Law Enforcement and Administration

Law Enforcement and Administration
1. Police Officer submitted an intelligence report evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean?
a. information is usually from a reliable source and is possibly true
b. information is usually from a reliable source and is improbable
c. information is usually from a reliable source and is probably true
d. information is usually from a reliable source and is doubtfully true
2. Police Officer submitted an intelligence report evaluated as B – 5. What does it means?
a. information is usually from a reliable source and is possibly true
b. information is usually from a reliable source and is improbable
c. information is usually from a reliable source and is probably true
d. information is usually from a reliable source and is doubtfully true
3. What is meant by an evaluation of C-1?
a. information comes from an unreliable source and is probably true
b. information comes from a fairly reliable source and is confirmed by other sources
c. information comes from an unreliable source and is improbable
d. Information comes from an unreliable source and is doubtfully true
4. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?

a. trumpet
b. siren
c. horn
d. radio
5. The act of expelling squatters by the legal process is called?
a. tear down
b. eviction
c. squadron
d. demolition
6. H refers to the importance of the establishment with reference to the national economy and security?
a. risk analysis
b. relative critically
c. risk assessment
d. relative vulnerability
7. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the national economy or security:
a. Relative security
b. Relative necessity
c. Relative criticality
d. Relative vulnerability
8. It is the minimum guard requirements for the issuance of temporary license.

a.100
b.1,000
c.50
d.200
9. The regular security guard license is good for how many years?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 6 months
d. 3 years
10. It is the minimum capitalization for PSA.
a. P1,000,000.00
b. P500,000.00
c. P100,000.00
d. non of the above
11. . It is the required minimum number of guards to operate company security forces.
a. 30
b. 200
c. 50
d.100
12. A PSA with 200 to 499 guards shall pay how much amount of surety bond to a reputable insurance company.
a. P50,000.00
b. P100,000.00
c. P150,000.00
d. P200,000.00
13. . PSAs with 100 guards must initially procure at least how many firearms for use of its security guards.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 70
14.. PSAs who have been applying for regular license to operate must have at least ___ pieces of licensed firearms.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 70
15. The stock of ammunitions of the PSAs shall not exceed a basic load of how many rounds per unit of duly
licensed firearms.
a. 20
b. 12
c. 50
d. 25
16. This is quantity of ammunitions to be issued to individual security guards.
a. 20
b. 12
c. 50
d. 25
17. It is the only instances wherein PDAs & PSAs may be allowed to use high powered firearms; except one.
a. upsurge of lawlessness and criminality
b. upsurge of bank and armored bank robbery
c. transporting big amount of money
d. providing security to VIPs
18. The prescribed high-powered firearms not exceed how many percent of the total number of guards
employed.
a.5%
b.10%
c.15%
d.20%
19. These are the qualifications of a licensed watchman or security guard, EXCEPT:
a. high school graduate
b. physically & mentally fit
c. 18 to 50 years of age
d. without pre-licensing training
20. . There are two different ways in which security guards are hired or employed, the company guard and the
other one is:
a. government guards
b. private security agency
c .propriety guards
d. in-house guards
21. This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and Operation of PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs.
a. PD 603
b. EO 292
c. RA 5487
d. PD 968
22. They are any person who offers or renders personal service to watch or secure either residential or business
establishment or both.
a. private detective
b. security guards
c. propriety guards
d. company guards
23. Are any person who is not a member of the AFP or PNP, but involved in detective work.
a. private detective
b. security guards
c. propriety guards
d. company guards
24. It is any person who for hire or reward or on commission, conducts or carries on or holds himself out in
carrying detective works.
a. PDA
b. PSA
c. GSU
d. CSF
25. It is any person, association, partnership, firm or private corporation that employs any watchman or guards.
a. PDA
b. PSA
c. GSU
d. CSF
26. It is a security force maintained and operated by the private company/corporation for its own protection and
security requirements
a. PDA
b. PSA
c. GSU
d. CSF
27. It is a security unit maintained and operated by any government entity other than military or police.
a. PDA
b. PSA
b. GSU
c. CSF
d.PAD
28. . It is the umbrella organization for PDA and PSA.
a. PADPAO, Inc.
b. SAGSD
c. SEC
d. PNP
29. It is a government agency involved in the supervision of the internal affairs of the PSAs, PDAs, CSFs and
GSUs.
a. PADPAO, Inc.
b. SAGSD
c. SEC
d. PNP
30. . It is the age requirement for the operator or manager of PSA, PDA, CSF, and GSU.
a. 25 years
b. 30 years
c. 35 years
d. 20 years
31. Request for police assistance in the implementation of final decisions or orders of the court in civil cases
and of administrative bodies on controversies within their jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the
appropriate police office. The request is filed at least _____ prior to the actual implementation.
a. 3 days
b. 10 days
c. 5 days
d. 15 days
32. It may be utilized to break up formations or groupings of demonstrations who continue to be aggressive
and refused to disperse despite earlier efforts.
a. Tear Gas
b. Water Cannon
c. Truncheon
d. Shield
33. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot or in a vehicle, based on reasonable
suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of determining the individual’s identity and resolving the
officer’s suspicion concerning criminal activity.
a. Frisking
b. Search
c. Spot Check
d. Pat-down Search
34. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent
the commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other legitimate purposes.
a. Clear Zone
b. Public Place
c. Police Checkpoint
d. Pre-Determined Area
35. Electronic blotter is a computerized system, which was accepted by the courts, prosecutors’ office and the
public in general. What police office is using this kind of blotter?
a. Makati
b. Cebu
c. Baguio
d. Davao
36. It refers to the venue or place established or designated by local government units within their respective
jurisdictions where a public assembly could be held without securing any permit for such purpose from the
local government unit concerned.
a. Secured Area
b. Wide Space
c. Freedom Park
d. Clear Zone
37. The police function in which patrol belong is:
a. Line function
b. Administrative function
c. Staff function
d. Auxiliary function
38. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings of Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is standing near
Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is not weaken by existence of Insp. Gonzales but the ______ for successful
robbery is prevented.
a. Ambition
b. Intention
c. Motive
d. Opportunity
39. Police personnel whose rank at the time of his retirement is Police Lieutenant Colonel shall retire with the
rank of __________:
a. Police Lieutenant Colonel
b. Police Brigadier General
c. Police Colonel
d. Police Major
40. Refers to the immediate, recent chase or follow-up without material interval for the purpose of taking into
custody any person wanted by virtue of a warrant, or one suspected to have committed a recent offense
while fleeing from one police jurisdictional boundary to another that will normally require prior official
inter-unit coordination but which the pursuing unit cannot, at that moment, comply due to the urgency of
the situation.
a. Hot Pursuit
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. Dragnet Operation
d. High Risk Stop
41. Which among the following terms is not related to each other?
a. Hot Pursuit
b. Fresh Pursuit
c. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit
d. Bright Pursuit
42. Refers to the highest degree of restraint that the police, military and other peace keeping authorities shall
observe during a public assembly or in the dispersal of the same.
a. Reasonable Force
b. Greatest Lenience
c. Maximum Tolerance
d. Utmost Patience
43. A disguised or secret observation of place and things for the purpose of information pertaining the
identities and activities is called.
a. Background Investigation
b. Security Survey
c. Threat Assessment
d. Surveillance
44. What is the main function of police statistical data?
a. Patrol Police Officer
b. Specialization
c. Private Detective
d. Line Function
45. Who are qualified to be appointed in police service by the use of waiver?
a. Successful passers of NAPOLCOM ENTRNCE
b. Sons of retired Police
c. Indigenous people recommended by local executive
d. Recommended by the Municipal Mayor
46. An examination of raw information to determine its intelligence value, relatively of information, reliability
of source of information and credibility of information.
a. Decoding
b. Evaluation
c. Survey
d. Test
47. Which of the following statement is FALSE?

a. An intelligence information must be timely at the sacrifice of accuracy
b. An intelligence information characterized with timeliness first and foremost
c. An intelligence timely and always accurate and credible
d. An intelligence information include the time of the event
48. Which of the following is a function of Private Detective?
a. Conduct Background Investigation
b. Conduct Police Works
c. Locate a missing person
d. Train Security Guard
49. Who among the following has the authority to summary dismissal procedure?
1. Chief, PNP
2. Police Provincial Director
3. Police Deputy Director General
4. Police Regional Director
5. Police Inspector General
a. 4 and 5
b. 1 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 5
50. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, interpretation and integration of
available information which concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is
immediately/potentially significant to police planning.
a. Data
b. Intelligence
c. Investigation
d. Information
51. What type of examination determines the mental health, physical state and personality of the police
applicant?
a. Physical examination
b. Neuropsychiatric examination
c. Mental examination
d. Health examination
52. A good police supervision should that good public relations within the community is the responsibility of –
a. Community Service
b. Police Community Relation
c. Team Building Policy
d. Cops on the Block
53. A _______________ represent the planning officer’s efforts to great what go wrong on differently with his
plan and how to handle it if it does –
a. Purpose of goal
b. Set of action plan
c. Forecast
d. Contingency plan
54. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. In conducting intelligence, it will be acquired through secret manner.
b. In conducting intelligence, it is acquiring of information through overt.
c. In conducting intelligence, always ignore small information
d. In conducting intelligence, don’t think about the operational fund
55. . The staff service of the NAPOLCOM which conducts continuous inspection and management audit of
personnel, facilities and operations at all levels of command of the PNP.
a. Legal affairs service
b. Personnel and Administrative service
c. Planning and research service
d. Inspection, monitoring and investigation service
56. What bureau is responsible for the investigation of high profile crimes, forensics, and computer-related
crimes in Taiwan?
a. Criminal Investigation Bureau

