WEST BENGAL JUDICIAL SERVICE (PRELIMINARY) 2020

1. I am as strong as him ------------ Change (A) with

the adjective into the comparative (B) out
degree without changing the (C) up
meaning. (D) for
(A) I am the strongest of all.
(B) He is stronger than me. 7. He is sure to work ----- the mob. --------
(C) He is not stronger than me. ---- Use the suitable preposition to
(D) He is as strong as me. convey the meaning 'excite the mob'.
(A) at
2. Fill in with the right word: (B) on
As ---------- as a mule. (C) up
(A) foolish (D) for
(B) obstinate
(C) careless 8. The policy of extending a country's
(D) dirty empire is called
(A) Capitalism
3. Fill in with the suitable word: (B) Socialism
He is ------------ better mechanic than (C) Marxism
clerk. (D) Imperialism
(A) that
(B) the 9. Select a suitable adverb of degree to
(C) a fill up the blank:
(D) one I can do the sums
(A) fully
4. Add a suitable suffix to 'gift' to form a (B) quickly
new word. (C) hardly
(A) -ly (D) too
(B) -ed
(C) -al 10. Change the mode of narration:
(D) -en "Cheer up, mother, I'll go and get work
somewhere," said Jack.
5. Choose the correct alternative: (A) Jack told his mother that he will get
I don't think I ------- be able to go. work somewhere.
(A) shall (B) Entreating his mother to cheer up,
(B) can Jack promised to go and get work
(C) could somewhere.
(D) should (C) Jack asked his mother to cheer up
for some work.
6. Fill in with suitable preposition:
Faith bears ---------- a man.

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 (D) Jack told his mother that he will 16. Pick out the adverb clause in the given
cheer up if he gets work sentence:
somewhere. You may sit wherever you like.
(A) You may sit
11. Choose the correct verb in agreement (B) May sit wherever
with the subject: (C) You like
The horse and the coach ------------- (D) Wherever you like
arrived.
(A) have 17. The word 'hypochondria' means
(B) have been (A) The fear of blood
(C) would (B) The fear of spiders
(D) has (C) The fear of becoming ill
(D) The fear of water
12. They were building a house. - Choose
the correct passive form of the given 18. Fill in with suitable form of the verb:
sentence. I will phone you when he -------------
(A) A house was built by them. back.
(B) Someone was building the house. (A) comes
(C) A house was being built by them. (B) will come
(D) A house had been built by them. (C) was
(D) has been
13. Write a single word for the phrase -The
act of killing one's brother. 19. Choose the right conjunction to fill in
(A) Autopsy the blank:
(B) Homicide Many things have happened ------------ I
(C) Suicide left school.
(D) Fratricide (A) when
(B) as soon as
14. The synonym for the word (C) just when
'Impudence' is (D) since
(A) Innocence
(B) Insolence 20. Their approach to the problem was
(C) Affectation professional. Replace the bold word
(D) Aggression with a suitable antonym.
(A) casual
15. Change the degree of comparison (B) sincere
without changing the meaning: (C) amateurish
Malacca is the oldest town in Malayasia. (D) careless
(A) Malacca is as old as any town in
Malayasia. 21. Fill in with suitable preposition:
(B) Malacca is older than many towns in -------------- consequence of his illness
Malayasia. he could not finish his work.
(C) No other town in Malayasia is as old (A) For
as Malacca. (B) In
(D) Every town in Malayasia is older (C) With
than Malacca. (D) Out of

