Notre Dame College of Jolo

Criminology Enhancement Program

Crime Detection and Investigation

1. An articles and pieces of evidence which assist the investigator in locating the suspects is
known as –
A. physical evidence C. material evidence
B. associative evidence D. tracing evidence
2. Police intelligence which is primarily long-range in nature with little or no immediate practical
value is –
A. Department intelligence C. Undercover intelligence
B. Strategic intelligence D. Counter intelligence
3. Which of the following is NOT a method of crime scene search?
A. The vertical method C. The strip method
B. The wheel method D. The zone method
4. An appraised intelligence report rated C-2 shall be read –
A. The information was reported by the PNP teams involved on the raid are fairly reliable
and the info is probably true.
B. The report was made by the AFP troops who are usually reliable and the info was
confirmed by other source.
C. The report was given by a civilian where reliability cannot be judge and the info was
improbable
D. Any of them
5. As one of the tools of criminal investigation, ___________ covers the application of
fingerprint system, modus operandi file, the lie detector, communication systems, surveillance
equipment, searching apparatus, etc. in finding out the facts and circumstances surrounding the
commission of crime.
A. criminalistics C. forensic science
B. instrumentation D. institution
6. Ordinarily the identity of the criminal could be discovered in one or more following ways,
EXCEPT –
A. admission and confession C. eyewitness testimony
B. surveillance and undercover assignment D. circumstantial evidence
7. This type of surveillance may be used in the places where gambling, prostitution, abortion,
fencing, use of prohibited drugs, etc. are performed.
Which of these?
A. Loose surveillance C. Stakeout
B. Close surveillance D. General surveillance
8. Applies in crimes involving organization or selling crimes involving drugs, alcohol,
pornographic Literature, stolen goods, frauds, contraband, or black market operation, subversive
activities, systematic theft, etc.
A. Surveillance C. Tailing
B. Undercover assignment D. Combination of loose and close surveillance
9. EXCEPT one, physical evidence are primarily available from the following sources, which the
crime scene investigation officer should recognized and collect.
A. The crime scene C. The suspect
B. The victim D. The witness
10. In searching for physical evidence, the following types of search could be used depending
upon locale, number of personnel available, type of object sought and speed desired, EXCEPT:
A. Strip and double strip or grid search
B. Rectangular and circular search
C. Sector search
D. Spiral and wheel search
11. Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical integrity of evidence?
A. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
B. Evidence must be properly documented
C. Maintain its chain of custody
D. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
12. Which of the following must be done to maintain the legal integrity of evidence?
A. Evidenced must be properly documented
B. Maintain its chain of custody
C, Identify, tag and seal the evidence
D. Photographed and packaged the evidence
13. To prove the chain of custody of evidence the following must be demonstrated EXCEPT:
A. The evidence must be free from alteration, contamination and switching
B. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene
C. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the evidence
D. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be explained
14. The most essential requisite for admissibility in evidence of admission and confession is –
A. the offender understands his decision to confess
B. there are no torture and violence that vitiate the freewill of the offender
C. it must be voluntarily and freely given
D. it must be taken with the assistance of a counsel
15. Circumstantial evidence may produce conviction if the following requisites are present:
I. When there are more than one circumstances present
 II. When the facts from which the inference derived are proven
III. When the quantum of substantiality of evidences are proven
IV. When the combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction
beyond a reasonable doubt
A. I, II and III C. II, III and IV
B. I, II and IV D. I, II, III and IV
16. The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene beginning in the outside and
circling around a control point. Which is being described
A. Strip method C. Zone method
B. Spiral method D. Wheel method
17. Your Intelligence Agent has reached the enemy, get information and manage to get back
alive to you. You will categorize him as –
A. Agent of Influence C. Penetration Agent
B. Double Agent D. Agent in Place
18. A planned coordinated legal rummage by component law enforcers to locate physical
evidence or witnesses to a crime investigation.
A. Surveillance C. Stake out
B. Raid D. Crime scene search
19. Which term that refers to the systematic procedure for verbal description of a person after a
short period of visual observation?
A. Portrait Parle C. Rogue’s gallery
B. Mug shot D. Observation
20. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and locations of evidence was noted,
the collection process begins and will usually starts with the –
A. point of exit C. fragile evidence
B. large objects D. removal of cadaver
21. A crack in a glass that extends outwards like the spoke of a wheel from the point at which the
glass was struck:
A. Concentric fracture C. Crater fragments
B. Radial fracture D. Glass fragments
22. These are facts and circumstances, which would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man
to believe that an offense has been committed by the person sought to be arrested:
A. Burden of proof C. Reasonable evidence
B. Proof of guilt D. Probable cause
23. A bloodstain was noted by the prober at the exit door of the crime scene, how should the
specimen be collected?
A. Removed the portion containing the point of interest
B. Apply first saline solutions then placed in a test tube
C. Scraped off using clean razor and placed in a clean paper
D. Just let it stay there and take photograph
24. This refers to the act or practice of painlessly putting to death a person suffering from
incurable and distressing disease.
A. Euthanasia C. Regicide
B. Homicide D. Uxoricide
25. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender must have the intent to kill the victim. If
there is no intent to kill, the offender is liable for –
A. physical injury C. serious physical injury
B. homicide D. consummated physical injury
26. Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of infanticide?
A. Child was killed
B. The deceased child was less than three days of age
C. The offender is not a parent of a child
D. The accused killed the said child
27. The new anti-rape law classified rape into two types; rape by sexual assault and –
A. statutory rape C. qualified
B. sexual intercourse D. marital
28. In the following cases, defense wounds may be present, EXCEPT:
A. Physical injury C. Infanticide
B. Homicide D. Parricide
29. Which of the following is NOT a crime against persons?
A. Physical injury C. Abduction
B. Mutilation D. Parricide
30. This is the process of burning the dead body into ashes:
A. Cremation C. Exhumation
B. Arson D. Embalming
31. This is the medical report stating the cause of death of an individual:
A. Ante-mortem report C. Death certificate
B. Medical certificate D. Necropsy report
32. Anyone who, with evident premeditation, killed another shall be charged with the crime of –
A. homicide C. infanticide
B. parricide D. murder
33. This is the first that an investigator must do upon his arrival at the scene of the crime:
A. Secure the crime scene C. Interview of witness (es)
B. Taking a picture D. Attend to emergency
34. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s womb:
A. Infanticide C. Abortion
 B. Parricide D. Murder

