EST I – Literacy Test I

Student’s Name _____________________________________

National ID _____________________________________
Test Center: _____________________________________

Duration: 35 minutes
44 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the
multiple choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
Directions: Questions follow each of the passages below. Some questions ask you how the passage
might be changed to improve the expression of ideas. Other questions ask you how the passage might be
altered to correct errors in grammar, usage, and punctuation. One or more graphics accompany some
passages. You will be required to consider these graphics as you answer questions about editing the
passages.
There are three types of questions. In the first type, a part of the passage is underlined. The second
type is based on a certain part of the passage. The third type is based on the entire passage.
Read each passage. Then, choose the answer to each question that changes the passage so that it is
consistent with the conventions of standard written English. One of the answer choices for many
questions is “NO CHANGE.” Choosing this answer means that you believe the best answer is to make
no change in the passage.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.

1. A. NO CHANGE
B. occurred
How Pandemics Change Society
C. helped
D. witnessed
The black death, the Spanish flu, and other disease
2. A. NO CHANGE
outbreaks have transformed how people live. Will COVID-
B. who is studying
19 change the world? It will do so, if it is similar to the
C. whose studied
pandemics of the past. Plagues and viral contagions have
D. who’s study
regularly [1] improved the course of human civilization.
"Things are never the same after a pandemic as they were 3. A. NO CHANGE

before," said Dr. Liam Fox, [2] who's studied these B. occurred

outbreaks for a forthcoming book. "The current outbreak C. had occurred

D. has been occurring
will be no exception."
The earliest pandemic [3] has occurred during the
Peloponnesian War in 430 B.C. Now believed to have been
a form of typhoid fever, that particular plague passed
through Libya, Ethiopia, and Egypt before striking the city
of Athens.

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October 2020
 4. A. NO CHANGE
(i)The cause of plague is [4] Yersinia pestis: a bacterium B. Yersinia pestis: a bacterium
spread by fleas on rodents and it is the same culprit behind spread by fleas on rodents.
one of the worst pandemics in human history: the Black C. Yersinia pestis (a bacterium
spread by fleas on rodents)
Death. [5] (ii) Routine medical inspections became
D. Yersinia pestis, a bacterium
customary, and hospitals were built throughout Europe to spread by fleas on rodents,
treat the sick. (iii)The Black Death eventually swept
5. To make this paragraph most
throughout Europe and wiped out about 200 million people. logical, sentence (ii) should be
(iv) As a result, it forced authorities to institute health placed
A. where it is now.
measures that remain in place today. (v) Fourteenth-century
B. before sentence i.
Venice ordered mandated isolation periods, named quaranta
C. after sentence iii.
giorni — or "quarantine" in English — to signify the 40
D. after sentence iv.
days of isolation imposed on incoming ships.
The Black Death's biggest socioeconomic legacy was its 6. A. NO CHANGE

role in ending feudalism. Feudalism was a medieval system B. they’re

that empowered wealthy nobles to grant the use of their land C. their
D. this
to peasants in exchange for [6] there labor. By wiping out a
huge swath of the working population, the Black Death 7. A. NO CHANGE
created a labor shortage that gave peasants the [7] leverage B. alternative
to negotiate new working terms effectively bringing about C. strength
the end of serfdom and paving the way for modern D. investment

capitalism.

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October 2020
 8. Which wording best conveys that
The coronavirus has already had a huge and potentially the coronavirus’ effect is long
[8] enduring impact on everyday life. Our work and social lasting?
lives have gone virtual; [9] movie studios, gyms, musicians, A. NO CHANGE
and karaoke bars are streaming their content straight into B. fleeting

our homes. The outbreak has also revived impassioned C. sudden

debates about the U.S. health-care system, possibly offering D. appalling

[10] a hindrance to those in favor of universal coverage. 9. Which choice is most consistent
with the logical flow of the
sentence?
A. NO CHANGE
B. we have a growing appetite for
video technology such as Zoom
and Skype.
C. video gaming has reached
astounding levels, and we now
share the experience from a safe
distance.
D. the fabric of society has
disintegrated, and daily living
skills have become harder.

10. A. NO CHANGE
B. an obstacle to
C. a boon for
D. a disadvantage to

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October 2020
 11. What would most logically follow
this sentence while being
The Spanish Flu and the economic depression that consistent with the rest of the
paragraph?
followed led to a wave of nationalism, authoritarianism, and
A. Consequently, the pandemic
another world war. [11] Therefore, with the onset of should strengthen the tide of
COVID-19, countries should be united against a common globalization and eradicate
xenophobia.
viral enemy. "We've forgotten a lot of the lessons that we
B. Consequently, the pandemic
learned after the Spanish Flu and other pandemics," Spinney should reverse the tide of
says. "We may be about to learn them again." globalization and fuel
xenophobia.
C. Consequently, humanity will
be able to stop the march of
globalization to combat this
pandemic.
D. Consequently, humanity will
rely on improving the
economic system and change
the course of history.

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October 2020
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage
12. A. NO CHANGE
and supplementary material.
B. so
Land Use
C. while
Agriculture is the oldest use of land for growing crops
D. as
and rearing animals. Half of the world’s habitable land is
13. A. NO CHANGE
used for agriculture. Extensive land use has a major
B. and reduce the impact on the
impact on the earth’s environment [12] when it reduces
environment.
wilderness and threatens biodiversity. Reducing the C. and reduce the impact on the
consumption of resource-intensive products and environment.
increasing the productivity of land makes it possible to D. reduces the impact on the
environment.
produce food with much smaller inputs [13], and
reducing the impact on the environment. 14. A. NO CHANGE

Half of the world’s habitable land [14] is used for B. are used

agriculture. For much of human history, most of the C. were used

D. is to be used
world’s land was wilderness: forests, grasslands and
shrubbery [15] dominated it’s landscapes. Over the last 15. A. NO CHANGE
few centuries, this has changed dramatically. B. dominated landscapes.
C. dominated its’ landscapes.
D. dominated its landscapes.

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 16. A. NO CHANGE
If we [16] are to break down global land area, we B. were
would realize that [17] 10% of the world is covered by C. could
glaciers, and a further 19% is barren land – deserts, dry D. decide
salt flats, beaches, sand dunes, and exposed rocks. This 17. Which choice gives the most
leaves what we call ‘habitable land’. Half of all habitable accurate interpretation of the data
in the graph?
land is used for agriculture. The remainder is only 37%
A. NO CHANGE
forests; 11% as shrubs and grasslands; 1% as freshwater
B. 19% of the world is covered by
coverage; and the remaining 1% – a much smaller share glaciers, and a further 10% is
barren land. 29% of what is left
than many suspect – is built-up urban area.
is habitable land used for
agriculture.
C. There are only 37% forests;
11% shrubs and grasslands;
these make up 50% of habitable
land.
D. 29% of the world is covered by
glaciers, and barren land. They
make up 29% of the earth’s
surface.

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October 2020
 There is also a [18] highly and unequal distribution 18. A. NO CHANGE
of land use between livestock and crops for human B. high, unequal
consumption. If we combine pastures used for grazing C. highly, unequal
with land used to grow crops for animal feed, livestock D. highly unequal
accounts for 77% of global farming land. [19] While 19. A. NO CHANGE
livestock takes up most of the world’s agricultural land B While livestock takes up most of the
it only produces 18% of the world’s calories and 37% of world’s agricultural land they only
total protein. produce 18% of the world’s calories
There are two main uses of agricultural land: arable and 37% of total protein.
farming (which is land dedicated to growing crops), and C While livestock takes up most of the
pastureland (which includes meadows and pastures used world’s agricultural land, it only
for livestock rearing). In many countries, land use for produces 18% of the world’s calories
livestock grazing is dominant relative to arable farming. and 37% of total protein.
For most countries, land dedicated to cropland is D Because livestock takes up most of
typically below 20 percent, with many countries the world’s agricultural land it only
dedicating less than 10 percent. [20] Besides, countries produces 18% of the world’s calories
in South Asia and Europe allocate a large share of land and 37% of total protein.
area to arable farming. India, Bangladesh, Ukraine and 20. A. NO CHANGE
Denmark dedicated more than half of their total land B However,
area to cropland in 2015. C Moreover,
D (Although,

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October 2020
For most countries, the majority of agricultural land is
used as pastureland for [21] nurturing livestock. In
21. Which word would be better suited
contrast to arable farming, land use for livestock in for the context?
Europe and South Asia, in particular, is typically less A. NO CHANGE
than 20 percent. However, most continental regions have B. nursing
countries where pastureland reaches close to half of total C. rearing
land area. In some countries, this can reach up to 70 D. growing
percent. [22] Livestock farming can take place across a
range of diverse climatic and environmental regions.
22. Which choice would emphasize the
fact that livestock farming is less
geographically constrained?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Land use for cattle rearing in
Europe and South Asia is less
than 20 percent.
C. The majority of agricultural land
is used for livestock rearing in
continental regions
D. Cattle rear in temperate regions
and sheep graze in hilly and
semi-arid terrain.

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October 2020
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage. 23. A. NO CHANGE
B. to conduct contract analysis,
Will You Lose Your Job to a Robot? hunt for client conflicts, and
even craft litigation strategy.
Automation has become a threat to society, and rapid C. to conduct contract analysis,
technological advances are enabling machines to perform to hunt for client conflicts,
a growing number of tasks traditionally done by humans. and even crafting litigation
Law firms now use artificial intelligence (AI) [23]to strategy.
conduct contract analysis, for hunting down client D. conducting contract analysis,
conflicts, and even craft litigation strategy. McDonald's is hunting for client conflicts,
replacing drive-thru workers with order-taking AI, and and even crafting litigation
cashiers with self-checkout kiosks. From 1990 to 2007, strategy.
[24] robots replaced about 670,000 U.S. jobs, mostly in
manufacturing; every robot introduced into a local 24. A. NO CHANGE
economy claimed 6.2 jobs. That trend will accelerate over B. robots have been replacing
the next decade, as advances in mobile technology, AI, C. robots have replaced
data transfer, and computing speed [25] allows robots to D. robots were replacing
act with greater independence. Oxford University
25. A. NO CHANGE
researchers [26] concluded and established the result in a
B. allowing
major 2013 study that 47 percent of American jobs are at
C. allowed
"high risk" of automation within two decades.
D. allow

26. A. NO CHANGE
B. came to the conclusion and
established
C. concluded
D. reached a conclusion

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October 2020
 Jobs that are mostly at risk are those involving
27. The writer is considering
repetitive physical tasks in predictable environments. inserting this sentence at this
[27] The Palm Beach County Court recently began using point in the passage:
four robots — Wally Bishop, Rosie Tobor, Kitt Robbie, “For instance, some restaurants in
and Speedy — to read court filings, fill out docket sheets, China have already begun
and input data into its case management system. In theory, replacing servers with robots.”
at least 91 percent of a short-order cook's tasks can be Should he make this insertion?
automated using existing technology. It's 100 percent for a A. Yes. Servers are the only jobs
dredge operator, plasterer, stucco mason, motion picture that have repetitive tasks.
projectionist, and logging equipment operator. B. Yes. It is a supporting detail
[28] Similarly, jobs that involve managing people, social for the sentence before it.
interaction, and creative thinking, will see less C. No. Servers’ jobs are not
automation. But even the jobs you'd think are safe aren't. repetitive.
The Guardian Australia newspaper published its first D. No. Robots cannot perform a
article this year written entirely by a computer. The Indian server’s job.
e-commerce site Myntra recently created one of its best-
selling T-shirts by delegating the design [29] for two 28. A. NO CHANGE
algorithms that analysed previous designs and invented B. Conversely,
new ones. C. Moreover,
D. Accordingly,

29. A. NO CHANGE
B. about
C. to
D. in

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October 2020
 Despite the number of people losing their jobs to
30. Which choice is most logically
automation, many prophesy that artificial intelligence is inserted at this point in the
still years away from sending all of humanity on a paragraph?
permanent vacation. [30] History has shown that previous A. NO CHANGE
fateful warnings about technology wiping out the need for B. Consequently, these people
human labor [31] have proved untrue — although there is have been uneasy about the
often a difficult transition period to new jobs requiring idea that automation would
new skills. replace human workers.
In the 19th century, farmers rendered [32] out of fashion C. The economy will not have
by mechanized agriculture found their way to new, better- time to create new professions
paying jobs in factories. to absorb the tens of millions
of workers displaced by
automation.
D. People’s predictions vary, and
there is a lot of grim
prognostication about a "robot
apocalypse.”

31. A. NO CHANGE
B. has proved
C. will have proved
D. will prove

32. A. NO CHANGE
B. obsolete
C. redundant
D. asinine

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October 2020
When industrial automation in the 20th century threatened
33. Which of the following would be
factory workers, [33] this created an ever-growing pool of most consistent with the ending
unemployable humans who could not compete of the paragraph?
economically with machines. If history is any guide, A. NO CHANGE
According to 2013 study," we could also expect that 8 to 9 B. industrial automation re-
percent of 2030 labor demand will be in new types of shaped the global workforce,
occupations that have not existed before." and a dangerously uncertain
future subjected people to
dismissal from their jobs.
C. AI had a high impact on the
workforce because it is
capable of outperforming
humans.
D. a wave of nonexistent jobs,
soon flourished.

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October 2020
Questions 34-44 are based on the following
passage.
Private Investigators in Fiction and Fact
After I graduated from college and was
looking for a job, a newspaper employment ad
caught my eye. It sounded interesting, so I sent
in a résumé. I later discovered that the job was
for a store detective. [34] Duties including
watching for shoplifters and tracking the legally
or ethically questionable actions of store
employees.
The interview was my first hint that real-life
private investigators were not like the characters
one encountered in movies or mystery novels
such as [35] Raymond Chandler's Philip
Marlowe or Dashiell Hammett's Sam Spade
whose tough exteriors belie their soft-hearted
natures. [36] Not only do they track down
criminals, but they also solve crimes in the most
dangerous of circumstances.
14
34. A. NO CHANGE
B. Duties including watching for shoplifters,
and tracking the legally or ethically
questionable actions of store employees.
C. Duties included watching for shoplifters
and tracking the legally or ethically
questionable actions of store employees.
D. Duties including watching for shoplifters
and tracking the legally, or ethically
questionable actions of store employees.
35. A. NO CHANGE
B. Raymond Chandler's Philip Marlowe, or
Dashiell Hammett's Sam Spade whose
tough exteriors belie their soft-hearted
natures.
C. Raymond Chandler's Philip Marlowe or
Dashiell Hammett's Sam Spade, whose
tough exteriors belie their soft-hearted
natures.
D. Raymond Chandler's, Philip Marlowe, or
Dashiell Hammett's, Sam Spade, whose
tough exteriors belie their soft-hearted
natures.
36. A. NO CHANGE
B. They not only track down criminals, but
they also solve crimes in the most
dangerous of circumstances.
C. Not only tracking down criminals, but
they also solve crimes in the most
dangerous of circumstances.
D. They not only track down criminals, but
also they solve crimes in the most
dangerous of circumstances.
October 2020
These heroic figures adhere to an incorruptible 37. A. NO CHANGE
code of personal morality that enables them to B. usher
[37] succumb to the most formidable obstacles C. surmount
as they apprehend criminals and restore order to D. conceal
society. That is one vision of detective work. 38. A. NO CHANGE
Another image comes out of a more playful B. Sherlock Holmes the fictional genius who
tradition of mystery writing that includes solves complex crimes— sometimes,
characters such as [38] Sherlock Holmes the without leaving his comfortable armchair.
fictional genius who solves complex crimes— C. Sherlock Holmes the fictional genius who
sometimes without leaving his comfortable solves complex crimes, sometimes
armchair. Holmes approaches crime as if it was without leaving his comfortable armchair.
a crossword puzzle missing a few essential D. Sherlock Holmes, the fictional genius who
letters that, once supplied, [39] make the motive solves complex crimes— sometimes
for a crime and the identity of its perpetrator without leaving his comfortable armchair.
clear to all concerned. Using his wits and 39. A. NO CHANGE
courage, he invariably [40] searches for the B. made
needed evidence and quickly solves the crime. C. makes
D. making

40. Which word would have a bigger effect when

used in this context?
A. NO CHANGE
B. expunges
C. scrutinizes
D. effaces

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October 2020
[41] [1] In fact, all this is a far cry from the
41. The main idea of this paragraph is stated in
world of real-life detectives. [2] Modern private two sentences. Which are they?
investigators sometimes do monitor potential A. Sentence 2 and 4
shoplifters, but more often are involved in B. Sentence 1 and 3
actual investigations. [3] Typical assignments C. Sentence 1 and 4
might include [42] to do background checks on D. Sentence 4 and 5
people or tracking down missing persons.
[4] The work of real-life detectives differs from 42. A. NO CHANGE

the way their work is portrayed in books and B. doing background checks

movies. [5] The modern-day private C. to doing background checks

investigator, however, spends less time on his or D. done background checks

her feet and considerably more time on the

43. A. NO CHANGE
computer. [43] Because the work is routine, the
B. Although
end result of such inquiries might lead to the
C. Moreover,
reuniting of siblings separated since childhood
D. Knowing
or to the criminal investigation of a company's
business practices.
Even at its most exciting, the work of 44. Which choice is most consistent with the
argument made in the first sentence of the
modern-day private investigators is rarely paragraph?
glamorous. It is much more likely to involve the A. NO CHANGE
careful analysis of data than a high-speed car B. perform tasks that can vary from one day to
chase. Today's private detectives typically the next.
[44] perform tasks that are a romantic’s dream, C. carry out detail oriented, methodical, and
full of action and excitement. But for those who often mundane tasks.
like to solve puzzles, for those who like to find D. spend days or weeks watching and
what's missing or figure out what someone may shadowing subjects with a lot of action.
be up to, real private investigation still appeals
to the detective in all of us.

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October 2020
 EST I – Literacy Test II

Student’s Name _____________________________________

National ID _____________________________________
Test Center: _____________________________________

Duration: 65 minutes
52 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the multiple
choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
 The following passage is an excerpt
from Jane Eyre by Charlotte Brönte
about a young orphan girl and her
experience in the household she grew up
in.
John Reed was a schoolboy of fourteen
years old; four years older than I, for I
was but ten: large and stout for his age,
with a dingy and unwholesome skin;
5 thick lineaments in a spacious visage,
heavy limbs and large extremities. He
gorged himself habitually at table,
which made him bilious, and gave him a
dim and bleared eye and flabby
10 cheeks. He ought now to have been at
school; but his mama had taken him
home for a month or two, “on account
of his delicate health.” Mr. Miles, the
master, affirmed that he would do very
15 well if he had fewer cakes and
sweetmeats sent him from home; but the
mother’s heart turned from an opinion
so harsh, and inclined rather to the more
refined idea that John’s sallowness was
20 owing to over-application and, perhaps,
to pining after home.
John had not much affection for his
mother and sisters, and an antipathy to
me. He bullied and punished me; not
25 two or three times in the week, nor once
or twice in the day, but continually:
every nerve I had feared him, and every
morsel of flesh in my bones shrank
when he came near. There were
30 moments when I was bewildered by the
terror he inspired, because I had no
appeal whatever against either his
menaces or his inflictions; the servants
did not like to offend their young master
35 by taking my part against him, and Mrs.
Reed was blind and deaf on the subject:
she never saw him strike or heard him
abuse me, though he did both now and
then in her very presence, more
40 frequently, however, behind her back.
Habitually obedient to John, I came up
to his chair: he spent some three minutes
in thrusting out his tongue at me as far
2
as he could without damaging the roots:
45 I knew he would soon strike, and while
dreading the blow, I mused on the
disgusting and ugly appearance of him
who would presently deal it. I wonder if
he read that notion in my face; for, all at
50 once, without speaking, he struck
suddenly and strongly. I tottered, and
on regaining my equilibrium retired
back a step or two from his chair.
“That is for your impudence in
55 answering mama awhile since,” said he,
“and for your sneaking way of getting
behind curtains, and for the look you
had in your eyes two minutes since, you
rat!”
60 Accustomed to John Reed’s abuse, I
never had an idea of replying to it; my
care was how to endure the blow which
would certainly follow the insult.
“What were you doing behind the
65 curtain?” he asked.
“I was reading.”
“Show the book.”
I returned to the window and fetched it
thence.
70 “You have no business to take our
books; you are a dependent, mama says;
you have no money; your father left you
none; you ought to beg, and not to live
here with gentlemen’s children like us,
75 and eat the same meals we do, and wear
clothes at our mama’s expense. Now,
I’ll teach you to rummage my
bookshelves: for they are mine; all the
house belongs to me, or will do in a few
80 years. Go and stand by the door, out of
the way of the mirror and the windows.”
I did so, not at first aware what was his
intention; but when I saw him lift and
poise the book and stand in act to hurl it,
85 I instinctively started aside with a cry of
October 2020
 alarm: not soon enough, however; the
volume was flung, it hit me, and I fell,
striking my head against the door and
cutting it. The cut bled, the pain was
90 sharp: my terror had passed its climax;
other feelings succeeded.
“Wicked and cruel boy!” I said. “You
are like a murderer—you are like a
slave-driver—you are like the Roman
95 emperors!”
I had read Goldsmith’s History of
Rome, and had formed my opinion of
Nero, Caligula, etc. Also I had drawn
parallels in silence, which I never
100 thought thus to have declared aloud.
1. Which of the following statements
best expresses the main idea of the
passage?
A. John Reed openly expresses his
dislike for the main character.
B. The main character is
unwelcome in the household and
constantly suffers from
harassment.
C. The main character regularly
seeks to engage in mischief.
D. The main character was harmed
by John Reed.
2. John Reed tone in the beginning of
the passage is that of
A. ambivalence and caution.
B. resignation and compliance.
C. rage and indignation.
D. naivety and optimism.
3
3. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 41-44 (“Habitually” …
“roots”)
B. Lines 51-53 (“I”…“chair”)
C. Lines 60-63 (“Accustomed”…
“insult”)
D. Lines 89-91 (“The”…
“succeeded”)
4. In lines 1-6, the author most likely
mentions these details to
A. discredit John Reed’s actions
delineated later in the passage.
B. accentuate John Reed’s
wickedness and subsequent
actions.
C. describe a character’s
appearance as an introduction.
D. draw a contrast between John
Reed and the main character.
5. The main character mentions “the
Roman emperors” in lines 94-95 to
imply that
A. John Reed shares traits with
previous historical tyrants.
B. John Reed is powerful and
unforgiving.
C. the main character both fears and
despises John Reed.
D. John Reed views himself as a
ruler.
6. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 85-89 (“I”… “it”)
B. Lines 93-95
(“Wicked”…“emperors”)
C. Lines 96-98 (“I”… “etc”)
D. Lines 98-100 (“Also”…
“aloud”)
October 2020
7. Lines 96-97 mention that the main
character has read “Goldsmith’s
History of Rome” in order to
A. highlight the main character’s
erudite integrity.
B. expose the main character’s
ambivalent character.
C. express her interest in history and
literature.
D. speculate the main character’s
position within the household.
8. As used in line 3, “stout” most nearly
means
A. determined.
B. tough.
C. fat.
D. firm.
9. In line 12, the phrase “on account of
his delicate health” is placed in
quotation marks
A. to emphasize John Reed’s weak
physique.
B. to contradict the sentence that
follows.
C. as an opportunity to empathize
with John Reed.
D. as a stylistic device to express
sarcasm and disdain.
10. As used in line 45, “strike” most
nearly means
A. ignite.
B. hit.
C. seem.
D. agree on.

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October 2020
 The following passage is taken from
Kepler by Walter W. Bryant discussing
Kepler’s relationship with Tycho, a
fellow astronomer.
The association of Kepler with Tycho
was one of the most important
landmarks in the history of astronomy.
The younger man hoped, by the aid of
5 Tycho’s planetary observations, to
obtain better support for some of his
fanciful speculative theories, while the
latter, who had certainly not gained in
prestige by leaving Denmark, was in
10 great need of a competent staff of
assistants. Of the two it would almost
seem that Tycho thought himself the
greater gainer, for in spite of his
reputation for brusqueness and want of
15 consideration, he not only made light of
Kepler’s apology in the matter of
Reymers, but treated him with uniform
kindness in the face of great rudeness
and ingratitude. He begged him to come
20 “as a welcome friend,” though Kepler,
very touchy on the subject of his own
astronomical powers, was afraid he
might be regarded as simply a
subordinate assistant. An arrangement
25 had been suggested by which Kepler
should obtain two years’ leave of
absence from Gratz on full pay, which,
because of the higher cost of living in
Prague, should be supplemented by the
30 Emperor; but before this could be
concluded, Kepler threw up his
professorship, and thinking he had
thereby also lost the chance of going to
Prague, applied to Maestlin and others
35 of his Tübingen friends to make interest
for him with the Duke of Wurtemberg
and secure the professorship of
medicine. Tycho, however, still urged
him to come to Prague, promising to do
40 his utmost to secure for him a
permanent appointment, or in any event
to see that he was not the loser by
coming.
5
Kepler was delayed by illness on the
45 way, but ultimately reached Prague,
accompanied by his wife, and for some
time lived entirely at Tycho’s expense,
writing by way of return essays against
Reymers and another man, who had
50 claimed the credit of the Tychonic
system. This Kepler could do with a
clear conscience, as it was only a
question of priority and did not involve
any support of the system, which he
55 deemed far inferior to that of
Copernicus. The following year saw
friction between the two astronomers,
and we learn from Kepler’s abject letter
of apology that he was entirely in the
60 wrong. It was about money matters,
which in one way or another embittered
the rest of Kepler’s life, and it arose
during his absence from Prague. On his
return in September, 1601, Tycho
65 presented him to the Emperor, who gave
him the title of Imperial Mathematician,
on condition of assisting Tycho in his
calculations, the very thing Kepler was
most anxious to be allowed to do: for
70 nowhere else in the world was there
such a collection of good observations
sufficient for his purpose of reforming
the whole theory of astronomy.
The Emperor’s interest was still mainly
75 with astrology, but he liked to think that
his name would be handed down to
posterity in connection with the new
Planetary Tables in the same way as that
of Alphonso of Castile, and he made
80 liberal promises to pay the expenses.
Tycho’s other principal assistant,
Longomontanus, did not stay long after
giving up the Mars observations to
Kepler, but instead of working at the
85 new lunar theory, suddenly left to take
up a professorship of astronomy in his
native Denmark.
Very shortly afterwards Tycho himself
died of acute distemper; Kepler began to
90 prepare the mass of manuscripts for
publication, but, as everything was
October 2020
 claimed by the Brahe family, he was not
allowed to finish the work. He
succeeded to Tycho’s post of principal
95 mathematician to the Emperor, at a
reduced official salary, which owing to
the emptiness of the Imperial treasury
was almost always in arrears. In order to
meet his expenses he had recourse to the
100 casting of nativities, for which he
gained considerable reputation and
received very good pay. He worked by
the conventional rules of astrology, and
was quite prepared to take fees for so
105 doing, although he had very little faith
in them, preferring his own fanciful
ideas.
Kepler’s Third Law
Source: Kevin Brown
11. In line 7, the author describes Kepler’s
theories as “fanciful” and
“speculative” to indicate that
A. his theories were conventional.
B. his theories were based on facts.
C. Kepler often used his imagination
in science.
D. Kepler was wary of his theories.
12. According to the passage, Kepler’s
personality could best be described as
A. selfish and unrelenting.
B. timid and unobtrusive.
C. proud and obstinate.
D. hypocritical and defensive.
6
13. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 17-19 (“but …
“ingratitude”)
B. Lines 19-24 (“He”…“assistant”)
C. Lines 31-38 (“Kepler”…
“medicine”)
D. Lines 56-61 (“The”… “wrong”)
14. As used in line 14, “want” most nearly
means
A. yearning.
B. desire.
C. need.
D. lack.
15. According to the passage, all of the
following statements are true
EXCEPT
A. Kepler obtained two years of paid
leave from Gratz endorsed by the
Emperor.
B. Kepler and Tycho experienced
friction due to financial tension.
C. Tycho attempted to persuade
Kepler to join him in Prague.
D. Due to an ailment, Kepler did not
reach Prague on time.
16. According to the passage, Kepler
suffered most of his life from
A. being financially unstable.
B. a lack of opportunities.
C. disrespectful colleagues.
D. constant dismissals from work.
October 2020
17. The passage is most likely written for 21. The graph helps support which of the
an audience that following arguments?
A. is mildly familiar with A. Despite Kepler’s “fanciful”
astronomers. theories, he was ultimately
successful in discovering orbital
B. has no prior background on
law.
astronomers.
B. Kepler only focused on one aspect
C. is conducting thorough historical
of his theories and was unable to
research on key astronomers.
branch further.
D. is uninterested in astronomers. C. With the help of the Emperor,
Kepler formed his third law in
science.
18. The Emperor most likely endorsed D. Kepler’s law was out of the focus
Kepler and other astrologists because of astronomy.
A. he believed it was essential for an
emperor to participate in science.
B. he wanted his name to go down in
history alongside the future
scientific discoveries.
C. he had extra finances available in
his treasury.
D. he insisted that no discoveries
should be made without his
knowledge.

19. Which choice best provides evidence

for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 24-30 (“An” … “Emperor”)
B. Lines 74-80 (“The”…“expenses”)
C. Lines 88-93 (“Very”… “work”)
D. Lines 103-107 (“He”… “ideas”)

20. As used in line 94, “post” most nearly

means
A. station.
B. pole.
C. mail.
D. position.

7
October 2020

The first edited passage is from Birds of
the Indian Hills by Douglas Dewar which
discusses Himalayan bird habitat.
Passage 2 taken from Birds in Town and
Village by W. H. Hudson is about exotic
birds found in Britain.
Passage 1
Himalayan birds inhabit what is perhaps
the most wonderful tract of country in the
world. The Himalayas are not so much a
chain of mountains as a mountainous
5 country, some eighty miles broad and
several hundred long—a country
composed entirely of mountains and
valleys with no large plains or broad
plateaux.
10 There is a saying of an ancient Sanskrit
poet which, being translated into English,
runs: “In a hundred ages of the gods I
could not tell you of the glories of
Himachal.” This every writer on things
15 Himalayan contrives to drag into his
composition. Some begin with the
quotation, while others reserve it for the
last, and make it do duty for the epigram
which stylists assure us should terminate
20 every essay.
There are some who quote the Indian
sage only to mock him. Such assert that
the beauties of the Himalayas have been
greatly exaggerated—that, as regards
25 grandeur, their scenery compares
unfavorably with that of the Andes, while
their beauty is surpassed by that of the
Alps. Not having seen the Andes, I am
unable to criticize the assertion regarding
30 the grandeur of the Himalayas, but I find
it difficult to imagine anything finer than
their scenery.
As regards beauty, the Himalayas at their
best surpass the Alps, because they
35 exhibit far more variety, and present
everything on a grander scale.
8
The Himalayas are a kind of Dr. Jekyll
and Mr. Hyde. They have two faces—the
fair and the plain. In May they are at their
40 worst. Those of the hillsides which are
not afforested are brown, arid, and
desolate, and the valleys, in addition to
being unpleasantly hot, are dry and dusty.
The foliage of the trees lacks freshness,
45 and everywhere there is a remarkable
absence of water, save in the valleys
through which the rivers flow. On the
other hand, September is the month in
which the Himalayas attain perfection or
50 something approaching it. The eye is
refreshed by the bright emerald garment
which the hills have newly donned. The
foliage is green and luxuriant. Waterfalls,
cascades, mighty torrents and rivulets
55 abound. Himachal has been converted
into fairyland by the monsoon rains.
A remarkable feature of the Himalayas is
the abruptness with which they rise from
the plains in most places. In some parts
60 there are low foothills; but speaking
generally the mountains that rise from the
plain attain a height of 4000 or 5000 feet.
Passage 2
There are countries with a less fertile soil
and a worse climate than ours, yet richer
65 in bird life. Nevertheless, England is not
poor; the species are not few in number,
and some are extremely abundant.
Unfortunately many of the finer kinds
have been too much sought after;
70 persecuted first for their beauty, then for
their rarity, until now we are threatened
with their total destruction. As these
kinds become unobtainable, those which
stand next in the order of beauty and
75 rarity are persecuted in their turn; and in a
country as densely populated as ours,
where birds cannot hide themselves from
human eyes, such persecution must
eventually cause their extinction.
80 Meanwhile the bird population does not
decrease. Every place in nature, like
every property in Chancery, has more
October 2020
 than one claimant to it—sometimes the
claimants are many—and so long as the
85 dispute lasts all live out of the estate. For
there are always two or more species
subsisting on the same kind of food,
possessing similar habits, and frequenting
the same localities. It is consequently
90 impossible for man to exterminate any
one species without indirectly benefiting
some other species, which attracts him in
a less degree, or not at all. This is
unfortunate, for as the bright kinds, or
95 those we esteem most, diminish in
numbers the less interesting kinds
multiply, and we lose much of the
pleasure which bird life is fitted to give
us. When we visit woods, or other places
100 to which birds chiefly resort, in districts
uninhabited by man, or where he pays
little or no attention to the feathered
creatures, the variety of the bird life
encountered affords a new and peculiar
105 delight. There is a constant succession of
new forms and new voices; in a single
day as many species may be met with as
one would find in England by searching
diligently for a whole year.
22. The tone of the author in Passage 1 is
one of
A. mild interest and openness.
B. awe and subjectivity.
C. disdain and judgement.
D. scientific objectivity.
23. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 14-16 (“This” …
“composition”)
B. Lines 21-22 (“There”…“him”)
C. Lines 22-28 (“Such”… “Alps”)
D. Lines 28-32 (“Not”… “scenery”)
9
24. The author of Passage 1 most likely
uses a saying from an ancient Sanskrit
poet to
A. outline the Himalaya’s beauty.
B. draw attention to the author’s
erudite nature.
C. enlighten the reader on little
known literature.
D. emphasize how the Himalayas are
perceived from a certain
perspective.
25. When the author mentions Dr. Jekyll
and Mr. Hyde, he most likely expects
the readers to
A. recognize key literary characters
in order to understand the
analogy.
B. research the two mentioned name
to become more cultured.
C. cause discordance between the
science of the mountains and
literary characters.
D. test to what extent readers are
familiar with classical literature.
26. All of the following are mentioned
about the Himalayas EXCEPT that
A. the Himalayas are a mountain
range.
B. a poet has written about its
beauty.
C. the Himalayas can be both arid
and fertile.
D. the mountains mostly consist of
low foothills.
27. As used in line 19, “terminate” most
nearly means
A. cut.
B. downsize.
C. end.
D. stop.
October 2020
28. The main idea of Passage 2 is to 31. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
A. discuss the presence of rare birds
question?
in England and the reason for their
diminishing numbers. A. Lines 65-67 (“Nevertheless” …
“abundant”)
B. convince the reader that despite
England’s bad climate, rare birds B. Lines 75-79
still live there. (“and”…“extinction”)
C. persuade the reader of the C. Lines 89-93 (“It”… “all”)
existence of rare species that D. Lines 99-105 (“When”…
persist year round. “delight”)
D. explain to the reader that it is often
difficult to sight rare bird species 32. As used in line 98, “fitted” most nearly
in England. means
A. provided.
29. How does the style of Passage 1 differ B. positioned.
from Passage 2?
C. matched.
A. Passage 1 is more narrative while
Passage 2 is expository. D. qualified.
B. Passage 1 seeks to judge set codes
while Passage 2 is more
argumentative.
C. Passage 1 is rhetorical while
Passage 2 is based on assertions.
D. Passage 1 is based on abstract
ideas while Passage 2 focuses on
the concrete.

30. Which of the following statements

best describes the author of Passage
2’s perception of the human
population’s effect on birds?
A. With growing cities, birds will
always be in sight.
B. The rapid growing population in
cities is causing bird species to die
out.
C. Humans benefit species with their
growing presence.
D. Humans share many habitats with
birds.

10
October 2020

The following edited passage is taken
from Knight of Art: Stories of Italian
Painters by Amy Steedman on Andrea Del
Sarto’s upbringing before becoming a
famous painter.
Nowhere in Florence could a more honest
man or a better worker be found than
Agnolo the tailor. True, there were once
evil tales whispered about him when he
5 first opened his shop in the little street. It
was said that he was no Italian, but a
foreigner who had been obliged to flee
from his own land because of a quarrel he
had had with one of his customers.
10 People shook their heads and talked
mysteriously of how the tailor’s scissors
had been used as a deadly weapon in the
fight. But before long these stories died
away, and the tailor, with his wife
15 Constanza, lived a happy, busy life, and
brought up their six children carefully
and well.
Now out of those six children five were
just the ordinary commonplace little ones
20 such as one would expect to meet in a
tailor’s household, but the sixth was like
the ugly duckling in the fairy tale—a
little, strange bird, unlike all the rest, who
learned to swim far away and soon left
25 the old commonplace home behind him.
The boy’s name was Andrea. He was
such a quick, sharp little boy that he was
sent very early to school, and had learned
to read and write before he was seven
30 years old. As that was considered quite
enough education, his father then took
him away from school and put him to
work with a goldsmith.
It is early days to begin work at seven
35 years old, but Andrea thought it was quite
as good as play. He was always perfectly
happy if he could have a pencil and
paper, and his drawings and designs were
really so wonderfully good that his
40 master grew to be quite proud of the child
and showed the work to all his customers.
11
Next door to the goldsmith’s shop there
lived an old artist called Barile, who
began to take a great interest in little
45 Andrea. Barile was not a great painter,
but still there was much that he could
teach the boy, and he was anxious to have
him as a pupil. So it was arranged that
Andrea should enter the studio and learn
50 to be an artist instead of a goldsmith.
For three years the boy worked steadily
with his new master, but by that time
Barile saw that better teaching was
needed than he could give. So after much
55 thought the old man went to the great
Florentine artist Piero di Cosimo, and
asked him if he would agree to receive
Andrea as his pupil. “You will find the
boy no trouble,” he urged. “He has
60 wonderful talent, and already he has
learned to mix his colors so marvelously
that to my mind there is no artist in
Florence who knows more about color
than little Andrea.” Cosimo shook his
65 head in unbelief. The boy was but a child,
and this praise seemed absurd. However,
the drawings were certainly
extraordinary, and he was glad to receive
so clever a pupil.
70 But little by little, as Cosimo watched the
boy at work, his unbelief vanished and
his wonder grew, until he was as fond and
proud of his pupil as the old master had
been. “He handles his colors as if he had
75 had fifty years of experience,” he would
say proudly, as he showed off the boy’s
work to some new patron.
And truly the knowledge of drawing and
coloring seemed to come to the boy
80 without any effort. Not that he was idle or
trusted to chance. He was never tired of
work, and his greatest joy on holidays
was to go off and study the drawings of
the great Michelangelo and Leonardo da
85 Vinci. Often he would spend the whole
day copying these drawings with the
greatest care, never tired of learning more
and more.
October 2020
33. The author references the “ugly 38. According to the passage, how did
duckling” in line 22 as a(n) Cosimo initially feel about taking
young Andrea as a pupil?
A. simile.
A. Cosimo was hesitant and did not
B. metaphor.
entirely believe Barile’s praise.
C. onomatopoeia.
B. Cosimo was fond of Andrea and
D. personification. was awed by his skills.
34. Young Andrea was most content C. Cosimo was proud of Andrea’s
when work.
A. studying at school. D. Cosimo was entirely against
B. surrounded by pencils and papers. Andrea becoming his pupil.
C. reading and writing. 39. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
D. among his family. question?
35. Which choice best provides evidence A. Lines 65-66 (“The” … “absurd”)
for the answer to the previous
question? B. Lines 70-74 (“But”…“been”)
A. Lines 13-17 (“But” … “well”) C. Lines 74-77 (“He”… “patron”)

B. Lines 26-30 (“He”…“old”) D. Lines 78-80 (“And”… “effort”)

C. Lines 34-36 (“It”… “play”) 40. According to the passage, what was
special about Andrea as an up-and-
D. Lines 36-41 (“He”… coming painter?
“customers”)
A. Andrea was respectful and
36. As used in line 27, “sharp” most listened to those who knew more
nearly means than him.
A. harsh. B. Andrea was a quick learner and
B. intense. did not tire from drawing.
C. distinct. C. Andrea was originally a
goldsmith.
D. smart.
D. Andrea was a timid child who
37. According to the passage, what is the loved to learn.
best explanation as to why young
Andrea was taken out of school? 41. As used in line 80, “idle” most nearly
means
A. Andrea was not doing well in
school. A. meaningless.
B. Andrea’s education was not B. trivial.
important enough to have him C. lazy.
continue.
D. unemployed.
C. It was uncommon for children of
goldsmiths to receive higher
education.
D. Andrea’s father did not support
his education.

12
October 2020
42. The passage mentions all the
following about Andrea EXCEPT that
A. he was different from the rest of
the family.
B. he was exceptional at mixing
colors.
C. he had little tolerance for criticism.
D. he studied off great works by
Michelangelo and Leonardo da
Vinci.

13
October 2020
 The following edited passage is taken
from Insectivorous Plants
by Charles Darwin on leaves and
temperature.
In my observations on Drosera
rotundifolia, the leaves seemed to be
more quickly inflected over animal
substances, and to remain inflected for a
5 longer period during very warm than
during cold weather. I wished, therefore,
to ascertain whether heat alone would
induce inflection, and what temperature
was the most efficient. Another
10 interesting point presented itself,
namely, at what degree life was
extinguished; for Drosera offers unusual
facilities in this respect, not in the loss
of the power of inflection, but in that of
15 subsequent re-expansion, and more
especially in the failure of the
protoplasm to become aggregated, when
the leaves after being heated are
immersed in a solution of carbonate of
20 ammonia.
As the hair-like tentacles are extremely
thin and have delicate walls, and as the
leaves were waved about for some
minutes close to the bulb of the
25 thermometer, it seems scarcely possible
that they should not have been raised
very nearly to the temperature which the
instrument indicated. From the eleven
last observations we see that a
30 temperature of 130 oF never causes the
immediate inflection of the tentacles,
though a temperature from 120 oF to 125
o
F quickly produces this effect. But the
leaves are paralyzed only for a time by a
35 temperature of 130 oF, as afterwards,
whether left in simple water or in a
solution of carbonate of ammonia, they
become inflected and their protoplasm
undergoes aggregation. This great
40 difference in the effects of a higher and
lower temperature may be compared
with that from immersion in strong and
weak solutions of the salts of ammonia;
for the former do not excite movement,
14
45 whereas the latter act energetically. A
temporary suspension of the power of
movement due to heat is called by Sachs
heat-rigidity; and this in the case of the
sensitive-plant (Mimosa) is induced by
50 its exposure for a few minutes to humid
air, raised to 120 oF -122 oF. It deserves
notice that the leaves of Drosera, after
being immersed in water at 130 oF, are
excited into movement by a solution of
55 the carbonate so strong that it would
paralyze ordinary leaves and cause no
inflection.
The exposure of the leaves for a few
minutes even to a temperature of 145 oF
60 does not always kill them; as when
afterwards left in cold water, or in a
strong solution of carbonate of ammonia,
they generally, though not always,
become inflected; and the protoplasm
65 within their cells undergoes aggregation,
though the spheres thus formed are
extremely small, with many of the cells
partly filled with brownish muddy
matter. In two instances, when leaves
70 were immersed in water, at a lower
temperature than 130 oF, which was then
raised to 145 oF, they became during the
earlier period of immersion inflected, but
on being afterwards left in cold water
75 were incapable of re-expansion.
Exposure for a few minutes to a
temperature of 145 oF sometimes causes
some few of the more sensitive glands to
be speckled with the porcelain-like
80 appearance; and on one occasion this
occurred at a temperature of 140 oF. On
another occasion, when a leaf was placed
in water at this temperature of only 140
o
F, and left therein till the water cooled,
85 every gland became like porcelain.
Exposure for a few minutes to a
temperature of 150 oF generally produces
this effect, yet many glands retain a
pinkish color, and many present a
90 speckled appearance. This high
temperature never causes true inflection;
on the contrary, the tentacles commonly
become reflexed, though to a less degree
October 2020
 than when immersed in boiling water; 45. The passage mentions all the
95 and this apparently is due to their passive following in the experiments
power of elasticity. After exposure to a EXCEPT
temperature of 150 oF, the protoplasm, if A. the process of aggregation.
subsequently subjected to carbonate of
ammonia, instead of undergoing B. exposure to different
100 aggregation, is converted into temperatures.
disintegrated or pulpy discolored matter. C. the immersion of leaves in
In short, the leaves are generally killed water.
by this degree of heat; but owing to
differences of age or constitution, they D. the effect of the sun on the
105 vary somewhat in this respect. In one leaves.
anomalous case, four out of the many 46. According to the passage, what is
glands on a leaf, which had been different about Drosera leaves?
immersed in water raised to 156 oF,
escaped being rendered porcellanous; A. 130oF causes inflection of the
110 and the protoplasm in the cells close leaves.
beneath these glands underwent some B. Drosera leaves shrivel when
slight, though imperfect, degree of exposed to intense heat.
aggregation.
C. Drosera leaves thrive in certain
intense solutions in comparison
to other leaves.
D. Drosera leaves are
43. The main idea of this passage is to
unaccustomed to heat compared
A. explore the effect of temperature to other leaves.
on leaves.
B. discover the movements of
47. Which choice best provides
leaves when exposed to certain
evidence for the answer to the
temperatures.
previous question?
C. reject a proposed hypothesis on
A. Lines 33-39 (“But” …
inflected leaves.
“aggregation”)
D. bolster a hypothesis on leaf
B. Lines 51-57 (“It”…“inflection”)
movement.
C. Lines 90-91 (“This”…
44. Which choice best provides
“inflection”)
evidence for the answer to the
previous question? D. Lines 102-105 (“In”…
“respect”)
A. Lines 1-6 (“In” … “weather”)
B. Lines 6-9 (“I”…“efficient”)
48. As used in line 46, “suspension”
C. Lines 45-51 (“A”… “122 oF”)
most nearly means
D. Lines 69-75 (“In”… “re-
A. halt.
expansion”)
B. removal.
C. elimination.
D. exclusion.

15
October 2020
 Experiment 1

Experiment 2

Weekly progress in cumulative leaf area based on temperature.

Source: Hatfield and Prueger

16
October 2020
49. Which of the following best
summarizes the relationship of the
first paragraph to the rest of the
passage?
A. Challenge followed by debate
B. Specific instance followed by
generalization
C. Postulation followed by trial
D. Prediction followed by analysis

50. The overall tone of the passage is

best described as
A. indifferent.
B. objective.
C. emotional.
D. biased.

51. Comparing both graphs, which

category remains relatively high as
time passes?
A. In both experiments, cumulative
area during normal temperatures
remains relatively high.
B. In both experiments, cumulative
area during warm temperatures
remains relatively high.
C. In experiment 1, cumulative area
during warm temperatures
remains higher than cumulative
area for normal temperatures in
experiment 2.
D. Both experiments do not suggest
any high categories as time
passes.

52. As used in line 101, “matter” most

nearly means
A. content.
B. importance.
C. affair.
D. subs

17
October 2020
 EST I Literacy Test 1
Answer Key
(Writing and Language Section)

Question Answer Question Answer

1 A 23 B
2 A 24 A
3 B 25 D
4 D 26 C
5 D 27 B
6 C 28 B
7 A 29 C
8 A 30 A
9 A 31 A
10 C 32 B
11 A 33 D
12 D 34 C
13 B 35 C
14 A 36 A
15 D 37 C
16 B 38 D
17 A 39 A
18 D 40 C
19 C 41 C
20 B 42 B
21 C 43 B
22 A 44 C

October 2020
 EST I Literacy Test 1
Answer Key
(Reading Section)
Passage 1 27. c
28. a
1. b 29. a
2. b 30. b
3. c 31. b
4. c 32. d
5. a
6. d
7. a Passage 4
8. c
9. d 33. a
10. b 34. b
35. d
36. d
Passage 2 37. b
38. a
11. c 39. a
12. c 40. b
13. b 41. c
14. d 42. c
15. a
16. a
17. c Passage 5
18. b
19. b 43. a
20. d 44. b
21. a 45. d
46. c
47. b
Passage 3 48. a
49. c
22. b 50. b
23. d 51. a
24. a 52. d
25. a
26. d

October 2020
 EST I – Literacy Test I

_____________________________________
Student’s Name
_____________________________________
National ID
_____________________________________
Test Center:

Duration: 35 minutes
44 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the
multiple choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
Directions: Read each passage and answer the questions. First, skim through the passage to gain the general
idea of topic, style, tone, and structure. Then, re-read the passage a second time, closely, and answer the
questions found next to the passage as you read. Some questions ask you how the passage might be changed to
improve the expression of ideas. Other questions ask you how the passage might be altered to correct errors in
grammar, usage, and punctuation. One or more graphics accompany some passages. You will be required to
consider these graphics as you answer questions about editing the passages.
There are three types of questions. In the first type, a part of the passage is underlined. The second type is
based on a certain part of the passage. The third type is based on the entire passage.
After you read the passage, choose the answer so that it is consistent with the conventions of standard
written English. One of the answer choices for many questions is “NO CHANGE.” Choosing this answer
means that you believe the best answer is to make no change in the passage.

1.A. NO CHANGE
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage and
B. lead
supplementary material.
C. will lead
The singularity is described as the point at which advances
D. are leading
in artificial intelligence (AI) [1] leads to the creation of a
2. Which choice gives the most
machine smarter than humans. While most people believe the
accurate interpretation of the data in
singularity could arrive within 5-10 years, there’s quite a bit of
the graph?
associated unease. When asked how the thought of machine
superintelligence made them feel, [2] 62 percent of the general A. NO CHANGE
population expressed negative emotions. Most tech executives B. Respondents reflected a broad
had positive emotions about superintelligence. range of views about
superintelligence with a seeming
balance between those who were
excited and optimistic and those
scared or worried.
C. 37 percent of the general
population expressed negative
emotions, while 62 percent
expressed positive emotions.
D. 62 percent of the general
population expressed negative
emotions. Tech executives were
evenly split on their feelings
about superintelligence.

2
January 2021
 Several notable futurists predict this will occur between
3.A. NO CHANGE
2030 and 2045. Not everyone agrees with this timeline.
B. operate
Estimates are based upon many factors, not the least of which
C. will operate
is the continued increase in computing performance,
D. to operate
eventually reaching as many connections as the human brain
4.A. NO CHANGE
but
B. gained
[3] operating much faster. Nick Bostrom and Vincent Muller
C. realized
conducted a survey with AI experts and found the median
D. acknowledged
estimate is a one in two chance that high-level machine
intelligence will be developed between 2040-2050, with a nine 5.A. NO CHANGE
in ten chance by 2075. These experts believe that B. will achieve
superintelligence will then be developed within the following C. has achieved
30 years, pushing the date to somewhere between 2070 and D. achieves
2110. With the singularity [4] understood, an AI-enabled
machine [5] will have achieved cognitive abilities beyond that
of the most gifted human minds.

3
January 2021
 6. Which choice provides the most
[6] Not surprisingly, scientists believe that this progress will relevant introduction to this
be a positive one. Computer scientist Stuart Russell has said paragraph?
that success at creating human-level AI would be the biggest
A. NO CHANGE
event in human history. Elon Musk has famously discussed
B. Tech executives believe the
how this superintelligence poses an existential threat to
positive from AI will outweigh
humanity. Musk is not alone in this concern. [7] Bostrom
the negative.
considers the singularity potentially catastrophic for humanity.
C. The majority in both groups see
Nevertheless, [8] its quite possible that such superintelligence
positive benefits from AI across
could be the key to addressing the complex assortment of
all industries.
human problems such as climate change.
D. There are many views of whether
this development will be positive
or not.
7. The writer is considering inserting
this sentence at this point in the
passage.
“Many scientists feel threatened by
the technology.”
Should they make this insertion?
A. Yes. It is related to the idea that
precedes it.
B. Yes. The sentence that follows
shows that Bostrom is threatened
by AI.
C. No. It is irrelevant because the
paragraph only talks about a few
scientists.
D. No. It repeats the general idea
from the previous sentence.

8.A. NO CHANGE
B. its’
C. it is
D. it has
4
January 2021
On a more optimistic note, futurist Ray Kurzweil 9.A. NO CHANGE
acknowledges there will be a few bumps along the way, but B. discord
that ultimately, superintelligence would allow for a [9] alliance C. symbiosis
between man and machine. D. reconciliation

No one knows with any reasonable certainty when 10.A. NO CHANGE

superintelligence will arrive. Professor Murray Shanahan at B. much sooner than do the experts,
London’s Imperial College believes the media often gives the C. much sooner than the experts,
impression that human-level AI of the sort we see in sci-fi D. much sooner than will the
movies is just around the corner. But it’s almost certainly experts,
decades away. As a result, survey respondents believe the
11.A. NO CHANGE
singularity will be achieved [10] much sooner than are the
B. About half of tech executives
experts, with 61 percent of the general population and 73
hold a positive view while, just
percent of tech executives saying this moment will arrive
over a third of the general
within 10 years. Views on whether this will be a positive
population expressed positive
development are quite split. [11] About half of tech executives
views.
hold a positive view while just over a third of the general
C. About half of tech executives
population expressed positive views.
hold a positive view; while just
over a third of the general
population expressed positive
views.
D. About half of tech executives
hold a positive view, while just
over a third of the general
population expressed positive
views.

5
January 2021
Questions 12-22 are based on the following 12.A. NO CHANGE
passage. B. Most television ads still feature actors, still
run 30 or 60 seconds, and still show a
(1) Marketing executives in television work with product.
a relatively stable advertising medium. (2) [12] Most C. Most television ads still feature actors still
television ads: Still feature actors, still run 30 or 60 run 30 or 60 seconds and still show a
seconds, and still show a product. (3) However, the product.
differing dynamics of the Internet pose unique D. Most television ads still feature actors; still
challenges to advertisers, forcing them to adapt their run 30 or 60 seconds, and still show a
practices and techniques on a regular basis. (4) In product.
many ways, the television ads aired today are similar 13. To make this paragraph more logical, sentence
to those aired two decades ago. [13] 4 should be placed
In the early days of Internet marketing, online A. Where it is now.
advertisers employed banner and pop-up ads to B. Before sentence 1
attract customers. These techniques reached large C. Before sentence 2
audiences, generated many sales leads, and would D. Before sentence 3
come at a low cost. However, a small number of 14. Which word is most applicable to the nature of
Internet users began to consider these advertising these online advertising techniques?
techniques [14] unobtrusive and irksome. Yet A. NO CHANGE
because marketing strategies relying heavily on B. inconspicuous and infuriating
banners and pop-ups produced results, companies C. soothing and bothersome
invested growing amounts of money into purchasing D. intrusive and annoying
these ad types in hopes [15] to capturing market share 15.A. NO CHANGE
in the burgeoning online economy. As consumers B. to capture
became more sophisticated, frustration with these C. of capturing
online advertising techniques grew. Independent D. for capturing
programmers began to develop tools that blocked
banner and popup ads.

