Unit 3 MCQ

Science of Behavioral change
1. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change
(TTM)?
A) Contemplation
B) Maintenance
C) Adaptation
D) Precontemplation
Answer: C) Adaptation
Explanation: The Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change consists of stages including

Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, and Maintenance. "Adaptation" is not one of the
recognized stages in this model.
2. According to Self-Determination Theory (SDT), which of the following is NOT one of the three basic
psychological needs that drive intrinsic motivation?
A) Competence
B) Autonomy
C) Control
D) Relatedness
Answer: C) Control
Explanation: Self-Determination Theory posits that intrinsic motivation is driven by three basic
psychological needs: Autonomy, Competence, and Relatedness. "Control" is not considered as one of
these fundamental needs.
3. In classical conditioning, what term refers to the gradual weakening and eventual disappearance of
a conditioned response when the conditioned stimulus is presented repeatedly without the
unconditioned stimulus?
A) Extinction
B) Discrimination
C) Generalization
D) Acquisition
Answer: A) Extinction
Explanation: Extinction in classical conditioning refers to the diminishing of a conditioned response when
the unconditioned stimulus is no longer presented.
4. Which of the following is NOT one of the six principles of persuasion outlined by Robert Cialdini in
his book "Influence: The Psychology of Persuasion"?
A) Reciprocity
B) Consistency
C) Authority
D) Indifference
Answer: D) Indifference
Explanation: Robert Cialdini's six principles of persuasion include Reciprocity, Consistency, Social Proof,
Liking, Authority, and Scarcity. "Indifference" is not one of these principles.
5. (Bonus Question) Which behavioral change technique involves breaking down a complex behavior
into smaller, more manageable parts to facilitate behavior change?
A) Chunking
B) Shaping
C) Chaining
D) Fading
Answer: B) Shaping
Explanation: Shaping is a technique used in operant conditioning where behaviors are gradually shaped
or molded through reinforcement until the desired behavior is achieved. It involves breaking down the
desired behavior into smaller steps and reinforcing each step until the final behavior is reached.
6. According to the Health Belief Model, which factor refers to an individual's belief in their ability to
successfully perform a behavior?
A) Perceived susceptibility
B) Perceived severity
C) Self-efficacy
D) Cue to action
Answer: C) Self-efficacy
Explanation: Self-efficacy in the Health Belief Model refers to an individual's confidence in their ability to
successfully perform a behavior.
7. Which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily associated with reward and reinforcement in
the brain's reward system?
A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Acetylcholine
D) GABA
Answer: A) Dopamine
Explanation: Dopamine is a neurotransmitter associated with reward-motivated behavior and

reinforcement learning.
8. Which theory of motivation emphasizes the role of intrinsic motivation, stating that individuals are
motivated to seek out new experiences and challenges to satisfy their innate curiosity?
A) Self-Determination Theory
B) Drive Reduction Theory
C) Incentive Theory
D) Cognitive Evaluation Theory
Answer: A) Self-Determination Theory
Explanation: Self-Determination Theory emphasizes intrinsic motivation and the fulfillment of basic
psychological needs, including autonomy, competence, and relatedness.
9. Which of the following is NOT a stage in Prochaska and DiClemente's Stages of Change model?
A) Action
B) Preparation
C) Relapse
D) Adjustment
Answer: D) Adjustment
Explanation: Prochaska and DiClemente's Stages of Change model consists of stages including
Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, and Maintenance. "Adjustment" is not one of the
recognized stages in this model.
10. What term refers to the phenomenon where individuals adjust their behavior or beliefs to fit in
with a group, often resulting in conformity even if it goes against their own judgment or values?
A) Obedience
B) Social facilitation
C) Groupthink
D) Deindividuation
Answer: C) Groupthink
Explanation: Groupthink is a psychological phenomenon characterized by a group's desire for harmony

and conformity, resulting in an irrational or dysfunctional decision-making outcome.
11. According to the Theory of Planned Behavior, which of the following factors is NOT considered a
determinant of behavioral intention?
A) Attitude
B) Subjective norms
C) Perceived behavioral control
D) Cognitive dissonance
Answer: D) Cognitive dissonance
Explanation: The Theory of Planned Behavior suggests that behavioral intention is determined by an
individual's attitude towards the behavior, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control. Cognitive
dissonance is a separate psychological concept involving conflicting beliefs or attitudes.
12. Which brain structure plays a crucial role in the formation and consolidation of long-term
memories, including those associated with learned behaviors?
A) Hippocampus
B) Amygdala
C) Cerebellum
D) Thalamus
Answer: A) Hippocampus
Explanation: The hippocampus is associated with memory formation and consolidation, including
declarative and spatial memory, which are essential for learning and behavior adaptation.
13. According to Operant Conditioning principles, which reinforcement schedule is most effective in
maintaining high rates of behavior with minimal extinction?
A) Fixed ratio
B) Variable ratio
C) Fixed interval
D) Variable interval
Answer: B) Variable ratio
Explanation: Variable ratio reinforcement schedules involve reinforcing a behavior after an unpredictable
number of responses. This schedule is highly resistant to extinction and maintains high rates of behavior.
14. What concept in social psychology refers to the tendency for individuals to attribute their own
successes to internal factors while attributing their failures to external factors?
A) Self-serving bias
B) Fundamental attribution error
C) Actor-observer bias
D) Confirmation bias
Answer: A) Self-serving bias
Explanation: The self-serving bias is the tendency for individuals to attribute their successes to internal
factors (such as ability or effort) while attributing their failures to external factors (such as luck or
situational factors).
15. Which of the following is NOT one of the key components of the Behavior Change Wheel, a
framework for designing behavior change interventions?
A) Capability
B) Opportunity
C) Motivation
D) Reinforcement
Answer: D) Reinforcement
Explanation: The Behavior Change Wheel includes three key components: Capability, Opportunity, and
Motivation. Reinforcement is not explicitly included as a separate component in this framework.
16. In social learning theory, what term describes the process by which individuals observe and
imitate the behaviors of others, especially those they perceive as similar to themselves?
A) Vicarious reinforcement
B) Modeling
C) Operant conditioning
D) Observational learning
Answer: B) Modeling
Explanation: Modeling is the process of observing and imitating the behaviors of others. It plays a central
role in social learning theory.
17. Which concept in cognitive psychology refers to the mental shortcuts or "rules of thumb" that
individuals use to make judgments and decisions more efficiently?
A) Heuristics
B) Confirmation bias
C) Anchoring effect
D) Availability heuristic
Answer: A) Heuristics
Explanation: Heuristics are cognitive shortcuts or strategies that simplify decision-making and problem-
solving by reducing the amount of information processing.
18. Which type of conditioning involves pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus to
produce a conditioned response?
A) Classical conditioning
B) Operant conditioning
C) Observational conditioning
D) Social conditioning
Answer: A) Classical conditioning
Explanation: Classical conditioning is a type of learning in which a neutral stimulus becomes associated
with an unconditioned stimulus to produce a conditioned response.
19. What term describes the process by which individuals seek out and interpret information that
confirms their existing beliefs or attitudes while ignoring contradictory evidence?
A) Confirmation bias
B) Selective attention
C) Cognitive dissonance
D) Anchoring effect
Answer: A) Confirmation bias
Explanation: Confirmation bias refers to the tendency to search for, interpret, and remember information
in a way that confirms one's preexisting beliefs or hypotheses.
20. According to the Elaboration Likelihood Model (ELM), which route of persuasion involves careful
consideration of the arguments presented in a message?
A) Peripheral route
B) Central route
C) Direct route
D) Indirect route
Answer: B) Central route
Explanation: The Elaboration Likelihood Model proposes two routes to persuasion: the central route,
which involves careful consideration of message content and arguments, and the peripheral route, which
relies on superficial cues or heuristics.
21. According to the Fogg Behavior Model, which of the following factors is essential for behavior
change to occur?
A) Ability
B) Attitude
C) Altruism
D) Apathy
Answer: A) Ability
Explanation: The Fogg Behavior Model suggests that for behavior change to happen, individuals must
have both motivation and ability. Ability refers to the ease with which a behavior can be performed.
22. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the Model of Hierarchical Complexity, a
framework for understanding the development of human thinking and behavior?
A) Sensory-motor
B) Symbolic
C) Abstract
D) Concrete
Answer: D) Concrete
Explanation: The Model of Hierarchical Complexity proposes stages including Sensory-motor, Symbolic,
and Abstract. "Concrete" is not one of the recognized stages in this model.
23. What term refers to the phenomenon where individuals experience a decrease in responsiveness
to a stimulus after repeated exposure to it?
A) Sensitization
B) Habituation
C) Conditioning
D) Desensitization
Answer: B) Habituation
Explanation: Habituation is the process by which an individual becomes less responsive to a repeated
stimulus over time.
24. According to the Theory of Cognitive Dissonance, what action might individuals take to reduce
discomfort when their beliefs or attitudes are inconsistent with their behavior?
A) Seek out conflicting information

B) Change their behavior
C) Maintain their beliefs
D) Ignore the inconsistency
Answer: B) Change their behavior
Explanation: According to the Theory of Cognitive Dissonance, individuals may change their behavior to
align with their beliefs or attitudes to reduce the discomfort of cognitive inconsistency.
25. Which of the following is NOT a category of behavioral change techniques identified in the
Behavior Change Technique Taxonomy (BCTTv1)?
A) Feedback and monitoring

