EXAMINATION ON

FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION

(Enhancement Class – 1)

Name: Course: Date:

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in each of the following questions. Mark only one answer on each
item by a putting a circle corresponding to the letter of your choice.

1. It is defined as an articles and material found in the crime scene, and assist in the discovery of facts.
A. physical evidence B. clue materials
C. instrumentalities D. articles of Importance
2. This consists of objects or materials or substances which essential part of the body of the crime.
A. corpus delicti B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence D. all of these
3. This kind of evidence links the suspect to the crime scene or the offense.
A. corpus delicti B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence D. none of the above
4. These are articles which assist the investigator in locating the suspect.
A. corpus delicti B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence D. physical evidence
5. It refers to the number of persons who handle the evidence between the time of the commission of the
offense and ultimate disposition of the cases.
A. chain of custody B. safekeeping of evidence
C. chain of evidence D. property custodian
6. It refers to offender’s pattern of committing a crime.
A. modus operandi B. motive & intent
C. profiling D. characteristics
7. It is made by the investigator on the scene; it need not be drawn to scale.
A. crime scene sketch B. rough sketch
C. finished drawing D. projection sketch
8. It is a file of photograph of arrested individuals which usually includes full-face and mug shots along
with detailed physical description of subject persons.
A. roués gallery B. modus-operandi file
C. fingerprint file D. index card file
9. It is an investigative practice of placing the suspect within a group of people for the purpose of being
viewed by eyewitnesses.
A. police line-up B. identification parade
C. all of these D. none of these
10. The fundamental responsibility of the officer-in-charge of protecting the crime scene is:
A. interrogating the witness, the victims and the suspects
B. engaging in the search for traces left by the criminals
C. removal of evidence which may be important to the case investigated
D. preserving the site of the crime in the same physical conditions
left by the perpetrator.
11. It is the simple questioning of a person who has no personal reason to withhold information and therefore
may be expected to cooperate with the investigator.
A. interview B. interrogation
C. questioning D. all of these
12. It usually determines the success of the investigation, and the relationship existing between the
interviewer and subject.
A. mutual interest B. breadth of interest
C. forcefulness of personality D. established rapport
13. The following are some of the list of the purposes of interrogation, EXCEPT:
A. to obtain information, facts & circumstances
B. to obtain admission & confession of guilt
C. to locate evidence & discover details of crime
D. to provide the subject with his rights
14. In waving the rights of suspect under custodial investigation, it must be observe, because of the legal
requirements of the law.
A. reduced in writing B. all of these
C. in the presence of lawyer D. none of these
15. It uses instrumentation and sophisticated laboratory techniques to detect presence of substances in the
victim, suspect, or crime scene.
A. instrumentation B. criminalistics
C. forensic science D. laboratory work
16. It is a non-legal term which describes the aspect of laboratory work through instrumentation involving
identity.
A. associative evidence B. physical evidence
C. circumstantial evidence D. material evidence
17. It has been called as “the prime source of other evidence,” and often it provides the investigator with
information that would be otherwise unavailable.
A. admission & confession B. physical evidence
C. information from records D. victims & witnesses
18. These are some of the methods of taking admission and confession of the subject, EXCEPT:
A. subject may make his statement without guidance
B. the subject may deliver his statement orally
C. the subject may be assisted by the investigator
D. the subject may be assisted by the lawyer
19. The following steps will ordinarily found necessary as preliminary considerations in protecting the scene,
EXCEPT:
A. question the person who first noticed the police
B. do not touch or move any object
C. safeguards the area by issuing appropriate order
D. call for crime scene investigators & specialist
20. It is necessary to think the concepts of “protecting the crime scene” and _________, as separate but
interrelated duties.
A. crime scene search B. recording crime scene
C. securing the crime scene D. preserving the scene
21. The basic steps through a crime scene search normally progresses are the following, EXCEPT:
A. approach, secures, protect & survey crime scene
B. photograph, sketch & detailed crime scene search
C. collection, marking & preservation of evidence
D. look for necessary link for solution of the case
22. In this method of search, the area is considered as being approximately circular.
A. strip method B. spiral method
C. zone method D. wheel method
23. In this type, the searcher follows each other in the path, beginning on the outside and toward the center.
A. strip method B. spiral method
C. zone method D. wheel method
24. Its purpose is to review all the circumstances from the beginning of the crime scene search process.
A. final survey B. initial survey
C. reconstruction D. release of the scene
25. Since the investigator’s notes may require later as evidence in court, the following should be remember,
EXCEPT:
A. don’t tear any pages & discard any notes
B. maintain the notebook on file
C. always used ink & don’t erase anything
 D. record everything in the notes
26. This must be noted by the investigators at the crime scene, EXCEPT:
A. date, time & place B. notes on photograph
C. descriptions of victim D. description of witness
27. It is considered as the most important element in crime scene photography.
A. maintaining perspective B. illumination
C. weather condition D. posed photographs
28. Two photographs are needed for a significant object which is less than six inches in length, the first
should be a close range, and the second is __________.
A. approximately three feet from the object
B. approximately nine feet from the object
C. approximately six feet from the object
D. approximately twelve feet from the object
29. Two kinds of photograph are taken at the crime scene, the first is intended to record the overall crime
scene, and the second is __________.
A. to records details need by the criminalists
B. to portray general view of the crime scene
C. to record the original condition of the crime scene
D. to support the note-taking & sketching
30. It is sweeping view of the crime scene are, and it demonstrates what the crime scene looks like in its own
environment.
A. close-up views B. medium-range views
C. perspective views D. general views
31. Sometimes it is desirable to illustrate the statement of witness through this means.
A. crime scene photography B. posed photographs
C. sketching & note-taking D. crime scene recording
32. It must be always indicated to facilitate proper orientation of the sketch.
A. the scale used B. compass direction
C. time, date & place D. types of sketch
33. In order to introduce physical evidence in trial, three important factors must be considered, EXCEPT:
A. the article must be property identified
B. continuity of the chain of custody
C. competency must be proved
D. preserved and properly maintained
34. The protection of physical evidence, serves two major purposes, the first is the possibility of obtaining
information, and the second is __________.
A. for presentation of evidence in court
B. to link the suspect to the crime
C. determining the modus operandi
D. to established probable cause
35. __________ such as stains and other traces, particularly those available in small quantities usually found
in foreign substance, and it can affect analysis.
A. clue materials B. minute details
C. none of these D. physical evidence
36. In taking measures against deterioration of physical evidence, it must be given special consideration.
A. time element B. temperature
C. all of these D. none of these
37. To maintain this, evidence should not come into contact with another sample or with contaminating
matter.
A. integrity of sample B. adequate sampling
C. admissibility of sample D. known exemplar
38. Physical evidence should be properly marked or labeled for __________ as it is collected or soon as
practicable.
A. identification B. transportation
C. recognition D. preservation
39. The marking of physical evidence should not be placed in this area.
A. evidentiary trace exists B. within the evidence
C. outside of the container D. not within evidence
40. After the article of physical evidence is marked and placed in a container, it should be affixed bearing
identifying case information.
A. any of these B. none of these
C. label D. tag
41. The physical evidence must be carefully packed to prevent loss or damage if it is desired.
A. transmission B. delivery
C. transporting D. change of custody
42. The following are the way in which witnesses would be able to contribute in the identification of the
offender, EXCEPT:
A. describing instruments B. visual observation
C. describing perpetrator D. use of five senses
43. It is the major objective of every investigation.
A. admission B. confession
C. all of these D. none of these
44. It is the most frequent methods of identification of offenders contributed by witnesses during the conduct
of investigation.
A. visual observation B. modus operandi
C. psychological profiling D. police line-up
45. In seeking information from people, an investigator should be aware of difficulties presented by those
who are willing to talk, and __________.
A. those refused to talk B. uncooperative witness
C. reluctant suspect D. unconscious victim
46. It is the process of identifying the suspect with the employment of artist, and the photo-fit kit in criminal
investigation.
A. cartographic sketch B. composite images
C. all of these D. none of these
47. It is used with the questioned physical evidence, and it is sometimes needed to aid in establishing the
suspect’s relationship to the crime.
A. standards for comparison B. known samples
C. adequate sampling D. all of these
48. Circumstantial evidence usually falls into one of the following classes, EXCEPT:
A. motive B. opportunity
C. associative evidence D. desire
49. In this, the identification may be established indirectly by proving other facts from which the identity of
the perpetrator can be inferred during the conduct of investigation.
A. circumstantial evidence B. real evidence
C. relevant evidence D. material evidence
50. The ideal identification is made through this by several objective persons who are familiar with the
appearance of the accused and has knowledge of the commission of the crime.
A. physical evidence B. eyewitness testimony
C. circumstantial evidence D. victims & witnesses