6
January 2021
The popularity of these tools exploded when [16] a
search engine at the time an increasingly popular
website fighting to solidify its place on the Internet
with other web service giants, offered free software
enabling users to block pop-up ads. The backlash
against banner ads grew as new web browsers
provided users the ability to block image-based ads
such as banner ads. [17]
17. Which sentence would best serve as a conclusion
7
16.A. NO CHANGE
B. a search engine, at the time an increasingly
popular website fighting to solidify its place
on the Internet with other web service giants,
C. a search engine at the time an increasingly
popular website fighting to solidify its place
on the Internet with other web service giants
D. a search engine; at the time an increasingly
popular website fighting to solidify its place
on the Internet with other web service giants,
to the paragraph?
A. Pop-up ads will one day become extinct as
Internet users discover their drawbacks.
B. The pace of the Internet’s evolution is
increasing and will increase in the future.
C. Although banner and pop-up ads still exist,
they are far less prominent than during the
early days of the Internet.
D. Banner and pop-up ads will not face
drawbacks due to their different approach to
online marketing.
January 2021
 A major development in online marketing came 18. Which choice provides the best combination of
with the introduction of pay-per-click ads. [18] the underlined sentences?

Banner or pop-up ads required companies to pay
every time a website visitor saw an ad. Pay-per-click
ads allowed companies to pay only when an
interested customer clicked on an ad. More
importantly, however, these ads [19] dodged the pop-
up and banner blockers. As a result of these
advantages and the incredible growth in the use of
search engines, which provide excellent venues for
pay-per-click advertising, companies began turning
to pay-per-click marketing in droves. However, as
with the banner and pop-up ads that preceded them,
pay-per-click ads came with their drawbacks. When
companies began pouring billions of dollars into this
emerging medium, online advertising specialists [20]
have started to notice the presence of what would
later be called click fraud: representatives of a
company with no interest in the product advertised by
a competitor click on the competitor's ads simply to
increase the marketing cost of the competitor.
A. Unlike banner or pop-up ads, which
originally required companies to pay every
time a website visitor saw an ad, pay-per-
click ads allowed companies to pay only
when an interested potential customer
clicked on an ad.
B. Banner or pop-up ads required companies to
pay every time a website visitor saw an ad,
pay-per-click ads, however, allowed
companies to pay only when an interested
customer clicked on an ad.
C. Even though banner or pop-up ads required
companies to pay every time a website
visitor saw an ad, pay-per-click ads allowed
companies to pay only when an interested
customer clicked on an ad.
D. Banner or pop-up ads required companies to
pay every time a website visitor saw an ad
since pay-per-click ads allowed companies
to pay only when an interested customer
clicked on an ad.

19. Which word would be better suited for the

context?
A. NO CHANGE
B. escaped
C. circumvented
D. ditched
20.A. NO CHANGE
B. are starting
C. started
D. had started

8
January 2021
[21] Click fraud grew so rapidly that marketers 21.A. NO CHANGE
sought to diversify their online positions away from
pay-per-click marketing through new mediums.
Although pay-per-click advertising remains a
common and effective advertising tool, marketers
adapted yet again to the changing dynamics of the
Internet by adopting new techniques such as pay-per-
performance advertising, search engine optimization,
22. The writer wants to conclude the essay by giving
and affiliate marketing. [22]
B. Click fraud grew rapidly that marketers
sought to diversify
C. Click fraud grew so rapidly, that marketers
sought to diversify
D. Click fraud grew so rapidly, marketers
sought to diversify
attributes for future success in online
advertising. Which choice best accomplishes the
writer’s aim?
A. Discipline and patience are essential if
marketers want to succeed in their online
marketing strategies.
B. As the pace of the Internet's evolution
increases, it seems all the more likely that
advertising successfully on the Internet will
require a strategy that shuns constancy and
embraces change.
C. To be successful at online advertising,
marketers should follow a uniform approach
to their strategies.
D. With ruthless tenacity, online marketing
strategies can prove to be successful.

9
January 2021
Questions 23-33 are based on the following 23.A. NO CHANGE
passage. B. theirselves
Before the 1950s, music defined its own circles, C. themself
but, at best, only shaded the frame of popular D. himself
American culture. The birth of Rock and Roll forever
24.A. NO CHANGE
changed that as larger and larger numbers of youth
B. dull
came, not only to identify with the music they were
C. impersonal
listening to, but to identify [23] themselves by that
D. effective
music.
25.A. NO CHANGE
We use pop songs to create for ourselves a
B. Thus, music, like sports, is clearly a setting
particular sort of self-definition, a particular place in
in which people directly experience
society. The pleasure that a pop song produces is a
community, feel an immediate bond with
pleasure of identification; in responding to a song, we
other people, and articulate a collective
are drawn into [24] affective alliances with the
pride.
performers and with the performers' other fans.
C. Thus, music, like sports, is clearly a setting
[25] Thus, music like sports is clearly a setting in
in which people directly experience
which people directly experience community, feel an
community feel an immediate bond with
immediate bond with other people, and articulate a
other people and articulate a collective pride.
collective pride.
D. Thus, music like sports, is clearly a setting in
At the same time, because of its qualities of
which people directly experience
abstractness, pop music is an individualizing form.
community, feel an immediate bond with
Songs have a looseness of reference that makes them
other people, and articulate a collective
immediately accessible. [26] Their open to
pride.
appropriation for personal use in a way that other
popular cultural forms (television soap operas, for 26.A. NO CHANGE
example) are not—the latter are tied into meanings B. It is
which we may reject. C. They are
D. Its

10
January 2021
 This interplay between personal absorption into 27.A. NO CHANGE
music and the sense [27] that it is, nevertheless, B. that it is, nevertheless, something public, is
something public, is what makes music so important what makes music so important in the
in the cultural placing of the individual: music also cultural placing of the individual, music also
gives us a way of managing the relationship [28] gives us a way
among our public and private emotional lives. C. that it is, nevertheless, something public, is
Popular love songs are important because they give what makes music so important in the
shape and voice to emotions that otherwise cannot be cultural placing of the individual. Music also
expressed without embarrassment or incoherence. gives us a way
[29] Our culture has a supply of pop songs that say D. that it is, nevertheless, something public, is
these things for us in interesting and innovative ways. what makes music so important in the
cultural placing of the individual music also
Clearly one of the effects of all music, not just pop,
gives us a way
is to focus our attention on the feeling of time, and
intensify our experience of the present. One measure 28.A. NO CHANGE
of good music is its "presence," its ability to "stop" B. on
time, to make us feel we are living within a moment, C. for
with no memory or anxiety about what has come D. between
before us, or what will come after. We invest most in 29. Which choice would best support how love is
popular music when we are teenagers and young expressed in language according to the author?
adults—music ties into a particular kind of emotional A. Language expresses love with words of
[30] tranquillity when issues of individual identity affection and compliments.
and social place, and the control of public and private B. Our most revealing declarations of feeling
feelings, are at a premium. are often expressed in banal or boring
language.
C. Because of its social function, language
helps people express their innermost
feelings effectively.
D. Language unlike music best expresses
people’s emotional harmony.

11
January 2021
What this suggests, though, is not that young people 30. Which wording is most consistent with the
need music, but that "youth" itself is defined by meaning of the sentence?
music. Youth is experienced as an intense presence A. NO CHANGE
through an [31] impatiens for time to pass and a regret B. continuity
that it is doing so, in a series of speeding, physically C. mentality
insistent moments that have nostalgia coded into [32] D. turbulence
it. [33] 31.A. NO CHANGE
B. impatience
. C. impatients
D. impacience

32.A. NO CHANGE
B. them
C. itself
D. themself
33. Which of the following would be the most
effective conclusion to the essay?
A. Music is something we can possess and
make into our own as a means of locating
ourselves in the larger social environment.
B. Music gives us a way of managing the
relationship between our public and private
emotional lives.
C. The social functions of popular music are in
the creation of identity, the management of
feelings, and organization of time.
D. Music emphasizes the feeling of time
because it helps in the social organization of
youth.

12
January 2021
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage. 34.A. NO CHANGE
B. agreements with foreign investors which
Governments of developing countries occasionally
provide capital
enter into economic development [34] agreements with
C. agreements with foreign investors, who
foreign investors, which provide capital and
provide capital
technological expertise that may not be readily available
D. agreements with foreign investors who
in such countries. Besides the normal economic risk that
provide capital
accompanies such enterprises, investors face the
additional risk that the host government may attempt 35.A. NO CHANGE
unilaterally to change in its favor the terms of the B. all together
agreement or even to terminate the agreement [35] C. all together
altogether and appropriate the project for itself. In order D. together
to make economic development agreements more
36.A. NO CHANGE
attractive to investors, some developing countries have
B. the worlds’
attempted to strengthen the security of such agreements
C. world
with clauses specifying that the agreements will be
D. the world’s
governed by “general principles of law recognized by
37.A. NO CHANGE
civilized nations” a set of legal principles or rules shared
B. is retaining
by [36] the world major legal systems. However,
C. retaining
advocates of governments’ freedom to amend or repeal
D. retains
such agreements argue that these agreements fall within
a special class of contracts known as administrative 38. Which word choice best maintains the tone
contracts, a concept that originated in French law. They established in the paragraph?
assert that under the theory of administrative contracts, A. NO CHANGE
a government [37] retained inherent power to [38] B. soften or discontinue
change or finish its own contract, and that this power C. modify or terminate
indeed constitutes a general principle of law. However, D. vary and commence
their argument is flawed on at least two counts. 39.A. NO CHANGE
B. entering
C. entered
D. entrance

13
January 2021
 First, in French law, not all government contracts are 40.A. NO CHANGE
treated as administrative contracts. Some contracts are B. conjointly
designated as administrative by specific statute, in C. unilaterally
which case the contractor is made aware of the D. reciprocally
applicable legal rules upon [39] enter into agreement
41.A. NO CHANGE
with the government. Alternatively, the contracting
B. On effect,
government agency can itself designate a contract as
C. In affect,
administrative by including certain terms not found in
D. Affectively,
private civil contracts. Moreover, even in the case of
42.A. NO CHANGE
administrative contracts, French law requires that in the
B. those contractual terms, that define the
event that the government [40] only modifies the terms
financial balance of the contract.
of the contract, it must compensate the contractor for
C. those contractual terms that define the
any increased burden resulting from the government’s
financial balance of the contract.
action. [41] In effect, the government is thus prevented
D. those contractual terms, who define the
from modifying [42] those contractual terms, that
financial balance of the contract.
define, the financial balance of the contract.

14
January 2021
 [43] Second, the French law of administrative
contracts, although adopted by several countries, is not
so universally accepted that it can be embraced as a
general principle of law. In both the United States and
the United Kingdom, government contracts are
governed by the ordinary law of contracts, with the
result that the government can reserve the power to
modify or terminate a contract unilaterally only by
writing such power into the contract as a specific
provision. Indeed, the very fact that termination and
modification clauses are commonly found
government contracts suggests that a government’s
capacity to modify or terminate agreements unilaterally
derives from specific contract provisions, not from
inherent state power. [44] Contracts between
governments and private investors can be secured only
by reliance on general principles of law.
43.A. NO CHANGE
B. Second, although adopted by several
countries, people do not generally accept
that the French law of administrative
contracts can be embraced as a general
principle of law.
C. Second, it is not generally accepted that
the French law of administrative contracts
can be embraced by people adopted by
several countries as a general principle of
in law.
D. Second, although universally accepted,
several countries adopted the French law
of administrative contracts, but do not
embrace it as a general principle of law.
44. Which concluding sentence would be
consistent with the content of the passage as
a whole?
A. NO CHANGE
B. French law regarding contracts is
significantly different from those in the
United States and the United Kingdom.
C. Contracts between governments and
private investors in most nations are
governed by ordinary contract law.
D. An inherent power of a government to
modify or terminate a contract cannot be
considered a general principle of law.
15
January 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test II

Student’s Name _____________________________________

National ID _____________________________________
Test Center: _____________________________________

Duration: 65 minutes
52 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the multiple
choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
 The following passage is an excerpt
from The Wonderful Lamp in The
Arabian Nights edited by Kate Douglas
Wiggin and Nora A. Smith introducing
Aladdin’s story.
In the capital of one of the large and rich
provinces of the kingdom of China there
lived a tailor, named Mustapha, who
was so poor that he could hardly, by his
5 daily labour, maintain himself and his
family, which consisted of a wife and
son.
His son, who was called Aladdin, had
been brought up in a very careless and
10 idle manner, and by that means had
contracted many vicious habits. He was
obstinate and disobedient to his father
and mother, who, when he grew up,
could not keep him within doors. He
15 was in the habit of going out early in the
morning and would stay out all day,
playing in the streets with idle children
of his own age.
When he was old enough to learn a
20 trade, his father, not being able to put
him out to any other, took him into his
own shop and taught him how to use his
needle: but neither fair words nor the
fear of chastisement were capable of
25 fixing his lively genius. All his father's
endeavours to keep him to his work
were in vain; for no sooner was his back
turned than he was gone for that day.
Mustapha chastised him, but Aladdin
30 was incorrigible, and his father, to his
great grief, was forced to abandon him
to his idleness and was so much
troubled at not being able to reclaim
him, that it threw him into a fit of
35 sickness, of which he died in a few
months.
The mother, finding that her son would
not follow his father's business, shut up
the shop, sold off the implements of
40 trade, and with the money she received
for them, and what she could get by
spinning cotton, thought to maintain
herself and her son.
2
Aladdin, who was now no longer
45 restrained by the fear of a father, and
who cared so little for his mother that
whenever she chid him he would abuse
her, gave himself entirely over to his
idle habits and was never out of the
50 streets from his companions. This
course he followed till he was fifteen
years old without giving his mind to any
useful pursuit or the least reflection on
what would become of him. In this
55 situation, as he was one day playing
with his vagabond associates, a stranger
passing by stood to observe him.
This stranger was a sorcerer called the
African magician as he was a native of
60 Africa, and had been but two days
arrived from thence.
The African magician, who was a good
physiognomist, observing in Aladdin's
countenance something absolutely
65 necessary for the execution of the
design he was engaged in, inquired
artfully about his family, who he was,
and what were his inclinations; and
when he had learned all he desired to
70 know, went up to him, and taking him
aside from his comrades, said: "Child,
was not your father called Mustapha, the
tailor?" "Yes, sir," answered the boy;
"but he has been dead a long time."
75 At these words, the African magician
threw his arms about Aladdin's neck,
and kissed him several times with tears
in his eyes. Aladdin, who observed his
tears, asked him what made him weep.
80 "Alas! my son," cried the African
magician with a sigh, "how can I
forbear? I am your uncle; your worthy
father was my own brother. I have been
many years abroad and now I am come
85 home with the hopes of seeing him; you
tell me he is dead. But it is some relief
to my affliction that I knew you at first
sight; you are so like him." Then he
asked Aladdin, putting his hand into his
90 purse, where his mother lived, and as
soon as he had informed him, gave him
a handful of small money, saying: "Go,
January 2021
 my son, to your mother; give my love to 3. It can be inferred from the
her and tell her that I will visit her to- passage that the reason for
95 morrow that I may have the satisfaction Aladdin’s misbehavior is due to
of seeing where my good brother lived A. his environment.
so long." B. his upbringing.
As soon as the African magician left his C. innate behavior.
newly-adopted nephew, Aladdin ran to D. being an only child.
100 his mother, overjoyed at the money his 4. Which choice best provides
uncle had given him. "Mother," said he, evidence for the answer to the
"have I an uncle?" "No, child," replied previous question?
his mother, "you have no uncle by your
father's side, or mine." "I am just now A. Lines 1-7 (“In … son.”)
105 come," said Aladdin, "from a man who B. Lines 8-11 (“His … habits.”)
says he is my uncle on my father's side. C. Lines 14-18 (“He … age.”)
He cried and kissed me when I told him D. Lines 25-27 (“All … vain;”)
my father was dead; and to show you 5. The language of the passage most
that what I tell you is truth," added he, resembles the language of a(n)
110 pulling out the money, "see what he has
given me? He charged me to give his A. fairy tale.
love to you and to tell you that to- B. science fiction novel.
morrow he will come and pay you a C. sermon.
visit, that he may see the house my D. epic.
115 father lived and died in." "Indeed, 6. It can most reasonably be inferred
child," replied the mother, "your father from the passage that the stranger
had a brother, but he has been dead a mentioned in line 58 is
long time, and I never heard of another."
A. seeking his long lost brother.
1. The primary purpose of the B. manipulating events for
passage is to selfish purposes.
A. scold young boys for C. coming to the capital for a
misbehaving. magic show.
B. stress the importance of D. looking to help orphans in
avoiding strangers. need.
C. set the scene for the rest of the 7. Which choice best provides
story. evidence for the answer to the
D. introduce the climax of the previous question?
story.
A. Lines 58-61 (“This …
2. As used in line 11, “contracted” thence.”)
most nearly means B. Lines 62-68 (“The
A. decreased. …inclinations;”)
B. shortened. C. Lines 83-86 (“I … dead.”)
C. developed. D. Lines 88-92 (“Then …
D. puckered. saying:”)

3
January 2021
8. As used in line 66, “design” most
nearly means
A. outline.
B. sketch.
C. pattern.
D. plan.
9. In the passage, the stranger is
most specifically portrayed as
A. generous.
B. prudent.
C. kind.
D. observant.
10. According to the last paragraph,
Aladdin’s eagerness to believe
the stranger may be due to
A. his ego.
B. the money given to him.
C. his quick-witted personality.
D. his need for a paternal role
model.

4
January 2021
 The following edited passage is taken
from Popular Law-Making by Frederic
Jesup Stimson on Early English
Legislation and the Magna Carta.
Parliament began avowedly to make new
laws in the thirteenth century; but the
number of such laws concerning private
relations—private civil law—remained,
5 for centuries, small. You could digest
them all into a book of thirty or forty
pages. And even to Charles the First all
the statutes of the realm fill but five
volumes. The legislation under Cromwell
10 was all repealed; but the bulk, both under
him and after, was far greater. For
legislation seems to be considered a
democratic idea; "judge-made law" to be
thought aristocratic. And so in our
15 republic; especially as, during the
Revolution, the sole power was vested in
our legislative bodies, and we tried to
cover a still wider field, with democratic
legislatures dominated by radicals. Thus
20 at first the American people got the
notion of law-making; of the making of
new law, by legislatures, frequently
elected; and in that most radical period of
all, from about 1830 to 1860, the time of
25 "isms" and reforms—full of people who
wanted to legislate and make the world
good by law, with a chance to work in
thirty different States—the result has
been that the bulk of legislation in this
30 country, in the first half of the last
century, is probably one thousandfold the
entire law-making of England for the five
centuries preceding. And we have by no
means got over it yet; probably the output
35 of legislation in this country to-day is as
great as it ever was. If any citizen thinks
that anything is wrong, he, or she (as it is
almost more likely to be), rushes to some
legislature to get a new law passed.
40 Absolutely different is this idea from the
old English notion of law as something
already existing. They have forgotten that
completely, and have the modern
American notion of law, as a ready-made
45 thing, a thing made to-day to meet the
emergency of to-morrow. They have
gotten over the notion that any
5
parliament, or legislature, or sovereign,
should only sign the law—and I say sign
50 advisedly because he doesn't enact it,
doesn't create it, but signs a written
statement of law already existing; all idea
that it should be justified by custom,
experiment, has been forgotten. And here
55 is the need and the value of this our
study; for the changes that are being
made by new legislation in this country
are probably more important to-day than
anything that is being done by the
60 executive or the judiciary—the other two
departments of the government.
But before coming down to our great
mass of legislation here it will be wise to
consider the early English legislation,
65 especially that part which is alive to-day,
or which might be alive to-day. I
mentioned one moment ago thirty pages
as possibly containing the bulk of it. I
once attempted to make an abstract of
70 such legislation in early England as is
significant to us to-day in this country;
not the merely political legislation, for
ours is a sociological study. We are
concerned with those statutes which
75 affect private citizens, individual rights,
men and women in their lives and
businesses; not matters of state, of the
king and the commons, or the constitution
of government. Except incidentally, we
80 shall not go into executive or political
questions, but the sociological—I wish
there were some simpler word for it—let
us say, the human legislation; legislation
that concerns not the government, the
85 king, or the state, but each man in his
relations to every other; that deals with
property, marriage, divorce, private
rights, labor, the corporations,
combinations, trusts, taxation, rates,
90 police power, and the other great
questions of the day, and indeed of all
time.
And Parliament did not begin by being a
law-making body. Its legislative functions
95 were not very active, as they were
confined to declaring what the law was;
more important were its executive and
January 2021
 judicial functions. In modern English
government, particularly in our own, one
100 of the basic principles is that of the three
departments, executive, legislative, and
judicial; the Norman or Roman theory
rather reposed all power in one; that is, in
the sovereign, commonly, of course, the
105 king, the others being theoretically his
advisers or servants. In England, to-day,
the real sovereign is the Parliament; the
merest shadow of sovereignty is left to
the executive, the king, and none
110 whatever given the judicial branch. In this
country we preserve the three branches
distinct, though none, not all three
together, are sovereign; it is the people
who are that.
11. The main idea of the passage is
A. to define legislation and its
characteristics.
B. the detrimental attributes of
early legislation.
C. the difference between
American legislation and
English legislation.
D. the connection between the
origin of legislation and its
transformation in modern law.
12. As used in line 50, “enact” most
nearly means
A. present.
B. act.
C. perform.
D. pass.
13. The author appeals to the reader by
using
A. inclusive language.
B. metaphors.
C. scientific evidence.
D. italicized terms.
6
14. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 14-19 (“And …
radicals.”)
B. Lines 23-25 (“and …
reforms—")
C. Lines 46-52 (“They …
existing;”)
D. Lines 81-92 (“I … time.”)
15. The author states all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Many early legislations
remained in public law.
B. Legislation was ideally about
reforms that would make the
world better.
C. Before the 13th century
English government consisted
of the king, executive
parliament, and the judicial
department.
D. In modern England, the king
is merely a shadow of
sovereignty.
16. According to the passage, how was
legislation viewed in the early
centuries?
A. It was welcomed by the
monarchy ruling at the time.
B. Legislation was an essential
factor to the aristocratic class.
C. It was frowned upon because
of its self-governing
characteristics.
D. It hindered the formation of
modern laws in America.
17. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 1-2 (“Parliament …
century;”)
B. Lines 11-14 (“For …
aristocratic.”)
C. Lines 19-23 (“Thus …
elected;”)
D. Lines 42-46 (“They … to-
morrow.”)
January 2021
18. The passage is most likely written
for
A. experienced historians
conducting research.
B. high school students studying
social studies.
C. someone searching for basic
information on the magna
carta.
D. someone preparing a
presentation to their local
community on past English
laws.
19. As used in line 103, “reposed”
most nearly means
A. lied.
B. rested.
C. placed.
D. reclined.
20. The graphic serves to
A. contradict the objective of
legislation mentioned in the
passage.
B. impose a subjective opinion of
legislation and its effects.
C. create a timeline that supports
the passage.
D. add new information to build
on the key ideas in the
passage.

Magna Carta
Source: Unknown

7
January 2021
 Passage 1, The Minds and Manners of
Wild Animals: A Book of Personal
Observation by Hornaday, discusses his
methodology used to understand an ape’s
mind. Passage 2, taken from Anecdotes
of the Habit and Instinct of Animals by
Mrs. R. Lee, discusses her close personal
examination of monkeys.
Passage 1
In the study of animal minds, much
depends upon the method employed. It
seems to me that the problem-box method
of the investigators of "animal behavior"
5 leaves much to be desired. Certainly it is
not calculated to develop the mental
status of animals along lines of natural
mental progression. To place a wild
creature in a great artificial contrivance,
10 fitted with doors, cords, levers, passages
and what not, is enough to daze or
frighten any timid animal out of its
normal state of mind and nerves. To put a
wild sapajou monkey,— weak, timid and
15 afraid,—in a strange and formidable
prison box filled with strange machinery,
and call upon it to learn or to invent
strange mechanical processes, is like
bringing a boy of ten years up to a four-
20 cylinder duplex Hoe printing-and-folding
press, and saying to him: "Now, go ahead
and find out how to run this machine, and
print both sides of a signature upon it."
The average boy would shrink from the
25 mechanical monster, and have no
stomach whatever for "trial by error."
I think that the principle of determining
the mind of a wild animal along the lines
of the professor is not the best way. It
30 should be developed along the natural
lines of the wild-animal mind. It should
be stimulated to do what it feels most
inclined to do, and educated to achieve
real mental progress.
35 I think that the ideal way to study the
minds of apes, baboons and monkeys
would be to choose a good location in a
tropical or sub- tropical climate that is
neither too wet nor too dry, enclose an
40 area of five acres with an unclimbable
8
fence, and divide it into as many corrals
as there are species to be experimented
upon. Each corral would need a shelter
house and indoor playroom. The stage
45 properties should be varied and abundant,
and designed to stimulate curiosity as
well as activity.
Somewhere in the program I would try to
teach orang-utans and chimpanzees the
50 properties of fire, and how to make and
tend fires. I would try to teach them the
seed-planting idea, and the meaning of
seedtime and harvest. I would teach
sanitation and cleanliness of habit,—a
55 thing much more easily done than most
persons suppose. I would teach my apes
to wash dishes and to cook, and I am sure
that some of them would do no worse
than some human members of the
60 profession who now receive $50 per
month, or more, for spoiling food.
In one corral I would mix up a
chimpanzee, an orang-utan, a golden
baboon and a good-tempered rhesus
65 monkey. My apes would begin at two
years old, because after seven or eight
years of age all apes are difficult, or even
impossible, as subjects for peaceful
experimentation.
70 I would try to teach a chimpanzee the
difference between a noise and music,
between heat and cold, between good
food and bad food.
Passage 2
That monkeys enjoy movement, that they
75 delight in pilfering, in outwitting each
other and their higher brethren—men;
that they glory in tearing and destroying
the works of art by which they are
surrounded in a domestic state; that they
80 lay the most artful plans to affect their
purposes, is all perfectly true; but the
terms mirthful and merry, seem to me to
be totally misapplied, in reference to their
feelings and actions; for they do all in
85 solemnity and seriousness. Do you stand
under a tree, whose thick foliage
completely screens you from the sun, and
you hope to enjoy perfect shade and
January 2021
 repose; a slight rustling proves that 21. Why does the author repeat
90 companions are near; presently a broken “strange” several times in lines 13-
twig drops upon you, then another, you 18?
raise your eyes, and find that hundreds of A. He does so because only
other eyes are staring at you. In another “strange” can express the
minute you see the grotesque faces to
author’s opinion.
95 which those eyes belong, making B. It is to support the problem-
grimaces, as you suppose, but it is no box method.
such thing, they are solemnly C. It is used to contradict the
contemplating the intruder; they are not previous statement on animal
pelting him in play, it is their business to
mental health.
100 drive him from their domain. Raise your D. It is used to emphasize how
arm, the boughs shake, the chattering unnatural the proposed
begins, and the sooner you decamp; the situation is.
more you will shew your discretion.
22. It can most reasonably be inferred
Watch the ape or monkey with which you
from Passage 1 that it is preferred
105 come into closer contact; does he pick up that an animal is studied in a mock
a blade of grass, he will examine it with natural habitat because
as much attention as if he were
determining the value of a precious stone. A. they should be kept in the wild
Do you put food before him, he tucks it to preserve their rights.
110 into his mouth as fast as possible, and B. it is the only way to study
when his cheek pouches are so full that animal behavior patterns.
they cannot hold any more, he looks at C. animal behavior is more likely
you as if he seriously asked your approval to reflect their innate state of
of his laying up stores for the future. If he being.
115 destroy the most valuable piece of glass D. it is far from a prison-like
or china in your possession, he does not structure.
look as if he enjoyed the mischief, but 23. Which choice best provides
either puts on an impudent air, as much as evidence for the answer to the
to say, "I don't care," or calmly tries to let previous question?
120 you know he thought it his duty to
destroy your property. Savage, violent A. Lines 13-23 (“To … it.”)
and noisy are they when irritated or B. Lines 24-26 (“The …error.”)
disappointed, and long do they retain the C. Lines 29-34 (“It … progress.”)
recollection of an affront. I once annoyed D. Lines 35-43 (“I … upon.”)
125 a monkey in the collection of the Jardin 24. In Passage 1, the author most
des Plantes, in Paris, by preventing him likely uses an analogy in lines 13-
from purloining the food of one of his 26 in order to
companions; in doing which I gave him a
knock upon his paws. It was lucky that A. draw similarities between a
130 strong wires were between us, or he human boy and a wild
would probably have hurt me severely in monkey.
his rage. B. bring to light the author’s idea
in another perspective that
appeals to the reader.
C. show how equally weak
humans and animals are.
D. expose the complexity of
modern machinery.

9
January 2021
25. It can most reasonably be inferred 30. One difference between the
from Passage 2 that the author uses information described in both
passages is that, unlike the author
A. a narrative style to relay
of Passage 2, Hornaday focuses on
observation.
B. statistical evidence to support A. experimental teaching rather
her data. than observation.
C. subjective evaluation of B. statistics rather than behavior.
former information. C. objective criticism rather than
D. objective analysis of a subjective evaluation.
monkey’s behavior. D. mindful behavior rather than
26. Which choice best provides instinct.
evidence for the answer to the 31. As used in line 76, “higher” most
previous question? nearly means
A. Lines 74-76 (“That … men;”) A. elevated.
B. Lines 85-93 (“Do … you.”) B. unreasonable.
C. Lines 104-105 (“Watch … C. evolved.
contact;”) D. grand.
D. Lines 121-124 (“Savage …
affront.”)

27. As used in line 26, “stomach” most

nearly means
A. taste.
B. tummy.
C. insides.
D. desire.
28. In Passage 1, the author’s
perception of animals can best be
described as
A. sheer astonishment.
B. patient understanding.
C. silent awe.
D. persistent disgust.
29. The author of Passage 1 and the
author of Passage 2 share which
view point?
A. Animals should be observed
in their natural habitat.
B. Apes are aggressive when
confronted.
C. Apes are one of the few
animals who can be taught
right from wrong.
D. Most animals need to be
confined in order to be
observed.

10
January 2021
 The following edited passage is taken
from The Lives of the Poets of Great
Britain and Ireland by Theophilus Cibber
on the poetess, Ms. Manley, and her
father Sir Roger Manley.
The celebrated authoress of the Atalantis,
was born in Hampshire, in one of those
islands which formerly belonged to
France, of which her father Sir Roger
5 Manley was governor; who afterwards
enjoyed the same post in other places in
England. He was the second son of an
ancient family; the better part of his estate
was ruined in the civil war by his firm
10 adherence to Charles I. He had not the
satisfaction of ever being taken notice of,
nor was his loyalty acknowledged at the
restoration. The governor was a brave
gallant man, of great honour and
15 integrity.
He became a scholar in the midst of the
camp, having left the university at the age
of sixteen, to follow the fortunes of
Charles I. His temper had too much of the
20 Stoic in it to attend much to the interest of
his family. After a life spent in the civil
and foreign wars, he began to love ease
and retirement, devoting himself to his
study, and the charge of his little post,
25 without following the court; his great
virtue and modesty, debarring him from
soliciting favours from such persons as
were then at the helm of affairs, his
deserts were buried, and forgotten. In this
30 solitude he wrote several tracts for his
own amusement. One Dr. Midgley, an
ingenious physician, related to the family
by marriage, had the charge of looking
over his papers. Amongst them he found
35 that manuscript, which he reserved to his
proper use, and by his own pen, and the
assistance of some others, continued the
work till the eighth volume was finished,
without having the honesty to
40 acknowledge the author of the first.
The governor likewise wrote the History
of the Rebellion in England, Scotland and
Ireland; wherein the most material
passages, battles, sieges, policies, and
11
45 stratagems of war, are impartially related
on both sides.
His daughter, our authoress, received an
education suitable to her birth, and gave
very early discoveries of a genius, not
50 only above her years, but much superior
to what is usually to be found amongst
her own sex. She had the misfortune to
lose her mother, while she was yet an
infant, a circumstance, which laid the
55 foundation of many calamities, which
afterwards befell her.
The brother of Sir Roger Manley, who
was of principles very opposite to his,
joined with the Parliamentarian party; and
60 after Charles I had suffered, he engaged
with great zeal in the cause of those who
were for settling a new form of
government, in which, however, they
were disappointed by the address of
65 Cromwell. During these heats and
divisions, Mr. Manley, who adhered to
the most powerful party, was fortunate
enough to amass an estate, and purchased
a title; but these, upon the restoration,
70 reverted back to the former possessor; so
that he was left with several small
children unprovided for. The eldest of
these orphans, Sir Roger Manley took
under his protection, bestowed a very
75 liberal education on him, and
endeavoured to inspire his mind with
other principles, than those he had
received from his father. This young
gentleman had very promising parts, but
80 under the appearance of an open
simplicity, he concealed the most
treacherous hypocrisy. Sir Roger, who
had a high opinion of his nephew's
honour, as well as of his great abilities,
85 on his death-bed bequeathed to him the
care of our authoress, and her youngest
sister.
This man had from nature a very happy
address, formed to win much upon the
90 hearts of unexperienced girls; and his two
cousins respected him greatly. He placed
them at the house of an old, out-of-
fashion aunt; she was full of the heroic
stiffness of her own times, and would
January 2021
 95 read books of Chivalry, and Romances
with her spectacles.
This sort of conversation, much infected
the mind of our poetess, and filled her
imagination with lovers, heroes, and
100 princes; made her think herself in an
enchanted region, and that all the men
who approached her were knights errant.
In a few years the old aunt died, and left
the two young ladies without any control;
105 which as soon as their cousin Mr. Manley
heard, he hasted into the country, to visit
them; appeared in deep mourning, as he
said for the death of his wife.
32. The main idea of this passage is
A. introducing the different facets
of Sir Roger Manley’s life and
its influences.
B. evaluating Ms. Manley’s
upbringing as a future poet.
C. discussing gender roles in pre-
modern Britain.
D. emphasizing the importance of
wealth for one’s education.
33. As used in line 24, “charge” most
nearly means
A. fee.
B. responsibility.
C. accusation.
D. onslaught.
34. Sir Roger Manley’s work was
plagiarized by which of the
following persons?
A. Charles I
B. Dr. Midgley
C. his daughter
D. his nephew
35. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 16-19 (“He … Charles
I.”)
B. Lines 34-40 (“Amongst …
first.”)
C. Lines 52-56 (“She … her.”)
D. Lines 78-82 (“This …
hypocrisy.”)
12
36. In lines 47-48, the author mentions
that Ms. Manley “received an
education suitable to her birth”
meaning
A. her education reflected her
father’s higher standing in
society.
B. her education reflected the
limitations set upon women of
her time.
C. her education was minimal
and only given to her at a
young age.
D. her education surpassed her
peers in most subjects.
37. According to his actions, Sir Roger
Manley’s character can best be
described as
A. complacent and willing.
B. unrelenting and
confrontational.
C. cold and withdrawn.
D. nourishing and supportive.
38. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 10-13 (“He …
restoration.”)
B. Lines 16-19 (“He … Charles
I.”)
C. Lines 72-78 (“The … father.”)
D. Lines 88-90 (“This … girls;”)
39. As used in line 69, “title” most
nearly means
A. publication.
B. property.
C. label.
D. profession of.
January 2021
40. How does the last paragraph relate
to the rest of the passage?
A. It gives further evidence of the
influences in Ms. Manley’s
upbringing.
B. It contrasts Mr. Manley’s
character to his uncle’s.
C. It focuses solely on Ms.
Manley’s aunt in comparison
to Sir Roger Manley.
D. It negates the previous
paragraphs on Sir Roger
Manley’s honor,
41. Which of the following was NOT
mentioned in the passage?
A. Sir Roger Manley spent his
past time writing.
B. Sir Roger Manley’s daughter
exceeded her peers in
education.
C. Sir Roger Manley’s daughter
was greatly affected by her
aunt’s taste in her early age.
D. Mr. Manley mourned the loss
of his uncle and honored his
death.
42. The author’s tone throughout the
passage is one of
A. suspicion.
B. indifference.
C. pride.
D. objectivity.

13
January 2021
 The following edited passage is taken without any apparent immersion. In the
from The Chemistry, Properties and first case, the stones will be much
Tests of Precious Stones by Jon Mastin heavier than 3.2981; in the second, the
on the specific gravity of stones. stones will be about 3.50; in the third
50 and fourth instances, the stones will be
The fixing of the specific gravity of a
about the same specific gravity as the
stone also determines its group position
liquid, whilst in the fifth, they will be
with regard to weight; its colour and
much lighter, and thus a rough but
other characteristics defining the actual
tolerably accurate isolation may be
5 stone. This is a safe and very common
55 made.
method of proving a stone, since its
specific gravity does not vary more than On certain stones being extracted and
a point or so in different specimens of placed in other liquids of lighter or
the same stone. There are several ways denser specific gravity, as the case may
10 of arriving at this, such as by weighing be, their proper classification may easily
in balances in the usual manner, by 60 be arrived at, and if the results are
displacement, and by immersion in checked by actual weight, in a specific
liquids the specific gravity of which are gravity balance, they will be found to be
known. fairly accurate. The solution commonly
used for the heaviest stones is a mixture
15 Cork is of less specific gravity than
65 of nitrate of thallium and nitrate of
water, therefore it floats on the surface
silver. This double nitrate has a specific
of that liquid, whereas iron, being
gravity of 4.7963, therefore such a stone
heavier, sinks. So that by changing the
as zircon, which is the heaviest known,
liquid to one lighter than cork, the cork
will float in it. For use, the mixture
20 will sink in it as does iron in water; in
70 should be slightly warmed till it runs
the second instance, if we change the
thin and clear; this is necessary, because
liquid to one heavier than iron, the iron
at 60° (taking this as ordinary
will float on it as does cork on water,
atmospheric temperature) it is a stiff
and exactly as an ordinary flat-iron will
mass. A lighter liquid is a mixture of
25 float on quicksilver, bobbing up and
75 iodide of mercury in iodide of
down like a cork in a tumbler of water.
potassium, but this is such an extremely
If, therefore, solutions of known but
corrosive and dangerous mixture, that
varying densities are compounded, it is
the more common solution is one in
possible to tell almost to exactitude the
which methylene iodide is saturated
30 specific gravity of any stone dropped
80 with a mixture of iodoform until it
into them, by the position they assume.
shows a specific gravity of 3.601; and
Thus, if we take a solution of pure
by using the methylene iodide alone, in
methylene iodide, which has a specific
its pure state, it having a specific gravity
gravity of 3.2981, and into this drop a
of 3.2981, the stones to that weight can
35 few stones selected indiscriminately, the
85 be isolated, and by diluting this with
effect will be curious: first, some will
benzole, its weight can be brought down
sink plump to the bottom like lead;
to that of the benzole itself, as in the
second, some will fall so far quickly,
case of Sonstadt's solution. This
then remain for a considerable time
solution, in full standard strength, has a
40 fairly stationary; third, some will sink
90 specific gravity of 3.1789, but may be
very slowly; fourth, some will be
weakened by the addition of distilled
partially immersed, that is, a portion of
water in varying proportions till the
their substance being above the surface
of the liquid and a portion covered by it; weight becomes almost that of water.
45 fifth, some will float on the surface

14
January 2021
 This is especially appreciated when it is 44. The passage is mostly likely
95 remembered that so far science has been written for an audience that
unable (except in very rare instances of A. solely wants the basic
no importance) to manufacture any approach of calculating
stone of the same colour as the genuine specific gravity.
and at the same time of the same B. has years of professional
100 specific gravity. Either the colour and
experience in measuring
characteristics suffer in obtaining the specific gravity for liquids
required weight or density, or if the and stones.
colour and other properties of an C. seeks methods of defining
artificial stone are made closely to specific gravity of stones.
105 resemble the real, then the specific D. understands the definition of
gravity is so greatly different, either specific gravity.
more or less, as at once to stamp the
jewel as false. 45. As used in line 56, “extracted”
most nearly means
A. derived.
B. removed.
C. evolved.
D. obtained.
46. According to the second
paragraph, if a stone is dropped
into a defined liquid gravity and
it submerges bit by bit, then it can
be assumed that
A. the stone has a higher
specific gravity than the
Measuring Specific Gravity
liquid’s.
Source: Unknown B. the stone has nearly the same
43. The main idea of the passage is specific gravity as the
liquid’s.
A. to provide evidence for C. the liquid’s specific gravity
methods of acquiring the is moderately lower than the
specific gravity of a stone in stone’s.
a liquid. D. the liquid’s specific gravity
B. to assess the colour and other is significantly higher than
attributes of a stone to define the stone’s.
it.
C. a cork’s relation to water and 47. The graphic illustrates the main
its specific gravity. idea of which paragraph?
D. to discuss the effect of A. first paragraph
temperature on specific B. second paragraph
gravity. C. third paragraph
D. fourth paragraph

15
January 2021
48. Which of the following is NOT 52. Which choice best provides
mentioned in the passage? evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Corks have a lower specific
gravity than water. A. Lines 56-63 (“On …
B. Depending on the stone’s accurate.”)
specific gravity in relation to B. Lines 66-69 (“This … it.”)
the liquid’s, the stone either C. Lines 74-82 (“A … 3.601;”)
submerges at different rates D. Lines 88-93 (“This …
or stays afloat. water.”)
C. Colour may be compromised
when a stone is being
manufactured.
D. Using liquids to calculate a
stone’s specific gravity is
unreliable.

49. Which choice best provides

evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 18-20 (“So … water;”)
B. Lines 32-36 (“Thus …
curious:”)
C. Lines 56-63 (“On …
accurate.”)
D. Lines 94-100 (“This …
gravity.”)
50. As used in line 101, “suffer” most
nearly means
A. hurt.
B. are affected by.
C. experience.
D. permit.
51. It can most reasonably be inferred
that the use of a dense liquid
A. will weigh down the stones
when weakened.
B. is a dangerous mixture and
less common.
C. gives the most accurate
results.
D. allows for the heaviest stones
to be tested.

16
January 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test I
Answer Key
(Writing Section)
1. B 23. A
2. D 24. A
3. A 25. B
4. C 26. C
5. A 27. C
6. D 28. D
7. D 29. B
8. C 30. D
9. C 31. B
10. B 32. B
11. D 33. C
12. B 34. D
13. C 35. A
14. D 36. D
15. C 37. D
16. B 38. C
17. C 39. B
18. A 40. C
19. C 41. A
20. C 42. C
21. A 43. A
22. B 44. D

1
January 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test II
Answer Key
(Reading Section)

Passage 1 Passage 4
1. C 32. a
2. C 33. b
3. B 34. b
4. B 35. b
5. A 36. a
6. B 37. D
7. B 38. C
8. D 39. B
9. B 40. A
10. B 41. D
42. D
Passage 2
11. D Passage 5
12. D 43. A
13. A 44. C
14. D 45. B
15. C 46. B
16. B 47. A
17. B 48. D
18. A 49. C
19. C 50. B
20. D 51. D
52. B
Passage 3
21. D
22. C
23. C
24. B
25. A
26. B
27. D
28. B
29. A
30. A
31. C

1
January 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test I

_____________________________________
Student’s Name
_____________________________________
National ID
_____________________________________
Test Center:

Duration: 35 minutes
44 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the
multiple choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
 Directions: Read each passage and answer the questions. First skim through the passage to gain the general idea
of topic, style, tone, and structure. Then, re-read the passage a second time, closely, and answer the questions
found next to the passage as you read. Some questions ask you how the passage might be changed to improve the
expression of ideas. Other questions ask you how the passage might be altered to correct errors in grammar,
usage, and punctuation. One or more graphics accompany some passages. You will be required to consider these
graphics as you answer questions about editing the passages.
There are three types of questions. In the first type, a part of the passage is underlined. The second type is
based on a certain part of the passage. The third type is based on the entire passage.
Read each passage. Then, choose the answer so that it is consistent with the conventions of standard written
English. One of the answer choices for many questions is “NO CHANGE.” Choosing this answer means that you
believe the best answer is to make no change in the passage.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

Corruption is a phenomenon involving many 1.A. NO CHANGE

different aspects, and it is therefore hard to give a B. unintelligible
precise and [1] comprehensible definition. C. comprehensive
However, at the core of most definitions of D. comprehendible
corruption is the idea that a corrupt act implies the
2. Which choice is the best revision for the
abuse of entrusted power for private gain. Classic
sentence?
examples include bribery, clientelism, and [2]
A. NO CHANGE
the act of embezzlement. Other, often subtler and
B. embezzlement
sometimes even legal examples of corruption
C. to embezzle
include lobbying and patronage. While long-run
D. the action of embezzling
data on corruption is very limited, historical
3.A. NO CHANGE
examples suggest that corruption has been a
B. make
persistent feature of human societies over time
C. is making
and space.
D. to make
The unethical and often illegal nature of
corruption [3] makes measurement particularly
complicated. Corruption data usually comes from
either direct observation (e.g. law enforcement
records and audit reports), or perception surveys
(e.g. public opinion surveys, or expert
assessments).

2
March 2021
Although precise corruption measurement is 4.A. NO CHANGE
difficult, there is a clear correlation B. and to contribute to the development
between perception and behavior; so available of effective policies.
corruption data does provide valuable C. in contributing to the development
information that, when interpreted carefully, can of effective policies.
both tell us something important about our world D. as well as contribute to the
[4] to contribute to the development of effective development of effective policies.
policies.
5.A. NO CHANGE
For example, the data from perception surveys
B. disagrees
suggests that corruption [5] contrasts with human
C. correlates
development, and a number of studies exploiting
D. matches
rich data from law enforcement records have
shown that education is an important element
explaining this relationship. Specifically, the data
provides support for the idea that voters with
more education tend to be more willing and able
to monitor public employees and to take action
when these employees violate the law.

3
March 2021
The Global Corruption Barometer produced by
Transparency International asks individuals
across countries whether they perceive specific
institutions to be corrupt. The chart presents, by
institution, the global aggregate figures. The
numbers correspond to the percentage of survey
respondents who think that “Most” or “All” of
each institution is corrupt in their home country.
[6] The estimates in the graph show that in
Lebanon, for example, people perceive domestic
police forces and the legislature to be particularly
corrupt.
4
6. Which choice gives the most accurate
interpretation of the data in the graph?
A. NO CHANGE
B. The estimates in the graph show that
in Lebanon, for example, people
perceive business executives and the
legislature to be particularly corrupt.
C. The estimates in the graph show that
in Lebanon, for example, people
perceive government officials, police
forces and the legislature to be
particularly corrupt.
D. The estimates in the graph show that
in Lebanon, for example, people
perceive judges and magistrates and
the legislature to be particularly
corrupt.
March 2021
One of the most widely accepted mechanisms of 7.A. NO CHANGE
controlling corruption is ensuring that those B. to report
entrusted with power are held responsible [7] for C. in reporting
reporting their activities. This is the idea behind D. to reporting
so-called ‘accountability’ measures against 8.A. NO CHANGE
corruption. B. causality
C. causally
In a recent paper, Ferraz and Finan (2011) show
D. causing
that electoral accountability [8] casually affects
the corruption practices of incumbent politicians 9.A. NO CHANGE

in Brazil. [9] In municipalities where mayors can B. In municipalities, where mayors can

run for re-election there is significantly less run for re-election,

corruption, and the positive [10] affect of C. In municipalities where mayors can

accountability via re-election is more pronounced run for re-election,

among municipalities with less access to D. In municipalities, where mayors can

information and where the likelihood of judicial run for re-election

punishment is lower. 10.A. NO CHANGE

B. effect
C. effective
D. affection

11. Which choice gives an accurate

interpretation of the data in the graph?
A. As the accountability measures
increase, the rate of bribery increases.
B. People are less likely to pay bribes in
countries where there are stronger
institutions to support accountability.
C. The likelihood of bribery decreases
when the rate of accountability is
low.
D. People are more likely to pay bribes
in countries where there are stronger
institutions to support accountability.

5
March 2021
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.

The End of Advertising as We Know It 12.A. NO CHANGE

Everybody is well aware that the advertising
game has undergone some pretty radical changes.
That’s just the beginning according to IBM,
which is predicting that the next five years will
bring more change for the advertising industry
than we [12] have seen during the previous 50
years.
That’s the conclusion of an IBM Institute for
Business Value report titled―“The end of
advertising as we know it.” It invites us to
imagine a bold new [13] frontier in advertising, a
marketing environment where:
1. Spending on interactive, one-to-one
advertising formats surpasses traditional, one-to-
many advertising vehicles that we’ve used for
decades in the form of newspaper, radio stations
and TV networks. 2. A significant share of ad
space is sold through auctions and exchanges,
rather than proprietary channels. 3. Consumers
self-select ads, choosing to receive only those
messages about products and services that
interest them. They then share preferred ads with
their peers. 4. User-generated [15] advertising
that is as prevalent as spots created by
professional advertising agencies.
B. were seeing
C. saw
D. will see
13. Which word would be better suited for
the context?
A. NO CHANGE
B. perimeter
C. partition
D. boundary
14. The author is considering adding the
following sentence in the second
paragraph.
“Advertisers know who viewed and
acted on an ad, and pay for their
advertising based on results rather than
impressions.”
Should the writer make this addition?
A. No, because it does not support the
previous sentence.
B. No, because the sentence only talks
about one marketing environment.
C. Yes, because it demonstrates how
advertising benefits the viewer
based on results.
D. Yes, because it further supports the
idea of a new trend in advertising.
15.A. NO CHANGE
B. advertising is as prevalent
C. advertising as prevalent
D. advertising prevalent

6
March 2021
 Naturally, these conclusions don’t [16] end 16.A. NO CHANGE
well for radio, television and newspaper B. threaten
advertising, though that is assuming their C. bode
operational models don’t undergo some D. commence
significant changes, which is already happening. 17. The writer wants to add a sentence to
[17] This aside, notions that companies are going support the previous sentence. Which
to entirely abandon brand-building ad campaigns choice best accomplishes his goal?
entirely in favor of measurable direct-response A. NO CHANGE
campaigns is surely folly. B. New technologies have proliferated
Still, statistics show there is a major options for ad creation, placement,
reordering of spending priorities underway by targeting and measurement.
advertisers, as more and more ad dollars continue C. New advertising industry players are
migrating from traditional media venues to online making ad space that once was
channels. This is due in part to the high priority proprietary available through open
advertisers place on reaching young [18] people exchanges.
who haven’t yet established their buying patterns. D. Traditional media outlets all have
The IBM report believes there are powerful websites and are experimenting with
trends at work that are reconfiguring the new advertising models and
advertising business. One such trend is attention. packages.
Consumers are increasingly in control of how
18.A. NO CHANGE
they view, interact with and filter advertising in a
B. people, who haven’t yet established
multimedia environment. TV alone shook up the
their buying patterns.
television advertising business, as viewers shifted
C. people; who haven’t yet established
their attention away from linear TV watching and
their buying patterns.
have adopted tools that allow them to skip
D. people- who haven’t yet established
advertisements, as well as [19] rating their
their buying patterns.
favorite ads and easily share them with friends.
19.A. NO CHANGE
This is happening while people spend less time
B. rate
with traditional media outlets and more time with
C. to rate
online media.
D. rates

7
March 2021
 (1) Another trend is creativity. (2) 20. Where in this paragraph should the
Technology has unleashed the creativity of underlined sentence be placed?
everyday people. (3) Popularity of user A. Where it is now
generated and peer-delivered content is rising. B. After sentence 1
New ad revenue-sharing models have allowed C. After sentence 2
amateurs and semi-professionals to create low- D. After sentence 3
cost advertising content. [20] People aren’t
21.A. NO CHANGE
happy just consuming media; they want to
B. it is
participate in [21] it’s creation. IBM’s study
C. its’
indicates the trend will continue.
D. its

22. Which choice best summarizes the

passage?
A. The advertising agencies of the past
were simple by comparison to the
new technologies that have
proliferated options for ad creation,
placement, targeting and
measurement.
B. Established media players, like
publishers and broadcasters, are
taking on traditional agency
functions.
C. Mighty media empires have already
been crippled by the new world
order created by the internet.
D. Advertising has become very
unpredictable, interesting and
egalitarian.

8
March 2021
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage.

Fire as a management tool long [23] predated 23.A. NO CHANGE

European settlement of North America. B. predates
Prescribed fire is a tool used by contemporary C. predating
resource managers to meet numerous objectives, D. is predating
including reducing fuel loads and continuity,
24.A. NO CHANGE
returning fire to an ecosystem, [24] to enhance
B. enhanced
wildlife habitat, improving forage, preparing
C. to enhancing
seedbeds, improving watershed conditions,
D. enhancing
enhancing nutrient cycling, controlling exotic
25. Which choice would best function as the
weeds, and enhancing resilience from climate
introductory thesis of the essay?
change.
A. NO CHANGE
Factors that influence fire effects are
B. Regardless of the particular
vegetation type and seral stage, fuel conditions,
objective, fire affects ecosystem
topography, weather, climate, fire size, burning
structure, composition, and function
prescription, fire intensity, fire frequency, and
in many ways.
fire seasonality. [26] In many, if not most,
C. Prescribed fire is gaining support as
situations, prescribed fire is used in vegetation
a restoration management tool and
types where fire is a natural disturbance and a
the practice of applying it is
critical process influencing ecosystem structure
improving with new information.
and function. Fire suppression over the past
D. Prescribed fire applied within the
century has disrupted natural fire regimes, and
time of year when fires occur
resulting ecosystems deviate considerably from
naturally would be most beneficial
what existed historically.
to wildlife.
The realities of global climate change [27]
have made it more apparent that there is only a 26.A. NO CHANGE
limited understanding of its effects on ecosystems B. In many if not most, situations,
attributes, including wildlife. C. In many, if not most, situations
D. In many, if not most situations,

27.A. NO CHANGE
B. has made
C. had made
D. having made

9
March 2021
This is partly because resulting changes will alter 29.A. NO CHANGE
ecological systems and the underlying biotic B. New mixes of plant species with
relationships. Vegetation changes may render unforeseen biotic interactions (e.g.,
areas suitable for some plant and animal species, competition, predation) may lead to
but unsuitable for others. [28] [29] New mixes of the emergence of novel wildlife
plant species, with unforeseen biotic interactions communities
(e.g., competition, predation), may lead to the C. With unforeseen biotic interactions
emergence of novel wildlife communities. (e.g., competition, predation), new
Changes may occur at varying spatial scales, mixes of plant species may lead to
from micro to macro habitats and to landscapes the emergence of novel wildlife
and regions. communities with unforeseen biotic
interactions (e.g., competition,
28. Which choice would most logically fit at
predation)
this point in the paragraph?
D. New mixes of plant species may
A. NO CHANGE
lead to the emergence of novel
B. Vegetation composition and structure
wildlife communities with
may form communities never observed
unforeseen biotic interactions (e.g.,
before, hence wildlife responses to these
competition, predation)
new communities may be unpredictable.
C. Vegetation removal and prescribed fire
are critical tools to enhance resiliency
by reducing stem densities towards
historical levels.
D. Restoring ecosystems and wildlife
diversity to the range of historical
conditions provides the best chance of
restoring vegetation composition in the
face of climate change.

