REGULATIONS

1) MEHT- Minimum Eye Height (Over Threshold).

2) What time is used by all flights- UTC.

3) UTC- Coordinated universal time.

4) Prohibited areas. Aircraft shall not be flown in a prohibited

area as been specified in :Schedule I of Aircraft Rules 1937.

5) What is CAT( Clear air turbulence): Sudden severe turbulence

occurring in cloudless regions that causes violent
buffeting of aircraft( commonly applied to higher
altitude turbulence associated with wind shear)

6) NOTAM valid for more than 2 Hours: Series A

7) Montreal Convention was signed in 1971

8) Communication Failure (RCF) In IMC: Procced in accordance

with FPL.
9) RED Flare gun: Notwithstanding any previous instructions,
do not land for the time being

10) Barotrauma – Pain due to difference in pressure existing

between middle & ambient ear(Blocked eustachian tube)
11) Lateral separation VOR:
Both a/c established on radials diverging by
15 deg. & at least one a/c 15NM from facility
12)

13) Composition of air: N- 78% O2 – 21 % Ar- 0.93 % CO2 –

0.036 % & other gases.

14) Which rule to be followed If an aircraft is flying over territory

of another state: rules of the state of registration
15) The adverse Effects of G can be delayed by tensing the thigh and
stomach and easing off the backward pressure on the column.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
16) Eustachian Tube- Allows pressure in the middle ear to ear
equalize across the ear drum with outsider ambient pressure
when climbing or descending

17) Spatial disorientation is :when unable to determine position or

motion

18) Vestibular apparatus helps maintain spatial orientation

19) Prisoner on board should be carried as per the Aircraft rules : 24B

20) Carrying prisoner on board need permission of DGCA.

21)

22) What does NOTAM(R) Means- NOTAM REPLACE.

23) If holder of a license suffers from any illness which won’t

allow him to undertake the functions of his license for more
than 15 days needs to inform the authority.
24) A pilot can perform a Maximum flying hours in a day: 10 hours

25) A pilot can perform a Maximum number of landing in day: 6

26) Smoking in the aircraft is permitted by the certificate of

airworthiness

27) What is Time Of Useful Consciousness-The length of time during

which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency
and alertness. Measured from the moment at which he loses oxygen
supply.

28) What is the SSR code for RCF(RADIO COMMUNICATION FAILURE)-

7600.

29) Validity of IR- 1 yr.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
30) What does readability scale 3 define- Readable with difficulty

31) Chop- Type of turbulence that causes rapid and somewhat rhythmic
bumpiness

32) STRESS LEVEL(DECREASING ORDER): Death of spouse, Divorce,

Martial separation, Death of close family members, Injury/Illness,
Marriage , Loss of job

33) STRESS SYMPTOMS: Flushed skin, Dilated Pupil, High breathing rate,
Perspiration

34) VOR Accuracy- +/- 5 degree

35) RVR is a measure of – Atmospheric transparency, intensity of R/W

lights and background illuminations.

36) JEPPESEN CHARTS are based on which projection- Lambert

Conformal Conic Projection.

37) Second freedom: Right to land for technical reasons (Non-traffic

purposes)

38) Annexure 14 : Aerodrome

39) The aircraft act : 1934

40) The aircraft Rules: 1937

41) Rule no. 67 A of Aircraft Rules,1937 deals with: Logbook of flight

crew personnel and logging of flight time.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
42) When the pilot suffers from hypothermia(Loss of cabin heating)

A)His oxygen need will not be affected

B) His oxygen need will be raised and his tolerance to hypoxia will be
increased
C) His need for oxygen will be increased as long as he stays conscious

43) Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during flight:

A) When flying in and out of clouds and the pilot maintains good
instrument cross check
B) When flying in light rain below the ceiling
C) If the brain receives conflicting information and the pilot does not
below the instruments

44) Notam Series A:

A) More than 2 hrs

B) 30 minutes to 2 Hrs
C) Domestic flights

45) In the standard atmosphere FL150 is equivalent to:

A) 15000 mtr
B) 4550 mtrs
C) 455 mtrs

46) EDTO: Extended diversion time operations

47) ETOPS: Extended -range Twin engine operations Performance
standard.

48) AWR( Air borne weather radar) minimum range to be used in air:
(30-80nm)

49) Normal BP of human:

A) 120/80
B) 140/80

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 C)100/80

50) Validity of PPL licence :

A) 10yrs
B) 5 Yrs
C) 2 Yrs

51) In india ‘W’ airways are earmarked for

A) Domestic routes
B) High altitude routes
C) Wide area navigation routes

52) At holding point, ATC transmits “Cleared for immediate take off”
What does it mean?
A) Take off immediately after completing all mandatory power checks
B) Take off within 30 seconds of receiving the clearance
C) Taxi immediately to runway and commence rolling take off

53) Letter ‘W’ in ATS route designators indicate:

A) Domestic routes

B) International Routes

C) Regional Routes

D)None of the above.

