Scientific American Presenting Psychology 1st

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1. Chemically, medicines such as morphine and codeine are related to:

A) cocaine.
B) amphetamine.
C) opium.
D) caffeine.

2. Psychologists refer to one's awareness of oneself, one's thoughts, and the environment
as:
A) perception.
B) intelligence.
C) cognition.
D) consciousness.

3. The term "consciousness" refers to:

A) the state of being awake.
B) one's awareness of oneself and the environment.
C) higher-level reasoning and problem solving.
D) the ability to respond to the environment.

4. Awareness of sensations in the environment and in one's self is another word for:
A) consciousness.
B) cognition.
C) motivation.
D) emotion.

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5. Which of these early psychologists believed that psychology should study observable
behavior, not consciousness?
A) William James
B) Wilhelm Wundt
C) John B. Watson
D) Edward Titchener

6. Which of these pioneering psychologists viewed the study of consciousness as central to

psychology?
A) B. F. Skinner
B) William James
C) John B. Watson
D) Ivan Pavlov

7. Imagine that William James and John B. Watson travelled forward in time from 1908 to
this year's American Psychological Association conference. How would the two
psychologists likely react to the current study of consciousness in psychology?
A) Only William James would approve of it.
B) Only John B. Watson would approve it.
C) Both William James and John B.Watson will be quite unhappy with it.
D) Both William James and John B. Watson would be comfortable with it.

8. Which researcher is MOST closely associated with the term "stream of consciousness"?
A) John B. Watson
B) Edward Titchener
C) Wilhelm Wundt
D) William James

9. Which statement is MOST accurate with respect to the current study of consciousness in
psychology?
A) Psychologists do not believe it is possible to study consciousness objectively.
B) Understanding conscious experience is now an important goal in psychology.
C) Psychologists have revived and refined introspection as a way to study
consciousness.
D) Recent technological advances have failed to offer much insight into
consciousness.

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10. The contemporary field of _____ is devoted to the scientific study of conscious
experience.
A) clinical psychology
B) developmental psychology
C) cognitive psychology
D) structuralism

11. Dr. Warner describes her research interest as “the conscious processes underlying
decision-making and problem solving.” Dr. Warner is MOST likely a(n) _____
psychologist.
A) clinical
B) developmental
C) industrial/organizational
D) cognitive

12. One's ability to read, understand, and—ideally—remember a textbook paragraph would be

MOST interesting to a(n) _____ psychologist.
A) developmental
B) cognitive
C) social
D) clinical

13. The _____ perspective in psychology is probably the LEAST sympathetic to the study
of consciousness.
A) humanistic
B) evolutionary
C) behavioral
D) cognitive

14. Think back through psychology's history. Which statement is TRUE?

A) Consciousness is currently an important focus in psychology, but that has not
always been the case.
B) Consciousness has always been a key focus of study in psychology.
C) Consciousness has become an important topic in psychology only very recently.
D) Consciousness was a central focus in the field only very early on in psychology's
history.

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15. Which is NOT a barrier to the scientific study of consciousness?
A) Consciousness is inherently subjective.
B) Most psychologists no longer believe consciousness is a suitable subject of study.
C) Consciousness is always changing.
D) Sophisticated technology is needed to penetrate the brain basis of consciousness.

16. _____ refers to information processing with little or no conscious effort.

A) Inattentional blindness
B) Selective attention
C) Automatic processing
D) Sensory adaptation

17. Automatic processing is defined as the:

A) tendency to become less aware over time of unchanging stimuli.
B) processing of information with little or no conscious effort.
C) ability to focus attention on a small segment of information.
D) failure to process objects one can clearly sense.

18. Summer locked her door when she left home this morning, but she can't actually
remember doing it. This is because, for Summer, locking the door involved:
A) automatic processing.
B) inattentional blindness.
C) selective attention.
D) sensory adaptation.

19. Which situation BEST illustrates automatic processing?

A) Gerri drives into a pole that seems to have appeared from nowhere.
B) Francisco ignores the sound of the television to focus on a telephone conversation.
C) Devin pours water into the coffee maker, forgetting that he added water just a
second ago.
D) Ellie no longer smells the cat's litter box in her own apartment.

20. Automatic processing:

A) interferes with conscious information processing.
B) is a product of conscious information processing.
C) is the same as conscious information processing.
D) allows information to be sorted without conscious effort.

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21. A narrow focus on specific stimuli is called:
A) sensory adaptation.
B) inattentional blindness.
C) automatic processing.
D) selective attention.

22. While reading a friend's status update on a social networking site, Cory ignores the
scrolling newsfeed and the changing advertisements on the right-hand side of the screen.
Cory is demonstrating:
A) the cocktail party effect.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) selective attention.
D) inattentional blindness.

23. Selective attention:

A) prevents unselected information from being processed.
B) is better among older than among younger adults.
C) favors unusual stimuli over familiar ones.
D) benefits from positive emotions more than negative emotions.

