EDUPLUS ACADEMY

Wrundawan Colony, Dhebewadi Road, Agashivnagar

PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION- POLITICAL SCIENCE, ECONOMICS

Class 10 - Social Science

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Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

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General Instructions:

General Instructions:

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1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the Question paper.

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All questions are compulsory.

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2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. The answer to

each question should not exceed 40 words.

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AS S A

4. Section C contains Q. 25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. The answer to each
question should not exceed 60 words

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5. Section D – Questions no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. The answer to each
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question should not exceed 120 words.

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6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks

each. The answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
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7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b

from Geography (3 marks).

8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions.
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Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.

9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
10. Note: CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”. 50% weightage allocated for competency-based question.

Section A (MCQ)
1. Name the community who got the benefit of economic development and education much later in Belgium? [1]

a) French-speaking b) German-speaking

c) English-speaking d) Dutch-speaking
2. The Census found 114 major languages. Of these 22 languages are called ‘Scheduled Languages’ because they [1]
are:

a) they are scheduled state wise. b) included in the Eighteenth Schedule of the
Indian Constitution.

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 c) included in the agenda of Lok Sabha. d) included in the Eighth Schedule of the
Indian Constitution.
3. Which one of the following matters do NOT deal with the Family Laws? [1]

a) Marriage b) Inheritance

c) Adoption d) Finance
4. Which one of the following countries has two party system? [1]

a) America b) India

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c) China d) Russia

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5. Which of the following statements will be considered as the criteria for judging any democratic country? [1]
Statement i: Expectations from democracy.
Statement ii: Complaints from democracy.

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Statement iii: A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy.

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Statement iv: Equal recognition of all individuals in a democracy.

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a) Only statement iv is right. b) Statement iii is right.

c) Statement i, ii and iii are right. d) Statement i and ii are right.

6. Freedom, security, and respect are: [1]
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AS S A

a) Unimportant things b) Non-materialistic things

c) Materialistic thing d) Monetary things

7.
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Which one of the following is an activity of the unorganized sector? [1]
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a) A daily wage labourer working under a b) A teacher teaching in a school.

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contractor.

c) A doctor treating patients in a hospital. d) A worker going to work in a big factory.

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[1]

8.
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Which of the following option best describes the above picture?

a) Loan Activities of Bank b) Barter System provided by Bank

c) Activities of Self Help Groups d) Demand Draft facilities extended by Bank.

9. Arrange the following in the correct sequence: [1]
i. Several political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state) in northern and
eastern parts of Sri Lanka.
ii. The distrust between the two communities turned into widespread conflict. It soon turned into a Civil War.
iii. An Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil.
iv. Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country.

a) iv, i, iii, ii b) i, ii, iii, iv

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 c) iv, iii, i, ii d) iv, iii, ii, i
10. Assertion (A): India is a federation. [1]
Reason (R): Power resides with the central authority.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

11. Consider the following points regarding the relationship between religion and politics. Identify the incorrect one. [1]

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a) ideals and values of different religions play b) The needs, interests and demands of the
a role in politics people should be heard

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c) These political acts are not wrong as long as d) people should be able to regulate the
they treat every religion unequally practice of religion so as to prevent

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discrimination and oppression

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12. Since most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning, there are very [1]

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few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top a party. Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position
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of unfair advantage to favour people close to them or even their family members. Which challenge to a political
party is mentioned above?
KA NA a) Meaningful choice b) Money and muscle power
AS S A

c) Dynastic succession d) Lack of internal democracy

13.
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BMI is calculated by dividing ________ by the height in meters squared of the person. [1]
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a) weight b) gender
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c) age d) income
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14. A small number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and incomes. Not only that, but [1]
their share in the total income of the country has also been increasing. Those at the bottom of the society have
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very little to depend upon. Their incomes have been declining. Which situation is described here?

a) Caste inequality b) Social inequality

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c) Political inequality d) Economic inequality

15. Assertion (A): In India, over the forty years between 1973-74 and 2013-14, while production in all the three [1]
sectors has increased, it has increased the most in the tertiary sector.
Reason (R): Tertiary sector is the only organized sector in the economy so the government spends a lot of
money for creating jobs in the tertiary sector.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

16. Assertion (A): Banks keep only a small proportion of their deposits as cash with themselves. [1]
Reason (R): Banks in India these days hold about 15 percent of their deposits as cash.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

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17. Assertion (A): Sinhala was recognized as the only official language of Sri Lanka. [1]
Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to establish the supremacy of the Sinhala community.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Consider the following statements on the meaning of communal politics. Communal politics is based on the [1]
belief that:

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A. one religion is superior to that of others.
B. people belonging to different religions can live together happily as equal citizens.

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C. followers of a particular religion constitute one community.
D. state power cannot be used to establish the domination of one religious group over others.

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Which of the statements is/are correct?