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22. Oligopoly means (D) Latin name of an organism
(A) A state ruled by an egalitarian
system 28. If only I were young again! —
(B) A monarchical government Transform into an assertive sentence.
(C) A state of limited market (A) I wish I were young again.
competition (B) I wish to be young again.
(D) A republican form of government (C) How can I be young again?
(D) I do not wish to be old.
23. Fill up the blank with the right
comparison: 29. 'Barking up the wrong tree' means
As silent as the ------------. (A) Identifying a wrong person
(A) forest (B) Dogs barking at a suspicious person
(B) ruin (C) Making a wrong choice
(C) grave (D) Metaphor for hunting
(D) fish
30. The idiom 'when pigs fly' means
24. Fill in with a suitable conjunction: (A) Something fantastic
He behaved ---------- brave men should (B) Something that will never happen
do. (C) Signal of a great change
(A) like (D) Premonition of a catastrophe
(B) as
(C) just as 31. Which Country holds the BRICS
(D) as if Presidency in 2020?
(A) India
25. Combine into a single simple sentence: (B) Russia
He jumped up. He ran away. (C) Brazil
(A) He jumped up and ran away. (D) South Africa
(B) He ran away as he jumped up.
(C) Jumping up, he ran away. 32. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs had
(D) He was jumping up and running announced that around nine tribal
away. fighters' museums are to be
established by
26. Choose the word that is most closely (A) 2022
opposite in meaning to 'Oppressive'. (B) 2021
(A) Tortuous (C) 2025
(B) Facilitating (D) None of the above
(C) Dynamic
(D) Liberating 33. Which book was written by Salman
Rushdie?
27. The word 'homonym' means (A) Behind the Veil
(A) Two words having similar meaning (B) Dr. Zibhago
(B) Two words having similar (C) Midnight's Children
pronunciation but different (D) War and Peace
meanings
(C) Two words having opposite 34. Find the missing term:
meaning Yard: Inch : : Quart: ?
(A) Gallon
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 (B) Ounce 41. Government of West Bengal launches
(C) Liquid two new schemes-'Sneher Porosh' and
(D) Foot 'Prochesta' on
(A) 4th April, 2020
35. Which month in the year, 2020 will be (B) 8th May, 2020
observed as 'Nutrition Month' as (C) 5th June, 2020
announced by Prime Minister (D) 5th May, 2020
Narendra Modi?
(A) August 42. Silicon Valley of India is located in
(B) September (A) Dehradun
(C) November (B) Bengaluru
(D) December (C) Hyderabad
(D) None of the above
36. Find the missing number in the series:
1, 5, 14, 30, 55, ? 43. From which drama the following
(A) 91 dialogue is quoted?
(B) 93 "To be or not to be, that is the
(C) 105 question."
(D) 95 (A) Merchant of Venice
(B) Hamlet
37. Find the missing term: (C) As you like it
123 : 36 :: 221 : ? (D) The Comedy of Errors
(A) 25
(B) 72 44. Find the missing number in the series:
(C) 42 5, 16, 51, 158, ?
(D) 52 (A) 581
(B) 483
38. Mohiniyattam is a folk dance of (C) 583
(A) Kashmir (D) 481
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Himachal Pradesh 45. Late Pranab Mukherjee was the
(D) Kerala (A) 13th President of India
(B) 9th President of India
39. Who was the "Political Guru" of (C) 11th President of India
Gandhiji? (D) 14th President of India
(A) Lokmanya Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji 46. Find the odd one out:
(C) M. G. Ranade (A) Tortoise
(D) G. K. Gokhale (B) Duch
(C) Whale
40. Which scientist first introduced the (D) Snake
concept of 'Inertia'?
(A) Copernicus 47. The former Indian test opening
(B) Galileo batsman who recently expired due to
(C) Aristotle Covid-19 was
(D) Newton (A) Shiv Sunder Das

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 (B) Akash Chopra 54. Which State secures top spot in SKOCH
(C) Wasim Jaffer State of Governance 2019 ranking?
(D) Chetan Chauhan (A) West Bengal
(B) Gujarat
48. Find the missing term: (C) Tamil Nadu
Marathon : Race :: Hibernation : ? (D) Maharashtra
(A) Athlete
(B) Winter 55. The Koyna hydro-electric power
(C) Speed project is located in
(D) Sleep (A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
49. The first country in the world to (C) Maharashtra
register a Covid-19 vaccine is (D) None of the above
(A) India
(B) UAE 56. Find the odd one out:
(C) France (A) Goat
(D) Russia (B) Dog
(C) Puppy
50. Who wrote "White Tiger"? (D) Buffalo
(A) Jhumpa Lahiri
(B) Steve Waugh 57. International Youth Day is
(C) Arvind Adiga (A) 12th August
(D) Paul Krugman (B) 13th August
(C) 16th August
51. Find the odd one out: (D) 23rd August
(A) Triangle
(B) Circle 58. Viruses are not responsible for
(C) Oval (A) Influenza
(D) Sphere (B) Malaria
(C) AIDS
52. Which bank join hands with three (D) Cold
insurers to provide individual short
term Corona Kavach Policy? 59. Satyajit Ray received an award in 1967.
(A) HDFC Bank Which was that award?
(B) State Bank of India (A) Magsaysay Award
(C) ICICI (B) Oscar Award
(D) Canara Bank (C) Bhatnagar Award
(D) Sahitya Academy Award
53. Find the missing term:
Careful: Cautious :: Boastful: ? 60. Rubber is obtained from
(A) Humble (A) Resin
(B) Joyful (B) Cell sap
(C) Arrogant (C) Gum
(D) Beautiful (D) Latex

