Duazo Compilation

MACHINE SHOP AND
PRACTICE
(DUAZO)
TEST 1 – TEST 40
FEBRUARY 2012
TEST 1: Kinematics
1. ME Board October 1999
It deals only with the motion of bodies without reference to the forces that cause them.
A. Kinetics
B. Motion
C. Kinematics
D. Acceleration
Progressive change in position of a body is called;
A. Acceleration
B. Motion
C. Force
D. Momentum
3. ME Board April 1998
Cam in general may be divided into two classes; uniform motion and _____ motion cam.
A. Reverse
B. Gravity
C. Decelerated
D. Accelerated
Product of mass and linear velocity is known as;
A. Impulse
B. Linear Momentum
C. Angular Momentum
D. Impact
It is the motion of an object diminished or decreased speed.
A. Deceleration
B. Retarded Motion
C. Negative Impulse
D. All of these
It is the property of matter, which causes it to resist any change in its motion or state of rest.
A. Brake
B. Friction
C. Inertia
D. Impulse
If the velocity of mass is the same all the time during which motion takes place is called;
A. Deceleration
B. Uniform Motion
C. Acceleration
D. None of these
Statement that a given body is an static equilibrium means that the body cannot;
A. A many type of motion
B. Be acted upon by more than one force
C. Undergo any Displacement
D. have any type of acceleration
It is a science of motion that can be solved in terms of scalar and vector algebra.
A. Kinematics
B. Curvilinear translation
C. Projectile
D. Acceleration
An object thrown upward will return to earth, the magnitude of the terminal velocity equal to;
A. Zero
B. ½ the initial velocity
C. Twice the initial velocity
D. Initial Velocity
The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plain perpendicular to the axis of the rotation of
the cam.
A. Radial Cam
B. Cylindrical Cam
C. Cam Curves
D. Tangential Cam
The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plain parallel to the axis of the rotation.
A. Cam Curves
B. Cylindrical Cam
C. Tangential Cam
D. Radial Cam

A cone formed by elements, which are perpendicular to the elements of the pitch cone at the
large end.
A. Cone distance
B. Back cone
C. Root cone
D. Cone center
The ability of moving body to perform work is called;
A. Internal energy
B. Potential energy
C. Kinetic energy
D. Flow work
15. A slider crank chain is made up of ______.
A. One turning and one sliding pair
B. One turning and two sliding pairs
C. Two turning and one sliding pair
D. Three turning and one sliding pair
16. A Scott-Russell mechanism is made up of;
A. Rotating pair only
B. Sliding and turning pairs
C. Turning and rotary pairs
D. Turning pair only
17. Ackerman steering gear is made up of;
A. Rolling and sliding pairs
B. Rolling pairs
C. Sliding and rotary pairs
D. Turning pairs
18. A cam where the follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plain parallel to the axis of the cam
is called;
A. Circular cam
B. Cylindrical cam
C. Reciprocating cam
D. Tangential cam
19. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a four bar mechanism lies on;
A. A point obtained by intersection of extending adjoining links
B. Left side pivot of this link
C. Right side pivot of this link
D. Any of the choices above
20. A vector quantity that describes both how fast it is moving and the direction in which it is
heated;
A. Acceleration
B. Displacement
C. Motion
D. Velocity
21. Which of the following is the rate at which the velocity is changing?
A. Acceleration
B. Linear
C. Motion
D. Velocity
22. The direction of the ______ is toward the center in which, the study moves.
A. Centripetal acceleration
B. Centrifugal acceleration
C. Radial cam
D. Tangential
23. It is the device that changes the magnitude, direction or mode of application of a torque or a
force while transmitting it for a particular purpose.
A. Frame
B. Machine
C. Mechanism
D. Structure
24. The process of obtaining the resultant of any number of vectors.
A.
B.
C. Vector Quantity
D. Vector resolution
25. It has magnitude, direction and sense.
A. Scalar quantity
B. Absolute quantity
C. Vector quantity
D. Relative velocity
26. A plate, cylinder or other solid with a surface of contact so designed as to cause or modify
the motion of the piece.
A. Cam
B. Disk
C. Gear
D. Pulley
27. When acceleration is zero, the
A. Velocity is constant
B. Velocity is negative
C. Velocity is variable
D. Velocity is zero
28. When velocity is changing, the acceleration is
A. Constant
B. Not constant
C. Variable
D. Zero
29. Klein’s construction is used to determine the
A. Acceleration of various parts
B. Angular acceleration of various parts
C. displacement of various parts
D. Velocity of various parts
30. Klein’s construction can be used when
A. Crank has a uniform angular acceleration
B. Crank has a uniform angular velocity
C. Crank has a non-uniform angular velocity
D. B and C above
31. The cam angle is
A. The angle subtended by live portion of a cams center
B. The angle of rotation of a cam for a definite displacement of the follower
C. The angle subtended at the cam center by the portion of the cam during which the
follower moves
D. The angle subtended by the cam at the cam center when the follower dwells
32. The pitch point on a cam refers to
A. Any point on pitch curve
B. A point at the distance equal to pitch circle radius from the center
C. The point of cam pitch circle that has that has the maximum pressure angle
D. None of the above
33. For a kinematics chain to be considered as mechanism
A. None of the links should be fixed
B. One link should be fixed
C. There is no such criterion
D. Two links should be fixed
34. Hart mechanism has how many links?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
35. Peaucellier mechanism has how many links?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
36. A cam with a roller follower would constitute which type of pair?
A. Closed pair
B. Higher pair
C. Lower pair
D. Open pair
37. Kinematics pairs are those pairs that have
A. Elements of pairs not held together mechanically
B. Point or line contact between the elements when in motion
C. Surface contact between the two elements when in motion
D. Two elements that allow relative motion
38. A pantograph is a mechanism having
A. Higher pairs
B. Lower pairs
C. Rolling pairs
D. Spherical pairs
39. The number of links of a pantograph is equal to
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
40. In elliptical trammels;
A. All four pairs are turning
B. One pair turning and three pairs sliding
C. Three pairs turning and one pair sliding
D. Two pairs and two pairs sliding
41. The Klein’s method of construction for reciprocating engine mechanism
A. Enables determination of Coriolis component
B. Is a simplified form of instantaneous center method
C. Is based on acceleration diagram
D. Utilizes a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for reciprocating engine
42. If a particle of a link has a velocity that changes both in magnitude and direction of an any
instant, then
A. It must have only unidirectional acceleration
B. It must have two components of acceleration e.g. , centripetal and tangential
C. It must have three components of acceleration e.g. , centripetal, centrifugal and
tangential
D. It must have three components of acceleration e.g. , centripetal, centrifugal and
gravitational
43. Select the one that has the higher pair
A. Crosby indicator mechanism
B. Hart’s straight line mechanism
C. Thompson indicator mechanism
D. Both gearing mechanism
44. A shaft revolving in a bearing forms
A. Cylindrical pair
B. Higher pair
C. Lower pair
D. Sliding pair
45. The total number of instantaneous center for a mechanism of N links is equal to
A. 2N
B. (N-1)(N+1)
C. 2N (N-1)
D. N (N-1)/2
46. A kinematics chain needs a minimum of
A. 2 link and 2 turning pairs
B. 3 links and 3 turning pairs
C. 3 links and 2 turning pairs
D. 4 links and 4 turning pairs
47. For kinematics chains formed by lower pair, the relation between the number of joint J is
given by
A. L = 2/3 (J+2)
B. L = 3/2 (J+2)
C. L = 2/3 (L+2)
D. J = 3/2 (L+2)
48. In case of an elliptical trammel,
A. 1 pair turns and 2 pairs slide
B. 2 pairs turn and 2 pairs slide
C. 2 pairs turn and 1 pair slide
D. All 4 pairs turn
49. Coriolis component of acceleration is found in
A. four bar mechanism
B. Mechanism of steam engine
C. Higher pair
D. Whitworth-quick-return mechanism
50. It is one that is not appreciably deformed by the action of any external force or load
A. Rigid body
B. Structure
C. Frame
D. Mechanism
Answers to Test 1 – Kinematics
1. C kinematics
2. B motion
3. D accelerated
4. B linear momentum
5. B retarded motion
6. C inertia
7. B uniform motion
8. A having any type of motion
9. A kinematics
10. D initial velocity
11. A radial cam
12. B cylindrical cam
13. B back cone
14. C kinetic energy
15. D three turning and one sliding
16. B sliding and turning pairs
17. D turning pairs
18. B cylindrical cam
19. A a point obtained by intersection of extending adjoining links
20. D velocity
21. A acceleration
22. A centripetal acceleration
23. B machine
24. B vector composition
25. C vector quantity
26. A cam
27. A velocity is constant
28. A constant
29. A acceleration of various parts
30. D B and C
31. B the angle of rotation of a cam for a definite displacement of the
follower
32. C a point of cam pitch circle that has the maximum pressure angle
33. B one link should be fixed
34. B 6
35. D 8
36. B higher pair
37. D two elements that allow relative motion
38. B lower pairs
39. B 4
40. D two pairs and two pairs sliding
41. D utilizes a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for reciprocating
engine
42. B it must have two components of acceleration e.g. , centripetal and tangential
43. D both gearing mechanism
44. C lower pair
45. D N (N-1)/2
46. D 4 links and 4 turning pairs
47. A L = 2/3 (J+2)
48. B two pairs turn and two pairs slide
49. D whit worth-quick-return mechanism
50. A rigid body
TEST 2: Stresses
1. At a given section of an I beam, the maximum bending stress occurs at the

A. Maximum shear stress area
B. Neutral axis
C. Web joint near the flange
D. Outermost
2. The resultant of two or more forces is a
A. Couple of forces
B. Concurrent of forces
C. Momentum
D. Resolution of forces
3. Two or more forces acting together, could be replaced by a single force with same effect in
a mass called;
A. Couple of forces
B. Resolution of forces
C. Resultant
D. Concurrent of forces
4. The frictional forces defends on coefficient of friction and
A. Torque
B. Weights of object
C. Normal of force
D. Moment
5. Shear modulus is also known as;
A. Shear elasticity
B. Poisson’s ratio
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Modulus of rigidity
6. the maximum stress induced in a material when intermittent or repeated load without
causing failure is called:
A. Ultimate stress
B. Endurance limit
C. Ultimate strength
D. Elastic limit
7. Internal stresses exerted by the fibers to resist the action of outside force is called:
A. Shearing stress
B. Tensile stress
C. Ultimate stress
D. Compressive stress
8. Alloy steel axle under repeated load/stress will eventually fail if the load/stress is above the
endurance for the steel under consideration. The endurance limit of the steel is therefore
A. Equal to the allowable stress of the modulus of elasticity
B. Equal to half of the ultimate strength
C. Equal to module of elasticity
D. Equal to 80% of the elastic limit
9. Moment of inertia is called:
A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Weep strength
C. Radius of gyration
D. None of these
10. Deflection of a beam is
A. Proportional to the modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia
B. Proportional to the load imposed and inversely to the length squared
C. Inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity and moment of inertia
D. Inversely proportional to the weight imposed times the length
11. Continuous stretching under load even if the stress is less than the yield point is called:
A. Plasticity
B. Elasticity
C. Creep
D. Ductility
12. It is the opposite direction of parallel forces
A. Concurrent
B. Coplanar
C. Couple
D. Non coplanar
13. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross section of the beam to the section modulus is
A. Equal to the radius of gyration
B. Equal to the area of the cross section
C. Measure of a distance
D. Dependent on modulus of elasticity of beam measure
14. The differential of the shear equation is which of the following
A. Bending moment of the beam
B. Tensile strength of the beam
C. Slope of the elastic curve
D. Load of the beam
15. Could be defined as simply push and pull is known as
A. Work
B. Force
C. Inertia
D. Power
16. The changes in shape or geometry of the body due to action of a force on it is called
deformation or
A. Shearing stress
B. Stresses
C. Compressive stress
D. Strains
17. Ability to resist deformation under stress is called
A. Plasticity
B. All of these
C. Stiffness
D. Toughness
18. The property of the material relates the lateral strain to longitudinal strain is called
A. Stress
B. Strain
C. Poisson’s ratio
D. Endurance limit
19. The single force which produces the same effect upon a body as two or more forces acting
together is called
A. Resultant force
B. Co-planar force
C. Couple
D. Non co-planar force
20. The ability of metal to resist crushed is called
A. Shearing strength
B. Compressive stress
C. Torsional strength
D. Tensile strength
21. Finding the resultant of two or more forces is called
A. Co-planar
B. Non co-planar forces
C. Couple
D. Composition of forces
22. In general, the design stress and factor of safety are related as follows
A. Design stress = ultimate stress times factor of safety
B. Design stress = ultimate stress divide by factor of safety
C. Factor of safety = design stress divided by ultimate stress
D. Ultimate stress = factor of safety divided by design stress
23. Stresses that are independent to loads are known as
A. Working stresses
B.
C. Residual Stress
D. Shear stresses
24. The ratio of unit lateral deformation to unit longitudinal deformation is called
A. Poisson’s ratio
B. Willan’s line
D. Deformation
25. Separate forces, which can be so combined are called
A. Non-concurrent forces
B. Couple
C. Combined forces
D. Concurrent forces
26. Endurance strength is nearly proportional to the ultimate strength but not with
A. Yield strength
B. Design stress
C. Shear stress
D. All of these
27. The three moment equation may be used to analyze a
A. Tapered column
B. Continuous beam
C. Endurance limit
D. Tensile stress
28. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of
A. Shear strain to compressive strain
B. Elastic limit to compressive strain
C. Lateral strain to longitudinal strain
D. Elastic limit to proportional limit
29. The product of the resultant of all forces acting on a body and the time that the resultant acts
A. Angular impulse
B. Angular momentum
C. Linear impulse
D.
30. The systems of forces and opposite collinear forces are added, which of the following if any
is true?
A. Equilibrium is destroyed
B. Equilibrium is maintained
C. None of these is true
D. An unbalance of moment axis
31. What is the property of the material, which resist forces acting to pull the material apart?
A. Shear strength
B. Tensile strength
D. Compressive strength
32. What is the metal characteristic to withstand forces that causes twisting?
A. Torsional strength
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Twisting moment
D. Elasticity
33. The unit deformation is called
A. Torsion
B. Strain
C. Stress
D. Shear
34. The total amount of permanent extension of the gage length measured after specimen has
fractured and is expressed as percentage increase of the original length.
A. Elongation
B. Strain
C. Stress
D. Elastic limit
35. Strength of a material is that of a stress intensity determined by considering the maximum
test load to act the original area of the test specimens called
A. Yield point
B. Ultimate strength
C. Break strength
D. Elastic limit
36. The maximum stress, which is reached during a tension test is called
A. Stress
B. Elasticity
C. Strain
D. Tensile strength
37. Which of the following is the differential of the shear equation?
A. Bending moment
B. Load on the beam
C. Tensile strength of the beam
D. Slope of the beam
38. The change in length per unit original length is
A. Strain
B. Stress
C. Deformation
D. Elastic modulus
39. The ability of material or metal to resist being crushed is
A. Fatigue strength
B. Bending strength
D. Compressive strength
40. The ability of metals to withstand loads without breaking down is termed as
A. Strain
B. Stress
C. Elasticity
D. Strength
41. The ability of a metal to withstand forces that causes a member to twist
A. Shear strength
B. Tensile strength
C. Bearing strength
D. Torsional strength
42. The ratio of stress to strain within the elastic limit is called
A. Creep
B. Modulus of rigidity
D. Poisson’s ratio
43. The last point at which a material may be stretched and still return to its un deformed
condition upon release of the stress.
A. Rupture limit
B. Elastic limit
C. Proportional limit
D. Ultimate limit
44. The deformation that results from a stress and is expressed in terms of the amount of
deformation per inch.
A. Elongation
B. Strain
C. Poisson’s ratio
D. Elasticity
45. The internal resistance a materials offers to being deformed and is measured in terms of
applied load.
A. Strain
B. Elasticity
C. Stress
D. Resilience
46. The maximum stress induced in a material when subjected to alternating or repeated
loading without causing failure.
A. Ultimate strength
B. Yield strength
C. Endurance strength
D. Rupture strength
47. The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected before failure occurs is called.
A. Rupture strength
B. Ultimate strength
C. Yield strength
D. Proportional limit
48. The total deformation measured in the direction of the line of stress.
A. Strain
B. Elasticity
C. Elongation
D. Contraction
49. The total resistance that a material offers to an applied load is called
A. Friction torque
B. Stress
C. Rigidity
D. Compressive force
50. The ability of metal to withstand forces thus following a number of twist.
A. Shear strength
B. Bearing strength
C. Endurance limit
D. Deformation
Answers to Test 2 – Stresses
1. D outer most 26. A yield strength
2. D resolution of forces 27. B continuous beam
3. C resultant 28. C lateral strain to longitudinal
4. C normal force strain
5. D modulus of rigidity 29. C linear impulse
6. B endurance limit 30. B equilibrium is maintained
7. A shearing stress 31. B tensile strength
8. B equal to half of the ultimate 32. A torsional strength
strength 33. B strain
9. D none of these 34. A elongation
10. C inversely proportional to the 35. B ultimate strength
modulus of elasticity 36. D tensile strength
11. C creep 37. B load on the beam
12. C couple 38. A strain
13. C measure of a distance 39. D compressive strength
14. D load of a beam 40. D strength
15. B force 41. D torsional strength
16. D strain 42. C modulus of elasticity
17. C stiffness 43. B elastic limit
18. C Poisson’s ratio 44. B strain
19. A resultant force 45. C stress
20. B compressive stress 46. C endurance strength
21. D composition of forces 47. B ultimate strength
22. B design stress = ultimate 48. A strain
stress divided by the factor of safety 49. B stress
23. C residual stress 50. A shear strength
24. A Poisson’s ratio
25. D concurrent forces
Test 5
1. Torsional deflection is a significant consideration in the design of shaft and the limit
should be in the range of degrees/foot of length.
a. 0.004 to 0.006
b. 0.08 to 1
c. 0.006 to 0.008
d. 0.008 to 1
2. For universal joint shaft angle should be degrees maximum and much less if in high
rotational speed.
a. 12
b. 16
c. 15
d. 14
3. It is a good design practice for steel line shafting to consider a limit to the linear
deflection of inch/foot length maximum.
a. 0.050
b. 0.010
c. 0.020
d. 0.060
4. It is a rotating machine member that transmits power.
a. Cam
b. Plate
c. Shaft
d. Flywheel
5. A stationary carrying pulleys, wheels and etc. that transmit power called:
a. Axle
b. Propeller shaft
c. Turbine shaft
d. Machine shaft
6. A line shaft is also known as:
a. Counter shaft
b. Jack shaft
c. Main shaft
d. Head shaft
7. Which of the following shaft intermediate between a line shaft and a driven shaft?
a. Counter shaft
b. Jack shaft
c. Head shaft
d. All of the above
8. Short shaft on machines are called
a. Core shafts
b. Head shafts
c. Medium shafts
d. Spindles
9. For shafts, the shear due to bending is a maximum at the neutral plane where the
normal stress is
a. Constant
b. Maximum
c. Minimum
d. Zero
10. Criteria for the limiting torsional deflection vary from 0.08 per foot of length for machinery
shafts to per foot
a. 1°
b. 2°
c. 3°
d. 4°
11. For transmission shafts the allowable deflection is one degree in a length of
diameters
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
12. An old rule of thumb for transmission shafting is that the deflection should not exceed
of length between support
a. 0.01 in. per foot
b. 0.02 in. per foot
c. 0.03 in. per foot
d. 0.04 in. per foot
13. In general for machinery shafts, the permissible deflection may be closer to
a. 0.02 in/ft
b. 0.01 in/ft
c. 0.002 in/ft
d. 0.030 in/ft
14. The speed at which the center of mass will equal the deflecting forces on the shaft with
its attached bodies will then vibrate violently, since the centrifugal force changes its
direction as the shaft turns.
a. Critical speed
b. Geometrical speed
c. Mean speed
d. Unit speed
15. For shaft, minimum value of numerical combined shock and fatigue factor be applied in
every case to the computed bending moment is
a. 1.0
b. 1.3
c. 1.5
d. 1.8
16. It is suggested that the design factor of yield strength be about 1.5 for the smooth load,
about 2 to 2.25 for minor shock loads, and when the loading reverses during operation
a. 3.0
b. 4.0
c. 3.5
d. 4.5
17. A column is called short column when
a. The length is more than 30 times the diameter
b. Slenderness ratio is more than 120
c. The length is less than 8 times the diameter
d. The slenderness ratio is more than 32
18. For a circular shaft subjected to torque the value of shear stress
a. Is uniform throughout
b. Has maximum value at the axis
c. Has maximum value at the surface
d. Is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a maximum value at the surface of the
shaft
19. The compression members tend to buckle in the direction of
a. Axis of load
b. Perpendicular to the axis of load
c. Minimum cross-section
d. Least radius of gyration
20. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be made up of
a. Clad material
b. Composite material
c. Homogenous material
d. Heterogeneous material
21. The column splice is used for increasing
a. Strength of the column
b. Cross-section area of the column
c. Length of the column
d. All the above
22. A simply supported beam has a uniformly distributed load on it, the bending moment is
a. Triangle
b. Parabola
c. Semi-circle
d. Rectangle
23. The power obtained by piston reaches flywheel through the
a. Countershafts
b. Crank shafts
c. Transmission shafts
d. Line shafts
24. There are two types of crankshafts, namely
a. Single piece and built up
b. Forged and turned
c. Rotary and stationary
25. Engine valves get open by means of
a. Cam shaft
b. Rocker shaft
c. Crank shaft
d. Valve guard
26. The value of allowable stresses which are generally used in practice for main
transmitting shafts is
a. 282 kg/cm3
b. 423 kg/cm3
c. 599 kg/cm3
d. 620 kg/cm3
27. The value of allowable stresses which are generally used in practice for line shafts
carrying pulleys is
a. 150 kg/cm3
b. 282 kg/cm3
c. 423 kg/cm3
d. 550 kg/cm3
28. The value of allowable stresses which are generally used in practice for small short
shafts, countershafts is
a. 282 kg/cm3
b. 599 kg/cm3
c. 650 kg/cm3
d. 750 kg/cm3
29. Torsional deformation in transmission shafts should be limited to in 20 diameters
a. 1 °
b. 2°
c. 3°
d. 4°
30. Lateral deflection caused by bending should not exceed
a. 0.001 in per foot of length
b. 0.005 in per foot of length
c. 0.01 in per foot of length
d. 0.05 in per foot of length
31. Front axle should be lived and
a. Weak
b. Dead
c. Strong
d. None of these
32. The steering is coupled to the two front wheels by means of a
a. Connecting rod
b. Tie rod
c. Push rod
d. Spindle
33. In the overdrive transmission system the rotation speed rest higher than that of
engines speed
a. Main shaft
b. Crank shaft
c. Propeller shaft
d. Machine shaft
34. A slip joint the length of the propeller shaft
a. Increase
b. Decreases
c. Keeps appropriate
d. None of the above
35. The transmission system incorporates clutch, gear box, and propeller shaft and
a. Brake
b. Differential
c. Steering
d. Main shafting
36. The lay shaft moves the primary shaft
a. Equal to
b. More than
c. Less than
d. In the gear ratio
37. The main shaft is lifted the lay shaft
a. Before
b. After
c. Parallel to
d. Adjacent to
38. In the top gear, the rotational speeds of remain the same
a. Primary and lay shafts
b. Main and lay shafts
c. Primary and main shafts
d. Secondary and main shafts
39. The primary and lay shafts rotate in direction
a. In the same
b. Different
c. Reverse
40. It is an integral part of a machine
a. Spindle
b. Axle
c. Counter shaft
d. Machine shaft
41. Stresses in shafts are analyzed through
a. Torsional
b. Bending
c. Axial
d. All of these
42. What is the standard stock length?
a. 16 ft
b. 20 ft
c. 24 ft
d. All of the above
43. Centrifugal separators that operate at speeds also employ these flexible shafts.
a. 1000 to 3000 rpm
b. 5000 to 10000 rpm
c. 15000 to 30000 rpm
d. 20000 to 50000 rpm
44. Which of the following materials used for shafting
a. AISI 3240
b. AISI 3150
c. AISI 4063
d. AISI 33000
45. The process of redistributing the mass attached to a rotating body in order to reduce
vibrations arising from a centrifugal force
a. Shaft coupling
b. Shaft balancing
c. Shaft hooper
d. Stator balancing
46. In many cases the of the shaft is an import design feature
a. Deflection
b. Rigidity
c. Size
d. Strength
47. Commercial shafting is made of
a. Low carbon steel
b. Cast iron
c. Brass
d. Bronze
48. What is the most common material for shafting?
a. Wrought iron
b. Cast iron
c. Mild steel
d. Aluminum
49. Cold drawing produces a shaft that hit rolling, but with higher residual stresses.
a. Weaker
b. Stronger
c. Harder
50. Allowable stresses in shear equal to are common in design of a shaft
a. 3000 to 5000 psi
b. 4000 to 6000 psi
c. 5000 to 8000 psi
d. 6000 to 10000 psi
ANSWERS:
1. B 0.08 to 1 25. A cam shaft

2. C 15 26. A 282 kg/m3
3. B 0.010 27. C 423 kg/m3
4. C shaft 28. B 599 kg/m3
5. A axle 29. 1°
6. C main shaft 30. C 0.01 in per foot of length
7. D all of the above 31. B dead
8. D spindles 32. B tie rod
9. D zero 33. C propeller shaft
10. A 1° 34. C keeps appropriate
11. C 20 35. B differential
12. A 0.01 in per foot 36. D in the gear ratio
13. C 0.002 in/ft 37. C parallel to
14. A critical speed 38. C primary and main shaft
15. C 1.5 39. C reverse
16. D 4.5 40. D machine shaft
17. C the length is less than 8 times the 41. D all of these
diameter 42. D all of the above
18. D Is zero at the axis and linearly 43. D 20000 to 50000 rpm
increases to a maximum value at the 44. A AISI 3240
surface of the shaft 45. B Shaft balancing
19. D Least radius of gyration 46. B rigidity
20. D. Heterogeneous material 47. A low carbon steel
21. C length of the column 48. C mild steel
22. B parabola 49. B stronger
23. B. crank shaft 50. C 5000 to 8000 psi
24. A single piece and built up
Test 6
1. A type of coupling that allows slight amount of torsional angular flexibility due to
introduction with some elastic material cylindrically wrapped around the bolts in the
flange.
a. Simple bonding elastic coupling
b. Elastic material bushed coupling
c. Elastic material bounded coupling
d. All of these
2. Which of the following keys that is square or flat and tapered with head?
a. Pin key
b. Saddle key
c. Gib-head key
3. What are considered as the most common keys?
a. Flat keys
b. Square keys
c. Saddle keys
d. A & B above
4. A key may either straight or tapered. It is usually a drive fit.
a. Pin key
b. Saddle key
c. Gib-head key
d. None of these
5. A key with of the several patented methods of keyed into a hole that is small enough to
close the slit, assembled in radial direction.
a. Fit key
b. Saddle key
c. Roll pin
d. Pin key
6. Kennedy keys are also known as.
a. Tangential keys
b. Normal keys
c. Saddle keys
d. Roll pin
7. A key shaft that allows the hub to move along the shaft but prevents the rotation of the
shaft.
a. Woodruff key
b. Feather key
c. Gibbs key
d. Square key
8. Which of the following type of fits use for involute splines?
a. Close fit
b. Press fit
c. Sliding fit
d. All of these
9. Used for permanent fits and are similar to involute splines except that the pressure angle
is 14.5 deg.
a. Separation load
b. Stub serrations
c. Spline shaft
d. Involute serrations
10. In the case of knuckle joint, the pin is most likely to fail in
a. Compression
b. Shear
c. Tension
d. Double shear
11. In case of sunk key,
a. The key is cut in both shaft and hub
b. The key way is cut in hub only
c. The key way is cut in shaft only
d. The key way is helical along the shaft
12. Splined shafts are generally for
a. Aircrafts
b. Automobiles
c.
d.
13. Splines are used when
a. The power to be transmitted is low
b. The power to be transmitted is high
c. The torque is high
d. Axial relative motion between shaft and hub is necessary
14. Which key normally used in wristwatches?
a. Kennedy key
b. Sunk key
c. Tangent key
15. If a square key and shaft are to be of the same material and of equal strength the length
of key would be equal to
a. d
b. 0.75 d
c. 1.2 d
d. 1.5 d
16. A type of key that is used in self-aligning machine key made by a side milling cutter in
the form of a segment of a disk.
a. Kennedy key
b. Saddle key
c. Tangent key
d. Woodruff key
17. A female mating member that forms a groove in the shaft to which the key fits.
a. Key path
b. Key way
c. Key holder
d. Key hole
18. A square taper key fitted into a keyway of square section and driven from opposite ends
of the hub is known as.
a. Barth key
b. Feather key
c. Kennedy key
d. Saddle key
19. A machine member employed at the interface of a pair of mating male and female
circular cross – sectioned members to prevent relative angular motion between these
mating.
a. Key way
b. Key
c. Constant key
d. Variable key
20. A feather key is one of the following types of
a. Sunk
b. Tapered
c. Parallel
d. Tangent
21. Permanent keys made integral with the shaft and fitting into key ways broached into the
mating hub.
a. square key
b. splines
c. woodruff keys
d. kennedy keys
22. A type of square key with bottom two corners beveled is called
a. Flat key
b. Feather key
c. Barth keys
d. Woodruff keys
23. The bearing load on feather keys should not exceed
a. 600 psi
b. 800 psi
c. 1000 psi
d. 1200 psi
24. The two keys are angularly spaced
a. 45°
b. 60°
c. 75°
d. 90°
25. The three keys are angularly spaced
a. 60°
b. 90°
c. 120°
d. 180°
26. The permissible crushing is about times the permission shear stress.
a. 1.5
b. 1.7
c. 1.9
d. 1.10
27. Practical considerations required that the hub length should be at least .
a. 1.2d
b. 1.5d
c. 1.7d
d. 1.9d
28. For three keys, a percent overload often is used.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
29. A pin that is cylindrical in shape with a head on one end and a radial through hole in the
other end.
a. Clavis pins
b. Taper pins
c. Dowel pins
d. Taper pins
30. Used for the attachment of levers, wheels and similar devices onto shafts for light-duty
service.
a. Clevis pins
b. Cotter pins
c. Dowel pins
d. Taper pins
31. The key fits into mating grooves in the shaft and mating member is called:
a. Key way
b. Key path
c. Key hole
d. None of these
32. Used as couplings, or in addition to overload, where there is danger of injury to
machines or to materials in process.
a. Flange couplings
b. Involute couplings
c. King pins
d. Shear pins
33. A coupling that transmits power via the frictional forces induced by pulling the flanges
toward each other over slotted tapered sleeves is known as
a. Flange coupling
b. Flange compression coupling
c. Ribbed compression coupling
d. Rigid coupling
34. What is used for absorbing some shock and vibrations that may be appear on one shaft
and of preventing the occurrence of reversed stresses caused by the shaft deflecting at
the coupling.
a. Flange coupling
b. Flexible coupling
c. Rigid coupling
d. None of these
35. For a single Hooke’s coupling the shaft angle should not be greater than.
a. 10°
b. 12°
c. 15°
d. 30°
36. A universal coupling is
a. A rigid coupling
b. A type of flange coupling
c. Used for collinear shafts
d. Used for non-collinear shafts
37. A flange coupling is
a. Flexible
b. Used for collinear shafts
c. Used for non-collinear shafts
d. Used only on small shafts rotating at low speed
38. In flange coupling the weakest element should be the
a. Bolts
b. Flange
c. Key
d. Shaft
39. In flange coupling the flange bolts are designed for
a. Fatigue
b. Shear forces
c. Compression
d. Tensile forces
40. Which of the following mechanical devices is used for uniting or connecting parts of a
mechanical system?
a. Coupling
b. Keys
c. Splines
d. Flexible couplings
41. A coupling that employs a fluid to provide angular flexibility between the input and output
shafts.
a. Rigid coupling
b. Flexible coupling
c. Hydraulic coupling
d. Oldham coupling
42. Which of the following type of coupling is used with collinear shafts?
a. Collar coupling
b. Rigid coupling
c. Flexible coupling
d. Hydraulic coupling
43. Which of the following used to connect shafts that have lateral misalignment?
a. Compression coupling
b. Collar coupling
c. Chain coupling
d. Oldham coupling
44. A coupling that is composed of two slotted members, which are connected by a
continuous steel spring, and lies in the slots.
a. Ajax coupling
b. Flak coupling
c. Lord coupling
d. Slip coupling
45. Shaft couplings are used in machinery for several purposes. The most common purpose
of shaft coupling is
a. To provide for the connection of shaft of units that are manufactured separately
b. To provide for misalignment of the shafts
c. To reduce the transmission of shock loads from one shaft to another
d. All of the above
46. Typical hub length falls between where D is the shaft diameter.
a. 1.2D and 1.8D
b. 1.25D and 2.4D
c. 1.30D and 2.5D
d. 1.35D and 3.0D
47. The diameter of the large end of the pin should be the shaft diameter
a. ¼
b. 1/3
c. ½
d. 3/2
48. The most common type of sliding action fastener and is widely used on doors is the
a. Pawl fastener
b. Magnetic fastener
c. Sliding latch
d. Screw fastener
49. When the key is not fitted on all four sides experience has shown that, the permissible
crushing tress is about times the permissible shear stress.
a. 1.3
b. 1.5
c. 1.7
d. 1.9
50. The mechanical fasteni9ng that connects shafts together for power transmission.
a. Coupling
b. Key
c. Splines
Answers:
1. B elastic material bushed coupling 25. D 120°

2. C gib-head keys 26. B 1.7
3. D A & B above 27. B 1.5D
4. A pin key 28. B 15
5. C roll pin 29. A clevis pins
6. A tangential keys 30. D taper pins
7. B feather key 31. A key way
8. D all of these 32. D shear pin
9. D involute serrations 33. B flange compression coupling
10. D double shear 34. B flexible coupling
11. A the key is cut in both shaft and 35. C 15°
hub 36. D used for non-collinear shafts
12. B automobiles 37. B used for collinear shafts
13. D axial relative motion between shaft 38. C key
and hub is necessary 39. B shear forces
14. D none of the above 40. A coupling
15. C 1.2d 41. C hydraulic coupling
16. D woodruff key 42. B rigid coupling
17. B key way 43. D Oldham coupling
18. C kennedy key 44. B falk coupling
19. B key 45. D all of the above
20. A sunk 46.
21. B splines 47. A ¼
22. C barth key 48. C sliding latch
23. C 1000 psi 49. C 1.7
24. D 90° 50. A coupling
Test 7
1. Top surface joining two sides of thread in screw is known as

a. Pitch
b. Top flank
c. Top land
d. Crest
2. Screw thread projecting from a cylindrical surface is a
a. Thread series
b. Thread shear
c. Straight thread
d. Taper thread
3. The conical surface at the starting end of the thread is called
a. Pitch cone
b. Chamfer
c. Crest
d. Flute
4. The surface connecting the crest and roots of the screw thread.
a. Lead angle
b. Length of engagement
c. Top land
d. Flank
5. The theoretical profile of the thread for a length of one pitch in the axial plane on which
design forms of both the external threads are based.
a. Basic form of thread
b. Effective thread
c. Basic profile of thread
d. Design form of external thread
6. The top and bottom-land for gears is similar formed as to crest and for screw
thread.
a. Flank
b. Root
c. Flank tooth
d. Top land
7. Some experiments made at Cornell University showed that experience mechanic could
bread a bolt due to nut tightening.
a. 3/8 inch
b. 5/8 inch
c. ½ inch
d. 7/16 inch
8. The angle included between the sides of the thread measured in an axial plane in a
screw thread
a. Angle of thread
b. Angle between thread or 40 deg
c. Helix angle thread
d. Half angle thread
9. Length of contact between two mating parts in a screw and nut threads measured axially
is called
a. Arc of contact
b. Depth of engagement
c. Length of engagement
d. Axis of contact
10. Major and minor diameters are commonly used in
a. Screw thread
b. Bolt
c. Gear
d. All of these
11. Nominal diameter of bolts is the
a. Major diameter
b. Minor diameter
c. Shear diameter
d. Mean diameter
12. A is a kind of thread in which the width of the thread and the space between
threads are approximately equal
a. Square thread
b. Acme thread
c. Buttress thread
d. Whit worth thread
13. A kind of thread that is generally used
a. UNEC
b. UNC
c. UNF
d. UNEF
14. A type of bolt commonly used in the construction that is threaded in both ends.
a. Stud bolt
b. Acme threaded bolt
c. Square threaded bolt
d. Hex bolt
15. A hand tool used to measure tension in bolts
a. Shaver
b. Tachometer
c. Tensor
d. Torque wrench
16. One of the following is not a tap used for cutting threads in holes
a. Tapping tap
b. Plug tap
c. Taper tap
d. Bottoming tap
17. Type of bolt intended for used in bolting wooden parts together or wood to metal. It has a
short portion of shank underneath around head, which is designed to keep the bolt from
turning in the wood when the nut is tightened.
a. U-bolt
b.
c. Eye bolt
d. Stud bolt
18. A cylindrical bar of steel with threads formed around it and grooves or flutes running
lengthwise in it, intersecting with the threads to form cutting edges. It is used to cut
internal threads.
a. Groove
b. Lap
c. Tap
d. Flute
19. A kind of bolt, which has no head nut instead, has threads on bolt ends.
a. Stud bolt
b. Acme threaded bolt
c. Square bolt
d. Hex bolt
20. Refers to the diameter of the imaginary cylinder that bounds the crest of an external
thread.
a. Mean diameter
b. Stress diameter
c. Minor diameter
d. Major diameter
21. The distance in inches a screw thread advances axially in one turn.
a. Lead
b. Circular
c. Pitch
d. Mean pitch
22. Which of the following type of threads recommended for general use?
a. UNC
b. UNEF
c. UNF
d. NC
23. It is frequently used in automotive and aircraft work.
a. UNC
b. UNEF
c. UNF
d. NC
24. Which of the following type of threads are useful in aeronautical equipment?
a. UNC
b. UNEF
c. UNF
d. NC
25. It is used on bolts for high pressure pipe flanges, cylinder head studs etc.
a. UNC
b. UNEF
c. UNF
d. 8UN
26. Refers to a screw fastening with a nut on it.
a. Bolt
b. Fastener
c. Rivet
d. None of these
27. Which one that has no nut and turns into threaded hole?
a. Rivet
b. Screw
c. Stud bolt
d. U-bolt
28. Refers to an old name for an unfinished through bolt, comes with a square.
a. Coupling bolt
b. Machine bolt
c. Stud bolt
d. Automobile bolt
29. Which type of bolt that finished all over, usually having coarse threads?
a. Coupling bolt
b. Machine bolt
c. Stud bolt
d. Automobile bolt
30. A type of bolt distinguishes by a short portion of the shank underneath the head being
square or finned or ribbed.
a. Carriage bolt
b. Coupling bolt
c. Machine bolt
d. Stud bolt
31. It is a type of bolt threaded on both ends than can be used where a through bolt is
impossible.
a. Carriage bolt
b. Coupling bolt
c. Machine bolt
d. Stud bolt
32. A cheap variety of bolt was made in small sizes.
a. Stud bolt
b. Carriage bolt
c. Stove bolt
d. Mini bolt
33. A large wood screw is used to fasten machinery and equipment to a wooden base.
a. Lag screw
b. Log screw
c. Wood screw
d. None of these
34. The length of contact in a tapped hole should be a minimum of about for cast iron.
a. D
b. 1.5D
c. 1.2D
d. 2D
35. When the location of bolt is such that it would normally be shear, it is better practice to
use a
a. Dummy bolts
b. Mid-pins
c. Crank pins
d. Dowel pins
36. A locking device used to maintain pressure between the threads of the bolt and nut.
a. Gasket
b. Lock nuts
c. Lock washer
d. Lock out
37. The crest diameter of a screw thread is the same as
a. Major diameter
b. Pitch diameter
c. Minor diameter
38. Turn buckle has
a. Left hand threads on both ends
b. Left hand threads on one end and right hand threads on other end
c. Right hand threads on both ends
d. No threads
39. The diameter of a washer is generally
a. Equal to the diameter of bolt
b. Slightly more than the diameter of the bolt
c. Slightly less than the diameter of the bolt
d. Of any size that suits the application
40. The stress concentration is maximum at in a standard coarse thread.
a. All over the surfaces
b. Flank
c. Root
d. Top surface
41. Elastic nut is a locking device that has
a. One small nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against smaller one
loosening, creating friction jamming
b. A slot is cut partly in middle of tightening of screw
c. Hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as the nut is
screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip
d. Through slots are made at top and cotter pin is passed through these and a hole in
the bolt and cotter pin splitted and bent in reverse direction at other end
42. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and surrounded by a pipe sleeve with
an inside diameter of a least times the diameter of the anchor bolt.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
43. Foundation bolts should be at least times the diameter of the anchor bolt
a. 12
b. 14
c. 16
d. 18
44. No foundation bolt shall be less than mm diameter.
a. 10
b. 12
c. 14
d. 16
45. Anchor bolts should be embedded in concrete at least times the bolt diameter.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
46. The screw thread commonly used for transmission of motion is one of the following
types of threads.
a. Acme
b. Vee
c. Knuckle
d. British association
47. The spindle bench vises sre usually provided with
a. Buttress threads
b. Square threads
c. Acme threads
d. V-threads
48. Any devices used to connect or joint more components.
a. Bolt
b. Screw
c. Fastener
49. When the threads are opposite hand, the driven screw moves rapidly is known as
a. Bearing screw
b. Compound screw
c. Differential screw
d. Set screw
50. The threaded length is about times the diameters.
a. 1.25
b. 1.5
c. 1.8
d. 2.0
Answer:
1. D crest 29. A coupling bolt

