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38: Arboviruses Virology- herpesviridae lectu

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Which one of the following Proto-oncogenes can be carried on plasmids.
statements concerning
proto-oncogenes is correct
except?

Several viral oncogenes and

their progenitor proto-
oncogenes encode protein
kinases specific for tyrosine.

Some proto-oncogenes
encode cellular growth
factors and receptors for
growth factors.

Several proto-oncogenes
have been found in mutant
form in human cancers that
lack evidence for viral
etiology.

Proto-oncogenes can be
carried on plasmids.
Which of the following Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, IL-17 and IL-22
cytokines are involved in the
pathogenesis of autoimmune
disorder Ankylosing
spondylitis?

Tumor necrosis factor-alpha,

IL-17 and IL-22

IL-I, IL-I O and TNF-alpha

TNF-alpha. IL-3 and TGF-

beta

and IL-5 - il6 - il4

What is the main mechanism Accumulation of deoxyATP that is toxic for

of lymphotoxicity and lymphocytes
depletion of T and B cells in
patients with adenosine
deaminase deficiency
induced SCID?

Accumulation of 11:10 that

inhibits T and B cell
proliferation

Accumulation of deoxyATP
that is toxic for lymphocytes

Accumulation of guanosine
triphosphate that is toxic for
lymphocytes

Accumulation of uric acid

that is toxic for lymphocytes
Regarding hepatitis A virus The diagnosis is typically made by serologic
(HAV), which one of the tests rather than by culturing the virus.
following statements is most
accurate?

Multiple episodes of
hepatitis A are common
because it has three
serotypes.

It has a segmented,
negative-polarity.
singlestranded RNA genome
and an RNA polymerase in
the virion.

The screening of blood for

transfusion has greatly
reduced the spread of this
virus.

The HAV vaccine contains

live, attenuated virus as the
immunogen.

The diagnosis is typically

made by serologic tests
rather than by culturing the
virus.
Regarding hepatitis C virus Both are enveloped viruses
(HCV) and hepatitis D virus
(HDV), which one of the
following is MOST accurate?

HCVis transmitted by blood,

but HDVis not.

HCV infections do not result

in a chronic carrier state..

Both HCV and HDV are

defective RNA viruses and
require concurrent HBV
infection to replicate

Both are enveloped viruses

There is an effective vaccine

against HCV but not against
HDV.

Which of the following Intravenous drug use

modes of transmission of
human immunodeficiency
virus (HIV) occurs
significantly MORE often
than the others?

Intravenous drug use

Direct skin contact

Fecal-oral route

Respiratory aerosols
Regarding Plasmodium These organisms are transmitted by the bite of
species, which one of the female Anopheles mosquitoes.
following is most accurate?

Both male and female

gametocytes are formed in
the vector and are injected
into the person at the time of
the bite.

The bite of the vector injects

merozoites into the
bloodstream that then infect
red blood cells.

These organisms are

transmitted by the bite of
female Anopheles
mosquitoes.

Malaria caused by P. vivax is

characterized by a cerebral
malaria and blackwater fever
more often than malaria
caused by the other three
species.

Hypnozoites are produced

by P falciparum and can
cause relapses of malaria
after the acute phase is over.
What is the most common IL-2 Receptor gamma chain mutation
cause of X-Iinked SCID?

Bruton tyrosine kinase

mutation

Adenosine deaminase
deficiency

Purine nucleoside
phosphorylase deficiency

IL-2 Receptor gamma chain

mutation

Which drug has been Remdesivir

approved by the Food and
Drug Administration (FDA) to
treat Covid-19?

Entecavir

Remdesivir

Ribavirin

Alpha interferon
Which mediator is implicated Bradykinin
in Cl inhibitor deficiency
induced angioedema?