35. In cadaveric spasm, the stiffening of the muscle usually starts at the –
A. Hand and fist C. Neck and jaw
B. Arm and neck D. Legs and feet
36. The purpose of the autopsy is to determine which of the following:
A. The actual cause of death of the victim
B. The modus operandi involved
C. The actual killer of the victim
D. The motive behind the killing
37. A laboratory test to determine whether a blood sample is of animal or human origin.
A. precipitin test C. rigor mortis
B. res gestae D. post mortem lividity
38. Which of the following body system coincide the stopping of a mental organ function of a
person to medically “dead”?
A. cardiac C. central nervous
D. all of these D. respiratory
39. Which of the following serious crimes that usually do NOT leave a high probability of
generating retrievable physical evidence?
A. Homicide an assault C. Robbery, Carnapping, and Arson
B. Sexual assault D. Treason, Insurrection and Piracy
40. Pedro is a pro-Duterte while Juan is anti-Deterte. During one of their heated arguments,
Pedro was not able to control his anger and without warning, stabbed Juan to death. To prevent
identification of the dead body, Pedro sit it on fire. You will charge Pedro with the crime of -
A. homicide C. parricide
B. murder D. arson
41. Which wound is produced by forcible contact on the body by sharp edged instrument like
bolos, knives and broken glasses?
A. Incised C. Punctured
B. Stab D. Lacerated
42. Juan and Pedro are lovers. One night Pedro caught Juan in the arms of Lucinda. That
evening, while Juan was sleeping, Pedro took a scissor and cut the genital of his lover. Juan was
confined in the hospital for 120 days. As police investigator, you will charge Pedro with -
A. less serious physical injuries C. frustrated homicide
B. serious physical injuries D. mutilation
43. Alex is a suspect for the slaying of Santino. When confronted with the fact that his
fingerprints were lifted off from the crime scene as well as from the recovered firearm used in
the in the slaying, he broke down in tears and narrated the whole story. What is the nature of his
narration?
 A. It can be treated as confession
B. Specification
C. it can be considered as admission
D. he cooperated in the investigation, hence entitled for mitigating circumstance
44. Below are the situations that the Miranda rule does not apply EXCEPT:
A. Interview of suspect who are not under custody and in custody but are not being
questioned
B. Questioning initiated by the police after a person has been taken into custody
C. Volunteered statements of suspects in custody and general on-thescene questioning
D. Statements made by the suspect to a private party
45. A testimony of a witness reduced to writing under oath or affirmation, before a person
empowered to administer oath. Which of these?
A. Confession C. Deposition
B. In accordance with law D. Extra-judicial confession
46. What type of witness must be permitted to tell lies until he is well enmeshed with his
falsehood and inconsistencies?
A. Deceitful witness C. Boasting type
B. Timid witness D. Honest witness
47. What type of confession made before a magistrate or in court in the due course of legal
proceedings?
A. Extra judicial C. Judicial
B. Third degree D. Out of court
48. It means any questioning initiated by law enforcement officers after a person has been taken
into custody or otherwise deprived of his freedom in any significant way.
A. Investigation C. Custodial investigation
B. Interrogation D. Extra- judicial
49. Juan is the suspect in the murder of Pedro. After vigorous interrogation, Juan declared
ownership of the firearm used in the murder of Pedro. However, he maintains that he did not kill
Pedro and the he does not know who or how Pedro got killed. In the above case, the same is
considered as:
A. Confession C. Cooperation
B. Admission D. Specification
50. Who shall be subjected to interrogation?
A. Witness C. Families and victims
B. Suspects D. Victims
51. Who among the following is a target subject of police interrogation?
A. Cooperative witness C. Ready witness
B. Complainant D. Hostile witness
52. A stole a very huge amount of money from the house of B by entering through the gates left
open and through the doors left unlocked while everyone was having a picnic at the backyard,
what crime committed?
A. Robbery C. Robbery in band
B. Theft D. Qualified theft
53. Robbery is classified into robbery with violence against or intimidation of persons and-
A. robbery by force upon things C. complex crime of robbery
B. robbery by a band D. robbery with homicide
54. Francis Garcia, a Jolibee crew found a gold bracelet and upon inspecting it found the name
and address of the owner engraved on the inside. He delivered the bracelet to Patrolman Reyes