10
March 2021
[30] Given this quandary, alleviating the 30. The writer would like to express
problem is a convenient task. concern. Which sentence fits this
Prescribed fire affects wildlife in various purpose within the context?
ways. Population responses by species can be A. NO CHANGE
positive, negative, or neutral; short- or long-term B. This arduous task is not the least bit
(or both); and they often change with time. demanding despite the many doubts.
Whereas prescribed fire can create or maintain C. Considering these uncertainties,
habitats for some species, fire can remove or trying to mitigate these changes will
alter conditions in ways that render it unsuitable be difficult.
for other species. Furthermore, a species may D. Given the numerous doubts,
benefit from fire in one situation but not another. enhancing the problem is
Social issues, particularly those surrounding manageable.
smoke and emissions, constrain where, when, and
31. Which wording is most effective?
how managers can burn. Certainly, emission
A. NO CHANGE
standards enforced by state and federal
B. billowing
environmental agencies limit windows of
C. moving
opportunity for burning. Smoke [31] going into
D. flowing
human communities is a health concern,
32.A. NO CHANGE
especially for people with existing respiratory
B. However,
ailments. Many publics associate smoke with fire
C. In conclusion,
and conclude that fire is bad. Progress has been
D. Moreover,
made at educating the public concerning benefits
of prescribed fire to reduce threats of wildfire to 33.A. NO CHANGE
people and property and also benefits to B. These
ecological communities. C. Their
[32] As a result, benefits of prescribed fire far D. It
outweigh negative effects. [33] They should be
applied within a structured adaptive management
framework, which requires developing and
implementing monitoring systems to evaluate
efficacy of specific fire prescriptions. Depending
on monitoring results, prescriptions could be
applied elsewhere or adjusted to meet
management objectives.

11
March 2021
Questions 34-44 are based on the following
passage.

By the time a child is six or seven, she has all 34.A. NO CHANGE
the essential avoidances well enough by heart to B. younger child; and she
be trusted with the care of a [34] younger child. C. younger child: and she
And she also develops a number of simple D. younger child, and she
techniques. She learns to weave firm square balls
35.A. NO CHANGE
from palm leaves, to make pinwheels of palm
B. on flexible little feet
leaves or frangipani blossoms, to climb a coconut
C. on a flexible little feets
tree by walking up the trunk [35] on a flexible
D. on flexible little foot
little feet, to break open a coconut with one firm
36.A. NO CHANGE
well-directed blow of a knife, to play a number of
B. with them: to tidy
group games and sing the songs which go [36]
C. with them; to tidy
with them, to tidy the house by picking up the
D. with them - to tidy
litter on the stony floor, to bring water from the
sea, to spread out the copra to dry and to help 37.A. NO CHANGE
gather it in when rain threatens, to go to a B. chiefs
neighboring house and bring back a lighted stick C. chief's
for the [37] chiefs’s pipe or the fire. D. chieves
But in the case of the little girls, all these tasks 38.A. NO CHANGE
are merely supplementary to the main business of B. baby attending
[38] babies tending. Very small boys also have C. baby tendings
some care of the younger children, but at eight or D. baby tending
nine years of age they are usually relieved of it.
Whatever rough edges have not been smoothed
off by this responsibility for younger children are
worn off by their contact with older boys. For
little boys are admitted to interesting and
important activities only so long as their behavior
is circumspect and helpful.

12
March 2021
 While small girls are [39] serenely pushed 39.A. NO CHANGE
aside, small boys will be patiently tolerated, and B. brusquely
they become adept at making themselves useful. C. respectfully
The four or five little boys who all wish to [40] D. placidly
assist at the important, business of helping grown
40.A. NO CHANGE
youth lasso reef eels, organize themselves into a
B. assist at the important business,
highly efficient working team; one boy holds the
C. assist at the important business
bait, another holds an extra lasso, others poke
D. assist, at the important business
eagerly about in holes in the reef looking for prey,
41.A. NO CHANGE
while still another tucks the captured eels into
B. The girls, burdened with heavy
their cloth. [41] Too young to adventure on the
babies or the care of little staggerers
reef, the girls are burdened with heavy babies or
who are too small to adventure on
the care of little staggerers, discouraged by the
the reef,
hostility of the small boys and the scorn of the
C. The girls, who are too small to
older ones, have little opportunity [42] for
adventure on the reef, are burdened
learning boys’ games which are more
with heavy babies or the care of
adventurous than the girls.
little staggerers
D. Burdened with heavy babies or the
care of little staggerers, the girls are
too small to adventure on the reef,

42.A. NO CHANGE
B. for learning boys’ games which are
more adventurous than those of the
girls.
C. for learning boys’ games which are
the most adventurous than the girls.
D. for learning boys’ games which are
most adventurous than the girls.

13
March 2021
 So while the little boys first undergo the
chastening effects of caring for babies and then
have many opportunities to learn effective
cooperation under the supervision of older boys,
the girls' education is less comprehensive. [43]
This is particularly apparent in the activities of
young people: the boys [44] organize quickly the
girls waste hours in bickering, innocent of any
technique for quick and efficient cooperation.
14
43. Which choice logically maintains the
flow and focus established by the
preceding sentences?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Girls have little opportunity for
learning the more adventurous
forms of work and play.
C. The boys learn many qualities that
ensure they move on to higher
responsibilities.
D. They have a high standard of
individual responsibility, but the
community provides them with no
lessons in cooperation with one
another.
44.A. NO CHANGE
B. organize quickly: the girls
C. organize quickly; the girls
D. organize quickly, the girls
March 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test II

Student’s Name _____________________________________

National ID _____________________________________
Test Center: _____________________________________

Duration: 65 minutes
52 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the multiple
choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
 The following edited passage is an
excerpt from The Scarlet Letter by
Nathaniel Hawthorne, a historical
fiction novel set in Boston in the 1600s.
A throng of bearded men, in sad-
coloured garments and grey steeple-
crowned hats, inter-mixed with women,
some wearing hoods, and others
5 bareheaded, was assembled in front of a
wooden edifice, the door of which was
heavily timbered with oak, and studded
with iron spikes.
The founders of a new colony, whatever
10 Utopia of human virtue and happiness
they might originally project, have
invariably recognised it among their
earliest practical necessities to allot a
portion of the virgin soil as a cemetery,
15 and another portion as the site of a
prison. In accordance with this rule it
may safely be assumed that the
forefathers of Boston had built the first
prison-house somewhere in the Vicinity
20 of Cornhill, almost as seasonably as
they marked out the first burial-ground,
on Isaac Johnson's lot, and round about
his grave, which subsequently became
the nucleus of all the congregated
25 sepulchres in the old yard of King's
Chapel. Certain it is that, some fifteen or
twenty years after the settlement of the
town, the wooden jail was already
marked with weather-stains and other
30 indications of age, which gave a yet
darker aspect to its beetle-browed and
gloomy front. The rust on the ponderous
iron-work of its oaken door looked more
antique than anything else in the New
35 World. Like all that pertains to crime, it
seemed never to have known a youthful
era. Before this ugly edifice, and
between it and the wheel-track of the
street, was a grass-plot, much
40 overgrown with burdock, pig-weed,
apple-pern, and such unsightly
vegetation, which evidently found
something congenial in the soil that had
so early borne the black flower of
2
45 civilised society, a prison. But on one
side of the portal, and rooted almost at
the threshold, was a wild rose-bush,
covered, in this month of June, with its
delicate gems, which might be imagined
50 to offer their fragrance and fragile
beauty to the prisoner as he went in, and
to the condemned criminal as he came
forth to his doom, in token that the deep
heart of Nature could pity and be kind to
55 him.
This rose-bush, by a strange chance, has
been kept alive in history; but whether it
had merely survived out of the stern old
wilderness, so long after the fall of the
60 gigantic pines and oaks that originally
overshadowed it, or whether, as there is
fair authority for believing, it had
sprung up under the footsteps of the
sainted Ann Hutchinson as she entered
65 the prison-door, we shall not take upon
us to determine. Finding it so directly on
the threshold of our narrative, which is
now about to issue from that
inauspicious portal, we could hardly do
70 otherwise than pluck one of its flowers,
and present it to the reader. It may
serve, let us hope, to symbolise some
sweet moral blossom that may be found
along the track, or relieve the darkening
75 close of a tale of human frailty and
sorrow.
The grass-plot before the jail, in Prison
Lane, on a certain summer morning, not
less than two centuries ago, was
80 occupied by a pretty large number of the
inhabitants of Boston, all with their eyes
intently fastened on the iron-clamped
oaken door. Amongst any other
population, or at a later period in the
85 history of New England, the grim
rigidity that petrified the bearded
physiognomies of these good people
would have augured some awful
business in hand. It could have
90 betokened nothing short of the
anticipated execution of some noted
culprit, on whom the sentence of a legal
March 2021
 tribunal had but confirmed the verdict of 2. As used in line 22, “lot” most nearly
public sentiment. But, in that early means
95 severity of their character, an inference A. condition.
of this kind could not so indubitably be B. bundle.
drawn. It might be that a sluggish bond- C. fate.
servant, or an undutiful child, whom his D. ground.
parents had given over to the civil
100 authority, was to be corrected at the 3. The author alludes to the rose bush’s
whipping-post. It might be that an existence as
Antinomian, a Quaker, or other A. justified.
heterodox religionist, was to be B. arbitrary.
scourged out of the town, or an idle or C. meaningful.
105 vagrant Indian, whom the white man's D. elusive.
firewater had made riotous about the
streets, was to be driven with stripes 4. Which choice best provides
into the shadow of the forest. It might evidence for the answer to the
be, too, that a witch, like old Mistress previous question?
110 Hibbins, the bitter-tempered widow of A. Lines 45-55 (“But … him.”)
the magistrate, was to die upon the B. Lines 56-57 (“This … history;”)
gallows. In either case, there was very C. Lines 57-66 (“but …
much the same solemnity of demeanour determine.”)
on the part of the spectators, as befitted D. Lines 66-71 (“Finding …
115 a people among whom religion and law reader.”)
were almost identical, and in whose
character both were so thoroughly 5. The author uses descriptive
interfused, that the mildest and severest language in the first paragraph to
acts of public discipline were alike A. allow the reader to visualize the
120 made venerable and awful. Meagre, opening scene.
indeed, and cold, was the sympathy that B. prove his large repertoire of
a transgressor might look for, from such descriptive diction.
bystanders, at the scaffold. On the other C. confuse the reader of the
hand, a penalty which, in our days, passage’s setting with jargon.
125 would infer a degree of mocking infamy D. build up to the punishments to
and ridicule, might then be invested take place.
with almost as stern a dignity as the
6. As used in line 35, “pertains” most
punishment of death itself.
nearly means
1. The primary purpose of the passage A. exists.
is to B. concerns.
C. belongs to.
A. discuss the door of the prison. D. neglects.
B. describe the inhabitants of
Boston.
C. present the context of
punishment in Boston.
D. introduce the importance of the
rose bush.

3
March 2021
7. The inhabitants’ perception of law
and punishment can best be
described as which of the following?
A. The inhabitants hold dual
feelings for all forms of
punishment.
B. The inhabitants are repulsed at
the severity of the punishments.
C. The inhabitants did not
participate in the spectacles, but
viewed it as a necessity.
D. The inhabitants feared
repercussion if they did not
observe the punishments.
8. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 9-16 (“The … prison.”)
B. Lines 77-83 (“The … door.”)
C. Lines 112-120 (“In … awful.”)
D. Lines 123-128 (“On … itself.”)
9. The author mentions “Meagre,
indeed, and cold was the sympathy
that a transgressor might look for,
from such bystanders, at the
scaffold” in lines 120-123 in order
to portray a mood of
A. chronic poverty.
B. austerity and remorselessness.
C. compassion and concern.
D. empathy within indifference.
10. What is the relationship between the
last paragraph and the rest of the
passage?
A. The last paragraph presents the
reader with the criminals while
the rest of the passage describes
the gallows.
B. The last paragraph builds upon
the analogy of the rose bush.
C. The last paragraph provides
contradictory supporting details.
D. The last paragraph informs the
reader of the type of spectators
at the gallows while the rest of
the passage describes the context
of a prison door.

4
March 2021
 The following edited passage is taken
from History of the Plague in London by
Daniel Defoe on the plague’s re-
emergence in Holland.
It was about the beginning of September,
1664, that I, among the rest of my
neighbors, heard in ordinary discourse
that the plague was returned again in
5 Holland; for it had been very violent
there, and particularly at Amsterdam and
Rotterdam, in the year 1663, whither,
they say, it was brought (some said from
Italy, others from the Levant) among
10 some goods which were brought home by
their Turkey fleet; others said it was
brought from Candia; others, from
Cyprus. It mattered not from whence it
came; but all agreed it was come into
15 Holland again.
We had no such thing as printed
newspapers in those days, to spread
rumors and reports of things, and to
improve them by the invention of men, as
20 I have lived to see practiced since. But
such things as those were gathered from
the letters of merchants and others who
corresponded abroad, and from them was
handed about by word of mouth only; so
25 that things did not spread instantly over
the whole nation, as they do now. But it
seems that the government had a true
account of it, and several counsels were
held about ways to prevent its coming
30 over; but all was kept very private. Hence
it was that this rumor died off again; and
people began to forget it, as a thing we
were very little concerned in and that we
hoped was not true, till the latter end of
35 November or the beginning of December,
1664, when two men, said to be
Frenchmen, died of the plague in
Longacre, or rather at the upper end of
Drury Lane. The family they were in
40 endeavored to conceal it as much as
possible; but, as it had gotten some vent
in the discourse of the neighborhood, the
secretaries of state got knowledge of it.
And concerning themselves to inquire
45 about it, in order to be certain of the truth,
5
two physicians and a surgeon were
ordered to go to the house, and make
inspection. This they did, and finding
evident tokens of the sickness upon both
50 the bodies that were dead, they gave their
opinions publicly that they died of the
plague. Whereupon it was given in to the
parish clerk, and he also returned them to
the hall; and it was printed in the weekly
55 bill of mortality in the usual manner.
The people showed a great concern at
this, and began to be alarmed all over the
town, and the more because in the last
week in December, 1664, another man
60 died in the same house and of the same
distemper. And then we were easy again
for about six weeks, when, none having
died with any marks of infection, it was
said the distemper was gone; but after
65 that, I think it was about the 12th of
February, another died in another house,
but in the same parish and in the same
manner.
This turned the people's eyes pretty much
70 towards that end of the town; and, the
weekly bills showing an increase of
burials in St. Giles's Parish more than
usual, it began to be suspected that the
plague was among the people at that end
75 of the town, and that many had died of it,
though they had taken care to keep it as
much from the knowledge of the public
as possible. This possessed the heads of
the people very much; and few cared to
80 go through Drury Lane, or the other
streets suspected, unless they had
extraordinary business that obliged them
to it.
This increase of the bills stood thus: the
85 usual number of burials in a week, in the
parishes of St. Giles-in-the-Fields and St.
Andrew's, Holborn, were from twelve to
seventeen or nineteen each, few more or
less; but, from the time that the plague
90 first began in St. Giles's Parish, it was
observed that the ordinary burials
increased in number considerably.
March 2021
 14. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 9-15 (“among … again.”)
B. Lines 16-20 (“We … since.”)
C. Lines 20-24 (“But … only;”)
D. Lines 26-30 (“But … private.”)
15. Which of the following is NOT
mentioned in the passage?
A. It was unclear where the plague
had come from.
B. The government attempted to
Number of Burials in Two Areas keep the presence of the plague in
Holland a secret.
C. People were disturbed by the
initial news of the plague entering
Holland.
D. People avoided areas where there
were known deaths caused by the
plague.
Overall Number of Burials
Source: Daniel Defoe 16. According to the passage, how did the
inhabitants of Holland initially
perceive the extent of the threat of the
11. The main idea of the passage is to plague?
A. conclude a premise. A. They took the threat seriously and
B. refute an argument. self-isolated.
C. present societal consequences. B. They practiced denial and carried
D. establish a reputation. on life normally.
12. As used in line 78, “possessed” most C. They showed a lack of care for the
nearly means consequences.
D. They panicked and lacked proper
A. occupied.
procedure.
B. enjoyed.
C. enchanted. 17. Which choice best provides evidence
D. owned. for the answer to the previous
question?
13. According to the passage, how did
news of the plague mainly reach A. Lines 30-34 (“Hence … true,”)
Holland? B. Lines 39-43 (“The … it.”)
C. Lines 56-61 (“The … distemper.”)
A. by a Turkey fleet
D. Lines 78-83 (“This … it.”)
B. by printed press
C. by verbal circulation 18. As used in line 91, “observed” most
D. by the government nearly means
A. viewed.
B. honored.
C. celebrated.
D. discerned.

6
March 2021
19. The first chart with respect to the
passage
A. supports statistics given in the last
paragraph.
B. contradicts statistics given in the
last paragraph.
C. provides new information to the
passage.
D. is irrelevant.
20. In the second chart, it is observed that
A. burials had the largest increase
between Jan 17 and Jan 24.
B. burials remained stable over the
recorded weeks.
C. there is a gap in the data.
D. the number of burials steadily
declined.

7
March 2021
 The first passage is from The Minds and
Manners of Wild Animals: A Book of
Personal Observation by Hornaday
discussing an elephant’s mental capacity.
Passage 2 taken from Anecdotes of the
Habit and Instinct of Animals by Mrs. R.
Lee discusses elephants in their natural
habitat.
Passage 1
While many wonderful stories are related
of the elephant's sagacity and
independent powers of reasoning, it must
be admitted that a greater number of more
5 wonderful anecdotes are told on equally
good authority of dogs. But the
circumstances in the case are wholly to
the advantage of the universal dog, and
against the rarely seen elephant. While
10 the former roams at will through his
master's premises, through town and
country, mingling freely with all kinds of
men and domestic animals, with
unlimited time to lay plans and execute
15 them, the elephant in captivity is chained
to a stake, with no liberty of action
whatever aside from begging with his
trunk, eating and drinking. His only
amusement is in swaying his body,
20 swinging one foot, switching his tail, and
(in a zoological park) looking for
something that he can open or destroy.
Such a ponderous beast cannot be
allowed to roam at large among human
25 beings, and the working elephant never
leaves his stake and chain except under
the guidance of his mahout. There is no
means of estimating the wonderful
powers of reasoning that captive
30 elephants might develop if they could
only enjoy the freedom accorded to all
dogs except the blood-hound, bull-dog
and a few others.
In the jungles of India the writer
35 frequently has seen wild elephants
reconnoiter dangerous ground by means
of a scout or spy; communicate
intelligence by signs; retreat in orderly
silence from a lurking danger, and
8
40 systematically march, in single file, like
the jungle tribes of men.
Once having approached to within fifty
yards of the stragglers of a herd of about
thirty wild elephants, which was scattered
45 over about four acres of very open forest
and quietly feeding, two individuals of
the herd on the side nearest us suddenly
suspected danger. One of them elevated
his trunk, with the tip bent forward, and
50 smelled the air from various points of the
compass. A moment later an old elephant
left the herd and started straight for our
ambush, scenting the air with upraised
trunk as he slowly and noiselessly
55 advanced. We instantly retreated,
unobserved and unheard. The elephant
advanced until he reached the identical
spot where we had a moment before been
concealed. He paused, and stood
60 motionless as a statue for about two
minutes, then wheeled about and quickly
but noiselessly rejoined the herd. In less
than half a minute the whole herd was in
motion, heading directly away from us,
65 and moving very rapidly, but without the
slightest noise. The huge animals simply
vanished like shadows into the leafy
depths of the forest. Before proceeding a
quarter of a mile, the entire herd formed
70 in single file and continued strictly in that
order for several miles. Like the human
dwellers in the jungle, the elephants know
that the easiest and most expeditious way
for a large body of animals to traverse a
75 tangled forest is for the leader to pick the
way, while all the others follow in his
footsteps.
On one occasion a herd which I was
designing to attack, and had approached
80 to within forty yards, as its members were
feeding in some thick bushes, discovered
my presence and retreated so silently that
they had been gone five minutes before I
discovered what their sudden quietude
85 really meant. In this instance, as in
several others, the still alarm was
communicated by silent signals, or sign-
language.
March 2021
 Passage 2
The favourite habitation of the elephant is
90 the forest, or green plain, near which is a
river, or lake: water he must have, for
both in freedom and captivity, bathing
seems to be a necessary condition of his
existence.
95 This propensity reminds me of the often-
repeated trick of the before-mentioned
elephant of the Jardin des Plantes. His
stable opened into a small enclosure, in
the midst of which was a pond. In this
100 pond he constantly laid himself, and was
so hidden by the water, that nothing of
him appeared, except the end of his
proboscis, which it required an
experienced eye to detect. The crowd
105 often assembled round the enclosure of
the "elephant's park," as it was called,
supposing they should see him issue from
his stable.
All at once, however, a copious shower
110 would assail them, and ladies with their
transparent bonnets, and gentlemen with
their shining hats, were forced to seek
shelter under the neighbouring trees,
where they looked up at the cloudless
115 sky, and wondered from whence the
shower could come. When they directed
their eyes towards the elephant's pond,
they saw him standing in the midst,
evincing an awkward joy at the trick he
120 had played. In process of time his pastime
became generally known, and the
moment the water rose from his trunk, his
beholders ran away, which he also
seemed to enjoy exceedingly, getting up
125 as fast as he could to behold the bustle he
had created.
9
21. According to Passage 1, many more
anecdotes are told of a dog’s mental
reasoning than an elephant’s because
A. people are fonder of dogs.
B. elephants are limited to simple
means of expression such as
swaying their body.
C. elephants do not show a high level
of reasoning.
D. dogs have the liberty to roam as
they please.
22. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 1-6 (“While … dogs.”)
B. Lines 6-9 (“But … elephant.”)
C. Lines 9-18 (“While … drinking.”)
D. Lines 18-22 (“His … destroy.”)
23. As used in line 28, “means” most
nearly means
A. money.
B. resources.
C. method.
D. substance.
24. The main idea of Passage 2 is
A. to illustrate the keenness of an
elephant.
B. to establish evidence against an
elephant’s natural behavior.
C. to formulate a hypothesis on
elephant behavior.
D. to recount an unnecessary event.
25. In Passage 1, what is the relation of
the first paragraph to the rest of the
passage?
A. The first paragraph focuses on the
intelligence of dogs before
shifting to elephants.
B. The first paragraph builds the
premise and the rest of the
passage supports it.
C. The first paragraph contradicts the
rest of the passage.
D. The first paragraph is unrelated to
the rest of the passage.
March 2021
26. According to Passage 2, what can be 30. Which of the following points would
inferred about the elephant’s the authors of both passages most
character? likely agree with?
A. stoic and indifferent A. Elephants can be malicious
B. reserved and observant towards intruders.
C. mischievous and playful B. An elephant’s intelligence is
D. aggressive and hateful clearly misunderstood.
C. Despite the fact that most
elephants are observed in
27. Which choice best provides evidence
confinement, elephants exhibit
for the answer to the previous
astounding intelligence in
question?
behavior.
A. Lines 95-97 (“This … Plantes.”) D. Elephants enjoy playing tricks on
B. Lines 104-108 (“The … stable.”) humans.
C. Lines 109-116 (“All … come.”)
31. As used in line 105, “assembled”
D. Lines 116-120 (“When …
most nearly means
played.”)
A. collected.
28. In Passage 1, all the following are
B. built.
mentioned EXCEPT:
C. connected.
A. Elephants held captive cannot D. gathered.
reach their full potential.
B. Elephants can communicate
without a sound.
C. Elephants need to see the threat to
locate it.
D. Elephants are able to move
silently enough to not be observed
at all.
29. What can be said about Passage 1
and Passage 2?
A. The passages have a similar
writing style as they both use the
first person.
B. The two passages differ in
theme.
C. Both passages contradict one
another.
D. The passages have a similar tone
of indifference.

10
March 2021

The following edited passage is taken
from Popular Law-Making by Frederic
Jesup Stimson on early labour legislation
and laws against trusts.
Far the most important phrase to us found
in the Statute of Westminster I, save
perhaps that common right should be
done to rich and poor, is to be found in
5 this sentence: "Excessive toll, contrary to
the common custom of the realm," is
forbidden. The statute applies only to
market towns, but the principle
established there would naturally go
10 elsewhere, and indeed most towns where
there was any trade were, in those days,
market towns. Every word is noticeable:
"Excessive toll"—extortion in rates. As
this statute passed into the common law
15 of England and hence our own, it has
probably always been law in America
except, possibly, in those few States
which expressly repealed the whole
common law and those where civil law
20 prevailed.
It was therefore equally unnecessary to
adopt new statutes providing against
extortion or discrimination, for the last
part of the phrase "contrary to the
25 common custom of the realm" means
discrimination. But this is one of the
numerous cases where our legislatures, if
not our bar and bench, erred through
simple historical ignorance. They had
30 forgotten this law, or, more charitably,
they may have thought it necessary to
remind the people of it. There has been a
recent agitation in this country with the
object of compelling great public-service
35 companies, such as electric lighting or
gas companies, to make the same rates to
consumers, large or small. This also was
very possibly the common law, and
required no new statutes; there are cases
40 reported as far back as the fourteenth and
fifteenth centuries where, for instance, a
ferryman was punished for charging less
for the ferriage of a large drove of sheep
11
or cattle than for a smaller number,
45 "contrary to the common custom of the
realm." Nine years before this statute is
the Assize of Bread, attempting to fix the
price of bread according to the cost of
wheat, but notable to us as containing
50 both the first pure-food statute and the
first statute against "forestalling."
Now forestalling, regrating, and
engrossing are the early English phrases
for most of the unlawful or unmoral
55 actions which we ascribe to the modern
trust. In fact, there is hardly one legal
injury which a trust is said to commit in
these days which cannot be ranked under
those three heads, or that of monopoly or
60 that of restraint of trade.
"Forestalling" is the buying up provisions
on the way to a market with intent to sell
at a higher price; and the doctrine applied
primarily to provisions, that is to say,
65 necessaries of life. Precisely the same
thing exists to-day, only we term it the
buying of futures, or the attempt to create
a corner. We shall find that the buying of
futures, that is to say, of crops not yet
70 grown or outputs not yet created, is still
obnoxious to many of our legislatures to-
day, and has been forbidden, or made
criminal, in many States. "Regrating" is
defined in some of the early dictionaries
75 as speculating in provisions; the offence
of buying provisions at a market for the
purpose of reselling them within four
miles of the place. The careful regulation
of markets and market towns that existed
80 in early times in England would not
suffer some rich capitalist to go in and
buy all that was offered for sale with
intent of selling it to the same
neighborhood at a higher price. Hatto of
85 the Rhine, you may remember, paid with
his life for this offence. The prejudice
against this sort of thing has by no means
ended to-day. We have legislation against
speculation in theatre tickets, as well as in
90 cotton or grain. "Engrossing" is really the
result of a successful forestalling, with or
without regrating; that is to say, it is a
March 2021
 complete "corner of the market"; from it
our word "grocer" is derived. Such
95 corners, if completely successful, would
have the public at their mercy; luckily
they rarely are; the difficulty, in fact,
begins when you begin to regrate. But in
artificial commodities it is easier; so in
100 the Northern Pacific corner, a nearly
perfect engrossing; the shares of stock
went to a thousand dollars, and might
have gone higher but for the voluntary
interference of great financiers. Leiter's
105 Chicago corner in wheat, Sully's corner in
cotton, were almost perfect examples of
engrossing, but failed when the regrating
began. All these tend to monopoly, and
act, of course, in restraint of trade; the
110 broader meanings of these two latter
more important principles we leave for
later discussion.
32. The primary purpose of the passage
is to
A. explore the history behind
common law in the market and
the three unlawful actions.
B. discuss the history of labor laws
and laws against trust.
C. examine the notion of
“forestalling” and its presence in
modern law.
D. provide examples of unlawful
practices.
33. In lines 39-46, the author uses an
example to
A. solidify his position against new
statutes.
B. support the common law against
discrimination.
C. contradict claims of
discrimination in trade.
D. absolve previous experience of
thievery and injustice.
12
34. The passage is most likely written for
A. fellow researchers at a university
research center.
B. young historians who have a basic
background on labor laws.
C. students in high school history
class.
D. a light reader with some interest
in policy.
35. As used in line 22, “adopt” most
nearly means
A. take in.
B. choose.
C. assume.
D. nominate.
36. The author appeals to the reader by
A. using inclusive language.
B. comparing different legislations.
C. defending their position.
D. using statistics and quantitative
analysis.
37. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 21-26 (“It …
discrimination.”)
B. Lines 37-39 (“This … statutes;”)
C. Lines 39-46 (“there … realm.”)
D. Lines 84-86 (“Hatto … offense.”)
38. In the first paragraph, the author uses
a quote in lines 5-6 to
A. stress the gravity of the statement
by presenting a word-for-word
account instead of paraphrasing.
B. contradict his claims made in the
rest of the passage.
C. bolster the need for new statutes.
D. exemplify the lack of value given
to such statute.
39. “Regrating” can be compared to
A. buying a chair at a furniture store
to sell at your own store a few
streets away.
B. buying out shampoo products that
have not yet been produced.
March 2021
 C. an on-going debate that has yet to
be resolved in court.
D. selling the same apples at a lower
price than other stores in the same
city.
40. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 65-68 (“Precisely …
corner.”)
B. Lines 68-73 (“We … States.”)
C. Lines 78-84 (“The … price.”)
D. Lines 86-88 (“The … to-day.”)
41. As used in line 94, “derived” most
nearly means
A. gained.
B. extracted.
C. acquired.
D. proceeded from.
42. The author mentions all the following
EXCEPT
A. the statute that forbids unlawful
market practice is present in
America except in a few states.
B. the statute encompasses acts of
discrimination.
C. “regrating” is the act of buying
items only to re-sell them a year
later at a different price.
D. when a “forestall” succeeds, it is a
form of “engrossing”.

13
March 2021
 The following edited passage is taken
from On Laboratory Arts by Richard
Threlfall on the choice of sizes of glass
tube and testing glass.
It will be found that for general
purposes tubes about one-quarter inch in
inside diameter, and from one-twentieth
to one-fortieth of an inch thick, are most
5 in demand. Some very thin soda glass of
these dimensions (so-called "cylinder"
tubes) will be found very handy for
many purposes. For physico-chemical
work a good supply of tubing, from one-
10 half to three-quarters of an inch inside
diameter, and from one-twentieth to
one-eighth inch thick, is very necessary.
A few tubes up to three inches diameter,
and of various thicknesses, will also be
15 required for special purposes.
Thermometer and "barometer" tubing is
occasionally required, the latter, by the
way, making particularly bad
barometers. The thermometer tubing
20 should be of all sizes of bore, from the
finest obtainable up to that which has a
bore of about one-sixteenth of an inch.
Glass rods varying from about one-
twentieth of an inch in diameter up to,
25 say, half an inch will be required, also
two or three sticks of white enamel glass
for making joints.
To facilitate choice, there is appended a
diagram of sizes from the catalogue of a
30 reliable German firm, Messrs. Desaga of
Heidelberg, and the experimenter will
be able to see at a glance what sizes of
glass to order. It is a good plan to stock
the largest and smallest size of each
35 material as well as the most useful
working sizes.
"Reject glass which has lumps or knots,
is obviously conical, or has long drawn-
out bubbles running through the
40 substance." If a scratch be made on the
surface of a glass tube, and one end of
the scratch be touched by a very fine
point of fused glass, say not more than
one-sixteenth inch in diameter, the tube,
14
45 however large it is (within reason),
ought to crack in the direction of the
scratch. If a big crack forms and does
not run straight, but tends to turn
longitudinally, it is a sign that the glass
50 is ill annealed, and nothing can be done
with it. If such glass be hit upon in the
course of blow-pipe work, it is
inadvisable to waste time upon it; the
best plan is to reject it at once, and save
55 it for some experiment where it will not
have to be heated.
The shortest way of selecting glass is to
go to a good firm, and let it be
understood that if the glass proves to be
60 badly annealed it will be returned.
Though it was stated above that the
glass should not be distinctly conical, of
course allowance must be made for the
length of the pieces, and, on the other
65 hand, a few highly conical tubes will be
of immense service in special cases, and
a small supply of such should be
included.
The glass, as it is obtained, should be
70 placed in a rack, and covered by a cloth
to reduce the quantity of dust finding its
way into the tubes. It has been stated by
Professor Ostwald that tubes when
reared up on end tend to bend
75 permanently. I have not noticed this
with lead glass well supported. Each
different supply should be kept by itself
and carefully described on a label pasted
on to the rack, and tubes from different
80 lots should not be used for critical
welds. This remark is more important in
the case of soda than of lead glass.
In the case of very fine thermometer
tubes it will be advisable to cover the
85 ends with a little melted shellac, or, in
special cases, to obtain the tubes sealed
from the works. Soda glass can
generally be got in rather longer lengths
than lead glass; the longer the lengths
90 are the better, for the waste is less.
It is useful to be able to distinguish the
different kinds of glass by the colour.
March 2021
 This is best observed by looking 44. Which of the following best
towards a bright surface along the whole summarizes the relationship of the
95 length of the tube and through the glass. first paragraph to the rest of the
Lead glass is yellow, soda glass is passage?
green, and hard glass purple in the A. prediction followed by analysis
samples in my laboratory, and I expect B. general introduction followed by
this is practically true of most samples. specific examples
C. specific examples followed by
generalization
D. premise followed by hypotheses
45. The purpose of the graphic is to
A. support the use of different
glasses.
B. discredit the author’s advice for
different glasses.
C. inform the reader that different
glass sizes exist.
D. exemplify a glass size catalogue
mentioned in the passage.
46. The graphic illustrates the main idea
of which paragraph?
A. first paragraph
B. second paragraph
C. third paragraph
D. fourth paragraph
47. As used in line 50, “ill” most nearly
means

Tube Sizes A. sickly.

Source: Richard Threlfall B. harmfully.
C. scarcely.
D. poorly.
43. The main idea of the passage is to
48. Which of the following is NOT
A. discuss storage of glasses. mentioned in the passage?
B. recommend thermometer tubing
of all sizes. A. A catalogue is used to help
C. criticize different glass sizes. choose glass sizes.
D. inform on different sizes an B. A glass is not annealed correctly
experimenter should obtain. if glass cracks longitudinally.
C. Distinguishing different colour
glasses is essential.
D. Glasses should be stored and
covered to avoid dust.

15
March 2021
49. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 28-33 (“To … order.”)
B. Lines 47-51 (“If … it.”)
C. Lines 69-72 (“The … tubes.”)
D. Lines 91-92 (“It … colour.”)
50. As used in line 74, “reared” most
nearly means
A. nurtured.
B. raised.
C. grown.
D. bred.
51. It can most reasonably be inferred
from the passage that the author
A. uses objective language to
convince the reader of his
premise.
B. mentions a reputable source for
credibility.
C. exhibits egotistical behavior with
his excessive knowledge.
D. seeks to lead the reader astray
with false information.
52. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 16-19 (“Thermometer …
barometers.”)
B. Lines 72-75 (“It …
permanently.”)
C. Lines 83-87 (“In … works.”)
D. Lines 96-99 (“Lead …
samples.”)

16
March 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test I
Answer Key
(Writing Section)

Passage 1 Passage 3
1. C 23. B
2. B 24. D
3. A 25. B
4. D 26. D
5. C 27. A
6. D 28. B
7. A 29. D
8. C 30. C
9. A 31. B
10. B 32. C
11. B 33. D

Passage 2 Passage 4
12. A 34. D
13. A 35. B
14. D 36. A
15. B 37. C
16. C 38. D
17. D 39. B
18. A 40. C
19. B 41. B
20. C 42. B
21. D 43. D
22. A 44. C

1
March 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test II
Answer Key
(Reading Section)
Passage 3
Passage 1
21. D
1. C
22. C
2. D
23. C
3. C
24. A
4. A
25. B
5. A
26. C
6. B
27. D
7. A
28. C
8. C
29. A
9. B
30. C
10. D
31. D

Passage 2
Passage 4
11. C
32. A
12. A
33. B
13. C
34. B
14. C
35. C
15. C
36. A
16. B
37. D
17. A
38. A
18. D
39. A
19. A
40. C
20. A
41. B
42. C

Passage 5
43. D
44. B
45. D
46. C
47. D
48. C
49. D
50. B
51. B
52. B
 EST I – Literacy Test I

_____________________________________
Student’s Name
_____________________________________
National ID
_____________________________________
Test Center:

Duration: 35 minutes
44 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the
multiple choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.

1
April 2021
Directions: Read each passage and answer the questions. First skim through the passage to gain the
general idea of topic, style, tone, and structure. Then, re-read the passage a second time, closely, and
answer the questions found next to the passage as you read. Some questions ask you how the passage
might be changed to improve the expression of ideas. Other questions ask you how the passage might be
altered to correct errors in grammar, usage, and punctuation. One or more graphics accompany some
passages. You will be required to consider these graphics as you answer questions about editing the
passages.
There are three types of questions. In the first type, a part of the passage is underlined. The second
type is based on a certain part of the passage. The third type is based on the entire passage.
Read each passage. Then, choose the answer so that it is consistent with the conventions of standard
written English. One of the answer choices for many questions is “NO CHANGE.” Choosing this answer
means that you believe the best answer is to make no change in the passage.

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage 1.A. NO CHANGE

and supplementary material. B. both
C. solely
Banking is not a profession dedicated [1] D. mutually
indisputably to entering an endless series of figures in
2.A. NO CHANGE
ledgers and processing or analysing balance sheets.
B. Therefore,
Primarily, banking is a profession that deals with people
C. However,
and their problems. [2] Instead, [3] banking is a
D. Although
profession not only for those who have a flair for people
3.A. NO CHANGE
but also for those with a flair for figures.
B. banking is a profession not only for those
who have a flair for people, but also for
those with a flair for figures.
C. banking is a profession not only for those
who have a flair for people, but it is also
for those with a flair for figures.
D. banking is not only a profession for those
who have a flair for people but for those
with a flair for figures.

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April 2021
Banking provides a broad spectrum of work to allow [4] 4.A. NO CHANGE
a primitive banker to switch careers without changing a B. an adult
industries. The employment options in banking are C. an incipient
abundant and various. The major areas of work are the D. an original
servicing of internal customers, domestic customer
5.A. NO CHANGE
banking, and special functions such as administration,
B. personnel
[5] personality and computers. All of them need
C. personal
employees with sufficient educational background,
D. persons
intelligence, clear thinking, human understanding, and
6.A. NO CHANGE
nerve.
B. A bank manager who is responsible for a
branch of business, and usually
[6] A bank manager who is responsible for a branch
C. A bank manager, who is responsible for a
of business usually begins his career as a loan officer
branch of business and usually
and acquires skills and experience while progressing
D. A bank manager who is responsible for a
through several jobs. Bank loan officers make initial
branch of business and usually
contacts with new customers, [7] accepting their loan
applications, and assist them on how to fill out loan 7.A. NO CHANGE
requests. B. accepts their loan
C. to accept their loan
[8] (1) An analyst’s duties are to assess each loan D. accept their loan
applicant's financial position and advise the bank's 8. Which sentence serves as a topic sentence for
management on the loan prospects. (2) A loan workout this paragraph?
specialist is an experienced and skilled specialist who is A. Sentence 1 because it describes the duty
supposed to investigate each problem loan, inquire into of an analyst in detail.
the causes of bad loans, and find solutions to recovering B. Sentence 2 because it describes the duty
the bank's funds. (3) A credit analyst and a loan workout of a loan workout specialist and the
specialist are professionals determining the business of paragraph mostly deals with bank loans.
lending. (4) Both a credit analyst and a loan workout C. Sentence 3 because it includes both jobs
specialist must have a solid background in accounting, to which the surrounding sentences refer.
financial statement analysis, law, and economics. D. Sentence 4 because it includes necessary
skills for both banking jobs.

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April 2021
 Managers of the accounting and operations division 9.A. NO CHANGE
control and direct one of the leading business areas B. There
concerned with financial planning through the C. Theirs
interpretation and use of financial data for one thing. D. They’re
They are in charge of processing checks and clearing on
10. Which sentence best concludes this
behalf of their customers. The lowest link of the paragraph?
division, a teller, is a bank employee who accepts A. A teller’s primary duty is to find out and
deposits, cashes checks, and performs other banking state the true financial position of the
services for the public. [9] Their duties also include bank by examining books and records.
sorting and filing deposit receipts and withdrawal B. Financial data is handled by managers of
slips. [10] the accounting and operations division of
Auditing and control personnel in a bank's which tellers are the lowest rung on the
accounting and audit department are well trained ladder
specialists. Their proficiency and expertise are C. The accounting and operations division
unquestionable. As professional accountants they have a has roles of various levels to progress to
legal right of access to records and accounts. such as becoming a bank teller.
Candidates for such senior posts have to acquire a D. Tellers produce a forecast of future
variety of managerial experience, and those who show performance and provide ways and
outstanding potential are likely to reach senior executive methods of improving bank efficiency.
level before they are 40. [11] 11. Which sentence best concludes this
paragraph?
A. A career progression does not reflect age
but rather depends on individual ability
and previous experience.
B. Trust department specialists, investment
specialists, foreign exchange traders, and
personnel managers exist as part of a
senior executive team.
C. Once the basic training has been
completed, career development becomes
more challenging for the individual.
D. Candidates for senior posts must be
above 40 and show outstanding potential,
desire, and strong character.
4
April 2021
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage. 12.A. NO CHANGE
B. there
Why People Troll
C. they’re
D. theirs
“Fail at life. Tough luck for you!” Comments like
this one, found in an article about how women perceive 13.A. NO CHANGE
themselves, are prevalent today across the internet, B. to
whether [12] their on social media or a news website. C. and
Such behavior can range from profanity and name- D. both
calling [13] or personal attacks, or hate speech. A recent 14.A. NO CHANGE
Pew Internet survey [14] found that four out of 10 B. finds
people online have been harassed online, with far more C. founded
having witnessed such behavior. Trolling has become so D. finding
[15] general that several websites have even resorted to
15. Which word best expresses the intended
completely removing comments. meaning?
A. NO CHANGE
[16] People who like to troll are likely to show signs
B. scattered
of sadism. One reason for this is that the internet has a
C. spread
tendency to make people anonymous which motivates
D. rampant
trolls to treat people online as less than human.
16. At this point, the writer is considering adding
the following sentence.
“Trolls are generally perceived as vociferous
sociopathic individuals.”
Should the writer make this addition here?

A. Yes, because the sentence that follows

support it.

B. Yes, because it is giving reasons why the

internet causes trolling behavior.
C. No, because it is a repetition of the same
idea in the following sentence.
D. No, because it is a general statement
about trolling.

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April 2021
Some studies even showed that trolls have predisposing 17.A. NO CHANGE
personal and biological traits, such as sadism and [17] a B. a proclivity for seeking
propensity for seek excessive stimulation. [18] C. a liking to seek
However, one study found that people with no biological D. an inclination in seeking
predisposition can be influenced to troll under the right
18.A. NO CHANGE
circumstances in an online community. By analyzing 16
B. Moreover,
million comments made on a news website and
C. Similarly,
conducting an online controlled experiment, [19] two
D. Consequently,
key factors that can lead ordinary people to troll were
19.A. NO CHANGE
identified.
B. two key factors, that can lead ordinary
Six hundred sixty-seven participants were recruited
people to troll, were identified.
through an online crowdsourcing platform and asked to
C. two key factors that can lead ordinary
first take a quiz, then read an article and engage in
people to troll were identified.
discussion. Every participant saw the same article, but
D. two key factors that can lead ordinary
some were given a discussion that had started with
people to troll, were identified..
comments by trolls, whereas others saw neutral
comments instead. Here, trolling was defined using 20.A. NO CHANGE
standard community categories—for example, name- B. were put
calling, profanity, racism, or harassment. C. have been put
The first factor that seems to influence trolling is a D. put
person’s mood. In the experiment, people [20] had been 21. The author is thinking of adding a sentence at
put into negative moods were much more likely to start this point for additional support. Which
sentence works best?
trolling. It was also discovered that trolling ebbs and
A. NO CHANGE
flows with the time of day and day of the week, in sync
with natural human mood patterns. [21] B. Trolling is most frequent late at night, and
least frequent in the morning.

C. Trolling also can differ in severity, from

swearing to targeted bullying, which
necessitates different responses.

D. Trolling can end up becoming the norm in

communities if left unchecked.

6
April 2021
 Moreover, a negative mood appeared to persist 22.A. NO CHANGE
beyond the events that brought about those feelings. B. compared to a troll comment.
Suppose that a person participates in a discussion where C. compared to the context of the discussion.
other people wrote troll comments. If that person goes D. compared to a discussion that starts with a
on to participate in an unrelated discussion, he or she is troll comment.
more likely to troll in that discussion too.
The second factor is the context of a discussion. If a
discussion begins with a troll comment, then it is twice
as likely to be trolled by other participants later on, [22]
compared to a discussion that does not start with a troll
comment. In fact, these troll comments can add up. The
more troll comments in a discussion, the more likely that
future participants will also troll the discussion.
Altogether, these results show how the initial comments
in a discussion set a strong, lasting precedent for later
trolling.

7
April 2021
Questions 23-33 are based on the following 23.A. NO CHANGE
passage. B. established
Invasive Species C. establishment
D. establish
In order to develop predictive theories, invasion
24.A. NO CHANGE
biologists have made several attempts to explain
B. Scientists found only a few theories after
why certain species have been successful in [23]
critically reviewing them for predictive
establishing locations. [24] After critically
value.
reviewing these theories, scientists found only a
C. Finding a small number of them to be of any
few of them to contain any predictive value. They
predictive value, scientists critically
identified three levels of characteristics: species-
reviewed a diverse number of these theories.
level characteristics, e.g. body size, reproductive
D. Scientists have critically reviewed these
rate, geographic range, and [25] habitat breadth,
theories and found only a few to have
location-level characteristics, e.g. climate,
predictive value.
structure and composition of the native habitat,
25.A. NO CHANGE
and latitude; event-level characteristics, e.g.
B. habitat breadth location-level characteristics,
number of individuals released, and date of
e.g. climate, structure and composition of the
introduction.
native habitat, and latitude;
Event-level characteristics are much more
C. habitat breadth; location-level
important than [26] species and location. By far
characteristics, e.g. climate, structure and
the most important characteristic appears to be the
composition of the native habitat, and
number of introductions of a species and the
latitude;
number of individuals released. This single factor
D. habitat breadth: location-level
explains much of the variation in the presence of
characteristics, e.g. climate, structure and
non-native species.
composition of the native habitat, and
latitude;

26.A. NO CHANGE
B. species and location-level characteristics.
C. species and location of characteristic.
D. species-level and location-level.

8
April 2021
One of the few species-level characteristics that 27.A. NO CHANGE
appears to have explanatory power is the climate B. breathe
and habitat [27] breadth of the species. Another C. breathing
relevant characteristic is behavioral flexibility: the D. breath
ability of the species to adapt to new food
28.A. NO CHANGE
resources or ecological conditions. Generalist,
B. be
widespread species have a better chance of being
C. became
introduced and [28] become established.
D. becoming

29. Which statement best interprets the graph?

A. Of the 1170 species which are non-native to
the Netherlands, land animals, land plants,
arthropods and fungi represent the largest
groups, while only small numbers of
nematodes and aquatic plants are non-native.

B. Aquatic species, land plants, arthropods and

fungi represent the largest groups, while only
small numbers of nematodes and land
animals are non-native.

C. Aquatic species represent the largest group,

while only small numbers of fungi and land
animals are non-native.

D. Aquatic species, land plants, arthropods and

fungi represent the largest groups.

9
April 2021
 The Netherlands has always had excellent water 30. Which wording is most consistent with the
paragraph as a whole?
connections to the European hinterland: mainly the
A. NO CHANGE
rivers Rhine and Meuse. These rivers create a
B. entrance
permanent [30] acceptance of water species,
C. influx
occasionally including non-native species. Another
D. arrival
important pathway for non-native species is
aquaculture. Lots of water plants and animals are 31.A. NO CHANGE
imported for use in Dutch aquaria and ponds. In B. has increased
addition, fish species are introduced for angling. C. is increasing
The number of non-native freshwater species [31] D. had increased
have increased strongly over the past decades. 32. Which statement best interprets the graph?
Many macroinvertebrates, fish and water plants A. For macroinvertebrates the main donor
have been introduced by human activity, mainly areas are North America and the Ponto-
the trade of plants and fish for use in ponds, the Caspian area.
release of fish species for angling purposes, the B. Important donor areas for fish are North
construction of the Main-Donau canal, and the America, the Ponto-Caspian area, and Asia.
discharge of ballast water. C. Most water plants have their origin in North
After the opening of the Rhine-Main Danube and South America.
waterway, the southern corridor became the D. Most water plants have their origin in Asia
principal corridor for the spread of non-native and Europe.
macroinvertebrates to the River Rhine.

10
April 2021
Up to now, the dispersal of only a few non-native 33. The author wants to replace the underlined
sentence with one of the following.
species was related to the Southwestern and
Which sentence works best?
Mediterranean corridors. Another important
A. NO CHANGE
pathway for macroinvertebrates is the import from
B. The majority of species originate from
North America.
temperate areas, and this is well
Some non-native species of fish have been
documented.
present in the Netherlands for a long time. [33]
C. The construction of the Main-Donau canal
Macroinvertebrates and water plants are much less
has caused a major increase in the number
than non-native fish species which make up 30%.
of non-native macroinvertebrate and fish
After 1990, again a fair amount of non-native fish
species.
species was introduced, mainly as a result of trade
D. These species are still intentionally being
in pond fish.
released for amateur fishing.
As for water plants, the main pathway (75% of
which are non-native species) is escape from
gardens, ponds or aquaria. Although most non-
native water plants do not cause any problems,
some species proliferate.

11
April 2021
Questions 34-44 are based on the following
passage.
Can Artificial Intelligence Make Art without
Artists?
The question of whether machines can make art
provokes very different answers from pioneers in
the field. Harold Cohen refuses to ascribe creativity
to his art-making robot [34] AARON, while Leonel
Moura argues that since his “Artbots” generate
pictures from emergent properties that could not
have been predicted by their creator, “they have at
least some degree of creativity.” Although the
question of whether machines can be artists seems
to fall squarely on our definition of the latter, a
solution to this philosophical [35] tenet may
ironically lie in redirecting the question away from
the artist and toward the viewer.
[36] For 50 years, Harold Cohen collaborated
with a computer program he dubbed AARON.
Gradually, he refined its code to produce drawings.
Later, he created paintings which grabbed his
interest and that of a large public.
12
34.A. NO CHANGE
B. AARON. While Leonel Moura argues that
since his “Artbots” generate pictures from
emergent properties,
C. AARON; while Leonel Moura argues that
since his “Artbots” generate pictures from
emergent properties,
D. AARON: while Leonel Moura argues that
since his “Artbots” generate pictures from
emergent properties
35.A. NO CHANGE
B. elucidation
C. impasse
D. headway
36.A. NO CHANGE
B. Harold Cohen collaborated with a computer
program dubbed AARON for 50 years and
with a refined code to produce drawings and
paintings which interested him and a large
public.
C. During his 50-year collaboration with a
computer program he dubbed AARON,
Harold Cohen gradually refined its code to
produce drawings, and later paintings, of
increasing interest to Cohen and to a large
public.
D. For 50 years, and with the help of a computer
program dubbed AARON, Harold Cohen
produced drawings and paintings which he
produced using refined programming code
that interested him and a large public.
April 2021
Over the years, Cohen also redefined [37] its own 37.A. NO CHANGE
role, which shifted from a programmer, who sets B. his
rules for AARON, to follow to a co-producer, who C. their
serves as colorist for AARON’s designs. Along D. our
with his own experience as an artist, five decades of
38.A. NO CHANGE
working with a computational machine to produce
B. to judge. Whether
art made Cohen especially qualified [38] to judge,
C. to judge; whether
whether an artificial intelligence can be considered
D. to judge whether
an artist in its own right. Despite admitting the
39.A. NO CHANGE
critical role AARON has played in his life as an
B. willing to grant
artist, Cohen seemed [39] reluctant to grant his
C. impassioned about granting
robotic partner the status of an artist to the extent
D. exuberant about granting
that he disqualifies a number of [40] procedure
aspect of artistry that can be modeled in computer 40.A. NO CHANGE
code. Instead of talking about AARON as an B. procedures aspect
individual artist, Cohen speaks about this C. procedural aspects
collaboration in terms that highlight the personal D. procedural aspect
nature of this human-machine relationship; 41. The author would like to express that Cohen does
Cohen characterizes the artistic potential of not believe that computers have free will and the
ability to be creative.
machines not in their intrinsic artistry but in their
Which choice best conveys this?
special collaborations with humans, as in his own
A. NO CHANGE
relationship with AARON. [41] He considers the
B. The time will come when machines could
attempt to model human creativity on a computer a
make art independent of human agency and
vain effort and throws a wet blanket on the
computers will be able to model human
possibility of machine made art.
creativity.
C. There is a possibility that art will be born of
an autonomous machine and their creative
ability is inevitable.
D. He dislikes the word “creative” and considers
robots’ attempts to model human creativity
acts of aesthetic free will.