24. All else being equal, which individual is MOST likely to show enhanced selective
attention?
A) Elsie, an older adult
B) Jerry, a young child
C) Alison, a teenager
D) Rhiannon, a young woman

25. The cocktail party effect is a phenomenon of:

A) memory.
B) sensation.
C) social networking.
D) attention.

26. The cocktail party effect BEST illustrates:

A) a hypnagogic hallucination.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) selective attention.
D) inattentional blindness.

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27. Lance is engrossed in an intense conversation at a crowded art gallery opening.
Suddenly, his attention becomes riveted by the mention of his name in a far corner of
the room. Lance's experience demonstrates:
A) inattentional blindness.
B) the cocktail party effect.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) hypnagogic processing.

28. The failure to become aware of stimuli that one is physically capable of sensing is
called:
A) selective attention.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) inattentional blindness.
D) automatic processing.

29. Inattentional blindness demonstrates that:

A) one is not always aware of the stimuli one processes.
B) stimuli that are sensed are not necessarily attended to.
C) certain stimuli are almost always processed automatically.
D) awareness decreases when stimuli do not change.

30. In Ulric Neisser's classic demonstration of inattentional blindness, just over _____% of
participants failed to notice the image of a woman superimposed on a video of a
basketball game.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40

31. In a classic demonstration of inattentional blindness, Ulric Neisser's participants counted

passes while watching a basketball game video (Neisser, 1979). The researchers
recorded whether participants noticed a woman's image superimposed on the video. In
this study, the _____ variable is _____.
A) dependent; whether participants noticed the woman
B) control; whether participants noticed the woman
C) dependent; the number of passes counted
D) control; the number of passes counted

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32. Biological processes occurring on a cycle of approximately 24 hours are called:
A) biorhythms.
B) diurnal rhythms.
C) circadian rhythms.
D) cyclic rhythms.

33. Which process exemplifies a circadian rhythm?

A) the sleep–wake cycle
B) seasonal bird migration
C) the menstrual cycle
D) All of these are circadian rhythms.

34. Circadian rhythms are regulated by:

A) the suprachiasmatic nucleus only.
B) patterns of light and dark only.
C) both the suprachiasmatic nucleus and patterns of light and dark.
D) neither the suprachiasmatic nucleus nor patterns of light and dark.

35. Every 28 or 29 days, Danielle menstruates. Danielle's cycle exemplifies:

A) a biological rhythm.
B) a circadian rhythm.
C) both a circadian rhythm and a biological rhythm.
D) neither a circadian rhythm nor a biological rhythm.

36. The ________ in the hypothalamus regulates the body's circadian rhythms.
A) suprachiasmatic nucleus
B) retinal ganglion
C) ventromedial area
D) lateral geniculate nucleus

37. Which of these physiological cycles exemplifies a circadian rhythm?

A) body temperature variations
B) the sleep–wake cycle
C) Both of these are circadian rhythms.
D) Neither of these is a circadian rhythm.

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38. Concerning biological rhythms, which statement is true?
A) Biological rhythms are different and distinct from circadian rhythms.
B) A number of biological rhythms are also circadian rhythms.
C) Most biological rhythms are circadian rhythms.
D) All biological rhythms are circadian rhythms.

39. Which brain or body structure is correctly matched with its function?
A) pineal gland — secretes melatonin
B) suprachiasmatic nucleus — regulates alertness
C) retinal ganglion cells — regulate pineal gland
D) reticular formation — senses light

40. A person who has more energy in the evening is known as a(n) _____ while a person
with more energy in the morning is known as a(n) _____.
A) lark; lark
B) lark; owl
C) owl; lark
D) owl; owl

41. According to the text, about 1 in _____ people are true "morning people." Another 1 in
_____ people are true "night people."
A) 5; 5
B) 5; 4
C) 4; 5
D) 4; 4

42. Bronwyn is a night auditor in a hotel. Most nights, she works from 11 P.M. to 7 A.M.
She is not alone: shift workers make up _____% of the American workforce.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25

43. Difficulty falling or staying asleep is referred to as:

A) cataplexy.
B) insomnia.
C) sleep apnea.
D) narcolepsy.

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44. José has trouble falling sleep. Even though he goes to bed at 11 each night, he's often
still awake at 2 or 2:30 in the morning. José suffers from:
A) sleep apnea.
B) insomnia.
C) cataplexy.
D) narcolepsy.

45. A manufacturing company installs bright lights in a plant in which many employees
work the 11 P.M.–7 A.M. shift. The lights simulate morning sun, helping the
suprachiasmatic nucleus to reduce the pineal gland's production of the sleep-inducing
hormone called:
A) leptin.
B) melatonin.
C) estrogen.
D) norepinephrine.