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61. What is India's rank on the UNDP's (C) Mexico
Human Development Index, 2019? (D) Iran
(A) 129th
(B) 128th 68. In which year Former President Late
(C) 127th Pranab Mukherjee was awarded
(D) 126th Bharat Ratna, the highest civilian
award in the country?
62. Right to privacy of Indian citizens is (A) 2016
protected by the Constitution in (B) 2017
(A) Article 14 (C) 2018
(B) Article 16 (D) 2019
(C) Article 21
(D) Article 42 69. Thailand announced that it has
proceeded to test its novel coronavirus
63. Find the missing number in the series: vaccine on which animal/ bird?
1, 5, 9, ?, 25, 37, 49 (A) Monkeys
(A) 11 (B) Lizards
(B) 13 (C) Hens
(C) 17 (D) Kites
(D) 23
70. Late Kamal Rani who recently expired
64. National Education Policy, 2020 due to Covid-19 was the Cabinet
emphasizes to set up which fund? Minister for Technical Education in the
(A) Education Upliftment Fund State of
(B) Gender Inclusion Fund (A) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Social Empowerment Fund (B) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Gender Equality Fund (C) Jharkhand
(D) Telangana
65. Harappa is on the
(A) left bank of Ravi. 71. A proclaimed person whose property
(B) left bank of Indus. has been attached can claim the
(C) right bank of Indus. property or the sale proceeds, on
(D) right bank of Ravi, appearance within
(A) 1 year of attachment
66. Name the Indian fast bowler who will (B) 2 years of attachment
be conferred the Arjuna Award for the (C) 3 years of attachment
year 2020? (D) 4 years of attachment
(A) Umesh Yadav
(B) Bhuvneshwar Kumar 72. Which section of the Limitation Act,
(C) Mohammed Shami 1963 provides for the extension of time
(D) Ishant Sharma over that period during which a person
is delayed by the Court's action?
67. In which country the Zulu folk dance (A) Section 4
can be seen? (B) Section 5
(A) South Africa (C) Section 6
(B) North Korea (D) Section 9

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73. Limitation period for suits not (B) for partnership.
specifically provided under the (C) for possession and mesne profit.
Schedule to the Limitation Act, 1963 is (D) All of the above
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years 80. Article 30 of the Constitution of India
(C) 5 years guarantees the right to establish and
(D) 6 years administer educational institutions. It
is available to
74. Rule of strict liability is contained in (A) All persons within the territory of
(A) Donoghue v. Stevenson India
(B) Rylands v. Fletcher (B) All its citizens (i.e. Indian Citizens)
(C) Lloyd v. Grace (C) All minorities based on religion or
(D) Ormord v. Orosville Motors Service language
(D) All minorities in India
75. Under section 8 of the Evidence Act
(A) Motive is relevant. 81. Point out the correct answer:
(B) Preparation is relevant. A Suni Muslim woman can make gift of
(C) Conduct is relevant. her
(D) All of the above (A) entire ancestral Property only.
(B) Property which she has acquired
76. Article 33 of the Constitution of India from her husband only.
empowers Parliament to (C) 1/3 of the Property which she owns
(A) enforce Fundamental Rights at the time of making gift.
(B) impose Martial Law (D) entire Property.
(C) declare Emergency
(D) modify Fundamental Rights in 82. Laying of trap is a part of the
relation to Armed Forces. (A) preliminary inquiry
(B) trial
77. The provisions of section 195 of the (C) inquiry
Cr.PC. are (D) investigation
(A) mandatory.
(B) optional for the court. 83. Court can condone the delay under
(C) directory, being procedural. section
(D) discretionary, depending on the (A) 470 of the Cr.PC.
facts and circumstances of the case. (B) 471 of the Cr.PC.
(C) 472 of the Cr.PC.
78. Sections 79 to 85 of the Evidence Act (D) 473 of the Cr.PC.
contain
(A) presumption of facts. 84. Section 76 and section 79 of the IPC
(B) rebuttable presumptions of law. provide the general exception of
(C) irrebuttable presumption of law. (A) mistake of fact.
(D) irrebuttable presumption of facts. (B) mistake of law.
(C) both mistake of fact and law.
79. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a (D) neither mistake of law nor of fact.
suit
(A) for partition.

