Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. The nucleus , which is essential for function and survival of the cell.
A) is the site of protein synthesis
B) contains the genetic code
C) transforms cellular energy
D) initiates aerobic metabolism
2. Although energy is not made in mitochondria, they are known as the power
plants of the cell because they:
A) contain RNA for protein synthesis.
B) utilize glycolysis for oxidative energy.
C) extract energy from organic compounds.
D) store calcium bonds for muscle contractions.
3. Although the basic structure of the cell plasma membrane is formed by a lipid
bilayer, most of the specific membrane functions are carried out by: A) bound
and transmembrane proteins.
Which of the following cellular components may be defective within the mans
sperm?
A) Ribosomes
B) Microtubules
C) Mitochondria
D) Microfilaments
15. Which of the following statements is true of glycolysis? A)
Glycolysis requires oxygen.
Answer Key
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. A
11. C
12. A
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
13. D
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. A
20. D
17. Which of the following processes associated with cellular injury is most likely to
be reversible?
A) Cell damage resulting from accumulation of fat in the cytoplasm
B) Cellular changes as a result of ionizing radiation
C) Cell damage from accumulation of free radicals
D) Apoptosis
18. The extrinsic pathway of apoptosis can be initiated by: A)
damage to cellular DNA.
Answer Key
1. A
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. B
10. A
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. D
19. C
20. B
A) bleeding.
B) congestion.
C) pale skin.
D) coolness.
3. The cellular stage of acute inflammation is marked by the movement of
leukocytes into the area. Which of the following cells arrives early in great
numbers?
A) Basophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Neutrophils
D) Platelets
4. The phagocytosis process involves three distinct steps. What is the initial step in
the process?
A) Engulfment
B) Intracellular killing
C) Antigen margination
D) Recognition and adherence
5. Which of the following mediators of inflammation causes increased capillary
permeability and pain?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Bradykinin
D) Nitric oxide
6. Inflammatory exudates are a combination of several types. Which of the
following exudates is composed of enmeshed necrotic cells?
A) Serous
B) Fibrinous
C) Suppurative
D) Membranous
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
7. The acute-phase systemic response usually begins within hours of the onset of
inflammation and includes: A) fever and lethargy.
Answer Key
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. A
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. B
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
15. A, C, D
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. B
20. A
B) autoimmune; diarrhea.
C) IgM-mediated; infections.
D) delayed; poison ivy rash:
3. Mismatched blood transfusion reaction with hemolysis of blood cells is an
example of type II, mediated hypersensitivity reaction.
A) T-cell
B) antibody
C) leukotriene
D) complement
4. Type III hypersensitivity immune responses can be harmful when immune
complex deposits in tissue activate that can directly damage area
tissues.
A) inflammation
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
B) autoantibodies
C) cytotoxic cells
D) immunoglobulins
5. The mechanism by which humans recognize self-cells from non-self
(antigens)cells is .
A) autoimmunity
B) self-tolerance
C) non-self anergy
D) immunocompatibility
6. Organ rejection is a complication of organ transplantation caused by recipient
immune cells:
A) destroying the host T cells.
B) attack on the donor cells.
C) combining with grafts HLA.
D) being recognized as foreign.
7. The leading cause of death for people with HIV is opportunistic .
A) leukemia
B) tuberculosis
C) pneumonia
D) toxoplasmosis
8. Wasting syndrome, an AIDS-defining illness, is characterized by involuntary
weight loss of at least 10% of baseline body weight in the presence of:
A) diarrhea.
B) hypermetabolism.
C) weakness and fever.
D) glucose intolerance.
9. The window period of HIV infection refers to the period of time between
infection and:
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
A) transmission.
B) seroconversion.
C) initial symptoms.
D) antibody screening.
10. HIV-positive persons that display manifestations of laboratory category 3 or
clinical category C are considered to have: A) zero viral load.
B) seroconversion.
C) complete remission.
D) AIDS-defining illnesses.
11. Contact with poison ivy has resulted in intense pruritus, erythema, and weeping
on a patients forearm. Which of the following processes resulted in the patients
signs and symptoms?
A) IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
B) Formation of antigen-antibody complexes
C) Cytokine release by sensitized T cells
D) Formation of antibodies against cell surface antigens
12. A patient with a long history of hay fever has recently begun a series of
immunotherapy (allergy shots). How will this treatment potentially achieve a
therapeutic effect?
A) By blocking cytokine release from sensitized mast cells
B) By preventing mast cells from becoming sensitized
C) By causing T cells to be sequestered in the thymus for longer periods
D) By stimulating production of IgG to combine with antigens
13. A patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis has experienced an acute rejection of a
donor liver. Which of the following cells is central to the rejection of the patients
transplanted organ?
A) Natural killer cells
B) Mast cells
C) T cells
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
D) Neutrophils
14. A patient with a diagnosis of aplastic anemia has undergone allogenic bone
marrow transplantation. Which of the following signs and symptoms would
most clearly suggest the existence of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)?
A) Shortness of breath, audible crackles, and decreasing PaO2
B) Presence of a pruritic rash that has begun to slough off
C) Development of metabolic acidosis
D) Diaphoresis, fever, and anxiety
15. A patient has developed pericarditis after developing acute glomerulonephritis, a
development that may be attributable to the presence of similar epitopes on
group A, b-hemolytic streptococci and the antigens in the patients heart tissue.
Which of the following has most likely accounted for this patients autoimmune
response?
A) Breakdown of T-cell anergy
B) Release of sequestered antigens
C) Superantigens
D) Molecular mimicry
16. A 70-year-old female patient has had her mobility and independence significantly
reduced by rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following processes likely
contributed to the development of her health problem?
A) Delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) reaction
B) Proliferation of cytotoxic T cells
C) Failure of normal self-tolerance
D) Deletion of autoreactive B cells
17. Which of the following would constitute a normal assessment finding in a
neonate?
A) Minimal or absent levels of IgA and IgM
B) Absence of plasma cells in the lymph nodes and spleen
C) Undetectable levels of all immunoglobulins
D) Absence of mature B cells with normal T-cell levels and function
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
18. A patient was diagnosed as HIV positive several years ago. Which of the
following blood tests is most clinically useful for determining the stage and
severity of her disease?
