MUSIC, ARTS, PHYSICAL EDUCATION AND HEALTH (MAPEH)

MAPEH PART 1 D. Arthuro P. Luz

Choose the letter of the best answer in 7. Which work of art Ang Kiukok won for
each question. him a bronze medal in the first
International Art Exhibition in Saigon?
1. Which is NOT a historical painting of A. The Transfiguration Pieta
Amorsolo? B. Seated Figure
C. Geometric Landscape
A. The first Baptism in the Philippines
D. Pieta
B. Making of the Philippine Flag
C. Dalagang Bukid
8. Which is not one of the paintings of
D. President Emilio Aguinaldo
Victorio C. Edades?
A. Mother and child
2. Who: is the father of modern Filipino
B. The Artist and the model
sculpture?
C. Portrait of the Professor
A. Napoleon Abvueva
D. Mother and Daughter
B. Guillermo Tolentino
C. Constantin Brancusi
9. In his work he turned fragments of the
D. Rey Paz Contreras
historic past into vivid record of the
legendary courage of the ancestors of
3. Which work of Napoleon Abvueva
his race like the ones seen in the City
exalts motherhood?
Hall of Manila. Who is referred to?
A. The kiss of Judas
A. Galo Ocampo
B. Mother and child
B. Carlos “Botong” Francisco
C. The trans configuration
C. Victorio C. Edades
D. Sunburst
D. Arturo P. Luz
4. The Oblation of UP is a work art done
10. The lush tropical sense of color and
by _______.
an abiding faith in the folk values
A. Guillermo Tolentino
typified by the towns people of
B. Napoleon Abvuevas
Angono became the hallmark of his
C. Rey Paz Contreras
art. Who is Described?
D. Anastacio Tanchangco Caedo
A. Victorio C. Edades
B. Galo Ocampo
5. Who is an outstanding Filipino
C. Carlos “Botong” Francisco
Sculptor working with an urban refuse
D. Arturo P. Luz
and ecological materials are artistic
media?
11. Which Buddha covered in gold
A. Anastacio Tanchangco Caedo
considered to be the oldest statues of
B. Guillermo Tolentino
Buddha in the world (338 years old)
C. Napoleon Abvuevas
and has unique status among the
D. Rey Paz Contreras
Chinese?
A. The Seated Buddha
6. Who is an outstanding Filipino
B. The Lying Buddha
Sculptor working with an urban refuse
C. The Sleeping Buddha
and ecological materials are artistic
D. The Big Buddha
media?
A. Fernando Amorsolo
12. Which is TRUE of Taj Mahal?
B. Vicente S. Manansala
I. a unique blend of Persian, Islamic,
C. Carlos Botong Francisco
and Indian architectural styles
 II. involved 22, 000 workers for its the oldest statue of Buddha in the
construction world (338 years old) and as unique
III. tomb of Mumtaz Mahal, wife of the status among the Chinese?
later tomb of Shan Jahan A. The Seated Buddha
A. III only B. The Lying Buddha
B. I and II C. The Sleeping Buddha
C. II and III D. The Big Buddha
D. I, II and III
18. Which is TRUE of Taj Mahal?
13. Which is the largest monument and I. a unique blend of Persian, Islamic,
the best-preserved architectural and Indian architectural styles
masterpiece in Cambodia. Its II. involved 22, 000 workers for its
perfection in composition, balance, construction
proportions, reliefs and sculpture III. tomb of Mumtaz Mahal, wife of the
make it once of the finest monuments later tomb of Shan Jahan
in the world. A. I, II and III
A. Akapan Pyramid B. I and II
B. Ta Prohm C. II and III
C. Ankor Vat D. III only
D. Angkor Tom
19. Which is the largest monument and
14. With which of art was China Known the best-preserved architectural
during then Yuan and the Ming masterpiece in Cambodia. Its
dynasty? perfection in composition, balance,
A. Statues of Buddha proportions, reliefs and sculpture
B. Blue and white porcelain make it once of the finest monuments
C. Landscape painting in the world.
D. The Elephants A. Ta Prohm
B. Akapan Pyramid
15. Who is the father of Spanish zarzuela C. Angkor Tom
in the Philippines? D. Ankor Vat
A. Heremogenes
B. Alejandro Cuvero 20. With which work of art was China
C. Severino Reyes Known during the Yuan and the Ming
D. Pascual Poblete dynasty?
A. Statues of Buddha
16. Lino Brocka, National Artist for B. Blue and white porcelain
cinema as the “Darling” of what C. Landscape Painting
production company? D. The Elephants
A. LVN Production
B. Regal Films 21. Which painting was painted by Juan
C. Sampaguita Pictures Luna and is the most prized painting
D. LEA Production of the Philippines?
A. Spoliarium
17. Which Buddha covered in gold is B. Christian Virgins
considered in gold is considered to be C. Antipolo
 D. Our Lady of Light 27. Which is considered the most
beautiful and amazing paint that
22. Leandro Locsin designs the Fernando Amorsolo did?
____________. A. Rice Plating
A. Manila Metropolitan Theater B. Corner of the Hell
B. Cultural Center of the Philippines C. Dalagang Bukid
C. GSIS Building D. Defense of a Filipina Woman’s
D. Manila Jia-building Honor

23. One of the most popular images
during the Commonwealth of the
Philippines is Fernando Amorsolo’s
________.
A. Early Filipino State Weddings
B. Making of the Philippines Flag
C. The Mestiza
D. Rice Planting
24. Which painting did Felix Resurrection
Hidalgo’s enter in an exhibit in Madrid
together with the Spoliarium?
A. Adios al sol
B. Las virgenes Cristianas expuestas
al populacho
C. La Barca de Aqueronte
D. Laguna estiga
25. Who was the first mentor of Fernando
Amorsolo, the first National Artist of
the Philippines who was given a
posthumous ward for Visual Arts in
1972
A. Ignacio Zuloaga
B. Enrique Zobel
C. Fabia Dela Rosa
D. Joaquin Solla
26. Who is acclaimed as the “Father of
Philippines Impression”?
