Thalamus

42. What is intrinsic motivation?

a) Motivation driven by external rewards or punishments.
b) Motivation arising from internal factors and personal satisfaction.
c) Motivation influenced by social pressure.
d) Motivation linked to cultural norms.

PERSONALITY

43. According to the Big Five model of personality, which trait is characterized by
being organized, responsible, and dependable?
a) Extraversion
b) Neuroticism
c) Agreeableness
d) Conscientiousness

44. The defense mechanism in which an individual attributes their own undesirable
qualities onto others is called:
a) Sublimation
b) Projection
c) Rationalization
d) Displacement
 45. Which approach to personality emphasizes the role of unconscious conflicts and
early childhood experiences in shaping personality?
a) Humanistic
b) Behavioral
c) Psychoanalytic
d) Trait

46. The concept of self-actualization is closely associated with:

a) Abraham Maslow
b) Erik Erikson
c) Jean Piaget
d) Lev Vygotsky

APPLIED PSYCHOLOGY

47. Which of the following is a primary focus of applied psychology?

a) Studying theoretical concepts of human behavior
b) Conducting research experiments for academic purposes
c) Applying psychological principles to real-world problems
d) Analyzing historical perspectives in psychology

48. A clinical psychologist is most likely to work with individuals who are
experiencing:
a) Workplace productivity issues
b) Normal developmental changes
c) Psychological disorders and emotional distress
d) Everyday cognitive biases

49. What is the main goal of industrial-organizational psychology?

a) Diagnosing and treating mental illnesses
b) Studying unconscious desires and conflicts
c) Enhancing workplace productivity and employee well-being
d) Analyzing human behavior through literature

50. A school psychologist is likely to be involved in:

a) Providing therapy for individuals with severe mental illnesses
b) Conducting research on cognitive processes in adults
c) Assessing and supporting students' academic and emotional needs
d) Analyzing historical trends in psychological theories
PSYCHOLOGICAL STATISTICS

1. What is the purpose of psychological statistics?

a) To analyze the behavior of individuals
b) To summarize and interpret data in psychology
c) To predict future psychological trends
d) To diagnose mental disorders

2. Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?

a) Range
b) Standard deviation
c) Variance
d) Mean

3. A negatively skewed distribution means:

a) The data is symmetrically distributed
b) The tail of the distribution is on the left side
c) The tail of the distribution is on the right side
d) The data has a normal distribution

4. A p-value is:
a) The probability of committing a Type II error
b) The probability of obtaining the observed results if the null hypothesis is true
c) The probability of committing a Type I error
d) The probability of obtaining a statistically significant result

5. What does a correlation coefficient of -0.75 indicate?

a) A strong positive correlation
b) A weak positive correlation
c) A strong negative correlation
d) No correlation

6. Which statistical test is used to determine if there is a significant difference

between the means of two independent groups?
a) ANOVA
b) t-test
c) Chi-square test
d) Regression analysis
 7. The purpose of random sampling is to:
a) Ensure that every member of the population is included in the sample
b) Eliminate outliers from the data
c) Increase the sample size for accuracy
d) Obtain a representative sample of the population

8. What is a Type I error in hypothesis testing?

a) Rejecting a true null hypothesis
b) Failing to reject a false null hypothesis
c) Rejecting a false null hypothesis
d) Failing to reject a true null hypothesis

9. A researcher is conducting an experiment to study the effects of a new drug on

anxiety levels. What is the independent variable in this study?
a) Anxiety levels
b) The new drug
c) The participants
d) The research design

10. A positive correlation coefficient indicates:

a) No relationship between the variables
b) A strong negative relationship between the variables
c) A weak negative relationship between the variables
d) A strong positive relationship between the variables

11. What does a p-value of 0.05 indicate in hypothesis testing?

a) The results are highly significant
b) The results are not statistically significant
c) The results are irrelevant
d) The results are inconclusive