13
April 2021
 Artist Leonel Moura, by comparison, is a newer 42.A. NO CHANGE
recruit to the machine-human boundary. Moura B. produces
began experimenting with artificial intelligence and C. is producing
robotic art in the late 1990s, and since the 2000s D. has produced
[42] produced mobile robots that make drawings
43. The author wants to show that Moura’s artwork
based on color density. These robots’ dynamic is is a result of a group of robots. Which word is
most effective?
collective rather than individual. Moura releases a
A. NO CHANGE
[43] collection of them onto a plastic canvas, each
B. swarm
armed with ink of a different color and a color
C. company
sensor that helps its on-board software decide when
D. gathering
to mark the PVC surface. The result is a
multicolored drawing emerging from hundreds of 44.A. NO CHANGE
such individual [44] strokes for Moura. Whether his B. strokes, for Moura, whether
art is made with or without machines is C. strokes: for Moura, whether
unimportant, so long as it is accepted by the art D. strokes. For Moura, whether
world’s gatekeepers.

14
April 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test II

Student’s Name _____________________________________

National ID _____________________________________
Test Center: _____________________________________

Duration: 65 minutes
52 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the multiple
choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
 The following edited passage is an
excerpt from Anna Karenina by Leo
Tolstoy, a historical fiction novel based
on Russian high society in the late-19th-
century.
Happy families are all alike; every
unhappy family is unhappy in its own
way.
Everything was in confusion in the
5 Oblonskys’ house. The wife had
discovered the husband’s deceit, and she
had announced to her husband that she
could not go on living in the same house
with him. This position of affairs had
10 now lasted three days, and not only the
husband and wife themselves, but all the
members of their family and household,
were painfully conscious of it. Every
person in the house felt that there was
15 no sense in their living together, and
that the stray people brought together by
chance in any inn had more in common
with one another than they, the members
of the family and household of the
20 Oblonskys. The wife did not leave her
own room, the husband had not been at
home for three days. The children ran
wild all over the house; the English
governess quarreled with the
25 housekeeper, and wrote to a friend
asking her to look out for a new
situation for her; the man-cook had
walked off the day before just at dinner
time; the kitchen-maid, and the
30 coachman had given warning.
Three days after the quarrel, Prince
Stepan Arkadyevitch Oblonsky—Stiva,
as he was called in the fashionable
world—woke up at his usual hour, that
35 is, at eight o’clock in the morning, not
in his wife’s bedroom, but on the
leather-covered sofa in his study. He
turned over his stout, well-cared-for
person on the springy sofa, as though he
40 would sink into a long sleep again; he
vigorously embraced the pillow on the
other side and buried his face in it; but
2
all at once he jumped up, sat up on the
sofa, and opened his eyes.
45 “Yes, yes, how was it now?” he thought,
going over his reverie. “Now, how was
it? To be sure! Alabin was giving a
dinner at Darmstadt; no, not Darmstadt,
but something American. Yes, but then,
50 Darmstadt was in America. Yes, Alabin
was giving a dinner on glass tables, and
the tables sang, Il mio tesoro—not Il
mio tesoro though, but something better,
and there were some sort of little
55 decanters on the table, and they were
women, too,” he remembered.
Stepan Arkadyevitch’s eyes twinkled
gaily, and he pondered with a smile.
“Yes, it was nice, very nice. There was a
60 great deal more that was delightful, only
there’s no putting it into words, or even
expressing it in one’s thoughts awake.”
And noticing a gleam of light peeping in
beside one of the serge curtains, he
65 cheerfully dropped his feet over the
edge of the sofa, and felt about with
them for his slippers, a present on his
last birthday, worked for him by his
wife on gold-colored morocco. And, as
70 he had done every day for the last nine
years, he stretched out his hand, without
getting up, towards the place where his
dressing-gown always hung in his
bedroom. And thereupon he suddenly
75 remembered that he was not sleeping in
his wife’s room, but in his study, and
why: the smile vanished from his face,
he knitted his brows.
“Ah, ah, ah! Oo!...” he muttered,
80 recalling everything that had happened.
And again every detail of his quarrel
with his wife was present to his
imagination, all the hopelessness of his
position, and worst of all, his own fault.
85 “Yes, she won’t forgive me, and she
can’t forgive me. And the most awful
thing about it is that it’s all my fault—
all my fault, though I’m not to blame.
April 2021
 That’s the point of the whole situation,” 4. As used in line 27, “situation” most
90 he reflected. “Oh, oh, oh!” he kept nearly means
repeating in despair, as he remembered A. environment.
the acutely painful sensations caused B. setting.
him by this quarrel. C. post.
D. condition.
Most unpleasant of all was the first
95 minute when, on coming, happy and 5. What do lines 67-74 indicate about
good-humored, from the theater, with a Stepan’s character?
huge pear in his hand for his wife, he A. He’s a creature of habit.
had not found his wife in the drawing- B. He’s forgetful.
room, to his surprise had not found her C. He’s self-indulged.
100 in the study either, and saw her at last in D. He’s excessively spoiled.
her bedroom with the unlucky letter that
revealed everything in her hand. 6. Which of the following best
describes the organization of the
She, his Dolly, forever fussing and passage?
worrying over household details, and A. generalizations followed by
105 limited in her ideas, as he considered, specific instances
was sitting perfectly still with the letter B. specific instances followed by
in her hand, looking at him with an contradicting facts
expression of horror, despair, and C. premise followed by supporting
indignation. details
D. hypothesis followed by a
1. What tone does the main character refutation
set for the passage?
7. On the basis of the passage, which
A. cool calmness mixed with self- of the following statements about
deprecation Stepan can most reasonably be
B. hypocrisy mixed with made?
resignation
A. His regret is superficial.
C. optimism mixed with naivety
B. His love for his wife outweighs
D. despair mixed with self-
her love for him.
absorption
C. He is unbothered by his deceitful
2. The dialogue in lines 45-56 is in acts.
reference to D. He is aware of the chaos within
A. a dream. the household.
B. a past memory. 8. Which choice best provides
C. an explanation. evidence for the answer to the
D. a description of past events. previous question?
3. Which choice best provides A. Lines 20-22 (“The … days.”)
evidence for the answer to the B. Lines 63-69 (“And …
previous question? morocco.”)
A. Lines 45-46 (“Yes … reverie.”) C. Lines 85-88 (“Yes … blame.”)
B. Lines 55-56 (“and … D. Lines 90-93 (“Oh … quarrel.”)
remembered.”)
C. Lines 74-78 (“And … brows.”)
D. Lines 79-80 (“Ah …
happened.”)

3
April 2021
9. As used in line 30, “warning” most
nearly means
A. reprimand.
B. premonition.
C. information.
D. notice for resignation.
10. The author uses the term “unlucky”
in line 101 to
A. emphasize the lack of luck the
letter has.
B. identify the letter as a bad omen.
C. highlight the trigger of the
problem at hand.
D. shift blame from Stepan to the
letter.

4
April 2021
 The first edited passage is from The
English Constitution by William
Blackstone discussing the cabinet
government. Passage 2, taken from
Commentaries on the Laws of English by
Walter Bagehot, discusses the rights of
Parliament.
Passage 1
Cabinet government is rare because its
prerequisites are many. It requires the co-
existence of several national
characteristics which are not often found
5 together in the world, and which should
be perceived more distinctly than they
often are. It is fancied that the possession
of a certain intelligence, and a few simple
virtues, are the sole requisites. The
10 mental and moral qualities are necessary,
but much else is necessary also. A
Cabinet government is the government of
a committee selected by the legislature,
and there are therefore a double set of
15 conditions to it: first, those which are
essential to all elective governments as
such; and second, those which are
requisite to this particular elective
government. There are prerequisites for
20 the genus, and additional ones for the
species.
The first prerequisite of elective
government is the mutual confidence of
the electors. We are so accustomed to
25 submit to be ruled by elected Ministers,
that we are apt to fancy all mankind
would readily be so too. Knowledge and
civilisation have at least made this
progress, that we instinctively, without
30 argument, almost without consciousness,
allow a certain number of specified
persons to choose our rulers for us. It
seems to us the simplest thing in the
world. But it is one of the gravest things.
35 The peculiar marks of semi-barbarous
people are diffused distrust and
indiscriminate suspicion. People, in all
but the most favoured times and places,
are rooted to the places where they were
5
40 born, think the thoughts of those places,
can endure no other thoughts. The next
parish even is suspected. Its inhabitants
have different usages, almost
imperceptibly different, but yet different;
45 they speak a varying accent; they use a
few peculiar words; tradition says that
their faith is dubious. And if the next
parish is a little suspected, the next
county is much more suspected. Here is a
50 definite beginning of new maxims, new
thoughts, new ways: the immemorial
boundary mark begins in feeling a strange
world. And if the next county is dubious,
a remote county is untrustworthy.
55 "Vagrants come from thence," men know,
and they know nothing else. The
inhabitants of the north speak a dialect
different from the dialect of the south:
they have other laws, another aristocracy,
60 another life. In ages when distant
territories are blanks in the mind, when
neighbourhood is a sentiment, when
locality is a passion, concerted co-
operation between remote regions is
65 impossible even on trivial matters.
Neither would rely enough upon the good
faith, good sense, and good judgment of
the other. Neither could enough calculate
on the other.
Passage 2
70 We are next to treat of the rights and
duties of persons, as they are members of
society, and stand in various relations to
each other. These relations are either
public or private: and we will first
75 consider those that are public.
The most universal public relation, by
which men are connected together, is that
of government; namely, as governors and
governed, or, in other words, as
80 magistrates and people. Of magistrates
also some are supreme, in whom the
sovereign power of the state resides;
others are subordinate, deriving all their
authority from the supreme magistrate,
85 accountable to him for their conduct, and
acting in an inferior secondary sphere.
April 2021
 In all tyrannical governments the supreme 13. The author in Passage 1 most likely
magistracy, or the right both of making uses quotations in line 55 to
and of enforcing the laws, is vested in one A. demonstrate the ignorance of the
90 and the same man, or one and the same men of the community.
body of men; and wherever these two B. emphasize the mindset of the
powers are united together, there can be members of the community.
no public liberty. The magistrate may C. offer an excuse for the lack of
enact tyrannical laws, and execute them trust in the community.
95 in a tyrannical manner, since he is D. excuse the ignorance among the
possessed, in quality of dispenser of men in the community.
justice, with all the power which he as
legislator thinks proper to give himself. 14. As used in line 25, “submit” most
But, where the legislative and executive nearly means
100 authority are in distinct hands, the former A. decide.
will take care not to entrust the latter with B. offer.
so large a power, as may tend to the C. assert.
subversion of its own independence, and D. give in.
therewith of the liberty of the subject.
105 With us therefore in England this 15. In Passage 1, the concept of mutual
supreme power is divided into two confidence of the electors towards the
branches; the one legislative, to wit, the elective government is viewed as
parliament, consisting of king, lords, and A. inevitable.
commons; the other executive, consisting B. necessary.
110 of the king alone. C. detrimental.
D. fundamental.
11. In Passage 1, lines 37-41 indicate
which of the following? 16. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
A. People are bound to the culture question?
and thoughts of their environment.
B. People have the opportunity to A. Line 34 (“But … things.”)
break away from their society and B. Lines 35-37 (“The … suspicion.”)
re-build themselves. C. Lines 49-54 (“Here …
C. Some people tend to remain untrustworthy.”)
ignorant of other ideas and values. D. Lines 68-69 (“Neither … other.”)
D. No one is able to endure the 17. The writing style in Passage 1 differs
thoughts of their environment. from Passage 2. Passage 1 is
12. Which of the following best A. anecdotal, whereas Passage 2 is
summarizes Passage 2? experimental.
A. Supreme magistrates hold the B. narrated, whereas Passage 2 is a
sovereign power of the states. critique.
B. A magistrate has limited power in C. critical, whereas Passage 2 is
government. systematically informative.
C. Parliament is divided into two D. analytical, whereas Passage 2 is
sectors to avoid unbalanced complementary to a primary
power. source.
D. Among members of society, there
exists both public and private
affairs.

6
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18. As used in line 96, “possessed” most
nearly means
A. in control.
B. preoccupied.
C. owned.
D. enchanted.
19. In Passage 2, the author would agree
with which of the following
statements?
A. Politics is the bond between the
people and its government at the
level of the state.
B. Tyranny is a pre-disposition found
in all magistrates.
C. England’s power is through the
authority of the king.
D. People are subordinate to the
higher authority.
20. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 76-80 (“The … people.”)
B. Lines 80-86 (“Of … sphere.”)
C. Lines 93-98 (“The … himself.”)
D. Lines 105-110 (“With … alone.”)
21. Which point from Passage 2 would
the author of Passage 1 disagree with?
A. Government is a public relation,
part of the people and for the
people.
B. There is an unwillingness to
entrust large power to the
executive authority for the
possibility of the subjects’
oppression.
C. Two powers, making and
enforcing laws, in the hands of the
same person limits public liberty.
D. Subordinate magistrates are
accountable for their actions and
decisions made.

7
April 2021
 The following edited passage is taken
from A Textbook of Assaying: For the
Use of Those Connected with Mines by
Cornelius Beringer and John Jacob
Beringer on wet gravimetric methods.
Zinc occurs in nature most commonly as
sulphide (blende); it also occurs as
carbonate (calamine) and silicate
(smithsonite). Each of these is
5 sufficiently abundant to be a source of the
metal. The metal is known in commerce
as "spelter" when in ingots, and as sheet
zinc when rolled. It is chiefly used in the
form of alloys with copper, which are
10 known as brasses. It is also used in the
form of a thin film, to protect iron goods
from rusting—galvanised iron.
Ores of zinc, more especially blende, are
met with in most lead, copper, gold, and
15 silver mines, in larger or small quantities
scattered through the lodes. Those ores
which generally come under the notice of
the assayer are fairly rich in zinc; but
alloys and metallurgical products contain
20 it in very varying proportions. Zinc itself
is readily soluble in dilute acids; any
residue which is left after boiling with
dilute hydrochloric or sulphuric acid
consists simply of the impurities of the
25 metal; this is generally lead.
All zinc compounds are either soluble in,
or are decomposed by, boiling with acids,
the zinc going into solution. Zinc forms
only one series of salts, and these are
30 colourless. Their chief characteristic is
solubility in an alkaline solution, from
which sulphuretted hydrogen produces a
white precipitate of zinc sulphide. Zinc is
detected by dissolving the substance in
35 hydrochloric or nitric acid, boiling, and
adding sodic hydrate in excess, filtering,
and adding ammonic sulphide to the
filtrate. The precipitate contains the zinc,
which can be dissolved out by boiling
40 with dilute sulphuric acid, and detected
by the formation of a white precipitate on
the addition of potassic ferrocyanide.
8
The dry assay of zinc can only be made
indirectly, and is unsatisfactory. Zinc is
45 volatile, and at the temperature of its
reduction is a gas. It is impracticable to
condense the vapour so as to weigh the
metal, consequently its amount is
determined by loss. The following
50 method gives approximate results: Take
10 grams of the dried and powdered ore
and roast, first at a low temperature and
afterwards at a higher one, with the help
of carbonate of ammonia to decompose
55 the sulphates formed; cool and weigh.
The metals will be present as oxides. Mix
with 2 grams of powdered charcoal and
charge into a black-lead crucible heated
to whiteness, cover loosely, and leave in
60 the furnace for about a quarter of an hour.
Uncover and calcine the residue, cool and
weigh. The loss in weight multiplied by
8.03 gives the percentage of zinc in the
ore.
65 Volumetric determination is based on the
facts that zinc salts in an acid solution
decompose potassium ferrocyanide,
forming a white insoluble zinc
compound; and that an excess of the
70 ferrocyanide can be detected by the
brown coloration it strikes with uranium
acetate. The method resembles in its
working the bichromate iron assay. The
standard solution of potassium
75 ferrocyanide is run into a hot
hydrochloric acid solution of the zinc
until a drop of the latter brought in
contact with a drop of the indicator
(uranium acetate) on a white plate strikes
80 a brown colour. The quantity of zinc in
the solution must be approximately
known; run in a little less of the
ferrocyanide than is expected will be
necessary; test a drop or two of the assay,
85 and then run in, one or two c.c. at a time,
until the brown colour is obtained. Add 5
c.c. of a standard zinc solution, equivalent
in strength to the standard "ferrocyanide,"
re-titrate, and finish off cautiously. Of
90 course 5 c.c. must be deducted from the
reading on the burette. The precipitate of
zinc ferrocyanide formed in the assay
April 2021
 solution is white; but if traces of iron are 25. Which choice best provides evidence
present, it becomes bluish. If the quantity for the answer to the previous
95 of ferrocyanide required is known within question?
a few c.c., the finishing point is exactly A. Lines 1-4 (“Zinc …
determined in the first titration without (smithsonite).”)
any addition of the standard zinc solution. B. Lines 13-16 (“Ores … lodes.”)
Unfortunately this titration serves simply C. Lines 30-33 (“Their …
100 to replace the gravimetric determination, sulphide.”)
and does not, as many volumetric D. Lines 49-50 (“The … results:”)
processes do, lessen the necessity for a
complete separation of any other metals 26. The author mentions all of the
which are present. Most metals give following EXCEPT:
105 precipitates with ferrocyanide of A. Zinc forms a colourless series of
potassium in acid solutions. If the salts.
conditions are held to, the titration is a B. Zinc is unpredictable.
fairly good one, and differences in the C. The precipitate of zinc
results of an assay will be due to error in ferrocyanide can either be white
110 the separation. Ferric hydrate precipitated or blue depending on the presence
in a fairly strong solution of zinc will of iron.
carry with it perceptible quantities of that D. The titration of zinc is more
metal. Similarly, large quantities of trustworthy than the gravimetric
copper precipitated as sulphide by means method.
115 of sulphuretted hydrogen will carry zinc
with it, except under certain nicely drawn 27. As used in line 46, “reduction” most
conditions. When much copper is present nearly means
it is best separated in a nitric acid solution A. diminution.
by electrolysis. B. expansion.
22. The purpose of the first paragraph is C. demotion.
to D. discount.
A. outline main ideas. 28. The transition from the first half of
B. present a hypothesis. the passage to the second half starting
C. provide a definition. at line 65 can best be described as
D. introduce a critique. A. generalization to supporting
23. As used in line 1, “occurs” most details.
nearly means B. exposition to a specific method.
C. argumentative to rhetorical.
A. takes place. D. evidence-based to persuasive.
B. exists.
C. comes to mind. 29. Which of the following must be true
D. suggests itself. for volumetric determination of zinc
to take place?
24. The author guides the reader through
the workings of assaying zinc by A. The amount of zinc used should
be unascertained.
A. defining the origin of zinc. B. An indicator must be present that
B. providing information, whether turns brown when there is an
necessary or unnecessary. excess of zinc.
C. giving a basic overview. C. If excess iron is detected, the
D. providing an experimental solution turns blue.
example. D. Zinc salts do not decompose
during titration.

9
April 2021
30. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 65-69 (“Volumetric …
compound;”)
B. Lines 73-80 (“The … colour.”)
C. Lines 80-82 (“The … known;”)
D. Lines 93-94 (“but … bluish.”)
31. Which of the following most
resembles the relationship between
“the precipitate of zinc ferrocyanide”
and “iron” (lines 91-94) as described
in the passage?
A. A car filled with unfiltered water
results in a radiator blocked with
limestone.
B. Excessive rain in the desert results
in flooding.
C. A rock thrown in a lake results in
ripples.
D. Adding lemon to a main dish
results in a sour tang.

10
April 2021
 The following edited passage is taken
from Manual Of Egyptian Archaeology
And Guide To The Study Of Antiquities
In Egypt by Gaston Maspero on early
private dwellings.
The lower classes lived in mere huts
which, though built of bricks, were no
better than those of the present fellahin.
At Karnak, in the Pharaonic town; at
5 Kom Ombo, in the Roman town; and at
Medinet Habû, in the Coptic town, the
houses in the poorer quarters have seldom
more than twelve or sixteen feet of
frontage. They consist of a ground floor,
10 with sometimes one or two living-rooms
above. The middle-class folk, as
shopkeepers, sub-officials, and foremen,
were better housed. Their houses were
brick-built and rather small, yet contained
15 some half-dozen rooms communicating
by means of doorways, which were
usually arched over, and having vaulted
roofs in some cases, and in others flat
ones.
20 Some few of the houses were two or three
storeys high, and many were separated
from the street by a narrow court, beyond
which the rooms were ranged on either
side of a long passage; and yet oftener the
25 house fronted close upon the street. In the
latter case the façade consisted of a high
wall, whitewashed or painted, and
surmounted by a cornice.
Even in better houses the only
30 ornamentation of their outer walls
consisted in angular grooving, the
grooves being surmounted by
representations of two lotus flowers, each
pair with the upper parts of the stalks in
35 contact. The door was the only opening,
save perhaps a few small windows
pierced at irregular intervals. Even in
unpretentious houses, the door was often
made of stone. The doorposts projected
40 slightly beyond the surface of the wall,
and the lintel supported a painted or
sculptured cornice. Having crossed the
threshold, one passed successively
11
through two dimly-lighted entrance
45 chambers, the second of which opened
into the central court. The best rooms in
the houses of wealthier citizens were
sometimes lighted through a square
opening in the centre of a ceiling
50 supported on wooden columns.
Notwithstanding the prevalence of enteric
disease and ophthalmia, the family
crowded together into one or two rooms
during the winter, and slept out on the
55 roof under the shelter of mosquito nets in
summer. On the roof also the women
gossiped and cooked. The ground floor
included both store-rooms, barns, and
stables. Private granaries were generally
60 in pairs, brick-built in the same long
conical shape as the state granaries, and
carefully plastered with mud inside and
out. Neither did the people of a house
forget to find or to make hiding places in
65 the walls or floors of their home, where
they could secrete their household
treasures--such as nuggets of gold and
silver, precious stones, and jewellery for
men and women--from thieves and tax-
70 collectors alike. Wherever the upper
floors still remain standing, they
reproduce the ground-floor plan with
scarcely any differences.
The rooms were not left undecorated; the
75 mud-plaster of the walls, generally in its
native grey, although whitewashed in
some cases, was painted with red or
yellow, and ornamented with drawings of
interior and exterior views of a house,
80 and of household vessels and eatables.
The roof was flat, and made probably, as
at the present day, of closely laid rows of
palm-branches covered with a coating of
mud thick enough to withstand the effects
85 of rain. Sometimes it was surmounted by
only one or two of the usual Egyptian
ventilators; but generally there was a
small washhouse on the roof, and a little
chamber for the slaves or guards to sleep
90 in.
April 2021
 The mansions of the rich and great
covered a large space of ground. They
most frequently stood in the midst of a
garden, or of an enclosed court planted
95 with trees; and, like the commoner
houses, they turned a blank front to the
street, consisting of bare walls,
battlemented like those of a fortress.
Thus, home-life was strictly secluded,
100 and the pleasure of seeing was sacrificed
for the advantages of not being seen. The
door was approached by a flight of two or
three steps, or by a porch supported on
columns and adorned with statues, which
105 gave it a monumental appearance, and
indicated the social importance of the
family. Plan of a house from Eighteenth Dynasty
tomb-painting.
If I would convey some idea of the Source: Gaston Maspero
residence of an Egyptian noble,--a
110 residence half palace, half villa,--I cannot 32. The passage is most likely written for
do better than reproduce two out of the
many pictorial plans. The first represent a A. first year anthropology university
Theban house. The enclosure is square, students.
and surrounded by an embattled wall. The B. graduate architecture students.
115 main gate opens upon a road bordered C. experienced historians.
with trees, which runs beside a canal, or D. a middle school history class.
perhaps an arm of the Nile. Low stone 33. According to the passage, who of the
walls divide the garden into symmetrical following would most likely live in a
compartments, like those which are seen small yet better housing?
120 to this day in the great gardens of
A. a farmer
Ekhmîm or Girgeh. In the centre is a
B. a slave
large trellis supported on four rows of
C. a governor
slender pillars. Four small ponds, two to
D. a lower representative
the right and two to the left, are stocked
125 with ducks and geese. Two nurseries, two 34. Which of the following was
summer-houses, and various avenues of mentioned in the passage regarding
sycamores, date-palms, and dôm-palms the second floor?
fill up the intermediate space; while at the A. The second floor is always the
end, facing the entrance, stands a small roof.
130 three-storied house surmounted by a B. The second floor may collapse
painted cornice. with bad weather.
C. The second floor is a replica of
the first.
D. The second floor doesn’t exist.

12
April 2021
35. Which choice best provides evidence 40. Which of the following best describes
for the answer to the previous the meaning of lines (63-70) “Neither
question? … alike.”?
A. Lines 20-24 (“Some … passage;”) A. The people failed to make places
B. Lines 42-46 (“Having … court.”) in their home to hide their
C. Lines 56-57 (“On … cooked.”) treasures.
D. Lines 70-73 (“Wherever … B. The people would make the effort
differences.”) to create secret rooms or hiding
places for their valuables.
36. As used in line 15, “communicating”
C. Thieves and tax collectors were
most nearly means
aware of the placement of the
A. separating. valuables in the home.
B. transmitting. D. People would forget to find or
C. contacting. make hiding places in the walls or
D. connecting. floors of their homes.
37. Which of the following best describes 41. As used in line 116, “runs” most
the structure of the passage? nearly means
A. Organized, beginning from the A. dashes.
home of the lowest class to the B. competes.
highest class. C. extends.
B. Organized, beginning with the D. manages.
homes of the lowest class to the
42. The pictograph supports which of the
upper-lower class.
following paragraphs in the passage?
C. Disorganized, jumping from the
homes of one class to the next A. Paragraph 2
unsystematically. B. Paragraph 4
D. Disorganized, beginning with the C. Paragraph 6
societal classes to different types D. Paragraph 7
of homes.
38. Which of the following can be
inferred about the Egyptian nobles
based on their homes?
A. They rarely experience conflict.
B. They are isolated.
C. They lack stability in their
position.
D. They are disliked by the lower
class.
39. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 85-90 (“Sometimes … in.”)
B. Lines 91-92 (“The … ground.”)
C. Lines 95-98 (“and … fortress.”)
D. Lines 99-101 (“Thus … seen.”)

13
April 2021
 The following edited passage is taken
from On Laboratory Arts by Richard
Threlfall on the creation of a focus tube.
Although the glass-blowing involved in
the making of a so-called focus tube is
rather more difficult than in the case just
described, there is no reason why such a
5 difficulty should not be overcome; I will
therefore explain how a focus tube may
be made.
A bulb about 3 inches in diameter is
blown from a bit of tube of a little more
10 than 1 inch diameter. Unless the walls
of the tube are about one-eighth of an
inch in thickness, this will involve a
preliminary thickening up of the glass.
This is not difficult if care be taken to
15 avoid making the glass too hot. The
larger gas jet described in connection
with the soda-glass-blowing table must
be employed. In blowing a bulb of this
size it must not be forgotten that
20 draughts exercise a very injurious
influence by causing the glass to cool
unequally; this leads to bulbs of
irregular shape.
In the method of construction, the anode
25 is put in first. This anode simply
consists of a square bit of platinum or
platinum-iridium foil, measuring about
0.75 inch by 1 inch, and riveted on to a
bent aluminium wire stem.
30 As soon as the anode is fused in, and
while the glass is still hot, the side tube
is put on. The whole of the anode end is
then carefully annealed. When the
annealing is finished the side tube is
35 bent to serve as a handle when the time
comes to mount the cathode. Before
placing the cathode in position, and
while the main tube is still wide open,
the anode is adjusted by means of a tool
40 thrust in through this open end. This is
necessary in view of the fact that the
platinum foil is occasionally bent during
14
the operation of forcing the anode into
the bulb.
45 The cathode is a portion of a spherical
surface of polished aluminium, a mode
of preparing which will be given
directly. The cathode having been
placed inside the bulb, the wide glass
50 tube is carefully drawn down and cut off
at such a point that when the cathode is
in position its centre of curvature will lie
slightly in front of the anode plate. For
instance, if the radius of curvature of the
55 cathode be 1.5 inches, the centre of
curvature may lie something like an
eighth of an inch or less in front of the
anode.
The cathode is rather smaller than is
60 advantageous. To make it much larger,
however, the opening into the bulb
would require to be considerably
widened, and though this is not really a
difficult operation, still it requires more
65 practice than my readers are likely to
have had. The difficulty is not so much
in widening out the entry as in closing it
down again neatly.
Now as to making the anode. A disc of
70 aluminium is cut from a sheet which
must not be too thick — one twenty-
fifth of an inch is quite thick enough.
This disc is bored at the centre to allow
of the stem being riveted in position.
75 The disc is then annealed in the Bunsen
flame and the stem riveted on.
The curvature is best got by striking
between steel dies. Two bits of tool steel
are softened and turned on the lathe, one
80 convex and the other concave. The
concave die has a small hole drilled up
the centre to admit the stem. The desired
radius of curvature is easily attained by
cutting out templates from sheet zinc
85 and using them to gauge the turning.
The two dies are slightly ground
together on the lathe with emery and oil
and are then polished, or rather the
April 2021
 convex die is polished — the other one
90 does not matter. The polishing is most
easily done by using graded emery and
oil and polishing with a rag.

The aluminium disc is now struck

between the dies by means of a hammer.
95 If the radius of curvature is anything
more than one inch and the disc not
more than one inch in diameter the
cathode can be struck at once from the
flat as described. For very deep curves
100 no doubt it will be better to make an
intermediate pair of dies and to re-
Method of Construction
anneal the aluminium after the first
Source: Richard Threlfall
striking.

When the tube is successfully prepared
105 so far as the glassblowing goes it may
be rinsed with strong pure alcohol both
inside and out, and dried. The straight
part of the side tube is then constricted
ready for fusing off and the whole affair
110 is placed on the vacuum pump.
In spite of the great improvements made
during recent years in the construction
of so-called Geissler vacuum pumps —
i.e. pumps in which a Torricellian
115 vacuum is continually reproduced — I
am of opinion that Sprengel pumps are,
on the whole, more convenient for
exhausting Crooke's tubes. A full
discussion of the subject of vacuum
120 pumps will be found in a work by Mr.
G. S. Ram (The Incandescent Lamp and
its Manufacture), published by the
Electrician Publishing Company, and it
is not my intention to deal with the
125 matter here; the simplest kind of
Sprengel pump will be found quite
adequate for our purpose, provided that
it is well made.
43. The primary purpose of the passage
is to
A. educate the reader on how to
avoid creating faults when
making a focus tube.
B. introduce the reader to the
different sixes of anodes and
cathodes.
C. explain how to use an anode.
D. give examples on how to create
a curvature.
44. In lines 10-13 (“Unless … glass.”),
the author uses evidence that
A. supports the process of making a
focus tube without error.
B. supports the process of creating
a bulb with irregular shapes.
C. fails to support the difficult
process of creating a bulb.
D. fails to support the difficult
process of creating irregular bulb
shapes.

15
April 2021
45. Which of the following is NOT 50. As used in line 86, “ground” most
mentioned in the passage? nearly means
A. The anode is placed initially in A. prepared.
the bulb. B. established.
B. The convex die is more C. rubbed.
important in creating the D. constructed.
curvature. 51. In the last paragraph, the author’s
C. The final step is to submerge the use of references to types of vacuum
tube in a substance and carefully pumps and work by Mr. G. S. Ram
dry it over heat.
D. Expertise is needed to widen the A. weakens his argument for
opening of the bulb. Spengel pumps.
B. reduces value from his argument
46. Which choice best provides against the use of Crooke’s tube.
evidence for the answer to the C. supports his opinion on Sprengel
previous question? pumps.
A. Lines 24-25 (“In … first.”) D. contributes to his argument that
B. Lines 60-66 (“To … had.”) new contributions have been
C. Lines 86-90 (“The … matter.”) made in the construction of
D. Lines 104-107 (“When … Geissler vacuum pumps.
dried.”) 52. The graphic supports which of the
47. As used in line 77, “got” most following steps?
nearly means A. A glass tube is blown.
A. collected. B. An anode is carefully inserted.
B. earned. C. The curvature is created by two
C. understood. dies.
D. obtained. D. The tube is placed in a vacuum
pump.
48. What is the relationship between the
anode and the cathode?
A. The anode doesn’t allow a larger
cathode into the bulb.
B. Without the anode, the cathode
cannot be inserted.
C. The cathode only works when
placed in the centre of the anode.
D. If the cathode is rather small, it
will benefit the anode.
49. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 24-25 (“In … first.”)
B. Lines 33-36 (“When …
cathode.”)
C. Lines 48-53 (“The … plate.”)
D. Lines 59-60 (“The …
advantageous.”)

16
April 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test I
Answer Key
(Writing Section)
1. C 23. A
2. B 24. D
3. A 25. C
4. C 26. B
5. B 27. A
6. A 28. D
7. D 29. B
8. C 30. C
9. A 31. B
10. B 32. A
11. A 33. D
12. C 34. A
13. B 35. C
14. A 36. C
15. D 37. B
16. A 38. D
17. B 39. A
18. A 40. C
19. C 41. A
20. D 42. D
21. B 43. B
22. A 44. D

April 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test II
Answer Key
(Reading Section)
Passage 1 Passage 4
1. D 32. A
2. A 33. D
3. A 34. C
4. C 35. D
5. A 36. D
6. A 37. A
7. A 38. B
8. C 39. D
9. D 40. B
10. C 41. C
42. D
Passage 2
11. A Passage 5
12. C 43. A
13. B 44. A
14. D 45. C
15. C 46. D
16. A 47. D
17. C 48. B
18. A 49. B
19. A 50. C
20. A 51. C
21. B 52. B
Passage 3
22. C
23. B
24. D
25. D
26. D
27. A
28. B
29. B
30. B
31. A
 EST I – Literacy Test I

_____________________________________
Student’s Name
_____________________________________
National ID
_____________________________________
Test Center:

Duration: 35 minutes
44 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the
multiple choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.

1
Directions: Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions,
you will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For other
questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence
structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by one or more
graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing
decisions. Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions
will direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole. After
reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the
quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of
standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option
if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

2
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.
City or Urban Planners 1. Which choice best maintains the
City planners play an essential role in making sentence pattern already established
in the paragraph?
safe places to live in and visit. Although they'll
continue focusing on that goal in the years A. NO CHANGE
ahead, tomorrow's city planners will differ B. To depend on new safety
from current planners in some significant assessment options, city planners
ways. (1) To ensure buildings are safe during will ensure buildings are safe
the initial construction process, city planners during the initial constructions.
will depend on new safety assessment options. C. City planners will depend on new
When each of these specialized testing safety assessment options to
processes (2) occur, it is likely the result of ensure buildings are safe during
careful analysis conducted by urban planners. the initial construction process.
D. During the initial construction
Currently, city planners tackle safety-related
process, and to ensure buildings
disaster preparation with seismic engineers
are safe, city planners will depend
who use shake tables fitted with models of the
on new safety assessment options.
buildings to see how they stand up to stress.
Those evaluations generally include 2.A. NO CHANGE
evaluating the needs, assessing the structures B. occur, them are
before disasters happen, and (3) they plan for C. occur, they are
subsequent high-tech tests. D. occurs, it is
In September 2018, a panel discussed 3.A. NO CHANGE
nondestructive testing techniques using B. plans
technology. As a result, city planners have an C. planning
array of nondestructive options to pick from D. to plan
when deciding how to verify structural 4. Which choice results in the most
integrity for disaster preparedness (4) and effective transition to the
ensure buildings are safe for occupancy information that follows in the
during disaster relief efforts.
paragraph?
Another initiative that supports city planners A. NO CHANGE
in providing communities with safe places to
B. where buildings are occupied.
live is called Vision Zero. This initiative is
C. and ensure safety during
based on the belief that everyone has the right disasters.
to move safely in their communities. It D. DELETE the underlined portion
encourages collaboration between
and end the sentence with a
professionals who historically have not
period.
worked together, such as local traffic
planners and public health officials. This 5.A. NO CHANGE
program and others like it encourage city B. residents’ everyday lives
planners to diversify the strategies they use to C. residents everyday lives
maintain or check safety, which might mean D. residents everyday lives,
improving (5) residents’ everyday lives,
before and after disasters.

3
One thing city planners keep in mind is that
the growing destruction and frequency of
natural disasters make it necessary to (6) use
development with emergency plans when
creating infrastructures. Today's city
planners strategically incorporate specific
materials that have a beneficial impact in
situations of natural disaster. (7)
Furthermore, they might use pavement that
absorbs water to cope with the aftermath of
floods. (8) According to research, asphalt
pavement offers high skid resistance and
provides high contrast in color between it and
road markers.
4
6.A. NO CHANGE
B. apply
C. change
D. integrate
7.A. NO CHANGE
B. For example,
C. Next,
D. Similarly,
8. The writer is considering deleting the
underlined sentence. Should the
sentence be kept or deleted?
A. Kept, because it provides
supporting evidence about the
benefits of using pavement.
B. Kept, because it provides an
additional example of the
importance of using machines.
C. Deleted, because it blurs the
paragraph’s focus on the use of
technology to help city planners
manage disasters.
D. Deleted, because it doesn’t
provide specific examples of what
the numerous benefits of
pavement are.
(9) People who pursue careers in urban
planning have a wide variety of educational
backgrounds. City and regional planners may
specialize in areas such
transportation planning, community
development, (10) historic preservation,
or urban design, among other fields of
interest. Planners often collaborate with public
officials, civil engineers, environmental
engineers, architects, lawyers, and real estate
developers. As of 2010, there were
approximately 40,300 urban and regional
planners employed in the United States. The
United States Bureau of Labor Statistics
forecasts steady job growth in this field, (11)
projecting that 16 percent of new jobs in all
occupations will be related to urban and
regional planning. Population growth and
concerns about environmental sustainability
are expected to spur the need for urban
planners.
9.A. No CHANGE
B. People, who pursue careers in
urban planning have a wide
as variety of educational
backgrounds,
C. People who pursue careers in
urban planning, have a wide
variety of educational
backgrounds
D. People who pursue careers in
urban planning have a wide
variety of educational
backgrounds,
10.A. No CHANGE
B. historic preservation or urban
design,
C. historic preservation and urban
design,
D. historic preservation, and urban
design,
11. Which choice completes the
sentence with accurate data based on
the graph?
A. NO CHANGE
B. warning that job growth in urban
planning will slow to 14 percent
by 2020.
C. predicting that employment in
urban planning will increase by
16 percent between 2010 and
2020.
D. indicating that 14 to 18 percent of
urban positions will remain
unfilled.
5
Questions 12 through 22 are based on the following passage.
Music What stands out most is the fact that
humpback whale songs include
Music can bring about a range of emotions
rhyming refrains that repeat. Some
locked deep into the recess of our minds that
researches imply that just as humans use
have us break out into a jig, (12) drives us
rhymes as a device to move information from
into conflict, or cause a snore none too big. It
their short-term memory to their long-term
is paramount that we acknowledge the
memory, rhymes are used in much of the
remarkable power of music and its existence
same way among whales.
that spans over the entire history of mankind.
Through the archaeological and 12.A. No CHANGE
anthropological discoveries made in France B. had driven
and Slovenia, we know that Neanderthals C. drove
(13) as long as 53,000 years ago had created D. drive
complex, sweet-sounding flutes sculpted 13.A. NO CHANGE
from animal bones. With that in mind, it is B. , as long as 53,000 years ago,
not surprising that music both enters and C. as, long as 53,000 years ago,
affects the limbic system. Some researchers D. as long as 53,000, years ago
even argue that music prevailed long before 14.A. NO CHANGE
the human race ever existed. Take, for B. even though
example, the commonality of music between C. moreover
humans and whales (14) but our evolutionary D. and
paths have not crossed for nearly 60 million 15.A. NO CHANGE
years. We are nowhere close to being the B. in the musical scene
inventors of music but rather we are C. on the musical scene
latecomers (15) to the musical scene. D. for the musical scene
16. The writer wants to add the following
sentence to the paragraph.
(16) 1. It has been observed that human Whale songs in general are no
songwriters tend to (17) recruit many of the longer than symphony movements,
same techniques as humpback whale perhaps because they have a
composers. 2. Humpback whales are known similar attention span.
for their short musical phrases, musical The best placement of this sentence is
patterns, and the use of rhythms similar to immediately
ones used by humans. 3. Despite the fact that A. before sentence 1.
humpback whales can sing over a range of B. after sentence 1.
seven octaves, they usually sing on key, C. after sentence 2.
keeping adjacent notes within the same scale. D. after sentence 3.
4. Just as human composers mix percussive 17.A. NO CHANGE
and pure tones, so do humpback whales in B. change
almost the same ratio. They follow ABA C. employ
form: a theme is presented, elaborated on, D. inspire
and then revisited in a slightly modified form.

6
(18) Moreover, whale songs can be quite
memorable and just as you may find yourself
repeating the same song over and over in your
head, whales also have songs that stick in the
mind. Once there were a few humpback
whales from the Indian Ocean that had
strayed into the Pacific. Some of the whales
they met in the Pacific directly altered their
(19) tunes – singing the new musical piece
within three short years.
(20) Katy Payne studied music and biology in
higher education and later became an
American zoologist and researcher in the
Bioacoustics Research Program at the
Laboratory of Ornithology at Cornell
University. It was unsurprising, then, that
Payne and her husband, Roger, were the first
scientists to recognize the complex and (21)
mysterious calls of some humpback whales
as actual reproducible songs. (22)
18. Which choice most effectively
establishes the main topic of the
paragraph?
A. Katy Payne is considered the
pioneer of research conducted on
whales.
B. Katy Payne and her husband tried
their best to discover the origin of
the tunes.
C. Whales are interesting creatures
that have caught scientists’
attention for the intricate tunes
they emit.
D. Scientists will further study the
sounds emitted by whales.
19.A. NO CHANGE
B. tunes
C. tunes:
D. tunes;
20. Which of the following best
provides an introductory sentence to
the paragraph?
7
A. Katy Payne and Roger were well-
known researchers that excelled
in their careers.
B. Many people believed research in
music had to include the music of
the animals around us.
C. Katy Payne was an excellent
researcher and was proficient in
reading music.
D. There have not been many
scientists who have dedicated
their research to a cross-
disciplinary topic, but Katy Payne
was among the few who did.
21.A. NO CHANGE
B. discovered
C. heard
D. recorded
22. Which choice best concludes the
paragraph?
A. For the first 30 seconds, there is
mumbling, sometimes awkward
giggling as the audience gets used
to the deep, rumbling groans and
high-pitched squeaks
B. In 1970, Payne led a team that
released a five-track, 34-minute
album called Songs of the
Humpback Whale. To everyone’s
surprise it became a hit and sold
more than 125,000 copies,
making it the most popular nature
recording of all time.
C. Pete Seeger and Judy Collins,
superstars at the time, wrote songs
inspired by these songs.
D. When Nasa launched their
Golden Record aboard the
Voyager spacecraft in 1977, one
of Payne’s songs was included on
the 12-inch gold-plated disc,
along with music from Bach,
Mozart and Louis Armstrong.
Questions 23 through 33 are based on the following passage.
Cheese 23.A. NO CHANGE
B. starts
The manufacturing of cheese (23) initiates C. solidifies
documented history. It has been suggested D. predates
that it was during the accidental movement of
fresh milk in the organs of animals such as 24. Which choice provides the most
sheep, cows, and goats, that milk was relevant detail?
discovered. Preceding refrigeration, (24)
cheese became a way to preserve milk. Yet, A. NO CHANGE
despite these discoveries, it is still uncertain B. cheese is a dairy product, derived
where cheese production (25) was first from milk and produced in a wide
discovered although there is evidence of range of flavors.
earlier civilizations in the Middle East, C. cheese became more desirable as
Europe, and Central Asia that produced a food additive for humans.
cheese. D. cheese became an important
element of humans’ diet.
1. Some scientists and researchers believe
that it was around 8000 BC, approximately 25.A. NO CHANGE
around the same time that sheep were first B. had been first discovered
domesticated, that cheese was first found. 2. C. is being first discovered
There is an enzyme, rennet, used to make D. is first discovered
cheese that is naturally found in the stomachs 26.A. NO CHANGE
of animals such as cows, sheep, and goats. 3. B. store, and
Due to a lack of refrigeration, the residual C. store and
rennet in the animals’ body combined with D. store and,
heat naturally curdled the milk to create the
earliest forms of cheese. 4. Humans decided 27. To make this paragraph most
to use the animal organs that naturally stored logical, sentence 4 should be
both the enzyme and curdled milk to (26) A. placed where it is now.
store; and transfer milk and other liquids as B. placed before sentence 1.
the organs were both leak-proof and good C. placed after sentence 1.
forms of storage. (27) D. combined with sentence 1.
What we now find in supermarkets and refer
to as “cheese” is the product of the milk curds
that were strained and had salt added to. Salt
was specifically added to keep the cheese
fresh and edible for as long as possible. Even
with the addition of salt, areas that hosted
warmer climates were forced to make cheese
daily in order to always have fresh cheese
available for consumption.

8
Much of the opposite is true in cooler 28.A. NO CHANGE
climates. As cheese production made its way B. as
to Northern Europe, elements in its overall C. like
production changed. One of the main D. for
alterations was the decrease in the use of salt 29.A. NO CHANGE
resulting in creamier yet milder forms of B. it may be
cheese. Some examples of those cheeses are C. is
gouda, cheddar, and parmesan. Cheese in D. it will be
Europe in the Middle Ages was perceived as
a great source of calcium. Low-fat cheese 30.A. NO CHANGE
works (28) to be a digestive aid, and (29) it is B. Also
full of sodium. (30) The first factory in C. Therefore
Switzerland was built in 1815 as scientists at D. For instance
the time discovered how to mass-produce the 31.A. NO CHANGE
enzyme, causing industrial cheese production B. rare
to quickly become (31) widespread. Many C. allowed
benefits arose from the pasteurization of soft D. controlled
cheeses such as reducing the risk of spreading
tuberculosis, listeriotic, salmonellosis, and 32. The writer is considering deleting
brucellosis. That didn’t, however, completely the underlined sentence. Should the
protect everyone from such risks. Pregnant writer do this?
women are advised against certain cheeses A. Yes, because it does not relate to
(such as blue-veined cheeses) as they are the main idea of this paragraph.
risky to both the mother and her child. B. Yes, because it fails to support the
The significance of cheese becomes more main argument of the passage.
apparent when reviewing texts of ancient C. No, because it talks about the
civilizations. Researchers have found early history of cheese.
Roman texts that outline the method used to D. No, because it clarifies the
produce cheese and how they enjoyed it. (32) argument for the importance of
In fact, the Romans enjoyed a wide selection cheese for the early Romans.
of cheese and viewed cheese making as a 33.A. NO CHANGE
form of art. B. , and flavoring
C. ; and flavoring
In more recent times, the process of cheese
D. : and flavoring
making seems to have lost its artisitic
quality with the emergence of industries and
mass-production. In America, for instance,
the method of processing cheese involves
combining natural cheese with emulsifiers,
milk, coloring, stabilizers (33) and
flavoring. As a result, Americans have come
to eat less natural cheese with time and the
appreciation of traditional cheese making is
now simply a rarity.

9
Questions 34 through 44 are based on the following passage.
Quality of trees: Trees grown in a nursery 34.A. NO CHANGE
are preferable for transplanting to trees B. , a well-defined leader.
grown in the forest. Nursery-grown trees C. ; and a well-defined leader.
possess a well-developed root system with D. –and a well-defined leader.
numerous fibrous rootlets, a straight stem, a 35. What is the best way to combine the
symmetrical crown (34) , and a well-defined two sentences?
leader. Trees grown in neighboring nurseries
are preferable to those grown at great A. NO CHANGE
distances (35) , yet they will be better B. because
adapted to local climatic and soil conditions. C. therefore
The short distances over which they must be D. despite
transported also will entail less danger to the 36. Which of the following sentences
roots through drying. For lawn planting, the can be added for detail and
branches should reach low to the ground, coherency?
while for street purposes the branches
should start at about seven feet from the A. Some people disregard how short
ground. (36) For woodland planting, the or long the branches should fall.
form of the tree is of minor consideration, B. Street planting also prefers the
though it is better to have the leader well stem to be straight.
defined here as well as in the other cases. C. For street planting, it is also
important that the stem should be
When and how to procure the trees: The perfectly straight and about two
trees should be selected in the nursery (37) inches in diameter.
on your own terms. Some people prefer to D. For street planting, it is very
secure the more valuable specimens with similar to lawn planting.
leaden seals. Fall is the best time to make 37.A. NO CHANGE
the selection, because at that time one can B. personally
have a wider choice of material. Selecting C. on a one to one basis
this early will also prevent delay in delivery D. individually
at the time when it is desired to plant.

When to plant: The best time to plant trees

is early spring, just before growth begins,
and after the frost is out of the ground. The
planting period in the Eastern States is
generally from the latter part of March to the
early part of May.

10
Where (38) she has to plant both coniferous 38.A. NO CHANGE
and deciduous trees, it is best to get the B. it
deciduous in first, and then the conifers. C. he
D. one
How to plant: (39) The location of the trees 39. Which of the following best begins
in relation to each other should be carefully the paragraph?
considered. On the lawn, they should be
separated far enough to allow for the full A. Usually, there are a few steps to
spread of the tree. On streets, trees should be be taken before planting a tree.
planted thirty to thirty-five feet apart and in B. Planting a tree, as many may
case of the elm, forty to fifty feet. In know, takes careful time and
woodlands, it is best to plant as close as six consideration including many
feet apart where small seedlings are used variable steps.
and about twelve feet apart in the case of C. There are necessary steps that
trees an inch or more in diameter. An need to be taken before planting a
abundance of good soil (one to two cubic tree.
yards) is essential with each tree where the D. A tree can be planted in either a
specimens used are an inch or two in lawn or the street.
diameter. A rich mellow loam, such as one 40.A. NO CHANGE
finds on the surface of a well-tilled farm, is B. Manure, when wet, placed in
the most ideal. (40) Manure placed in direct direct contact with the roots or
contact with the roots or stem of the tree. stem of the tree.
C. Manure should be placed in direct
Protecting the roots from drying is the chief contact with the roots or stem of
precaution to be observed during the the tree.
planting process, and for this reason a D. Manure placed in direct contact
cloudy day is preferable to a sunny day for with the roots or stem of the tree
planting. Regarding evergreens, the least every day when planting.
exposure of the roots is liable to result in
disaster, even more so than in the case of 41.A. NO CHANGE
deciduous trees. This is why evergreens are B. planted and, the
lifted from the nursery with a ball of soil C. planted. The
around the roots. All bruised roots should be D. planted – and the
cut off before the tree is (41) planted, and
the crowns of deciduous trees should be
slightly trimmed in order to equalize the loss
of roots by a corresponding decrease in leaf
surface.

11
The tree should be set into the tree hole at
the same depth that it stood in the nursery.
Its roots, where there is no ball of soil
around them, should be carefully (42)
detached and good soil should be worked in
carefully with the fingers among the fine
rootlets. (43) The rootlets anchor the tree to
the ground and absorb water. Every root
fibre is thus brought into close contact with
the soil. More good soil should be added (in
layers) and firmly packed about the roots.
The last layer should remain loose so that it
may act as a mulch or as an absorbent of
moisture. The tree should then be
thoroughly watered. (44) In order to support
the tree, the lowest branch should be at least
7 feet from the ground.
12
42.A. NO CHANGE
B. spread out
C. morphed
D. attached
43. What should be done with the
underlined portion?
A. Keep it, it provides a necessary
definition to help the reader
understand botany terminology.
B. Keep it, it ties together the
supporting details before and after
the sentence.
C. Delete it, it distracts the reader
from the process being outlined.
D. Delete it, it is unrelated to the rest
of the passage.
44. Which choice most closely relates
the last paragraph to the graphic?
A. NO CHANGE
B. An 8-foot long stake will guide in
supporting the tree.
C. A straight stem is important for
street planting.
D. The water will be drained through
the large compact fibrous root.
 EST I – Literacy Test II

Student’s Name _____________________________________

National ID _____________________________________
Test Center: _____________________________________

Duration: 65 minutes
52 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the multiple
choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
 The following edited passage is an
excerpt from David Copperfield by
Charles Dickens as David makes his
way to Yarmouth.
The carrier’s horse was the laziest horse
in the world, I should hope, and shuffled
along, with his head down, as if he liked
to keep people waiting to whom the
5 packages were directed. I fancied,
indeed, that he sometimes chuckled
audibly over this reflection, but the
carrier said he was only troubled with a
cough. The carrier had a way of keeping
10 his head down, like his horse, and of
drooping sleepily forward as he drove,
with one of his arms on each of his
knees. I say ‘drove’, but it struck me
that the cart would have gone to
15 Yarmouth quite as well without him, for
the horse did all that; and as to
conversation, he had no idea of it but
whistling.
Peggotty had a basket of refreshments
20 on her knee, which would have lasted us
out handsomely, if we had been going to
London by the same conveyance. We
ate a good deal, and slept a good deal.
Peggotty always went to sleep with her
25 chin upon the handle of the basket, her
hold of which never relaxed; and I could
not have believed unless I had heard her
do it, that one defenceless woman could
have snored so much.
30 We made so many deviations up and
down lanes, and were such a long time
delivering a bedstead at a public-house,
and calling at other places, that I was
quite tired, and very glad, when we saw
35 Yarmouth. It looked rather spongy and
soppy, I thought, as I carried my eye
over the great dull waste that lay across
the river; and I could not help
wondering, if the world were really as
40 round as my geography book said, how
any part of it came to be so flat. But I
reflected that Yarmouth might be
2
situated at one of the poles; which
would account for it.
45 As we drew a little nearer, and saw the
whole adjacent prospect lying a straight
low line under the sky, I hinted to
Peggotty that a mound or so might have
improved it; and also that if the land had
50 been a little more separated from the
sea, and the town and the tide had not
been quite so much mixed up, like toast
and water, it would have been nicer. But
Peggotty said, with greater emphasis
55 than usual, that we must take things as
we found them, and that, for her part,
she was proud to call herself a
Yarmouth Bloater.
When we got into the street (which was
60 strange enough to me) and smelt the
fish, and pitch, and oakum, and tar, and
saw the sailors walking about, and the
carts jingling up and down over the
stones, I felt that I had done so busy a
65 place an injustice; and said as much to
Peggotty, who heard my expressions of
delight with great complacency, and
told me it was well known (I suppose to
those who had the good fortune to be
70 born Bloaters) that Yarmouth was, upon
the whole, the finest place in the
universe.
‘Here’s my Am!’ screamed Peggotty,
‘growed out of knowledge!’
75 He was waiting for us, in fact, at the
public-house; and asked me how I found
myself, like an old acquaintance. I did
not feel, at first, that I knew him as well
as he knew me, because he had never
80 come to our house since the night I was
born, and naturally he had the advantage
of me. But our intimacy was much
advanced by his taking me on his back
to carry me home. He was, now, a huge,
85 strong fellow of six feet high, broad in
proportion, and round-shouldered; but
with a simpering boy’s face and curly
light hair that gave him quite a sheepish
 look. He was dressed in a canvas jacket, 5. Which of the following best
90 and a pair of such very stiff trousers that describes Am’s character?
they would have stood quite as well A. soft and kind
alone, without any legs in them. And B. patient and naive
you couldn’t so properly have said he C. daunting and sturdy
wore a hat, as that he was covered in a- D. mysterious and intriguing
95 top, like an old building, with something
pitchy. 6. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
1. In the first paragraph, the driver’s question?
unnecessary presence to get the cart A. Lines 77-82 (“I … me.”)
moving is similar to B. Lines 82-84 (“But … home.”)
A. a farmer driving a tractor. C. Lines 86-89 (“but … look.”)
B. a man riding a horse. D. Lines 92-96 (“And … pitchy.”)
C. a pilot driving a plane on auto- 7. As used in line 36, “carried” most
pilot. nearly means
D. a child driving a car.
A. swayed.
2. The author uses the phrase in line 2, B. bore.
“I should hope,” set off by commas C. transferred.
to D. moved.
A. acknowledge a limit in 8. Which of the following can be
familiarity. inferred about Peggotty?
B. insert much needed information.
C. add a momentary pause. A. She is a disrespectful woman
D. confuse the reader of the from the village.
author’s intentions. B. She is a simple woman of low
education.
3. The main idea of the passage is to C. She is an old woman of strong
A. focus on Am’s character and his character.
interaction with the main D. She is a stubborn woman with
character. many innovative ideas.
B. introduce the main character’s 9. Which choice best provides evidence
inner thoughts and perceptions for the answer to the previous
of the people and environment question?
around him.
C. emphasize the laziness of the A. Lines 19-22 (“Peggotty …
horse and his driver. conveyance.”)
D. describe Yarmouth and its B. Lines 24-29 (“Peggotty …
wetlands. much.”)
C. Lines 66-72 (“Peggotty …
4. As used in line 13, “struck” most universe.”)
nearly means D. Lines 73-74 (“ ‘Here’s …
A. hit. knowledge!’ ”)
B. ignited.
C. affected.
D. came to mind.

