CUET Sample Paper 2022 With Solutions by Aakash PDF

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CUET 2023 SAMPLE MOCK PAPER
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. The paper consists of two parts i.e. Part A and Part B.

2. Part A consists of 25 questions on General Aptitude.
3. Part B consists of 100 questions from domain knowledge divided into Section I: Physics, Section
II: Chemistry, Section III: Mathematics and Section IV: Biology.
4. The student should attempt one section out of Section III and Section IV. If a student attempts
both Section III and Section IV, then the section in which the student scores maximum marks, will
be considered.
5. For each correct answer, 4 marks will be awarded. For each incorrect answer, 1 mark will be
deducted from the total score. No marks will be awarded for questions not attempted.
6. Maximum marks for the test are 400.
PART-A
General Aptitude
Choose the correct Answer.
1. Arun and Bimal are brothers. Chitransha and Dolly are sisters. Arun’s son is Dolly’s brother. How is
Bimal related to Chitransha?
(1) Father
(2) Uncle
(3) Grandfather
(4) Brother
2. PMJDY scheme stands for
(1) Pradhan Mitra Jeevan Dhan Yojana
(2) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
For details on CUET Crash Course, Test & Discussion Series & Test Series, Call: 7428385544
1
(3) Pradhan Mitra Jan Dhan Yojana
(4) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Dhan Yojana
3. Choose the world that best fits into the blank space of the following sentence:
Ambition is one of those ________ which are never satisfied.
(1) Ideas
(2) Activities
(3) Fancies
(4) Passions
4. Ramesh decided to set ______ sometime every day for gardening.
(1) up
(2) of
(3) on
(4) aside
5. 21 workers can make 1500 loaves of bread in 18 days. How many workers are required to make
1000 loaves of bread in 21 days?
(1) 15
(2) 12
(3) 18
(4) 14
6. A horse is taken out every morning by the owner whose home faces East. They walk 100 m West,
then 500 m in the South direction. Which direction should they take to reach home?
(1) South
(2) West
(3) North-East
(4) North-West
7. As the Ratha Yatra festival approaches, the number of pilgrims in Puri_______.
(1) increases
(2) is increasing
(3) will be increased
(4) would have been increased
8. Monika is not _______ for this kind of job.
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(1) cut up
(2) cut in
(3) cut out
(4) cut through
9. David is taller than Chinku and Elina. Akash is not as tall as Elina. Chinku is taller than Akash. David
is not as tall as Bikash. Who among them is next to the tallest one?
(1) Chinku
(2) Bikash
(3) Akash
(4) David
10. Choose the word opposite in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentence:
The leader had a derisive attitude towards some of the members of his
(1) Respectful
(2) Negative
(3) Deprecatory
(4) Critical
11. The most important text of vedic mathematics is
(1) Sulva Sutras
(2) Atharvaveda
(3) Satapatha Brahmana
(4) Chandogya Upanishad
12. Three of the following are alike in a certain way and therefore, form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to that group?
(1) Snail
(2) Tortoise
(3) Spider
(4) Turtle
13. 8.2 × 7.5 × 9.3 = ________
(1) 175.95
(2) 375.96
(3) 571.95
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(4) 751.95
14. A bus covers the first 39 km of its journey in 45 minutes and the remaining 25 km in 35 minutes.
What is the average speed of the car?
(1) 30 km/hr
(2) 48 km/hr
(3) 40 km/hr
(4) 54 km/hr
15. What number will come in the blank in the following number series?
13, 14, 22, 31, _____, 120, 336
(1) 90
(2) 55
(3) 65
(4) 95
16. The words Satyameva Jayete in the State Emblem of India are taken from
(1) Samaveda
(2) Rigveda
(3) Ramayana
(4) Upanishads
17. Choose the word that best fits into the blank space of the following sentence:
Education facilitates the ________ of specific skills.
(1) Creation
(2) Procurement
(3) Acquisition
(4) Requirement
18. HRMN 99, recently figured in the news, is related to
(1) Fruit
(2) Animal
(3) Virus
(4) Disease
19. Where are the headquarters of the International Union of Conservation of Nature and Natural
Resources (IUCN) located?
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(1) New York
(2) Syndey
(3) Switzerland
(4) Singapore
20. Get me a cup of coffee, ________
(1) shall you?
(2) Will you?
(3) won't’ you?
(4) wouldn’t you?
21. She took that person ____ a thief.
(1) to
(2) as
(3) for
(4) after
22. If you suffer from fever, the best remedy lies ______ complete test.
(1) with
(2) in
(3) on
(4) upon
23. The book has passed ______ fifteen editions.
(1) by
(2) on
(3) from
(4) through
24. Pox 186 is a
(1) glacier
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(2) star
(3) galaxy
(4) satellite
25. Who was the leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha?
(1) Rajendra Prasad
(2) Vallabhbhai Patel
(3) Mahatma Gandhi
(4) Jivatram Bhagwandas Kripalani
PART-B: Domain Knowledge

