FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – APRIL, 2023 (AHMEDABAD)

(Held On Thursday 06th April, 2023) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 6. The straight lines l1 and l2 pass through the origin

 1 1
2 and trisect the line segment of the line L: 9x + 5y =
1. Let 5f ( x ) + 4f   = + 3, x  0 . Then 18 f ( x ) dx
 x x 1 45 between the axes. If m1 and m2 are the slopes of
is equal to: the lines l1 and l2,then the point of intersection of
(1) 10 loge 2 – 6 (2) 10 loge 2 + 6 the line y = (m1 + m2)x with L lies on
(3) 5 loge 2 + 3 (4) 5 loge 2 – 3 (1) 6x + y = 10

2. A pair of dice is thrown 5 times. For each throw, a (2) 6x– y = 15

total of 5 is considered a success. If the probability (3) y –x = 5

k
(4) y –2x = 5
of at least 4 successes is ,then k is equal to
311 7. From the top A of a vertical wall AB of height 30
(1) 82 (2) 123 m, the angles of depression of the top P and bottom
(3) 164 (4) 75 Q of a vertical tower PQ are 15° and 60°
3. If 2n
C3 : n C3 = 10 :1 , then the ratio respectively. B and Q are on the same horizontal
level. If C is a point on AB such that CB = PQ,
(n 2
)( )
+ 3n : n 2 – 3n + 4 is
then the area (in m2) of the quadrilateral BCPQ is
(1) 35: 16 (2) 65:37
equal to
(3) 27:11 (4) 2:1
( )
(1) 600 3 − 1
4. If the ratio of the fifth term from the begining to
the fifth term from the end in the expansion of (2) 300 ( 3 + 1)

(3) 200 ( 3 − 3 )
n
4 1 
 2 + 4  is 6 :1 , then the third term from the
3
(4) 300 ( 3 –1)
beginning is:
(1) 60 2 8. The sum of the first 20 terms of the series 5 +11 +
19+ 29 + 41 + ... is
(2) 60 3
(1) 3450 (2) 3250
(3) 30 2
(3) 3420 (4) 3520
(4) 30 3
9. The mean and variance of a set of 15 numbers are
5. Let a = 2i + 3j + 4k, b = 2i – 2j – 2k and 12 and 14 respectively. The mean and variance of
c = −i + 4j + 3k . If d is a vector perpendicular to another set of 15 numbers are 14 and 2
2 respectively. If the variance of all the 30 numbers
both b and c and a.d = 18, Then a  d is equal
in the two sets is 13, then 2 is equal to
to
(1) 9 (2) 12
(1) 640 (2) 760
(3) 11 (4) 10
(3) 680 (4) 720

1
10. Let A = [aij]2×2 where aij ≠ 0 for all i, j and A2 = I. 15. Let a1, a2, a3. ...an be n positive consecutive terms
Let a be the sum of all diagonal elements of A and of an arithmetic progression. If d > 0 is its common
b = |A|, then 3a2 + 4b2 is equal to difference, then
(1) 7 d 1 1 1 
lim  + + ......... + 
(2) 14 n → n  a1 + a 2 a 2 + a3 a n −1 + a n 
(3) 3 (1) 1 (2) d

(4) 4 (3)
1
(4) 0
( )dx . If I(0) = 0 the I
d
x x sec x + tan x
2 2

11. Let I ( x ) =  16. If the system of equations

( x tan x + 1) 2

x + y + az = b
 
  is equal to 2x + 5y + 2z = 6
4
x + 2y + 3z = 3
(1) loge
( x + 4) 2 − 2
has infinitely many solutions, then 2a + 3b is equal
16 4 (  + 4)
to
(2) loge
( x + 4) 2 + 2 (1) 23 (2) 28
16 4 (  + 4)
(3) 25 (4) 20
( x + 4) 2
 2
dy
(3) loge − 17. If 2xy + 3yx = 20, then at (2, 2) is equal to
32 4 (  + 4) dx
 3 + log 8   2 + log e 8 
( x + 4) 2 + 2 (1) −  e
(2) −  
(4) loge
32 4 (  + 4)  2 + log e 4   3 + log e 4 

