Class 10 Science

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Class 10 Science CBSE Board Model Exam

Total Marks: 80 Duration: 3 hrs
Section-A
Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for each
of the questions 1 - 20. There is no negative mark for incorrect response.

1) A student performs an experiment to form aluminium chloride from aluminium and

chlorine. Which of the following option gives the chemical equation of the reaction?

(A) Al + Cl2 → AlCl2 (B) 2Al + Cl2 → 2AlCl

(C) 2Al + 3Cl2 → 2AlCl3 (D) 3Al + 3Cl2 → 3AlCl3
Solution: C

2) The image represents the structure of a few hydrocarbon compounds.

Which of these compounds can be classified as alkynes?

(A) Only A (B) Only B (C) Both A and D (D) Both B and C
Solution: C

3) Which of the following is not an alkali?

(A) KOH (B) Mg(OH)2 (C) NaOH (D) NH4OH

Solution: B

4) Given below are reactions involving metals P, Q, R and S and their salt solutions in water. Which
metal is the MOST reactive?

Metal P salt solution + Q→ Metal Q salt solution + P

Metal Q salt solution + R→ Metal R salt solution + Q
Metal S salt solution + Q→ Metal Q salt solution + S
Metal P salt solution + S→ No reaction

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

Solution: C

5) Identify the correct statement for the following:

Blue colour of copper(III) sulphate solution is destroyed when iron filling are added to it.

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(A) Blue colour of copper sulphate is destroyed because iron displaces copper from copper
sulphate solution as iron is more reactive than copper.
(B) Blue colour of copper sulphate is destroyed because iron displaces copper from copper
sulphate solution as Copper is more reactive than iron.
(C) Blue colour of copper sulphate is destroyed because copper displaces iron from iron
sulphate solution as iron is less reactive than copper.
(D) None of the above

Solution: A
Blue colour of copper sulphate is destroyed because iron displaces copper from copper
sulphate solution as iron is more reactive than copper.

6) An aqueous solution of ammonium chloride is

(A) Acidic (B) Basic (C) Salt (D) None of the above
Solution: A

7) Which of the following pairs will give displacement reaction?

(A) NaCl solution and copper metal (B) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal
(C) FeSO4 solution and silver metal (D) AgNO3 solution and copper metal
Solution: D

8) Name a circulatory fluid in the human body other than blood.

(A) Platelets (B) RBC (C) Lymph (D) Plasma

Solution: C

9) Which are always second tropic level of food chains?

(A) Carnivores (B) Autotrophs (C) Herbivores (D) None

Solution: C

10) Tomato is a natural source of which acid?

(A) Acetic acid (B) Citric acid (C) Tartaric acid (D) Oxalic acid
Solution: D

11) The longest fibre on the cell body of a neuron is called

(A) sheath (B) cytoplasm (C) axon (D) dendrites

Solution: C

12) If a round green seeded pea plant (RR, yy) is crossed with wrinkled yellow seed plant (rr, YY)
the seeds produced in F₁ generation are

(A) Round and yellow (B) Round and green

(C) Wrinkled and yellow (D) Wrinkled and green.

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Solution: A

13) An object is placed in front of a concave mirror at the centre. Its image is formed:

(A) Beyond the centre (B) At the centre.

(C) At infinity (D) Image is not formed at all.
Solution: B

14) When light enters the atmosphere it strikes on extremely fine particles, which deflect therays of
light in all possible directions, This is due to –

(A) reflection of light (B) atmospheric refraction

(C) scattering of light (D) dispersion of light
Solution: C

15) If the earth had no atmosphere the sky would have looked.

(A) Red (B) Blue (C) Yellow (D) Dark

Solution: D

16) Which of the following features relates to biodegradable substances?

(A) Broken down by biological processes (B) Remain inert

(C) Persist in environment for long time (D) May harm the ecosystem
Solution: A

Question No. 17 to 20 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.

17) Assertion: Fluorine has greater atomic radius than nitrogen.