B) Social support
C) Cognitive restructuring
D) Relaxation techniques
Answer: D) Relaxation techniques
Explanation: The Behavior Change Technique Taxonomy (BCTTv1) includes categories such as Feedback
and monitoring, Social support, and Cognitive restructuring, but "Relaxation techniques" is not one of
the defined categories.
26. According to Social Cognitive Theory, what term describes an individual's belief in their capabilities
to execute courses of action required to attain specific performance levels?
A) Self-efficacy
B) Self-esteem
C) Self-regulation
D) Self-monitoring
Answer: A) Self-efficacy
Explanation: Social Cognitive Theory emphasizes the role of self-efficacy, which refers to an individual's
belief in their ability to perform specific behaviors to achieve desired outcomes.
27. Which of the following is a core principle of the Ecological Systems Theory proposed by Urie
Bronfenbrenner?
A) Operant conditioning
B) Intrinsic motivation
C) Microsystem
D) Pavlovian conditioning
Answer: C) Microsystem
Explanation: Ecological Systems Theory emphasizes the influence of environmental systems, including
the microsystem (immediate environment), mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem,
on individual development and behavior.
28. What term describes the tendency for individuals to attribute others' behaviors to internal factors
while attributing their own behaviors to external factors?
A) Fundamental attribution error

B) Actor-observer bias
C) Self-serving bias
D) Confirmation bias
Answer: B) Actor-observer bias
Explanation: The actor-observer bias refers to the tendency for individuals to attribute their own
behaviors to external factors while attributing others' behaviors to internal factors.
29. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, which level of need involves the pursuit of personal
growth, self-fulfillment, and reaching one's potential?
A) Physiological needs
B) Safety needs
C) Belongingness and love needs
D) Self-actualization needs
Answer: D) Self-actualization needs
Explanation: Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs proposes that individuals seek to fulfill various levels of needs,
with self-actualization representing the highest level, characterized by personal growth and realization
of one's potential.
30. Which psychological concept refers to the tendency for individuals to conform to the majority
opinion or behavior, even if they privately disagree?
A) Obedience
B) Social facilitation
C) Normative influence
D) Informational influence
Answer: C) Normative influence
Explanation: Normative influence occurs when individuals conform to the majority opinion or behavior to
gain social approval or avoid social rejection, even if they privately disagree.
Theory of planned behavior and theory of reasoned change
1. According to the Theory of Planned Behavior (TPB), which of the following factors directly
influences an individual's behavioral intention?
A) Attitude toward the behavior

B) Perceived control over the behavior
C) Subjective norms
D) Behavioral beliefs
Answer: A) Attitude toward the behavior
Explanation: The TPB posits that an individual's behavioral intention is influenced by their attitude
toward the behavior, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control. Attitude toward the behavior
reflects the individual's overall evaluation of performing the behavior.
2. In the Theory of Reasoned Action (TRA), what factor is emphasized as the primary determinant of
an individual's intention to perform a behavior?
A) Subjective norms
B) Perceived control
C) Attitude
D) Self-efficacy
Answer: C) Attitude
Explanation: The TRA suggests that an individual's intention to perform a behavior is primarily
determined by their attitude toward the behavior, which reflects their overall evaluation of the behavior.
3. According to the TPB, what term describes an individual's perception of the ease or difficulty of
performing a behavior?
A) Attitude
B) Behavioral control
C) Subjective norms
D) Belief strength
Answer: B) Behavioral control
Explanation: Behavioral control in the TPB refers to an individual's perception of the ease or difficulty of
performing a behavior, often influenced by factors such as skills, resources, and environmental
constraints.
4. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between the Theory of Planned
Behavior (TPB) and the Theory of Reasoned Action (TRA)?
A) The TPB extends the TRA by adding the concept of perceived behavioral control.
B) The TRA extends the TPB by incorporating environmental factors.
C) The TPB and TRA are interchangeable terms for the same theoretical framework.
D) The TRA and TPB are separate theories with no overlap in concepts.
Answer: A) The TPB extends the TRA by adding the concept of perceived behavioral control.
Explanation: The TPB builds upon the TRA by incorporating the concept of perceived behavioral control,
which reflects an individual's perception of the ease or difficulty of performing a behavior.
5. (Bonus Question) Which of the following statements accurately represents a key difference
between the Theory of Planned Behavior (TPB) and the Health Belief Model (HBM)?
A) The TPB emphasizes the role of subjective norms, while the HBM focuses on perceived susceptibility
and severity.
B) The TPB considers perceived behavioral control, whereas the HBM does not.
C) The HBM focuses on attitudes toward the behavior, while the TPB does not.
D) The TPB incorporates self-efficacy, whereas the HBM does not.
Answer: D) The TPB incorporates self-efficacy, whereas the HBM does not.
Explanation: The TPB includes the concept of perceived behavioral control, which encompasses self-
efficacy, while the HBM does not explicitly incorporate self-efficacy as a component.
6. In the Theory of Planned Behavior, what term refers to an individual's perception of social pressure
to perform or not perform a behavior?
A) Attitude toward the behavior

C) Subjective norms
D) Behavioral beliefs
Answer: C) Subjective norms
Explanation: Subjective norms in the TPB represent an individual's perception of social pressure from
important others to perform or not perform a behavior.
7. Which of the following is NOT one of the key components of the Theory of Reasoned Action (TRA)?
A) Attitude
B) Behavioral intention
C) Perceived control
D) Subjective norms
Answer: C) Perceived control
Explanation: Perceived control is a component of the Theory of Planned Behavior (TPB) but not the
Theory of Reasoned Action (TRA).
8. According to the Theory of Planned Behavior, which factor is most likely to influence an individual's
perceived behavioral control?
A) Peer pressure
B) Past experience
C) Cultural norms
D) Genetic predisposition
Answer: B) Past experience
Explanation: Past experience is often a significant factor influencing an individual's perception of control
over a behavior in the Theory of Planned Behavior.
9. Which theory emphasizes the role of behavioral beliefs and outcome evaluations in shaping an
individual's attitude toward a behavior?
A) Theory of Planned Behavior

B) Theory of Reasoned Action
C) Elaboration Likelihood Model
D) Health Belief Model
Answer: B) Theory of Reasoned Action
Explanation: The Theory of Reasoned Action focuses on how an individual's attitude toward a behavior is
shaped by their beliefs about the consequences of performing the behavior (behavioral beliefs) and their
evaluations of those consequences (outcome evaluations).
10. What concept describes the extent to which an individual believes that others who are important
to them think they should or should not perform a behavior?
A) Attitude
B) Social norms
C) Subjective norms
D) Perceived behavioral control

Explanation: Subjective norms in the Theory of Planned Behavior represent an individual's perception of
social pressure from important others to perform or not perform a behavior.
11. In the Theory of Planned Behavior, what term refers to an individual's belief about the likelihood
of specific outcomes resulting from performing a behavior?
A) Perceived control
B) Subjective norms
C) Behavioral beliefs
D) Attitude
Answer: C) Behavioral beliefs
Explanation: Behavioral beliefs in the Theory of Planned Behavior represent an individual's beliefs about
the outcomes or consequences resulting from performing a behavior.
12. Which of the following best describes the role of perceived behavioral control in the Theory of
Planned Behavior?
A) It influences an individual's attitude toward the behavior.

B) It mediates the relationship between subjective norms and behavioral intention.
C) It reflects an individual's perception of the ease or difficulty of performing a behavior.
D) It is a measure of social pressure from important others to perform a behavior.
Answer: C) It reflects an individual's perception of the ease or difficulty of performing a behavior.
Explanation: Perceived behavioral control in the Theory of Planned Behavior refers to an individual's
perception of the ease or difficulty of performing a behavior, often influenced by factors such as skills,
resources, and environmental constraints.
13. According to the Theory of Reasoned Action, which factor is considered the immediate
determinant of behavior?
A) Attitude
C) Subjective norms
D) Perceived control
Answer: B) Behavioral intention
Explanation: In the Theory of Reasoned Action, behavioral intention is considered the immediate
determinant of behavior, influenced by an individual's attitude toward the behavior and subjective
norms.
14. Which of the following statements accurately represents the distinction between the Theory of
Planned Behavior and the Health Belief Model?
A) The Health Belief Model includes perceived control, whereas the Theory of Planned Behavior does
not.
B) The Theory of Planned Behavior emphasizes the role of self-efficacy, whereas the Health Belief Model
does not.
C) The Health Belief Model focuses on attitudes toward the behavior, while the Theory of Planned
Behavior does not.
D) The Theory of Planned Behavior includes perceived susceptibility and severity, whereas the Health
Belief Model does not.
Answer: B) The Theory of Planned Behavior emphasizes the role of self-efficacy, whereas the Health
Belief Model does not.
Explanation: The Theory of Planned Behavior incorporates the concept of perceived behavioral control,
which encompasses self-efficacy, while the Health Belief Model does not explicitly include self-efficacy as
a component.
15. According to the Theory of Planned Behavior, what term describes an individual's perception of
the social pressure to conform to a particular behavior?
A) Attitude
B) Subjective norms
Answer: B) Subjective norms
the social pressure from important others to perform or not perform a behavior.
16. Which theory emphasizes the importance of behavioral beliefs, normative beliefs, and control
beliefs in shaping an individual's behavioral intention?
A) Elaboration Likelihood Model

B) Social Cognitive Theory
C) Theory of Planned Behavior
Answer: C) Theory of Planned Behavior
Explanation: The Theory of Planned Behavior emphasizes the role of behavioral beliefs (beliefs about
outcomes), normative beliefs (beliefs about social pressure), and control beliefs (beliefs about perceived
control) in shaping an individual's behavioral intention.
17. What concept in the Theory of Reasoned Action refers to an individual's perception of the social
pressure to engage or not engage in a behavior?
A) Attitude
C) Subjective norms
Explanation: Subjective norms in the Theory of Reasoned Action represent an individual's perception of
18. Which of the following theories emphasizes the role of cognitive processes, such as attention and
elaboration, in influencing persuasion and behavior change?