A. Antonio Molina
B. Alejandro Cuvero
C. Bela Bartok
D. Jean Sibelius
28. Fernando Amorsolo painted the
following. Afternoon Meal of the
Workers (Noonday Meal of the Rice
Workers) (1939), Dalagang Bukid
(1936), Early Filipino State Wedding
and the First Baptism in the
Philippines. These prove that
Amorsolo was a painter ____.
A. men
B. children
C. rural landscape
D. the exploited
29. Which is NOT a historical painting of
Amorsolo?
A. Dalagang Bukid
B. Making of the Philippine Flag
C. The first Baptism in the Philippines
D. President Emilio Aguinaldo
30. Who is the father of modern Filipino
sculpture?
A. Rey Paz Contreras
B. Guillermo Tolentino
C. Constantin Brancusi
D. Napoleon Abvueva
31. Which work of Napoleon Abvueva
exalts motherhood?
A. Mother and child
B. The kiss of Judas
C. The trans configuration
D. Sunburst
32. The Oblation of UP is a work art done
by _______.
A. Rey Paz Contreras
 B. Napoleon Abvuevas
C. Guillermo Tolentino
D. Anastacio Tanchangco Caedo
33. Who is an outstanding Filipino
Sculptor working with an urban refuse
and ecological materials are artistic
media?
A. Rey Paz Contreras
B. Guillermo Tolentino
C. Napoleon Abvuevas
D. Anastacio Tanchangco Caedo
34. Whose paintings are described as
vision of reality teetering the edge of
abstraction?
A. Fernando Amorsolo
B. Vicente S. Manansala
C. Carlos Botong Francisco
D. Arthuro P. Luz
35. Which work of art Ang Kiukok won for
him a bronze medal in the first
International Art Exhibition in Saigon?
A. Pieta
B. Seated Figure
C. Geometric Landscape
D. The Transfiguration
36. The following are paintings of
Victorio C. Edades EXEPT
___________.
A. Portrait of the Professor
B. The Artistic and the model
C. Mother and Child
D. Mother and Daughter
37. In his works he turned fragments of
the historic past into vivid record of
the legendary courage of ancestors of
his race like the ones seen in the City
Hall of Manila. Who is referred to?
A. Carlos “Botong” Francisco
B. Galo Ocampo
C. Victorio C. Edades
D. Arturo P. Luz
38. The lush tropical sense of color and
abiding faith in folk values typified by
the townspeople of Angono became
the hallmark of his art. Who is
described?
A. Arturo P. Luz
B. Galo Ocampo
C. Victorio Edades
D. Carlos “Botong” Francisco
39. Which is considered the most
beautiful and amazing paint that
Fernando Amorsolo did?
A. Rice Plating
B. Corner of the Hell
C. Dalagang Bukid
D. Defense of a Filipina Woman’s
Honor
40. Fernando Amorsolo painted the
following. Afternoon Meal of the
Workers (Noonday Meal of the Rice
Workers) (1939), Dalagang Bukid
(1936), Early Filipino State Wedding
and the First Baptism in the
Philippines. These prove that
Amorsolo was a painter ____.
A. children
B. rural landscape
C. men
D. the exploited
41. Don’t wait for the end of the unit to
check whether your students are
learning or not. This means, do
______.
A. Formative tests
B. Authentic tests
C. Summative tests
D. Alternative tests
42. 4What should you use to ensure a
more objective assessment of
performance?
A. Table of Specifications
 B. Likert scale
C. Checklist 48. For art subject, a culminating activity
D. Scoring rubric in the form of art exhibits falls?
A. Performance
43. MAPEH is generally a skill subject. B. Summative
Which form of assessment is most C. Product
appropriate? D. Formative
A. Authentic
B. Tradition 49. Assessment for learning in MAPEH
C. Formative refers to ______ assessment.
D. Summative A. product
B. formative
44. You want to find out if your students C. summative
learned how to swim. Which D. performance
assessment is most appropriate?
A. Performance test 50. Assessment of learning in MAPEH
B. Summative refers to ________ assessment.
C. Product A. formative
D. Formative B. product
C. summative
45. While you are practicing a skill you D. performance
want to find out how well your
students can execute the skill 51. K to Grade 3 children have difficulty in
correctly. Which form of assessment shooting a basketball through an
applies? upright hoop because of this vision-
A. Summative related factor? Which factor I referred
B. Balance to?
C. Formative A. Figured-ground perception
D. Indirect B. Hand-and-eye coordination
C. Depth perception
46. Does MAPEH make use traditional D. Peripheral vision
assessment?
A. No, authentic tests only 52. Unlike adults and older children,
B. Yes, for knowledge-based items. children up to the age 17 are unable
C. Yes, for skill-based items. to understand coaching instructions,
D. No, always authentic rules or strategies, or to contemplate
assessment. doing two things at the same time.
Which theory explains this?
47. At the end of a quarter, you give an A. Kolb’s learning style
end-of-the-quarter culminating B. Bandura’s social cognitive
activity. What kind of assessment is development (self-efficacy)
this? C. Piaget’s theory of cognitive
A. Direct development (preoperational
B. Summative stage of thinking)
C. Formative D. Gardener’s theory of multiple
D. Indirect intelligences (bodily-kinesthetic
 intelligences) (inadequate physical activity)
leading to irrelevance of PE as a
53. Children aged up to 7 focus on subject
dribbling the football only but do not C. Lack of professionalization in PE
consider the possibility of passing the (PE teachers are not specialist;
ball to a teammate. This is illustration poor quality of degree programs in
of _____. PE)
A. Piaget’s theory of cognitive D. Focus on sports that cater t
development (preoperational athletes’ needs instead of the
stage of thinking) majority of students’ need to
B. Bandura’s social cognitive theory achieve and maintain fitness and
(self-efficacy) health through sporting activities
C. Kolb’s learning style
D. Gardener’s theory of multiple 56. Physical Education traces its origin in.
intelligence (bodily – kinesthetic A. ancient Greek belief in ‘a sound mind
intelligence) in a sound body.