3
10. Which of the following best
describes the main character’s
secondary reaction to Yarmouth?
A. He was shocked to find it so flat.
B. He was uncomfortable with how
damp and wet the environment
was.
C. He decided that Yarmouth was
unlivable.
D. It seemed to him that he had
misjudged Yarmouth.

4
 The following edited passage is taken
from History of Egypt, Chaldęa, Syria,
Babylonia, and Assyria in the Light of
Recent Discovery by L.W. King and
H.R. Hall on the flints of the
Palaeolithic days.
The idea was that in Palaeolithic days,
contemporary with the Glacial Age of
Northern Europe and America, the
climate of Egypt was entirely different
5 from that of later times and of to-day.
Instead of dry desert, the mountain
plateaus bordering the Nile valley were
supposed to have been then covered with
forest, through which flowed countless
10 streams to feed the river below. It was
suggested that remains of these streams
were to be seen in the side ravines, or
wadis, of the Nile valley, which run up
from the low desert on the river level into
15 the hills on either hand. These wadis
undoubtedly show extensive traces of
strong water action; they curve and twist
as the streams found their easiest way to
the level through the softer strata, they
20 are heaped up with great water-worn
boulders, they are hollowed out where
waterfalls once fell. They have the
appearance of dry watercourses, exactly
what any mountain burns would be were
25 the water-supply suddenly cut off for
ever, the climate altered from rainy to
eternal sun-glare, and every plant and tree
blasted, never to grow again.
Acting on the supposition that this idea
30 was a correct one, most observers have
concluded that the climate of Egypt in
remote periods was very different from
the dry, rainless one now obtaining. To
provide the water for the wadi streams,
35 heavy rainfall and forests are desiderated.
They were easily supplied, on the
hypothesis. Forests clothed the mountain
plateaus, heavy rains fell, and the water
rushed down to the Nile, carving out the
40 great watercourses which remain to this
day, bearing testimony to the truth. And
the flints, which the Palaeolithic
inhabitants of the plateau-forests made
5
and used, still lie on the now treeless and
45 sun-baked desert surface.
This is certainly a very weak conclusion.
In fact, it seriously damages the whole
argument, the water-courses to the
contrary notwithstanding. The palęoliths
50 are there. They can be picked up by any
visitor. There they lie, great flints of the
Drift types, just like those found in the
gravel-beds of England and Belgium, on
the desert surface where they were made.
55 Undoubtedly where they were made, for
the places where they lie are the actual
ancient flint workshops, where the flints
were chipped. Everywhere around are
innumerable flint chips and perfect
60 weapons, burnt black and patinated by
ages of sunlight. We are taking one
particular spot in the hills of Western
Thebes as an example, but there are
plenty of others, such as the Wadi esh-
65 Shźkh on the right bank of the Nile
opposite Maghagha, whence Mr. H.
Seton-Karr has brought back specimens
of flint tools of all ages from the
Palaeolithic to the Neolithic periods.
70 The Palęolithic flint workshops on the
Theban hills have been visited of late
years by Mr. Seton-Karr, by Prof.
Schweinfurth, Mr. Allen Sturge, and Dr.
Blanckenhorn, by Mr. Portch, Mr.
75 Ayrton, and Mr. Hall. The weapons
illustrated were found by Messrs. Hall
and Ayrton, and are now preserved in the
British Museum. Among these flints
shown we notice two fine specimens of
80 the pear-shaped type of St. Acheul, with
curious adze-shaped implements of
primitive type to left and right. Below, to
the right, is a very primitive instrument of
Chellean type, being merely a sharpened
85 pebble. Above, to left and right, are two
specimens of the curious half-moon-
shaped instruments which are
characteristic of the Theban flint field and
are hardly known elsewhere. All have the
90 beautiful brown patina, which only ages
of sunburn can give. The “poignard” type
 to the left, at the bottom of the plate, is
broken off short.
12. What reasoning do the authors use
In the smaller illustration we see some
95 remarkable types: two scrapers or knives
with strongly marked “bulb of
percussion” (the spot where the flint-
knapper struck and from which the flakes
flew off), a very regular coup-de-poing
100 which looks almost like a large
arrowhead, and on the right a much
weathered and patinated scraper which
must be of immemorial age. This came
from the top plateau, not from the slopes
105 (or subsidiary plateaus at the head of the
wadis), as did the great St. Acheulian
weapons.
13. Which choice best provides evidence
14. As used in line 10, “feed” most nearly
15. How credible do the authors perceive
Palaeolithic Implements of the
Quatemary Period
Source: L.W. King and H.R. Hall
11. The main idea of the passage is to
A. give details of the types of flints
from Ancient Egypt.
B. present the history of the Ancient
Egyptian flint based on a
refutation.
C. introduce a premise on the
transformation of the desert.
6
D. refute the transformation of the
forest to a desert in Egypt.
when they refer to a “weak
conclusion” in line 46?
A. The flint left behind were a result
of a flint working space, not
because the area was once
covered in trees.
B. The flint was moved from the
forest to the dry desert surface.
C. The flint was marked black by the
sun, meaning they have been there
for centuries.
D. The flint shops had to be moved
once the dry spell started.
for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 41-45 (“And … surface.”)
B. Lines 55-58 (“Undoubtedly …
chipped.”)
C. Lines 58-61 (“Everywhere …
sunlight.”)
D. Lines 70-75 (“The … Mr. Hall.”)
means
A. cook for.
B. graze.
C. consume.
D. supply.
the description of Ancient Egypt to be
in the first two paragraphs?
A. It is an assumption that has not
been taken seriously.
B. It is a confirmed hypothesis with
concrete evidence.
C. It is only an assumption that
historians and scientists built
hypotheses upon.
D. It is a credible conclusion based
on historical texts found in Egypt
that spanned centuries.
16. Which choice best provides evidence 20. The purpose of the graphic with
for the answer to the previous respect to the passage is to
question? A. provide illustrative evidence of
A. Lines 1-5 (“The … to-day.”) the flints found in the Theban
B. Lines 10-15 (“It … hand.”) hills.
C. Lines 29-33 (“Acting … B. give evidence that contradicts the
obtaining.”) information presented on the flints
D. Lines 36-37 (“They … of the Theban hills.
hypothesis.”) C. disprove the existence of flints in
17. As used in line 41, “bearing” most the Theban hills.
nearly means D. support the notion of Ancient
Egyptian flints being showcased
A. transporting. in a British museum.
B. withstanding.
C. exhibiting.
D. fostering.
18. When mentioning the names in lines
72-75, the authors assume that the
reader
A. will be impressed by their
knowledge.
B. is familiar with explorers and
professionals who have
investigated Ancient Egypt.
C. will be introduced to significant
figures in history by means of
their work.
D. will become confused by the list
of unknown figures.
19. How do the first two paragraphs relate
to the rest of the passage?
A. The first two paragraphs introduce
the authors’ position and the rest
of the passage supports it.
B. The first two paragraphs give
background information that
supports a contradictory
hypothesis in the rest of the
passage.
C. The first two paragraphs present a
hypothesis followed by supporting
details in the rest of the passage.
D. The first two paragraphs introduce
a premise followed by a rebuttal
and supporting details in the rest
of the passage.

7
 The first passage is from The Minds and
Manners of Wild Animals: A Book of
Personal Observation by Hornaday
discussing a bear’s mental traits.
Passage 2 taken from Anecdotes of the
Habit and Instinct of Animals by Mrs. R.
Lee discusses bears in their natural
habitat.
Passage 1
Considered as a group, the bears of the
world are supremely interesting animals.
In fact, no group surpasses them save the
Order Primates, and it requires the
5 enrollment of all the apes, baboons and
monkeys to accomplish it.
From sunrise to sunrise a bear is an
animal of original thought and vigorous
enterprise. Put a normal bear in any new
10 situation that you please, he will try to
make himself master of it. Use any new
or strange material that you please, of
wood, metal, stone or concrete, and he
will cheerfully set out to find its weakest
15 points and destroy it. If one board in a
wall happens to be of wood a little softer
than its fellows, with wonderful
quickness and precision he will locate it.
To tear his way out of an ordinary
20 wooden cage he asks nothing better than
a good crack or a soft knot as a starting
point.
Let him who thinks that all animals are
mere machines of heredity and nothing
25 more, take upon himself the task of
collecting, yarding, housing and
KEEPING a collection of thirty bears
from all over the world, representing
from ten to fifteen species. In a very short
30 time the believer in bear knowledge by
inheritance only, will begin to see
evidences of new thought.
In spite of our best calculations, in
twenty-two years and a total of about
35 seventy bears, we have had three bear
escapes. The species involved were an
Indian sloth bear, an American black bear
8
and a Himalayan black bear. The
troublesome three laboriously invented
40 processes by which, supported by
surpassing acrobatics, they were able to
circumvent our overhanging bars. Now,
did the mothers of those bears bequeath
to them the special knowledge which
45 enabled them to perform the acrobatic
mid-air feat of warping themselves over
that sharp-pointed overhang barrier? No;
because none of their parents ever saw
steel cage-work of any kind.
50 The bears of the world are distributed
throughout Asia, Borneo, the heavy
forests of Europe, all North America, and
the northwestern portion of South
America. In view of their wonderfully
55 interesting traits, it is surprising that so
few books have been written about them.
The variations in bear character and habit
are almost as wide as the distribution of
the species.
60 There are four books in English that are
wholly devoted to American bears and
their doings. These are "The Grizzly
Bear" and "The Black Bear," by William
H. Wright, of Spokane (Scribner's), "The
65 Grizzly Bear," by Enos A. Mills, and
"The Adventures of James Capen
Adams." In 1918 Dr. C. Hart Merriam
published as No. 41 of "North American
Fauna" a "Review of the Grizzly and
70 Brown Bears of North America" (U.S.
Govt.). This is a scientific paper of 135
pages, the product of many years of
collecting and study, and it recognizes
and describes eighty-six species and sub-
75 species of those two groups in North
America. The classification is based
chiefly upon the skulls of the animals.
It is unfortunate that up to date no bear
student with a tireless pen has written The
80 Book of Bears. But let no man rashly
assume that he knows "all about bears."
 Passage 2
Among the Carnivora, or flesh-eating
animals, Bears take the first place; for
their characters and habits link them in
85 some degree with the preceding order, the
Insectivora. Both principally live on fruit,
grains, and insects, and only eat flesh
from necessity, or some peculiarity of
life, such as confinement, or education.
90 The Carnivora are divided by naturalists
into three tribes, the characters for which
are taken from their feet and manner of
walking. Bears rank among the
Plantigrada, or those which put the whole
95 of their feet firmly upon the ground when
they walk. They are occasionally cunning
and ferocious, but often evince good
humour, and a great love of fun. In their
wild state they are solitary the greater part
100 of their lives; they climb trees with great
facility, live in caverns, holes, and hollow
trees; and in cold countries, retire to some
secluded spot during the winter, where
they remain concealed, and bring forth
105 their young. Some say they are torpid; but
this cannot be, for the female bears come
from their retreats with cubs which have
lived upon them, and it is not likely, that
they can have reared them and remained
110 without food; they are, however, often
very lean and wasted, and the absorption
of their generally large portion of fat,
contributes to their nourishment. The
story that they live by sucking their paws
115 is, as may be supposed, a fable; when
well-fed they always lick their paws, very
often accompanying the action with a
peculiar sort of mumbling noise. There
are a few which will never eat flesh, and
120 all are able to do without it. They are,
generally speaking, large, clumsy and
awkward, possessing large claws for
digging; and often walk on their hind-
feet, a facility afforded them by the
125 peculiar formation of their thigh-bone.
They do not often attack in the first
instance, unless impelled by hunger or
danger; they are, however, formidable
opponents when excited. In former times
9
130 there were few parts of the globe in
which they were not to be found; but like
other wild animals, they have disappeared
before the advance of man.
21. In Passage 1, the author alludes to
which of the following?
A. A bear’s intelligence is not purely
innate.
B. A bear’s main trait is aggression.
C. A bear simply functions based on
genetic traits.
D. A bear has hidden acrobatic skills.
22. Which choice best provides evidence
for the answer to the previous
question?
A. Lines 11-15 (“Use … it.”)
B. Lines 23-29 (“Let … species.”)
C. Lines 29-32 (“In … thought.”)
D. Lines 57-59 (“The … species.”)
23. Which of the following is NOT used as
evidence of a bear’s intelligence in
Passage 1?
A. A bear seeks to find fault in any
material.
B. When placed in a situation, a bear
is sure to dominate it.
C. A bear will locate the barest of
faults in captivity in order to
escape.
D. A bear will attack when
threatened.
24. The tone of Passage 1 compared to
Passage 2 can best be described as
A. indifference versus passion.
B. awe-inspired versus neutral.
C. reverence versus subjectivity.
D. detachment versus objectivity.
25. As used in line 8 “original” most
nearly means
A. earliest.
B. innovative.
C. genuine.
D. untouched.
26. According to Passage 2, which of the 31. Which of the following statements
following best describes a bear’s best summarizes Passage 2?
character? A. Bears possess a mix of traits and
A. sluggish and lazy are known to hibernate in the
B. lovely and withdrawn winter and lose a lot of fat.
C. playful yet defensive B. Bears are strange animals that
D. isolated yet social tend to be aggressive and clumsy.
27. Which choice best provides evidence C. Bears are part of the Carnivora
for the answer to the previous and Insectivora.
question? D. Bears tend to attack when hungry
and are found all over the globe.
A. Lines 90-93 (“The … walking.”)
B. Lines 96-98 (“They … fun.”)
C. Lines 98-100 (“In … lives;”)
D. Line 105 (“Some … torpid;”)
28. Which of the following points in
Passage 2 would the author in Passage
1 agree with?
A. Bears are complex creatures.
B. Bears are good-humoured.
C. Bears tend to isolate in winter.
D. Bears are clumsy and awkward.
29. In Passage 1, the author states in lines
80-81 “But let no man rashly assume
that he knows “‘all about bears’”
implying that
A. men are quick to believe they
know everything.
B. bears are constantly evolving.
C. bears are mysterious creatures that
need a team of experts in order to
understand their character.
D. knowledge on bears is not to be
taken for granted and anyone who
assumes otherwise is unwise.
30. As used in line 122, “possessing” most
nearly means
A. dominating.
B. haunting.
C. having.
D. holding.

10
 The following edited passage is taken
from History of the Plague in London by
Daniel Defoe on the plague in the 1800’s.
It is true, people used all possible
precaution. When any one bought a joint
of meat in the market, they would not
take it out of the butcher's hand, but took
5 it off the hooks themselves. On the other
hand, the butcher would not touch the
money, but have it put into a pot full of
vinegar, which he kept for that purpose.
The buyer carried always small money to
10 make up any odd sum, that they might
take no change. They carried bottles for
scents and perfumes in their hands, and
all the means that could be used were
employed; but then the poor could not do
15 even these things, and they went at all
hazards.
Innumerable dismal stories we heard
every day on this very account.
Sometimes a man or woman dropped
20 down dead in the very markets; for many
people that had the plague upon them
knew nothing of it till the inward
gangrene had affected their vitals, and
they died in a few moments. This caused
25 that many died frequently in that manner
in the street suddenly, without any
warning: others, perhaps, had time to go
to the next bulk or stall, or to any door or
porch, and just sit down and die, as I have
30 said before.
These objects were so frequent in the
streets, that when the plague came to be
very raging on one side, there was scarce
any passing by the streets but that several
35 dead bodies would be lying here and
there upon the ground. On the other hand,
it is observable, that though at first the
people would stop as they went along,
and call to the neighbors to come out on
40 such an occasion, yet afterward no notice
was taken of them; but that, if at any time
we found a corpse lying, go across the
way and not come near it; or, if in a
narrow lane or passage, go back again,
45 and seek some other way to go on the
11
business we were upon. And in those
cases the corpse was always left till the
officers had notice to come and take them
away, or till night, when the bearers
50 attending the dead cart would take them
up and carry them away. Nor did those
undaunted creatures who performed these
offices fail to search their pockets, and
carry off what they could get.
55 But to return to the markets. The butchers
took that care, that, if any person died in
the market, they had the officers always
at hand to take them up upon
handbarrows, and carry them to the next
60 churchyard; and this was so frequent that
such were not entered in the weekly bill,
found dead in the streets or fields, as is
the case now, but they went into the
general articles of the great distemper.
65 But now the fury of the distemper
increased to such a degree, that even the
markets were but very thinly furnished
with provisions, or frequented with
buyers, compared to what they were
70 before; and the lord mayor caused the
country people who brought provisions to
be stopped in the streets leading into the
town, and to sit down there with their
goods, where they sold what they
75 brought, and went immediately away.
And this encouraged the country people
greatly to do so; for they sold their
provisions at the very entrances into the
town, and even in the fields, as
80 particularly in the fields beyond
Whitechapel, in Spittlefields. Note, those
streets now called Spittlefields were then
indeed open fields; also in St. George's
Fields in Southwark, in Bunhill Fields,
85 and in a great field called Wood's Close,
near Islington. Thither the lord mayor,
aldermen, and magistrates sent their
officers and servants to buy for their
families, themselves keeping within doors
90 as much as possible; and the like did
many other people. And after this method
was taken, the country people came with
great cheerfulness, and brought
provisions of all sorts, and very seldom
 95 got any harm, which, I suppose, added 36. Which choice best provides evidence
also to that report of their being for the answer to the previous
miraculously preserved. question?
A. Lines 36-41 (“On … them;”)
As for my little family, having thus, as I B. Lines 41-43 (“but … it;”)
have said, laid in a store of bread, butter, C. Lines 43-46 (“or … upon.”)
100 cheese, I took my friend and physician's D. Lines 51-54 (“Nor… get.”)
advice, and locked myself up, and my
family, and resolved to suffer the 37. As used in line 18, “account” most
hardship of living a few months without nearly means
flesh meat rather than to purchase it at the A. importance.
105 hazard of our lives. B. record.
C. financial record.
32. The passage is written from which D. customer.
point of view? 38. According to the passage, what helped
A. a man who witnessed and keep the plague under control?
survived the plague A. The increase in deaths controlled
B. a historian making an account of the plague outbreak.
the plague B. Avoiding the dead bodies helped
C. a victim and recoveree of the curb the plague.
plague C. Markets were redirected to the
D. an observer of the plague outskirts of town.
33. Which of the following did the author D. Money was untouched by
claim to have happened during the butchers.
plague? 39. Which choice best provides evidence
A. If one did not buy meat, he or she for the answer to the previous
would be safe from the plague. question?
B. The plague only affected the poor. A. Lines 5-8 (“On … purpose.”)
C. People would drop dead in the B. Lines 31-36 (“These … ground.”)
street suddenly. C. Lines 41-43 (“But … it;”)
D. The dead were left in the streets to D. Lines 91-97 (“And …
rot. preserved.”)
34. When the author talks about death in 40. The main idea of the passage is to
the second paragraph, what best
describes the tone? A. condemn the poor for not taking
proper preventative measures.
A. grave yet detached B. address the corruption of the state
B. emotional and sensitive during the plague.
C. furious yet reserved C. draw attention to the fact that
D. accepting and aloof people were dying in the streets.
35. What was the initial reaction of the D. give a personal account of how
people of the town when a person was the plague passed from person to
found dead in the streets? person and the preventative
measures taken.
A. They would avoid the body.
B. They would take notice and
inform others.
C. They would call the authorities.
D. They would steal their clothes.

12
41. What is the purpose of the second to
last paragraph?
A. It presents an account of the
hardship of being a merchant
during the plague.
B. It explains the anger and
frustration of having to sell
products on the outskirts of town.
C. It explains how the change in
market location helped protect
people from the plague.
D. It makes clear the area where
products were sold.
42. As used in line 61, “bill” most nearly
means
A. invoice.
B. banknote.
C. draft law.
D. public notice.

13
 The following edited passage is taken
from The Chemistry, Properties and
Tests of Precious Stones by John Mastin
on the presence of heat-rays and light-
rays on different stones.
Another method of isolating certain
stones is by the action of heat-rays.
Remembering our lessons in physics we
recall that just as light-rays may be
5 refracted, absorbed, or reflected,
according to the media through which
they are caused to pass, so do heat-rays
possess similar properties. Therefore, if
heat-rays are projected through precious
10 stones, or brought to bear on them in
some other manner than by simple
projection, they will be refracted,
absorbed, or reflected by the stones in
the same manner as if they were light-
15 rays, and just as certain stones allow
light to pass through their substance,
whilst others are opaque, so do some
stones offer no resistance to the passage
of heat-rays, but allow them free
20 movement through the substance,
whilst, in other cases, no passage of heat
is possible, the stones being as opaque
to heat as to light. Indeed, the properties
of light and heat are in many ways
25 identical, though the test by heat must in
all cases give place to that by light,
which latter is by far of the greater
importance in the judging and isolation
of precious stones. It will readily be
30 understood that in the spectrum the
outer or extreme light-rays at each side
are more or less bent or diverted, but
those nearest the centre are
comparatively straight, so that, as before
35 remarked, these central rays are taken as
being the standard of light-value. This
divergence or refraction is greater in
some stones than in others, and to it the
diamond, as an example, owes its chief
40 charm. In just such manner do certain
stones refract, absorb, or reflect heat;
thus amber, gypsum, and the like, are
practically opaque to heat-rays, in
14
contrast with those of the nature of
45 fluorspar, rock-salt, &c., which are
receptive. Heat passes through these as
easily as does light through a diamond,
such stones being classed as diathermal
(to heat through). So that all diathermal
50 stones are easily permeable by radiant
heat, which passes through them exactly
as does light through transparent bodies.
Others, again, are both single and
double refracting to heat-rays, and it is
55 interesting to note the heat-penetrating
value as compared with the refractive
indexes of the stone. In the following
table will be found the refractive
indexes of a selection of single and
60 double refractive stones, the figures for
"Light" being taken from a standard list.
The second column shows the refractive
power of heat, applied to the actual
stones, and consisting of a fine pencil
65 blowpipe-flame, one line (the one
twelfth part of an inch) in length in each
case. This list must be taken as
approximate, since in many instances
the test has been made on one stone
70 only, without possibility of obtaining an
average; and as stones vary
considerably, the figures may be raised
or lowered slightly, or perhaps even
changed in class, because in some
75 stones the least stain or impurity may
cause the heat effects to be altered
greatly in their character, and even to
become singly or doubly refracting,
opaque or transparent, to heat-rays,
80 according to the nature of the impurity
or to some slight change in the
crystalline structure, and so on.
In some of the specimens the gypsum
showed a heat-penetration index of
85 0.001, and amber of 0.056, but mostly
not within the third point. In all cases
the heat-penetration and refraction were
shown by electric recorders. These
figures are the average of those obtained
90 from tests made in some cases on
several stones of the same kind, and also
 on isolated specimens. Not only does
the power of the stone to conduct heat
vary in different stones of the same kind
95 or variety, as already explained, but
there is seen a remarkable difference in
value, according to the spot on which
the heat is applied, so that on one stone
there is often seen a conductivity
100 varying between 0.15 to 4.70.

This is owing to the differences of

expansion due to the temporary
disturbance of its crystalline structure,
brought about by the applied heat. This
105 will be evident when heat is applied on
the axes of the crystal, on their faces,
angles, lines of symmetry, etc., each one Source: John Mastin
of which gives different results, not only
as to value in conductivity, but a result 43. Which of the following best
110 which varies in a curious degree, out of describes the overall structure of the
all proportion to the heat applied. In passage?
many cases a slight diminution in
A. scientific narrative
applied heat gives a greater
B. expository article
conductivity, whilst in others a slight
C. untold fable
115 rise in the temperature of the heat
D. hypothetical report
destroys its conductivity altogether, and
renders the stone quite opaque to heat- 44. As used in line 18, “passage” most
rays. nearly means
A. excerpt.
This anomaly is due entirely to the B. development.
120 alteration of crystalline structure, which, C. walkway.
in the one case, is so changed by the D. movement.
diminution in heat as to cause the
crystals to be so placed that they 45. According to the passage, how do
become diathermal, or transparent to light rays compare or contrast to heat
125 heat-rays; whilst, in the other instance, rays?
the crystals which so arrange themselves A. Light rays are better absorbed
as to be diathermal are, by a slightly and refracted than heat rays.
increased temperature, somewhat B. Depending on the medium, both
displaced, and reflect, or otherwise heat rays and light rays are
130 oppose the direct passage of heat-rays, refracted, absorbed, or reflected.
which, at the lower temperature, C. Depending on the medium, heat
obtained free passage. rays do not hold properties
similar to light rays.
D. The stones that allow light rays
to pass through do not allow heat
rays.

15
46. As used in line 89, “obtained” most 51. Which choice best provides evidence
nearly means for the answer to the previous
question?
A. held.
B. applied. A. Lines 92-100 (“Not … 4.70.”)
C. acquired. B. Lines 101-104 (“This … heat.”)
D. earned. C. Lines 114-118 (“whilst …
rays.”)
47. According to the passage, why is the D. Lines 119-125 (“This … heat-
diamond special? rays;”)

A. It is a diathermal stone. 52. Which of the following is NOT

B. A diamond absorbs heat with mentioned in the tables?
high intensity. A. The diamond has the highest
C. When compared to other stones, number of light rays among both
it has a high level of refraction the singly and doubly refracting
when light-rays pass through. stones.
D. A diamond does not allow light B. The highest numbers of heat rays
or heat to be absorbed or passing through doubly
refracted. refracting stones is the Ruby.
48. Which choice best provides evidence C. The Quartz and Beryl stone have
for the answer to the previous a similar number of light rays.
question? D. Spinel and Almandine have a
different number of heat rays.
A. Lines 29-36 (“It … light-value.”)
B. Lines 36-40 (“This … charm.”)
C. Lines 40-41 (“In … heat;”)
D. Lines 46-49 (“Heat …
through.”)
49. According to the passage, what could
be said about the data presented in the
graphics?
A. It is accurate.
B. Actual numbers may vary.
C. It is completely inaccurate.
D. No information is found in the
passage.
50. The stone’s heat conductivity varies
depending on
A. where the heat is applied.
B. its initial crystalline structure.
C. the temperature of the heat.
D. the light-rays present at the time
the heat is applied.

16
 EST I – Literacy Test I
Answer Key
(Writing Section)

Questions Answers Questions Answers

1. C 12. D 23. D 34. A
2. D 13. B 24. A 35. B
3. C 14. B 25. A 36. C
4. A 15. A 26. C 37. B
5. B 16. B 27. C 38. D
6. D 17. C 28. B 39. C
7. B 18. C 29. C 40. C
8. C 19. B 30. A 41. C
9. A 20. D 31. A 42. B
10. A 21. A 32. D 43. C
11. C 22. B 33. B 44. D

Passage 1: Career

Passage 2: Humanities

Passage 3: History

Passage 4: Science

1
January 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test II
Answer Key
(Reading Section)

Passage 1 Passage 4
1. C 32. A
2. A 33. C
3. B 34. A
4. D 35. B
5. A 36. A
6. B 37. B
7. D 38. C
8. B 39. D
9. D 40. D
10. D 41. C
42. D
Passage 2
11. B Passage 5
12. A 43. B
13. B 44. D
14. D 45. B
15. C 46. C
16. C 47. C
17. C 48. B
18. B 49. B
19. D 50. A
20. A 51. A
52. D
Passage 3
21. A
22. C
23. D
24. B
25. B
26. C
27. B
28. A
29. D
30. C
31. A
 EST I – Literacy Test I

_____________________________________
Student’s Name
_____________________________________
National ID
_____________________________________
Test Center:

Duration: 35 minutes
44 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the
multiple choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
Directions: Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions,
you will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For other
questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence
structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by one or more
graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing
decisions. Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions
will direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole. After
reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the
quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of
standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option
if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage.
The Montessori Method 1.A. NO CHANGE
B. But
The lessons are individual, and brevity must C. As well as
be one of their chief characteristics. Dante D. Frankly speaking
gives excellent advice to teachers when he 2.A. NO CHANGE
says, “Let thy words be counted.” The more B. stripped
carefully we cut away useless words, the C. removed
more perfect will become the lesson. (1)And D. rejected
in preparing the lessons which she is to give,
the teacher must pay special attention to this 3.A. NO CHANGE
point, counting and weighing the value of the B. conciseness, this second,
words which she is to speak. C. conciseness—this second,
D. conciseness … this second,
Another characteristic quality of the lesson in 4.Which of the following statements
the "Children's Houses" is its simplicity. It best explains objectivity when giving
must be (2) obtained of all that is not absolute a lesson?
truth. That the teacher must not lose herself
in vain words, is included in the first quality A. NO CHANGE
of (3) conciseness; this second, then, is B. Objectivity can often be a
closely related to the first: that is, the fundamental aspect of teaching.
carefully chosen words must be the most C. Objectivity is the action of
simple it is possible to find, and must refer to removing one’s self from the
the truth. subject at hand.
D. The lesson must be presented in
The third quality of the lesson is its such a way that the personality of
objectivity. (4) Objectivity, opposite to the teacher shall disappear.
subjectivity, remains essential when planning 5.The writer would like to insert this
a lesson. There shall remain in evidence only sentence to provide further support to
the object to which she wishes to call the her argument in this paragraph.
attention of the child. This brief and simple
“So the teacher shall observe whether
lesson must be considered by the teacher as
the child interests himself in the
an explanation of the object and of the use
object, how he is interested in it, for
which the child can make of it.
how long, etc., even noticing the
expression of his face.”
(5) 1. In the giving of such lessons the
fundamental guide must be the method of The best placement for this
observation, in which is included and sentence is
understood the liberty of the child. 2. And she A. before sentence 1.
must take great care not to offend the B. before sentence 2.
principles of liberty. C. before sentence 3.
D. after sentence 3.

3
3. For, if she (6) has provoken the child to 6.A. NO CHANGE
make an unnatural effort, she will no longer B. had provoken
know what is the spontaneous activity of the C. provokes
child. If, therefore, the lesson rigorously D. provoke
prepared in this brevity, simplicity, and truth
7.A. NO CHANGE
is not understood by the child, is not accepted B. lesson, and second,
by him as an explanation of the object. The
C. lesson and second,
teacher must be warned of two things: first, D. lesson— and second,
not to insist by repeating the (7) lesson; and
second, not to make the child feel that he has 8.Which of the following best
made a mistake, or that he is not understood. expresses the teacher’s own
In doing so she will cause him to make an motivation to teach?
effort to understand, and will thus alter the A. NO CHANGE
natural state which must be used by her in B. wishes
making her psychological observation. A few C. is asked
examples may serve to illustrate this point. D. needs
9.A. NO CHANGE
Let us suppose, for example, that the teacher B. attracting
(8) thinks to teach a child the two colours, red C. to attracts
and blue. She desires (9) to attracting the
D. to attract
attention of the child to the object. She says,
therefore, "Look at this." Then, in order to 10.A. NO CHANGE
teach the colours, she says, showing him the B. To make sure
red, "This is red," raising her voice a little and C. Reiterating after
pronouncing the word "red" slowly and D. With careful precision
clearly; then showing him the other colour, 11.A. NO CHANGE
"This is blue." (10) Losing track that the child B. she smiles, gives the child, a
has understood, she says to him, "Give me the friendly caress and takes away
red,"—"Give me the blue." Let us suppose the colours.
that the child in following this last direction C. she smiles gives the child a
makes a mistake. The teacher does not repeat friendly caress and takes away
and does not insist; (11) she smiles, gives the the colours.
child a friendly caress and takes away the D. she smiles, gives the child a
colours. friendly caress, and takes away
the colours.

4
Questions 12 through 22 are based on the following passage.
Music 13.A. NO CHANGE
B. So
Music deals first of all with feeling or emotion.
But since emotion may be guided by the mind C. In fact
D. Regardless
and transfused by the imagination (12) since
emotion is not a separate and isolated part of our 14. Which of the following best
being—so music may be so ordered by the mind concludes the sentence and
and so transfused by the imagination as to transitions to the next paragraph?
become intellectual and imaginative. It is true
A. NO CHANGE
that the greater part of the music produced and B. it has caused an even further gap
performed deals only with emotion, but this is of understanding between the
equally true of literature. The popular novel is two.
one tenth emotion, one tenth mind, and the rest C. let us take a specific illustration
imagination. (13) Moreover, it is with music,
and see if we cannot reconcile
though such illogical invention as one the apparent confliction.
constantly finds in many popular novels would D. reconciliation proves to be a
be intolerable in any music. Since there seems difficult feat.
to be an incongruity between the statement that
music has no definite meaning and the statement 15. The author is considering deleting the
that it is intellectual, (14) this leaves no room for underlined sentence. Should the
reconciliation. sentence be kept or deleted?
(15) We must first of all distinguish between A. Kept, the sentence provides
the quality itself and the expression of the detailed support for the
quality. A person may have a mind stored argument.
with wisdom and be completely what we call B. Kept, the sentence introduces the
“intellectual,” without ever expressing paragraph and transitions from
himself by a spoken or written word. His the previous paragraph.
wisdom exists by itself and for itself, entirely C. Deleted, the sentence is unrelated
separated from (16) their expression. If he to the rest of the paragraph.
expresses himself, and with skill, we call that D. Deleted, the sentence provides
expression literature, but, in any case, it details that should not be
remains wisdom. And what is wisdom? It is presented in the beginning of the
what Mr. Eliot describes a liberal education paragraph.
to be—“a state of mind:” it is the fusion of
(17) knowledge with experience, with 16.A. NO CHANGE
feeling, and imagination. B. its’
C. its
12.A. NO CHANGE D. it’s
B. since, emotion is not a separate
and isolated part of our being— 17.A. NO CHANGE
so B. knowledge with experience, with
C. since, emotion is not a separate feeling, and with imagination.
and isolated part of our being so C. knowledge with experience,
D. since—emotion is not a separate feeling, and with imagination.
and isolated part of our being— D. knowledge with experience,
so feeling, and the imagination.

5
Now words are symbols which (18) diminish 18. Which choice most effectively
in their efficacy as they try to compass feeling expresses the author’s argument
and imagination. If the wise man is cold, he about words and their waning power?
can say, “I am cold:” but if he wishes to tell A. NO CHANGE
you of his idea of God, he has no words B. change
adequate for the purpose, because he is C. disrupt
dealing with something which is not in the D. improve
domain of knowledge alone—which he can
feel, or perhaps imagine, but cannot define. 19. The author is considering removing
The reason alone never even touches the far- the quotation marks in the underlined
away circle of that perfection which we portion. Should she do so?
believe to exist, and the subtle inner relations A. Yes. The quotation represents the
between man and the visible and invisible author’s inner thoughts.
world refuse to be harnessed to language. For B. Yes. The quotation marks are
these he finds expression in some form of inconsistent with the style of the
beauty. (19) “The beautiful,” says Goethe, “is passage.
a manifestation of the secret laws of nature C. No. The quotation marks serve to
which, but for this appearance, had been break from the flow of the
forever concealed from us.” passage to introduce new ideas.
So we say that in wisdom the qualities we call D. No. The quotation marks
insight, feeling, and imagination must find symbolize a word-for-word
for themselves some more plastic medium of account to support the author’s
expression than language. And when that argument.
plastic medium, though non-definitive, has 20. Which choice best matches the rest of
those qualities of (20) subjectivity, the qualities the author mentions?
continuity, and form which are essential to all
intellectual expression, we are justified in A. NO CHANGE
calling it “intellectual.” Let us take for our B. objectivity
specific illustration the first movement of the C. rarity
Ninth Symphony of Beethoven. It is D. unstructured
impossible to imagine this as an expression 21.A. NO CHANGE
of feeling only, untouched by thought or by B. which
imagination. The inevitable conclusion C. whom
arrived at by any person (21) who’s D. that
understands it is that the feeling is absolutely
controlled by the mind, and that it is
imagination that gives it its extraordinary
effect. (22)

6
22. Which choice best concludes the
passage and matches the author’s
writing style?
A. Is imagination then the key to all
expression?
B. Music, with a buh-dum-tss,
expresses what words cannot
express.
C. That being said, music then
becomes a language through
imagination to express one’s
thoughts and feelings without the
frustration that comes with
“looking for the right word.”
D. Expression is and will always be
at its peak when involving music
as it is the essence of language
without words.

7
Questions 23 through 33 are based on the following passage.
The Story of Geographical Discovery 23. Which choice best emphasizes the
practicality of the account versus the
We have seen how the Portuguese had slowly
mannerless?
coasted along the shore of Africa during the
fifteenth century in search of a way to the A. NO CHANGE
Indies. By the end of the century, mariners B. subjective
portulanos gave a rude yet (23) effective C. unprecedented
account of the littoral of Africa, both on the D. tactful
west and the eastern side. Not only did they 24.A. NO CHANGE
explore the coast, but they settled upon (24) B. it— at
it, at Amina on the Guinea coast, at Loando C. it. At
near the Congo, and at Benguela on the D. it at
western coast, they established stations from
whence to despatch the gold and ivory, and, 25.A. NO CHANGE
above all, the slaves, which turned out to be B. as time gradually passes by
the chief African products of use to C. unknowingly
Europeans. On the east coast they settled at D. certainly enough
Sofala, a port of Mozambique; and in 26.A. NO CHANGE
Zanzibar they possessed no less than three B. seventeenth
ports: those first visited by Vasco da Gama C. seventh
and (25) afterwards celebrated by Milton in D. seventeen
the sonorous line contained in the gorgeous
geographical excursus in the Eleventh 27.A. NO CHANGE
Book— B. We see it, which can be scarcely
other than the Victoria, Albert
"Mombaza and Quiloa and Melind." Nyanza, and Tanganyika,
—Paradise Lost, xi. 339. terminated in three large lakes.
1. It is probable that, besides settling on the C. We see it terminated, which can
coast, the Portuguese from time to time made be scarcely other than the
explorations into the interior. 2. At any rate, Victoria, Albert Nyanza, and
in some maps of the sixteenth and (26) 17th Tanganyika, in three large lakes.
century there is shown a remarkable D. We see it terminated in three large
knowledge of the course of the Nile. 3. (27) lakes, which can be scarcely other
We, which can be scarcely other than the than the Victoria, Albert Nyanza,
Victoria, Albert Nyanza, and Tanganyika, and Tanganyika.
see it terminated in three large lakes. 4. The
Mountains of the Moon also figure
prominently, and it was only almost the other
day that Mr. Stanley re-discovered them.

8
(28) 5. It is difficult, however, to determine 28. To make this paragraph most logical,
how far these entries on the Portuguese maps sentence 5 should be placed
were due to actual knowledge or report, or to
A. where it is now.
the traditions of a still earlier knowledge of
B. before sentence 1.
these lakes and mountains; for in the maps
C. after sentence 2.
accompanying the early editions of Ptolemy
D. after sentence 6.
we likewise obtain the same information,
which is repeated by the Arabic geographers, 29.A. NO CHANGE
obviously from Ptolemy, and not from actual B. in comparison to
observation. 6. When the two great French C. because of
cartographers Delisle and D'Anville D. due to
determined not to insert anything on their 30.A. NO CHANGE
maps for which they had not some evidence, B. had has
these lakes and mountains disappeared, and C. have had
thus it has come about that maps of the D. had had
seventeenth century often appear to display
more knowledge of the interior of Africa than 31.A. NO CHANGE
those of the beginning of the nineteenth, at B. except
least (29) with regard to the sources of the C. exempt
Nile. D. expect
African exploration of the interior begins 32. What should be done with the
with the search for the sources of the Nile, parentheses?
and has been mainly concluded by the
determination of the course of the three other A. Keep them. The information
great rivers, the Niger, the Zambesi, and the within the parentheses is
Congo. It is remarkable that all four rivers nonrestrictive.
(30) has had their course determined by B. Keep them. The parentheses
persons of British nationality. The names of offer a change in tone.
Bruce and Grant will always be associated C. Delete them. The information
with the Nile, that of Mungo Park with the within the parentheses is
Niger, Dr. Livingstone with the Zambesi, and necessary.
Mr. Stanley with the Congo. It is not D. Delete them. Parentheses can
inappropriate that, (31) accept in the case of only be placed in the middle of a
the Congo, England should control the course sentence, not the end.
of the rivers (32) (which her sons first made
33. Which of the following choices best
accessible to civilization).
emphasizes doubt?
We have seen that there was an ancient
A. NO CHANGE
tradition reported by Herodotus, that the Nile
B. input
trended off to the west and became there the
C. explicit meaning
river Niger; while still earlier there was an
D. uncertainty
impression that part of it at any rate wandered
eastward, and some way joined on to the
same source as the Tigris and Euphrates—at
least that seems to be the (33) suggestion.

9
Questions 34 through 44 are based on the following passage.
Ice-caves of France and Switzerland
As we stood at the mouth of the low entrance,
making final preparations for a plunge into
the darkness, I perceived a strong cold current
blowing out from the cave—sufficiently
strong and cold to render knickerbocker
stockings a very unavailing protection. (34)
While engaged in the discovery that this style
of dress is not without its drawbacks, I found,
to my surprise, that the direction of the
current suddenly changed, and the cold blast
which had before blown out of the cave, now
blew almost as strongly in. The arch of
entrance was so low, that the top was about
on a level with my waist; so that our faces and
the upper parts of our bodies were not
exposed to the current, and the strangeness of
the effect was thus considerably increased.
10
34.A. NO CHANGE
B. While engaged, I found, in the
discovery that this style of dress is
not without its drawbacks, to my
surprise, that the direction of the
current suddenly changed,
C. While engaged in the discovery
that this style of dress is not
without its drawbacks, to my
surprise, that the direction, I
found, of the current suddenly
changed,
D. While engaged, to my surprise, in
the discovery that this style of
dress is not without its drawbacks
that the direction, I found, of the
current suddenly changed,
As a matter of curiosity, we lighted a (35) 35.A. NO CHANGE
bougie, and placed (36) it on the edge of the B. bougie
snow, at the top of the slope of 3 or 4 feet C. bougie
which led down the surface of the ice, and D. (bougie)
then stood to watch the effect of the current 36.A. NO CHANGE
on the flame. (37) The experiment proved B. its
that the currents alternated, and, as I fancied, C. her
regularly; and in order to determine, if D. their
possible, the law of this alternation, I
observed with my watch the exact duration of 37. What should be done with the
each current. For twenty-two seconds the underlined portion?
flame of the bougie was blown away from the
entrance, so strongly as to assume a A. Keep it, it provides necessary
horizontal position, and almost to leave the information related to the
wick: then the current ceased, and the flame author’s discovery.
rose with a stately air to a vertical position, B. Keep it, it creates a link between
moving down again steadily till it became the main idea and the supporting
once more horizontal, but now pointing in details.
towards the cave. This change occupied in all C. Delete it, it disctracts the reader
four seconds; and the current inwards lasted- from the initial main idea of the
-like the outward current--twenty-two passage.
seconds, and then the whole phenomenon D. Delete it, it is unrelated to the
was repeated. The currents kept such good rest of the passage.
time, that when I stood beyond their reach, 38.A. NO CHANGE
and turned my back, I was enabled to B. a snowstorm hitting your house
announce each change with perfect precision. while you’re at work.
On one occasion, the flame performed its C. a tornado hitting your home as
semicircle in a horizontal instead of a vertical you hide in the cellar.
plane, moving round the wick in the shape of D. being poisoned by a berry you
a pea-flower. The day was very still, so that thought was safe.
no external winds could have anything to do
with this singular alternation; and, indeed, the 39.A. NO CHANGE
pit was so completely sheltered by its shape, B. because
that a storm might have raged outside without C. and
producing any perceptible effect below like D. but
(38) the terrorization of a murder of crows. It
40. The author wants to express
would be difficult to explain the regularity of
movement. Which choice best
these opposite currents, (39) since it is not so
accomplishes this goal?
difficult to see that some such (40) oscillation
might be expected. It will be better, however, A. NO CHANGE
to defer any suggestions on this point till the B. hesitation
glacière has been more fully described. C. immobility
D. idleness

11
 (41) As our eyes became accustomed to the 41. Which of the following sentences best
darkness, we saw (42) someone, an indistinct introduces the paragraph?
light, streaming into the cave from some low A. The ice-cave was frozen solid.
point at a considerable distance, apparently B. It became increasingly more
on a level with the floor; and this we difficult to keep track of the floor
afterwards found to be the bottom of the plan.
larger of the two pits we had already (43) C. We passed down at length
fathomed, pit A of the diagram; and we through the low archway and
eventually discovered a similar but much
stood on the floor of ice.
smaller communication with the bottom of
D. The floor plan became more and
(44) pit B. In each of these pits there was a
more complex.
considerable pyramid of snow, whose base
was on a level with the floor of the glacière: 42.A. NO CHANGE
the connecting archway in the case of pit A B. something
was 3 or 4 feet high, allowing us to pass into C. everyone
the pit and round the pyramid with perfect D. everything
ease, while that leading to pit B was less than
a foot high, so that no passage could be 43. Which of the following best
forced. emphasizes the extent of the author’s
exploration of the ice-cave?
A. NO CHANGE
B. seen
C. discerned
D. glanced

44. Which choice offers the most

accurate interpretation of the graphic
that supports the statement?
A. NO CHANGE
B. section H
C. section F
D. section C

12
 EST I – Literacy Test II

Student’s Name _____________________________________

National ID _____________________________________
Test Center: _____________________________________

Duration: 65 minutes
52 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the multiple
choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
 The following edited passage is an
excerpt from The Legend of Sleepy
Hollow by Washington Irving,
introducing the history of Sleepy
Hollow.
In the bosom of one of those spacious
coves which indent the eastern shore of
the Hudson, at that broad expansion of
the river denominated by the ancient
5 Dutch navigators the Tappan Zee, and
where they always prudently shortened
sail and implored the protection of God
when they crossed, there lies a small
market town or rural port, which by
10 some is called Greensburgh, but which
is more generally and properly known
by the name of Tarry Town. This name
was given, we are told, in former days,
by the good housewives of the adjacent
15 country, from the inveterate propensity
of their husbands to linger about the
village inn on market days. Be that as it
may, I do not vouch for the fact, but
merely advert to it, for the sake of being
20 precise and authentic. Not far from this
village, perhaps about two miles, there
is a little valley or rather lap of land
among high hills, which is one of the
quietest places in the whole world. A
25 small brook glides through it, with just
murmur enough to lull one to repose;
and the occasional whistle of a quail or
tapping of a woodpecker is almost the
only sound that ever breaks in upon the
30 uniform tranquillity.
I recollect that, when a stripling, my
first exploit in squirrel-shooting was in a
grove of tall walnut-trees that shades
one side of the valley. I had wandered
35 into it at noontime, when all nature is
peculiarly quiet, and was startled by the
roar of my own gun, as it broke the
Sunday stillness around and was
prolonged and reverberated by the angry
40 echoes. If ever I should wish for a
retreat whither I might steal from the
world and its distractions, and dream
quietly away the remnant of a troubled
2
life, I know of none more promising
45 than this little valley.
From the listless repose of the place,
and the peculiar character of its
inhabitants, who are descendants of the
original Dutch settlers, this sequestered
50 glen has long been known by the name
of SLEEPY HOLLOW, and its rustic
lads are called the Sleepy Hollow Boys
throughout all the neighboring country.
A drowsy, dreamy influence seems to
55 hang over the land, and to pervade the
very atmosphere. Some say that the
place was bewitched by a High German
doctor, during the early days of the
settlement; others, that an old Indian
60 chief, the wizard of his tribe, held his
powwows there before the country was
discovered by Master Hendrick Hudson.
Certain it is, the place still continues
under the sway of some witching power,
65 that holds a spell over the minds of the
good people, causing them to walk in a
continual reverie. They are given to all
kinds of marvellous beliefs, are subject
to trances and visions, and frequently
70 see strange sights, and hear music and
voices in the air. The whole
neighborhood abounds with local tales,
haunted spots, and twilight
superstitions; stars shoot and meteors
75 glare oftener across the valley than in
any other part of the country, and the
nightmare, with her whole ninefold,
seems to make it the favorite scene of
her gambols.
80 The dominant spirit, however, that
haunts this enchanted region, and seems
to be commander-in-chief of all the
powers of the air, is the apparition of a
figure on horseback, without a head. It
85 is said by some to be the ghost of a
Hessian trooper, whose head had been
carried away by a cannon-ball, in some
nameless battle during the
Revolutionary War, and who is ever and
90 anon seen by the country folk hurrying
along in the gloom of night, as if on the
May 2021
 wings of the wind. His haunts are not
confined to the valley, but extend at
times to the adjacent roads, and
95 especially to the vicinity of a graveyard
at no great distance. Indeed, certain of
the most authentic historians of those
parts, who have been careful in
collecting and collating the floating
100 facts concerning this spectre, allege that
the body of the trooper having been
buried in the graveyard, the ghost rides
forth to the scene of battle in nightly
quest of his head, and that the rushing
105 speed with which he sometimes passes
along the Hollow, like a midnight blast,
is owing to his being belated, and in a
hurry to get back to the graveyard
before daybreak.
1. Which of the following best
describes the narrator?
A. lost in past memories
B. an accurately detailed
storyteller
C. a whimsical adventurer
D. hesitant to recall the past
2. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 17-20 (“Be …
authentic.”)
B. Lines 31-34 (“I … valley.”)
C. Lines 40-45 (“If … valley.”)
D. Lines 54-56 (“A …
atmosphere.”)
3. As used in line 26, “lull” most
nearly means
A. dupe.
B. reduce.
C. convince.
D. calm.
3
4. What is the main idea of the
third paragraph?
A. To discuss how Sleepy
Hollow got its name.
B. To outline the mystical
aspect of Sleepy Hollow.
C. To introduce the Sleepy
Hollow Boys.
D. To make it clear that those in
Sleepy Hollow are the
descendants of Dutch
settlers.
5. Which of the following is true of
the headless horseman?
A. His apparition is simply a
myth.
B. His grave can be found in
Sleepy Hollow.
C. He seeks vengeance against
the people of Sleepy Hollow.
D. He only haunts the valley of
Sleepy Hollow.
6. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 80-84 (“The … head.”)
B. Lines 92-96 (“His …
distance.”)
C. Lines 100-102 (“allege …
graveyard,”)
D. Lines 102-106 (“the …
Hollow,”)
7. Which of the following is NOT
mentioned in the passage?
A. The first settlers in Sleepy
Hollow were Dutch.
B. Local tales are plentiful in
Sleepy Hollow.
C. The spirit that haunts Sleepy
Hollow most is the headless
horseman.
D. It is assumed that a High
German doctor bewitched
Sleepy Hollow.
May 2021
8. According to the passage, in
lines 40-45, why would the
narrator want to retreat into the
little valley?
A. Because it is serene and
silent.
B. Because it is secluded.
C. Because he can hunt.
D. Because he can dream
peacefully.
9. As used in line 87, “carried
away” most nearly means
A. sustained.
B. won over.
C. removed.
D. transported.
10. According to the passage, the
narrator mentions the battle in
line 88 as “nameless” most
likely to suggest that
A. there is an eeriness to the
battle.
B. the headless horseman lost
his head in a battle so
insignificant, its name is
unrecalled.
C. the battle is yet to be known.
D. the battle is nameless just
like the horseman.