2. D taper thread 30. A carriage bolt
3. B chamfer 31. D stud bolt
4. D flank 32. C stove bolt
5. C basic profile of thread 33. A lag screw
6. B root 34. B 1.5D
7. B 5/8 inch 35. D dowel pins
8. A angle of thread 36. C lock washer
9. B depth of engagement 37. A major diameter
10. A screw thread 38. B Left hand threads on one end and
11. A major diameter right hand threads on other end
12. A square thread 39. B Slightly more than the diameter of
13. B UNC the bolt
14. A stud bolt 40. C root
15. D Torque wrench 41. C Hard fiber or nylon cotter is
16. A tapping tap recessed in the nut and becomes
17. B carriage bolt threaded as the nut is screwed on
18. C tap the bolt causing a tight grip
19. A stud bolt 42. C 3
20. D major diameter 43. D 18
21. A lead 44. B 12
22. A UNC 45. C 30
23. C UNF 46. A acme
24. B UNEF 47. C acme threads
25. D 8UN 48. C fastener
26. A bolt 49. B compound screw
27. B screw 50. B 1.5
28. B machine bolt
Test 8
1. Extra flexible hoisting rope application is

a. 6 x 27
b. 6 x 37
c. 6 x 9
d. 6 x 21
2. All items and abbreviations deal with wire rope arrangement except this which
deals with wire rope materials strength.
a. Performed
b. IWRC
c. Mps
d. Lang lay
3. One of the following materials is not mentioned for wire rope pulley / sheave
applications.
a. Plastic
b. Iron
c. Paper
d. Copper alloy
4. The factor of safety generally applied in wire rope design starts at 3-4 for standing rope
application, 5-12 for operating rope and for hazard to life and properly
application like foundry operation.
a. Higher value
b. 7 – 10
c. 8 – 10
d. 10 – 18
5. In the selection of wire rope, regular lay means wires and standards are arranged in the
following manner .
a. Twisted in same direction
b. Twisted in any direction
c.
d. Twisted in along direction
6. A process of prestressing or ever stressing a hollow cylindrical member beyond an
elastic range by hydraulic pressure.
a. Presstage
b. Stress relieving
c. Auto frottage
d. Countersinking
7. When two touching surfaces have a high contact pressure and when these surfaces
have minute relative motion a phenomenon called
a. Carving
b. Friction
c. Fretting
d. Prestressing
8. Pipes subjected to high pressures are generally made by
a. Slush casting
b. Pressure casting
c. Extrusion
d. Centrifugal casting
9. Hoop stress refers to
a. Circumferential tensile stress
b. Compressive stress
c. Radial stress
10. Autfrettage is the method of
a. Calculating stress in thick cylinders
b. Increasing life of thick cylinders
c. Prestressing thick cylinders
d. Relieving thick cylinders
11. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick cylinder is
a. Maximum at inner surface and decreases toward outer surface
b. Minimum at inner surface and increases towards outer surface
c. Minimum at inner and outer surfaces and maximum in the middle
d. Maximum at inner and outer surfaces and minimum in the middle
12. Assuming longitudinal strain to be constant at any point in thethickness of the cylinder,
the radial stress Sr and hoop are related as
a. Sr - Sh = constant
b. Sr + Sh = constant
c. Sr/Sh = constant
d. Sr – Sh/Sr = constant
13. Thin cylindrical shell of diameter d and thickness t when subjected to internal pressure
P, if Poisson ratio of material is µ, the circumferential or hoop strain is
a. Pd(1-2µ)/2tE
b. Pd(1-2µ)/4tE
c. Pd(1/2 - µ)/2tE
d. Pd(1/2 - µ)/4tE
14. A cylinder in which the ratio of the wall thickness to the inside diameter is may
be called a thin cylinder.
a. Less than 0.05
b. Less than 0.07
c. More than 0.05
d. More than 0.07
15. External pressure tubes in boilers are designed with an apparent factor of safety of
a. 1 to 3
b. 4 to 6
c. 5 to 7
d. 8 to 10
16. Refers to a hollow product of round or any other cross section having a continuous
periphery.
a. Gear
b. Flywheel
c. Sphere
d. Tube
17. The thickness should be multiplied by to obtain the nominal wall thickness
a. 5/8
b. 8/5
c. 7/8
d. 8/7
18. It is used in high pressure cylinders.
a. Thin walled cylinders
b. Thick walled cylinders
c. Solid walled cylinders
d. Hard walled cylinders
19. To obtained safe working pressure the critical pressure, should be at least
times the working pressure.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
20. The radial pressure between the cylinders at the surface of contact depends on the
of the materials.
a. Strength
b. Hardness
c. Modulus of elasticity
d. Modulus of rigidity
21. In cross or regular lay ropes the
a. Direction of twist in strands is opposite to the direction of twist of strands
b. Direction of twist of wires and strands are the same
c. Wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in opposite direction
d. Wires are not twisted
22. Which of the ropes will be most flexible?
a. 6 by 7
b. 6 by 19
c. 6 by 37
d. 8 by 19
23. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in opposite direction.
a. Long lay
b. Lang lay
c. Regular lay
d. Performed
24. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in same direction
a. Long lay
b. Lang lay
c. Performed
d. Non-performed
25. A type of rope used for haulages, rigging, and guardrails.
a. 6 x 35 IWRC
b. 6 x 25 IWRC
c. 7 x 7 IWRC
d.
26. A rope used for general purposes
a. 6 x 15 IWRC
b. 6 x 21 IWRC
c. 6 x 19 IWRC
d. 7 x 28 IWRC
27. A type of rope used for lines, hawsers, overheated cranes, hoists.
a. 6 x 34 IWRC
b. 6 x 35 IWRC
c. 6 x 37 IWRC
d. 6 x 45 IWRC
28. The regular material for wire rope are made of
a. Cast steel
b. Chromium
c. Wrought iron
d. High-carbon steel
29. The ultimate strength of improve Plow Steel is in the range of
a. 200 and 400 ksi
b. 240 and 280 ksi
c. 230 and 260 ksi
d. 400 and 500 ksi
30. The minimum suggested design factor of for ropes miscellaneous hoisting equipment
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
31. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting pressure for 6 x 19 ropes is
for cast iron.
a. 200 psi
b. 300 psi
c. 400 psi
d. 500 psi
32. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting pressure for 6 x 19 ropes is
for cast steel.
a. 700 psi
b. 900 psi
c. 1000 psi
d. 1200 psi
33. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting pressure for 6 x 19 rope is
for manganese steel.
a. 2000 psi
b. 2300 psi
c. 2500 psi
d. 3000 psi
34. Wire ropes are made from col-drawn wires that are first wrapped into
a. Layer
b. Segment
c. Strands
d. None of these
35. The designation 6 by 7 indicates that the rope is made of 6 strands each containing
a. 7 pieces
b. 7 diameters
c. 7 wires
d. 7 strands
36. Ropes are made of
a. Aluminum alloys
b. Copper
c. Bronze
d. All of the above
37. The ratio of the strength of all the inside wires to the strength of all the wires in the rope
is
a. Excess strength
b. Reserve strength
c. Factor of safety
d. Ratio of factor
38. The chief usage of wire ropes at the present time is
a. Elevators
b. Cranes
c. Tramways
d. All of the above
39. Tests and theoretical investigations by J. F. Howe indicate that for steel ropes are the
ordinary constructions the value of modulus of elasticity is
a. 10,000,000 psi
b. 10,500,000 psi
c. 11,000,000 psi
d. 11,500,000 psi
40. Average mine hoists practice is to use drums times the
rope diameters
a. 60 to 70
b. 60 to 80
c. 60 to 90
d. 60 to 100
41. What is the recommended sheave diameter for haulage rope?
a. 70d
b. 71d
c. 72d
d. 73d
42. What is the recommended sheave diameter for standard hoisting rope?
a. 40d
b. 45d
c. 50d
d. 55d
43. What is the recommended sheave diameter for extra-flexible hoisting rope?
a. 30d
b. 31d
c. 32d
d. 33d
44. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that are first wrapped into
a. Pulp
b. Strands
c. Helices
d. Hemp
45. The Roebling Handbook suggest minimum design factor of guy’s is
a. 3.0
b. 3.5
c. 4.0
d. 5.0
46. The Roebling Handbook suggest minimum design factor of miscellaneous hoisting
equipment is
a. 3.0
b. 5.0
c. 7.0
d. 9.0
47. An extra flexible rope is
a. 6 x 7
b. 6 x 19
c. 6 x 37
d. 7 x 7
48. The strength of the rope is always the sum of the strength of wires.
a. Less than
b. More than
c. Equal
d. The same
49. One of the most popular wire rope is
a. 6 x 7
b. 6 x 19
c. 6 x 37
d. 7 x 7
50. The minimum factor of safety of small hoist is
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
Answers:
1. B 6 x 37 25. C 7 x 7 IWRC
2. C Mps 26. C 6 x 19 IWRC
3. A plastic 27. C 6 x 37 IWRC
4. A higher value 28. D high carbon steel
5. C twisted in opposite direction 29. B 240 and 280 ksi
6. C auto frottage 30. D 5
7. C fretting 31. D 500 psi
8. D centrifugal casting 32. B 900 psi
9. A circumferential tensile stress 33. C 2500 psi
10. C prestressing thick cylinders 34. C strands
11. A maximum at inner surface and 35. C 7 wires
decreases toward outer surface 36. D all of the above
12. A Sr – Sh = constant 37. B reserve strength
13. A Pd(1-2µ)/2tE 38. D all of the above
14. B less than 0.07 39. D 12,000,000 psi
15. D 8 to 10 40. D 60 to 100
16. D tube 41. C 72d
17. D 8/7 42. B 45d
18. B thick-walled cylinders 43. B 31d
19. C 5 44. B strands
20. C modulus of elasticity 45. B 3.5
21. A Direction of twist in strands is 46. B 5.0
opposite to the direction of twist of 47. C 6 x 37
strands 48. A less than
22. C 6 x 37 49. B 6 x 19
23. C regular lay 50. C 7
24. B lang lay
TEST 9
1. To avoid brittleness of weld or the residual stress in the welding it is normally stress
relieved of
A. Quenching
B. Normalizing
C. Tempering
D. Drawing
2. A of welding whereby a wire or powder from the nozzle of a spray gun is fused by a gas
flame, arc or plasma jet and then molten particles are projected in a form of a spray by
means of compressed air or gas is known as
A. Elector-slug building
B. Electro-beam welding
C. Plasma-arc welding
D. Metal spray welding
3. Weld metal impact specimen shall be taken across the weld with one face substantially
parallel to and within
A. 3/4in
B. 1/32 in.
C. ¼ in.
D. 1/16 in.
4. A joint between to overlapping members in whom the overlapped edge of one member is
welded with a fillet weld is called
A. A single welded lap joint
B. Double welded lap joint
C. Track weld
5. A weld place in groove between two butting members is called
A. Full-fillet weld
B. Tack weld
C. butt weld
D. fillet weld
6. A weld of approximately triangular cross-section that join two surfaces at approximately
right angles as in lap joint, tee joint, corner joint.
A. Single welded lap joint
B. Fillet weld
C. Tack weld
D. Butt weld
7. A fillet weld whose size is equal to the thickness of the inner joint member is called
A. Butt joint
B. Butt weld
C. Tack weld
D. Full-fillet weld
8. A weld made to hold the parts of a weldment in proper alignment until the final welds are
made of
A. Butt weld
B. Tack weld
C. Fillet weld
D. Full fillet weld
9. Test is designed primarily for application to electric-welded tubing for detection of lack of
penetration or overlaps resulting from flash removal in the weld
A. Butt weld
B. Paste
C. Lap weld
D. Double butt weld
10. The internal stresses existing in a welded connection are
A. Relieved by x-ray analysis
B. Maybe relieved when weld is penned
C. Not relieved when the weld is penned
D. Not relieved by heat treatment
11. A welding operation in which a non-ferrous fillet metal at a temperature below that of the
metal joined but is heated above 450C
A. Spot welding
B. Gas welding
C. Brazing
D. Arc welding
12. Uniting two pieces of metal by means of a different metal which is applied between the
two in molten state
A. Casting
B. Welding
C. Soldering
D. Brazing
13. Joining metal by means of high current at low voltage. During the passage of current,
pressure by the electrodes produces a forge weld:
A. Spot welding
B. Resistance welding
C. Steam welding
D. Gas welding
14. A fusion process in which the metal is heated together into a solid joint.
A. Electric arc welding
B. Gas welding
C. Spot welding
D. Projection welding
15. As one example, the ASME code for riveted joints permits the design surface
compressive stress to be about ________ higher than the design tensile stress.
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 70%
16. In a pressure vessel, the ratio of minimum strength of joint to the strength of solid joint is
known as
A. Efficiency
B. Joint efficiency
C. Performance factor
D. Relative strength
17. In a pressure vessel, the usual factor of safety may be taken as
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 5
18. Are resistance welds, usually round in the same form as the electrodes that press the
sheets together
A. Edge joint
B. MIG joint
C. Spot joint
D. TIG joint
19. Consists of short lengths (2 to 3 inches long) of welds with space between as 6 inches
on centers.
A. Intermittent weld
B. MIG weld
C. Spot welds
D. TIG welds
20. An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold the members in position for assembly purposes
or for principal welding
A. Edge weld
B. Tack weld
C. Back welds
D. Half welds
21. A welding operation that uses hot flame and metal rod is known as
A. Gas welding
B. Arc welding
C. Resistance welding
D. Automatic welding
22. The arc is covered with a welding composition and bare electrode wire is fed
automatically
A. Resistance welding
B. Submerged arc welding
C. Induction welding
D. Spot welding
23. Treating the weld as a line, the amount or inertia about center of gravity of a circular
weld or diameter d would b
A. 𝜋 d2/36
B. 𝜋d2/6
C. 𝜋 d3/36
D. 𝜋d3/4
24. For butt welding of two plates each of which is 25 mm thick, the best process would be
A. TIG welding
B. MIG welding
C. Gas welding
D. Electro slag welding
25. What should be the maximum size of the fillet weld?
A. 2 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 5 mm
D. 7 mm
26. The maximum size of the fillet weld that can be made in single pass is
A. 3 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 12 mm
27. Which diamond riveted joint can be adopted?
A. Butt joint
B. Lap joint
C. Double riveted lap joint
D. All types of joints
28. Wiping is the process of
A. Applying flux during welding process
B. Clearing the welded surface after the welding operation is over
C. Connecting load pipes by soldering alloy
D. Low temperature welding
29. A collimated light beam is used for producing heat in
A. Laser welding
B. MIG welding
C. Plasma welding
D. TIG welding
30. During MIG welding the metal is transferred in the form of
A. A fine spray of metal
B. Continuous flow of molten metal
C. Electron beam
D. Solution
31. If “t” is the thickness of sheet to be spot welded then electrode tip diameter is equal to
A. √𝑡
B. 1.5√𝑡
C. 2.5√𝑡
D. 2√𝑡
32. Weld spatter refers to
A. Flux
B. Filler material
C. Welding defect
D. Welding electrode
33. Which of the following metals can be suitably welded by TIG welding?
A. Aluminum
B. Magnesium
C. A and B above
D. Stainless steel
34. Arc blow takes place in
A. Arc welding when straight polarity is used
B. Arc welding when reverse polarity is used
C. Gas welding
D. Welding stainless steel
35. Unlike matrials or materials of different thickness can be butt welded by
A. Adjusting initial gap
B. Adjusting time duration of current
C. Control of pressure and current
D. All of the above
36. The phenomenon of weld decay takes place in
A. Brass
B. Bronze
C. Cast iron
D. Stainless steel
37. Laser welding is widely used in
A. electronic industry
B. Heavy industry
C. Process industry
D. Structural work
38. Up to what thickness of plate, edger preparation for welding is not needed?
A. 2 mm
B. 4 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 12 mm
39. Grey cast iron is best welded by
A. Arc
B. MIG
C. Oxy- acetylene
D. TIG
40. In resistance welding, the pressure is release
A. Just at the time of passing the current
B. Aftr completion of currents
C. After the weld cools
D. During heating
41. Half corner weld is used
A. Where severe loading is encountered and the upper surfaces of both pieces must be
in the same plane
B. Where efficiency of joint shold be 50%
C. Where longitudinal shear is present
42. Projection welding is
A. Continuous spot welding process
B. Multi spot welding process
C. Used to form frameworks
D. All of the above
43. Reducing flame is obtained in oxy- acetylene welding with
A. Excess oxygen
B. Excess of acetylene
C. Equal parts of both gases
D. Reduced acetylene
44. Brasses and bronzes are welded using
A. Carburizing flame
B. Neutral flame
C. Oxidizing flame
D. Reducing flame
45. One of the following function is not performed by coating on the welding electrodes is to
A. Increase the cooling rate
B. Provide protective atmosphere
C. Refuse oxidation
D. Stabilize the arc
46. Welding defect called arc blow occurs in
A. Arc welding using ac current
B. Arc welding using dc current
C. Gas welding
D. MIG welding
47. The purpose of using flux in soldering is to
A. Increase fluidity of solder material
B. Full up gaps in bad joint
C. Prevent oxide formation
D. Lower the melting temperature of the solder
48. The parts are lapped and held in place under pressure
A. Butt welding
B. Spot welding
C. Steam welding
D. Projection welding
49. The parts are brought together lightly with current flowing and then separated slightly
A. Mash weld
B. Steam welding
C. Flush welding
D. Percussion welding
50. Which of the following produced a series of spot welds made by circular or wheel type
electrodes?
A. Steam welding
B. Mash welding
C. Spot welding
D. Steam welding
ANSWERS TO TEST 9 – RIVETS AND WELDED JOINTS
1. B. normalizing 27. A. butt joint

2. D. Metal spray welding 28. C. connecting load pipes by
3. C. ¼ in soldering alloy
4. A. a single welded tap joint 29. A. laser welding
5. C. butt weld 30. A. a fine spray of metal
6. B. fillet weld 31. 𝐴. √𝑡
7. D. full fillet weld 32. C. welding defect
8. B. tack weld 33. C. A and B above
9. C. lap weld 34. D welding stainless steel
10. C. not relieved when the 35. C. control of pressure and
weld is penned current
11. C. brazing 36. D. stainless steel
12. C. soldering 37. A. electronic industry
13. B. resistance welding 38. B. 4 mm
14. A. electric arc welding 39. C. oxy-acetylene
15. C. 60% 40. C. after the weld cools
16. D. relative strength 41. D. none of the above
17. D. 5 42. B. multi spot welding process
18. C. spot welds 43. B. excess of acetylene
19. A. intermittent weld 44. B. neutral flame
20. B. tack welds 45. _____
21. A. gas welding 46. D. MIG welding
22. B. submerged arc welding 47. Increase fluidity of solder
23. D. 𝜋d3/4 material
24. D. electro slag welding 48. B. spot welding
25. B. 3mm 49. C. flush welding
26. B. 6mm 50. A. steam welding
TEST 10
1. The soldering material commonly applied for automobile radiator cores and roofing
seams.
A. 15/85 % tin and lead
B. 50/50% tin and lead
C. 45/55% tin and lead
D. 20/80% tin and lead
2. The flux that should be provided in soldering electrical connection or commutator wires
as its tends to corrode the connectors called
A. Sal ammoniac
B. Zinc chloride
C. Stearin
D. Acid fluxes
3. A brazed joint is ___ soldered joint.
A. Stronger than
B. The same strength as
C. Three times as strong as
D. Weaker than
4. Brazing requires
A. Hard solder
B. Soft solder
C. More heat
D. Choices A and C
5. What is the reason why lead is used in solders?
A. It has a high melting point.
B. It has a low melting point.
C. It is cheap
D. Choices B and C
6. The higher the melting pint of the solder, the
A. Harder the solder joint
B. Softer the solder joint
C. Stronger the solder joint
D. Weaker the solder joint
7. Special solders used for aluminum usually require
A. less heat
B. More heat
C. The same heat as copper wire
D. The same heat as sheet metal
8. The flux usually used for hard solder is
A. Alum
B. Barium
C. Borax
D. Rosin
9. Soft solder melts at approximately
A. 250℉
B. 350℉
C. 450
D. 550℉
10. Soft solder is made of
A. Copper and zinc
B. Tin and copper
C. Tin and lead
D. Tin and zinc
11. Prepared soldered paste flux is most popular but if you did not have any, you could use
_____ as substitute
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Nitric acid
C. Sulfuric acid
D. Any of the above
12. Hard solder is made of
A. Copper and zinc
B. Tin and copper
C. Tin and lead
D. Tin and zinc
13. Soldered will not unite with a metal surface that has
A. Dirt on it
B. Grease on it
C. Oxidation on it
D. Any of the above
14. If muriatic acid is used as a flux, the soldered area must be cleaned thoroughly
afterwards to prevent
A. Anyone touching it from getting burned
B. Remaining acid form eating the metal
C. The acid form evaporating and the solder disintegrating
15. Sweating is the process of
A. Soldering two different kinds of metal
B. Separating two pieces of metal that have been soldered together
C. Tinning two surfaces, applying flux them, holding the two together and heating
16. A surface to be soldered should be prepared by
A. Acid cleaning the surfaces
B. Filing the surfaces
C. Scraping the surfaces
D. Any of the above
17. One fo the most important factors that is often overlooked when soldering is the fact that
A. The surfaces to be soldered must be clean
B. The two metals to be soldered must not be the same
C. The two metals to be soldered must be the same
D. All surfaces should be dipped in acid first
18. When soldering, flux is used for
A. Keeping the metal from getting too ot
B. Keeping the solder from running off the metal
C. Keeping the tip of the soldering iron and clean
D. Remove and prevent oxidation of the metals
19. Soldering is the process of
A. Holding two metals together by heating
B. Joining two metals by a third soft metal that is applied in a molten state
C. Holding two different kinds of metals together by heating
D. All of the above
20. Brazing is used for joining
A. Tow ferrous material
B. One ferrous and non-ferrous material
C. Two non-ferrous metal
D. Two non-metals
21. What is the most commonly used flux for brazing?
A. Zinc chloride
B. Zinc and tin
C. Zinc and copper
D. Zinc and lead
22. Multi spot welding process is also reffered as _____welding
A. Tack
B. Fillet
C. TIG
D. Projection
23. The maximum temperature developed for oxy-hydrogen welding is
A. 1755℃
B. 1965℃
C. 2565℃
D. 3440℃
24. The maximum temperature developed for oxy-acetylene welding is
A. 1965℃
B. 2565℃
C. 3440℃
D. 4565℃
25. A mixture of aluminum powder and a metal oxide powder is ignited by a special powder
in a crucible.
A. Thermit welding
B. Stud welding
C. Resistance welding
D. Gas welding
26. A welding where an arc is struck between two tungsten electrodes into which a jet of
hydrogen is directed
A. Atomic hydrogen welding
B. Electron beam welding
C. Electro slug welding
D. Flash welding
27. A common rule is to make the rivet hole diameter from ________ for rivets in single or
double shear.
A. 1.2 t to 1.4 t
B. 1.2√𝑡 to 1.4√𝑡
C. 1.3√𝑡 to 1.6√𝑡
D. 1.4√𝑡 to 1.8√𝑡
28. Fusion welding is the name frequently given to processes not requiring pressure. It is
sometimes called
A. Flash welding
B. Seam welding
C. Spot welding
D. Thermit welding
29. The ratio of the load that will produce the allowable stress in any part of the joint to the
load that will produce the allowable tension stress in the unpunched plate.
A. Efficiency of the welded
B. Efficiency of the jont
C. Performance factor
D. Load factor
30. Thicker plates usually require excessive rivet sizes and for practical reasons the rivet
diameter is made approxiamately
A. 1.2t
B. 1.2√𝑡
C. 2t
D. 2√𝑡
31. The process of joining metals by means by heating to a temperature above the
recrystallization temperature or to fusion with or without the application or pressure
A. Brazing
B. Soldering
C. Welding
D. Seaming
32. The process of bonding two or more pieces of metal together by means of another metal
whose melting point is below 800⁰F
A. Brazing
B. Seaming
C. Soldering
D. Welding
33. The process of joining metal parts by means of a non ferrous fitter or alloy that melts at a
temperature above 800⁰F.
A. Brazing
B. Seaming
C. Soldering
D. Welding
34. The process of joining metals in which the two parts are joined by heating them
electrically to a temperature above the recrystallization temperature.
A. Flash welding
B. Projection welding
C. Thermit welding
D. Resistance welding
35. A fusion welding process in which the welding heat is obtained from an electric arc set
up either between the base metal and one electrode or between to electrodes.
A. Arc welding
B. Gas welding
C. Fusion welding
D. Spot welding
36. Refers to the capacity of a metal to be joined by welding in a satisfactory manner.
A. Flame plating
B. Metal spraying
C. Metalizing
D. Weldability
37. A surfacing method of blasting particles of tungsten carbide onto the surface of a piece
of metal.
A. Flame plating
B. Metal spraying
C. Metalizing
D. Powder pouring
38. For fusion welding, efficiency shall be taken as equal to
A. 80%
B. 60%
C. 90%
D. 95%
39. When the tensile strength of steel shell plates is not known it shall be taken as
A. 379. 31 N/mm2
B. 565.71 N/mm2
C. 556.17 N/mm2
D. 671.55 N/mm2
40. Minimum thickness for boiler plate shall be
A. 3.56 mm
B. 5.36 mm
C. 6. 26 mm
D. 6. 56 mm
41. The strength of iron rivets in single shear in
A. 262 N/mm2
B. 303 N/mm2
C. 524 N/mm2
D. 607 N/mm2
42. The strength of steel rivets in single shear is
A. 262 N/mm2
B. 303 N/mm2
C. 524 N/mm2
D. 607 N/mm2
43. When the longitudinal seams are of lap riveted construction the minimum factor of safety
is
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
44. The maximum allowable working pressure of a non-code steel or wrought iron heating
boiler of welded construction shall not exceed.
A. 0.5 bar
B. 1.0 bar
C. 1.5 bar
D. 2.0 bar
45. The ASME Boiler Code requires that the edge distance must be not less than
a. 1.5d
b. 2.0d
c. 2.5d
d. 3.0d
46. A method of resistance welding in which the heating and the pressure are localized at
specified points by providing embossed or coined projections on the pieces to be joined.
A. Projection welding
B. Flash welding
C. Seam welding
47. An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold the members in position for assembly purposes
or for the principal welding.
A. Spot weld
B. Tack weld
C. Butt weld
D. Fillet weld
48. What type of welding that the hot flame and a metal rod are used?
A. Seam welding
B. Gas welding
C. Spot welding
49. It used for joining members of approximately equal in cross-section
A. Mash welding
B. Butt welding
C. Upset welding
D. Choices B and C
50. The melting point of the filler material in brazing is approximately or above.
A. 420⁰F
B. 600⁰F
C. 800⁰F
D. 1000⁰F
ANSWERS TO TEST 10 – RIVETS AND WELDED JOINTS
1. C. 45/55 tin and lead 23. B. 1965 ⁰C

2. D. acid fluxes 24. C. 3440 ⁰C
3. A. stronger than 25. A. thermit welding
4. D. choices A and C 26. A. atomic Hydrogen welding
5. D. choices B and C 27. B. 1.2√𝑡 to 1.4√𝑡
6. C. stronger the solder joint 28. D. Thermit welding
7. B. more heat 29. B. efficiency of the joint
8. C. borax 30. B. 1.2√𝑡
9. B. 350 ⁰F 31. C. welding
10. C. tin and lead 32. C. soldering
11. A. hydrochloric acid 33. A. brazing
12. A. copper and zinc 34. D. resistance welding
13. D. any of the above 35. A. arc welding
14. B. remaining acid from eating the 36. D. weldability
metal 37. A. flame plating
15. C. tinning two surfaces, applying flux 38. C. 90%
them, holding the two together and 39. D. 671.55 N/mm2
beating 40. C. 6.36 mm
16. D. any of the above 41. A. 262 N/mm2
17. A. the surfaces to be soldered must 42. B. 303 N/mm2
be clean 43. A. 5
18. D. remove and prevent oxidation of 44. B. 1.0 bar
the metals 45. A. 1.5d
19. B. joining two metals by a third soft 46. A. projection welding
metal that is applied in a molten 47. B. tack weld
state 48. B. gas welding
20. C. two non-ferrous metal 49. D. choices B and C
21. A. Zinc chloride 50. A. 420 ⁰F
22. D. projection
Test 11
1. The rule of thumb in journal bearing design, the clearance ratio/clearance should be
A. 0.01001
B. 0.0101
C. 0.0110
D. 0.0010
2. Also called eccentrically loaded bearing
A. Full bearing
B. Offset bearing
C. Partial bearing
D. Fitted bearing
3. Wahta type of bearing which totally encloses the shaft?
A. Offset bearing
B. Central bearing
C. Babbitt bearing
D. Full bearing
4. All are functions of lubricating oil except
A. Adhesion
B. Corrosion prevention
C. Act as coolant
D. To tighten the load
5. It is considered semi-solid lubricant
A. Lube oil
B. Graphite
C. Grease
D. All of these
6. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant in itself
A. Zinc
B. Antimony
C. Babbit
D. Lead
7. Which of the following materials is unsuitable as a bearing?
A. Teflon
B. Low carbon steel
C. Cast iron
D. Nylon
8. Aerostatic bearing is one in which
A. The lube oil is supplied under pressure
B. Lube oil is not pressurized
C. There is no lube oil
D. Bearing is lightly loaded
9. At the same thermal and minimum film, thickness limitation as sleeve
A. Ball bearing
B. Roller bearing
C. Thrust bearing
D. Full bearing
10. The desired between two surfaces having relatively sliding motion is known
A. Lube oil
B. Graphite
C. Packing
D. Lubrication
11. What bearing composed of two principal parts, namely the
A. Bearing and journal
B. Clearance and fitted
C. Bolt and Babbitt
D. Bolt and cylinder
12. When the line of action of the load bisects the arc of partial bearing it is said to be:
A. Eccentrically loaded
B. Fit loaded
C. Centrally loaded
D. Surface loaded
13. It is the difference in the radii of the bearing and the journal
A. Even clearance
B. Clearance ratio
C. Fit clearance
D. Radii clearance
14. It is one in which the radii of the journal and the bearing are the same
A. Clearance bearing
B. Fitted bearing
C. Full bearing
D. Partial bearing
15. The line that passes through centers of the bearing and the journal is called the
A. Line of action
B. Line of centers
C. Line of tangent
D. Under cut
16. Length-diameter ration was a good compromise for the general case of hydrodynamic
bearings. It is approximately equal to
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
17. Operating temperature of oil film ranges _____________ or less
A. 120 F to 190 F
B. 130 F to 160 F
C. 140 F to 150 F
D. 140 F to 160 F
18. At higher temperature, the oil oxidizes more rapidly above
A. 120F
B. 140F
C. 160F
D. 200F
19. A conclusion repeatedly verified by experiments is _____ that the smoother the surface.
A. Constant
B. The greater the load capacity of the bearing
C. None of these
D. Variable
20. Which of the following is considered an advantage for bearing materials?
A. Conformability
B. Embeddability
C. Compatibility
D. All of these
21. For thrust bearing the speed at moderate operating conditions is
A. 50<Vm>200 fpm
B. 50<Vm>220 fpm
C. 50<Vm>250 fpm
D. 50<Vm> 290 fpm
22. The 200 series bearing is called
A. Heavy
B. Light
C. Medium
D. None of these
23. The 300 series bearing is called
A. Heavy
B. Light
C. Medium
D. None of these
24. A type of roller bearing in which the balls are assembled by the eccentric displacement
of the inner ring.
A. Shallow-groove ball bearing
B. Self-aligning ball bearing
C. Filling-slot ball bearing
D. Deep-groove ball bearing
25. Which of the following is not a type of ball bearing?
A. Shallow-groove ball bearing
B. Self-aligning ball bearing
C. Fillet-slot ball bearing
D. Deep-groove ball bearing
26. Steel ball for ball bearing are manufactured by
A. Casting
B. Cold headling
C. Rolling
D. Turning
27. In hydrodynamic bearings
A. The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
B. The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
C. Do not need external supply of lubricant
D. Grease is used for lubrication
28. If P = bearing pressure on projected bearing area, Z= absolute viscosity of lubricant, and
N = speed of journal, then the bearing characteristic number is given by
A. ZN/P
B. Z/ PN
C. ZP/ N
D. P/ZN
29. The rated life of a bearing changes
A. Directly as load
B. Inversely as fourth power of load
C. Inversely as cube of load
D. Inversely as square of load
30. In oiless bearing
A. The oil film pressure is produced only by the rotation of the journal
B. The oil film I maintained by supplying oil under pressure
C. Do not need external supply of lubricant
D. Grease is needed to be applied after some intervals
31. A shaft rotating in anticlockwise direction at slow speed inside a bearing will be
A. At bottom most of bearing
B. Towards left side of bearing and making metal to metal contact
C. Towards left side of bearing and making no metal to metal contact
D. Towards right side of bearing and making no metal to metal contact
32. A machine part that supports another part, which rotates, slides or oscillateds in or on it
A. Journal
B. Bearing
C. Roller
D. Casing
33. The part of a shaft or crank which is supported by and turns in bearing.
A. Casing
B. Bushing
C. Roller
D. Journal
34. It is also called anti-friction bearing.
A. Rolling bearing
B. Thrust bearing
C. Tapered bearing
D. Single row bearing
35. Which of the following is a bearing material?
A. Babbitt
B. Bronze
C. Plastics
D. All of the above
36. It acts toward the center of the bearing along a radius.
A. Thrust load
B. Tangential load
C. Radial load
D. Peripheral load
37. Conrad bearing is also known as
A. Needle bearing
B. Ball bearing
C. Roller bearing
D. Tapered bearing
38. The combined effect of many of the variables involved in the operation of a bearing
under hydrodynamic lubrication can be characterized by the dimensionless number
called:
A. Reynolds Number
B. Prandtl Number
C. Grashof Number
D. Sommerfeld Number
39. It exits primarily to guide the motion of a machine member without specific regard to the
direction of load application.
A. radial bearing
B. Journal bearing
C. Thrust bearing
D. Guide bearing
40. It carries a load collinear to the axis of possible rotation of the supported member.
A. Guide bearing
B. Journal bearing
C. Thrust bearing
D. Radial bearing
41. The 400 series bearing is called:
A. Light
B. Medium
C. Heavy
D. Extra heavy
42. The product of length and diameter of the bearing is called:
A. Shearing area
B. Compressive area
C. Projected area
D. Cross-sectional area
43. If the length over diameter of the bearing is unity, it is also known as
A. Long bearing
B. Short bearing
C. Medium bearing
D. Square bearing
44. A bearing in which the length ratio Length/diameter is greater than 1.
A. Short bearings
B. Long bearings
C. Square bearings
D. Medium bearings
45. The product of absolute viscosity and rotational speed divided by the unit loading.
A. Section modulus
B. Bearing modulus
C. Shear modulus
D. All of the above
46. From the line of radial loading on the bearing to the position of the minimum oil-film
thickness.
A. Attitude angle
B. Latitude angle
C. Longitude angle
D. Altitude angle
47. The radial distance between the center of the bearing and the displaced center of the
journal is called.
A. Concentricity
B. Eccentricity
C. Embeddability
48. Which of the following is an example of solid lubricant?
A. Molybdenum disulfide
B. Graphite
C. Tungsten disulfide
D. All of the above
49. The length ratio L/D typically varies between
A. 0.1 to 0.5
B. 0.2 to 0.6
C. 0.2 to 0.8
D. 0.25 to 1.0
50. The operating temperature of the Babbitt is limited to
A. 200°F
B. 300°F
C. 400°F
D. 500°F
ANSWER TO TEST 11 – BEARINGS
1. D .0010 27. A the oil film pressure is