b. Crime Prevention Section
c. Crime Investigation Section
d. International Criminal Affairs Section
57. What special unit is attached to the Border Patrol Police Division of Thailand is tasked with counter
terrorism function?
a. Central Investigation Division
b. Border Police
c. Naraesuan 261
d. Aritharat 26
58. In Cambodia, who is responsible for overall management of the Police Organization?
a. Deputy Director of the National Police
b. Chief of the Department
c. Director General of the National Police
d. Land Border Police Department
59. The law enforcement agency of China responsible in protecting national security and preventing and
detecting foreign espionage, sabotage, and conspiracies against the state.
a. State Security Ministry
b. State Security Police
c. People’s Armed Police
d. Either A or B
60. What is the special branch of POLRI which conducts security stabilization operations and provides security
protection for VIP or vital facilities?
a. ABRI
b. Seguridad Persona Polisi
c. BRIMOB
d. Markas Besar
61. The Indonesian National Police is under the supervision of the
a. Interior Ministry.
b. Ministry of State.
c. Ministry of Home Affairs.
d. Defence Ministry.
62. What was formed to unify the Singapore Police Force's elite tactical units, namely the Police Task Force
(PTF), the Police Tactical Team (PTT) and the Police K-9 Unit (PDU) under one command?
a. Security command
b. Special Operation Command
c. Special Action Team
d. Special Action Force
63. Police National Servicemen of Singapore usually serve up to two years typically from what age?
a. 16 years
b. 18 years
c. 17 years
d. 19 years
64. What is the ground response force for serious incidents such as major disasters, firearm situations and riots
of Singapore
a. Anti-riot Police
b. Special Tactics and Rescue
c. Police Task Force
d. Special Weapons and Tactics
65. In Singapore, what is the elite unit of their police force that is tasked to apprehend armed criminals and
conduct hostage rescue operations on land and at sea?
a. Special Action Team
b. Special Weapons And Tactics
c. Special Action Force
d. Special Tactics and Rescue
66. What management principle provides that only one officer be in direct command or supervision of each
officer.
a. span control
b. unity of command
c. chain of command
d. line of authority
a. Patrol
67. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
a. Performance evaluation measures credibility of the police personnel.
b. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary increases of promotion.
c. Performance evaluation is done once a year among police personnel.
d. Performance evaluation is implemented to determine the quality of work performance of
personnel.
68. How are coded messages converted to intelligible language?
a. Encoding
b. Processing
c. Labeling
d. Decoding
69. The type of undercover operation wherein techniques are applied for a longer time and are considered as
the most different (difficult) investigate activity, yet the most rewarding.
a. casing
b. undercover operation
c. penetration
d. surveillance
70. As Security Director of Company B, you should know how many beds, are normally available in a multiple
injury situation and how many ________ patients can be processed at a single time.
a. Wounded
b. Emergency
c. Female
d. Male
71. A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is determined through a process called _________.
a. security training
b. security education
c. security promotion
d. security investigation
72. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather that upon high visibility patrol
techniques?
a. decoy patrol
b. high visibility patrol
c. directed patrol
d. low visibility patrol
73. What police plans refer to actions to be taken at a designated location and under specific circumstances?
a. management plans
b. tactical plans
c. operating plans
d. procedural plans
74. What type of organization consciously coordinates the activities of two or more persons towards a given
objective?
a. flexible organization
b. formal organization
c. informal organization
d. non-flexible organization
75. Who among the following meets the age qualification for appointment to the police service?
a. Rey who is 20 years old
b. Dennis who is 17 years old
c. John who is 22 years old
d. Santi who is 35 years old
76. The covert observation of an area, a building or stationary object in order to gain information is called:
a. undercover works
b. penetration
c. casing
d. surveillance
77. The unobstructed area maintained on both sides of a perimeter barrier on the exterior and interior parallel
area to afford better observation of the installation refers to:
a. Clear zone
b. Complimentary zone
c. Open zone
d. Free zone
78. The extension period for a license to operate issued upon a PSA that lacks the required minimum number
of guards is:
a. 1 month
b. 6 months
c. 2 years
d. 1 year
79. Which of the following types of lock is generally used in car doors?
a. Warded lock
b. Lever lock
c. Disc tumbler lock
d. Combination lock
80. It refers to a protection against any type of crime to safeguard life and assets by various methods and
device.
a. Physical Security
b. Perimeter Security
c. Operational Security
d. Security
81. All except are the qualifications of a security officer.
a. Has graduated from a Security Officer
b. Training Course.
c. Holder of Masters Degree.
d. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
e. Physically or mentally fit.
82. .These provides access within the perimeter barrier and should be locked and guarded.
a. Gates and Doors
b. Side-Walk Elevator
c. Utilities Opening
d. Clear Zones
83. This Police Station activity increases the number of arrest of criminal syndicate member?
a. investigation
b. intelligence
c. crime search
d. patrol
84. Which agent who has reached the enemy and able to get information and would be managed to get back?
a. mercenary
b. none
c. penetration
d. assassin
85. These are the major courses of action that the organization plans to take in order to achieve its objectives.
a. Procedures
b. Strategies
c. Plans
d. Objectives
86. In this form of authority, personnel do not give orders but they offer advice. Frequently this advice is based
on the high level of expertise, but the advice carries no formal requirement of acceptance.
a. Democracy
b. Functional authority
c. Line authority
d. Staff authority
87. The __________ means controlling the direction and flow of decisions through unity of command from
top to bottom organization.
a. Audit
b. Coordination
c. Monitoring
d. Authority
88. Police Officer 3 is assigned to collect available information concerning the activities of the Red Scorpion
Group .He is with what unit of the police?
a. anti – juvenile delinquency
b. criminal investigation
c. intelligence operations
d. patrol activities
89. Intelligence can and should do nothing more than.
a. promote better police-citizen interaction
b. enhance the probability of accuracy in report writing
c. improve administration efficiency particularly in recruitment and selection
d. increase the number of arrests of criminal syndicate members
90. Who may be automatically granted height waiver, as provided under Section 15 of Republic Act No.
8551?
a. Police retirables requesting for extension of service.
b. Member of the cultural minorities duly certified by the appropriate government agency.
c. c.Government employees wishing to transfer to the PNP
d. d.Graduates of Criminology
91. Plans which require action or assistance from persons or agencies outside the police organization.
a. management plans
b. operational plans
c. tactical plans
d. extra-department plan
92. What is the system of natural or man-made barriers placed between the potential intruder and the objects,
persons and matters being protected?
a. document security
b. communications security
c. physical security
d. personnel security
93. In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
94. Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of operation used in the planning and objects, persons and
matters being protected?
a. military intelligence
b. strategic intelligence
c. combat intelligence
d. counter-intelligence
95. The effectiveness and efficiency of the patrol function can be enhanced if there is detailed and up-to date
information about crime and criminals. This calls for the establishment of:
a. patrol base headquarters
b. crime information center
c. management information center
d. public information office
96. Planning cannot be undertaken without referring to ________ on the entire police organization, community,
crime, equipment inventories, personal data, etc.
a. costs
b. data
c. plans
d. statement
97. New employees should be briefed on security rules and regulations of the organization and the importance
of observing them. This process is called:
a. security information
b. security reminders
c. security orientation
d. security investigation
98. What plans require action or assistance from persons or agencies outside the police organization?
a. tactical plan
b. extra department plan
c. management plan
d. all of the choices
99. This is a patrol program designed to ensure law abiding citizens feeling of security but the reaction of fear
for the would be violators.
a. double-officer patrol
b. single-officer patrol
c. low visibility patrol
d. high visibility patrol
100.The first step in the planning process is to recognize the need to plan. Which of the following is NOT a way
to discovering the need to plan?
a. conduct of research
b. conduct of training
c. conduct of inspection
d. conduct of management audit
101.The special formations used in crowd control include the wedge, diagonal and deployed line. When a
crowd is small enough not to require a squad, then the formation is:
a. diagonal
b. wedge
c. deployed line
d. clockwise
102.Under this principle, the chief executive directly controls two to ten subordinates, who then control two to
ten subordinates each and so on until the bottom of the organization is reached.
a. scalar principle
b. exception principle
c. unity of command
d. span of control
103.Under physical security, what should be placed between the prospective intruder and target installation?
a. Hazard
b. Net
c. Risk
d. Barrier
104.Mr. Cardo Dalisay was born on June 1, 1975. Does he meet the age requirement for entry to the police
service in June 1999?
a. No, but he can apply for age waiver
b. Yes, he is only 24 years old and is within the age requirement
c. Yes, he meets the maximum age requirement
d. No, he has exceeded the maximum age requirement
105.A police officer who manages a police station must use all of the following skills, EXCEPT.
a. conceptual
b. technical
c. interpersonal
d. communication
106.The planning process generally consists of five (5) steps in sequential order. (Which is the first step?)
a. formulation of details of the plan
b. recognition of the need to plan
c. setting up planning objectives
d. gathering and analysis of data
107..These are barbed wires placed above a vertical fence in order to increase physical protection of
establishment or installations.
a. top tower
b. top guard
c. cellar guard
d. tower guard house
108. What is the next planning step after the need to plan is recognized?
a. evaluate alternatives
b. formulate the objective
c. execute the plan
d. analyze the data
109.This type of patrol performs certain specific, predetermined preventive strategies in a regular and
systematic basis.
a. apprehension-oriented patrol
b. low visibility patrol
c. split-force patrol
d. directed deterrent patrol
110. Among the following applicants for appointment to the police service, who may be automatically granted
height waiver?
a. government employees wishing to transfer to the PNP
b. members of cultural minorities duly certified by the appropriate government agency
c. police retirables requesting for extension of service
d. graduate of criminology
111.The following changes must be made in police operating procedures if the investigative skills of patrol
personnel are to be employed to their fullest advantage EXCEPT.
a. patrol supervisor should insists that patrol officers simply make a brief report and return to patrol
duties rather than complete their investigations
b. patrol officers should be better trained and equipped to conduct routine investigations
c. patrol officers should be encouraged to devote more time to the investigation of crimes to which
they respond
d. the patrol supervision should be able to provide the patrol officer with assistance in determining
whether a case has sufficient merit to warrant immediate follow-up investigation by the patrol
officer
112.The more complex the organization, the more highly specialized the division of work, the greater the need
for:
a. cleaner delineation of functions
b. coordinating authority
c. strictly line discipline
d. finer division of supervision
113.The ________ differs from routine patrol methods in that patrol officers perform certain specific,
predetermined preventive strategies on a regular and systematic basis.
a. low-visibility patrol
b. directed deterrent patrol
c. split force patrol
d. apprehension-oriented patrol
114.Police Officer II and Police Officer I report only to one (1) supervisor. This is the principle of
_______________.
a. unity of command
b. delegation of authority
c. span of control
d. report to immediate superior
115.PO III Serafin B. Alta frequents clubs, places of amusement and entertainment known to be habitually
visited by his subject and his subject’s associates. PO III Alta’s undercover assignment is called.
a. multiple assignment
b. social assignment
c. work assignment
d. dwelling assignment
116.Assessing organizational strengths and weakness is usually known as:

a. force field analysis
b. Delphi technique
c. simulation model
d. forecasting
117.These regulations establish the specifications of uniform and the manner in which they are to be worn:
a. personnel transaction regulations
b. firearms regulations
c. uniform regulations
d. equipment regulations
118. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas projects ________ thus, an effective crime prevention
strategy.
a. police omnipresence
b. police effectiveness
c. police discretion
d. police authority
119.Which of the following trait or ability is most important for a police officer?
a. personnel integrity and honesty
b. physical stamina and bearing
c. courageous
d. d .high intelligence
120.If a complaint or incident is NOT Fully disposed of as a result of the first investigation, a _________ report
should be submitted.
a. investigation report
b. case disposition report
c. follow-up report
d. crime report
121.The advantages of a strong patrol are more than make up for slightly inferior performance. More patrolmen
are then made available for emergency and the more active and widespread the patrol, the more apparent is
their presence, thus, promoting the impression of -
a. suspensions
b. effectiveness
c. omnipresence
d. efficiency
122. What is the importance of a firm or installation in the relation to national security referred to?
a. relative security
b. relative necessity
c. relative criticality
d. relative vulnerability
123.The __________ includes citizens who are cleared to attend meeting in Malacañang.
a. white list
b. black list
c. target list
d. access list
124. The attestation function over police appointment is vested in the:
a. Civil Service Commission
b. National Police Commission
c. Professional Regulations Commission
d. Department of Interior and Local Government
125.In 2001, murder accounted for 10% of all index crimes. If the total index crimes were 45,000, how many
were murder incidents?
a. 250
b. 4,000
c. 500
d. 4,500
126.The more complex the organization, the more highly specialized the division of work, the greater the need
for:
a. cleaner delineation of functions
b. coordinating authority
c. strictly line discipline
d. finer division of supervision
127.The following questions are tests for accuracy of information, EXCEPT:

a. Does the report agree or disagree with available and related intelligence?
b. Is the reported fact or event known in advance
c. Is it the same or consistent with known modus operandi?
d. Is the information about the target or area of the operation?
128.Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes, floods or lahar cannot be prevented from occurring. To
minimize the disastrous effects of these phenomena, the security officer must prepare a:
a. guard deployment plan
b. security education plan
c. civil defense plan
d. disaster or emergency plan
129.It involves segregation of deviants into isolated geographic areas so that they can easily be controlled.
a. Coercion
b. Quarantine
c. Conversion
d. Containment
130.“There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement is-
a. Partially Correct
b. Partially Wrong
c. Absolutely Correct
d. Absolutely Wrong
131.It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances to secure areas located out of doors, and manned by
guards on a full time basis.
a. Guard Control Stations
b. Tower
c. Tower Guard
d. Top Guard
132.The following are types of specialized patrol method except:
a. Marine Patrol
b. Air Patrol
c. Canine Patrol
d. Foot Patrol
133.It refers to records that are irreplaceable; reproduction of this record does not have the same value as the
original.
a. Vital Documents
b. Important Documents
c. Useful Documents
d. Non- Essential Documents
134.It is the importance of firm with reference to the natural economy and security.
a. a.. Relative Operation
b. b Relative Security
c. c. Relative Vulnerability
d. Relative Criticality of Operation
135.A new Private security agency that has been issued a temporary license to operate is good for how many
years?
a. One
b. Two
c. c.Three
d. d.Four
136.The removal of the security classification from the classified matter.
a. a.Segregation
b. b. Declassify
c. c. Reclassify
d. Exclusion
137.What crime committed by a person who, having found a ring, fails to delover the same to the owner or the
local authorities?
a. the finder commits theft
b. the finder commits concealment
c. the finder commits qualified theft
d. NOTA
138.Under which of the following circumstances is a probation not applicable.
a. when the accused is convicted of indirect assault
b. when the accused is sentenced to serve a maximum of 6years
c. when the accused has been convicted by funal judgement penalty of 1month nd fine of 200
d. when the accused is sentenced to serve 5 years and 2 days
139.It is the importance of the firm with reference to the national economy and security.
a. relative criticality
b. relative vulnerability
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
140.One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes away any of all types of items or supplies for economic
gain.
a. pilferer
b. casual pilferer
c. systematic pilferer
d. intruder
141.A medium of structure which defines the physical limits of an installation to restrict or impede access
thereto.
a. natural barrier
b. man-made barrier
c. perimeter barrier
d. physical security
142. It is a type of perimeter barrier made of chain link with mesh openings not larger that two inches square,
and made or #9 gauge wire or heavier.
a. clear zone
b. bodies of water
c. building wall
d. wire fence
143.It surmounted by the barbed wire top guards, and if the height is less than the prescribed, additional topping
is placed to attain the minimum height requirement.
a. clear zone
b. bodies of water
c. building wall
d. wire fence
144.An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of the perimeter barrier.
a. clear zone
b. bodies of water
c. building wall
d. wire fence
145.He may issue or revoke licenses issued to security guards.
a. Chief, PNP
b. Mayor
c. Governor
d. Secretary, DILG
146.It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on vertical perimeter fences facing upward and outward
with a 45 degree angle with three to four strand of barbed wire.
a. topping
b. top guard
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
147.Are house like structure above the perimeter barriers, it give psychological effect to violators.
a. guard towers
b. tower guards
c. guard house
d. guard post
148.. A conference or dialogue between the survey team and management officials before security survey is
conducted.
a. pre- security survey
b. post- security survey
c. entrance conference
d. exit conference
149.. It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security.
a. security inspections
b. security survey
c. special survey
d. supplemental survey
150.. It is the exposure and teaching of employees on security and its relevance to their work.
a. security education
b. security indoctrination
c. security training
d. security awareness
151.It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing entry to a compound or installation
thereof.
a. controlling
b. access list
c. exclusion area
d. controlled area
152.Any area, access to which is subject to special restriction control.
a. restricted area
b. exclusion area
c. controlled area
d. coverage factor
153.. A restricted area containing materials or operation of security interest.
a. restricted area
b. exclusion area
c. controlled area
d. coverage factor
154.It is the key elements in the security survey system of a plant or installation.
a. security guard
b. human guard
c. company guard
d. agency guard
155.It is a term used in England for lock pickers, safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted rooms or areas.
a. doppler effect
b. duress code
c. peterman
d. fail safe
156.A term applied to a device or system that in the event of failure or a component, the incapacity will be
signaled.
a. doppler effect
b. duress code
c. peterman
d. fail safe
157.It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test its validity, it is also an operational readiness exercise.
a. dry run
b. run through
c. controlling
d. fire drill
158.It is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to damage, loss or disruption of operation due to various
hazard.
a. relative criticality
b. relative vulnerability
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
159. It includes records that are irreplaceable, reproduction of which does not have the same value as the
original records.
a. useful records
b. vital records
c. important records
d. non-essential records
160. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity?
a. casual pilferer
b. ordinary pilferer
c. systematic
d. unusual pilferer
161.The extinguishment of fire by using water solution, and the temperature is lowered below the burning
point.
a. smothering
b. starving
c. cooling
d. all of the above
162.It is a type of built-in sprinklers which works by the increase of room temperature, and which automatically
operates the system to put out the fire.
a. wet pipe system
b. automatic sprinklers
c. dry pipe system
d. stand pipe system
163.Private Security Agencies must be registered at what government agency.
a. DTI
b. PNP
c. CSC
d. LGU
164. It is the initial number of guard requirements that must be contracted for the 1st year of operation of PSA.
a. 100
b. 200
c. 1,000
d. 50
165. What is the minimum number of guard requirements in the operation of branch offices of PSA.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 10
d. 40
166. __________ are included in the category of in-house guards.
a. government guards
b. private security agency
c. propriety guards
d. all of the above
167.It is charge with the directing the work and observing the behavior performance of the men under his unit.
a. security guard
b. security supervisor
c. watchman
c. security officer
168.The following items must be stipulated in the security service contract, EXCEPT:
a. money consideration
b. number of hours of security service
c. salary of the security guard
d. commission of the operator
169.It is administrative sanctions that can be imposed to any applicant who failed to submit the complete
requirements in the renewal of license.
a. cancellation
b. revocation
c. nullification
d. suspension
170.. It shall apply to all PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs throughout the Philippines.
a. Private Scty. Law
b. RA 5487
c .IRR of RA 5487
d.all of the above
171.. It refers to the Summary Power of the Chief, PNP as provided by R.A. 5487.
a. suspension of license
b. cancellation of license
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
172.. It is the established rules and regulations in the operation of GSUs, EXCEPT:
a. registration at SAGSD
b. registration at CSG
c. both A & B
d. registration at SEC
173.Any member of the GSUs shall be required to secure a __________ to exercise profession at SAGSD.
a. permit
b. authority
c. registration
d. license
174.How many days prior expiry month of license shall require PSL holders to undergo NP examinations.
a. 60 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 15 days
175.Neuro-Psychiatric Clearance shall be issued by the accredited testing centers within how many days after
the date of examination.
a. 60 days
b. 30 days
c .45 days
d.15 days
176. Moribund but previously licensed security agency, means:
a. dying PSA
b. viable PSA
c. new PSA
d. renewing PSA
177..It refers to the requirements for application for licenses as security officers, guards, and operators.
a. physical & mental examination
b. medical & dental examination
c. physical agility test examination
d. drug test examination
178.. Blue Guard Medal Valor is awarded by whom?
a. DILG
b. C, PNP
c. PD, PPO
d. RD, PRO 3
179.. Letter of Commendation to PSGs is awarded by whom?
a. PSAs Operators
b. CSF Managers
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
180.. It shall be submitted immediately after graduation to the C, PNP.
a. closing reports
b. opening reports
c. participants
d. name of course
181. It is required to the License to Operate PSAs/CSFs.
a. displayed
b. carried
c. registered
d. all of the above
182.Merger of PSAs/PDAs is commonly known as ______ in the industrial security management.
a. Kabit System
b. Illegal Operation
c. Merger of Security
d. Moribund Security
183.It is no anymore required to PSAs/PDAs securing temporary license to operate.
a. pre-inspection
b. post-inspection
c. inspection
d. continuing inspection
184. It shall not be issued unless prior inspection is conducted to the applicant agency.
a. regular license
b. temporary license
c. license to operate
d. permit to operate
185. These are the classifications of offenses as prescribed by the IRR of R.A. 5487, EXCEPT:
a. serious offense
b. light offense
c. grave offense
d. less grave offense
186.They have the authority to conduct inspection to PSAs/PDAs/CSFs/GSUs, EXCEPT:
a. C, SAGSD
b. C, ROPD
c. PD, PPO
d. SAGSD Officer
187. These are authorized to conduct investigation on all complaints against securities of PSAs or detective of
PDAs.
a. C, ROPD
b. Inves. Comm., CSG
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
188. It must be avoided by the private security personnel, either physically or otherwise with the strikers.
a. direct contact
b. indirect contact
c. confrontation
d. carrying of firearms
189.The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to muster or _________ the members of the agency in case of
emergency or in times of disasters or calamity.
a. organize
b. incorporate
c. utilize
d. deputize
190.The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is-
a. Intelligence
c. Civil Security Group
d. Investigation and Detective Mngt.
191.Who is the Chairman of NAPOLCOM?
a. Chief of Staff, AFP
b. Secretary of the DILG
c. Secretary of National Defense
d. Chief of the PNP
192.It is the minimum educational attainment for promotion in the PNP.
a. MNSA
b. Master’s Degree
c. OSEC
d. BS Degree
193.Attrition system is a means under Republic Act Nr. 8551 to remove from the PNP, police officers who are-
a. inefficient
b. ineffective
c. unproductive
194.The nature of which, the police officer is free from specific routine duty is the definition of -
a. “on duty”
b. “special duty”
c. “leave of absence”
d. “off duty”
195. An area containing two or more beats, routes or post is called-
a. post
b. unit
c. sector
d. section
196.The lowest rate in the Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is-
a. Very Satisfactory
b. Fair
c. Outstanding
d. Poor
197.The Chief PNP had been in the service for 36 years and receive a Base Pay of 85,000 pesos a month. How
much will be his Longevity Pay?
a. 45,000 pesos
b. 37,500 pesos
c. 50,000 pesos
d. 42,500 pesos
198.Senior Police Officer receives a base pay of Php 54, 000. He had been in the service for 26 years. How
much is his longevity pay?
a.Php24, 200
b. Php25, 000
c. Php28, 500
d. Php27, 000
199. A primary subdivision of a bureau is called-
a. division
b. unit
c. section
d. department
200.The mandatory training course for Patrolman for them to be promoted to Police Corporal or Police Staff
Sergeant.
a. PSJLC
b. PSOBC
c. PSOOC
d. PSBRC
201.Time-In-Grade needed by a Police Captain before he could be promoted to Police Major is-
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 2 years
d. 5 years
202.An area assigned for foot or motorized patrol purposes is called-
a. beat
b. sector
c. route
d. post
203.The system used in PNP promotions is called-
a. Performance
b. Seniority
c. Palakasan
d. Merit
204.. The directorate who is in charge of supplies and equipments of PNP is-
a. logistics
b. comptrollership
c. intelligence
d. plans
205.. What is the maximum tenure of a Police Regional Director?
a. 4 years
b .5 years
c. 6 years
d. 9 years
206.The period of time in the present rank in permanent status is called-
a. Time-In-Grade
b. Length of Service
c. Seniority in rank
d. Plantilla position
207. The directorate who is the “make-up artist” and “deodorant” of the PNP is called-
a. Personnel Records Mgt.
b. Research Development
c. Police Community Relation
d. Human Resource & Doctrine Devt.
208. The National Capital Region Police Office is divided into how many districts?
a. four
b. six
c. five
d. seven
209.A functional group within a section is called-
a. division
b. route
c. unit
d. sector
210. The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is-
a. Intelligence
c. Comptrollership
d.Investigation and Detective Mgt.
211.Which of the following is not an administrative support unit?
a. Special Action Force
b. Civil Security Group
c. Police Security and Protection Office
212. Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP members who want to be promoted to-
a. SPO4
b. SPO3
c. Police
d. PO3
213.Under the general qualifications for appointment in the PNP, male applicant must be with a height of at
least-
a. 1.62 m
b. 1.64 m
c. 1.57 m
d. 1.54
214.The mandatory training course of SPO4 before they can be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector is-
a. Officers Basic Course
b. Officers Candidate Course
c. Officers Advance Course
d. Senior Leadership Course
215.What is the nature of appointment of PNP personnel under the waiver program?
a. permanent
b. contractual
c. temporary
d. probationary
216..The Police Regional Office covering Metro-Manila is-
a. Western Police District

b. NCRPO
c. Southern Police District
d. Central Police District
217.The equivalent rank of Major General in the PNP is-
a. Director General
b. Chief Superintendent
c. Deputy Director General
d. Director
218. The number two man in the PNP organization is-
a. TCDS
b. DDG for Administration
c. DDG for Operations
d. none of them
219.The national headquarters of the PNP is located at-
a. Camp Dangwa
b. Camp Crame
c. Camp Aguinaldo
d. Fort Bonifacio
220. The purpose of promotion in the PNP is-
a. recognition of good work
b. gives officers high morale
c. gives higher pay
221.Waiver system in the PNP will apply if-
a. recruitment falls on summer
b. qualified applicant falls below quota
c. ordered by the President
d. none of them
222. Mental fitness of an applicant in the PNP is verified thru-
a. medical examination
b. neuro-psychiatric examination
c. physical fitness examination
d. drug test
223. Age waiver can be granted if the applicant is-
a. 20 to 36 years old
b. 19 to 36 years old
c. 21 to 35 years old
d. 20 to 35 years old
224. What is the minimum rank for a police officer to be qualified a the C, PNP?
a. Director
b. Superintendent
c. Chief Superintendent
d. Director General
225.The law that grants automatic eligibility for those who passed any licensure examination administered by
the Professional Regulations Commission is-
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506
b. Republic Act Nr. 1080
c. Republic Act Nr. 6975
d. Republic Act Nr. 8551
226.The highest award given to a PNP member is-
a. Medalya ng Kadakilaan
b. Medalya ng Kagitingan
c. Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting
d. Medalya ng Kabayanihan
227.What is the duration of the PNP Field Training Program?
a. 10 months
b. 18 months
c. 12 months
d. 24 months
228.When is the date of effectively of the PNP Reform and Reorganization Act?
a. 1992
b. 1996
c. 1994
d. 1998
229.What law was amended by RA 8551?
a. RA 7659
b. RA 6425
c. RA 6975
d. RA 9165
230. Valenzuela City maintains a police force with a total manpower of 2000 officers and men. How many
PLEB must be established?
a. two
b. four
c. three
d. five
231.What is the lowest administrative penalty?
a. Forfeiture of Pay
b. Restricted to Specified limits
c. Witholding of Privilege
d. Admonition
232.It is the period given for a PNP member admitted under the educational attainment waiver to finish his B.S.
Degree according to RA 8551?
a. 4 years
b. 6 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years
233.It is the number of year of non-promotion before a PNP Member can be attrited.
a. 5 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 20 years
234. It also referred to as Monthly Retirement Benefits (MRB).
a. lump sum
b. pension
c. gratuity
d. allowance
235.Insubordination is an administrative infraction referred to as-
a. citizens complaint
b. grave misconduct
c. breach of internal discipline
d. none of them
236.PLEB is composed of how many person?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6
237.. How many years is maximum tenure in officer of the Chief, PNP?
a. four years
b. six years
c. five years
d. nine years
238.. How long will be the extension of tenure of the Chief, PNP if extended?
a. not more than 1 year
b. not less than 2 years
c. more than 1 year
d. none of them
239.The law that grants eligibility to Criminology Board Exam passers is-
c. Republic Act Nr. 8551
d. Republic Act Nr. 6975
240.The agency that administers all the mandatory training for police officers is
a. PPSC
b. PNP
c. DHRDD
d. NAPOLCOM
241.Who can grant waivers for applicants in the PNP?
a. President
b. Chief, PNP
c. Sec. of DILG
d. NAPOLCOM
242.Which of the following administer the PNP Entrance and Promotional Exam for policemen as provided for
under Republic Act Nr. 8551?
a. NAPOLCOM
b. Civil Service Commission
c. Congress
d. PNP
243.. What is the basis for promotion that includes the length of service in the present rank?
a. Merit
b. Superiority
c. Time-In-Grade
d. Age
244.In availing of early retirement, one must have rendered continuous service of-
a. 10 years
c. 15 years
b. 20 years
d. 25 years
245.What is the length of service before a PNP member would be qualified for optional retirement?
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 15 years
d. 20 years
246.A promotion by virtue of exhibited act of courage and extra-ordinary gallantry beyond the call of duty is
called-
a. Regular
b. Permanent
c. Temporary
d. Meritorious
247.Refers to a location where the search, which is duly authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent
a. Clear Zone
b. Public Place
248.It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot or in a vehicle, based on reasonable
suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of determining the individual’s identity and resolving the
officer’s suspicion concerning criminal activity.
a. Frisking
b. Search
c. Spot Check
d. Pat-down Search
249.A promotion granted to PNP personnel who dies while in the performance of duty is called-
a. Regular
b. Posthumous
c. Temporary
d. None of them
250. Under the lateral entry program in the PNP, a criminologist who applied and selected will have the initial
rank of -
a. Senior Inspector
b. Inspector
c. SPO4
d. Chief of Inspector
251.The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police Superintendent is vested in the-
a. Chief, PNP
b. President
c. Civil Service Commission
d. NAPOLCOM
252.When can the President extend the tenure of service of the Chief, PNP?
a. after 4 years
b. there is no successor
c. during martial law
d. national emergencies
253. What is the benefit derived by a PNP officer qualified for early retirement?
a. two ranks higher
b. one rank higher
c. his present rank
d. one year gratuity
254. Who shall attest the appointment of PNP officers?
b. Congress
c. Commission of Appointment
d. NAPOLCOM
255.Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP members who want to be promoted to-
a. SPO4
b. SPO1
c. SPO3
d. PO3
256.The 1987 Philippine Constitution provides that the State shall establish and maintain one police for which
shall be-
a. national in scope
b. civilian in scope
c. national in character
d. military in character
257.What is the meaning of PPSC?