12. If the equation of the plane passing through the  3 + log 16   3 + log 4 
(3) −  e
(4) −  e

 4 + log e 8   2 + log e 8 
line of intersection of the planes 2x – y + z = 3,
4x– 3y +5z + 9 = 0 and parallel to the line 18. One vertex of a rectangular parallelopiped is at the

x +1 y + 3 z − 2 origin O and the lengths of its edges along x, y and

= = is ax + by + cz + 6 = 0. then a
−2 4 5 z axes are 3, 4 and 5 units respectively. Let P be
+ b + c is equal to the vertex (3, 4, 5). Then the shortest distance
(1) 14 (2) 12 between the diagonal OP and an edge parallel to z
(3) 13 (4) 15 axis, not passing through O or P is:
13. Statement ( P  Q)  ( R  Q ) is logically (1)
12
(2)
12
5 5 5
equivalent to
12
(1) ( P  R )  Q (3) 12 5 (4)
5

(2) ( P  R )  ( Q  R ) 19. Let the position vectors of the points A, B, C and D

be 5i + 5j + 2k, i + 2j + 3k, − 2i +  j + 4k and
(3) ( P  R )  ( Q  R )
−i + 5j + 6k . Let the set S =    : The points A,
(4) ( P  R )  Q
 (  + 2)
2
B, C and D are coplanar}. Then is equal
14. The sum of all the roots of the equation S

to
x 2 − 8x + 15 – 2x + 7 = 0 is:
(1) 41 (2) 25
(1) 9 + 3 (2) 11 + 3 37
(3) 13 (4)
2
(3) 9 – 3 (4) 11 – 3

2
20. Let A =  x  :  x + 3 +  x + 4  3 , 27. The coefficient of x18 in the expansion of
15
 x −3
  4 1
   3  
B = x  : 3x   r   3−3x  , where [t]  x − 3  is _____
x

  10  
r =1

28. Let A={1, 2, 3, 4,.....10} and B = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}.
denotes greatest integer function. Then,
The number of elements in the relation R = {(a, b)
(1) A  B =  (2) A = B
∈ A × A: 2(a – b)2 + 3(a – b) ∈ B} is______
(3) B  C, A  B (4) A  B, A  B
29. Let the image of the point P(l, 2, 3) in the plane 2x
– y + z = 9 be Q. If the coordinates of the point R
SECTION-B
are (6, 10, 7), then the square of the area of the
21. Let a  and [t] be the greatest integer < t. Then
triangle PQR is_
the number of points, where the function f(x) = [a
30. Let the tangent to the curve x2 + 2x – 4y + 9 = 0 at
+ 13 sin x], x ∈ (0, 𝜋) is not differentiable, is ____
the point P(1, 3) on it meet the y-axis at A. Let the
22. A circle passing through the point P ( , ) in the line passing through P and parallel to the line x –
first quadrant touches the two coordinate axes at 3y = 6 meet the parabola y2 = 4x at B. If B lies on
the points A and B. The point P is above the line the line 2x – 3y = 8. then (AB)2 is equal to
AB. The point Q on the line segment AB is the
foot of perpendicular from P on AB. If PQ is equal
to 11 units, then the value of  is______

23. The number of ways of giving 20 distinct oranges

to 3 children such that each child gets atleast one
orange is_________
24. If the area of the region
S= ( x, y) : 2y − y 2

 x 2  2y, x  y is equal to

n+2 
− , then the natural number n is equal to
n +1 n −1
________
25. Let the point (p, p + 1) lie inside the region