2. B offset bearing generated only by the
3. D full bearing rotation of the journal
4. A adhesion 28. A ZN/P
5. C grease 29. C inversely as cube of
6. C Babbitt load
7. B low carbon steel 30. C do not need external
8. A the lube oil is supply of the lubricant
supplied under pressure 31. B towards left side of
9. D oil bearing bearing and making metal to
10. D lubrication metal contact
11. A bearing & journal 32. B bearing
12. C centrally loaded 33. D journal
13. D radial clearance 34. A Rolling bearing
14. B fitted bearing 35. D All of the above
15. B line of center 36. C Radial load
16. A 1 37. B Ball bearing
17. D 140°F to 160°F 38. D Sommerfeld number
18. D 200°F 39. D Guide bearing
19. B the greater the load 40. C Thrust bearing
capacity of the bearing 41. C heavy
20. D all of these 42. C projected area
21. A 50<Vm>200fpm 43. D Square bearing
22. D light 44. B Long bearings
23. C medium 45. B Bearing modulus
24. D deep-groove ball 46. xxxxxxxx
bearing 47. D Eccentrically
25. A shallow-groove ball 48. D All of the above
bearing 49. B -0.25 to 1.0
26. B cold heading 50. B 300 F
Test 12
1. A heavy rotating body which serves as a reservoir for absorbing and redistributing kinetic
energy.
A. Gear
B. Brakes
C. Flywheel
D. Fan
2. Which of the following is not a use of spring?
A. Absorbs energy
B. Measure weight
C. Source of energy in clocks
D. Measure the thickness
3. The ratio of mean diameter of coil to the coil diameter
A. Wahl factor
B. Diameter ratio
C. Spring index
D. Lead angle
4. The overall length of the spring when it is compressed until all adjacent coils touched.
A. Compressed length
B. Free length
C. Solid length
D. None of these
5. The length of coil sprig under no load.
A. Compressed length
B. Free length
C. Solid height
D. None of these
6. In general, steel spring are made of relatively high carbon steel usually
A. More than 0.5%
B. 5%
C. Less than 0.5%
D. 10%
7. When heat treated wire is coiled cold, it should be stress relieved for bending stresses
after cooling by being heated at some at what temperature?
A. 400F
B. 500F
C. 600F
D. 700F
8. A low cost spring material, suitable where service is not severe and dimensional
precision is not needed.
A. Hard drawn wire spring
B. Helical spring
C. Stainless steel
D. Helical tension spring wire
9. A hard drawn also 80% reduction but it is made of high-grade steel
A. Music wire
B. Oil tempered wire
C. Song wire
D. Chromium- silicon
10. A spring wire with good quality for impact loads at moderately high temperature
A. Hard drawn wire spring
B. Helical spring wire
C. Chromium-silicon
D. Helical tension spring wire
11. A type of coil where the helical coil is wrapped into a circle forming an annular ring
A. Volute spring
B. Motor spring
C. Hair spring
D. Garter spring
12. A type of spring where thin flat strip wound up on itself as a plane spiral, usually
anchored at the inside
A. Volute spring
B. Motor spring
C. Hair spring
D. Garter spring
13. A type of spring made in the form of dished washer
A. Volute spring
B. Motor spring
C. Hair spring
D. Believille spring
14. In laminated spring the strips are provided in different lengths for
A. Economy
B. Reduction in weight
C. Improved appearance
D. Space consideration of the utility stage
15. An elastic stored energy machine element that when released, will recover its basic form
A. Flywheel
B. Clutch
C. Brakes
D. Spring
16. When a spring is made of ductile material, the curvature factor would be
A. Zero
B. Constant
C. Unity
D. Positive
17. The solid length plus the clearance plus the maximum deflection.
A. Free length
B. Height
C. Distance
D. Original length
18. The majority of coils springs are made of coil tempered carbon steel wire
containing______________ carbon.
A. 0.30 to 0.40%
B. 0.40 to 0.50%
C. 0.50 to 0.60%
D. 0.60 to 0.70%
19. Experimental results indicate that the actual frequency of the spring is from
A. 5 to 10%
B. 10 to 15%
C. 15 to 20%
D. 20 to 25%
20. According to W.M. Griffirth, the critical frequency of the spring should behold at least
________ times the frequency of application of a periodic load.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
21. The actual number of coil is _________ in a squared and ground ends.
A. n
B. n + 2
C. nd
D. ( n + 1) d
22. The solid length of squared ends is
A. (n+3)d
B. (n+1)d
C. np
D. n + 2
23. The free length of ground ends is
A. np + 3d
B. np + 2d
C. np + d
D. np
24. the shortest length for the spring during normal operation
A. compressed length
B. operating length
C. solid length
D. free length
25. the relationship between the force exerted by a spring and its deflection is called
A. spring index
B. spring rate
C. wahl’s factor
D. Spring angle
26. The ration of the mean diameter of the spring to the wire diameter is called
A. Spring index
B. Spring ratio
C. Spring rate
D. Spring constant
27. Refers to the axial distance from a point on one coil to the corresponding point on the
next adjacent coil.
A. Lead
B. Spring distance
C. Pitch
D. Spring deflection
28. The spring index for general industrial uses should be
A. 5 to 7
B. 6 to 8
C. 7 to 9
D. 8 to 10
29. What is the spring index of valve and clutch?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
30. Refers to the space between adjacent coils when the spring is compressed to its
operating length
A. Coil allowance
B. Coil tolerance
C. Coil clearance
D. None of these
31. The most practical spring designs produce a pitch angle is less than
A. 12°
B. 15°
C. 20°
D. 25°
32. Engine valves get shut by means of
A. Valve lock
B. Tappet
C. Valve spring
D. Adjusting screw
33. Which of the following materials is used for leaf and coil spring?
A. AISI 3140
B. AISI 3150
C. AISI 3240
D. AISI 4063
34. The circumference of a coil spring times the effective number of coils is called
A. Active length
B. Solid length
C. Compressed length
D. Operating length
35. For spring subjected to light service, the factor of safety __________ is suggested
A. 1.5
B. 2.0
C. 2.5
D. 3.0
36. Refers to a flat or curved made of thin superimposed plates and formin a cantilever or
beam of uniform strength.
A. Laminated spring
B. Graduated spring
C. Full spring
D. Conical spring
37. Cross wire grooves are types which
A. Decrease the danger of skidding
B. Absorb shocks because of road unevenness
C. Provide good faction
D. Provide better load carrying capacity
38. The _____ of parallel connection of spring is always constant
A. Elongation
B. Load
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Resistance
39. Speedometer drive is generally taken from
A. Dynamo
B. Flywheel
C. Gear
D. Front wheel
40. The device for smoothing out the power impulses from the engine is known as
A. Clutch
B. Flywheel
C. Gearbox
D. Differential
41. Typical hub length falls between
A. 1.25D to 2.4D
B. 1.25D to 5D
C. 1.3 D to 3.4D
D. D to 7D
42. The recommended coefficient of fluctuation of flywheels for punching, shearing, and
pressing machine is
A. 0.05 to 0.10
B. 0.03 to 0.05
C. 0.002 to 0.005
D. 0.01 to 0.02
43. Attached to the rear end of the crankshaft is the
A. Vibration damper
B. Flywheel
C. Drive pulley
D. Timing gear
44. Flywheel is also known as
A. Steering wheel
B. Front wheel
C. Balance wheel
D. Rear wheel
45. What energy is stored in flywheels?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Internal energy
C. Potential energy
D. Rest energy
46. What is the function of the flywheel?
A. To keep the speed fluctuation within the desired limits
B. To limit the momentary rise or fall in speed during sudden changes of load
C. To keep the angular advance or retardation within prescribed limit as compared with
a perfectly uniform angular speed
D. All of the above
47. In many flywheel designs, about how many percent of the weight is concentrated in the
hub and arms
A. 20
B. 30
C. 35
D. 45
48. A large rotary machine part whose function is to store energy and to produce uniform
angular velocity of the shaft or reciprocating engine.
A. Cam
B. Idler
C. Flywheel
D. Chuck
49. A massive wheel, which by its inertia assists in securing uniform motion of machinery by
resisting sudden changes of speed.
A. Linkage
B. Crank
C. Planetary gears
D. Flywheel
50. The function of a flywheel is to
A. Complete the unusual stroke
B. Operated the engines
C. Keep the engines weight light
D. None of theses
ANSWERS TO TEST 12 – SPRINGS AND FLYWHEELS
1. C flywheel 24. B operating length

2. D Measure the thickness 25. B spring rate
3. C Spring index 26. A Spring index
4. C Solid length 27. C pitch
5. B Free length 28. D 8 to 10
6. A. more than 0.5% 29. B 5
7. B 500°F 30.C Coil clearance
8. A Hard drawn wire spring 31. A 12°
9. A Music wire 32. C Valve spring
10. C Chromium-silicon 33. D AISI 4063
11. D Garter spring 34. A Active length
12. B Motor spring 35. A 1.5
13. D Belleville spring 36. A Laminated spring
14. A economy 37. B absorb shocks because of
15. D spring road uneveness
16. C unity 38. A elongation
17. A free length 39. D front wheel
18. D 0.60 to 0.70% 40 B Flywheel
19. B 10 to 15% 41. A 1.25d to 2.4D
20. D 20 42. A 0.05 to 0.10
21. B n+2 43. B flywheel
22. A (n+3)d 44. C Balance wheel
23. D np 45. A Kinetic energy
Test 13: Brakes and Clutches
1. A shaft is used to connect or disconnect at will is called

A. Clutch
B. Bearing
C. Brake shaft
D. Lock shaft
2. The frictional forces depends on coefficient of friction and

A. torque
B. weights of object
C. normal force
D. moment
3. Friction devices used to regulate the motion of bodies and with clutches.
A. Rollers
B. Brakes
C. Babbitt
D. Holders
4. The part of the total frictional energy that is stored in the brake parts, principally in the drum
or disk has been variously estimated at ______.
A.56% up
B. 86% up
C. 90% up
D. 75% up
5. The part of an automobile disc clutch that presses against the flywheel is referred to as
A. Contact plate
B. Friction plate
C. Pressure plate
D. Sliding plate
6. The brake capacity to absorb energy is known as

A. Energy
B. Resistance brake
C.
D. Braking torque
7. if the band wraps partly around the brake wheel or drum and brake action is obtained by
pulling the band tight onto the wheel. This type of brake is known as
A. block brake
B. Band brake
C. Clutch
D. Centrifugal brake
8. the brake lining operating at temperature ______, sintered mixtures containing ceramics are
used
A. 750 F to 1000 F
B. 560 F to 900 F
C. 800 F to 1200 F
D. 400 F to 789 F
9. hydrodynamics brakes is the major type of

A. air brake
B. fluid brake
C. electric brake
D. spot brake
10. types of brakes that are capable of stopping the motion of a machine member as well as
retarding its motion.
A. electrical brake
B. fluid brake
C. air brake
D. mechanical brake
11. it is considered as the simplest type of mechanical brake.

A. differential brake
B. block brake
C. band brake
D. brake shoe
12. the friction devices used to connect shafts.

A. brakes
B. clutches
C. spring
D. brake shoe
13. A clutch that has a disadvantage of heavier rotary masses

A. Multiple disc clutch
B. Disc clutch
C. Cone Clutch
D. none of these
14. The overrunning clutch

A. should be oiled
B. should be repacked with grease
C. Cannot be lubricated
D. contains no lubricant
15. The running clutch

A. transmits cranking force to the Engine flywheel
B. is one way clutch
C. prevents the engine flywheel from driving the starting motor
D. all of the above
16. Clutch, gear box, differential etc. are the parts of

A. charging system
B. transmission system
C. cooling system
D. none of these
17. In motor vehicles, it is very common practice to use a
A. multiple clutch
B. hydraulic clutch
C. cone clutch
D. single plate clutch
18. The clutch finger is pushed by

A. clutch fork
B. clutch
C. clutch bearing
D. none of these
19. The hydraulic clutch doest incorporate a

A. Clutch plate
B. oil plate
C. vacuum plate
D. none of these
20. The fining of a brake shoe

A. can be changed
B. cannot be fitted
C. can be fitted with spring
D. none of these
21. Due to air effect the hydraulic brakes become

A. more effective
B. ineffective
C. possible
D. none of these
22. The efficiency of hydraulic braking system is

A. about 90%
B. 60-80 %
C. 50-60 %
D.40-50 %
23. The SAE recommends an angle of _________ for cone clutches faced with leather asbestos
or having cork inserts.
A. 7.5 degrees
B. 9.5 degrees
C. 12.5 degrees
D. 14.5 degrees
24. Why does a clutch creates noise?

A. Clutch release bearing is either dry or defective
B. Clutch spring is broken
C. Clutch is faulty
D. all of the above
25 what faults develop in the brakes?

A. brakes do not work properly
B. brakes do not disengage3
C. brakes makes noise
D. all of the above
26. which of the following types of brakes are also changed while replacing brake lining?
A. brake shoes
B. shoe rivets
C. shoe spring
D. block brake
27. Power brakes require _________ power.

A. equal
B. less
C. more
D. pulsating
28. What type of oil used in the hydraulic system?

A. Engine oil
B. Gear oil
C. Brake oil
D. Clutch oil
29. The principal parts of a hydraulic brake system are the master cylinder and the
A. multi cylinder
B. wheel cylinder
C. brake wire
D. brake shoe
30. In the mechanical brake system the main function is of

A. spring
B. cam
C. shoe adjuster
D. shoe rivets
31. In the motor vehicles, there is a _________ in addition of foot brake

A. hand brake
B. hydraulic brake
C. mechanical brake
D. band brake
32. Which of the following are also used in the suspension system?
A. Shock absorbers
B. Brake shoes
C. Cams
D. Block brakes
33. There are __________ plates in a multi plate clutch.

A. more than one
B. less than four
C. more than ten
D. less than one
34 hydraulic clutches are used in ______ vehicles
A. costly
B. foreign made
C. cheap
D. affordable
35. which of the following is mounted inside the clutch?

A. an engine
B. gear box propeller shaft
C. both the rear axle
D. all of the above
36. which clutch is suitable for mine hoists and other services where heavy loads are
accompanied by severe shock?
A. band clutch
B. block clutch
C. centrifugal clutch
D. expanding ring clutch
37. it is used to protect a machine in case of jamming and for overload protection of motors and
engine.
A. dry fluid clutch
B. magnetic clutch
C. eddy clutch
D. slip clutch
38. refers to the simplest type of brakes.

A. differential brakes
B. block brakes
C. band brakes
D. brake shoe
39. the practical length of shoe is limited to about

A. 75 deg
B. 90 deg
C. 120 deg
D. 180 deg
40. if the angle of contact is ____ the pressure between the brakes shoe and the drum can not
be considered uniform.
A. less than 45 deg
B. less than 60 deg
C. greater than 60 deg
D. greater than 120 deg
41. It is used to stop the motion of a moving object

A. Clutch
B. Brakes
C. Band Clutch
D. Brand brake
42. The effectiveness of the brake may greatly decreases shortly after it begins to act
continuously, a phenomenon called:
A. Creep
B. Pressurized
C. Fade
D. Worn-out
43. Type of brake is known as

A. Servo brake
B. Band Brake
C. Differential brake
D. Brake shoe
44. Clutches which are designed to transmit torque for one direction of rotation of the driver and
then free-wheel or transmit essentially no torque when the direction of the driver rotation is
reserved.
A. Magnetic clutches
B. Trip clutches
C. Overrunning clutches
D. Slip clutches
45. The reason for noise at the time of engaging brake.

A. Back plate being loose or bent
B. Brake shoe being loose or bent
C. Brake drum could be defective
D. All of the above
46. When the vehicle runs brake drum becomes hot because of friction of the shoe This fault is
known as ________
A. Brake lining
B. Brake winding
C. Back plate
47. The maintenance of mechanical brake is

A. Expensive
B. Economical
C. Costly
D. none of the above
48. What is the most common defect of clutch?

A. Slip of the clutch
B. Clutch does not disengage properly
C. Clutch creates noise
D. All of the above
49. The act of keeping some pressure on the clutch pedal at the time of driving is known as
A. Hydraulic clutch
B. Slip of the clutch
C. Riding on clutch
D. Clutch adjustment
50.which of the following shortcoming in the cone clutch because of which the clutch is not
used?
A. clutch slips quickly
B. it occupies more space
C. adjustment has to be done early
D. all of the above
Answer to TEST 13 – Brakes and Clutches
1. A Clutch 26. B shoe rivets

2. C normal force 27. B less
3. B brakes 28. C Brake oil
4. D 75% up 29. B wheel cylinder
5. C Pressure plate 30. B cam
6. D Braking torque 31. A hand brake
7. B band brake 32. A Shock absorber
8. A 750F to 1000 F 33. A more than one
9. B fluid brake 34. A costly
10. D Mechanical brake 35. B gear box propeller shaft
11. C Band brake 36. A band clutch
12. B Clutches 37. D slip clutch
13. A Multiple disc clutch 38. C band brakes
14. C cannot be lubricated 39. C 120 degrees
15. D all of the above 40. C greater than 60 degrees
16. B transmission system 41. B brakes
17. D single plate clutch 42. C Fade
18. C clutch bearing 43. A servo brake
19. A clutch plate 44. C
20. A can be changed 45. D All of the above
21. B ineffective 46. B broke winding
22. A about 90 % 47. B Economical
23. C 12.5 degrees 48. D All of the above
24. D all of the above 49. C Riding on clutch
25. D all of the above 50. D All of the above
TEST 14 Belts and Chains
1. It is ideal for maximum quietness in sprocket drive operation to choose ______or

more teeth.
A. 25
B. 26
C. 27
D. 28
2. It is recommended for high speed application that the minimum number of teeth in small
sprocket should be
A. 12 to 20
B. 18 to 24
C. 16 to 32
D. 14 to 28
3. Consider a maximum safe center distance of sprockets should be______pitches. Very long
center distance caused catenaries tension in the chain.
A. 70
B. 80
C. 90
D. 100
4. The recommended lubricant for the chain drive operation is

A. SAE 4140
B. Petroleum oil
C. Moly slip
D. Heavy grease
5. Type of leather belt being applied with waterproof cement is called

A. combination of oak/mineral tanned
B. oak tanned
C. mineral tanned
D. all of the above
6. what type of leather belting should be used at ambient temperature above 140 def F and
possible acid liquid coming in contact with belt?
A. mineral tanned
B. combination of oak
C. oak tanned
D. none of these
7. It is recommended not to have a direct drive and drive sprockets if the ratios of their teeth
exceeds_______ use two or more step combination.
A. 10 times
B. 8 times
C. 5 times
D. 6 times
8. Flat leather belting not recommended for use in a speed in excess of__fpm
A. 3600
B. 4800
C.5000
D. all of these
9. V- belts operate efficiently at speed of about

A. 4500 fpm
B. 4400 fpm
C. 4200 fpm
D. 3600 fpm
10 it is advised that in rubber belts application mounting, it should have an initial tension of ____
inch/ ply
A. 18 to 24
B. 15 to 20
C. 12 to 15
D. 10
11. in shear pin or breaking pin design, we may use the data experienced by Link- Belt for 1/8
inch to 1 inch pins and breaking stress is ____ ksi.
A. 40
B. 55
C. 50 D. 48
12. A type of V-belts to use in a driving pulley with speed of 360 rpm and transmitting 5 hp
A. Type C belts
B. Type B belts
C. Type A belts
D. Type D belts
13. Belt slip may take place because of

A. loose load
B. heavy belt
C. driving pulley to small
D. all of these
14. A single ply leather belt running at a belt velocity of 300 ft/min is likely to
Transmit__________per inch of width
A. 2.5 hp
B. 3.0 hp
C. 4.0 hp
D 5.0 hp
15. What is the density of a leather belt?

A. 0.035 fb/in3
B. 0.0253 fb/in3
C. 0.046 fb/in3
D. 0.074 fb/in3
16. What is the density of flat rubber belt material?

A. 0.055 fb/in3
B. 0.045 fb/in3
C. 0.0725 fb/in 3
D. 0.0726 fb/in3
17. the breaking strength of oak tanned belting varies from 3 to more than
A. 5 ksi
B. 6 ksi
C. 7 ksi
D. 8 ksi
18. if the ends are joined by wire lacing with machine the usual efficiency of joint is
A. 75 %
B. 85 %
C. 88 %
D. 100 %
19. The tension in the belt due to centrifugal force increases rapidly above
A. 2500 fpm
B. 3000 fpm
C. 3500 fpm
D. 4000 fpm
20. Experience suggest s that the most economical designs are obtained for a belt
Speed of
A. 2000 to 3000 fpm
B. 3000 to 4000 fpm
C.4000 to 4500 fpm
D. 4000 to 4000 fpm
21. For leather belts recommended speed is

A. 2000 to 300 0 fpm
B. 4000 to 5000 fpm
C. 6000 to 7500 fpm
D. 7000 to 8000 fpm
22. for fabric belts recommended speed is

A. 2000 to 3000 fpm
B. 2000 and more fpm
C. 3000 to 4000 fpm
D. 4000 to 4500 fpm
23 on high speed centrifugal blowers, it has been observed that the arc of contact reduced from
180 degrees at rest to___ in motion
A. 90 deg
B.95 deg
C. 100 deg
D. 110 deg
24. the recommended initial tension of belt is

A. 75 lb/in of width
B. 71 lb/in of width
C. 73 lb/in of width
D. 80 lb/in of width
25. the recommended net belt pull for rubber belt is

A. 11.34 lb/ply per inch of width
B. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width
C. 16.35 lb/ply per inch of width
D. 20.34 lb/ply per inch of width
26. if two intersecting shafts are to be belt connected how many guide pulley is used.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
27. Two shafts at right angles to each other may be connected by the ____ arrangement.
A. half turn
B. three-fourths turn
C. one turn
D. quarter turn
28. it offers long life, high efficiency, and low cost and low maintenance.
A. Flat belt
B. V-belt
C. tooth belt
D. All of the above
29. it is used to connect pulleys or to convey materials by transmitting motion and power
A. Rope
B. Wires
C. Belt
D. Flat
30. a crosses belt wider than________ inches should be avoided.

A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
31. if the pulley ratio 3:1 more, the reduction should be

A. 25 %
B. 50 %
C. 75 %
D. 95 %
32. The advantage of flat belting is that

A. It can be used with high-speed drivers
B. It can be used in dusty and abrasive environments
C. It allows long distances between shafts
D. all of the above
33. the best leather has an ultimate strength of about

A. 3000 psi
B. 4000 psi
C. 5000 psi
D. 6000 psi
34. initial tensions should range from _______ for leather belts and 10 to 12 lb/ply inch width for
rubber belts.
A. 200 to 240 psi
B. 220 to 260 psi
C. 240 to 280 psi
D. 260 to 300 psi
35. the density of a balata belt is

A. 0.031 lb/in3
B. 0.042 lb/in3
C. 0.051 lb/in3
D. 0.061 lb/in3
36. if the selection of the proper belt it is not considered good practice to use single-ply leather
belts more than _____________ wide
A. 6 in
B. 7 in
C. 8 in
D. 9 in
37. According to the Goodrich company, the permissible net belt pull is_______it gives a simple
means for quick estimation.
A. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width
B. 15.75 lb/ply per inch of width
C. 16.75 lb/ply per inch of width
D. 17.75 lb/ply per inch of width
38. which type of chain is used in motorcycle?

A. Bush roller
B. Pintle
C. Silent
39. the minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket for moderate speeds is
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18
40. the minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket for moderate speeds is
A. 15
B.17
C. 19
D. 21
41. the minimum number of teeth on the smaller sprocket for high speeds is
A. 19
B. 21
C. 23
D. 25
42. for maximum quietness, use sprockets with_________ or more teeth.

A.21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 27
43. for the average application a center distance equivalent to ________ pitches of chain
represents good practice.
A. 10 to 20
B. 20 to 30
C. 30 to 50
D. 40 to 50
44. the tension ratio of flat belt is

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
45. the tension ratio of V- belt is

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
46. Belata belt is about _________ stronger than rubber

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D.25%
47. the coefficient of friction between the belt and the pulley for leather belt running steel pulley
is
A. 0.1
B. 0.2
C. 0.3
D. 0.5
48. the capacity of a crossed belt should be reduced to ________ that of an open belt
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 75%
49. that is the usual factor of safety used with leather belts?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10
50. practice it is found that arcs less than _____ require high belt tensions.
A. 155 deg
B. 165 deg
C. 175 deg
D. 180 deg
Answers to Test 14
1. C 27 26. B 2
2. B 18 to 24 27. D quarter turn
3. B 80 28. A Flat belt
4. B petroleum oil 29. C Belt
5. B oak tanned 30. B 50%
6. D none of these 31. B 8
7. B 8 times 32. D all of these
8. C 6000 33. B 4000 psi
9. A 4500 fpm 34. A 200 to 240 psi
10. B 15 to 20 35. B 0.042 lb/in3
11. C 50 36. C 8 in
12. B Types B belts 37. A 13.75 lb/ply inch of width
13. D all of these 38. A Bush roller
14. C 4.0 Hp 39. A 12
15. A 0.035 lb/in3 40. B 17
16. B 0.045 lb/in3 41. B 21
17. B 6 ksi 42. D 27
18. C 88% 43. C 30 to 50
19. A 2500 fpm 44. B 3
20. C 4000 to 4500 fpm 45. D 5
21. D 7000 to 8000 fpm 46. D 25%
22. B 2000 and more fpm 47. C 0.3
23. D 110 deg 48. D 75%
24. B 71 lb/in. of width 49. D 10
25. B 13,75 lb/ply per inch of width 50. B 165 deg
TEST 15: Gears
1. the minimum recommended worm pitch diameter ¼ inch the maximum is

A. 1 ½ in.
B. 2 3/4 in.
C. 3 in.
D. 2 in.
2. vertex distance is a term used in ____ gearing.

A. spiral
B. worm
C. bevel
D. zerol
3. the arc of action to circular pitch or length of action to base pitch

A. approach
B. contact ratio
C. arc of action
D arc of approach
4. recommended hardness of pinion for helical/herringbone gear tooth should be ____ BHN
point to sustain life
A. 50-58
B. 48-65
C. 40-50
D. 30-60
5. in designing gears for power transmission consider an efficiency of _____ as recommended

A. 96 %
B. 89 %
C. 85 %
D. 98 %
6. The surface of the gear between the fillets of adjacent teeth is called
A. bottom land
B. Flank
C. top land
D. all of these
7.bevel gears subject to corrosion and lightly loaded are usually made of
A. bronze
B. brass
C. duralumin
D. all of these
8. if a set of spur gears are made, installed and lubricated properly they normally may be
subjected to failures like
A. tooth spalling
B. tooth penning
C. pitting
D. shearing
9. which of the following is an example of rectelllinear translation?
A. locomotive wheels
B. rack gear
C. piston of an engine
D. jack
10. for economical cost in the manufacturing large worm gears the following materials are
usually applied:
A. bronze rim with cast steel spider
B. cast iron rim with bronze spider
C. cast steel rim with brass spider
D. alloyed aluminum rim with cast iron spider
11. intermediate gear is also called ________ gear in a gear train arrangement
A. idler
B. Pinion
C. third gear
D. mounted gear
12. the distance helical gear worm would thread along its axis in one revolution if it were free to
move free to move axially is called
A. lead
B. thread
C. pitch
D. land
13. range of helix angle on helical gear is ________

A. less than 18
B. 15-25
C. 20-35
D. 35-40
14.what will be the effect in bushing gears without backlash?

A. jamming
B. overheating
C. overload
D. all of these
15. the amount by which the width of a tooth space exceeds the thickness of the engaging tooth
on the pitch circles.
A. backlash
B. clearance
C. undercut
D. chordal thickness
16. height of tooth above pitch circle or radial distance between pitch circle and top land of the
tooth is called
A. top tooth
B. addendum
C. land
D. hunting
17. I involutes teeth, the pressure angle is often defined as the angle between the line of action
and the line of tangent to the pitch circle. It is termed as
A. helix angle
B. angle of recess
C. angle of obliquity
D. arc of action
18. the reciprocal of a diametral pitch or the ratio of pitch diameter to number of teeth is called
A. lead
B. module
C. involute
D. clearance
19. for evenly distributed and uniform wear on each meshing gear tooth the ideal design
practice is to consider a
A. wear resistance alloy addition to tooth gear
B. heat treatment of the gears
C. hardening of each
D. hunting tooth addition
20. _________ used to transmit power at high velocity ratios between non- intersecting shafts
that are usually but not necessarily at right angle
A. helical gear
B. bevel gear
C. worm gear
D. spiral gear
21. a gear design, the ratio of the pitch diameter in inches to the number of teeth is called
A. module
B. diametral pitch
C. English module
D. circular pitch
22. the concave portion of the tooth profile where it joints the bottom of the tooth that curve is
called
A. fillet curve
B. fillet radius
C. bottom depth
D. fillet
23. the distance of tooth, which is equal to the sum of the addendum and dedendum is known
as
A. full depth
B. whole depth
C. working depth
D. dedendum
24. it is used to change rotary motion to reciprocating motion

A. helical gear
B. rack gear
C. width of face
D. chordal thickness
25.
26. ________ is the difference of addendum and dedendum, which is equivalent to whole depth
less working depth.
A. fillet space
B. fillet radius
C. clearance
D. backlash
27. for moderate speed of mating gears, ideal ratio contact is :

A. 1.25-4.00
B. 1.20-1.45
C. 1.00-1.30
D. 1.35-1.45
28. the distance a helical gear or worm would thread along its axis in one revolution if it were
free to move axially is called
A. length of action
B. length of contact
C. land
D. lead
29. hypoid gear is a special type of gear like

A. worm gear
B. spur gear
C. herring gear
D. bevel gear
30. what type of gear is used for high- speed operation/

A. helical
B. spur
C. bevel
D. worm
31. in a pair of gears___ is the plane perpendicular to the axial plane and tangent to the pitch
surface.
A. pitch
B. pitch plane
C. pitch circle
D. pitch point
32. what type of gear, which can transmit power at a certain angle?
A. helical gear
B. worm gear
C. bevel gear
D. herringbone gear
33. _________ commonly used in a parallel shaft transmission especially when a smooth
continuous action is essential as in high speed drives up to 12,000 fpm
A. bevel gear
B. herringbone gear
C. spur gear
D. helical gear
34.
35. the path of contact involute gears where the force/power actually transmitted it is a straight
imaginary line passing through the pitch point and tangent tp the base circle is known
as_______
A. principal reference plane
B. pitch point
C. front angle
D. line of action
36.________ is the angle at the base cylinder of an involute gear that the tooth makes with the
gear axis
A. base helix angle
B. pressure angle
C. arc of recess
D. arc of approach
37. fillet radius in machine parts is usually introduced to:

A. improve the look of the path
B. reduce concentration of stress and extend life of the parts
C. avoid obstruction
D. necessary to lessen casting weight
38. a type of gear tooth cut inside a cylinder or ring is termed as

A. rack gear
B. ring gear
C. miter gear
D. internal gear
39. the length of arc between the two sides of a gear tooth on the pitch circle.
A. circle thickness
B. axial plane
C. helix angle
D. chordal curves
40. which of the following materials to be utilized to reduce cost in the manufacture of large
worm gears?
A. alloyed aluminum
B. bronze rim with cast iron spider
C. cast iron rim with bronze spider
D. all of these
41. a circle bounding the bottom of the teeth.

A. addendum angle
B. addendum cylinder
C. pitch circle
D. dedendum cicle
42._________ is one in which angle is 90 degrees that is the pitch cone has become a plane.
A. crown gear
B. angular gear
C. miter gear
D. spiral gear
43. a________ formed elements, which are perpendicular to the elements of the pitch cone at
the large end.
A. cone distance
B. back cone
C. root cone
D. cone center
44. a bevel gear of the same size mounted on a shaft at 90 degrees is called
A. crown gear
B. spur gear
C. angular gear
D. miter gear
45. bearing in which motion or power that is transmitted depends upon the friction between the
surfaces in contact.
A. bevel gears
B. spur friction wheels
C. evans friction cones
D. friction gearing
46. wheels are sometimes used for the transmission of high power when an approximately
constant velocity ratio is desired is called
A. bevel cones
B. friction gearing
C. spur friction wheels
D. evans friction wheels
47. the frustum of two cones used in a manner to permit a variation of velocity ratio between two
parallel shafts are called
A. evans friction cones
B. bevel cones
C. spherical cones
D. friction
48. If gears cannot parallel shafts they are called:

A. cycloidal gears
B. helical gears
C. spur gears
D. toothed gears
49._____ is used to transmit power between shafts axis of which it intersect.

A. spur gears
B. bevel gears
C. helical gears
D. straight bevel gears
50. the space between adjacent teeth is called

A. tooth
B. flank
C. backslash
D. width
Answer to Test 15
1. D 2 in 27. A 1.25-4.00
2. C bevel 28. D lead
3. B contact ratio 29. D bevel gear
4. C 40-50 30. A helical
5. D 98% or more 31. B pitch plane
6. A bottom land 32. C bevel gear
7. D all of these 33. B herringbone gear
8. C pitting 34. C 340-350 normal
9. C piston of an engine 35. D line of action
10. A bronze rim with cast steel spider 36. A base helix angle
11. A idler 37. B reduce concentration of stress and
12. A lead extend life of the parts
13. B 15-25 38. D internal gear
14. D all of these 39. A circle thickness
15. A back slash 40. B bronze rim with cast iron spider
16. B addendum 41. D dedendum circle
17. C angle of obliquity 42. A crown gear
18. B module 43. B back bone
19. D hunting tooth addition 44. D miter gear
20. C worm gear 45. D friction gearing
21. C English module 46.
22. A fillet curve 47. A evans friction cones
23. B whole depth 48. A cycloidal gears
24. B rack gear 49. B bevel gears
25. D chordal thickness 50. D width
26. C clearance
Test 16 Gears
1. tooth width measurement along the chord at the pitch circle.

A. chord space
B. chord clearance
C. chordal thickness
D. chordal length
2. Herringbone gears are gears which

A. do not operate parallel shafts
B. have a line contact between the teeth
C. tend to produce and thrust on the shafts
D. consists of two left handed helical gears
3. In usual spur gearing the

A. pitch circle and base circle are the same
B. working depth includes clearance
C. tooth outline are always cycloidal curves
D. tooth outline are usually involute curves
4. _______ is a kind of gear used to transmit motion from one shaft to another shaft at an angle
to the first.
A. worm gear
B. bevel gear
C. helical gear
D. spur gear
5. a circle coinciding with a tangent to the bottom of the tooth spaces

A. pitch circle
B. root circle
C. base circle
D. outside circle
6. A circle the radius of which is equal to the distance from the axis to the pitch point
A. pitch circle
B. root circle
C. base circle
D. outside circle
7. ratio of pitch diameter to the number of teeth.

