Virology,Mycology & Parasitology Quiz#1 b

Total points -30 ( which is equivalent to 0 3.0

1.Which of the following is true regarding viruses ?
(0/3 Points
May contain DNA, RNA, Single, or Double-stranded
All are obligate intracellular parasites
All have a protein capsid
Release virions during cell lysis or budding
All are true

2.Viruses range in size ( lengthfrom:

1-100 nm
10-100 μm
20-1000 nm
1-10 μm

3.Bacteriophages are routinely counted by the process of:

AImmunoassay
Plaque assay
Tissue cell culture
Electron Microscopy

4.Continuous cell line can't be used to support viral replication for extended
periods of time

True
False

5.Viruses can cause both—acute clinical illness and chronic progressive disease

True
False

6.Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus
envelope

True
False
7.In the lytic cycle the bacteriophage DNA becomes integrated into the host cell
chromosome

True
False

8.Which 2 viruses out of listed below of the are not a RNA virus?
(0/3 Points
Flavivirus
Retrovirus
Reovirus
Herpesvirus
Adenovirus

9.Once the viral mRNA of either DNA or RNA viruses is synthesized, it is primarily
translated by host cell ribosomes into early viral proteins

true
False

10.The ability of a virus to infect an organism is primarily regulated by existence

of specific receptor sites

True
False

11.Which is not a main criterion for classification of viruses?

Capsid morphology
Type of the nuclecic acid
Viral gemone organization
Virus size

12.Which of the following would be the first step in the biosynthesis of a virus
with reverse transcriptase?

A complementary strand of RNA must be synthesized

A complementary strand of DNA must be synthesized from an RNA templatete
Double-stranded RNA must be synthesized
A complementary strand of DNA must be synthesized from a DNA template
None of the above
Virology, Mycology and parasitology Quiz #2c
1.Which of the following statements is false?
The successful infection of a host requires a minimum number of inoculating viruses

The successful infection of a host requires completely differentiated cells

The successful infection of a host requires that the host cell is susceptible to the infection.

The successful infection of a host requires that the host possesses inefficient local viral defenses at
the time of infection

2.Low pH is always detrimental to viruses making the invasion of the GI tract less
likely to occur
true

False

3.What best describes virulence mechanisms in viral infection?

Alteration of the host cell cycle

Alteration of host defense mechanisms

Facilitation of viral spread

cytophatological effect (CPE

all of the above

4.Steps of viral pathogenesis may include following except

Entry

binary fission

cell injury

shedding

all of the above

5. Which 2 out of listed below are most often used in multiprofile clinical laboratories
for diagnostics of viral infections ?
Particle detection using electron microscopy

viral isolation

detection of viral nucleic acid

detection of viral antigen

6.The 3 main purposes of the early viral genes that are expressed at the initial steps
is to
take over the host machinery

to uncoat the virus

synthesize nuleic acids

to cause disease

make the structural proteins

none of these

7.All of the following statements are true regarding the attachment or adsorption of
the virion to the host cell EXCEPT that:
for naked virions, the surface capsid proteins are responsible for binding to a specific cell receptor.

for enveloped viruses, phospholipids are responsible for binding to a specific cell receptor.

a cell lacking a receptor for a specific virus is not infected by that virus.

animal viruses, such as influenza and HIV are highly specific in that they can only bind with particular
cell types

8.Viruses are only able to multiply in living cells because they have only genetic
information for their nucleic acid replication
True

False
9.Nucleoside analogs are used for treatment of viral infections.
True

False

10.Host age is a factor in viral pathogenicity.

True

Fasle

11.Viruses can gain access to the brain by two routes: by the hematogenous spread
and by neuronal spread.
True

False

Quiz 4-1 Eka

1.Herpesviruses are large viruses with:
a double-stranded DNA and envelope

single stranded DNA and envelope

single-stranded RNA and without envelope

a double-stranded DNA and without envelope

2.There are 8 clinically the most important herpesviruses

True

False

3.Infectious mononucleosis usually shows following signs and symptoms:

Vesicular rash on trunk

Fever and Lymphadenopathy

Encephalitis and stiffness of neck

None of the above

4.HSV 1 may cause:

Gingivostomatitis

Vesicular skin lesions

Encephalitis

All of the above

5.Women with genital herpes reactivated in the last weeks of pregnancy can most
likely to avoid passing HSV-2 on to their newborns if she gets HSV-2 live attenuated
vaccine.
True

False

6.CMV is linked with:

Cervical cancer

Burkit's lymphoma

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

None of the above

7. Cytomegalic inclusion disease characterized by microcephaly, seizures, deafness,

jaundice, and purpura is usually manifested in:
Young adults

Newborns

Elderly
Pregnant women

8. The lesions caused by ---------------- are reddish to dark purple, flat to nodular,
and often appear at sites such as skin and oral cavity of AIDS patients.
HSV 1

HSV 2

CMV

HHV 8

9.Reactivation of VZV leads to cold sores.

