You are on page 1of 12

3.

0 Hour Review Test - 3 | Four Year Course – 2025

Date: 4th February, 2022 Timing: 04:00 PM to 09:00 PM Maximum Marks: 320

General Instructions
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. The test consists of 80 questions.
3. This paper consists of two sections, Section - A (NCERT) and Section – B (FOUNDATION). There are four
subjects in each section, Subject I, II, III and IV consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Biology and
Mathematics respectively.
4. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
5. Candidate will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 4 for correct response of each
question. 1/4 (one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the questions (i.e. 1 mark) will be
deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be
made if no response is indicated.
6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question
will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per
instruction 5 above.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (OMR) to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

SYLLABUS:
Physics: Forces & Laws of Motion, Gravitation & Fluids
Chemistry: Is Matter Around Us Pure, Atoms & Molecules
Biology: Tissues, Diversity
Maths: Triangles, Heron’s Formula & Linear Equations
Vidyamandir Classes - SOSE : Innovating For Your Success
SECTION -A (NCERT)
SUBJECT I : PHYSICS 32 MARKS
This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:
1. An object of mass 50 kg is accelerated uniformly from a velocity of 3m/s to 6m/s in 5 sec. The ratio of
final momentum to initial momentum is:
(1) 2:1 (2) 1:2 (3) 3:1 (4) None of these

2. Which of the following questions is not a vector?


(1) Weight (2) Acceleration (3) Velocity (4) Mass

3. An external force acts on a body of mass 10 kg for 2s and as a result its velocity changes from 4 m/s to 8
m/s. What was the magnitude of the applied force?
(1) 10 N (2) 30 N (3) 20 N (4) None of these

4. The acceleration due to gravity of a body on Earth, depends upon the:


(1) Mass of body (2) Mass of Earth
(3) Shape and size of body (4) Volume of body

5. The relative density of a substance is:


(1) The ratio of its density to that of air (2) The ratio of its density to that of Earth
(3) The ratio of its density to that of water (4) None of the above

6. Two particles are placed at some distance. Mass of each of the two particles is trippled keeping the
distance between them unchanged, the value of gravitational force between then will be:
1 1
(1) times (2) times (3) 9 times (4) Unchanged
4 9

7. Which of the following satisfy the sinking condition if d is the density of object and  is the density of
fluid?
(1) d (2) d  (3) d  (4) None of the above

8. The S.I unit of G(Universal Gravitational Constant) is:


(1) Nm / kg 2 (2) Nm / kg (3) Nm2 / kg 2 (4) None of the above

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

VMC - SOSE | Page 2 3.0 Hour Review Test - 3 | Class - IX | 2025_Code -A


Vidyamandir Classes - SOSE : Innovating For Your Success

SUBJECT II: CHEMISTRY 32 MARKS


This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:

9. A scientist prepared 0.01% (w/w) solution of sodium chloride in water. Which of the following correctly
represents the composition of the solutions?
(1) 1.00 g of NaCl + 100 g of water (2) 0.11 g of NaCl + 100 g of water
(3) 0.01 g of NaCl + 99.99 g of water (4) 0.10 g of NaCl + 99.90 g of water

10. Tincture of iodine has antiseptic properties. This solution is made by dissolving
(1) iodine in potassium iodide (2) iodine in vaseline
(3) iodine in water (4) iodine in alcohol

11. A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture and its components can be separated by the technique known as
______________.
(1) Chromatography (2) Crystallization
(3) Distillation (4) Centrifugation

12. Which of the following contains maximum number of molecules?


(1) 1 g of CO 2 (2) 1 g of N 2 (3) 1 g of H 2 (4) 1 g of CH 4

13. The chemical symbol for oxygen gas is :


(1) O(g) (2) O 2 (g) (3) O (4) O(s)

14. 3.42 g of sucrose (C12 H 22O11 ) is dissolved in 18g of water in a beaker. The total number of oxygen
atoms in the solution are (Atomic Mass: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)
(1) 6.68  1023 (2) 6.09  1022 (3) 6.022  1023 (4) 6.022  1021

