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PRACTICE TEST - 04
DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 27/08/2023 M.MARKS : 300
Topics Covered
Physics: Motion of System of Particle and COM (Complete Chapter), Rotational Motion: Introduction,
Rigid Body, Moment of Inertia
Parallel Axis & Perpendicular Axis Theorem (Fix Axis Rotation), Equilibrium, Toppling.
Chemistry: Chemical Bonding (Full Chapter), Nomenclature (Full Chapter).
Mathematics: Trigonometric Ratio & Identities (Full Chapter), Trigonometric Equation (Full Chapter),
Determinants (Full Chapter).
Matrices (Full Chapter).
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are Three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II (Chemistry),
Section-III (Mathematics) and having 30 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are compulsory and are of
Objective Type and Last 10 questions are integers type in which you have to attempt 5 questions only.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
[1]
Section-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions
1. A uniform thin rod AB of length L has linear mass 7. A ball of mass m moving with speed u undergoes a
bx head-on elastic collision with a ball of mass nm
density ( x) a , where x is measured from
L initially at rest. The fraction of the incident energy
7 transferred to the second ball is
A. If the CM of the rod lies at a distance of L
12 n n
(1) (2)
from A, then a and b are related as: 1 n 1 n 2
(1) a = 2b (2) 2a = b
(3) a = b (4) 3a = 2b 2n 4n
(3) (4)
1 n 2
1 n 2
2. A cricket player caught a ball of mass 150 gm
moving at a rate of 20 m/s. If the catching process
8. Two men ‘A’ and ‘B’ are standing on a plank. ‘B’ is
be completed in 0.1s, then the force of the blow
at the middle of the plank and ‘A’ is at the left end
exerted by the ball on the hands of the player is
(1) 0.3 N (2) 30 N of the plank. Lower surface of the plank is smooth.
(3) 300 N (4) 3000 N System is initially at rest and masses are as shown
in figure. ‘A’ and ‘B’ start moving such that the
3. A circular disc of radius R and thickness R/6 has position of 'B' remains fixed with respect to ground,
moment of inertia I about an axis passing through then ‘A’ meets 'B'. The point where A meet B is
its centre and perpendicular to its plane. located at
It is melted and recasted into a solid sphere.
The moment of inertia of the sphere about its
diameter as axis of rotation is
(1) I (2) 2I/8
(3) I/5 (4) I/10
(1) The middle of the plank
4. If the masses of two balls be in the ratio 3:2 and (2) 30 cm from the left end of the plank
their respective velocities before impact be in the (3) The right end of the plank
ratio 2:3 and in opposite directions, and the (4) None of these
coefficient of restitution is 2/3, find with what
velocity will each ball move back with respect to 9. Two blocks of masses m1 = 2kg and m2 = 4 kg are
the original velocity. moving in the same direction with speed v1 = 6 m/s
(1) 1/3 times the original velocity and v2 = 3 m/s, respectively on a frictionless surface
(2) 2/3 times the original velocity as shown in the figure. An ideal spring with spring
(3) 3/1 times the original velocity constant k = 30000 N/m is attached to the back side
(4) 3/2 times the original velocity of m2. Then the maximum compression of the
spring after collision will be
5. A particle of mass m moving with velocity 1 m/s
collides perfectly elastically with another stationary
particle of mass 2m. If the incident particle is
deflected by 90º, the heavy mass will make an angle
(1) 0.06 m (2) 0.04 m
with the initial direction of m equal to
(3) 0.02 m (4) None of these
(1) 60º (2) 45º
(3) 15º (4) 30º
10. A gun of mass M, fires a shell of mass m
horizontally and the energy of explosion is such as
6. A ball impinges directly on another identical ball at would be sufficient to project the shell vertically to
rest. The first ball is brought to rest by the impact. If height ‘h’. The recoil velocity of the gun is
half of the kinetic energy is lost by the impact, the 1 1
value of coefficient of restitution is. 2m 2 gh 2 2m 2 gh 2
(1) (2)
(1)
1
(2)
1 M (m M ) M (m M )
2 3 1 1
1 3 2m 2 gh 2 2m 2 gh 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 2 2M (m M ) 2M (m M )
[2]
11. A projectile is fired at a speed of 100 m/s at an
angle of 37º above the horizontal. At the highest
point, the projectile breaks into two parts of mass
ratio 1 : 3, the smaller coming to rest. Find the
distance from the launching point to the point where
(1) OC (2) OA
the heavier piece lands. [tan 37° = 3/4]
(3) OB (4) OD
(1) 1110 m (2) 1120 m
(3) 1130 m (4) None of these 17. Two blocks of mass 2 kg and 5 kg are given speed
as shown in the figure. System is lying on a
12. A rectangular block has a square base measuring frictionless surface and blocks are connected by a
a × a, and its height is h. It moves on a horizontal massless spring of spring constant 35 N/m.
surface in a direction perpendicular to one of the Find the maximum compression in the spring.
edges. The coefficient of friction is . It will topple
if.
h a
(1) (2) (1) 2 2m (2) 2m
a
2a
h
a
(3)
2 1 m (4) 2
2 1 m
(3) (4)
h 2h
18. Two particles of equal mass are projected
13. A uniform solid cylinder having height l and
diameter d is placed on a rough horizontally plank simultaneously with speed 20 m/s and 10 3 m/s as
which is being pulled horizontal with an shown in figure. Find the maximum height reached
acceleration. Find the maximum value of the by the centre of mass of the particles.
acceleration for which the cylinder remain in
equilibrium.
gd gd
(1) (2)
l 2l
gl gl 25 75
(1) m (2) m
(3) (4) 4 16
d 2d
125 125
(3) m (4) m
14. Two masses 2 kg and 5 kg are placed at point ‘A’ 16 4
and ‘B’ as shown in the figure.