True

False

10.HSV 2 usually becomes latent in:

Trigeminal ganglion

Temporal lobes

Lymphocytes

Sacral ganglia

11.HHV 6 and HHV7 may usually lead to following symptoms in children (2 correct
answers:
High fever

Glomerulonephritis

Rash

Myocarditis

Cystitis

Quiz 5- Eka
1. Poxviruses are :
Double-stranded RNA enveloped viruses

Single-stranded DNA enveloped viruses

Double-stranded DNA naked viruses

Double-stranded DNA enveloped viruses

2.Smallpox infections still persist in developing countries

True

False

3.Smallpox vaccine contains:

Attenuated Smallpox virus

Killed Smallpox virus

Live Vaccinia virus

None of the above

4.Molluscum Contagiosum is usually causing the infection of:

Skin

Brain

GI tract

Liver

5.Hepatitis A infection can be prevented by vaccination

True

False
6.In HBV infected individuals there is a period of several weeks, so called window
phase. Which serologic markers are undetectable during this period? (Two correct
answers
HBsAg

antiHBsAg

Total antiHBcAg

7.Hepatitis C infection can be prevented by vaccination

True

False

8.The symptoms of hepatitis may include:

Fever

Nausea

Jaundice

Clay colored stool

All of the above

9.In acute HBV infection the following serological markers are detectable in the
serum of the patient (two correct answers:
HBsAg

AntiHBsAg

IgM AntiHBcAg

IgM AntiHDV

10.HDV uses ..............of the HBV:

HBcAg

HBeAg
DNA

HBsAg

11.HEV is usually transmitted via:

Injections

Blood transfusions

Sexual intercourse

None of the above

Virology, Mycology and parasitology

quiz #6b Eka
1.The following are common characteristics of coronaviruses, except for one. Which
is not correct?
Can cause pneumonia

Contain the largest genomes among RNA viruses

Can cause gastroenteritis

Are distributed in Northern Hemisphere

2.SARS-CoV 2 coronavirus can cause:

Asymptomatic infections

Mild respiratory illness

Severe acute respiratory syndrome

Diarrhea

All of the above

3.Which coronavirus (except SARS-CoV 2) causing severe respiratory illness is
distributed in Middle East ?
229 E

Human coronavirus OC43

HKU 1

MERS CoV

SARS-CoV 1

4.Currently, SARC CoV-1 infections can be prevented through vaccination.

True

False

5.There is no approved antiviral drug to treat SARS-CoV 2 infections.

True

False

6.Coronaviruses can cause common cold -like infections every year.

True

False

7.Which 2 of the following statements about the neuraminidase of influenza virus is

NOT correct? (A)
Is covalently linked with the viral envelope

Facilitates attachment of virus particles to the cells

Lowers the viscosity of the mucous film in the respiratory tract

Is antigenically similar among all mammalian influenza viruses

8.Which of the following signs and symptoms is not typical of influenza?

Fever

Muscular aches

Hepatosplenomegaly

Dry cough

Headache

9.Antigenic drifts is a major genetic change resulted from reassortment of viral RNA
segments.
True

False

10.Antigenic shifts affect only one component in the Influenza A virus - the
hemagglutinin
True

False

11.Influenza type B, like influenza A, can cause pandemics.

True

False

12.Oseltamivir is a polymerase inhibitor for systemic use in the treatment and

prophylaxis of influenza A and B.
True

False
Virology, Mycology and parasitology
quiz#7a Eka
1.Serious bronchiolitis or pneumonia related to Respiratory syncytial virus occurs
most often in children under 6 months of age.
True

False

2.A runner reports an “unprovoked bite” from a neighborhood dog. The dog was
captured by local animal control authorities, and it appears healthy. What is the
appropriate action?
Confine and observe the dog for 10 days for signs suggestive of rabies

Begin postexposure prophylaxis of the bitten person.