Prepared by: sccjr (1st sem. 2020-2021)

 EXAMINATION ON
SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION
(Enhancement Class – 1)

Name: Course: Date:

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in each of the following questions. Mark only one answer on each
item by a putting a circle corresponding to the letter of your choice.

1. The following are the elements of the crime of homicide, EXCEPT:

A. the accused killed a person without any justifying circumstances
B. the accused had the intention to kill which is presumed
C. the killing was not attended by any qualifying circumstances
D. the killing of the persons is neither parricide, murder nor infanticide
2. Many types of death are associated with this category, and often homicide is disguised to appear to be in
this kind of category of modes of death.
A. accidental death B. natural death
C. suicide D. homicide
3. These are some of the investigative activities in a homicide case, EXCEPT:
A. record the crime scene through notes, photographs, and sketches
B. recognizes, collect, and preserves all physical evidences and clue materials
C. establish the cause and the manner of death of the victim
D. ostensible suspicion as they initially appear to the investigators
4. Another set of the investigative activities in a homicide case, are the following, EXCEPT:
A. determine the categories and modes of death
B. seek additional information by interviewing witness
C. ascertaining the motive of the suspect
D. questioning the suspect after explaining rights
5. The following are the motives of the crime of homicide, EXCEPT:
A. financial gain B. sexual gratification
C. concealment of crime D. emotional factors
6. There are three major sources of information that serve the purpose of determining motives, and they are
as follows, EXCEPT:
A. crime scene B. evidence
C. people D. records
7. Those strangers killing stranger and those in which a person other than the intended victim is killed are
a typical example of __________.
A. motiveless crime B. self-protection
C. sex-connected homicide D. removal of impediment
8. It is of singular importance in homicide case, otherwise the crime will rarely be solved if not given
preferential attention and consideration.
A. determining motives B. ascertaining elements
C. victim identification D. physical evidence
9. One element of murder or homicide that must be proved in court is whether the death was a result of an
action or an omission which is not included:
A. excusable B. justifiable
C. all of these D. none of these
10. To be of investigative value, it is vital that any __________ suggestive of the killer’s motive be
recognized at the crime scene and interpreted.
A. psychological evidence B. physical evidence
C. manner of death D. elements of crime
11. Evidence that can link the perpetrator to the crime scene or victim is of two kinds, the first is evidence
taken deliberately or accidentally from the crime scene, and the second is:
A. tracing evidence that lead to the identity of suspect
B. evidence brought to and left at the crime scene
C. circumstantial evidence to prove the crime
D. associative evidence found at the crime scene
12. The purpose of scientific means available to determine how the crime was committed and what happened
is to __________.
A. process crime scene B. identify suspect
C. collect evidence D. reconstruct the scene
13. The following can reveal whether death was suicidal, accidental, or criminal, EXCEPT:
A. signs of struggle B. suicide notes
C. location of weapon D. crime scene