54) The letter “C” displayed vertical in black against a yellow

background indicates the location of -AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES
REPORTING OFFICE

55) Anti Collision light is a light:

A) Red in colour affixed on top of the control tower

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 B) A red light visible 30 degrees above and below the horizon of the
aircraft which is visible in all direction
C)The navigation lights of any aircraft are called anti-collision lights

56) PANS-OPS:
A) Procedure for navigation Services- Aircraft operations
B) Procedure for navigation Services- Air traffic management
C) Procedure for navigation Services- Air operations

57) The reduced visibility up to which a helicopter is permitted to

operate at speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other
traffic or any obstacle in time to avoid collision:
A)1500m
B)800m
C)1000m

58) PANS-ATM is:

A) Procedure for navigation Services- Air traffic management
B) Procedure for navigation Services- Airport traffic management
C) Procedure for navigation Services- Aeronautical traffic management

59) CAVOK- Visibility more than 10 Km, no cloud below 1500m, No CB,
No precipitation, No Thunderstorm.

60) Position Report- Aircraft identification, Position, Time, Flight Level

or Altitude, Next Position and Time Over, Ensuring Significant point.

61) What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when
including an altitude or an height- Three Thousand Five Hundred

62) R/T Calls Distress Messages, Distress Calls & Distress Traffic-MAYDAY
63) Urgency Message- PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN
64) Q- Codes - QDM- Magnetic bearing to the station
65) QDR- Magnetic bearing from the station
66) QUJ- True bearing to the station
67) QTE- True bearing from the station

MANSIMRAN SINGH
68) What is the name of the condition caused by nitrogen bubbles
underskin during decompression - Creeps

69) What are the types of AIPs- GEN, ENR, AD.

70) Call out by pilot monitoring on approach- Three Greens(Landing

gears down and locked)

71) Where is the temporary information amended- AIP

72) When QNH is set to QNE: Transition altitude during climb and
transition level during descent.

73) DER: Departure end of the runway.

74) Which licence can be issued if Exams passed 10th: PPL

75) Lapse Rate:2 degree/1000ft

76) RVSM : FL290-FL410

77) Procedure design gradient:3.3%

78) ATIS broadcasts contain essential information, such

as -current weather information, active runways, available
approaches, and any other information required by the pilots,
such as important NOTAMs.

79) VFR flights not permitted above- FL150

80) Hyperventilation/Over Breathing- Lung Ventilation in

excess of the body’s needs.(Lack of CO2)

81) Which way to treat for hyperventilation-Slowing the rate of

breathing or breathing into a paper bag

82) Which symptom is the most dangerous in hypoxia: Impaired

judgment of a pilot

MANSIMRAN SINGH
83) Hypoxia- Lack of oxygen(Symptoms-cyanosis(Blue lips and nails)

84) Item no 7 in flight plan- Aircraft Identification

85) Item no. 8 Flight Plan: Flight rules.

86) Cabotage : Domestic air services

87) What causes the pressure difference in ear:

a. Eustachian tube is blocked

b. Low level of oxygen in the body
c. Barotrauma is blocked

88) If central government is making a runway what should they see first:

a. Adequate terrain clearance from the runway

b. Friction of the runway
c. Adequate terrain clearance from the threshold

89) If central government is making runway , how much distance it

should maintain: 10 km from the runway

90) When is the separation of 1 min after immediate take off

a. 45 degrees at least
b. 30 degrees at least
c. Continue straight

91) Item no. 15 in Flight plan Cruising speed -TAS (for knots N0120)

92) What defines transition level- The lowest flight level available for
use above the transition altitude.

93) White dumbbell indicates- A/C required to land. Take off and taxi on
runways and taxiways only.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
94) AOC/AOP- Air operators Certificate/Permit

95) Minimum height for VFR flight- 1000ft above highest obstacle in
populated areas or towns.

96) You are on A/c ATC signaling you flashes of runway and taxi lights.
What does it mean?
a. Stop taxi and return to your position
b. Vacate the runway
c. Return to the apron

97) Euphoria can cause :

a. Impaired Judgement
b. Can prone to human error
c. Both of the above

98) Hypothermia occurs- when your body loses heat faster

than it can produce heat, causing a dangerously low body
temperature.

99) Jet Streams- narrow current of winds in the upper troposphere.