Reason: Atomic radius decreases along a period..
Solution: D

18) Assertion: The placenta facilitates the exchange of nutrients and waste substances between the
mother and the developing embryo.
Reason: The placenta contains villi that interact with the mother's blood spaces, providing
a large surface area for the transfer of glucose, oxygen, and waste substances
Solution: A

19) Assertion: Alternating Current is used in household supply.

Reason: AC electric power can be transmitted over long distances without much loss of energy.
Solution: A

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20) Assertion: Ozone is formed in upper atmosphere by O2 in presence of UV radiations.

Reason: Ozone depletion will lead to UV rays reaching earth which may cause skin cancer.
Solution: B

SECTION B
Question No. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions

21) Identify the oxidizing and reducing agents in the following reactions:
(A) Cr2 O3 + 2Al → 2Cr + Al2 O3
(B) ZnO + C → Zn + CO
Solution (a) OA: 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂3 ;
RA: Al
b. OA: ZnO; RA: C

22) Differentiate between biodegradable and nonbiodegradable substance with the help of an
example.
Solution: Biodegradable things can naturally break down with the help of living things like bacteria
or fungi. They don't stick around for a long time and become harmless parts of the environment.
For example, food scraps can be broken down by tiny organisms.
Non-biodegradable things, on the other hand, can't easily break down naturally and stick around in
the environment for a really long time. Plastics like those used in bottles are an example. They can
last for hundreds of years and cause problems in nature if not disposed of properly or recycled.

23) What are capillaries? State the function performed by them.

Solution:
Capillaries are tiny blood vessels that connect arteries to veins. They're really small, like hair-
thin tubes. Their job is to deliver oxygen and nutrients from the blood to the body's tissues and
pick up waste, like carbon dioxide, from the tissues to take it back to the heart and lungs to be
removed from the body. They're like small bridges that help move stuff in and out of the blood.

24) If the power of a lens is +5 dioptre, what is its focal length?

Solution:
P=+5 D ; f=1/P = 1/5 = 0.2 m or 20 cm

25) Let the resistance electrical device remain constant, while the potential difference across its two
ends decreases to one fourth of its initial value. What change will occur in the current through
it? State the law which helps us in solving the above stated question.
Solution: According to Ohm’s law
V = IR
Now, potential difference is decreased to one fourth.

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∴ New potential difference V' = V/4

𝑉𝛼𝐼 = 𝐼 𝑖𝑠 𝑑𝑒𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑒𝑑 𝑏𝑦 4

OR
State whether an alpha particle will experience any force in a magnetic field if (alpha particles
are positively charged particles)

(i) it is placed in the field at rest.

(ii) it moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines.
(iii) it moves in the magnetic field perpendicular to field lines.

Justify your answer in each case

Solution:
(i) No, alpha particle will not experience any force if it is at rest, because only moving charge
particle can experience force when placed in a magnetic field.
(ii) No, alpha particle will not experience any force if it moves in the magnetic field parallel to field
lines because charge particle experiences force only when it moves at an angle other than 0° with
magnetic field.
(iii) Alpha particle will experience a force in the direction perpendicular to the direction of
magnetic field and direction of motion of alpha particle.

26) Study the food chain given below and answer the questions that follow:

a) If the amount of energy available at the third trophic level is 100 joules, then howmuch
energy will be available at the producer level? Justify your answer.
b) Is it possible to have 2 more trophic levels in this food chain just before the fourth
trophic level? Justify your answer.
Solution:
a) energy decreases as it moves up the food chain. Only about 10% of the energy gets passed from
one level to the next. 100 joules at the third trophic level represents 10% of the energy available at
the level preceding it (the second trophic level), Therefore, energy at the second trophic level is 100
joules × 10 = 1000 joules. Following the same 10% rule, the energy available at the producer level
(the first trophic level) would be 10 times greater than the second trophic level. Energy at the
producer level is 1000 joules × 10 = 10,000 joules
b) No, it's possible to have two more trophic levels before the fourth trophic level in this food chain.
Since the loss of energy at each step is so great that very little usable energy will remain after 4
trophic levels.