Section I: PHYSICS
1. A body moves from point A to B under the action of a force, varying in magnitude as shown in the
figure. Force is expressed in Newton and displacement in meters. What is the total work done?
(1) 100 J
(2) 37.5 J
(3) 12.5 J
(4) 22.5 J
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2. In the circuit shown in figure, the potential barrier for Ge diode is 0.3 V and for Si diode it is 0.7 V.
What is the voltage VA?
(1) 23.7 V
(2) 24.7 V
(3) 24.3 V
(4) 23 V
3. A bomb with an initial horizontal speed of vexplodes in air. It breaks into two identical pieces of equal
mass. If one goes vertically up at a speed of 4v, the velocity of the immediately after the explosion is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
4. A family uses 8 kW of power. Direct solar energy is incident on the horizontal surface at an average
rate of 200 W per square meter. If 20% of this energy can be converted to useful electrical energy,
how large an area is needed to supply 8 kW?
(1) 200 m2
(2) 800 m2
(3) 5 m2
(4) 40 m2
5. Soapy water drips from a capillary. When the drop breaks away, the diameter of its neck is D. The
mass of the drop is m. The surface tension of soapy water is
(1)
(2)
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(3)
(4)
6. What is the magnetic induction of the field at the point O in a current I carrying wire that has the
shape as shown in the figure? The radius of the curved part of the wire is R, the linear are assumed
to be very long.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
7. The length of a metal wire is I1 when the tension is T1 and l2 when the tension is T2. The unstretched
length of the wire is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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8. The velocity of a body of mass 2 kg as a function of time t is given by The force
acting on it, at time t = 2 s is given by
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
9. A constant retarding force of 50 N is applied to a body of mass 20 kg moving initially with a speed of
15 m s–1. How long does the body take to stop?
(1) 6 s
(2) 2.5 s
(3) 15 s
(4) 50 s
10. If two resistors of resistances R1 = (4 ± 0.5) Ω and R2 = (16 ± 0.5) Ω are connected in series. The
equivalent resistance with the limits of percentage error is
(1) (20 ± 1%) Ω
(2) (20 ± 5%) Ω
(3) (20 ± 0.25%) Ω
(4) (20 ± 0.5%) Ω
11. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop of radius 1.00 km with a steady speed of 900 km/h. Its
centripetal acceleration is
(1) 250 m/s2
(2) 0.4 m/s2
(3) 62.5 m/s2
(4) 6.25 m/s2
12. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of a uniform mass density, how much would a body weigh half
way down to the center of earth if it weighs 250 N on the surface?
(1) 375 N
(2) 125 N
(3) 500 N
(4) 72.5 N
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13. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 30 km/h fires a bullet at a thief's car speeding
away in the same direction with a speed of 192 km/h. If the muzzle speed of the bullet is 150 m/s,
with what speed does the bullet hit the thief’s car?
(1) 475/3 m/s
(2) 160/3 m/s
(3) m/s
(4) 105 m/s
14. Pressure P varies as where x denotes the distance, kB is the Boltzmann’s

constant, T is the absolute temperature and αandβ are constant. The dimension of β is
(1) [MLT–2]
(2) [ML–1T–2]
(3) [M0L2T0]
(4) [M0L0T0]
15. A parallel beam of light way parallel to the x-axis is incident on a parabolic reflecting surface x = 2by2
as shown in the figure After reflecting it passes through focal point F. What is the focal length of the
reflecting surface?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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16. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its centripetal
acceleration ac is varying with time t as ac = k2rt2, where k is a constant. The power delivered to the
particle by the forces acting on it is
(1) mk2rt2
(2) mk2r2t
(3) mkrt
(4) mkr2
17. Two cylinders A and B of the same material have the same length, their radii being in the ratio 1 : 2
respectively. The two are joined end to end as shown in the figure. One end of cylinder A is rigidly
clamped while free and of cylinder B is twisted through an angle θ. The angle of twist of cylinder A is
(1)
(2) 16θ
(3) 17θ
(4)
18. Two slits in Young’s interference experiment have width in the ratio 1 : 4. The ratio of intensity at the
maxima and minima in their interference is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
19. A spring balance has a scale that reads 0 to 50 kg. The length of the scale is 20 cm. A body
suspended from this spring, when displaced and released, oscillates with a period of 0.60 s. What is
the weight of the body?
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(1) 22.36 N
(2) 45 N
(3) 219.13 N
(4) 223.6 N
20. While measuring the length of the rod by Vernier calipers, the reading on the main scale is 6.4 cm
and the eight divisions on Vernier are in line with marking on the main scale division. If the least
count of calipers is 0.01 and zero error – 0.04 cm, the length of the rod is
(1) 6.52 cm
(2) 6.48 cm
(3) 6.44 cm
(4) 6.42 cm
21. When a beam of 10.6 eV photons of intensity 2.0 W/m2 falls on a platinum surface of area 1.0 × 10–4
m2, only 53% of the incident photons eject photoelectrons. The number of photoelectron emitted per
second is
(1) 6.25 × 1013
(2) 11.79 × 1013
(3) 62.5 × 1011
(4) 11.79 × 1011
22. A 40 kg boy whose legs are 4 cm2 in area and 50 cm long falls through a height of 2 m without
breaking his leg bones. If the bones can withstand a stress of 0.9 × 108 N/m2. The Young’s modulus
for the material of the bone is
(1) 108 N/m2
(2) 5 × 108 N/m2
(3) 2.05 × 109 N/m2
(4) 2.05 × 108 N/m2
23. If the total energy of a particle executing SHM is E, then the potential energy V and the kinetic
energy K of the particle in terms of E when its displacement is half on its amplitude will be
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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24. A positive charge q is distributed over a circular ring of radius a. It is placed in a horizontal plane and
is rotated about its axis at a uniform angular speed ω. A horizontal magnetic field B exists in space.
The torque acting on the ring due to the magnetic force is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) qωa2B2
25. The position-time relation of a particle moving along the x-axis is given by x = a – bt + ct2wherea, b
and c are positive numbers. The velocity-time graph of the particle is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

Section II: CHEMISTRY
1. In which of the following compounds, metal is in zero oxidation state?