A. diametral pitch
B. module
C. contact ratio
D. helical overlap
8. a kind of gear used for heavy duty works where a large ratio of speed is required and are
extensively used in speed reducer is known as
A. worm gear
B. spiral gear
C. helical gear
D. bevel gear
9. the ratio of the number of teeth to the number of mm of pitch diameter equals number of gear
teeth to each mm pitch diameter.
A. diameter pitch
B. Module
C. Circular pitch
D. English module
10. the depth of tooth space below the pitch circle

A. dedendum
B. working depth
C. full depth
D. tooth depth
11. the total depth of a tooth space equal to addendum plus dedendum
A. full depth
B. working depth
C. whole depth
D. dedendum
12. a circle coinciding with a tangent to the bottom of the tooth space
A. root circle
B. pitch circle
C. addendum circle
D. dedendum
13. the diameter of a circle coinciding with the top of the teeth of an internal gear
A. pitch diameter
B. root diameter
C. internal diameter
D. central diameter
14. a gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical surface

A. outer gear
B. external gear
C. spiral gear
D. helical gear
15. addendum of a cycloidal gear tooth.

A. cycloid
B. epicycloids
C. straight rack
D. involute
16. when meshed with a gear, it is used to changed rotary motion to reciprocating
A. gear shaft
B. gear tooth
C. gear rack
D. gear motor
17. the portion of the gear tooth space that is cut below the pitch circle and is equal to the
addendum plus the clearance
A. top root
B. dedendum
C. addendum
D. tooth space
31. in case of spur gears the flank of tooth is

A. the part of the tooth surface lying below the pitch surface
B. the curve forming face and flank
C. the width of the gear tooth measured axially along the pitch surface
D. the surface of the top of the tooth
32. a reverted gear train is one in which

A. the direction of rotation of first and last gear is opposite
B. the direction of rotation of first and last gear is the same
C. the first and last gear are essentially on separate but parallel shafts
33. for best running condition of gear, the contact ratio should be about
A. 1.25-1.40
B. 1.20-1.45
C. 1.34 to 1.56
D. 1.62 to 1.45
34. the ____________ full depth teeth have the advantages of the greater capacity and less
interference trouble
A. 14.5 deg
B. 24 deg
C. 20 deg
D. 30 deg
35. ______________ is the average tangential force on the teeth is then obtained from the
horsepower
A. total load
B. separation load
C. pressure load
D. tangential load
36. the service factor of a gear may be taken as_____ if an electric motor drives a centrifugal
blower
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
37. the kind of wear occurs because of a fatigue failure of the surface material as a result of
high contact stresses is known as
A. slotting
B pitting
C involuting
D. curving
38. ______ is caused by foreign matter such as grit or meatl particles or by a failure of the film
at low speed.
A. suction
B. scoring
C. abrasion
D. corrosion
39. ________ occurs when the oil film fails but in this case the load and speed are so high that
the surface metal is melted and the metal is smeared down the profile
A. abrasion
B. corrosion
C. spailing
D. scoring
40._______ is a surface fatigue or greater extent than pitting that is the flakes are much larger.
This type of failure occurs in surface- hardened teeth.
A. abrasion
B. corrosion
C. spailing
D. scoring
41. Buckingham says that mating phenolic gears with steel of BHN less than________ leads to
excessive abrasive wear.
A. 200
B. 200
C. 400
D. 500
42. _______ is the extra tooth in gear, which is use to, distributes the wear more evenly.
A. hunting tooth
B. tooth profile
C. dummy tooth
D. add tooth
43. the length of the hub should not be made ______ the face width of the gear
A. less than
B. equal
C. greater
D none of these
44._______ is a gear that has teeth cut on the inside of the rim instead of on the outside
A. external gear
B. involute curve
C. stub gear
D. annular gear
45. to eliminate fouling let the minimum differences in tooth numbers between the internal gear
and pinion be___ for 14.5 deg involute full depth
A. 10 teeth
B. 12 teeth
C. 14 teeth
D. 16 teeth
46. the loss pair of spur, helical or bevel gears in an ordinary train should not exceed
A. 4 %
B.6%
C. 2 %
D. 5%
47. the typical helix angle ranges from ______ to _____

A. 10 deg to 12 deg
B. 12 deg to 15 deg
C. 14 deg to 20 deg
D. 15 deg to 2 deg
48.___ is the advance of the tooth in the face width divided by circular pitch.
A. face contact ratio
B. speed ratio
C. profile ratio
D. advance ratio
49. the distance between the teeth measured on the pitch surface along a normal to the helix
A. lead
B. lead angle
C. normal circular pitch
D. pitch
50. the hardness of helical and herringbone teeth cut after heat treatment will generally fail
between the limits of ___________ .
A. 210 and 300 Brinell
B. 147 and 300 Brinell
C. 230 and 320 Brinell
D. 220 and 320 Brinell
Answer to test 16
1. C chordal thickness
2. B have a line of a contact between the teeth
3. D tooth outline are usually involute curves
4. B bevel gear
5. B root circle
6. A pitch circle
7. B module
8. A worm gear
9. A diametral pitch
10. A dedendum
11. C whole depth
12. A root circle
13. C internal gear
14. B external gear
15. B epicycloids
16. C gear rack
17. B dedendum
18. C addendum
19. A circular pitch
20. C diametral pitch
21. A pitch circle
22. B 67.5 deg
23. A pinion
24. A small power
25. B herringbone gear
26. D none of the above
27. D none of these
28. D stamping
29. A one module
30. D none parallel / non intersecting
31. A the part of the tooth surface lying below the pitch surface
32. C the first and last gear are essentially on separate but parallel shaft
33. A 1.25 -1.40
34. C 20 deg
35. D tangential load
36. A one
37. B fitting
38. C abrasion
39. D scoring
40. C spalling
41. C 400
42. A hunting tooth
43. A less than
44. D annular gear
45. B 12 teeth
46. C 2%
47. D 15-20 deg
48. A face contact ratio
49. C normal circular pitch
50. A 210 and 300 Brinell
TEST 17-GEARS
1. Helical gears mounted on non-parallel shafts are called
A. Open gear
B.Crossed helical gear
C.Closed helical gear
D. Herringbone gear
2. ______is used to connect inserting shafts, usually but not necessarily at 90 degrees.
A. Bevel gear
B. Helical gear
C. Spur gear
D. Worm gear
3. Bevel gear teeth are built with respect to a______rather than to a pitch cylinder as in spur
gears.
A. Pitch pedal
B. Pitch profile
C. Pitch cone
D. Cylinder
4. Refers to the length of pitch cone in a bevel gear.
A. Cone center
B. Lead
C. Center distance
D. Pitch
5. Refers to the cone that is formed by the elements of the top lands.
A. Face cone
B. Root cone
C. Dial face
D. Pitch face
6. The cone formed by the elements of bottom lands.
A. Face cone
B. Root cone
C. Back cone
D. Rake cone
7. An imaginary cone whose elements are perpendicular to the pitch cone elements at the large
end of the tooth.
A. Front cone
B. Side cone
C. Rear cone
D. Back cone
8. ______is one whose tooth profiles consist of straight elements that converge to a point at the
cone center.
A. Circular bevel gear
B. Straight bevel gear
C. Path bevel gear
D. Herringbone gear
9. The desired quality in gears is
A. quietness
B. durability
C. strength
D. all of these
10. Straight and zerol bevel gears should not be used when the pitch line velocity is greater than
A.800 rpm
B.850 rpm
C.875 rpm
D.900 rpm
11 .The spiral bevel gears are recommended when the pitch line speed exceeds
A.1000 rpm
B.1100 rpm
C.1500rpm
D.2000 rpm
12. When the pitch line speed is above 8000 fpm the teeth should be
A. ground after hardening
B. should be cooled in air
C. should be quenched after
D. none of these
13. ______have curved teeth as in spiral bevels, but with zero spiral angles.
A. Spiral gears
B. Zerol bevel gears
C. Zero bevel gears
D. Straight bevel gears
14. ______is a gear that has an advantage of smoother tooth engagement quietness of
operation greater strength and higher permissible speeds.
A. Zerol bevel gears
B. Straight bevel gears
C. Hypoid bevel gears
D. Spiral bevel gears
15. When the pair of bevel gears of the same size is on shafts intersecting at right angle, they
are called ______.
A. Mold gear
B. Helix angle
C. Miter gear
D. Tangent gear
16. The used of gearbox provides
A. gear leverage
B. more torque
C. more speed
D. none of these
17. For equalizing the rotation of two gears, a gearbox employs.
A.dog and clutch

B. crown gear
C. star pinion
D. none of these
18. In a constant mesh gearbox, all the speed gears remain
A. separate
B. joined to their couples
C. of the same measurements
D. none of these
19. If a big gear moved by the small gear then the big gear
A. will not rotate
B. will rotate on reverse direction
C. will rotate fastly
D. none of these
20. ______are bevel gears mounted on intersecting shaft at angle of other than 90 degrees.
A. Right angle gears
B. Half gears
C. Inclined gears
D. Angular gears
21. The pitch angle is 90 degrees that is; the pitch cone has become a plane.
A. Atten gear
B. Crown gear
C. Cool gear
D. Hiphap gear
22. ______is used to transmit power between non-intersecting shafts, nearly always at right to
each other.
A. Spur gear
B. Ordinary gear
C. Bevel gear
D. Worm gear
23. What are the two types of construction for the worm?
A. Shell and Cylindrical
B. Shell and Zigzag
C. Shell and Integral
D. Tube and Integral
24. The standard pressure angle for fine pitch gears is ______degrees and is recommended for
most applications.
A.14.5 degrees
B. 16 degrees
C. 20 degrees
D. 21 degrees
25.The contact ratio of a pair of mating spur gears must be well over ______to insure a smooth
transfer of load from one pair of teeth to the next pair.
A.1.0
B. 2.0
C. 3.0
D. 4.0
26. As general rule contact ratio should not be less than
A. 1.1
B. 1.2
C. 1.3
D. 1.4
27. Surface roughness on active profile surfaces gear is about ______ pitch.
A. 30
B. 32
C. 34
D. 36
28. Tooth breakage on gear is usually
A. a tensile fatigue
B. a contact stress
C. a crack
D. none of these
29. AGMA means
A. American German Manufacturer Association
B. Athletic Gear Main Association
C. American Gear Metal Association
D. American Gear Manufacturers Association
30. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
A. Tooth scoring
B. Tooth breakage
C. Pitting
D. Toughing
31. Well proportion commercial gear with a pitch line velocity of less than ______ will normally
not score if they have a reasonably good surface finish and are properly lubricated.
A. 6000 fpm
B.6500 fpm
C. 7000 fpm
D. 8000 fpm
32. Experimental data from actual gear unit measurements are seldom repeatable within a plus
or minus ______ band.
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D.20%
33. Pitting is a function of the hertzian contact stresses between two cylindrical and is
proportioned to the square root of the
A. applied load
B. the contact stress
C. the stress
D. Impact
34. When an excitation frequency coincides with a natural frequency, this is known to be
A. unity
B. resonance
C. obliquity
D. sinusoidal
35. The Average tooth stiffness constant of face is usually
A. 1.5 to 2 psi
B. 3 to 6 psi
C. 3 to 4 psi
D. 7.5 to 10 psi
36. When the number of teeth in a pair of meshing gears are such that they do not have a
common divisor ______.
A. dummy
B. LCD
C. add it
D. hunting
37. For internal gears having a 20 degrees pressure angle and full depth teeth, the difference
between the number of teeth in a gear and pinion should not be less than ______.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
38. Zerol bevel gears of 20 degree angle should have a pinion either no less than ______.
A. 15 teeth
B. 16 teeth
C. 17 teeth
D. 18 teeth
39. ______are machine elements that transmit motion by means of successively engaging
teeth.
A. Sprockets
B. GearsC. Tooth belt
D. Annular
40. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth travels from the first point of contact with the
mating tooth to the pitch point is called:
A. arc of contact
B. arc of approach
C. arc of recess
D. arc of action
41. Height of tooth above pitch circle or the distance between the pitch circle and the top of the
tooth is called:
A. dedendum
B. addendum
C. working depth
D. total depth
42. The circle that bounds the outer ends of the teeth.
A. Addendum circle
B. Dedendum circle
C. Pitch circle
D. Root circle
43. The angle through which the gear turns from the time given pair of teeth is in contact at the
pitch point until they pass out the mesh.
A. Pressure angle
B. angle of action
C. Angle of approach
D. Angle of recess
44. The angle through which the gear turns from the time a particular pair of teeth comes into in
contact until they go out the contact.
A. Pressure angle
B. angle of action
D. Angle of recess
45. The angle through which the gear turns from the time a particular pair of teeth comes into in
contact until they are in contact at the pitch point.
A. Pressure angle
B. angle of action
D. Angle of recess
46. Arc of the circle through which a tooth travels from the point of contact with the mating tooth
to the pitch point is called:
A. arc of contact
B. arc of approach
C. arc of recess
D. arc of action
47. The ratio of the arc of approach to the arc of action.
A. Approach ratio
B. Action ratio
C. Recess ratio
D. Contact ratio
48. In a pair of gear, it is the plain that contains the two axes in a simple gear; it may be any
plane containing the axes and the given point.
A. Axial plane
B. Central plane
C. Normal plane
D. Transverse plane
49. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth travels from its contact with the mating tooth at
the pitch point to the point where contact ceases are called:
A. arc of contact
B. arc of approach
C. arc of recess
D. arc of action
50. The amount by which the width of the tooth space exceeds the thickness of the engaging
tooth on the pitch circles.
A. Clearance
B. Tolerance
C. Allowance
D. Backlash
Answers to Test 17 – Gears
1. B.Crossed helical gear 27. B. 32

2. A. Bevel gear 28. A. a tensile fatigue
3. C. Pitch cone 29. D. American Gear Manufacturers
4. A. Cone center Association
5. A. Face cone 30. D. Toughing
6. B. Root cone 31. C. 7000 fpm
7. D. Back cone 32. B. 10%
8. B.Straight bevel gear 33. A. applied load
9. D. all of these 34. B. resonance
10. D.900 rpm 35. A. 1.5 to 2 psi
11. A.1000 rpm 36. D. hunting
12. A. ground after hardening 37. B. 12
13. B. Zerol bevel gears 38. C. 17 teeth
14. D. Spiral bevel gears 39. B. Gears
15. C. Miter gear 40. B. arc of approach
16. B. more torque 41. B. Addendum
17. D. none of these 42. A. Addendum circle
18. B. joined to their couples 43. D. Angle of recess
19. B. will rotate on reverse direction 44. B. angle of action
20. D. Angular gears 45. C. Angle of approach
21. B. Crown gear 46. B. arc of approach
22. D. Worm gear 47. A. Approach ratio
23. C. Shell and Integral 48. A. Axial plane
24. C. 20 degrees 49. C. arc of recess
25. A.1.0 50. D. Backlash
26. D. 1.4
TEST 18- GEARS

1. The ________ from which an involute tooth is generated or developed.
A. root circle
B. base circle
C. pitch circle
D. dendulum circle
2. The angle at the base cylinder if an involute gear, that the tooth makes with the gear axis.
A. Helix angle
B. Pressure angle
C. Lead angle
D. Base helix angle
3. In an involute gear, ______is the pitch on the base circle or along the line of action.
A. Base circle
B. Normal base pitch
C. Base pitch
D. Pitch gear
4. The base pitches in the normal plane.
A. Normal pitch
B. Normal base pitch
C. Axial plane
D. Central plane
5. The base pitches in the axial plane.
A. Axial base pitch
B. Axial pitch
C. Normal pitch
D. Base pitch
6. In a worm gear, _______ is a plane perpendicular to the gear axis and contains the common
perpendicular of the gear and the worm axis.
A. central plane
B. normal plane
C. axial plane
D.traverse plane
7. The length of the chord subtended by the circular thickness arc is called
A. Backlash
B. Face width
C. Chordal thickness
D. Curve thickness
8. The height from the top of the tooth to the chord subtending the circular thickness arc.
A. Curve thickness
B.Chordal thickness
C. Chordal addendum
D. Chordal dedendum
9. The length of the arc of the pitch circle between the centers or other corresponding points of
the adjacent teeth.
A. Circular pitch
B. Diameter pitch
C. Base pitch
D. Normal pitch
10. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the mating gear makes contact.
A. Contact ratio
B. Contact diameter
C. Contact stress
11. The maximum compressive stress within the contact area between mating gear tooth
profiles is called
A. bearing stress
B. contact stress
C. ultimate stress
D. internal stress
12. The curved formed by the path of a point on a circle as it rolls along a straight line.
A. Trochoid
B. Epicycloid
C. Hypocloid
D. Cycloid
13. The circular pitch in the normal plane.
A. Circular plane
B. Normal circular pitch
C. Central plane
D. Circular base pitch
14. The length of the arc between the two sides of a gear tooth on the pitch circles unless
otherwise specified.
A. Face to tooth
B. Circular thickness
C. Tooth profile
D. Face width
15. The amount by which the dedendum exceeds the addendum of the mating tooth.
A. Tolerance
B. Allowance
C. Clearance
D. Backlash
16. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the mating gear makes. .
A. Idler
B. Pinion
C. Gear
D. Central diameter
17 .The ratio of the arc of action to the circular pitch is known as
A. Contact ratio
B. Action ratio
C. Recess action
D. Approach ratio
18. The curved that satisfy the law of gearing.
A. Tooth profile
B. Stub curve
C. Conjugate curve
D. Involute curve
19. The depth tooth space below the pitch circles or the radial dimension between the pitch
circle and the bottom of the tooth space.
A. Addendum
B. Dedendum
C. Working Depth
D. Whole depth
20. The circle that bounds the bottoms of the teeth.
A. Addendum circle
B. Pitch circle
C. Base circle
D. Dedendum circle
21. The ratio of the number of teeth to the number of millimeters of pitch diameter.
A. Diameter pitch
B. Module
C. Circular pitch
D. Base pitch
22. The Diameter pitch circulated in the normal plane and is equal to the pitch divide d by the
cosine of helix angle.
A. Normal diametral plane
B. Normal diametral pitch
C. Normal plane
D. Normal axial pitch

23. That portion of the face width that actually comes into contact with mating teeth, as
occasionally one member of a pair of gears may have a grater face width than the other is
called
A. effective face width
B. effective tooth face
C. effective tooth thickness
D. effective tooth flank
24. The actual torque ratio of a gear set divided by its gear ratio.
A. Coefficient of performance
B. Transmission ratio
C. Ratio factor
D. Efficiency
25. When it rolls along the outer side of another circle, it is called
A. cycloid
B. hypocloid
C. epicycloids
D. trochoid
26. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical surface.
A. Annual gear
B. External gear
C. Idler
D. Spur gear
27. The surface of the tooth, which is between the pitch circles to the top of the tooth, is known
as______.
A. face width
B. tooth flank
C. face of tooth
D. top land
28. The length of the teeth in axial plane.
A. Face of tooth
B. Face width
C. Circular pitch
D. Chordal thickness
29. The surface of the tooth between the pitch cylinder and the addendum cylinder.
A. face
B. flank
C. top land
D. bottom land
30. The concave portion of the tooth profile where it joins the bottom of the tooth space.
A. Tooth curve
B. Involute
C. Fillet radius
D. Fillet curve
31. The maximum tensile stress in the gear tooth fillet.
A. Gear stress
B. Contact stress
C. Fillet stress
D. Tooth stress
32. The surface which is between the pitch circle and the bottom land is called
A. flank of bottom
B. face of bottom
C. face width
D. fillet of tooth
33. The surface of the tooth between the pitch and root cylinders.
A. Fillet
B. Face
C. Flank
D. Bottom land
34. The number of teeth in the gear divided by the number of teeth in the pinion.
A. Ratio factor
B. Gear ratio
C. Transmission ratio
35. The angle that a helical gear tooth makes the gear axis.
A. Helix angle
B. Lead angle
C. Pressure angle
D. Tooth angle
36. When it rolls along the inner side of another circle it is called
A. cycloid
B. epicycloids
C. hypocloid
D. trochoid
37. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the tops of the teeth on an internal gear.
A. Pitch Diameter
B. Internal Diameter
C. Root Diameter
D. Dedendum Diameter
38. A gear with teeth on the inner cylindrical surface.
A. Pitch gear
B. Internal gear
C. Idler
D. Spur gear
39. The gear formed by the path of a point on a straight line called their generatrix, as it rolls
along a convex base curve.
A. Involute
B. Cycloidal
C. Cycloid
D. Trochoid
40. The top surface of the tooth.
A. Tooth face
B. Tooth surface
C. Top land
D. Tooth space
41. The surface of the gear between the fillets of adjacent teeth.
A. Space width
B. Backlash
C. Bottom land
D. Tooth space
42. The distance of helical gear or worm would thread along its axis one revolution of it were
free to move axially.
A. Lead
B. Helix
C. Length of action
D. Line of action
43. The path of contact in involute gears. It is a straight line passing through the pitch point and
the tangent to the base circles.
A. Length of action
B. Line of action
C. Line of contact
44. The distance on involute line of action through which the point of contact moves during the
action of the tooth profile.
A. Length of action
B. Line of action
C. Line of contact
45. The ratio of pitch in millimeter to the number of teeth.

A. Dedendum
B. Addendum
C. Module
D. None of the above.
46 .A planes normal to the tooth surfaces acts a point of contact and perpendicular to the pitch
plane.
A. Axial plane
B. Central plane
C. Normal plane
D. Diameter
47. The distance between similar equally spaced tooth surfaces, in a given direction and along a
given curve or line.
A. Module
B. Pitch
C. Addendum
D. Involute
48. The angle subtended by the arc on the pitch circle equal in the length to the circular pitch.
A. Pitch angle
B. Pressure angle
C. Helix angle
D. Lead angle
49. Of meshing gears, ________ is the point of tangency to the pitch circle.
A. pitch point
B. pitch of contact
C. pitch
D. reference point
50. In a pair of gears, it is the plane perpendicular to the axial plane and tangent to the axial
plane and tangent to the pitch surfaces.
A. Normal plane
B. Central plane
C. Pitch plane
D, Tangent plane
Answer to Test 18 – Gears
1. B. base circle 26. B. External gear

2. D. Base helix angle 27. C. face of tooth
3. C. Base pitch 28. B. Face width
4. B. Normal base pitch 29. A. face
5. A. Axial base pitch 30. D. Fillet curve
6. A. central plane 31. C. Fillet stress
7. C. Chordal thickness 32. A. flank of bottom
8. C.Chordal addendum 33. C. Flank
9. A. Circular pitch 34. B. Gear ratio
10. B. Contact diameter 35. A. Helix angle
11. B. contact stress 36. C. hypocloid
12. D. Cycloid 37. B. Internal Diameter
13. B. Normal circular pitch 38. B. Internal gear
14. B. Circular thickness 39. A. Involute
15. C. Clearance 40. C. Top land
16. D. Central diameter 41. C. Bottom land
17. A. Contact ratio 42. A. Lead
18. C. Conjugate curve 43. B. Line of action
19. B. Dedendum 44. A. Length of action
20. D. Dedendum circle 45. C. Module
21. A. Diameter pitch 46. C. Normal plane
22. B. Normal diametral pitch 47. B. Pitch
23. A. effective face width 48. B. Pressure angle
24. D. Efficiency 49. A. pitch point
25. C. epicycloids 50. C. Pitch plane
TEST 19- GEAR

One of the causes of spur gear tooth breakage is the unbalanced load on one end of
breakage is the unbalanced load on one end of the tooth that results in higherstress than when
the load is evenly distributed. To minimize this problem, the face width”b” should not be greater
than the thickness of the tooth. In the absence of test values, the following can be a guide.
A. 2.5 Pc < b < 4Pc
B.2.0 Pd< b < 4Pd
C. 2.5 Pd < b < 4Pd
D.2.0 Pc < b < 4Pc
2. Any plane perpendicular to a gear axis is called
A. plane of action
B. plane of rotation
C. normal plane
D. Transverse plane
3. The angle between the tooth profile and a radical line at its pitch point. Involute teeth the
angle between the line of action and line tangent to the pitch circles.
A. Roll angle
B. Pitch angle
C. Helix angle
D. Pressure angle
4. The radial distance from the addendum circle to the working depth circle.
A. Total depth
B. Full depth
C. Whole depth
D. Working depth
5. The total depth of a tooth space equal to addendum plus dedendum also equal to working
depth plus clearance.
A. Full depth
B. Working
C. Whole depth

6. It is a condition in generated gear teeth when any part of the fillet curve lies inside of a line
drawn tangent to the working profile as its lowest point.
A. Medium cut
B. Under cut
C. Over cut
D. Hidden cut
7. The curve formed by the path of a point on the extension of the radius of circle as it rolls
along the curve or line.
A. Cycloid
B. Epicycloid
C. Hypocycloid
D. Trochoid
8. A plane perpendicular to the axis plane and to the pitch plane.
A. Normal plane
B. Pitch plane
C. Tangent plane
D. transverse plane
9. The total width dimensions of a gear blank to the pitch plane.
A. Total face width
B. Effective face width
C. Addendum
D. Transverse plane
10. The space between the teeth measures along the pitch circle.
A. Tooth space
B. Tooth thickness
C. Backlash
D. Tooth face
11. The width of tooth measures along the pitch circle.
A. Tooth space
B. Tooth thickness
C. Backlash
D. Tooth face
12. An arbitrary modification of a tooth profile whereby a small amount of materials is removed
near the tip of the gear tooth.
A. Chamfer
B. Tip relief
C. Under cut
13. A plane tangent to the surfaces at a point or line of contact.
A. Normal plane
B. Pitch plane
C. Tangent plane
D. Axial plane
14. A circle coinciding with or tangent to the bottoms of the tooth spaces.
A. Addendum circle
B. Pitch circle
C. Base circle
D. Root circle
15. The angel subtended at the center of the base circle from teeth origin of an involute to the
point of tangency of the generation from any point of the same involute.
A. Root angle
B. Roll angle
C. Pitch angle
D. Base angle
16. ______ gear with teeth spaced along a straight line and suitable for straight ling motion.
A. Helical
B. Bevel
C. Rack
D. Worm
17. The pitch plane, axial plane and transverse plane , all intersect at a point and mutually
perpendicular to the
A. Principal reference plane
B. Principal reference point
C. Principal reference axis
D. Principal reference line
18. Device for engaging and disengaging gears.
A. Gear shift
B. Gear train
C. Gear wheel
D. Gear motor
19. For spur gear, the speed ratio is customary to limit the reduction of
A. 3:1
B. 4:1
C. 5:1
D. 6:1
20. For helical and hearing bone gears, the speed ratio is limited to
A. 3:1
B. 5:1
C. 6:1
D 10:1
21. They are cylindrical in form operate on parallel axes and have straight teeth parallel to the
axis.
A. Helical gears
B. Bevel gears
C. Spur gears
D. Worm gears
22. The design stress was based upon the ultimate strength of the material with a factor of
safety of about____________.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
23. Safe working stress for common gear materials operating at very low velocities are usually
assumed to be _______ the ultimate strength.
A. one-forth
B. one-third
C. one-half
D. two-third
24. To avoid charring by the heat of friction, rawhide gears should not be operated of pitch line
velocities greater than_________.
A. 2500 fpm
B. 3000 fpm
C. 3500 fpm
D. 4000 fpm
25. The outside diameter of the hubs of larger gears should be ____ the bore for steel.
A. 1.5 times
B. 1.6 times
C. 1.7 times
D. 1.8 times
26. The outside diameter of the hubs of larger gears should be ____ the bore for iron.
A. 1.5 times
B. 1.8 times
C. 2.0 times
D. 2.5 times
27 .Helix angles of _____ degrees are preferred for single helical gears.
A. 10 and 18
B. 12 and 20
C. 15 and 23
D. 18 and 28
28. Helix angles of _____ degrees are preferred for double helical gears.
A. 15 and 25
B. 20 and 30
C. 25 and 40
D. 30 and 45
29. A _______ is a spur gear of infinite diameter.
A. hypoid
B. herring bone
C. annular
D. rack
30. It is standard practice to assume that the thickness of the tooth measured around the pitch
circle is exactly______ of the circular pitch.
A. one-forth
B. one-third
C. one-half
D. two-third
31. It occurs under heavy loads and in adequate lubrication.
A. Pitting
B. Honing
C. Scoring
D. Tooth breakage
32. In order to get the benefit of helical-gear action the face width should be at least _____ the
axial pitch.
A. once
B. twice
C. thrice
D. minimum
33. The outside diameter of the wrong gear measured on the central plane.
A. Addendum diameter
B. Throat diameter
C. Pitch diameter
D. Root diameter
34. For worms mating with gears having 24 teeth or more the _____ pressure angle is
recommended.
A, 14.5 degrees
B. 20 degrees
C. 22.5 degrees
D. 25 degrees
35. The axes intersect, and the teeth are curved and oblique is called;
A. skew bevel gears
B. straight bevel gears
C. spiral bevel gears
D. zerol bevel gears
36. A type of gear axes of non parallel and non-intersecting and the teeth are straight.
A. Hypoid gears
B. Skew bevel gears
C. Straight bevel gears
D. Zerol bevel gears
37. For worm gears, Buckingham recommends face widht
A. 0.2 Dwo
B. 0.3 Dwo
C. 0.4 Dwo
D. 0.5 Dwo
38. For worm gears, circular pitch is equal to
A. axial pitch
B. diametral pitch
C. normal pitch
D. traverse pitch
39. The service factor of heavy shock, rolling mill, and rock crushes.
A. 1.25 – 1.35
B. 1.35 – 1.50
C. 1.50 – 1.80
D. 1.75 – 2.00
40. Any plane perpendicular to a gear axis is called
A. Transverse axis
B. Conjugate axis
C. Plane rotation
D. Axis of rotation
41. The circle containing the bottoms of the tooth spaces is called
A. Addendum circle
B. Base circle
C. pitch circle
D. Root circle
42. The surface between the flanks of adjacent teeth.
A. Bottom land
B. Top land
C. Pitch surface
D. Space width
43. The usual ratio of miter gear is
A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:3
D.1:4
44. The angle between the element of the face cone and its axis equals pitch angle plus
addendum angle.
A. Cutting angle
B. Face angle
C. Pitch angle
D. Front angle
45. The apex of the pitch cone.
A. Cone center
B. Vertex
C. Pitch point
D. Apothem
46. The portion of the tooth surface adjacent to the involute lying inside a radial line passing
through an imaginary intersection of the involute and the base circle.
A. Excessive cut
B. Over cut
C. Under cut
47. In spur gearing system, the preferred angle is
A. 14 – 1/2 deg
B. 20 deg
C. 22 – 1/2 deg
D. 25 deg
48. Hub length usually vary from
A. 1.05 Ds to 1.7 Ds
B. 1.25 Ds to 2Ds
C. 1.35 Ds to 3.0 Ds
D. 1.35 Ds to 3.0 Ds
49. The service factor for heavy shock is
A. 1 to 1.25
B. 1.25 to 1.50
C. 1.50 to 1.75
D. 1.75 to 2.0
50. A gear wheel with curved teeth that mesh with a worm.
A. Worm wheel
B. Rack gear
C. Spiral gear
D. Hearing bone gear
1. A. 2.5 Pc < b < 4Pc 26. C. 2.0 times

2. B. plane of rotation 27. C. 15 and 23
3. D. Pressure angle 28. D. 30 and 45
4. D. Working depth 29. D. rack
5. C. Whole depth 30. C. one-half
6. B. Under cut 31. C. Scoring
7. D. Trochoid 32. B. twice
8. D. transverse plane 33. B. Throat diameter
9. A. Total face width 34. B. 20 degrees
10. A. Tooth space 35. C. spiral bevel gears
11. B. Tooth thickness 36. B. Skew bevel gears
12. B. Tip relief 37. D. 0.5 Dwo
13. C. Tangent plane 38. A. axial pitch
14. D. Root circle 39. D. 1.75 – 2.00
15. B. Roll angle 40. C. Plane rotation
16. C. Rack 41. D. Root circle
17. A. Principal reference plane 42. A. Bottom land
18. A. Gear shift 43. A. 1:1
19. D. 6:1 44. B. Face angle
20. D 10:1 45. A. Cone center
21. C. Spur gears 46. C. Under cut
22. B. 3 47. B. 20 deg
23. B. one-third 48. B. 1.25 Ds to 2Ds
24. A. 2500 fpm 49. D. 1.75 to 2.0
25. D. 1.8 times 50. A. Worm wheel
Test 20 - Gears
1. Which type of gear is a cylinder, wheel or disk in the surface of which is cut parallel teeth?
A. Bevel gear
B. Helical gear
C. Spur gear
D. Worm gear
2. Which type of gear has a ratio of 1:1?
A. Herringbone gears
B. Miter gear
C. Internal gear
D. Spur gear
3. The distance between similar sides of adjacent teeth measured on the pitch line is called
A. Diametral pitch
B. Linear pitch
C. Circular pitch
D. Axial pitch
4. In rack gear circular pitch is called
A. Linear pitch
B. Base Pitch
C. Diametral pitch
D. Axial pitch
5. ___________ is equal twice the addendum.
A. Tooth flank
B. Tooth thickness
C. Whole depth
D. Working depth
6. The meaning of module in gearing system is
A. Distance
B. Addendum
C. Measure
D. Surface
7. Refers to the portion of the tooth surface adjacent to the involute lying inside a radial line
passing through an imaginary intersection of the involute and the base circle.
A. Over cut
B. Under cut
C. Tip relief
8. In a pair of gears, spur or bevel, the smaller is often called
A. Rack
B. Pinion
C. Worm
D. Idler
9. Which of the following gears that are of the same size and transmit motion at right angles?
A. Herringbone gears
B. Spur gears
C. Miter gears
D. Rack gears
10. The cones, which represent in bevel gears the original friction surfaces, are called
A. back cone
B. length of cone
C. pitch cone
D. cone distance
11. Which of the following angles equal the pitch angle?
A. Back angle
B. Front angle
C. Face angle
D. Root angle
12. The surface between the flanks of adjacent teeth.
A. Top land
B. Tooth flank
C. Tooth face
D. Bottom land
13. The portion of common tangent to the base circles along which contact between mating
involutes occurs.
A. Line of action
B. Pitch line
C. Arc of action
D. Angle of action
14. The intersection between the axes of the line of centers and the common tangent of the
base circles.
A. Pitch line
B. Pitch circle
C. Pitch point
D. Pitch surface
15. The angle between the element of the face cone and its axis.
A. Face angle
B. Back angle
C. Front angle
D. Increment angle
16. Refers to a portion of the small end of tooth.
A. Heel
B. Toe
C. Sole
D. Corner
17. The apex of the pitch cone.
A. Cone vertex
B. Cone distance
C. Cone radius
D. Cone center
18. Gear pump used in hydraulic system are used for
A. low and medium pressure
B. medium and high pressure
C. low and high pressure
D. medium and not high pressure
19. In machine tool drive the modulus of gears are usually selected between
A. 10    1
B. 2    1
C. 20    1
D. 5    1
20. The shape of the curve on the sides of gear tooth is termed as
A. Stub
B. Involute
C. Trochoid
D. Cycloid
21. The distance in a straight line from one side of a tooth to the side at points where the pitch
circle passes through the tooth.
A. Circular pitch
B. Pitch
C. Chordal thickness
D. Tooth length
22. The ________ of the bevel gear is equal to the altitude of the pitch cone.
A. length of cone
B. vertex distance
C. length of hub
D. thickness
23. The _________ of a worm is the distance between the center of one tooth and the center of
an adjacent tooth, measured perpendicular to the teeth.
A. Diametral pitch
B. Circular pitch
C. Axial pitch
D. Normal pitch
24. The ________ of a worm gear is the concave surface of the gear tooth.
A. Radius
B. Throat
C. Pitch
D. Addendum
25. A type of gear, which is used for heavy duty work where a large ratio of speed is required.
A. Worm gear
B. Bevel gear
C. Spur gear
D. Miter gear
26. A _________ is a cylinder with teeth resembling those of an acme thread.
A. Pinion
B. Spur
C. Worm
D. Bolt
27. The __________ is the angle of which the teeth of a helical gear are slanted across the face
of the gear.
A. lead angle
B. helix angle
C. pressure angle
D. pitch angle
28. A ________ is one that is thicker in proportion to its length that the involute tooth.
A. hypoid
B. cycloidal tooth
C. stub tooth
D. spiral
29. Which gears are used to connect parallel shaft lying in the same plane?
A. Worm gears
B. Bevel gears
C. Herringbone gears
D. Spiral gears
30. Which gears are used to connect the shafts at an angle but lying in same plane?
A. Helical gears
B. Worm and worm wheel
C. Spur gears
D. Herringbone gears
31. The product of circular pitch and Diametral pitch is
A. 2 
B. 
C. 3 
D. 4 
32. A line drawn through all the points at which the teeth touch each other.
A. Angle of contact
B. Arc of contact
C. Path of contact
D. Arc of approach
33. The length of the gear tooth measured along an element of the pitch surface is called
A. Acting flank
B. Face width
C. Flank of the tooth
D. Tooth face
34. The ________ is equal to the tooth thickness plus the space width
A. normal pitch
B. axial pitch
C. Diametral pitch
D. circular pitch
35. The _________ is the arc of the pitch circle where the tooth profile cuts the pitch circle when
a pair of teeth first comes in contact until they are contact at the pitch point.
A. arc of recess
B. arc of approach
C. arc of contact
D. arc of action
36. The __________ traced by the outermost corner of one tooth on the plane of the other gear.
A. cycloid
B. hypocycloid
C. epitrochoid
D. trochoid
37. An imaginary circle passing through the points at which the tooth of the meshing gears
contact each other.
A. Pitch circle
B. Base circle
C. Addendum circle
D. Dedendum circle
38. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical surface.
A. Rack gear
B. Zerol gear
C. Miter gear
D. External gear
39. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the top of the teeth of an internal gear.
A. Dedendum diameter
B. Pitch diameter
C. Base diameter
D. Internal diameter
40. It is standard practice to assume that the thickness of the tooth measured around the pitch
circle is exactly ________ the circle pitch.
A. One half
B. One third
C. One fourth
D. One fifth
41. The helix angles for the herringbone gears are used from ___________ for industrial gears.
A. 10 to 15
B. 15 to 20
C. 20 to 30
D. 25 to 45
42. The distance parallel to the axis from the pitch circle to the face of the shoulder or hub.
A. back cone
B. backing
C. crown height
D. apex distance
43. A machine that makes gear teeth by means of a reciprocating cutter that rotates slowly with
the work.
A. Gear forming
B. Gear hobber
C. Gear shaper
D. Gear cutter
44. A type of gear wheels connecting non parallel, non intersecting shafts usually at right
angles.
A. Helical gear
B. Herringbone gear
C. Hypoid gear
D. Bevel gear
45. The angle between the plane of the pitch circle and a plane tangent to the large end of the
tooth.
A. Front angle
B. Back angle
C. Dedendum angle
D. Face angle
46. The circle containing the bottoms of the tooth spaces.
A. Root angle
B. Working depth circle
C. Base circle
D. Pitch circle
47. The depth of the tooth inside of the pitch line is called
A. Working depth
B. Dedendum
C. Total depth
D. Whole depth
48. The amount by which the Dedendum in a given gear exceeds the addendum of its mating
gear.
A. whole depth
B. clearance
C. backlash
D. working depth
49. The outside diameter of the worm gear measured on the central plane.
A. Dedendum diameter
B. Addendum diameter
C. Throat diameter
D. Pitch diameter
50. The circle from which the involute is generated.
A. Base circle
B. Pitch circle
C. Working depth circle

