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Science 10 Quiz Bee Elimination Test

Bachelor of Secondary Education (Pamantasan ng Lungsod ng Valenzuela)

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Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education – National Capital Region
Division of City Schools – Valenzuela
PASO DE BLAS NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

QUIZ BEE ELIMINATION IN SCIENCE 10

1. What is always a characteristic of a tectonic plate? B. observations of other planets

A. Consists of the crust & a part of the upper C. rock samples and seismic waves
mantle. D. temperature measurements in deep mines
B. Is in constant motion. 14. Scientists believed that the mantle’s convection
C. May contain the continental crust or the oceanic currents are caused by the heat of _____.
crust or both. A. core C. sun
D. All of these are correct. B. crust D. volcanoes
2. You were asked to locate the epicenter of recent 15. When 2 tectonic plates collide, the oceanic crust
earthquake. Which CORRECT sequence of events usually subducts beneath the continental crust
should you follow? because it is _____.
i. Determine the difference in the arrival of S & A. denser than continental crust
P waves recorded from each of the seismic B. less dense than continental crust
stations. C. thicker than continental crust
ii. Use the triangulation method to locate the D. thinner than continental crust
center. 16. Which is NOT true about the Philippine
iii. Obtain data from 3 different seismic Islands?
stations. A. Most parts of the Philippine Mobile Belt except
iv. Determine the distance of the epicentre Palawan, Mindoro and Zamboanga.
from the station B. Formed because of the convergence of the
Philippine Plate & the Pacific Plate.
A. i, ii, iii, iv C. iii, iv, ii, i C. Originated geologically in an oceanic-oceanic
B. iii, iv, i, ii D. iv, ii, i, iii convergence.
3. If you visit a place in the Pacific known to be along D. Some are products of subduction process.
converging plates, which of these should you NOT 17. Which of the following can you infer from the
expect to see? continuous movement of the lithospheric plates
A. active volcanoes C. rift valleys over the asthenosphere?
B. mountain ranges D. volcanic islands A. All continents will cease to exist.
4. Most of the earthquakes occur near the _____ of B. All the volcanoes in the Philippines will become
tectonic plates. inactive.
A. Circum-Pacific Belt C. center C. The continents will not be located in the same
B. boundaries D. ocean ridges place as they are now.
5. Which plate boundary is formed between the D. The islands of the Philippines will become
Philippine Plate & the Eurasian Plate? scattered all over the world.
A. Convergent C. Reverse fault 18. Why does the oceanic crust sink beneath the
B. Divergent D. Transform Fault continental crust at the subduction zone?
6. What is a transform fault boundary? A. The oceanic crust has a greater density.
A. The two plates collide. B. The oceanic crust is pulled downward by Earth’s
B. The two plates slide past one another. magnetic field.
C. Two plates move towards each other. C. The oceanic crust is pushed from the ridge.
D. Two plates pull away from each other. D. The continental crust has a denser composition.
7. If continents ride on top of 2 converging plates, they 19. What current theory explains why the tectonic
will collide & form _____. plates move?
A. an island C. faults A. mantle conduction C. mantle radiation
B. an ocean D. mountains B. mantle convection D. mantle
8. What geologic event is most likely to happen when subduction
there is transform fault boundary? 20. Which observation was NOT instrumental in
A. earthquake C. rift valley formation formulating the hypothesis of seafloor spreading?
B. mountain ranges D. volcanic eruption A. depth of the ocean
9. Which of the following is created from a divergent B. identification the location of glacial deposits
boundary? C. magnetization of the oceanic crust
A. The Great Rift Valley C. Andes Mountains D. thickness of seafloor sediments
B. Marianas Trench D. Pacific Ring of Fire 21. What layer supports and moves the tectonic
10. Which of the following features would expect to find plates?
at an oceanic-oceanic convergent boundary? A. asthenosphere C. crust
A. earthquakes C. volcanic island arcs B. core D. lithosphere
B. ocean trenches D. all of the choices 22. Which of the following is CORRECTLY paired?
11. Which is FALSE about the lithospheric plates? A. Cynognathus: Antarctica
A. Have the same thickness everywhere. B. Glossopteris: North America
B. Include the crust & the upper mantle. C. Lystrosaurus: Australia
C. Thickest in the mountain regions. D. Mesosaurus: South America
D. Vary in thickness. 23. In the visible spectrum, which color has the longest
12. If all the inner layers of the Earth are firm solid, wavelength?
what could have happened to Pangaea? A. Blue C. Red
A. Remains as a supercontinent. B. Green D. Violet
B. It would have become as it is today. 24. Which two waves lie at the ends of the visible
C. It would have slowly disappeared in the ocean. spectrum?
D. it would have stretched and covered the whole A. Infrared & Ultraviolet rays
world. B. Radio Waves & Microwaves
C. Radio waves & X-rays
D. X-rays & Gamma rays
25. Which property spells the difference between
infrared and ultraviolet radiation?
13. Geologists’ main evidence about the structure of A. color C. wavelength
Earth’s interior comes from _____. B. speed in vacuum D. none of the choices
A. exploration of caves

