Neet-Xi-Gd Goenka

NEET-XI-GD GOENKA (04-Feb-24) 1
PART- I 7. Identify the correct graph between PV and T for

PHYSICS (SECTION-A) an ideal gas.
This section contains 35 multiple choice questions
numbered 1 to 35. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (1)
1. 1 mole polyatomic gas with 2 vibration modes.
C
If   P , then  is :
Cv
(1) 1.02 (2) 1.25 (3) 1.4 (4) 1.66
2. Two identical gases are enclosed in a chamber (2)

separated by a piston. If their entropies are S1
and S2 respectively then find entropy of the
system after piston is removed
(1) S1  S2
(3)
(2) S1S2
(3) S1  S2
S1
(4)
S2
(4)
3. A gas undergoes cyclic process as shown in the
figure, 5-1 and 3-4 are adiabatic processes, 1-2
and 4-5 are isochoric process, 2-3 is isobaric
process. Find efficiency of the cycle.
8. If for hydrogen C p  C v  m and for the nitrogen
C p  C v  n , where C p ,C v refer to specific
heats per unit mass respectively at constant
pressure and constant volume, the relation
between m and n is
(1) m=14 n (2) n=7 n
(1) 15 % (2) 30% (3) 45% (4) 60% (3) m=7 n (4) n=14 n
4. The molecular weights of O 2 and N 2 are 32 and
9. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 300 K at a
28 respectively. At 15o C the pressure of 1gO2 constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is
will be the same as that of 1gN2 in the same constant. Among the following graphs that
bottle at the temperature represent the variation of temperature with time
(1) 21o C (2) 13o C (3) 15o C (4) 56.4o C is
5. What is the effect of the temperature of a gas

when its container is moved at a constant speed?
(1) increases (2) decreases
(3) no change (4) data insufficient (1)
6. Half mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated

at constant pressure of 1 atm from 20°C to 90°C.
Work done by gas is close to : (Gas constant R =
8.31 J/mol K)
(1) 291 J (2) 581 J (3) 146 J (4) 73 J
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13. Given below are two statement :
Statement – I : What µ amount of an ideal gas
undergoes adiabatic change from state
(P1 ,V1 ,T1 ) to state (P2 ,V2 ,T2 ) , the work done is
(2) 1R(T2  T1 ) C
W , where   P and R =
1  CV
universal gas constant,
Statement — II: In the above case. when work is
done on the gas. the temperature of the gas would
rise.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(3) (1) Both statement—I and statement-II are true.
(2) Both statement—I and statement-II are false
(3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.
14. Two kg of a monoatomic gas is at a pressure of

4 104 N / m2 . The density of the gas is 8
(4) kg / m3 . What is the order of energy of the gas
due to its thermal motion ?
(1) 103 J (2) 105 J (3) 104 J (4) 106 J
10. The pressure-volume graph of an ideal gas is 15. A cyclic process ABCA is performed on an ideal
shown in figure. The adiabatic processes are gas in which gas expanded isobarically from A
to B, then it is cooled isochorically from B to C
and finally it is compressed isothermally from C
to A. The net heat +20 joule is absorbed in this
cyclic process. Similarly in process BCDB heat
absorbed is +5 joule. For a cyclic process ADCA
(1) AB and BC (2) AB and CD performed on the same ideal gas
(3) DA and BC (4) BC and CD
11. Temperature of an ideal gas is 300 K. The final

temperature of the gas when its volume changes
from V to 2V in the process p  V (here  is
a positive constant) is
(1) 900 K (2) 1200 K
(3) 300 K (4) 500 K
(1) +15 joule net heat is absorbed
R (2) +15 joule net heat is rejected
12. For a gas  0.67 . This gas is made up of (3) +25 joule net heat is absorbed
Cv
(4) +25 joule net heat is rejected
molecules which are
(1) Diatomic
16. For an ideal gas if volume is increased by 20%
(2) Mixture of diatomic and polyatomic
and temperature is decreased by 10%, then its
molecules
pressure
(3) Monoatomic
(1) increases by 25% (2) decreases by 25%
(4) Polyatomic
(3) remains constant (4) increases by 30%
17. A chamber containing 4 moles of diatomic gas is 23. Two moles of helium gas is mixed with three
heated such that the temperature of the gas moles of hydrogen molecules (taken to be rigid).
increases from 0° C to 50° C . Find the change in What is the molar specific heat of mixture at
internal energy of the gas. Assume that constant volume? (R = 8.3 J/mol K)
molecules are rigid. (1) 19.7 J/mol K (2) 21.6 J/mol K
(1) 500 R (2) 400 R (3) 300 R (4) 50 R (3) 15.7 J/mol K (4) 17.4 J/mol K
18. When heat Q is supplied to a diatomic gas of 24. The internal energy of a system remains constant
rigid molecules, at constant volume its when it undergoes
temperature increases by T . The heat required (1) Isobaric process
to produce the same change in temperature, at a (2) an isothermal process
constant pressure is: (3) an adiabatic process
3 2 7 5 (4) Isochoric Process
(1) Q (2) Q (3) Q (4) Q
2 3 5 3
25. What will be the effect on the root mean square
R velocity of oxygen molecules if the temperature
19. For a gas  0.67 This gas is made up of is doubled and oxygen molecule dissociates into
CV
atomic oxygen?
molecules which are
(1) The velocity of atomic oxygen remains same
(1) Diatomic
(2) The velocity of atomic oxygen doubles
(2) Mixture of diatomic and polyatomic
(3) The velocity of atomic oxygen becomes half
molecules
(4) The velocity of atomic oxygen becomes four
(3) Monoatomic
times
(4) Polyatomic
26. In addition to the gas equation PV = nRT a