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85. Basically tort is a species of (A) Section 45, Indian Evidence Act
(A) criminal injury or wrong. (B) Section 46, Indian Evidence Act
(B) substantial injury or wrong. (C) Section 47, Indian Evidence Act
(C) civil injury or civil wrong. (D) Both (A) and (B)
(D) civil wrong and criminal wrong.
91. Right to lodge a 'Caveat' has been
86. Section 97 of the IPC extends the right provided under
of private defence of property, to the (A) Sec. 148 of the Code of Civil
offence of Procedure, 1908.
(A) cheating (B) Sec. 148-A of the Code of Civil
(B) theft and robbery Procedure, 1908.
(C) misappropriation (C) Sec. 148-B of the Code of Civil
(D) criminal breach of trust Procedure, 1908.
(D) Sec. 147 of the Code of Civil
87. Point out where Hindu Law does not Procedure, 1908.
apply to
(A) all Hindus including a Brahmo an 92. It is mandatory for a police officer to
Arya Samajist inform the person arrested, the
(B) all Buddhists grounds of arrest and right of bail if
(C) all Jains and Sikhs the offence is not non-bailable, under
(D) the illegitimate children of a Hindu section
father by a Christian mother who (A) 40 of Cr.PC.
are brought up as Christian (B) 50 of Cr.PC.
(C) 51 of Cr.PC.
88. A Muslim woman can create Wakf (D) 54 of Cr.PC.
when she attains the age of
(A) Puberty 93. Dower' Under Muslim Law is a
(B) 18 years old (A) Personal Property of the wife and
(C) 21 years old she can appropriate it whenever
(D) at 18 years with the Consent of her she likes.
father. (B) is not a Personal Property of the
wife and she can not appropriate it.
89. Which is not ancestral property? (C) the wife can appropriate it with the
(A) All property inherited by a male Consent of the husband.
Hindu from his father. (D) Property which she has acquired
(B) All property inherited by a male from her father.
Hindu from his father's father.
(C) All property inherited by a male 94. A minor's agreement
Hindu from his mother. (A) is void ab initio and cannot be
(D) All property inherited by a male ratified.
Hindu from his father's father' s (B) can be ratified by the minor during
father. minority.
(C) can be ratified on attaining
90. Which of the following sections majority.
prescribes the method by which (D) Both (B) and (C).
signature can be proved?

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95. A contract is not frustrated (B) Insanity
(A) by commercial impossibility. (C) Insolvency
(B) by imposition of government (D) Idiocy
restrictions or orders.
(C) by destruction of subject matter of 100. In a written statement the defendant
contract. can claim
(D) All of the above (A) Set off only
(B) Counter claim only
96. Pleading has been defined in (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Order VI, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil (D) None of the above
Procedure.
(B) Order VI, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil 101. The Right to Constitutional remedies
Procedure. guaranteed under Article 32 of the
(C) Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Constitution of India is available to
Procedure. (A) People of India
(D) Order VIII, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil (B) Only Indian Citizens
Procedure. (C) All natural persons, citizens and
non-citizens
97. The offence of 'public nuisance' is (D) All Indian Citizens and foreign
punishable under ambassadors
(A) Criminal Law or Criminal
Proceeding. 102. Judgment on admissions is passed by
(B) Civil Law or Civil Proceeding. Civil Court under
(C) Provisions of Constitution. (A) Order 20 Rule 6
(D) Administrative Law of State. (B) Order 12 Rule 12
(C) Order 10 Rule 4
98. Section 8 of the Limitation Act, 1963 (D) Order 12 Rule 6
imposes a limitation on the
concessions provided by sections 6 and 103. A wagering contract is void under
7 of the Limitation Act, 1963 to a (A) Section 28 of the Indian Contract
person under disability to a maximum Act.
of (B) Section 29 of the Indian Contract
(A) 3 years from the cessation of Act.
disability. (C) Section 30 of the Indian Contract
(B) 6 years from the cessation of Act.
disability. (D) Section 31 of the Indian Contract
(C) 9 years from the cessation of Act.
disability.
(D) 12 years from the cessation of 104. Basically the law of limitation is
disability. founded on
(A) Public policy
99. Legal disability contemplated by (B) Morality
section 6 of the Limitation Act, 1963 (C) Administrative convenience
providing for extension of the period (D) All of the above
of limitation does not include
(A) Minority