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SECTION C
Question No. 27 to 33 are short answer questions

27) Here are some general statements. Give one exception for each statement
a) Metals are malleable and ductile
b) Metals are solids at room temperature
c) Metals have a high melting point.
d) Non-metals are non-lustrous
e) Non-metals are non-conductors of electricity
f) Non-metals have low melting points
Solution:
a) Malleable (Exception: Mercury) Ductile (Exception: Mercury)
b) Metals are solid at room temperature except for Mercury and Gallium.
c) Mercury is the only liquid metal with a melting point of −38 ∘C
d) Iodine
e) Graphite
f) Graphite
(or)

The given reaction shows one of the processes to extract the metals like Iron and Manganese.
MnO₂ (s) + Al(s) → Mn(l) + Al₂O₃(s) + Heat

a) Give reason why the above reaction is known as a thermite reaction.

b) Identify the substance oxidised and reduced in the above reaction.
c) Give a reason why Aluminium is preferably used in thermite reactions.
Solution:

a) The above reaction is known as a thermite reaction as the reaction is highly

exothermic reaction.
b) The metal (Mn/Fe) obtained will be in molten/ liquid state. b) Substance oxidised - Al(s)
Substance reduced – MnO2 (s)
c) Aluminium is preferably used in thermite reactions as it is placed above Fe and Mn in
reactivity series of metals. Al is more reactive than Fe/ Mn

28) Draw the structural formulae of three isomers of hexane and name them using IUPAC rule.
Solution:

Hexane is the sixth member of the homologous series of alkanes with molecular formula C6H14 ,it
has been found that Heaxane has following Isomers.(apart from stereoisomers).

1) n-Hexane.
2) 2-Methyl pentane(IUPAC name) or Isohexane(common name).
3) 2,2-Dimethylbutane(IUPAC name) or Neohexane(common name).
4) 3-Methylpentane.
5) 2,3-Dimethylbutane.

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(or)
a) Name two metals which form hydrides.
b) Name two metals which do not displace hydrogen from dilute acids
c) Name two metals which displace hydrogen from dilute acids
Solution:
a)There are a number of types of hydrides. This includes aluminum, beryllium, cadmium, caesium,
calcium, copper, iron, lithium, magnesium, nickel, palladium, plutonium, potassium rubidium,
sodium, thallium, titanium, uranium and zinc hydrides.
b) Mercury and copper cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids as they are less reactive than
hydrogen.
c) Iron and aluminium will displace hydrogen from dilute acids as they are more reactive then
hydrogen.

29) We are advised to take iodised salt in our diet by doctors. Justify it's importance in our body.
Solution:
Iodized salt is recommended because iodine is crucial for the production of thyroid hormones.
These hormones play a vital role in regulating metabolism and the development and functioning of
the brain, especially in infants and during pregnancy.
Iodine deficiency can lead to thyroid issues, which may result in a condition called goiter
(enlargement of the thyroid gland), hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid), or even developmental
issues, particularly in children.
By consuming iodized salt, which has iodine added to it, people can ensure they maintain adequate

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iodine levels in their bodies, supporting proper thyroid function and overall health. It's an easy way
to prevent iodine deficiency disorders and promote healthy growth and metabolism.

30) What is the probability of a girl or a boy being born in a family? Justify your answer.
Solution:
The probability of a girl or a boy being born in a family is essentially 50%, because every birth has a
50% chance of resulting in a boy and a 50% chance of resulting in a girl. This is based on the
principle of biological sex determination where, on average, the probability of having a boy or a girl
is equal.
Each pregnancy is independent of the previous ones in terms of determining the sex of the child, so
the probability remains the same for each birth. Therefore, for any given birth, the chance of having
either a boy or a girl is 50%.

31) A beam of light passes from air into a substance X. If the angle of incidence is 45° and the angle
of refraction is 30°, Calculate the refractive index of the substance X (Given sin 30° =
0.5 and sin45° = 0.707)
0.707
Solution: Refractive index 𝑛𝑥𝑎𝑖𝑟 = sin 𝑖/ sin 𝑟 = = 1.414
.5

32) A current of 15 A flows through a conductor for two minutes.