20. n moles of an ideal gas with constant volume
heat capacity CV undergo an isobaric expansion certain gas also obeys the relation P2 V =
constant. If the initial temperature is T and the
by certain volume. The ratio of the work done in
gas expands to thrice its initial volume, its final
the process, to the heat supplied is :
temperature will be
4nR nR
(1) (2) T T
C V  nR C V  nR (1) (2) 3T (3) (4) T 3
3 3
4nR nR
(3) (4)
C V  nR C V  nR
27. Work done by 0.1 mole of a gas at 27o C to
double its volume at constant pressure is
21. A diatomic gas with rigid molecules does 10 J of
(R  2calmol 1o C 1 )
work when expanded at constant pressure. What
would be the heat energy absorbed by the gas, in (1) 54 cal (2) 600 cal
this process? (3) 60 cal (4) 546 cal
(1) 30 J (2) 35 J (3) 25 J (4) 40 J
28. A sample of an ideal gas is taken through the
22. A rigid diatomic ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic cyclic process abca as shown in the figure. The
process at room temperature. The relation change in the internal energy of the gas along the
between temperature and volume for this process path ca is –180 J. The gas absorbs 250 J of heat
along the path ab and 60 J along the path bc. The
is TVx = constant, then x is
work done by the gas along the path abc is :
2 2 5 3
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) 130 J
5 3 3 5 (2) 100 J
(3) 140 J
(4) 120 J
29. A mixture of 2 moles of helium gas (atomic mass PHYSICS (SECTION-B)
= 4 u), and 1 mole of argon gas (atomic mass = This section contains 15 multiple choice questions
40 u) is kept at 300 K in a container. The ratio of numbered 36 to 50. Out of which have to attempt 10
 V  helium   Questions only. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
their rms speeds  rms  is close to
 Vrms  arg on   (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(1) 2.24 (2) 0.45 (3) 3.16 (4) 0.32 36. The total mechanical energy of a particle
executing simple harmonic motion is E. When
30. If a gas contains molecules of two different the displacement is half the amplitude, its kinetic
masses and, both at the same temperature, then energy will be
 v1  3 3 E
  rms is (1) E (2) E (3) (4)
 v2  4 2 4
m1 m2
(1) (2)
m2 m1 37. Figure shows velocity displacement graph of a
particle in SHM. Find time period
(3) m2 / m1 (4) m1 / m2
31. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10N. The

time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2
kg is suspended by it is:
(1) 3.14 s (2) 0.628 s
(3) 0.0628 s (4) 6.28 s
32. In a damped oscillation, damping constant is 20
gm/sec and mass of an object is 500 gm. Find out
  
time when amplitude of oscillation becomes half. (1) sec (2) sec (3) (4)  sec
3 6 2
(1) 34.6 sec. (2) 44.6 sec.
(3) 65.1 sec. (4) 55.6 sec.
38. A pendulum is executing simple harmonic
33. Which of the following graph represents the motion and its maximum kinetic energy is K1 . If
relation between velocity and displacement for a the length of the pendulum is doubled and it
body performing SHM. performs simple harmonic motion with the same
(1) Ellipse (2) Circle
amplitude as in the first case, its maximum
(3) Hyperbola (4) Helix
kinetic energy is K 2 . Then
34. Energy of an oscillating system is E. At a K1
particular instant kinetic energy of system is (1) K2  2K1 (2) K 2 
4
3E/4.Find displacement of the oscillating
K1
particle from its mean position. Its amplitude of (3) K2  K1 (4) K 2 
2
oscillation is A
A A A A
(1) (2) (3) (4) 39. The graphs show the relation between mass (m)
2 3 4 6
and square of time period (T 2 ) for a spring mass
35. A 2.00 kg block is attached to a spring. The force system with two different springs A and B. If the
constant of the spring is k = 196 N/m. The block
force constant of A is K1
is held a distance 5.00 cm from the equilibrium
position and is released at t = 0. What is the and that of B is K 2 , then
displacement as function of time? which of the following is
1 the correct relation
(1) x  (5.00cm)sin[9.90s )t]
between them ?
(2) x  (5.00cm) cos[9.90s 1 )t]
(1) K1  K2 (2) K1  K2
(3) x  (10.00cm)sin[9.90s 1 )t] 1
1 (3) K1  K2 (4) K1  K 2
(4) x  (10.00cm) cos[9.90s )t] 2
40. A simple pendulum consists of a small sphere of 45. A particle is subjected to two mutually
mass m suspended using a leangth ’L’. A charge perpendicular simple harmonic motions such
q is given to the sphere and an electric field E is that its x and y coordinates are given by: x = 2
applied vertically upwards. The time period of  
sin wt; y  2sin  t   The path of the
the oscillation is :  4
2L L particle will be
(1) 2 (2) 2
qE qE (1) an ellipse (2) a straight line
g g
m m (3) a parabola (4) a circle
1 g  qE 1 L
(3) (4) 46. The time period of a simple pendulum at the
2 L 2 g  qE
m centre of earth is
(1) Zero
41. In a simple harmonic oscillation, what fraction (2) Infinite
of total mechanical energy is in the form of (3) Independent of length
kinetic energy, when the particle is midway (4) Both (2) & (3)
between mean and extreme position.
1 1 3 1 47. The quantities of heat required to raise the
(1) (2) (3) (4) temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii
4 3 4 2
r1 and r2 (r1  1.5 r2 ) through 1 K are in the ratio:
42. The time period of oscillation of a semicircular 27 9 3 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
plate of mass M and radius R about the axis in its 8 4 2 3
plane as shown is (Given CM of the plate lies at
4R 48. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
a distance from the axis)
3 diameter d and number density n can be
expressed as :
1 1
(1) (2)
2nd 2nd 2
R 3 R3
(1) 2 (2) (3)
1
(4)
1
g 4g
2n 2 d 2 2n 2 2 d 2
3 R 2R
(3) (4) 
2g 3g 49. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
connected to each other via a stop cock. A
43. The displacement of a particle executing SHM is contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and
given by . The time period is : pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire
(1) 0.01 sec (2) 0.02 sec system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is
(3) 0.1 sec (4) 0.2 sec suddenly opened. The process is :
(1) isothermal (2) adiabatic
44. The velocity time graph of a simple harmonic (3) isochoric (4) isobaric
oscillator is as shown in figure. Its frequency of
oscillations will be 50. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic
gas is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T,
absolute temperature)
1 3
(1) k B T (2) k B T
2 2
5 7
(3) k B T (4) k B T
2 2
(1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz (3) 12.25 Hz (4) 33.3 Hz
PART- II 56. Ammonia forms complexes with Ag+ according