A) Plasma levels
B) CD4+ cell counts
C) Viral load
D) White blood cell count with differential
19. A patient has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of HIV infection,
which has recently progressed to overt AIDS. Which of the following nursing
actions should the nurse prioritize when providing care for this patient?
A) Frequent neurologic vital signs and thorough skin care
B) Hemodynamic monitoring and physical therapy
C) Careful monitoring of fluid balance and neurologic status
D) Astute infection control and respiratory assessments
20. Shortly after being diagnosed with HIV, a patient has begun highly active
antiretroviral therapy (HAART). What is the primary goal of the patients drug
regimen?
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
A)
B)
C)
D)
To limit the latent period of HIV
To slow the progression of the disease
To minimize opportunities for transmission To
prevent seroconversion
Answer Key
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. D
11. C
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. A
18. B
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
19. D
20. B
Chapter 5 Infection
1. Although growth rate is variable among types of bacteria, the growth of bacteria
is dependent on:
A) biofilm communication.
B) availability of nutrients.
C) an intact protein
capsid.
C) Direct antigens
D) DNA sequencing
10. Prions cause transmissible neurodegenerative diseases and are characterized by:
A) a lack of reproductive capacity.
B) hypermetabolism.
C) enzyme production.
D) chronic inflammation.
11. Which of the following individuals is experiencing a health problem that is the
result of a parasite?
A) A college student who contracted Chlamydia trachomatis during an
unprotected sexual encounter
B) A man who acquired malaria while on a tropical vacation
C) A hospital patient who has developed postoperative pneumonia
D) A woman who developed hepatitis A from eating at an unhygienic
restaurant
12. Which of the following traits is characteristic of saprophytes? A)
They derive energy from decaying organic matter.
Answer Key
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. C
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
A)
B)
C)
D)
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. A
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
11. B
12. A
13. C
14. D
15. C
16. C
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. C
1. Genetic disorders that involve a single gene trait are characterized by: A)
multifactorial gene mutations.
B) chromosome rearrangements.
C) Mendelian patterns of transmission.
D) abnormal numbers of chromosomes.
2. In addition to having a 50% chance of inheriting an autosomal dominant
disorder from an affected parent, such a disorder is characterized by: A)
aneuploidy of genes in all cells.
weeks. Which of the nurses following statements to the parents best conveys
the probable cause of the infants cleft lip?
A) Though you are both healthy, you likely both carry the gene for a cleft lip.
B) Provided one of you had the gene for a cleft lip, your baby likely faced a
50/50 chance of having one.
C) Your childs cleft lip likely results from the interplay between environment
and genes.
D) A cleft lip can sometimes result from taking prescription drugs, even when
theyre taken as ordered.
14. Which of the following practitioners is most likely to be of assistance in the
early care of an infant with a cleft lip?
A) Lactation consultant
B) Respiratory therapist
C) Occupational therapist
D) Social worker
15. A 41-year-old woman has made the recent decision to start a family, and is eager
to undergo testing to mitigate the possibility of having a child with Down
syndrome. Which of the following tests is most likely to provide the data the
woman seeks?
A) Genetic testing of the woman
B) Genetic testing of the woman and the father
C) Prenatal blood tests
D) Ultrasonography
16. Genetic testing has revealed that a male infant has been born with an extra X
chromosome. What are the most likely implications of this finding?
A) The child is unlikely to survive infancy
B) The child is likely to have no manifestations of this chromosomal
abnormality
C) The child will have significant neurological and cognitive defects
D) The child will be unable to reproduce
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
17. Which of the following variables determine the extent of teratogenic drug
effects? Select all that apply.
A) Maternal health history
B) Molecular weight of the drug
C) Stage of pregnancy when the drug was taken
D) Duration of drug exposure
E) Fetal blood type
18. A woman who has just learned that she is pregnant for the first time has sought
advice from her healthcare provider about the safe use of alcohol during
pregnancy. What advice should the clinician provide to the woman?
A) Its likely best to eliminate alcohol from your diet while youre pregnant.
B) Moderation in alcohol use is critical while you are pregnant.
C) You should limit yourself to a maximum of one drink daily while youre
pregnant.
D) You should drink no alcohol until you are in your second trimester.
19. Which of the following health problems may be identified by a TORCH
screening test?
A) Rubella and herpes
B) Tenovaginitis and human papillomavirus
C) Rhinovirus and Ormond disease
D) Chlamydia and rickets
20. Ultrasonography is most likely to detect which of the following fetal
abnormalities?
A) Neural tube defects
B) Skeletal abnormalities
C) Chromosomal defects
D) Single-gene disorders
Answer Key
1. C
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. A
6. A
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. C
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. B, C, D
18. A
19. A
20. B
2. A mutation has occurred during mitosis of an individuals bone marrow cell. This
event may be the result of the failure of which of the following?
A) Progenitor cells
B) Fibroblasts
C) Stem cells
D) Cyclins
3. A patient has experienced a myocardial infarction with accompanying necrosis
of cardiac muscle, a permanent tissue. What are the ramifications of the fact
that cardiac muscle is a permanent tissue?
A) The cardiac muscle cells will remain perpetually in the G1 stage of mitosis.
B) Regeneration of the patients cardiac muscle will be exceptionally slow.
C) The necrotic cells will be replaced with muscle cells that have limited
metabolism.
D) The cells will not proliferate and will be replaced with scar tissue.
4. A couple have chosen to pay for the harvesting and storage of umbilical cord
blood after the delivery of their child to secure a future source of embryonic
stem cells. What is the most likely rationale for the couples decision?
A) The stem cells may be able to produce a wide range of body cells.
B) The embryonic stem cells allow stable and permanent tissues to enter
mitosis.
C) The stem cells can change the proliferative capacity of other cells.
D) The embryonic stem cells remove cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors from
the body.