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105. Under section 82 of the Indian 110. Foreign state may be sued in any Court
Evidence Act the Court must presume (A) without the Consent of the Central
(A) that the seal or stamp or signature Government.
is genuine. (B) with the Consent of the Central
(B) that the person signing the Government.
document held, at the time when he (C) with the Order of the Supreme
signed, the judicial or official Court.
character he claims. (D) None of the above
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above 111. The power of the President of India to
issue an Ordinance is
106. Appointment of receiver has been (A) Executive Power
provided in Civil Procedure Code in (B) Legislative Power
(A) Order 40 (C) Constituent Power
(B) Order 39 (D) Quasi-Judicial Power
(C) Order 42
(D) Order 44 112. Under which Article of the
Constitution of India nothing shall
107. Opinions of experts are relevant prevent the appointment of the same
(A) under section 45 of the Evidence person as Governor for two or more
Act. States?
(B) under section 46 of the Evidence (A) Article 152
Act. (B) Article 153
(C) under section 47 of the Evidence (C) Article 154
Act. (D) Article 155
(D) under section 48 of the Evidence
Act. 113. According to section 61 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 187
108. A suit may be dismissed under order 9 (A) the contents of documents must be
of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, proved by primary evidence.
(A) where the summons is not served (B) the contents of documents must be
upon the defendant in consequence proved by secondary evidence.
of the plaintiff's failure to pay costs (C) the contents of documents must be
for service of summons. proved by both primary and
(B) where neither the plaintiff nor the secondary evidence.
defendant appears. (D) the contents of documents must be
(C) where plaintiff, after summons proved neither by primary nor by
returned unserved, fails for 7 days secondary evidence.
to apply for fresh summons.
(D) All of the above 114. Prescribed period means
(A) the period of limitation computed in
109. Muslim Law in India is a accordance with the provisions of
(A) Codified Law Limitation Act, 1963.
(B) Uncodified Law (B) the period of limitation subtracted
(C) Uncodified with some Legislation in accordance with the provisions of
(D) Narrative and Descriptive Limitation Act, 1963.

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 (C) the period of limitation added in 119. Point out the correct answer:
accordance with the provisions of 'Adoption' under Muslim Law is
Limitation Act, 1963. (A) unlawful
(D) the period of limitation prescribed (B) voidable
for any suit, appeal or application by (C) irregular
the Schedule to the Limitation Act, (D) depends upon the sweet will of the
1963. parties.

115. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 is 120. Enforcement of liability of surety
an exception to the general rule under Civil Procedure Code is dealt
contained in with in
(A) section 3 of Limitation Act, 1963 (A) sec. 145
(B) section 4 of Limitation Act, 1963 (B) sec. 146
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) sec. 151
(D) Only (A) and section 18 of the (D) sec. 148
Limitation Act, 1963
121. Commission under Order 26 of Civil
116. Under which Article of the Procedure Code cannot be issued.
Constitution of India the meaning of (A) to examine witnesses.
"Gram Sabha" is given? (B) for local investigations.
(A) Article 243(a) (C) for scientific investigation.
(B) Article 243(b) (D) for appointment of receiver.
(C) Article 243(c)
(D) Article 243(e) 122. The period of limitation under the
Limitation Act, 1963 for a suit to
117. Where once time has begun to run, no enforce a right of pre-emption is
subsequent disability or inability to (A) 1 year
institute a suit or make an application (B) 2 years
stops it. This is laid down in which (C) 3 years
section of the Limitation Act, 1963? (D) 12 years
(A) Section 7
(B) Section 8 123. Disposal of property at the conclusion
(C) Section 9 of trial is governed by section
(D) Section 12 (A) 452 of the Cr.PC.
(B) 453 of the Cr.PC.
118. To invoke the doctrine of estoppel (C) 454 of the Cr.PC.
which of the following conditions must (D) 455 of the Cr.PC.
be satisfied?
(A) Representation by a person to 124. Promotion of co-operative societies is
another. stated in
(B) The other shall have acted upon the (A) Article 43A of the Constitution of
said representation. India
(C) Such person shall have been (B) Article 43B of the Constitution of
detrimental to the interest of the India
person to whom the representation (C) Article 47 of the Constitution of
has been made. India
(D) All of them
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 (D) Article 48A of the Constitution of 130. The limitation for filing an appeal
India commences from
(A) Date of the judgment
125. Which section of the Limitation Act, (B) Date when the Decree is signed
1963 is an exception to the general rule (C) Both (A) and (B)
that in personal actions, the (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Limitation Act, 1963 bars only the
remedy and does not extinguish the 131. The liability of independent tort
right? feasors
(A) Section 26 (A) Joint only
(B) Section 27 (B) Several only
(C) Section 28 (C) Joint and Several
(D) Section 29 (D) Neither Joint nor Several