B. ancient Olympics Games
54. Which of the following BEST C. PE movement in Europe (end of
describes the main goal of Physical Renaissance era) that centered
Education? around gymnastics and calisthenics
A. Improve the cognitive, affective D. military training and preparation of
(socio-emotional) and war.
psychomotor capacities of
students through physical 57. In the attribution motivation theory
activities (Weiner), teachers would most prefer
B. Teaching the knowledge, skills their students ______.
and values for students to live a A. be intrinsically motivated
healthy lifestyle now and in the B. ascribed their performance to their
future environment such as God’s help,
C. Improve the physical fitness of all others’ support, their competitors, the
students, regardless of individual game officials, playing facilities and
differences in abilities and equipment
backgrounds C. ascribe their performance outcomes
D. Promote physical fitness and to their own ability and effort
health that complements the rest D. be extrinsically motivated
of the school curriculum
58. Physical literacy is the best described as
55. What is the most important factor that a composite of ______.
contributes to the decline of PE A. health-related, skill-related and
recently? physiological fitness that enables
A. More subjects in the school students to perform a variety of
curriculum and focus on physical activities
academics leading to reduce time B. body management, locomotor and
allocation in PE non-locomotor and object control or
B. Dominance of technology and maintenance of good health
prevalence of sedentariness
 C. games, sports, rhythms and dance D. Idealism
that leads to improved fitness and
maintenance of good health 62. Comprehensive health education fosters
D. fundamental movement, motor- and student resilience through the
activity- specific skills that equip coordinated teaching of health, family
students for an active lifestyle and consumer sciences and physical
education. What does this imply?
59. Perseverance is most likely to be A. For greater focus in-depth treatment
encourage by physical education of topics in health topics are
activities that ____ discussed in Health.
A. are challenging, yet within the reach B. The health of children is the primary
of students’ capabilities and sole responsibility of parents.
B. allow students to experience both C. Health education integrates, Health,
success and failure so they strive to Home Economics and Physical
do their best every time Education.
C. extremely challenge, requiring a high D. The child’s health is primarily his/her
degree of skill own making.
D. extremely easy in order to obtain
many opportunities for positive 63. Comprehensive health education
feedback encompasses health education, physical
education, and family and costumer
60. After completing their personal fitness sciences. What does the statement imply
assessments, the teacher asks each about then nature of health education in
student to write down an individual schools?
fitness goal and three possible ways A. Inherently interdisciplinary
achieves this. Which is the primary B. Consider minor subject only
benefit of this activity? C. Indispensable in the curriculum
A. It allows the student the opportunity to D. Concern of Health Education
focus either on area of strength or teachers only
weakness
B. It minimizes student resistance to 64. Does collaborative health education
participate in efforts to improve fitness. include foodservice at the school
C. It gives the students student greater canteen?
individual responsibility for his/her own A. Definitely yes.
learning and fitness. B. Definitely no.
D. It maintains the privacy of each student in C. Maybe
developing and pursuing fitness goals D. No. The curriculum has nothing to do
with food service.
61. With which educational philosophy does
Physical Education meet strong Read the following then answer 65 and
opposition because of its emphasis on 66.
the basics and other academics subject?
A. Essentialism
B. Progressivism
C. Existentialism
Our vocational high school, with the support
of the staff members organize the clean-up
of the barangay, as well as beautifying
our school grounds. The Home Economics
curriculum devotes several hours to health,
including safety, personal hygiene, sanitation,
food-borne illness, menu planning, and
nutrition. Our newest endeavor is an attempt
to bridge the gap between our students and
the elderly by inviting several senior citizens
to lunch at our student-operated restaurant
each month. They are accompanied by the
students and welcome to tour our facilities.
65. What does this prove?
I. Health can be taught and learned in
many different class rooms and discipline
II. An effective health education is
collaborative in approach.
III. An effective heath education is
integrative in approach.
A. I, II and III
B. I only
C. I and II
D. II and III
66. Which principles of teaching is illustrated
in the Health Education described
above?
I. Effective teaching is integrative
II. Learning by doing
III. Learning is inquiry-based
A. I and II
B. II only
C. I only
D. I, II and III
67. Student concerns, interest, views, and
ideas are central to active learning and to
the classroom assessment of the
comprehensive health education. This
principle states that an effective health
education is _____.
A. collaborative
B. multiple Intelligence-Based
C. responsive and relevant
D. interactive
68. Scare stories and blanket admonitions
about responsibility are insufficient to
help students to assess risk rationally or
make health-enhancing decisions. What
does this imply about health education?
A. Teach student to inquire reason, and
solve problem
B. Make students memorize health tips
C. Follow up children’s eating habit at
home.
D. Inspect packed lunch to ensures that
children eat health food.
69. Teacher A makes it a point to give the
song its historical background before
teaching it to the class. On which
principle of the music education is her
practice based?
A. Music is an opportunity to each moral
and spiritual values.
B. Music is an opportunity for self-
expression through a group activity
C. Music offers .an opportunity for
understanding other people and their
cultures
D. Music is a means to teach the duties
of citizenship.
70. It is said that when Filipinos abroad sing
“Bayan ko” the feeling to come home and
serve the country is heightened. What
does this say about music?
A. Music is an opportunity for self-
expression.
B. Music adds flavor to socials.
C. Music has a socializing function.
D. Patriotism and nationalism can be
effectively taught through music.
71. Which of the following method is the
best way to assess your
environmental health risks?
A. Use of health diary and self-tests and
monitoring of your surroundings
 B. Self-assessment and analysis of 76. The 4 common air pollutants
emerging health risks according to WHO are the following
C. Pinpointing t09he problem places and EXCEPT?
times of day behavior and your A. Ozone
environment could affect your health B. Nitrogen
adversely C. Sulfur dioxide
D. Intelligent choice and modification D. Nitrous dioxide
both in your behavior and your
surroundings to eliminate potential 77. A sound is considered noise and can
health problems cause hearing problems if it measures
more than ________ decibels:
72. Excessive radiation has delayed A. 80
effects on the human body. Which of B. 85
the following effects is the result of C. 90
radiation. D. 95
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Acid rain 78. Which is NOT TRUE about global
C. Water Pollution warming:
D. Air pollution A. More floods can happen.
B. Sustainability of water resources
73. Which of the following environmental will be compromised.
problems is most lethal to people C. Some insect-borne diseases are
worldwide? likely to increase.