E= ( x, y) : 3 − x  y  
9 − x 2 ,0  x  3 If the set of

all values of p is the interval (a, b). then b2 + b – a2

is equal to _________
26. Let y = y(x) be a solution of the differential
equation (xcos x)dy + (xysinx + ycos x – l)dx = 0,
   
0x . If y  = 3 , then
2 3  3

    
y"   + 2y '   is equal to ______
6  6  6

3
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – APRIL, 2023
(Held On Thursday 06th April, 2023) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 35. A source supplies heat to a system at the rate of
31. For the plane electromagnetic wave given by 1000 W. If the system performs work at a rate of
E = E0 sin (t – kx) and B = B0 sin (t – kx), the 200 W. The rate at which internal energy of the
ratio of average electric energy density to average system increases
magnetic energy density is (1) 1200 W (2) 600 W
(1) 1 (2) 1/2 (3) 500 W (4) 800 W
(3) 2 (4) 4 36. A particle is moving with constant speed in a
32. Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram circular path. When the particle turns by an angle
90°, the ratio of instantaneous velocity to its
attached
average velocity is  : x 2. The value of x will be
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 1 (4) 7
37. A small block of mass 100 g is tied to a spring of
spring constant 7.5 N/m and length 20 cm. The
other end of spring is fixed at a particular point A.
If the block moves in a circular path on a smooth
(1) OR (2) NOR horizontal surface with constant angular velocity
(3) NAND (4) AND 5 rad/s about point A, then tension in the spring is
33. A small ball of mass M and density  is dropped in (1) 1.5 N (2) 0.75 N
(3) 0.25 N (4) 0.50 N
a viscous liquid of density 0. After some time, the
38. A monochromatic light wave with wavelength 1
ball falls with a constant velocity. What is the
and frequency v1 in air enters another medium. If
viscous force on the ball ? the angle of incidence and angle of refraction at the
   interface are 45° and 30° respectively, then the
(1) F = Mg 1 − 0 
  wavelength 2 and frequency v2 of the refracted
wave are :
 
(2) F = Mg 1 +  1
 0  (1)  2 = 1 ,  2 = 21 (2)  2 = 1 ,  2 = 1
2
   1
(3) F = Mg 1 + 0  (3)  2 = 21 ,  2 = 1 (4)  2 = 1 ,  2 = 1
  2
(4) F = Mg(1  0 ) 39. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
3
34. The number of air molecules per cm increased Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
19 19
from 3 × 10 to 12 × 10 . The ratio of collision
Assertion A : When a body is projected at an
frequency of air molecules before and after the
angle 45°, it’s range is maximum.
increase in number respectively is
Reason R : For maximum range, the value of
(1) 1.25
(2) 0.25 sin2 should be equal to one.
(3) 0.75 In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) 0.50
correct answer from the options given below :

4
 (1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct R is the correct (1)

explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
40. Two resistances are given as R1 = (10  0.5)
(2)
and R 2 = (15  0.5) . The percentage error in the
measurement of equivalent resistance when they
are connected in parallel is
(1) 6.33 (2) 2.33
(3)
(3) 4.33 (4) 5.33
41. A planet has double the mass of the earth. Its
average density is equal to the that of the earth. An
object weighing W on earth will weigh on that
planet : (4)
(1) 22/3 W (2) W
1/3
(3) 2 W (4) 2 W
42. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as 44. The resistivity () of semiconductor varies with
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. temperature. Which of the following curve
Assertion A : Earth has atmosphere whereas moon represents the correct behaviour
doesn’t have any atmosphere.
Reason R : The escape velocity on moon is very (1) (2)
small as compared to that on earth.
In the light of the above statement, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true (3) (4)
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is correct 45. The kinetic energy of an electron, -particle and a
explanation of A
proton are given as 4K, 2K and K respectively. The
43. For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell, the
de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron
electric potential (V) radially away from the center
(e) -particle () and the proton (p) are as
(O) of shell can be graphically represented as
follows :
(1)  = p < e
(2)  > p > e
(3)  < p < e
(4)  = p > e