who sold it to Rona which was snatched by Jose. What crime if any did Reyes committed?
A. Malversation C. Theft
B. Qualified theft D. Estafa
55. Basis of the penalty of theft EXCEPT one.
A. Person who commit it
B. Value of the thing stolen
C. Value and the nature of the property taken
D. The circumstances or causes that impelled the culprit to commit the crime
56. A vehicular accident occurred on a national highway bound to Bulacan. Among the first to
arrive on the scene was Pedro who found one of the victims already dead and the other
unconscious. Before rescuers could come, Pedro took the wallet and jewelry of one of the
victims. What crime did Pedro commit?
A. Theft C. Qualified theft
B. Robbery D. Estafa
57. Under the provision of Republic Act 7438, a mere invitation of a suspect is already
considered as __________, hence, entitled him of Miranda Rights.
A. beginning of arrest C. beginning of custody
B. beginning of detention D. beginning of custodial investigation
58. The principal psychological factor contributing to a successful interrogation is –
A. privacy C. threat
B. respect D. rapport
59. What is the most common cause of road accident in the Philippines?
A. road condition C. pedestrian
B. whether condition D. reckless driving
60. Systematic examination of all facts relating to conditions, actions and physical features
associated with motor collision.
A. traffic accident investigation C. traffic engineering
B. hit and run investigation D. traffic collision
61. What are the devices mounted on a portable support where a message to the road users is
conveyed by means of words or symbols
A. traffic light C. traffic island
B. traffic signs D. pavement markin
62. It warn road users of the danger that lies ahead of the road and its nature.
A. informative signs C. warning signs
B. regulatory signs D. all of these
63. Which of the following evidence is important to gather from fatal motor crash?
A. Spare tire C. Footwear of driver and skid mark of vehicle
B. Unusual odor D. All of these
64. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision course or otherwise avoid
hazard.
A. Start of evasive action C. Point of no escape
B. Point of possible perception D. Final position
65. Painted on the pavement and placed at intersections and other places to provide pedestrians
with safety zone when crossing:
A. Center C. Cross walk
B. Lane D. Stop lines
66. Motor vehicle accident occurs at a place other than on a highway:
A. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident C. Motor vehicle traffic accident
B. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident D. Motor vehicle accident
67. Over speeding can cause traffic accidents and we attribute the same to
A. unworthy vehicle C. traffic error
B. human error D. Road deficiency
68. Which of the following is the correct chain of events in a vehicular accident?
A. Perception of hazard, start of evasive action, initial contact, maximum engagement,
disengagement, stopping and injury
B. Perception of hazard, start of evasive action, initial contact, disengagement, stopping
and injury maximum engagement
C. initial contact, perception of hazard, Start of evasive action, maximum engagement,
disengagement and stopping and injury
D. Start of evasive action, initial contact, perception of hazard, maximum engagement,
disengagement and stopping and Injury
69. Traversing a highway with double yellow line with dotted line in between means that the
motorist can _________.
A. not overtake under any circumstances
B. overtake as long as there is no traffic enforcers looking
C. overtake when the opposite direction is clear of incoming vehicles
D. not overtake when there is oncoming vehicles on the opposite 3lane
70. What is the elevated structure that is built for the safety of the pedestrians crossing busy
highways?
A. Skyway C. Overpass
B. Flyover D. Underpass
71. Considering that the motor vehicle has stalled or bogged down, as traffic enforcer or patrol
officer, the following should be done, EXCEPT
A. ensure the safety of other motor vehicles passing through in the area
B. ignore the situation and just continue your patrolling function
C. help push the motor vehicle up to the shoulder of the road, if practicable
D. Check whatever is the defect or condition of the stalled or bogged motor vehicle
72. While driving towards the accident scene, the motorist should_________.
A. ignore incoming persons and motor vehicles
B. ascertain hazards to approaching traffic
C. ascertain possible situation at the scene
D. consider obstructions on approach
73. Which of the following is the objective of traffic engineering to achieve efficient, free, and
rapid flow of traffic?