B) Elaboration Likelihood Model
C) Health Belief Model
D) Social Cognitive Theory
Answer: B) Elaboration Likelihood Model
Explanation: The Elaboration Likelihood Model (ELM) proposes that the extent of cognitive processing,
such as attention and elaboration, determines the route to persuasion and behavior change.
19. According to the Theory of Planned Behavior, what factor is most likely to influence an individual's
attitude toward a behavior?
A) Past experience
B) Cultural norms
C) Peer pressure
Answer: A) Past experience
Explanation: Past experience often plays a significant role in shaping an individual's attitude toward a
behavior in the Theory of Planned Behavior.
20. What term in the Theory of Reasoned Action refers to an individual's overall evaluation of
performing a behavior, influenced by beliefs about the consequences of the behavior?
A) Attitude
C) Subjective norms
Answer: A) Attitude
Explanation: Attitude in the Theory of Reasoned Action represents an individual's overall evaluation of
performing a behavior, shaped by beliefs about the outcomes or consequences of the behavior.
21. In the Theory of Planned Behavior, what term refers to an individual's belief about whether
important others approve or disapprove of the behavior?
A) Attitude
B) Subjective norms
Answer: B) Subjective norms
22. According to the Theory of Reasoned Action, which component is considered a better predictor of
behavior when attitudes and subjective norms are conflicting?
A) Attitude
B) Subjective norms
C) Behavioral intention
Answer: A) Attitude
Explanation: In situations where attitudes and subjective norms are conflicting, the Theory of Reasoned
Action suggests that attitude is a better predictor of behavior.
23. Which of the following best describes the concept of perceived control in the Theory of Planned
Behavior?
A) It represents an individual's perception of the social pressure to conform to a particular behavior.

B) It reflects an individual's belief about the likelihood of specific outcomes resulting from performing a
behavior.
C) It encompasses an individual's perception of the ease or difficulty of performing a behavior.
D) It measures an individual's belief about whether important others approve or disapprove of the
behavior.
Answer: C) It encompasses an individual's perception of the ease or difficulty of performing a

behavior.
Explanation: Perceived control in the Theory of Planned Behavior refers to an individual's perception of
the ease or difficulty of performing a behavior, often influenced by factors such as skills, resources, and
environmental constraints.
24. Which of the following theories emphasizes the role of behavioral intention as the immediate
determinant of behavior, influenced by an individual's attitude and subjective norms?

Explanation: The Theory of Planned Behavior posits that behavioral intention, influenced by an
individual's attitude toward the behavior and subjective norms, is the immediate determinant of
behavior.
25. According to the Theory of Reasoned Action, what term refers to an individual's overall evaluation
of performing a behavior, influenced by beliefs about the outcomes of the behavior?
A) Attitude
C) Subjective norms
Answer: A) Attitude
26. Which theory proposes that individuals are more likely to engage in a behavior if they perceive it
as socially approved and have a strong intention to do so?

C) Social Cognitive Theory
Answer: A) Theory of Planned Behavior
Explanation: The Theory of Planned Behavior suggests that individuals are more likely to engage in a
behavior if they perceive it as socially approved (subjective norms) and have a strong intention to do so
(behavioral intention).
27. What concept in the Theory of Reasoned Action refers to an individual's perception of the social
pressure to engage or not engage in a behavior, based on beliefs about what others think they should
do?
A) Attitude
C) Subjective norms
the social pressure from important others to perform or not perform a behavior, based on beliefs about
what others think they should do.
28. According to the Theory of Planned Behavior, which factor is most likely to influence an
individual's perceived control over a behavior?
A) Past experience
B) Cultural norms
C) Peer pressure
Answer: A) Past experience
Explanation: Past experience often plays a significant role in shaping an individual's perception of control
over a behavior in the Theory of Planned Behavior.
29. Which of the following theories emphasizes the importance of behavioral beliefs, normative
beliefs, and control beliefs in shaping an individual's behavioral intention?

Explanation: The Theory of Planned Behavior emphasizes the role of behavioral beliefs (beliefs about
outcomes), normative beliefs (beliefs about social pressure), and control beliefs (beliefs about perceived
control) in shaping an individual's behavioral intention.
30. What term in the Theory of Reasoned Action refers to an individual's overall evaluation of
performing a behavior, influenced by beliefs about the consequences of the behavior?
A) Attitude
C) Subjective norms
Answer: A) Attitude
31. According to the Theory of Planned Behavior, what term describes an individual's perception of
their ability to overcome obstacles and perform a behavior under various circumstances?
A) Attitude
B) Subjective norms
Answer: D) Perceived control
Explanation: Perceived control in the Theory of Planned Behavior refers to an individual's perception of
their ability to overcome obstacles and perform a behavior under various circumstances, reflecting their
sense of self-efficacy.
32. In the Theory of Reasoned Action, what term describes an individual's intention to perform a
behavior, influenced by their attitudes and subjective norms?
A) Behavioral intention
D) Social norms
Answer: A) Behavioral intention
Explanation: Behavioral intention in the Theory of Reasoned Action represents an individual's intention
to perform a behavior, influenced by their attitudes toward the behavior and subjective norms.
33. According to the Theory of Planned Behavior, what factor influences an individual's perceived
control over a behavior by providing resources, opportunities, and support?
A) Attitude
B) Subjective norms
C) External factors
D) Perceived behavioral control
Answer: C) External factors
Explanation: External factors in the Theory of Planned Behavior influence an individual's perceived
control over a behavior by providing resources, opportunities, and support to facilitate behavior change.
34. Which of the following theories emphasizes the role of social learning, observational learning, and
self-regulation in shaping behavior?

Answer: C) Social Cognitive Theory
Explanation: Social Cognitive Theory emphasizes the role of social learning, observational learning, and
self-regulation in shaping behavior, including the development of attitudes and behavioral intentions.
35. According to the Theory of Reasoned Action, what term refers to an individual's perception of the
social norms regarding the behavior, based on beliefs about what others think they should do?
A) Attitude
C) Subjective norms
the social norms regarding the behavior, based on beliefs about what others think they should do.
36. Which theory suggests that individuals are more likely to engage in a behavior if they perceive it as
personally important and achievable, considering their attitudes, subjective norms, and perceived
behavioral control?

Answer: A) Theory of Planned Behavior
Explanation: The Theory of Planned Behavior suggests that individuals are more likely to engage in a
behavior if they perceive it as personally important and achievable, considering their attitudes,
subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control.
37. In the Theory of Planned Behavior, what term describes an individual's overall evaluation of
performing a behavior, shaped by beliefs about the outcomes or consequences of the behavior?
A) Attitude
C) Subjective norms
Answer: A) Attitude
Explanation: Attitude in the Theory of Planned Behavior represents an individual's overall evaluation of
38. What concept in the Theory of Reasoned Action refers to an individual's belief about the likelihood
of specific outcomes resulting from performing a behavior?
A) Attitude
Answer: C) Behavioral beliefs
Explanation: Behavioral beliefs in the Theory of Reasoned Action represent an individual's belief about
the likelihood of specific outcomes resulting from performing a behavior.
39. According to the Theory of Planned Behavior, which factor is most likely to influence an
individual's attitude toward a behavior by providing information and shaping beliefs?
A) Cultural norms
B) Mass media
C) Peer pressure
D) Personal values
Answer: B) Mass media
Explanation: Mass media in the Theory of Planned Behavior influences an individual's attitude toward a
behavior by providing information and shaping beliefs through various channels such as television, radio,
and the internet.
40. Which theory emphasizes the importance of considering both central and peripheral routes to
persuasion in understanding behavior change?
Answer: B) Elaboration Likelihood Model
Explanation: The Elaboration Likelihood Model (ELM) emphasizes the importance of considering both
central (careful consideration of arguments) and peripheral (cues such as attractiveness of the source)
routes to persuasion in understanding behavior change.
Health action processes and approaches (HAPA)
1. According to the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), which of the following is NOT a phase of
behavior change?
A) Pre-intentional phase
B) Intentional phase
C) Action phase
D) Maintenance phase
Answer: A) Pre-intentional phase
Explanation: In the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), the phases of behavior change include the
pre-intentional phase, intentional phase, action phase, and maintenance phase.
2. What concept in the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA) refers to an individual's belief in their
ability to perform a specific behavior in a given situation?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Self-efficacy
D) Outcome expectations
Explanation: Self-efficacy in the HAPA represents an individual's belief in their ability to perform a
specific behavior in a given situation, which plays a crucial role in determining behavior change.
3. Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the transition from the intention to the action
phase in the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA)?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Self-regulation
D) Risk perception
Answer: D) Risk perception
Explanation: While risk perception may influence intention formation, it is not explicitly considered as a
factor in the transition from the intention to the action phase in the HAPA.
4. According to the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what term describes the detailed plan an
individual creates to specify when, where, and how they will perform a behavior?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Self-monitoring
D) Goal setting
Answer: A) Action planning
Explanation: Action planning in the HAPA refers to the detailed plan individuals create to specify when,
where, and how they will perform a behavior, enhancing the likelihood of successful behavior change.
5. (Bonus Question) Which of the following statements accurately integrates various concepts from
the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA)?
A) Individuals with high self-efficacy are more likely to engage in action planning and coping planning,
which in turn enhances their adherence to behavior change goals.
B) Action planning is more effective than coping planning in maintaining behavior change over time,
regardless of an individual's level of self-efficacy.
C) Self-regulation plays a minor role in the intention formation phase but becomes crucial during the
action phase for individuals with low risk perception.
D) Outcome expectations primarily influence the transition from the maintenance phase to the pre-
intentional phase in the HAPA model.
Answer: A) Individuals with high self-efficacy are more likely to engage in action planning and coping
planning, which in turn enhances their adherence to behavior change goals.
Explanation: This statement integrates concepts of self-efficacy, action planning, coping planning, and
their roles in enhancing adherence to behavior change goals in the HAPA model.
6. According to the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what term describes the strategies
individuals use to overcome obstacles and maintain behavior change?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Self-efficacy
Answer: B) Coping planning
Explanation: Coping planning in the HAPA refers to the strategies individuals use to overcome obstacles
and maintain behavior change, addressing potential barriers and setbacks.
7. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the role of outcome expectations in the
Health Action Process Approach (HAPA)?
A) Outcome expectations primarily influence the formation of intentions to engage in a behavior, but
their impact diminishes during the action phase.
B) Higher outcome expectations are associated with lower levels of self-efficacy and, consequently,
reduced engagement in behavior change efforts.
C) Outcome expectations encompass an individual's belief in their ability to cope with barriers and
setbacks during the behavior change process.
D) Positive outcome expectations contribute to the formation of intentions to engage in a behavior and
enhance motivation to initiate behavior change.
Answer: D) Positive outcome expectations contribute to the formation of intentions to engage in a