14. It is hearsay evidence, and it is also known as an ante-mortem statement.

A. allegations of facts B. hearsay testimony
C. dying declaration D. material evidence
15. It can provoke a person to commit homicide or premeditated murder.
A. emotional factors B. self-protection
C. financial gain D. sexual gratification
16. It is often important to know the time of death. The reasons offered to this are as follows, EXCEPT:
A. to question individual who last talk with the victim
B. to look for flaws on a witness’s account of incident
C. to protect the innocent from malicious allegations
D. to know what was occur and how did it occur
17. Considerations must be given to the following in using the victim’s body as focus of the homicide
investigation, EXCEPT:
A. identity of the victim B. motives of suspect
C. cause & manner of death D. time of occurrence
18. The following should be asked to the victim during the taking of dying declaration, EXCEPT:
A. what is your name and where do you live
B. do you believe that you are about to die
C. how and why you are injured
D. is this is your free and voluntary statement
19. To be admissible as evidence, even considered as hearsay evidence, a dying declaration must meet these
several conditions, EXCEPT:
A. the victim must believe he is about to die
B. the victim’s declaration must state the circumstances
C. the victim was subjected to formal investigation
D. the victim’s declaration must identify the suspect
20. It is the unlawful killing of any person.
A. homicide B. murder
C. parricide D. infanticide
21. As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery is divided into two different classifications, one is
robbery by the use of force upon things, and the other is:
A. robbery with violence, or intimidation of person
B. taking of personal property belonging to another
C. with intent to gain and to possess the property
D. pre-conceived plans and unexpected opportunity
22. The following are the elements of the crime of robbery, EXCEPT:
A. personal property belonging to another
B. the taking must be with intent to gain
C. there is violence or intimidation of any person
D. it engender fear and quality of life
23. It is a type of robbery that is occurring on outdoor localities, and that are not obstructed from the public
view.
A. street robbery B. residential robbery
C. vehicle robbery D. commercial robbery
24. It takes place whenever an offender forcefully enters the domicile of a victim for the purpose of taking
that person’s possession or valuables.
A. street robbery B. residential robbery
C. vehicle robbery D. commercial robbery
25. In this type of robbery, the operator of commercial types of vehicles is victimized.
A. street robbery B. residential robbery
C. vehicle robbery D. commercial robbery
26. Initially, in the examination of the crime scene of rape case the investigator should record it by means of
__________.
A. note-taking B. sketching
C. photography D. all of these
27. It poses many challenges to the professional investigator, in addition to providing a detailed statement
under difficult conditions.
A. interviewing victim B. interrogating suspect
C. collection of evidence D. looking for witnesses
28. In bringing rape victim at the hospital, the procedure will have accomplished two primary objectives in
treating the victim, one is to treat the victim with physical injury, and the other is:
A. to be immediately interviewed by the investigator
B. to collect evidence of investigative significance
C. to provide emergency medical attention
D. to undergo professional psychological counseling
29. These are the primary roles of the first responding police officers upon arrival at the crime scene of rape
cases, EXCEPT:
A. attend to first aid needs B. make radio broadcast
C. obtain suspect description D. preserved the crime scene
30. It is generally one, who is association with the commission of an initial offense, commits rape as a
secondary offense.
A. opportunistic rapist B. serial rapist
C. habitual rapist D. recidivist rapist
31. It is otherwise known as the “The Anti-Rape Law of 1997.”
A. RA 7659 B. RA 8353
C. RA 9262 D. RA 8294
32. The following statements, answers the questions “when” and “how” rape can be committed, EXCEPT:
A. sexual assault by inserting penis into another person’s mouth
B. inserting any instrument or object into the genital or anal orifice or
another person
C. committed under all the elements enumerated by Art. 324 of the
Revised Penal Code
D. rape case is a crime against chastity
33. The investigation of rape and other sexual offenses calls for __________ and professionalism on the part
of the investigator.
A. maximum tact B. carefulness
C. diligence D. patience
34. In the investigation of rape cases, physical evidence, or clue materials can be located on the following
instances, EXCEPT:
A. at the crime scene B. on the victim
C. on the suspect D. on the witnesses
35. Rape is committed under any of the following circumstances, EXCEPT:
A. trough the use of force, threat or intimidation
B. when the offended party is deprived of reasons or otherwise unconscious
C. by means of fraudulent machinations or grave abuse of authority
D. it is an exclusive offense committed by man to a woman
36. It is the investigation of cases that are unique, and often require special training to fully understand their
broad significance.
A. robbery investigation B. sex offense investigation
C. homicide investigation D. special crime investigation
37. It involves the first exposure of the criminal offense to the investigative effort of the police or any other
law enforcement agencies.
A. in-depth investigation B. preliminary investigation
C. continuing investigation D. concluding investigation
38. It involves the second investigative stage of criminal offense or the conduct of follow or continuing
investigation.
A. continuing investigation B. preliminary investigation
C. in-depth investigation D. concluding investigation
39. This is the final stage, and it is the direct outgrowth of the other stages relatively with the conduct of
investigation.
A. concluding investigation B. continuing investigation
C. in-depth investigation D. preliminary investigation
40. The information needed to reconstruct the past relatively with investigation is available through the
following sources, EXCEPT:
A. people B. physical evidence
C. records D. witnesses
41. It is set-up to give administrator’s continuous feedback on the investigative process and the quality of
personnel performance.
A. investigative monitoring system
B. police-prosecutor’s relations
C. conduct of continuing investigation
D. initial investigation and case screening
42. During the conduct of special crime investigation, it becomes a widely used tool in determining the
success of criminal investigation.
A. proximity factors B. probability factors
C. propinquity factors D. solvability factors
43. Initial investigation, case screening, continuing investigation, police-prosecutor relations, and
investigative monitoring system, is being called as what?
A. elements of managing special crime investigation
B. significant of reconstructing the past
C. phases of special criminal investigation
D. responsibilities of special crime investigation
44. These responsibilities are to be performed by the investigator in handling special crime investigation,
i.e., determine if the crime is committed, verify jurisdiction, discover facts and evidences, recover stolen
property, identify and locate perpetrator, aid in their prosecution, and ________.
A. testify effectively in court
B. exploits sources of information
C. recognizes, collect and preserve physical evidence
D. determine the solvability factors
45. An investigator familiar with the elements of at least the more common crimes will be able to handle
most situations, if he was able to meet the following requirements, EXCEPT:
A. he should have a copy of revised penal code
B. he must consult the prosecuting fiscal
C. determining his responsibility in the cases
D. conduct of an effective special crime investigation
46. It is the taking, with intent to gain, of a motor vehicle belonging to another, without the latter’s consent,
or by means of violence against of intimidation of persons, or by using force upon things.
A. carnapping B. motor vehicle theft
C. all of these D. joy riding
47. It is propelled by any other means, other than muscular power using public highways.
A. tricycle B. motor vehicle
C. trucks D. trailers
48. The following are the elements of carnapping, EXCEPT:
A. unlawful taking and intent to gain
B. motor vehicle belonging to another
C. lack of consent, violence, intimidation, or force
D. used in transportation in other crimes
49. These are the motives of the crime of carnapping, EXCEPT:
A. theft for resale and joy riding
B. transportation for other crimes
C. stripping and chop-chop operations
D. intent to gain money from illegal activities
50. In carnapping, it usually begins with a report by the victim to the police.
A. preliminary inquiry B. preliminary investigation
C. none of these D. follow-up investigation

Prepared by: sccjr (1st sem. 2020-2021)

 EXAMINATION ON
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT & ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION
(Enhancement Class – 1)

Name: Course: Date:

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in each of the following questions. Mark only one answer on each
item by a putting a circle corresponding to the letter of your choice.