46. A researcher finds that scores on a measure of insomnia are moderately associated with
scores on a measure of depressive symptoms. Which of the following correlation
coefficients is the researcher MOST likely to report?
A) –.35
B) .05
C) .30
D) .90

47. Which stage of consciousness is correctly paired with its corresponding brain waves?
A) waking consciousness — theta waves
B) Stage 1 sleep — alpha waves
C) Stage 3 sleep — delta waves
D) Stage 4 sleep — beta waves

48. Which choice correctly orders the different brain waves that sleepers display as they
pass from waking consciousness to Stage 1 sleep, and finally to Stage 3 sleep?
A) alpha, theta, beta, delta
B) alpha, beta, delta, theta
C) beta, theta, alpha, delta
D) beta, alpha, theta, delta

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49. As an individual passes from an awake, alert state to a relaxed, drowsy state, his or her
brain waves change from _____ waves to _____ waves.
A) alpha; beta
B) alpha; theta
C) beta; alpha
D) beta; theta

50. When the brain is alert and awake and an EEG shows _____ waves.
A) alpha
B) beta
C) delta
D) theta

51. EEGs show that _____ waves occur during the first stage of sleep.
A) alpha
B) delta
C) sigma
D) theta

52. Brief periods of “spiky” brain wave patterns called sleep spindles are characteristic of
____ sleep.
A) REM
B) Stage 1
C) Stage 2
D) slow-wave

53. In general terms, how do brain waves change as a sleeper progresses from Stage 1 sleep
to Stage 4 sleep?
A) Their frequency decreases and their amplitude increases.
B) Their frequency increases and their amplitude decreases.
C) Both their frequency and their amplitude decrease.
D) Both their frequency and their amplitude increase.

54. Together, Stage 3 sleep and Stage 4 sleep are called _____ sleep.
A) light
B) hypnagogic
C) slow-wave
D) REM

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55. The greatest secretion of growth hormone occurs during _____ sleep.
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) REM
D) Stage 4

56. Dreams are most often reported when sleepers wake from _____ sleep.
A) Stage 1
B) REM
C) slow-wave
D) non-REM

57. REM sleep is paradoxical because:

A) the brain is active, but the major skeletal muscles are paralyzed.
B) the skeletal muscles remain active, but the brain is inactive.
C) the brain is less active than it is during other sleep stages.
D) both the brain and the body are inactive.

58. Warren's eyes are moving rapidly behind their lids. His legs and arms are paralyzed.
Warren is showing signs of:
A) sleep terrors.
B) sleep spindles.
C) REM sleep.
D) cataplexy.

59. The brain waves during REM sleep MOST closely resemble those seen during:
A) waking consciousness.
B) Stage 2 sleep.
C) Stage 3 sleep.
D) Stage 4 sleep.

60. How long is a typical sleep cycle, in which a sleeper progresses through some or all of
the sleep stages?
A) 1 hour
B) 90 minutes
C) 2 hours
D) several hours

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61. Of the non-REM sleep stages, people spend the most time in Stage:
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.

62. Adults spend about ______% of their sleep in Stage 2.

A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50

63. On a typical weeknight, the average American sleeps:

A) fewer than 6 hours.
B) 6–7 hours.
C) 7–8 hours.
D) more than 8 hours.

64. About 1 in _____ Americans gets fewer than 6 hours of sleep on a typical weeknight.
A) 8
B) 6
C) 5
D) 4

65. "An individual who averages less than 6 hours of sleep per night" is a(n) ______
definition of a short sleeper.
A) operational
B) procedural
C) experimental
D) empirical

66. Sudden "sleep attacks" are characteristic of a sleep disorder called:

A) narcolepsy.
B) insomnia.
C) sleep terrors.
D) sleep apnea.

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67. Which statement BEST expresses the relationship between narcolepsy and cataplexy?
A) Cataplexy and narcolepsy are similar disorders.
B) Cataplexy is a symptom of narcolepsy.
C) Narcolepsy is a form of cataplexy.
D) Narcolepsy and cataplexy are both sleep disturbances.

68. Ron experiences overwhelming sleep attacks. These attacks can happen anytime,
anywhere—during meetings at work, at family events, on commuter trains, and during
church services. Sometimes, Ron has nearly a dozen such attacks in a single day. Ron
suffers from a sleep disturbance called:
A) cataplexy.
B) REM behavior disorder.
C) narcolepsy.
D) insomnia.

69. Most often, narcoleptic attacks last:

A) 1 or 2 seconds.
B) seconds or minutes.
C) about an hour.
D) an hour or two.

70. _____ entails sudden episodes involving a loss of muscle tone.

A) Narcolepsy
B) Somnambulism
C) Sleep paralysis
D) Cataplexy

71. Following a sudden loss of muscle tone, Ward falls to the floor, as limp as cooked
spaghetti. Ward is experiencing _____, a symptom of _____.
A) cataplexy; narcolepsy
B) narcolepsy; cataplexy
C) sleep paralysis; narcolepsy
D) cataplexy; sleep paralysis

72. Most sleep paralysis episodes last:

A) a few seconds.
B) several minutes.
C) 10 to 15 minutes.
D) 20 to 30 minutes.

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73. Cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic hallucinations are all common symptoms of
a sleep disorder called:
A) sleep terrors.
B) insomnia.
C) narcolepsy.
D) REM sleep behavior disorder.