Histamine

Prostaglandins

Renin

Bradykinin

A 23-year-old woman is A formalin-inactivated virus vaccine

planning a 1 -year trip
through Europe, Egypt, and
the Indian subcontinent and
receives a vaccine for
hepatitis A. The current
hepatitis A vaccine is

A formalin-inactivated virus
vaccine

A recombinant DNA vaccine

A live attenuated virus

vaccine

An envelope glycoprotein
subunit vaccine

A chimeric poliovirus that

expresses HAV neutralizing
epitopes
What is the function of Inolved in the maturation of pro-B cells into
Bruton tyrosine kinase? more mature stages of B cells

Involved in the inhibition of B

cell maturation and
development

Involved in Tcell
development in the thymus

Involved in the proliferation

and development of
macrophages

Inolved in the maturation of

pro-B cells into more mature
stages of B cells
A woman was hiking in an Give rabies vaccine and hyperimmune globulin
isolated area when a skunk immediately.
appeared and bit her on the
leg. She now presents to
your emergency room about
an hour after the bite. Which
one of the following is the
most
appropriate thing to do?

Reassure her that rabies is

not a problem because
skunks do not carry rabies.

Give rabies vaccine and

hyperimmune globulin
immediately.

Test the patient's serum for

antibodies now and in 10
days to see if there is a rise
in antibody titer before
treating her.

Quarantine the animal for 10

days and only treat her if
signs of rabies appear in the
animal.
Cellular oncogenes Tumor suppressor genes
represent activated genes
involved in cancer. A second
class of cancer genes is
involved in cancer
development only when
both alleles of such a gene
are inactivated. The second
class
of genes is called

Tumor suppressor genes

Transduced genes

Silent genes

Protco-ocogenes

T antigen genes
A 34-year-old female is Side effect of Pyrazinamide
diagnosed with pulmonary
tuberculosis and is started
on combination therapy of 4
first-line drugs. Two weeks
after initiation of treatment,
the patient's Uric acid is
found to be
high. This finding can be
explained by which of the
following?

Side effect of Ethambutol

Side effect of Pyrazinamide

Side effect of Gentamicin

Side effect of Rifampin

Side effect of Isoniazid

The slow disease caused by Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

JC virus is

Subacute sclerosing
panencephalitis

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Scrapie

Progressive multifocal
leukoencephalopathy
Certain microorganisms are Chlamydia trachomatis
never considered to be
members of the normal flora.
They are always considered
to be pathogenic. Which one
of the following organisms
fits into that category?

Staphylococcus aureus

Escherichia coli

Group B streptococci

Chlamydia trachomatis

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Enterococci

Norwalk virus illness might Live. reassortant vaccine

be prevented by any of the
following except :

Careful handwashing

Avoidance of raw fruits

Avoidance of raw oysters

Avoidance of local drinking

water

Live. reassortant vaccine

A 20-year-old student from Rhinovirus
Tbilisi presents to you in
January for evaluation of her
respiratory symptoms. 3 days
ago, she developed nasal
congestion and clear
rhinorrhea accompanied by
sneezing. Next
day she woke up with
malaise and scratching
sensation in her throat. Today
on the physical exam, the
patient is in no distress. Her
temperature is 37.00C. Lungs
are clear. She still has
moderate amount of
nasal discharge. What is the
most common cause of her
above-mentioned
symptoms?

Coronavirus

Parainfluenza virus

Influenza A

Rhinovirus

Adenovirus

Influenza B
Which type of TypeII and type Ill
hypersensitivty reactions
belong Goodpasture
syndrome and SLE?

Type Ill and type IV

Type IV and typeI

TypeI and TypeII

TypeII and type Ill

In Taenia tapeworm GI tract

infections the mature adult
worms are usually found in

Lungs

CNS

Liver

GI tract
Mepolizumab and Decreasing eosinophillic inflammation in the
reslizumab are IN-5 blockers tungs
that are used for asthma.
What is the main reason of
using those medications?