(1) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2
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(2) Mn2(CO)10
(3) K[PtCl3(C2H4)]
(4) [Co(NH3)5Br]2SO4
2. In the following reaction, identify X:
Oxidized product of X.
(1) Sn4+
(2)
(3) I–
(4) Fe3+
3. Upon increase in pressure for dissociation of N2O4 into NO2, equilibrium shift towards
(1) Forward direction
(2) Backward direction
(3) No change
(4) First in forward direction then it backward direction
4. Which of the following does not give an iodoform test?
(1) Ethanol
(2) Acetone
(3) Propan-2-ol
(4) Propan-1-ol
5. Correct number of lone pairs on central atom in SF4 and NH3 molecules, respectively, should be
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 1
(3) 1 and 1
(4) 2 and 2
6. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
7. The correct set of quantum numbers for 3p subshell is
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(1) n = 3, l = 2
(2) n = 3, l = 1
(3) n = 2, l = 3
(4) n = 3, l = 3
8. The most stable conformation of 1, 2-dibromomethane among the following is
(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV
9. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
a. PPM (i) Mol L–1
b. Molarity (ii) No units
c. Molality (iii) Independent of temperature
d. Mole fraction (iv) Very dilute solutions
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) a(iv), b(i) c(iii), d(ii)
(2) a(iv), b(ii) c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(i) c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii) c(ii), d(i)
10. The element with atomic number 52 belongs to
(1) Halogen
(2) d-block
15
(3) Chalcogens
(4) Coinage metal
11. The pOH of a 0.01 M hydrochloric acid will be
(1) 2
(2) 11
(3) 12
(4) 6
12. The atomic radii of Zr and Hf are almost identical. This is because of
(1) Change in effective atomic number
(2) Lanthanoid contraction
(3) Actinoid contraction
(4) Usual nature of transition metals
13. A compound with the molecular formula C 5H5N and having 3 double bonds will be
(1) Heterocyclic and aromatic
(2) Homocyclic and aromatic
(3) Heterocyclic and non-aromatic
(4) Homocyclic and non-aromatic
14. Which among the following is a false statements?
(1) Adsorption is a thermodynamically favorable process
(2) During adsorption entropy of system decreases
(3) Adsorption is an enthalpically favorable process
(4) Adsorption process is always favorable is dark condition
15. In order to distinguish between C2H5NH2 and C6H5NH2, which of the following reagents is useful?
(1) Hinsberg test
(2) β-Naphthol
(3) CHCl3/KOH
(4) NaOH
16. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : A solution of table salt in a glass of water is homogeneous.
Reason (R) : A solution having same composition throughout is heterogeneous.
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In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
17. Which of the following is the weakest acid?
(1) Fluoracetic acid
(2) Trifluoroacetic acid
(3) Chloroacetic acid
(4) Difluoroacetic acid
18. Which of the following pairs can be distinguished by the Lucas test?
(1) Ethanol and ethylene glycol
(2) o-and p-cresol
(3) Propan-1-ol and ethanol
(4) Butan-1-ol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol
19. The product from upon heating methyl bromide with potassium tert-butoxide is
(1) Di-tert-butyl ether
(2) Dimethyl ether
(3) Isobutylene
(4) Tert-butyl methyl ether
20. Which one of the following pairs has only paramagnetic species?
(1) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 and O2
(2) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 and N2
(3) [Zn(H2O)6]Cl2 and O2
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 and K4[Fe(CN)6]
21. Identify the following named reaction
(1) Wurtz reaction

(2) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(3) Williamson’s synthesis
(4) Ullmann reaction
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22. Which of the following compounds gives a positive Tollen’s test but negative Fehling’s test?
(1) Acetaldehyde
(2) Benzaldehyde
(3) Acetophenone
(4) Acetone
23. Dissociation constant and molar conductance of an acetic acid solution are 1.78 × 10–5 mol L–1 and
48.15 S cm–2 mol–1 respectively. The conductivity of the solution is (considering molar conductance
at infinite dilution is 390.5 S cm–2 mol–1)
(1) 4.9 × 10–2 S cm–1
(2) 4.9 × 102 S cm–1
(3) 4.9 × 10–5 S cm–1
(4) 4.9 × 105 S cm–1
24. The correct IUPAC name for the given molecule should be
(1) 2,4-dimethylbutan-2-oic acid

(2) 2,4-dimethylpentan-1-oic acid
(3) 1,3-dimethylpentanoic acid
(4) 2,4-dimenthylpentane carboxylic acid
25. An element has a cubic structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The density of the element is 7.2
gcm–3. 208 g of the element has 24.16 × 1023 numbers of atoms. The unit cell of this cubic structure
is
(1) Primitive
(2) Body-centered
(3) Face-centered
(4) Hexagonal

Section III: MATHEMATICS
1. The largest value of k for which the system of equations x + ky + 3z = 0, 4x + 3y + kz = 0, 2x + y +
2z = 0 has nontrivial solution is
(1)
(2) 0
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(3) 10
(4) –1
2. Let P be any non-empty set containing p elements. Then, what is the number of relations on P?
(1) 2p
(2)
(3) p2
(4) pp
3. Let matrices Then |A + B| equals (where |A|

represents determinant of A)
(1) 1
(2) 10
(3) 0
(4) 2
4. The equation of the tangent to the curve given by x = cos3t, y = sin3t at a point where is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
5. Which one of the following statements is correct for a moving body?
(1) If the velocity changes, its speed must change and it must have some acceleration
(2) If its speed changes, its velocity must change and it must have some acceleration
(3) If its speed changes but direction of motion does not change, its velocity will remain constant
(4) None of the above
6. A ball is thrown upward at a speed of 28 meters per second. What is the speed of the ball one
second before reaching maximum high? (Given that g = 10 meter per second2)
(1) 10 meter per second
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7. Let If and are both perpendicular to a vector
and then the magnitude of is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
8. If f(x) = ax2 + 6x + 5 attains its maximum value at x = 1, then the value of a is

(1) 0
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) –3
9. The solution of the differential equation where P and Q are constant or function of y, is
given by
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
10. Let be three unit vectors such that If is not parallel to ,
then the angle between and is
(1)
(2)
20
(3)
(4)
11.
(1)
(2) 1 – a
(3) a
(4) 1 + a
12. A card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is
either Ace or a King?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
13. If 19th term of a non-zero arithmetic progression (AP) is zero, then its (49th term) : (29th term) is
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1
14. Let E1 and E2 be two independent events. Let P(E) denotes the probability of the occurrence of the
event E. Further, and denote the complements of E1 and E2, respectively. If
then one of the possible value ofP(E1) is
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
15. Suppose we have a block of 4 kilogram kept on a horizontal surface and we are applying a
horizontal force of 10 newton. Let the coefficient of friction is 0.2. Find the force of friction. Assume
that g = 10.
(1) 4 newton
(2) 8 newton
(3) 1 newton
(4) None of the above
16. If the horizontal and vertical components of a force are negative, then that force is acting in between
(1) North and East
(2) North and West
(3) South and West
(4) South and East
17. If then
(1) x + y + z – xyz = 0
(2) xy + yz + zx – 1 = 0
(3) x + y + z + xyz = 0
(4) xy + yz + zx + 1 = 0
18. The domain of the function defined by f(x) = log(x–10)10 is
(1) x< 10 excluding x = –10
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(2) x> 10
(3) x≥ 10
(4) x> 10 excluding x = 11
19. A bullet of mass m and velocity a is fired into a large block of wood of mass M. The final velocity of
the system is (The bullet gets embedded in block)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
20. Let det (M) denotes the determinant of the matrix M. Let A and B be 3 × 3 matrices with det (A) = 3
and det (B) = 4. The the det (2AB) is
(1) 24
(2) 42
(3) 96
(4) 48
21. The general solution of the differential equations
(1) x2 + y2 = cxy
(2) x2 + y2 = c
(3) x2 – y2 = c
(4) x + y = c
22. The equation of the circle passing through the foci of the ellipse and having centre at
(0, 3) is
(1)
(2)
(3)
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(4)
23. Let denotes the greatest integer of xr and |x| denotes the modulus of x. Then
(1) Does not exist