4
May 2021
 The following edited passage is taken
from The Story of Geographical
Discovery by Joseph Jacobs on the
discovery of Australia.
If one looks at the west coast of Australia
one is struck by the large number of
Dutch names which are jotted down the
coast. There is Hoog Island, Diemen's
5 Bay, Houtman's Abrolhos, De Wit land,
and the Archipelago of Nuyts, besides
Dirk Hartog's Island and Cape Leeuwin.
To the extreme north we find the Gulf of
Carpentaria, and to the extreme south the
10 island which used to be called Van
Diemen's Land. It is not altogether to be
wondered at that almost to the middle of
this century the land we now call
Australia was tolerably well known as
15 New Holland. If the Dutch had struck the
more fertile eastern shores of the
Australian continent, it might have been
called with reason New Holland to the
present day; but there is scarcely any long
20 coast-line of the world so inhospitable
and so little promising as that of Western
Australia, and one can easily understand
how the Dutch, though they explored it,
did not care to take possession of it.
25 But though the Dutch were the first to
explore any considerable stretch of
Australian coast, they were by no means
the first to sight it. As early as 1542, a
Spanish expedition under Luis Lopez de
30 Villalobos, was dispatched to follow up
the discoveries of Magellan in the Pacific
Ocean within the Spanish sphere of
influence. He discovered several of the
islands of Polynesia, and attempted to
35 seize the Philippines, but his fleet had to
return to New Spain. One of the ships
coasted along an island to which was
given the name of New Guinea, and was
thought to be part of the great unknown
40 southern land which Ptolemy had
imagined to exist in the south of the
Indian Ocean, and to be connected in
some way with Tierra del Fuego.
Curiosity was thus aroused, and in 1606
45 Pedro de Quiros was dispatched on a
5
voyage to the South Seas with three
ships. He discovered the New Hebrides,
and believed it formed part of the
southern continent, and he therefore
50 named it Australia del Espiritu Santo, and
hastened home to obtain the viceroyalty
of this new possession. One of his ships
got separated from him, and the
commander, Luys Vaz de Torres, sailed
55 farther to the south-west, and thereby
learned that the New Australia was not a
continent but an island. He proceeded
farther till he came to New Guinea, which
he coasted along the south coast, and
60 seeing land to the south of him, he thus
passed through the straits since named
after him, and was probably the first
European to see the continent of
Australia. In the very same year (1606)
65 the Dutch yacht named the Duyfken is
said to have coasted along the south and
west coasts of New Guinea nearly a
thousand miles, till they reached Cape
Keerweer, or "turn again." This was
70 probably the north-west coast of
Australia. In the first thirty years of the
seventeenth century the Dutch followed
the west coast of Australia with as much
industry as the Portuguese had done with
75 the west coast of Africa, leaving up to the
present day signs of their explorations in
the names of islands, bays, and capes.
Dirk Hartog, in the Endraaght,
discovered that Land which is named
80 after his ship, and the cape and roadstead
named after himself, in 1616. Jan Edels
left his name upon the western coast in
1619; while, three years later, a ship
named the Lioness or Leeuwin reached
85 the most western point of the continent,
to which its name is still attached. Five
years later, in 1627, De Nuyts coasted
round the south coast of Australia; while
in the same year a Dutch commander
90 named Carpenter discovered and gave his
name to the immense indentation still
known as the Gulf of Carpentaria.
But still more important discoveries were
made in 1642 by an expedition sent out
95 from Batavia under Abel Janssen Tasman
May 2021
 to investigate the real extent of the
southern land. After the voyages of the
Leeuwin and De Nuyts it was seen that
the southern coast of the new land
100 trended to the east, instead of working
round to the west, as would have been the
case if Ptolemy's views had been correct.
Tasman's problem was to discover
whether it was connected with the great
105 southern land assumed to lie to the south
of South America. Tasman first sailed
from Mauritius, and then directing his
course to the south-east, going much
more south than Cape Leeuwin, at last
110 reached land in latitude 43.30° and
longitude 163.50°. This he called Van
Diemen's Land, after the name of the
Governor-General of Batavia, and it was
assumed that this joined on to the land
115 already discovered by De Nuyts.
Old Australia
Source: Unknown
11. Which of the following statements
best summarizes the passage?
A. Pedro de Quiros was the first
to sight Australia and one of
his ships got separated from
him.
B. A Spanish expedition was the
first to discover Australia and
recognize it as an island, and
the Dutch settled there for a
period of time, leaving Dutch
names in their wake.
C. Different Dutch explorers
named coasts after
themselves.
D. Tasman was the first to
explore Australia.
12. Which of the following could be
said about Luys Vaz de Torres?
A. He was known to get lost.
B. His explorations granted the
straits in his name.
C. He was the first to explore
Australia.
D. He did not seek fame and
wealth.
13. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 50-52 (“and …
possession.”)
B. Lines 52-57 (“one … island.”)
C. Lines 57-62 (“He … him,”)
D. Lines 62-64 (“and …
Australia.”)
14. What role does the first sentence
(lines 25-28) in paragraph two
play?
A. It acknowledges a claim and
proposes a new one.
B. It proposes a claim mentioned
in paragraph 1.
C. It rejects a claim by providing
evidence against it.
D. It supports one claim with no
following evidence.
15. As used in line 15, “struck” most
nearly means
A. agreed on.
B. affected.
C. hit.
D. found.
16. According to the passage, how do
historians know if the Dutch have
been in a certain area in the past?
A. They find old Dutch ships at
the ports.
B. Paintings and pictures of
Duyfken are found in places
the Dutch have landed.
C. The Dutch would name places
in their native language.
D. Explorations were made in the
southern land.

6
May 2021
17. Which choice best provides 20. The map supports which of the
evidence for the answer to the following ideas from the passage?
previous question? A. “But still more important
A. Lines 64-69 (“In … again.”) discoveries were made in
B. Lines 71-77 (“In … capes.”) 1642 by an expedition sent out
C. Lines 93-97 (“But … land.”) from Batavia under Abel
D. Lines 103-106 (“Tasman’s … Janssen Tasman to investigate
America.”) the real extent of the southern
land.”
18. As used in line 98, “seen” most
B. “If one looks at the west coast
nearly means
of Australia one is struck by
A. watched. the large number of Dutch
B. examined. names which are jotted down
C. understood. the coast.”
D. predicted. C. “If the Dutch had struck the
19. Which of the following does the more fertile eastern shores of
author claim to have been the Australian continent, it
possible? might have been called with
reason New Holland to the
A. The west coast would have present day;”
held more Dutch names if the D. “Jan Edels left his name upon
Dutch had cared to stay. the western coast in 1619;”
B. With time, the west coast
would have become more
hospitable and the Dutch
would have stayed.
C. The Spanish could not have
explored Australia.
D. Australia would still be named
New Holland if fertile lands
were found.

7
May 2021
 The first passage is from Birds of the
Rockies by Leander Sylvester discussing
the humming bird. Passage 2, taken from
The Nests and Eggs of Indian Birds by
Allan O. Hume, discusses the Punjab
raven birds.
Passage 1
Where do you suppose I got my first
glimpse of the mite in feathers called the
broad-tailed humming-bird? It was in a
green bower in the Rocky Mountains in
5 plain sight of the towering summit of
Pike's Peak, which seemed almost to be
standing guard over the place. Two
brawling mountain brooks met here, and,
joining their forces, went with increased
10 speed and gurgle down the glades and
gorges. As they sped through this ravine,
they slightly overflowed their banks,
making a boggy area of about an acre as
green as green could be; and here amid
15 the grass and bushes a number of birds
found a pleasant summer home, among
them the dainty hummer.
From the snow-drifts, still to be seen in
the sheltered gorges of Pike's Peak, the
20 breezes would frequently blow down into
the nook with a freshness with no danger
of intoxication; and it was no wonder that
the white-crowned sparrows, Lincoln's
sparrows, the robins and wrens, and
25 several other species, found in this spot a
pleasant place to live. One of the narrow
valleys led directly up to the base of the
massive cone of the Peak, its stream fed
by the snow-fields shining in the sun.
30 Going around by the valley of Seven
Lakes, I had walked down from the
summit, but nowhere had I seen the tiny
hummer until I reached the green nook
just described. Still, he sometimes
35 ascends to an elevation of eleven
thousand feet above the level of the sea.
Our feathered dot is gorgeous with his
metallic green upper parts, bordered on
the tail with purplish black, his white or
40 grayish under parts, and his gorget of
8
purple which gleams in bright, varying
tints in the sun. He closely resembles our
common ruby-throated humming-bird,
whose gorget is intense crimson instead
45 of purple, and who does not venture into
the Rocky Mountain region, but dwells
exclusively in the eastern part of North
America. It is a little strange that the
eastern part of our country attracts only
50 one species of the large hummer family,
while the western portion, including the
Rocky Mountain region, can boast of at
least seventeen different kinds as summer
residents or visitors.
55 My attention was first directed to the
broad-tailed hummer by seeing him
darting about in the air with the swiftness
of an arrow, sipping honey from the
flower cups, and then flying to the twigs
60 of a dead tree that stood in the marsh.
There he sat, turning his head this way
and that, and watching me with his keen
little eyes. It was plain he did not trust
me, and therefore resented my presence.
65 Though an unwelcome guest, I prolonged
my call for several hours, during which I
made many heroic but vain attempts to
find his nest.
But what was the meaning of a sharp,
70 insect-like buzzing that fell at intervals on
my ear? Presently I succeeded in tracing
the sound to the hummer, which utters it
whenever he darts from his perch and
back again, especially if there is a
75 spectator or a rival near at hand, for
whom he seems in this way to express his
contempt. It is a vocal sound, or, at least,
it comes from his throat, and is much
louder and sharper than the susurrus
80 produced by the rapid movement of his
wings. This I ascertain by hearing both
the sounds at the same time.
Passage 2
The Punjab Raven breeds throughout the
Punjab (except perhaps in the Dehra
85 Ghazee Khan District), in Bhawulpoor,
Bikaneer, and the northern portions of
May 2021
 Jeypoor and Jodhpoor, extending rarely 21. Which of the following is NOT
as far south as Sambhur. To Sindh it is mentioned in Passage 1?
merely a seasonal visitant, and I could not A. Breezes in Pike’s Peak invited
90 learn that they breed there, nor have I different birds to take
ever known of one breeding anywhere residence.
east of the Jumna. Even in the Delhi
B. Humming birds can be found
Division of the Punjab they breed in an alcove in Pike’s Peak.
sparingly, and one must go further north C. The humming bird can’t be
95 and west to find many nests. found in the eastern part of
North America.
The breeding-season lasts from early in D. Most humming birds are
December to quite the end of March; but found in the West.
this varies a little according to season and
locality, though the majority of birds 22. Which choice best provides
100 always, I think, lay in January. evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
The nest is generally placed in single A. Lines 18-22 (“From …
trees of no great size, standing in fields or intoxication;”)
open jungle. The thorny Acacias are often B. Lines 30-34 (“Going …
selected, but I have seen them on Sisoo described.”)
105 and other trees. C. Lines 42-48 (“He …
America.”)
The nest, placed in a stout fork as a rule, D. Lines 71-77 (“Presently …
is a large, strong, compact, stick contempt.”)
structure, very like a Rook's nest at home,
and like these is used year after year, 23. Which of the following best
110 whether by the same birds or others of the compares the authors of Passage 1
same species I cannot say. Of course they and Passage 2?
never breed in company: I never found A. Both authors are giving
two of their nests within 100 yards of personal accounts of a specific
each other, and, as a rule, they will not be bird being studied.
115 found within a quarter of a mile of each B. Both authors are sentimental
other. towards wildlife.
C. Both authors are objective as
Five is, I think, the regular complement they recount others’
of eggs; very often I have only found four experiences.
fully incubated eggs, and on two or three D. Both authors tend to stray off
120 occasions six have, I know, been taken in topic.
one nest, though I never myself met with
24. As used in line 63 “plain” most
so many.
nearly means
A. obvious.
B. possible.
C. simple.
D. ordinary.

9
May 2021
25. Which of the following statements 28. In Passage 2, the author speaks
best describes the sequence of from the point of view of a(n)
Passage 1? A. adolescent explorer.
A. The author begins with a B. experienced researcher.
question followed by a C. science high school student.
description of a humming D. diplomat.
bird’s habitat, appearance, and 29. While the author of Passage 1
behavior. emphasizes detail, the author of
B. The author begins with a Passage 2 emphasizes
premise followed by a A. storytelling.
description of a humming B. objective facts.
bird’s habitat, appearance, and C. personal accounts.
behavior. D. statistics.
C. The author begins with a
question followed by the 30. As used in line 86, “portions”
different climates in Pike’s most nearly means
Peak and the humming bird’s A. servings.
appearance. B. amounts.
D. The author begins with a C. shares.
statement followed by how to D. sections.
find a humming bird in the
mountains. 31. In Passage 1, the author uses a
question in lines 1-3
26. According to Passage 2, which of
the following does NOT correctly A. to show a common question
describe the Punjab Raven asked about humming birds.
breeding habits? B. to distract the reader from the
main idea of the passage.
A. Breeding season extends C. as a way to get answers from
throughout the winter. the reader.
B. Thorny Acacias are the best D. as a stylistic device to attract
trees for nesting. the reader.
C. Breeding only occurs in the
south of India.
D. Nesting occurs in pairs.
27. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 87-88 (“extending …
Sambhur.”)
B. Lines 96-100 (“The …
January.”)
C. Lines 103-105 (“The …
trees.”)
D. Line 111-112 (“Of course …
company:”)

10
May 2021
 The following edited passage is taken
from Music and Life by Thomas Whitney
Surette on beauty and truth.
I have already stated that the other arts
have for their ideal that fusing of subject
and expression which in music is
complete, and I have further stated that
5 the purpose or object of music is to
present emotion ordered and guided by
the mind and illumined by the
imagination. In this latter respect all the
arts are alike. It is in the very nature of
10 their being that they seek to find the heart
of the great secret. The purpose of
painting and sculpture is not to present
objects as objects, but to set them forth in
such harmonious perfection of line and
15 color and rhythm as will reveal their
deepest significance. The greatest
examples of the plastic arts cannot be
understood through sense-perception of
objects. Rembrandt is a greater painter
20 than Bougereau, not only because he has
superior technique, but because he has
deeper insight. This is why the “subject”
in painting is comparatively unimportant.
It is the same with literature. In “Jane
25 Eyre” the “subject” is more tangible and
vivid than in “Villette,” but the latter is
the finer book, because the technical skill
is greater, the insight deeper. “There are
no good subjects or bad subjects,” says
30 Hugo; “there are only good poets and bad
poets.” Any subject is interesting when a
master-mind presents it in full
significance. A custom-house is a prosaic
thing, and a custom-house that has neither
35 exports nor imports, but only a few
sleepy old pensioners dozing in the sun,
might be thought a dull subject for a
writer; but Hawthorne’s imagination and
subtlety of literary expression clothe it
40 with both beauty and significance. Even
the noblest and most tragic deeds find
their best justification in a sublime
harmony of beauty.
Deeds, monuments, cities, and
45 civilizations fade into nothingness, but a
11
few words, or a strain of music turned by
an artist, will live on forever. The battle
of Gettysburg will become merely a
paragraph of history, the causes for which
50 it was fought will be as nothing, but the
words spoken by Lincoln will be
preserved for all time, not because they
were wise, but because they were wise
and beautiful.
55 There is no escape from this condition.
An occasional great writer has railed at
beauty, only to prove finally that his own
permanence depended on it. Carlyle, for
example, was more caustic than usual
60 when he discussed poetry. His comment
on Browning’s “The Ring and the Book”
ran thus: “A wonderful book, one of the
most wonderful ever written. I re-read it
all through—all made out of an ‘Old
65 Bailey’ story that might have been told in
ten lines, and only wants forgetting.” Yet
the best part of “Sartor Resartus” is its
beauty, and there are in “The French
Revolution” many passages of quite
70 perfect poetic imagery and
characterization without which it would
lose much of its value. What we call
“Carlyle” is no longer a man; nor is it a
philosophy, or a history; it is nothing but
75 a style, a manner of saying things—an
individual, characteristic, and strange
blend of hard and soft, of high and low,
of rugged and tender, all struggling with a
conscience. So we say that beauty is the
80 lodestone by which all life is tested.
No game can be perfectly played unless
the physical motions are timed in beauty;
no machine will act save in perfect
synthesis; no character is strong until it
85 attains a harmony within itself. Beauty is
the matrix in which life shall be finally
moulded.
All forms of artistic expression, then,
require that we shall see the object not as
90 fact but as art. If it is fact—that is, merely
an isolated object or event—it remains
insignificant until some artist catches it
up into the wider realm in which it
May 2021
 belongs and sets it forth in some form of
95 beauty. If we accept this conception of all
the arts as seeking the inner sense of
things, as portraying life in its essence
rather than in its outward manifestations,
we shall be able to understand the
100 peculiar power of music.
32. As used in line 100, “peculiar”
most nearly means
A. influential.
B. enigmatic.
C. harmonious.
D. intense.
33. Which of the following
techniques does the author use to
support his claim, in line 22, of a
“deeper insight”?
A. a quote from a scholar
B. a simile
C. a grand statement
D. a literary example
34. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 24-28 (“In … deeper.”)
B. Lines 28-31 (“There …
poets.”)
C. Lines 34-38 (“A … writer;”)
D. Lines 55 (“There …
condition.”)
35. In lines 19-22, the author’s
comparison of Rembrandt to
Bougereau is similar to comparing
A. an amateur swimmer to an
expert diver.
B. an avid reader to a literary
analyst.
C. a quiet cat to a rambunctious
dog.
D. a blank paper to a lined
parchment.
36. As used in line 37, “dull” most
nearly means
A. dreary.
B. gloomy.
C. monotonous.
D. blunt.
37. Which of the following statements
best summarizes the main idea of
the passage?
A. “Carlyle” is nothing more than
a stylistic device.
B. Even what is negative can be
shown in all its glory and
beauty.
C. Music is one form of
expression.
D. Art perceives our deepest
essence.
38. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 40-43 (“Even …
beauty.”)
B. Lines 72-79 (“What …
conscience.”)
C. Lines 88-90 (“All … art.”)
D. Lines 95-100 (“If … music.”)
39. What is the relationship of lines
1-8 to the rest of the passage?
A. Lines 1-8 are the premise
followed by contextual
evidence.
B. Lines 1-8 provide previously
relayed information and the
passage builds upon it.
C. Lines 1-8 present a
counterargument followed by
supporting details.
D. Lines 1-8 exhibit a fallacy
followed by a definite
conclusion.

12
May 2021
40. What is the purpose of the third
paragraph?
A. It provides new ideas.
B. It contradicts the introduction.
C. It provides supporting details
to the previous examples.
D. It plays the role of a transition
paragraph.
41. According to the passage, what is
the effect of perceiving objects
through our senses (lines 16-19)?
A. We are able to perceive the
hidden mystical meaning.
B. We are able to use a sixth
sense in the process of
perceiving an object.
C. It limits our perception of a
more genuine insight.
D. It adjusts the movements of
our eyes to the rhythm of the
piece.
42. What would best describe the tone
in lines 81-87?
A. adamant and certain
B. hesitant and inflexible
C. irresolute yet assertive
D. bold yet pessimistic

13
May 2021
 The following edited passage is taken
from The Brain and the Voice in Speech
and Song by F.W. Mott on the
diaphragm and its attachments.
In speech, and more especially in
singing, there is an art of breathing.
Ordinary inspiration and expiration
necessary for the oxygenation of the
5 blood is performed automatically and
unconsciously. But in singing the
respiratory apparatus is used like the
bellows of a musical instrument, and it
is controlled and directed by the will;
10 the art of breathing properly is
fundamental for the proper production
of the singing voice and the speaking
voice of the orator. It is necessary
always to maintain in the lungs, which
15 act as the bellows, a sufficient reserve of
air to finish a phrase; therefore when the
opportunity arises it is desirable to take
in as much air as possible through the
nostrils, and without any apparent
20 effort; the expenditure of the air in the
lungs must be controlled and regulated
by the power of the will in such a
manner as to produce efficiency in
loudness with economy of expenditure.
25 The bellows consist of the lungs
enclosed in the movable thorax. The
latter may be likened to a cage; it is
formed by the spine behind and the ribs,
which are attached by cartilages to the
30 breastbone (sternum) in front. The ribs
and cartilages form a series of hoops
which increase in length from above
downwards; moreover, they slope
obliquely downwards and inwards. The
35 ribs are jointed behind to the vertebrae
in such a way that muscles attached to
them can, by shortening, elevate them;
the effect is that the longer ribs are
raised, and pushing forward the
40 breastbone and cartilages, the thoracic
cage enlarges from before back; but
being elastic, the hoops will give a little
and cause some expansion from side to
side; moreover, when the ribs are raised,
14
45 each one is rotated on its axis in such a
way that the lower border tends towards
eversion; the total effect of this rotation
is a lateral expansion of the whole
thorax.
50 Between the ribs and the cartilages the
space is filled by the intercostal
muscles, the action of which, in
conjunction with other muscles, is to
elevate the ribs. It is, however,
55 unnecessary to enter into anatomical
details, and describe all those muscles
which elevate and rotate the ribs, and
thereby cause enlargement of the thorax
in its antero-posterior and lateral
60 diameters. There is, however, one
muscle which forms the floor of the
thoracic cage called the diaphragm that
requires more than a passing notice,
inasmuch as it is the most effective
65 agent in the expansion of the chest. It
consists of a central tendinous portion,
above which lies the heart, contained in
its bag or pericardium; on either side
attached to the central tendon on the one
70 hand and to the spine behind, to the last
rib laterally, and to the cartilages of the
lowest six ribs anteriorly, is a sheet of
muscle fibres which form on either side
of the chest a dome-like partition
75 between the lungs and the abdominal
cavity. The phrenic nerve arises from
the spinal cord in the upper cervical
region and descends through the neck
and chest to the diaphragm; it is
80 therefore a special nerve of respiration.
There are two—one on each side
supplying the two sheets of muscle
fibres. When innervation currents flow
down these nerves the two muscular
85 halves of the diaphragm contract, and
the floor of the chest on either side
descends; thus the vertical diameter
increases. Now the elastic lungs are
covered with a smooth pleura which is
90 reflected from them on to the inner side
of the wall of the thorax, leaving no
space between; consequently when the
chest expands in all three directions the
May 2021
 elastic lungs expand correspondingly. 43. What information does the
95 But when either voluntarily or author mention that can be
automatically the nerve currents that disregarded?
cause contraction of the muscles of A. the central tendinous portion
expansion cease, the elastic structures of B. the effect of the lateral
the lungs and thorax, including the
rotation
100 muscles, recoil, the diaphragm ascends, C. reserve of air
and the ribs by the force of gravity tend D. structural constituents
to fall into the position of rest. During
expansion of the chest a negative 44. Which choice best provides
pressure is established in the air evidence for the answer to the
105 passages and air flows into them from previous question?
without. In contraction of the chest there A. Lines 13-16 (“It … phrase;”)
is a positive pressure in the air passages, B. Lines 47-49 (“The …
and air is expelled; in normal quiet thorax.”)
breathing an ebb and flow of air takes C. Lines 54-60 (“It …
110 place rhythmically and subconsciously; diameters.”)
thus in the ordinary speaking of D. Lines 65-68 (“It …
conversation we do not require to pericardium;”)
exercise any voluntary effort in
controlling the breathing, but the orator 45. As used in line 14, “maintain”
115 and more especially the singer uses his most nearly means
knowledge and experience in the A. preserve.
voluntary control of his breath, and he is B. continue.
thus enabled to use his vocal instrument C. repair.
in the most effective manner. D. assert.
46. Which of the following best
describes the text’s overall
structure?
A. historical research
B. a scientific expository text
C. an article in a music journal
D. a fictional story
47. The passage is written from the
point of view of
A. a popular singer inspiring
others.
B. an expert in the respiratory
system.
C. a researcher focused on the
Thorax showing the breastbone relationship between music
Source: F.W. Mott and the respiratory system.
D. a music student interested in
breathing techniques.

15
May 2021
48. Which of the following is NOT 51. As used in line 85, “contract”
mentioned in the passage? most nearly means
A. A sheet of muscle fibres A. decrease.
separates the lungs and B. constrict.
abdominal cavity. C. wrinkle.
B. The smooth pleura constricts D. incur.
in the wall of the thorax. 52. The author’s reasoning of the
C. Negative pressure happens “power of the will” in line 22 is
during expansion. best described as
D. The phrenic nerve begins at
the spinal cord. A. unsound because he provides
no contextual evidence.
49. Which choice best provides B. unsound because he
evidence for the answer to the contradicts the idea later in
previous question? the passage.
A. Lines 68-76 (“on … cavity.”) C. valid because he returns to
B. Lines 76-79 (“The … the notion at the end of the
diaphragm;”) passage.
C. Lines 88-92 (“Now … D. valid because only the
between;”) “power of the will” can
D. Lines 102-106 (“During … regulate breathing.
without.”)
50. Which of the following
statements from the passage
does the graphic support?
A. “The ribs and cartilages form
a series of hoops which
increase in length from
above downwards;” (lines
30-33)
B. “moreover, when the ribs are
raised, each one is rotated on
its axis in such a way that the
lower border tends towards
eversion;” (lines 44-47)
C. “There are two—one on each
side supplying the two sheets
of muscle fibres.” (lines 81-
83)
D. “in normal quiet breathing an
ebb and flow of air takes
place rhythmically and
subconsciously;” (lines 108-
110)

16
May 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test I
Answer Key
(Writing Section)

Questions Answers Questions Answers

1. A 12. D 23. A 34. A
2. B 13. B 24. C 35. B
3. A 14. C 25. A 36. A
4. D 15. B 26. B 37. A
5. B 16. C 27. D 38. C
6. C 17. B 28. A 39. D
7. A 18. A 29. A 40. A
8. B 19. D 30. C 41. C
9. D 20. B 31. B 42. B
10. B 21. D 32. A 43. A
11. D 22. C 33. A 44. A

Passage 1: Career

Passage 2: Humanities

Passage 3: History

Passage 4: Science

1
May 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test II
Answer Key
(Reading Section)

Passage 1 Passage 3
1. B 21. C
2. A 22. C
3. D 23. A
4. B 24. A
5. B 25. A
6. C 26. C
7. A 27. A
8. D 28. B
9. C 29. B
10. B 30. D
31. D
Passage 2
11. B Passage 4
12. B 32. B
13. C 33. D
14. A 34. A
15. D 35. B
16. C 36. C
17. B 37. D
18. C 38. C
19. D 39. B
20. B 40. D
41. C
42. A

Passage 5
43. D
44. C
45. A
46. B
47. C
48. B
49. C
50. A
51. B
52. C

1
May 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test I

_____________________________________
Student’s Name
_____________________________________
National ID
_____________________________________
Test Center:

Duration: 35 minutes
44 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the
multiple choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
Directions: Questions follow each of the passages below. Some questions ask you how the
passage might be changed to improve the expression of ideas. Other questions ask you how the
passage might be altered to correct errors in grammar, usage, and punctuation. One or more
graphics accompany some passages. You will be required to consider these graphics as you
answer questions about editing the passages.
There are three types of questions. In the first type, a part of the passage is underlined. The
second type is based on a certain part of the passage. The third type is based on the entire
passage.
Read each passage. Then, choose the answer to each question that changes the passage so that
it is consistent with the conventions of standard written English. One of the answer choices for
many questions is “NO CHANGE.” Choosing this answer means that you believe the best
answer is to make no change in the passage.
 1. The author is considering removing
Questions 1–11 are based on the following
the underlined sentence. Should the
passage.
sentence be kept or deleted?
Opportunities in Engineering A. Keep it. It serves as an
introduction to the next sentence.
by Charles M. Horton B. Keep it. It provides a definition
for the term most used in the text.
It is becoming more and more an accepted C. Delete it. It disrupts the
fact that engineers, or physicians, or progression of ideas.
lawyers—like our poets—are born and not D. Delete it. It is besides the topic.
made. I believe this to be true. Educators 2. Which of the following terms best
generally are thinking seriously along these suggests the main idea of the
lines, with the result that vocational advisers passage?
are springing up, especially in industrial
circles, to establish eventually yet another A. NO CHANGE
profession. (1) Instinct is defined as a natural B. disregarded
and innate inclination towards a certain C. accepted
behavior. Instinct leads young men to enter D. noted
upon certain callings, unless turned off by 3.A. NO CHANGE
misguided parents or guardians, and as a B. needs
general thing the hunch works out C. are needed
successfully. Philosophers from time D. is needed
immemorial, including Plato and Emerson,
have written of this still, small voice within,
and have urged that it be (2) heeded. The
thing is instinct—cumulative yearnings
within man of thousands of his ancestors—
and to disobey it is to fling defiance at Nature
herself. Personally, I believe that when this
law becomes more generally understood
there will be fewer failures decorating park
benches in our cities and cracker-boxes in our
country stores. Every city (3) need an
engineer who loves what he does.

3
August 2021
The profession of engineering, therefore, has
its type. You may be of this type or you may
not. The type is quite pronounced, however,
and you need not go wrong in (4) ones
decision. All professions and all trades have 5.A. NO CHANGE
their types. Steel-workers—those fearless
young men who balance skillfully on a
girder, frequently hundreds of feet in the
air—are not to be mistaken. (5) Rough,
rugged, gray-eyed; with frames close-knit
and usually squat; generous with money, and
unconcerned as to the future; living each day
regardless of the next, and living it—steel-
workers are as distinct from the clerical
type—slender, tall, a bit self-conscious,
fearful of themselves and of the future—I
say, the steel-worker is as different from the
clerical worker as the circus-driver is from
the (6) cleric. Their work marks them for its
own, if a man lack it upon entering the work,
just as the school-room marks the teacher in
time for its own. The thing is not to be
mistaken.
[1] The successful engineer must be 6.A.
possessed of a certain fondness for figures.
The subject of mathematics must interest
him. [2] He must like to figure, to use a
colloquialism, and his fondness for it must be
genuine, almost an absorption.
4.A. NO CHANGE
B. its
C. his
D. your
B. Rough, rugged, gray-eyed, with
frames close-knit and usually
squat, generous with money, and
unconcerned as to the future,
living each day regardless of the
next, and living it—
C. Rough rugged gray-eyed; with
frames close-knit and usually
squat; generous with money and
unconcerned as to the future;
living each day regardless of the
next, and living it—
D. Rough, rugged, gray-eyed; with
frames close-knit and usually
squat, generous with money, and
unconcerned as to the future,
living each day regardless of the
next, and living it—
NO CHANGE
B. circus man
C. engineer
D. worker

4
August 2021
(7) Having this fondness for mathematics, 7. Where should the author place the
which may be termed otherwise as a curiosity underlined sentence for coherency?
to make concrete ends meet—the working A. NO CHANGE
out of puzzles is one evidence of the gift— B. Before sentence 1
the young man is well armed for a successful C. After sentence 3
career in the profession. [3] It must reveal D. After sentence 4
itself to him at an early age, too, as early as
his grammar-school days, for then it will be 8. Which of the following choices best
known as genuinely a part of him, and the supports the author’s position on
outcropping of seeds correctly sown by his engineering instincts?
ancestors. [4] He will like mathematics for its A. NO CHANGE
own sake, and when, later, in college, and B. eagerly
later still, in the active pursuit of his chosen C. inadequately
work, he is confronted with a difficult D. grudgingly
problem covering strains or stress in a beam
or lever or connecting-rod, he will attack it 9. Which of the following provides the
(8) neutrally, instead of—as I have seen such best sentence structure needed to
problems attacked more than once—irritably support the author’s main idea?
and with marked mental effort. A. NO CHANGE
The successful engineer must be a man who B. He probably won’t need to do
likes to shape things with his hands. (9) He that after he is recognized, save
need not always do it, and probably will not only as he supervises or makes
after he has attained recognition, save only as the mechanical drawings, that is,
he supervises or makes the mechanical the picture, of the thing.
drawings—the picture—of the thing. But the C. Until after he has attained
itch must be present in the man. recognition, he need not always
do it, and probably will not after
save only as he supervises or
makes the mechanical drawings
of the thing—the picture.
D. He need not always do it, save
only as he supervises or makes
the mechanical drawings—the
picture—of the thing, and
probably will not after he has
attained recognition.

5
August 2021
And, like the desire within him to figure, it
must make itself manifest within him early in
life. If a young man be of those who early like
to (10) crawl in under the family buzz-
wagon; tinkering there for half a day at a
time; emerging in a thick coating of grease
and dust and with joy in his eye—such a
young man has the necessary qualifications
for a successful engineer. He may never do
this—as I say—in all his engineering career.
But the yearning must be as much a part of
him as his love for mathematics—so much so
that all his engineering days he will feel
something akin to envy for the machinist who
11. According to the information in the
works over a machine of the engineer's own
devising—and it must be vitally a part of him.
(11)
6
10.A. NO CHANGE
B. crawl in under the family buzz-
wagon; tinkers there for half a
day at a time; emerge in a thick
coating
C. crawling in under the family
buzz-wagon; tinkering there for
half a day at a time; emerge in a
thick coating
D. crawl in under the family buzz-
wagon; tinker there for half a day
at a time; emerge in a thick
coating
graphic and the passage, which of the
following provides the best
concluding sentence as a summary of
the graphic?
A. Therefore, there are five different
qualities naturally born engineers
must possess: instinct, fondness
for figures, ability to shape with
one’s hands, an interest in
mathematics, and the ability to
use colloquialism.
B. In conclusion, there are five
different qualities that any person
pursuing engineering as an adult
must work on: instinct, fondness
for figures, ability to shape with
one’s hands, an interest in
mathematics, and the ability to
use colloquialism.
C. All in all, any born engineer must
possess one of the following
qualities: instinct, fondness for
figures, ability to shape with
one’s hands, an interest in
mathematics, and the ability to
use colloquialism.
D. That is to say, engineers are born
with certain qualities, just like
poets, and their job is to foster
them from a young age.
August 2021
Questions 12–22 are based on the following passage.

Who Was Charles Curtis, the First 12.A. NO CHANGE

Vice President of Color? B. who
C. who’s
By Livia Gershon D. whose
Next week, when she takes the oath of office, 13.A. NO CHANGE
Senator Kamala Harris will make history as B. time; therefore,
the first woman, first African American, and C. time, and
first person of South Asian heritage to D. time, but
become vice president of the United States. 14. Which word best fits the meaning of
But she won’t be the first person of color in the sentence?
the office. That honor belongs to Charles
Curtis, an enrolled member of the Kaw A. NO CHANGE
Nation (12) which served as President B. abstain
Herbert Hoover’s vice president for his entire C. accommodate
first term from 1929 to 1933. Prejudice D. acquaint
against Native Americans was widespread 15.A. NO CHANGE
and intense at the (13) time therefore Curtis’s B. there
ascent to the office speaks of his skillful C. his
navigation of the political system. His rise D. her
also tells a broader story of how prominent
Native Americans viewed how their 16.A. NO CHANGE
communities should (14) assimilate within a B. 1860; to a white father
predominately white society and C. 1860: to a white father
government. The policies Curtis pursued in D. 1860, to a white father
Congress and then as vice president,
17.A. NO CHANGE
specifically those on Native issues, cloud his
B. Growing up,
legacy today despite (15) its groundbreaking
C. Starting from his youth to his
achievements.
recent years,
Curtis was born in (16) 1860 to a white father D. As years passed,
from a wealthy Topeka family and a mother
who was one quarter Kaw (a tribe also known
as Kanza or Kansa). When he was young,
Curtis’ mother died, and his father fought in
the Civil War for the United States. (17)
Growing up and with the years that passed
by, he spent time living with both his sets of
grandparents, and for eight years, he lived on
the Kaw reservation. Curtis grew up speaking
Kanza and French before he learned English.
Mark Brooks, site administrator for
the Kansas Historical Society’s Kaw Mission
site, says Curtis was known for his personal
charisma.

7
August 2021
“He had a knack for conversation,” Brooks 18. The author is considering deleting the
says. “He was just a very likeable person underlined phrase. Should the
even early on when he was just a young boy sentence be kept or deleted?
in Topeka.”
A. Keep it. It provides support for the
In 1873, the federal government forced the previous claim.
Kaw south to Indian Territory, which would B. Keep it. It provides a counter-
later become Oklahoma. The adolescent argument for the previous claim.
Curtis wanted to move with his community. C. Delete it. It contradicts the
(18) According to his Senate biography, his information written in the
Kaw grandmother talked him into staying paragraph.
with his paternal grandparents and continuing D. Delete it. There is redundancy of
his education. the main idea.
“I took her splendid advice and the next 19.A. NO CHANGE
morning as the wagons pulled out for the B. Despite the racist treatment
south, bound for Indian Territory, I mounted C. However, the racist treatment
my pony and with my belongings in a flour D. Moreover, the racist treatment
sack, returned to Topeka and school,” Curtis
later recalled, in a flourish of self-
mythologizing. “No man or boy ever
received better advice, it was the turning
point in my life.”
Curtis gained some fame as a talented horse
rider, known on the circuit as “Indian
Charlie.” But his grandparents on both sides
encouraged him to pursue a professional
career, and he became a lawyer and then a
politician. Contemporary accounts cite his
personal charm and willingness to work hard
served him well in politics. Kansas politician
and newspaper editor William Allen White
described him carrying books with the names
of Republicans in each Kansas township,
mumbling the names “like a pious worshiper
out of a prayer book” so that he could greet
each of them by name and ask about their
family.
(19) Although the racist treatment of the Kaw
by white Kansans—which included land theft
and murder—many whites were obviously
willing to vote for Curtis.
“The one thing that might have lightened the
persecution of Curtis was that he was half
white,” Brooks says. “He’s light-complected,
he’s not dark-skinned like a lot of Kanza. His
personality wins people over. He was a
popular kid.”
8
August 2021
(20) Throughout his time in Congress, Curtis
also consistently pushed for policies that
many Native Americans today say were a
disaster for their nations. He favored the
Dawes Act of 1887, passed a few years
before he entered Congress, which allowed
the federal government to divide tribal lands
into individual plots, which eventually led to
the selling of their land to the public. And in
1898, as a member of the Committee on
Indian Affairs, he (21) sketched what became
known as the Curtis Act, extending the
Dawes Act’s provisions to the so-called
“Five Civilized Tribes” of Oklahoma. Curtis
also supported Native American boarding
schools, in which children were taken from
their families and denied access to their own
languages and (22) cultures, abuse was
rampant.
21. Which of the following terms best
20. Which choice best connects this
paragraph to the main idea in the
previous paragraph?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Skin color was not the real
problem since personality played
a role too in the making of the
congressman.
C. Unfortunately, racists can like a
person of color and still be racist,
and that’s what happened with
Curtis.
D. His popularity among the white
majority continued to increase
during Curtis’s time in congress
as he consistently pushed for
policies that many Native
Americans today say were a
disaster for their nations.
describes the legal writing of the
Curtis Act?

A. NO CHANGE
B. wrote
C. drafted
D. planned
22.A. NO CHANGE
B. cultures: abuse
C. cultures. Abuse
D. cultures abuse

9
August 2021
Questions 23–33 are based on the following passage.
Which Came First: The Brain or Sleep? 23.A. NO CHANGE
B. to expect
by Kanaya HJ et.a.l.
C. to except
Stay awake too long, and thinking straight D. to accept
can become extremely difficult. Thankfully,
24.A. NO CHANGE
a few winks of sleep is often enough to get
B. his
our brains (23) to assent functioning up to
C. our
speed again. But just when and why did
D. theirs
animals start to require sleep? And is having
a brain even a prerequisite?
In a study that could help to understand the
evolutional origin of sleep in animals, an
international team of researchers has shown
that tiny, water-dwelling hydras not only
show signs of a sleep-like state despite
lacking central nervous systems but also
respond to molecules associated with sleep in
more evolved animals.
"We now have strong evidence that animals
must have acquired the need to sleep before
acquiring a brain," says Taichi Q. Itoh,
assistant professor at Kyushu University's
Faculty of Arts and Science and leader of the
research reported in Science Advances.
While sleeping behavior was also recently
found in jellyfish, a relative of hydras and
fellow member of the phylum Cnidaria, the
new study from researchers at Kyushu
University in Japan and Ulsan National
Institute of Science and Technology in Korea
found that several chemicals eliciting
drowsiness and sleep even in humans had
similar effects on the species Hydra vulgaris.
"Based on (24) their findings and previous
reports regarding jellyfish, we can say that
sleep evolution is independent of brain
evolution," states Itoh.

10
August 2021
"Many questions still remain regarding how 25.A. NO CHANGE
sleep emerged in animals, but hydras provide B. will produce
an easy-to-handle creature to further C. has produced
investigate the detailed mechanisms (25) D. producing
produced sleep in brainless animals to help 26. Which of the following best suits the
possibly answer these questions one day." overall tone of the passage?
Only a couple of centimeters long, hydras A. NO CHANGE
have a diffuse network of nerves but lack the B. Monitoring the marvelous brain
centralization associated with a brain. waves of different animals
provides us with answers to sleep,
(26) Tiny, brainless animals with no true and yet this isn’t possible for
meaning to their existence give no small animals.
opportunity to truly test their sleep pattern. C. While sleep is often monitored
As an alternative, the researchers used a based on the measurement of
video system to (27) slowly dissect brain waves, this is not an option
movement to determine when hydras were in for tiny, brainless animals.
a sleep-like state characterized by reduced D. While sleep is often monitored
movement – (28) which could be disrupted based on the measurement of
by a flash of light. brain waves this is not an option
for animals with no brains and
Instead of repeating every 24 hours like a wits about them.
circadian rhythm, the researchers found that
the hydras exhibit a four-hour cycle of active 27. Which of the following terms best
and sleep-like states. describes the delicate scientific
process of tracing movement?
More importantly, the researchers uncovered
A. NO CHANGE
many similarities related to sleep regulation
B. carefully track
on a molecular and genetic level regardless of
C. methodically follow
the possession of a brain.
D. unsystematically pursue
Exposing the hydras to melatonin, a 28. Which of the following phrases best
commonly used sleep aid, moderately fits the author’s conclusion of
increased the sleep amount and frequency, possible reduced movement?
while the (29) dull neurotransmitter GABA,
another chemical linked to sleep activity in A. NO CHANGE
many animals, greatly increased sleep B. which can only be suspended by
activity. light.
C. having no effect on their sleep
patterns.
D. which is still relatively unknown.
29. Which word choice is most in line
with the paragraph?
A. NO CHANGE
B. unrestrictive
C. inhibitory
D. favorable

11
August 2021
[1] On the other hand, dopamine, which
causes arousal in many animals, actually
promoted sleep in the hydras.
(30) Furthermore, the researchers could use
vibrations and temperature changes to disturb
the hydras' sleep and induce signs of sleep
deprivation, causing the hydras to sleep
longer during the following day and even
suppressing cell proliferation.
[2] "While some sleep mechanisms appear to
have been conserved, others may have
switched function during evolution of the
brain," suggests Itoh.
[3] Investigating more closely, the
researchers found that sleep deprivation led
to changes in the expression of 212 genes,
including one related to PRKG, a protein
involved in sleep regulation in (31) a wide
range of animals, including mouses, fruits
flies, and nematodes.
Disrupting other fruit fly genes (32)
appearing to share a common evolutional
origin with the sleep-related ones in hydras
—altered sleep duration in fruit flies, and
further investigation of such genes may help
to identify currently unknown sleep-related
genes in animals with brains.
"Taken all together, these experiments
provide strong evidence that animals
acquired sleep-related mechanisms before
the evolutional development of the central
nervous system and that many of these
mechanisms were conserved as brains
evolved," says Itoh. (33) That being said,
there is still much more to explore in
brainless creatures in relation to sleep
patterns, but a scientific base has been built
for future scientists to build upon.
12
30. Where in this passage should the
underlined sentence be placed?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Before sentence [1]
C. After sentence [2]
D. After sentence [3]
31.A. NO CHANGE
B. a wide range of animals,
including mouses, fruit flies, and
nematode.
C. a wide range of animals’,
including mice, fruit flies, and
nematodes’.
D. a wide range of animals,
including mice, fruit flies, and
nematodes.
32.A. NO CHANGE
B. —appearing to share a common
evolutional origin with the sleep-
related ones in hydras— altered
C. , appearing to share a common
evolutional origin with the sleep-
related ones in hydras—altered
D. (appearing to share a common
evolutional origin with the sleep-
related ones in hydras) altered
33. The author wants to conclude the
passage by leaving room for future
scientists. Which choice best
accomplishes this goal while
retaining the tone of the text?
A. NO CHANGE
B. If future scientists want to
continue with the research, they
are free to do so.
C. Though some may find it a waste
of time, I believe that research on
sleep patterns should be
continued into the future.
D. In conclusion, whenever it may
occur in the future, scientists
have to continue to fund and
cater to this research study.
August 2021
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage.

Effects of Poverty on Childhood 34.A. NO CHANGE

Development Seen in Children as Young B. The research, was published in
as Five Health Affairs, contributed to a
grown body of literature found
By Jane Murcia
that children
In a nationwide study, UCLA researchers C. The research, publishing in
have found that health inequities can be Health Affairs, contributing to a
measured in children as young as 5 years old. growing body of literature finding
(34) The research, published in Health that children
Affairs, contributes to a growing body of D. The research, had been published
literature finding that children of color who in Health Affairs, contributes to a
are also (35) poor face greater health growth body of literature finding
inequities than their white counterparts. that children
Researchers trained kindergarten teachers in
35. Which of the following words best
98 school districts across the United States to
fits the author’s preference for
administer the Early Development
sensitive language?
Instrument (EDI), a measure of children's
physical, social, emotional and language A. NO CHANGE
development. The assessment was B. penniless
administered to more than 185,000 C. of lower socioeconomic status
kindergarteners from 2010 to 2017. (36) If D. of substandard status
analyzing and correlating the results 36.A. NO CHANGE
according to where the children lived, the B. But
investigators found that 30 percent of C. After
children in the lowest-income neighborhoods D. Before
were vulnerable in one or more domains of
health development, compared to 17 percent
of children in higher-income settings.

13
August 2021
The researchers also found that income- 37. The underlined pronoun refers to
related differences in developmental which of the following?
vulnerability varied substantially among A. children
children from different ethnic and racial B. adults
groups. Black children, for example, were at C. neighborhoods
highest risk, followed by Latina/o children. D. black children
Asian children were at lowest risk. The
differences in developmental vulnerability 38.A. NO CHANGE
between Black children and white children B. will show
were most pronounced at the higher C. shows
socioeconomic levels and tended to narrow D. showed
for Black and white children from lower- 39.A. NO CHANGE
income neighborhoods. Such early disparities B. Halfon is also: a professor of
can have a profound influence on (37) their pediatrics
long-term development, leading to higher C. Also; Halfon is a professor of
rates of chronic conditions such as diabetes, pediatrics
heart disease, drug use, mental health D. Halfon is also a professor of
disorders, and dementia as adults. pediatrics
"Our findings underscore the pronounced 40. Which choice best fits the writer’s
racialized disparities for young children," main idea stated in the previous two
says lead study author Neal Halfon, MD, sentences?
director of the Center for Healthier Children,
Families, and Communities at UCLA. "Many A. NO CHANGE
other studies have highlighted patterns of B. lacks
income and racial inequality in health and C. ignores
educational outcomes. D. assesses
What this study (38) showing is that these 41. The author is considering deleting the
patterns of inequality are clearly evident and underlined quote. Should the quote be
measurable before kids start school." (39) kept or deleted?
Halfon also is a professor of pediatrics,
public health, and public policy in the David A. Keep it. The quote supports the
Geffen School of Medicine at UCLA, the main idea in the first paragraph.
Fielding School of Public Health, and the B. Keep it. Quotes are always an
Luskin School of Public Affairs. The report added benefit to any text.
also (40) underscores the value of C. Delete it. It is irrelevant.
understanding child-developmental D. Delete it. It contradicts the main
inequities at the most micro levels. idea in the following paragraph.
(41) "Because the EDI is not only reported at
but also linked to Census-tract-level indices
of neighborhood risk, this measurement tool
helps cities and local grassroots efforts
develop targeted supports and services to
address racialized disparities," adds co-
author Lisa Stanley, project director for
Transforming Early Childhood Community
Systems at the UCLA Center for Healthier
Children, Families, and Communities.

14
August 2021
The EDI tool was developed by Dr. Dan 42. Which option, if inserted here, best
Offord and Dr. Magdalena Janus at the supports the previous statement on
Offord Centre for Child Studies at McMaster the validated use of EDI?
University in Ontario, Canada, and has been A. Over the past 10 years, UCLA
internationally validated, and used widely in has enabled city and school
Canada, Australia, and other nations. The district leaders in over 85
EDI was first piloted in 2009 by UCLA in communities, spanning 18 states,
Santa Ana, in partnership with First Five
to assess the health, development
Orange County. (42) and well-being of more than
UCLA researchers make this data accessible 350,000 kindergartners across the
to local communities to help them develop U.S.
their own initiatives to address the root B. The piloting of the EDI was a
causes of inequalities. "These findings not groundbreaking phenomenon that
only highlight the equity challenges we face allowed so many new tools to
but also reveal the truly inequitable design of emerge.
all the systems responsible for ensuring that C. Many schools and districts all
children thrive," says co-author Efren over America were supported
Aguilar, geographic information systems through the use of the EDI tool
lead at the Center for Healthier Children, and many professionals expect
Families, and Communities at UCLA. more to come.
(43) "However, only by addressing the D. Even though the EDI tool has
historical exploitation and exclusion of helped in assessing health,
(44) marginalized communities, can we development, and well-being,
begin to repair the pains and exploitative there is still much more to learn.
practices of the past and redesign our 43. Which choice provides the best
community systems so that all children transition?
thrive."
A. NO CHANGE
B. Thus
C. Nevertheless
D. Moreover
44.A. NO CHANGE
B. marginalized-communities, can
we begin
C. marginalized, communities, can
we begin
D. marginalized; communities can
we begin

15
August 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test II

Student’s Name _____________________________________

National ID _____________________________________
Test Center: _____________________________________

Duration: 65 minutes
52 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the multiple
choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
 The following edited passage is an
excerpt from Treasure Island by Robert
Louis Stevenson introducing the pirates.
It was not very long after this that there
occurred the first of the mysterious
events that rid us at last of the captain,
though not, as you will see, of his
5 affairs. It was a bitter cold winter, with
long, hard frosts and heavy gales; and it
was plain from the first that my poor
father was little likely to see the spring.
He sank daily, and my mother and I had
10 all the inn upon our hands, and were
kept busy enough without paying much
regard to our unpleasant guest. It was
one January morning, very early—a
pinching, frosty morning—the cove all
15 grey with hoar-frost, the ripple lapping
softly on the stones, the sun still low and
only touching the hilltops and shining
far to seaward. The captain had risen
earlier than usual and set out down the
20 beach, his cutlass swinging under the
broad skirts of the old blue coat, his
brass telescope under his arm, his hat
tilted back upon his head.
Well, mother was upstairs with father
25 and I was laying the breakfast-table
against the captain’s return when the
parlour door opened and a man stepped
in on whom I had never set my eyes
before. He was a pale, tallowy creature,
30 wanting two fingers of the left hand, and
though he wore a cutlass, he did not
look much like a fighter. He was not
sailorly, and yet he had a smack of the
sea about him too.
35 I asked him what was for his service,
and he said he would take soda; but as I
was going out of the room to fetch it, he
sat down upon a table and motioned me
to draw near. I paused where I was, with
40 my napkin in my hand.
“Come here, sonny,” says he. “Come
nearer here.” I took a step nearer. “Is
this here table for my mate Bill?” he
2
asked with a kind of leer. I told him I
45 did not know his mate Bill, and this was
for a person who stayed in our house
whom we called the captain.
“Well,” said he, “my mate Bill would be
called the captain, as like as not. He has
50 a cut on one cheek and a mighty
pleasant way with him, particularly in
drink, has my mate Bill. We’ll put it, for
argument like, that your captain has a
cut on one cheek—and we’ll put it, if
55 you like, that that cheek’s the right one.
Ah, well! I told you. Now, is my mate
Bill in this here house?” I told him he
was out walking. “Which way, sonny?
Which way is he gone?”
60 And when I had pointed out the rock
and told him how the captain was likely
to return, “Ah,” said he, “this’ll be as
good as drink to my mate Bill.”
The expression of his face as he said
65 these words was not at all pleasant, and
I had my own reasons for thinking that
the stranger was mistaken, even
supposing he meant what he said. But it
was no affair of mine, I thought; and
70 besides, it was difficult to know what to
do. The stranger kept hanging about just
inside the inn door, peering round the
corner like a cat waiting for a mouse. “I
have a son of my own,” said he, “as like
75 you as two blocks, and he’s all the pride
of my ’art. But the great thing for boys
is discipline, sonny—discipline. Now, if
you had sailed along of Bill, you
wouldn’t have stood there to be spoke to
80 twice—not you. That was never Bill’s
way, nor the way of such as sailed with
him. And here, sure enough, is my mate
Bill, with a spy-glass under his arm,
bless his old ’art, to be sure. You and
85 me’ll just go back into the parlour,
sonny, and get behind the door, and
we’ll give Bill a little surprise—bless
his ’art, I say again.”
September 2021
 So saying, the stranger backed along 2. As used in line 30, “wanting”
90 with me into the parlour and put me most nearly means
behind him in the corner so that we A. desiring.
were both hidden by the open door. I B. hoping.
was very uneasy and alarmed, as you C. needing.
may fancy, and it rather added to my D. lacking.
95 fears to observe that the stranger was
certainly frightened himself. He cleared 3. Which of the following can be
the hilt of his cutlass and loosened the assumed of Black Dog?
blade in the sheath; and all the time we A. He has bad intentions for
were waiting there he kept swallowing meeting the captain.
100 as if he felt what we used to call a lump B. He has never been to that
in the throat. parlour before.
C. He enjoys playing tricks on
At last in strode the captain, slammed people.
the door behind him, without looking to D. He has a very easy-going
the right or left, and marched straight character.
105 across the room to where his breakfast
awaited him. “Bill,” said the stranger in 4. Which choice best provides
a voice that I thought he had tried to evidence for the answer to the
make bold and big. The captain spun previous question?
round on his heel and fronted us; all the A. Lines 29-32 (“He …
110 brown had gone out of his face, and fighter.”)
even his nose was blue; he had the look B. Lines 35-36 (“I … soda;”)
of a man who sees a ghost, or the evil C. Lines 71-73 (“The …
one, or something worse, if anything mouse.”)
can be; and upon my word, I felt sorry D. Lines 117-119 (“ ‘Come …
115 to see him all in a moment turn so old stranger.”)
and sick.
5. Which of the following best
“Come, Bill, you know me; you know describes the narrator?
an old shipmate, Bill, surely,” said the A. courageous and brave
stranger. The captain made a sort of B. naïve and compliant
120 gasp. “Black Dog!” said he. C. otherworldly and strange
D. timid and benevolent
“And who else?” returned the other, 6. Which of the following best
getting more at his ease. “Black Dog as describes the relationship
ever was, come for to see his old between the first paragraph and
shipmate Billy, at the Admiral Benbow
the rest of the passage?
125 inn. Ah, Bill, Bill, we have seen a sight
of times, us two, since I lost them two A. Main events followed by
talons,” holding up his mutilated hand. sub-events.
B. A close up of a character
1. The tone of the passage is best followed by the description
described as of a wider setting.
C. Introduction followed by
A. tranquil and calming. characterization.
B. thrilling and invigorating. D. Scene setting followed by
C. ambiguous and strange. character development.
D. tense and unsettling.