D. Addendum circle
1. C. Spur gear 25. A. Worm gear

2. B. Miter gear 26. C. Worm
3. C. Circular pitch 27. B. helix angle
4. A. Linear pitch 28. C. stub tooth
5. D. Working depth 29. C. Herringbone gears
6. C. Measure 30. B. Worm and worm wheel
7. B. Under cut 31. B. 
8. B. Pinion 32. C. Path of contact
9. C. Miter gears 33. B. Face width
10. C. pitch cone 34. D. circular pitch
11. B. Front angle 35. B. arc of approach
12. D. Bottom land 36. C. epitrochoid
13. A. Line of action 37. A. Pitch circle
14. B. Pitch circle 38. D. External gear
15. A. Face angle 39. D. Internal diameter
16. B. Toe 40. A. One half
17. D. Cone center 41. C. 20 to 30
18. A. low and medium pressure 42. B. backing
19. A. 10    1 43. C. Gear shaper
20. B. Involute 44. C. Hypoid gear
21. C. Chordal thickness 45. B. Back angle
22. B. vertex distance 46. A. Root angle
23. D. Normal pitch
24. B. Throat (47 – 50) No answer
Machine Shop Practice
Test 21

Fast process of analyzing all elements and a chemical components of steel casting is
A. Pyrometer
B. Carbon analyzer
C. Wet analyzer
D. Spectrometer

Which of the following is not a kind of mandrel?
A. Expanded
B. Extended
C. Contraction
D. Taper

A cutting tool angle between the side cutting edge and the plane perpendicular to
direction of feed travel is angle.
A. Side relief
B. Side cutting edge
C. Lead
D. Side rake

A section in a machine stop operation is called
A. Core making
B. Machining
C. Fitting
D. Pattern

The tool bit made of tool blank consists of face, nose, shank and .
A. Cutting edges
B. None of these
C. Round nose
D. Nose

The cutting tool used the shaper are similar to turning tools of machine
A. planer
B. broaching
C. boring
D. lathe

The blades for hacksaw have a number of teeth range of
A. 15 – 38 teeth
B. 14 – 32 teeth
C. 12 – 30 teeth
D. 12 – 32 teeth

no part of the headstock
A. Back gear
B. Spindle
C. Anvil
D. Motor

is a lathe carriage part that bridge across the bed to carry the cross slide and
tool rest.
A. Automatic feed
B. Apron
C. Compound rest
D. Saddle

What is the recommended cutting speed range for bronze in fpm?
A. 60/70
B. 200/250
C. 80/60
D. 100/110

For ordinary tuming drilling and milling on low strength steel the cutting fluid applied
have soluble oil with consistency of 1 part oil to parts water.
A. 10 to 30
B. 10
C. 5 to 10
D. 10 to 20

The five principal parts of the shaper are the table, tool slide, base, ram, and
A. Column
B. Vise
C. Drive motor
D. Apron
In drilling soft materials use cutting as low as 40 degrees but for extremely hard material
up to degrees is recommended.
A. 80
B. 65
C. 75
D. 70

An act of cutting a piece of metal at a desired shape and size:
A. Broaching
B. Blanking
C. Slitting
D. Drinking

A research agency handling assistance to all foundry, machine shop and metallurgical
plant operation.
A. MIRDC
B. BOI
C. DOST
D. All of these

Web is a part a drill and is usually thicker .
A. Beside the land

B. Nearing the shank
C. Close to the future
D. At the tip portion

It is a symbol that the work surfaces should be machined-finished and
placed on the line that represents the surface to be machined.
A. 1
B. 5
C. 20
D. F, A, O

Safety features that must be placed and maintained at machine, black smith welding and
foundry shops called
A. Walkway shops
B. Safety notices
C. Safety goggles
D. Safety notices in markers / boards

It is axially located rectangular groove in a hub and shaft.
A. Key seat
B. Cotter pin set
C. flute
D. set screw point

In a cutting tool the cutting end can also be generally called.
A. End cutting edge

B. Nose
C. Back rate
D. Side rake

What factors can modify the recommended cutting speed of known work piece?
A. Rough cutting of work piece

B. Modify the shape of the cutting tools
C. Use correctly shape of the cutting tools
D. Depth of cut

A machine shop equipment that can flatter horizontally, vertically or angular plane called
A. Shaper machine
B. Welding machine
C. Drill machine
D. Power saw
It is a petroleum by- product used as electrodes in a electric arc furnace melting
operation.
A. Anthracite coke
B. Foundry coke
C. Graphite coke
D. Bituminous coke

Which of the following is an unsafe condition in operating a lathe machine?
A. Wearing denim pants/safety shoes

B. Wearing a canvas apron
C. Operating with safety gloves
D. Wearing safety goggles/ hearing aid
Relief angle of single-point cutting mild steel cast iron and other average work as
recommended should be in the ranges of degrees for a high speed tools.
A. 8 to 12
B. 10 to 5
C. 5 to 7
D. 12 to 16

Tap not used for cutting thread .
A. Tapping tap
B. Bottoming tap
C. Plugging tap
D. Taper tap

Which of the following tools does not belong to the group?
A. Hermaphrodite caliper
B. Divider
C. Double VEE block
D. Trammel

In machine shop had a forging of lengthening a piece of stock while reducing the cross-
sectional area of work called.
A. Bloating
B. Upsetting
C. Spreading
D. Draining

Which of the following services is not considered to be a work of a machinist?
A. Reboring
B. Grinding
C. Over hauling honing
D. Honing

Type a chuck wherein the work of piece with standard diameter or size could be
attached fast and quick specially small size work of mass production called
A. Lathe drive plate

B. Clamp toe dog
C. Collet attachment
D. Steady center rest
This particular cutting tool material could with stand cutting temperature of 1800 F and
higher at cutting speed beyond those possible with other cutting tool materials called
A. Titanium carbide
B. Ceramic
C. Carbide grade
D. Cubic boron nitride

Common defects encountered in the foundry shop steel casting operation and also in
welding practices
A. Cracks
B. Cold shot
C. Parting line
D. Blow/ pin holes

Lathe operator to remove the taper shank from the taper holes uses drift. It is also called
A. Tong
B. Morse taper
C. Chuck taper
D. Tapered key

It is the best instrument for measuring a thousandth of an inch.
A. Micrometer
B. Tachometer
C. Caliper
D. Pyrometer

What tool will be used in making wood pattern in the foundry shop?
A. Band saw
B. Drill machine
C. Saw and chisel
D. Hammer

The usual ratio of water to soluble oil used as cutting fluid is .
A. 50% water to 50% oil

B. 2 water to 1 oil
C. 3 water to 1 oil
D. 4 to 80 water to 1 oil
Machine tool used for laying straight lines on metal surfaces made of sharp tool steel is
called
A. Plain scriber
B. A trammel
C. Hermaphrodite caliper
D. Divider

A lathe machine threading and mechanism is called
A. Reverse gear and lever

B. Spindle gear
C. Changed stud gear
D. All of these

Which of the following is not used to resemble the shape of tool bit?
A. Round nose
B. Center cut
C. Thread cutting
D. Square nose

A lathe with multiple cutting stations called
A. Turret lathe
B. Engine lathe
C. Manual lathe
D. None of these

Device used to measure accurately speed called
A. Speedometer
B. Dial indicator
C. Tachometer
D. Dial gage

A mechanism which usually do the indexing in a machine tool, is called
A. Universal chuck
B. Slooter
C. Dividing head
D. Indexing
Recommended best cutting angle of drill for work on steel or cast iron is
degrees.
A. 48
B. 63
C. 59
D. 50

What is the common shop practice to prevent solder from running away from surface to
be joined?
A. All of these
B. Surround the work with clay
C. Introduce around the work rolled wet cloth
D. Put asbestos sheeting around the work

Name the type of chuck commonly used for holding work piece in a lathe operation?
Example 3-jaw chuck, 4-jaw independent chuck.
A. Magnetic jaw chuck

B. 2-jaw chuck
C. 8-jaw chuck
D. Combination

A machinery operation where by done with the work accurately fastened has a
reciprocating motion and the tool head is stationary called
A. Shaping
B. Planning
C. Turning
D. Reaming

What happens to a drill if the operating speed is two fast?
A. Drill will crack

B. Drill will become overheated and will bend
C. Drill will become overheated and will be drawn from steal
D. Drill will become very dull and wear dust

Which do not belong to foundry or metal casting shop?
A. Shake- out machine

B. Molding machine
C. Core making
D. Forging
It is an arbitrary modification by removing a small portion of a tooth material at the
tip of the gear tooth.
A. Tip removal
B. Tip under cut
C. Tip relief
D. Pressure angle cut
What is the difference between the shaper and a planer?
A. The tool of the shaper moves while the planer is stationary

B. The shaper can perform slotting operation while the planer cannot
C. The shaper handles large pieces while the planer handles only small pieces
D. The tool of the shaper moves in reciprocating motion while the stool in the planer
moves in rotary motion.
Answers to Test 21 – Machine Shop Practice
1. D spectrometer
2. C contraction
3. D side rake
4. B machining
5. D nose
6. A planer
7. B 14 -32 teeth
8. C anvil
9. C compound rest
10. B 200 / 250
11. D 10 to 20
12. B vise
13. A 80
14. B blanking
15. A MIRDC
16. B. nearing the shank
17. A f
18. D safety notices in markers / boards
19. A key seat
20. B nose
21. D depth of cut
22. A shaper machine
23. C. graphite electrodes
24. B. wearing a canvass apron
25. A 8 to 12
26. A. tapping tap
27. C. double VEE block
28. B. upsetting
29. C. over hauling
30. C. collet attachment
31. D. cubic boron nitride
32. D. blow / pin holes
33. B. morse taper
34. A. micrometer
35. C. saw and chisel
36. D. 4 to 80 water to 1 oil
37. A. plain scriber
38. B. spindle gear
39. B. center cut
40. A. turret lathe
41. C. tachometer
42. C. dividing head
43. C. 59
44. A. all of these
45. D. combination
46. B. planning
47. C. drill will become overheated and will drawn from the steel
48. D. forging
49. C. tip relief
50. A. the tool of the shaper moves while the planer is stationary
Test 22

Safety feature that must be placed and maintained at machine, blacksmith, welding and
foundry shop is called
A. Safety goggle
B. Walkway guide
C. Safety notices in markings
D. All of these

Test sometimes referred to as upsetting test called
A. Bend
B. Flaring
C. Flange
D. Crush

It is a machine used for the testing of very thin steel or surface layers.
A. Charpy test
B. Izod test
C. Description test
D. Rockwell test

is a test for pipe used for coiling in sizes 2 inches.
A .Flaring
B. Crush
C. Flange
D. Bend

Imparts of reciprocating motion to a single point cutting tool called
A. Dividing head
B. Slotting attachment
C. Circular pitch
D. Circular milling attachment

Milling machine accessories are used to hold milling cutter in the milling machine
called
A. Spindle nose tooling

B. Milling machine size
C. Vertical milling attachment
D. Milling machine arbors

A machine used accessory of milling machine
A. Milling machine vise

B. Cutters
C. Ram
D. Vertical milling attachment

A machine used in testing steel generally strikes the specimen with an energy from
220 to 265ft-lb
A. Izod test
B. Charpy test
C. Rockwell test
D. Test blocks

The area of the machine shop whose metal is being melted to form a new shape is
the
A. Foundry area
B. Tool and die area
C. Welding test
D. Mass production area

Which of the following is not the work of a machinist?
A. Reboring
B. Overhauling
C. Grinding
D. Boring

The machine, which can flatter surface on horizontal, vertical or angular plane.
A. Drilling machine
B. Shaper machine
C. Power saw
D. Lathe machine

Which of the following is not part of a lathe machine?
A. Fan
B. Carriage
C. Headstock
D. Tail stock
One important skill that operates of machine tools must have an understanding of
measurements, which demands
A. Speed
B. Precision
C. Sociability
D. Neatness

Which tools does not belong to the group?
A. Vice grip
B. Feeler gage
C. Torque wrench
D. Adjustable wrench

A machinery operation whereby the tools rotates while the feed is stationary.
A. Shaping
B. Milling
C. Turning
D. Reaming
16. ME Board April 1993, ME Board October 1990

Which of the following is not part of the headstock?
A. Anvil
B. Spindle
C. Motor
D. Back pressure

A machining operation whereby the tool reciprocates and the feed is stationary
A. Planning
B. Shaping
C. Turning
D. Reaming

Is the kind of center, which is being attached and mashed to the tailstock
spindle, which is also static while the work, is rotating
A. Dead center
B. Live center
C. Focal center
D. Work center
A machine used in shaping metal means of an abrasive wheel or the removal of
metals with an abrasive is called
A. Planer machine
B. Power saw
C. Shaper machine
D. Grinding machine

A machine tool in which an abrasive wheel is used to cutting tool to obtain a very
smooth finish
A. broaching machine
B. planer
C. tool grinder
D. milling machine

A machine tool used principally to machine flat or plane surfaces with a single
pointed tool
A. Shaper
B. Planer
C. Drill
D. Power saw

A tool with hardened steel points used for scribing or laying of distances
A. Plain scriber
B. Divider
C. Trammel
D. Hermaphrodite

used to machine flat or curved surfaces with a tool, which moves in a
reciprocating motion
A. Planer
B. Shaper
C. Grinder
D. Lathe

used in the production of flat surfaces on pieces two large or too
heavy to hold in a shaper
A. Planer
B. Shaper
C. Grinder
D. Shaver
25. ME Board June 1990

A machine tool used to produce a variety of surfaces by using a circular type
cutter with multiple teeth called
A. Lathe machine
B. Milling machine
C. Broaching machine
D. Grinding

A cutting tool used to finish internal and external surfaces by the use of a cutter
called a broach, which has a series of cutting edges of teeth
A. Lathe machine
B. Broaching machine
C. Planer
D. Shaper

The method of cold working by compression
A. Broaching
B. Lapping
C. Piercing
D. Reaming

A group of thin steel strips used for measuring clearances
A. Feeler group
B. Tachometer
C. Micrometer
D. Caliper

The process of working metals by the application of sudden blows or by a
steady pressure called
A. Rolling
B. Forging
C. Casting
D. Turning

A kind of chuck, which should not used where accuracy is required called
A. Collet chuck
B. Magnetic chuck
C. Four jaw chuck
D. Universal chuck

A kind of chuck, which has reversible jaws, which could be, adjusted
separately called
A. Collet chuck
B. Independent chuck
C. Four jaw chuck
D. Magnetic chuck

A tool which when pressed into a finished hole in a piece of work, provides
centers on which the piece may be turned or otherwise machine called
A. Mash
B. Butt
C. Mandrel
D. Wobble

A machine tool, which is very similar to a shaper except, the ram reciprocates
vertically rather than horizontally
A. Lathe
B. Grinder
C. Planer
D. Slotter

A cylindrical bar of steel with threads formed around it and grooves or flutes
running lengthwise in it, intersecting with the threads to form cutting edges. It
is used to cut internal threads
A. Groove
B. Lap
C. Tap
D. Flute

A mechanism, which usually do the indexing in a machine tool called
A. Slotter
B. Chuck
C. Dividing head
D. Indexer

The operation of machining the end of a work piece to make the end square
with the axis
A. Squaring
B. Buffing
C. Lapping
D. Honing

The operation of enlarging a hole by means of an adjustable cutting tool with
only one cutting edge
A. Drilling
B. Broaching
C. Milling
D. Boring

The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole, as
for a recess for a flat screw
A. Countering sinking
B. Knurling
C. Squaring
D. Performing

It is an operation of sizing and finishing a hole by means if a cutting tool
having several cutting edges
A. Notching
B. Piercing
C. Turming
D. reaming

The hop term used to include the marking or inscribing of center points
circles, are or straight lines upon metal surfaces, either curve or flat, for the
guidance of the worker called
A. Shaping
B. Hobbing
C. Laying out
D. Shaping

It is used to true and align machine tools fixtures and works to test and
inspect size trueness of finished work, and to compare measurements either
heights or depths or many other measurements
A. Dial gage
B. Dial indicator
C. Tachometer
D. speedometer

A tool used for measuring diameters
A. Caliper
B. Manometer
C. Tachometer
D. Pyrometer

The process of forming metals by the use of dies after the metal is heated to
its plastic range
A. Rolling
B. Forging
C. Tuming
D. Casting

A machine tool used to out metal parts a lift, medium and large section using
a reciprocating hacksaw blade
A. Tool grinder
B. Shaper
C. Planer
D. Power saw
45. A cold chief is made of
A. Cast iron
B. German silver
C. High carbon steel
D. High speed steel
46. Trimming is a process associated with
A. Electroplating
B. Forging
C. Machining of metals
D. Press work
47. Formed crucible is made of
A. Graphite
B. German silver
C. Lead
D. Mild steel
48. Formed milling operation of cutting gears can be used for cutting which type
of gears?
A. Spur
B. Worm
C. All of the above
D. Bevel
49. Select the one that is gear finishing process
A. Gear shaving
B. Gear shaping
C. Gear hobbing
D. Gear milling
50. Broaching operation is generally used in automobile industry us
A. It is a mass production machine

B. It is an automatic machine
C. Operation is completed in one stroke
D. Semi-skilled operators can be employed
Answer to Test 22 – Machine Shop Practice
1. C. safety notices in markings 27. C. piercing

2. A. bend 28. A. feeler gage
3. D. Rockwell test 29. B. forging
4. D. bend 30. D. universal chuck
5. B. slotting attachment 31. B. independent chuck
6. D. milling machine arbors 32. C. mandrel
7. B. cutters 33. D. slotter
8. B. charpy test 34. C. tap
9. A. foundry area 35. C. dividing head
10. B. overhauling 36. A. squaring
11. B. shaper machine 37. D. boring
12. A. fan 38. A. counterstriking
13. B. precision 39. D. reaming
14. B. feller gage 40. C. laying out
15. B. milling 41. B. dial indicator
16. A. anvil 42. A. caliper
17. B. shaping 43. A. rolling
18. A. dead center 44. D. power saw
19. D. grinding machine 45. C. high carbon steel
20. C. tool grinder 46. B. forging
21. A. shaper 47. A. graphite
22. B. divider 48. C. all of the above
23. B. shaper 49. A. gear shaving
24. A. planer 50. D. semi-skilled operators can be
25. B. milling machine employed
26. B. broaching machine
Test 23
1. Point angle of 135˚ on drills is used for
A. Bakelite hard rubbers and fibrous plastic

B. Hard steels and nickels alloys
C. Thin sheets metal
D. B and c
2. A twist drill is specified by
A. Its diameter and lip angle

B. It shank and diameter
C. Shank, material and diameter
D. Shank, material and flute size
3. The usual value of helix angle of a drill is
A. 30˚
B. 60˚
C. 110˚
D. 120˚
4. The helix angle on a high speed steel twist drill for drilling cast iron is of the order of
A. 12-22˚
B. 24-32˚
C. 35-40˚
D. 40-45˚
5. Dressing is
A. An inspection method for castings

B. A method of deoxidizing the castings
C. A method of deoxidizing of molton metal
D. The formation of oxides on the molten metal surface
6. Sweep pattern is used for molding parts having
A. Complicated shape having intricate details

B. Rectangular shape
C. Uniform symmetrical shape
7. Which of the following processes that hydraulic fluids act as transfer media
A. Electron beam machining

B. Electron discharge machining
C. Iron beam machining
D. Water jet machining
8. Wiping is the process of
A. Applying flux during welding process

B. Cleaning the welded surface after the welding operation is over
C. Connecting load pipes by soldering is over
D. Low temperature welding
9. Ornaments are cast by
A. Continuous casting
B. Die casting
C. Gravity casting
D. Pressed casting
10. In such casting process
A. Molten metal is fed into the cavity in metallic mould by gravity

B. Metal is poured into die cavity and after a predetermined time the mould is inverted to
permit a part of metal steel in molten state to flow out of cavity
C. Cavity is filled with a precalculated quantity of metal and a core or plunger inserted to
force the metal into cavity
D. Metal is forced into mould under high pressure
11. In Carthias process,
A. Molten metal is fed into the cavity in metallic mould by gravity

B. Metal is poured into die cavity and after a predetermined time the mould is inverted to
permit a part of metal steel in molten state to flow out of cavity
C. Cavity is filled with a precalculated quantity of metal and a core or plunger inserted to
force the metal into cavity
D. Metal is forced into mould under high pressure
12. What is the purpose of riser?
A. Feed the casting at a rate consistent at a rate consistent with the rate of solidification
B. Act as reservoir for molten metal
C. Help feed the casting until all solidification takes place
D. Feed molten metal from pouring basin to gash
13. The mould for casting ferrous materials
A. Copper
B. High carbon steel
C. Low carbon steel
D. Medium carbon steel
14. Dilatometer is used to find out which property of molding sand?
A. Fineness
B. Hot strength
C. Moisture content
D. Permeability
15. Select the one that is not an angle measuring device.
A. Angle iron
B. Bevel protector
C. Combination
D. Sine bar
16. The draft allowance on metallic pattern as compared to wooden ones is
A. More
B. Same
C. Less
D. More/less depending on size
17. The pressure of inoculation is used
A. To clean the casting

B. To decrease the melting temperature of a cast metal
C. To change the chemical composition of a cost metal
D. To modify the structure and properties of a cast metal
18. Tumbling is done so as to
A. Clean the surface of small parts

B. Get surface finish
C. Stress relieve the components
D. Plate the surface
19. What is referred to as a gate?
A. A passage through which metal is poured into a mould

B. A passage through which metal rises when the mould is filled
C. A passage that finally leads molten from the runner into the mould cavity
D. A vent hole to allow for the hot gases to escape
20. A sprue is,
A. A tool used in mould repairing

B. A process of cleaning castings
C. A chemical that is added to molten materials for sound castings
D. A vertical passage through the cope and joining the pouring basin to the runner
21. Hacksaw blade that has the same number of teeth as given below area available. Which
one would you choose for cutting brass?
A. 18 teeth per inch

B. 24 teeth per inch
C. 28 teeth per inch
D. 31 teeth per inch
22. A plug gage is used to measure
A. Cylindrical bores
B. Screw threads
C. Spherical threads
D. Taper bores
23. When large number of components are turned and parted off from bar, the chuck
generally used is the .
A. Collet chuck
B. Four jaw chuck
C. Magnetic chuck
D. Two jaw chuck
24. Which of the following is the cutting speed of brass?
A. 30m/min
B. 40m/min
C. 50m/min
D. 80m/min
25. Under cutting is :
A. An operating of cutting deep grove

B. An operation of cutting a groove next to a shoulder on a piece of work
C. Cutting from the work piece
D. An operation of cutting extra wide threads
26. Permeability of a foundry sand is
A. The capacity to hold moisture

B. Distribution of binder in sand
C. Fineness of sand
D. Porosity to allow the escape of gases
27. Quick return motion is used in a
A. Drilling machine
B. Grinder
C. Lathe
D. Shaper
28. Draft on a pattern is provided for
A. Facilitating pattern making

B. Easy lifting of the casting
C. Facilitating withdrawal of the pattern from the mould
D. Providing for shrinkage of the casting
29. Mandrel are used to hold

A. Cutting tools
B. Drill bits
C. Face plate
D. Hollow work pieces
30. The operation of enlarging a hole is called
A. Boring
B. Counter striking
C. Drilling
D. Reaming
31. In up cut milling the work piece is fed
A. Against the rotating cutter

B. At an angle of 60˚ to the cutter
C. At the right angle to the cutter
D. In the direction of the cutter
32. Sprue is the passage provided for the
A. Out flow
B. In flow
C. Smooth flow
D. Solidification of the molten material
33. Feed in a lathe is expressed in
A. Mm
B. Mm per degree
C. Mm per revolution
D. Rpm
34. Rapping allowance is provided on a pattern to take care of
A. Shrinkage
B. Machining
C. Distortion
D. Easy withdrawal
35. Upsetting is the term used in one of the following operations:
A. Casting
B. Drilling
C. Forging
D. Turning
36. One of the materials for making surface plate is
A. Brass
B. Granite
C. Stainless steel
D. Wood
37. Feeler gages are used for measuring the
A. Clearance between mating parts

B. Pitch of screw steel
C. Radius of curvature
D. Thickness of plates
38. Chuck used on turret lathe is
A. Collet chuck
B. Four jaw self centering chuck
C. Magnetic chuck
D. Three jaws independent chuck
39. Routing prescribe
A. Inspection of final product

B. Proper utilization of machine
C. Proper utilization of man power
D. The flow of materials in the joint
40. Cope in foundry practice refers to
A. Bottom half of molding box

B. Coating on the mold face
C. Middle portion of the molding box
D. Top half of molding
41. A vent is used in
A. Foundry
B. Hot forging
C. Cold forging
D. Fitting
42. The purpose of chaplets is to
A. Ensure directional solidification

B. Function a lower and upper parts of the molding box
C. Provide efficient venting
D. Support the cores
43. Angle plate is used for

A. Cutting tapers in a lathe
B. Cutting gears in a shaper
C. Cutting gears in a milling
D. Fixing job cut angles is a grinder
44. Cores are used in a mould to make it

A. Hollow
B. Smooth
C. Strong
D. Symmetrical
45. Pipes subjected to high pressure are generally made by

A. Centrifugal casting
B. Extrusion
C. Pressure casting
D. Slush casting
46. In a typical lathe machining, discontinuous chips of are formed when

machining
A. Carbon steel
B. Copper alloy
C. Copper
D. Steel at high speeds
47. Permeability, in relation to molding sands, is for
A. Coarse grains
B. Fine grains
C. Medium grains
D. Round grains
48. The purpose of tumbler gears in lathe is to
A. Cut gears
B. Cut threads
C. Give desired direction of movement to the lathe carriage
D. Reduce spindle speeds
49. For machining the flange of a 90 below on a lathe, which of the following holding
devices is used?
A. Angle plate
B. Catch plate
C. Face plate
D. Lathe plate
50. Which of the following is not part of combination set?
A. Bevel protractor
B. Dial gage
C. Scale
D. Try square
Answer to Test 23 – Machine Shop Practice
1. D B and C 22. A. cylindrical bores

2. C. shank, material, and 23. C. magnetic cluck
diameter 24. B. 40m/min
3. A. 30˚ 25. C. cutting from the of work piece
4. B. 24-32˚ 26. A. capacity to hold moisture
5. D. the formation of oxides on 27. D. shaper
the molten metal surfaces 28. D. providing for shrinkage of the
6. C. uniform symmetrical shape casting
7. D. water jet machining 29. D. hollow work pieces
8. C. connecting load pipes by 30. A. boring
soldering alloy 31. A. against the rotating cutter
9. C. gravity casting 32. B. in flow
10. B. metal is poured into a die 33. C. mm per revolution
cavity and after a predetermined 34. D. easy withdrawal
time the mould is inverted to 35. C. forging
permit a part of metal steel in molten 36. B. granite
state to flow out if cavity 37. A. clearances between mating
11. C. cavity is filled with a pre- parts
calculated quantity of metal and a 38. D. three jaws independent
core or plunger is inserted to force chuck
the metal into cavity 39. D. the flow of materials in the
12. C. help feed the casting until all joint
solidification takes place 40. D. top half of molding
13. A. copper 41. B. hot forging
14. A. fineness 42. A. ensure directional
15. A. angle iron solidification
16. C. less 43. B. cutting gears in a shaper
17. D. modify the structure and 44. A. hollow
properties of cast steel 45. A. centrifugal casting
18. A. clean the surface of small 46. C. copper
parts 47. A. course grains
19. D. a vent hole to allow for the 48. C. give desired direction of
hot gases to escape movement to the lathe carriage
20. A. a tool used in mould 49. C. faceplate
repairing 50. C. scale
21. B. 24 teeth per inch
Test 24
1. A sine bar cannot used without a/an
A. Angle gage
B. Micrometer
C. Slip gage
D. Vemier caliper
2. The tool life is affected to the maximum extent by
A. Gear grinding
B. Gear shaping
C. Gear shaving
D. Milling
3. The operation of finishing a drilled hole to the correct size is known as
A. Counter boring
B. Counter sinking
C. Reaming
D. Spot facing
4. When the extreme outer corners of the cutting edge of a drill wear away too rapidly, it
is an indication of
A. Not enough speed

B. Too much rake angle
C. Too high a speed
D. B or C
5. Carbon steel drill should be operated at
A. Speed greater than that when using a high speed drill

B. Speeds less than that when using a high speed drill
C. The same speed as that when using a high speed
D. None of above
6. Removing the sharp edges from a piece of stock is referred to as
A. Polish material
B. Roughen material
C. Sharpen material
D. Smooth material
7. Knurling is done .
A. Boring
B. Chamfering
C. Planning
D. Tuming
8. When cutting material in a lathe, the harder the material being cut, the tool bit should
have
A. Less side rake

B. More side rake
C. More top rake
D. No side rake
9. When turning a piece of round in a lathe, the front clearance should have
A. Cutting angles
B. Large – diameter cutting
C. Small – diameter cutting
10. After grinding a tool bit, the cutting edge should be
A. Case hardened
B. Rubbed with emery cloth
C. Rubbed with crocus cloth
D. Stoned with an oilstone
11. When cutting material in a lathe, the harder the material being cut, the tool bit should
have
A. Any of these
B. Double tap rake
C. Less tap rake
D. More tap rake
12. A piece of cast iron held against an emery wheel will give off
A. Bright shiny sparks

B. Dull yellow sparks
C. Red sparks
D. No sparks
13. The alignment of coupling faces can be checked by
A. Inserting a feeler gage between the coupling faces at various points around the
circumference
B. Inserting a thermometer
C. Rotating and measuring to nearest permanent fitting
D. Using an inside micrometer
14. A drill bit has

A. No flutes
B. 2 flutes
C. 3 flutes
D. 4 flutes
14
15. Before applying layout blue piece of metal, it must be
A. Cleaned
B. Cold
C. Heated
D. Roughed
16. A scriber is made from
A. Carbon steel’
B. Cold – rolled steel
C. Hot – rolled steel
D. Tool steel
17. Copper is annealed by hunting to cherry red color and
A. Cooling slowly in air

B. Dousing in cold water
C. Dousing in hot water
D. Dousing in oil
18. When drilling a hole in a piece of work held in a lathe chuck one would use the
A. Head stock
B. Compound rest
C. Cross-feed
D. Tailstock and drill chuck
19. When using a drill press, the work should be held with
A. A pair of pliers
B. A vise or clamp
C. Gloves on
D. The hand
20. When a lathe is put into a back gear, it will go
A. At a slower speed backwards

B. At the same speed backwards
C. Faster
D. Slower
21. On a lathe, the dead center is used after

A. Boring
B. Center-drilling
C. Drilling
D. Reaming
22. To remove metal shock rapidly the file use is a
A. Double- cut bastard

B. Double- cut coarse
C. Rasp
D. A and C
23. The best file to use when finishing sharp corners or slots and grooves is the:
A. Jeweler’s file
B. knife file
C. mill file
D. square file
24. Never use a file
a. That is dirty
b. With a tang
c. Without a handle
d. Without oiling
25. Which of the following information is necessary when ordering a file?
A. Size
B. Shape
C. Type of teeth
D. All of the above
26. When filling a piece of metal in a lathe o\if short strokes are used the finished piece
will probably
A. Be cut of round
B. Be perfect
C. Have a small flat areas on the surfaces
D. A and c
27. The best procedure when filling a piece of metal in a lathe is to take .
A. Long faster strokes

B. Long slow strokes
C. Short even stokes
D. Short fast strokes
28. The safe edge of a file is

A. The end opposite handle
B. The one with the handle
C. The edge with no teeth
29. Small pieces of metal clogged between the teeth on a file are called
A. Bumps
B. Clogs
C. Flats
D. Pins
30. Finishing off a piece of metal with a real smooth finish can be done by
A. Draw- filling
B. Flat-filling
C. Milling-filling
D. Side-filling
31. For finishing a piece of work to size the file use is the
A. Crossing file
B. Double – cut fine - tooth file
C. Mill file
D. Single – cut fine – tooth file
32. For filling lead or rabbit, use a
A. Lead float file

B. Mile file
C. Vixen file
D. A or c
33. A hacksaw blade with 32 TPI is best suited for cutting
A. Small tubing
B. Conduit
C. Sheet metal under 18 gage
D. Any of the above
34. A coolant is usually when cutting material in a power hacksaw to
A. Absorb heat of friction

B. Prevent the blade from overheating
C. Prevent the blade from losing its temper
D. All of the above
35. A hacksaw blade with 18 teeth per inch is best suited for cutting
A. Aluminum
B. Cast iron
C. Solid iron
D. Any of the above
36. When cutting a long thin piece of metal
A. Set the blade in the frame with the teeth facing toward you
B. Turn the blade at right angles to the frame
C. The teeth pointing backward
D. The teeth pointing forward
37. A hacksaw blade should be placed in the frame with
A. One end looser than the other end

B. The teeth facing in any direction
C. The teeth providing backward
D. The teeth pointing forward
38. A hacksaw blade with 34 teeth per inch should be used for cutting
A. Brass
B. Cast iron
C. Heavy
D. Thin wall tubing
39. The best instrument for measuring thousandths of an inch is
A. Caliper
B. Micrometer
C. Pyrometer
D. Tachometer
40. All hard hacksaw blade is best suited for work on
A. Brass
B. Cast iron
C. Tool steal
D. Any of the above
41. A hacksaw blade with 14 TPI is best suited for cutting
A. Cold rolled steel

B. ‘hot rolled steel
C. Structured steel
D. Any of the above
42. Files are divided into two general classes, namely
A. Flat shapes and round shapes

B. Large and small
C. Rough and smooth
D. Single – cut and double – cut
43. A hacksaw blade can be placed in a frame in
A. One positions
B. Two position
C. Three positions
D. Four positions
44. All hard hacksaw blade is one that
A. Has a hard back and flexible teeth

B. Has a flexible back and hard teeth
C. Has the entire blade hardened
D. Will only fit a solid frame hacksaw
45. Hacksaw blade with 24 TPI is best suited for cutting
A. Brass and copper

B. Sheet metal over 18 gage
C. Tubing
D. Any of the above
46. Hacksaw blades are made of
A. High speed steel

B. Tool steel
C. Tungsten alloy steel
D. Any of the above
47. A flexible back hacksaw blade is one that has
A. A movable back
B. Flexible ends
C. Only the back hardened
D. Only the teeth hardened
48. The flexible type hacksaw blade is best suited for work on
A. Aluminum
B. Channel
C. Tubing
D. Any of the above
49. When lathe tool bit burns, it means that the
A. Speed is too low

B. Speed is too fast
C. Material is too hard
D. Material can not be out
50. The lathe compounds is used for
A. Angle cutting
B. Grooving
C. Facing
D. Any of the above
Answers to Test 24 – Machine Shop Practices
1. A. angle gage 25. D. all of the above

2. A. gear grinding 26. D. A and c
3. C. reaming 27. B. long slow stokes
4. D. B or c 28. C. the edge with no teeth
5. B. speeds less than that when using a 29. D. pins
high speed drill 30. A. draw- filling
6. B. roughen 31. D. single- cut fine- tooth file
7. B. chamfering 32. D. A or c
8. A. less side rake 33. D. any of the above
9. D. small – diameter cutting 34. D. all of the above
10. D. stoned with an oilstone 35. D. any of the above
11. C. less top rake 36. B. turn the blade at right angle to the
12. B. dull yellow sparks frame
13. A. inserting a feeler gage, between the 37. D. the teeth pointing forward
coupling faces at various points around 38. D. thin wall tubing
the circumference 39. B. micrometer
14. B. 2 flutes 40. D. any of the above
15. A. cleaned 41. D. any of the above
16. D. too steel 42. D. single- cut and double – cut
17. A. cooling slowly in air 43. D. four positions
18. D. tailstock and drill chuck 44. C. has the entire blade hardened
19. B. a vise or clamp 45. D. any of the above
20. D. slower 46.
21. B. center- drilling 47. B. dedendum
22. D. A and c 48. B. clearance
23. B. knife file 49. C. throat diameter
24. C. without a handle 50. A. base circle
MACHINE SHOP PRACTICE
Test 25
1. A universal chuck cannot be used to cut

a. An eccentric
b. A round stock
c. A cam
d. A and C
2. The jaw of a standard vise is

a. Hard
b. Semi-hard
c. Semi-soft
d. Soft
3. When facing off a piece of material in the lathe chuck the tool bit must be set ________.
a. Above center
b. At the center
c. Below the center
d. Off center
4. Before applying layout blue on a piece of material, it must be

a. Cleaned
b. Cold
c. Hot
d. Roughened
5. Tool steel can be hardened

a. Heating red hot and plunging into water
b. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast of dry air
c. Heating red hot and plunging into line seed or cotton seed oil
d. Any of these, depending on type and use
6. A piece of mild steel held against an emery wheel eill give off
a. Bright shiny sparks
b. Green sparks
c. Light straw- colored sparks
d. No sparks
7. Another name for hydrochloric acid is

a. Acetic acid
b. Muriatic acid
c. Nitric acid
d. Sulphuric acid
8. A flexible hacksaw blade has a tendency to _______.
a. Snap easily
b. Buckle or run out of line when two much pressure is applied
c. Cut too fast
d. Cut on a slant
9. A pillar file is used for______.
a. Filing against a shoulder
b. Filing keyways
c. Filing slots
d. Any of the above
10. The length of a file is measured from_________.