behavior and enhance motivation to initiate behavior change.
Explanation: Positive outcome expectations in the HAPA contribute to the formation of intentions to
engage in a behavior and enhance motivation to initiate behavior change by highlighting the perceived
benefits or positive consequences of the behavior.
8. In the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what term refers to an individual's ability to monitor
and regulate their behavior and progress toward behavior change goals?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Self-regulation
D) Self-monitoring
Answer: C) Self-regulation
Explanation: Self-regulation in the HAPA refers to an individual's ability to monitor and regulate their
behavior and progress toward behavior change goals, involving processes such as self-monitoring and
self-control.
9. According to the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), which phase focuses on the maintenance
and consolidation of behavior change efforts over time?
C) Action phase
Answer: D) Maintenance phase
Explanation: The maintenance phase in the HAPA focuses on the maintenance and consolidation of
behavior change efforts over time, sustaining the newly adopted behavior.
10. What role does self-efficacy play in the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA)?
A) It influences the formation of intentions to engage in a behavior.

B) It enhances the perceived benefits of engaging in a behavior.
C) It helps individuals cope with barriers and setbacks during behavior change.
D) It primarily affects individuals' ability to self-monitor their behavior.
Answer: C) It helps individuals cope with barriers and setbacks during behavior change.
Explanation: Self-efficacy in the HAPA helps individuals cope with barriers and setbacks during behavior
change by enhancing their belief in their ability to successfully perform the behavior and overcome
obstacles.
11. In the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), which phase involves the development of
intentions to change behavior and the evaluation of potential outcomes?
C) Action phase
Answer: B) Intentional phase
Explanation: The intentional phase in HAPA involves the development of intentions to change behavior,
where individuals evaluate potential outcomes and make decisions regarding behavior change.
12. What concept in the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA) refers to an individual's perception of
the benefits and costs associated with behavior change?
A) Action planning
B) Outcome expectations
C) Self-efficacy
D) Coping planning
Answer: B) Outcome expectations

Explanation: Outcome expectations in HAPA represent an individual's perception of the benefits and
costs associated with behavior change, influencing their motivation to engage in the behavior.
13. According to the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what term describes the process of
identifying potential obstacles and developing strategies to overcome them during behavior change?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Self-regulation
D) Goal setting
Explanation: Coping planning in HAPA involves identifying potential obstacles and developing strategies
to overcome them during behavior change, enhancing individuals' ability to cope with challenges.
14. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the role of self-efficacy in the Health Action
Process Approach (HAPA)?
A) Self-efficacy primarily influences the formation of intentions to engage in a behavior but has minimal
impact on actual behavior change.
B) Higher levels of self-efficacy are associated with greater perceived costs of behavior change, leading
to decreased motivation for change.
C) Self-efficacy enhances an individual's belief in their ability to overcome obstacles and successfully
perform behavior change, increasing the likelihood of goal attainment.
D) Individuals with low self-efficacy are more likely to engage in action planning and coping planning,
compensating for their perceived lack of ability.
Answer: C) Self-efficacy enhances an individual's belief in their ability to overcome obstacles and
successfully perform behavior change, increasing the likelihood of goal attainment.
Explanation: Self-efficacy in HAPA enhances an individual's belief in their ability to overcome obstacles
and successfully perform behavior change, increasing their motivation and likelihood of goal attainment.
15. (Bonus Question) Which of the following accurately integrates multiple concepts from the Health
Action Process Approach (HAPA)?
A) Coping planning involves identifying potential obstacles and developing strategies to overcome them,
while self-efficacy influences an individual's belief in their ability to perform the behavior successfully.
B) Action planning is primarily concerned with setting specific goals and establishing timelines for
behavior change, whereas outcome expectations focus on evaluating the potential benefits and costs of
behavior change.
C) Self-regulation plays a minor role in the pre-intentional phase but becomes crucial during the action
phase for individuals with low self-efficacy.
D) Coping planning and outcome expectations are more effective in influencing behavioral intention
formation than self-efficacy, particularly in situations with high perceived risk.
Answer: A) Coping planning involves identifying potential obstacles and developing strategies to
overcome them, while self-efficacy influences an individual's belief in their ability to perform the
behavior successfully.
Explanation: This statement integrates coping planning and self-efficacy, highlighting their respective
roles in addressing obstacles and enhancing belief in one's ability to perform behavior change.
16. According to the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what term refers to an individual's
ability to regulate their behavior and maintain progress toward behavior change goals?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Self-regulation
D) Goal setting
Explanation: Self-regulation in HAPA refers to an individual's ability to regulate their behavior and
maintain progress toward behavior change goals, involving processes such as self-monitoring and self-
control.
17. Which of the following best describes the relationship between coping planning and action
planning in the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA)?
A) Coping planning focuses on setting specific goals and timelines, while action planning involves
identifying potential obstacles and developing strategies to overcome them.
B) Coping planning precedes action planning and involves the identification of potential barriers, while
action planning focuses on setting specific goals and developing strategies for behavior change.
C) Coping planning and action planning are interchangeable terms referring to the same process of
setting specific goals and timelines for behavior change.
D) Action planning and coping planning are unrelated concepts and represent different phases of the
behavior change process in HAPA.
Answer: B) Coping planning precedes action planning and involves the identification of potential
barriers, while action planning focuses on setting specific goals and developing strategies for behavior
change.
Explanation: Coping planning in HAPA precedes action planning and involves identifying potential
barriers and developing strategies to overcome them, while action planning focuses on setting specific
goals and developing strategies for behavior change.
18. In the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what term refers to an individual's belief in their
ability to engage in a behavior across a variety of situations?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Self-efficacy
Explanation: Self-efficacy in HAPA refers to an individual's belief in their ability to engage in a behavior
across a variety of situations, influencing their motivation and persistence in behavior change efforts.
19. According to the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what phase involves the initiation and
execution of behavior change strategies?
C) Action phase
Answer: C) Action phase
Explanation: The action phase in HAPA involves the initiation and execution of behavior change
strategies, where individuals actively engage in the intended behavior.
20. What concept in the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA) refers to an individual's evaluation of
their ability to cope with obstacles and setbacks during behavior change?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Self-regulation
D) Self-efficacy
Explanation: Coping planning in HAPA involves the evaluation of an individual's ability to cope with
obstacles and setbacks during behavior change, including the identification of potential barriers and
development of strategies to address them.
21. According to the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), which phase involves the translation of
intentions into action through the implementation of behavior change strategies?
C) Action phase
Explanation: The action phase in HAPA focuses on translating intentions into action through the
implementation of behavior change strategies, where individuals actively engage in the desired
behavior.
22. What concept in the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA) refers to an individual's belief about
the potential outcomes or consequences of behavior change?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Outcome expectations
D) Self-efficacy
Answer: C) Outcome expectations
Explanation: Outcome expectations in HAPA represent an individual's belief about the potential
outcomes or consequences of behavior change, which can influence motivation and decision-making.
23. Which of the following accurately describes the role of coping planning in the Health Action
A) Coping planning involves setting specific goals and timelines for behavior change.
B) Coping planning precedes action planning and focuses on identifying potential barriers and
developing strategies to overcome them.
C) Coping planning primarily influences intention formation by evaluating the perceived benefits and
costs of behavior change.
D) Coping planning is interchangeable with action planning and involves implementing behavior change
strategies.
Answer: B) Coping planning precedes action planning and focuses on identifying potential barriers and
Explanation: Coping planning in HAPA precedes action planning and focuses on identifying potential
barriers and developing strategies to overcome them, which is crucial for successful behavior change.
24. According to the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what phase involves the evaluation and
reinforcement of behavior change efforts to prevent relapse?
C) Action phase