74. The frequency of insomnia is _____ correlated with the frequency of vivid hypnagogic
hallucinations.
A) negatively
B) not
C) weakly
D) positively

75. Impaired REM regulation contributes to:

A) narcolepsy.
B) REM sleep behavior disorder.
C) both narcolepsy and REM sleep behavior disorder.
D) neither narcolepsy nor REM sleep behavior disorder.

76. According to the text, which sleep disorders are more common among men than among
women?
A) narcolepsy and REM sleep behavior disorder
B) REM sleep behavior disorder and insomnia
C) narcolepsy and sleep apnea
D) REM sleep behavior disorder and sleep apnea

77. What do narcolepsy and REM sleep behavior disorder have in common?
A) They both reflect the disordered regulation of REM sleep.
B) They both entail disrupted breathing during sleep.
C) They both involve difficulties in staying asleep.
D) They have nothing in common other than the fact that they are sleep disturbances.

78. Which sleep disturbance is NOT correctly matched with a description?

A) sleep apnea — difficulty breathing during sleep
B) narcolepsy — sudden sleep during waking consciousness
C) insomnia — difficulty sleeping
D) REM sleep behavior disorder — sleepwalking

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79. Research has found an association between REM sleep behavior disorder and
subsequent Parkinson's disease. This research is directed toward psychology's goal of:
A) description.
B) prediction.
C) explanation.
D) control.

80. A person whose airway closes during sleep, causing them to awake gasping for air, is
likely suffering from:
A) sleep spindles.
B) somnambulism.
C) narcolepsy.
D) sleep apnea.

81. Which figure BEST approximates the proportion of people experiencing at least some
symptoms of insomnia?
A) one-fifth
B) one-quarter
C) one-third
D) one-half

82. When a person awakes in sheer panic soon after falling asleep they are experiencing:
A) a nightmare.
B) a narcoleptic attack.
C) sleep terrors.
D) REM sleep behavior disorder.

83. _____ nightmares, sleep terrors occur during _____ sleep.

A) Like; non-REM
B) Like; REM
C) Unlike; non-REM
D) Unlike; REM

84. Which of the following is a non-REM disorder?

A) sleep terrors
B) nightmares
C) narcolepsy
D) REM sleep behavior disorder

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85. Jane has night terrors while Ted has nightmares. Jane has experienced a disorder of
_____ sleep; Ted has experienced a disturbance of _____ sleep.
A) non-REM; non-REM
B) non-REM; REM
C) REM; non-REM
D) REM; REM

86. Imagine a graph displaying the function relating age in years to the mean number of
hours of sleep per night. How would the function look?
A) It would be a positively sloped line.
B) It would be a negatively sloped line.
C) It would be a U-shaped curve.
D) It would be an inverted U-shaped curve.

87. Assume that Madonna really does get by on less than 4 hours of sleep per night.
Madonna is considered _____ sleeper.
A) an average
B) a short
C) an extreme
D) both a short and an extreme

88. Extreme sleepers are people who sleep "less than 4 hours or more than 11 hours per
night." The phrase in quotes is a(n) _____ definition of the concept.
A) research
B) operational
C) theoretical
D) experimental

89. Anya pulled all-nighters both last night and the night before. Tonight, finally, she
anticipates going to bed at her usual time. Which alternative accurately describes and
identifies what Anya is likely to experience?
A) She will spend a greater proportion of her sleep time than usual in the REM stage.
This phenomenon is called restoration.
B) She will spend a greater proportion of her sleep time than usual in the REM stage.
This phenomenon is called rebound.
C) She will spend a greater proportion of her sleep time than usual in the non-REM
stages. This phenomenon is called restoration.
D) She will spend a greater proportion of her sleep time than usual in the non-REM
stages. This phenomenon is called rebound.

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90. Driving after being awake and active for 24 hours straight is:
A) not really dangerous.
B) hazardous but less dangerous than driving drunk.
C) at least as dangerous as driving drunk.
D) much more dangerous than driving drunk.

91. Fatigue and pain reflect deprivation of _____ sleep. Emotional overreactions reflect
deprivation of _____ sleep.
A) non-REM; non-REM
B) non-REM; REM
C) REM; non-REM
D) REM; REM

92. William Shakespeare wrote that "sweet sleep . . .knits the raveled sleeve of care." The
emphasis on repair suggests that Shakespeare endorsed the _____ theory of sleep.
A) consolidation
B) activation-–synthesis
C) restorative
D) evolutionary

93. Dr. Destri argues that sleep functions to conserve energy during periods in which
hunting and gathering would be dangerous or unproductive. Dr. Destri's views reflect
the _____ theory of sleep.
A) evolutionary
B) consolidation
C) restorative
D) psychoanalytic

94. Potential biological functions of sleep include:

A) neurotransmitter replenishment.
B) protein production.
C) growth hormone secretion.
D) All of these are potential functions of sleep.

95. Which is NOT a recommended solution if one has trouble sleeping?

A) Avoid caffeine.
B) Keep the bedroom quiet and dark.
C) Take sleeping pills.
D) Exercise during the day.