Decreasing lgE mediated

lung damate

Decreasing eosinophillic
inflammation in the tungs

Decreasing neutrophillic
inflammation in the lungs

Decreasing inflammation in
the lungs via activation of T
regulatory cells
A 2-year-old boy is being CD20
evaluated for persistent
diarrhea. Although the
patient seemed healthy at his
12- month well child visit,
since then he has
experienced 3 episodes of
otitis media and 4 episodes
of pneumococcal
pneumonia.The patient is
referred for upper
gastrointestinal endoscopy,
and Giardia Jamblia is
isolated from duodenal
aspirates.Further workup
shows very low serum levels
of all
immunoglobulin types. Flow
cytometry of this patient's
peripheral blood is most
likely to show a near
absence of cells bearing
which of the following
markers?

CD56

CD4

CD16

CD20
A 70-year-old woman has Oseltamivir
fever, chills, and myalgias. It
is January and an outbreak of
influenza is occurring in the
retirement community in
which she lives. A rapid test
for influenza antigen is
positive.
Which one of the following
is the best choice of drug to
treat the infection?

Amantadine

Acyclovir

Interferon

Oseltamivir
PPD skin testing of a 40- Continue work-up with additional diagnostic
year-old plumber is tests
measured to be 16 mm. What
is the best next step to do?

Start treatment for

tuberculosis with the 4 drug
regimen

Start treatment for

tuberculosis with isoniazid
only

Continue work-up with

additional diagnostic tests

Do nothing This result is

considered negative for her
risk-group
A 15-year-old girl has had a M. Pneumoniae
nonproductive cough and
temperature of 37.80C for
the past 5 days. The
symptoms came on
gradually. Lung examination
shows few scattered rales.
Chest X-ray shows
patchy infiltrates in left lower
lobe. Cold agglutinin test is
positive. Which of the
following is the most likely
cause of her condition?

Influenza

SARS-C0V 2

S. aureus

Legionella

S. pneumohiae

M. Pneumoniae
Regarding E. histolytica, E. histolytica cysts are transmitted by fecal-oral
which one of the following is route.
most accurate?

In the microscope, E.
histolytica is recognized by
having two sets of paired
flagella.

Domestic animals such as

dogs and cats are the main
reservoir of E. histolytica.

E. histolytica cysts are

transmitted by fecal-oral
route.

E. histolytica infections are

limited to the intestinal
mucosa and do not spread
to other organs.

The infection is typically

acquired by the ingestion of
the trophozoite in
contaminated food and
water
Chlamydia trachomatis is Colitis
capable of causing all the
following medical
conditions, EXCEPT:

Urethritis

Pneumonia

Colitis

Salpingitis

Conjunctivitis
Which of the following Induces attachment of the virus particle to the
statements about the syalic acid of the host cell
neuraminidase of influenza
virus is not correct?

Facilitates release of virus

particles from infected cells

Is embedded in the outer

surface of the viral envelope

Induces attachment of the

virus particle to the syalic
acid of the host cell

Forms a spike structure

composed of four identical
monomers, each with
enzyme activity

Lowers the viscosity of the

mucous film in the
respiratory tract
Which of the following Taking intrapartum antibiotics;
measures can prevent
developing infections in
neonates with S. agalactiae?

Vaccinating mother,

Avoiding contact with

children having pharyngitis;

Avoiding contact with kittens

Avoiding drinking unboiled

water,

Taking intrapartum
antibiotics;

What is the role of Fc Binds to IgG and causes Antibody antibody-

receptor (CD16) on dependent cellular cytotoxicity
phagocytic cells?

Binds to comlement C3b for

opsonization

Activates T helper type 2

lymphocytes

Binds to complement C5a

Binds to IgG and causes

Antibody antibody-
dependent cellular
cytotoxicity
Your patient is a 20-year-old Entecavir
woman with chronic hepatitis
B that was diagnosed by
detecting hepatitis B antigen
in her blood more than 6
months after her acute
infection. Which one of the
fo
the best choice of drug to
treat her chronic hepatitis B?