a. Phil. Public Safety Course
b. Phil. Private Safety College
c. Phil. Public Safety College
d. Phil. Private Safety Course
258.The mandatory training required for promotion to the rank of Police Superintendent is called-
a. MNSA
b. OSEC
c. MPSA
d. Master’s Degree
259.He is the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary?
a. Capt. Henry T. Allen
b. Gen. Rafael Crame
c. Col. Lamberto Javalera
d. Capt. Columbus Piatt
260.It is an association or group of individuals with a common goal.
a. Police organization
b. Law enforcement group
c. Non-government organization
d. Organization
261.Who is the Father of Modern Policing System?
a. Edwin Sutherland
b. Emile Durkhiem
c. Sir Robert Peel
d. Leonard Keeler
262..Who is the first Chief of Police of Manila?
a. Capt. George Curry
b. Capt. Henry Allen
c. Capt. Columbus Piatt
d. Capt. Howard Taft
263.Rape punished under RPC is crime against _____.
a. chastity
b. passion
c. person
d. mankind
264.What is given to a PNP member for every 5 years of satisfactory service rendered?
a. promotion
b. longevity pay
c. additional allowance
d. retirement benefits
265.What is the lowest administrative penalty?
a. reprimand
b. admonition
c. restriction
d. forfeiture of pay
266..Citizen’s complaint may be brought before the Chief of Police, City or Municipal Mayors and _______.
a. Chief, PNP
b. Provincial Director
c. Regional Director
d. PLEB
267.Decision the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where the penalty is dismissal, demotion and forced
resignation may be appealed before this body.
a. Regional Appellate Board
b. Office of the President
c. National Appellate Board
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
268.. Which of the following composed the PNP?
a. members of the INP
b. members of the PC
c. members of the PNP
269.What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff?
a. Deputy Director General
b. Police Director
c. Police Chief Superintendent
d. Police Senior Superintendent
270.The kind of promotion granted to a candidate who meets all the basic qualification for promotion is termed-
a. special
b. meritorious
c. regular
d. ordinary
271.It is the mandatory training course for SPO4 before they can be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector.
a. Officer’s Basic Course
b. Officer’s Advance Course
c. Officer’s Candidate Course
d. Senior Leadership Course
272.How many Staff Directorates are there in the PNP National Office (NHQ-PNP)?
a. eleven
b. ten
c. nine
d. twelve
273.Generally, PNP promotions are subject to the confirmation of the:
b. NAPOLCOM
c. Commission on Appointment
d. President of the Phil.
274.The number 4 man in the PNP organization is the -
a. Dep. Dir. Gen for Opns
b. Dep. Dir Gen for Adm
c. The Chief Directorial Staff
d. Regional Director of the NCR
275. The National Appellate Board Office of the NAPOLCOM is located in what city?
a. Quezon City
b. City Of Manila
c. Mandaluyong City
d. Makati City
276.Police Senior Superintendents are appointed by-
a. Chief, PNP
b. Secretary, DILG
c. President of the Phil.
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
277.The law that merges the police and Philippine Constabulary into the PC-INP is-
a. R.A. 7659
b. R.A. 6975
c. R.A. 8551
d. P.D. 765
278. How many deputies do the PNP organization consist?
a. one
b. three
c. two
d. four
279.How many police Regional Offices (PRO) are there in the PNP Organization?
a. fourteen
b. sixteen
c. Fifteen
d. Seventeen
280.The Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is done how many times per year?
a. once
b. thrice
c. twice
d. four
281.MNSA or Master’s in National Security Administration is offered and administered by an institution
known as-
a. PPSC
b. NAPOLCOM
c. National Defense Office
d. National Defense College
282. The mandatory training course needed to be promoted to SPO1 and SPO2 is called-
a. Police Basic Course
b. Junior Leadership Course
c. Senior Leadership Course
d. Officers Candidate Course
283. The administrative support unit in charge of delivering the necessary supplies and materials to all PNP
units in the field is called-
a.Finance Service
b.Logistics Support Service
c.Computer Service
d.Communications & Electronics Svc
284.The highest ranking Police Non-Commissioned Officer is-
a. SPO2
b. SPO4
c. SPO3
d. Inspector
285.How many stars are there in the rank of Police Director?
a. one
b. three
c. two
d. four
286.The Republic Act that is also known as the DILG Act of 1990 that established the PNP under the DILG is-
c. Republic Act 8551
d. Presidential Decree 765
287. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director General of the Philippine National Police
(PNP)?
a. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
b. Gen. Raul Imperial
c. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
d. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
288.The primary objective of Philippine National Police:
a. Law Enforcement
b. Peace and Order
c. Protect and Serve
d. Crime Prevention
289.The national headquarters of the PNP is located in Quezon City. It was named after the 1 st Filipino Chief of
the Philippine Constabulary.
a. Rafael Palma
b. Cesar Nazareno
c. Rafael Crame
d. Emilio Aguinaldo
290.Richard Alden joined the PNP in 1996. He was 30 years old then. What year can Alden retire?
a. 2017
b. 2031
c. 2032
d. 2022
291.The Role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression of insurgency and serious treats to national
security?
a. The AFP operating through the area commander is the one primarily responsible on matters
involving insurgency and other serious treats to national security.
b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards insurgency and other serious treats to national
security.
c. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP in insurgency-affected areas.
d. All of the choices
292. The procedure which is intended to be used in situations of all kinds and outlined as guide and by men in
the field operations relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and investigation refers to
a. Field Procedure
b. Time Specific plan
c. Problem oriented plan
d. Headquarters procedure
293.The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period ______?
a. Not exceeding four years.
b. Not exceeding five years.
c. Not exceeding six years.
d. Not exceeding three years.
294. The law that empowered the police commission to conduct entrance and promotional examination for
police members refers to:
a. RA 6040
b. RA 157
c. RA 5487
d. PD 765
295.The theory of police service which states those police officers are servants of the people or the community
refers to:
a. Old
b. Home rule
c. Modern
d. Continental
296. Dr. WWW is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the Philippine National Police. What would be his
initial rank upon entry?
a. Senior Inspector
b. Chief Inspector
c. Inspector
d. none of the choices
297.The following are functions in a police organization, EXCEPT:
a. primary functions
b. administrative functions
c. secondary functions
d. auxiliary functions
298.If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of
the Patrol officer is:
a. Conduct a complete search.
b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
c. No further search may be made.
d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
299.He is known as the father of modern policing system?
a. August Vollmer
b. Robert Peel
c. Oliver Cromwell
d. Cesare Lombroso
300. When responding to call for police assistance due to planted or found explosives, what immediate
actions should the patrol officer will do?
a. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
b.Dispose the item immediately to avoid further injury to happen.
c.Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive Ordinance Disposal Team.
d.Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper procedure to be followed, after investigating the item.
301.. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed Forces of the Philippines. What is his equivalent
rank in the PNP?
a. Inspector
b. Chief Inspector
c. Senior Inspector
d. Superintendent
302.How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in the PNP?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4
303.The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
a. Four star general
b. Director
d. Director General (PNP)
304.What is the minimum police-to-population ratio?
a. 1:1000
b. 1:1500
c. 1:500
d. 1:7
305.. The fourth man in command of the PNP is the __________.
a. DDG for operation
b. Chief, Directorial Staff
c. DDG for administration
d. Chief, PNP
306.. Which of the following is NOT included in the powers and function of the PNP?
a. enforce all laws and ordinances
b. maintain peace and order
c. investigate and prevent crimes
d. prosecute criminal offenders
307.The word “police” was derived from the Greek word _______, which means government of the city.
a. politia
b. Polis
c. politeia
d. Policy
308.. It is defined as the determination in advance of how the objectives of the organization will be attained.
a. planning
b. Advancement
c. police planning d. Development
309.. It is the premier educational institution for the training, human resource development and continuing
education of all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP.
a. PPSC
b. RTS
c. PNPA
d. NPC
310.. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the police officers.
a. IAS
b. PNP
c. PLEB
d. NAPOLCOM
311.. The provincial governor shall choose the provincial director from a list of _____ eligible’s recommended
by the PNP regional director:
a. six
b. Five
c. Three
d. four
312.. The deployment of officers in a given community, area or locality to prevent and deter criminal activity
and to provide day-to-day services to the community.
a. Patrol
b. Beat Patrol
c. Line Patrol
d. Area Patrol
313.The head of the IAS shall have a designation of ____________?

a. Director General
b. Solicitor General
c. Inspector General
d. IAS General
314.As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be how many PLEB for every 500 police personnel?
a. one (1)
b. more than one
c. at least one
d. less than one
315. If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the immediate things to do when accident occur?
a. Cordon the area
b. Go away and call your superior
c. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
d. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
316.Detective Beat System is one of the concrete responses of the PNP in reinventing the field of investigation.
Who is the NCRPO Chief who introduces this DBS?
a. Dir. Alma Jose
b. Dir. Romeo Pena
c. Dir. Sonny Razon
d. Dir. Rene Sarmiento
317.All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected
members of the community
b. Any barangay captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of
barangay captains
c. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod
d. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
318.Two or more persons forming an organization must identify first the reason for establishing such
organization. They must identify the organization’s _________:
a. strategy
b.mission
c.vision
d. objective
319.To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
a. establish objectives and standards
b. count the number of supervisors
c. require completed work
d. define authority and responsibility
320.The number of subordinates that can be supervised directly by one person tends to:
a. Increase as the physical distance between supervisor and subordinate as well as between individual
subordinate increases
b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and experience of the subordinate
c. Increase as the level of supervision progresses for the first line supervisory level to the management
level
d. All of the above
321.This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions through unity of command from top to bottom of
organization:
a. Audit
b. Coordination
c. Monitoring
d. Authority
322.. Which of the following statements is true:
a.Performance evaluation measures credibility of the police
b.Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary increases or promotion
c.Performance evaluation is done once a year among police personnel
d.Performance evaluation is implemented to determine the quality of work performance of personnel
323.The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for _______:
a. Administrative control
b. Operational supervision
c. Administration and control
d. Policy and program coordination
324.SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same supervisor. This is the principle of __________:
a. delegation of authority
b. span of control
c. unity of command
d. chain of command
325.The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director General of the PNP is;
a. 4 years
b. 56 years
c. 5 years
d. 21 years
326. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?

a. standard operation procedures
b. special operation procedures
c. standard operating procedures
d. special operating procedures
327.The following are the characteristics of a good plan, except:
a. Flexibility
b. specific
c. Clear
d. expensive
328. If the annual quota for the year 2019 is 2,200. How many of the annual quota is allocated for women?
a.10%
b.120
c.20%
d.220
329.Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be waived in the following order:
a. age, height, weight & education
b. age, weight, height & education
c. height, education, weight & age
d. in any order
330. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis provided by law.
a. attrition
b. separation
c. romotion
d. Retirement
331.The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not be less than twenty-one (21) years of age. The
Maximum age requirement for PNP applicants using the lateral entry program is ____.
a. 35 years old
b. 25 years old
c. 30 years old
d. 31 years old
332.A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members is required for permanency of their appointment.
Who among the following is exempted to undergo the Field Training Program and issued a permanent
appointment?
a. Pastor JJJ, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
b. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
c. RRR, A PNPA graduate who is appointed Inspector after graduation.
d. SSS a Licensed Criminologist and First Place in the Examination.
333.Planning as a management function is tobe done in the various levels of PNP Organization. Broad policy
based from laws
directives, policies and needs in general is the responsibility of:
a. Directorate for Plans
b. President of the Philippines
c. Chief, PNP
d. Dep. Dir. For Administration
334. What is the rank equivalent of PNPDeputy Director General in the Armed Forces of the
Philippines?
a. Lt. General
b. Major General
c. Brigade General
d. General
335.Police Inspector Kkk joined the Philippine National Police on October 4, 1988.Nevertheless, he want to pursue his
career as embalmer, he decided to file an optional retirement so that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP
which he served with extreme commitment and loyalty. When does KKK can retire?
a. October 5, 1998
b. October 6, 1999
c. September 5, 2010
d. September 5, 2008
336. Which of the following administrative penalties is immediately executory?
a. Dismissal
b. Forfeiture of pay
c. Suspension
d. Death penalty
337. It is the third in command in the Philippine National Police:
a. Regional Director
b. Chief Directorial Staff
c. DeputyChief for Administrationd.
d. Deputy Chief for Operation
338.The head of the National Capital Regional Police Office shall assume the position of NCR director with the rank
of:
a. Chief Superintendent
b. Director
c. Superintendent
d. General
339.Under the waiver program, who among the following PNP applicants is the least priority for appointment?
a. maine who just earned 72 units in college b. Paloma who is under height
c. Jauquinwho is underweight
d. Alden who is overage
340. . Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known
as____________.
a.Department of Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
b.Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
c.Department of Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990
d.Department of the Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990
341.Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall be appealed to the__________:
a. Regional Appellate Board
b. National Appellate Board
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board d. National Police Commission
342.. It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966.
a. R.A. 4864
b. R.A. 8551
c. Act 175
d. PD 765
343.__________ is given to any PNP member who has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of
his life above and beyond the call of duty.
A. Meritorious Promotion B. Special Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
344.PNP members under the waiver program but is dismissed for failure to comply with the requirements can
re-apply to the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes
B.Maybe No
C..Absolutely Yes
D.Absolutely No
345..The reason why police officer appears in court as a witness has to be in complete uniform is to show his
respect to the court and to his:
A.Position/Rank
B.Superior
C.Profession
D.Comrades
346..Which among the following is NOT subjected to field Operational Plans?
A.Patrol
B.Records
C.Investigation D. Traffic
347.Which of the following statement is not true about patrol?
A.It is the backbone of the police department
B.It is the essence of police operation
C.It is the single largest unit in the police department that can be eliminated
D.It is the nucleus of the police department
E.It is the operational heart of the police department
348.The performance evaluation system in the PNP is conducted:
A.thrice a year
B. Every 6 months
C.Every 2 years
D. Quarterly
349.A PNP member who acquired permanent physical disability in the performance of his dutyand unable to
further perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime pension equivalent to:
A50% of his last salary B. 70% of his last salary
C.60% of his last salary D. 80% of his last salary
350. How many successive annual ratingperiods before a police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or
poor performance?
A.2 B.4
C.3
D.1
351.How many cumulative annual ratingperiods before a police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or
poor performance?
A.2 B.4
C.3 D.1
352.In this theory, management assumes employees may be ambitious and self-motivated and exercise self-
control. It is believed that employees enjoy their mental and physical work duties.
A.Hawthorne Effect B.Stockholm Syndrome
C.X theory D.Y theory
353..The theory X and Y is a human motivation created by?
A.Edward H. Sutherland
B.C. Edwin Hawthorne
C.Henry A. Landsberger
D.Douglas McGregor
354.In this theory, which has been proven counter-effective in most modern practice, management assumes
employees are inherently lazy and will avoid work if they can and that they inherently dislike work. As a
result of this, management believes that workers need to be closely supervised and comprehensive systems
of controls developed.
A.Hawthorne Effect B.Stockholm Syndrome
C.X theory
D.Y theory
355.This kind of organizational structure classifies people according to the function they perform in their
professional life or according to the functions performed by them in the organization.
A.Functional Structure B.Line and Staff Structure
C.Line Structure D.Divisional Structure
356.If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding 30 days but not less than 16 days, the citizen’s
complaint against erring PNP member shall be filed at the
A.Office of the chief of police
B.PLEB
C.Mayor’s Office
D. any of the choices
357.Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in
case of 20 years active service
A.50%
B.10%
C.2.5%
D.55%
358.This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as drug crackdown, crime prevention program, or
neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the objective is accomplished or the problem is solved
A.Strategic plan
B.Time Specific plan
C.Problem oriented plan
D.time bound operational plan
359.This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on routine and field operations and some special
operations
A.Strategic plan
B.Time Specific plan
C.Problem oriented plan
D. policy or procedural plan
360. The head of the NCR shall have the rank of_____?
A.Superintendent B. Director
C.Senior Superintendent
D. Chief Superintendent
361.The institution of a criminal action or complaint against a police officer is
A.A ground for dismissal
B.Not qualified for promotion
C.Automatically dismiss D.Not a bar to promotion
362. Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and
properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals
and bringing the offenders to justice
A.Deployment
B.Reinforcement
C.Reintegration
D.Employment
363.What is the first step in making a plan?
A.Frame of reference
B.Analyzing the Facts
C.Collecting all pertinent data D.Identification of the problems
364.It identify the role of police in the community and future condition in state
A.Visionary Plans
B.Strategic Plans
C.Synoptic Planning D.Incremental Planning
365.Is that field of management which involves planning, and controlling the efforts of a group of individuals
toward achieving a common goal with maximum dispatch and minimum use of administrative resources.
A.Human Resources
B.Personnel Management
C.Human Management
D.Personnel Administration
366. Is the process of developing methods or procedure or an arrangement of parts intended to facilitate the
accomplishment of a definite objective.
A.Management
B.Functioning
C.Budgeting D.Planning
367.Are guidelines for action to be taken under specific circumstances and details with the following
procedures.
A.Field Procedures B.Procedural plan
C.Operational Plans D.Functional plan
368.Which of the following is not a function of police personnel unit?