CHEMISTRY (SECTION-A) to the following reactions :
This section contains 35 multiple choice questions (i) Ag[H 2 O]2  NH 3 (aq) [Ag[NH 3 ][H 2O(aq)]  H 2O( )
numbered 51 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (ii) [Ag(NH3 )(H 2 O)](aq)   NH3 (aq) Ag(NH 3 ) 2 (aq)  H 2O( )
(2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
The equilibrium constant of equilibrium (i) and
51. For the reaction : C(s)  CO2 2CO(g) the
(ii) are 2.0 103 and 8.3 103 respectively.
partial pressure of CO2 and CO are 2.0 and 4.0
Equilibrium constants of the following reaction :
atm respectively at equilibrium K P for the
[Ag(H 2 O) 2 (aq)]  2NH 3 (aq) Ag(NH 3 ) 2  2H 2O( )
raction is :
will be -
(1) 0.5 (2) 8.0 (3) 4.0 (4) 32
(1) 4.15 (2) 2.0 103
52. One mole of N2O4 (g) at 300 K is kept in a
(3) 8.3 103 (4) 16.6 106
closed container under 1 atmosphere. It is heated
to 600 K when 20% by mass of N2O4 (g)
57. What is the relationship between K P and KC for
decomposes to NO2 (g). The resultant pressure
the reaction : 3H2 (g)  N2 (g) 2NH3 (g) at
is :
(1) 1.2 atm (2) 2.4 atm 500 K
KC
(3) 2.0 atm (4) 1.0 atm (1) K P  (2) K P  5.9  104 K C
RT
53. Equilibrium constant for the following reactions KC
have been determined at 823K. (3) K P  (4) K P  K C (RT) 2
5.9  10 4
CoO(s)  H2 (g) Co(s)  H2O(g) K1  60
CoO(s)  CO(g) Co(s)  CO2 (g) K2  400.
58. For the equilibria:
Using this information, K's (at the same
A. CaCO3 (s) CaO(s)  CO2 (g)
temperature) for
CO2 (g)  H2 (g) CO(g)  H2O(g) K3  ? B. N2 (g)  O2 (g) 2NO(g)
CO(g)  H2 (g) CO2 (g)  H2 (g) K4  ? 1
C. H 2 (g)  O2 (g) H 2 (I)
(1) K3  0.15,K4  6.66 2
The equilibrium constants can be best described
(2) K3  1.5,K4  66.6
respectively by :
(3) K3  15,K4  666 2
PNO 1
(4) None of these (1) K P  PCO2 ; K P  and K P  1
PN 2 .PO2
PH 2 PO22
54. For the following reactions :
N 2 (g)  O2 (g)
1
2NO(g) and NO(g)  O2 (g) [CaO] P2
2
NO2 (g). (2) K P  ; NO ; and K P  [H 2 O]
[CaCO3 ] PN2 .PO2
The equilibrium constants are K1 and K 2
1
respectively. The value of equilibrium constant P P2
for the reactions. N2 (g)  2O2 2NO2 (g) (3) K P  CaO ; NO ; and K P  PH2O
PCaCO3 PN2 .PO2
would be :
K [CO2 ] P PH2O
(1) 1 (2) K1K2 (3) K1K 22 (4) K12 K 2 (4) K P  ; K P  NO ; and
K2 [CaO] PN2 .PO2 PH2 .PO2
55. For the reaction

59. For the reaction, A  B C  D at equilibrium
N2 (g)  3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g), N2 : H2 were
the concentration of A, B and C are 1.0, 2.0 M
taken in the ratio of 1 : 3 up to the point of
and 3.0 M respectively and the equilibrium
equilibrium 50% each reactant has been reacted.
If total pressure at equilibrium is P. The partial constant of the reaction is 1.0 105 , what will
pressure of ammonia would be : be the concentration of D at equilibrium ?
(1)
P
(2)
P
(3)
P
(4)
P (1) 6.7  109 M (2) 6.7  106 M
3 6 4 8
(3) 6.7  106 M (4) 3.35  10 6 M
60. In a reaction 2A  B C the initial 65. The equilibrium constant in reversible reaction at
concentration of A, B and C are 2 mol per litre, a given temperature
1 mole per litre and zero respectively. At (1) Depends on the initial concentration of the
equilibrium, the concentration of B is 0.5 reactants
mole/litre. The equilibrium constant for the (2) Depends on the concentration of the products
reaction will be : at equilibrium
(1) 2.0 (2) 0.5 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.0 (3) Does not depend on the initial concentrations
(4) It is not characteristic of the reaction
61. For a reversible reaction
2H2S(g) 2H2 (g)  S2 (g). The equilibrium 66. Pure ammonia is placed in a vessel at
concentration are : temperature where its dissociation constant (A)
is appreciable. At equilibrium
[H 2S]e  0.5 mol L1
(1) K p does not change with pressure
[H 2 ]e  0.1 mol L1
(2) (A) does not change with pressure
[S2 ]e  0.4 mol L1 (3) Concentration of NH3 does not change with
The value of 'K' would be : pressure
1 1
(1) 0.004 mol L (2) 0.08 mol L (4) Concentration of H 2 is less than that of N 2
1
(3) 0.016 mol L (4) 0.16 mol L1
67. For the reaction,
62. For the reaction PCl5 PCl3  Cl2 . Initial AB2 (g)  A(s) B2 (g)  A2 (g) following
graph is obtained where
moles are : a b c. If  is the degree of
K  Equilibrium Constant
dissociation and P the total pressure. The partial
T  Temperature in Kelvin
pressure of PCl3 is :
Which of the following will increase the
b  a concentration of AB2 at equilibrium.
(1) P atm
a  b  c  a
a  a
(2) P atm
a  b  c  a
a(1  )
(3) P atm
a  b  c  a
a  b  c  a
(4) P atm
b  a
63. At 444ºC, HI was dissociation to the extent of (1) Adding more of A(s)
30%. If 5 moles of HI was taken initially, what (2) Decreasing temperature
would be the moles of HI at equilibrium ? (3) Adding inert gas at constant volume
(1) 2.4 (2) 3.5 (3) 4.2 (4) 5.0 (4) Decreasing the volume of container
64. The equilibrium constant for the reaction 68. If 1.0 mole of I2 is introduced into 1.0 litre flask
H2 (g)  I2 (g) 2HI(g) is 50 at 500 K. In at 1000 K, at equilibrium (K C  10 6 ) which one
presence of suitable catalyst, equilibrium is is correct ?
attained four times faster. The equilibrium (1) [I 2(g)  [I(g) ]
constant of the reaction at 500 K in the presence (2) [I 2(g)  [I(g) ]
of catalyst should be
(3) [I 2(g)  [I(g) ]
(1) 200 (2) 4 104
(3) 50 (4) 83.6 (4) [I 2(g)  1 / 2[I(g) ]
69. In the following reaction 3A  B 2C  D 75. Equilibrium constant for a reaction
Initial mole of B is double of A. At equilibrium A  2B 2C is 40. The equilibrium constant
mole of A and C are equal. Hence % dissociation for reaction 2C 2B  A is :
of B is : 1/2 2
1  1   1 
(1) 60% (2) 10% (3) 40 % (4) 33.33% (1) (2)   (3)   (4) 40
40  40   40 
70. According to Le Chatelier's principle adding heat 76. In which of the following reaction K P is less
to a solid and liquid in equilibrium with
than KC
endothermic nature will cause the :
(1) Amount of solid to decrease (1) N2O4 2NO2
(2) Amount of liquid to decrease (2) 2HI H2  I 2
(3) Temperature to rise (3) 2SO2  O2 2SO3
(4) Temperature to fall (4) N2  O2 2NO
71. The equilibrium 2SO2 (g)  O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) 77. The equilibrium constant (K C ) for the reaction
shift forward if - NH4 HS(s) NH3 (g)  H2S(g) is :
(1) A catalyst is used [NH3 ][H 2S] [NH 3 ]
(2) An adsorbent is used to remove SO3 as soon (1) (2)
[NH 4 HS] [H 2S]
as it is formed
1
(3) By decreases the concentration of O 2 (3) [NH3 ][H2S] (4)
[NH3 ][H 2S]
(4) None
78. At a particular temperature 50% HI is
72. For the equilibrium decomposed into H2 (g) and I2 (g) at