19. A circular plate of diameter ‘a’ is kept in contact
with a square plate of side a as shown. The density
of material and the thickness are same everywhere.
The centre of mass of composite system will be
[3]
Integer Type Questions
21. A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass
density ρ is bent into a circular loop with centre at
O as shown. The moment of inertia of the loop
about the axis XX is 3ρL3/Kπ2. Find the value of
K.
Coordinate of centre of mass? 27. Four identical discs each of mass ‘m’ and diameter
‘a’ are arranged in the same plane as shown in
23. Two balls A and B of equal masses are projected figure. if the moment of inertia of the system about
upward simultaneously, one from the ground with x
OO is ma 2 . Then, the value of x will
speed 50 ms–1 and other from height 40 m above the 4
first ball from a high tower with initial speed be ______.
30 ms–1. Find the maximum height (in m) attained
by their centre of mass.
[4]
Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 36. BCl3 is trigonal planar molecule whereas NCl 3 is
31. H2O is polar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is because: trigonal pyramidal because :
(1) The electronegativity of F is greater than that (1) Boron atom is smaller than nitrogen atom
of O. (2) BCl3 has no lone pair but NCl 3 has a lone
(2) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas pair of electrons
BeF2 is a discrete molecule. (3) B – Cl bond is less covalent than N–Cl bond
(3) H2O is linear and BeF2 is angular.
(4) N–Cl bond is less ionic than B – Cl bond
(4) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear.
33. IUPAC name of the given compound is: 38. Which compound has square planar structure?
CH3 OH
(1) XeF4 (2) XeOF2
CH
NO2 (3) XeO2F2 (4) XeO4
HO
Cl
39. Which one of the following species does not exist
(1) 5-Chloro-6-(1-hydroxyethyl)-2-nitrophenol under normal conditions?
(2) 6-Chloro-5-(1-hydroxyethyl)-2-nitrophenol (1) O2 (2) N2
(3) 5-Chloro-6-(2-hydroxyethyl)-1-nitrophenol (3) Be2 (4) B2
(4) 5-Chloro-6-(1-ethoxy)-2-nitrophenol
40. The IUPAC name of the given compound is:
Me
34. IUPAC name of the given compound is: Me
CH2 CH2 Cl
O O OH
m 1 0
(2) M a 2 b 2
63. A and B are two square matrices such that
A2B = BA and if (AB)10 = Ak • B10, then the value of
0 1
k is
1 0
(1) 1020 (2) 10 (3) M a m b m
0 1
(3) 23 (4) 1023
a b
(4) M a 2 b 2
m 1
b a
y 5 z 6 z 3 y 3 x 4 z 6 x3 z 3 x 4 y 5 y 3 x3
64. 1 y 2 z 3 y 6 z 6 xz 3 z 6 x 6 xy 2 x 6 y 6
69. Which of the following is positive
y 2 z3 z3 y3 xz 3 x3 z 3 xy 2 y 3 x3
(1) logsin1 tan 1
2 3
x y z (2) logcos1 (1 + tan 3)
and 2 x 4 y5 z 6 . Then 12 is equal to (3) log log10 5 (cos sec )
x7 y8 z9 (4) log tan15º tan1
(1) 3
2 (2) 2
2
(3) 42 (4) 52 If x1 x2 y1 y2 a2 ,
2 2
70.
x2 x3 y2 y3 b2 and
2 2
T
65. If P is an orthogonal matrix and Q = PAP and
2
B = PT Q1000 P, then B–1 is, where A is involutory x1 y1 1
x3 x1 y3 y1 c and k x2
2 2 2
matrix y2 1
(1) A (2) A1000 x3 y3 1
(3) I (4) None of these (a b c)(b c a)(c a b)(a b c) , the
value of k is
n
tan 2 r 1
66. If r
tan p n tan q , then the value of (p (1) 1 (2) 2
r 1 cos 2 (3) 4 (4) 8
+ q) is
(1) 5 (2) 7 71. Let A be a square matrix satisfying
(3) 3 (4) 2 A2 + 5A + 5I = 0. The inverse of A + 2I is equal to
(1) A – 2I (2) A + 3 I
(3) A – 3I (4) non-existent
[7]
72. If A is a diagonal matrix of order 3 × 3 is 1 2 2
commutative with every square matrix of order 78. If A 2 1 2 , then adj A equals to
2 2 1
3 × 3 under multiplication and trace (A) = 12, then
(1) |A| = 64 (2) |A| = 16
(1) A (2) AT
(3) |A| = 12 (4) |A| = 4
(3) 3A (4) 3AT
[8]
85. If A, B and C are n × n matrix and det (A) = 2, 88. The number of values of x in the closed interval
det (B) = 3 and det (C) = 5, then the value of the 3 1 x 2
5 det (A2BC–1) is
[–4, –1], the matrix 3 1 x 2 is
x 3 1 2
86. In any ABC, then minimum value of
singular, is
2020
(sin A)
must be
( (sin B) (sin C ) (sin A) 89. Let n be a positive integer and
M, then the value of
M
2 is equal to r2 r r 1 r 2
60 r 2r 3r 1 3r
2
3r 3 and
r 2r 3 2 r 1 2 r 1
2
a b 1 n
87. If b c 1 2010 and
r 1
r an 2 bn c , then the value of a + b + c is
c a 1
c a c b ab c a c b c 2 cos 24
90. The value of
a b a c bc a b a c a 2 p , then 2 tan 33 sin 2 57
b c b a ca b c b a b 2 sin162
cos162 is equal to
sin18 cos18 tan 9
the number of positive divisors of the number p is
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[9]