a. End to end
b. Heel to end
c. Point to end
d. Point to heel
11. In general, files are divided into two classes namely,

a. Fine and coarse
b. Rough and smooth
c. Single –cut and double – cut
d. Shapes and sizes
12. A pillar file has

A. One safe edge
B. Three safe edges
C. Two safe edges
D. A and C
13. The tang of a file is the part that

a. Does the cutting
b. Fits into the handle
c. Has no teeth
d. Is opposite the handle
14. One of the factors involved in the choice of a grinding wheel is

a. The kind of material to be ground
b. The amount of stock to be removed
c. The kind of finish required
d. All of the above
15. The main difference between a planer and a shaper is that

a. A planer has an offset table and the shaper has a horizontal table
b. The shaper has a rotating table and the planer has a horizontal table
c. The table of a planer has a reciprocating motion past the tool head while the table of
the shaper is stationary and the tool head has a reciprocating motion
d. One is larger than the other
16. A piece of tool steel held against an emery wheel will give off __________.
a. White sparks with stars on the end
b. Yellow sparks
c. No sparks
d. Green sparks
17. If you use a dry grinding wheel for sharpening tool bits, dip the end of the bit in water
frequently to prevent __________.
a. Annealing the cutting edge of the bit
b. Burning your fingers
c. Hardening of the tip
d. The tip from crystallizing
18. The tool used to cut gears is called a

a. Gear center
b. Gear cutter
c. Gear hob
d. Gear threader
19. The tool used to check internal pipe thread is called a

a. Pitch gage
b. Plug gage
c. Ring gage
d. Thread gage
20. The tool used to check external pipe threads is called a

a. Pitch gage
b. Plug gage
c. Ring gage
d. Thread gage
21. The operation of truing a grinding wheel is known as

a. Centering
b. Dressing
c. Rounding
d. Sizing
22. The cutting angle on a drill for drilling mild steel should be___________.
a. 39°
b. 49°
c. 59°
d. 69°
23. Which of the following is not a common drill shank?

a. Bit
b. Fluted
c. Straight
d. Taper
24. Tapered shanks are used on large drill-presses so that __________.

a. The drill can be centered more easily
b. The drill can be easily forced out of the sleeve with a drift
c. The shank can be reground when worm
d. The shank will not turn when cutting
25. When using a drill press, the work should be held with_________.
a. The hand
b. A gloved hand
c. A vise or clamp
d. Pliers
26. A tool bit for cutting a American National thread should be ground with a _________.
a. 30° angle
b. 45° angle
c. 60° angle
d. 90° angle
27. Center drilling is the operation of

a. Drilling a center in an odd-shaped piece of metal
b. Drilling and countersinking with one tool
c. Centering with one tool and drilling with another
d. Drilling a center in a piece of stock in a drill press
28. When cutting a drill, it will squeal due to__________.

a. Drill being ground improperly
b. Drill being too hot
c. Insufficient lubricant
d. Any of the above
29. The correct cutting angle on a drill for ordinary work is

a. 45°
b. 50°
c. 59°
d. 65°
30. If the cutting edges of a drill are cut at different angles_________.

a. The drill will not cut
b. The hole will be larger than the drill
c. The hole will be smaller than the drill
31. If a drill speed is too great, it will _________.

a. Cut faster
b. Close its temper
c. Cut slower
d. Not cut
32. Soda added to water is used for cooling instead of plain water because__________.
a. It reduces the amount of heat generated
b. It improves the finish
c. It overcomes rusting
d. All of the above
33. If the angle on a drill is less than 59° ,

a. The drill will make a larger hole
b. The drill will make a smaller hole
c. The hole will take longer to drill and more power is required to drive the drill
d. The drill will not center properly
34. The name of the taper shank is used on drills is

a. Miller
b. Morse
c. Starrett
d. Stanley
35. The tool used to cut threads on pipe is called a

a. Pipe tool
b. Pipe stock
c. Pipe vise
d. Pipe cutter
36. The instrument used to reshape a grinding wheel that is grooved or out of round is called
a. Wheel aligner
b. Wheel dresser
c. Wheel enemy
d. Wheel cutter
37. The instruments used to remove old packing from packing glands and stuffing boxes are
called
a. Packing tools
b. Packing bits
c. Gland box cleaner
d. Packing screw
38. Before drilling a hole in a pipe of metal it should be

a. Center-punched
b. Marked with chalk
c. Protracted
d. Scribed
39. When measuring a drill fir size, measure across the

a. Flutes
b. Margins
c. Point
d. Shank
40. The tool used in precision work to smooth on enlarge holes is called
a. Drift pin
b. Reamer
c. Round out
d. Protractor
41. The size of a drill is stamped on the

a. Flute
b. Margin
c. Point
d. Shank
42. The tool used for cleaning files is called

a. File cleaner
b. File card
c. File oilstone
d. Scraper
43. The metal cutting wedge is fundamental to the geometry of

a. Head of tools only
b. Power driven tools only
c. Sheet metal cutting tools only
d. All cutting tools
44. Continuous chips are formed when cutting
a. Brittle materials
b. Ductile materials
c. Amorphous plastic materials
d. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only
45. What is the function of rake angle of a cutting tool?

a. To control the chip formation
b. To prevent rubbing
c. To determine the profile of tool
d. To determine whether the cutting action is oblique or onthogonal
46. Back rake angle for high speed steel single point cutting tool to machine free cutting
brass is
a. 0°
b. 5°
c. 10°
d. 15°
47. The chip removal process is called

a. Extruding
b. Forging
c. Rolling
d. Broaching
48. The non-chip removal process.

a. Grinding
b. Spinning on lathe
c. Thread cutting
d. Drilling
49. A twist drill has its point thinned in order to __________.

a. Reduce the hole diameter
b. Increase the rake angle
c. Locate in the center punch mark
d. Reduce the axial feed pressure
50. A reamer is used to correct the

a. Size and roundness of a drilled hole
b. Size and position of a drilled hole
c. Finish and position of a drilled hole
d. Finish and depth of a drilled hole
Answers to Test 25 –Machine Shop Practice
1. D a and c 25. C a vise or clamp

2. A hard 26. C 60° angle
3. B at the center 27. B drilling and countersinking
4. A cleaned with one tool
5. D any of the above, depending 28. D any of the above
on the type and use 29. C 59°
6. C light straw- colored sparks 30. B the hole will be larger than
7. B muriatic acid the drill
8. B buckle or run out of line when 31. B close its temper
too much pressure is applied 32. D all of the above
9. D any of the above 33. C the hole will take longer to
10. D point to heel drill and more power is required to
11. C single cut and double cut drive the drill
12. D A and C 34. B Morse
13. B fits into the handle 35. B pipe stock
14. D all of the above 36. B wheel dresser
15. C the table of the planer has a 37. A packing tools
reciprocating motion past the tool 38. A center punched
head while the table of the 39. B margins
shaper is stationary and the tool 40. B reamer
head has a reciprocating motion 41. D shank
16. A white sparks with starts on 42. B file card
the hand 43. A head of tools only
17. A annealing the cutting edge of 44. B ductile materials
a bit 45. A to control the chips formation
18. C gear hob 46. A 0°
19. B plug gage 47. D broaching
20. C ring gage 48. B spinning on lathe
21. B dressing 49. D reduce the axial feed
22. C 59° pressure
23. B Fluted 50. A size and roundness of drilled
24. B the drill can be easily forced hole
out of the sleeve with a drift
Test 26
1. ME Board October 1998, ME board April 1995

__________ to prevent leakage in dynamic seal
a. Gasket
b. Seals
c. Packing
d. Felts

Plus or minus of the tolerance is also called
a. Total tolerance
b. Unilateral tolerance
c. Bilateral tolerance
d. None of these

Is the permissible variation of the size of a dimension?
a. Tolerance
b. Allowance\
c. Clearance
d. Interference

When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will take pressure to put the parts together.
The allowance is said to be negative and is termed
Negative tolerance
a. Negative tolerance
b. Negative allowance
c. Negative fits
d. Interference metals

It is used in conjunction with circular cross sectional members to retain oil and
prevent dirt, foreign particles and moisture and to permit pressure differential
between exterior and interior of the applied part.
a. Seal
b. Gasket
c. Safety shield
d. Packing

Flexible material used to seal pressurized fluids, normally under dynamic condition.
a. Nylon
b. Seal
c. Teflon
d. Packing

Which of the following is not a common term to the classification of fits?
a. Tunking
b. Snug
c. Medium force fit
d. Bound
8. ME Board April 1990, ME Board October 1989

The total permissible variation in the size of a dimension the difference between the
limits of the size.
a. Tolerance
b. Fits
c. Allowance
d. Clearance

A device used to prevent leakage of media
a. Seal
b. Packing
c. Teflon
d. Graphite
10. An oversize hole is produced by a drill if__________.

a. Lips of drill are of equal length
b. Feed is too high
c. Insufficient coolant is used
d. Cutting speed is too high
11. Cemented carbide tipped tools can machine metal even when their cutting elements
get heated up to the temperature of __________.
a. 1650°C
b. 1400°C
c. 1000°C
d. 1800°C
12. Cemented carbide tools are usually provided with

a. Positive back rake angle
b. Neutral back rake angle
c. Negative back rake angle
d. Depth of cutter
13. Friction between chip and tool may be reduced by

a. Increased sliding velocity
b. Increased shear angle
c. Use of low tool finish
d. None of these
14. The studs used as a coolant in general machine shop consist of

a. A solution of detergent and water
b. A straight mineral oil
c. An emulsion of oil and water
d. A chemical solution
15. Milling cutter is sharpened on

a. Tool and cutter grinder
b. Center less grinder
c. Cylindrical grinder
d. Surface grinder
16. Two major factors, which determined the rpm of milling cutter, are the material being
cut and __________.
a. Number of teeth in cutter
b. Diameter of cutter
c. Time allowed to complete the job
d. Depth of cutter
17. Gear pumps used in hydraulic system are used for _________.
a. Low and medium pressure
b. Medium and high pressure
c. Low and high pressure
18. Electron beam machining process is quite suitable for a material having
a. High melting point and high thermal conductivity
b. High melting point and low thermal conductivity
c. Low melting point and low thermal conductivity
d. Low melting point and high thermal conductivity
19. Emery is a/an

a. Artificial abrasive
b. Natural abrasive
c. Type of cloth
20. Grinding is what type of operation?

a. Metal fusing operation
b. Metal powdering operation
c. None of the above
d. Metal finish operation
21. Grinding is done wherever

a. Other machining operations can not be carried out
b. A large amount of material is to be removed
c. High accuracy is required
22. Laser beam machining process is used to machine _________.

a. Thicker materials
b. Thinner materials
c. Heavier materials
23. The size of abrasive grains in an abrasive a jet machining varies from
a. 60 to 100 microns
b. 10 to 50 microns
c. 1 to 5 microns
d. 110 to 150 microns
24. The Young’s module of carbide tools is about ___________.

a. Three times than for steel
b. Six times than for steel
c. Nine times than for steel
25. Twist drills are usually considered suitable for machining holes having a length less
than
a. Two times their diameter
b. Five times their diameter
c. Ten times their diameter
d. Fifteen times their diameter
26. A hard grade grinding wheel is suitable for grinding

a. Hard materials
b. Soft materials
c. Both hard and soft materials
27. The relative motion of work piece in planning is
a. Rotary
b. Translatory
c. Rotary and translatory
28. In quick return mechanism of shaping machine the ram stroke length is proportional
to
a. Slotter arm length
b. Crank length
c. Ram length
29. The usual ratio of forward and return stroke in quick return mechanism of shaping
machine is
a. 3:2
b. 6:8
c. 3:1
d. 5:2
30. The amount of metal removed by honing process is less than _________.
a. 0.125 mm
b. 0.255 mm
c. 0.015 mm
d. 0.315 mm
31. The type and number of bearings to be used for spindles of machine tool depending
on
a. Type of spindle
b. Type of machine tool
c. Load on the bearing
32. If there is no fit, a liberal tolerance of the order of _____ in machining work could be
permitted
a. ± 0.020
b. ± 0.010
c. ± 0.09
d. ± 0.05
33. A tolerance where the size of a part is permitted to be either larger or smaller than
the given dimension
a. Bilateral
b. Unilateral
c. Lateral
34. A tolerance where the size of a part may be larger only or smaller only, than the
given dimension
a. Bilateral
b. Unilateral
c. Lateral
35. ______ are generally used on those dimensions involved in a fit.

a. Bilateral
b. Unilateral
c. Lateral
36. The ASA fits are based on the

a. Basic number system
b. Basic hole system
c. Basic size system
d. Unit system
37. When the hole is smaller than the shaft it will take force or pressure to put the cold
part together. The allowance is said to be negative and is termed as
a. Negative fits of metal
b. Positive fits
c. Interchangeable
d. Interference of metal
38. Is the relatively finely spaced irregularities of the surface

a. Smoothness
b. Lay
c. Waiveness
d. Roughness
39. It is the irregularities or departures from the nominal surface of greater spacing than
roughness
a. Roughness
b. Lay
c. Smoothness
d. Waiveness
40. It is the direction of the predominant surface pattern

a. Lay
b. Roughness
c. Smoothness
d. Waiveness
41. The surface finish of micrometer anvils in _______ rms.

a. 1
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
42. The surface finish of heavy cuts and coarse feed.

a. 80 rms
b. 200 rms
c. 400 rms
d. 500 or greater rms
43. The outbreak of fire can be avoided by preventing which of the following?
a. Fuel
b. Oxygen
c. Heat
d. Any of the above
44. The square head of a combination set is used for making or checking which measure
of an angle?
a. 90° only
b. 90° and 45°
c. 45° only
d. Any angle between 0-180°
45. Angle plate is made of

a. Cast steel
b. Closed grain cast iron
c. High speed steel
d. Tool steel
46. The eyehole of a hammerhead is made in oval shape and taper towards center because
a. It is easy for production
b. It is specially designed by experts
c. It accommodates the handle and wedge for preventing it from flying off
47. The jaws of a leg vise are opened

a. Parallel to each other
b. In “V” form
c. In “A” and “B” both
d. Neither “A” and “B”
48. For general work, the cutting angle of a cold flat chisel is ground at an angle of
a. 35°
b. 60°
c. 70°
d. 80°
49. A new hacksaw blade should not be used in old cut because
a. The blade is very costly
b. The blade have very sharp teeth
c. The space is not sufficient to play the new blade in the old cut
50. Which part of the file is not hardened?

a. Body
b. Heel
c. Point
d. tang
1. C Packing 26. B soft materials

2. C bilateral tolerance 27. B translator
3. A Tolerance 28. B crank length
4. B negative allowance 29. A 3:2
5. A Seal 30. A 0.125mm
6. D Packing 31. C load on the bearing
7. D Bound 32. B ±0.010
8. A Tolerance 33. A Bilateral
9. A Seal 34. B Unilateral
10. A lips of drill are of unequal 35. B Unilateral
length 36. B Basic hole system
11. C 1000°C 37. D interference of metal
12. C negative back rake angle 38. D roughness
13. A increased sliding velocity 39. D Waiveness
14. C an emulsion of oil and water 40. A lay
15. A tool and cutter grinder 41. A 1
16. C time allowed to complete the 42. D 500 or greater rms
job 43. D any one of the above
17. A low and medium pressure 44. C 45° only
18. B high melting point and low 45. B closed grain cast iron
thermal conductivity 46. B it accommodates the handle
19. B natural abrasive and a wedge for preventing it from
20. D Metal finish operation flying off
21. C high accuracy is required 47. B in “V” form
22. B thinner materials 48. B 60°
23. B 10 to 50 microns 49. C the place is not sufficient to
24. A three times than for steel play the new blade in the old cut
25. B five times their diameter 50. D Tang
51.
Test 27
1. In case of a flat scraper, the depth of cut is verified by

a. Changing its inclination
b. Changing the convexity of the cutting edge
c. Changing its weight
2. Generally spiral fluted reamer has spirals of

a. Left hand
b. Right hand
c. Straight
3. In which screw thread the side is equal to the width of flat, width of space equals
0.5p is termed as
a. Acme
b. Buttress
c. Knuckle
d. Square
4. A stud is one which

a. Has threads on one end
b. Is inserted in a plane hose
c. Requires a nut
5. An “18” - “18” stainless steel means

a. 18% tungsten and 8% chromium
b. 18% chromium and 8% nickel
c. 18% Nickel and 8% Chromium
d. 18% chromium and 8% cobalt
6. Which of the following metals is the lightest?

a. Aluminum
b. Cat iron
c. GI sheet
d. Lead
7. Hardened steel parts have

a. Coarse grams
b. Fine grains
c. Medium grains
8. Concentricity of outside diameter can be checked by the

a. Dial test indicator
b. Outside micrometer
c. Vernier caliper
d. Tube micrometer
9. Which micrometer has no anvil?

a. Depth micrometer
b. Digit micrometer
c. Outside micrometer
d. Screw thread micrometer
10. Which micrometer is available with extension rods?

a. Combi Micrometer
b. Inside micrometer
c. Outside micrometer
11. Which gauge is used to check the internal threads?

a. Plug gage
b. Ring gage
c. Thread plug gage
12. Limit gage is made to the __________ sizes of the work to be measured
a. Actual and nominal
b. Minimum and maximum
c. Nominal and lower limit
d. Nominal and upper limit
13. Lapping is done

a. To finish the job to a fine degree of accuracy
b. To get high quality
c. To control the size
d. All of the above
14. In which method a bore is finish to a very closed tolerance?

a. Grinding
b. Honing
c. Lapping
d. Turning
15. Jig bushing are generally made of

a. Brass
b. Cast iron
c. Mild steel
d. Tool steel
16. Fixture clamps are generally made of

a. Alloy steel
b. Case hardened mild steel
c. High carbon steel
d. High speed steel
17. Successful designing of jig’s and fixtures depend upon the

a. Clamping arrangement
b. Manufacturing conditions
c. Tool guiding elements
d. All of the above
18. When an external gear is meshed with an internal gear, the gears will rotate in
a. Opposite direction
b. Same direction
c. Will not rotate
19. While soldering, the flux is used because

a. It assists for quick melting and increasing the fluidity of solder
b. It saves the part from oxidation
c. It takes the molten metal on all surfaces
d. All of the above
20. The usual ratio of soluble oil and water used in coolant is
a. 1:10
b. 1:20
c. 10:1
d. 20:1
21. For a given rpm, if the diameter of a twist drill increases, then cutting speed will
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Same
22. An advance motion along the longitudinal axis of a twist drill is called
a. Cutting speed
b. Feed
c. Speed
23. In internal cylindrical grinding wheel and the work rotate in

a. Same direction
b. Opposite direction
c. Neither “A” nor “B”
d. “A” and “B” both
24. For grinding materials having low tensile strength which of the following abrasives is
used?
a. Aluminium
b. Corundum
c. Emery
d. Silicon carbide
25. The size of a grinding wheel is taken from

a. Diameter of wheel
b. Bore size
c. Width of face
d. All of the above
26. Which center is used for supporting open end of pipes, shells etc. while turning or
thread cutting in a lathe?
a. Ball center
b. Half center
c. Female center
d. Pipe center
27. When outside diameter of a job is turned in relation to the internal hole, the job
should be held ___________.
a. Between centers
b. In three jaw chuck
c. On face plate
d. On lathe mandrel
28. What is included angle of a dead center?

a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°
29. What is the main alloying element in high speed steel?

a. Chromium
b. Tungsten
c. Vanadium
d. Nickel
30. The value of one micron is

a. 1.00 mm
b. 0.01 mm
c. 0.10 mm
d. 0.001 mm
31. For the accurate measurement of bores, the best instrument to use is
a. Dial test indicator
b. Inside micrometer
c. Plug gauge
d. Vernier caliper
32. Under sine principle the length of sine bar takes the place of __________.
a. Adjacent
b. Height
c. Hypotenuse
d. Opposite
33. In a hydraulic driven shaper the metal is removed at

a. Average speed
b. Higher speed
c. Lower speed
34. In a shaper, the cutting speed is expressedin

a. Meter per minute
b. Meter per hour
c. Meter per second
35. Amount of automatic feed in shaper is increased by taking the crankpin
a. At the center of crank disc
b. Towards the center of crank disc
c. Away from the center of crank disc
36. In a shaper the feed is usually expressed in

a. mm/stroke
b. mm/revolution
c. meter/minute
d. none of the above
37. For cutting gear teeth in a shaper, the __________ tool is used.
a. Form
b. Gooseneck
c. Round nose
d. “V” shaped
38. Shaper tool bit should not extend in tool holder beyond
a. 5 mm
b. 15mm
c. 25mm
d. 50mm
39. The standard ratio of cutting to return stroke in shaper is

a. 3:1
b. 1:3
c. 2:3
d. 3:2
40. A tipped tool is more useful than high speed steel tool because
a. It can resist more heat
b. It can keep the cutting point sharp
c. Cutting speed can be increased
d. All of the above
41. Thee feed in shaper takes place at

a. The beginning of return stroke
b. The beginning of cutting stroke
c. The middle of return stroke
d. The end of return stroke
42. Which of the following quick return mechanism is most widely used in most of the
slotters?
a. Slotter disc mechanism
b. Slotter link and gear mechanism
c. Hydraulic mechanism
d. With worth mechanism
43. In a slotter, the cutting speed depends upon the ____________.

a. Materials to be cut
b. Finish required
c. Material of the slotter tool
d. All of the above
44. Convex shaped slotter tools are used for machining

a. Concave surface
b. Conical surface
c. Convex surface
d. Flat surface
45. The clamp block used in a slotter to support the end of the trap is made of
a. High carbon steel
b. High speed steel
c. Lead wood
46. The table of slotter has feeding movements which is

a. Longitudinal
b. Cross
c. Rotary
d. All of the above
47. Divided table planer has ___________.

a. One table
b. One housing
c. Two tables
d. Two housing tables
48. In a planer the feed is provided

a. At forward stroke
b. At return stroke
c. In between forward stroke
d. In between return stroke
49. In a planer, the cutting speed depends upon the
a. Material of job material of tool and feed rate
b. rpm of ball gear
c. depth of cutting
d. none of the above
50. the planer tool differs from lathe tool because it has
a. less front and side clearance
b. more front and side clearance
c. less rake and angle
d. more rake and angle
1. A changing its 27. D on lathe mandrel

inclination 28. C 60°C
2. A left hand 29. B Tungsten
3. D square 30. D 0.001 mm
4. D none of the above 31. B inside micrometer
5. B 18% chromium and 32. C hypotenuse
8% nickel 33. B higher speed
6. A aluminum 34. A meter per minute
7. B fine grains 35. C away from the center
8. A dial test indicator of crank disc
9. A depth micrometer 36. A mm/stroke
10. B inside micrometer 37. A form
11. C thread plug gage 38. B 15mm
12. B minimum and 39. D 3:2
maximum 40. D all of the above
13. D all of the above 41. D the end of return
14. B honing stroke
15. D tool steel 42. D with worth
16. B case hardened mild mechanism
steel 43. D all of the above
17. D all of the above 44. A concave surface
18. B same direction 45. D wood
19. D all of the above 46. D all of the above
20. B 1:20 47. C two tables
21. B increase 48. B at return stroke
22. B feed 49. A material of job
23. B opposite direction material of tool and feed rate
24. D silicon carbide 50. A less front and side
25. D all of the above clearance
26. D pipe center
51.
Test 28
1. A planer which has a cutting action in on both strokes.

a. Open side planer
b. Pit planer
c. Double housing planer
d. Universal planer
2. The straddle milling is done by means of two __________.

a. Side milling cutters
b. Face milling cutters
c. Plain milling cutters
d. Form cutters
3. In a standard dividing head, the ration between the worm wheel and the worm is
a. 10:1
b. 20:1
c. 30:1
d. 40:1
4. In a standard dividing head, 3 holes in 27 holes circle will index __________.

a. 1°
b. 2°
c. 4°
d. 6°
5. There are two different movements of the crank in which type of indexing?
a. Angular
b. Compound
c. Differential
d. Simple
6. In a vertical milling machine, the spindle is situated ______ to work table.

a. At certain angle
b. Horizontal
c. Vertical
d. Adjacent
7. Planner type milling machine is built up for _____ work.

a. Heavy duty
b. Light duty
c. Medium duty
d. Ordinary
8. In a straddle milling operation, how many cutters are used ti mill the wok?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. More than three
9. For gear cutting, which of the following cutters is used?
a. End mill cutter
b. From relieve cutter
c. Plain milling cutter
d. all of the above
10. In a slotter, the table gets ______ different feeds.

a. Four
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five
11. If the clearance of a cutting edge is 5°, the lip angle is 75°, the rake angle will be
a. 10°
b. 70°
c. 80°
d. 60°
12. The approximate hardness of high speed steel and mill cutter is;
a. 45 HRC
b. 52 HRC
c. 62 HRC
d. 72 HRC
13. The over arm of a milling machine is used to support

a. Arbor
b. Column
c. Spindle
d. Table
14. Where does the feed motion take place in a slotting machine?
a. During the cutting motion
b. After each forward stroke
c. At the end return motion
d. After each double stroke
15. Which of the following conditions may cause error during knurling?
a. Clamped length of tool too short
b. Surface speed too low
c. Too much longitudinal feed
d. Unnecessary support with tail stock center
16. Mark the milling method during which the formation of chatter marks is very likely
a. During down cut milling with a straight too cutter
b. During face milling with a straight tooth cutter
c. During up cut milling with a straight tooth cutter
d. While using spiral tooth cutter
17. Taps are resharpened by grindings

a. Diameter
b. Flutes
c. Relief
d. Threads
18. Grinding fluids are used to

a. Reduce the friction between the wheel face and the job
b. Wash away chips
c. Prevent loading of wheel
d. All of the above
19. Balancing of grinding wheel is done to

a. Make the outside diameter concentric with the above
b. Make the sides of wheel parallel
c. Equalize the weight in every portion of the wheel
20. A grinding wheel, which has got the marking “C”, is made with what abrasive?
a. Aluminum oxide
b. Silicon carbide
c. Combination of “A” and “B”
d. Corundum
21. Which bond is suitable for wet grinding?

a. Rubber
b. Shellac
c. Silicate
22. Which kind of bond is commonly used?

a. Vitrified
b. Rubber
c. Shellac
d. Silicon
23. The grade of grinding wheel depends upon

a. Grain size
b. Hardness of bond
c. Kind of abrasive
d. Structure
24. One of the cause of grinding wheel glazing

a. Grain size is too fine
b. Wheel is hard
c. Wheel speed is too fast
d. “A” and “B” both
25. Which of the following is used to clean the gage blocks before and after use?
a. Brush
b. Chamois leather or linen cloth
c. Cotton waste
26. Internal and external type on cylindrical jobs are ground in

a. Plain cylindrical grinding machine
b. Universal cylindrical grinding machine
c. Internal grinding machine
d. Center less grinding machine
27. Mark the cuter which works simultaneously with the up cut and down cut process.
a. Semi-circular milling cuter
b. Shell and milling
c. Side milling cutter
d. Plain milling cutter
28. What happens if the job is loosely fitted between centers in cylindrical grindings?
a. The job will be cut out of round
b. The job will be thrown out
c. The job will be oversize
d. The job will not rotate
29. Where does the relieved cutters area reground?

a. On the circumstances
b. Relived cutters are not reground
c. On the flank
d. On the side faces
30. Used for scribing large radius of circles and arcs.
a. Compass
b. Protractor
c. Ruler
d. Trammel
31. Which of the following has its angle 30° and is used for giving sharp impression on
soft metals?
a. Center punch
b. Dot punch
c. Prick punch
d. Hollow punch
32. Which of the following has its angle 60° and is used for dotting after marking the lines
on general works?
a. Center punch
b. Dot punch
c. hollow punch
d. prick punch
33. Which of the following has its angle 90° and is used to give deep marks for the
location of drill?
a. Center punch
b. Dot punch
c. Hollow punch
d. Prick punch
34. It is used on soft metals and non-metals for making holes.

a. Center punch
b. Dot punch
c. Hollow punch
d. Prick punch
35. Reason why cast iron is selected for the manufacture of surface plate.
a. It is easy for machinery
b. It is cheaper
c. It has less wear and tear
d. All of the above
36. Common measuring tools are
a. Steel rule
b. Vernier caliper
c. Micrometer
d. All of the above
37. It is an operation of stretching and spreading over the metal by means of the .. of the
hammer
a. Peening
b. Swaging
c. Bending
d. Upsetting
38. The good quality of a measuring tool

a. Should be easy to handle
b. Should be easy to read
c. Should be wear resistance
d. All of the above
39. The flatness of surface can be checked

a. By using straight edge
b. By using surface plate
c. By using dial test indicator
40. All off the above is an operation in which round rod is placed between the top and
bottom wages and hammered to remove the bends and marks.
a. Bending
b. Peening
c. Swaging
d. Upsetting
41. A holding device, which is used to hold, or grip work piece, while filling, chipping or
any other bench work or while machining or drilling them.
a. Vise
b. Clamp
c. Grip
d. Pressed
42. A multi pointed hand anything tool used to remove material from metallic and non-
metallic work pieces to match with drawing, shape and size.
a. Cold chisel
b. File
c. Hacksaw
43. A side cutting tool used for accurately finishing the straight or tapered holes already
drilled or bored.
a. Reamer
b. Swaging
c. Peering
d. Tapping
44. A device used to fix two or more parts.

a. Jigs
b. Fixtures
c. Fastener
d. Clamp
45. A machine element inserted parallel to the axis of a shaft.

a. Fastener
b. Cotter
c. Key
46. A machine element inserted at right angle to the axis of shaft is known as
a. Fastener
b. Cotter
c. Key
d. Clamp
47. The process of extracting iron in a blast furnance is called

a. Sintering
b. Smelting
c. Casting
d. Manufacturing
48. Which of the following is a product of blast furnance?

a. Wrought iron
b. Cast iron
c. Pig iron
d. Gray iron
49. A type of iron, which contains 3 to 3.5% carbon either in, combined form or in …
state
a. Wrought iron
b. Cast iron
c. Pig iron
d. Gray iron
50. Which of the following furnance used for manufacture of cast iron?
a. Cupola furnance
b. Crucible furnance
c. Electric furnance
d. All of the above
1. D universal planer 24. D “A” and “B” both

2. A side milling cutters 25. B charnois leather or
3. D 40:1 linen cloth
4. A 1° 26. B universal cylindrical
5. B compound grinding machine
6. C vertical 27. B shell and milling
7. A heavy duty cutter
8. B two 28. A the job will be out of
9. B form relieve cutter round
10. C three 29. C on the flank
11. A 10° 30. D trammel
12. C 62 HRC 31. C prick punch
13. A arbor 32. B dot punch
14. D after each double 33. A center punch
stroke 34. C hollow punch
15. C too much longitudinal 35. D all of the above
feed 36. D all of the above
16. C during up cut milling 37. A peening
with a straight tooth cutter 38. D all of the above
17. B flutes 39. D all of the above
18. D all of the above 40. C swaging
19. C equalize the weight in 41. A vise
every portion of the wheel 42. B file
20. B silicon carbide 43. A reamer
21. C silicate 44. C fastener
22. A vitrified 45. C key
23. B hardness of bond
Test 29
1. A product of paddling furnace, which contains less than 0.10% carbon, is called:
A. wrought iron
B. cast iron
C. pig iron
D. gray cast iron
2. Which of the following is a property of wrought iron?

A. ductile
B. brittle
C. cannot be forged
D. can be easily cast into different shapes
3. Which of the following gives greater hardness, cutting toughness and fine grain structure?
A. Chromium
B. Nickel
C. Tungsten
D. Vanadium
4. Which of the following provides greater hardness, cutting toughness and resistance to wear
and tear?
A. Chromium
B. Tungsten
C. Nickel
D. Vanadium
5. Which of the following raises the tensile strength, protects from carbon corrosion and
improves wearing property?
A. Cobalt
B. Nickel
C. Molybdenum
D. Tungsten
6. ________ gives greater hardness and resistance to forging and drawing.

A. Molybdenum
B. Vanadium
C. Tungsten
D. Cobalt
7. ________ improves the cutting quality and gives excellent magnetic property in the steel.
A. Cobalt
B. Molybdenum
C. Nickel
D. Chromium
8. It is an operation involving heating and cooling of metals to change the properties.

A. annealing
B. nitriding
C. tempering
D. heat treatment
9. It is a process to impact maximum hardness to steel part.
A. hardening
B. tempering
C. annealing
D. normalizing
10. It is a process to reduce some brittleness and to induce some toughness in the steel part.
A. case hardening
B. normalizing
C. annealing
D. tempering
11. It is a process to soft the steel part y removing the internal stress.
A. normalizing
B. annealing
C. tempering
D. hardening
12. It is a process to make the steel part to its normal stage.

A. annealing
B. normalizing
C. case hardening
D. tempering
13. It is a process for making the outer surface harder of the steel part.
A. flame hardening
B. hardening
C. case hardening
D. carburizing
14. It is a case hardening process by which the carbon content of the steel near the surface of a
part is increased.
A. nitriding
B. tempering
C. carburizing
D. flame hardening
15. It is a case hardening process in which work piece is heated in a stream of ammonia at 500
to 550°C.
A. carburizing
B. nitriding
C. tempering
D. normalizing
16. The size by which it is referred to as a matter of convenience called:

A. basic size
B. actual size
C. nominal size
D. effective size
17. The size in relation to which all limits of variation is made.
A. actual size
B. basic size
C. effective size
D. nominal size
18. The relation between two mating parts with reference to ease the assembly is called:
A. allowance
B. clearance
C. tolerance
D. fit
19. Two extreme permissible sizes of dimension.

A. boundary
B. limits
C. tolerance
D. allowance
20. ________ is the difference between the high and low limit of a size.
A. clearance
B. allowance
C. tolerance
D. fit
21. It is the international difference in the sizes of mating parts.

A. allowance
B. clearance
C. limits
D. tolerance
22. It is an operation of finishing the flat and cylindrical surfaces to a fine degree of accuracy.
A. lapping
B. shaping
C. planing
D. honing
23. It is an operation of finishing the cylindrical surfaces to a fine degree of accuracy by means
of abrasive sticks.
A. lapping
B. planing
C. shaping
D. honing
24. It is a device, which hold the job in position and guide the cutting tool.
A. clamp
B. jig
C. vise
D. grip
25. It is a device, which holds the job firmly.

A. clamp
B. grip
C. fixture
D. jig
26. The movement of the belt upon the face rim or outer of the driver and driven pulleys within
the area of arc of contact is called:
A. slip
B. creep
C. crowning
D. dressing
27. If the belt is loosely fitted on pulleys, ________ slips down.

A. creep
B. crowning
C. dressing
D. slip
28. It is the outer surface on face or rim of the pulley and made in convex for to keep the belt in
center when it is in motion.
A. crowning
B. dressing
C. creep
D. slip
29. To avoid slip or creep, the resin powder or paste is poured in between the outer surface of
pulley and belt for increasing the tension. This procedure is known as:
A. crowning
B. dressing
C. creep
D. slip
30. It is used to transmit motion at high speed without producing noise.
A. bevel gears
B. hypoid gears
C. helical gears
D. worm gears
31. It is used to transmit motion at high speed with heavy load without producing noise.
A. worm gears
B. herringbone gears
C. bevel gears
D. spur gears
32. It is used to connect and disconnect the driving and driven units.
A. brakes
B. springs
C. clutch
D. coupling
33. It connects the shafts with soft materials such as rubber, leather and canvass.
A. universal coupling
B. flexible coupling
C. rigid coupling
D. Oldham coupling
34. What is used to connect the shafts whose axes are intersecting?
A. rigid coupling
B. Oldham coupling
C. flexible coupling
D. universal coupling
35. It is generally used on high speed with light load because it has point contact.
A. ball bearing
B. roller bearing
C. metal bearing
D. wood bearing
36. It is generally used on high speed with heavy load because it has line contact.
A. plastic bearing
B. metal bearing
C. roller bearing
D. ball bearing
37. It is a process by which the length of a work piece is increased by reducing its cross-
sectional area.
A. drawing out
B. drifting
C. jumping
D. upsetting
38. It is a process by which the length of a work piece is reduced.
A. upsetting
B. drawing out
C. drifting
D. jumping
39. Refers to the process by bulging on one end of a work piece to bring a required shape.
A. bending
B. upsetting
C. drifting
D. jumping
40. It is a process of enlarging and smoothing the punched hole by means of tapered drifts of
various sizes and shapes.
A. drifting
B. jumping
C. drawing out
D. upsetting
41. It is a machine tool used to remove metal from a work piece to give it the required shape
and size.
A. drill press
B. lathe
C. shaper
D. planer
42. It is a set of gears fitted in different positions on a plate, which are controlled by a lever.
A. gear train
B. stud gear
C. tumble gear
D. differential gear
43. It moves on the lathe bed with cutting tool according to the rotation of lead screw or by the
hand traversing wheel.
A. Apron
B. compound rest
C. saddle
D. mandrel
44. It acts the carriage or compound rest through the mechanism lifted inside the ________.
A. saddle
B. Apron
C. compound
D. mandrel
45. It gives the cutting tool longitudinal feed, cross feed or angular feed.
A. compound rest
B. Apron
C. saddle
D. carriers
46. A holding device used to hold the job properly when turning the outer surface truly with the
finished hole called:
A. clamp
B. fixture
C. jig
D. mandrel
47. The center that is fitted in head stock spindle called:
A. dead center
B. live center
C. below center
D. above center
48. A center, which is fitted in tail, stock spindle called:
A. dead center
B. live center
C. above center
D. below center
49. It is a machine tool used to produce flat surfaces, which may be horizontal, vertical or
inclined.
A. planer
B. slotter
C. shaper
D. milling
50. Which of the following gives shearing action?
A. slide rake
B. top rake
C. side clearances
D. front clearance
Answer:
1. A. wrought iron 26. B. creep

2. A. ductile 27. D. slip
3. A. chromium 28. A. crowning
4. D. vanadium 29. B. dressing
5. B. nickel 30. C. helical gears
6. A. Molybdenum 31. B. herringbone gears
7. A. Cobalt 32. C. clutch
8. D. heat treatment 33. B. flexible coupling
9. A. hardening 34. D. universal coupling
10. D. tempering 35. A. ball bearing
11. B. annealing 36. C. roller bearing
12. B. normalizing 37. A. drawing out
13. C. case hardening 38. D. jumping
14. C. carburizing 39. B. upsetting
15. B. nitriding 40. A. drifting
16. C. nominal size 41. B. lathe
17. B. basic size 42. C. tumble gear
18. D. fit 43. C. saddle
19. B. limits 44. B. Apron
20. C. tolerance 45. A. compound rest
21. A. allowance 46. D. mandrel
22. A. lapping 47. B. live center
23. D. honing 48. A. dead center
24. B. jig 49. C. shaper
25. C. fixture 50. B. top rake
Test 30
1. What supports the top rake?
A. front clearance
B. side clearance
C. side rake
2. What supports for free feeding?
A. side rake
B. side clearance
C. front clearance
D. top rake
3. Which of the following reduces the rubbing action?
A. front clearance
B. side clearance
C. side rake
D. top rake
4. It is a reciprocating type machine tool used for machining flat, cylindrical and irregular
surfaces.
A. planer
B. shaper
C. slotter
D. lathe
5. Which of the following is used for all general purposes?
A. production slotter
B. puncher slotter
C. tool room slotter
6. A machine tool used for large construction.
A. planer
B. shaper
C. slotter
D. lathe
7. It is a machine tool used to machine plane curved surfaces, slots, grooves, teeth, with a fast
rotating multipoint cutter.
A. milling
B. planer
C. shaper
D. grinder
8. It is also known as conventional milling in which the rotation of the cutter is in the direction
opposite to the direction of the table movement.
A. down-milling
B. up-milling
C. straddle milling
D. gang milling
9. It is also known as climb milling in which the rotation of the cutter and the movement to the
table is in the direction.
A. gang milling
B. down-milling
C. up-milling
D. straddle milling
10. It is an operation of milling the complex surfaces with the help of a group of cutters mounted
on the same arbor.
A. gang milling
B. straddle milling
C. climb milling
D. down-milling
11. It is an operation of milling two opposite sides of work piece at a time by using two side
milling cutters on the same arbor.
A. gang milling
B. straddle milling
C. side milling
D. face milling
12. It is an attachment to the milling machine, which helps to divide the job periphery into a
number of equal divisions.
A. indexing
B. dividing head
C. slotting
D. universal spiral
13. It is an operation to produce narrow slots or grooves using slitting saw milling cutter.
A. saw milling
B. form milling
C. end milling
D. side milling
14. It is an operation to produce irregular contours using a form cutter.