A. So that the motorists and other road users can avoid traffic accidents
B. All of these
C. So that the motorists and other road users will have enjoyable and convenient ride.
D. So that motorists and other road users can reach their destination safely and on time is
74. Which of the following the BEST reason why biorhythm is an important aspect of traffic
safety so that the person can avoid accident?
A. Knows his physical capacity on certain day.
B. Knows his intellectual capacity on certain day.
C. Gives hints on how he tends to feel in a certain day.
D. Ascertains his physical, emotional, and intellectual condition in a certain day.
75. The following are characteristics of human errors that cause traffic congestion, EXCEPT
A. lack of due diligence on the part of pedestrians
B. lack of presence of uniformed traffic enforcers
C. bad driving habits like slow drivers
D. poor legislative traffic regulations and activities
76. What term is used to describe the frontal collision of a vehicles?
A. Collision C. Head on collision
B. Full impact collision D. Frontal collision
77. As a rule, maximum speed limits are necessary for the use of our streets. The following are
instances when these maximum speed limits may not be observed EXCEPT:
A. drivers who are members of the PNP or the AFP
B. any driver bringing a wounded or sick person for emergency treatment
C. the driver or his passengers who are in pursuit of a criminal
D. a physician or his driver when responding to emergency calls
78. What should NOT be done by the fire truck driver when crossing an intersection where there
is a traffic control?
A. Must do a full stop. C. See the traffic stop and heed.
B. Wait for the light to change D. Proceed only when it is safe.
79. What do you call a mark produced by a vehicle traveling in an arc or curved direction?
A. Skid mark C. Scuff mark
B. Centrifugal force D. Centrifugal skid
80. The following are causes of traffic accidents EXCEPT _________.
A. undisciplined driver’s C. vehicle over speeding
B. road works obstructions. D. lack traffic rules and regulations
81. The privilege of immediate use of roadway in preference to another vehicle or pedestrian is
______.
A. Immunity C. leniency
B. giving way D. right of way
82. Law concerning authority of the MMDA to manage traffic in metropolitan Manila area:
A. RA 4136 C. RA 7924
B. RA 6539 D. RA 8551
83. A driver who was in traffic accident is justified to leave from the accident area, if any of the
circumstances below are present, except:
A. He is in imminent danger of being harmed by other persons by reason of an accident
B. He surrenders to proper authority
C. He summons the assistance of a physician or nurse to aid the victim
D. He hides from the police for justifiable cause
84. The most common motive for arson is –
A. jealousy C. profit
B. spite D. revenge
85. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?
I. inflammable substance found in the premises
II. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
III. building insurance
A. I only C. I and II only
B. II only D. I, II and III
86. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves.
This heat transfer is –
A. conduction C. combustion
B. radiation D. convection
87. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected horizontally to
the beam forming ascent or descent?
A. rope C. hydrant
B. ladder D. nozzle
88. What is an act which removes or neutralizes a fire hazard?
A. distillation C. allotment
B. abatement D. combustion
89. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact is called ___.
A. oxidation C. convection
B. conduction D. radiation
90. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over the entire
surface?
A. oxidation C. flash over
B. back draft D. combustion
91. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consumes electrical
current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.
A. self- closing door C. jumper
b. overloading D. oxidizing material
92. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of not less than
four hours with sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either
side collapses under fire condition:
A. firewood C. post wall
B. fire wall D. fire trap
93. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method
is:
A. smothering C. fuel removal
B. cooling D. dilution
94. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
A. simultaneous fire C. faulty electric wiring
B. thick reddish smoke D. unexplained explosion
95. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is
connected so that water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
A. fire hose box C. fire truck
B. hose reel D. fire hydrant