A.Preparing policy statements and standard operating Procedures relating to all areas of the administration
of human resources
B.Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line officials regarding personnel matters
C.Conducts exits interviews with resigning officers to identify, and subsequently correct, unsatisfactory
working conditions
D. Establish criteria for promotion to the exclusive ranks
369.It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating undesirable applicants that do not meet the
organization’s selection criteria
A. Promotion Recruitment
B.Transfer Selection
C.Recruitment
D.Selection
370.It is recognized as the best method of filing
A.Pigeon Hole
B.retrieval operation
C.Records Management
D.chain of custody
371.It is considered to be the heart of any identification system; it provides positive identification of the
criminal
A.Arrest and booking report B.Miscellaneous Records
C.Identification record
D.Fingerprint Records
372.The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly salary and allowances for the heirs is for a
maximum of how many year?
A.1 year
B. 2 months
C. 4 years D.2 years
373..In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of hours of classroom training should be required
for newly promoted supervisory personnel
A.72 hours
B.80 hours
C.75 hours
D.85 hours
374.It should be proactive, people oriented, based on individual need, and delivered in such a way as to
motivate the experienced officer Higher dgreee of professionalism/
Professionalization.
A.Recruit Training B.Specialized training
C.In Service
D.Field Training
375. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing the entire mandatory and other consideration in
promotion, is what kind of promotion?
A.Promotion by Virtue of Position
B. Regular Promotion
C.Meritorious Promotion
D. Promotion
376..It involves assistance and action by non police agencies such as Local Safety Council for Traffic Division,
DSWD for Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness plans and Civil defense plans
A.Management Plans
B.Procedural plan
C.Tactical Plans
D. Extra departmental plan
377.Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and ribbon, which constitute the tangible evidence of an
award:
A.Medal B. Awards
C.Decorations D.Ribbons
378.For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP member:
A.Six B. Four
C.Five D. Three
379.Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction, domination, or excessive use of authority:
A.Misconduct B. Dishonesty
C.Incompetency D. Oppression
380. The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as a mobile strike force or reaction unit to augment
police forces for civil disturbance control, counter-insurgency, hostage taking, rescue operations and other
special operations:
A.NARCOM B. SAF
C.SWAT
D. SOCO
381.The organizational structure of the PNP is __________.
A.Line
B. functional
C.staff
D. line and staff
382.As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge of
lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the total
number of security guards.
A.50% B. 20%
C.30% D. 10%
383.The vault door should be made of steel at least __________ in thickness?
A.7 inches
B. 9 inches
C.6 inches
D. 20 feet or more
384.An act or condition, which results in a situation conducive to a breach of the protection system, or that,
could result to loss.
A.Hazards
B. Environmental Hazards
C.Natural Hazards
D. Security Hazards
385.An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, integrity, morals and loyalty of an individual in order
to determines person suitability for appointment or access to classified matter.
A.Character Investigation
B.Physical Investigation
C.Background Investigation
D. Personnel Security Investigation
386.The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the national economy security
A.Relative vulnerability
B. Relative program
C.Relative criticality
D. Relative security
387.Private security agencies have to be registered with the:
A.SEC
B.DTI
C.PADPAO
D. PNP, SAGSD
388.To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility what must be constructed.
A.Full view fence
B. Chain link fence
C. Solid fence
D. Multiple fences
389.A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of money or cash outside his area of jurisdiction
shall be issued with a-
A.Firearms
B. Mission Order
C.Duty Detail Order
D. None of These
390. What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?
A. 150 Hours
B. 72 Hours
C. 48 Hours
D. 300 Hours
391.All except one are the line leadership staff:
A.Detachment Commander
B.Post-in-Charge
C.Chief Inspector
D.Security Supervisor 1
392.Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an
equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than ___ high excluding the top guard.
A.8 feet
B.7 feet
C.9 feet
D. 6 feet
393. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license issued to security guards.
A. Any of the choices
B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
C. Secretary, DILG
D. C/PNP
394.What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?

A. Photoelectric
B. Metallic foil
C. Audio detection
D. Microwave Detection
395.Is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with establishment security
policies and procedures?
A. Security Education
B. Security Survey
C. Security Planning
D. Security Inspection
396. Is a corporate and executive responsibility, involving the knowledge of the objectives of the security and
the means and the method to reach these objective or goal must then involve.
A. Security Inspection B. Security Hazards C.
Security Planning
D. Security Survey
397.A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to prevent entry into a building, room
container, or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of items without the consent of the owner
A .Padlocks B. Locks
C. Code Operated
D. Lever Locks
398.A type of protective alarm system where the central station located outside the installation. When the alarm
is sounded, it will notifies the police and other agency
A. Local Alarm system

B. Auxiliary System
C. Central Station System
D. Proprietary
399.It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may activate the alarm by placing the front of their
foot to engage the activation bar
A. Bill traps
B. Foot Rail Activator
C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
D. Foot buttons
400.These are wide beam units, used to extend the illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow, horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the
vertical plane
A. Fresnel Lights
B. Street Lights
C. Floodlights
D.Search lights
401.What is the required capital investment for organization of private security agency?
A. P 500,000
B. B. P 100,000
C. P 1,000,000
D. P 50,000
402.One who steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all types of items or supplies for economic
gain?
A. Normal Pilferer
B. Regular Pilferer
C. Casual Pilferer
D. Systematic pilferer
403.The metallic container used for securing documents or small items in an office or installation refers to:
A. Safe
B. Vault
C. File room
D. None of these
404.Chain link fences must be constructed in______ material excluding the top guard?
a. Seven feet
b. Six feet
c. Four feet
d. Five feet
405. The following things are used as barrier, which serves as a deterrent to the possible intruder in an
Industrial Complex, EXCEPT:
a. Human
b. Fences
c. Doors
d. Concertina
406.Vaults are storage devices which are usually designed to be at least _______fire resistant.
a. 3 hours
b. 24hours
c. 6hours
d. 12 hours
407. A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is operated by
utilizing combinations by means of a dial.
a. Lever locks
b. Combination lock
c. Padlock
d. Code operated locks
408.The maximum number of firearms allowed to possess by a PSA should not exceed by___ units.
a. 30
b. 70
c. 500
d. 1000
409.What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green color?
a. Sodium vapor lamp
b. Incandescent lamp
c. Mercury vapor lamp
d. Quartz lamp
410..What type of security deals with the industrial plants and business enterprises where personnel, processes,
properties and operations are safeguarded?
a. Personnel security
b. industrial security
c. Physical security
d. bank security
411.The following are principles of Physical Security, EXCEPT:
a. There is impenetrable Barrier.
b.Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
c.Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
d.Intelligence requires continuous security measures.
412.. The susceptibility of a plant or establishment to damage, loss or disruption of operations due to various
hazards.
a. Relative vulnerability
b. Relative criticality
c. Relative susceptibility
d. Relative security
413.Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible authority that the person described is cleared to access
and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the
date of issuance.
a. 1 year
b. 4 years
c. 2 years
d. 5 years
414.The tenure of a security guard is:

a. Six Months
b. Co-terminus with the service contract
c. Two years
d. Contractual
415.Which among the following is not an advantage of a full-view fence, except:
a.It allows visual access to the installation which aids the intruder in planning.
b.It allows the intruder to become familiar with
.the movements of persons in the installation
c.It creates shadows which could prevent concealment of the intruder.
d.None of these
416..Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety bond which shall answer for any valid and legal claims
against such agency filed by aggrieved party. How much is the Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
a. 50, 000
b. 100, 000
c. 150, 000
d. 200,00
417.What type of investigation involves all aspect and details about the circumstances of a person?
a. partial background investigation
b. completebackground investigation
c. personnel security investigation
d. national agency check
418.The exposure and the teaching of employees on security and its relevance to their work is:
a.Security Inspection
b.Security Education
c.Security Orientation
d.Security Survey
419.A type of security which provides sufficient illumination to areas during hours of darkness
a. Protective Lighting
b. Fresnel Lights
c. Search Lights
d. Street Lights
420.Type of alarm system which is usually activated by the interruption of the light beam is known as:
a. Metallic foil
b. Electric eye device
c. Audio alarm
d. Microwave alarm
421.What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas where insects predominate?
a. Mercury vapor lamp
b. Quartz lamp
c. Sodium vapor Lamp
d. Gaseous Discharge Lamp
422.What is an act governing the organization and management of private security agency, company guard
force and government security forces?
a. RA 8574
b. RA 5478
c. RA 4587
d. RA 5487
423.Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or concertina. Chain link are for ______.
a. Solid structure
b. Least permanent structure
c. Permanent structure
d. Semi- permanent structure
424.If a fire in a warehouse is about to involve barrels of bleaching powder, the greatest danger would be from:
a. fast-burning flare-up that could not be controlled
b. an explosion
c. the impossibility of using water on the fire
d. a toxic and irritant gas
425.Which of the following is not included in the patrol function?
a. Response to citizen calls
b. Investigation of crimes
c. Routine preventive patrol
d. Inspection of identified hazards
426.Disaster preparedness and control plans should include _______ so that people who are directly involved
know the extent of the incident.
a. evacuation services
b. identification services
c. counseling services
d. public information services
427.An intelligence report classified as A-2 means__________.
a.the information comes from a completely reliable source and is doubtfully true
b.the information comes from a completely reliable source and is probably true
c.the information comes from a usually reliable source and is and is probably true.
d.the information comes from a usually reliable source and is possibly true
428.It ensures the question “what is to be accomplish by the plan?”
a. objectives
b. planning assumptions
c. problems
d. planning environment
429.The Neighborhood Team Policing exhibit the following organizational features, EXCEPT:
a. Unified delivery of services
b. Low-level flexibility in decision-making
c. Combined investigation and patrol functions
d. Unity of direction
430.Patrol Officers are useful in crime solution if they are properly trained in criminal investigation. Which of
the following cannot be undertaken by them?
a. He can locate and question the suspect if he apprehends him.
b. He can identify available evidences.
c. He can take note of statements of the suspect.
d. He can issue the treasury checks to fellow policemen.
431.It is a physical security applied to business groups engaged in industries, like manufacturing, assembling,
research and development, processing, warehousing and even agriculture.
a. operational security
d. special types
432.It is the broadest branch of security which is concerned with the physical measures to prevent unauthorized
access.
a. operational security
d. special types
433.Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe operation of the facility caused by human action, accidental or
intentional.
a. security hazards
b. man-made hazard
c. natural hazard
d. all of the above
434.Are those caused by natural phenomena which caused damage, disturbance and problems of the normal
functioning of human activities, including security.
a. security hazards
b. man-made hazard
c. natural hazard
d. all of the above
435.A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security, with the
corresponding recommendation is:
a. security inspection
b. security education
c. security training
d. security survey
436.What unit of PNP handles the processing and issuances of license for private security personnel?
a. PNP SOSIA
b. PNP FED
c. PADPAO
d. PNP SAGSD
437.What is the most common type of human hazard?
a. Sabotage
b. Pilferage
c. Theft
d. Subversion
438.What is the security force maintained and operated by any private company/ corporation for its own
security requirements?
a. GSU
b. CSF
c. PSA
d. PD
439.What type of controlled area requires highest degree of security?
a. Limited
b. Restricted
c. Special
d. Exclusive
440.What lock requires manipulation of parts according to a predetermined combination code of numbers?
a. Card- operated lock
b. Combination lock
c. Electromagnetic lock
d. Card Operated
441..What type of lamp emits bright white light?

a. Sodium vapor lamp
b. Mercury vapor lamp
c. Incandescent lamp
d. Quartz lamp
442.. What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder while the guard remains in the comparative
darkness?
a. Controlled lighting
b. Fresnel light
c. Emergency lighting
d. Glare- projection
443. One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is that the distances between strands will not exceed
_______and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and midway between posts.
a. 3 inches
b. 6 inches
c. 4 inches
d. 7 inches
444. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance container usually a part of the building structure use to
keep, and protect cash, documents and valuables materials.
a. Vault
b. Safe Room
c. file
d. None of these
445.Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of Duty, what shall he do with his Firearm?
a. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the company’s Vault.

b. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
c. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
d. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the guards table.
446. Any physical structure whether natural or man-made capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal or
unauthorized access.
a. Perimeter Fences
b. Wire Fences
c. Moveable Barrier
d. Barrier
447. A company owned protective alarm with unit in a nearest police station of fire department.
a. A. Proprietary Alarm
b. Auxiliary Alarm
c. Central Alarm
d. Security Alarm
448.It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused light rather than direction beam. They are widely used in
parking areas
a. Street Lights
b. Search Lights
c. Flood Lights
d. Fresnel Lights
449. A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp which passes through a staple ring or the like and is
then made fast or secured.
a. Lock
b. Padlock
c. Code Operated
d. Card Operated
450. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in temperature will not cause the safe to rupture. If the
safe can withstand 2000
0
F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it has passed the test.
a. Fire Endurance Test
b. Fire and Impact Test
c. Burning Test
d. Explain Hazard Test
451.How is one classified if he steals primarily because of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and
little chance of detection?
a. Systematic pilferer
b. Ordinary pilferer
c. Casual pilferer
d. Unusual pilferer
452.Psychology of Omnipresence means______.
a. Low Visibility
b. High Visibility
c. Reactive
d. Proactive
453.Its purpose is to provide the organizational and operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms
toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of PNP investigational capability.
a. Detective Beat Patrol
b. Integrated Patrol System
c. Community Oriented Policing System
d. Team Policing
454. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching the end of the line beat, and before returning to the
point of origin.
a. Patrol Report
b.Situation Report
c.Investigation Report
d.Incident Report
455.The ideal police response time is:

a. 3 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 7 minutes
d. 10 minutes
456. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition possessing a high potential for criminal attack or for the
creation of problem necessitating a demand for immediate police service:
a. Hazard
b. Opportunity
c. Perception of Hazard
d. Police Hazard
457.The most expensive patrol method and gives the greatest opportunity to develop sources of information is:
a. Foot Patrol
b. Marine Patrol
c. Mobile Patrol
d. Helicopter Patrol
458.Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in patrol which makes the policemen less visible during
the night. The primary purpose is:
a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a crime
b. To have sufficient cover
c. To attract less attention
d. For safety of the Patrol officer
459.The following are included in the cause and effect of team policing.
a. Reduce public fear on crime;
b. lessen the crime rate;
c. Facilitate career development;
d. Diminish police morale; and
e. Improve police community relation.
a. a, b, e
b. c. a, b, d, e
c.a, c, d, e
d. d. a, b, c, e
460.This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers perform
specific predetermined preventive functions on a planned systematic basis:
a. Target Oriented Patrol
b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol
d. Directed deterrent Patrol
461.Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be best penetrated by the police through.
a. Foot patrol
b. Bicycle patrol
c. Mobile patrol
d. Helicopter patrol
462.Integrated patrol system is the total system used to accomplish the police visibility program of the PNP.
The Police officers in Police Community Precincts render 24 hours duty with prescribed divisions of:
a. 2 shifts
b. 4 shifts
c. 3 shifts
d. every other day shift.
463.The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally prevent the desire of human being to commit crime.
a. Preventive
b. Proactive
c. Reactive
d. High Visibility
464.Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ________________ since they can be operated very quietly
and without attracting attention.
a. Mobility and wide area coverage.
b. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
c. Shorter travel time and faster response.
d. Mobility and stealth
465.What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San Juanico Bridge?
a. Foot Patrol
b. K-9 Patrol
c. Automobile Patrol
d. Bicycle Patrol
466.When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the Philippines and the First Chief of the Mobile patrol
bureau of Manila Police Department was Isaias Alma Jose?
a. May 7, 1954
b. May 17, 1954
c. May 14, 1957
d. March 10, 1917
467.As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious persons, places, buildings/ establishments and vehicles
especially during night-time, be prepared to use your service firearm and Flashlight should be-
a. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a possible target.
b. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a possible target.
c. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible adversary.
a. None of these
468.What is your priority as a Patrol officer when responding to Calls for Police Assistance?
a. Arrest criminals
b. Securing the area
c. Aiding the injured
d. Extort Money
469.When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during pat-down search, a more secure search position may
be:
a. Standing position
b. Lying Face down Position
c. Hands placed against a stationary object, and feet spread apart.
d. All of these
470.A uniformed patrol officers work in generally judged by his-
a. Knowledge of all problems in the community
b. Residents developed good public relations
c. Ability to keep his post free from crimes and minor offenses
d. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his area
471.Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies?

a. True
b. False
c. Absolutely Yes
d. Absolutely No
472.This patrol tactic is designed to increase the number of apprehension of law violator to engage in certain
types of crimes:
a. Preventive Patrol
d. Proactive Patrol
473.Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol?
a. It is the backbone of the police department
b. It is the essence of police operation
c. It is the nucleus of the police department
d.It is the single largest unit in the police Department that can be eliminated
474.It is an immediate response to block the escape of lawless elements from a crime scene, and is also
established when nearby checkpoints are ignored or during hot pursuit operations. It is set up by police
personnel conducting mobile patrol on board a marked police vehicle, or those conducting ISO and foot
patrol operations within the vicinity/periphery of the national or provincial highways.
a. Dragnet Operation
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest
d. High Risk Stop
475.The following are patrol activities, except:

A. Arrest of alleged criminals
B. Responding to emergency calls
C. Inspection services
D. Preparation of investigation reports
476.This type of patrol maintains better personal contact with the members of the community ideal in gaining
the trust and confidence of the people to the police:
A. Horse Patrol
B. Bicycle Patrol
C. Automobile Patrol
D. Foot Patrol
477.The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the
area of responsibility of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
B. Zigzag pattern
C. Counter clockwise pattern
D. Crisscross pattern
478.The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol. EXCEPT:

a. It involves larger number of personnel
b. It develops greater contact with the public
c. It insures familiarization of area
d. It promotes easier detection of crime
479.Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as well as in smelling out drugs and bombs. What do you
call the large dog with drooping ears and sagging jaws and keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for
tracking purposes?
a. German shepherd
b. Bloodhounds
c. Doberman pinscher
d. Black Labrador Retrievers
480.The best method of patrol to be done in sector is:

a. Foot
b. Automobile
c. Bicycle
d. Helicopter
481.A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in terms of number of:

a. Superiors to whom he reports
b. Superiors from whom he takes orders
c. Subordinates directly reporting to him
d. Any of these
482.Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from becoming _______ with people, hazards, and facilities
on his beat.
a. Well Acquainted
b. Sluggish
c. Energetic
d. Unfamiliar
483.The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise and before the counter-clockwise?
a. Straightway
b. Crisscross
c. Sector
d. Zigzag
484.The two-man patrol became_________ due to increase attack of police officer by militant, dangerous
section to be patrolled and many riots demonstration in the street.
a. Unnecessary
b. Necessary
c. Voluntary
d. Redundant
485.A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in the maintenance of peace
and order by police officers.
a. Integrated Police System
b. Comparative Police System
c. Detective Beat System
d. Community Oriented Policing System
486.Which among the following routine patrol duties, is the least likely to become completely a function of
automobile patrol is the checking of-
a. Security of business establishment.
b. Street light outrages.
c. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
d.llegalposting of signs and other advertisement.
487.It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen in areas where police hazards are serious is that, it
usually-
a. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
b. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges.
c. Wasteful of manpower.
d. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick mobilization is needed.
488.Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the-
a. Opportunity for graft.
b. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the law.
c. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
d. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized squads.
489.Team Policing is said to be originated in________:

a. Aberdeen, Scotland
b. Lyons, France
c. Vienna. Austria
d. London, England
490.They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for patrolling:

a. Egyptians
b. English
c. Chinese
d. American
491.The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to in order to catch criminals is known as:
a. High visibility patrol
b. Blending patrol
c. Low visibility patrol
d. Decoy patrol
492.A wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 14 h floor building. Which of the following should be the first
thing to do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at the scene?
a. Urge no to jump
b. Call nearest relative
c. Clear the area
d. Report immediately to Station
493.What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle patrol over the other patrol methods?
A. Low cost
B.Visibility
C. Speed
D. Security
494.The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively implemented by police activity which-
a. Provides for many types of specialized patrol, with less emphasis on routine.
b.Minimize the prospective lawbreaker aspiration to commit crime.
c.Influences favorable individual and group attitudes in routine daily associations with the police.
d. Intensifies the potential offender’s expectation of apprehension.
495.What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and community interests into a
working relationship so as to produce the desired organizational objectives of peacemaking?
a. Preventive patrol
b. Directed Patrol
c. Community Relation
d. Team policing
496.What is the appropriate patrol method that is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue
operations?
a. Motorcycle
b. Automobile
c. Helicopter
d. Horse
497.If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of
the Patrol officer is:
a.Conduct a complete search.
b.The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
c. No further search may be made. d.Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
498.During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when demonstrators become unruly and aggressive
forcing troops to fall back to their secondary positions?
a. Tear Gas
b. Water Cannon
c. Truncheon
d. Shield
499.Going left while patrolling upon reaching every intersection until reaching the point of origin is following
what pattern?
a. Clockwise
b. Zigzag
c. Counter clockwise
d. Crisscross
500.All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol:
a. Can report regularly to the command center.
b. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention.
c. It is inexpensive to operate .
d. It can cover areas that are not accessible by patrol cars.
501.Its purpose is to provide the organizational and operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms
toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of PNP investigational capability.
a. Detective Beat Patrol
b. Integrated Patrol System
c. COPS-Community Oriented Policing System
d. Team Policing
502.The members of the Patrol teams shall form and assemble at the police unit
headquarters at least _______ before the start of their shift for accounting-
a. 10 minutes
b. hour
c. 30 minutes
d. 15 minutes
503.The police must make an effort to ascertain and amaze upon the law abiding citizens and would be
criminals alike that the police are always existing to respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and he
will just around the corner at all times. This statement refers to:
a. Police Omnipresence
b. Police Patrol
c. Police Discretion
d. Integrated Patrol
504.The patrol method characterized by speed and mobility and considered as lest expensive as it utilizes lesser
number of men and covers a wider area in a short period of time, while protection to patrol officers:
a. Foot patrol
b. Motorcycle Patrol
d. Helicopter patrol
505.Team members of the decoy may dress themselves in a manner designed to help them blend the
neighborhood where they are deployed.
a. Absolutely False
b. Absolutely True
c. Absolutely Yes
d. Absolutely No
506.“Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage of:
a. One Man Patrol Car
b. Two Man Patrol Car
c. Foot Patrol
d. Canine Patrol
507.The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack of activities:
a. Afternoon Shift
b. Morning Shift
c. Night Shift
d. None of these
508.It refers to a patrol strategy directed towards specific persons or places:
c. Reactive Patrol
509.This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers perform
specific predetermined preventive functions on a planned systematic basis:
510.Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of armed and dangerous person or persons, aboard a vehicle or on
foot, including the power to use all necessary and legal means to accomplish such end.
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest
d. High Risk Stop
511.Which among the following activities during post-patrol or post-deployment phase is not included?
a. Formation & Accounting
b. Debriefing/Report Submission
c. Inspection & recall of Equipment
d. Briefing
512.Police Patrols were restricted only to answering calls of service.

a. Reactive
b. High Visibility
c. Proactive
d. Low Visibility
513.The first organized patrol for policing purposes was formed in London. This patrol pattern is usually done
at the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in the area of responsibility of the patrol?
a. Straight
b. Crisscross
c. Clockwise
d. counter clockwise
514.Itis a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments of an individual for weapons only.
a. Frisking
b. Search
c. Spot Check
d. Pat-down Search
515.It is one by patrolling the streets within the perimeter of the beat not at random but with definite target
location where he knows his presence is necessary.
a. Target Oriented
b. Zigzag
c. Clockwise
d. Criss-Cross
516.Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the following are the advantages of Foot patrol, EXCEPT:
a. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action taken.

b. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable area
c. Inspire more Public confidence.
d. The officer can actually get to know the physical layout of his beat better.
517.The word Patrol was derived from the French word ________which means to go through paddles.
a. Patroulier
b. Patroul
c. Politeia
d. Politia
518.The concept of Unity of command is:

a. No one should have more than one boss.
b. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
c. Number of subordinates that a Superior can effectively supervise.
d.Conferring certain tasks, duties, and responsibilities to subordinates.
519.Which among the following Patrol Method is appropriate when responding to quick emergency call?
a. Motorcycle Patrol
b. Air Patrol
d. Foot Patrol
520.This patrol strategy is focused more on called for services

a. Reactive patrol
b. Directed deterrent patrol
c. Proactive patrol
d. Blending patrol
521.Before policemen become a dispatcher he must be_______.

a. Voice Radio Operator
b. Trained Formally
c. Licensed Dispatcher
d. Coordinator
522.Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was initiated on:

a. August 10, 1917
b. August 7, 1901
c. November 22, 1901
d. March 17, 1901
523.What should be accomplished by Patrol officers during Post-Deployment Phase?

a. Situation Report
b. Citation Report
c. Daily Patrol Report
d. Hourly Patrol Report
524.This patrol tactic would result to improvement of police omnipresence:

525.It is the most prevalent and economical method of patrol used in patrol force:
a. Foot Patrol
b. Air Patrol
d. Motorcycle Patrol
526.The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times more sensitive than human’s sense of smell?
a. One thousand times
b. One hundred times
c. Ten thousand times
d. Ten million times
527.Transfer of knowledge from one person to another through common medium and channel.
a. Information
b. Communication
c. Police Communication
d. Radio
528.Refers to a location where the search, which is duly authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent
a. Clear Zone
b. Public Place
529.It refers to a repeated circuit of in guarding, primarily to prevent the commission of crimes and maintain the
peace and order situation in a particular area:
a. Police Patrol
b. Preventive Patrol
c. Foot Patrol
d. Patrol
530.It is the primary objective of police patrol operations:
A.Crime Prevention
B.Protect and Serve
C.Law enforcement
D. All of the choices
531.Doubling the level of routine patrol is a a. patrol strategy called:
a. Reactive Patrol
b. Directed Patrol
c. Preventive Patrol
d. Proactive Patrol
532.If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident faster but undetected, then the best patrol method
that he should employ is:
a. Bicycle patrol
b. Automobile patrol
c. Motorcycle patrol
d. Foot patrol
533.In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a person that enables another to victimize him:
a. Instrumentality
b. Opportunity
c. Motive
d. Capability
534.The factors to be considered in determining the number of patrol officers to be deployed in an area are the
following, except:
a. Size of the area
b. Possible problems to be encountered
c. Topography
d. none of the choices
535.The patrol strategy which brings the police and the people together in a cooperative manner in order to
prevent crime:
a. Integrated Patrol
b. Team policing
c. Reactive patrol
d. Proactive patrol
536.The theory in patrol which states that police officers should conduct overt police operations in order to
discourage people from committing crime refers to:
a. Theory of police omnipresence
b. Low police visibility theory
c. Low profile theory
d. Maximum deterrence theory
537.The principle of patrol force organization which states that patrol officers should be under the command
of only one man refers to:
a. Span of control
b. Unity of command
c. Chain of command
d. Command responsibility
538.The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit crime as a result of patrol.