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 96. Sigmund Freud is associated with the _____ theory of dreams.
A) consolidation
B) activation–synthesis
C) wish fulfillment
D) neurocognitive

97. The latent content of a dream:

A) consists of symbols.
B) is the dream one remembers having.
C) is a dream's underlying meaning.
D) disguises a dream's threatening content.

98. Esther dreams that she is flying. Her psychoanalyst suggests that such a dream
represents a hidden desire for sexual intercourse. According to Freud's theory of
dreaming,
A) flying is a symbol.
B) flying is the latent content.
C) flying is the manifest content.
D) sex is the manifest content.

99. Dreams of floating, falling, or flying reflect activity of the vestibular system. This
MOST clearly supports the _____ theory of dreaming.
A) wish fulfillment
B) activation-synthesis
C) consolidation
D) restoration

100. According to the text, neurons in the limbic system are active during dreaming. Think
back to the text's discussion of the brain. The limbic system contains the:
A) prefrontal cortex.
B) cerebellum.
C) corpus callosum.
D) amygdala.

101. Dr. Gremillion argues that dreams function to rehearse and consolidate memories. She
subscribes to the ______ theory of the function of dreams.
A) wish-fulfillment
B) activation–synthesis
C) restorative
D) neurocognitive

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102. The activation–synthesis theory of dreaming provides a _____ explanation for why
people dream.
A) cognitive
B) humanistic
C) biological
D) psychoanalytic

103. Which figure BEST approximates the proportion of dream time devoted to sexual
themes?
A) 15%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 65%

104. Approximately _____% of one's dream time is devoted to sexual themes. This is _____
with Freud's psychoanalytic theory.
A) 15; consistent
B) 15; inconsistent
C) 65; consistent
D) 65; inconsistent

105. Regarding dreaming, which statement is true?

A) Lucid dreaming is very rare.
B) Dreams occur in both REM and non-REM sleep.
C) Some people do not dream.
D) Non-REM dreams are more vivid than dreams in REM sleep.

106. A sleeper's first dream usually begins:

A) a few minutes after falling asleep.
B) about 90 minutes after falling asleep.
C) about halfway through the night's sleep.
D) about 90 minutes before waking up.

107. How much time is spent dreaming during a typical night's sleep?
A) 15 to 30 minutes
B) 30 to 60 minutes
C) 1 to 2 hours
D) 2 to 3 hours

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108. Dreams in which sleepers realize they are dreaming are called _____ dreams.
A) conscious
B) latent
C) lucid
D) manifest

109. In the middle of an unsettling dream, Tremaine becomes aware that he is, in fact,
dreaming. Such an experience is called a _____ dream.
A) latent
B) non-REM
C) lucid
D) manifest

110. Substances that produce changes in perception, emotion, thinking, or behavior are called
_____ drugs.
A) psychogenic
B) psychopathic
C) psychoactive
D) psychodynamic

111. Each of these is a psychoactive drug EXCEPT:

A) cocaine.
B) curare.
C) alcohol.
D) nicotine.

112. Caffeine and nicotine are both _____ drugs.

A) psychogenic
B) psychopathic
C) psychoactive
D) psychodynamic

113. Tammy and Maureen enjoy a glass of wine with dinner. After the meal, each woman
has a cigarette with a cup of coffee. How many psychoactive drugs did the women
consume?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3

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114. Ariel is drinking a can of beer. Barry is smoking a cigarette. Cord is smoking a
marijuana cigarette. Who is using a psychoactive drug?
A) Only Cord is using a psychoactive drug.
B) Only Ariel and Cord are using psychoactive drugs.
C) Only Barry and Cord are using psychoactive drugs.
D) All these people are using psychoactive drugs.

115. The MOST common psychoactive drug in the United States is:
A) caffeine.
B) marijuana.
C) alcohol.
D) nicotine.

116. Approximately 1 in _____ Americans over age 12 has used an illegal drug at least once
in their life; just over 1 in _____ has used such a drug in the past month.
A) 4; 20
B) 4; 10
C) 3; 20
D) 3; 10

117. Cory Monteith, star of the television show Glee, died from a toxic combination of
alcohol and heroin. Alcohol and heroin are both:
A) depressants.
B) hallucinogens.
C) barbiturates.
D) stimulants.

118. Each of these types of drugs is a depressant EXCEPT:

A) amphetamines.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) barbiturates.
D) opioids.

119. Tranquilizers are more formally known as:

A) opioids.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) stimulants.
D) hallucinogens.

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120. Benzodiazepines and barbiturates are types of:
A) opioids.
B) stimulants.
C) depressants.
D) hallucinogens.

121. Kim suffers from generalized anxiety disorder. Her psychiatrist prescribes a drug with a
mild calming effect. The psychiatrist MOST likely prescribed:
A) Vicodin.
B) OxyContin.
C) Ritalin.
D) Xanax.