A. Ozone layer D. Carbon dioxide emitted by cars
B. Acid rain and factories traps the sun’s light.
C. Water pollution
D. Air pollution 79. Which of the following actions protects
the environment?
74. After drinking juice, in which garbage bin I. Regularly spraying mosquito breeding
must you throw the tetra pack container? place with seconds
A. Compostable II. Using a water hose to clean your car
B. Recyclables III. Burning dry leaves to lessen garbage
C. Biodegradable in landfills
D. Non-biodegradable A. I only
B. II only
75. Which of the following is a mosquito- C. II only
borne disease D. I, II and III
I. Dengue
II. Malaria 80. What can a first aider do to help a victim
III. Yellow fever in severe external bleeding?
A. I only A. Cover the victim with blanket.
B. II only B. Give the victim some water.
C. II only C. Apply direct pressure over the
D. I, II and III wound with your fingers or palm.
D. Provide some medication
 81. When an adult victim is unconscious,
when should first aider be called?
A. After the ABC principle
B. After resuscitation
C. After opening the air way
D. As soon as the victim of heart attack?
82. What can a rescuer do to help a victim of
heart attack?
A. Lay the casualty down, and raise and
support her legs
B. Make the victim as comfortable as
possible to ease the strain of his heart.
C. Keep calm and reassure the victim.
D. Give oxygen if it is available
83. The scene suggest that the victim has
suffered poisoning. The first thing to do is
_________.
A. call a physician
B. check and, if necessary, clear the
casualty’s airway
C. place the casualty in the recovery the
recovery position.
D. Give oxygen if it is available
84. An athletic student has just vomited and
now appears to be coughing up blood.
He is now having cold, clammy skin and
a rapid, weal pulse. What is most likely
wrong?
A. He is having spinal injury.
B. He is having mild stroke
C. He has having internal bleeding
D. He has head injury
85. You are caring for a victim with minor
burns. Blister that form should never
break as they ________.
A. aggravate the pain and swelling
B. damage nerves and fat tissues
C. interfere infection into the wound
D. introduce infection into the wound
86. For a child who is unconsciously choking,
you would ________.
A. perform CPR
B. tilt the head back to open the airway
C. do Heimlick maneuver
D. encourage him to cough to help
dislodge the obstruction
87. A student is having a tonic-clonic seizure.
What should you do as a first-responder?
A. Restrain the student.
B. Put something between his teeth so that
he will not bite his tongue
C. Loosen tight clothing, i.e., a necktie
D. Palace him under the shade.
88. Your brother accidentally cut himself in
the foot with a rusty blade. What is the
first thing to do?
A. Apply ice to prevent swelling
B. Request for tetanus vaccine in the
nearest clinic
C. Wash the wound thoroughly with
soap and water
D. Apply pressure to stop the bleeding
89. The following should be performed to a
person who figured in a motorcycle
accident EXCEPT?
A. Asses the airway by titling the head
up and feeling the flow of air out of his
mouth or nose
B. Control bleeding
C. Observe the chest for spontaneous
breathing
D. Call an ambulance
90. What is the most important strategy to
deal with drowning?
A. Mandatory CPR training for all
lifeguards
B. Provision of complete emergency kits
and equipment in all swimming
facilities
C. Educating healthcare providers and
legislator about risk and
circumstances of drowning
 D. Designing safe pool environment and I. Do you have a boyfriend? Are you
use of isolation fencing to prevent sexually active?
kids wandering into the adult pools II. Have you ever thought of or tried
killing yourself?
91. When would you not advise HIV testing III. Do you smoke and/or drink
I. Previous history of sexually transmitted alcoholic beverages?
disease? A. I only
II. Had male to male sexual intercourse B. II only
III. Had intercourse with a sex trade C. III only
worker D. I, II and III
IV. I would advise HIV testing of all of the
above situation 95. The following are TRUE regarding child
A. I only abuse EXCEPT?
B. II only I. neglect children constitute child
C. III only abuse according to R.A 7610
D. I, II and III II. children with chronic medical
illness are at risk of being abused
92. Which of the following is NOT TRUE III. failure to gain weight can be a sign
regarding breastfeeding? of child abuse
A. Exclusive breastfeeding can provide A. I only
adequate nutrition for infants less B. II only
than 1 months. C. III only
B. 7-12month-old babies need D. I, II and III
complimentary feeding on top of
breast milk to meet their nutrition 96. Which is true about tuberculosis?
needs. A. It is hereditary
C. If the mother is not producing milk of B. Using a TB patient’s utensils will
the baby’s birth, supplemental make you sick.
formula feeding should be given C. 1 month of treatment is needed to
immediately to avoid undernutrition. cure the disease.
D. Lactation prevents the onset of D. After 2 weeks of medication the
menstruation in the mother thereby patient is no longer infections.
contributing to natural family
planning. 97. Newborns in Dr. Jose Fabella Memorial
Hospital are wrapped against their
93. What is the best treatment option you can mother’s chest in a direct skin-to-skin
advise for a child who is having diarrhea? contact. Which is LEAST TRUE about
A. Antibiotics this so-called Kangaroo Mother Care
B. Antidiarrheal medication (KMC)?
C. Gatorade A. This hospital lacks enough linen,
D. Oral rehydration solution warmers beds to provide for all those
newborns
94. If you are to interview a 14-year-old B. This method promotes breastfeeding
female which of the following questions, and early discharge from the hospital
should you ask to determine her overall C. The father can take the mother ‘s role
health? in the kangaroo care
 D. Premature babies can benefit from
KMC even without putting him in an 103. What does this mean?
incubator A. Swim at your own risk.
B. Don’t feed the sharks.
98. The blood vessel that supplies nutrient C. There is report of sharks in the
to the brain is the _________. activity.
A. jugular version D. Should you spot sharks in the
B. aorta area, call 111.
C. carotid artery
D. superior mesenteric artery
104. Which is safety advice on how to
avoid shark?