5. The basement membrane surrounding a patients foot wound remains intact, a
fact that bodes well for the wound-healing process. Which of the following
components constitute this form of the extracellular matrix? Select all that
apply.
A) Prostaglandins
B) Fibrous structural proteins
C) Lymphocytes
D) Water-hydrated gels
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
E) Glycoproteins
6. A nursing student is cleaning and changing the dressing on a patients sacral
ulcer. The student has vigorously cleansed the wound bed to remove all traces
of the beefy, red tissue that existed in the wound bed. The student has most
likely removed:
A) Necrotic tissue
B) Granulation tissue
C) Stem cells
D) The extracellular matrix
7. A 12-year-old boys severe wound that he received from a dog bite has begun to
heal and currently shows no signs of infection. Which of the following
processes occurred first during this process of repair by connective tissue
deposition?
A) Reorganization of fibrous tissue
B) Angiogenesis
C) Emigration of fibroblasts to the wound site
D) Deposition of the extracellular matrix
8. Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?
A) A finger laceration that a cook received while cutting up onions
B) A boys road rash that he got by falling off his bicycle
C) A needlestick injury that a nurse received when injecting a patients
medication
D) The incision from a teenagers open appendectomy
9. A patient underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago and her incision is
now in the proliferative phase of healing. What is the dominant cellular process
that characterizes this phase of the patients healing?
A) Hemostasis and vasoconstriction
B) Keloid formation
C) Collagen secretion by fibroblasts
D) Phagocytosis by neutrophils
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
10. Which of the following surgical patients is most likely to experience enhanced
wound healing as a result of his or her diet?
A) A patient who eats a high-calorie diet and large amounts of red meat
B) A patient who is a vegetarian and who eats organic foods whenever
possible
C) A patient who practices carefully calorie control and who avoids animal
fats
D) A patient who is receiving total parenteral nutrition due to recurrent nausea
11. Which of the following patients is most likely to experience impaired wound
healing?
A) A patient with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes and a history of poor blood
sugar control
B) A child whose severe cleft lip and palate have required a series of
surgeries over several months
C) A patient who takes nebulized bronchodilators several times daily to treat
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) A patient with persistent hypertension who takes a b-adrenergic blocker
and a potassium-wasting diuretic daily
Answer Key
1. A
2. D
3. D
4. A
5. B, D, E
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. C
10. A
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
11. A
an effort to treat indigestion. How will the womans body attempt to resolve this
disruption in acid-base balance?
A) Hyperventilation
B) Increasing renal H+ excretion
C) Increased renal HCO3 reabsorption
D) Hypoventilation
19. Arterial blood gases of a patient with a diagnosis of acute renal failure reveal a
pH of 7.25 (low), HCO3-of 21 mEq/L (low), decreased PCO2 accompanied by a
respiratory rate of 32 (high). What disorder of acid-base balance is the patient
most likely experiencing?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
20. A nurse who is providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of diabetes insipidus
should prioritize the close monitoring of serum levels of which of the following
electrolytes?
A) Potassium
B) Sodium
C) Magnesium
D) Calcium
Answer Key
1. D
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. C
6. A
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
7. C
8. D
9. D
10. D
11. A
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. D
16. C
17. B, C, D, E
18. D
19. A
20. B
1. The somatic nervous system provides sensory and motor innervation for: A)
peripheral nerves.
B) abdominal viscera.
C) secretory glands.
D) smooth muscle.
2. The proteins and other materials used by the axon are synthesized and
then flow down the axon through its cytoplasm.
A) in the cell body
B) by Nissl bodies
C) through dendrites
D) across synapses
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
3. Supporting cells of the nervous system, such as Schwann cells, satellite cells,
and types of glial cells, function to provide neurons with: A) local protection.
B) control functions.
C) membrane permeability.
D) integrative metabolism.
4. Neurons are characterized by the ability to communicate with other neurons and
body cells through:
A) astrocytes.
B) axon hillocks.
C) nodes of Ranvier.
D) action potentials.
5. Chemical synapses rely on in order to provide communication between
neurons.
A) diffusion
B) gap junctions
C) satellite cells
D) transmitter molecules
6. The blood-brain and CSF-brain barriers control the chemical environment of the
brain by allowing easy entrance to only a few chemicals that include:
A) oxygen.
B) protein.
C) glutamate.
D) potassium.
7. The perception of where a stimulus is in space and in relation to body parts is a
function of the:
A) occipital lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) hypothalamus.
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
D) prefrontal cortex.
8. The pia mater is a connective tissue sheath that covers the spinal cord and also
contains:
A) spinal fluid.
B) fibrocartilage.
C) blood
vessels.
D) segmental nerves.
9. Which of the following is the neurotransmitter for most postganglion
sympathetic neurons?
A) Enkephalin
B) Glutamic acid
C) Catecholamines
D) Acetylcholine
10. In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the functions of the
parasympathetic nervous system include:
A) sweating.
B) anabolism.
C) pupil dilation.
D) vasoconstriction.
11. Which of the following substances provides the majority of the fuel needs of the
neurologic system?
A) Glycogen
B) Glucose
C) Amino acids
D) Triglycerides
12. A 60-year-old woman has been recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis, a
disease in which the oligodendrocytes of the patients central nervous system
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
Answer Key
1. A
2. A
3. A
4. D
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. B
11. B
12. C
13. A
14. B
15. A
16. D
17. A
18. D
19. A
20. C
C) temperature.
D) painful touch.
2. Proprioceptive somatosensory information from the limbs and trunk is
transmitted by the:
A) reflexive networks.
B) dorsal root ganglion neurons.
C) anterolateral pathway.
D) trigeminal sensory neurons.
3. Full localization, discrimination of intensity, and interpretation of
somatosensory stimuli requires processing by the: A) somatosensory
cortex.
B) autonomic nervous system.
C) Ruffini end-organ receptors.
D) Pacinian corpuscle receptors.
4. What pain theory proposes that pain receptors share pathways with other
sensory modalities and that different activity patterns of the same neurons can
be used to signal painful or nonpainful stimuli?
A) Pattern
B) Specificity
C) Gate control
D) Neuromatrix
5. Nociceptors are sensory receptors that are activated by:
A) cortisol.