MgCO3 (s) MgO(s)  CO 2 (g) which of the equilibrium, the value of KC is
following expressions is correct ? (1) 0.5 (2) 0.20 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.30
PMgO  pCO2 79. If SO3 is 6% dissociated at equilibrium the mole
(1) K P 
pMgCO3 fraction of SO3 at equilibrium is –
[MgO]  [CO2 ] (1) 103/940 (2) 103/94
(2) K P 
[MgCO3 ] (3) 94/103 (4) 9.4/103
PMgO  pCO2
(3) K P  80. K1 for N2 (g)  3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) is 49. The
pMgCO3
value of K 2 for the following reaction will be
(4) K P  PCO2 1 3
NH3 (g) N 2 (g)  H 2 (g)
2 2
73. In which case K P is less than KC ? (1) 1/7 (2) 1/49 (3) 7 (4) 49
(1) PCl5 PCl3  Cl2 81. For reaction H2 (g)  I2 (g) 2HI(g) value of
(2) H2  Cl2 2HCl equilibrium constant KC  20 at 25°C. Kp for
(3) 2SO2  O2 2SO3 the reaction is :
(4) All of these (1) 200 (2) 489.2 (3) 20 (4) None
74. In what manner will increase of pressure affect 82. In a 10 L vessel at 1000 K, 0.25 mol of SO2 and
the following equilibrium ? 0.20 mol of O 2 react to form 0.162 mol of SO3
C(s)  H2O(g) CO(g)  H2 (g) at equilibrium. The value of KC at 1000 K is
(1) Shift in the forward direction (1) 7.4 102 (2) 5.6 102
(2) Shift in the reverse direction
(3) 2.8 102 (4) 4.2 103
(3) Increase in the yield of hydrogen
(4) No effect
83. The vapour density of N2O4 at a certain 88. At constant pressure, addition of helium to the
temperature is 30. The per cent dissociation of reaction system : N2 (g)  3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)
N2O4 at this temperature is (1) Favours the formation of ammonia
(1) 5.33% (2) 53.33% (2) Reduces the formation of ammonia
(3) 0.533% (4) 0.0533% (3) Does not affect the position of equilibrium
(4) Reduces the dissociation of ammonia
84. If 33% HI decompose at a particular
temperature, KC for the reaction is equal to 89. Vapour density of the equilibrium mixture of the
reaction SO2Cl2 (g) SO2 (g)  Cl2 (g) is 50.
2HI H2  I 2
The extent of dissociation of SO2Cl2 (g) is
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) 33.33 % (2) 35.0 %
6 4 16 8
(3) 30.0 % (4) 66.67 %
85. Q P represent the reaction quotient of a gas phase
90. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction
reaction and K P represent the equilibrium
2XY X2  Y2 is 81. What is the value of
constant of the same gas phase reaction. For the
equilibrium constant for the reaction
non-spontaneous reaction-
1 1
Q Q XY X 2  Y2
(1) P  1 (2) P  1 2 2
KP KP
(1) 81 (2) 9 (3) 6561 (4) 40.5
Q
(3) P  1 (4) QP KP  1
KP 91. Which of the following is an example of
CHEMISTRY (SECTION-B) homogeneous equilibrium ?
This section contains 15 multiple choice questions (1) 2SO 2(g)  O 2(g) 2SO3(g)
numbered 86 to 100. Out of which have to attempt 10 (2) C(s)  H 2 O(g) H 2(g)
Questions only. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) CaCO3(s) CaO(s)  CO 2(g)
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
86. On heating CaCO3 (s) in open container, the (4) NH 4 HS(s) NH 3(g)  H 2S(g)
formation of lime commences at temperature
when K P of the reaction 92. For the reaction, 2SO 2(g)  O 2(g) 2SO3(g)
CaCO3 (s) CaO(g)  CO2 (g) is : What is K C , when the equilibrium concentration
(1) 1 atm of [SO2 ]  0.60 M,[O2 ]  0.82 M and
(2) lesser than partial pressure of CO2 in the air [SO3 ]  1.90 M ?
(3) Equal to partial pressure of CO2 in the air (1) 12.229 L mol1 (2) 24.5 L mol1
(4) None of these
(3) 36.0 L mol 1 (4) 2.67  103 L mol 1
87. Ice and water are placed in a closed container at
a pressure of 1 atm and temperature 273 K. If 93. PCl5 ,PCl3 and Cl2 are at equilibrium at 500 K
pressure of the system is increased to 2 atm while in a closed container and their concentrations
keeping temperature constant, which of the are 0.8  103 mol L1 ,1.2  103 mol L1 and
following would be the correct observation ?
1.2  103 mol L1 respectively. The value of
(1) The liquid phase disappears completely
(2) The amount of ice decreases KC for the reaction : PCl5(g) PCl3(g)  Cl 2(g)
(3) The solid phase (ice) disappears completely will be :
(4) Volume of the system increases (1) 1.8  103 mol L1 (2) 1.8 103
(3) 1.8  103 L1 mol (4) 0.55 104
94. We know that the relationship between
n
KC and KP is K P  K C (RT) What would be
the value of n for the reaction :
NH 4 Cl(s) NH3(g)  HCl(g) (2)
(1) 1 (2) 0.5 (3) 1.5 (4) 2
95. Consider the following equilibrium