96. Which of the following is considered as the most effective fixed installation for controlling
fire which will discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near the ceiling?
A. fire hydrant C. standpipe
B. automatic water sprinkler D. fire extinguisher
97. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids like kerosene, gasoline, alcohol, etc.
A. Class D C. Class A
B. Class C D. Class B
98. What is the most common excuse by a fire prober when no evidence is found?
A. lack of witnesses C. no evidence
B. electrical wiring D. no determination
99. Which of the following drugs affect the sensation, thinking, self-awareness and emotion of a
person?
A. Hallucinogens. C. Stimulants
B. Sedatives D. Narcotics
100. Primarily R.A. 9165 is different from previous laws on illegal drugs because R.A. 9165
A. gives a single definition to dangerous drug - Art
B. included in the definition of regulated drug the dangerous drugs
C. prefers the classification of dangerous drug to prohibited drug
D. did not remove the distinction between regulated and prohibited drug
101. Mandatory drug testing is NOT required by R.A. 9165 for ______.
A. applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms outside residence
B. all persons charged before the prosecutor's office with a criminal offense having an
imposable penalty of not less than six (6) years and one (1) days
C. officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcement agencies
D. officers and employee of public and private offices
102. Which of the following gives the feeling of a need for more and more of illegal drugs to
achieve the same level of effect?
A. Physical dependency C. Toxicity
B. Psychological dependency D. Tolerance
103. Which of the following is NOT considered as drug trafficking pursuant to the applicable
provisions of R.A. 9165?
A. Cultivation, culture and delivery,
B. Transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and possession
C. Use, abstinence, consumption, addiction
D. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and trading,
104. Pleasure or reward is that part of the brain affected by pain, thus, the motivation why people
used drugs and alcohol is to _________.
A. forget their problems. C. get high
 B. feel good D. spend money
105. Which of the following is NOT a condition precedent before an arrested person may be
required to undergo a laboratory examination within 24?
A. The person is manifestly showing symptoms of drug abuse.
B. There is a clear showing that the suspect was under the influence of drugs.
C. There person is showing physical signs of drug abuse.
D. The person is showing psychological drug addiction,
106. The withdrawal symptoms produced by a drug is manifested by __________.
A. withdrawal symptoms that are usually severe and incapacitating
B. withdrawal symptoms which are psychological in nature
C. a person who is always seen with alcohol but never with heroin
D. symptoms which are usually opposite to the effects of the drug itself
107. A minor who is convicted for the possession of illegal drugs is entitled to
A. suspended sentence C. custody by the DSWD
B. suspension of judgment D. suspended enforcement
108. Without a supply of illegal drugs, it will be difficult for drug addicts to ______.
A. be happy and feel good
B. sustain their habit of drug abuse
C. undergo rehabilitation
D. have easy access to illegal drugs
109. Aware of number of arrests and cases filed in court, experts propose that hearing of illegal
drugs cases should be tried and heard by __________.
A. RTC Courts designated as Heinous Crime
B. Special Court designated by the SC among existing RTC
C. Sandiganbayan.
D. Special Court designated by the SC
110. When a person who is known as drug addict, by his own volition ceased from taking illegal
drugs, he/she is ________.
A. in abstinence C. in self-healing
B. into wellness. D. in self-medication
111. Which of the following is NOT CORRECT regarding treatment and rehabilitation of drug
dependents?
A. Charges can be filed against a drug dependent who is not rehabilitated under the
voluntary submission program.
B. the Dangerous Drugs Board shall order the confinement of a drug dependent who
refuses to apply under the voluntary submission program.
C. A drug dependent discharged as rehabilitated but does not qualify for exemption from
criminal liability shall be placed on probation.
 D. Temporary release of drug dependent subject to after-care and follow-up treatment
from DOH shall be for a period of not exceeding 18 months.
112. The following are the most popular plants as source of dangerous drugs EXCEPT _______.
A. opium poppy C. coca bush
B. indian hemp D. ephedra
113. The Golden Triangle produces how many percent of opium in the world?