1. It probably the oldest method of transportation and travel. As early as the pre historic times, man knew
how to walk, both on twos and fours, and after the invention of wheels, road transport revolutionized in
a big way.
A. human transport B. air transportation
C. none of these D. land transport
2. Historically, it became very important because of man's tendency to settle down around water bodies.
A. water transport B. sea transport
C. all of these D. river transport
3. Its usage for the purpose of transportation started around 500 years ago; and initially, it consisted of man
or horse power and sometimes also made of wood.
A. sea transport B. rail transport
C. air transport D. road transport
4. It is one of the most revolutionizing inventions of the history of mankind.
A. sea vessels B. motor vehicle
C. airplane D. all of these
5. It is the first form of transport was; however people eventually learned to use animals for transport.
A. human foot B. animal transport
C. water transport D. land transport
6. They are famous for the network of roads they built across the Empire; and their legionaries built the
roads so the army could march from one part to another quickly.
A. Americans B. English
C. Romans D. Spaniards
7. In the local setting, it was replaced by the Sarao Jeeps that were mass transportation as well as works of
art in the country.
A. Owner B. Willy’s Jeep
C. Passenger Jeepney D. Wagon
8. The Spanish brought with them to the Philippines European influence. Transportation includes, the
Galleons – used in the Manila-Acapulco route and its purposes were to trade, transport goods and fend
off enemies of the Spaniards; and __________ were in used.
A. horse driven carriage B. carretelas
C. calesas D. Galleon
9. It greatly improved during the 20th century. Although the first cars appeared at the end of the 19th century
after the end of World War I they became cheaper and more common.
A. conveyances B. mobility
C. transport D. travel
10. In the Pre-Hispanic period, Manila’s occupants who were Mohammedans were ruled by Lakans who
roamed the kingdom on a chair with bamboo stilts, and these are called as:
A. Royal Crates B. Royal Stools
C. Royal Carriages D. Royal Chairs
11. It presupposes an understanding of the motivation behind the behavior of motorist, commuters, and
pedestrians; and any attempt to redirect their behavior without understanding will not be able to
effectively solve the traffic problems.
A. traffic education B. traffic engineering
C. traffic management D. traffic enforcement
12. It consist of pedestrians, ridden or herded animals, vehicles, streetcars and other conveyances, either
singly or together, while using the public way for purposes of travel.
A. traffic unit B. traffic on roads
C. traffic elements D. traffic on wheels
13. These are the laws which govern traffic and regulate vehicles, while rules of the road are both the laws
and the informal rules that may have developed over time to facilitate the orderly and timely flow of all
the traffic units.
A. traffic laws B. traffic ordinances
C. traffic acts D. traffic regulations
14. This is otherwise known as “The Land Transportation Code of the Philippines, as Amended”.
A. R.A. No. 4361 B. R.A. No. 4136
C. R.A. No. 4631 D. R.A. No. 4163
15. It grows most obviously and at alarming rate primarily in areas experiencing rapid population growth,
which cause parallel increase in the ownership and use of automotive vehicles.
A. immediate causes B. long-term causes
C. principal causes D. secondary causes
16. It is a strategy wherein the expansion of the peak-hour carrying capacity of an area’s transportation
system seems to be the most intuitively obvious response to greater congestion can be implemented
through diverse means.
A. supply and demand B. demand side strategy
C. none of these D. supply side strategy
17. These are some of the measures to mitigate traffic congestion, EXCEPT:
A. rush hour policies B. intelligent transportation
C. preemption policies D. effective traffic management
18. It is a condition on road networks that occurs as use increases, and is characterized by slower speeds,
longer trip times, and increased vehicular queueing in a traffic way.
A. traffic clogging B. traffic problem
C. traffic congestion D. traffic accident
19. Because roads in most places are free at the point of usage, there is little financial incentive for drivers
not to over-use them, these have been both proposed as measures to reduce congestion.
A. road pricing B. highway privatizations
C. all of these D. none of these
20. These are some of the innovations, purposely to address the traffic problems in most of the places in the
country, EXCEPT:
A. reiterate the use of public roadways as a matter of privilege and not as matter of right
B. all forms of privatization of public thoroughfares should be controlled
C. must encourage the development of a mass transport system and de-emphasize the use of private
vehicles
D. to improve the traffic management activities thru the 3Es, i.e., engineering, education and
enforcement
21. It is that phase which deals with the planning of streets, roads, highways, and the movement of traffic
units thereon in terms of safer, convenient, and economic transportation of persons and goods.
A. traffic supervision B. traffic engineering
C. traffic control D. traffic direction
22. These are the functional classifications of traffic control devices, EXCEPT:
A. warning devices B. regulatory devices
C. traffic markings D. guiding devices
23. It is defined as a signal operated manually, electrically or mechanically by which traffic is alternately
commanded to stop and/or to proceed.
A. traffic signals B. traffic lights
C. traffic markings D. traffic signs
24. Aside from the functional, there are also important classifications of traffic signs, as follows, SEXCEPT:
A. informative signs B. danger warning signs
C. traffic billboards D. regulatory sings
25. This is a traffic engineering phraseology for forecasting future traffic demand on target year for road
design. It is indicator dictated by development of land use, industry, economy, and population
component.
A. channelization B. road & street design
C. filtering D. geometric design
26. It is an integral part of the roadway in any metropolitan cities of the world, and it is one of species of