(2) is –1
(3) is 1
(4) is 100
24. The equation ax + by + c = 0 represents a straight line
(1) for all real number a, b and c
(2) Only when b≠ 0
(3) Only when a≠ 0
(4) Only when at least one of a and b is non-zero
25. The area of the region bounded by the line y = 4 and the curve y = x2 is
(1) square units
(2) square units
(3) 1 square unit

(4) 32 square units

Section IV: BIOLOGY
1. Lateral conjugation in Spirogyra takes place
(1) Between two separate filaments
(2) Between cells of two filaments of different species
(3) Between male and female filaments of two different species
(4) Between adjacent cells of the same filament
2. Haplo-diploid method of sex determination is seen in which of the given insects?
(1) Grasshopper
(2) Butterfly
(3) Honeybee
(4) Fruit Fly
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3. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t. cellular respiration?
(1) Glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm
(2) Enzymes of TCA cycle are found in mitochondrial matrix
(3) NADH2 is reoxidised during anaerobic respiration
(4) Conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate is a reversible process
4. Due to an immune disorder, a person suffers damage toβ-cells in the pancreas. Which among the
following are the most likely symptoms that he/she will suffer?
(1) Ketonuria and glycosuria
(2) Uremia and renal calculi
(3) Hypoglycemia
(4) Uremia and ketonuria
5. Sciophytes are
(1) Salt loving plants
(2) Sun Loving plants
(3) Shade Loving plants
(4) Water Loving plants
6. Which virus produces lysosomes to lyse the host cell for release of virions?
(1) Bacterial virus T4 phage
(2) Tobacco mosaic virus
(3) Cauliflower mosaic virus
(4) Influenza virus
7. Electron carriers involved in the electron transport system are located in which part of the
mitochondria?
(1) Matrix
(2) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(3) Outer mitochondrial membrane
(4) Intermembrane space
8. Which hormone stimulates the release of water and bicarbonates ions from the exocrine pancreas in
pancreatic juice?
(1) Gastrin
(2) Secretin
(3) Cholecystokinin
(4) GIP
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9. Hormones responsible for menstrual cycle are produced from
(1) Uterus only
(2) Ovaries only
(3) Ovaries and anterior pituitary
(4) Uterus and anterior pituitary
10. In plants like sugarcane which enzyme catalyses the primary carboxylation process?
(1) RuBisCO
(2) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(3) PEPcase
(4) Pyruvate synthetase
11. Legume is the fruit of family
(1) Cucurbitaceae
(2) Brassicaceae
(3) Fabaceae
(4) Solanaceae
12. Which of the following sequences fits into the organic evolution theory proposed by Charles Darwin
and Alfred Wallace?
(1) Variation, constancy of population size, overproduction, natural selection
(2) Variation, overproduction, constancy of population size, natural selection
(3) Overproduction, variation, constancy of population size, natural selection
(4) Overproduction, constancy of population size, variation, natural selection
13. What is correct for a test tube baby?
(1) Fertilization of ova and embryonic development takes place in test tube
(2) Fertilization of ova occurs in uterus while the development takes place in test tube
(3) Fertilization of ova occurs in test tube whereas development of embryo occurs in uterus
(4) Unfertilized ova develops in test tube
14. Identify the organism which is a symbiotic N2 fixer in non leguminous plants?
(1) Rhizobium
(2) Frankia
(3) Azotobacter
(4) Rhodospirillum
15. Crossover value is high when
(1) Genes are completely linked
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(2) Genes are distantly situated on chromosomes
(3) Genes are closely situated on chromosomes
(4) Genes are linked but situated on different chromosomes
16. Ballochory or ejection of seeds with a great force is seen in which of the given plants?
(1) Tomato
(2) Touch me not
(3) Onion
(4) Mango
17. Which part of the brain extends to form the spinal cord?
(1) Medulla
(2) Cerebrum
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Hippocampus
18. What does low hematocrit value represent?
(1) More lymphocytes in blood than what’s considered to be healthy
(2) Less lymphocytes in blood that what’s considered to be healthy
(3) More RBCs in blood than that’s considered to be healthy
(4) Less RBCs in blood than what’s considered to be healthy
19. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Coelenterata – Cnidoblasts
(2) Porifera – Cellular level of organization
(3) Aschelminthes – Pseudocoelom
(4) Arthropoda – Closed circulatory system
20. From which zone of root, root hair arises?

(1) Meristem
(2) Elongation
(3) Root cap
(4) Maturation
21. Diffusion of gases over the respiratory surface occurs because of
(1) The pCO2 is more in alveoli than in blood
(2) The pCO2 is more in blood than in tissues
(3) The pO2 is more in alveoli than in blood
27
(4) The pO2 is more in tissues than in blood
22. Mark the wrongly matched pair
(1) Streptokinase – Streptococcus
(2) Statin - Monascus Purpureus
(3) Amylase - Aspergillus
(4) Cyclosporin A - Candida lipolytica
23. Evolution occurs as a result of mutations in
(1) Somatic DNA
(2) Somatic RNA
(3) Germplasm DNA
(4) Germplasm RNA
24. The vascular bundle in which xylem and phloem are situated at different radii are called
(1) Conjoint open
(2) Conjoint closed
(3) Bicollateral
(4) Radial
25. First cytokinin was isolated by Miller et. al. from
(1) Human urine
(2) Herring sperm
(3) Unripe maize grain
(4) Coconut milk
❑❑❑
28
Corp.Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
CUET 2023 SAMPLE MOCK PAPER