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26. A certain radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 42. Which optical instrument uses 2 convex lenses to
675 kHz. What is the wavelength of the radio make a smaller object larger?
waves? A. Camera C. Oscilloscope
A. 280 m C. 400 m B. Microscope D. Telescope
B. 324 m D. 444 m 43. A magnet moves inside a coil. Consider the
27. What type of electromagnetic waves is used in following factors:
RADAR? I. Strength of the Magnet
A. infrared rays C. radio waves II. Number of Turns in the Coil
B. microwaves D. ultraviolet rays III. Speed at which the magnet moves
28. What region of the electromagnetic spectrum is Which can affect the electromotive force (emf)
used in medical scans to detect abnormally high induced in the coil?
body temperature? A. I only C. II & III only
A. infrared C. visible light B. I & II only D. I, II & III
B. microwave D. x-ray 44. What will be produced when a magnet is moved
29. Which of the following is used in satellite through a coil?
communication as an application? A. Electricity C. Light
A. infrared C. visible light B. Heat D. Sound
B. microwave D. radio waves 45. What will be formed in the magnetic field due to a
30. Which EM wave is used to see bone fracture? current carrying conductor?
A. x-ray C. infrared A. Rectangles
B. microwave D. radio waves B. Wavy lines
31. What electromagnetic wave is sometimes called C. Concentric circles
heat rays? D. Straight lines radiating outwards
A. Gamma rays C. Radio waves 46. What basic principle enables ALL electric
B. Infrared D. Visible light generators to operate?
32. Which of the following is NOT a negative effect of A. Iron is the only element that is magnetic.
UV rays? B. Opposite electric charges attract and like charges
A. Damages DNA, causing skin cancer. repel.
B. Damages collagen causing aging. C. A closed-loop conductor within a changing
C. Destroys vitamin A. magnetic field will have an induced
D. Ionizes atoms in the body. electromotive force.
33. An object is placed between a concave mirror & its D. A current-carrying conductor placed within a
focal point. What is the type & orientation of the magnetic field will experience a magnetic force.
image formed? 47. Which describes the correct transformation of
A. virtual & inverted C. virtual & erect energy by electric motor and electric generator?
B. real & inverted D. real & erect A. motor, electric to mechanical : generator,
34. What type of lens produces smaller & upright mechanical to electrical
images? B. motor, electric to mechanical : generator,
A. concave lens C. converging lens mechanical to electrical
B. convex lens D. can’t be determined C. motor, electric to mechanical : generator, electric
35. You see the reflection of the clock without numbers to mechanical
in your plane mirror. The image formed by the D. motor, mechanical to electrical : generator
hands of the clock shows the time of 4:30. What is mechanical to electrical
the real time? 48. An oocyte is fertilized in the _____.
A. 6:30 C. 8:30 A. ovary C. uterus
B. 7:30 D. 9:30 B. oviduct D. vagina
36. What is the distance of your image from you if you 49. Which of the following is NOT true about the
stand 2.5 m in front of a plane mirror? function of vagina?
A. 2.5 m C. 7.5 m A. It serves as birth canal.
B. 5.0 m D. 10 m B. It allows the entry of sperm.
37. A 4.00-cm tall light bulb is placed a distance of 8.30 C. It is an exit of menstrual flow.
cm from double convex lens having a focal length of D. It contains opening to the uterus.
15.2 cm. 50. Which of the following pair of terms are the two
A. di=18.3 cm; hi=8.81cm major divisions of the nervous system?
B. di=18.3cm; hi=-8.81cm A. Brain : Spinal Cord
C. –di=22.8cm; hi=1.99cm B. Central : Peripheral
D. di=22.8cm; hi=-1.99cm C. Somatic : Autonomic
38. An object is kept at a distance at 80.00cm from a D. Sympathetic : Parasympathetic
convex lens of focal length 25.00cm. Find the 51. It is responsible for the development of secondary
distance between its image and lens. sex characteristics in males.
A. 19.05cm C. 36.36 cm A. estrogen C. testosterone
B. 25.25cm D. No image B. progesterone D. thyroxin
39. After refraction, what happens to a light ray 52. Which of the following glands DO NOT regulate the
travelling parallel to a concave lens axis and striking production and release of sperm cells?
the lens? A. Brain C. Testes
A. Pass through the lens focal point B. Pituitary Gland D. Thyroid Gland
B. Travel parallel to the principal axis 53. Which of the following is NOT regulated by the
C. Travels perpendicular to principal axis hormones of the female reproductive system?
D. Continues to travel in the same direction A. Movement of egg from the ovary to the uterus
40. What type of lens produces smaller and upright B. Growth and release of eggs
images? C. Preparation of uterus for pregnancy
A. Convex lens D. Stretching of the uterus during pregnancy
B. Concave lens
C. Converging lens 54. Which will NOT happen in the uterus after
D. Cannot be determined fertilization?
A. menstruation occurs
41. What kind of mirror is used in automobiles & trucks B. pregnancy takes place
to give the driver a wider area & smaller image of C. the egg hatches to the uterus
the traffic behind him? D. the embryo implants itself in the endometrium
A. plane mirror C. concave mirror 55. Which of the following situations shows a state of
B. convex mirror D. none of the choices homeostasis?
A. sweating to maintain body temperature