1
SO2 (g)  O2 (g) SO3 (g)
2
2SO3 (g) 2SO2 (g)  O2 (g)
(3)
What is the relation between K1 and K2 ?
1 1
(1) K1  (2) K1 
K2 K2
1
(3) K1  K2 (4) K1 
K 22
96. On addition of an inert gas at constant volume to (4)

the reaction N2  3H2 2NH3 at equilibrium :
(1) the reaction remains unaffected
(2) forward reaction is favoured
(3) the reaction halts 100. Consider the general hypothetical reaction
(4) backward reaction is favoured A(s) 2B(g)  3C(g)
If the concentration of C at equilibrium is
97. For the reaction, doubled, then after the equilibrium is re-
C(s)  CO 2(g)  2CO(g) , K P  63 atm at 1000 established, the concentration of B will be
K. If at equilibrium PCO  10 PCO2 , then total (1) two times the original value
(2) one half of its original value
pressure of the gases at equilibrium is :
(3) 1/ 2 2 times the original value
(1) 6.3 atm (2) 6.93 atm
(3) 0.63 atm (4) 0.693 atm (4) 2 2 times the original value
PART- III
98. For a phase H 2 O( ) o
H 2 O(s) 0 C 1 bar (at BIOLOGY–1 (SECTION-A)
equilibrium) This section contains 35 multiple choice questions
numbered 101 to 135. Each question has 4 choices (1),
(1) G  0 (2) S  0
(3) H  0 (4) All
101. Dialysis unit (artificial kidney) contains a fluid
99. For the chemical equilibrium, which is almost same as plasma except that it has
(1) High glucose (2) High urea
CaCO3 (s) CaO(s)  CO 2 (g) H fo can be
(3) No urea (4) High uric acid
determined from which one of the following
plots ? 102. We can produce concentrated/dilute urine. This
is facilitated by a special mechanism. Identify
the mechanism
(1) Reabsorption from PCT
(1)
(2) Reabsorption from collecting duct
(3) Reabsorption/Secretion in DCT
(4) Counter current mechanism in Henle’s
loop/Vasa recta
103. Match the abnormal conditions given in Column 106. The condition of accumulation of urea in the
A with their explanations given in Column B and blood is termed as
choose the correct option: (1) Renal calculi (2) Glomerulonephritis
Column I Column II (3) Uremia (4) Ketonuria
(A) Glycosuria (i) Accumulation
of uric acid in 107. Which one of the following statements is
joints incorrect?
(B) Renal calculi (ii) Inflammation (1) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into
in glomeruli a few conical masses called medullary
(C) Glomerular (iii) Mass of pyramids projecting into the calyces.
nephritis crystallized (2) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends
salts within the in between the medullary pyramids as renal
kidney pelvis.
(D) Gout (iv) Presence of (3) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is
glucose in urine called the renal corpuscle.
(1) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv (4) Renal corpuscle, Proximal Convoluted
(2) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i Tubule (PCT) and Distal Convoluted Tubule
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i (DCT) of the nephron are situated in the
(4) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – i. cortical region of kidney.
104. Match the terms given in Column I with their 108. Which of the following pairs is wrong?
physiological processes given in Column II and (1) Uricotelic ............ Birds
choose the answer. (2) Ureotelic .............. Insects
(3) Ammonotelic ............ Tadpole
Column I Column II (4) Ureotelic ................ Elephant
(A) Proximal (i) Formation of
concentrated urine 109. Which one of the following statements is
(B) Distal (ii) Filtration of blood incorrect?
convoluted (1) Birds and land snails are uricotelic animals
tubule (2) Mammals and frogs are ureotelic animals
(C) Henle’s loop (iii) Reabsorption of (3) Aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are
70 to 80 per cent ammonotelic animals
of electrolytes (4) Birds and reptiles are ureotelic
(D) Counter– (iv) Ionic balance
current 110. Different types of excretory structures and
mechanism animals are given below. Match them
appropriately and mark the correct answer from
(E) Renal (iv) Maintenance of
among those given below.
corpuscle concentration
gradient in Excretory structure/organ Animals
medulla (A) Protonephridia (i) Prawn
(1) A– iii, B – v, C– iv, D – ii, E – i (B) Nephridia (ii) Cockroach
(2) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – v, E – ii (C) Malpighian tubules (iii) Earthworm
(3) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – v, E – iv (D) Green gland or (iv) Flatworms
(4) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – v, E – ii. Antennal gland
(1) D – i, C – ii, B – iii and A – iv
105. Which one of the following is also known as (2) B – i, C – ii, A – iii and B – iv
antidiuretic hormone? (3) D – i, C – ii, A – iii and B – iv
(1) Oxytocin (2) Vasopressin (4) B – i, C – ii, B – iii and D – iv
(3) Adrenaline (4) Calcitonin
111. The pH of human urine is approximately 120. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the
(1) 6.5 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 7.5 nephron will result in
(1) More diluted urine
112. A larger quantity of one of the following is (2) More concentrated urine
removed from our body by lungs
(3) No change in quality and quantity of urine
(1) CO2 only (2) H2O only (4) No urine formation
(3) CO2 and H2O (4) Ammonia
121. Which of the following causes an increase in
113. Which of the following statements is incorrect? sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted
(1) ADH prevents the conversion of tubule?
angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin (1) Increase in aldosterone levels
(2) Aldosterone facilitates water reabsorption (2) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
(3) ANF enhances sodium reabsorption (3) Decrease in aldosterone levels
(4) Renin causes vasodilation (4) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels
114. Filtration of the blood takes place at
(1) PCT (2) DCT 122. Figure shows the human urinary system with
(3) Collecting ducts (4) Malpighian body structures labelled from A to D. Select the option
which correctly identifies them and gives their
115. The following substances are the excretory characteristics and/or functions
products in animals. Choose the least toxic form
among them?
(1) Urea (2) Uric acid
(3) Ammonia (4) Carbon dioxide
116. The part of nephron involved in active