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a) A, B, C, and D b) B and D

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c) A and C d) A, B, and D
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19. Assertion (A): Per capita income is always considered as an important parameter of measuring development. [1]
Reason (R): The aim of economic development is to raise the living standard of the people and through this to
KA NA
raise consumption level. This can be estimated through per capita income rather than national income.
AS S A

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

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c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

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20. Identify the incorrect option as given below: [1]

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a) The RBI monitors the banks in actually b) Banks have to submit information to the
maintaining cash balance. RBI on income tax returns.
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c) The RBI sees that the banks give loans not d) The RBI supervises the functioning of
just to profit-making businesses and traders formal sources of loans.
but also to small cultivators
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Section B (VSA)
21. What are the feminist movements? What are their demands? [2]
22. What is the role of the opposition party in a democracy? [2]
OR
What are the reasons for the great change in the caste system.
23. Describe any three features of a developed country. [2]
24. Distinguish between formal and informal sources of credit. [2]
Section - C (SA)
25. Differentiate between horizontal and vertical division of powers. [3]
26. Do you agree that caste alone cannot determine election results in India? [3]
27. "Democratic government is a legitimate government." Explain. [3]
28. Do you think the classification of economic activities into primary, secondary, tertiary is useful? Explain how. [3]
29. "All of the service sector is not growing equally well in India." Justify the statement with three arguments. [3]

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 Section - D (LA)
30. On what type of principles is the Indian union based? Describe the three fold distribution of Legislative powers [5]
between Union Government and the State Government.
OR
How do people take part in decision making in democracy? Explain.
31. Discuss different considerations about religion and politics. [5]
OR
Define the term Political Party. Explain with examples, the need of political parties in India.

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32. Why do we need to expand formal sources of credit in India? Explain any five reasons. [5]
OR

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Besides income, what can be the other attributes to compare economic development?
33. How can we create more employment in secondary and tertiary sectors in rural India? [5]

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OR

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Highlight the contribution of the Krishak Cooperative societies to overcome the problem of credit in rural areas?
Section E (Source Based Questions)

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34. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government.
They agree on some policies and programmes for the society with a view to promoting the collective good.
KA NA
Since there can be different views on what is good for all, parties try to persuade people why their policies are
AS S A

better than others. They seek to implement these policies by winning popular support through elections. Thus,
parties reflect fundamental political divisions in society. Parties are about a part of society and thus involve

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partisanship. Thus a party is known by which part it stands for, which policies it supports and whose interests it
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upholds. A political party has three components.

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(a) Name the three components of the Political Party.

(b) Parties are a part of society and thus involve partisanship. Who is a partisan?
(c) How do political parties attempt to persuade people to support their policies, and what is the ultimate goal
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of this persuasion?
35. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
The exact balance of power between the central and the state government varies from one federation to another.
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This balance depends mainly on the historical context in which the federation was formed. There are two kinds
of routes through which federations have been formed. The first route involves independent States coming
together on their own to form a bigger unit so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can
increase their security. This type of coming together federations include the USA, Switzerland, and Australia.
In this first category of federations, all the constituent States usually have equal power and are strong vis-a-vis
the federal government. The second route is where a large country decides to divide its power between the
constituent States and the national government. India, Spain, and Belgium are examples of this kind of holding
together federations. In this second category, the central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the
States. Very often different constituent units of the federation have unequal powers. Some units are granted
special powers.
(a) What determines the balance of power in a federation?
(b) In "holding together" federations, which level of government tends to be more powerful in relation to the
states?
(c) Provide examples of federations from each of the two routes and briefly explain the power dynamics in

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 each type of federation.
36. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
The average person in Haryana has more income than the average person in Kerala but lags behind in the crucial
areas. The reason is - money in your pocket cannot buy all the goods and services that you may need to live
well. So, income by itself is not a completely adequate indicator of material goods and services that citizens are
able to use.
Actually for many of the important things in life the best way, also the cheapest way, is to provide these goods
and services collectively. Even now, in many areas, children, particularly girls, are not able to go to high school

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because the government/ society has not provided adequate facilities. Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate
because it has an adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities. Similarly, in some states, PDS

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functions well. Health and nutritional status of people of such states is certainly likely to be better.
(a) Why in some areas children are unable to go to high school?

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(b) State the effect of adequate public facilities.

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(c) Substantiate the statement with two instances:
Income by itself is not a completely adequate indicator of material goods and services.

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Section F ( Map Based Questions)
37. a. Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline political Map of India. Identify them with the [5]
help of given information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:
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A. The place where the session of INC was held in September 1920.
B. The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke Salt Law.

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b. On the same outline Map of India, locate and label any THREE of the following with suitable symbols:
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i. Hirakud Dam
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ii. Tarapur Atomic Power Station

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iii. Pune Software Technology Park

iv. Paradip Sea Port
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