B) noxious stimuli.
C) pressure and touch.
D) sudden movements.
6. When a person is stung on the index finger by a bee, the thalamus interprets the
pain as:
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
C) If you start needing higher doses to control your pain, then well address
those concerns.
D) Theres only a minute chance that you will become addicted to these
painkillers.
15. Which of the following patients may be experiencing the effects of neuropathic
pain?
A) A girl whose playground accident resulted in an arm fracture
B) A man with pain secondary to his poorly controlled diabetes
C) An elderly woman with a stage III pressure ulcer
D) A man whose pain is caused by gastric cancer
16. Which of the following statements is true of migraine headaches?
A) Non-pharmacologic treatments and lifestyle modifications can control
migraines in most patients.
B) Surgical treatments for migraines are indicated if pharmacologic
treatments are unsuccessful.
C) Migraines may have a hormonal etiology in some patients.
D) Opioid analgesics achieve adequate pain control in most patients.
17. Which of the following pain disorders is a manifestation of a disruption of
cranial nerve function?
A) Trigeminal neuralgia
B) Complex regional pain syndrome
C) Phantom limb pain
D) Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) syndrome
18. Which of the following characteristics differentiates a migraine with aura from a
migraine without aura?
A) Gastrointestinal involvement in the hours leading up to the headache
B) A decrease in mood and affect prior to the headache
C) Lack of response to non-pharmacologic treatments
D) Visual symptoms that precede the headache
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
19. A 44-year-old woman has sought care for the treatment of headaches that have
been increasing in severity and frequency, and has been subsequently diagnosed
with migraines. Which of the following teaching points should her care
provider emphasize?
A) Weight loss and exercise are very important components of your
treatment.
B) Stopping all of your current medications, even temporarily, should provide
some relief.
C) It would be helpful for you to take control of your diet, sleep schedule, and
stress levels.
D) Your headaches are likely a result of nerve disorder and, unfortunately,
cannot be treated successfully.
20. Which of the following principles should underlie the pain control strategy in
the care of a child with a diagnosis of cancer?
A) Opioids should be avoided in order to prevent liver and kidney insult.
B) Dosing and timing should aim for a steady serum level of the drug that is
chosen.
C) Doses of analgesia should be given only when the patients pain becomes
severe.
D) Drugs from numerous classifications should be used to maximize pain
control.
Answer Key
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. B
6. A
7. D
8. C
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
9. C
10. D
11. C
12. B
13. C
14. D
15. B
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. C
20. B
A) goiter.
B) myxedema.
C) thyroidectomy.
D) autoimmune thyroiditis.
3. Thyroid hormone deficit , which alters the function of all major
organs in the body.
A) decreases metabolism
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
B) muscle hypertrophy.
C) overt diabetes mellitus.
D) hair and weight loss.
10. The immune suppressive and anti-inflammatory effects of cortisol cause: A)
moderate insulin resistance.
Answer Key
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. D
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. D
12. B
13. A
14. A
15. B
16. A
17. C
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
20. B
B) postmenopause.
C) uterosacral ligaments.
D) the corpus of the uterus.
6. Symptoms of difficulty in emptying the bladder, frequency, and urgency of
urination are common in women with: A) rectocele.
B) cystocele.
C) endometritis.
D) prolapsed uterus.
7. Although there are no effective screening methods for ovarian cancer, and early
symptoms are usually absent, there are high-risk indicators that include:
A) nulliparity.
B) lactation.
C) mammary duct ectasia.
D) oral contraceptive use.
8. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is ovarian dysfunction caused by a
combination of hormone imbalances that include levels.
A) absent FSH
B) insulin deficit
C) elevated LH
D) low androgen
9. In the lactating woman, mastitis is usually the result of: A)
intraductal papillomas.
B) leiomyoma tumors.
C) STDs and vaginitis.
D) multiple pregnancies.
11. Which of the following signs and symptoms is most likely to accompany a
diagnosis of vulvodynia?
A) Vulvar pain
B) Purulent discharge
C) Urinary incontinence
D) Open lesions on the surface of the vulva
12. A 21-year-old college student has sought care because of the vaginal burning,
itching, and redness that have become worse in recent weeks. Which of the
clinicians assessment questions is most likely to apply to a diagnosis of
vaginitis?
A) Have your periods been regular in the last few months?
B) Have you ever had a sexually transmitted infection?
C) Are you using oral contraceptives?
D) Have you ever been pregnant?
13. A 29-year-old patient had a Papanicolaou smear performed during her most
recent visit to her primary care provider. This diagnostic procedure aims to
identify:
A) dysplastic cervical cells.
B) human papillomavirus (HPV) antibodies.
C) cervical polyps.
D) lesions at the transformation zone.
14. Which of the following physiologic processes is caused by estrogens?
A) Increased release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
B) Stimulation of lactation in the postpartum period
C) Promotion of ovarian follicle growth
D) Progesterone synthesis
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
15. Which of the following disorders of the female genitourinary system is most
likely to result from a disruption in normal endocrine function?
A) Ovarian cancer
B) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
C) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
D) Cervicitis
16. Which of the following complaints by middle-aged women should prompt a care
provider to rule out the possibility of ovarian cancer?
A) Im having a lot of vaginal discharge lately and its quite foul.
B) My periods have become quite irregular since last winter.
C) I have a sharp, stabbing pain on my side for the last few days.
D) Im having a lot of indigestion and bloating, which are both new to me.
17. A nurse is conducting a healthy living workshop to a group of younger women.
Which of the following screening recommendations should the nurse provide to
the participants?
A) Monthly breast self-examination (BSE)
B) BSE or mammography each year starting at age 40
C) Annual clinical breast examination until age 65
D) Mammography and clinical breast examination every 3 years until age 40
18. Which of the following processes is a component of the pathogenesis of
proliferative breast lesions without atypia?