Explanation: The maintenance phase in HAPA involves the evaluation and reinforcement of behavior
change efforts to prevent relapse, ensuring the sustained adoption of the desired behavior.
25. (Bonus Question) Which of the following statements best integrates various concepts from the
Health Action Process Approach (HAPA)?
A) Coping planning involves setting specific goals and timelines for behavior change, while self-
regulation focuses on evaluating potential outcomes and consequences.
B) Outcome expectations primarily influence intention formation, while self-efficacy enhances an
individual's belief in their ability to cope with obstacles during behavior change.
C) Action planning precedes coping planning and involves implementing behavior change strategies,
while self-regulation helps individuals monitor and regulate their behavior.
D) Coping planning and self-regulation are interchangeable terms referring to the same process of
setting specific goals and developing strategies for behavior change.
Answer: B) Outcome expectations primarily influence intention formation, while self-efficacy

enhances an individual's belief in their ability to cope with obstacles during behavior change.
Explanation: This statement integrates outcome expectations and self-efficacy, highlighting their
respective roles in influencing intention formation and coping with obstacles during behavior change.
26. In the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what term refers to an individual's ability to
monitor and regulate their behavior to achieve behavior change goals?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Self-regulation
D) Self-efficacy
Explanation: Self-regulation in HAPA refers to an individual's ability to monitor and regulate their
behavior to achieve behavior change goals, involving processes such as self-monitoring and self-control.
27. Which of the following accurately reflects the relationship between self-efficacy and coping
A) Self-efficacy precedes coping planning and involves setting specific goals and timelines for behavior
change.
B) Coping planning enhances self-efficacy by evaluating potential outcomes and consequences of
behavior change.
C) Self-efficacy influences coping planning by enhancing belief in one's ability to overcome barriers
during behavior change.
D) Coping planning is unrelated to self-efficacy and represents a separate phase in the behavior change
process.
Answer: C) Self-efficacy influences coping planning by enhancing belief in one's ability to overcome
barriers during behavior change.
Explanation: Self-efficacy in HAPA influences coping planning by enhancing belief in one's ability to
overcome barriers during behavior change, facilitating the development of effective coping strategies.
28. According to the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what term refers to an individual's belief
in their ability to successfully perform a behavior in various situations?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Self-efficacy
Explanation: Self-efficacy in HAPA refers to an individual's belief in their ability to successfully perform a
behavior in various situations, influencing their motivation and persistence in behavior change efforts.
29. Which of the following accurately describes the role of action planning in the Health Action
A) Action planning involves evaluating potential outcomes and consequences of behavior change.
B) Action planning precedes coping planning and focuses on identifying potential barriers and
C) Action planning primarily influences intention formation by setting specific goals and timelines for
behavior change.
D) Action planning is interchangeable with coping planning and involves the evaluation and
reinforcement of behavior change efforts.
Answer: C) Action planning primarily influences intention formation by setting specific goals and
timelines for behavior change.
Explanation: Action planning in HAPA primarily influences intention formation by setting specific goals
and timelines for behavior change, providing a concrete framework for initiating behavior change
efforts.
30. In the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what phase focuses on forming intentions to
change behavior and evaluating potential outcomes?
C) Action phase
Answer: B) Intentional phase
Explanation: The intentional phase in HAPA focuses on forming intentions to change behavior and
evaluating potential outcomes, where individuals make decisions regarding behavior change.
31. According to the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what phase involves the reflection and
evaluation of behavior change efforts to identify areas for improvement and reinforcement?
C) Action phase
Explanation: The maintenance phase in HAPA involves the reflection and evaluation of behavior change
efforts to identify areas for improvement and reinforcement, aiming to sustain the adopted behavior
over time.
32. What concept in the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA) refers to an individual's perception of
their capability to overcome barriers and perform a behavior under different circumstances?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Self-efficacy
Explanation: Self-efficacy in HAPA refers to an individual's perception of their capability to overcome

barriers and perform a behavior under different circumstances, influencing their motivation and behavior
change outcomes.
33. Which of the following accurately describes the role of coping planning in the Health Action
A) Coping planning precedes action planning and involves setting specific goals and timelines for
behavior change.
B) Coping planning enhances self-efficacy by evaluating potential outcomes and consequences of
behavior change.
C) Coping planning focuses on identifying potential barriers and developing strategies to overcome them
D) Coping planning primarily influences intention formation by setting specific goals and timelines for
behavior change.
Answer: C) Coping planning focuses on identifying potential barriers and developing strategies to
overcome them during behavior change.
Explanation: Coping planning in HAPA focuses on identifying potential barriers and developing strategies
to overcome them during behavior change, addressing obstacles to successful behavior change.
34. According to the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what term describes an individual's
belief about the potential positive and negative outcomes of behavior change?
A) Action planning
B) Outcome expectations
C) Self-efficacy
D) Coping planning
Answer: B) Outcome expectations
Explanation: Outcome expectations in HAPA refer to an individual's belief about the potential positive
and negative outcomes of behavior change, influencing their motivation and decision-making.
35. (Bonus Question) Which statement accurately integrates multiple concepts from the Health Action
A) Coping planning involves evaluating potential outcomes and consequences of behavior change, while
self-regulation focuses on setting specific goals and developing strategies for behavior change.
B) Outcome expectations primarily influence intention formation, while action planning helps individuals
evaluate their ability to cope with obstacles during behavior change.
C) Self-efficacy influences coping planning by enhancing belief in one's ability to overcome barriers,
while maintenance phase involves reflection and evaluation of behavior change efforts.
D) Coping planning and action planning are interchangeable terms referring to the same process of
setting specific goals and developing strategies for behavior change.
Answer: C) Self-efficacy influences coping planning by enhancing belief in one's ability to overcome
barriers, while maintenance phase involves reflection and evaluation of behavior change efforts.
Explanation: This statement integrates self-efficacy, coping planning, and the maintenance phase,
highlighting their respective roles in behavior change processes.
36. In the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what phase involves the translation of intentions
into specific action plans, specifying when, where, and how behavior change will occur?
C) Action phase
Explanation: The action phase in HAPA involves the translation of intentions into specific action plans,
specifying when, where, and how behavior change will occur, leading to the initiation of behavior change
efforts.
37. Which of the following accurately reflects the relationship between self-regulation and coping
A) Self-regulation influences coping planning by enhancing belief in one's ability to overcome barriers
B) Coping planning precedes self-regulation and involves setting specific goals and timelines for behavior
change.
C) Self-regulation and coping planning are unrelated terms referring to separate processes in behavior
change.
D) Coping planning primarily influences self-regulation by evaluating potential outcomes and
consequences of behavior change.
Answer: A) Self-regulation influences coping planning by enhancing belief in one's ability to overcome
barriers during behavior change.
Explanation: Self-regulation in HAPA influences coping planning by enhancing belief in one's ability to
overcome barriers during behavior change, facilitating the development of effective coping strategies.
38. According to the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what term describes an individual's
belief in their ability to regulate their behavior and maintain behavior change efforts over time?
A) Action planning
B) Coping planning
C) Self-regulation
Explanation: Self-regulation in HAPA refers to an individual's belief in their ability to regulate their
behavior and maintain behavior change efforts over time, involving processes such as self-monitoring
and self-control.
39. What role does action planning play in the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA)?
A) It involves evaluating potential outcomes and consequences of behavior change.

B) It enhances self-efficacy by specifying when, where, and how behavior change will occur.
C) It focuses on identifying potential barriers and developing strategies to overcome them during
behavior change.
D) It primarily influences intention formation by setting specific goals and timelines for behavior change.
Answer: B) It enhances self-efficacy by specifying when, where, and how behavior change will occur.
Explanation: Action planning in HAPA enhances self-efficacy by specifying when, where, and how
behavior change will occur, providing a concrete framework for initiating behavior change efforts.
40. In the Health Action Process Approach (HAPA), what phase involves the evaluation and
reinforcement of behavior change efforts to sustain the newly adopted behavior?
C) Action phase
Explanation: The maintenance phase in HAPA involves the evaluation and reinforcement of behavior
change efforts to sustain the newly adopted behavior, aiming to prevent relapse and ensure long-term
adherence to behavior change goals.
COM-B model and COVID – 19
1. What does the COM-B model stand for in the context of behavior change theory?
A) Cause-Outcome-Mechanism-Behavior
B) Capability-Opportunity-Motivation-Behavior
C) Condition-Outcome-Modality-Behavior
D) Capacity-Opportunity-Motivation-Behavior
Answer: B) Capability-Opportunity-Motivation-Behavior
Explanation: The COM-B model proposes that behavior is influenced by three essential components:
capability, opportunity, and motivation.
2. In the context of the COM-B model, what does "capability" refer to?
A) The external factors that facilitate or inhibit behavior

B) The individual's psychological and physical capacity to engage in the behavior
C) The individual's desire or willingness to perform the behavior
D) The opportunities available in the environment to perform the behavior
Answer: B) The individual's psychological and physical capacity to engage in the behavior
Explanation: Capability in the COM-B model refers to the individual's psychological and physical capacity
to engage in the behavior, including knowledge, skills, and abilities.
3. How does the COM-B model contribute to understanding behavior change during the COVID-19
pandemic?
A) By focusing solely on individual motivation to adhere to public health guidelines

B) By emphasizing the role of social norms in shaping behavior change efforts
C) By considering the interaction between individual capability, opportunity, and motivation
D) By prioritizing economic factors over psychological determinants of behavior
Answer: C) By considering the interaction between individual capability, opportunity, and motivation
Explanation: The COM-B model provides a framework for understanding behavior change during the
COVID-19 pandemic by considering the interaction between individual capability, opportunity, and
motivation, which influence adherence to public health guidelines.
4. According to the COM-B model, what role does "opportunity" play in influencing behavior?
A) It represents the individual's psychological and physical capacity to engage in the behavior
B) It refers to external factors that facilitate or inhibit behavior, such as environmental cues
C) It encompasses the individual's desire or willingness to perform the behavior
D) It involves the opportunities available in the environment to perform the behavior
Answer: B) It refers to external factors that facilitate or inhibit behavior, such as environmental cues
Explanation: Opportunity in the COM-B model refers to external factors that facilitate or inhibit behavior,
such as environmental cues, social norms, and access to resources.
5. (Bonus Question) Which of the following statements best integrates various concepts related to the
COM-B model and COVID-19?
A) Capability refers to an individual's psychological and physical capacity to engage in behavior, while
opportunity encompasses external factors that facilitate or inhibit behavior. Motivation, on the other
hand, represents the individual's desire or willingness to perform the behavior, which is crucial for
adherence to COVID-19 guidelines.
B) The COM-B model primarily focuses on individual motivation as the key driver of behavior change
during the COVID-19 pandemic, overlooking the influence of capability and opportunity factors.
C) COVID-19 guidelines are primarily shaped by economic considerations rather than psychological
determinants of behavior, as suggested by the COM-B model.
D) The COM-B model emphasizes the role of social norms in shaping behavior change efforts during the
COVID-19 pandemic, neglecting the importance of individual capability and motivation.
Answer: A) Capability refers to an individual's psychological and physical capacity to engage in

behavior, while opportunity encompasses external factors that facilitate or inhibit behavior.
Motivation, on the other hand, represents the individual's desire or willingness to perform the
behavior, which is crucial for adherence to COVID-19 guidelines.
Explanation: This statement integrates the concepts of capability, opportunity, motivation, and COVID-
19 adherence, highlighting their interconnectedness in behavior change efforts.
6. Which of the following represents an example of "opportunity" in the context of COVID-19

behavior change efforts?
A) Access to accurate information about COVID-19 transmission and prevention measures