a.60% c. 80%
b.70% d. 90%

114. Facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs is called:

A. drug den C. laboratory equipment

B. drug laboratory D. clandestine laboratory
115. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive Drug Act of 2002, except:

a. Cultivation, culture and delivery,

b. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and trading,
c. Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance
d. Transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and possession
116. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active
components known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?

A. Mescaline C. Marijuana
B. LSD D. Ecstacy
117. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred Tree” planted by the Incas of Peru. It is
considered as the world’s oldest cultivated plant which is the source of dangerous drug.

a. Papaver Somniferum c. Coca Plant

b. Cannabis Sativa d. Ephedrine
118. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in the global drug market.

I. Heroin and Cocaine

II. Shabu and Ecstacy
III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine
IV. Narcotics, Hallucinogens, Stimulants and Depressants

A. I and II C. II and III

B. I and III D. V
119. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes it detection quite
difficult. Various techniques were made by its operator in concealing their activities.

A. Hide –out operation C. Clandestine Operation

B. Disguised operation D. Confidential

120. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden
Triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world originate. This lies on the borders of:

A. Thailand –Laos –Burma C. Iran –Afghanistan – Pakistan

 B. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar D. Peru- Columbia- Bolivia
121. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of increasing stamina and/or
energy.
A. Ecstasy C. MDMA
B. Shabu D. Anabolic Steroid

122. They serve as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drug Board:

A. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice

B. NBI Director and PNP Director General
C. PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
D. PNP Director and PDEA Director

123. Removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of abusing drugs:

A. Cleansing process C. Abstinence

B. Aversion treatment D. Detoxification

124. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:

A. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet

B. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
C. Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
D. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are serrated in shape.

125. Which of the following does not carry a capital punishment?

a. possession of 20 grams morphine c. possession of 15 grams of MDMA

b.possession of 100 grams of marijuana d. possession of 60 grams of shabu
126. The Golden Crescent is located in the South West Asia composed of which Countries?

a. Iran, Persia, India and Pakistan

b. Afghanistan, Iran, India and Pakistan
c. Pakistan, Afghanistan, Persia and Iraq
d. Iraq, Iran, Lebanon and Turkey

127. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness
and corruption of the minds and body.

A. Prostitution C. Drug addiction

B. Gambling D. Vice

128. also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics
substance.
A. Codeine C. Morphine
B. Heroin D. Opium Poppy

129. Which does NOT describe BEST why a person takes drugs?

A. Personal, family and social problems

B. Friends and peer pressure
C. High self esteemed and ego
D. Accessibility of sources of illegal drugs
130 . The powerful stimulant in a form of a white powdery substance extracted from cocoa leave
is