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B. mood swings due to higher hormone levels 69. When a population is maintained at its carrying
C. drinking more water resulting to hyperhydration capacity, it is said to be _____.
D. excessive thirst due to too much Ca in the blood A. Inactive C. unsustainable
56. Given the base sequence on one strand of a DNA B. in equilibrium D. growing
molecule: A ATG CCA GT GGT. In the DNA exponentially
replication, what complementary strand is 70. Which of the following is NOT a density-
produced? independent factor?
A. T TAC GGT CA CCA C. A ATC CCU CA CCU A. Food, water, and shelter C. Sunlight
B. U UAC GGU CA CCU D. T TAC CCU GA GGA B. Natural disasters D. Temperature
57. What is the importance of sequence of codons in 71. Before a population reaches its carrying capacity, it
the mRNA? experiences growth. What kind of growth a
A. It carries the amino acids. population experiences before it reaches its carrying
B. It binds the mRNA to the ribosome. capacity?
C. It carries the code to create ribosomes. A. Carrying capacity growth
D. It determines the sequence of amino acids. B. Exponential population growth
58. The role of bringing the amino acids in the C. Gradual population growth
cytoplasm to the ribosomes to make proteins is the D. Logistic growth
function of what type of molecule? 72. How can zoos, botanical gardens and wildlife parks
A. DNA C. rRNA help save species?
B. mRNA D. tRNA A. By participating captive breeding programs
59. Which of the following is a result of the deletion of B. By preserving threatened species from
the short arm of the Chromosome 5 characterized destruction
by highly-pitched cries? C. Both A and B
A. cri du chat C. Edward’s Syndrome D. Neither A and B
B. Down’s Syndrome D. Jacobsen Syndrome 73. How should rainforest be used to conserve its
60. If the fourth base in the original DNA strand were resources?
changed from G to C, how would this affect the A. Conduct tree growing programs
resulting protein fragment ? B. Frequently use forest as a camping site
A. The resulting protein fragment will almost be the C. Keep on cutting trees into logs
same. D. Promote deforestation
B. The resulting protein fragment will be entirely 74. Which is an application of Charles’ Law?
different. A. inflated car tire
C. There will be no change in the resulting protein B. rising of the dough when baked
fragment. C. aerosol container thrown in fire
D. There will be minimal changes in the resulting D. meat in pressure cooker
protein fragment. 75. Bulbs heat up as they generate light, What
61. Which is NOT use as evidence of evolution? happens to the pressure inside the light bulb when
A. DNA the temperature rises?
B. fossils A. increases C. remains the same
C. homologous structures B. decreases D. insufficient data
D. niches 76. A person can still pump air on a party balloon even
62. Fossil records show that many forms of animals though it is already inflated. Which of the following
look alike even though they have diverse ancestors. best explain this phenomenon?
What is this type of evolution? A. The air inside the balloon is hot.
A. Convergent C. Parallel B. Balloons are made up of plastic.
B. Divergent D. Transform C. Balloon looks better if its size is bigger.
63. Rock formation, geologic time scale, carbon-14 D. Air molecules can be compressed.
dating are used in determining the age of a fossil. In 77. Assuming that the temperature is held constant, if
what era can the oldest fossils be found? the pressure of a gas sample is quadrupled, by what
A. Cenozoic C. Pre-cambrian factor does the volume of the sample change?
B. Paleozoic D. Mesozoic A. 8 C. ½
64. Survival of the fittest is also known as _____. B. 2 D. ¼
A. Isolation C. natural selection 78. A sample of oxygen occupies 47.2 liters under a
B. mutation D. overproduction pressure of 1,240 Torr at 25°C. What volume would
65. Which of the following statements explains it occupy at 25°C if the pressure is decreased to 780
Lamarck’s theory of Use and Disuse? Torr?
A. Body structures develop because of mutation A. 27.8 L C. 32.3 L
B. Body structures develop because of competition B. 29.3 L D. 80.2 L
C. Body structures develop because they are not in 79. What will happen to the volume of marshmallow in
use a syringe as you press the plunger?
D. Body structures develop because they are used A. decreases
extensively B. increases
66. Which of the following does NOT show the process C. remains the same
of adaptation? D. cannot be determined
A. A child learning to walk on his own.
B. The finches in Galapagos with different beaks.
C. Drying out of dinosaurs during Cretacious period.
D. Certain group of birds eating different kinds of
food. 80. What is the relationship between volume and
temperature at constant pressure?
67. Biodiversity is important because it sustains A. directly proportional
through flow of energy. What might result if there B. direct square
will be change in this flow of energy? C. inversely proportional
A. Increased biodiversity D. inverse square
B. No changes in the state of biodiversity 81. Which of the following statements about Kinetic
C. Severely reduced biodiversity Molecular Theory of gases is INCORRECT?
D. Cannot be determined A. Gases are composed of molecules.
68. Which of the following enables life to adapt and B. Gas molecules are always in constant random
survive environmental changes? motion.
A. Ecosystem diversity C. Genetic diversity C. Movement of gas molecules is affected by
B. Functional diversity D. Intellectual temperature.
diversity