3
September 2021
7. Which of the following literary
devices does the author use?
A. allegory
B. irony
C. hyperbole
D. foreshadowing
8. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 1-5 (“It … affairs.”)
B. Lines 24-29 (“Well …
before.”)
C. Lines 35-36 (“I … soda;”)
D. Lines 121-127 (“ ‘And …
hand.”)
9. As used in line 35, “service” most
nearly means
A. preference.
B. assistance.
C. work.
D. amenity.
10. The captain’s reaction to Black
Dog is similar to the reaction of
A. a man seeing his favorite
long-lost son.
B. a cat randomly confronted by
a dog in the street.
C. a woman seeing a rival co-
worker coincidentally after
years.
D. a businessman coming face
to face with the CEO of the
company.

4
September 2021
 The following passage is taken from The
Andes and the Amazon by James Orton
on the size of the mountains in the region.
We will now speak more particularly of
the Andes of the equator. The mountain
chain is built up of granite, gneissoid, and
schistose rocks, often in vertical position,
5 and capped with trachyte and porphyry.
Large masses of solid rock are rarely
seen; everything is cracked, calcined, or
triturated. While in Bolivia the Eastern
Cordillera shows a succession of sharp,
10 ragged peaks, in contrast with the conical
summits of the Cordillera of the coast,
there is no such distinction in the Andes
of the equator. The Eastern Cordillera has
a greater mean height, and it displays
15 more volcanic activity. Twenty volcanic
mountains surround the valley, of which
twelve are in the oriental chain. Three of
the twenty are now active (Cotopaxi,
Sangai, and Pichincha), and five others
20 are known to have erupted since the
Conquest (Chiles, Imbabura, Guamani,
Tunguragua, and Quirotoa). The
truncated cone of Cotopaxi, the jagged,
Alpine crest of ruined Altar, and the
25 dome of Chimborazo, are the
representative forms of the volcanic
summits. The extinct volcanoes usually
have double domes or peaks, while the
active peaks are slender cones. Antisana
30 and Cayambi are fashioned after
Chimborazo, though the latter is table-
topped rather than convex; Caraguairazo,
Quirotoa, Iliniza, Sincholagua,
Rumiñagui, and Corazon, resemble Altar;
35 Tunguragua, Sangai, Llanganati,
Cotocachí, Chiles, and Imbabura, imitate
Cotopaxi; Pichincha, Atacatzo, and
Guamani are irregular. The Ecuadorian
volcanoes have rarely ejected liquid lava,
40 but chiefly water, mud, ashes, and
fragments of trachyte and porphyry.
Cotopaxi alone produces, foam-like
pumice, and glossy, translucent obsidian.
The paucity of quartz, and the absence of
45 basalt, are remarkable. Some of the
porphyroids are conglomerate, but the
majority are true porphyries, having a
5
homogeneous base. Dr. T. Sterry Hunt
calls them porphyroid trachytes. They
50 have a black, rarely reddish, vitreous, or
impalpable base, approaching obsidian,
with a specific gravity of 2.59 in pure
specimens, and holding crystals or
crystalline grains of glassy feldspar, and
55 sometimes of pyroxene and hematite.
They differ from the Old World
porphyries in containing no quartz, and
seldom mica. D'Orbigny considers the
porphyries of the Andes to have been
60 ejected at the close of the cretaceous
period, and formed the first relief of the
Cordillera. The prevalence of trachyte
shows that the products have cooled
under feeble pressure.
65 From the deluges of water lately thrown
out have resulted deep furrows in the
sides; and from the prevalence of the east
wind, which is always met by the traveler
on the crest of either Cordillera, there is a
70 greater accumulation of ashes, and less
snow on the west slope. Cotopaxi is a fine
example of this. In Pichincha, Altar, and
Rumiñagua, however, the western wall is
lowest, apparently broken down. There is
75 no synchronism in the eruptions of
Cotopaxi and Pichincha. The reputed
eruptions of Pichincha are dated 1534,
1539, 1566, 1575, 1588, and 1660; that of
1534 resting on the assertions of Checa,
80 Garcilazo, and Herrera, indorsed by
Humboldt. Excepting the traditional
eruption in 1534, which probably is
confounded with that of Pichincha,
Cotopaxi did not open till 1742; then
85 followed the eruptions of 1743, 1744,
1746, 1766, 1768, 1803, 1851, and 1855.
We must mention, however, that, since
the recent awakening of Pichincha,
Cotopaxi has been unusually silent. There
90 is also a remarkable coincidence (which
may not be wholly accidental) in the
renewed activity of Pichincha, and the
great eruption of Mauna Loa, both
occurring in March, 1868. It is generally
95 believed by the natives that Cotopaxi and
Tunguragua are sympathetic.
September 2021
 There are fifty-one volcanoes in the
Andean chain. Of these, twenty girdle the
Valley of Quito, three active, five
100 dormant, and twelve extinct. Besides
these are numerous mountain peaks not
properly volcanic. Nowhere on the face
of the earth is there such a grand
assemblage of mountains. Twenty-two
105 summits are covered with perpetual
snow, and fifty are over ten thousand feet
high.

All of these would be visible from a

single stand-point—the summit of
110 Cotopaxi. The lofty peaks shoot up with
so much method as almost to provoke the
theory that the Incas, in the zenith of their
power, planted them as signal monuments
along the royal road to Cuzco. The
115 eastern series is called the Cordillera
real, because along its flank are the Ecuadorian Volcanoes
remnants of the splendid highway which Source: James Orton
once connected Quito and the Peruvian
capital. It can also boast of such 11. The primary purpose of the
120 tremendous volcanoes as Cotopaxi and passage is to
Sangai. The Western Cordillera contains
A. argue the recent eruptions as
but one active volcano; but then it can
harmful to the environment.
point to peerless Chimborazo and the
B. provide a historical record of
deep crater of Pichincha. These twenty
volcanic eruptions.
125 volcanic mountains rise within a space
C. enumerate the number of
only two hundred miles long and thirty
mountains in the Andes Chain.
miles wide. It makes one tremble to think
D. detail the different volcanoes
of the awful crevice over which they are
in the Andes chain and their
placed.
specifications.
12. The overall text structure of the
passage is best described as
A. cause and effect.
B. investigation.
C. argumentative.
D. informative.
13. The author used which of the
following to support his text?
A. a direct quote
B. statistics
C. authoritative reference
D. anecdote

6
September 2021
14. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 1-2 (“We … equator.”)
B. Lines 44-45 (“The …
remarkable.”)
C. Lines 71-72 (“Cotopaxi …
this.”)
D. Lines 74-81 (“There …
Humboldt.”)
15. As used in line 5, “capped” most
nearly means
18. Which of the following is NOT
true according to the passage?
A. Less than half of the
volcanoes are active.
B. The Ecuadorian volcanoes
mainly emit water and liquid
lava.
C. Cotopaxi has not erupted
recently.
D. New World porphyries do not
contain any quartz and rarely
any mica.

A. topped. 19. Which choice best provides

B. improved. evidence for the answer to the
C. limited. previous question?
D. surpassed. A. Lines 17-22 (“Three …
16. The author assumes which of the Quirotoa.”)
B. Lines 38-41 (“The …
following to be true of the reader?
porphyry.”)
A. The reader is familiar with the C. Lines 49-58 (“They … mica.”)
substance that emits from the D. Lines 87-89 (“We … silent.”)
Ecuadorian volcano.
B. The reader is familiar with the 20. The graphic best supports which
paragraph within the passage?
forms of Altar, Chimborazo,
and Cotopaxi. A. First paragraph
C. The reader is familiar with the B. Second paragraph
names of the volcanoes and C. Third paragraph
technical terms of the types of D. Fourth paragraph
rocks. 21. As used in line 64, “feeble” most
D. The reader has never heard of nearly means
volcano tops.
A. hot.
17. What is the relationship between B. timid.
Altar, Chimborazo, and Cotopaxi C. ineffective.
to the rest of the volcanoes? D. weak.
A. They were initially awakened
from the rest of the volcanoes.
B. They work as prototypes to
the rest of the volcanoes.
C. They synchronously erupt
while the rest of the volcanoes
do not.
D. They are silent while the rest
are constantly erupting.

7
September 2021
 The first passage is from Common
Diseases of Farm Animals by R. A. Craig
discussing general diseases. The second
edited passage is taken from Cattle and
their Diseases by Robert Jennings
discussing diarrhea.
Passage 1
The importance of recognizing or
diagnosing the seat and nature of the
morbid change occurring in an organ or
group of organs cannot be overestimated.
5 Laymen do not comprehend the difficulty
or importance of correctly grouping the
signs or symptoms of disease in such a
way as to enable them to recognize the
nature of the disease. In order to be able
10 to understand the meaning of the many
symptoms or signs of disease, we must
possess knowledge of the structure and
physiological functions of the different
organs of the body. We must be familiar
15 with the animal when it is in good health
in order to be able to recognize any
deviation from the normal due to disease,
and we must learn from personal
observation the different symptoms that
20 characterize the different diseases.
Stockmen should be able to tell when any
of the animals in their care are sick as
soon as the first symptom of disease
manifests itself, by changes in the general
25 appearance and behavior. But in order to
ascertain the exact condition a general
and systematic examination is necessary.
The examiner, whether he be a layman or
a veterinarian, must observe the animal
30 carefully, noting the behavior,
appearance, surroundings, and general
and local symptoms.
Before making a general examination of
the animal, it is well, if the examiner is
35 not already acquainted with the history of
the case (care, feed and surroundings), to
learn as much about this from the
attendant as is possible. Inquiry should be
made as to the feeding, the conditions
40 under which the animal has been kept, the
8
length of time it has been sick, its actions,
or any other information that may be of
assistance in forming the diagnosis and
outlining the treatment.
45 The general symptoms inform us
regarding the condition of the different
groups of body organs. A careful study of
this group of symptoms enables us
correctly to diagnose disease and inform
50 ourselves as to the progress of long,
severe affections. These symptoms occur
in connection with the pulse, respirations,
body temperature, skin and coat, visible
mucous membranes, secretions and
55 excretions, and behavior of the animal.
The local symptoms are confined to a
definite part or organ. Swelling, pain,
tenderness and loss of function are
common local symptoms. A direct
60 symptom may also be considered under
this head because of its direct relation to
the seat of disease. It aids greatly in
forming the diagnosis.
Other terms used in describing symptoms
65 of disease are objective, which includes
all that can be recognized by the person
making the examination; indirect, which
are observed at a distance from the seat of
the disease; and premonitory, which
70 precede the direct, or characteristic
symptoms. The subjective symptoms
include such as are felt and described by
the patient. These symptoms are available
from the human patient only.
Passage 2
75 Cattle are frequently subject to diarrhea,
particularly in the spring of the year when
the grass is young and soft. Occasionally
it assumes a very obstinate form in
consequence of the imperfect secretion of
80 gastric juice; the feces are thin, watery,
and fetid, followed by very great
prostration of the animal.
September 2021
 The symptoms of diarrhea are too well 22. What is the purpose of lines 1-4?
known to require any detailed A. The author seeks to disparage
85 description. those who are convinced that
laymen can properly diagnose
Treatment.—If in a mild form, the diet diseases.
should be low; give two ounces of B. The author is attempting to
Epsom-salts, twice a day. In a more convey a sense of urgency.
obstinate form, give two drachms of C. The author is discrediting
90 carbonate of soda in the food. Oak-bark unprofessionals in the field.
tea will be found very useful in these D. The author is recognizing that
cases; or one of the following powders, change in the organs is
twice a day, will be found very common.
advantageous: pulverized opium and
95 catechu, each one and a half ounces; 23. Passage 1 is most likely written
prepared chalk, one drachm; to be given from the point of view of
in the feed. A. an amateur veterinarian.
B. a layman.
Calves are particularly subject to this C. a farmer.
disease, and it often proves fatal to them. D. a professional veterinarian.
100 It sometimes assumes an epizoötic form,
when it is generally of a mild character. 24. Which of the following does the
So long as the calf is lively and feeds author of Passage 1 indicate as
well, the farmer should entertain no fear being important for understanding
for him; but if he mopes about, refuses diseases?
105 his food, ceases to ruminate, wastes in A. a career as a vet
flesh, passes mucus and blood with the B. making quick and random
feces, and exhibits symptoms of pain, the examinations
case is a dangerous one. C. knowledge of the symptoms
D. awareness of treatments
In such an emergency, lose no time, but
25. Which choice best provides
110 give two or three ounces of Castor-oil
with flour-gruel, or two ounces of salts at evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
a dose, followed with small draughts of
oak-bark tea; or give, twice a day, one of A. Lines 14-20 (“We …
the following powders: pulverized diseases.”)
115 catechu, opium, and Jamaica ginger, of B. Lines 25-27 (“But …
each half an ounce; prepared chalk, one necessary.”)
ounce; mix, and divide into twelve C. Lines 28-32 (“The …
powders. Bran washes, green food, and symptoms.”)
flour-gruel should be given, with plenty D. Lines 38-44 (“Inquiry …
120 of salt. treatment.”)
26. As used in line 61 “head” most
nearly means
A. skull.
B. intellect.
C. leader.
D. category.

9
September 2021
27. Which of the following is NOT 31. Which of the following best
mentioned in the passage? describes the difference between
the two passages?
A. Diarrhea most frequently
affects young cows. A. Passage 1 explores the
B. Diarrhea in cows is exhibited downfalls of a wrong
in an unyielding manner. diagnosis while Passage 2
C. Carbonate of soda is given in attempts to enlighten the
all cases of diarrhea. reader on diarrhea.
D. Critical cases of diarrhea B. Passage 1 focuses on
include blood in the stool of symptoms while Passage 2
the animal. specifically tackles a disease
and its treatments.
28. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the C. Passage 1 argues the different
previous question? types of symptoms while
Passage 2 only discusses one
A. Lines 77-80 (“Occasionally … disease with one symptom.
juice;”) D. Passage 1 focuses on grouping
B. Lines 88-90 (“In … food.”) symptoms while Passage 2
C. Lines 98-99 (“Calves … haphazardly discusses
them.”) treatments.
D. Line 104-108 (“but … one.”)
32. As used in line 105, “wastes” most
29. In Passage 2, the author discusses nearly means
diarrhea as a common disease for
cattle. Which of the following best A. deteriorates.
provides evidence for the author’s B. misuses.
credibility? C. fades.
D. splurges.
A. The author is a well-known
veterinarian.
B. The author defines diarrhea
and its symptoms.
C. The author uses specific
references to treatments in all
cases of diarrhea.
D. The author uses technical
terms to prove his credence.
30. Which of the following best
describes a similar aspect of both
passages?
A. Both passages discuss diseases
found in cattle.
B. Both passages discuss detailed
cures for diseases.
C. Both passages discuss
symptoms as the essential
element.
D. Both passages are based on
technical terms.

10
September 2021
 The following edited passage is taken
from The Treasury of Ancient Egypt by
Arthur Weigall on the excavation of
tombs.
There came to the camp of a certain
professor, who was engaged in
excavating the ruins of an ancient
Egyptian city, a young and faultlessly-
5 attired Englishman, whose thirst for
dramatic adventure had led him to offer
his services as an unpaid assistant digger.
This immaculate personage had read in
novels and tales many an account of the
10 wonders which the spade of the excavator
could reveal, and he firmly believed that
it was only necessary to set a man of
lower status to dig a little hole in the
ground to open the way to the treasuries
15 of the Pharaohs (as one would expect).
Gold, silver, and precious stones gleamed
before him, in his imagination, as he
hurried along subterranean passages to
the vaults of long-dead kings. He
20 expected to slide upon the seat of his very
well-made breeches down the staircase of
the ruined palace which he had entered by
way of the skylight, and to find himself,
at the bottom, in the presence of the
25 bejeweled dead. In the intervals between
such experiences he was of opinion that a
little quiet gazelle shooting would
agreeably fill in the swiftly passing hours;
and at the end of the season's work he
30 pictured himself returning to the bosom
of his family with such a tale to tell that
every ear would be opened to him.
On his arrival at the camp he was
conducted to the site of his future labors;
35 and his horrified gaze was directed over a
large area of mud-pie, knee-deep in
which a few bedraggled natives slushed
their way downwards. After three weeks'
work on this distressing site, the professor
40 announced that he had managed to trace
through the mud the outline of the palace
walls, once the feature of the city, and
that the work here might now be regarded
as finished. He was then conducted to a
45 desolate spot in the desert, and until the
11
day on which he fled back to England he
was kept to the monotonous task of
superintending a gang of natives whose
sole business it was to dig a very large
50 hole in the sand, day after day and week
after week.
It is, however, sometimes the fortune of
the excavator to make a discovery which
almost rivals in dramatic interest the tales
55 of his youth. Such an experience fell to
the lot of Emil Brugsch Pasha when he
was lowered into an ancient tomb and
found himself face to face with a score of
the Pharaohs of Egypt, each lying in his
60 coffin; or again, when Monsieur de
Morgan discovered the great mass of
royal jewels in one of the pyramids at
Dachour. But such "finds" can be counted
on the fingers, and more often an
65 excavation is a fruitless drudgery.
Moreover, the life of the digger is not
often a pleasant one.
It will perhaps be of interest to the reader
of romances to illustrate the above
70 remarks by the narration of some of my
own experiences; but there are only a few
interesting and unusual episodes in which
I have had the peculiarly good fortune to
be an actor. There will probably be some
75 drama to be felt in the account of the
more important discoveries (for there
certainly is to the antiquarian himself);
but it should be pointed out that the
interest of these rare finds pales before
80 the description, which many of us have
heard, of how the archeologists of a past
century discovered the body of
Charlemagne clad in his royal robes and
seated upon his throne,—which, by the
85 way, is quite untrue. In spite of all that is
said to the contrary, truth is seldom
stranger than fiction; and the reader who
desires to be told of the discovery of
buried cities whose streets are paved with
90 gold should take warning in time and
return at once to his novels.
If the dawning interest of the reader has
now been thoroughly cooled by these
September 2021
 words, it may be presumed that it will be 36. Which of the following best
95 utterly annihilated by the following summarizes lines 92-108 (“If …
narration of my first fruitless excavation; bared.”)?
and thus one will be able to continue the A. The author is preparing the
story with the relieved consciousness that reader for the disappointment
nobody is attending. of an excavation and the
beginning of his experience as
100 In the capacity of assistant to Professor an excavator.
Flinders Petrie, I was set, many years B. The author is finalizing his
ago, to the task of excavating a supposed previous claims and preparing
royal cemetery in the desert behind the to discuss Professor Flinders
ancient city of Abydos, in Upper Egypt. Petrie’s experience.
105 Two mounds were first attacked; and C. The author is complaining
after many weeks of work in digging about his fruitless excavation
through the sand, the superstructure of and begins to propose his first
two great tombs was bared. experience as an assistant to
Professor Flinders Petrie.
33. According to the first two D. The author is redirecting the
paragraphs, the professor can best reader’s attention to his
be described as ambitious and successful
A. ignorant of reality. adventures.
B. lacking in diligence. 37. The use of parentheses in line 15
C. realistic and wary. “(as one would expect)” conveys a
D. stubborn and obstinate. tone of
34. Which choice best provides A. merriment.
evidence for the answer to the B. sarcasm.
previous question? C. disdain.
A. Lines 16-19 (“Gold … D. indifference.
kings.”) 38. The perspective from which the
B. Lines 25-28 (“In … hours;”) author writes influences the style
C. Lines 38-44 (“After … of text so that it resembles
finished.”)
D. Lines 44-51 (“He … week.”) A. a dissertation.
B. a report.
35. As used in line 58, “score” most C. a narrative.
nearly means D. a fairy tale.
A. result. 39. As used in line 101, “set” most
B. plenty. nearly means
C. grudge.
D. grade. A. directed.
B. prepared.
C. assigned.
D. hardened.

12
September 2021
40. The author claims which of the
following?
A. Archeologists in Egypt have
found a lot of gold so they
keep returning.
B. The discovery of artifacts
takes thousands of long years
full of labor.
C. The reality of the discoveries
is unlike the exaggerated tales.
D. Anyone can become an
archeologist if they have the
necessary skill set.
41. The author is most likely
A. a novel writer.
B. an actor.
C. an international history
student at Cairo University.
D. an experienced archeologist.
42. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 66-67 (“Moreover …
one.”)
B. Lines 68-74 (“It … actor.”)
C. Lines 87-91 (“and …
novels.”)
D. Lines 100-104 (“In …
Egypt.”)

13
September 2021
 The following edited passage is taken
from The Chemistry, Properties and
Tests of Precious Stones by John Mastin
on imitations of precious stones.
With regard to diamonds, the
manufacture of these has not as yet been
very successful. It is generally admitted
that these beautiful and valuable
5 minerals are caused by chemically-
charged water and occasionally, though
not always, high temperature, but
invariably beautified and brought to the
condition in which they are obtained by
10 the action of weight and pressure,
extending unbroken through perhaps
ages of time.
In these circumstances, science, though
able to give chemical properties and
15 pressure, cannot, of course, maintain
these continuously for "ages"; therefore
the chemist must manufacture the jewels
in such manner that he may soon see the
results of his labours, and though real
20 diamonds may be made, and with
comparative ease, from boron in the
amorphous or pure state along with
aluminium, fused in a crucible at a high
temperature, these diamonds are but
25 microscopic, nor can a number of them
be fused, or in any other way converted
into a large single stone, so that
imitation stones, to be of any service
must be made of a good clear glass. The
30 glass for this purpose is usually
composed of 53.70 per cent. of red lead,
38.48 per cent. of pure quartz in fine
powder, preferably water-ground, and
7.82 per cent. of carbonate of potash,
35 the whole coloured when necessary with
metallic oxides of a similar nature to the
constituents of the natural stones
imitated. But for colourless diamonds,
the glass requires no such addition to
40 tint it. From the formula given is made
the material known as "strass," or
"paste," and stones made of it are mostly
exhibited under and amongst brilliant
artificial lights. The mere fact that they
14
45 are sold cheaply is primâ facie proof
that the stones are glass, for it is evident
that a diamond, the commercial value of
which might be £50 or more, cannot be
purchased for a few shillings and be
50 genuine. So long as this is understood
and the stone is sold for the few
shillings, no harm is done; but to offer it
as a genuine stone and at the price of a
genuine stone, would amount to fraud,
55 and be punishable accordingly. Some of
these "paste," or "white stones," as they
are called in the trade, are cut and
polished exactly like a diamond, and
with such success as occasionally to
60 deceive all but experts. Such imitations
are costly, though, of course, not
approaching the value of the real stones;
it being no uncommon thing for
valuable jewels to be duplicated in
65 paste, whilst the originals are kept in the
strong room of a bank or safe-deposit.
In all cases, however, a hard file will
abrade the surface of the false stone. In
chapter VII, we found that quartz is in
70 the seventh degree of hardness, and an
ordinary file is but a shade harder than
this, so that almost all stones higher than
No. 7 are unaffected by a file unless it is
used roughly, so as to break a sharp
75 edge. In order to prepare artificial
diamonds and other stones for the file
and various tests, they are often what is
called "converted" into "doublets" or
"triplets." These are made as follows:
80 the body of the glass is of paste, and on
the "table" and perhaps on the broader
facets, there will be placed a very thin
slab of the real stone, attached by
cement. In the case of the diamond, the
85 body is clear, but in the coloured
imitations the paste portion is made
somewhat lighter in shade than the real
stone would be, the portion below the
girdle being coloured chemically, or
90 mounted in a coloured backing. Such a
stone will, of course, stand most tests,
for the parts usually tested are genuine.
September 2021
 A stone of this nature is called a 44. What does the author state about
"doublet," and it is evident that when it the creation of a diamond?
95 is tested on the underside, it will prove A. They have found a successful
too soft, therefore the "triplet" has been way to create a diamond.
introduced. This is exactly on the lines B. Artificial color enhances an
of the doublet, except that the collet and
imitation diamond’s shine.
perhaps the pavilions are covered also, C. Since diamonds take time to
100 so that the girdle, which is generally form, glass that resembles
encased by the mounting, is the only diamonds can be made
surface-portion of paste. In other cases quickly instead.
the whole of the crown is genuine, D. Weight and pressure are two
whilst often both the upper and lower out of five main components
105 portions are solid and genuine, the of creating a diamond.
saving being effected by using a paste
centre at the girdle, covered by the 45. Which choice best provides
mounting. evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 1-3 (“With …
successful.”)
B. Lines 3-12 (“It … time.”)
C. Lines 16-29 (“therefore …
glass.”)
D. Lines 29-38 (“The …
imitated.”)
46. As used in line 69, “found” most
nearly means
A. gathered.
B. recovered.
C. located.
D. discovered.

White or Colourless Stones 47. According to the passage, a

Source: John Mastin chemist cannot create a diamond
ring because

43. The main idea of the passage is to
A. discuss characteristics of
diamond manufacturing and
their imitations.
B. explore the risks of selling
imitation diamonds.
C. argue against buying
diamonds since imitation
diamonds are cheaper.
D. introduce hardness of
different stones.
A. “stress” only gives off
brilliance to the stone.
B. a diamond’s appearance
cannot be replicated.
C. the diamonds forged are too
tiny and cannot be joined
into one large stone.
D. the chemist must use
colourless glass which
cannot be imitated.

15
September 2021
48. As used in line 91, “stand” most
nearly means
A. rise.
B. endure.
C. sustain.
D. exist.
49. Which of the following is the best
and most precise method to test a
stone?
A. Rub it against another hard
stone.
B. Use a file against a false
stone.
C. Use “doublets” for testing.
D. Use “triplets” for testing.
50. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 67-68 (“In … stone.”)
B. Lines 75-79 (“In …
triplets.”)
C. Lines 90-92 (“Such …
genuine.”)
D. Lines 93-97 (“A …
introduced.”)
51. According to the passage and the
graph, which of the following
would be affected by a file?
A. an opal
B. a spinel
C. a beryl
D. a sapphire
52. What is the purpose of the final
paragraph?
A. to discredit “doublets”
B. to introduce “triplets”
C. to explain the role of the
paste
D. to discuss the presence of the
girdle

16
September 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test I
Answer Key
(Writing Section)

Passage 1 Passage 3
1. C 23. D
2. A 24. C
3. B 25. D
4. D 26. C
5. A 27. B
6. A 28. A
7. C 29. C
8. B 30. C
9. A 31. D
10. D 32. B
11. A 33. A
Passage 2 Passage 4
12. B 34. A
13. B 35. C
14. A 36. C
15. C 37. A
16. A 38. C
17. B 39. A
18. A 40. A
19. B 41. A
20. D 42. A
21. C 43. B
22. C 44. A
24 questions expression of ideas
20 words standard English conventions

1
August 2021
 EST I – Literacy Test II
Answer Key
(Reading Section)
Passage 1 Passage 3

1. D 22. B
2. D 23. D
3. A 24. C
4. C 25. A
5. B 26. D
6. D 27. C
28. B
7. D
8. A 29. C
9. A 30. A
10. B 31. B
32. A
Passage 2
Passage 4
11. D
12. D 33. A
13. C 34. A
14. D 35. B
15. A 36. A
16. C 37. B
17. B 38. C
18. B 39. C
19. B 40. C
20. A 41. D
21. D 42. D
Passage 5
43. A
44. C
45. C
46. D
47. C
48. B
49. D
50. D
51. A
52. B
 EST I – Literacy Test I

_____________________________________
Student’s Name
_____________________________________
National ID
_____________________________________
Test Center:

Duration: 35 minutes
44 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the
multiple choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
Questions 1-11 are based on the following 1.A. NO CHANGE
passage by Alexander Schwalbach and Julius B. excepted
Wilcox. C. expected
D. axcepted
The Modern Bicycle and its Accessories
2.A. NO CHANGE
Bicycles without number have been consigned to the B. it’s parts and their maintenance
scrap heap or discarded for new mounts, as a result C. its parts and there maintenance
of abuse and lack of proper care, due solely to the D. its parts and they’re maintenance
ignorance of riders as to a wheel’s construction and 3. The authors want to express worthiness.
requirements. Furthermore, disappointments have Which choice best accomplishes this goal?
resulted, in many instances, because the same lack
of knowledge has prevented the wise selection of a A. NO CHANGE
well-constructed and properly adjusted mount at the B. admired
outset. C. judged
D. famous
A bicycle can no more be (1) accepted to run
smoothly without a proper adjustment of (2) its parts 4.A. NO CHANGE
and their maintenance in perfect running condition B. they
than can any other piece of machinery. And while C. him
the chain and chainless productions of 1898 are (3) D. his
disliked for their simple mechanism, such points as
5.A. NO CHANGE
the bearings and running gear require periodical
inspection and attention to insure satisfactory
B. yet
service. This cannot be adequately given by a rider C. but
who has no conception as to the details of D. for
construction of (4) its machine, and (5) so it 6. Which word BEST describes the phrase
frequently happens that a bicycle sinks into an early “Know thy wheel”?
grave because its rider persists in calling upon it for
continued service, while utterly indifferent to its A. NO CHANGE
construction and requirements. B. quote
C. description
“Know thy wheel” is an excellent (6) thought for D. maxim
every rider to follow; for those who heed it the
7. The authors are considering removing the
matter of emergency repair will be a simple thing, a
quotation marks in the underlined portion.
smooth running wheel will be assured, the chance of
Should they do so?
accident reduced to the minimum, and the life of the
machine extended throughout its fullest period. It is A. Yes. The quotation represents the
partly with a view to (7) “bringing about a better authors’ inner thoughts.
acquaintance” between the average rider and his B. Yes, the quotation marks extend
wheel that the following pages are presented. unnecessary emphasis.
C. No. The quotation marks serve to break
from the flow of the passage to
introduce new ideas.
D. No. The quotation marks symbolize a
word-for-word account to support the
authors’ argument.

2
To the bicycle manufacturer and to the repair man
and dealer (8)—who are frequently called upon for
advice and service concerning any and all makes of
wheels—to the student of cycle construction, and to
the mechanical expert, the volume will scarcely fail
to be regarded as a valuable reference book for many
years to come.
1. The idea of presenting to (9) riders through the
columns of “The Commercial Advertiser” an
illustrated description of the lines, parts,
improvements of the bicycle for 1898 was conceived
chiefly because of the absence during the winter of
1897-98 of a National Cycle Show. (11) 2. Just prior
to the opening of preceding seasons tens of
thousands of riders throughout the country were able
to see at the annual shows, and at those held under
the auspices of the various local cycle trade
organizations, all that the maker had to offer in
changes and improvements for the new year. 3. This
opportunity was also furthered by the columns of
descriptive matter published by the daily press and
cycle trade journals in their reports of these shows
and their exhibits.
3
8. What should be done with the dashes?
A. Keep them. The information within the
dashes is nonrestrictive.
B. Keep them. The dashes offer a change in
tone.
C. Delete them. The information within the
dashes is necessary.
D. Delete them. Dashes can only be placed
at the end of a sentence, not the middle.
9.A. NO CHANGE
B. riders; through the columns of “The
Commercial Advertiser;” an
C. riders; through the columns of “The
Commercial Advertiser,” an
D. riders, through the columns of “The
Commercial Advertiser,” an
10. The authors would like to insert this
sentence to provide further support to their
argument in this paragraph.
“Riders were to have none of these
advantages for the season of 1898, however,
and “The Commercial Advertiser”
accordingly began the work of collecting
and presenting the information which
appeared in its columns in serial form during
February, March and April of 1898, and
which is now presented in this volume.”
The best placement for this sentence is
A. before sentence 1
B. after sentence 1
C. after sentence 2
D. after sentence 3
11. The authors are considering deleting the
underlined phrase. Should the sentence be
kept or deleted?
A. Kept, the sentence provides details
about the previous sentence.
B. Kept, the sentence provides an
important contradiction to the previous
sentence.
C. Deleted, the sentence is unrelated to the
rest of the paragraph.
D. Deleted, the sentence provides details
that should not be presented in the
beginning of the paragraph.
Questions 12-22 are based on the following 12.A. NO CHANGE
passage by Jean-Henri Fabre. B. tail-end. Who
C. tail-end who
The Glow Worm and Other Beetles
D. tail-end, and who
Few insects in our climes compete in popular fame
with the Glow-worm, that curious little animal 13. Which sentence is best suitable for the
which, to celebrate the little joys of life, kindles a introductory sentence?
beacon at its (12) tail-end, who does not know it, at A. In fact, we might easily cavil at the
least by name? Who has not seen it roam amid the word "worm."
grass, like a spark fallen from the moon at its full?
B. The Greeks have coined the word
The Greeks of old called it [Greek: lampouris],
Lampyris noctiluca.
meaning, the bright-tailed. Science employs the
same term: it calls the lantern-bearer, Lampyris C. The Lampyris can easily be mistaken
noctiluca, LIN. In this case, the common name is for a worm.
inferior to the scientific phrase, which, when D. Although the Lampyris has gained its
translated, becomes both expressive and accurate. fame among other beetles, its beetle
(13) The Lampyris is not a worm at all, not even in nature is still questioned.
general appearance. He has six short legs, which he 14. Which choice best matches the quality the
well knows how to use; he is a (14) gad-about, a trot- author mentions?
about. In the adult state, the male is correctly garbed
in wing-cases, like the true Beetle that he is. The A. attention-seeker
female is an ill-favoured, (15) ground-bound thing B. wanderer
who knows naught of the delights of flying: all her C. lazy creature
life long, she retains the larval shape, which, for the D. docile insect
rest, is similar to that of the male, who himself is
imperfect so long as he has not achieved the maturity 15.A. NO CHANGE
that comes with pairing-time. Even in this initial B. ground-bound thing who knows naught
stage, the word "worm" is out of place. We French of the delights of flying,
have the expression "Naked as a worm," to point to C. ground-bound thing who knows naught
the lack of any defensive covering. Now the of the delights of flying
Lampyris is clothed, that is to say, he wears an D. ground-bound thing who knows naught
epidermis of some consistency; moreover, he is of the delights of flying;
rather richly coloured: his (16) body is dark brown
all over and set off with pale pink on the thorax, 16.A. NO CHANGE
especially on the lower surface. Finally, each B. body is dark brown all over and setting
segment is decked at the hinder edge with two spots off
of a fairly bright red. A costume like this (17) having C. body is dark brown all over and was set
never been worn by a worm. off
1. Before he begins to feast, the Glow-worm D. body is dark brown all over and had
administers an anæsthetic: he chloroforms his been set off
victim, rivalling in the process the wonders of our
modern surgery, which renders the patient insensible 17.A. NO CHANGE
before operating on him. B. is never worn
C. never had been worn
D. was never worn

4
(18) 2. It is essential the Glow-worm administers this 18. The author is considering deleting the
in order to ensure its prey is unable to move. (19) 3. underlined sentence. Should the sentence be
It is in some such resting-place as this that I have kept or deleted?
often been privileged to light upon the Lampyris
banqueting on the prey which he had just paralyzed
A. Kept, the sentence elaborates the
concept of rendering the Glow-worm’s
on its shaky support by his surgical (20) movements.
victim insensible.
4. The usual game is a small snail hardly the size of
a cherry, such as, for instance, Helix variabilis, B. Kept, the sentence states the importance
DRAP., who, in the hot weather, collects in clusters of rendering the Glow-worm’s victim
on the stiff stubble and on other long, dry stalks, by insensible.
the roadside, and there remains motionless, in C. Deleted, it is redundant.
profound meditation, throughout the scorching D. Deleted, it is unrelated.
summer days. 19. To make this paragraph most logical,
sentence 3 should be placed
A. where it is
B. before sentence 1
C. after sentence 1
D. after sentence 4
20. The author wants to express the Glow-
worm’s trickery. Which choice best
accomplishes this goal?
A. NO CHANGE
B. games
C. artifices
D. routines

5
But he is familiar with other preserves. (21) He
frequents the edges of the irrigating-ditches, with
their cool soil, their varied vegetation, a favourite
haunt of the mollusc. (22)
22. Which choice best concludes the paragraph
6
21.A. NO CHANGE
B. He frequents the edges of the irrigating-
ditches with their cool soil; their varied
vegetation; a favourite haunt of the
mollusc.
C. He frequents the edges of the irrigating-
ditches with their cool soil— their
varied vegetation, a favourite haunt of
the mollusc.
D. He frequents the edges of the irrigating-
ditches. With their cool soil, their varied
vegetation, a favourite haunt of the
mollusc.
and matches the author’s writing style?
A. Here, he treats the game on the ground.
B. Under these conditions, it is easy for me
to rear him at home and to follow the
operator's performance down to the
smallest detail.
C. Although he is referred to as a worm, he
is everything but that.
D. His capture suggests his relatives are
great hunters as well.
Questions 23-33 are based on the following 23.A. NO CHANGE
passage. B. crank-shaft—Inasmuch
C. crank-shaft inasmuch
Aviation Engines: Design—Construction— D. crank-shaft, inasmuch
Operation and Repair by Victor W. Page 24. The writer would like to insert this
sentence to provide visual support and
Installing Rotary and Radial Cylinder Engines explanation of Fig. 1.

1. When rotary engines are installed, simple steel ‘The diagram given at Fig. 1 shows how
stamping or “spiders” are attached to the fuselage a Gnome “monosoupape” engine is
–to hold the fixed (23) crank-shaft. 2. Inasmuch installed on the anchorage plates and it
as the motor projects clear of the fuselage proper, also outlines clearly the piping necessary
there is plenty of room back of the front spider to convey the oil and fuel and also the air-
plate to install the auxiliary parts such as the oil piping needed to put pressure on both
pump, air pump and ignition magneto and also the fuel and oil tanks to insure positive
fuel and oil containers. 3. (25) The diagrams supply of these liquids which may be
given at Figs. 2 and 3 show other mountings of carried in tanks placed lower than the
Gnome engines and are self-explanatory. The motor in some installations.’
simple mounting possible when the Anzani ten- The best placement for this sentence
cylinder radial fixed type engine is used given at is
(26) Fig.1. The front end of the fuselage is
provided with a substantial pressed steel plate A. before sentence 1
having members projecting from it which may be B. before sentence 2
bolted to the longerons. The bolts that hold the C. before sentence 3
two halves of the crank-case together project D. after sentence 3
through the steel plate and hold the engine (27) 25.A. NO CHANGE
loosely to the front end of the fuselage.
B. The diagram given at Figs. 2 and 3
show other mountings of Gnome
engines and are self-explanatory.
C. The diagrams given at Figs. 2 and 3
shows other mountings of Gnome
engines and is self-explanatory.
D. The diagram given at Figs. 2 and 3
show other mountings of Gnome
engines and is self-explanatory.
26. Which choice refers to the explanation
provided in the sentence?
A. NO CHANGE
B. Fig. 2
C. Fig. 3
D. Fig. 4
27.A. NO CHANGE
B. securely
C. haphazardly
D. lightly

7
Some Causes of Noisy Operation
There are a number of power-plant derangements
which give a positive indication (28) on the other
hand noisy operation.
29. Which of the following best adds onto
(29) Any knocking or rattling sounds are usually
(30) under the influence of wear in connecting
rods or main bearings of the engine, though
sometimes a sharp metallic knock, which (31) are
very much the same as that produced by a loose
bearing, is due to carbon deposits in the cylinder
heads, or premature ignition due to advanced
spark-time lever.
8
28.A. NO CHANGE
B. because of their
C. in the same way
D. and therefore
the writer’s list of cases and causes of
noisy operation?
A. Squeaking sounds invariably
indicate dry bearings, and whenever
such a sound is heard it should be
immediately located and oil applied
to the parts.
B. The rubber hose often used in
making the flexible connections
demanded between the radiator and
water manifolds of the engine may
deteriorate inside and particles of
rubber may hang down and reduce
the area of the passage.
C. The grease from the grease cups
mounted on the pump-shaft bearing
to lubricate that member often finds
its way into the water system and rots
the inner walls of the rubber hose,
resulting in strips of the partly
decomposed rubber lining hanging
down and restricting the passage.
D. The cooling system is prone to
overheat after antifreezing solutions
of which calcium chloride forms a
part have been used.
30.A. NO CHANGE
B. produced by
C. changed because of
D. unrelated to
31.A. NO CHANGE
B. has been
C. is
D. have been
Whistling or (32) blowing sounds are produced
by leaks whose are either in the engine (33)
themselves or in the gas manifolds. A sharp
whistle denotes the escape of gas under pressure
and is usually caused by a defective packing or
gasket that seals a portion of the combustion
chamber or that is used for a joint as the exhaust
manifold. A blowing sound indicates a leaky
packing in crank-case. Grinding noises in the
motor are usually caused by the timing gears and
will obtain if these gears are dry or if they have
become worn. Whenever a loud knocking sound
is heard careful inspection should be made to
locate the cause of the trouble. Much harm may
be done in a few minutes if the engine is run with
loose connecting rod or bearings that would be
prevented by taking up the wear or looseness
between the parts by some means of adjustment.
32.A. NO CHANGE
B. blowing sounds are produced by
leaks, which are either in the engine
C. blowing sounds, which are produced
by leaks either in the engine
D. blowing sounds which are produced
by leaks either in the engine
33.A. NO CHANGE
B. itself
C. himself
D. herself

9
Fig. 1.—Diagram Defining Installation of Gnome “Monosoupape” Motor in Tractor Biplane. Note
Necessary Piping for Fuel, Oil, and Air Lines.

Fig. 2.—Showing Two Methods of Placing Propeller on Gnome Rotary Motor.

10
 Fig. 3.—How Gnome Rotary Motor May Be Attached to Airplane Fuselage Members

Fig. 4.—How Anzani Ten-Cylinder Radial Engine is Installed to Plate Securely Attached to Front End of
Tractor Airplane Fuselage.

11
Questions 34 through 44 are based on the 34.A. NO CHANGE
following passage by Clare Howard. B. Among the many didactic books
which flooded England in the
English Travelers of the Renaissance sixteenth and seventeenth centuries
were certain essays on travel.
(34) Among the many didactic books were C. In the sixteenth and seventeenth
certain essays which flooded England in the centuries certain essays that flooded
England on travel were among the
sixteenth and seventeenth centuries on travel.
many didactic books.
Some of these have never been brought to
D. Among the many didactic books
light since their publication more than three were certain essays on travel that
hundred years ago, or been mentioned by the flooded England in the sixteenth and
few writers who have interested themselves seventeenth centuries
in the literature of this subject. In the
collections of voyages and explorations, so 35.A. NO CHANGE
often (35) emphasized, these have found no B. fantasized
place. Most of them are very (36) rare, and C. stolen
have never been reprinted. Yet they do not D. garnered
deserve to be thus overlooked, and in several 36. Which choice best matches the
ways this survey of them will, I think, be quality the author mentions?
useful for students of literature.
A. NO CHANGE
B. scarce
They reveal a widespread custom among
Elizabethan and Jacobean gentlemen, of C. consistent
completing their education by travel. There D. common
are scattered allusions to this practice, in 37.A. NO CHANGE
contemporary social documents: Anthony à B. everywhere
Wood frequently explains how such an C. somewhere
Oxonian "travelled beyond seas and returned D. something
a compleat Person,"—but (37) nowhere is
this ideal of a cosmopolitan education so 38.A. NO CHANGE
explicitly set forth as it is in these essays. B. an apprentice monk taking his first
step into a monastery
Addressed to the intending tourist, they are in
C. a swan finding its mate
no sense to be confused with guide-books or
D. a wolf leaving its pack
itineraries. They are discussions of the
benefits of travel, admonitions and warnings,
arranged to put the traveler in the proper
attitude of mind towards his great task of self-
development like (38) a soldier losing a war.
Taken in chronological order they outline for
us the life of the travelling student.

12
Beginning with the end of the sixteenth
century when travel became the fashion, as
the only means of acquiring modern
languages and modern history, as well as
those physical accomplishments and social
graces by which a young man won his way at
Court, they trace his evolution up to the time
when it had no longer any serious motive;
that is, when the chairs of modern history and
modern languages were founded at the
English universities, and when, with the fall
of the Stuarts, the Court ceased to be the
arbiter of men's (39) fortunes futures and
educations. In the course of this evolution
they show us many phases of continental
influence in England; how Italian immorality
infected young imaginations, how France
became the model of deportment, what were
the origins of the Grand Tour, and so forth.
(40) 1. That these directions for travel were
not isolated oddities of literature, but were
the expression of a widespread ideal of the
English gentry, I have tried to show in the
following study.
13
39.A. NO CHANGE
B. fortunes, futures, and educations
C. fortunes; futures, and educations
D. fortunes; futures; and educations
40. Which of the following best
introduces the paragraph and
transitions to the next sentence?
A. NO CHANGE
B. It is open to doubt whether the
number of the truly pious would
ever have filled so many ships.
C. In the same boat-load with
merchants, spies, exiles, and
diplomats from England sailed
the young gentleman fresh from
his university, to complete his
education by a look at the most
civilized countries of the world.
D. These discussions of the art of
travel are relics of an age when
Englishmen, next to the Germans,
were known for being the greatest
travellers among all nations.
41. The writer would like to insert this
sentence to provide the reason for
including illustrations.
“The essays can hardly be appreciated
without support from biography and
history, and for that reason I have
introduced some concrete
illustrations of the sort of traveller to
whom the books were addressed.”
The best placement for this
sentence is
A. before sentence 1
B. after sentence 1
C. after sentence 2
D. after sentence 3
2. If I have not always quoted the 42.A. NO CHANGE
"Instructions" fully, (42) its because they B. it is
repeat one another on some points. 3. My C. this
plan (43), has been, to comment on D. its’
whatever in each book was new, or 43.A. NO CHANGE
showed the evolution of travel (44), for B. ; has been
study's sake. C. has been
D. :has been
44.A. NO CHANGE
B. – for study’s sake
C. ; for study’s sake
D. for study’s sake

14
 EST I – Literacy Test II

Student’s Name _____________________________________

National ID _____________________________________
Test Center: _____________________________________

Duration: 65 minutes
52 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the multiple
choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
 The following edited passage is an
excerpt from Around the World in
Eighty Days by Jules Vernes
introducing Phileas Fogg.
Mr. Phileas Fogg lived, in 1872, at No.
7, Saville Row, Burlington Gardens, the
house in which Sheridan died in 1814.
He was one of the most noticeable
5 members of the Reform Club, though he
seemed always to avoid attracting
attention; an enigmatical personage,
about whom little was known, except
that he was a polished man of the world.
10 People said that he resembled Byron—
at least that his head was Byronic.
Certainly an Englishman, it was more
doubtful whether Phileas Fogg was a
Londoner. He was never seen on
15 ’Change, nor at the Bank, nor in the
counting-rooms of the “City”; no ships
ever came into London docks of which
he was the owner; he had no public
employment; he had never been entered
20 at any of the Inns of Court, either at the
Temple, or Lincoln’s Inn, or Gray’s Inn;
nor had his voice ever resounded in the
Court of Chancery, or in the Exchequer,
or the Queen’s Bench, or the
25 Ecclesiastical Courts. He certainly was
not a manufacturer; nor was he a
merchant or a gentleman farmer. His
name was strange to the scientific and
learned societies, and he never was
30 known to take part in the sage
deliberations of the Royal Institution or
the London Institution, the Artisan’s
Association, or the Institution of Arts
and Sciences. He belonged, in fact, to
35 none of the numerous societies which
swarm in the English capital, from the
Harmonic to that of the Entomologists.
Phileas Fogg was a member of the
Reform, and that was all.
40 The way in which he got admission to
this exclusive club was simple enough.
2
He was recommended by the Barings,
with whom he had an open credit. His
cheques were regularly paid at sight
45 from his account current, which was
always flush.
Was Phileas Fogg rich? Undoubtedly.
But those who knew him best could not
imagine how he had made his fortune,
50 and Mr. Fogg was the last person to
whom to apply for the information.
Whenever he knew that money was
needed for a noble, useful, or
benevolent purpose, he supplied it
55 quietly and sometimes anonymously. He
was, in short, the least communicative
of men. He talked very little, and
seemed all the more mysterious for his
taciturn manner. His daily habits were
60 quite open to observation; but whatever
he did was so exactly the same thing
that he had always done before, that the
wits of the curious were fairly puzzled.
Had he travelled? It was likely, for no
65 one seemed to know the world more
familiarly; there was no spot so
secluded that he did not appear to have
an intimate acquaintance with it. He
often corrected, with a few clear words,
70 the thousand conjectures advanced by
members of the club as to lost and
unheard-of travellers, pointing out the
true probabilities, and seeming as if
gifted with a sort of second sight, so
75 often did events justify his predictions.
He must have travelled everywhere, at
least in the spirit.
It was at least certain that Phileas Fogg
had not absented himself from London
80 for many years. Those who were
honoured by a better acquaintance with
him than the rest, declared that nobody
could pretend to have ever seen him
anywhere else. His sole pastimes were
85 reading the papers and playing whist.
Mr. Fogg played, not to win, but for the
sake of playing. The game was in his
eyes a contest, a struggle with a
 difficulty, yet a motionless, unwearying 2. Phileas Fogg’s experience and
90 struggle, congenial to his tastes. knowledge of the world is most
similar to
Phileas Fogg was not known to have A. a student who has read many
either wife or children, which may geography books.
happen to the most honest people; either B. a simple man who has never
relatives or near friends, which is left London.
95 certainly more unusual. He lived alone C. a young woman thirsty for
in his house in Saville Row, whither adventure.
none penetrated. A single domestic D. a traveler who has gone to
sufficed to serve him. He breakfasted every country in the world.
and dined at the club, at hours
100 mathematically fixed, in the same room, 3. Which of the following is true of
at the same table, never taking his meals Phileas Fogg’s character?
with other members, much less bringing A. simple in his knowledge of
a guest with him; and went home at the world
exactly midnight, only to retire at once B. generous with his money
105 to bed. He never used the cosy C. timid and shy especially
chambers which the Reform provides around new people
for its favoured members. He passed ten D. quiet and standoffish when
hours out of the twenty-four in Saville confronted
Row, either in sleeping or making his
110 toilet. When he chose to take a walk it 4. Which choice best provides
was with a regular step in the entrance evidence for the answer to the
hall with its mosaic flooring, or in the previous question?
circular gallery with its dome supported A. Lines 4-7 (“He …
by twenty red porphyry Ionic columns, attention;”)
115 and illumined by blue painted windows. B. Lines 25-27 (“He …
When he breakfasted or dined all the farmer.”)
resources of the club—its kitchens and C. Lines 38-39 (“Phileas …
pantries, its buttery and dairy—aided to all.”)
crowd his table with their most D. Lines 52-55 (“Whenever …
120 succulent stores; he was served by the anonymously.”)
gravest waiters, in dress coats, and
shoes with swan-skin soles, who 5. As used in line 49, “fortune” most
proffered the viands in special nearly means
porcelain, and on the finest linen. A. wealth.
B. luck.
1. The main purpose of the passage C. coincidence.
is to D. condition.
A. disparage Phileas Fogg’s
actions in the Reform Club.
B. outline Phileas Fogg’s
financial decisions.
C. detail Phileas Fogg’s
character at all angles.
D. argue for Phileas Fogg’s
importance in the Reform
Club.

3
6. Why did people doubt Phileas
Fogg’s identity as an English
man?
A. He was not found doing
typical Englishmen
activities.
B. He was unknown in many
parts of London.
C. He was unmarried and had
no relations.
D. He was a part of the Reform
Club.
7. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 4-7 (“He …
attention;”)
B. Lines 14-25 (“He …
Courts.”)
C. Lines 78-80 (“It … years.”)
D. Lines 91-95 (“Phileas…
unusual.)
8. As used in line 97, “penetrated”
most nearly means
A. pierced.
B. understood.
C. entered.
D. pervaded.
9. In lines 47 and 64, the author uses
questions to
A. elicit a response from the
reader.
B. engage the reader’s attention.
C. test the reader’s knowledge.
D. make a sarcastic remark.
10. The tone of the passage is best
described as
A. judgmental and
disapproving.
B. condescending and
obnoxious.
C. subjective and emotionally
driven.
D. matter-of-fact and objective.

4
 The following passage is taken from The
Leardo Map of the World, 1452 or 1453
by John Kirtland Wright on the calendar
and the inscription behind it.
The calendars encircling Leardo’s three
maps constitute exceptional additions. Of
these calendars, the one on the Society’s
map is the most interesting. The
5 inscription in the panel below the circles,
in part an explanation of the calendar, is
somewhat awkwardly phrased in the
Venetian dialect of the fifteenth century,
but, although it lacks the beginning of
10 each line, the meaning is fairly clear,
especially when certain of the missing
lines are reconstructed from the
corresponding inscription on the map in
Vicenza.
15 In the first two lines the cartographer
makes an excursion into the realm of
theology.
This passage is followed by a statement
that the map shows how the land and
20 islands stand in relation to the seas and
how the many provinces and mountains
and principal rivers are distributed on the
land. Then, on the asserted authority of
Macrobius, “a very excellent astrologer
25 and geometrician,” figures are given for
the dimensions of the earth and of various
heavenly bodies. These are quite fanciful,
bearing little relation to the corresponding
figures actually cited by Macrobius.
30 The astronomical details are followed in
the third paragraph by the explanation of
the calendar. The latter consists of eight
concentric circles, of which the innermost
gives the dates of a religious holiday for
35 ninety-five years, from April 1, 1453, to
April 10, 1547; when this holiday falls in
April, A is written in the small
compartment, when in March, M; leap
years are designated by B (“bissextile
40 years”).
The second circle shows the names of the
months, beginning with March, which
5
was officially reckoned the first month of
the year in the Republic of Venice until
45 as late as 1797; it also tells the day, hour,
and minute when the sun enters each of
the twelve signs of the zodiac.
The third, fourth, fifth, and sixth circles
enable one to calculate the phases of the
50 moon. In the third circle the first nineteen
letters of the alphabet represent in order
the years of the Metonic lunisolar cycle.
These years were usually designated by
the golden numbers, but before the
55 Gregorian reform letters were frequently
employed in place of the numbers.
Leardo explains that C stands for 1453, D
for 1454, and so on until T is reached,
after which we begin over again at A. A
60 letter is placed opposite the figures (in the
fourth, fifth, and sixth 4 circles) showing
respectively the day of the month, the
hour of the day, and the “point of the
hour” at which the “conjunction of the
65 moon” (i.e. new moon) will take place in
the years to which the letter refers. For
example, there will be a new moon on
April 8, 1453, at 16 hours, 200 points.
Leardo adds that there are 1080 points in
70 an hour.
The seventh circle gives the dominical, or
“Sunday,” letters; these are indicated
opposite the days of the month (fourth
circle) on which Sunday falls in the years
75 designated by the seven first letters of the
alphabet. If we know the dominical letter
for any particular year, we may thus
determine the days of the week.
Leardo, however, does not specify the
80 years to which the dominical letters in his
calendar refer.
The eighth and ninth circles give the
lengths of the days in hours and minutes.
From this we see that the vernal equinox
85 fell on March 11, inasmuch as the
calendar was constructed before the
Gregorian reform. Finally, in the tenth
circle religious festivals are shown.