126. Libel is a publication of a defamatory 132. Ijmaa under Muslim Law connotes
statement in a (A) Analogical deduction.
(A) transient form. (B) Consensus of opinion.
(B) permanent form. (C) Consensus of opinion of disciples of
(C) Both in transient and permanent Abu Hanifa.
form. (D) Opinion of Khalifa.
(D) Neither in transient nor permanent
form. 133. The Limitation Act, 1963 does not apply
to
127. Which section of the Limitation Act, (A) Suits
1963 provides for exclusion of time of (B) Appeals
proceeding bona fide in Court without (C) Certain applications including the
jurisdiction? petition
(A) Section 14 (D) Writ petition
(B) Section 15
(C) Section 16 134. Which section of the Limitation Act,
(D) Section 17 1963 provides for exclusion of time in
cases where leave to sue or appeal as a
128. Bailment involves pauper is applied for?
(A) Change of Custody (A) Section 11
(B) Change of Possession (B) Section 12
(C) Change of Custody and Possession (C) Section 13
both (D) Section 14
(D) Neither change of Custody nor
Possession 135. Definition of secondary evidence has
been given under of the Indian
129. Section 133 exempts the personal Evidence Act 1872.
appearance in Court (A) section 61
(A) the President of India. (B) section 62
(B) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (C) section 63
(C) Judges of the Supreme Court. (D) section 64
(D) All of the above

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136. Under section 498A of the IPC cruelty (A) where the cause of action wholly
includes arises.
(A) harassment of the woman (B) where the cause of action partly
(B) physical cruelty only arises.
(C) mental cruelty only (C) where the cause of action wholly or
(D) cruelty by wife partly arises.
(D) All of the above
137. Conspiracy is
(A) a crime 143. Time limit prescribed for the service of
(B) a tort summon on the defendant is
(C) crime and tort both (A) 60 days
(D) a wrong (B) 15 days
(C) 30 days
138. 'Union with strong centre' is taken (D) 7 days
from
(A) Canada 144. The damages under Sec. 73 of Indian
(B) Australia Contract Act are
(C) Italy (A) liquidated
(D) USA (B) compensatory
(C) penal
139. The word 'wrong' in a defence of (D) None of the above
insanity refers to
(A) a legal wrong. 145. Right of private defence extends to
(B) a civil wrong. causing death, under the
(C) a moral wrong. circumstances laid down in
(D) moral and legal wrong. (A) section 100 and 101 of the IPC.
(B) section 101 and 102 of the IPC.
140. Surety can be sentenced to civil (C) section 102 and 103 of the IPC.
imprisonment in default of payment of (D) section 100 and 103 of the IPC.
penalty under the surety bond for a
maximum period of 146. A Decree may be executed by
(A) one month (A) Tehsildar
(B) two months (B) Collector
(C) three months (C) District Judge
(D) six months (D) Either by the Court which passed it
or to which it is sent.
141. Motions of preparation and conduct
are relevant 147. Admissibility of electronic record has
(A) under section 6 of the Evidence Act. been prescribed under
(B) under section 7 of the Evidence Act. (A) section 65 of the Evidence Act.
(C) under section 8 of the Evidence Act. (B) section 65A of the Evidence Act.
(D) under section 9 of the Evidence Act. (C) section 65B of the Evidence Act.
(D) section 66 of the Evidence Act.
142. According to section 20 of the Code of
Civil Procedure, a suit may be filed at 148. Public documents are mentioned in
the plaintiff's option in the Court: (A) section 72 of the Evidence Act.

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 (B) section 73 of the Evidence Act. 155. Relevancy of facts forming part of
(C) section 74 of the Evidence Act. same transaction is dealt under which
(D) section 75 of the Evidence Act. of the following sections of the Indian
Evidence Act?
149. Point out which is not 'Stridhan' as per (A) Section 4
Dayabhaga System of Hindu Law. (B) Section 6
(A) Gift made to a female of immovable (C) Section 10
property given by a husband to his (D) Section 8
wife.
(B) Gift made by the father. 156. Which section of the Limitation Act,
(C) Gift made by the mother. 1963 provides for the limitation period
(D) Gift made before the nuptial fire. in case of suits against trustees and
their representatives?
150. Contingent contract is (A) Section 9
(A) void (B) Section 10
(B) never becomes void (C) Section 11
(C) becomes void when the event (D) Section 13
becomes impossible.
(D) voidable 157. The appropriate unit issued by court to
quash the appointment of a person to
151. Alibi is governed by a public office is that of
(A) section 6 of the Evidence Act. (A) Prohibition
(B) section 8 of the Evidence Act. (B) Certiorari
(C) section 12 of the Evidence Act. (C) Quo warranto
(D) section 11 of the Evidence Act. (D) Mandamus