a. Crime prevention
b. Crime intervention
c. Crime suppression
d. Crime deterrence
539.The Greek word which means “government of a city” or “civil organization and the state”, which is
claimed as the origin of the word police refers to:
a. Politia
b. Policia
c. Politeia
d. Polis
540.Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary objective of patrol activity is:
a. To prevent commission of crime.
b. Integrate the police and the community
c. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
d. Visibility and Omniprescence.
541.What law provides for the creation of the National Intelligence Coordinating Agency?
a. RA 157
b. B. EO 213
c. RA 6040
d. EO 246
542.A person who breaks intercepted codes.
a. Crypto Analyst
b. Cryptographer
c. Cryptograph
d. Code breaker
543.Agent who is a member of paramilitary group organized to harass the enemy in a hot war situation.
a. Guerilla
b. Propagandist
c. Provocateur
d. Strong Arm
544.It is a type of Cover which alters the background that will correspond to the operation.
a. Multiple
b. Natural
c. Artificial
d. Unusual
545.Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Intelligence Officer can submit his information report any time since it is to processes.
b. All intelligence information’s are collected by clandestine method.
c. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a medium size police station.
d. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence information by initiating good public relations.
546. Wire-tapping operations in our country is strictly prohibited but it can be done at the commander’s
discretion since it tends to collect intelligence information.
a. Partly True
b. Partly False
c. Wholly True
d. Wholly False
547.If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful accuracy, will this information be discarded or
refused acceptance?
a. Maybe Yes
b. Yes
c. No
d. Maybe No
548.In selection and recruitment of informers the best factor to be considered is:
A.Age
B.Access
C.Educational Attainment D.Body built
549.Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible authority that the person described is cleared to access
and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the
date of issuance.
a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 2 years
d. 4 years
550.It is a process or method of obtaining information from a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge
information.
a. Interview
b. Interrogation
c. Forceful Interrogation
d. Tactical Interrogation
551.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly conversations of other people.
a. Eavesdropping
b. Bugging
c. None of these
d. Wiretapping
552.The process of extracting information from a person believes to be in possession of vital information
without his knowledge or suspicion.
a. Elicitation
b. Surveillance
c. Roping
d. Undercover Operations
553.It is a type of Agent used in collecting information who leaks false information to the enemy.
a. Double Agent
b. Expendable Agent
c. Agent of Influence
d. Penetration Agent
554.It is one of the Functional Classification of Police Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to
the prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of criminal offenders.
a. Internal Security Intelligence
b. Public Safety Intelligence
c. Criminal Intelligence
d. Preventive Intelligence
555.Intelligence is the end product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and
interpretation of all available information. What is considered as the core of intelligence operations?
a.Dissemination
b. Analysis
c. Mission
d. Planning
556.He is regarded as the "Father of Organized Military Espionage".
a. Alexander the Great
b. Frederick the Great
c. Karl Schulmeister
d. Arthur Wellesley
557.There are four categories of classified matters; top secret, secret, confidential, and restricted. To
distinguish, their folder consists of different colors. What will be the color of the document which requires
the highest degree of protection?
a. Red
b. Black
c. Blue
d. Green
558.What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the biblical indication of the beginning of Intelligence?
a. Number 13:17
b. Number 3:17
c. Number 17:13
d. Number 17:3
559.A certain locality is identified to be a major source of illicit drugs, to resolve this issue intelligence officer
was deployed to live in the area for a considerable amount of time to find out the authenticity of such
reports.
a. Social assignments
b. Work assignments
c. Organizational assignments
d. Residential assignments
560.It is a type of intelligence activity which deals with defending the organization against its criminal
enemies?
a. Line Intelligence
b. Counter-Intelligence
c. Strategic Intelligence
d. Tactical Intelligence
561.What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which is “usually from a reliable source and improbable
information”?
a. C-5
b. B-5
c. B-3
d. C-3
562.It is a form of investigation in which the operative assumes a cover in order to obtain information
a. Overt operation
b. Undercover assignment
c. Covert operation
d. clandestine operation
563.It refers to a person who is highly skilled in converting message from clear to unintelligible forms by use of
codes and cipher.
a. Cryptographer
b. Crypto Analyst
c. Cryptography
d. Cryptechnician
564.What is evaluation of the intelligence report gathered by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which is “Fairly Reliable
and doubtfully true information?
a. D-4
b. C-4
c. C-5
d. D-5
565.In surveillance, the following are done to alter the appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT:
a. Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle
b. Putting on and removing hats, coats and sunglasses
c. Change of seating arrangement within the surveillance vehicle
d. Keep the cars behind the subject car.
566.A _______ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the anticipated arrival of the suspect who is either
wanted for investigation or who is expected to commit a crime at a certain location.
a. Stake out
b. Rough Shadowing
c. Shadowing
d. Surveillance
567.In the Intelligence function, the black list includes ________ forces.
a. Unwanted
b. Friendly
c. Neutral
d. Unfriendly
568.They are responsible for foreign intelligence of United Kingdom and it is also referred as Box 850 because
of its old post office box number.
a. Security Service
b. Secret Intelligence Service
c. Government Communication Headquarters
d. Defense Intelligence Staff
569.Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as minister of police he studied the use of propaganda and
censorship as well as utilizing statistical intelligence accounting.
a. Herbert Yadley
b. Wilhem Steiber
c. Admiral Yamamoto
d. Joseph Fouche
570.If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as to whether the subject of the
investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for which it is being regarded.
a. Overt Operation
b. Surveillance
c. Covert Operation
d. Analysis
571.Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the area and residence of the individual being
investigated.
a. CBI
b. NAC
c. PBI
d. LAC
572.The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature and necessary for more effective police planning.
b. Strategic Intelligence
c. Police Intelligence
d. Departmental Intelligence
573.It is considered as the most secured method of disseminating the information to the user of classified
matters is by means of:
a. Debriefing
b. Conference
c. Cryptographic method
d. Seminar
574.It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to form a logical picture or theory.
a. Integration
b. Evaluation
c. Deduction
d. Interpretation
575.In intelligence functions, a black list means:
a. Neutral
b. Unwanted
c. Friendly
d. Unfriendly
576.It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from conspicuous sources and 1% of information is
obtained from clandestine sources. Clandestine means.
a. Observable
b. Overt
c. Visible
d. Covert
577.An E-3 intelligence report means:
a. The information comes from completely reliable sources and Improbable true.
b. The information comes from Unreliable sources and probably true.
c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources and doubtfully true.
d. The information comes from Unreliable sources and possibly true.
578.Refers to the observations of person’s movements is generally refers to as?
a. Plant
b. Stakeout
c. None
d. Tailing or Shadowing
579.The classification “Top secret”, have the security color folderof?
a. Red
b. Black
c. Blue
d. Green
580.The process of assigning higher category of document or information according to the degree of security
needed.
a. Degrading
b. Classification
c. Upgrading
d. Advancement
581.It is a process or method of obtaining information from a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge
information.
a. Interview
b. Forceful Interrogation
c. Interrogation
d. Tactical Interrogation
582.The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine if the information is true and-
a. Reliable
b. Accurate
c. Correct
d. Probably true
583.This kind of intelligence is long range in nature:
b. Operational Intelligence
c. Strategic Intelligence
d. Counter Intelligence
584.It refers to a place, building or enclosed area where police undercover men meet for debriefing or reporting
purposes.
a. Safe house
b. Log
c. Live Drop
d. Decoy
585.It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC, which includes some or all of the circumstances.
a. National Agency Check
b. Background Investigation
c. Complete Background Investigation
d. Personnel Security Investigation
586.He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at all time:
a. Frederick the Great
b. Alexander the Great
c. Arthur Wellesley
d. Joseph Hernandez
587.What specialist group of CIA that was established to research, create and manage technical collection
discipline and equipment.
a. National Clandestine Service
b. Directorate of Support
c. Directorate of Intelligence
d. Directorate of Science and Technology
588.The persons listed in________ are allowed to enter a certain establishment or building.
a. Access list
b. Black List
c. Blue Print
d. Silver list
589.The deliberate destruction, disruption, or damage of equipment, a public service, as by enemy agent or
dissatisfied employees.
a. Subversion
b. Sabotage
c. Espionage
d. None of these
590.The combination of the elements isolated analysis with other known information related to the operation.
a. Recording
b. Analysis
c. Integration
d. Interpretation
591.It deals with the demographic and psychological aspects of groups of people.
a. Sociological Intelligence
b. Economic Intelligence
c. Biographical Intelligence
d. Political Intelligence
592.Which among the following principles of intelligence deemed to be the most important?
a. intelligence requires continuous security measures
b. Intelligence and operation are interdependent
c. Intelligence must be available on time
d. Intelligence must be flexible
593.It is the careful inspection of a place to determine its suitability for a particular operational purpose.
a. Casing
b. Loose Tail
c. Rough Shadowing
d. Stakeout
594.It refers to the determination of the pertinence of the information to the operation, reliability of the source
of or agency and the accuracy of the information.
a. Evaluation
b. Recording
c. Credibility
d. Appraisal
595.It refers to the most dangerous type of informant.
a. Women
b. Double Crosser
c. False
d. Anonymous
596.It is the transforming of coded message into plain text.
a. Coding
b. Encrypting
c. Decoding
d. Reclassify
597.After the planning on how intelligence is to be collected, the intelligence officer must have thorough
knowledge of the __________.
a. The strength of the area where the information will be gathered
b. Where they will be collecting the information
c. Available sources of information
d. The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence
598.He often dresses as a beggar & went to the street of Rome to gather first hand information, he is considered
as the greatest military strategist.
a. Alexander the Great
b. Hannibal
c. Frederick the Great
d. Genghis Khan
599.If information comes with a low reliability and doubtful accuracy, will this information be discarded or
refused acceptance?
a. Yes
b. True
c. No
d. False
600.It is one of the Functional Classification of Police Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to
the prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of criminal offenders.
a. Internal Security Intelligence
b. Criminal Intelligence
c. Public Safety Intelligence
d. Preventive Intelligence
601.If the information or documents are procured openly without regard as to whether the subject of the
investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for which it is being regarded.
a. Overt Operation
b. Clandestine
c. Surveillance
d. Covert Operation
602.Which of the following is the most common reason why an informer gives information to the police?
a. Monetary Reward
Popularity
Revenge
As a good citizen
603.A method of collecting information thru interception of telephone conversation.
a. Bugging
b. Wire Tapping
c. Code name
d. NONE
604.Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the enemy’s’ area of consideration that render the criminal
groups susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by the police organization.
a.Conclusion
b.Capabilities
c. Vulnerabilities
d.Evaluation
605.It is the general statement describing the current police internal defense, internal development,
psychological operation and responsibilities of the organization
a. Area of operation
b. Capabilities of organized crime
c. the crime situation
d. the mission
606.It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information concerning organized crime and other major police
problems.
A.Military Intelligence
b.Military Information
c.Police Intelligence
d.Police Investigation
607.The term appropriate for someone who gives information in exchange for a reward is:
a. Informer
b. Informant
c. Special informer
d. Confidential Informant
608.The intelligence required by department or agencies of the government to execute its mission and discharge
its responsibilities.
a. Counter
b. Departmental
c. Line
d. National
609.Is the reduction of information into writing or some other form of graphical representation and the
arranging of this information into groups related items.
a. Recording
b. Integration
c. Analysis
d. Demonstration
610.What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and Possibly true?
a. -2
b. E-2
c. E-3
d. C-3
611.Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in destroying the effectiveness of hostile foreign
activities and the protection of information against espionage, subversion and sabotage.
a. Passive Intelligence
b. Counter Intelligence
c. Line Intelligence
d. Demographic Intelligence
612.Who directs the organization conducting the clandestine activity?
a. Manager
b. Superior
c. Sponsor
d. Agent
613.Agents who molds the attitudes, opinions, and actions of an individual group or nation.
a. Propagandist
b. Support Agent
c. Principal Agent
d. Action Agent
614.Refers to a place where agents or informants leave their messages to the other Agents.
a. Live Drop
b. Safe House
c. Decoy
d. Bait
615.All except one are interrelated to one another.
a. Fixed Surveillance
b. Stakeout Surveillance
c. Stationary Surveillance
d. Active Surveillance
616.The agent will gain access to the subject by going to the different hang out places of the subject.
a. Social Assignment
b. Residential Assignment
c. Work Assignment
d. None of these
617.A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or other material gain he is to receive.
a. Gratitude
b. Repentance
c. Remuneration
d. Vanity
618.National Intelligence Coordinating Agency is led by a-
a. Director
b. General
c. President
d. Director-General
619.Integrated product of intelligence developed by all government departments concerning the broad aspect of
national policy and national Security.
a National Intelligence
b. Departmental Intelligence
c. International Intelligence
d. Social Intelligence
620.The process of categorizing a document or information according to the degree of security needed.
a. Classification
b. Upgrading
c. Reclassification
d. None of these
621.Final clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date of issuance.
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 4 years
d. 1 year
622.It refers to the person who conducts the surveillance.
a. Surveillant
b Subject
c. Interrogator
d. Interviewee
623.The "Great Mogul" and wise master of Hindustan employed more than 4,000 agents for the sole purpose of
bringing him the truth that his throne might rest upon it.
a. Joseph Petrosino
b. Edgar Hoover
c. Napoleon Bonaparte
d. Akbar
624.The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine if the information is true and-
a Reliable
b. Correct
c. Probably true
d. Accurate
625.It refers to those measures, which seek actively to block the enemies’ effort to gain information or engage
in espionage, subversion, and sabotage.
a. Counter Intelligence
b. Passive Counter Intelligence
c. Active Counter Intelligence
d. Intelligence
626.Chronological records of activities that took place in the establishment under surveillance.
a. Memory
b. records
c. Log
d. Report
627.It is defined as an art and science of codes and ciphers.
a. Cryptography
b. Cryptanalysis
c. Decipher
d. Coding
628.The protection resulting from the application of various measures which prevent or delay the enemy or
unauthorized person in gaining information through communication.
a. Communication Security
b. Physical Security
c. Document Security
d. Internal Security
629.Those documents place on a Blue Folder are considered as:
a. Top Secret
b. Secret
c. Restricted
d. Confidential
630.Documents which are classified as Secret should be placed on-
a. Blue Folder
b. Black folder
c. Green Folder
d. Red Folder
631.It is a certification by a responsible authority that the person described is cleared to access and classify
matters at appropriate levels.
a. Security Clearance
b. Document Clearance
c. Interim Clearance
d. Nome of these
632.Extreme precautions are taken against losing the subject is employed where constant surveillance is
necessary.
a. Close tail
b. Loose tail
c. Rough Shadowing
d. Surveillance
633.D evaluates the information as usually reliable and probably true.
a. C-4
b. B-3
c. B-2
d. C-5
634.Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of _____________.
a. Russia
b. Germany
c. Israel
d. Pakistan
635.Law enforcement in China was carried out by _______ which developed in both chu and jin kingdom of
the Spring and Autumn period.
a. Watch man
b. Prefect
c. Gendemarie
d. Constabulary
636.She is the first Filipino commissionedofficer in a UN integral mission.
a. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
b. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra
c. C SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
d. None of these
637.New York Police Department (NYPD) have limited jurisdiction on _______:
a. USA
b. New York
c. None of these
d. Los Angeles
638.The Penal Provisions of the electronic Commerce Act:
a. RA 5678
b. RA 9165
c. RA 1298
d. RA 8792
639.In the etymology of the word police the ancient word “Polisoos” referred to a person who_____?
a. Enforcing Law
b. Civil Policy
c. Guarding a City
d. Citizenship
640.During the middle ages, there were two guard officer of the kingdom of France with police responsibilities
those are the Marshal of France and ________:
a. Constable of France
b. Queens Royal Guard
c. Scotland Yard
d. Constabulary
641.Peace officers are treated as state servants and people have minimal share in their duties or any direct
connection with them. This reflected the:
a. Continental Theory
b. Home rule Theory
c. Old Concept
d. Modern concept
642.The typical number of Detectives are roughly ________ of a police service personnel:
a. 75%
b. 5 to 10%
c. 15 to 25%
d. 7 to 10%
643.In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over federal crimes or those with an interstate components. The
statement is:
a. Correct
b. Partially Correct
c. False
d. partly False
644.This pertains to all those forms of policing that, in some sense transgress national borders:
a. International Policing
b. Global Policing
c. National Policing
d. Transnational Policing
645.In US, he introduced police reforms to include educational requirement for police officer:
a. James Q. Wilson
b. Sir Henry Peel
c. August Volmer
d. O.W. Wilson
646.The motto of Hongkong Police force:
a. Law and Order
b. Safer Communities together
c. Serve and Protect
d. We serve with pride and Care
647.Where do you can find the so called Police Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization for police officer
whose are changed of committing any form of misconduct:
a. Northern Ireland
b. England
c. China
d. Japan
648.Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank structured of police force is identical up to the rank of?
a. Chief Constable
b. Chief Inspector
d. Inspector
649.In USA, what state are among the first to hire women and minorities as police officer.
a. Massachusetts
b. California
c. New York
d. Washington
650.In Taiwan police Agency, what is the comparable rank to inspector or sub-lieutenant?
a. Police Rank 4
b. Police Supervisor Rank 4
c. Police Officer Rank 1
d. Police Supervisor Rank 1
651.In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is the lowest possible rank of its police personnel?
a. Police Rank 1
b. Police Officer Rank 1
c. Investigator 1
d. Constable
652.It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s Finest” police
force and in having, set up the foundation for the social stability of Hong Kong and has won a good
reputation as one of the safety cities in the world.
a. Philippine National Polic
b. Hong Kong Police Force
c. Japan Police Department
d. National Police Agency
653.It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police Force:
a. Commissioner General
b. Director General
c. Commissioner
d. Director
654.The code of secrecy of Mafia:
a. Omerta
b. Morse
c. Nostra Compra
d. Cosa Nostra
655. The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is the:
a. Executive Assembly
b. Major Assembly
c. National Assembly
d. General Assembly
656. The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is run by the:
a. Director General
b. Supervisor
c. Inspector General
d. Secretary General
657.In US, who is responsible in reducing corruption and introduced professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and
Chicago Police Department:
a. August Volmer
b. Margaret Adams
c. William Stewart
d. O.W. Wilson
658.The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi:
a. Policeman
b. Chief Superintendent
c. Superintendent
d. Senior Superintendent
659.It is the counterpart of Police Community Precinct in Japan:
a. Keishi
b. Koban
c. Omerta
d. Keiban
660.In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the highest position in Japan Police Organization:
a. Commissioner Secretariat
b. Commissioner
c. Chairman
d. Commissioner General
661.The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a Commissioner General who is appointed by:
a. Japans Emperor
b. Prime Minister
c. National Public Safety Commission
d. Japan Commission
662.The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force:
a. Junsa
b. Constable
c. Sergeant
d. Police Officer
663.Irish Police are called:
a. Militsiya
b. Constable
c. Police Force
d. Garda Socha
664.In 2006 he was tasked to head the UN integral Mission in Timor-Leste, he is the first Filipino police
commissioner of a United Nation Operation.
a. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
b. Insp. Aurisa I. Mitra
c. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
d. None of these
665.It States that the yardstick of police proficiency relies on the absence of crime.
a. Home rule
b. Continental
c. Old police service
d. Modern police service
666.The first secretary general of the Interpol.
a. Oskar Dressler
b. Ronald K. Noble
c. Johann Schober
d. Aberdeen Scotland
667.The first president of the Interpol.
a. Oskar Dressler
b. Ronald K. Noble
c. Johann Schober
d. Aberdeen Scotland
668.Group of highly specialized a armed man who inflicts fear and uses violence to accomplish
their objectives with a usual international scope of activity.
a. Organized Crime
b. Transnational Crime
c. Transnational Organized crime
d. Terrorist
669.Is the terrorist group which was founded by Osama Bin Laden in 1980?
a. Al Qaeda
b. Jihad
c. Mafia
d. Nuestra Costra
670.Is the term which refers to the holy war waged by members of the Islamic religion against the Jews?
a. Al Qaeda
b. Jihad
c. Mafia
d. Nuestra Costra
671.It is the category of terrorist organization which is aimed in achieving political autonomy or religious
freedom.
a. Revolutionary
b. Separalist
c. Ethnocentric
d. Political
672.It is the anchor of the investigation of all crimes committed via the internet:
a. Dynamic IP Address
b. Internet Protocol Address
c. Static IP Address
d. Email Address
673.It is the act of illegally accessing the computer system or network of an individual, group or business
enterprise without the consent of the party’s system:
a. Computer Fraud
b. Hacking
c. Cracking
d. Theft
674.It refers to a Code written with the intention of replicating itself.
a. Trojan Horse
b. Worm
c. Virus
d. None of the choices
675.The founder of the Texas Rangers and known to be the “Father of Texas”.
a. Stephen Austin
b. Vernon Knell
c. Dave Batista
d. Johann Schober
676.An order strengthening the operational, administrative and information support system of the PCTC. Under
this EO, the centre shall
exercise general supervision and control over NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG
a. EO 100
b. EO 465
c. EO 465
d. EO 789
677.Roque joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29 years old then. What year will Amado will retire?
a. 2016
b. 2023
c. 2012
d. 2031
678.It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP commissioned and non-commissioned officer may retire and be
paid separation benefits corresponding to a position two ranks higher than his/her rank:
a. Retirement in the next higher grad
b. Compulsory retirement
c. Early retirement program
d. Optional Retirement
679.It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an independence from the PNP. It has an investigative and adjudicatory
power over PNP members.
a. Internal Affairs Service
b. National Police Commission
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board
d. National Appellate Board
680.In police operational planning the use of the wedge, squad diagonal or deployed line would be probable
used for:
a. Arm confrontation
b. Relief Operation
c. Civil Disturbance
d. VIP Security
681.What is the appropriate training course for PO3 to be promoted to SPOI?
a. Officers Senior Executive Course
b. Officer Basic Course
c. Senior Leadership Course
d. Junior Leadership Course
682.A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get the lump sum of his retirement benefits for the period of the
first _____.
a. 10 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
d. 2 years
683.Specific Qualifications may be waived like Age, Height, Weight and Education, only when the number of
qualified applicants falls below the minimum annual quota. Appointment status under a waiver program is
________.
a. Temporary
b. Probationary
c. Permanent
d. Regular
684.__________ is given to any PNP member who has exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of
his life above and beyond the call of duty.
a. Posthomous Promotion
b. Special Promotion
c. Regular Promotion
d. On-the-Spot Promotion
685.Which among the following has no promotional authority over the members of the PNP?
a. Deputy Director General
b. Director General
c. President of the Philippines
d. Regional Director
686.Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately from the service after due notice and summary hearings
if it was proven that he went on AWOL for a continuous period of:
a. 30 days or more
b. 15 days or more
c. 20 days or more
d. 60 days or more
687.Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons following a high-risk stop.
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest
d. High Risk Stop
688.Patrolwoman, receives 19, 870.00 base pay since he was promoted. After five years from promotion, what
would be his monthly base pay after adding his longevity pay?
a. 21, 857.00
b. 19, 970.00
c. 24, 870.00
d. 31, 549.00
689.It refers to those situations or conditions that may induce incidents for some kind of police action:
a. Police Accident
b. Police Brutality
c. Police Hazard
d. Police Operation
690.The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means-
a. The Sword Bearer
b. The Base
c. Islamic Congregation
d. Ayman Al Zawahiri
691.What kind of force is needed during armed confrontation?
a. Reasonable force
b. Logical Force
c. Rational Force
d. Evenhanded Force
692.The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed in the picket line (or confrontation line) but should be stationed in
such manner that their presence may deter the commission of criminal acts or any untoward incident from either
side. The members of the peace-keeping detail shall stay outside a _______ radius from the picket line.
a. 50 feet
b. 50 meter
c. 100 feet
d. 100 meter
693.The 22nd Chief of the Philippine National Police.
a. PDG CESAR P NAZARENO
b. PDG OSCAR D ALBAYALDE
c. PDG RONALD M DELA ROSA
d. PDG ALLAN LM PURISIMA
694. Felonies are committed either by Dolo or ____.
a. Deceit
b. Fault
c. Culpa
d. Intent
695. Things which are wrongful in their nature.
a. evil
b. mala in ce
c. mala in se
d. mala prohibita
696. The moving power which impels one to action for a definite result.
a. intent
b. motive
c. deceit
d. fault
697.A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its essence being the substitution of legislative fiat for a
judicial determination of guilt.
a. Ex post facto law
b. Retroactivity
c. Bill of attainder
d. Prospective
698.A PNP personnel is entitled to this leave which should be enjoyed as it is deducted automatically from his leave
credit:
a. mandatory leave
b. Birthday leave
c. Sick leave
d. maternity leave
e. Academic leave
699.The lowest PNP medal that can be conferred to PNP personnel for administrative efficiency is:
a. Medalya ng mabuting asal
b. Medalya ng papuri
c. Medalya ng kagalingan
d. None of these
e. Medalya ng kasanayan
700.The PNP Health Service does not have the complete capability to attend to the medical problems of PNP
personnel. A PNP personnel may spend his own money to shoulder his hospitalization expenses are this shall be
paid by the PNP through its.
a. Pay now reimburse later scheme
b. Save yourself PNP pays later plan
c. medical reimbursement plan
d. Reimbursable hospitalization expenses
701.The City and Municipal Mayors are vested by law with the following authorities, except to:
a. choose the Chief of Police from a list of 5 eligibles