SOLUTIONS
PART-A
General Aptitude
1. Answer (2)
Arun is the father of Chitransha and Dolly. So, Bimal is uncle of both.
2. Answer (2)
Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure
access to financial services.
3. Answer (4)
Since the sentence talks about a trait ‘ambition’ that is never ‘satisfied’, the most appropriate
response would be ‘passions’.
4. Answer (4)
‘Set aside’ as a phrase means ‘to keep something for a particular purpose’. Thus, it is appropriate as
Ramesh sets aside time for gardening.
5. Answer (2)
⇒ M2 = 12
6. Answer (3)
29
7. Answer (1)
The activity mentioned in the sentence refers to a time based conditional. Since the clause is a real
conditional, it should carry simple present tense. Therefore, ‘increases’ is the correct answer.
8. Answer (3)
‘Cut out’ as a phrase means naturally fitted or suited. Therefore, it’s appropriate to say that Monika is
not cut out for this kind of a job.
9. Answer (4)
B > D > C, E > A
10. Answer (1)
‘Derisive’ means ‘ridiculing, mocking’. Therefore, the antonym would be ‘Respectful’.
11. Answer (1)
The Shulba Sutras are sutra texts belonging to the Śrauta ritual and containing geometry related to
fire-altar construction.
12. Answer (3)
All except spiders, each has a hard protective shell.
13. Answer (3)
8.2 × 7.5 × 9.3
= 61.5 × 9.3
= 571.95
14. Answer (2)
Average speed =
15. Answer (4)
30
16. Answer (4)
Satyameva Jayate is a part of a mantra from the Hindu scripture Mundaka Upanishad.
17. Answer (2)
‘Procurement’ means the act of obtaining something. Therefore, it is appropriate according to the
sentence.
18. Answer (1)
HRMN 99 is a variety of apple
19. Answer (3)
The IUCN head office is in Gland, Switzerland.
20. Answer (2)
Since the sentence is an imperative command, the correct answer will be ‘will you?’
21. Answer (3)
‘To take someone for something/someone’ is to believe something wrongly about a person. E.g.She
took her for her younger sister as she looks so young. Hence, ‘She took that person for a thief’ is the
correct answer.
22. Answer (2)
‘To lie in’ as a phrase refers to taking complete rest. Thus, it’s the most appropriate response.
23. Answer (4)
The book has undergone several changes and updates and hence has had multiple editions.
Therefore, ‘passed through’ is the most appropriate option.
24. Answer (3)
POX 186 located in the constellation Virgo, is a dwarf galaxy that is still forming
25. Answer (2)
Vallabhbhai Patel

Section I: PHYSICS
1. Answer (4)
Since,
31
i.e., work done by a force is the area under the force-displacement graph.
Now area under the F-s plot given is
A = AAP + APQ + AQR + ARB
= 22.5 J
2. Answer (1)
In parallel, voltage remains the same. As Si diode conducts at 0.7 V while Ge diode conducts at 0.3
V hence as only Ge diode conducts, there will be 0.3 V across the diodes and Si diode will never be
forward biased i.e., circuit is rearrange as
Now from KVL
24 – 0.3 – VA = 0
VA = 23.7 V
3. Answer (3)
In explosion of bomb, there is no net external forces acting on it hence its linear momentum will
remain conserved.
i.e.,
(here, horizontal direction is taken as x-axis and vertical as y-axis)
4. Answer (1)
32
Required power = 8 × 103 W
Solar energy incident per second per unit area
= 200 J s–1 m–2
The electrical power = η(optical power)
⇒ A = 200 m2
Hence the area needed to supply 8 kW power is 200 m2.
5. Answer (2)
When the drop breaks away from the capillary, the weight of drop = force of surface tension.
Here, weight = mg
Let surface tension of soapy water is T
Then mg = (πD).T
6. Answer (4)
The given figure is the combination of circular arc and semi infinite current carrying wires. As
magnetic field due to current carrying circular arc = and magnetic field due to current
carrying semi-infinite wire .
From the figure
33
Here,
B3 = 0
7. Answer (1)
For a stretched wire
Strain,
Then, …(i)
…(ii)
From equation (i) & (ii)
T2L1– T2L = T1L2 – T1L
8. Answer (4)
Force = mass × acceleration
Given,
As,
34
Now,
9. Answer (1)
As, F = ma
a = 2.5 m/s2
Given initial velocity u = 15 m/s
Retardation a = 2.5 m/s2
Final velocity v = 0
Time = ?
From the equation of motion
v = u + at
⇒ 0 = 15 + (–2.5)t
10. Answer (2)
In series combination
RS = R1 + R2
Given that R1 = (4 ± 0.5) Ω
R2 = (16 ± 0.5) Ω
Now, RS = R1 + R2 = 4 + 16 = 20 Ω
ΔRS = ΔR1 + ΔR2 = 0.5 + 0.5 = 1.0 Ω
Hence, result will be reported as
35
(20 ± 5%) Ω
11. Answer (3)
Given radius of loop, R = 1000 m
Speed of aircraft,
Centripetal acceleration, ac =
12. Answer (2)
Given weight of the body on the earth surface, W0 = 250 N
Now, variation of acceleration due to gravity with depth is
Here given
13. Answer (4)
Velocity of police van
Velocity of thief’s car vT = 192
Muzzle speed of bullet vb = 150 m/s
36
Now, velocity of bullet w.r.t. thief’s car is
14. Answer (3)
Since the dimensions of exponent is [M0L0T0],
hence
As, [P] = [ML–1T–2]
So,
15. Answer (2)
If y2 = 4ax is the equation of a parabola, then the vertex will be at origin and focus at point (a, 0).
Now, given that x = 2by2
Comparing with the standard equation of parabola.
Now, focal length of the reflecting surface is
37
16. Answer (2)
Given, centripetal acceleration ac = k2rt2
Now,
⇒ v = krt
Tangential acceleration,
Force = mat = mkr
Power = fv = mkr.krt
Power = mk2r2t
17. Answer (4)
Let θA is the twist angle of cylinder A and θB be the twist angle of cylinder B, then
θ = θA + θB …(i)
As twist couple
⇒ for given torque
r4.θ = constant
…(ii)
From equation (i) & (ii)
18. Answer (3)
Intensity of light, I∝W (width of slit)
38
⇒
In interference, maximum intensity is
Imax = and minimum intensity is Imin
19. Answer (1)
Maximum amplitude of balance, A = 0.2 m
Maximum scale reading, Wmax = 50 g = 490 N
Now, from force law, F = Kx
490 = K(0.2)
K = 2450 N m–1
Now, time period,
0.6 =
⇒ m≈22.36 N
20. Answer (1)
Given main scale reading = 6.4 cm
Least count of Vernier Calliper = 0.01 cm
Zero error = –0.04 cm
Length of rod = observed reading + zero correction
= [main scale reading + (Vernier scale reading) × least count] + zero correction.
Length of rod = [6.4 cm + 8 × 0.01 cm] + 0.04 cm
= (6.4 + 0.08 + 0.04) cm
= 6.52 cm
21. Answer (1)
39
Given energy of incident photons E = 10.6 eV = 16.96 × 10–19 J
Number of photons incident per unit time per unit area
Now,
Now, number of photoelectrons emitted per second =
= 6.25 × 1013
22. Answer (3)
Loss in gravitational potential energy = gain in elastic potential in both leg bones
Here, volume = AL = 4 × 10–4 × 0.5 = 2 × 10–4 m3
40 × 9.8 × 2 = (0.9 × 108) ×
≈ 2.05 × 109 N/m2
23. Answer (1)
In SHM, total energy
Kinetic energy
and potential energy
40
Here given
Then
Hence,
24. Answer (1)
Electric current =
Magnetic moment
Now, torque, τ = MBsinθ
25. Answer (3)
Given position x = a – bt + ct2
Since, velocity
⇒ v = 0 – b + 2ct
If we compare the above equation with y = mx + C
Slope, m = 2C& intercept, C = –b
41
Hence, graph in option (3) is correct