Immediately euthanize the dog.

Because canine rabies has been eliminated in the United States, dog bites are no longer an indication
for postexposure prophylaxis, and no further action is needed.

Test the dog for rabies antibody

3.The measles virus gains access to the human body via the respiratory tract, where it
multiplies locally followed by systemic spread.
True

False

4.Prions mainly effect:

Liver

Lungs

Urinary tract

CNS
5.Domestic animals are not the source of most human rabies in the United States
True

False

6.Which of the following statements is more likely to be true of measles (rubeola)

than German measles (rubella)?
It causes birth defects.

It causes only a mild illness.

Human beings are the only natural host.

Attenuated virus vaccine is available for prevention

One of the complications is giant cell pneumonia

7.For the rabies , usually there is a short incubation period (1-5 days) from time of
exposure to appearance of symptoms
True

False

8.For which of the following paramyxoviruses an effective vaccine is available

Parainfluenza virus type 1

Measles virus

Respiratory syncytial virus

Mumps virus

Metapneumovirus

9.Which statement about parainflenza viruses is not correct?

Replication of parainfluenza viruses usually occurs in liver and spleen

Reinfections with parainflenza viruses are common

Type 3 Parainfluenza virus causes bronchiolitis and pneumonia in infants

Parainfluenza viruses cause common colds.

10.Which of the following statements about the congenital rubella syndrome is

correct?
The disease can be prevented by vaccination of school-age children with measles vaccine

woman is infected at any time during pregnancy.

Rubella infections are not associated with birth defects

Only rare strains of rubella virus are teratogenic.

None of the above

11.Which of the following paramyxoviruses is responsible for development of Koplik

spots on buccal mucosa?
Measles virus

Mumps virus

Parainfluenza virus type 1

Respiratory syncytial virus

Rubella virus

Virology, mycology and parasitology Quiz #5b Eka

1. Picornaviruses as viruses with envelopes easily inactivated by lipid solvents, such as ether

True

False

2.What is not correct regarding the structure of picornaviruses ?

Basic capsid building block is a protomer

Promoter consists of VP1, VP2, VP3 & VP4 protein copies

Five protomers assemble into a pentamer.

VP1 and VP2 proteins are on the surface

VP3 and VP4 are internal proteins

3.Which of picornaviruses can be easily destroyed by gastric acid?

Coxsackie virus A

coxsackie virus B

Poliomylitis virus

Echovirus

None of the above

4.The host range of poliovirus is limited to humans and non-human primates. The viral capsid
protein binds to a receptor found only on primate cell membranes.

True

False

5.A 28-year-old woman diagnosed with Coxsackievirus B5 infection develops myopericarditis

with mild heart failure that increases over several weeks. Which of the following clinical
syndromes is not associated with coxsackievirus infections?

Herpangina

Myocarditis or pericarditis

Hepatitis

Aseptic meningitis

6.For prevention of a number of Picornavirus infections different types of vaccines have been
used for several decades. Which 2 of the following statements are not correct?

The live, attenuated poliovirus vaccine produces gastrointestinal tract resistance

An effective killed vaccine has been developed against the three major types of rhinoviruses.
Both - live and attenuated polio vaccines induce antibodies and protect the central nervous system
from subsequent invasion by virus

Only the live attenuated poliovirus vaccine is currently recommended for use in the United States

7.During Picornavirus replication the virion RNA is translated into a single large polyprotein

True

False

8.Which one of the following is most accurate regarding rotaviruses ?

Rotavirus is a major cause of nosocomial diarrhea in intensive care units.

The vaccine against rotavirus contains live, attenuated virus as the immunogen.

Rotavirus has a nonsegmented, single-stranded RNA genome, and there is no polymerase in the
virion.

The rapid diagnosis of rotavirus diarrhea is typically made by a 4 fold increase in antibody titer to the
virus.

9.Coxsackievirus B infections a frequent cause of primary myocardial disease in adults and

children.

True

False

10.The causative agents of aseptic meningitis usually do not survive well in the environment

True

False

11.Rotavirus and Norwalk virus are distinctly different viruses but both can be transmitted by
respiratory route in addition to the fecal-oral route.

True

False
12.Caliciviruses are small nonenveloped viruses with a single-stranded, nonsegmented RNA
genome.