122. Cassie, who is at a popular nightclub, is acting uninhibited but also confused. She may
have unwittingly consumed _____, a(n) _____.
A) OxyContin; benzodiazepine
B) OxyContin; stimulant
C) Rohypnol; benzodiazepine
D) Rohypnol; opioid

123. Which drug type is correctly matched with its function?

A) opioids — sedative; decrease neural activity
B) barbiturates — minimize pain perception
C) benzodiazepines — calming; sleep-inducing
D) depressants — increase CNS activity

124. Based on the text's discussion, which of the following BEST expresses the relationship
between depressants and barbiturates?
A) Depressants are a subset of barbiturates.
B) Barbiturates are a subset of depressants.
C) They are the same thing.
D) They are completely separate classes of drugs.

125. Why, precisely, is one not supposed to mix alcohol and ”downers” (i.e., barbiturates)?
A) Such a mixture makes the heart race dangerously.
B) Such a mixture can induce convulsions.
C) Such a mixture can relax the diaphragm to the point that breathing stops.
D) Such a mixture can paralyze the muscles.

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126. _____ is the MOST widely used depressant in the United States.
A) Xanax
B) Alcohol
C) Valium
D) Marijuana

127. Binge drinking is defined as a male having five or more drinks in one sitting or a female
having more than four drinks in one sitting. This is a(n) _____ definition of binge
drinking.
A) operational
B) methodological
C) empirical
D) experimental

128. Gina and Hal had several drinks at a party last night; she had three drinks, while he had
five. Which of the two was binge drinking?
A) Only Gina was binge drinking.
B) Only Hal was binge drinking.
C) Both Gina and Hal were binge drinking.
D) Neither of them was binge drinking.

129. According to the text, nearly _____% of American adults have a drinking problem.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20

130. A person's speech becomes slurred when his or her blood alcohol content reaches:
A) .05.
B) .08.
C) .10.
D) .15.

131. Shelly is "falling-down drunk." She has to be helped out of the car and then throws up
on the sidewalk. Her blood alcohol content is probably nearing:
A) .08.
B) .10.
C) .15.
D) .130.

Page 23
132. Alcohol, most notably, increases the activity of the neurotransmitter:
A) acetylcholine.
B) glutamate.
C) norepinephrine.
D) GABA.

133. Which statement MOST accurately describes the effect of caffeine and the other
stimulants on the nervous system?
A) They decrease central nervous system activity.
B) They increase parasympathetic nervous system activity.
C) They decrease sympathetic nervous system activity.
D) They increase central nervous system activity.

134. Which drug is NOT a stimulant?

A) cocaine
B) caffeine
C) ketamine
D) methamphetamine

135. After lunch, Katya drinks a cup of coffee and smokes a cigarette. She is consuming two:
A) stimulants.
B) depressants.
C) hallucinogens.
D) opioids.

136. Cocaine's rush reflects its effects on the neurotransmitters:

A) adenosine and glutamate.
B) serotonin and acetylcholine.
C) GABA and glutamate.
D) dopamine and norepinephrine.

137. More emergency room visits stem from _____ than from any other illegal drug.
A) methamphetamine.
B) marijuana.
C) cocaine.
D) heroin.

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138. According to the textbook, "Many cocaine users find they can never quite duplicate the
high they experienced the first time, so they take increasingly higher doses . . . " This
sentence BEST describes:
A) tolerance.
B) withdrawal.
C) dependence.
D) addiction.

139. Derrel stopped using an illegal drug 13 months ago, and he still experiences occasional
psychotic symptoms. Derrel is MOST likely withdrawing from:
A) PCP.
B) methamphetamine.
C) heroin.
D) marijuana.

140. Candy is a recovering drug addict. She has been clean for 10 months. A recent MRI
revealed damage in Candy's frontal lobes. Candy was MOST likely addicted to:
A) methamphetamine.
B) cocaine.
C) heroin.
D) marijuana.

141. How does the action of methamphetamine differ from that of cocaine?
A) Methamphetamine and cocaine stimulate different neurotransmitters.
B) Methamphetamine suppresses appetite, whereas cocaine does not.
C) Methamphetamine stays in the body longer than cocaine does.
D) Methamphetamine increases CNS activity, whereas cocaine depresses it.

142. Anjelica is recovering from long-term drug abuse. She has lost a drastic amount of
weight and has suffered extensive tooth decay. The drug she was MOST likely abusing
is:
A) methamphetamine.
B) ketamine.
C) heroin.
D) MDMA.

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143. According to the textbook, moderate caffeine use is _____ associated with endurance
during physical exercise.
A) negatively
B) not
C) weakly
D) positively

144. Worldwide, the leading cause of premature death is:

A) illegal drugs.
B) AIDS.
C) tobacco.
D) accidents.

145. Approximately _____% of American adults smoke cigarettes.

A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40

146. An executive smokes cigarettes in his office after business hours. The lingering toxins
from the tobacco smoke—called _____ smoke—may pose a health hazard to the
custodians who clean the office overnight.
A) residual
B) secondhand
C) secondary
D) thirdhand

147. Fawn consumed a drug at a party. She is now talkative, on edge, and somewhat irritable.
Of the following, the drug she MOST likely consumed is:
A) heroin.
B) Xanax.
C) rohypnol.
D) methamphetamine.