geometric design. Sidewalk is the answer for the safety of pedestrians in road hazards.
A. sidewalk B. pedestrian lane
C. island D. shoulders
27. In the field of road transport, an intersection is a road junction where two or more roads either meet or
cross at grade—they are at the same level.
A. crossing B. intersection
C. junction D. rotunda
28. It is a traffic engineering terminology that separates or regulates the conflict of traffic movements into
definite paths of travel by means of traffic island or pavement markings for the safe and orderly travel.
A. road pavements B. filtering
C. channelization D. counter-flow
29. The word in its literal meaning is to control or constrict the movement of vehicle as it passes through the
lane designated therefore.
A. inner lane B. filter lane
C. outer lane D. center lane
30. This refers to a two-wheeled vehicle moving between lanes of vehicles that are proceeding in the same
direction.
A. lane splitting B. road splitting
C. highway splitting D. street splitting
31. It is the crowning jewel of traffic management, an abstract architect of social life, and an unyielding
master of man’s destiny on the roadways, and it is a priceless gem in total gamut of social order on the
road.
A. traffic environment B. traffic information
C. traffic economy D. traffic education
32. This play a great role in inculcating a sense of traffic in the minds of the drivers, unfortunately, more
stress is given on how to drive the vehicle rather than on how to behave on the road while driving.
A. traffic laws B. traffic regulations
C. traffic rules D. al of these
33. Giving signals to fellow drivers and to pedestrians when you turn to a right or left lane is a sign of
__________.
A. good road ethics B. good road discipline
C. good road courtesy D. good road civility
34. It has assumed huge importance, especially after recent episodes of alcoholic person, mowing down
people and causing injury to several others.
A. texting driver B. drunken driving
C. addict driver D. alcoholic driver
35. As far as possible, it must be avoided, and in case it is required, it needs to be done from the right as
doing it from the left can prove to be dangerous.
A. right-turning B. left-turning
C. overtaking D. slowing down
36. It is not prudent, if it is not necessary as it distracts the fellow commuters and can even make them feel
irritated.
A. noise pollution B. bright headlights
C. air pollution D. blowing of horn
37. It is usually seen, especially at traffic signals, thus changing the course of their vehicle, and at
intersections.
A. queuing through traffic B. squeezing through traffic
C. merging through traffic D. overtaking through traffic
38. The most important limitation of traffic education which jeopardized effective traffic education through
a mixture of formal instruction and one's own experience.
A. short period of formal lessons B. long period of formal lessons
C. observance of informal lecture D. dissemination, education & information
39. Traffic education is sometimes seen as the solution to all road safety problems; and traffic education is a
good measure for errors made due to the following, EXCEPT:
A. gaps in knowledge B. insight
C. skills D. negligence
40. This rule provides that the lead bus moves forward to center of the column of buses lining-up on the bus
stop zone, and man remain until the zone is filled up with buses, but not longer than three minutes.
A. yellow lane rule B. bus stop rule
C. rotunda rule D. jeepney stop rule
41. It is an action taken by the police and other authorized agencies which induce voluntary compliance and
compel adherence to traffic laws and ordinances by regulating the use of movement of motor vehicles.
A. traffic arrest B. traffic apprehension
C. traffic citation D. traffic enforcement
42. The following are the different activities involved in the attainment of objective of traffic law
enforcement objectives, EXCEPT:
A. preventive activities B. persuasive activities
C. punitive activities D. enforcement activities
43. It consists of driving or walking here and there in area or to and from a road for the purpose of traffic
law enforcement and to provide traffic services to the public.
A. mobile patrol enforcement B. traffic enforcement patrol
C. motorcycle patrol enforcement D. foot & beat patrol enforcement
44. It is wholly a traffic law enforcer’s responsibility and entails in looking for the defects in the behavior of
motorist, pedestrians, vehicles, and roadway condition.
A. prosecution B. apprehension
C. penalization D. detection
45. It is wholly a traffic law enforcers’ responsibility where the traffic law enforcers are required to take
action at once to prevent continued and future violations.
A. arrest B. citation
C. warning D. apprehension
46. This is an enforcement action which consists of taking person into custody for the purpose of holding or
detaining him to answer for a law violation charge before a court.
A. traffic apprehension B. traffic arrest
C. traffic accosting D. traffic custody
47. It is defined as keeping informed on streets, highways within existing regulations to make their use safe
and expeditious.
A. traffic supervision B. traffic direction
C. traffic management D. traffic control
48. It is that part of police traffic supervision that involves telling drivers and pedestrians who, how, and
where they may or may not move or stand at a particular place, especially during periods of emergencies.
A. traffic enforcement B. traffic citation
C. traffic direction D. traffic instruction
49. It can also be broadly thought of as facilitating the safe and efficient movement of motor vehicles,
pedestrians, and other traffic units in hazardous conditions or special circumstances.
A. traffic management B. traffic adjudication
C. traffic detection D. traffic control
50. Violations in traffic law enforcement are generally grouped three categories common to traffic units, as
follows, EXCEPT:
A. document violations B. equipment violations
C. moving violations D. passenger violations

Prepared by: sccjr (1st sem. 2020-2021)

 EXAMINATION ON
DRUG EDUCATION & VICE CONTROL
(Enhancement Class – 1)

Name: Course: Date:

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in each of the following questions. Mark only one answer on each
item by a putting a circle corresponding to the letter of your choice.