15. Which of the following represents a correct chemical formula?


(1) Ca 2O (2) AlPO 4 (3) NaSO 4 (4) Al2SO 4

16. What is the SI prefix for the 106 submultiple of a unit?


(1) Micro (2) Nano (3) Pico (4) Mega

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

VMC - SOSE | Page 3 3.0 Hour Review Test - 3 | Class - IX | 2025_Code -A


Vidyamandir Classes - SOSE : Innovating For Your Success

SUBJECT III : BIOLOGY 32 MARKS


This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:
17. A group of cell alike in form, function and origin is called:
(1) Tissue (2) Organ (3) Organelle (4) None of these
18. The tissue found in between the skin and muscles, around the blood vessels are :
(1) Bones (2) Cartilage (3) Neuron (4) Areolar tissue
19. The end of the long bones is connected to another bones by:
(1) ligament (2) tendon (3) cartilage (4) muscles
20. Assertion: Plant tissues are mainly dead cells and needs less energy
Reason: They do not need lots of energy for locomotion
(1) A and R both are true R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) A and R both are true R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true and R is False
(4) A is false and R is true
21. Assertion: Aves and mammals are warm blooded.
Reason: They have two chambered heart to keep their body temperature constant.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
22. Match the column
I II
(a) Gymnosperm (i) snake
(b) Angiosperm (ii) peacock
(c) Bryophyta (iii) mosses
(d) Reptilia (iv) mango tree
(e) Aves (v) pinus
(1) (a-v), (b-i), (c-iv), (d-iii), (e-ii) (2) (a-iv), (b-i), (c-v), (d-ii), (e-iii)
(3) (a-v), (b-iv), (c-iii), (d-i), (e-ii) (4) (a-v), (b-ii), (c-iii), (d-iv), (e-i)
23. In the given meristematic tissue select the correct statement from the following .

(1) The intercalary meristem help in increase in the height of the plant
(2) The lateral meristem is responsible for the secondary growth of the plant
(3) The apical meristem help in the growing the girth of the plant
(4) The lateral meristem help in the primary growth of the plant
24. Simple tissues are these :
(1) Parenchyma, xylem and collenchyma (2) Parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma
(3) Parenchyma, xylem and sclerenchyma (4) Parenchyma, xylem and phloem
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

VMC - SOSE | Page 4 3.0 Hour Review Test - 3 | Class - IX | 2025_Code -A


Vidyamandir Classes - SOSE : Innovating For Your Success

SUBJECT IV: MATHEMATICS 64 MARKS


This Subject contains 16 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:

25. Find the cost of laying grass in a triangular field of sides 50m, 65m and 65m at the rate of Rs 7 per m2 .
(1) Rs 10500 (2) Rs 11375 (3) Rs 10000 (4) Rs 21000

26. Find the area of a field which is in shape of a parallelogram with sides 12cm and 14cm one of the
diagonal of length 18cm .
(1) 16 110 cm2 (2) 18 11cm 2 (3) 8 10 cm 2 (4) 6 11 cm 2

27. In a ABC, the internal bisectors of B and C meet at P and the external bisectors of B and C
meet at Q. Find the value of BPC  BQC .
(1) 150 (2) 180 (3) 210 (4) 240

28. Two angles of a triangle are equal and the third angle is greater than each of those angles by 30°.
Determine the largest angle of the triangle.
(1) 60 (2) 70 (3) 80 (4) 90

29. In a ABC, ABC  25 and ACB  50 . Which is the longest side in this triangle?

(1) AB (2) BC
(3) CA (4) All are of same length

30. Point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation 3 y  kx  7 . The value of k is:
(1) 4/3 (2) 5/3 (3) 3 (4) 7/3

31. A pair of linear equations a1x  b1 y  c1  0 ; a2 x  b2 y  c2  0 is said to be inconsistent, if:


a1 b1 a1 b1 c1
(1)  (2)  
a2 b2 a2 b2 c2
a1 b1 c1 a1 c1
(3)   (4) 
a2 b2 c2 a2 c2