5
46. By what percentage will the transmission range of 50. A long straight wire of circular cross-section
a TV tower be affected when the height of the (radius a) is carrying steady current I. The current I
tower is increased by 21% ? is uniformly distributed across this cross-section.
(1) 14% (2) 12% The magnetic field is
(3) 10% (4) 15% (1) Zero in the region r < a and inversely
47. The energy levels of an hydrogen atom are shown proportional to r in the region r > a
below. The transition corresponding to emission of (2) Inversely proportional to r in the region r < a
shortest wavelength is and uniform throughout in the region r > a
(3) Directly proportional to r in the region r < a and
inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
(4) Uniform in the region r < a and inversely
proportional to distance r from the axis, in the
(1) C (2) D region r > a
(3) B (4) A
48. A mass m is attached to two springs as shown in SECTION-B
figure. The spring constants of two springs are K1
51. A pole is vertically submerged in swimming pool,
and K2. For the frictionless surface, the time period
such that it gives a length of shadow 2.15 m within
of oscillation of mass m is
water when sunlight is incident at an angle of 30°
with the surface of water. If swimming pool is
filled to a height of 1.5 m, then the height of the
1 K1 + K 2 1 K1 − K 2 pole above the water surface in centimetres is
(1) (2)
2 m 2 m (nw = 4/3) ________ .
m m
2 2 52. The length of a metallic wire is increased by 20%
(3) K1 + K 2 (4) K1 − K 2
and its area of cross section is reduced by 4%. The
49. The induced emf can be produced in a coil by percentage change in resistance of the metallic
A. moving the coil with uniform speed inside wire is _______ .
magnetic field
53. A particle of mass 10 g moves in a straight line
B. moving the coil with non-uniform speed inside
with retardation 2x, where x is the displacement in
uniform magnetic field
C. rotating the coil inside the uniform magnetic SI units. Its loss of kinetic energy for above
−n
field  10 
displacement is   J. The value of n will be
D. changing the area of the coil inside the uniform x
magnetic field
_______ .
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: 54. Two identical circular wires of radius 20 cm and

(1) B and D only carrying current 2 A are placed in perpendicular

(2) B and C only planes as shown in figure. The net magnetic field
(3) A and C only at the centre of the circular wire is _______ × 10–8

(4) C and D only T. (Take  = 3.14)

6
 60. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and
plate separation d is filled with a dielectric material
of dielectric constant K = 4. The thickness of the
dielectric material is x, where x < d.

55. A person driving car at a constant speed of 15 m/s

is approaching a vertical wall. The person notices a

Let C1 and C2 be the capacitance of the system for
change of 40 Hz in the frequency of his car’s horn
1 2d
x = d and x = , respectively. If C1 = 2F the
upon reflection from the wall. The frequency of 3 3

horn is ________ Hz. value of C2 is ______ F

(Given : Speed of sound : 330 m/s)

56. The radius of fifth orbit of the Li++ is ____ × 10–12 m.

Take : radius of hydrogen atom = 0.51Å

57. A steel rod has a radius of 20 mm and a length of

2.0 m. A force of 62.8 kN stretches it along its

length. Young’s modulus of steel is 2.0 × 1011

N/m2. The longitudinal strain produced in the wire

is ______ × 10–5

58. An ideal transformer with purely resistive load

operates at 12 kV on the primary side. It supplies

electrical energy to a number of nearby houses at

120 V. The average rate of energy consumption in

the houses served by the transformer is 60 kW. The

value of resistive load (Rs) required in the

secondary circuit will be ______ m.