A. face milling
B. form milling
C. side milling
D. end milling
15. It is an operation to divide the periphery of the job into number of equal parts accurately.
A. dividing head
B. indexing
C. slotting
16. The angle formed between the face of a tool and the work surface or the tangent to the work
piece at the point of contact with the tool called:
A. clearance angle
B. cutting angle
C. rake angle
D. wedge angle
17. It is a device, which is used to change the piece of a piece by removing material in the form
of chips.
A. cutting tool
B. machine tool
C. chisel
D. hacksaw
18. The angle formed the face and the normal to the work piece at the point of contact with the
tool.
A. clearance angle
B. cutting angle
C. wedge angle
D. rake angle
19. The angle formed between the face and the clearance surface.
A. wedge angle
B. rake angle
C. clearance angle
D. cutting angle
20. The angle formed between the clearance surface and the work surface or the tangent to the
work piece at the point of contact with the tool.
A. clearance angle
B. wedge angle
C. rake angle
D. cutting angle
21. The best method of avoiding accident is by observing ________ related to a machine and
work piece.
A. emery
B. opponent
C. safety precautions
D. cleanliness
22. The size of try square is measured from the inner edge of stock to the end of its _______.
A. base
B. blade
C. edge
D. body
23. The angle of center punch is:
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°
24. Mallets are made of ________.
A. hard wood
B. soft wood
C. steel
D. cast iron
25. The size of bench vise is measured from the ________ of its jaws.
A. width
B. length
C. thickness
D. curvature
26. For cutting oil grooves in bearing, ________ chisel is used.
A. full round nose

B. half round nose
C. square nose
D. rectangular
27. Staggering of hacksaw blade teeth on both sides alternatively is called:
A. positioning to teeth
B. arrangement of teeth
C. setting of teeth
28. The size of a flat file is measured from ________ to heel of the fire.
A. edge
B. base
C. tip
D. body
29. A triangular scraper has ________ sharp cutting edges.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
30. Reamer should also be turned in ________ direction when taking it out.
A. same direction
B. opposite direction
C. clockwise
D. counterclockwise
31. It is the distance measured parallel to the axis from a point on a screw thread to the
corresponding point on the next thread.
A. lead
B. pitch
C. linear
D. chord
32. Cupola furnace is used to produce ________.
A. cast iron
B. cast steel
C. aluminum
D. stainless steel
33. Percentage of carbon in high carbon steel is:
A. 0.10% to 0.50%
B. 0.70% to 1.50%
C. 3% to 7%
D. 5% to 10%
34. It is done to decrease the brittleness and to increase the toughness.
A. annealing
B. normalizing
C. tempering
D. nitriding
35. Hatchet stop is attached to measure the accurate reading by applying ________ pressure
irrespective of user’s skill and strength.
A. atmospheric
B. gage
C. uniform
D. variable
36. A hole, which is drilled for a perpendicular size of a tap, is called:
A. drilling hole
B. reaming hole
C. tapping hole
D. plugging hole
37. ________ gage is used to check the clearance between the mating parts.
A. feeler
B. plug
C. tap
D. dial
38. ________ gage is used to check the size of hole/bore.
A. feeler
B. plug
C. tap
D. dial
39. The difference between the high limit and the low limit of a size is called:
A. allowance
B. clearance
C. boundary
D. tolerance
40. An intentional difference between the hole and the shaft dimensions for any type of fit is
called:
A. allowance
B. clearance
C. tolerance
D. range
41. The material for laps should be ________ than the material of part to be tapped.
A. harder
B. shorter
C. softer
D. longer
42. Jigs are generally used for holding the job and ________ the tool.
A. support
B. guide
C. control
D. regulate
43. Measuring and other setting methods can be eliminated by using ________ and fixtures.
A. guide
B. support
C. jigs
D. structure
44. When two or more tools are to be used through the same hole then ________ bushes are
used in jigs.
A. positive slip
B. negative slip
C. friction
D. slip
45. The ________ gears are used for changing the plane direction.
A. spur
B. helical
C. worm
D. bevel
46. Solder is an alloy of ________.
A. lead and zinc

B. lead and tin
C. lead and tungsten
D. lead and antimony
47. Flash point is the ______ at which the sufficient vapor is given off from the off without actual
setting fire to the oil.
A. gage temperature
B. lower temperature
C. higher temperature
D. absolute
48. When hard material; is to be drilled, the cutting edge of drill is should be ________ 118°.
A. less than
B. equal to
C. more than
D. either more than or less than
49. If the taper tank of the drill is too large as compared to the spindle hole, then ________ is
used.
A. drill socket
B. planer
C. electric drill
D. copping saw
50. What is the slip clearance angle of twist drill for generated work?
A. 3 - 6°
B. 8 - 10°
C. 12 - 15°
D. 18 - 22°
Answer:
1. A. front clearance 26. B. half round nose

2. B. side clearance 27. C. setting of teeth
3. A. front clearance 28. C. tip
4. C. slotter 29. C. three
5. B. puncher slotter 30. C. clockwise
6. A. planer 31. B. pitch
7. A. milling 32. A. cast iron
8. B. up-milling 33. B. 0.70% to 1.50%
9. B. down-milling 34. C. tempering
10. A. gang milling 35. C. uniform
11. B. straddle milling 36. C. tapping hole
12. B. dividing head 37. A. feeler
13. A. saw milling 38. B. plug
14. B. form milling 39. D. tolerance
15. B. indexing 40. A. allowance
16. B. cutting angle 41. C. softer
17. A. cutting tool 42. B. guide
18. D. rake angle 43. C. jigs
19. A. wedge angle 44. D. slip
20. A. clearance angle 45. D. bevel
21. C. safety precautions 46. B. lead and tin
22. B. blade 47. B. lower temperature
23. D. 90° 48. B. equal to
24. A. hard wood 49. C. electric drill
25. A. width 50. C. 12 - 15°
Test 31
1. A machine for shaping a work piece by gripping it in a holding device and rotating it under
power against a suitable cutting tool for turning, boring facing or threading.
a. Shaper
b. Lathe
c. Planer
d. Engine lathe
2. A machine for the removal of metal by feeding a work piece through the periphery of a
rotating circular cutter.
a. Milling machine
b. Milling planer
c. Milling cutter
d. Milling shaper
3. It is a machine tool used for cutting flat-on-flat an toured surfaces by reciprocating a single-
point tool across the work piece.
a. Planer
b. Shearing machine
c. Shaper
d. Slab cutter
4. It is a machine for the shaping of long, flat or flat countered surfaces by reciprocating the
work piece under a stationary single-point tool or tools.
a. Planer
b. Shaper
c. Lathe
d. Turret lathe
5. It is the machine used for shaping of metal or plastic by pushing or pulling a broaching
across a surface or through an existing hole in a work piece.
a. Planning
b. Shaping
c. Broaching
d. Milling
6. It is a device usually motor-driven, fitter with an end cutting tool that is rotated with sufficient
power either to create a hole or enlarge an existing hole in a solid material.
a. Drill jigs
b. until press
c. Drill chuck
d. Drilling machine
7. It is a machine tool designed to machine internal work such as cylinders, holes in castings,
and dies, type are horizontal, vertical jig and single.
a. Boring machine
b. Broaching machine
c. Drilling machine
d. Boring mil
8. It is milling method in which parts placed in a row parallel to the axis of the cutting tool end
are milled simultaneously.
a. Abreast milling
b. Angular milling
c. Helical milling
9. A core drill with hardened steel shot pellets that revolve under the rim of the rotating tube,
employed ion rotary drilling in very hard ground.
a. Automatic drill
b. Double core barrel drill
c. Flat drill
d. Adamantine drill
10. The part of a machine for wood planning that carries the cutters
a. Adz stock
b. Adz Stock
c. Head Stock
d. Hell Block
11. A grinding mill of large diameter with either lumps of ore, pebbles, or steel balls at crushing
bodies the dry lead is air swept to remove mesh material.
a. Aero fall mill
b. Aero motor
c. Aerial speed
d. Ball mill
12. A tool –steel cutter used for finishing surfaces of angles greater or less than 900 with its axis
of rotation called________
a. Circular cutter
b. Helical cuter
c. Angle cutter
d. Asphalt cutter
13. Milling surfaces that are flat and at an angle to the exist of the spindle of the milling machine
called.
a. Hammer milling
b. Helical milling
c. Angular milling
d. Circular milling
14. It is a hole in revolving cutter or grinding wheel for mounting it on an arbor.

a. Hole saw
b. Arbor hole
c. Star drill
d. Peep hole
15. A machine sued for forcing an arbor or a mandtel into-drilled or borred parts preparatory for
turning or grinding.
a. Automatic press
b. Bladder press
c. Arc press
d. Arbor press
16. A solid grinder and the product is a fine powder.

a. Atomizer mill
b. Autogenously mill
c. Attrition mill
d. Ball mill
17. A machine in which materials are pulverized between two toothed metal disks rotating in
opposite directions.
a. Attrition mill
b. Tumbling mill
c. Ball mill
d. Beater mill
18. A straight brace for bits whose shank comprises a coarse – pitch screws sliding in a
threaded tube with handle at the end of the device is operated by pushing the handle called.
a. Automatic capacity
b. Automatic drill
c. Automatic regulatory
d. Automatic stocker
19. A press in which mechanical feeding of the work is synchronized with the press action.
a. Dial press
b. Punch press
c. Automatic press
d. Manual press
20. A supporting member that carries a wheel and either rotates with the wheel to transmit
mechanical power to or from it, or allows the wheel to rotate freely on it called:
a. Shaft
b. Axle
c. Bushing
d. Coupling
21. A portable sanding tool having a power –driven abrasive coated continuous belt called.
a. Bench sander
b. Belt heightener
c. Gear sadder
d. Belt sander
22. Machine for bending a metal or wooden part by pressure is known as

a. Pressing machine
b. Bending machine
c. Forming machine
d. Shaping machine
23. Machine, which simultaneously molds and cures a pneumatic tire is called
a. Bladder press
b. Crank press
c. Automatic press
d. Manual press
24. A file whose edges are parallel is known as

a. Crochet file
b. Cross-cut file
c. Equating file
d. Blunt file
25. Slightly rounding a cutting edge to reduce the probability of edge chipping is referred to as
a. Broaching
b. Butting
c. Blunting
d. Bleaching
26. A rigid tool holder to machine internal surfaces is called:

a. Boring bar
b. Boring mill
c. Broaching machine
d. Corrugated bar
27. Which of the following is a boring machine tool used particularly for large work piece, types
are horizontal and vertical?
a. Boring mill
b. Burrstone mill
c. Cage mill
d. Chile mill
28. A flat – ended twist drill designed to convert a cone at the bottom of a chilled hole into a
cylinder is called.
a. Churn drill
b. Core drill
c. Bottoming drill
d. Spiral drill
29. A tap with a chamfer 1 – 1½ threads in length.

a. Center tap
b. Bottom tap
c. Taper tap
d. Plug tap
30. Small portable hand drill customarily used by hand setters to drill the holes is called:
a. Diamond drill
b. Spirel drill
c. Chum drill
d. Breast drill
31. ______ type shaper, the reciprocating movement of the arm is effected by __ of a rack and
pinion.
a. Gear
b. Thread
c. Screw
d. Bolt
32. Hydraulic shaper the reciprocating movement of the ram is obtained through _____
pressure.
a. Mercury
b. Oil
c. Water
d. Alcohol
33. Which is fixed away from the table, can be machined by

a. Running head
b. Moving head
c. Travelling head
d. Statis head
34. Stroke positioning lever is located on the ______ of shaper.

a. Level
b. Table
c. Ram
d. Chunk
35. Length of shaper stroke is the length of job plus ________.

a. Displacement
b. Tolerance
c. Allowance
d. Clearance
36. ____arm is a ___________ part of shaper.

a. Oscillating
b. Reciprocating
c. Moving
d. running
37. In a shaper, the ________ strokes takes place.

a. Backward
b. Forward
c. Return
d. Cutting
38. In shaper, the tool is fed at the end of _____ stroke.

a. Cutting
b. Return
c. Backward
d. Forward
39. Generally, shaper tool cuts metal on the _________ strokes.

a. Backward
b. Cutting
c. Forward
d. Return
40. Generally, shaper is used for machining ________ surfaces.

a. Curve
b. Flat
c. Rough
d. Smooth
41. Shaper tools are made of

a. Mild steel
b. Cast iron
c. High speed steel
d. Wrought iron
42. For machining cast iron in shaper, the tool is ground with _______ rake angle.
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. 30o
d. 45o
43. Which of the following best describe a milling machine?

a. It is a machine equipment
b. It is a machine tool.
c. It is a machine device
d.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
Answer:
1. B. lathe 26. A. boring bar

2. A. milling machine 27. A. boring mill
3. C. shaper 28. C. bottoming drill
4. A. planer 29. B. bottom tap
5. C. broaching 30. D. breast drill
6. D. drilling machine 31. A. gear
7. B. broaching machine 32. B. oil
8. A. abreast milling 33. C. traveling head
9. D. adamantine drill 34. C. ram
10. B. Adz block 35. D. clearance
11. A. Aero fall mill 36. A. oscillating
12. C. angle cutter 37. D. cutting
13. C. angular milling 38. B. return
14. B. arbor hole 39. C. forward
15. D. arbor press 40. B. flat
16. A. atomizer mill 41. C. high speed steel
17. A. attrition mill 42. A. negative
18. B. automatic drill 43. B. it is a machine tool
19. C. automatic press 44. D. return
20. B. axle 45. B. hold
21. D. belt sander 46. B. heavy
22. B. bending machine 47. B. rough
23. A. bladder press 48. D. diamond
24. D. blunt file 49. A. loading
25. C. blunting 50. D. four
Test 32
1. Refers to the unit that can be moved longitudinally along the swivel table and is clamped
in position by two bolts one can either side of the base.
a. Foot stock
b. Head stock
c. Tail stock
d. Cross stock
2. An instrument used for determining the relative hardness of materials by a drop and
rebound method.
a. Scleroscope
b. Rockwell hardness tester
c. Universal testing machine
d. Brinell hardness tester
3. An instrument used for measuring the degree of surface roughness in micro inches.
a. Caliper
b. Micrometer
c. Profilometer
d. Scleroscope
4. Refers to the portion of the circumference of a grinding wheel touching the work being
ground.
a. Area of contact
b. Arc of contact
c. Angle of contact
d. Contact ratio
5. The spindle of the grinding on which the wheel is mounted.

a. Bushing
b. Arbor
c. bearing
d. Fluting
6. Device for holding grinding wheels of special shape or the working piece-grounded.
a. Head stock
b. Fixtures
c. Digs
d. Chuck
7. _____ the grooves of a twist drill or tap.

a. Fluting
b. Flaring
c. Lapping
d. Honing
8. ______ of the cutting particles of a grinding wheel resulting in a decreased of cutting is

called
a. Grinding
b. Clazing
c. Fluting
d. Lapping
9. ____ the gates, fins and sprues from casting is termed as

a. Honing
b. Humbling
c. Snagging
d.
10. Process of increasing the cross-sectional area of a given portion or possibly whole
piece.
a. Forging
b. Upsetting
c. Spreading
d. Drawing
11. Process of lengthening a piece of stock while the cross-sectional area is reduced.
a. Lapping
b. Honing
c. Drawing
d. Upsetting
12. An alloy of copper, tin, and antimony.

a. Bearing
b. Babbitt
c. Iconel
d. Titanium
13. Sometimes used for soldering bright tin.

a. Tallow
b. Sal ammoniac
c. Tinning
d. Rosin
14. A very effective flux for soldering galvanized iron and zinc.
a. Soldering pastes
b. Muriatic acid
c. Zinc chloride
d. Cut acid
15. The process of checking the surface of a piece by rolling depressions into the surface.
a. Honing
b. Knurfling
c. Snagging
d. Reaming
16. The groove providing for the cutting faces of the threads or teeth, chip passage, and
lubrication.
a. Heel
b. Land
c. Flute
d. Thread relief
17. The process of cutting internal threads by means of a cutting toll

a. Tapping
b. Reaming
c. Chamfering
d. Honing
18. The operation of producing a circular hole by removing solid metal.

a. Knurfling
b. Reaming
c. Boring
d. Drilling
19. The surface below the cutting edge

a. Face
b. Flank
c. Nose
d. Side relief
20. The surface over which the chip flows.

a. Nose
b. Flank
c. Face
21. Measures the downward slope of the top surface of the tool from the nose to a rear
along the longitudinal axis.
a. Slide cutting edge angle
b. End relief angle
c. Side rake angle
d. Back rake angle
22. Which one is the hardest material?

a. Steel
b. Diamond
c. Bronze
d. Brass
23. Measures the slope of the top surface of the tool to the side in a direction perpendicular
to the longitudinal axis.
a. Side rake angle
b. Side cutting edge angle
c. Side relief edge angle
d. End relief angle
24. Bonding material, which is made of clay and water.

a. Resinoid bond
b. Nitrified bond
c. Shellac bond
d. Rubber bond
25. Process of producing an extremely accurate highly finished surface.
a. Lapping
b. Muffing
c. Polishing
d. Honing
26. It is surface finishing process by which scratches and tool marks are removed with a
polishing wheel.
a. Honing
b. Lapping
c. Polishing
d. Buffing
27. It is used for holding straight shank drills in the spindle of the machine when drilling.
a. Drill chuck
b. Chuck key
c. Floating holder
d. Magic chuck
28. Continuous chips are formed when cutting

a. Brittle materials
b. Ductile materials
c. Amorphous plastic materials
d. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only
29. The rake angle of a cutting tool

a. Controls the chip formation
b. Prevents rubbing
c. Determine the profile tool
d. Determine whether the cutting action is oblique or orthogonal
30. Back rake angle for H.S.S. single point cutting tool to machine free cutting brass is.
a. 0o
b. 5o
c. 10o
d. 15o
31. In the list of processes given below, the chip removal process is the
a. Die casting
b. Extruding
c. Forging
d. Broaching
32. A twist drill has its point thinned in order to

a. Reduce the hole diameter
b. Increase the rake angle
c. Locate in the center punch mark
d. Reduce the axial pressure
33. The list of process given below, the non-chip removal process is
a. Grinding
b. Spinning on lathe
c. Thread cutting
d. Milling
34. Hammer is used to correct the

a. Size and roundness of a drilled hole
b. Size and position of a drilled hole
c. Finish and position of a drilled hole
d. Finish and depth of a drilled hole
35. Powersize hole is produced by a drill if

a. Lips of a drill are of unequal length
b. Leed is to high
c. Insufficient coolant is used
d. Cutting speed is too high
36. _____ carbide tipped tools can machine metal even when their cutting ____ get heated
up to the temperature of
a. 1650oC
b. 1000oC
c. 1400oC
d. 1800oC
37. ______ carbide tools are usually provided with

a. Positive back rake angle
b. Neutral back rake angle
c. Negative back rake angle
38. ___ angle of twist drill to machine steel is

a. 12o
b. 16 o
c. 18 o
d. 20 o
39. ___ speed of H.S.S. twist drill to machine gray cast iron is
a. -20 m/min
b. -25 m/min
c. -30 m/min
d. 25-40 m/min
40. The recommended value of rake angle for machining aluminum with cutting tools made
up of diamond tool.
a. 0o
b. 15 o
c. 35 o
d. 45 o
41. The cutting speeds of H.S.S. milling cutter to machine aluminum is

a. 140-200 m/min
b. 160-220 m/min
c. 180-240 m/min
d. 200-260 m/min
42. The major factors, which determine the rpm of milling cutter, are the material being cut
and the _________.
a. Number of teeth in cutter
b. Diameter of cutter
c. Time allowed to complete the job
d. Depth of cutter
43. Friction between chip and tool may be reduced by

a. Increased sliding velocity
b. Increased shear angle
c. Use of low tool finish
44. The studs used as a coolant in general machine shop consists of

a. A solution of detergent and water
b. A straight mineral oil
c. An emulsion of oil and water
d. A chemical solution
45. The recommended value of rake angle for machining with cutting tools made up of high
speed steel tool.
a. 5o
b. 10 o
c. 15 o
d. 35 o
46. Milling cutter is sharpened on

a. Tool and cutter grinder
b. Cylindrical grinder
c. Centerless grinder
d. Surface grinder
47. Electron beam machining process is quite suitable for a material having
a. High melting point and high thermal conductivity
b. High melting point and low thermal conductivity
c. Low melting point and low thermal conductivity
d. Low melting point and high thermal conductivity
48. A process can be considered as a hot working process if the material is heated
a. Below recrystallization temperature
b. Above recrystallization temperature
c. Below normal temperature
d. Above normal temperature
49. Grinding is
a. Metal fusing operation
b. Metal powdering operation
c. Metal finishing operation
50. Grinding is done wherever

a. Other machining operations cannot be carried out
b. A large amount of material is to be removed
c. High accuracy is required
d. None of these
Answer:
1. B. head stock 27. A. drill chuck

2. A. Scieroscope 28. B. ductile materials
3. C. profilometer 29. A. controls the chip formatom
4. B. arc of contact 30. A. 0°
5. B. arbor 31. D. broaching
6. D. chuck 32. D. reduce the axial pressure
7. A. fluting 33. B. spinning of late size
8. B. glazing 34. A. size and roughness of a drilled hole
9. C. snagging 35. A. lips of drill are of unequal length
10. B. upsetting 36. B. 1000°C
11. C. drawing 37. C. negative back rake angle
12. B. Babbitt 38. C. 118°
13. D. rosin 39. D. 25 – 40 m/min
14. B. muriatic acid 40. A. 0°
15. B. knurling 41. C. 180 – 240 m/min
16. C. flute 42. C. time allowed to complete the job
17. A. tapping 43. A. increased sliding velocity
18. D. drilling 44. C. an emulsion of oil and water
19. B. flank 45. D. 35°
20. C. face 46. A. tool and cutter grinder
21. D. back rake angle 47. B. High melting point and low thermal
22. B. diamond conductivity
23. A. side rake anlge 48. B. above recrystallization
24. B. vitrified bond 49. C. metal finishing
25. A. lapping 50. High accuracy is required.
26. C. polishing
TEST 33 - Machine Shop Practice
1. The recommended value of the rake angle for machining aluminum with cutting tools made up
of cement carbide tool.
A. 5° B. 10° C. 15° D. 25°
2. Laser beam machining process is used to machine:
A. Thicker materials B. thinner materials C. heavier materials D. stronger materials
3. The size of abrasive grains in abrasive a jet machining varies from:
A. 60 to 100 microns B. 10 to 50 microns C. 1 to 5 microns D. 20 to 40 microns
4. In collet, the included angle of taper is usually:
A. 10° B. 20° C. 30° D. 40°
5. Straight fluted drills are used to drill _________ materials.
A. Soft B. hard C. thin D. thick
6. Twist drills are usually considered suitable machining holes having a length less than:
A. Two times their diameter
B. Five times their diameter
C. Ten times their diameter
D. Twenty times their diameter
7.
8. The relative motion of work piece in planning is:
A. Rotary B. Translator C. rotary and translator D. none of
the above
9. the accuracy obtained by the grinding process can be of the order of:
A. 0.25 mm B. 0.025 mm C. 0.0025 mm D. 0.00025 mm
10. Quick return mechanism of shaping machine, the ram stroke length is proportional to:
A. Slotter arm length B. Crank length C. Ram length D. None of these
11. Usual ratio of forward and return stroke in quick return mechanism of -------ing machine is:
12. Amount of metal removed by honing process is less than:
A. 125 mm B. 225 mm C. 325 mm D. 425 mm
13. E.C.M. process normal current requirement is:
14. The voltage applied between tool (cathode) and work piece (anode) in E.C.M. process is:
A. 30 – 50 V B. 60 – 90 V C. 3 – 20 V D. none of above
15. The diameter (D) of a plain milling cutter is approximately related to arbor diameter (d) as:
A. D = 1.5d to 2d B. D = 2.5d to 3d C. D = 4.5d to 6d D. D = 5.5d to 8d
16. The type and number of bearings to be used for spindles of machine tool depend on the:
A. Type of spindle
B. Type of machine tool
C. Load on the bearing
17. H.S.S. cutting tools are generally provided with:
A. Positive rake angle
B. Negative rake angle
C. Positive cutting edge angle
D. Negative cutting edge angle
18. Cemented carbide and ceramic cutting tools are usually provide with:
A. Positive rake angle
B. Negative rake angle
C. Positive cutting edge angle
D. Negative cutting edge angle
19. Coefficient of friction in anti-friction guide ways is:
A. High B. low C. medium D. none of the above
20. Nitriding process of surface treatment for steel tools is used for tools taking:
A. Light cuts B. heavy cuts C. medium cuts D. none of the
above
21. A very low cutting speeds the tool wear is due to:
A. Plowing action B. transfer C. material D. temperature
22. The mixtures of lard, cotton seed or rape-seed oils and mineral oils.
A. Cutting oils B. cooling oils C. heating oils D. emulsions
23. How is aluminum work piece marked?
A. Ball pen B. lead pencil C. crayon D. chalk
24. How the height of a bench vice is adjusted?
A. By using a wooden plate form
B. By using a wooden packing piece under the vice base
C. By using a vice adjusting fixture
D. All of the above
25. What is the material of hacksaw blade?
A. High carbon steel
B. High speed steel
C. Low tungsten steel
D. Any of the above
26. Why hacksaw blade teeth get dull?
A. Coarse pitch blade is used on hard metal B. too much speed and pressure
C. Pressure is not released in return stroke D. any of the above
27.
28. How are rivets made?
A. Cold pressing B. Rolling C. Drawing D. None of these
29. It is a case hardening process in which work piece is heated in a steam of ammonia at 500 to
550°C.
A. Quenching B. Annealing C. Tempering D. Nitriding
30. It is used to measure gap between two mating parts to set all the job and machine in
alignment and to measure clearance of piston and cylinder in automobiles.
A. Compound gauge B. Feeler gauge C. Inspection gauge D. Workshop gauge
31. The movement of belt upon the face of rim or outer surface of the driver and driven pulleys
within the area of arc of contact,
A. Slip B. Creep C. Interference D. Crowning
32. The temperature at which oil gives off sufficient vapor without actually setting fire to the oil.
A. Flash point B. Fire point C. Pour point D. Cloud point
33. It is the process by which the length of a work piece is reduced.
A. Drawing B. Drifting C. Jumping D. Upsetting
34. It cannot be forged because it will break if heated and beaten by hammer.
A. High speed steel B. Tool steel C. Carbon steel D. Cast iron
35. Is a process of enlarging and smoothing the punched hole by means of ------red drifts of
various sizes and shapes.
A. Drifting B. Drawing C. Upsetting D. Jumping
36. The process by which the length of a work piece is increase by reducing its cross-sectional
area.
A. Flattening B. Drawing out C. Swaging D. Jumping
37. -------er tools are made of what type of material?
A. Brass B. Bronze C. high speed steel D. Babbitt
38. __________ is a reciprocating type tool used for machining flat, cylindrical -----egular
surfaces.
39. ----ation to enlarge the previously drilled hole.
40. An operation to make smaller hole in exact center for lathe center.
A. Broaching B. Reaming C. Courier boring D. Center drilling
41. It is the operation of beveling the mouth of a hole.
A. Counter sinking B. Counter boring C. Spot facing D. Counter broaching
42. It is the operation of smoothing and squaring the surface around the hole.
A. Reaming B. Counter sinking C. Spot facing D. Counter boring
43. The size of abrasive grains produced by crushing process is called:
A. Grade B. Grit C. Peebles D. none of these
44. It is the combination of iron, carbon and other alloying elements.
A. Cast iron B. Brass C. Carbon steel D. Alloy
steel
45. The main purpose of __________ is to resist wear and unable it to cut the other metal.
A. Tempering B. Hardening C. Quenching D. Normalizing
46. Lip clearance angle for drilling soft materials should be __________ that for drilling hard
materials.
A. Less than B. equal to C. more than D. zero
47. It is also known as slab peripheral milling.
A. Form milling B. Climb milling C. Convex milling D. Plain milling
48. In __________, the tool is released in return stroke.
A. Shaper B. Planer C. Slotter D. Reamer
49. The process of dividing the periphery of the job in degrees.
A. Direct indexing B. Plain indexing C. Differential indexing D. Angular indexing
50. Also known as conventional milling in which the rotation of the cutter is in a ----ion opposite to
the direction of the table movement.
Answers to Test 33-Machine Shop Practice
1. C 15° 26. D any of the above

2. B thinner materials 27. D all of the above
3. B 10 to 50 microns 28. A cold pressing
4. C 30° 29. D nit riding
5. A soft 30. B feeler gauge
6. B five times their diameter 31. B creep
7. B soft materials 32. A flash point
8. B translator 33. C jumping
9. D 0.00025 mm 34. D cast iron
10. B crank length 35. A drifting
11. A 3:2 36. B drawing out
12. A 0.125 mm 37. C high speed steel
13. D 800 amps/cm2 of work piece area 38. D slotter
14. C 3-20 V 39. B boring
15. B D = 2.5d to 3d 40. D center drilling
16. C load on the bearing 41. A counter sinking
17. A positive rake angle 42. C spot facing
18. B negative rake angle 43. B Grit
19. B low 44. D alloy steel
20. A light cuts 45. B hardening
21. A plowing action 46. C more than
22. A cutting oils 47. D plain milling
23. B lead pencil 48. A shaper
24. D all of the above 49. D angular indexing
25. D any of the above 50. B up milling
TEST 34 – Machine Shop Practice
1. It is also known as climb milling in which the rotation of the cutter and the movement of the
table is in the same direction.
A. down milling B. up milling C. Straddle milling D. Gang milling
2. The __________ is a machine tool used to remove metal from a work piece to give it the
required shape and size.
A. Shaper B. Planer C. Lathe D. Grinder
3. It is the method of grinding cylindrical surfaces.
A. Centerless grinding
B. Plunge-cut grinding
C. Through feed grinding
4. It is the angle between the side cutting edge and the longitudinal axis of the tool.
A. Side cutting edge angle
B. End cutting edge angle
C. Side relief angle
D. End relief angle
5. It is a surface finishing process and is used to produce a lustrous surface of attractive
appearance.
A. Polishing B. Buffing C. Lapping D. Glazing
6. It consists of surface irregularities, which result from the various manufacturing process.
A. Lay B. Waveness C. Flaws D. Roughness
7. __________ is formed when a shaft rotates in a bush, lines or the bore of a ---using.
A. Ball bearing B. roller bearing C. Plain bearing D.
needle bearing
8. CNC in machine shop means:
A. Computer number control
B. Computer numerical control
C. Communication network control
D. Computer network center
9. It is the time lost due to break downs, weighting for tools, minor accidents, etc.
A. Set up time B. Handling time C. Machining time D. Down time
10. Refers to the process of separating or removing the burning or combustible material from the
neighborhood of the fire.
A. Starvation B. Blanketing C. Cooling D. None of the above
11. When does a chisel get blunt?
A. When it is properly heat treated
B. When it is not properly heat treated
C. When it is properly tempered
D. When it is not properly tempered
12. What is it necessary to provide tolerance?
A. It saves the labor charges
B. It saves the material from wastage
C. It saves the time
D. All of the above
13. It is done then and there by adjusting or repairing the faults come in notice during the work.
A. Preventive maintenance
B. Predictive maintenance
C. Routine maintenance
D. Corrective maintenance
14. A __________ is used between the cutting tool and work piece to minimize the friction heat.
A. Lubricant B. Coolant C. Water D. Alcohol
15. Which of the following is NOT a function of bearings?
A. To support the shaft B. To guide the shaft
C. To give free rotation to the shaft D. to transmit power
16. It is a process of cleaning a face of grinding wheel by means of a dresser for removing the
glazing and loading of wheel and to improve the cutting action of a wheel.
A. Dressing B. Polishing C. Truing D. Lapping
17. What should be the top rake angle to cut brass?
A. 0° B. 15° C. 30° D. 45°
18. It is a long, tapered punch used for loosening straight pins, taper pins, rivets and ---er small
parts being disassembled.
A. Drive –pin punch B. hand punch C. Drift punch D. center punch
19. Tool used for turning nuts or bolts.
A. Pliers B. Wrench C. Long nose D. C-clamps
20. Sharp pointed steel tool used to scribe lines on metal being laid out.
A. Divider B. Scriber C. Trammel D. Hermaphrodite caliper
21. ____________ is used to test the accuracy of holes.
A. Snap gage B. ring gage C. plug gage D. depth gage
22. ___________ consists of a hardened and ground steel bar in which two -----ened and ground
plugs of the same diameter are set.
A. Caliper B. gage block C. sine bar D. micrometer
23. __________ consists of a slide and a swivel vise mounted on the -----ound rest in place of
the tool post.
A. Milling attachment B. relieving attachment C. grinding attachment D. ------
24. __________ are hardened steel devices with a taper shank on one end and a 60 – degree
point at the other end.
A. Tailstock B. Lathe centers C. Live centers D. Dead
center
25. It is a work – holding device.
A. Arbor B. Mandrel C. Jigs D. Fixtures
26. The cutting of groove next to a shoulder on a piece of work.
A. Undercutting B. Necking C. Grooving D. Any of the above
27. The operation of producing a beveled edge at a specified angle on the end of a turned
diameter.
A. Chamfering B. Knurling C. Honing D. Undercutting
28. It is a large casting located on the left end of the bed.
A. Tailstock B. Head stock C. Carriage D. Chuck
29. A __________ is a thread that has a lead equal to pitch.
A. Right hand thread B. Left hand thread C. Single thread D. Multiple thread
30. The distance between the crest and the base of the thread, measured perpendicular to the
axis.
A. Depth of thread
B. Length of engagement
C. Depth of engagement
D. Axis of thread
31. Used to permit lever shift for vertical travel of rail:
A. Ball crank B. clamp plates C. plunger knob D. none of
the above
32. It is mounted on the top of the column and is guided in perfect alignment by the machined
dovetailed surfaces.
A. Over arm B. Spindle C. Arbor D. Saddle
33. Refers to circular milling attachment that is bottled to the top of the table of a ---n or universal
milling machine.
34. A process of removing burrs and the gates and risers left on castings after the ----ing
process.
A. Reaming B. Snagging C. Honing D. Knurling
35. ____________ supports the table on the cross rail and moves across it from right.
36.
37. A tool used for measuring diameters.
A. Protractor B. Scriber C. Caliper D. Compass
38. A fine grained, slaty silica rock used for sharpening edged tools.
A. Oilstone B. Surface grinder C. Rocky oil D. None of the above
39. Device used to prevent leakage of media.
A. Gasket B. Seal C. Shield D. Stopper
40. Flexible material used to seal pressurized fluids normally under dynamic conditions.
A. Packing B. Gasket C. Shield D. Seal
41. A hand tool used to measure tension on bolts.
A. Tensile range B. Torque wrench C. Hooke’s gage D. Spring balance
42. A hand tool used to measure engine crank web deflection.
A. Feeler gage B. Compound gage C. Distortion gage D. Dial gage
43. A device used for accurately measuring diameters.
A. Dial gage B. Feeler gage C. Caliper D. Micrometer
44. It is used to true align machine tools, fixtures and works.
A. Dial indicator B. Radial indicator C. Dial gage D. Feeler gage
45. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole, as for recess for a
flattened screw.
A. Counter boring B. Counter sinking C. Reaming D. Drilling
46. A kind of chuck which has reversible jaws, which could be adjusted separately.
A. Independent chuck
B. Combination chuck
C. Magnetic chuck
D. Universal chuck
47. It is used for cutting long pieces of metals.
A. Planer B. Shaper C. Power saw D. Broaching machine
48. It is used for external, internal and relieving of milling cutters and taps.
A. Milling attachment B. Thread attachment C. Taper attachment D. Relieving attachment
49. The stretching or spreading of metal by hammering.
A. Peening B. ------- C. Upsetting D. -------
50. __________ is the most common of the standard tapers.
Answers to Test 34 – Machine Shop Practice
1. A down milling 26. D any of the above

2. C lathe 27. A chamfering
3. A centerless grinding 28. B headstock
4. A side cutting edge angle 29. C single thread
5. B buffing 30. A depth of thread
6. D roughness 31. C plunger knob
7. C plain bearing 32. A over arm
8. B computer numerical control 33. B rotary attachment
9. D downtime 34. B snagging
10. A starvation 35. A apron
11. B when it is not property heated 36. B torch
12. D all of the above 37. C caliper
13. C routine maintenance 38. A oilstone
14. B coolant 39. B seal
15. D to transmit power 40. A packing
16. A dressing 41. B torque wrench
17. A 0° 42. C distortion gage
18. C drift punch 43. D micrometer
19. B wrench 44. A dial indicator
20. B scriber 45. B counter sinking
21. C plug gage 46. A independent chuck
22. C sine bar 47. C power saw
23. A milling attachment 48. D relieving attachment
24. B lathe centers 49. A peening
25. B mandrel 50. D Morse
51.
Test 35 – Engineering Materials
1. What is the lightest known metal?