12. In an experimental design, what is the purpose of a control group?

a) To receive the experimental treatment
b) To establish a baseline for comparison
c) To eliminate extraneous variables
d) To validate the results
13. What is the purpose of inferential statistics?
a) To summarize and interpret data
b) To make predictions about future events
c) To draw conclusions about a population based on a sample
d) To measure the central tendency of a distribution

14. Which statistical test is used to determine if there is a significant association

between two categorical variables?
a) t-test
b) Regression analysis
c) ANOVA
d) Chi-square test

15. When should a one-tailed test be used in hypothesis testing?

a) When the researcher expects a significant result in both directions
b) When the researcher is only interested in a significant result in one direction
c) When the sample size is large
d) When the population is normally distributed

16. What is the purpose of a correlation coefficient?

a) To determine causation between variables
b) To measure the strength and direction of a linear relationship
c) To calculate the mean of a distribution
d) To identify outliers in a dataset

17. Which of the following is a non-probability sampling technique?

a) Simple random sampling
b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling
d) Convenience sampling

18. Which of the following research designs allows for causal conclusions to be
drawn?
a) Cross-sectional design
b) Longitudinal design
c) Correlational design
d) Experimental design

19. A researcher wants to study the relationship between hours of study and exam
scores. What type of correlation is expected?
a) Negative correlation
b) Positive correlation
c) Zero correlation
d) No relationship

20. Which of the following is an example of an ordinal scale measurement?

a) Age in years
b) Height in inches
c) Likert scale responses
d) Weight in pounds

21. You're conducting a study with three different groups of participants: Group A,
Group B, and Group C. You want to compare the means of a continuous variable
among these groups. Which statistical test should you use?
a) Independent t-test
b) Paired t-test
c) One-way ANOVA
d) Chi-square test

22. In your research, you're examining the relationship between the number of hours
spent studying and the exam scores obtained by students. Which statistical test
is most suitable for assessing the strength of this relationship?
a) Mann-Whitney U test
b) Pearson correlation coefficient
c) Chi-square test
d) Kruskal-Wallis test

23. You're investigating the effectiveness of a new teaching method by measuring

the performance of the same group of students before and after the intervention.
What test is appropriate for analyzing changes over time within the same group?
a) Independent t-test
b) One-way ANOVA
c) Paired t-test
d) Fisher's exact test

24. You're conducting a study to determine if there's a significant difference in the

proportions of male and female participants who prefer two different brands of
soft drinks. Which statistical test should you use?
a) Chi-square test
b) Mann-Whitney U test
c) Student's t-test
d) Regression analysis

25. You have limited data but want to compare the means of a continuous variable
between two independent groups. Which test is appropriate in this scenario?
a) Independent t-test
b) Welch's t-test
c) ANOVA
d) Chi-square test

26. Your study involves analyzing the combined effect of age, income, and education
level on voting behavior. What statistical method would you use for this analysis?
a) Paired t-test
b) Regression analysis
c) Chi-square test
d) Kruskal-Wallis test

27. You're investigating the impact of a new exercise program on weight loss by
measuring participants' weights before and after the program. What test is
appropriate for comparing the means of these related measurements?
a) Independent t-test
b) Paired t-test
c) ANOVA
d) Wilcoxon signed-rank test

28. You're examining the relationship between the frequency of social media usage
(continuous) and the self-reported levels of happiness (categorical: low,
moderate, high). Which statistical test is suitable for this analysis?
a) Regression analysis
b) Chi-square test
c) Mann-Whitney U test
d) One-way ANOVA

29. You're comparing the scores of two groups of participants who received different
teaching methods to see if there's a significant difference in their performance.
The data is not normally distributed. Which statistical test should you use?
a) Mann-Whitney U test
b) Paired t-test
c) One-way ANOVA
d) Independent t-test

30. You're conducting a study involving three age groups (young, middle-aged, and
elderly) to analyze their satisfaction levels with a new product. You want to
determine if there's a significant difference in satisfaction across these groups,
but keep in mind that the distribution of the data is not normal. Which statistical
test is appropriate?
a) One-way ANOVA
b) Two-way ANOVA
c) Kruskal-Wallis H test
d) Repeated measures