59. Two identical solid spheres each of mass 2 kg and

radii 10 cm are fixed at the ends of a light rod. The

separation between the centres of the spheres is

40 cm. The moment of inertia of the system about

an axis perpendicular to the rod passing through its

middle point is _______ × 10–3 kg-m2

7
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – APRIL, 2023
(Held On Thursday 06th April, 2023) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER

SECTION-A 66. Match List I with List II
61. A compound is formed by two elements X and Y. List I List II
The element Y forms cubic close packed Enzymatic reaction Enzyme
arrangement and those of element X occupy one A Sucrose → Glucose and I. Zymase
third of the tetrahedral voids. What is the formula Fructose
of the compound?
B Glucose→ethyl alcohol and II. Pepsin
(1) X2Y3
(2) X3Y CO2
(3) X3Y2 C Starch → Maltose III. Invertase
(4) XY3 D Proteins → Amino acids IV. Diastase
62. Match List I with List II Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
List I List II (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Element detected Reagent used/ (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
Product formed (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
A Nitrogen I. Na2[Fe(CN)5 NO] (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
B Sulphur II. AgNO3 67. The possibility of photochemical smog formation
C Phosphorous III. Fe4[Fe (CN)6]3 is more at
D Halogen IV. (NH4)2 MoO4 (1) The places with healthy vegetation
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) Himalayan villages in winter
below: (3) Marshy lands
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) Industrial areas
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
68. The setting time of Cement is increased by adding
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(1) Clay (2) Silica
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) Limestone (4) Gypsum
63. The standard electrode potential of M+/M in
69. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
aqueous solution does not depend on
assertion and the other is labelled as reason .
(1) Ionisation of a solid metal atom
Assertion: Loss of electron from hydrogen atom
(2) Sublimation of a solid metal
(3) Ionisation of a gaseous metal atom results in nucles of ~1.5 × 10–3 pm size.
(4) Hydration of a gaseous metal ion Reason: Proton (H+) always exists in combined
64. Polymer used in orlon is: form
(1) Polyacrylonitrile In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) Polyethene most appropriate answer from the options given
(3) Polycarbonate below:
(4) Polyamide (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
65. The difference between electron gain enthalpies explanation of A
will be maximum between: (2) A is correct but R is not correct
(1) Ne and F (3) A is not correct but R is correct
(2) Ne and Cl (4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(3) Ar and Cl correct explanation of A.
(4) Ar and F

8
70. H
H
Br
N
(1) A = N
B=
Br Br O , OH

H
H
N
(2) A = N
B=
Compound P is neutral. Q gives effervescence with
Br O
, OH
NaHCO3 while R reacts with Hinsbergs reagent to
give solid soluble in NaOH. Compound P is
H
O Br
N NH2
N (3) A = B=
(1)
CH3
Br Br O ,

O H H

(2) N
(4) A =
N
B=
N
H3C H
Br O
,
O 73. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
(3) C N H Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
H
Assertion A: The spin only magnetic moment
O value for [Fe(CN)6]3– is 1.74 BM, whereas for
(4) N CH3 [Fe(H2O)6]3+ is 5.92 BM.
H Reason R : In both complexes, Fe is present in +3
oxidation state.
71. Match List I with List II In the light of the above statements, choose the
List I List II correct answer from the options given below:
Name of reaction Reagent used (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
A Hell-Volhard- I. NaOH + I2 explanation of A
Zelinsky reaction (2) A is false but R is true
B Iodoform reaction II. (i) CrO2Cl2,CS2(ii) H2O (3) A is true but R is false
C III. (i) Br2/red phosphorus (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Etard reaction
(ii) H2O explanation of A
D Gatterman-Koch IV. CO, HCl, anhyd. A1C13
reaction 74. Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given List I Vitamin List II Deficiency disease
below: A Vitamin A I. Beri-Beri

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV B Thiamine II. Cheilosis

C Ascorbic acid III. Xeropthalmia
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
D Riboflavin IV. Scurvy
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
below:
72. The major products A and B from the following
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
reactions are:
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
H

B⎯⎯⎯ ⎯ N ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Br2 / AcOH
→A (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
LiAl H4
O
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