100) A normal blood pressure level is 120/80 mmHg

101) Preference will be given to Vehicle towing A/C

102) Critical threshold altitude approximately: 22000 ft

103) Minimum age to become instructor:

A) 18 Yrs
B) 19 Yrs
C) 21 Yrs

104) A flight condition where there are slight changes in

Altitude/Attitude

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 A) Light chop
B) Light Turbulence
C) Moderate Turbulence

46) The OCA in Initial approach Segment

A)300m

B)150m

C) Reduces from 300 to 150m

105) In severe turbulence:

A) Maintain speed
B) Maintain Altitude
C) Maintain Both

106) Photography is restricted at:

A) Terminal buildings
B) Civil aerodromes
C) Military Aerodrome

107) A recent report from an aircraft giving a position and/or met report
is called
A) Met report
B) Position report
C) Air report
D) All of the above

108) What information is included in the third section of an Air Report?

A) Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
B) Spot wind, Icing, Cloud above
C) Spot wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence
D) ETA destination

109) The air report contains the following area:

A) Air Temperature , Turbulence, Surface wind & Aircraft Icing

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 B) Turbulence, upper winds & Surface Temperature
C) Air Temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & Aircraft Icing
D) All of the above are correct

110) Repetitive Flight Plan(RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated
regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and
A) On at least 20 Days consecutively
B) On at least 20 Occasions
C) On at least 10 Occasions or every day over a period of at least ten
consecutive days
D) On at least ten consecutive occasions or every day over a period of
at least 20 consecutive days

111) How can a pilot increases his tolerance to +Gz)

A) Tightening of muscles, Ducking the head and perform a kind of
pressure breathing
B) Tighten shoulder harness
C) Take an upright seat position
D) Relax the muscles, Ducking the head and lean upper body forward

112) The demolition of buildings and trees act came into effect in the
year
A)1934
B)1937
C)1994
D)1954

113) OCH for precision approach is defined as- the lowest height above
the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, at which a missed
approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate
obstacle clearance criteria.

114) In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the

alignment of the runway centreline within: 15 degree

MANSIMRAN SINGH
115) When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established
the obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined : For
each category of aircraft , and it may be different for each one of them

116) The registration mark contains letters and numbers for country code
and registration mark. What should be added between the country
code and registration mark of an aircraft-Hyphen (-)

117) RNAV abbreviated as – Area Navigation

118) MEL stands for- Minimum equipment list

119) Maximum age to fly- 65yrs

120) No. Categories of Instrument approach procedure- 3

Categories(Precision approach, Approach with vertical guidance and
Non-precision approach)

121) Direction fuel is used as per the discretion of – PIC

122) RPAS stands for : REMOTELY PILOTED AIRCRAFT SYSTEM

123) FSTD: FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICES

124) President of ICAO is elected every:

a)1 yrs

b)3 yrs

c)10 yrs

125) An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long

as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
a)+/- 200ft of the assigned level
b)+/- 300ft of the assigned level
c)+/- 500ft of the assigned level

MANSIMRAN SINGH
126) When Mach no. technique is applied, minimum longitudinal
separation between turbojet aircraft on the same track, whether in
level, climbing or descending flight shall be-10 minutes.

127) Gathering of evidence after an accident is mean only to:

A) Know the real cause of accident
B) Know who has was responsible for the accident
C) Taking penal actions and to help judges in any civil court
proceedings

128) Physiological effect take place because of

A) Linear acceleration
B) Pressure decreases with altitude
C) Pressure Increases with altitude

129) When landing after a heavy aircraft the best technique to avoid
wake turbulence on final should be:
A) To remain above the glide path of the preceding aircraft all the way
till over the threshold
B) To remain below the glide path of the preceding aircraft separated
by 1000ft
C) To fly away offset from centre line and below the glide path of
preceding aircraft

130) When visual maneuvering (Circling area) is established around an

aerodrome for a runway the obstacle clearance is determined:
A) For each category of aircraft and it may be different for each
category of aircraft
B) For category A and B aircrafts only
C) For category C,D and E only

131) With regard to flight time limitations,” Flight time” means:

A) The total time from when an aircraft first moves under its own
power for the purpose of taking off untill comes to rest after flight
MANSIMRAN SINGH
B) The time between take off and landing
C) The time between an aircraft starting to move and coming to a
complete stop plus one and a half hour

132) Medium to good Friction coefficient - 0.39 to 0.36

133) Estimated surface friction, for each third of a
runway as seen from pilot’s point of view needs to
be informed, if needed.

134)

135) Petroleum bulk is petroleum in receptable, Which exceed------lts

A)1000
B)900
C)1500
D)500

136) Readability scale

Scale Readability
1 Unreadable
2 Readable now then
3 Readable but with
difficulty
4 Readable
5 Perfectly readable

MANSIMRAN SINGH
DH-Decision Height
RVR- Runway visual range

MANSIMRAN SINGH