reabsorption of sodium is
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(2) Bowman’s capsule
(3) Descending limb of Henle’s loop
(4) Distal convoluted tubule
(1) A: Adrenal gland – located at the anterior part
117. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally of kidney, secrete catecholamines, which
carry largest amount of urea? stimulate glycogen breakdown
(1) Renal Vein (2) Dorsal Aorta (2) B: Pelvis – broad funnel shaped space inner
(3) Hepatic Vein (4) Hepatic Portal Vein to hilum, directly connected to loop of Henle
(3) C: Medulla – inner zone of kidney and
118. Human urine is usually acidic because
contains complete nephrons
(1) Excreted plasma proteins are acidic
(4) D: Cortex – outer part of kidney and do not
(2) Potassium and sodium exchange generates
contain any part of nephrons
acidity
(3) Hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the
123. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water
filtrate
(70 to 80 per cent) from the glomerular filtrate is
(4) The sodium transporter exchange one
reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?
hydrogen ion for each sodium ion, in
(1) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
peritubular capillaries.
(2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule
119. Which of the following does not favour the
(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle
formation of large quantities of dilute urine?
(1) Alcohol (2) Caffeine
(3) Renin (4) Atrial-natriuretic factor
124. Which one of the following option gives the (1) Henle’s loop - Most reabsorption of the major
correct categorization of six animals according substance from the glomerular filtrate
to the type of nitrogenous wastes {A (2) Distal convoluted tubule - Reabsorption of
(Ammonotelic), B (Ureotelic), C (Uricotelic)} ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
they give out? (3) Afferent arteriole - Carries the blood away
(1) A: Frog, Lizards, B: Aquatic Amphibia, from the glomerulus towards the renal vein
Humans, C: Cockroach, Pigeon (4) Podocytes - Creates minute space (slit pores)
(2) A: Aquatic Amphibia, B: Frog, Humans, C: for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s
Pigeon, Lizards, Cockroack capsule
(3) A: Aquatic Amphibia, B: Cockroach,
Humans, C: Frog, Pigeon, Lizards 130. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound
(4) A: Pigeon, Humans, B: Aquatic Amphibia, in humans is synthesized
Lizards, C: Cockroach, Frog (1) In kidneys but eliminated mostly through
liver.
125. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) (2) In kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
activates (3) In liver and also eliminated by the same
(1) Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone through bile
(2) Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline (4) In the liver, but eliminated mostly through
(3) Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin kidneys
(4) Juxtaglomerular cells to release rennin
131. Which one of the following statements with
126. Which one of the following statements is correct regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is
with respect to kidney function regulation? correct?
(1) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates (1) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is
ADH release. impermeable to water
(2) An increase in glomerular blood flow (2) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of
stimulates the formation of angiotensin II reabsorbing HCO3-
(3) During summer when the body loses lot of (3) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate
water by evaporation, the release of ADH is is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
suppressed (4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is
(4) When someone drinks lot of water the ADH impermeable to electrolytes
release is suppressed
132. In which one of the following organisms its
127. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous excretory organs are correctly stated?
wastes is found in (1) Humans - Kidneys, sebaceous glands
(1) Birds and annelids (2) Earthworm - Pharyngeal, integumentary and
(2) Amphibians and reptiles septal nephridia
(3) Insects and amphibians (3) Cockroach - Malpighian tubules and enteric
(4) Reptiles and birds caeca
(4) Frog - Kidneys, skin and buccal epithelium
128. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal
pyramid? 133. In the below diagram, identify the end excretory
(1) Convoluted tubules product which remains in body to maintain
(2) Collecting ducts concentration of medullary interstitium?
(3) Loops Henle
(4) Peritubular capillaries
129. Which one of the following correctly explains

the function of a specific part of a human
nephron?
BIOLOGY–1 (SECTION-B)
This section contains 15 multiple choice questions
numbered 136 to 150. Out of which have to attempt 10
Questions only. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
136. Which part of the above diagram is lined with
podocytes?
(1) F (2) G (3) A (4) E
134. In which part of the diagram calyces opens
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
137. The part ‘B’ in the above diagram is lined with
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) E
135. B part of the above diagram contains
(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Brush border epithelium
138. Glomerulus is formed by the branching of
(1) PCT (2) DCT

(3) HL (4) Blood Vessels
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. Nephron produces how much concentrated 141. The following diagram represents the
urine? Malpighian body. Identify A to D.
(1) A–Efferent arteriole, B–Afferent arteriole,

C–Bowman’s capsule, D–DCT
(2) A–Afferent arteriole, A–Efferent arteriole,
(1) 4 times (2) 5 times C–Renal corpuscle, D–Proximal convoluted
(3) 3 times (4) 2 times tubule
(3) A–Efferent arteriole, B–Bowman’s capsule,
140. The diagram following the different parts C– Afferent arteriole, D–PCT
absorb:Identify A, B and D (4) A–Afferent arteriole, B–Efferent arteriole,
C–Bowman’s capsule, D–DCT
142. Match the following:
(1) A–Proximal convoluted tubule, B–Afferent

arteriole, C–Vasa recta, D–Bowman’s
(1) A–Urea, B–Thick segment of ascending capsule, E–Henle’s loop
limb, D–Descending limb of loop of Henle (2) A–Henle’s loop, B–Vasa recta, C–Proximal
(2) A–Descending limb of loop of Henle, B– convoluted tubule, D–Bowman’s capsule, E–
Thick segment of ascending limb, D–Urea Afferent arteriole
(3) A–Thick segment of ascending limb, B– (3) A–Bowman’s capsule, B–Henle’s loop, C–
Descending limb of loop of Henle, D–Urea Proximal convoluted tubule, D–Vasa recta,
(4) A–Thick segment of ascending limb, B– E–Afferent arteriole
Thick segment of ascending limb, D–Urea (4) A–Vasa recta, B–Proximal convoluted
tubule, C–Bowman’s capsule, D–Afferent
arteriole, E–Henle’s loop
143. Go through the following figure:Identify A to D Section I Section II
(i) Ultrafiltration (a) Henle’s loop
(ii) Concentration (b) Ureter
of urine
(iii) Transport of (c) Urinary
urine bladder
(iv) Storage of (d) Malpighian
urine corpuscles
(1) (i)–(d), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(c)
(2) (i)–(d), (ii)–(c), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(a)
(3) (i)–(e), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(c)
(4) (i)–(e), (ii)–(d), (iii)–(a), (iv)–(b)
(1) A-Renal column, B-Renal capsule, C-Calyx,
D-Renal pelvis
146. In the diagram of excretory system of human
(2) A-Renal capsule, B-Renal pelvis, C-Renal
beings given below, different parts have been
vein, D-Calyx
indicated by alphabets; choose the answer in
(3) A-Calyx, B-Renal column, C-Renal capsule,
which these alphabets have been correctly
D-Renal vein
matched with the parts which they represent.
(4) A-Renal vein, B-Calyx, C-Renal column, D-
Renal capsule
144. Observe the following figure.Identify A to E