A) Growth of ductile or lobular epithelial cells
B) Cystic dilation of terminal ducts
C) Increase in fibrous breast tissue
D) Fat necrosis leading to lesion formation
19. Which of the following physiologic changes results in menopause?
A) Changes in anterior pituitary function that alter ovarian hormone
production
B) Gradual resistance of ovarian target cells to LH and FSH stimulation
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
21. Smooth muscle relaxation and shunting of blood into the sinusoids is mediated
by and results in a penile erection.
A) norepinephrine
B) nitroglycerine
C) nitric oxide
D) nicotinic acid
22. Priapism is a condition that causes ischemia as a result of:
A) circumcision trauma.
B) failure of detumescence.
C) tight retracted foreskin.
D) fibrous plaque in the penis.
23. Common risk factors for erectile dysfunction due to generalized penile arterial
insufficiency include:
A) cryptorchidism.
B) cigarette smoking.
C) testicular torsion.
D) benign prostate hypertrophy.
24. Squamous cell cancer of the penis is more likely to develop in men with chronic:
A) erectile dysfunction.
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
B) herpes ulcerations.
C) Peyronie disease.
D) smegma accumulation.
25. In a hydrocele, excess fluid is present in the:
A) epididymis.
B) tunica vaginalis.
C) pampiniform plexus.
D) vas deferens ampulla.
26. Testicular torsion, a serious disorder affecting young male individuals, causes: A)
inguinal herniation.
B) acute pyelonephritis.
C) gram negative
D) mucous gland overgrowth.
E) coli.
29. The most important factor in the evaluation and treatment of benign prostatic
hypertrophy (BPH) is considered to be: A) frequency of erectile dysfunction.
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
B) paraphimosis.
C) prostate cancer.
D) low testosterone.
31. Which of the following physiologic processes results from the synthesis and
release of testosterone?
A) Protein catabolism
B) Musculoskeletal growth
C) Release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone
(FSH)
D) Prostatic hyperplasia
32. A 41-year-old patient has undergone a vasectomy. What is the physiologic basis
for this contraception technique?
A) Spermatogenesis is inhibited because sex hormones may no longer
stimulate the Sertoli cells.
B) Spermatozoa can no longer reach the epididymis and do not survive.
C) The rete testis becomes inhospitable to sperm.
D) Sperm can no longer pass through the ductus deferens.
33. A patient has been diagnosed with an anterior pituitary tumor, and synthesis and
release of follicle-stimulating hormone has become deranged. What are the
potential consequences of this alteration in endocrine function?
A) Dysfunction of spermatogenesis
B) Overproduction of luteinizing hormone
C) Inhibition of testosterone synthesis
D) Impaired detumescence
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
34. Which of the following factors constitutes the most significant risk for balanitis
xerotica obliterans?
A) Multiple sexual partners
B) Androgen deficiency
C) Uncircumcised penis
D) Chronic prostatitis
35. Which of the following disorders of the male genitourinary system creates the
most urgent need for prompt and aggressive medical treatment?
A) Spermatocele
B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
C) Intravaginal testicular torsion
D) Erectile dysfunction
36. A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with mumps orchitis, a disease that has
the potential to result in:
A) hematuria.
B) hematocele.
C) sterility.
D) penile atrophy.
37. After seeking care due to recent history of testicular enlargement and scrotal pain,
a 22-year-old college student has been diagnosed with testicular cancer. Which
of the patients following statements indicates the need for further teaching?
A) I cant shake this feeling like Ive received a death sentence.
B) I have to admit that the prospect of losing a testicle is a bit overwhelming.
C) I really hope the cancer hasnt spread anywhere, because Ive read that its a
possibility.
D) I guess theres some solace in the fact that this cancer wasnt a result of an
unhealthy lifestyle.
38. Which of the following assessments is most likely to reveal a potential
exacerbation in a 70-year-old patients diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia
(BPH)?
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
Answer Key
1. B
2. C
3. C
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
34. C
35. C
36. C
37. A
38. C
39. C
40. A
B) pulmonary embolism.
C) inflammation of the pleura.
D) chronic forceful coughing.
4. Acute onset bronchial asthma causes wheezing and breathlessness as a result of:
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
A) airway inflammation.
B) alveolar collapse.
C) compression atelectasis.
D) pulmonary hypertension.
5. Emphysema is characterized by hyperinflation of the lungs that produces
increased:
A) total lung capacity.
B) alveolar wall thickness.
C) a1-antitrypsin enzyme.
D) submucosal gland hypertrophy.
6. As a result of hypoxemia and polycythemia, persons with chronic obstructive
bronchitis are prone to:
A) breakdown of elastin.
B) left-sided heart failure.
C) pulmonary hypertension.
D) expiratory airway collapse.
7. With bronchiectasis, persistent airway obstruction and chronic infection results in
bronchial:
A) dilation.
B) rupture.
C) infarction.
D) thickening.
8. Cystic fibrosis (CF), the major cause of severe chronic respiratory disease in
children, is characterized by:
A) constipation.
B) salt depletion.
C) watery mucus.
D) high cholesterol.
9. The adverse effects of emboli on the pulmonary circulation and airways include:
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
A) excess surfactant.
B) area bronchodilation.
C) local vasoconstriction.
D) lower lobe consolidation.
10. The common results of respiratory failure are hypoxemia and:
A) hypercapnia.
B) bradycardia.
C) vasoconstriction.
D) pulmonary emboli.
11. A patient with a history of emphysema is experiencing hypoxemia after a taxing
physical therapy appointment. Which of the following physiologic phenomena
will occur as a consequence of hypoxemia?
A) Peripheral vasodilation
B) Necrosis
C) Hypoventilation
D) Increased heart rate
12. An elderly patient who has been restricted to bed by numerous comorbidities for
several weeks has been diagnosed with a large pleural effusion. Which of the
following treatment modalities is most likely to resolve the patients most recent
health problem?
A) Thoracentesis
B) Supplementary oxygen therapy
C) Administration of corticosteroids
D) Administration of bronchodilators
13. A motor vehicle accident has resulted in a tension pneumothorax for the driver of
the car. Which of the following manifestations is associated with tension
pneumothorax?