Section II: CHEMISTRY
1. Answer (2)
∙ Mn2(CO)10 : 2x + 10(0) = 0
∴ x=0
∙ K[PtCl3(C2H4)] : + 1 + x + 3(–1) + 0 = 0, x = +2
∙ [Co(NH3)5Br]2SO4 : 2[(x + 5(0) + (–1)] + (–2) = 0
x = +2
2. Answer (3)
∙ As highest oxidation number of Sn, S and Fe in their compounds are +4, +6 and +3 respectively
so Cr2O72–can not oxidise Sn4+, SO42– and Fe3+.
∙ Acidified Cr2O72–oxidises iodide into iodine.
Cr2O72– + 14H+ + 6e–🡪 2Cr3+ + 7H2O
6I–🡪 3I2 + 6e–
3. Answer (2)
N2O4(g)  2NO2(g)
On increasing the pressure equilibrium moves in that direction where number of gaseous moles
decreases so on increasing pressure the dissociation of N2O4 decreases as in backward direction
gaseous moles are decreasing.
4. Answer (4)
∙ Iodoform test is given by compounds containing
groups
42
∙ CH3CH2CH2OH (propan-1-ol) does not give an iodoform test.
5. Answer (3)
SF4 : sp3d hybridised :
Number of lone pair on S-atom = 1
NH3 : sp3hybrised :
Number of lone pair on N-atom = 1
6. Answer (2)
More the resonance (delocalisation of positive charge) in a cation, more will be the stability of
carbocation.
7. Answer (2)
For 3p subshell:
Principal quantum number (n) = 3
Azimuthal quantum number (l) = 1
8. Answer (1)
Due to least torsional strain in staggered form of 1,2-dibromonethane the most stable conformation
is
9. Answer (1)
43
∙ Parts per million (ppm) =
∙ ppm concentration term is used when solute is present in trace quantities mean for very dilute
solutions
Unit of molarity of mol l–1
As molality involves mass/mole terms so it is independent of temperature.
∙ Mole fraction (X) =
It is a unitless quantity.
10. Answer (3)
Z = 52 is a Tellurium element which belongs to the 16th group of the modern periodic table, also
known as chalogen elements which means ore forming.
11. Answer (3)
HCl 🡪 H+ + Cl–
0.01M 0.01 M
pH = –log[H+] = –log(0.01) = 2
∴ pOH = 14 – pH = 14 – 2 = 12
12. Answer (2)
Zr (160 pm) belongs to the 2nd transition series whereas Hf (159 pm) belongs to the 3rd transition
series. Due to lanthanoid contraction both possess almost the same properties.
13. Answer (1)
∙ Pyridine contains 3 double bonds and cyclic structure in which N-atom is present in ring along
with carbon atoms so it is a heterocyclic compound.
∙ Since pyridine contains 6π electrons in a conjugated cyclic and planar ring, it is an aromatic
compound.
44
14. Answer (4)
In an adsorption process, which is spontaneous, a combination of ΔH and ΔS makes ΔG negative.
15. Answer (2)
Aniline (aromatic-1°-amine) on diazotization gives benzenediazonium chloride which on treatment

with alkaline β-naphthol forms an orange red dye while ethylamine does not given this test.
16. Answer (3)
A solution having the same composition throughout is called homogeneous. For example a solution
of table salt in a glass of water.
17. Answer (3)
∙ Electron withdrawing groups increase the acidic nature of carboxylic acids.
∙ –I effect : – F > – Cl
∙ Acidic strength :
CF3COOH > CHF2COOH > CH2FCOOH > CH2ClCOOH
18. Answer (4)
∙ Lucas reagent (conc. HCl + anhy. ZnCl2) is used to distinguish 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols.
∙ 1° alcohol (Butan-1-ol) are least reactive towards Lucas reagents.
∙ 3°-alcohols (2-methylpropan-2-ol) reacts immediately with Lucas reagent and a turbidity is