152. Ratification of an Act 158. Under section 83 of the Indian

(A) has to be express only. Evidence Act, presumption as to
(B) has to be implied. accuracy of maps and plans can be
(C) can be either express or implied. raised in respect of
(D) has to be both expressed and (A) maps and plans made by private
implied. persons.
(B) maps and plans made by the
153. The maxim res ipsa loquitor is a authority of Government.
(A) Rule of Law (C) Both (A) and (B) above
(B) Rule of Procedure (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(C) Rule of Evidence
(D) Rule of Negligence 159. Abetment under section 107 of the IPC
can be constituted by
154. Sex with a girl through fraudulent (A) instigation
consent amounts to (B) conspiracy
(A) rape (C) intentional aid
(B) attempt to rape (D) All of the above
(C) molestation
(D) simple physical assault

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160. The words "Socialist" and "Secular" (D) the defendant cannot be allowed to
were inserted in the Preamble by the appear at all in the subsequent
(A) Constitution (Seventh Amendment) proceedings of the suit.
Act, 1956
(B) Constitution (Eighteenth 165. Under Section 7 of the Limitation Act,
Amendment) Act, 1966 1963 which of the following persons
(C) Constitution (Forty-second can give a discharge?
Amendment) Act, 1976 (A) Karta of a Hindu joint family
(D) Constitution (Forty-fourth (B) Partner of a firm
Amendment) Act, 1978 (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
161. The maxim 'ignorantia juris non
excusat means 166. A female Hindu may take in adoption
(A) ignorance of law is no excuse. of a male child of 6 years old under
(B) ignorance of fact is no excuse. Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act.
(C) ignorance of law is an excuse. when she attains the age of
(D) ignorance of fact is an excuse. (A) 18 years
(B) 27 years
162. Section 24 of Civil Procedure Code (C) 21 years
applies (D) 25 years
(A) Suits
(B) Execution proceedings 167. What is period of limitation under the
(C) Arbitration procedings Limitation Act, 1963 for leave to appear
(D) Both Suits and Execution and defend a suit under summary
proceedings procedure?
(A) 10 days
163. Bank guarantee is independent (B) 30 days
contract between (C) 60 days
(A) Creditor and Debtor (D) 90 days
(B) Bank and Beneficiary
(C) Buyer and Seller 168. "Right to life under Article 21 includes
(D) Agent and Sub-agent the right to enjoyment of pollution-
free water" is expressed in
164. Ex-parte proceeding against a (A) Mathew v. State of Bihar, AIR 1984
defendant implies SC 1854
(A) the Court may proceed with the (B) Dr. B. L. Wadhera v. Union of India,
case in the absence of the AIR 1996 SC 2969
defendant. (C) Sher Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR
(B) the Court may proceed with the 1983 SC 465
case in the absence of the (D) Farooq v. Union of India, AIR 1990
defendant on the particular day of SC 1597
hearing on which the defendant
remains absent. 169. For conspiracy, the minimum number
(C) the Court may proceed with the of persons required is
case in the absence of the plaintiff. (A) one
(B) two

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 (C) three (C) Public Nuisance
(D) four (D) Private Nuisance

170. Sections 3 to 11 of the Limitation Act, 176. "Preamble of the Constitution is

1963 deal with the limitation of
(A) Suits and appeals
(B) Suits and applications
(C) Suits, appeals and applications
(D) Suits only
171. Prohibition against discrimination
under Article 15(1) of the Constitution
of India is for
(A) Persons
(B) Citizens
(C) Citizens as well as non-citizens
(D) Persons except aliens
172. The Constitution of India as framed by
the Constituent Assembly was finally
adopted on
(A) 15th August 1947
(B) 30th January 1948
(C) 26th November 1949
(D) 26th January 1950
173. Novation of a contract means
(A) the renewal of original contract.
(B) substitution of a new contract in
place of original contract.
(C) cancellation of contract.
(D) alteration of contract.
174. Which section of the Limitation Act,
1963 provides for computation of
period of limitation in case of death of
a person on or before the accrual of
the right to sue?
(A) Section 14
(B) Section 15
(C) Section 16.
(D) Section 19
175. Fumes constitute
(A) Trespass
(B) Negligence
framed with the great care and
deliberation so that it reflects the high
purpose and noble objectives of the
Constitution makers" is expressed in
(A) I. R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu,
AIR 2007 SC 861
(B) P. A. Inamdar v. State of
Maharashtra, AIR 2005 SC 3226
(C) Pradeep Jain (Dr.) v. Union of India,
AIR 1984 SC 1420
(D) Selvi v. State of Karnataka, AIR 2010
SC 1974
177. Under which Article of the
Constitution of India the elections to
the House of the people and to the
Legislative Assemblies of States are
made on the basis of adult suffrage?
(A) Article 324
(B) Article 325
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 327
178. Goods may be pledged
(A) by the owner of goods.
(B) by the servant in the absence of
owner.
(C) by the person who is left with the for
some special purpose.
(D) All of the above
179. Interpleader suit is a suit
(A) between two advocates.
(B) between Union Govt. Pleader and
State Govt. Pleader.
(C) instituted by a person who has no
interest in the subject matter.
(D) instituted by a person who has
interest in the subject matter.