(i) Calculate the amount of charge passed through any area of cross section of the conductor.
(ii) If the charge of an electron is 1.6 × 10-19 C, then calculate the total number of electrons
flowing.
Solution:
Given that: I = 15 A, t = 2 min = 2 × 60 s = 120 s
(i) Amount of charge Q passed through any area of cross-section is given by I = Qt
or Q = I × t ∴ Q = (15 × 120) A s = 1800 C
(ii) Since, Q = ne
where n is the total number of electrons flowing and e is the charge on one electron
∴ 1800 = n × 1.6 × 10-19
or n = 1800/ 1.6×10−19 = 11.25 × 1021

33) Name two common defects of vision which can be connected using lenses. Write two causes of
any one defect. Name and draw the type of lens used to correct it.
Solution: The two most common defects of vision are myopia and hypermetropia.
Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens
Hypermetropia can be corrected by using a convex lens.

Section D

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Question No. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.

34) A metal X (At. No-12) combines with non- metal Y (At No=8) by the transfer of electrons to form
compounds Z.
a) Identify the type of bond found in compound Z
b) Comment upon melting point and boiling point of compound Z
c) Which solvent is suitable to dissolve compound Z, water or kerosene? Justify your answer
with suitable explanation.
Solution:
(i) Compound Z has ionic bonds because it is formed by transfer of electrons.

(ii) Its melting and boiling points will be high because of the strong intermolecular forces between
them.
It will be a good conductor of electricity because of the presence of ions in it.

(ii) It will not be dissolved in an organic solvent because of its ionic nature.

OR
A metal M is used for making railway tracks. When its oxide is heated with Aluminium powder,
it forms an aluminium oxide. Name the reaction. Write down the balanced equations for the
reactions.
Solution:

Compound M Is iron oxide ( 𝐹𝑒2 𝑂3 ). This reaction is called thermite reaction. This reaction
is given by following equation:.

35) Given below are certain situations. Analyze and describe its possible impact on a person:
a) Testes of a male boy are not able to descend into scrotum during his embryonic
development.
b) Vas deferens of a man is plugged.
c) Prostate and seminal vesicles are not functional.
d) Egg is not fertilised in a human female.
e) Placenta does not attach to the uterus optimally.
Solution:
a) Undescended Testes in a Male Boy:
This means the testes don't drop into their proper place. It might affect how a boy's body develops,
fertility, and increase the chance of cancer later on.
b) Blocked Vas Deferens in a Man:
When these tubes carrying sperm get blocked, it can lead to infertility. Sperm can't come out during
ejaculation, and it might need treatment to fix.
c) Non-functional Prostate and Seminal Vesicles:
These parts help make semen. If they don't work right, it can affect fertility and might cause issues
with sex.
d) Unfertilized Egg in a Human Female:

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If the egg doesn't fertilize with sperm, it's a normal part of the menstrual cycle and doesn't affect
health.
d) Placenta does not attach to the uterus optimally:
The insufficiency occurs because the placenta doesn't attach optimally to the uterus, which
impedes the dilation of the arteries and restricts the flow of the important nutrients and
oxygen.

OR

a) A doctor has advised Sameer to reduce sugar intake in his diet and do regular exercise after
checking his blood test reports. Which disease do you think Sameer is suffering from? Name
the hormone responsible for this disease and the organ producing the hormone.

b) Which hormone is present in the areas of rapid cell division in a plant and which hormone
inhibits the growth?

Solution:
a) Given the advice to reduce sugar intake and exercise, it's possible Sameer might be
dealing with diabetes or prediabetes. In diabetes, insulin, a hormone produced by the
pancreas, either isn't produced enough or isn't used effectively by the body. This leads to
high blood sugar levels. Cutting down on sugar intake and exercise can help manage blood
sugar levels.
b) The hormone responsible for rapid cell division in plants is "cytokinin." It promotes cell
division and growth in areas like roots and shoots. On the other hand, the hormone that
inhibits growth in plants is "abscisic acid." It regulates plant growth by inhibiting shoot
growth when water is scarce or during stressful conditions.

36) Find the position of an object which when placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20
cm produces a virtual image, which is twice the size of the object.
Solution:

Given f=-20cm m=+2 because the image is virtual and erect.