A) Audible friction rub over the affected lung
B) Mediastinal shift
C) Metabolic alkalosis
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
D) Atrial fibrillation
14. A patient has just been admitted to the postsurgical unit following a below-
theknee amputation. Which of the following measures should her care team
prioritize to prevent atelectasis during the patients immediate recovery?
A) Bedrest and supplementary oxygen by nasal cannula
B) Administration of bronchodilators by nebulizer
C) Deep-breathing exercises and early mobilization
D) Adequate hydration and a high-humidity environment
15. Which of the following manifestations typically accompanies an asthmatic
attack?
A) Decreased residual volume
B) Decreased pulmonary arterial pressure
C) Prolonged inspiration
D) Hyperinflation of the lungs
16. A 51-year-old man has been diagnosed with chronic bronchitis after a long
history of recurrent coughing. Which of the mans following statements
demonstrates a sound understanding of his new diagnosis?
A) If I had quit smoking earlier than I did, I think I could have avoided getting
bronchitis.
B) Im pretty sure that I first caught bronchitis from the person who has the
cubicle next to mine at work.
C) I read on the Internet that I might have got bronchitis because I was born
with an enzyme deficiency.
D) I think that I probably could have prevented this if I had got in the habit of
exercising more when I was younger.
17. Which of the following individuals is experiencing a disorder of ventilation that
has a restrictive rather than obstructive etiology?
A) A 30-year-old African American man who has been diagnosed with
sarcoidosis
B) An infant whose routine screening is suggestive of cystic fibrosis
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
Answer Key
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. C
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. A
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. A
17. A
18. C
19. A
20. D
3. One of the principal mechanisms by which the heart compensates for increased
workload is:
A) myocardial hypertrophy.
B) sodium and water retention.
C) endothelin vasoconstrictors.
D) ventricular wall tension increase.
4. In right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema is evidenced by:
A) weight gain.
B) copious urination.
C) shortness of breath.
D) decreased blood pressure.
5. The most common causes of left-sided heart failure include: A)
acute myocardial infarction.
B) excessive vasoconstriction.
C) chronic intracellular fluid shift.
D) acute intravascular volume loss.
7. In shock, one of the best indicators of blood flow to vital organs is:
A) warm legs.
B) urine output.
C) blood pressure.
D) consciousness.
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
B) excessive surfactant.
C) hyperinflated alveolar sacs.
D) ventilation-perfusion mismatch.
10. A common symptom of the ischemia associated with gastrointestinal
redistribution of blood flow is:
A) gastric bleeding.
B) nausea and vomiting.
C) irritable bowel syndrome.
D) copious high volume diarrhea.
11. A patient has been experiencing increasing fatigue in recent months, a trend that
has prompted an echocardiogram. Results of this diagnostic test suggest that the
patients end-diastolic volume is insufficient. Which of the following parameters
of cardiac performance will directly decrease as a result of this?
A) Inotropy
B) Cardiac contractility
C) Preload
D) Afterload
12. Which of the following health problems is associated with heart failure as a result
of diastolic dysfunction?
A) Uncontrolled hypertension
B) Chronic bradycardia
C) Ischemic heart disease
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
D) Myocardial hypertrophy
13. Assessment of an elderly female patient reveals the presence of bilateral pitting
edema of the patients feet and ankles and pedal pulses that are difficult to
palpate. Auscultation of the patients lungs reveals clear air entry to bases, and
the patients oxygen saturation level is 93% and vital signs are within reference
ranges. What is this patients most likely health problem?
A) Right-sided heart failure
B) Left-sided heart failure
C) Cardiogenic shock
D) Cor pulmonale
14. The most recent blood work of a patient with a diagnosis of heart failure indicates
increased levels of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) and brain natriuretic peptide
(BNP). What are the most likely effects of these peptides on the patients
physiology?
A) Water retention
B) Increased tubular sodium reabsorption
C) Inhibition of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
D) Sympathetic nervous stimulation
15. A nurse is performing patient health education with a 68-year-old man who has
recently been diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following statements
demonstrates an accurate understanding of his new diagnosis?
A) Ill be sure to take my beta blocker whenever I feel short of breath.
B) Im going to avoid as much physical activity as I can so that I preserve my
strength.
C) I know its healthy to drink a lot of water, and Im going to make sure I do
this from now on.
D) Im trying to think of ways that I can cut down the amount of salt that I
usually eat.
16. Electrical burns over a large surface area of a patients body have resulted in
hypovolemic shock after the loss of large amounts of blood and plasma. Which
of the following mechanisms is the patients body likely to implement to
compensate for this loss of fluid?
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
B) A diuretic
C) A cardiac glycoside
D) An ACE inhibitor
Answer Key
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. D
10. A
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. C
15. D
16. A
17. C
18. B
19. A
20. C
1. The adipocytes in adipose tissue not only serve as a storage sites, they also: A)
produce linoleic fatty acid.
B) synthesize triglycerides.
C) increase glucagon release.
D) degrade fat-soluble vitamins.
2. Protein contains nitrogen. A negative nitrogen balance represents: A)
more protein consumed than excreted.
D) chronic anemia
6. As the problem of childhood and adolescent obesity increases, an increase in the
incidence of is occurring in this obese population.
A) type 2 diabetes mellitus
B) attention deficit disorder
C) juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
D) antibiotic-resistant bacterial infections
7. A diet deficient in calories and protein causes marasmus, which is characterized
by:
A) discolored
hair.
B) bradycardia.
C) enlarged
liver.
D) pitting
edema.
8. Protein-calorie malnutrition with loss of lean tissues and muscle mass results in:
A) respiratory muscle stimulation.
B) excessive blood cell production.
C) diarrhea.
D) increased cardiac contractility.
9. Similarities between girls or women with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa
include:
A) periodontal disease.
B) low estrogen level.
C) electrolyte imbalances. D) enlarged parotid gland.
10. Both binge-eating and bulimia nervosa patients consume excessive amounts of
foods secretively. A major difference is that binge-eaters:
A) remain overweight.
B) eat when not hungry.
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
C) High bilirubin
D) Low fasting blood sugar
20. Which of the following assessments should be prioritized in the care of a patient
with anorexia nervosa?