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180. Complaint to the police or statements (B) sec. 2 (8)
made to the police that fall within (C) sec. 2 (12)
exception to section 499 IPC can claim (D) sec. 2 (14)
(A) qualified privilege.
(B) absolute privilege. 186. Under Order 14, Rule 1 of the Code of
(C) both absolute and qualified Civil Procedure, in a suit, issues are
privilege. framed in respect of
(D) neither absolute nor qualified (A) Questions of fact
privilege. (B) Questions of law
(C) Mixed questions of fact and law
181. The expression 'harm' is used in (D) All of the above.
section 81 of the Indian Penal Code
(IPC) in the sense of 187. Section 91 of the Cr.P.C. does not apply
(A) moral wrong or evil to
(B) physical injury (A) the accused
(C) injury or damage (B) the complainant
(D) hurt (C) the witness
(D) a person who is neither a
182. Doctrine of 'Res Judicata' is based on complainant nor an accused nor a
the maxim witness.
(A) Qui facit per alium facit per se.
(B) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio. 188. The right guaranteed under Article 25
(C) Respondent Superior. of the Constitution of India is subject
(D) Interest Republica ut sit finish to
litium. (A) Public order
(B) Public order, Morality and Decency
183. Secondary evidence of a document (C) Public order, Morality and Decency
means and other Fundamental Rights
(A) copies of that document. (D) Public order, Morality and Health
(B) oral account of the contents of the and other Fundamental Rights
documents.
(C) Both (A) and (B) 189. Relevancy is
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) (A) Question of law and can be raised at
any time.
184. Which of the following sections of the (B) Question of law but can be raised at
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 gives the first opportunity.
provisions regarding proof as to (C) Question of law which can be
electronic signatures? waived.
(A) Section 67 (D) Question of procedure which can be
(B) Section 67A waived.
(C) Section 67B
(D) Section 67C 190. Which one of the following is a
bulwark of personal freedom?
185. 'Mesne Profit' has been defined in the (A) Quo Warranto
Code of Civil Procedure in (B) Mandamus
(A) sec. 2 (4) (C) Habeas Corpus

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(D) Certiorari 196. Which of the following maxims
represents the law of limitations?
191. According to section 65 of the Indian (A) Interest republicae ut sit finis litium
Evidence Act, 1872 the secondary (B) Vigilantibus non dormientibus jura
evidence can be admitted in subvenient
exceptional cases. (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) three (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(B) five
(C) seven 197. Ambedkar described this Article of the
(D) nine Constitution of India as the "heart and
soul of the Constitution"-
192. Respect for the National Flag and the (A) Article 32
National Anthem is (B) Article 21
(A) a Fundamental Right of every (C) Article 19
citizen. (D) Article 14
(B) a Fundamental Duty of every citizen.
(C) a Directive Principle of State Policy. 198. A document required by law to be
(D) an ordinary duty of every citizen. attested can be proved under section
68 of the Evidence Act only
193. 'Fraudulently' has been defined as (A) by calling both the attesting
doing anything with intent to defraud witnesses.
under section of the IPC. (B) by calling at least one of the
(A) 23 attesting witnesses.
(B) 24 (C) by calling none of the attesting
(C) 25 witnesses but by calling some other
(D) 26 person who has knowledge of the
contents.
194. Right of lien, of an agent (D) All of the above are correct.
(A) is extinguished by his parting with
the possessions of the goods. 199. "Tort' is derived from the latin term
(B) is extinguished by destruction of 'tortum' is a/an
goods accidentally. (A) English word
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct. (B) French word
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct. (C) Spanish word
(D) German word
195. Which of the following sections of the
Indian Evidence Act deals with fraud or 200. The Directive Principles of state policy
collusion in obtaining judgement or are fundamental for the
incompetence of Court, which may be (A) upliftment of backward classes
proved? (B) protection of individual rights
(A) Section 43 (C) administration of Justice
(B) Section 48 (D) governance of State
(C) Section 44
(D) Section 39

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