𝑣
− = 2 𝑣 = −2𝑢
𝑢
1 1 1
= +
𝑓 𝑢 𝑣
1 1 1
= −
−20 𝑢 2𝑢

2𝑢 = −20

𝑢 = −10𝑐𝑚

so the object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from the mirror.

OR
(i) A 10 cm long pencil is placed 5 cm in front of a concave mirror having a radius of curvature

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of 40 cm.
(ii) Determine the position of the image formed by this mirror.
(iii) What is the size of the image?

Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image as mentioned in the part (i).
Solution:

Section E
Question No. 37 to 39 are case-based/data -based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-
parts.
Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.

37) Carbon compounds are present everywhere that is in the food that we eat, the clothes we wear
and even in the lead pencil by which we write. It is found in both free as well as in the combined
state.

Table below shows molecular formula of five carbon compounds.

Carbon Molecular formula

compound
P C2H4
Q C2H6
R C3H4
S C4H10
T C5H12

a) Which of these carbon compounds belong to alkyne series?

b) What do you mean by isomers? Draw all possible isomers of C4H10

Solution:

a) R

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b)

(OR)

OR
a) Why P, Q, R, S, T are classified as hydrocarbons?

b) What do you mean by covalent bond? Using electron dot structure show covalent bond
formation in C2H4?

Solution:
a. Hydrocarbons are organic compounds that are entirely made up of only two kinds of
atoms – carbon and hydrogen. That is why they are said to hydrocarbons
b.The total number of valence electrons present in Here the central atom is carbon, whereas
Hydrogen is chosen as the side atom.Each carbon has 4 valence electrons, from which it will use 2 of
the electrons from each carbon to make a double bond between them.And the rest of the 2 electrons
from each carbon will be used to make a total of 4 single bonds with 4 hydrogen single atoms.
Hence, the electron dot structure of
can be shown as:

38) The two sexes participating in sexual reproduction must be somewhat different from each other
for a number of reasons. How is the sex of a newborn individual determined? Different species
use very different strategies for this. Some rely entirely on environmental cues. Thus, in some
animals like a few reptiles, the temperature at which fertilized eggs are kept determines whether
the animals developing in the eggs will be male or female. In other animals, such as snails,
individuals can change sex, indicating that sex is not genetically determined. However, in human
beings, the sex of the individual is largely genetically determined. In other words, the genes
inherited from our parents decide whether we will be boys or girls.

(i) How many chromosomes are there in human beings?

(ii) What are the pair of sex chromosome present in both male and female?

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(iii) How is the sex of the child determined in human beings?

(iv) Give a cross between male and female for sex determination in human beings.
(v) What is hermaphrodites?
Solution:
(i) Human beings have 46 chromosomes, grouped into 23 pairs.

(ii) Both males and females have one pair of sex chromosomes: females have two X chromosomes (XX), and
males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY).

(iii) In humans, the sex of a child is determined by the sex chromosomes inherited from the parents. If a child
gets two X chromosomes (one from each parent), they're female (XX). If they get an X from the mother and a
Y from the father, they're male (XY).

(iv) A male can contribute either an X or a Y chromosome. A female can only contribute an X chromosome. If
an X-carrying sperm fertilizes the egg, it's a girl (XX), and if a Y-carrying sperm fertilizes it, it's a boy (XY).
(v) Hermaphrodites have both male and female reproductive organs. In humans, it's extremely rare.
Intersex is a more common condition where an individual's anatomy doesn't match typical
definitions of male or female.

39)

Students made a circuit that operates the two red lamps and the two yellow lamps as shown in
figure, in their school fair. Based on their circuit, answerthe following questions.

(i) State what happens when switch A is connected to

a) Position 2
b) Position 3

(ii) Find the potential difference across each lamp when lit.
(iii) Calculate the current
a) in each 12 Ω lamp when lit.
b) In each 4 Ω lamp when lit.
Solution:

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OR

Show, with calculations, which type of lamp, 4.0 Ω or 12 Ω, has the higher power
Solution:

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