A) Serum electrolyte levels
B) Chest auscultation
C) White blood cell count with differential
D) Blood pressure monitoring
Answer Key
1. B
2. C
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. A
11. A
12. C
13. A
14. D
15. B
16. C
17. C
18. C
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
19. A
20. D
B) rheumatoid arthritis.
C) thrombocytopenia.
D) lactose intolerance.
6. Crohns type of inflammatory bowel disease is characterized by: A)
granulomatous lesions.
B) ulcerative erosions.
C) fibrotic smooth muscle.
D) necrotic crypt abscesses.
7. Unlike the Crohn type of inflammatory bowel disease, the ulcerative colitis type
is characterized by:
A) skip lesions.
B) steatorrhea.
C) gastric ulcers.
D) pseudopolyps.
8. Diverticulitis, a complication of diverticulosis, is manifested by acute:
A) rectal bleeding.
B) abdominal distention.
C) large-volume diarrhea.
D) lower left quadrant pain.
9. Major causes of mechanical bowel obstruction include: A)
chemical irritation.
B) ruptured appendix.
C) abdominal distention.
D) postoperative adhesions.
10. As a protective measure to keep abdominal inflammation and infection localized,
the peritoneum:
A) constricts bowel contents.
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
11. Which of the following signs and symptoms most clearly suggests the need for
endoscopy to rule out esophageal cancer?
A) Heartburn after an individual consumes high-fat meals
B) Dysphagia in an individual with no history of neurologic disease
C) A new onset of gastroesophageal reflux in a previously healthy individual
D) Recurrent episodes of gastritis that do not respond to changes in diet
12. A 60-year-old male patient has presented to his primary care provider to follow
up with his ongoing treatment for peptic ulcer disease. What is the most likely
goal of this patients pharmacologic treatment?
A) Inhibiting gastric acid production
B) Promoting hypertrophy of the gastric mucosa
C) Increasing the rate of gastric emptying
D) Increasing muscle tone of the cardiac sphincter
13. Which of the following individuals most likely faces the greatest risk of
developing Clostridium difficile colitis?
A) A 55-year-old man who takes proton pump inhibitors for the treatment of
peptic ulcers
B) A 79-year-old hospital patient who is being treated with broad-spectrum
antibiotics
C) A premature neonate who has developed hyperbilirubinemia and is
receiving phototherapy
D) A 30-year-old patient who has a history of Crohn disease and has been
admitted to a hospital to treat a recent flare-up
14. A 66-year-old woman has been diagnosed with diverticular disease based on her
recent complaints and the results of a computed tomography (CT) scan. Which
of the patients following statements demonstrates an accurate understanding of
this diagnosis?
A) From now on, Im going to stick to an organic diet and start taking more
supplements.
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
B) I think this might have happened because Ive used enemas and laxatives
too much.
C) Ive always struggled with heartburn and indigestion, and I guess I shouldnt
have ignored those warning signs.
D) I suppose I should try to eat more fiber and become a bit more active.
15. An ultrasound has confirmed appendicitis as the cause of a 20-year-old mans
sudden abdominal pain. Which of the following etiologic processes is implicated
in the development of appendicitis?
A) Obstruction of the intestinal lumen
B) Elimination of normal intestinal flora
C) Sloughing of the intestinal mucosa
D) Increased osmolality of intestinal contents
16. Which of the following characteristics differentiates inflammatory diarrhea from
the noninflammatory type?
A) Larger volume of diarrhea
B) Electrolyte imbalances
C) Absence of blood in the stool
D) Infection of intestinal cells
17. Which of the following patients should the nurse observe most closely for the
signs and symptoms of paralytic ileus?
A) A patient who is postoperative day 1 following gall bladder surgery
B) A patient whose acute diarrhea has necessitated the use of antidiarrheal
medications
C) An obese patient who refuses to ambulate because he complains of
shortness of breath
D) A patient with a longstanding diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome
18. Which of the following meals is most likely to exacerbate an individuals celiac
disease?
A) Spaghetti with meatballs and garlic bread
B) Stir-fried chicken and vegetables with rice
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
Answer Key
1. A
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. A
7. D
8. D
9. D
10. B
11. B
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
12. A
13. B
14. D
15. A
16. D
17. A
18. A
19. C
20. D
1. The nurse keeps the environment warmer for older adults because they are more
sensitive to cold because of the age-related changes in their:
a. metabolism rate.
b. subcutaneous tissue.
c. musculoskeletal system.
d. peripheral vascular system.
ANS: B
2. The nurse reassures the distressed 75-year-old male that the wartlike dark macules
with distinct borders are not melanomas, but the skin lesions of:
a. senile lentigo.
b. cutaneous papillomas.
c. seborrheic keratoses.
d. xerosis.
ANS: C
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
Dark, slightly raised macules are seborrheic keratoses, which may be mistaken for
melanomas.
3. The nurse is accompanying a group of older adults on a July 4th outing to monitor
heat prostration. Older adults are intolerant of heat because of an age-related
reduction of:
a. melanin.
b. perspiration.
c. body temperature.
d. capillary fragility.
ANS: B
4. The nurse cautions the CNAs to use care when transferring or handling older adults
because their vascular fragility will cause:
a. altered blood pressure.
b. pressure ulcers.
c. pruritus.
d. senile purpura.
ANS: D
5. The nurse assesses a stage I pressure ulcer on an older adults coccyx by the
appearance of a:
a. clear blister.
b. nonblanchable area of erythema.
c. scaly abraded area.
d. painful reddened area.
ANS: B
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
6. The CNA caring for an older adult asks if the yellow, waxy, crusty lesions on the
patients axilla and groin are contagious. The nurses most helpful response is:
ANS: B
ANS: A
Stress to long bones by weight-bearing and walking will increase bone strength.
8. When the perplexed 70-year-old woman asks, How in the world can my bones be
brittle when I eat all the right foods? the nurses most informative reply is:
ANS: B
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
Calcium is constantly withdrawn from the bone for nerve and muscle function and
clotting needs.