1. It is described as stream of fantastic images and kaleidoscope-like play of colors, a user whose eyes are
closed will experience some pattern of images.
A. blackouts B. closed-eyes imagery
C. stimulus intensification D. escapist
2. It is one which the LSD taker believes that frightening bodily changes are resulting from the drug.
A. bad environment trips B. bad head trips
C. bad body trips D. flashback
3. It is the distortion of ordinary perception.
A. illusion B. blackouts
C. flashback D. bad trips
4. It is the result of LSD induced illusions and dysphoria. In these bad trips walls may seem coming in and
trees may seem to grasp the drug user.
A. bad head trips B. bad body trips
C. bad environment trips D. flashback
5. It is the strongest effects of LSD, and described as a sensory crossing or all acoustic perception that
makes every sound causing a corresponding colored hallucination.
A. synesthesia B. bad trips
C. dysphoria D. euphoria
6. It involves the LSD taker confronting an emotional crisis that has been suppressed until normal defense
were lowered by the LSD.
A. bad body trips B. bad environment trips
C. bad trips D. bad head trips
7. It is a state of hearing and seeing thing which does not actually exist.
A. hallucination B. illusion
C. dysphoria D. euphoria
8. When the person became chronically confused because of the use of drug for several times in a week,
they are being nicknamed what?
A. jelly brain B. confusional syndrome
C. closed-eyes imagery D. hallucinations
9. It is usually viewed by the LSD user as an enviable brief nostalgic experience and it usually involve
fairly simple and common illusions.
A. flashback B. illusions
C. dysphoria D. euphoria
10. Dry mouth and throat experienced by marijuana user is known as:
A. dry mouth B. dry throat
C. cotton mouth D. none of these
11. It is one of the obvious manifestations of marijuana use.
A. dropping eyelids B. blood shot eye
C. cotton mouth D. coughing
12. It is the loss of identify and humanness experience by marijuana user.
A. personalization B. depersonalization
C. all of the above D. none of these
13. It is an exaggerated sense distress or unhappiness.
A. dysphoria B. euphoria
C. depersonalization D. inhibition
14. These are the two successive phases that can be experienced in taking PCP.
A. stimulus intensification B. escapists
C. intensification & escapist D. all of these
15. These are the requirements during the conduct of actual buy-bust operations.
A. poseur buyer B. marked money
C. all of these D. none of these
16. It is refers to any act of introducing any dangerous drugs into the body of any person, with or without his
knowledge by injecting, ingestion or other means of taking a dangerous drug to himself or herself.
A. administer B. taking
C. using D. introducing
17. It is the sale, distribution, supply or transport of legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or
procured controlled precursor and essential chemicals.
A. cultivate B. culture
C. chemical diversion D. all of the above
18. Any facility used for the illegal manufacturing of any dangerous drug, controlled precursor or essential
chemicals.
A. instrumentation B. clandestine laboratory
C. centers D. chemical diversion
19. It is an analytical test conducted to a suspected drug uses by using a device, tool or equipment with a
different chemical or physical principle that is more specific, purposely to validate the result of initial
screening test.
A. confirmatory test B. screening test
C. drug test D. none of the above
20. This is an investigative technique made by the law enforcement agency of allowing an unlawful or
suspected consignment of any dangerous drugs and/or controlled precursor and essential chemicals.
A. chemical diversion B. cultivate or culture
C. deliver D. controlled delivery
21. It is any act of knowingly planting, growing, raising, or permitting the planting, growing or raising of
any plant which is the source of a dangerous drugs.
A. cultivate B. culture
C. cultivate or culture D. all of the above
22. It is any act of knowingly passing a dangerous drug to another, personally or otherwise, and by any
means, with or without consideration.
A. chemical diversion B. cultivate or culture
C. deliver D. controlled delivery
23. A place where any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical is administered,
delivered.
A. den B. dive
C. resort D. den, dive or resort
24. Any act of giving away of selling or distributing medicine or any dangerous drug with or without the use
of prescription.
A. dispense B. deliver
C. administer D. all of these
25. It is a cluster of physiological, behavioral and cognitive phenomena of variable intensity in which the
use of psychoactive drug takes on a high priority.
A. drug addiction B. physical dependence
C. drug habituation D. drug dependence
26. Any organized group of two (2) or more persons forming or joining together with the intention of
committing any offense prescribed by RA 9165.
A. syndicated crime group B. organized crime group
C. drug syndicate D. drug traffickers
27. These are any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for, or underwrites any of the illegal
activities prescribed by RA 9165.
A. employee B. caretaker
C. financier D. lookout
28. The illegal cultivation, culture, delivery administration, dispensation, manufactures sale, trading,
transportation, etc. of any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor.
A. pushing B. selling
C. illegal trafficking D. manufacture
29. It is the production, preparation, compounding or processing of nay dangerous drugs or controlled
precursor and essential chemical.
A. cultivate B. culture
C. illegal trafficking D. manufacture
30. It refers to the coagulated juice of the opium poppy and e3braces every kind, class and character of
opium.
A. opium B. cocaine
C. shabu D. ecstasy
31. It is any willful act by any person of maliciously and surreptitiously inserting, placing, adding any
dangerous drugs.
A. planting evidence B. illegal arrest
C. unlawful search D. none of the above
32. Any person who sells, trades, administers, dispenses, delivers or gives away to another any dangerous
drugs controlled precursor and essential chemical.
A. pusher B. traffickers
C. sellers D. administer
33. Any act of giving away any dangerous drug whether for money or any other consideration.
A. push B. sell
C. traffic D. administer
34. Transactions involving the traffic of dangerous drugs or controlled precursor and essential chemicals.
A. trading B. manufacturing
C. administering D. trafficking
35. Any act of injecting, intravenously or intramuscularly, of consuming any of dangerous drugs.
A. use B. administer
C. taking D. dispense
36. A rapid test performed to establish potential presumptive positive result.
A. confirmatory test B. screening test
C. drug test D. none of these
37. Any person who knowingly and willfully consents the unlawful acts provided by RA 9165.
A. protector B. coddler
C. protector or coddler D. all of these
38. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.
A. RA 9165 B. RA 1956
C. RA 9156 D. RA 1965
39. When 2.5% of the population are drug dependents, or there are existence of pushers and laboratories in
the community it is being categorized as.
A. seriously affected B. less seriously affected
C. threatened D. cleared barangay
40. When 1.0% to 2.49 of the local population is drug dependents is being categorized as.
A. seriously affected B. less seriously affected
C. threatened to be affected D. cleared barangay
41. When less 1% of the local populations are drug dependents it is being categorized as.
A. seriously affected B. less seriously affected
C. threatened to be affected D. cleared barangay
42. When there are no drug pushers and drug users in a given barangay it is being categorized as.
A. seriously affected B. less seriously affected
C. threatened to be affected D. cleared barangay
43. It is learning process that influences an individual emotionally, intellectually, psychologically and
socially may result in the modification of attitudes that influence behavior.
A. drug seminar B. drug symposium
C. drug education D. all of these
44. It relies on the passage of prohibitory laws and the infliction of threat to prevent drug abuse.
A. law enforcement model B. medical model
C. educational model D. psychological model
45. Attempts to treat drug as if it were an infectious epidemic.
A. law enforcement model B. medical model
C. educational model D. psychological model
46. Assumes that drug abuse result from bad choice made in ignorance of the true effects and hazards of
drugs.
A. law enforcement model B. medical model
C. educational model D. psychological model
47. Sees drugs as a means of coping with the problems and frustration of adolescence.
A. law enforcement model B. medical model
C. educational model D. psychological model
48. Sees the roots of drug abuse in our society and not in the individual.
A. socio-cultural model B. prevention model
C. all of the above D. none of the above
49. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness, and
corruption of individual person.
A. addiction B. vice
C. alcoholism D. gambling
50. Means any part of the plant of the species papaver somniferum L, including the seeds thereof.
A. opium poppy B. opium seeds
C. opium leaves D. opium straw