99. Which substance when abused leads to
I. Do not swim at dawn, at dusk or at
hearing loss, peripheral neuropathies,
brain damage? night.
A. Marijuana II. Do not swim if you are bleeding or
B. Cocaine have any open wound.
C. Methamphetamine III. If schooling fish start to behave
D. Rubber-based contact cement erratically or start to congregate in
(“rugby”) unusually large numbers, leave the
water.
100. Flexion of the knees and IV. If a large fish is sighted in the area,
extension of the hips are functions of leave the water as quickly and quickly
which muscles? and calmly as possible.
A. Gluteus maximus A. I, II, III and IV
B. Hamstring
B. I, II and III
C. Quadriceps
D. Gastrocnemius C. I and II
D. II and III and IV
101. Which is/are a general rule/s for
safety when swimming in the beach? 105. Arrange the steps in mouth-to-
I. Warm up before you swim, mouth resuscitation.
II. Stay out of water during thunderstorm. 1.Check the pulse for signs of life
III. It is more exciting to swim during a 2. Begin mouth-to-mouth resuscitation on
thunderstorm. land, if possible, o in the water if injured
A. I, II and III persons need immediate life-and-death
B. III only measures.
C. I and II 3. Strongly breathe four times into the
D. I only
mouth of the injured persons as you
pinch his or her nose. This helps air get
102. Which is rule for safety when
swimming in the beach? past any water that is clogging the
A. Don’t rely on swimming aids. breathing passageways and the lungs.
B. Swim immediately after a meal. 4. Turn the drowning person’s head to the
C. Do not jump from a beach raft or dive side, allowing any water to drain from his
underneath. or her mouth or nose. Turn the head back
D. Swim in the dark. to the center.
5. After four strong breaths, put your ear B. Place
near the mouth and watch the chest for C. Saludo
any breathing movement. D. Set
A. 4-2-3-5-6-1
110. What position sis described when
B. 2-3-4-6-5-1
arms are at side, horizontal, elbows
C. 1-2-3-4-5-6
bent at the right angle, forearms
D. 4-2-3-5-1-6
parallel to the head and palms facing
inward?
106. Which is executed by moving the
A. Arms in T position
hand from the wrist either clockwise
B. Arms in reverse T position
or counter clockwise?
C. Arms in lateral Position
A. Kulintang
D. Arms in oblique upward position
B. Kumintang
C. Cross arm
111. Whose is known as the “Mother,
D. Outside Hand
Dean and Champion of Philippine folk
Dance”?
107. With the weight of the body on one
A. Francisca Reyes Aquino
foot, hit the floor with the ball of the
B. Tessy Alfonso
other foot after which the lift foot from
C. Fabia de la Rosa
the floor. This is a dance term called
D. Fely Franquelli
________ step.
A. close
112. Which dance is based on music
B. brush
played at bullfight during the bullfight’
C. touch
entrance (paseo) or during the
D. slide
passes (faena) just before the kill?
A. Rumba
108. Which is done when one crosses
B. Pasadoble
the right foot or left foot in front of the
C. Salsa
left (R), bends the body slightly
D. Samba
forward and crosses the hands down
in front with the right (L) hand over the
113. This is consisting of the basic
left (R)?
movement of stepping forward or
A. Saludo
backward and shifting weight
B. Sarok
between feet, then additional quick
C. Arms in lateral position
set of these steps. Which is
D. Set
described.
A. Cha cha cha
109. Which one referred to when one
B. Salsa
places the foot in a certain desired
C. Rumba
position without putting weight on it
D. Pasadoble
and make the sole of the foot rest flat
on the floor?
A. Point
114. Which dance is consisting of two 118. Which track event is won by the
quick steps and then a third slower athlete with the fastest time?
step that takes two beats to execute? A. Jumping Event
Dancers use a box-like pattern to their B. Throwing Event
movements. C. Running Events
A. Cha cha cha D. Combined Event
B. Salsa
C. Rumba 119. Which field event is won by the
D. Pasadoble athlete who has achieved the greatest
height in the contestant?
115. This dance originated ii the E. Jumping Event
Caribbean, although it also has a F. Throwing Event
strong African influence. Couples G. Running Event
typically perform this dance together H. Combined Event
and it centers on a four-beat
combination of two quick steps and a 120. In which track event do teams of
slow step with a pause or tap. Which athletes run and pass on a baton to
dance is described? their team member?
A. Cha cha cha A. Hurdles
B. Salsa B. Relay
C. Rumba C. Pole vault
D. Pasadoble D. Long jump

116. Which is one of the most well- 121. Which are the most important
known Latin dances especially for its throws ii outfield?
role Carnival events, where A. Overwarm
individually dancers perform? Some B. Sidearm
of which are for dancing couple and C. Underarm
others of which are dancers for D. Pitch
individuals.
A. Cha cha cha 122. Which of the following players
B. Samba usually covers home plate when the
C. Rumba catcher leaves it to the field ball?
D. Pasadoble A. Left fielder
B. Short stop
117. Which is a lively dance patterend C. Right fielder
after the drama of the Spanish D. Pitcher
bullfight?
A. Cha cha cha 123. Which player usually cover home
B. Samba plate when the catcher leaves it to
C. Rumba field ball?
D. Pasadoble A. The pitcher
B. 1st baseman
 C. 3rd baseman
D. short stop
124. 24. A ball that is not swung at, but
which is purposely tapped slowly into
the infield is called ________.
A. strike
B. a ball
C. a foul
D. a bunt
125. What is the most important in
batting?
A. To keep eyes on the ball
B. To swing hard
C. To swing bat on a level plane
D. Two swing only a good pitch
126. To which base is a runner always
forced?
A. Home base
B. 2nd Base
C. 1st Base
D. 3rd Base
127. In which of the following cases is
the batter “out”?
A. The call against the batter is strike
2 and he hits and misses the next
ball which is caught by the catcher
B. The call against the batter strike 1
and he tips the next ball which
goes straight to the catcher at
shoulder height and he holds the
ball.
C. There is no runner on base 1 and
when the ball is hit, a runner on
base 2 runs to base 3 where he
arrives after the ball has received
by third baseman who does not
tag him.