A. Mercury B. Steel C. Chromium D. Aluminum
2. Material having a high electrical resistance and should not be used as conductor of electrical
current.
A. Magnesium B. Copper C. Nickel D. Iron
3. The property that characterizes a materials ability to be drawn into a wire is known as:
A. Plasticity B. elasticity C. ductility D. utility
4. Stress relieving is also __________ for the purpose of reducing the internal stress of steel
material / metal.
A. Quenching B. normalizing C. tempering D. drawing
5. A carbon content in the range of __________ in steel readily responds to heat treatment.
A. 0.35 to 0.40% C B 0.28 to 0.30 % C C. 0.18 to 0.25% C D. 0.10 to 0.15% C
6. Indicates how many times a volume of material is heavier than an equal volume of water.
A. Specific gravity B. specific volume C. specific weight D. specific density
7. Nickel – Chromium – Molybdenum steel designation SAE __________.
A. 81xx B. 74xx C. 94xx D. 64xx
8. Moment of inertia is also called:
A. Modulus of elasticity B. creep strength C. radius of gyration D. none of the
above
9. Hardening treatment whereby a cast metal is being heated to a very high temperature the
suddenly subjected to rapid cooling to improve hardenability of resistance is called:
A. Annealing B. normalizing C. tempering D. quenching
10. It is a general purpose deoxidizer which promotes fine grain in steel.
A. Copper B. magnesium C. molybdenum D. silicon
11. Treatment process that produces a residual compressive stress at the surface and residual
tension on the inside that results in considerable increase in fatigue strength for members on
torsion / bending is known as:
A. Partial quenching
B. Heavy oil quenching
C. Quenching
D. Shallow quenching
12. The flux that should be provided in soldering electrical connection or commutator wires as it
tends to corrode the connections.
A. Sal ammoniac B. Zinc chloride C. Stearin D. Acid fluxes
13. The characteristics of tool steel sustain shocks and major impacts is due to its:
A. Toughness B. stiffness C. ductility D. machinability
14. The application of electrical current to the corrosion circuit to counter the corrosion reaction is
called:
A. Cathodic protection
B. Sacrificial anodes method
C. Chemical corrosion process
D. Galvanic action
15. A major component of cast steel is:
A. Silicon B. iron C. manganese D. chromium
16. Normally cast iron contains 2% carbon or more and silicon in the range of _____%.
A. 1 to 3 B. 1 to 4 C. 2 to 3 D. 1 to 6
17. The material for engine radiation is usually made of ________.
A. Yellow brass B. silicon brass C. admiralty D. navy brass
18. Problem by-product used as an electrodes in an electric arc furnace melting ----ation is
called:
A. Anthracite coke B. foundry coke C. graphite electrodesD. bituminous coke
19. Which of the following does not affect the tensile strength of steel?
A. Sulfur B. cobalt C. phosphorus D. boron
20.
21. Mirror finish has surfaces fitness of _________ rms.
A. 1 B. 2 to 8 C. 1 to 3 D. 2 to 5
22. Chromium steel to include heat and corrosion resistant designation.
A. SAE 56xx B. SAE 514xx C. SAE 61xx D. SAE 9xx
23. Non – metallic material of high melting temperature being used as furnace lining.
A. Quartz bricks B. refractories C. silica sand D. dolomite clay bricks
24. In greater quantity, this element is harmful to the molten ferrous metal.
A. Silicon B. Aluminum C. Oxides D. Sulfur
25. Silicon – manganese steel designation, SAE __________.
A. 72xx B. 40xx C. 92xx D. 9xx
26. Cold drawing is also called:
A. Hard drawn B. oxidized steel C. cold lap steel D. strain
hardening
27. The brittleness in steel at elevated temperature is known as:
A. Hard drawn B. cold lap C. red shortness D. residual
stresses
28. Material may be stretched and still returns to its former form/condition upon release of force is
called:
A. Plasticity B. modulus of elasticity C. ductility D. elastic limit
29. What is the SAE specification number of molybdenum – chromium – nickel?
A. 48xx B. 47xx C. 46xx D. 45xx
30. Galvanized iron is a term referring to iron coated with _________.
A. Aluminum B. tin C. Zinc D. Manganese
31.
32.
33. What is the SAE specification number of molybdenum?
A. SAE 2xxx B. SAE 3xxx C. SAE 4xxx D. SAE 5xxx
34. Which does not belong to the group?
A. SAE B. AISI C. SEA D. ASTM
35. It is the ability of the material to resist deformation under stress.
A. Plasticity B. stiffness C. toughness D. all of the above
36. Which of the following is not a structural class of steel?
A. High speed steel B. tool and die C. low carbon D. high carbon
37. Continuous stretching under load even if the stress is less than the yields point is known as:
A. Plasticity B. elasticity C. creep D. ductility
38. Killed steel is always associated with:
A. Silicon B. manganese C. phosphorus D. sulfur
39. The good deoxidizer in steel melting.
A. Manganese B. silicon C. aluminum D. all of the above
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45. A furnace used in melting non – ferrous metals is called:
A. Cupola furnace B. crucible furnace C. induction furnace D. tempering furnace
46. A furnace used in melting ferrous metals.
A. Annealing furnace B. tempering furnace C. induction furnace D. normalizing furnace
47. All are associated with standard material specified except _________.
A. American Iron and Steel Institute
B. Society of Automotive Engineers
C. Southeast Asia Iron and Steel Institute
D. American Society of Testing Materials
48. The ability of a metal to be deformed considerably without rupture is called:
A. Malleability B. elasticity C. ductility D. plasticity
49. Permanent deformation or strain may occur without fracture is called:
A. Malleability B. elasticity C. ductility D. plasticity
50. An alloy that improves strength of steel at high temperature application.
A. Tungsten B. Molybdenum C. Chromium D. All of the above
Answers to Test 35 – Engineering Materials
1. D Aluminum 27. C red shortness

2. D Iron 28. D elastic limit
3. C ductility 29. B 47xx
4. A quenching 30. C zinc
5. A 0.35 to 0.40% C 31. B Zinc
6. A specific gravity 32. B Cobalt
7. C 94xx 33. C SAE 4xxx
8. D none of the above 34. C SEA
9. D quenching 35. B Stiffness
10. D silicon 36. B tool and die
11. D shallow quenching 37. C creep
12. D acid fluxes 38. A silicon
13. A toughness 39. D all of the above
14. A cathodic protection 40. D all of the above
15. B iron 41. A the electrons are loosely bound to
16. A 1 to 3 the nuclei and therefore mobile
17. A yellow brass 42. A cold working
18. C graphite electrodes 43. C 0.20
19. D Boron 44. A cast iron
20. B equal to half of the ultimate 45. B crucible furnace
strength 46. C induction furnace
21. A 1 47. C Southeast Asia Iron and Steel
22. B SAE 514xx Institute
23. B refractories 48. D plasticity
24. D Sulfur 49. D plasticity
25. C 92xx 50. D all of the above
26. A hard drawn
Test 36 – Engineering Materials
1. Metal that assists fabrication or lubricant in itself.

A. Zinc B. Antimony C. Babbit D. Lead
2. The smallest area at the point of rupture of a tensile specimen divided by the original area is
called:
A. Percentage elongation B. Izod test C. Charpy test D. percentage reduction of
the area
3. All are associated with the grade of steel except:
A. SAE 43xx B. SAE 13xx C. SAE 10xx D. SAE 74xx
4. Cold working of steel plates makes the metal:
A. Tougher B. more detail C. harder D. more malleable
5. The property that characterizes the material’s ability to be drawn into a wire is called:
A. Ductility B. thermal conductivity C. tensile strength D. endurance limit
6. Normal stress relieving temperature for cast steel is:
A. 200 to 350°F B. 400 to 500°F C. 300 to 400°F D. 450 to
550°F
7. Most effective allotting element for reducing brittleness of steel at very low temperature.
A. Manganese B. Molybdenum C. Silicon D. Nickel
8. Ordinary steel begins to lose strength and elasticity significantly of about what temperature.
A. 900 – 1000°F B. 800 – 900°F C. 700 – 850°F D. 600 –
700°F
9.
10. Material that should be avoided in constructing a wood pattern is _________.
11.
12. What is the property of a material which resists forces acting to pull the material apart?
A. Shear strength B. tensile strength C. torsional strength D. compressive strength
13. What is the difference between brass and bronze?
A. Brass is composed of copper and zinc while bronze is composed of copper and tin
B. Brass is composed of copper and zinc while bronze is basically copper and tin plus non-
ferrous alloy such as manganese, aluminum and chromium
C. Bronze is reddish in color while brass is a mixture of copper and antimony
D. Bronze is mostly an alloy of copper and tin while brass is a mixture of copper and antimony
14. A liquid metal is called _________.
A. Mercury B. lead C. zinc D. aluminum
15. Which of the following elements when large quantity is harmful to the ferrous metal?
16. It has molybdenum alloy except __________.
A. SAE 43xx B. SAE 41xx C. SAE 6xxx D. SAE 5xxx
17. Best steel for very high temperature application.
A. Manganese – nickel steel casing B. high chrome steel casing
C.Chrome – nickel steel casing D. high manganese casing
18. What heat treatment process can cast steel materials of high chrome high manganese etc. be
subjected for the purpose of machining process?
A. Annealing B. tempering C. normalizing D. quenching
19. Galvanized steel plate is:
A. Aluminum B. Tin C. Zinc D. manganese
20. A component of bronze casting is :
A. Copper B. Manganese C. Zinc D. Lead
21. Steel known for its resistance to corrosion, abrasion and wear that is ideal for mill grinding of
ore in cement and concentrator application. It is combined with molybdenum to increase the
depth hardening.
A. Manganese chromium steel B. Chromium – moly steel
C. Chromium – nickel – moly steel D. manganese – moly steel
22.
23. Heating of metal above the critical temperature and then cooling slowly usually in the furnace
to reduce the hardness and improve the machinabilty is called:
A. Normalizing B. Annealing C. Tempering D. Quenching
24. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast metal is being heated t a very high temperature then
suddenly subjected to rapid cooling to improve hardenability or wear resistance is called:
A. Normalizing B. tempering C. Annealing D. Quenching
25. SAE steel that responds to heat treatment.
A. SAE 1060 B. SAE 1117 C. SAE 1030 D. SAE 1020
26. A form of correction that develop on a highly localized area on metal surfaces.
A. Crevice B. Erosion C. Galvanic D. Spitting
27. The deterioration of organic coating characterized as completely __________.
A. Chalking B. Rusting C. Checking D. Fritting
28.
29. Refers to any layer or deposit of extraneous material on the heat – transfer place.
A. Low line B. Pressure drop C. Fouling D. Scaling
30. Steel containing large amounts of mild nickel and chromium.
A. Carbon steel B. stainless steel C. alloy steel D. cast steel
31.
32.
33.
34. The cheapest and most abundant engineering material is _________.
A. Aluminum B. Steel C. Cast iron D. Babbitt
35. They are usually steel or steel casting,
A. Mild steel B. Carbon steel C. Fire box steel D. Drop –
forge – dies
36. An iron has physical properties closely resembling those of mild steel called:
A. Malleable cast iron B. malleable iron C. white iron D. gray iron
37. An iron in which most of the carbon is chemically combined with the iron is called:
A. Cast iron B. gray iron C. white iron D. malleable iron
38. Which of the following metals is non-magnetic?
A. Manganese steel B. cast steel C. alloy steel D. cast iron
39. Which of the following is not a kind of cast iron?
A. Gray iron B. white iron C. malleable iron D. lead iron
40. Which of the following is not used to temper steel?
A. Oil bath B. brine/ slat bath C. steam bath D. water bath
41. Which of the following metal is easy to chisel?
A. Alloy steel B. manganese steel C. stainless steel D. cast iron
42. Ferrous metals contain a relatively large amount of _________.
A. Manganese B. carbon C. sulfur D. phosphorus
43. Which of the following is not a classification of iron core?
A. Siderite B. hematite C. sulfurite D. magnetite
44.
45. Which of the following metals will respond to heat treatment?
A. Iron B. wrought iron C. medium carbon steel D.
carbon steel
46. The property of steel which resist indention or penetration is called:
A. Hardness B. elasticity C. ductility D. none of the above
47. The ability of metal to stretch band or twist without breaking or cracking is called:
A. Elasticity B. ductility C. brittleness D. plasticity
48. The ability of the material to return to its original shape after being elongated or distorted when
the forces are released is called:
A. Elasticity B. brittleness C. plasticity D. creep
49. Material, usually ceramics employed where resistance to very high temperature is required, as
for furnace linings and metal melting pots is called:
A. Bricks B. insulator C. refractories D. clay
50. Any material that retard the flow of electricity, used to prevent or escape of electric current
from conductors.
A. Bricks B. insulators C. refractories D. composite
1. C Babbitt 25. B SAE 1117

2. D percentage reduction of the area 26. D Spitting
3. D SAE 74xx 27. A chalking
4. C harder 28. A melting point
5. A ductility 29. C Fouling
6. D 450 to 550°F 30. B stainless steel
7. D nickel 31. A rusting
8. D 600 – 700°F 32. A galvanic
9. A 8% 33. B Babbitt
10. A sap wood 34. C cast iron
11. A corrosion 35. B carbon steel
12. B tensile strength 36. A malleable cast iron
13. A brass is composed of copper and 37. C white iron
zinc while bronze is composed of copper 38. A manganese steel
and tin 39. D lead iron
14. A mercury 40. C steam bath
15. A sulfur 41. B manganese steel
16. D SAE 5xxx 42. B carbon
17. C Chrome – nickel steel casing 43. C sulfurite
18. A Annealing 44. A Chromium
19. C Zinc 45. C medium carbon steel
20. A Copper 46. A hardness
21. B Chromium – moly steel 47. B ductility
22. C SAE 1030 48. A elasticity
23. B Annealing 49. C refractories
24. D Quenching 50. B insulators
ENGINEERING MATERIALS ELEMENTS
TEST 37

Hardening the surface of iron-based alloys by heating then below the melting point in
contact with a carbonaceous substance.
A. Carburizing
B. Normalizing
C. Mar tempering
D. Hardening
A. Monel
B. Alloy
C. Solder
D. Hastalloy
Subjecting a substance to a high temperature below the fusion point usually to make it
friable.
A. Calcination
B. Fusion
C. Boiling
D. Super heating
Substances having sufficient carbon and/ or hydrogen for chemical oxidation to produce
exothermally, worthwhile quantities of heat.
A. Lubrication
B. Graphite
C. Grease
D. Fuels
The principal material used in high production metal working tools.
A. Hyper-eutectoid
B. High speed steel
C. Lead
D. High speed carbon
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
A soft yellow metal, known since ancient times as a precious metal which all materials
values are based.
A. Solid’s
B. Bronze
C. Gold
D. Austenite
A. Pearlite
B. Rock
C. Silicon
D. Glass
A fine grained salty silica rock used for sharpening edge tools.
A. Eytectoid
B. Austenite
C. Oilstone
D. Pearlite
A highly transparent and exceedingly hard crystalline stone of almost pure carbon is
called
A. Gold
B. Diamond
C. Bronze
D. Crystalline
The common deoxidizer and cleanser of steel forming oxides and sulfates that are
carried off in the slag.
A. Manganese
B. Carbon
C. Tungsten
D. Sulfur
An alloy of copper, thin and small amount of lphosphorous.
A. Chromium
B. Bronze
C. Brass
D. Aluminum
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
Heating to some 100F above the transformation range with subsequent cooling to below
that range in still air at room temperature to produce uniform structure of the metal is
termed as.
A. Annealing
B. Hardening
C. Normalizing
D. Tempering
Heating to a sub-critical temperature about 1,100F to 1300F and hoding at that
temperature for a suitable time for the purpose of reducing internal residual stresses is
called
A. Annealing
B. Hardening
C. Tempering
D. Stress relieving
Reheating to a temperature below the transformation range, followed by any desired rate
fo cooling to attain the desired properties of the metal.
A. Annealing
B. Hardening
C. Tempering
D. Stress relieving
27. The effect of alloying zinc to copper is
A. To increase hardness
B. To increase strength and ductility if added up to 10-30%
C. To impart free-machining properties
D. To improve hardness ad strength
28. Polyesters belong to the group of
A. Phenolics
B. Thermoplastic plastics
C. Thermo setting plastics
D. All of the above
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36. Super conductors
A. Are non-crystalline
B. Are the purest forms of metal
C. Are athe densest metals without voids
D. Exist at temperature below 10K
37. Select the one that has highest specific gravity?
A. Aluminum
B. Brass
D. Lead
38. For heavy loads in aircraft bearings the material used with lead to reduce the risk of
seizure is
A. Iron
B. Silver
C. tin
D. zinc
39. Age-hardening is related with
A. Cast iron
B. Duralumin
C. German silver
D. Stainless steel
40. Which of the following has highest specific strength of all structural materials?
A. Chromium alloys
B. Magnesium alloys
C. Titanium alloys
41. Addition of lead and bismuth to aluminum will produce
A. An improvement of casting characteristics
B. An improvement of corrosion resistance
C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening system
D. An improvement in machinability
42. Hastolloy contains
A. Aluminum and nickel
B. Copper and aluminum
C. Nickel and copper
D. Nickel and molybdenum
43. Comprehension, a prism of brittle material will break
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50. Which one is different from the group?
A. Cyaniding
B. Nitriding
C. Flame hardening
D. Electroplating
TEST 38

The process of increasing the carbon content to surface of steel by exposing it to hot
carbonaceous material above the transformation of 1650 to 1750F.
A. Carbonitriding
B. Case hardening
C. Carburizing
D. Induction hardening
In the SAE identification code of steel shifting the 3rd and 4rddigits represents the
content of
A. % of manganese in the steel
B. % of alloy
C. % of carbon content
D. % of chromium in the steel
It is associated with nickel steel
A. Magnesium
B. Lead
C. Columbium
D. Tin
A non-magnetic metal is:
A. Nodular iron
B. Manganese steel
C. Tungsten-molybdenum steel
D. All of these
In small quantity this alloy is effective for improvement strength at high temperature.
A. Chromium
B. Manganese
C. Selenium
D. Molybdenum
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12. Cyaniding is the process of
A. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface
hardness
B. Dipping steel in cyanide bath
C. Obtaining cyanide salts
D. Reacting steel surgace with cyanide salts
13. An engineer’s hammer is made of
A. Cast iron
B. High speed steel
C. Forged steel
D. Mild steel
14. A cold chisel is made of
A. Cast iron
B. High carbon steel
C. high speed steel
D. mild steel
15. Eutectoid steel the percentage of carbon is
A. 0.02%
B. 0.30%
C. 0.63%
D. 0.80%
16. Machining properties of steel can be improved by adding
A. Chromium, nickel
B. Silicon, aluminum, titanium
C. Sulfur, lead, phosphorous
D. Vanadium, aluminum
17. The ability of a material to absorb energy when deformed elastically and o return it when
unloaded is known as
A. Creep
B. Fatigue strength
C. Hardness
D. Resilience
18. A ductile fracture is characterized by
A. Appreciable plastic deformation prior to propagation of crack
B. Fragmentation into more than two pieces
C. Negligible deformation
D. Rapid rate for crack propagation
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26. The mould for casting ferrous materials in continuous casting process is made of
A. Low carbon steel
B. Medium carbon steel
D. Copper
27. A silver refers to
A. The pointed location spot silver plated
B. The point on an instrument dial a reading beyong which may be dangerous for the
system
C. The temperature at which silver melts
D. The temperature of equilibrium between solid silver and liquid silver at normal
atmospheric pressure
28. Piston compression rings are made of
A. Aluminum
B. Bronze
C. Cast iron
D. White metal
29. One of the materials used for making surface plate is
A. Brass
B. Granite
C. Stainless steel
D. Wood
30. Cast iron contains _____ % carbon.
A. 0.05 to 0.30
B. 0.30 to 0.60
C. 0.60 to 1.30
D. 2 to 4
31. High carbon steel has a carbon content of
A. 0.5 to 1 %
B. 0.8 to 2 %
C. 1 to 3 %
D. To 4 %
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40. During cold working metals are worked
A. Below room temperature
B. Below their melting point
C. Below their recrystallization temperature
D. Below 200 0C
41. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry red color and
A. Dousing in cold water
B. Cooling slowly in water
C. Dousing in oil
D. Dousing in hot water
42. Tool steel can be hardened by
A. Heating red hot and plunging into water
B. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast of dry air
C. Heating red hot and plunging into linseed or cotton seed oil
D. Any of the above depending on type and use
43. The purpose of annealing is to make a metal
A. Harder
B. Medium hard
C. Softer
D. Shiny
44. The purpose of tempering is to make the metal
A. Harder
B. Softer
C. Less brittle
D. More brittle
45. A scriber is made of
A. Carbon steel
B. Cold-rolled steel
C. Hot-rolled steel
D. Tool steel
46. Knurling is done to
A. Polish material
B. Roughen material
C. Sharpen the material
D. Smoothen material
47.
48.
49.
50.
Answers to Test 38- Engineering Materials
1. C Carburizing 25. A below 723 0C

2. C % of carbon content 26. D copper
3. D Tin 27. D the temperature of
4. B manganese steel equilibrium between solid silver and
5. A Chromium liquid silver at normal atmospheric
6. C High speed steel pressure
7. D sintering 28. C cast iron
8. D thin walled parts requiring a 29. B granite
high order of accuracy and internal 30. D 2 to 4
surface finish 31. C red hardness
9. A must possess considerable 32. B 0.80 % to 2 %
fluidity 33. D mild steel
10. C the percentage of carbon is 34. B Cast iron
less than 1.7 % 35. B gun metal
11. C Silicon 36. A tin, copper, antimony and
12. A adding carbon and nitrogen lead
by heat treatment of steel to 37. B cast iron
increase its surface 38. D silicon
hardness 39. C increase hot hardness
13. C forged steel 40. C below their recrystallization
14. B high carbon steel temperature
15. D 0.80 % 41. B cooling, slowly in water
16. C sulfur, lead, phosphorous 42. D any of the above depending
17. D resilience on type and use
18. A appreciable 43. C softer
19. D Strain aging 44. C less brittle
20. C elastic 45. D tool steel
21. C homogeneous 46. B rough material
22. A stages at which allotropic 47. B copper – zinc
forms change 48. D heterogeneous
23. B temperature between 1400 49. D completely reversible load
0
C and 1539 0C 50. B Mirror
24. A between 910 0C to 1400 0C
Test 39
1. The ability of a substance to exist in more than on lattice form is known as

A. Allotropy
B. Grain
C. Crystallization
D. Diamagnetic
2. Properties, which describe the behavior of materials under the application of force are
called as
A. Physical properties
B. Chemical properties
C. Mechanical properties
D. Electrical properties
3. The amount of energy per unit volume which the material will possess when subjected to
the elastic limit stress is called
A. Bulk modulus
B. Modulus of resilience
4. ______ means the resistance to penetration.
A. Hardness
B. Strength
C. Toughness
D. Stiffness
5. ______ means the increasing hardness and strength by plastic deformation at
temperatures lower than the recrystallization range.
A. Case hardening
B. Strain hardening
C. Nitriding
D. Stiffness
6. The plastic deformation at temperatures above the recrystallization temperature.
A. Hot working
B. Cold working
C. normalizing
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13. The mechanical treatments by which the concentration of ores is increased are called
A. Gravity separation
B. Ore dressing
C. Distillation
D. Sintering
14. Processes which involve the reduction of the metal from aqueous solutions by
replacement or by electrolysis are called:
A. Pyrometallurgical processes
B. Electrometallurgical processes
C. Hydrometallurgical processes
D. Amalgamation process
15. Non-metallic materials of high melting temperature used in the construction of furnaces,
crucibles and so forth are called:
A. Refractories
B. Ceramics
C. Insulators
D. Grate
16. The flux ad gangue when in proper proportions will have a melting temperature
considerably lower than that of either one and the resulting combination is called
A. Lime
B. Residue
C. Slag
D. Refractories
17. An iron-bearing slate or chert in the form of compact siliceous rock.
A. Taconite
B. Hematite
C. Magnetite
D. Limonite
18. A mechanical mixture of very pure iron and a silicate slag.
A. Bronze
B. Brass
C. Cast iron
D. Wrought iron
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25. AISI C1095 designates that it is a basic open earth carbon steel having percent carbon.
A. 5 %
B. 9 %
C. 95 %
D. 0.95 %
26. Molybdenum steels are painted ______.
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Orange
27. Used for members of intricate shape that would be difficult to manufacture by other
methods.
A. Forging
B. Casting
C. Extruding
D. Hot working
28. AISI means
A. American Iron and Steel Institute
B. African Iron and Steel Institute
C. Aluminum Iron and Steel Institute
D. American Investment for Steel Industry
29. SAE means
A. Society of American Engineers
B. Society of Automotive Engineers
C. Society of Australian Engineers
D. Society of African Engineers
30. Which of the following metals increases the strength without sacrificing the ductility of
the carbon steels.
A. Brass
B. Nickel
C. Bronze
D. Copper
31. It serves as an excellent deoxidizing agent, and promotes the nitriding of steels.
A. Aluminum
B. Boron
C. Copper
D. Brass
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38. Steels may be carburized and nitride simultaneous by the process known as
A. Nitriding
B. Carburizing
C. Carbonitriding
D. Cyaniding
39. It is used in steels as an alloying element to combine hardness obtained b quenching
with high strength and high elastic limit.
A. Vanadium
B. Chromium
C. Titanium
D. Molybdenum
40. The art of making definite impressions in sand by means of a pattern for the purpose of
producing a casting.
A. Molding
B. Pattern
C. Extrusions
D. Die casting
41. Products that have cross-sections of less than 6 inches and that are not in the finished
forms.
A. Slabs
B. Gangue
C. Blooms
D. Billets
42. It is the process of forging by which the metal in the plastic state is made to flow within a
die by the application of plunger pressure.
A. Extrusion forging
B. Smith forging
C. Drop forging
D. Press forging
43. It is a squeezing process used to finish sheet or bar stock for special purposes.
A. Cold forging
B. Sizing
C. Cold rolling
D. Coining
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50. It is a measure of the total energy absorbing capacity of the material and includes the
energy of both the elastic and plastic deformation.
A. Modulus of toughness
B. Modulus of resilience
Answers to Test 39- Engineering Materials
1. A Allotropy 27. B Casting

2. C Mechanical properties 28. A American Iron and Steel
3. B modulus of resilience Institute
4. A hardness 29. B Society of Automotive
5. B Strain hardening Engineers
6. A Hot working 30. B Nickel
7. D Cold working 31. A Aluminum
8. A stress rupture test 32. C Vanadium
9. B Transition temperature 33. D Ceramics
10. C Eutectic 34. A Carburizing
11. C Metallurgy 35. B Ductility
12. D Ores 36. A Thermal conductivity
13. B Ore dressing 37. B Malleable Iron
14. C Hydrometallurgical 38. C Carbon nitriding
processes 39. B Chromium
15. A Refractories 40. A Molding
16. C slag 41. D Billets
17. A Taconite 42. A Extrusion forging
18. D wrought iron 43. C Cold rolling
19. B Steel 44. B Stamping
20. A Pearlite 45. A Blanking
21. A Flame hardening 46. A Spinning
22. B Alloy steel 47. D Sizing
23. B 0.20 % 48. A Drop forging
24. B 3% 49. C Modulus of elasticity
25. D 0.95 % 50. A Modulus of toughness
26. A green
51.
Test 40
1. The maximum stress to which a standardized test specimen may be subjected without a
permanent deformation.
A. Endurance limit
B. Proportional limit
C. Elastic limit
D. Plastic limit
2. The modulus of elasticity is a measure of
A. Stiffness
B. Toughness
C. Resilience
D. Harness
3. Aging at moderately elevated temperature expedites the process and is called
A. Natural aging
B. Artificial aging
C. Normal aging
D. Supernatural aging
4. It is a tendency to fracture without appreciable deformation.
A. Ductility
B. Brittleness
C. Malleability
D. Plasticity
5. It is the characteristic of exhibiting different properties when tested in different directions.
A. Allotropy
B. Anisotropy
C. Isentropy
D. Isotropic
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12. One of the following is the best conductor of electricity. Which one?
A. Graphite
B. China clay
C. Porcelain
D. Ceramics
13. Dielectrics strength of a material depends on the material’s
A. Moisture content
B. Thickness
C. Temperature
D. All of the above
14. Which medium has highest value of dielectric strength?
A. Glass
B. Mica
C. Porcelain
D. Quartz
15. Which of the following is a primary cell?
A. Mercury-oxide
B. Lead-acid
C. Nickel-iron-alkaline
D. Nickel-cadmium-alkaline
16. Which of the following contact point metals has highest melting point?
A. Silver
B. Tungsten
C. Gold
D. Copper
17. A material best suited for manufacturing of fuse wire.
A. Aluminum
B. Silver
C. Lead
D. Copper
18. The laminations are made from
A. Low carbon steel
B. Silicon sheet steel
C. Nickel alloy steel stays
D. Chrome steel sheets
19. Which of the following metals gets deposited to provide an undercut for chromium?
A. Copper
B. Silver
C. Bronze
D. Lead
20. Nickel-iron cell, the electrolyte is
A. Dilute sulphuric acid
B. Dilute potassium hydroxide
C. Dilute sodium ammonium hydroxide
D. Dilute sodium chloride solution
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26. Any heating and cooling of steel that produces a rounded or globular form of carbide.
A. Spheroid zing
B. Malleability
C. Graphitizing
D. Normalizing
27. Steel that has been hammered rolled or drawn in the process of manufacture.
A. Wrought steel
B. Rimmed steel
C. Killed steel
D. Stainless steel
28. Which of the following improves red hardness?
A. Boron
B. Cobalt
C. Copper
D. Columbium
29. An alloy of nickel and copper.
A. Monel
B. Iconel
C. Titanium
D. Vanadium
30. Commutator segments are made of
A. Zinc
B. Brass
C. Copper
D. Nickel
31. What are the most commonly used materials as photo cathode for the photoelectric
emission?
A. Barium and calcium
B. Cesium and rubidium
C. Arsenic and boron
D. Thorium and tungsten
32. Manganin is an alloy of
A. Copper, manganese and nickel
B. Copper, zinc and lead
C. Copper, aluminum and chromium
D. Copper, chromium and cadmium
33. Select the one that is acceptor impurity element.
A. Antimony
B. Gallium
C. Arsenic
D. Phosphorous
34. Which of the following is not a method of non-destructive testing of steel casting and
forging?
A. Radiography
B. Magnetic particle
C. Ultrasonic
D. Chemical analysis
35.
36.
37.
38.
39. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as the
A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Plasticity
C. Irreversible range
D. Elastic range
40. Imperfections within metallic crystal structures may be all of the following, except
A. Lattice vacancies, or extra interstitial atom
B. Ion pairs missing in ionic crystals
C. Displacement of atoms to interstitial sites
D. Linear defects, or slippage dislocations caused by shear
41. When a metal is cold worked all of the following generally occur EXCEPT
A. Ductility decreases
B. Grains become eqiu-axed
C. Tensile strength increases
D. Slip or twinning occurs
42. Hard water is water which contains soluble salts of which of the following elements.
A. Sodium
B. Sulfur
C. Calcium
D. Chlorine
43. Which of the following metals has the highest specific heat capacity at 100 0C?
A. Aluminum
B. Bismuth
C. Copper
D. Iron
44. Aluminum pistons are either cast or
A. Ground
B. Forged
C. Pressed
D. Welded
45. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are made of
A. Iron
B. Brass
C. Copper
D. Bronze
46. Which of the following gasket materials should be used on a Freon system?
A. Metallic
B. Asbestos
C. Rubber
D. A & B
1. C Elastic limit 27. A Wrought steel

2. A stiffness 28. B Cobalt
3. B Artificial aging 29. A Monel
4. B Brittleness 30. C Copper
5. B Anisotropy 31. C Arsenic and Boron
6. A Charpy test 32. A Copper, manganese and nickel
7. C Killed steel 33. B Gallium
8. A Embrittlement 34. D Chemical analysis
9. D Soft iron 35. D pitting occurs in oxygen-rich anodic
10. D Nickel, cobalt and steel areas and rust is deposited nearby
11. D All three mentioned above 36. D Pearlite
12. A Graphite 37. A Annealing
13. D all of the above 38. A Antimony
14. B Mica 39. D elastic range
15. A mercury-oxide 40. B ion pairs missing in ionic cystals
16. C Gold 41. B Grains become eqiu-axed
17. B Silver 42. C Calcium
18. B Silicon sheet steel 43. A Aluminum
19. C Bronze 44. B forged
20. B dilute potassium hydroxide 45. A Iron
21. C Silver zinc 46. D A & B
22. A Lead 47. D All of the above
23. C Carbon 48. C Zinc plates
24. D any of the above 49. D A or C
25. B Silver 50. A Galvanizing
26. A Spheroidizing

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MACHINE SHOP AND

13. ME Board October 1993

Answers to Test 1 – Kinematics

1. At a given section of an I beam, the maximum bending stress occurs at the

1. B 0.08 to 1 25. A cam shaft

1. B elastic material bushed coupling 25. D 120°

1. Top surface joining two sides of thread in screw is known as

1. D crest 29. A coupling bolt

1. Extra flexible hoisting rope application is

ANSWERS TO TEST 9 – RIVETS AND WELDED JOINTS

1. B. normalizing 27. A. butt joint

ANSWERS TO TEST 10 – RIVETS AND WELDED JOINTS

1. C. 45/55 tin and lead 23. B. 1965 ⁰C

ANSWER TO TEST 11 – BEARINGS

1. D .0010 27. A the oil film pressure is

ANSWERS TO TEST 12 – SPRINGS AND FLYWHEELS

1. C flywheel 24. B operating length

1. A shaft is used to connect or disconnect at will is called

2. The frictional forces depends on coefficient of friction and

6. The brake capacity to absorb energy is known as

9. hydrodynamics brakes is the major type of

11. it is considered as the simplest type of mechanical brake.

12. the friction devices used to connect shafts.

13. A clutch that has a disadvantage of heavier rotary masses

14. The overrunning clutch

15. The running clutch

16. Clutch, gear box, differential etc. are the parts of

18. The clutch finger is pushed by

19. The hydraulic clutch doest incorporate a

20. The fining of a brake shoe

21. Due to air effect the hydraulic brakes become

22. The efficiency of hydraulic braking system is

24. Why does a clutch creates noise?

25 what faults develop in the brakes?

27. Power brakes require _________ power.

28. What type of oil used in the hydraulic system?

30. In the mechanical brake system the main function is of

31. In the motor vehicles, there is a _________ in addition of foot brake

33. There are __________ plates in a multi plate clutch.

35. which of the following is mounted inside the clutch?

38. refers to the simplest type of brakes.

39. the practical length of shoe is limited to about

41. It is used to stop the motion of a moving object

43. Type of brake is known as

45. The reason for noise at the time of engaging brake.

47. The maintenance of mechanical brake is

48. What is the most common defect of clutch?

Answer to TEST 13 – Brakes and Clutches

1. A Clutch 26. B shoe rivets

1. It is ideal for maximum quietness in sprocket drive operation to choose ______or

4. The recommended lubricant for the chain drive operation is

5. Type of leather belt being applied with waterproof cement is called

9. V- belts operate efficiently at speed of about

13. Belt slip may take place because of

15. What is the density of a leather belt?

16. What is the density of flat rubber belt material?

21. For leather belts recommended speed is

22. for fabric belts recommended speed is

24. the recommended initial tension of belt is

25. the recommended net belt pull for rubber belt is

30. a crosses belt wider than________ inches should be avoided.

31. if the pulley ratio 3:1 more, the reduction should be

32. The advantage of flat belting is that

47. the typical helix angle ranges from __ to _