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D. There is attractive force between or among gas D. A more active element replaces another element
molecules. from a compound.
82. When a hot air balloon is heated, what happens to 97. Why would iron fillings rust faster than an iron nail?
the volume of the air inside? A. Its mass is lesser than an iron nail.
A. decreases B. Its mass is higher than an iron nail.
B. increases C. It has a larger area exposed than an iron nail.
C. remains the same D. It has a smaller area exposed than an iron nail.
D. cannot be determined 98. Why is it that foods do not spoil as fast when it is
83. Glucose is a _____. refrigerated as it would at room temperature?
A. lipid C. protein A. temperature changes
B. monosaccharide D. starch B. presence of microorganisms
84. Lactose is made up of _____. C. oxygen in air
A. amylose & amylopectin C. glucose & fructose D. all of the choices
B. galactose & glucose D. glycogen & cellulose 99. Why do foods easily spoil during summer?
85. Amino acids are the building blocks of _____. A. It is humid during summer.
A. carbohydrates C. nucleic acids B. There are many flies during summer.
B. lipids D. proteins C. High temperature during summer.
86. What elements are the same in carbohydrates, D. All of the choices.
lipids, proteins and nucleic acids? 100. How can we control acid rain due to the exhaust
A. C, H, N C. C, N, O fumes on the atmosphere by cars?
B. C, H, O D. C, P, O A. by using ignition
87. Which of the following is CORRECTLY paired? B. by burning more fossil fuels
A. disaccharide: lactose C. by using catalytic converters
B. monosaccharide: cellulose D. by using old engine vehicles
C. polysaccharide: fructose
D. polysaccharide: glucose -END-
88. Which statement describes a lipid?
A. It is hydrophilic.
B. It is water insoluble.
C. Its building blocks are amino acids.
D. It contains carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen.
89. What scientific law is explained using balanced
chemical equation?
A. Law of Chemical Reactions
B. Law of Conservation of Energy
C. Law of Conservation of Mass
D. Law of Definite Proportions
90. Which is NOT a type of chemical reaction?
A. combination C. evaporation
B. decomposition D. substitution

For items 91- 92 Refer to the statement below:

Silicon is the second most abundant
element in the earth’s crust and it is a very
useful element. One of its uses is as computer
chips. Whereby, it’s pure form is manufactured
by a process represented by the following
chemical reaction.
SiCl4 (s) + Mg (s) → Si (s) + MgCl2
Silicon tetrachloride Magnesium chloride

91. What type of chemical reaction is given in the

above equation?
A. Combustion C. decomposition
B. Single Displacement D. oxidation-reduction
92. What numerical coefficient should be placed to
magnesium if you are to balance the chemical
equation?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 6
93. If your reactants has a total mass of 50 grams,
what will be the total mass of the products?
A. less than 50 grams C. more than
50 grams
B. 50 grams D. zero
94. During photosynthesis, plants convert carbon
dioxide and water to glucose and oxygen gas. What
is the balance equation for the reaction?
A. CO2 + 2H2O  C6H12O6 + 3O2
B. 2CO2 + 2H2O  C6H12O6 + 2O2
C. 3CO2 + 3H2O  C6H12O6 + 3O2
D. 6CO2 + 6H2O  C6H12O6 + 6O2
95. Which of the following shows a chemical reaction?
A. dissolving of sugar C. melting of
ice
B. drying of leaves D. tearing of paper
96. How does a double displacement occur?
A. Two or more reactants form a single product.
B. A single reactant breaks down into 2 or more
products.
C. When cations and anions of different compound
switch places.

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