True

False

Virology, Mycology and parasitology

quiz #9b Eka
1.Yellow fever is characterized by following manifestation except 2 of them
jaundice

sudden onset of fever, headache,

Keratoconjunctivitis

Prostration and shock

gastrointestinal tract hemorrhage

Asthmatic cough

2.The majority of arboviruses are DNA viruses.

True

False

3.Epidemic cycle/cycles of the Yellow fever includes:

Jungle

Urban

New world

Old world

4.Dengue fever can be treated with:

Ganciclovir
Oseltamivir

Cidofovir

None of the above

5.African hemorragic fevers are severe diseases often ending in death. Which of the
following is not correct
about Ebola virus?
It is spread by contact with blood or other body fluids.

The infection is not deadly for primates

It is a filovirus.

The mortality rate may reach 90%.

6.Which of the following statement is NOT correct for Japanese Encephalitis (JE)?
Japanese Encephalitis is transmitted via fecal-oral route

Japanese Encephalitis is a mosquito-borne flavivirus.

Effective vaccines for Japanese encephalitis are available in Asia

Japanese Encephalitis belongs to same genus as dengue, yellow fever and West Nile Viruses.

7.Which 2 of the following statements about hantaviruses is correct?

They are carried only by deer mice.

They infect human beings with a fatality rate that can be above 30%.

They were first identified in the early 1970s.

They are contracted mainly in bat caves.

No human to human transmission has been documented

8.The signs and symptoms of the Dengue fever may include:

Fever

Bone and joint pain

Rash

Hemorrhagic manifestations

All of the above

9.Mosquitoes are the main vectors of transmission for arboviruses.

true

False

10.Which arbovirus is transmitted through sexual intercourse and transplacentally

leading to microcephaly in children.
Japanese B encephalitis virus

Tick-borne encephalitis virus

West Nile virus

Dengue virus

Zika virus

Virology, Mycology and parasitology

Quiz #10a EKA
1.Human cancer viruses include following viruses or virus groups except:
Hepatitis B and Hepatatis C viruses

Papilomaviruses,

Human T-lymphotropic virus

Paramyxoviruses

Epstein-Bar virus

2.Which statements regarding viral carcinogenesis is not correct

Viruses can cause cancer in animals and humans
Tumor viruses frequently establish persistent infections in natural hosts.

Host factors are important determinants of virus-induced tumorigenesis.

Viruses are direct acting carcinogenic agents

3.No association of adenoviruses with human neoplasms has been found so far
True

False

4.Genital warts are routinely treated by application of following except

Cryotherapy

Laser therapy

Electrosurgery

Anticancer chenotherapy

Interferon therapy

5. Following DNA-containing viruses have substantial evidence for possibility of

development of human malognancies except which 2
Epstein Barr virus

Human Papilloma virus

Hepadnavirus

Adenovirus

Parvovirus

Human Hepres virus 8

6.Which statement rregarding HTLV-1 virus is not correct ?

Transmission occurs primarily by breast feeding

The source of virus is contaminated blood used for transfusions

virus can be spread between intravenous drug users).

Virus can be acquired by sexual contact,

All of the above is correct

7.Tumor viruses establish persistent infections in hosts, with up to several months

latent periods between initial infection and tumor appearance.
True

False

8.HIV is also considered a cancer agent because of the virus assocated immune
suppression supporting the cancer development
True

False

9.A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical cancer. This cancer is common
worldwide and has a sexually transmitted viral etiology. The causative agent of
human cervical cancer is
Hepatitis C virus

Hepatitis B virus

Human papillomaviruses, high-risk types

Polyomaviruses

Herpesviruses

10.Retroviruses that contain oncogenes are slower transforming viruses while the
viruses without oncogene are highly oncogenic
True

False

11.Tumor viruses may have following characteristics:

no special shape, chemical composition or size

large, enveloped viruses

small- to medium size nonenveloped viruses

may contain ds- DNA

do not contain ds -RNA

All the above

None of the above

Virology, Mycology and Parasitology

quiz #11b Eka
1.Retroviruses are:
Enveloped double-stranded DNA viruses

Enveloped double-stranded RNA viruses

Naked double-stranded DNA viruses

Enveloped single-stranded RNA viruses

2.Regarding the structure and replication of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV),

which two of the following is most accurate?
Viral mRNA is the template for the synthesis of the genome RNA.