148. Caffeine blocks the action of a neurotransmitter called:

A) adenosine.
B) dopamine.
C) norepinephrine.
D) adrenaline.

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149. The neural mechanisms activated by nicotine are similar to those underlying the effects
of:
A) alcohol.
B) cocaine.
C) heroin.
D) marijuana.

150. Which of the hallucinogens has never been used as a medical anesthetic?
A) PCP
B) ketamine
C) marijuana
D) MDMA

151. Which drug is NOT a hallucinogen?

A) PCP
B) methamphetamine
C) MDMA
D) ketamine

152. Distortions in sensory experiences are called:

A) delusions.
B) hallucinations.
C) cognitions.
D) illusions.

153. Because it is chemically similar to _____, Ecstasy may be seen as both a hallucinogen
and a _____.
A) cocaine; depressant
B) cocaine; stimulant
C) methamphetamine; depressant
D) methamphetamine; stimulant

154. According to the textbook, the drug Ecstasy triggers a dramatic release of the
neurotransmitter:
A) serotonin.
B) norepinephrine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) dopamine.

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155. Which of these consequences may result from continued use of Ecstasy?
A) abnormalities in sperm production
B) decreased motivation
C) suppression of the immune system
D) impaired planning and attention

156. Sarah feels full of energy, and her heart is beating rapidly. She feels as if she were
watching herself in a movie. Her euphoria, though, is morphing into anxiety. Which
drug has Sarah MOST likely consumed?
A) Ecstasy
B) LSD
C) heroin
D) Xanax

157. The MOST commonly used hallucinogen in the United States is:
A) ketamine.
B) cocaine.
C) MDMA.
D) marijuana.

158. By the time they have graduated from high school, just over _____% of high school
students have tried marijuana.
A) 25
B) 40
C) 50
D) 65

159. Tetrahydracannabinol is the active ingredient in:

A) PCP.
B) MDMA.
C) marijuana.
D) OxyContin.

160. Long-term marijuana use has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) lingering hallucinations.
B) reduced motivation.
C) suppression of the immune system.
D) memory deficits.

Page 28
161. Which class of drugs is correctly matched with its function?
A) stimulant — reduces nervous system activity
B) hallucinogen — increases nervous system activity
C) depressant — alters perceptual experience and mood
D) None of these is correctly matched.

162. Which street drug is correctly classified?

A) methamphetamine — hallucinogen
B) heroin — stimulant
C) cocaine — depressant
D) Special K — hallucinogen

163. _____ is the BEST term for a state in which the body can no longer function normally
without a particular psychoactive drug.
A) Physiological dependence
B) Substance abuse
C) Psychological dependence
D) Addiction

164. ______ is the BEST term for a state in which an individual believes a particular
psychoactive drug is needed for optimal emotional or mental functioning.
A) Physiological dependence
B) Psychological dependence
C) Addiction
D) Substance abuse

165. Tolerance is indicative of _____ dependence. Withdrawal indicates _____ dependence.

A) physiological; physiological
B) physiological; psychological
C) psychological; physiological
D) psychological; psychological

166. According to the text, how many Americans are dependent on alcohol?
A) 5 to 10 million
B) 10 to 15 million
C) 15 to 20 million
D) over 20 million

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167. After an entire day without alcohol, Selena is sweaty and shaking. Taryn claims she
needs to smoke marijuana daily to keep stress at bay. Selena displays _____
dependence. Taryn displays _____ dependence.
A) physiological; physiological
B) physiological; psychological
C) psychological; physiological
D) psychological; psychological

168. Giacomo uses cocaine. He finds that he needs a line or two to re-create the original
effects of a "bump." Which is the MOST specific term describing Giacomo's
experience?
A) addiction
B) substance dependence
C) psychological dependence
D) physiological dependence

169. Terry has quit using OxyContin. His nose is running and he is sweating. His pupils are
dilated and tears are running from the corners of his eyes. Terry's symptoms are the
result of:
A) addiction.
B) substance abuse.
C) physiological dependence.
D) psychological dependence.

170. "A pattern of maladaptive substance use that persists for at least 12 months" is a(n)
_____ definition of substance abuse.
A) conceptual
B) experimental
C) operational
D) procedural

171. _____ is an altered state of consciousness involving heightened suggestibility.

A) Hypnosis
B) Meditation
C) Cataplexy
D) Hypnagogia

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172. Using _____, researchers have found brain differences between a hypnotic state and
waking consciousness.
A) PET scans
B) fMRI techniques
C) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
D) EEG recordings

173. The word "hypnosis" comes from the Greek term for:
A) dream.
B) sleep.
C) death.
D) prayer.

174. Which of these ideas concerning hypnosis is FALSE?

A) Hypnosis can be used to improve athletic performance.
B) Hypnosis can promote the formation of false memories.
C) Hypnotized people can be made to act against their will.
D) Hypnosis can be used to treat chronic pain.