structure:
(1) A–Kidney, B–Abdominal aorta, C–Ureters,

D–Urinary bladder, E–Urethra, F–Renal
pelvis
(2) A–Kidney, B–Abdominal aorta, C–Urethra,
D–Urinary bladder, E–Ureters, F–Renal
pelvis
(3) A–Kidney, B–Renal pelvis, C–Urethra, D–
Urinary bladder, E–Ureters, F–Abdominal
(1) A-Renal artery, B-Urinary bladder, C- aorta
Inferior vena cava, D-Kidney, E-Medulla (4) A–Kidney, B–Abdominal aorta, C–Urethra,
(2) A-Inferior vena cava, B-Kidney, C-Medulla, D–Urinary bladder, E–Renal pelvis, F–
D-Renal artery, E-Urinary bladder Ureters
(3) A-Urinary bladder, B-Medulla, C-Kidney, D-
Inferior vena cava, E-Renal artery 147. Which of the following is true about renal
(4) A-Kidney, B-Renal artery C-Inferior vena transplantation?
cava, D-Urinary bladder, E-Medulla (1) Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method
at the stage where drug or dialysis do not help
145. Match the excretory functions of section I with (2) Immunosuppressive agent are used in kidney
the parts of the excretory system in section transplant patient.
II.Choose the correct combinations from among (3) Close relatives are often used as kidney
the answers given. donors to minimise the risk of rejection.
(4) All the above
148. Malfunctioning of kidney may lead to the 155. Select the total number of excretory organ from
accumulation of _______ in blood the following found in various animals:
(1) Glucose (2) Amino acid Protonephridia, SA node, nephridia, Hepatic
(3) Urea (4) All of these Cecae, atrium, Malpighian tubules, green glands,
kidney, pons, ommatidia, parapodia
149. Following are the steps of dialysis: (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
A. Blood is passed into a vein.
B. Blood is mixed with heparin. 156. Which is not a part of renal tubule?
C. Blood is mixed with anti-heparin. (1) PCT
(2) Bowman’s capsule
D. Blood is drained from convenient artery.
(3) DCT
E. Blood is passed through a coiled and porous
cellophane tube bathing in dialysis fluid. (4) Collecting duct
F. Removal of nitrogenous wastes from blood. 157. Select the incorrect statement from the
The correct sequence of steps is following.
(1) A  B  C  D  E  F (1) Liver is the second largest gland in our body.
(2) D  B  E  F  C  A (2) Sebum provides protective oily covering for
(3) F  C  E  B  A  D skin.
(4) D  C  E  F  B  A (3) Bile contains substance like bilirubin,
biliverdin, cholesterol, degraded steroid
150. Which is the ultimate method for the correction hormones, vitamins and drugs are passed
of acute renal failure? with digestive wastes.
(1) Haemodialysis (4) Other than kidneys lungs, liver and skin also
(2) Renal transplantation helps in the elimination of excretory wastes
(3) Blood transfusion
(4) Angioplasty 158. Sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes are eliminated
PART-IV through
BIOLOGY–2 (SECTION-A) (1) Liver (2) Lungs
This section contains 35 multiple choice questions (3) Sebaceous glands (4) Sweat glands
numbered 151 to 185. Each question has 4 choices (1),
159. Nitrogenous waste is eliminated through
(1) Kidney (2) Saliva
151. Stone and insoluble mass of crystallized salts,
(3) Sweat gland (4) All of these
formed within the kidney is generally made up of
(1) Calcium carbonate (2) Calcium oxalate
160. Primary function of sweat is
(3) Silica (4) Any of these
(1) Removal of excess of water
(2) Removal of urea
152. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is
(3) Cooling of body surface
(1) Renal failure (2) Renal calculi
(4) All of these
(3) Glomerulonephritis (4) Cystitis
161. Sweat contains
153. Our lung removes how much of CO2 per hour (1) Watery fluid with NaCl
from the body (2) Urea
(1) 10 L (2) 20 L (3) 18 L (4) 2 L (3) Lactic acid
(4) All of these
154. Excretory organs help in
(1) Excretion only 162. Glycosuria and ketonuria is indicative of
(2) Maintenance of acid–base balance (1) Starvation
(3) Maintenance of ionic balance (2) Diabetes mellitus
(4) All of these (3) Diabetes insipidus
(4) All of these
163. Presence of glucose and ketone bodies in urine is 171. Select the incorrect from the following:
called
(1) Glycosuria and ketonuria
(2) Glycogenic and ketonuria
(3) Glycosuria and ketonemia
(4) Gluconeogenesis and ketonaemia
164. Analysis of urine help in the clinical diagnosis of