Acyclovir

Foscarnet

Ritonavir

Entecavir

Zidovudine
Highly active antiretroviral Late step of viral particle maturation
combination therapy for HIV
infection commonly includes
a medication that inhibits
viral protease. This enzyme is
required for:

Integration of viral DNAinto

Host's DNA

Viral DNA Synthesis from

RNA template

Viral entry into the host cell;

Late step of viral particle

maturation

Viral attachment to the host

cell receptor,
AIDS patient has CD4 T cell Infection with Mycobacterium Avium
counts of 43/mL. Giving Intracellulare (MAC)
prophylactic azithromycin in
addition to his HAART will
prevent development of
which of the following?

Infection with Toxoplasma

Gondi

Infection with CMV

Infection with both

Toxoplasma gondii and
Pneumocystis Jiroveci

Infection with Pneumocystis

jiroveci

Infection with
Mycobacterium Avium
Intracellulare (MAC)

Regarding prion-mediated Prion-mediated diseases are characterized by

diseases, which one of the vacuoles in the brain called "spongiform
following is the most changes."
accurate?

Kuru is a prion-mediated
disease for which the
diagnosis can be confirmed
in the laboratory by a
fourfold or greater rise in
antibody titer

In Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease,
only neurons latently
only neurons latently
infected by JC virus produce
the prion filaments that
disrupt neuronal function.

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
occurs primarily in children
under the age of 2 years
because they cannot mount
an adequate immune
response to the prion
protein.

Prion-mediated diseases are

characterized by vacuoles in
the brain called "spongiform
changes."

Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob
disease is a disease of cattle
caused by the ingestion of
sheep brain mixed into cattle
feed.
A 47-year-old woman is Human papillomaviruses, types 16 and 18
diagnosed with cervical
cancer. The causative agent
of human cervical cancer is

Polyomaviruses

Herpesviruses

Hepatitis B virus

Human papillomaviruses,
types 16 and 18

Hepatitis C virus

Chagas disease, caused by South America

the protozoan parasite
Trypanosoma cruzi, is found
in

Africa

South America

Europe

Asia
This virus has a segmented, Reoviridae
doublestranded RNA
genome and a double-
shelled capsid. It can cause
severe gastroenteritis among
young children. It is a
member of which virus
family?

Coronaviridae

Adenoviridae

Caliciviridae

Reoviridae

Which of the following All of the above

viruses can be transmitted
through blood

HIV

All of the above

Hepatitis D virus

Hepatitis C virus

Human T-lymphotropic virus

Which genes are involved in Rag 1 and Rag 2
DNA recombination during B
and T cell development?

Adenosine deaminase gene

Rag 1 and Rag 2

Bruton tyrofiine kinase gene

IL-2 gene

Opsonins are proteins that Complement C3b

coat bacterias for further
elimination. Which of the
following substances acts as
an opsonin?

Complement C5a

IgM

Complement C3b

Loukotriene B4
Regarding prions, which one Prion proteins are characterized by having
of the following is the most changes in conformation from the alpha-helical
accurate? form to the beta-pleated sheet form.

Prion proteins are

characterized by having
changes in conformation
from the alpha-helical form
to the beta-pleated sheet
form.

The genome of prions

consists of a
negativepolarity RNAthat
has a defective polymerase
gene.

The main host defense

against prions consists of an
inflammatory response
composed primarily of
macrophages and CD4-
positiveTcells.

Prions are very sensitive to

ultraviolet (UV) light, which is
why UV light is used in
hospital operating rooms to
prevent their transmission
Your patient is a 27-year-old Peqinterferon and rbavirin
man with a history of
intravenous drug use who
now is diagnosed with
chronic hepatitis C He is HIV
antibody negative, Which
one of the following is the
best choice of drugs to treat
his chronic hepatitis C?

Zidovudine and lamivudine

Peqinterferon and rbavirin

Acyclovir and foscarnet

Ganciclovir and enfuvirtide

Zidovudine and ritonavir

What is the primary route of Respiratory

transmission of human
coronaviruses?

Sexuat activity

Fecal-oral

Respiratory

Blood

Perinatal mother-to-infant
Hantaviruses, which are They cause influenza•like symptoms followed
emerging pathogens in the rapidly by acute respiratory failure.
United States, can be
described by which of the
following?