B) Individual's knowledge and skills to effectively wear a mask
C) Personal motivation to follow social distancing guidelines
D) Availability of hand sanitizer in public places
Answer: D) Availability of hand sanitizer in public places
Explanation: Opportunity in the context of COVID-19 behavior change efforts includes factors such as the
availability of resources like hand sanitizer in public places, which facilitate adherence to preventive
measures.
7. How does the COM-B model help in designing effective interventions for promoting COVID-19
vaccination?
A) By focusing solely on individual motivation to get vaccinated

B) By neglecting the role of capability and opportunity factors in vaccination behavior
D) By prioritizing economic factors over psychological determinants of vaccination behavior
Explanation: The COM-B model helps in designing effective interventions for promoting COVID-19
vaccination by considering the interaction between individual capability, opportunity, and motivation,
which influence vaccination behavior.
8. Which of the following is an example of "capability" in the context of COVID-19 prevention?
A) Availability of face masks in local stores

B) Individual's knowledge about COVID-19 symptoms and transmission
C) Social norms encouraging mask-wearing in public
D) Personal motivation to adhere to quarantine guidelines
Answer: B) Individual's knowledge about COVID-19 symptoms and transmission
Explanation: Capability in the context of COVID-19 prevention includes factors such as individual
knowledge about COVID-19 symptoms and transmission, which influence the ability to engage in
preventive behaviors.
9. What aspect of the COM-B model is particularly relevant for understanding vaccine hesitancy
during the COVID-19 pandemic?
A) Capability
B) Opportunity
C) Motivation
D) Behavior
Answer: C) Motivation
Explanation: Motivation in the COM-B model is particularly relevant for understanding vaccine hesitancy
during the COVID-19 pandemic, as it influences individuals' willingness and readiness to get vaccinated.
10. How does the COM-B model contribute to understanding non-compliance with COVID-19 public
health measures?
A) By attributing non-compliance solely to individual motivation

B) By focusing exclusively on external factors that facilitate or inhibit behavior
C) By considering the interplay between individual capability, opportunity, and motivation
D) By ignoring the role of behavior in shaping adherence to public health measures
Answer: C) By considering the interplay between individual capability, opportunity, and motivation
Explanation: The COM-B model contributes to understanding non-compliance with COVID-19 public
health measures by considering the interplay between individual capability, opportunity, and motivation,
which collectively influence behavior.
11. In the COM-B model, what component does "motivation" primarily refer to in the context of
COVID-19 prevention?
A) The availability of resources for hand hygiene

B) Individual beliefs and attitudes toward COVID-19 preventive measures
C) Access to accurate information about COVID-19 transmission
D) Environmental factors influencing social distancing practices
Answer: B) Individual beliefs and attitudes toward COVID-19 preventive measures
Explanation: In the COM-B model, motivation primarily refers to individual beliefs, attitudes, and
intentions related to engaging in COVID-19 preventive behaviors.
12. How does the COM-B model help in addressing vaccine misinformation and conspiracy theories
during the COVID-19 pandemic?
A) By ignoring the influence of motivation on vaccine hesitancy

B) By focusing solely on individual capability to receive the vaccine
D) By overlooking the role of social norms in vaccination decision-making
Explanation: The COM-B model helps address vaccine misinformation and conspiracy theories by
considering the interplay between individual capability, opportunity, and motivation, which influence
vaccination decision-making.
vaccination efforts?
A) Individual's intention to get vaccinated

B) Accessible vaccination sites in local communities
C) Awareness of vaccine side effects
D) Public health campaigns promoting vaccination
Answer: B) Accessible vaccination sites in local communities
Explanation: Opportunity in the context of COVID-19 vaccination efforts includes factors such as the
accessibility of vaccination sites in local communities, which facilitate vaccine uptake.
14. According to the COM-B model, what aspect of behavior change is particularly important for
sustaining long-term adherence to COVID-19 preventive measures?
A) Individual capability
B) External opportunities
C) Motivation and intention
D) Social norms
Answer: C) Motivation and intention
Explanation: In the COM-B model, sustaining long-term adherence to COVID-19 preventive measures
relies heavily on maintaining motivation and intention to engage in these behaviors.
15. (Bonus Question) Which statement best integrates various concepts related to the COM-B model
and COVID-19 vaccination efforts?
A) COVID-19 vaccination success primarily hinges on individuals' capability to receive the vaccine,
overlooking the role of motivation and opportunity factors.
B) The COM-B model underscores the importance of social norms in vaccination decision-making,
sidelining individual capability and motivation.
C) Opportunity factors such as accessible vaccination sites and accurate information play a crucial role in
influencing individual motivation to get vaccinated during the COVID-19 pandemic.
D) Individual beliefs and attitudes toward vaccination are solely influenced by social norms, disregarding
the role of capability and opportunity factors.
Answer: C) Opportunity factors such as accessible vaccination sites and accurate information play a
crucial role in influencing individual motivation to get vaccinated during the COVID-19 pandemic.
Explanation: This statement integrates the concepts of opportunity, motivation, and vaccination efforts,
emphasizing the interconnectedness of these factors in promoting vaccine uptake.
16. How does the COM-B model contribute to understanding non-compliance with mask-wearing
mandates during the COVID-19 pandemic?
A) By attributing non-compliance solely to individual motivation

B) By focusing exclusively on external opportunities for mask-wearing
D) By ignoring the influence of behavior on adherence to mask-wearing guidelines
Explanation: The COM-B model contributes to understanding non-compliance with mask-wearing

mandates by considering the interplay between individual capability, opportunity, and motivation, which
collectively influence behavior.
17. What role does "capability" play in influencing individuals' adherence to COVID-19 quarantine
guidelines?
A) It refers to the availability of quarantine facilities

B) It encompasses individuals' beliefs about the necessity of quarantine
C) It involves individuals' psychological and physical capacity to comply with quarantine
D) It represents the influence of social norms on quarantine behavior
Answer: C) It involves individuals' psychological and physical capacity to comply with quarantine
Explanation: Capability in the context of COVID-19 quarantine guidelines refers to individuals'

psychological and physical capacity to comply with quarantine requirements, including factors such as
self-discipline and coping skills.
18. According to the COM-B model, what aspect of behavior change is particularly relevant for
encouraging the use of COVID-19 contact tracing apps?
A) Individual capability to use technology

B) Availability of contact tracing app downloads
C) Social norms regarding app usage
D) Motivation to engage in contact tracing
Answer: A) Individual capability to use technology

Explanation: Encouraging the use of COVID-19 contact tracing apps requires addressing individual
capability to use technology effectively, ensuring ease of access and usability.
information dissemination?
A) Individual's awareness of COVID-19 symptoms

B) Availability of accurate and accessible information from reputable sources
C) Public health campaigns promoting hand hygiene
D) Personal motivation to follow social distancing guidelines
Answer: B) Availability of accurate and accessible information from reputable sources
Explanation: Opportunity in the context of COVID-19 information dissemination includes factors such as
the availability of accurate and accessible information from reputable sources, which facilitate informed
decision-making.
20. How does the COM-B model help in addressing vaccine equity issues during the COVID-19
pandemic?
A) By focusing solely on individual motivation to receive the vaccine

B) By overlooking the role of opportunity factors in vaccine distribution
D) By prioritizing economic factors over psychological determinants of vaccination behavior
Explanation: The COM-B model helps in addressing vaccine equity issues by considering the interaction
between individual capability, opportunity, and motivation, which influence vaccine access and uptake
across different population groups.
21. How does the COM-B model aid in understanding and addressing vaccine hesitancy among certain
population groups during the COVID-19 pandemic?
A) By solely focusing on individual motivation to get vaccinated

B) By neglecting the role of opportunity factors in vaccination decision-making
D) By ignoring the influence of social norms on vaccine acceptance
Explanation: The COM-B model helps understand and address vaccine hesitancy by considering how
individual capability, opportunity, and motivation interact to influence vaccine acceptance.
22. What aspect of behavior change does the COM-B model emphasize in the context of COVID-19
mask-wearing adherence?
A) Individual capability to wear a mask

B) Availability of masks in local stores
C) Motivation to follow mask-wearing guidelines
D) Social norms regarding mask usage
Answer: A) Individual capability to wear a mask
Explanation: The COM-B model emphasizes individual capability to wear a mask, including factors such
as knowledge, skills, and self-efficacy related to mask-wearing.
23. According to the COM-B model, what role does "opportunity" play in promoting COVID-19 testing
among asymptomatic individuals?
A) Availability of testing facilities in the community