During entry of HIV into the cell, the viral p24 protein interacts with the CD4protein on the cell
surface.

HIV contains an integrase within the virion that integrates copies of the viral genome into the
progeny virions.

HIV has an enzyme in the virion that synthesizes double-stranded DNA using the single-stranded
genome RNA as the template.

Accessory protein Vif enhances HIV infectivity by suppressing the cellular cytidine deaminase that
inhibits HIV replication
3.The initial symptom of HIV infection is
loss of T cells.

lymphadenopathy

appearance of thrush.

significant weight loss

high viral load.

4.There are no antivirals to treat HIV.

True

Fasle

5.HIV can be transmitted vertically.

True

False

6.Individuals who do not express CCR5 on their cells are resistant to infection by HIV.
True

False

7.The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV
infection?
phase 1

phase 2

phase 3

initial phase

asymptomatic phase
8.HIV uses for attachment CD4+ receptors which are found on T cells, B cells,
macrophages and dendritic cells.
True

False

9.The development of HIV vaccines has been shown very complicated because of
following reasons except one
HIV mutates rapidly

HIV not completely cleared by the host immune response after primary infection.

variability of HIV envelope antigens may promote the emergence of neutralization-resistant mutants

Lack of appropriate animal model for HIV vaccine studies

Recombinant vaccines for HIV are consideered nonsafe

10.For successful HAART therapy a one year course administered to HIV infected
person would be enough to establish stable remission.
True

False

11.DNA copy of the HIV RNA genome integrates into the host chromosome.
True

False

12.HIV uses CD4 receptor expressed on macrophages and T lymphocytes.

Coreceptors are the chemokine receptors CXCR4 (for macrophage-tropic strains of
HIV-1) and CCR5 (for lymphocyte-tropic strains of virus).
True

False
Virology, Mycology and Parasitology
Quiz #12a Eka
1.Which statement regarding fungi is correct?

(3/3 Points)
All molds grow as yeasts.

Although fungi are eukaryotes, they lack mitochondria.

Fungi have cell wall, which may contain chitin or large chains of other polymeric carbohydrates.

Few fungi possess cell membranes.

2.Yeasts are routinely speciated by a battery of physiologic tests, such as the ability
to assimilate various sugars.

(2/2 Points)
True

False

3.What term refers to fungal infections deep within the body?

(3/3 Points)
systemic mycoses

cutaneous mycoses

subcutaneous mycoses

superficial mycoses

4.Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

(3/3 Points)
teleomorph — produces both sexual and asexual spores
dermatomycosis — fungal infection of the skin

dimorphic fungus — grows as a yeast or a mold

systemic mycosis — fungal infection of body organs

vegetative hyphae - bears reproductive spores

5.Cutaneous mycosis are caused by endogenous fungi representing the normal

human microbiota

(2/2 Points)
True

False

6.A 30-year-old man who is HIV- antibody positive with a CD4 count of 100
diagnosis of disseminated histoplasmosis. Which one of the following is the best
choice of drug to treat his disseminated histoplasmosis?

(3/3 Points)
Amphotericin B

Caspofungin

Clotrimazole

Flucytosine

Terbinafine

7.All the statements regarding the dermatophytes are correct except which 2

(4/4 Points)
Dermatophytes utilize keratin as a nutrient & energy source

Dermatophytes infect the keratinized (horny) outer layer of the scalp, glabrous skin, and nails

Dermatophyte infections doesn’t induce an allergic and inflammatory eczematous response in the
host

Characteristic lesions on skin and also nails are formed with circular pattern
Dermatophytes can grow well at human body temperature

8.Regarding Blastomyces dermatitidis, which one of the following is most accurate?

(3/3 Points)
It forms a mycelium in culture at 37°C in the clinical lab.

Humoral immunity is the main host defense against this organism.

The most important virulence factor of this organism is endotoxin in its cell wall

it has mold like growth at room temperature and yeast like growth at human body temperature

9.Very few fungi can grow in acidic culture condition and tolerate low moisture
conditions

(2/2 Points)
True

False

10.Arthrospores of Coccidioides are very light and are easily carried by the wind

(2/2 Points)
True

False

11. Which of the following fungi is most likely to be found within

reticuloendothelial cells.

(3/3 Points)
Histoplasma capsulatum

Sporothrix schenckii

Cryptococcus neoformans

Candida albicans