9. When the 70-year-old woman complains, I weigh exactly the same as I did when I
wore a size 10 and now I can barely squeeze into a size 16, the nurse explains:
ANS: C
Decrease in muscle mass is replaced with adipose tissue, which frequently changes
the appearance of the body, but not the weight.
10. When the 70-year-old postmenopausal woman asks whether her hormone
replacement therapy (HRT) will prevent bone loss, the nurses most helpful response
is:
ANS: B
HRT is helpful to prevent bone loss, but the risks of cardiovascular complications and
cancer have made the choice of HRT controversial.
11. An 80-year-old-woman who has osteoarthritis complains of how ugly her hands
have become since she has developed Heberden nodes, which are:
ANS: D
Heberden nodes are bony enlargements of the distal joints of the fingers associated
with osteoarthritis.
12. The nurse modifies the nursing care plan for a 62-year-old woman in an
extendedcare facility who is suffering a flare in her rheumatoid arthritis to include
interventions to:
ANS: B
Balancing rest and activity allows the resident to remain relatively flexible. Joints may
be splinted to reduce contracture.
13. The nurse explains that emphysema is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
characterized by the pathophysiology of:
ANS: C
14. The nurse explains that the pathophysiology of a myocardial infarct is that:
c. the ischemic myocardium causes pain during the attack but is able to
regenerate.
d. there is damage to the myocardium but no serious alteration of cardiac output.
ANS: A
The myocardium necroses and scars and does not regenerate. The degree of heart
damage is related to the amount of necrosis.
15. The nurse is aware that the cardinal signs and symptoms of congestive heart
failure are:
ANS: A
Dyspnea and generalized edema are the cardinal signs and symptoms of congestive
heart failure.
a. an iron deficiency.
b. a deficiency of vitamin B12.
c. inadequate nutrition.
d. blood loss.
ANS: B
17. The nurse alters the nursing care plan for a patient with a hiatal hernia and
resultant gastrointestinal reflux to include interventions for:
ANS: C
Eating smaller and more frequent meals does not enlarge the stomach.
18. The nurse suspects that the pale, edematous, listless diabetic patient who has a
blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 35 mg/dL and a creatinine level of 4 mg/dL has:
a. diverticulitis.
ANS: C
19. The most appropriate intervention added to the nursing care plan for a person with
Parkinson disease with a nursing diagnosis of Nutrition, less than body requirements
related to difficulty swallowing, would be to:
Thick shakes are easier to swallow without aspiration and will also improve nutrition.
20. The nurse would anticipate that a person with a hemorrhagic CVA to the left
hemisphere would exhibit:
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
a. language disturbances.
b. poor impulse control.
c. inappropriate affect.
d. confabulation.
ANS: A
A left hemisphere CVA would most likely cause language disturbances such as
aphasia, agraphia, or alexia.
1. Type 1 diabetes mellitus results from destruction of the pancreatic beta cells by
two mechanisms. The mechanism for type 1A diabetes is destruction.
A) genetic
B) resistant
C) idiopathic
D) autoimmune
2. The metabolic abnormalities that lead to type 2 diabetes include: A)
chronic overeating.
B) insulin resistance.
C) acute pancreatitis.
D) recurrent hypoglycemia.
3. Which test provides a way to monitor fluctuations of blood glucose levels over
the previous 6 to 12 weeks?
A) Glucose tolerance test
B) Fasting blood glucose
C) Capillary blood glucose
D) Glycosylated hemoglobin
4. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more commonly occurs in patients with type 1
diabetes, when the lack of insulin leads to the mobilization of that causes
excess ketone production by the liver.
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
A) cortisol
B) fatty acids
C) potassium
D) bicarbonate
5. Factors that contribute to the severe hyperglycemia that precipitates
hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS) include: A) fluid
retention and edema.
B) thromboembolism formation.
C) insulin overdose.
D) glycosuria and water loss.
6. A change in the circadian rhythm for glucose tolerance and an inappropriate
increase in counterregulatory hormones can lead to in diabetics.
A) hypoglycemia
B) Somogyi effect
C) hyperinsulinemia
D) dawn phenomenon
7. In people with type 1 diabetes, the beneficial effects of exercise also carry an
increased risk of:
A) rapid weight loss.
B) respiratory disorders.
C) rebound hyperglycemia.
D) profound hypoglycemia.
8. One of the first renal manifestations of diabetic nephropathy is:
A) microalbuminuria.
B) oliguria.
C) hypertension.
D) hyperlipidemia.
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
9. Diabetic retinopathy, the leading cause of acquired blindness in the United States,
is characterized by retinal:
A) glaucoma.
B) hemorrhages.
C) dehydration.
D) infections.
10. Impaired and delayed healing in a person with diabetes is caused by chronic
complications that include:
A) ketoacidosis.
B) Somogyi effect.
C) fluid imbalances.
D) chronic neuropathies.
11. A hospital patient with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes has been administered a
scheduled dose of regular insulin. Which of the following effects will result
from the action of insulin?
A) Promotion of fat breakdown
B) Promotion of glucose uptake by target cells
C) Promotion of gluconeogenesis and protein synthesis
D) Initiation of glycogenolysis
12. A patient with longstanding type 2 diabetes is surprised at his high blood sugar
readings while recovering from an emergency surgery. Which of the following
factors may have contributed to the patients inordinately elevated blood glucose
levels?
A) The tissue trauma of surgery resulted in gluconeogenesis.
B) Illness inhibited the release and uptake of glucagon.
C) The stress of the event caused the release of cortisol.
D) Sleep disruption in the hospital precipitated the dawn effect.
13. The results of a 44-year-old obese mans recent diagnostic workup have
culminated in a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. Which of the following
pathophysiologic processes underlies the patients new diagnosis?
APPLIED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY A CONCEPTUAL APPROACH TO THE MECHANISMS OF
DISEASE 3RD EDITION
Answer Key
1. D
2. B
3. D
4. B
5. D
6. D
7. D
8. A 9. B
10. D
11. B
12. C
13. A
14. C
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. D
20. A