B) Individual's intention to get tested
C) Awareness of COVID-19 symptoms
D) Personal motivation to adhere to testing recommendations
Answer: A) Availability of testing facilities in the community
Explanation: Opportunity in promoting COVID-19 testing includes factors such as the availability of
testing facilities in the community, which make testing more accessible to asymptomatic individuals.
24. How does the COM-B model contribute to understanding and addressing vaccine distribution
disparities during the COVID-19 pandemic?
A) By solely focusing on individual capability to access vaccines

B) By neglecting the influence of opportunity factors in vaccine distribution
D) By prioritizing economic factors over psychological determinants of vaccine access
Explanation: The COM-B model helps address vaccine distribution disparities by considering how
individual capability, opportunity, and motivation interact to influence vaccine access and uptake.
25. (Bonus Question) Which statement best integrates various concepts related to the COM-B model
and COVID-19 vaccination efforts in vulnerable populations?
A) COVID-19 vaccination in vulnerable populations primarily depends on individual motivation,

overlooking the role of capability and opportunity factors.
B) The COM-B model underscores the importance of social norms in vaccination decision-making among
vulnerable populations, sidelining individual capability and motivation.
C) Vaccine uptake in vulnerable populations is influenced by a combination of individual capability,
opportunity, and motivation factors, highlighting the need for tailored interventions addressing each
component.
D) Vulnerable populations' beliefs and attitudes toward vaccination are solely influenced by social
norms, disregarding the role of capability and opportunity factors.
Answer: C) Vaccine uptake in vulnerable populations is influenced by a combination of individual

capability, opportunity, and motivation factors, highlighting the need for tailored interventions
addressing each component.
Explanation: This statement integrates various concepts related to the COM-B model and vaccination
efforts in vulnerable populations, emphasizing the importance of considering multiple factors in
promoting vaccine uptake.
26. What aspect of the COM-B model is particularly relevant for understanding and addressing
misinformation about COVID-19 treatments and remedies?
A) Individual capability to discern reliable information

B) Availability of accurate information from reputable sources
C) Motivation to seek reliable information
D) Social norms regarding information-sharing
Answer: A) Individual capability to discern reliable information
Explanation: Understanding and addressing misinformation about COVID-19 treatments and remedies
requires considering individuals' capability to discern reliable information amidst a flood of
misinformation.
27. According to the COM-B model, what influences an individual's capability to adhere to COVID-19
quarantine guidelines?
A) Availability of quarantine facilities

B) Personal motivation to comply with quarantine
C) Awareness of quarantine guidelines
D) Psychological and physical capacity to cope with quarantine
Answer: D) Psychological and physical capacity to cope with quarantine
Explanation: An individual's capability to adhere to COVID-19 quarantine guidelines is influenced by their

psychological and physical capacity to cope with quarantine-related stressors and challenges.
28. How does the COM-B model help in understanding and addressing COVID-19 preventive behaviors
among different age groups?
A) By solely focusing on individual motivation to engage in preventive behaviors
B) By neglecting the influence of opportunity factors on preventive behaviors
D) By prioritizing economic factors over psychological determinants of preventive behaviors
Explanation: The COM-B model helps understand and address COVID-19 preventive behaviors among
different age groups by considering how individual capability, opportunity, and motivation interact to
influence behavior.
29. What role does "opportunity" play in promoting adherence to COVID-19 social distancing
guidelines in public spaces?
A) Individual's motivation to maintain social distancing

B) Availability of signage and floor markings indicating safe distances
C) Personal capability to calculate safe distances
D) Social norms regarding social distancing practices
Answer: B) Availability of signage and floor markings indicating safe distances
Explanation: Opportunity in promoting adherence to social distancing guidelines includes factors such as
the availability of signage and floor markings indicating safe distances, which facilitate compliance in
public spaces.
30. According to the COM-B model, what aspect of behavior change is particularly relevant for
encouraging proper hand hygiene practices during the COVID-19 pandemic?
A) Individual capability to access hand hygiene resources

B) Availability of hand hygiene products
C) Social norms regarding hand hygiene
D) Motivation to practice hand hygiene
Answer: D) Motivation to practice hand hygiene
Explanation: Encouraging proper hand hygiene practices during the COVID-19 pandemic relies heavily on
individuals' motivation to practice hand hygiene consistently.
Critical appraisal
1. In the context of critical appraisal, what does the term "validity" refer to?
A) The reliability and consistency of the study findings

B) The extent to which the study measures what it intends to measure
C) The generalizability of the study findings to other populations
D) The statistical significance of the study results
Answer: B) The extent to which the study measures what it intends to measure
Explanation: Validity in critical appraisal refers to the degree to which a study accurately measures or
assesses the concepts it claims to measure.
2. When conducting a critical appraisal of a randomized controlled trial (RCT), what aspect should be
assessed to determine the risk of bias related to allocation concealment?
A) The blinding of participants and personnel

B) The similarity of baseline characteristics between intervention groups
C) The methods used to generate the allocation sequence
D) The completeness of outcome data
Answer: C) The methods used to generate the allocation sequence
Explanation: Allocation concealment in RCTs refers to the method used to ensure that the allocation
sequence is not known before assignment, thus minimizing selection bias.
3. In critical appraisal, what is the purpose of assessing effect size in quantitative research studies?
A) To determine the statistical significance of the study findings

B) To evaluate the magnitude of the relationship between variables
C) To assess the internal validity of the study design
D) To determine the generalizability of the study results
Answer: B) To evaluate the magnitude of the relationship between variables
Explanation: Effect size in quantitative research refers to the magnitude of the relationship between
variables, providing insight into the practical significance of the study findings.
4. Which of the following study designs is most appropriate for establishing causality between an
exposure and an outcome in critical appraisal?
A) Case-control study
B) Cross-sectional study
C) Cohort study
D) Qualitative study
Answer: C) Cohort study
Explanation: Cohort studies are considered the most appropriate for establishing causality between an
exposure and an outcome due to their prospective nature and ability to assess temporal relationships.
5. (Bonus Question) During critical appraisal, what factors should be considered when evaluating the
external validity of a research study?
A) Sampling technique, data collection methods, and statistical analysis

B) Reliability, validity, and generalizability of the study findings
C) Sample size, effect size, and confidence intervals
D) Population characteristics, setting, and context of the study
Answer: D) Population characteristics, setting, and context of the study
Explanation: Evaluating the external validity of a study involves considering factors such as the
characteristics of the study population, the setting in which the study was conducted, and the broader
context in which the findings may be applied.
6. In critical appraisal, what does the term "confounding" refer to?
A) The presence of bias in the study design

B) The influence of extraneous variables on the relationship between the exposure and outcome
C) The reliability and consistency of the study findings
D) The statistical significance of the study results
Answer: B) The influence of extraneous variables on the relationship between the exposure and
outcome
Explanation: Confounding refers to the presence of extraneous variables that distort the relationship
between the exposure and outcome, leading to erroneous conclusions.
7. When assessing the internal validity of a study, which of the following factors is most relevant to
consider?
A) The generalizability of the study findings

B) The presence of bias in the study design
C) The magnitude of the effect size
D) The reliability of the outcome measures
Answer: B) The presence of bias in the study design
Explanation: Assessing the internal validity of a study involves evaluating the extent to which bias is
minimized in the study design and conduct.
8. What is the purpose of conducting a sensitivity analysis during critical appraisal of statistical
methods?
A) To test the robustness of study findings to variations in statistical assumptions
B) To assess the reliability and consistency of the study results
C) To determine the statistical significance of the study findings
D) To evaluate the generalizability of the study results
Answer: A) To test the robustness of study findings to variations in statistical assumptions
Explanation: Sensitivity analysis helps assess the robustness of study findings by testing how variations in
statistical assumptions or methods impact the results.
9. In critical appraisal, what term is used to describe the process of selecting study participants to
ensure they are representative of the target population?
A) Randomization
B) Matching
C) Sampling
D) Stratification
Answer: C) Sampling
Explanation: Sampling refers to the process of selecting study participants from a larger population to
ensure they are representative of the target population.
10. When assessing the quality of evidence in a systematic review or meta-analysis, which of the
following factors should be considered?
A) The statistical significance of individual study findings

B) The consistency of results across included studies
C) The size of the effect observed in each study
D) The study design of included studies
Answer: B) The consistency of results across included studies
Explanation: When assessing the quality of evidence in a systematic review or meta-analysis, the
consistency of results across included studies is an important factor to consider, as it indicates the
reliability of the findings.
11. In critical appraisal, what does the term "selection bias" refer to?
A) Bias introduced by differences in the characteristics of study participants

B) Bias resulting from errors in data collection or measurement
C) Bias caused by systematic differences in how study groups are selected or compared
D) Bias arising from researchers' knowledge of the study hypothesis
Answer: C) Bias caused by systematic differences in how study groups are selected or compared
Explanation: Selection bias occurs when there are systematic differences in the characteristics of the
groups being compared, leading to distorted study results.
12. When evaluating the quality of evidence in a systematic review, which factor is most relevant to
consider regarding individual study designs?
A) The statistical significance of study findings

B) The size of the effect observed in each study
C) The presence of confounding variables in study designs
D) The methodological rigor of each study design
Answer: D) The methodological rigor of each study design
Explanation: When assessing the quality of evidence, it's important to consider the methodological rigor
of individual study designs, as this influences the strength of the evidence they provide.
13. What role does a "forest plot" play in the critical appraisal of a meta-analysis?
A) It visually displays the effect size and confidence intervals of individual studies
B) It assesses the risk of bias across included studies
C) It determines the statistical significance of the overall meta-analysis findings
D) It identifies potential sources of heterogeneity among study results
Answer: A) It visually displays the effect size and confidence intervals of individual studies
Explanation: A forest plot in a meta-analysis visually displays the effect size and confidence intervals of
individual studies, allowing for the assessment of the overall treatment effect.
14. During critical appraisal, what does the term "publication bias" refer to?
A) Bias introduced by differences in the characteristics of study participants