D. The call against the batter is ball
3, Strike 2 ad hits the next ball into
the infield and rolls onto foul
territory between home and first
base
128. When does a batter receive a free
base or “walk”?
A. After 3 strikes
B. After 4 balls
C. After hitting two fouls
D. When he hits an infield fly
129. Before pitching, a pitcher must
________.
A. have both feet on the plate
B. have one foot touching the plate
C. hold the ball in front in one hand
D. have both feet together on the
plate
130. Which of the following would be
called “ball”?
A. The ball passes over the home
plate level with the batter’s waist.
B. The ball is struck at by the at by
the batter and missed.
C. The ball passes over the home
plate level with the batter’s knee.
D. The ball passes over the home
plate level with the batter’s armpit
131. What is the formula used to
determine the number of games for
single elimination?
A. G=N-1
B. G=2(N-1)
C. G=2 (1-N)
132. How many byers are there in
tournament with nine (9) participating
teams using single elimination?
A. 3
 B. 1 136. Which do/es NOT characterize
C. 2 butterfly swimming stroke?
D. 0 I. The body is in a supine position.
II. The body is in a prone position.
133. Which is TRUE of the deep catch III. Involves the dolphin kick with a
stroke? wind a windmill-like movement of
I. More effective than the sculling both arms in unison.
stroke? A. I only
II. Has the deep catch freestyle B. I and II
stroke C. II
III. The arm action resembles that of D. I, II and III
the paddle
A. I, II and III 137. When a swimming competitively,
B. II only what should a swimmer do?
C. I only I. Must not swim underwater
D. II and III II. The only time a swimmer can
swim underwater is the first stroke
134. Which is TRUE of sculling stroke? after the start and each turn.
I. Has bent-arm, propeller-inspired III. Use deep catch stroke
motion A. I, II and III
II. The arm action resembles that of B. III only
paddle C. I and II
III. More efficient and effective than D. I only
the deep catch stroke
A. I only 138. Which characterize breast stroke?
B. II only I. The body is I a prone position.
C. I only II. Involves frog kicking alternates
D. II and III with simultaneous movement of
the arms from a point I the front of
135. Which characterize/s an effective the head t shoulder level.
swimming stroke? III. When swimming competitively,
I. Should create the least possible the swimmer’s head must be kept
water resistance above the surface of the water at
II. There should be a minimum of all times.
splashing A. I. II and III
III. Forward motion is smooth and not B. III only
jerky. C. I and II
A. I, II and II D. I only
B. I only
C. I and II 139. Which is swimming that uses any
D. II and III stroke?
A. Freestyle
B. Breast Stroke
 C. Dog paddle
D. Back stroke
140. Which is NOT TRUE of
backstroke?
A. Done in a prone position
B. Done in a supine position
C. Involve alternative over-the-head
arm stroke and a flutter kick dog
paddle
D. Freestyle
141. When a Player commits a flagrant
foul, the referee’s decision is to
________.
A. award a point to the opposing
team
B. call the attention of the coach
C. eject the player from the game
D. continue game
142. In 2003, NBA made a new rule as
regards the stay of players inside the
painted area. Who should get out of
the painted area every three
seconds?
A. Offensive players
B. Defensive players
C. Both offensive and defensive
players
D. The player holding the ball
143. You are in the second base with
two outs. The batter hits the ball into
the air. What should you do?
A. Stay at your base.
B. Run as soon as the batter hits the
ball
C. Go back to your base.
D. Wait and see if the ball is caught is
before advancing to the next base.
144. What should a defensive do when
there is a force out at the second
base?
A. Tag the runner
B. Tag the second base
C. Neither is correct
D. Tag the runner and tag the second
base
145. Which is the art of passing the ball
fairly high and close to the net so that
the spiker can spring into the air and
smash it into opponent’s court?
A. Overhead Volley
B. Spiking
C. Setting
D. Tossing
146. When the serving team fail to
serve the ball legally into the
opponent’s court or return the ball into
the opponent’s court, the referee
gives the decision. Which is referred
to?
A. A side-out win no point awarded is
called
B. A score of one point is given
C. A fault is declared
D. A time out is declared
147. A team is declared a winner of a
set or game in volleyball, when the
team is first to score ______.
A. 25 points
B. 15 points with an advantage of
one point
C. 15 points with an advantage of
one point
D. 19 points with an advantage of
one point
148. The objective of the volleyball
game is to __________.
 A. serve the ball legally into the 152. The following are the team
opponent’s court composition of football game, except
B. send the ball over the net to the one. Which one is it?
ground of the opponent’s court A. Goal keeper
C. the team to reach least 15 points B. Right Fullback
or more C. Forwards
D. make the ball remain in play D. Right Fielder
without touching the ground 153. In basketball, after a field score is
scored, the ball is put back to play by
149. In volleyball game, when two throwing it back from the _________.
teammates contact the ball A. sideline
simultaneously, it is considered two B. centering
contacts for their team EXCEPT C. endline
during ___________. D. corner
A. blocking
B. spiking 154. Which is continuous tapping of the
C. dribbling ball with your hands or palm towards
D. serving the floor with full control and follow
though?
150. In basketball, if players are fouled A. Passing
out while shooting for a goal and B. Dribbling
misses the shot, what is the penalty? C. Spiking
A. The ball is awarded to the D. Stopping
offensive player
B. One penalty shot 155. Which foul is committed by a
C. Two penalties shot player which involves contact with an
D. three penalties shot opponent?
A. Personal Foul
151. In basketball, which one of the B. International Foul
following is NOT allowed? C. Double Foul
A. A player, while still dribbling, puts D. Technical foul
two hands on the ball at the same
time. 156. In basketball game, how long can
B. A player receives the ball, fake a player be on his opponent’s
pass, then dribbles forward. restricted area when his team has a
C. A player dribbles with the right possession of ball without being
hand, then with the left. penalized?
D. A player moves forward dribbling, A. Three Seconds
comes to halt, continues dribbling, B. Five Seconds
then moves dribbling. C. Thirty Seconds
D. Ten Seconds
157. Which of the following is against
the rules?