Prepared by: sccjr (1st sem. 2020-2021)

 EXAMINATION ON
ORGANIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION
(Enhancement Class – 1)

Name: Course: Date:

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in each of the following questions. Mark only one answer on each
item by a putting a circle corresponding to the letter of your choice.

1. It is defined as the procedure for collecting, recording, organizing and preserving all various information
gathered in an investigation.
A. investigation B. trial preparation
C. case screening D. case management
2. In administrative case designation as considerations in case management, it means that the case is
assigned to an officer and investigative efforts are presently active and on-going.
A. open investigation B. continuing investigation
C. all of these D. preliminary investigation
3. In administrative case designations as considerations in case management, it means that all available
leads has been exhausted but the case has not been brought to a conclusion and investigative efforts may
resume.
A. follow-up investigation B. suspended investigation
C. initial investigation D. none of these
4. In administrative case designation as considerations in case management, it means that the case has been
concluded, it includes exception, arrest, and unfounded cases.
A. open investigation B. suspended investigation
C. closed investigation D. follow-up investigation
5. The objective of case screening is to apply available manpower to those investigations that have the best
chance of being successful; the written criteria should specify how such is to be conducted, by whom,
and what criteria should be used.
A. solvability factor B. initial investigation
C. modus operandi D. physical evidence
6. It can be defined as a pre-trial procedure whereby the opposing litigants supply information to each other
that is necessary to their positions at trial.
A. plea bargaining B. discovery
C. investigation D. pre-trial conference
7. This refers to the inter-exchange of information, and which typically occurs prior to trial, but as evidences
surfaces, may extend well into a given trial period.
A. investigation period B. trial period
C. discovery period D. prosecution period
8. It is an enormous electronic filing cabinet that can store information and retrieve it in any desired format.
A. artificial data B. computerized data
C. collected data D. automated database
9. It is a term used to describe the confiscation of assets, by the state, which are either, i.e., the proceeds
of crime or the instrumentalities of crime, and more recently, terrorism.
A. sequestration B. escheating
C. asset forfeiture D. all of these
10. These are properties used to facilitate crimes, to commit a crime or intended to be used of committing
crimes, or any properties or materials used in committing crimes.
A. equipment B. instrumentalities
C. instrument D. properties
11. This doctrine allows courts to strip a person of property if the property was involved in a certain offense.
A. doctrine of guilty property B. doctrine of silver platter
C. doctrine of plain view D. doctrine of parens patriae
12. These are properties for which ownership itself is a crime, e.g., illegal drugs, smuggled goods, and any
other properties subject of the offense.
A. contraband B. prohibited articles
C. illegal items D. assets & net worth
13. Properties that results from, or can be traced back to illegal activity of those properties stolen of
embezzled.
A. property stolen or embezzled
B. proceeds of illegal activity
C. property subject of the offense
D. property used in committing crime
14. This involves the ability to trace a connection between money and illegal activities, and it cannot always
be certain that there is a connection between them, but often it is not difficult to come up with one that
sounds reasonable.
A. administrative case B. criminal cases
C. forfeiture cases D. civil cases
15. It is a sentencing option if the statute used to convict the offender also provide for forfeiture, and in some
accounts, less common mainly because of the burden of proof in criminal cases, namely proof beyond a
reasonable doubt.
A. asset forfeiture B. freezing of asset
C. sequestration D. criminal forfeiture
16. What the government needs to prove is the preponderance f the evidence that the property in question
was used or obtained illegally, thus making it subject to forfeiture.
A. forfeiture B. asset forfeiture
C. confiscation D. civil forfeiture
17. Generally, it is the first step in the forfeiture process, and this can occur in several ways, including
warrants or restraining orders.
A. forfeiture of assets B. searches of assets
C. seizure of assets D. freezing of assets
18. It is illegal to possess and, as such, is subject to forfeiture, and no one can assert a legal interest in
contraband property, so any property interest in it cannot exist.
A. illegal article B. contraband property
C. forbidden property D. prohibited article
19. It is sometimes called instrumentality forfeiture, meaning the property targeted for forfeiture was
instrumental to the commission of the crime or in the fulfillment of a crime.
A. facilitation procedure B. forfeiture proceedings
C. confiscation procedure D. standard procedure
20. Asset forfeiture is beneficial for at least three reasons, as follows, EXCEPT:
A. crime reduction B. increased arrest rate
C. budget boost D. seizure of property
21. It is not an easy, natural thing; it is important that the investigator has to look at it as naturally as possible;
and show your interest, and pay your attention to what people are saying.
A. investigating B. witnessing
C. testifying D. all of these
22. It is the initial questioning of a witness or defendant by the prosecution who is using the person’s
testimony to further the case.
A. re-cross examination B. re-direct examination
C. witness examination D. direct examination
23. It is the questioning by the defense lawyer for the purpose of assessing the validity of the testimony
made by the investigator in the witness stand.
A. re-cross examination B. cross examination
C. officers testimony D. witness presentation
24. The investigators appearance in court is extremely important. How the court will perceive the
investigator’s credibility will in part determine by the following, EXCEPT:
A. appearance B. demeanor
C. professionalism D. intelligence
25. They are often called into court to present testimony, and the courts are often influenced by their
appearance and demeanor on the witness stand.
A. police officers B. witnesses
C. all of these D. investigators
26. This is an “Act Defining and Penalizing the Crime of Plunder.”
A. R.A. No. 7080 B. R.A. No. 7008
C. R.A. No. 8770 D. R.A. No. 7800
27. This is an “Act Defining the Crime of Money Laundering, Providing Penalties and for Other Purposes.”
A. R.A. No. 9610 B. R.A. No. 9160
C. R.A. No. 9106 D. R.A. No. 9061
28. These are the various forms of discovery in connection with case management, and which is having
importance with organized crime investigations, to wit, EXCEPT:
A. more common forms is a deposition
B. discovery is interrogatory
C. involves the production of physical evidence
D. formalized case management procedures
29. These should contain a copy of preliminary investigative reports and all the originals should be
maintained in central records, records of statements, result of examinations of physical evidence, case
status reports, and other reports and records needed for investigative purposes.
A. case management B. case folders
C. case files D. filing cabinets
30. Case management includes the following activities, as follows, EXCEPT:
A. taking notes on the facts observed
B. preparing official reports
C. maintaining a separate case folder
D. allow the presentation of information
31. It involves gathering, collecting, and preparing the raw material for a court or hearing, and can include
evidence gathering, forensic investigation, private investigations, evidence analysis, and preparing
witness testimony.
A. case management B. court preparation
C. trial preparation D. case preparation
32. It tends to be a gold mine, a synthesis of not only the information collected by the plaintiff's attorney, but
also the strategy and thinking of all of the other parties involved in criminal proceedings.
A. depositions B. testimony
C. affidavits D. statements
33. They are creatures of habit and emotion, and they have a certain set of written and unwritten rules they
follow in their courtrooms.
A. lawyers B. prosecutors
C. judges D. witnesses
34. They are intensely stressful, regardless of how many cases one has tried, and when the stakes are big, the
stress skyrockets.
A. prosecutions B. trials
C. hearings D. investigations
35. These are having an undeniable impact that no amount of verbal description can capture, and it should
clarify and solidify the message of the investigator in presenting evidence.
A. audio visuals B. LCD presentation
C. overhead projector D. visual aids
36. This encouraged citizens to report crimes; then the agency then responds; and this type of law
enforcement is used in dealing with conventional crimes.
A. reactive law enforcement B. crime prevention & control
C. eliminating opportunity D. none of these
37. This requires the police officers and agents to seek out indications of criminal behavior, a necessity when
the nature of violation includes victim participation.
A. criminal investigation B. proactive law enforcement
C. all of these D. special crime investigation
38. These crimes are often referred to as “__________,” because victims are unlikely to report the crime to
the police or law enforcement agencies.
A. violation of penal code B. violation of special laws
C. crimes against person D. victimless crimes
39. This is the basic starting point of organized crime investigation, by which the investigators thoroughly
mine to learn the structure of the organization, the identity of its leaders and membership.
A. publicly available information B. privately available information
C. need to know and compartmentation D. police intelligence operations security
40. It is unlike the investigation of other types of crime in that it is proactive instead of reactive; and the law
enforcement does not anymore simply respond to the scene after the crime has been committed.
A. special crime investigation B. investigation of organized crime
C. miscellaneous field investigation D. crimes against person investigation
41. The investigation of the criminal activity associated with organized crime involves __________ than that
of the more traditional forms of crimes.
A. inter-agency liaisons activities B. news clipping and de-briefing
C. greater cooperation and coordination D. rapport from other pillars of the CJS
42. It is not necessarily an international activity; most organized criminal activity of interest in a particular
country will occur within its borders.
A. transnational crimes B. enterprise crimes
C. drug trafficking D. organized crime
43. It range from minor bribery of law enforcement agents to “look the other way,” to paying off judges and
high-ranking officials.
A. threat and violence B. sphere of influence
C. corruption practices D. monopoly of goods
44. They are likely to be very sophisticated, and generally, they would not have attained this level of criminal
activity without some knowledge of how to avoid detection and prosecution.
A. syndicated crimes B. enterprise criminals
C. transnational crimes D. organized crimes
45. It is the single most important tool in countering organized crime, which is supported by files detailing
over time the collection and analysis of information and intelligence.
A. good intelligence unit B. good operations units
C. good police organization D. good community relations
46. It can be defined as government seizure of property derived from or used in criminal activity, and it is
designed to strip criminals of their financial rewards and is widely used because the threat of
imprisonment and fines has been inadequate to deter crimes netting huge profits.
A. confiscation B. escheating
C. revocation D. forfeiture
47. It has proved to be one of the most useful types of law in combating organized crime, and its use can
have many benefits for the criminal investigator.
A. secrecy law B. bank deposits law
C. conspiracy law D. complex crime law
48. It is helpful in providing a computerized investigative data base and some products of investigative
analysis, such as toll call analysis and link charting, as well as technical assistance and referrals for law
enforcement agencies needing technical assistance.
A. information sharing B. information sharking
C. information giving D. information lending
49. It is the key to success in virtually all counter-measures against criminal enterprises due to the fact that
criminal syndicates are multi-territorial and trans-national.
A. inter-agency cooperation B. lateral coordination
C. rapport and coordination D. international cooperation
50. The purpose of this inquiry is to determine the extent to which a person, group, of organization receives
and benefits from money obtained from other than legitimate sources.
A. income analysis B. cash analysis
C. source analysis D. net worth analysis