B) Bias resulting from errors in data collection or measurement
C) Bias caused by selective publication of studies based on their results
D) Bias arising from researchers' knowledge of the study hypothesis
Answer: C) Bias caused by selective publication of studies based on their results
Explanation: Publication bias occurs when studies with positive or significant results are more likely to be
published, leading to an overestimation of treatment effects.
15. (Bonus Question) When conducting critical appraisal of qualitative research, what criterion is most
relevant for assessing the trustworthiness of study findings?
A) Validity
B) Reliability
C) Generalizability
D) Statistical significance
Answer: A) Validity
Explanation: Validity is the most relevant criterion for assessing the trustworthiness of qualitative
research findings, ensuring that the study accurately captures the experiences and perspectives of
participants.
16. In critical appraisal, what does the term "confidential interval" (CI) represent?
A) A range of values within which the true population parameter is likely to fall
B) The probability that the null hypothesis is true
C) The degree of association between two variables
D) The precision of the study findings
Answer: A) A range of values within which the true population parameter is likely to fall
Explanation: A confidence interval (CI) provides a range of values within which the true population
parameter is likely to fall, indicating the precision of the study estimate.
17. When assessing the risk of bias in a study, what aspect of blinding is most critical for minimizing
performance bias?
A) Blinding of outcome assessors

B) Blinding of participants
C) Blinding of data analysts
D) Blinding of study investigators
Answer: B) Blinding of participants
Explanation: Blinding of participants helps minimize performance bias by preventing knowledge of the
intervention received from influencing participant behavior or outcomes.
18. What is the primary purpose of conducting a sensitivity analysis in meta-analysis?
A) To assess the statistical significance of the study findings

B) To determine the presence of heterogeneity among study results
C) To test the robustness of the meta-analysis results to variations in study inclusion criteria or analysis
methods
D) To evaluate the reliability and consistency of individual study findings
Answer: C) To test the robustness of the meta-analysis results to variations in study inclusion criteria
or analysis methods
Explanation: A sensitivity analysis in meta-analysis tests the robustness of the meta-analysis results by
examining how variations in study inclusion criteria or analysis methods impact the overall findings.
19. During critical appraisal, what does the term "generalizability" refer to?
A) The consistency of study findings across different populations

B) The reliability and consistency of the study results
C) The applicability of study findings to other settings or populations
D) The statistical significance of the study findings
Answer: C) The applicability of study findings to other settings or populations
Explanation: Generalizability in critical appraisal refers to the extent to which study findings can be
applied or generalized to other settings or populations beyond those included in the study.
20. Which of the following study designs is most appropriate for assessing the association between
two variables in critical appraisal?
A) Randomized controlled trial (RCT)

B) Case-control study
C) Cross-sectional study
D) Cohort study
Answer: D) Cohort study
Explanation: Cohort studies are most appropriate for assessing the association between two variables
over time, allowing for the examination of potential cause-and-effect relationships.
21. When conducting critical appraisal of a qualitative research study, what criterion is most pertinent
for assessing the transferability of the findings?
A) Dependability
B) Credibility
C) Transferability
D) Confirmability
Answer: C) Transferability
Explanation: Transferability in qualitative research refers to the extent to which the findings can be
applied to other contexts or settings beyond the study sample.
22. In a systematic review, which component of the PRISMA flow diagram is most critical for assessing
the risk of selection bias across included studies?
A) Identification
B) Screening
C) Eligibility
D) Inclusion
Answer: B) Screening
Explanation: The screening phase of the PRISMA flow diagram indicates the process of selecting studies
for inclusion, providing insights into the risk of selection bias.
23. During critical appraisal, what does the term "heterogeneity" refer to in the context of meta-
analysis?
A) The presence of variability in study results beyond what would be expected by chance
B) The degree of association between two variables
C) The probability of committing a type I error
D) The consistency of study findings across different populations
Answer: A) The presence of variability in study results beyond what would be expected by chance
Explanation: Heterogeneity in meta-analysis refers to the presence of variability in study results beyond
what would be expected by chance, indicating potential differences in study populations, interventions,
or outcomes.
24. What is the primary purpose of conducting a risk of bias assessment in a systematic review?
A) To determine the statistical significance of the study findings

B) To evaluate the generalizability of the study results
C) To assess the methodological quality of included studies
D) To determine the precision of the study estimates
Answer: C) To assess the methodological quality of included studies
Explanation: The primary purpose of conducting a risk of bias assessment in a systematic review is to
evaluate the methodological quality of included studies and identify potential sources of bias.
25. (Bonus Question) During critical appraisal, what aspect of a randomized controlled trial (RCT) is
most relevant for assessing the risk of detection bias?
A) Allocation concealment
B) Blinding of participants
C) Blinding of outcome assessors
D) Intention-to-treat analysis
Answer: C) Blinding of outcome assessors

Explanation: Detection bias in RCTs refers to systematic differences in outcome assessment between
intervention groups, making blinding of outcome assessors crucial for minimizing this bias.
26. When evaluating the risk of attrition bias in a study, which aspect should be considered most
carefully?
A) The completeness of outcome data

B) The similarity of baseline characteristics between groups
C) The appropriateness of statistical methods used for data analysis
D) The reliability and validity of outcome measures
Answer: A) The completeness of outcome data
Explanation: Attrition bias occurs when there are systematic differences in participant dropout between
study groups, making the completeness of outcome data a crucial aspect to consider when evaluating
this bias.
27. In critical appraisal, what does the term "precision" refer to in the context of study results?
A) The accuracy and consistency of the study findings

B) The likelihood of committing a type I error
C) The degree of association between two variables
D) The extent to which the study findings can be replicated
Answer: A) The accuracy and consistency of the study findings
Explanation: Precision in critical appraisal refers to the accuracy and consistency of the study findings,
indicating the degree of certainty surrounding the study estimates.
28. What aspect of a study's sample size calculation is most relevant for assessing the risk of bias
related to underpowered studies?
A) The alpha level chosen for hypothesis testing

B) The power level selected for the study
C) The inclusion criteria used for participant selection
D) The statistical methods employed for data analysis
Answer: B) The power level selected for the study
Explanation: Underpowered studies are at risk of producing false-negative results, making the power
level selected for the study an important aspect to consider when assessing the risk of bias related to
sample size.
29. During critical appraisal, what does the term "intention-to-treat analysis" (ITT) aim to address in
clinical trials?
A) Attrition bias
B) Selection bias
C) Confounding bias
D) Detection bias
Answer: A) Attrition bias
Explanation: Intention-to-treat analysis aims to address attrition bias by analyzing participants according
to their original group assignment, regardless of their adherence to the assigned treatment.
30. What aspect of a study's protocol is most critical for assessing the risk of reporting bias in
systematic reviews?
A) The registration of the study protocol

B) The inclusion and exclusion criteria for study selection
C) The statistical methods planned for data analysis
D) The blinding procedures implemented during the study
Answer: A) The registration of the study protocol
Explanation: Registration of the study protocol helps mitigate reporting bias in systematic reviews by
providing transparency regarding the planned methods and outcomes, reducing the likelihood of
selective outcome reporting.

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Science of Behavioral change

Explanation: The Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change consists of stages including

Explanation: Dopamine is a neurotransmitter associated with reward-motivated behavior and

Answer: A) Self-Determination Theory

Explanation: Groupthink is a psychological phenomenon characterized by a group's desire for harmony

Answer: D) Cognitive dissonance

Answer: B) Variable ratio

Answer: A) Self-serving bias

Answer: A) Classical conditioning

Answer: A) Confirmation bias

Answer: B) Central route

A) Seek out conflicting information

Answer: B) Change their behavior

A) Feedback and monitoring

Answer: D) Relaxation techniques

A) Fundamental attribution error

Answer: B) Actor-observer bias

Answer: D) Self-actualization needs

Answer: C) Normative influence

A) Attitude toward the behavior

Answer: A) Attitude toward the behavior

Answer: B) Behavioral control

A) Attitude toward the behavior

Answer: C) Subjective norms

Answer: C) Perceived control

Answer: B) Past experience

A) Theory of Planned Behavior

Answer: B) Theory of Reasoned Action

Answer: C) Subjective norms

Answer: C) Behavioral beliefs

A) It influences an individual's attitude toward the behavior.

Answer: C) It reflects an individual's perception of the ease or difficulty of performing a behavior.

Answer: B) Behavioral intention

Answer: B) Subjective norms

A) Elaboration Likelihood Model

Answer: C) Theory of Planned Behavior

Answer: C) Subjective norms

A) Theory of Planned Behavior

Answer: B) Elaboration Likelihood Model

Answer: A) Past experience

Answer: B) Subjective norms

A) It represents an individual's perception of the social pressure to conform to a particular behavior.

Answer: C) It encompasses an individual's perception of the ease or difficulty of performing a

A) Elaboration Likelihood Model

Answer: C) Theory of Planned Behavior

A) Theory of Planned Behavior

Answer: A) Theory of Planned Behavior

Answer: C) Subjective norms

Answer: A) Past experience

A) Elaboration Likelihood Model

Answer: C) Theory of Planned Behavior

Answer: D) Perceived control

Answer: A) Behavioral intention

A) Theory of Planned Behavior

Answer: C) Social Cognitive Theory

Answer: C) Subjective norms

A) Theory of Planned Behavior

Answer: A) Theory of Planned Behavior

Answer: C) Behavioral beliefs

Answer: B) Mass media

Answer: B) Elaboration Likelihood Model

Health action processes and approaches (HAPA)

Answer: A) Pre-intentional phase