32. The pairs of equations 9 x  3 y  12  0 and 18 x  6 y  26  0 have:


(1) Unique solution (2) Exactly two solutions
(3) Infinitely many solutions (4) No solution

33. If the lines 3 x  2ky  2  0 and 2 x  5 y  1  0 are parallel, then what is the value of k ?
(1) 4/15 (2) 15/4 (3) 4/5 (4) 5/4

34. A fraction becomes 1/3 when 1 is subtracted from the numerator and it becomes 1/4 when 8 is added to
its denominator. The fraction.
(1) 3/12 (2) 4/12 (3) 5/12 (4) 7/12

VMC - SOSE | Page 5 3.0 Hour Review Test - 3 | Class - IX | 2025_Code -A


Vidyamandir Classes - SOSE : Innovating For Your Success
35. The solution of (4 / x )  3 y  14 and (3 / x)  4 y  23 is:
(1) 1/5 and –2 (2) 1/3 and 1/2 (3) 3 and 1/2 (4) 2 and 1/3

36. If the lines representing the pair of linear equations a1 x  b1 y  c1  0 and a2 x  b2 y  c2  0 are
coincident, then:
(1) a1 / a2  b1 / b2 (2) a1 / a2  b1 / b2  c1 / c2
(3) a1 / a2  b1 / b2 (4) a1b2  b1 / b2  c1 / c2

37. The pair of equations x  2 y  5  0 and  3x  6 y  1  0 have:


(1) A unique solution (2) Exactly two solutions
(3) Infinitely many solutions (4) No solution

38. The linear equation 3x – 11y =10 has:


(1) Unique solution (2) Two solutions
(3) Infinitely many solutions (4) No solutions

39. The graph of linear equation x  2 y  2, cuts the y-axis at:


(1) (2, 0) (2) (0, 2) (3) (0, 1) (4) (1, 1)

40. The value of k, if x  1, y  2 is a solution of the equation 2 x  3 y  k .


(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

VMC - SOSE | Page 6 3.0 Hour Review Test - 3 | Class - IX | 2025_Code -A


Vidyamandir Classes - SOSE : Innovating For Your Success

SECTION - B (FOUNDATION)
SUBJECT I : PHYSICS 32 MARKS
This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:
41. If two forces in the ratio 2:3 act on two areas in ratio 7:8. Find the ratio of pressure:
(1) 25 : 28 (2) 16 : 41 (3) 16 : 21 (4) None of the above

42. Which of the following correctly depict the variation of ‘g’ with respect to distance from centre of Earth
(r). [R is the radius of Earth].

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

43. At what height will a man’s weight be 1/3 times his weight on surface of earth?
(1) 0.414 R (2) 0.514 R (3) 0.732 R (4) 0.638 R

44. The distance of two planets from Sun are 1018 m and 1017 m. Find the ratio of time period.
(1) 10 20 (2) 10 10 (3) 20 10 (4) None of the above

45. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower 200 m high and at the same time another stone is
projected vertically upwards from the ground with velocity 50 m/s. The two stone will meet after. (Take
g  9.8m/s 2 )
(1) 2 sec (2) 3 sec (3) 9 sec (4) 4 sec

46. If a net force of 10 N was constantly applied on 500 g object at rest, how long will it take to raise its
velocity to 50 m/s?
(1) 2.5 sec (2) 3 sec (3) 7 sec (4) 4.5 sec

1
47. A body of mass M strikes against wall with velocity v and rebounds with th velocity. Its change in
5
momentum is:
3Mv 6 Mv 7 Mv
(1) (2) (3) (4) None of the above
5 5 5

48. Two forces 8N and 5N are acting on two blocks of 3 kg and 1 kg kept on frictionless floor. What is the
force exerted on 3 kg block by 1 kg block?