obtained.
19. Answer (4)
Williamson’s ether synthesis: Alkyl halides on heating with potassium alkoxide forms ethers.
20. Answer (1)
∙ Species having unpaired electrons are paramagnetic in nature.
∙ [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 contains Cu2+ ion which contains an unpaired electron.
∙ O2 contains two unpaired electrons in π* molecular orbitals.
45
∙ [Zn(H2O)6]Cl2 contains Zn2+ which has no unpaired electron.
∙ N2 has no unpaired electron.
∙ K4[Fe(CN)6] contains Fe2+ ion which has no unpaired electron.
21. Answer (1)
∙ Wurtz reaction : when alkyl halides reacts with Na in dry ether, alkanes are obtained
C2H5Br + 2Na + BrC2H5 C2H5C2H5 + 2NaBr.
∙ Sandmeyer’s reaction
∙ Williamson’s synthesis:
∙ Ullmann reaction:
22. Answer (2)
∙ Aldehydes (aliphatic or aromatic) gives Tollens test
∙ Aliphatic aldehydes give a positive Fehling’s test but aromatic aldehydes do not respond to
Fehling’s test.
∙ Ketones do not give Tollens and Fehlings tests.
23. Answer (3)
46
For CH3COOH,
Now,
24. Answer (2)
25. Answer (2)
For the element:
24.16 × 1023 atoms have mass = 208 g
∴ 6.02 × 1023 atoms will have mass
= 51.83 g = molar mass (M)
Now,
47
∴
Z = 2 means 2 atoms are present in 1 unit cell of cubic structure which is true for body centered
cubic unit cells.

Section III: MATHEMATICS
1. Answer (1)
For non-trivial solution of system of equation, determinant of coefficient shall vanish i.e.,
⇒ 1(6 – k) – k(8 – 2k) +3(4 – 6) = 0
⇒ 6 – k – 8k + 2k2 – 6 = 0
⇒ 2k2 – 9k = 0
⇒ , the largest value of k is
2. Answer (2)
Number of relations = 2mn
∴ as n(P) = p, gives number of relations
3. Answer (3)
{ sin2x + cos2x = 1}
∴ det(A + B) =
4. Answer (4)
For slope of tangent
48
For,
∴ equation of tangent is
At
∴ tangent shall be vertical.
Coordinates of point with is (1, 0)
∴ Equation of tangent x = 1.
5. Answer (2)
Velocity can change even when speed is constant. This happens when the direction of motion
changes.
If speed of body changes, then magnitude of velocity will change and some non-zero acceleration
would be present as .
6. Answer (1)
Time to reach maximum height =
Speed at time t (= 2.8 – 1 = 1.8 s) will be v = u – gt
= 28 – 10 × 1.8 = 10 m/s
7. Answer (2)
As are both perpendicular to we have
49
And also
Let
given
a + 2b – c = 0 …(i)
2a – b + 3c = 0 …(ii)
2a + b + 6c = 10 …(iii)
8. Answer (4)
f′(x) = 2ax + 6
As x = 1 is a maxima, f′(1) = 0
∴ 2a + 6 = 0 ⇒a = –3
9. Answer (4)
Solutions of linear differential equation of from
is
10. Answer (4)
11. Answer (3)
50
∴
12. Answer (3)
Total number of Ace = 4
Total number of King = 4
Total cards = 52
∴ Required probability =
13. Answer (4)
T19 = a + 18d = 0
14. Answer (4)
As E1&E2 are independent events
Similarly,
15. Answer (2)
Maximum frictional force = μmg = limiting friction
= 0.2 × 4 × 10
=8N
51
Applied force > Limiting friction
∴ friction = limiting friction = 8 N
16. Answer (3)
Thus net force is acting between south and west.
17. Answer (2)
Let
⇒ tanAtanB + tanBtanC + tanCtanA = 1
⇒ xy + yz + zx = 1
18. Answer (4)
Domain of is a> 0, b> 0 &b≠ 1
∴ (x – 10)> 0 and x– 10≠ 1
⇒ x> 10 and x≠ 11
19. Answer (1)
Using conservation of linear momentum
ma = (m + M)v
20. Answer (3)
det(2AB) = 23det(A)det(B) {as A&B are of 3 × 3 order matrices}
= 8(3)(4) = 96
21. Answer (2)
52
⇒ ydy + xdx = 0
Integrating both sides we get,
22. Answer (3)
foci of given ellipse are
Equation of circle centred (0, 3) is

x2 + (y – 3)2 = r2
Square of distance between .

⇒ r2 = 16
∴ Required circle x2 + y2 – 6y – 7 = 0
23. Answer (1)
As the given limit involves [ ] we calculate both
LHL & RHL i.e.,
&
As LHL ≠ RHL hence limit does not exist

24. Answer (4)
If both a&b vanishes then
Case-I c = 0 the equation becomes identity
Case-II c≠ 0 equation is meaningless
∴ if atleast one of a&b are non-zero then only ax + by + c = 0 represents a straight line.
25. Answer (1)
53
∴ Required are =

Section IV: BIOLOGY
1. Answer (4)
Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra takes place by two types of conjugation. Scalariform conjugation
occurs between the cells belonging to different filaments whereas lateral conjugation occurs between
adjacent cells of the same filament.
2. Answer (3)
In honeybee, sex is determined by the number of sets of chromosmes an individual receives.