A. marijuana C. cocaine
B. shabu D. opium

131. Enforcement of cybercrime law is vested upon the –

A. PNP- Anti-Cybercrime Group only
B. PNP and NBI
C. Office of Cybercrime of the Department of Justice
D. Cybercrime Investigation and Coordinating Center
132. Knowledge used to prevent or mitigate cyber-attacks by studying the threat data and
provide information on adversaries is known as –
A. electronic intelligence C. data mining
B. cyber intelligence D. data intelligence
133. Cyber crime investigation refers to the process of investigating, analyzing, and recovering
_________ for digital evidence of a crime.
A. crime data C. forensic data
B. electronic information D. digital information
134. Application of technologies, processes, and controls to protect systems, networks,
programs, devices and data from cyber attacks is known as –
A. cybercrime C. electronic data protection system
B. cyber protection D. cyber security
135. Evidence-based knowledge about adversaries - their motives, intents, capabilities,
enabling environments and operations - focusing on specific events, trends or relationships and
helping the defender make better decisions. Which is being described?
A. Cyber threat C. Data mining
B. Cyber threat intelligence D. Cyber threat investigation report
136. The service provider is duty bound to disclose or submit subscriber’s information, traffic
data or relevant data in its possession or control to law enforcement or competent authorities
within _______ after receipt of order and/or copy of the court warrant.
A. 48 hours C. 1 day
B. 72 hours D. 20 days
137. Hash value refers to the Mathematical algorithm produced against digital information such
as file, physical disk or a logical disk. What is created by this process that is very important in
the investigation of cybercrime?
A. Digital fingerprint C. Forensic image
B. Computer DNA D. Digital identifying information
138. To test the cyber security capability and preparedness of the University of Pantukan, Johnny
Neuron hacked its portal with the introduction or transmission of viruses. Neuron’s act
constitutes ________________ under Republic Act 10175.
A. illegal access C. hacking
B. system interference D. crackling
139. Content-related offenses such as cybersex, child pornography, unsolicited commercial
communications, and libel are triable in which court?
A. Special Commercial Court C. Regional Trial Court
B. Sandiganbayan D. Metropolitan Circuit Trial Court
140. Computer-related _____ is committed by any person who intentionally acquired and used
identifying information belonging to another for material gain.
A. fraud C. estafa
B. theft D. forgery
141. What type of cyber threat intelligence that deals with the identification of simple indicators
of compromise?
A. Tactical C. Strategic
B. Operational D. Line
142. Through ___________intelligence, organizations are able to identify potential threats and
vulnerabilities, as well as understand the motives and capabilities of adversaries.
A. strategic C. operational
B. line D. tactical
143. An ationable cyber threat intelligence whose use ranges from blocking attacks to triaging
alerts and searching for threats within a network. Which of these?
A. Cyber intelligence C. Tactical
B. Strategic D. Operational
144. Which stage of cyber intelligence cycle that you contextualizing processed threat
intelligence through the enrichment and application of known structural data or advanced
correlation and data modeling?

A. Processing C. Evaluation
B. Analysis D. Synthesis

145. As initial step in the cyber intelligence cycle, planning and directing involve laying out
the main goals and tasks for threat intelligence program, which are often referred to as -
A. Information requirements C. intelligence plan
B. Need to know D. intelligence requirements
146. What stage of cyber intelligence that you establishes the scope of your sources, both in
terms of the data volume and type?
A. Planning C. Analyzing
B. Directing D. Collecting
147. During this stage of cyber intelligence cycle you focus on arranging finished intelligence
into easy-to digest graphical charts, dashboards, and reports. Which of these?
A. Production C. Reporting
B. Dissemination D. Preparation
148. Stakeholders’ evaluation of the cyber intelligence report findings, key decisions, and
comments to continually refine intelligence operations occur during which stage of cyber
intelligence cycle?
 A. Feedback C. Reporting
B. Presentation D. Evaluating
149. Process of collecting, analyzing and recovering critical forensic digital data from the
networks involved in the attack in order to identify the authors of the digital crime and their true
intentions is known as –
A. forensic cybercrime C. cyber threat investigation
B. cybercrime investigation D. cyber threat intelligence
150. Which stage of cybercrime investigation that the investigator uses interviews and
surveillance reports to obtain proof of cybercrime?
A. Tracking and identifying the authors C. Information gathering
B. Digital forensics D. Background check
151. What stage of cybercrime investigation that the investigator is trying to create and define
the background of the crime with known facts?
A. Background check C. identifying offender
B. Information gathering D. collection of evidence