(1) 6N (2) 5.7 N (3) 9N (4) 6.3 N

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

VMC - SOSE | Page 7 3.0 Hour Review Test - 3 | Class - IX | 2025_Code -A


Vidyamandir Classes - SOSE : Innovating For Your Success

SUBJECT II: CHEMISTRY 32 MARKS


This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:
49. Which of the following alloy does not contain zinc metal?
(1) Gun metal (2) German silver (3) Brass (4) Bronze

50. Shaving Cream is an example of which type of colloid?


(1) Gel (2) Foam (3) Sol (4) Solid sol

51. The percentage of gold present in 18 carat gold is: (Pure gold = 24 carat gold)
(1) 50 (2) 75 (3) 83.33 (4) 90

52. Which process is used to separate a mixture of two miscible liquids A and B having boiling points 56°C
and 65°C respectively?
(1) Simple Distillation (2) Fractional Distillation
(3) Steam Distillation (4) Vacuum Distillation

53. The electrical configuration of two elements X and Y are given below:
X = 2, 8, 8, 1 Y = 2, 8, 6
The formula of a compound that can be formed between these two elements is
(1) XY (2) X3Y2 (3) X 2Y (4) XY2

54. What is the symbol of element potassium?


(1) K (2) P (3) Po (4) Pt

55. A vessel contains 8 g of oxygen gas and 22 g of carbon dioxide gas. Find the total number of moles of
gases in the vessel.
(1) 0.50 (2) 1.25 (3) 1.50 (4) 0.75

56. A sample of Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) is synthesized in the laboratory; it contains 0.75 g of Carbon and
1.00 g Oxygen. Another sample of Ascorbic acid isolated from citrus fruits contains 5.75 g of Carbon.
How many grams of Oxygen does it contain & which law is being followed?
(1) 8.47 : Law of conservation of mass (2) 7.67 : Law of definite proportions
(3) 11.50 : Law of multiple proportions (4) 5.75 : Law of definite proportions

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

VMC - SOSE | Page 8 3.0 Hour Review Test - 3 | Class - IX | 2025_Code -A


Vidyamandir Classes - SOSE : Innovating For Your Success

SUBJECT III : BIOLOGY 32 MARKS


This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:
57. The lowest category of classification:
(1) Phylum (2) Genus (3) Species (4) Family

58. Identify the phylum and choose the correct statement:

(1) It is an ant ,belong to phylum porifera remain in water


(2) It is an ant, belong to phylum annelida,round ring body
(3) It is an ant, belong to phylum arthropoda it has joint appendages
(4) It is an ant, belong to phylum mollusca it has a soft body

59. Select the incorrect statement for the animal OCTOPUS:

(1) It is mostly aquatic living in the seawater


(2) The body is segmented externally and internally, metamericallly segmented
(3) It belong to mollusca soft group animals
(4) Body of some animals is supported with hard shell of calcium carbonate

60. Which of the following is the correct sequence in biological classification?


(1) Kingdom-class-phylum-order-family-genus-species
(2) Kingdom-phylum-class-order-genus-family-species
(3) Species-phylum-class-order-family-genus-kingdom
(4) Kingdom-phylum-class-order-family-genus-species

61. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about Xylem tissue?
(i) It consist of dead cell.
(ii) Help in the conduction of water and mineral from the roots to the plants.
(iii) It has four elements tracheids, vessels parenenchyma and fibres.
(iv) Xylem parenchyma is the only living cells
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (i) and (iii) (4) All of the above

62. The cardiac muscles are present in the walls of the heart which of the following is correct statement
below ?
(1) It is involuntary in action (2) It gets fatigue
(3) It is also present in the tongue (4) It causes movement of limbs and locomotion

VMC - SOSE | Page 9 3.0 Hour Review Test - 3 | Class - IX | 2025_Code -A


Vidyamandir Classes - SOSE : Innovating For Your Success
63. In the following statement marked as I, II, III and IV ith reference to REPTILES.
I. The skin is dry and rough.
II. They are warm blooded
III. Reptiles like elephant, monkey etc.
IV. They are mostly oviparous, lay eggs.
Which one of the above is the correct statement?
(1) I and III (2) I and II (3) III and IV (4) IV and I