A. A player bounces ball to another
player.
B. A player takes the ball from the
hands of an opposing player.
C. A player dribbling towards goal
knocks over an opponent who has
is in path.
D. A player rolls the ball along the
ground.
158. How many steps is player
permitted to take between bounces in
a dribble?
A. Two
B. As many as s/he wish
C. One
D. Five
159. When a penalty shot is taken,
when are the players to move into the
restraining area?
A. Whenever they like
B. When the thrower has been given
the ball
C. When the ball leaves the thrower’s
hand
D. When the thrower hits the
backboard or basket
160. The space over the home plate,
between the batter’s armpits and the
tip of his knees is called _________.
A. strike zone
B. penalty zone
C. foul zone
D. foul ball
161. What is the official name of the
governing body for gymnastics
worldwide?
A. Internationale Federation de
Gymnastique
B. Federation Internationale de
Gymnastique
C. Gymnastique Federation
Internationale
D. None of the above
162. For better execution of an inverted
stand, the center of weight must be
_________ the center of support.
A. positioned under
B. positioned over
C. positioned behind
D. of the same level as
163. Which gymnastic position is often
used to complete a back extension
and cartwheel? The weight is
supported on one leg while the other
leg is extended at the rear. The
extended leg is kept straight with the
toe pointed and the chest is kept
erect.
A. Lunge
B. Pli or Plie
C. Arabesque
D. Relev or Releve
164. In the Filipino Pyramid Guide,
gymnastics particularly sports
aerobics, can be classified as
moderate to vigorous activity. How
often should and individual engage in
this type of activity to achieve the
desired level of fitness.
A. 30 minutes, three to five times a
week
B. 35 minutes every day
C. 50 minutes a day, three to five
times a week
D. 120 minutes three times a day
165. Which movements include all
movements that the body is able to
 execute while the feet remain
stationary?
A. Locomotion Movements
B. Non-Locomotion Movements
C. Locomotor Movements
D. Non-Locomotor Movements
166. Lapay Bantique is a mimetic
dance. The dance originates from the
seagull movements as they are
imitated by the native women of
Masbate while waiting for the
fishermen to arrive. The seagull's
movements are characterized by the
following except for the _________.
A. Swoops
B. Glides
C. Skips
D. Dives
167. Why is folk dancing considered a
wholesome form of entertainment?
A. It can be performed both by
children and adults.
B. It is simple and inexpensive
recreation.
C. It is performed while singing.
D. It depicts the culture and traditions
of the people
168. Which was originally an all - male
dance performance or Abra
presenting mock fight between
Ilocano Christians and Non -
Christians using sticks.
A. Sakuting
B. Subli
C. Pamulinnawen
D. La Jota de Paoayena
169. What do the circular movements
in the Bendian, dance of the Ibalois
symbolize?
A. Unity and harmony among the
Ibalois
B. Affinity and nature
C. Victory over enemy
D. Endless life
170. Which dance basically shows off
balancing skill of the performers?
Glasses filled with rice wine are
placed on the head and on each hand
carefully maneuvered with graceful
movements
A. Pandanggo sa Ilaw
B. Subli
C. Rigodon
D. Binasuan
171. Which dance requires balancing
skill to maintain the stability of oil
lamps, placed on head and at the
back of each hand?
A. Binasuan
B. Subli
C. Rigodon
D. Pandanggo sa Ilaw
172. Which is dance, commonly
performed in moderate waltz style
during festivals in Bohol and other
Visayan towns, portrays a young
playful couple's attempt to get each
other's attention.
A. Kuratsa
B. La Jota Moncadena
C. Rigodon
D. Pandanggo sa Ilaw
173. Which dance from leyte Province
is a mimic movement of "tikling birds"
hopping over trees, grass stems or
over bamboo traps set by farmers?
Dancers perform this dance with
 remarkable grace and speed jumping C. Kuratsa
between bamboo poles. D. Pantomina
A. Tinikling
B. La Jota Moncadena 177. It is courtship dance which
C. Kuratsa imitates the courtship and lovemaking
D. Rigodon of dove shown in the dance when the
174. This was originally performed in men attempt to please the woman.
Binan, Laguna as a mock - war dance A. Carinosa
that demonstrates a fight between the B. Sakuting
Moros and the Christians over the C. Kuratsa
prized latik or coconut meat during D. Pantomina
the spanish rule.
A. La Jota Manilena 178. When a serving team commits a
B. Sakuting violation, it is a ______________.
C. Pantomina A. side out and the other team gains
D. Maglalatik the serve
B. point for the serving team
175. Which is TRUE of the dance, C. change of court
Maglalatik? D. point for the opposing team
I. It has a four - part performance such
as the palipasan and the baligtaran 179. Player number 3 delivered an ace
showing the intense battle, the paseo serve. What did the player earn?
and the escaramusa - the A. A point
reconciliation. B. An award
II. Moro dancers wear read trousers C. A violation
while the Christian dancers show up D. A ser
in blue
III. Dancers are male and female with 180. When the player on the back row
harnesses of coconut shells attached jumps to spike the ball, he/she may
on their chests, back, thighs and hips __________.
A. I and II A. spike from any position
B. I only B. spike the ball form the back row
C. I and III and never cross the attack line
D. I, II and III C. spike the ball as long as he/she
takes off in front of the attack line
176. Which dance is performed in D. spike the ball as long as he/she
flirtation manner with fans and takes off from behind the attack
handkerchiefs to assist the dancers' line.
hide - and - seek movements. It
means affectionate and lovable 181. Goal setting is a mechanism that
woman. helps one to understand his/her
A. Carinosa potential and to feel satisfied with its
B. Sakuting results. Thus, in goal - setting to
 enhance personal fitness, the first
step is to assess current level of
_______.
A. Motivation
B. Fitness
C. Readiness
D. current level of understanding
182. What will happen to muscles when
exposed to more stress such as
resistance training?
A. Muscles get weaker and increase
in size.
B. Muscles get weaker and decrease
in size.
C. Muscles get stronger and increase
in size.
D. Muscles get stronger and
decrease in size.
183. Which among the functions of the
skeletal system is responsible for
improved performance?