b. recommended the transfer of the PNP members outside their respective city or municipal residences
c. recommended the appointment for PO1 from a list of eligibles screened by the ad hoc body
d. conduct periodic review and evaluation of the performance of the PNP members of their police stations
e. dismiss his Chief of Police in case of loss of confidence
702.The authority to choose the Police Provincial Director is vested on the:
A. PNP Regional Director

B. Police Provincial Director
C. Provincial Governor
D. Congressman of the Province
C. CPNP through the SOPPB
703.The authority to choose the Chief of Police of Municipal Police Station is vested in the:
a. Municipal Peace and Order Council

b. Municipal Council
c. Provincial Governor
d. Municipal Mayor
704.The NAPOLCOM exercises administrative control and operational supervision over the PNP in the PO1
recruitment program through the:
a. administration of the PNP Entrance Examination

b. Grant of appropriate waive
c. personnel audit activity
d. presence of NAPOLCOM representative in the screening committee
e. conduct of qualifying examination
705.The promotional eligibility examinations for PNP personnel is administered by the:

b. Professional Regulatory Board
c. NAPOLCOM
d. Department of Education
706.Which of the following eligibility examinations is not administered by NAPOLCOM?
a. CS Police Officer
b. Senior Police Officer
c. Police Superintendent
d. Police Inspector
e. Police Officer
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4. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?

8. It is the minimum guard requirements for the issuance of temporary license.

47. Which of the following statement is FALSE?

a. Criminal Investigation Bureau

116.Assessing organizational strengths and weakness is usually known as:

127.The following questions are tests for accuracy of information, EXCEPT:

a. Western Police District

257.What is the meaning of PPSC?

313.The head of the IAS shall have a designation of ____________?

326. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?

368.Which of the following is not a function of police personnel unit?

394.What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?

A. Local Alarm system

414.The tenure of a security guard is:

415.Which among the following is not an advantage of a full-view fence, except:

441..What type of lamp emits bright white light?

a. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the company’s Vault.

455.The ideal police response time is:

471.Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies?

475.The following are patrol activities, except:

478.The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol. EXCEPT:

480.The best method of patrol to be done in sector is:

481.A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in terms of number of:

489.Team Policing is said to be originated in________:

490.They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for patrolling:

512.Police Patrols were restricted only to answering calls of service.

a. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action taken.

518.The concept of Unity of command is:

520.This patrol strategy is focused more on called for services

521.Before policemen become a dispatcher he must be_______.

522.Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was initiated on:

523.What should be accomplished by Patrol officers during Post-Deployment Phase?

524.This patrol tactic would result to improvement of police omnipresence:

538.The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit crime as a result of patrol.

a. choose the Chief of Police from a list of 5 eligibles

702.The authority to choose the Police Provincial Director is vested on the:

A. PNP Regional Director

a. Municipal Peace and Order Council

a. administration of the PNP Entrance Examination

a. Civil Service Commission

706.Which of the following eligibility examinations is not administered by NAPOLCOM?

AMICI REVIEW CENTER

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