(1) Metabolic disorders
(2) Malfunctioning of kidney
(1) 2, 3 (2) 1, 3 (3) 4 (4) 5, 6
(3) Diabetes mellitus
(4) All of these
172. RAAS involve
165. On an average _________ of urea is excreted out (1) JGA apparatus (2) Angiotensinogen
per day (3) Adrenal cortex (4) All of these
(1) 20–25 gm (2) 25–30 gm
(3) 25–30 mg (4) 40–45 gm 173. Stimulus for activation of JG cells to release
rennin is/are
166. An adult human excretes how much urine per
day? (1)  Glomerular blood flow
(1) 1–1.5 litre (2) 1.5–2 litre (2)  Glomerular blood pressure
(3) 5–1 litre (4) 3 litre (3)  GFR
167. Neural mechanism of micturition is called (4) All of these
(1) Micturition reflex (2) Simple reflex
(3) Conditioned reflex (4) All of these 174. Arrange the following steps in order
(1) Excessive loss of fluid
168. Find the correct steps for micturition (arrange in (2) Stimulation of osmoreceptor
order). (3) Stimulation of Hypothalamus
(A) Urine filled in urinary bladder (4) Release of ADH or Vasopressin
(B) Stretch–receptor activation (5) ADH facilitate water reabsorption from
(C) Wall of bladder send signal to CNS distal tubules
(D) Motor message from CNS to urinary bladder
(6) Increase in body fluid switch off
and urethral sphincter
osmoreceptor and suppress the release of
(E) Bladder contracts and sphincter dilates leads
ADH.
to micturition
(1) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 (2) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5, 6
(1) A  B  C  D  E
(3) 6, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (4) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5, 6
(2) C  B  A  D  E
(3) B  A  C  D  E
175. ADH causes
(4) A  B  C  E  D
(1) Increased water absorption from DCT and
169. Which of the following is true about ANF? CT
(1) Full form is Autonomic Nervous Factor (2) Increased GFR by increasing blood pressure
(2) Antagonistic to Renin–Angiotensin (3) Increases reabsorption of electrolyte from
mechanism distal tubules
(3) It causes vasoconstriction (4) All of these
(4) All are true
176. The functioning of kidney is regulated by
170. Increase in blood pressure is caused by
(1) Hypothalamus
(1)  es ADH secretion
(2) JGA
(2)  es Aldosterone secretion (3) Heart
(3)  es Angiotensinogen II (4) All of these
(4) All of these
177. What is the ratio of concentration of outer 184. When a person is suffering from poor renal
medulla to outer portion of inner medulla? reabsorption, which one of the following will not
1 2 4 1 help in the maintenance of blood volume?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3 4 (1) Increased ADH secretion
(2) Decreased glomerular filtration
178. The human kidney produces how much
(3) Increased arterial pressure in kidneys
concentrated urine than the initial filtrate
(4) Decreased arterial pressure in kidneys
formed?
(1) 2 times (2) 4 times
185. Volume of urine is regulated by
(3) 6 times (4) 3 times
(1) Aldosterone
179. Ducts of Bellini are present in (2) Aldosterone and ADH
(1) Liver (2) Kidney (3) Aldosterone, ADH and testosterone
(3) Intestine (4) Medulla oblongata (4) ADH alone
180. Which one of the following groups of BIOLOGY–2 (SECTION-B)
structures/organs have similar function? This section contains 15 multiple choice questions
(1) Typhlosole in earthworm, intestinal villi in numbered 186 to 200. Out of which have to attempt 10
rat and contractile vacuole in Amoeba Questions only. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(2) Nephridia in earthworm, Malpighian tubules (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
in cockroach and urinary tubules in rat. 186. In deficiency of ADH, the rate of micturition
(3) Antennae of cockroach, tympanum of frog (1) Decreases (2) Increases
and clitellum of earthworm. (3) Remains the same (4) None of these
(4) Incisors of rat, gizzard (proventriculus) of
cockroach and tube feet of starfish. 187. The effect of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on the
181. Which of the following statements is/are true? kidney is to increase the
1. Urine is hypertonic in distal convoluted (1) Excretion of water
tubule. (2) Excretion of Na’
2. When the urine passes into the collecting (3) Permeability of the distal nephron to water
tubule it becomes hypotonic. (4) Glomerular filtration rate
3. Urine is isotonic in proximal convoluted
tubule. 188. Which of the following substance is actively
4. Urine becomes more and more hypotonic as it secreted into glomerular filtrate of the kidney
passes through the Henle’s loop. tubule?
(1) 1 and 4 only (2) 1, 2 and 3 only (1) Amino acids (2) Chloride ions
(3) 2 and 3 only (4) 3 only
(3) Na  (4) K 
182. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian
nephron, which of the following is to be 189. The part of the nephron that helps in active
expected? reabsorption of sodium is
(1) The urine will be more dilute. (1) Bowman’s capsule
(2) There will be no urine formation. (2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) The urine will have more concentration (3) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
(4) There will be hardly any change in the quality (4) Proximal convoluted tubules
and quantity of urine formed
183. The number of nephrons in a kidney is equal to 190. What are mainly reabsorbed from Henle’s loops?
the (1) Potassium
(1) Number of Bowman’s capsules (2) Glucose
(2) Sum of Bowman’s capsules and glomeruli (3) Water and NaCl
(3) Double the number of Bowman’s capsules (4) Urea and NaCl
(4) Sum of Bowman’s capsules and Malpighian
corpuscles
191. Which of these will be completely reabsorbed 196. Counter-current mechanism is present in
from glomerular filtrate under normal conditions (1) HL (2) Vasa recta
in the nephrons? (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) DCT
(1) Urea (2) Salts
(3) Uric acid (4) Glucose 197. At which place we initially used the term ‘urine’
for filtrate?
192. Which of the following is most likely to cause an (1) PCT (2) DCT
increase in the glomerular filtration rates? (3) HL (4) Collecting duct (end)
(1) Blockage of ureter
(2) Dilation of the afferent arterioles 198. Which of the following segment allows the
(3) Release of renin from the juxtaglomerular passage of small amount of urea into modularly
apparatus interstitium to keep up the osmolarity?
(4) Volume depletion (1) PCT (2) DCT
(3) HL (4) Collecting duct
193. The total filtrate formed in 24 hours in human
kidney is 199. DCT helps in
(1) 1.8 litre (2) 8.0 litre (A) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water
(3) 18 1itre (4) 180 litre (B) HCO3 absorption
(C) pH maintenance
194. Counter current mechanism maintains the (D) Selective secretion of H+ and K+
concentration gradient in the medullary (1) A, C and D only
interstitium. It helps in (2) B, C and D only
(1) Easy passage of water from PCT (3) All of these
(2) Easy passage of water from DCT (4) C and D only
(3) Easy passage of water from HL
(4) Easy passage of water from collecting duct 200. Which segment helps in the pH maintenance of
body fluid?
195. Which of the following is incorrect about (1) PCT (2) DCT
counter-current mechanism? (3) Collecting duct (4) All
(1) The flow of filtrate in two limbs of vasa recta
is in opposite direction
(2) The flow of blood in two limbs of vasa recta *******
is also in opposite direction
(3) NaCI is transported by the ascending limb of
HL which is exchanged with the descending
limb of vasa recta.
(4) NaCI is returned to in interstitium by the
ascending portion of vasa recta

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NEET-XI-GD GOENKA (04-Feb-24) 1

PART- I 7. Identify the correct graph between PV and T for

2. Two identical gases are enclosed in a chamber (2)

5. What is the effect of the temperature of a gas

6. Half mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated

14. Two kg of a monoatomic gas is at a pressure of

11. Temperature of an ideal gas is 300 K. The final

26. In addition to the gas equation PV = nRT a

31. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10N. The

(1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz (3) 12.25 Hz (4) 33.3 Hz

PART- II 56. Ammonia forms complexes with Ag+ according

55. For the reaction

95. Consider the following equilibrium

96. On addition of an inert gas at constant volume to (4)

116. The part of nephron involved in active

129. Which one of the following correctly explains

(1) F (2) G (3) A (4) E

134. In which part of the diagram calyces opens

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

137. The part ‘B’ in the above diagram is lined with

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) E

135. B part of the above diagram contains

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

138. Glomerulus is formed by the branching of

(1) PCT (2) DCT

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

(1) A–Efferent arteriole, B–Afferent arteriole,

142. Match the following:

(1) A–Proximal convoluted tubule, B–Afferent

144. Observe the following figure.Identify A to E

(1) A–Kidney, B–Abdominal aorta, C–Ureters,

164. Analysis of urine help in the clinical diagnosis of

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