Haploid individuals that develop parthenogenetically become male while diploid ones are female.
3. Answer (4)
A hexokinase catalyzed conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate is an irreversible process.
4. Answer (1)
β-cells of pancreas secrete insulin which is a hypoglycemic hormone. Deficiency of insulin leads to a
complex disorder called diabetes mellitus. Presence of glucose (glycosuria) and ketone bodies
(ketonuria) in urine are indicative of diabetes mellitus.
Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to accumulation of urea in blood, a condition called uremia.
Stone or insoluble mass of crystallised salts formed within the kidney is called renal calculi.
5. Answer (3)
Sciophytes are shade loving plants whereas heliophytes are sun loving plants.
54
6. Answer (1)
Bacteriophages produce lysozyme (glycosidases) that lyse bacterial cell for the release of virions
7. Answer (2)
Enzymes of Krebs’ cycle are found in matrix whereas carriers of the electron transport system are
located in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
8. Answer (2)
Secretin acts on the exocrine pancreas and stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions.
Gastrin acts on the gastric glands and stimulates gastric secretions.
Cholecystokinin acts on both pancreas and gallbladder and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic
enzymes and contraction of gallbladder to release bile juice, respectively.
GIP inhibits gastric secretion and motility.
9. Answer (3)
Hormones responsible for menstrual cycles are LH, FSH, estrogen and progesterone. LH and FSH
are gonadotropins produced from anterior pituitary after stimulus from the hypothalamus. Estrogen
and progesterone are ovarian hormones.
10. Answer (3)
Sugarcane is a C4 plant. In C4 plants CO2 fixation occurs twice. Primary CO2 fixation occurs in
mesophyll and the reaction is catalyzed by PEPcase while secondary CO2 fixation occurs in bundle
sheath cells, catalyzed by RuBisCO.
11. Answer (3)
Legume is the fruit of the Fabaceae family. Siliqua is the fruit of Brassicaceae, pepo is fruit of
Cucurbitaceae while berry is fruit of the Solanaeceae family.
12. Answer (3)
The sequence proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution is overproduction, variations,
the constancy of population size, and natural selection.
Every population has an inherent capacity to increase its number exponentially if every individual of
that population reproduced maximally. But nature keeps a control over the population size as natural
resources are limited in nature. So population sizes are limited and there has been competition. The
one who had better adaptability survived and produced more progeny. This is natural selection.
13. Answer (3)
In vitro fertilization (IVF-fertilisation outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the body)
followed by embryo transfer is popularly known as test tube baby programme, that is fertilization of
the ovum occurs in test tube whereas development of embryo occurs in uterus.
14. Answer (2)
Rhizobium fixes N2 in legume plants. Azotobacter and Rhodospirillum are free living N2 fixers.
Frankia fixes N2 in Alnus (non leguminous plant)
15. Answer (2)
55
Crossover value or recombination frequency is high when genes are distantly situated on
chromosomes. In the case of completely linked genes, recombination frequency is zero.
16. Answer (2)
Ballochory or ballistic mechanism of seed dispersal is seen in touch me not, squirting cucumber and
cracker plant.
17. Answer (1)
The spinal cord is an elongated cylindrical structure that extends from the medulla oblongata of
hindbrain.
Cerebrum is the part of the forebrain.
Cerebellum is part of the hindbrain.
Hippocampus is the part of the limbic system of the brain.
18. Answer (4)
The hematocrit measures the volume of red blood cells compared to the total blood volume.
Therefore, low hematocrit value represents less RBCs in blood than what’s considered to be healthy.
19. Answer (4)
Members of phylum Arthropoda have jointed appendages (anthros-joint, poda-appendages) and

open circulatory system. Cnidarians are characterized by presence of cnidoblasts or cnidocytes for
anchorage, defense and capture of prey.
Members of phylum Porifera are primitive multicellular animals and have cellular level of
organization.
Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate animals.
20. Answer (4)
Root hairs are epidermal outgrowths that arise from the zone of maturation of root.
21. Answer (3)
Gases move from a region of high partial pressure to a low partial pressure area.
22. Answer (4)
Cyclosporin A is obtained from a fungus, Trichoderma polysporum. Cyclosporin A acts as an

immunosuppressive agent.
23. Answer (3)
Evolution occurs as a result of mutations in germplasm DNA.
56
If mutations occur in non-germline cells, then these changes can be categorized as somatic
mutations.
A somatic mutation will affect a single organism’s survival.
24. Answer (4)
In radial vascular bundle xylem and phloem are situated on different radii. In conjoint and bicollateral
vascular bundles xylem and phloem are situated on the same radius.
25. Answer (2)
First cytokinin was isolated from autoclaved herring sperm by Miller et al. First natural plant cytokinin
was isolated from unripe maize grain. First auxin was isolated from human urine.
❑❑❑
57

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Corp.Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.

CUET 2023 SAMPLE MOCK PAPER

1. The paper consists of two parts i.e. Part A and Part B.

2. PMJDY scheme stands for

(1) Pradhan Mitra Jeevan Dhan Yojana

(2) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

(4) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Dhan Yojana

Ambition is one of those ________ which are never satisfied.

4. Ramesh decided to set ______ sometime every day for gardening.

7. As the Ratha Yatra festival approaches, the number of pilgrims in Puri_______.

(3) will be increased

(4) would have been increased

8. Monika is not _______ for this kind of job.

(3) cut out

(4) cut through

11. The most important text of vedic mathematics is

(1) Sulva Sutras

(3) Satapatha Brahmana

(4) Chandogya Upanishad

13. 8.2 × 7.5 × 9.3 = ________

13, 14, 22, 31, _____, 120, 336

Education facilitates the ________ of specific skills.

18. HRMN 99, recently figured in the news, is related to

20. Get me a cup of coffee, ________

(1) shall you?

(2) Will you?

(3) won't’ you?

(4) wouldn’t you?

21. She took that person ____ a thief.

23. The book has passed ______ fifteen editions.

24. Pox 186 is a

25. Who was the leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha?

(1) Rajendra Prasad

(2) Vallabhbhai Patel

(3) Mahatma Gandhi

(4) Jivatram Bhagwandas Kripalani

PART-B: Domain Knowledge

(1) (20 ± 1%) Ω

(2) (20 ± 5%) Ω

(3) (20 ± 0.25%) Ω

(4) (20 ± 0.5%) Ω

(1) 250 m/s2

(2) 0.4 m/s2

(3) 62.5 m/s2

(4) 6.25 m/s2

(1) 475/3 m/s

(2) 160/3 m/s

(4) 105 m/s

14. Pressure P varies as where x denotes the distance, kB is the Boltzmann’s

PART-B: Domain Knowledge

1. In which of the following compounds, metal is in zero oxidation state?

6. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation?

7. The correct set of quantum numbers for 3p subshell is

8. The most stable conformation of 1, 2-dibromomethane among the following is

9. Match List-I with List-II:

a. PPM (i) Mol L–1

b. Molarity (ii) No units

c. Molality (iii) Independent of temperature

d. Mole fraction (iv) Very dilute solutions

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1) a(iv), b(i) c(iii), d(ii)

(2) a(iv), b(ii) c(i), d(iii)