64. Which of the following is the use of lichens in a case of pollution?


(1) They treat the polluted water (2) They act as indicator of air pollution
(3) The promote pollution (4) Lichens are not related with pollution

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

VMC - SOSE | Page 10 3.0 Hour Review Test - 3 | Class - IX | 2025_Code -A


Vidyamandir Classes - SOSE : Innovating For Your Success

SUBJECT IV: MATHEMATICS 64 MARKS


This Subject contains 16 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:

65. The distance of line 6 x  8 y  10 from origin is equal to:


(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4

66. If the lines  x   y  1 and 3x  6 y  4 are coincident then:


9
(1) 2    0 (2)    (3)   2  0 (4)   3
2

67. Age of a man is equal to sum of ages of his three children. After 5 years twice the man’s age is 40 more
than sum of ages of three children, then the present sum of ages of man and his three children is equal to:
(1) 45 years (2) 70 years (3) 35 years (4) 90 years

68. Which of the following is a pair of parallel lines:


(1) 3x  5 y  7 and 2 x  3 y  9 (2) 3x  5 y  7 and 9 x  15 y  21  0
(3) 3x  7 y  9 and 21x  49 y  54 (4) None of these

69. Select the incorrect statement for the equation ax  by  c  0 .


(1) It is a linear equation in x and y if a, b and c are non-zero constants
(2) It is a linear equation in a and c if x, b and y are non-zero constants
(3) It is a linear equation in a and x if b, y and c are non-zero constants
(4) It is a linear equation in a and b if x, y and c are non-zero constants

70. Length of portion of the line 3x  4 y  12 intercepted between the co-ordinate axes is equal to:
(1) 5 (2) 12 (3) 6 (4) 7

71. If a line equation has solutions (–1, 1), (0, 0) and (3, –3) then it is of the:
(1) yx0 (2) x y 0 (3) 2x  y  0 (4) x  2 y  0

72. Find the area of triangle enclosed by line 2x  3 y  12, x  axis and y–axis.
(1) 24 sq unit (2) 18 sq unit (3) 8 sq unit (4) 12 sq unit

73. Which of the following line will pass through the origin?
(1) 2x  3 y  7  0 (2) 3x  7 y  2  0
(3) 3x  2  2(2 y  1) (4) x2 y2

74. x  5  0 and y  7  0 are:


(1) Always parallel (2) Always perpendicular to each other
(3) Neither parallel nor perpendicular (4) None of these

75. Which of the following is parallel to x–axis?


(1) x5 (2) y5 (3) xy (4) x y 5

VMC - SOSE | Page 11 3.0 Hour Review Test - 3 | Class - IX | 2025_Code -A


Vidyamandir Classes - SOSE : Innovating For Your Success
76. A square and an equilateral triangle have equal perimeters. If the diagonal of the square is 12 2cm , then
area of the triangle is:
(1) 24 2cm 2 (2) 24 3cm 2 (3) 48 3cm2 (4) 64 3cm 2

77. In figure, ABC is a triangle in which B  2C . D is a point on side BC such that AD bisects BAC
and AB = CD. BE is the bisector of B . The measure of BAC is:

(1) 72° (2) 36° (3) 54° (4) 108°

78. ABCDEF is a regular hexagon of side length 12 cm. Area of ABC is equal to:

(1) 12 3cm 2 (2) 36 3cm2 (3) 72 3cm 2 (4) 48 3cm2

79. In ABC, G is centroid and AG = BC the value of BGC is equal to:

(1) 120° (2) 135° (3) 60° (4) 90°

80. The perimeter and area of an isosceles triangle are 50 cm and 60 cm2. If equal sides of triangle are smaller
than the third side then largest side of triangle is equal to: (all sides of triangle are integers)
(1) 24 cm (2) 13 cm (3) 12 cm (4) 18 cm

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

*** End of 3.0 Hour Review Test - 3 |Class - IX (2025) ***

VMC - SOSE | Page 12 3.0 Hour Review Test - 3 | Class - IX | 2025_Code -A

You might also like