They show a high frequency

of antigenic variation

They cause influenza•like

symptoms followed rapidly
by acute respiratory failure.

They are readily transmitted

human to human.

They are acquired by

inhalation of aerosols of
deer urine.

They are arenaviruses.

Which protein is involved in AIRE (autoimmune regulator)

the negative selection of
lymphocytes in thymic
medulla?

Adenosine deaminase

AIRE (autoimmune regulator)

Membrane attack
convlex(MAC)

Bruton tyrosine kinase

A 41 -year•old female is Side effect of Rifamptn
diagnosed with pulmonary
tuberculosis and is started
on combination therapy of 4
first•line drugs One month
after treatment, the patient•s
platelets are found to be
critically low
This finding can be
explained by which of the
following'

Side effect of Isoniazid

Side effect of Pyrazinamide

Side effect of Gentamicin

Side effect of Rifamptn

Side effect of Ethambutol

A 11 -year-old girl complains Throat swab for rapid Strep test
of sore throat She refuses to
eat and has been feverish
recently. On oropharyngeal
exam, her pharynx is
erythematous and swollen.
Tonsils are also edematous,
red. and
covered with whitish
exudates, Cervical lymph
nodes are swollen and
tender. She does not have a
cough Lung exam is clear.
Her WBC count and CRP
level are elevated. Which of
the following tests will
be most appropriate to
perform at this point?

Echocardiography

Sputum culture

Blood culture

Fecal oral

Throat swab for rapid Strep

test
There are 2 types Of leprosy. Increased T regulatory cell activity
tubercutoid and
lepromatous leprosy.Patients
who have lepromatous
leprosy. have high bacterial
load and proliferate rate.
What is the cause of this high
proliferation rate
and high bacterial load?/

Increased T helper type 2

response

Decreased T helper type 17

response

Increased T regulatory cell

activity

Increased T helper type 1

response
Regarding the They may encode proteins that bind to the
Papillomaviruses, which one proteins encoded by tumoc suppressor genes.
of the following is most
accurate?

They may encode proteins

that bind to the proteins
encoded by tumoc
suppressor genes.

They are usually transmitted

through fecaloral route.

They usually infect

hepatocytes.

They do not cause cancers

in humans.

Which of the following is Tryptase

most likely to be elevated in
a patient's serum who has
anaphylaxis?

Myeloperoxidase

Tryptase

NAOPH oxidase

Catalase
A 25-year old female is M. Tuberculosis
hospitalized for severe
headache and confusion.
CSF is obtained by lumbar
puncture and it shows
Increased protein
concentration, increased
lymphocytes and low
glucose
concentration. Which of the
following is the most likely
cause of this patient's
condition?

N. Meningitis

S. pneumoniae

Mumpsvirus

M. Tuberculosis

HSV 2

Risk factors for severe MERS Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

coronavirus infection include
which of the following?

Recent camel exposure

Seasonal allergies

Chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease

Prior coronavirus infection

20 year-old patient develops Loss of proprioception
painless penile ulcer
accompanied by nontender
inguinal lymphadenopathy. If
this condition goes
untreated, which of the
following late manifestations
is most [ikely t
develop?

Demyelination of peripheral
nerves

Loss of proprioception

Kidney failure

Reactive arthritis

Bilateral facial nerve palsy

An 16-year•old female Loss of ability to form coroement C5bC9
college student is fragments
hospitalized because of high
fever, headache, and skin
rash. She has had these
symptoms for the past 24
hours. She is diagnosed with
meningococcal infection
and appropriate treatment is
initiated. Past medical history
includes meningitis 4 month
ago. caused by same
bacteria. hich of the
following immune system
impairments is the most likely
explanation for
her symptoms?

Hypersensitivty reaction to
bacterial antigen

Loss of ability to form

coroement C5bC9
fragments

Carty complement
deficiency

Insufficient IgA ptoduction

What process takes place in Class(isotype) switching
germinal centers of lymph
nodes?

VDJ recombination

Negative selection

Class(isotype) switching

Positive selection