9
75. Which of the following options are correct for the 80. For the reaction:
reaction RCH2 Br + I − ⎯⎯⎯→
Acetone
RCH2 I+ Br −
major
2[Au(CN)2]–(aq) + Zn(s) →2Au(s)+ [Zn(CN)4]2–(aq)
The correct statement is :
A. Redox reaction
(1) The transition state formed in the above
B. Displacement reaction
reaction is less polar than the localised anion.
C. Decomposition reaction
D. Combination reaction (2) The reaction can occur in acetic acid also.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) The solvent used in the reaction solvates the
below: ions formed in rate determining step.
(1) A and B only (2) A only (4) Br– can act as competing nucleophile.
(3) C and D only (4) A and D only
76. Match List I with List II SECTION-B
List I List II
81. The wavelength of an electron of kinetic energy
Oxide Type of Bond
4.50 × 10–29J is…… × 10–5 m. (Nearest integer)
A N2O4 I. 1N = O bond
B NO2 II. 1N – O – N bond Given : mass of electron is 9 × 10–31 kg, h =6.6 ×
C N2O5 III. 1N – N bond 10–34 J s
D N2O IV. 1N = N / N ≡ N bond 82. Number of bromo derivatives obtained on treating
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: ethane with excess of Br2, in diffused sunlight is…
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 83. Consider the graph of Gibbs free energy G vs
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV Extent of reaction. The number of statement/s from
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
the following which are true with respect to points
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(a), (b) and (c) is……………..
77. Strong reducing and oxidizing agents among the
following, respectively, are
(1) Ce4+ and Eu2+ (2) Ce4+ and Tb4+
(3) Ce3+ and Ce4+ (4) Eu2+ and Ce4+
78. The major product formed in the following
reaction is
CONH2 A. Reaction is spontaneous at (a) and (b)
⎯⎯⎯⎯
Br2 /NaOH

⎯→
COOCH3 B. Reaction is at equilibrium at point (b) and non-
O O spontaneous at point (c)
(1) (2) O

O O
C. Reaction is spontaneous at (a) and non-
O spontaneous at (c)
(3) NH
(4) NH

O O
D. Reaction is non-spontaneous at (a) and (b)
79. For a concentrated solution of a weak electrolyte 84. Mass of Urea (NH2CONH2) required to be
(Keq= equilibrium constant) A2B3 of concentration dissolved in 1000 g of water to reduce the vapour
‘c’, the degree of dissociation "' is pressure of water by 25% is……g. (Nearest
1 1 integer)
 K eq  5  K eq  5
(1)  4 
(2)  5  Given: Molar mass of N. C. O and H are 14. 12. 16
 108c   6c 
and 1 2 mol–1 respectively.
1 1
 K eq  5  K eq  5
(3)  4 
(4)  2 
 5c   25c 

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85. The value of log K for the reaction A⇋ B at 298 K
is ……. (Nearest integer)
Given: ∆H0 = – 54.07 kJ mol–1
∆S° = 10 JK–1 mol–1
(Take 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 = 5705)
86. The number of species from the following which
have square pyramidal structure is
PF5, BrF4– , IF5; BrF5, XeOF4, ICl4–
87. Number of ambidentate ligands in a representative
metal complex [M(en)(SCN)4] is
[en = ethylenediamine]
88. For the adsorption of hydrogen on platinum, the
activation energy is 30 kJ mol–1 and for the
adsorption of hydrogen on nickel, the activation
energy is 41.4 kJ mol–1. The logarithm of the ratio
of the rates of chemisorption on equal areas of the
metals at 300 K is ……… (Nearest integer)
Given: ln 10 = 2. 3 R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1
89. If 5 moles of BaCl2 is mixed with 2 moles of
Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of
Ba3(PO4)2 formed is………….
(Nearest integer)
90. In ammonium-phosphomolybdate, the oxidation
state of Mo is + ………………

11