A. Skeleton provides framework and
shape to the body.
B. Skeleton protects the internal
organs of the body.
C. Bone marrow produces red blood
cells and platelets
D. Skeleton acts as lever.
184. How do muscles work to produce
movement?
A. Pair of muscles acts in opposite
directions.
B. Pair of muscles acts towards the
same direction.
C. Pair of muscles pulls each other.
D. Pair of muscles pushes each
other.
185. In Sepak Takraw, which muscle
group is responsible when hitting the
ball using the thigh?
A. Hamstrings
B. Triceps
C. Quadriceps
D. Gluteus maximus
186. Which of the following statements
does NOT describe the benefit of
physical activity?
A. Reduced risk of heart attack and
blood pressure
B. Good sense of body image
C. Good chance of winning in a sport
competition
D. Meeting new friends
187. Goal setting is a mechanism that
helps one to understand his/her
potential and to feel satisfied with its
results. Thus, in goal - setting to
enhance personal fitness, the first
step is to assess current level of
___________.
A. Motivation
B. Fitness
C. readiness to affect change
D. current level of understanding
about fitness
188. If you want to determine your
fitness program parameters which
should you do first?
A. Get a physical examination to
identify any physical limitations
B. Construct your fitness plan
C. Commit yourself to your fitness
plan
D. Figure out how much time you can
have for work outs.
189. If you want to have a personalized C. I only
fitness training program, which should D. I, II, and III
you do first?
A. Determine your fitness program 193. For strength training which are
parameters convenient tools?
B. Select specific physical activities I. Weight machine
for your fitness program II. Dumbbells
C. Record your Fitness Training Plan III. Exercise balls
D. Evaluate your faithfulness to your IV. Resistance bands
fitness program A. I, II and III and IV
B. I, II and III
190. How much time should you devote C. II and III
to work outs? D. I and II
A. Depends on your fitness goals
and current level of physical 194. Which are strength routines that
fitness do not require equipment?
B. About 150 minutes total of I. Push – ups
physical activity per week II. Yoga
C. About 200 minutes total of III. Dumbbells
physical activity per week IV. Dance workout with video
D. Depends on your age A. I and II
B. I, II, III and IV
191. Should you include dietary C. I only
changes in your personal fitness D. II and IV
plan?
A. Yes, no more salty foods. 195. Which is NOT part of cardio
B. Yes, no more meat routines?
C. Depends on your fitness goals A. Jogging
D. No, the work out will overcome B. Weight machines
effect of poor diet. C. Jump rope
D. Dance workout videos
192. Why is it necessary to established
your specific goals for personal 196. Which type of gymnastics event
fitness? Because your goals combines gymnastics, dance, ballet
determine the _______________. and apparatus manipulation?
I. types of exercise you should build A. Men's Artistic Gymnastics
into your plan B. Rhythmic Gymnastics
II. amount of time you will need to C. Women Artistic Gymnastics
exercise D. None of the above
III. significant dietary changes, if
necessary 197. In gymnastics, safety is of primary
A. II and III concern. What should a performer do
B. I and II
 when he/she loses balance in a
stunt?
A. Land with bended knees
B. Land on both feet
C. Stand straight
D. Roll out
198. Spotting has a twofold purpose.
First is the performer's safety and
prevention of injury and second, is the
guiding of performer to help develop
body awareness. Which among the
roles of a spotter is the most difficult
to perform?
A. To prevent a hazardous fall
B. To help develop self confidence
C. To help support the body weight
D. To assist performer, carry out the
stunts
200. What contribution of Friedrich
Ludwig Jahn of Germany made him
the "father of modern gymnastics"?
A. He develops the bars (side,
horizontal and parallel), balance
beam and jumping events.
B. He included physical exercises
with other forms of instruction
C. He develops a more graceful form
of the sport.
D. He invented more than 30 pieces
of apparatus.

199. In a spike position, the body is fully

bent forward at the hips while legs are
kept straight. Pike can be performed
in three positions. What are they?
1. Walking Position
2. Lying Position
3. Sitting Position
4. Standing Position
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 4

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 ANSWER KEYS

1. C 51. A 101. C 151. A

2. A 52. C 102. A 152. D
3. B 53. A 103. C 153. C
4. A 54. B 104. A 154. B
5. C 55. A 105. D 155. A
6. B 56. A 106. B 156. A
7. D 57. C 107. B 157. C
8. A 58. D 108. B 158. B
9. B 59. A 109. B 159. C
10. C 60. C 110. A 160. A
11. A 61. A 111. A 161. B
12. D 62. C 112. B 162. B
13. C 63. A 113. A 163. C
14. B 64. A 114. C 164. A
15. B 65. A 115. B 165. D
16. B 66. A 116. B 166. C
17. A 67. C 117. D 167. B
18. A 68. A 118. C 168. A
19. D 69. C 119. A 169. A
20. B 70. D 120. B 170. D
21. A 71. A 121. A 171. D
22. B 72. C 122. C 172. D
23. D 73. D 123. A 173. A
24. B 74. B 124. D 174. D
25. C 75. D 125. A 175. A
26. A 76. D 126. C 176. A
27. A 77. B 127. A 177. D
28. C 78. D 128. A 178. D
29. A 79. D 129. A 179. A
30. D 80. C 130. B 180. D
31. A 81. D 131. A 181. B
32. C 82. B 132. B 182. C
33. A 83. B 133. A 183. D
34. B 84. C 134. A 184. C
35. A 85. D 135. A 185. A
36. C 86. B 136. A 186. C
37. A 87. C 137. A 187. B
38. D 88. D 138. A 188. A
39. A 89. A 139. A 189. A
40. B 90. D 140. A 190. A
41. A 91. D 141. C 191. C
42. D 92. C 142. C 192. D
43. A 93. D 143. B 193. A
44. A 94. D 144. D 194. A
45. C 95. D 145. D 195. B
46. B 96. D 146. B 196. B
47. B 97. A 147. A 197. D
48. C 98. C 148. A 198. A
49. B 99. D 149. A 199. B
50. C 100. B 150. C 200. A