Prepared by: sccjr (1st sem. 2020-2021)

 EXAMINATION ON
FIRE TECHNOLOGY & ARSON INVESTIGATION
(Enhancement Class – 1)

Name: Course: Date:

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in each of the following questions. Mark only one answer on each
item by a putting a circle corresponding to the letter of your choice.

1. This Act shall be known as the "Revised Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008."
A. R.A. No. 9145 B. R.A. No. 9541
C. R.A. No. 9415 D. R.A. No. 9514
2. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
A. controlling B. abatement
C. fire fighting D. preventing
3. A hot piece or lump that remains after a material has partially burned, and is still oxidizing without the
manifestation of flames.
A. lights B. ashes
C. ember D. sparks
4. A building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or because it lacks adequate exits or fire
escapes.
A. fire trap B. fire cage
C. fire hazard D. fire zone
5. Any visual or audible signal produced by a device to warm the occupants of the building or fire fighting
elements of the presence or danger of fire.
A. fire alarm B. fire warning
C. fire signal D. fire call
6. Any condition or act which increases or may cause an increase in the probability of the occurrence of
fire, or which may obstruct, delay, hinder or interfere with fire fighting operations and the safeguarding
of life and property.
A. fire trap B. fire hazard
C. fire danger D. fire door
7. The portion of a roadway or public-way that should be kept opened and unobstructed at all times for the
expedient operation of fire fighting units.
A. fire street B. fire road
C. fire lane D. fire line
8. The minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient concentration to form an
ignitable mixture with air.
A. ignition point B. spark point
C. kindling point D. flash point
9. Passageway from one building to another or through or around a wall in approximately the same floor
level.
A. vertical exit B. diagonal exit
C. emergency exit D. horizontal exit
10. A piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in an electrical system.
A. overloading B. octopus connection
C. jumper D. all of these
11. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consume electrical current beyond
the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.
A. electrical failure B. overloading
C. load capacity D. short-circuiting
12. An integrated network of hydraulically designed piping installed in a building, structure or area which
automatically discharges water when activated by heat.
A. sprinkler system B. wet pipe system
C. stand pipe system D. dry pipe system
13. A system of vertical pipes in a building to which fire hoses can be attached on each floor, including a
system by which water is made available to the outlets as needed.
A. fire control system B. fire hoses and boxes
C. standpipe system D. fire pipe system
14. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as from the base to the top
of the building.
A. diagonal shaft B. vertical shaft
C. circular shaft D. horizontal shaft
15. A passage hall or antechamber between the outer doors and the interior parts of a house or building.
A. abatement B. shaft
C. vestibule D. jumper
16. These are employed by the arsonist to delay the start of a fire and allow them to establish an alibi.
A. candles B. matches
C. cigarettes D. timing devices
17. This is a chemical element which ignites upon exposure to air, and has been employed to start or delayed
a fire.
A. chlorine B. phosporpous
C. sulfuric acid D. ammonium chloride
18. It is the most common form of accelerant.
A. kerosene B. turpentine
C. gasoline D. diesoline
19. To optimize limited human and material resources in fire and arson investigation, the concerned fire
service authorities had to develop a _________.
A. case management system B. case tracking system
C. case monitoring system D. case recording system
20. There are three main reasons to use an investigative checklist in fire or arsons investigation, EXCEPT:
A. to ensure that pertinent fact has been identified
B. to identify cases to be assigned to management system
C. to serve as supervisory tool in evaluating performance
D. to preserve and maintain the crime scene and evidence
21. These are used to extend the fire from the plant or set to other parts of the structure, and sometimes they
lead from the starter plant to one or more secondary plants.
A. trailers B. streamers
C. all of these D. none of these
22. The purpose of examining the scene and attempting to recognize and collect physical evidence in a case
of suspected arson is threefold, except:
A. to determine where the fire started
B. to establish the corpus delicti of the crime of arson
C. to establish whether the fire was intentionally set
D. to connect the arsonist to the crime scene
23. In arson cases, especially arson-for-profit, uncovering this in the burned property can be a formidable
task.
A. uncovering ownership of financial interest
B. connecting the suspect from the fire scene
C. proper collection and preservation of evidence
D. determining those posing as straw owners
24. These are least likely to be of immediate service, but later, in the investigation of fire or arson they may
be invaluable in establishing a motive.
A. reports B. physical evidence
C. crime scene D. records
25. This report in arson investigation contains a word picture of all information developed during the
investigation, and all materials included should be concise, accurate, and complete.
A. spot report B. final reports
C. reports & records D. investigation reports
26. As provided by Art. 326-B of the Revised Penal Code, any of the following circumstances shall constitute
prima facie evidence of arson, EXCEPT:
A. if after the fire, are found materials soaked in accelerant or other inflammables
B. that substantial amount of inflammable substance or materials were stored within the building
or premises
C. that is intentional, neither accidental or attributable to some other causes
D. that the fire started simultaneously in more than one part of the building
27. As provided by Section 4, P.D. No. 1613, as amended the following are the aggravating circumstances
of arson, EXCEPT:
A. if there is conspiracy to commit the crime of arson
B. if committed with intent to gain or benefit of another
C. one of the offender is motivated by spite or hatred
D. if committed by two or more persons or syndicated arson
28. This is the later provision of the existing laws, amending the laws on arson and other forms of
destructions as provided by Article 320 to Article. 326-B, Chapter VIII, RPC.
A. PD No. 7144 B. PD No. 1613
C. P.D. No. 1185 D. R.A. 9514
29. This is otherwise known as the Fire Code of the Philippines.
A. PD No. 1185 B. R.A. No. 9514
C. P.D. 1744 D. P.D. No. 1613
30. As provided by P.D. No. 1744, the penalty of reclusion temporal in its maximum period to death shall
also be imposed upon any person who shall burn:
A. any arsenal, shipyard storehouse or military powder
B. inhabited place, or factory of inflammable materials
C. all of these
D. none of these
31. This is done with the use of water, and the temperature of the substance is lowered below the burning
point.
A. cooling B. quenching
C. all of these D. none of these
32. It is also known colloquially as a “fire plug;” it is a source of water provided in most urban , suburban
and rural areas with water services to enable firefighters to tap into the water supply to assist in
extinguishing fire.
A. fire hydrant B. tanker truck
C. turntable ladder D. quint and quad
33. It is the analysis by the firefighter of the forewarning of a thermal accident—flashover, back draft, smoke
explosion, which is performed during fire suppression maneuvers.
A. watching the fire B. observing the fire
C. none of these D. reading of the fire
34. It is the first step of the operation to search for the origin of fire, especially when there are no witnesses,
and spot the specific risks and the possible casualties.
A. reconnaisance B. surveillance
C. all of these D. casing of fire
35. It is either the venting, or containment—isolation, actions by on-scene firefighters, in an effort to gain
tactical advantage during interior structural firefighting operations.
A. positive ventilation B. isolation of fire
C. tactical ventilation D. pressure ventilation
36. It is the result of an object blocking the heat transfer through radiation and convection or direct flame
contact from its source to the surface of the material on which the pattern is produced.
A. heat tailing B. heat source
C. heat marking D. heat shadowing
37. It refers to the cracking of glass into smaller segments or sub-divisions in an irregular pattern. The extent
of which a glass item, e.g., window pane, will crack in relation to the type of glass involved.
A. crazing B. grazing
C. splitting D. crackling
38. This refers to the changes that occur during a fire in either plaster or gypsum wall surfaces; and this may
include the elimination of water from the gypsum to charring the paper surface off the wall board.
A. carbonization B. calcination
C. acclimation D. oxigination
39. It is a condition ordinarily associated with masonry and cement-concrete, building materials, and it may
appear as a distinctive discoloration of brick or concrete objects subjected to heat.
A. none of these B. spilling
C. spalling D. sampling
40. It is the basic chemical process of combustion; or of some materials that do not burn can produce lines
of demarcation and fire patterns useful to the fire investigator.
A. oxidation B. pyrolysis
C. oxidative D. oxidize
41. It is the carbonization of a fuel by the action of heat or burning materials, and the term is generally applied
to the combustible residue remaining after the pyrolyis of the wood material.
A. graze B. craze
C. spall D. char
42. It appears between the affected and adjacent unaffected or less affected area of the structure and its
contents, and it is very much dependent on the material, the heat release of fire.
A. line of separation B. area of demarcation
C. delineation D. division
43. It can be seriously impeded by indiscriminate or haphazard handling of the routine fire-fighting operation
known as the overhaul.
A. examination of the fire scene B. reconstruction of the fire scene
C. all of the above D. none of the above
44. In the case of s suspicious fire, it should be minimized, and if circumstances permit, the room of origin
should not be subjected to this before an investigator is on the fire scene and can supervise the operation.
A. controlling process B. overhaul process
C. revising process D. checking process
45. It is a prima facie evidence that the fire was of incendiary origin, since such condition is highly
improbable and virtually impossible under normal conditions.
A. discovery of heat source in the scene
B. discovery of fuel source in the scene
C. discovery of multiple points of origin
D. discovery of physical evidence
46. It is also known as drop down fires, or burning materials falling to the floor, or explosion can also give
the appearance of the multiple points of origin.
A. falling materials B. fall down fires
C. dropping materials D. burning materials
47. This is used when the cause of the fire cannot be proven, whether the fire is still under investigation or
awaiting further information; and this is one of the four (4) categories of fire.
A. undetermined B. natural
C. incendiary D. accidental
48. When it is believed to have been the initiating factor, there is a need to determine if this is of an adequate
temperature to have been ignited the fuel source of the burned motor vehicle.
A. oxygen source B. fuel source
C. all of these D. heat source
49. The presence of either separate and distinct or primary and second burn patterns on the exterior suggests
__________.
A. deliberate damage B. collision damage
C. intentional damage D. accidental damage
50. It may indicate that the fire burned itself out, possibly due to the lack of oxygen, and neither windows
nor doors were open to supply oxygen where fire was started.
A. primary burn patterns B. secondary burn patterns
C. all of these D. none of these

Prepared by: sccjr (1st sem. 2020-2021)