175. Hypnosis can help a person:

A) relive childhood experiences.
B) improve athletic performance.
C) recall long-forgotten memories.
D) All of these choices are correct.

176. Which of the following is NOT a potential benefit of hypnosis?

A) Attention is less focused in the hypnotized state.
B) Hypnotized people are highly responsive to suggestion.
C) Hypnosis is associated with heightened imagination.
D) Hypnosis is associated with an extremely receptive attitude.

177. How long does it take a good hypnotist to perform an induction?

A) 15 to 30 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 3 to 5 minutes
D) about 10 minutes

Page 31
178. The hypnotic state may be induced more quickly when the hypnotist knows the patient.
Which is the BEST interpretation of this finding with respect to the theories of hypnosis
reviewed in the textbook?
A) This finding is more consistent with the divided-consciousness theory than with the
"role-play" theory of hypnosis.
B) This finding is more consistent with the "role-play" theory than with the divided-
consciousness theory of hypnosis.
C) This finding is equally consistent with the "role-play" and the divided-
consciousness theories of hypnosis.
D) This finding is inconsistent with both the "role-play" and the divided-consciousness
theories of hypnosis.

179. One of the MOST noted hypnosis researchers is _____. He believed that _____.
A) Ernest Hilgard; hypnosis causes a division of consciousness
B) Ernest Hilgard; hypnosis is really no different than waking consciousness
C) Allan Hobson; hypnosis causes a division of consciousness
D) Allan Hobson; hypnosis is really no different than waking consciousness

180. Ernest Hilgard and his colleagues hypnotized participants to believe they would not
experience pain when they placed one hand in ice water. Participants were asked to
press a response button with the other hand if they felt any pain. What did Hilgard and
his colleagues find?
A) Participants said they felt no pain, and they did not press the button to indicate any
pain.
B) Participants said they felt no pain, but they pressed the button to indicate some
pain.
C) Participants said they were in pain, but they did not press the button.
D) Participants said they were in pain, and they pressed the button.

181. Ernest Hilgard and his colleagues hypnotized participants to believe they would not
experience pain when they placed one hand in ice water. Although the participants
reported no pain, they indicated pain by pressing a response button. This finding:
A) supports the divided-consciousness theory of hypnosis.
B) contradicts the divided-consciousness theory of hypnosis.
C) supports the "role-play" theory of hypnosis.
D) contradicts both the divided-consciousness and "role-play" theories of hypnosis.

Page 32
182. The textbook reports that the hypnotic response is influenced by the rapport between the
hypnotist and the patient. How might one evaluate this finding with respect to the
theories of hypnosis described in the text?
A) This finding supports the divided-consciousness theory of hypnosis.
B) This finding supports the "role-playing" theory of consciousness.
C) This finding contradicts both the divided-consciousness and the "role playing"
theories of hypnosis.
D) This finding is consistent with both the divided-consciousness and the "role
playing" theories of hypnosis.

183. Concerning hypnosis, which statement is true?

A) Theorists agree that hypnosis is not a special state of consciousness.
B) Theorists agree that hypnosis is a special stage of consciousness.
C) Psychologists agree that hypnosis has few, if any, therapeutic applications.
D) Theorists disagree as to whether hypnosis is a special state of consciousness.

Page 33
Answer Key
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. C
11. D
12. B
13. C
14. A
15. B
16. C
17. B
18. A
19. C
20. D
21. D
22. C
23. B
24. A
25. D
26. C
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. B
31. A
32. C
33. A
34. C
35. A
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. A
40. C
41. A
42. C
43. B
44. B

Page 34
45. B
46. C
47. C
48. D
49. C
50. B
51. A
52. C
53. A
54. C
55. D
56. B
57. A
58. C
59. A
60. B
61. B
62. D
63. B
64. C
65. A
66. A
67. B
68. C
69. B
70. D
71. A
72. A
73. C
74. D
75. C
76. D
77. A
78. D
79. B
80. D
81. C
82. C
83. C
84. A
85. B
86. B
87. D
88. B
89. B
90. C

Page 35
 91. B
92. C
93. A
94. D
95. C
96. C
97. C
98. C
99. B
100. D
101. D
102. C
103. A
104. B
105. B
106. B
107. C
108. C
109. C
110. C
111. B
112. C
113. D
114. D
115. A
116. D
117. A
118. A
119. B
120. C
121. D
122. C
123. C
124. B
125. C
126. B
127. A
128. B
129. B
130. C
131. C
132. D
133. D
134. C
135. A
136. D

Page 36
137. C
138. A
139. B
140. C
141. C
142. A
143. D
144. C
145. B
146. D
147. D
148. A
149. B
150. D
151. B
152. B
153. D
154. A
155. D
156. A
157. D
158. B
159. C
160. A
161. D
162. D
163. A
164. B
165. A
166. C
167. B
168. D
169. C
170. C
171. A
172. A
173. B
174. C
175. B
176. A
177. B
178. B
179. A
180. B
181. A
182. B

Page 37
183. D

Page 38