Times of the New Moon
Source: James Orton
11. The primary purpose of the
passage is to
A. introduce the main elements
of Leardo’s calendar and its
effect on calendars today.
B. defend Leardo’s calendar as
useful and still relevant.
C. make clear the importance of
understanding the history
behind the calendar.
D. outline the different
components of Leardo’s
calendar and the circles that
surround it.
12. The overall text structure of the
passage is best described as
A. cause and effect.
B. investigation.
C. argumentative.
D. informative.
13. As used in line 20, “stand” most
nearly means
A. endure.
B. apply.
C. erect.
D. exist.
14. Which of the following is NOT
mentioned in the passage?
A. Sunday is the first day of the
week according to Leardo’s
calendar.
B. The message in the panel was
written centuries ago.
C. The second circle on the map
represents the months of the
year.
D. The beginning of the
inscription alludes to religion.
6
15. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 4-14 (“The …
Vicenza.”)
B. Lines 15-17 (“In …
theology.”)
C. Lines 41-45 (“The … 1797;”)
D. Lines 71-76 (“The …
alphabet.”)
16. In lines 24-25, the author uses
quotation marks most likely to
A. support the evidence he is
providing with a credible
source.
B. provide a counter-claim
through the quotation marks.
C. break the tone of the text.
D. switch voices to support his
claim.
17. As used in line 56, “employed”
most nearly means
A. hired.
B. used.
C. involved.
D. appointed.
18. Which of the following can be
inferred from the passage?
A. Leardo’s calendar was the first
of its kind.
B. Leardo’s calendar was heavily
based in religion.
C. All circles are alike.
D. The last two circles are the
most important for Leardo’s
calendar.
19. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 2-4 (“Of …
interesting.”)
B. Lines 32-36 (“The … 1547;”)
C. Lines 48-50 (“The … moon.”)
D. Lines 82-83 (“The …
minutes.”)
20. According to the graphic, which of
Leardo’s predictions was the most
accurate?
A. 1455 April 16
B. 1456 April 6
C. 1461 January 11
D. 1468 February 23
21. The organization of the passage is
best described as
A. cause and effect.
B. sequential.
C. compare and contrast.
D. chronological.

7
 The first passage is from Special Reports
on Diseases of the Horse by A. A.
Holcombe faults on conformation. The
second edited passage is taken from
Diseases of the Horse’s Foot by H.
Caulton Reeks on a disease in the horse’s
foot.
Passage 1
A large percentage of horses have feet
which are not perfect in conformation,
and as a consequence they are especially
predisposed to certain injuries and
5 diseases.
Flatfoot is that condition in which the
sole has little or no convexity. It is a
peculiarity common to some breeds,
especially heavy, lymphatic animals
10 raised on low, marshy soils. It is confined
to the fore feet, which are generally
broad, low-heeled, and with a wall less
upright than is seen in the perfect foot.
In flatfoot there can be little or no
15 elasticity in the sole, for the reason that it
has no arch, and the weight of the animal
is received on the entire plantar surface,
as it rests upon the ground instead of on
the wall. For these reasons such feet are
20 particularly liable to bruises of the sole,
corns, pumiced sole, and excessive
suppuration when the process is once
established. Horses with flatfoot should
be shod with a shoe having a wide web,
25 pressing on the wall only, while the heels
and frog are never to be pared. Flatfoot
generally has weak walls, and as a
consequence the nails of the shoe are
readily loosened and the shoe cast.
30 Clubfoot is a term applied to such feet as
have the walls set nearly perpendicular.
When this condition is present the heels
are high, the fetlock joint is thrown
forward, or knuckles, and the weight of
35 the animal is received on the toes. Many
mules are clubfooted, especially behind,
where it seems to cause little or no
inconvenience. Severe cases of clubfoot
8
may be cured by cutting the tendons, but
40 as a rule special shoeing is the only
measure of relief that can be adopted. The
toe should not be pared, but the heels are
to be lowered as much as possible and a
shoe put on with a long, projecting toe
45 piece, slightly turned up, while the heels
of the shoe are to be made thin.
Crookedfoot is that condition in which
one side of the wall is higher than the
other. If the inside wall is the higher, the
50 ankle is thrown outward, so that the
fetlock joints are abnormally wide apart
and the toes close together. Animals with
this deformity are "pigeon-toed," and are
prone to interfere, the inside toe striking
55 the opposite fetlock. If but one foot is
affected, the liability to interfere is still
greater, for the reason that the fetlock of
the perfect leg is nearer the center plane.
When the outside heel is higher the ankle
60 is thrown in and the toe turns out. Horses
with such feet interfere with the heel. If
but one foot is so affected, the liability to
interfere is less than when both feet are
affected, for the reason that the ankle of
65 the perfect leg is not so near to the center
plane. Such animals are especially liable
to stumbling and to lameness from injury
to the ligaments of the fetlock joints. This
deformity is to be overcome by such
70 shoeing as will equalize the disparity in
length of walls, and by proper boots to
protect the fetlocks from interfering.
Passage 2
Definition. In veterinary surgery the term
'corn' is used to indicate the changes
75 following upon a bruise to that portion of
the sensitive sole between the wall and
the bar. Usually they occur in the fore-
feet, and are there found more often in the
inner than in the outer heel.
80 The changes are those depending upon
the amount of hemorrhage and the
accompanying inflammatory phenomena
occasioned by the injury.
 Thus, with the hemorrhage we get 22. According to Passage 1, which of
85 ecchymosis, and consequent red staining the following does the author
of the surrounding structures. As is the claim to be true?
case with extravasations of blood A. Animals raised on marshy
elsewhere, the hemoglobin of the escaped soils are known to eventually
corpuscles later undergoes a series of
get flatfoot.
90 changes, giving rise to a succession of B. Most horses are prone to
brown, blue, greenish and yellowish specific illnesses and physical
coloration. damage.
C. The weight of the animal is
With the inflammation thereby set up we irrelevant to the disease it may
get swelling of the surrounding blood cause.
95 vessels, pain from the compression of the D. A horse with flatfoot cannot
swollen structures within the non- be cured.
yielding hoof, and moistness as a result of
the inflammatory exudate. In a severe 23. Which choice best provides
case the inflammation is complicated by evidence for the answer to the
100 the presence of pus. previous question?
A. Lines 1-5 (“A … diseases.”)
Classification. Putting on one side the B. Lines 6-10 (“Flatfoot …
classification of Lafosse (natural and soils.”)
accidental), as perhaps wanting in C. Lines 14-19 (“In … wall.”)
correctness, seeing that all are accidental, D. Lines 26-29 (“Flatfoot …
105 and disregarding the suggested divisions cast.”)
of Zundel (corn of the sole and corn of
the wall) as serving no practical use, we 24. Passage 1 presents a more general
believe, with Girard, that it is better to summary of problems in
classify corns according to the changes conformation while Passage 2
110 just described. Following his system, we tends towards
shall recognise three forms: (1) Dry, (2) A. a narrative-like structure.
moist, (3) suppurating. B. a simple outline.
C. a detailed anecdote.
The dry corn is one in which the injury D. a scientific study.
has fortunately been unattended with
115 excessive inflammatory changes, and 25. Which of the following is NOT
where nothing but the coloration imparted mentioned in Passage 2?
to the horn by the extravasated blood A. Pus causes the case of
remains to indicate what has happened. inflammation to worsen.
B. The blood remains are the
The moist corn is that in which a great only indication of dry corn.
120 amount of inflammatory exudate is the C. Moist corn is indicative of a
most prominent symptom. It indicates an recent injury.
injury of comparatively recent infliction. D. Suppurating corn is the most
dangerous stage.
The suppurating corn, as the name 26. As used in line 4 “certain” most
indicates, is a corn in which the nearly means
125 inflammatory changes are complicated by
the presence of pus. A. confident.
B. effective.
C. particular.
D. inevitable.

9
27. It can be most reasonably inferred
from the first two paragraphs of
Passage 2 that corn
A. alters based on how much
blood has escaped from the
ruptured blood vessel and the
co-occurring infection.
B. occurs most often outside the
feet.
C. refers to a bruised mark on the
animal.
D. causes discoloration in the
flank of the animal.
28. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 73-77 (“In … bar.”)
B. Lines 77-79 (“Usually …
heel.”)
C. Lines 80-83 (“The … injury.”)
D. Line 99-101 (“In … pus.”)
29. As used in line 98, “severe” most
nearly means
31. Passage 2 can best be described as
A. a refutation to the ideas on
flatfoot mentioned in Passage
1.
B. a more in-depth understanding
of a specific disease briefly
mentioned in Passage 1.
C. a documentation of the same
diseases explained in Passage
1.
D. an outline of a disease
separate from those mentioned
in Passage 1.
32. Which of the following is an effect
of clubfoot according to Passage
1?
A. The animal receives bruises
on the sole.
B. Tendons may suffer.
C. The inside toe will affect the
joint of the horse’s leg.
D. The animal’s weight shifts to
the front of the foot.

A. plain.
B. bitter.
C. demanding.
D. critical.
30. It can be inferred that Passage 2 is
most likely written from the point
of view of
A. a horse breeder.
B. a farmer.
C. a research student.
D. a veterinarian.

10
 The following edited passage is taken
from Sign Language among North
American Indians by Garrick Mallery on
the origins of sign language.
In observing the maxim that nothing can
be thoroughly understood unless its
beginning is known, it becomes necessary
to examine into the origin of sign
5 language through its connection with that
of oral speech. In this examination it is
essential to be free from the vague
popular impression that some oral
language, of the general character of that
10 now used among mankind, is "natural" to
mankind. It will be admitted on reflection
that all oral languages were at some past
time far less serviceable to those using
them than they are now, and as each
15 particular language has been thoroughly
studied it has become evident that it grew
out of some other and less advanced
form. In the investigation of these old
forms it has been so difficult to ascertain
20 how any of them first became a useful
instrument of inter-communication that
many conflicting theories on this subject
have been advocated.
Oral language consists of variations and
25 mutations of vocal sounds produced as
signs of thought and emotion. But it is not
enough that those signs should be
available as the vehicle of the producer's
own thoughts. They must be also efficient
30 for the communication of such thoughts
to others. It has been, until of late years,
generally held that thought was not
possible without oral language, and that,
as man was supposed to have possessed
35 from the first the power of thought, he
also from the first possessed and used
oral language substantially as at present.
That the latter, as a special faculty,
formed the main distinction between man
40 and the brutes has been and still is the
prevailing doctrine. In a lecture delivered
before the British Association in 1878 it
was declared that "animal intelligence is
unable to elaborate that class of abstract
45 ideas, the formation of which depends
11
upon the faculty of speech." If instead of
"speech" the word "utterance" had been
used, as including all possible modes of
intelligent communication, the statement
50 might pass without criticism. But it may
be doubted if there is any more necessary
connection between abstract ideas and
sounds, the mere signs of thought, that
strike the ear, than there is between the
55 same ideas and signs addressed only to
the eye.
The point most debated for centuries has
been, not whether there was any primitive
oral language, but what that language
60 was. Some literalists have indeed argued
from the Mosaic narrative that because
the Creator, by one supernatural act, with
the express purpose to form separate
peoples, had divided all tongues into their
65 present varieties, and could, by another
similar exercise of power, obliterate all
but one which should be universal, the
fact that he had not exercised that power
showed it not to be his will that any man
70 to whom a particular speech had been
given should hold intercourse with
another miraculously set apart from him
by a different speech. By this reasoning,
if the study of a foreign tongue was not
75 impious, it was at least clear that the
primitive language had been taken away
as a disciplinary punishment, and that,
therefore, the search for it was as fruitless
as to attempt the passage of the flaming
80 sword. In accordance with the advance of
linguistic science they have successively
shifted back the postulated primitive
tongue to Sanskrit, then to Aryan, and
now seek to evoke from the vasty deeps
85 of antiquity the ghosts of other rival
claimants for precedence in dissolution.
As, however, the languages of man are
now recognized as extremely numerous,
and as the very sounds of which these
90 several languages are composed are so
different that the speakers of some are
unable to distinguish with the ear certain
sounds in others, still less able to
reproduce them, the search for one
95 common parent language is more difficult
 than was supposed by medieval 34. Which choice best provides
ignorance. evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
The discussion is now, however, varied A. Lines 6-11 (“In … mankind.”)
by the suggested possibility that man at B. Lines 18-23 (“In …
100 some time may have existed without any advocated.”)
oral language. It is conceded by some C. Lines 26-29 (“But …
writers that mental images or thoughts.”)
representations can be formed without D. Lines 31-33 (“It …
any connection with sound, and may at language,”)
105 least serve for thought, though not for
expression. It is certain that concepts, 35. As used in line 25, “produced”
however formed, can be expressed by most nearly means
other means than sound. One mode of A. created.
this expression is by gesture, and there is B. delivered.
110 less reason to believe that gestures C. provoked.
commenced as the interpretation of, or D. offered.
substitute for words than that the latter
originated in, and served to translate 36. In lines 43-46, the author uses a
gestures. Many arguments have been quotation to
115 advanced to prove that gesture language A. criticize the idea that thought
preceded articulate speech and formed the and speech are co-dependent.
earliest attempt at communication, B. support his claim that
resulting from the interacting subjective intelligent communication is
and objective conditions to which dependent on oral speech.
120 primitive man was exposed. Some of the C. interpret future studies on
facts on which deductions have been speech.
based, made in accordance with well- D. bring light to the importance
established modes of scientific research of the lectures presented
from study of the lower animals, children, before the British Association.
125 and deaf-mutes, will be briefly
mentioned. 37. How do past theories of language
differ from recent discussions?
33. Which of the following does the A. Recent discussions focus on
author claim to be true of the possibility that oral
language? language was not always a
A. In the past, there was an defining human characteristic.
important link made between B. Recent discussions outline the
speech and thought. primitive tongue and which it
B. It is known how language may have been.
became an essential element C. Recent discussions state that
of communication. images do not suffice.
C. Language is an innate D. Recent discussions point away
phenomenon. from gestures.
D. Vocal sounds are not
sufficient enough to be the
carrier of the language.

12
38. Which choice best provides 42. In lines 1-6, the author mentions a
evidence for the answer to the maxim to
previous question? A. link oral speech to the origin
A. Lines 80-86 (“In … of sign language.
dissolution.”) B. emulate those who have
B. Lines 98-101 (“The … discussed sign language
language.”) before him.
C. Lines 101-106 (“It … C. justify the introduction to sign
expression.”) language he presents.
D. Lines 108-114 (“One … D. sound grand and otherworldly
gestures.”) by using extravagant rhetoric.
39. As used in line 38, “faculty” most
nearly means
A. department.
B. aptitude.
C. staff.
D. power.
40. In accordance with the passage, the
last paragraph serves as
A. a development of ideas.
B. a continuation of ideas.
C. a transition to new ideas.
D. a refutation of mentioned ideas.
41. Which of the following best
summarizes the passage?
A. Many past studies make a
direct link between oral
speech and thought; new
studies attempt to find links
between thought and other
means of expressions such as
gestures.
B. In the past, researchers faced
difficulties in trying to
separate the use of language
and thought processes; now,
they have combined the two.
C. Past researchers make claims
that language comes with
thought not separately.
D. Communication is the process
whereby a person expresses
his or her thoughts through
oral speech.

13
 The following edited passage is taken
from Fungi: Their Nature and Uses by
M. C. Cooke on the species, Agaricini.
Without some knowledge of the
structure of fungi, it is scarcely possible
to comprehend the principles of
classification, or to appreciate the
5 curious phenomena of polymorphism.
Yet there is so great a variety in the
structure of the different groups, that
this subject cannot be compressed
within a few paragraphs, neither do we
10 think that this would be desired if
practicable, seeing that the anatomy and
physiology of plants is, in itself,
sufficiently important and interesting to
warrant a rather extended and explicit
15 survey. In order to impart as much
practical utility as possible to this
chapter, it seems advisable to treat some
of the most important and typical orders
and suborders separately, giving
20 prominence to the features which are
chiefly characteristic of those sections,
following the order of systematists as
much as possible, whilst endeavouring
to render each section independent to a
25 considerable extent, and complete in
itself. Some groups naturally present
more noteworthy features than others,
and will consequently seem to receive
more than their proportional share of
30 attention, but this seeming inequality
could scarcely have been avoided,
inasmuch as hitherto some groups have
been more closely investigated than
others, are more intimately associated
35 with other questions, or are more readily
and satisfactorily examined under
different aspects of their life-history.
For the structure that prevails in the
order to which the mushroom belongs,
40 an examination of the species Agaricini
will be almost sufficient. Here we shall
at once recognize three distinct parts
requiring elucidation, viz. the rooting
slender fibres that traverse the soil, and
45 termed the mycelium, or spawn, the
stem and cap or pileus, which together
14
constitute what is called the
hymenophore, and the plates or gills on
the under surface of the cap, which bear
50 the hymenium. The earliest condition in
which the mushroom can be recognized
as a vegetable entity is in that of the
“spawn” or mycelium, which is
essentially an agglomeration of
55 vegetating spores. Its normal form is
that of branched, slender, entangled,
anastomosing, hyaline threads. At
certain privileged points of the
mycelium, the threads seem to be
60 aggregated, and become centres of
vertical extension. At first only a small
nearly globose budding, like a grain of
mustard seed, is visible, but this
afterwards increases rapidly, and other
65 similar buddings or swellings appear at
the base. These are the young
hymenophore.
As it pushes through the soil, it
gradually loses its globose form,
70 becomes more or less elongated, and in
this condition a longitudinal section
shows the position of the future gills in
a pair of opposite crescent-shaped
darker-coloured spots near the apex.
75 The dermal membrane, or outer skin,
seems to be continuous over the stem
and the globose head. At present, there
is no external evidence of an expanded
pileus and gills; a longitudinal section at
80 this stage shows that the gills are being
developed, that the pileus is assuming
its cap-like form, that the membrane
stretching from the stem to the edge of
the young pileus is separating from the
85 edge of the gills, and forming a veil,
which, in course of time, will separate
below and leave the gills exposed.
When, therefore, the mushroom has
arrived almost at maturity, the pileus
90 expands, and in this act the veil is torn
away from the margin of the cap, and
remains for a time like a collar around
the stem. Fragments of the veil often
remain attached to the margin of the
95 pileus, and the collar adherent to the
 stem falls back, and thenceforth is 46. Which of the following titles best
known as the annulus or ring. We have reflects the passage and graphic?
in this stage the fully-developed A. The Process of the Gills
hymenophore,—the stem with its ring, B. The Shedding of the Skin
100 supporting an expanded cap or pileus, C. Agaric in the Process of
with gills on the under surface bearing
Growth
the hymenium. D. Agaric in its Dying Phases
47. In lines 1-5, the tone can best be
described as
A. anguished.
B. objective.
C. satisfied.
D. sarcastic.
48. As used in line 69, “form” most
Source: M. C. Cooke nearly means
A. shape.
43. Which of the following does the B. questionnaire.
author deem necessary to C. condition.
understand fungi? D. classification.
A. minimal knowledge of 49. According to the passage,
fungal structure recognizing an Agaric can start as
B. an initial deep understanding early as
of the suborders
C. an innate need to learn about A. the seed.
fungi B. the formation of a mass of
D. tackling the larger spores.
components apart from the C. its hyaline threads.
suborders D. the appearance of the cap.
44. Which choice best provides 50. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the evidence for the answer to the
previous question? previous question?
A. Lines 1-5 (“Without … A. Lines 41-50 (“Here …
polymorphism.”) hymenium.”)
B. Lines 6-15 (“Yet … B. Lines 50-55 (“The …
survey.”) spores.”)
C. Lines 15-26 (“In … itself.”) C. Lines 55-61 (“Its …
D. Lines 26-37 (“Some”…“life- extension.”)
history.”) D. Lines 61-66 (“At … base.”)
45. As used in line 17, “treat” most
nearly means
A. heal.
B. tackle.
C. view.
D. medicate.

15
51. Which of the following lines
support the second stage of
growth featured in the graphic?
A. Lines 41-50 (“Here …
hymenium.”)
B. Lines 68-74 (“As … apex.”)
C. Lines 88-93 (“When …
stem.”)
D. Lines 97-102 (“We …
hymenium.”)
52. Which of the following is NOT
mentioned in the passage about
Agaricini?
A. The mushroom changes form
as it grows.
B. The species has three distinct
parts.
C. The ring that remains
attached to the mushroom is
a remnant of the veil.
D. The veil has only been found
at the Agaricini.

16
 EST I – Literacy Test I
Answer Key
(Writing Section)

Passage 1 Passage 3
1. C 23. A
2. A 24. C
3. B 25. A
4. D 26. D
5. A 27. B
6. D 28. B
7. B 29. A
8. A 30. B
9. D 31. C
10. D 32. B
11. A 33. B
Passage 2 Passage 4
12. B 34. B
13. A 35. D
14. B 36. B
15. A 37. A
16. A 38. B
17. D 39. B
18. C 40. A
19. D 41. B
20. C 42. B
21. A 43. C
22. B 44. A

1
 EST I – Literacy Test II
Answer Key
(Reading Section)
Passage 1 Passage 3

1. C 22. B
2. D 23. A
3. B 24. D
4. D 25. D
5. A 26. C
6. A 27. A
7. B 28. C
8. C 29. D
9. B 30. D
10. D 31. B
32. D
Passage 2 Passage 4
11. D 33. A
12. D 34. D
13. D 35. B
14. A 36. A
15. D 37. A
16. A 38. B
17. B 39. B
18. B 40. C
19. B 41. A
20. C 42. C
21. B
Passage 5
43. A
44. A
45. B
46. C
47. A
48. A
49. B
50. B
51. B
52. D

1
 EST I – Literacy Test I

Date 03 June 2022

Test Center: Test Center 12333
Room Number B5208
Student’s Name Ahmed Mahmoud Abdel Rahman Abdel Raouf
National ID 12345678901234
EST ID ab12cd34ef56gh78ij90xw12

Duration: 35 minutes
44 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the
multiple choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
Directions: Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions,
you will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For other
questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence
structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by one or more
graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing
decisions. Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions
will direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole. After
reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the
quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of
standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option
if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.
Questions 1-11 are based on the following 1. The author is considering removing
passage. the dashes in the underlined portion.
Should he do so?
The Everyday Life of Abraham Lincoln
A. Yes, the dashes are inconsistent
By Francis Fisher Browne with the style of the passage.
B. Yes, the information between
The year (1) 1809—that year which gave dashes is restrictive.
William E. Gladstone to England—was in C. No, the dashes emphasize the
our country the birth-year of him (2) when modifier.
wears the most distinguished name that (3) D. No, the dashes serve to break
has yet been wrote on the pages of American from the flow of the passage to
history—ABRAHAM LINCOLN. In a (4) introduce new ideas.
quaint cabin in a clearing, in the wilds of that 2.A. NO CHANGE
section which was once the hunting-ground B. who
and later the battle-field of the Cherokees and C. which
other war-like tribes, and which the Indians D. whose
(5) ourselves had named Kentucky because it
was "dark and bloody ground," the great War 3.A. NO CHANGE
President of the United States, after whose B. yet been written
name History has written the word C. had yet been written
"Emancipator," first saw the light. Born and D. has yet been written
nurtured in penury, inured to hardship, coarse 4. The writer wants to express
food, and scanty clothing,—the story of his crudeness. Which choice best
youth is full of (6) pathos. accomplishes this goal?

A. NO CHANGE
B. massive
C. primitive
D. solemn

5.A. NO CHANGE
B. themselves
C. herself
D. himself
6.A. NO CHANGE
B. triumph
C. abuse
D. hope

3
(7) Small wonder that when asked in his later 7. The author is considering deleting the
years to tell something of his early life, he underlined sentence. Should the
replied by quoting a line from Gray's Elegy: sentence be kept or deleted?
"The short and simple annals of the poor." A. Kept, the sentence provides
Lincoln's ancestry has been traced with details about the preceding
tolerable certainty through five generations to sentence.
Samuel Lincoln of Norfolk County, England. B. Kept, the sentence provides an
Not many years after the landing of the important contradiction to the
"Mayflower" at Plymouth—perhaps in the previous sentence.
year 1638—Samuel Lincoln's son Mordecai C. Deleted, the sentence is unrelated
had (8) run to Hingham, Massachusetts. to the rest of the paragraph.
Perhaps (9) although he was a Quaker, a then D. Deleted, the sentence provides
persecuted sect, he did not remain long at details that should not be
Hingham, but came westward as far as Berks presented at the end of the
County, Pennsylvania. His son, John Lincoln, paragraph.
went southward from Pennsylvania and 8.A. NO CHANGE
settled in Rockingham County, Virginia. B. emigrated
Later, in 1782, while the last events of the C. flown
American Revolution were in progress, D. hurried
Abraham Lincoln, son of John and
grandfather of President Lincoln, moved into 9.A. NO CHANGE
Kentucky and took up a tract of government B. due to
land in Mercer County. In the Field Book of C. as a result of
Daniel Boone, the Kentucky pioneer, (now in D. because
possession of the Wisconsin Historical
Society), appears the following note of
purchase:
"Abraham Lincoln enters five hundred acres
of land on a Treasury warrant on the south
side of Licking Creek or River, in Kentucky."

4
At this time Kentucky was included within
the limits and jurisdiction of Virginia. In
1775 Daniel Boone had built a fort at
Boonesborough, on the Kentucky river, and
it was not far from this site that Abraham
Lincoln, President Lincoln's grandfather,
located his claim and put up a rude log hut for
the shelter of his family. The pioneers of
Kentucky cleared small spaces and erected
their humble dwellings. (10) They had to
contend not with only the wild forces of
nature, and to defend themselves from the
beasts of the forest,—more to be feared either
than were the hostile Indians. (11)
5
10.A. NO CHANGE
B. They had to contend not only with the
wild forces of nature, but to defend
themselves from the beasts of the
forest,—more to be feared than either
were the hostile Indians.
C. They had to contend not only with the
wild forces of nature, and to defend
themselves from the beasts of the
forest,—more to be feared either than
were the hostile Indians.
D. They had to contend not with only the
wild forces of nature, and to defend
themselves from the beasts of the
forest,—more to be feared than either
were the hostile Indians.
11. Which of the following best adds onto
the writer’s sense of danger?
A. The settlers were filled with terror
of these stealthy foes.
B. It was such experiences as these
that made of the pioneers the
sturdy men they were.
C. Their senses became sharpened.
D. "He was naturally a man of
considerable genius," says one
who knew him.
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage.
Mechanical Drawing Self-Taught
By Joshua Rose, M.E.
THE DRAWING BOARD. 12. Which of the following best
introduces the paragraph?
(12) To draw curves that are not formed of A. NO CHANGE
arcs or parts of circles, templates called B. It is not intended or necessary to
curves are provided. (13) Its’ surface should enter into an elaborate discussion
be flat and level, or a little rounding, so that of the various kinds of drawing
the paper shall lie close to its surface, which instruments, since the purchaser
is one of the first requisites in making a good can obtain a good set of drawing
drawing. Its edges should be straight and at a instruments from a reputable
right angle one to the other, and the ends of dealer by paying a proportionate
the battens in Figure 1 should fall a little short price.
of the edge of the board, so that if the latter C. It is recommended that the
shrinks they will not (14) crease. beginner purchase as good a set
of instruments as his means will
permit.
D. A Drawing Board should be of
soft pine and free from knots, so
that it will easily receive the pins
or tacks used to fasten down the
paper.
13.A. NO CHANGE
B. Its
C. Their
D. They’re
14.A. NO CHANGE
B. tear
C. protrude
D. be recycled

6
The size of the board of course depends upon 15.A. NO CHANGE
the size of the paper, hence it is best to obtain B. to use! The
a board as small as will answer for the size of C. to use, the
paper it is intended (15) to use. The student D. to use; the
will find it most convenient as well as 16.A. NO CHANGE
cheapest to learn on small drawings rather
B. since they take less time to make
than large ones, (16) since they took less time and costs less for paper;
to make and cost less for paper; (17) although C. since they takes less time to make
they require more skill to make, they are
and cost less for paper;
preferable for the beginner, because he does
D. since they take less time to make
not require to reach so far over the board, and and cost less for paper;
furthermore, they teach him more quickly
and effectively. 17.A. NO CHANGE
B. although they require more skill
to make, and are preferable for the
beginner,
C. although they require more skill
to make, however are preferable
for the beginner,
D. hence, they require more skill to
make, yet are preferable for the
beginner,

7
(18) 1. It is unnecessary to enter into a 18. The writer would like to insert this
description of the various kinds of drawing sentence.
boards in use, because if the student “A beginner sketcher should take
purchases one he will be (19) incorrectly into consideration his drawing
informed of the kinds and their special
board.”
features. 2. On the other hand, if he intends to
make one, the sketch in Figure 1 will give The best placement for this
him all the information he requires, save that, sentence is
as before noted, the wood must be soft pine,
A. before sentence 1.
well seasoned and free from knots, while the
B. before sentence 2.
battens B should be dovetailed in and the face
C. before sentence 3.
of the board trued after they are glued and
D. after sentence 3.
driven in. 3. To true the edges square, it is
best to make the two longest edges parallel
19.A. NO CHANGE
and straight, and then the ends may be
B. absently
squared from those long edges.
C. unexpectedly
D. duly
20.A. NO CHANGE
B. of wood, hard rubber, and steel
C. of wood and hard rubber, and
steel
D. of wood, and hard rubber, and
steel
Fig. 1.

THE T SQUARE.

Drawing squares or T squares, as they are

termed, are made (20) of wood hard rubber,
and steel.

8
(21) 1. There are several kinds of T squares. 21. Which choice refers to the
2. In one the blade is solid, as it is shown in explanation of figure 2?
Figure 5. 3. In another the back of the square A. sentence 1
is pivoted, so that the blade can be set to draw B. sentence 2
lines at an angle as well as across the board C. sentence 3
(22), which is often very convenient,
D. sentence 4
although this double back prevents the
triangles, when used in some positions, from
22.A. NO CHANGE
coming close enough to the left hand side of
B. , which is often very
the board. 4. In an improved form of steel
convenient— although
square, with pivoted blade, the back is
C. —which is often very convenient,
provided with a half circle divided into the
although
degrees of a circle, so that the blade can be
D. , which is often very convenient;
set to any required degree of angle at once.
although
All the instruments that need be used in the
examples of this book are as follows:

Fig. 2.

Fig. 3.

Fig. 4.
THE TRIANGLES.

Fig. 5.

9
Questions 23-33 are based on the 23. To make this paragraph most logical,
following passage. sentence 2 should be placed

The Genetic Effects of Radiation A. where it is.

B. before sentence 1.
By Isaac Asimov and Theodosius C. after sentence 3.
Dobzhansky D. after sentence 4.
1. Nor is the sun itself new, we might add. 24. Which word is synonymous with
(23) 2. There is nothing new under the sun. 3. “acquaintances” and best suits the
As long as life has existed on earth, it has meaning of the paragraph?
been exposed to radiation from the sun. 4.
Life and radiation are old (24) acquaintances A. enemies
and have learned to live together. B. strangers
C. associates
We are accustomed to looking upon sunlight D. friends
(25) as certainly we could not live long
without it due to its benefits. The energy of 25.A. NO CHANGE
sunlight (26) warms the earth, is producing B. something good, useful, and
the winds that tend to equalize earth’s desirable, and certainly we could
temperatures, evaporates the oceans, and not live long
produces rain and fresh water. Most C. something good and certainly we
important of all, it supplies what is needed for could not live long without it
green plants to convert carbon dioxide and D. something good, useful, and
water into food and oxygen, making it desirable, and certainly we could
possible for all animal life (including not live long without it
ourselves) to live.
26.A. NO CHANGE
B. warms the earth, produces the
winds that tend to equalize earth’s
temperatures, evaporated the
oceans, and produced rain and
fresh water.
C. warms the earth, produces the
winds that tend to equalize earth’s
temperatures, evaporates the
oceans, and produces rain and
fresh water.
D. warms the earth, is producing the
winds that tend to equalize earth’s
temperatures, evaporates the
oceans, and is producing rain and
fresh water.

10
Yet sunlight has its (27) dangers, too lizards 27.A. NO CHANGE
avoid the direct rays of the noonday sun on B. dangers, too. Lizards
the desert, and we ourselves take precautions C. dangers, too while lizards
against sunburn and sunstroke. D. dangers, too, lizards
28.A. NO CHANGE
(28) The same division into good and bad is B. Which mankind has only recently
to be found in connection with other forms of become aware of, the same
radiation, which mankind has only recently division into good and bad is to be
become aware of. Such radiations, produced found in connection with other
by radioactivity in the soil and reaching us forms of radiation.
from outer space, have also been with us from C. The same division into good and
the beginning of time. They are more bad is to be found in connection,
energetic than sunlight, however, and can do which mankind has only recently
more damage, and because our senses do not become aware of, with other
detect them, (29) we, like slow turtles in a forms of radiation.
race, have not learned to take precautions D. The same division, which
against them. mankind has only recently
become aware of, into good and
bad is to be found in connection
with other forms of radiation.
29.A. NO CHANGE
B. we, like trained assassins in battle,
have
C. we, like lazy cats in bed, have
D. we, like legless fish on land, have

11
To be sure, energetic radiation is present in 30.A. NO CHANGE
nature in only very small amounts and is B. ruining
not, therefore, much of a danger. Man, C. ignoring
however, has the capacity of (30) imitating D. endangering
nature. (31) Long ago in dim prehistory, for 31. The authors are considering deleting
instance, he learned to manufacture a kind of the underlined sentence. Should the
sunlight by setting wood and other fuels on sentence be kept or deleted?
fire. This involved a new kind of good and
bad. A whole new technology became A. Kept, the sentence provides a
possible, on the one hand, and, on the other, detailed example for the claim
the chance of death by burning was also made in the previous sentence.
possible. The good in this case far outweighs B. Kept, the sentence explains the
the evil. process of building a fire.
C. Deleted, it is redundant.
In our own twentieth century, mankind D. Deleted, it is unrelated.
learned to produce energetic radiation in
concentrations far surpassing those we 32.A. NO CHANGE
usually encounter in nature. Again, a new B. it is necessary
technology is resulting and again there is the C. they’re necessary
possibility of death. D. there necessary
The balance in this second instance is less 33. Which sentence is best suitable for
certainly in favor of the good over the evil. the concluding sentence?
To shift the balance clearly in favor of the A. Again, the development of
good, (32) its necessary for mankind to learn technology can be helpful in
as much as possible about the new dangers learning how to defend
in order that we might minimize them and ourselves.
most effectively guard against them. (33) B. Death is inevitable.
C. The electromagnetic waves
emitted are especially high in
energy.
D. To see the nature of the danger,
let us begin by considering living
tissue itself—the living tissue
that must withstand the radiation
and that can be damaged by it.

12
Questions 34 through 44 are based on the 34.A. NO CHANGE
following passage. B. artists as Orcagna, Masaccio, Fra
Filippo, and Pollaiuolo,
The Florentine Painters of the Renaissance Verrocchio, Leonardo, and
Botticelli.
By Bernard Berenson C. artists as Orcagna, Masaccio, Fra
Filippo, Pollaiuolo, Verrocchio,
I. Leonardo, and Botticelli.
D. artists as Orcagna, Masaccio, Fra
Florentine painting between Giotto and Filippo, Pollaiuolo, Verrocchio,
Michelangelo contains the names of such Leonardo, Botticelli.
(34) artists as Orcagna, Masaccio, Fra 35. Which choice best matches the other
Filippo, Pollaiuolo, Verrocchio, and quality the author mentions?
Leonardo, and Botticelli. Put beside these the
greatest names in Venetian art, the Vivarini, A. NO CHANGE
the Bellini, Giorgione, Titian, and Tintoret. B. unimportant
The difference is (35) striking and C. unworthy
significant. The significance of the Venetian D. shocking
names is exhausted with their significance as
painters (36) (not so with the Florentines). 36. What should be done with the
Forget that they were painters, they remain parentheses?
great sculptors; forget that they were A. Keep them. The information
sculptors, and still they remain architects, within the parentheses is
poets, and even men of science. They left no nonrestrictive.
form of expression (37) unclear, and to none B. Keep them. The parentheses
could they say, “This will perfectly convey offer a change in tone.
my meaning.” Painting, therefore, offers but C. Delete them. The parentheses do
a partial and not always the most adequate not match the author’s writing
manifestation of their personality, and we style.
feel the artist as greater than his work, and the D. Delete them. Parentheses can
man as soaring above the artist. only be placed in the middle of a
sentence, not the end.
37. The author wants to express
something unventured. Which choice
best accomplishes this goal?
A. NO CHANGE
B. untried
C. unimportant
D. unyielding

13
(38) It would be absurd, therefore, to treat the
Florentine painter as a mere link between two
points in a necessary evolution. The history
of the art of Florence never can be, as that of
Venice, the study of a placid development.
Each man of genius brought to bear upon his
art a great intellect, which, never
condescending merely to please, was
tirelessly striving to reincarnate what it
comprehended of life in forms that would
fitly convey it to others; and in this endeavour
each man of genius was necessarily
compelled to create forms essentially his
own. But because Florentine painting was
pre-eminently an art formed by great
personalities, it grappled with problems of
the highest interest, and offered solutions that
can never lose their value.
14
38. Which choice best introduces the
paragraph and matches the author’s
writing style?
A. The immense superiority of the
artist even to his greatest
achievement in any one art form
means that his personality was
but slightly determined by the
particular art in question, that he
tended to mould it rather than let
it shape him.
B. This is his everlasting claim to
greatness, and it is this which
will make him a source of
highest æsthetic delight for a
period at least as long as
decipherable traces of his
handiwork remain on mouldering
panel or crumbling wall.
C. Well, it was of the power to
stimulate the tactile
consciousness—of the essential,
as I have ventured to call it, in
the art of painting—that Giotto
was supreme master.
D. At the risk of seeming to wander
off into the boundless domain of
æsthetics, we must stop at this
point for a moment to make sure
that we are of one mind
regarding the meaning of the
phrase “artistic pleasure,” in so
far at least as it is used in
connection with painting.
(39) In the same unconscious years we learn 39. Which of the following best
to make of touch, of the third dimension, the concludes the paragraph and
test of reality. transitions to the next section?
A. NO CHANGE
II. B. The painter must, therefore, do
consciously what we all do
The first of the great personalities in unconsciously,—construct his
Florentine painting was Giotto. Although he third dimension.
affords no exception to the rule that the great C. I beg the reader to observe—is
Florentines (40) exploited all the arts in the somehow to stimulate our
endeavour to express themselves, he, Giotto, consciousness of tactile values,
renowned as architect and sculptor, reputed so that the picture shall have at
as wit and versifier, differed from most of his least as much power as the object
Tuscan successors in having peculiar aptitude represented, to appeal to our
for the essential in painting as an art. tactile imagination.
D. What they aimed at, and what
they attained, is the subject of the
following essay.
40.A. NO CHANGE
B. used
C. burned
D. displayed

15
(41) 1. But before we can appreciate his real
value, we must come to an agreement as to
what in the art of figure-painting—the craft
has its own altogether diverse laws—is the
essential. 2. For figure-painting, we may say
at once, was not only the one pre-occupation
of Giotto. 3. Psychology has ascertained that
sight alone gives (42) anyone no accurate
sense of the third dimension. (43) 4. In our
infancy, long before we are conscious of the
process, the sense of touch, helped on by
muscular sensations of movement, teaches us
to appreciate depth, the third dimension, both
in objects and (44) in space; an extraordinary
sense indeed.
16
41. The author would like to insert this
sentence to provide further support to
his argument in this paragraph.
“It was also the dominant interest of
the entire Florentine school.”
The best placement for this
sentence is
A. before sentence 1.
B. before sentence 2.
C. before sentence 3.
D. after sentence 3.
42.A. NO CHANGE
B. someone
C. something
D. everything
43.A. NO CHANGE
B. In our infancy, the sense of
touch, helped on by muscular
sensations of movement, long
before we are conscious of the
process, teaches us to appreciate
depth, the third dimension, both
in objects and
C. In our infancy, long before we
are conscious of the process,
helped on by muscular sensations
of movement, the sense of touch,
teaches us to appreciate depth,
the third dimension, both in
objects and
D. Long before we are conscious of
the process, the sense of touch,
helped on by muscular sensations
of movement, teaches us to
appreciate depth, the third
dimension, both in objects and
44.A. NO CHANGE
B. in space—an extraordinary sense
indeed
C. in space. An extraordinary sense
indeed
D. in space, and an extraordinary
sense indeed
 EST I – Literacy Test II

Date 03 June 2022

Test Center: Test Center 12333
Room Number B5208
Student’s Name Ahmed Mahmoud Abdel Rahman Abdel Raouf
National ID 12345678901234
EST ID ab12cd34ef56gh78ij90xw12

Duration: 65 minutes
52 Multiple Choice Questions

Instructions:
- Place your answer on the answer sheet. Mark only one answer for each of the multiple
choice questions.
- Avoid guessing. Your answers should reflect your overall understanding of the
subject matter.
 The following edited passage is an
excerpt from Vanity Fair by William
Makepeace Thackeray on Joe Sedley’s
attempt to court Rebecca.
Poor Joe's panic lasted for two or three
days; during which he did not visit the
house, nor during that period did Miss
Rebecca ever mention his name. She
5 was all respectful gratitude to Mrs.
Sedley; delighted beyond measure at the
Bazaars; and in a whirl of wonder at the
theatre, whither the good-natured lady
took her. One day, Amelia had a
10 headache, and could not go upon some
social gathering to which the two young
people were invited: nothing could
induce her friend to go without her.
"What! You who have shown the poor
15 orphan what happiness and love are for
the first time in her life—quit YOU?
Never!" and the green eyes looked up to
Heaven and filled with tears; and Mrs.
Sedley could not but own that her
20 daughter's friend had a charming kind
heart of her own.
As for Mr. Sedley's jokes, Rebecca
laughed at them with a cordiality and
perseverance which not a little pleased
25 and softened that good-natured
gentleman. Nor was it with the chiefs of
the family alone that Miss Sharp found
favour. She interested Mrs. Blenkinsop
by evincing the deepest sympathy in the
30 raspberry-jam preserving, which
operation was then going on in the
Housekeeper's room; she persisted in
calling Sambo "Sir," and "Mr. Sambo,"
to the delight of that attendant; and she
35 apologised to the lady's maid for giving
her trouble in venturing to ring the bell,
with such sweetness and humility, that
the Servants' Hall was almost as
charmed with her as the Drawing Room.
40 Once, in looking over some drawings
which Amelia had sent from school,
Rebecca suddenly came upon one which
caused her to burst into tears and leave
2
the room. It was on the day when Joe
45 Sedley made his second appearance.
Amelia hastened after her friend to
know the cause of this display of
feeling, and the good-natured girl came
back without her companion, rather
50 affected too. "You know, her father was
our drawing-master, Mamma, at
Chiswick, and used to do all the best
parts of our drawings."
"My love! I'm sure I always heard Miss
55 Pinkerton say that he did not touch
them—he only mounted them." "It was
called mounting, Mamma. Rebecca
remembers the drawing, and her father
working at it, and the thought of it came
60 upon her rather suddenly—and so, you
know, she—"
"The poor child is all heart," said Mrs.
Sedley.
"I wish she could stay with us another
65 week," said Amelia.
"She's devilish like Miss Cutler that I
used to meet at Dumdum, only fairer.
She's married now to Lance, the
Artillery Surgeon. Do you know,
70 Ma'am, that once Quintin, of the 14th,
bet me—"
"O Joseph, we know that story," said
Amelia, laughing. "Never mind about
telling that; but persuade Mamma to
75 write to Sir Something Crawley for
leave of absence for poor dear Rebecca:
here she comes, her eyes red with
weeping."
"I'm better, now," said the girl, with the
80 sweetest smile possible, taking good-
natured Mrs. Sedley's extended hand
and kissing it respectfully. "How kind
you all are to me! All," she added, with
a laugh, "except you, Mr. Joseph."
 85 "Me!" said Joseph, meditating an instant 1. In lines 114-123, the tone is best
departure. "Gracious Heavens! Good described as
Gad! Miss Sharp!” A. tense and unforgiving.
B. unsettling and disparaging.
"Yes; how could you be so cruel as to C. caring and persistent.
make me eat that horrid pepper-dish at D. innocent and unexpected.
90 dinner, the first day I ever saw you?
You are not so good to me as dear 2. Which of the following best
Amelia." describes the relationship
between Joe Sedley and
"He doesn't know you so well," cried Rebecca?
Amelia. A. There is animosity between
them.
95 "I defy anybody not to be good to you, B. They are dear friends.
my dear," said her mother. C. There remains tension
between them.
"The curry was capital; indeed it was," D. They are strangers.
said Joe, quite gravely. "Perhaps there
was NOT enough citron juice in it—no, 3. Which choice best provides
100 there was NOT." evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
"And the chilis?" A. Lines 1-4 (“Poor … name.”)
B. Lines 44-45 (“It …
"By Jove, how they made you cry out!" appearance.”)
said Joe, caught by the ridicule of the C. Lines 84-87 (“'except …
circumstance, and exploding in a fit of sharp!'”)
105 laughter which ended quite suddenly, as D. Lines 93-94 (“'He …
usual. Amelia.”)
4. As used in line 13, “induce”
"I shall take care how I let YOU choose
most nearly means
for me another time," said Rebecca, as
they went down again to dinner. "I A. generate.
110 didn't think men were fond of putting B. instigate.
poor harmless girls to pain." C. persuade.
D. foster.
"By Gad, Miss Rebecca, I wouldn't hurt 5. According to the passage, why
you for the world." did Rebecca cry in lines 40-44?
"No," said she, "I KNOW you A. She knew that Joe Sedley
115 wouldn't"; and then she gave him ever was coming to visit.
so gentle a pressure with her little hand, B. She is prone to random
and drew it back quite frightened, and bursts of emotion.
looked first for one instant in his face, C. She recalled her father after
and then down at the carpet-rods; and I seeing his art.
120 am not prepared to say that Joe's heart D. She would be leaving
did not thump at this little involuntary, Amelia that week.
timid, gentle motion of regard on the
part of the simple girl.

3
6. Rebecca’s relationship with her 10. In lines 115-119, what can best
father is best similar to be deduced from Rebecca’s
reaction?
A. a bird who has fallen out of
the nest and is saved by its A. Rebecca was worried about
mother. Joe Sedley’s reaction to her
B. an orphaned tailor who has forwardness.
sentimentally kept his late B. Rebecca forgot she was
father’s equipment. speaking to Joe Sedley.
C. an apple that has fallen early C. Rebecca was embarrassed in
from a tree. the presence of Mrs. Sedley
D. an orphan who has never and Amelia.
known his or her parents. D. Rebecca did not like to
entertain Joe Sedley.
7. As used in line 95, “defy” most
nearly means
A. escape.
B. challenge.
C. violate.
D. frustrate.
8. Which of the following best
describes Rebecca’s character?
A. good-natured and appeals to
all
B. condescending and over-
bearing
C. emotional and constantly
distraught
D. stubborn and unwavering in
her determination
9. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 28-39 (“She …
Room.”)
B. Lines 40-44 (“Once …
room.”)
C. Lines 56-61 (“'It … she—'”)
D. Lines 107-111 (“'I … pain.'”)

4
 The following passage is taken from The
American Railway by Thomas Clarke et
al. on the movement of locomotives in
1888.
We come next to the superintendent of
machinery, whose duty it is to provide
and maintain locomotives and cars of all
kinds to handle the company's traffic. His
5 department is subdivided between a
master mechanic, in charge of
locomotives and machine-shops, and a
master car-builder, in charge of car-
shops.
10 The master mechanic selects and
immediately controls all engine-runners
and firemen, and keeps performance
sheets of all locomotives, showing miles
run, cars hauled, wages paid, coal and oil
15 consumed, and other details giving results
accomplished by different runners and
firemen, and by different types of engine,
or on different divisions or roads.
Runners and firemen accomplishing the
20 best results are often remunerated with
premiums.
The master car-builder has charge of the
shops where cars are built and repaired,
and of the car-inspectors who are
25 stationed at central and junction points to
prevent defective cars being put into the
trains.
Formerly each railroad used its own cars
exclusively, and through freights were
30 transferred at every junction point. This
involved such delay and expense that
railroads now generally permit all loaded
cars to go through to destination without
transfer, and allow each other a certain
35 sum for the use of cars. Usually this is
about three-quarters of a cent for each
mile which the car travels on a foreign
road. This involves a great scattering of
cars, and an extensive organization to
40 keep record of their whereabouts and of
the accounts between the companies for
mileage. This organization will be
referred to more fully in connection with
5
the department of transportation. But the
45 joint use of each other's cars makes it
necessary that there should be at least
enough similarity in their construction
and their coupling appliances to permit
their indiscriminate use upon all roads.
50 And conventions of master car-builders
have recommended certain forms and
dimensions as standards, which are now
in general use.
There is much convenience in this, but
55 one disadvantage. It requires almost
unanimous action to introduce any
change of form or of construction,
however advantageous it may be. And to
secure unanimous action in such matters
60 is almost as hard as it would be to secure
unanimity in a change in the spelling of
English words. Still there is progress,
though slow, toward several desirable
reforms, the most important of which is
65 the adoption of a standard automatic
coupler.
Having shown how the property of all
kinds is kept in efficient condition, we
next come to its operation. This is called
70 "conducting transportation," and the
officer in charge is usually called the
superintendent of transportation. All
train-despatchers, conductors, train-men,
and telegraph operators are under his
75 immediate control. He makes all
schedules and provides all extra and
irregular service that the traffic
department makes requisition for, himself
calling upon the superintendent of
80 machinery for the necessary locomotives,
switching engines, and cars. It is his
especial province to handle all trains as
swiftly as possible, and to see that there
are no collisions. It is impossible to detail
85 fully the safeguards and precautions used
to this end, but the general principles
observed are as follows.
First, a general time-table or schedule is
carefully made out for all regular trains
90 upon each division, showing on one sheet
the time of each train at each station.
 This schedule is all that is needed so long
as all trains are able to keep on time, and
there are no extras. Trouble begins when
95 regular trains cannot keep on schedule, or
when extra trains have to be sent out, not
provided for on the schedule. A diagram,
or graphic representation of this schedule,
upon a board or large sheet of paper, is an
100 important feature of the office regulating
train-movements. Twenty-four vertical
lines divide the board into equal spaces
representing the twenty-four hours of the
day, numbered from midnight to
105 midnight. Horizontal lines at
proportionate distances from the top
represent the stations in their order
between the termini, represented by the
top and bottom lines of the diagram. The
110 course of every train can now be plotted
on this diagram in an oblique line joining
the points on each station line
corresponding to the time the train arrives
at and leaves that station.
A. Number of Engines
B. Passengers
C. Freight
D. Gravel or Construction
E. Switching
F. Total
Report of Performance, 1888
Source: Thomas Clarke
11. Which of the following is most
likely a “premium” as mentioned
in line 21?
A. a gift
B. a salary bonus
C. extra hours of paid work
D. a certificate of
acknowledgement
6
12. According to the passage, which
of the following is a drawback to
having standards that rarely
change?
A. Change can only be made if
everyone agrees to it even if it
is beneficial.
B. Reform only takes place
during certain times.
Therefore, it is rare.
C. Change is immediate, leading
to many faults.
D. There is a lack of unanimity in
the scheduling of trains.
13. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 50-53 (“And … use.”)
B. Lines 55-58 (“It … be.”)
C. Lines 62-66 (“Still …
coupler.”)
D. Lines 94-97 (“Trouble …
schedule.”)
14. The passage is most likely written
from the point of view of
A. a president of a railroad
company, since the author is
familiar with the technical
details of operation.
B. a 20th century historian, since
the author walks the reader
through the past.
C. a museum tour guide, since
the passage presents a table.
D. a locomotive enthusiast, since
the passage is filled with fan
jargon.
15. As used in line 22, “charge” most
nearly means
A. payment.
B. assault.
C. responsibility.
D. allegation.
16. The passage resembles which of 21. According to the graphic, the
the following structures? locomotives in 1888 carried more
A. compare and contrast (Refer to the back of the test
B. problem and solution booklet)
C. descriptive A. passengers than goods.
D. sequence B. material for construction than
passengers.
17. As used in line 93, “keep” most
C. gravel than goods.
nearly means
D. items on a switching train than
A. save. passengers.
B. delay.
C. obey.
D. remain.
18. The purpose of the final paragraph
is to
A. provide an example of a train
collision.
B. refute the importance of a
time-table.
C. highlight the responsibilities
of a superintendent.
D. conclude the aforementioned
main ideas.
19. According to the passage, what is
an essential element of keeping
trains on track?
A. a list of extra locomotives
B. a visual representation
C. follow-up on moving trains
D. a detailed schedule
20. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 84-87 (“It … follows.”)
B. Lines 92-94 (“This …
extras.”)
C. Lines 94-97 (“Trouble …
schedule.”)
D. Lines 97-101 (“A … train-
movements.”)

7
 The first edited passage is from Animals
of the Past by Frederic Lucas on the
reason animals become extinct. The
second edited passage is taken from Our
Vanishing Wildlife by William T.
Hornaday on the abuse of nature.
Passage 1
It is often asked "why do animals become
extinct?" but the question is one to which
it is impossible to give a comprehensive
and satisfactory reply; this chapter does
5 not pretend to do so, but merely presents
a few aspects of this complicated, many-
sided problem.
In very many cases it may be said that
actual extermination has not taken place,
10 but that in the course of development one
species has passed into another; species
may have been lost, but the race, just as
in the growth of a tree, the twigs and
branches of the sapling disappear, while
15 the tree, as a whole, grows onward and
upward. This is what we see in the horse,
which is the living representative of an
unbroken line reaching back to the little
Eocene Hyracothere. So in a general way
20 it may be said that much of what at first
glance we might term extinction is really
the replacement of one set of animals by
another better adapted to surrounding
conditions.
25 Again, there are many cases of animals,
and particularly of large animals, so
peculiar in their make up, so very
obviously adapted to their own special
surroundings that it requires little
30 imagination to see that it would have
been a difficult matter for them to have
responded to even a slight change in the
world about them. Such great and
necessarily sluggish brutes as
35 Brontosaurus and Diplodocus, with their
tons of flesh, small heads, and feeble
teeth, were obviously reared in easy
circumstances, and unfitted to succeed in
any strenuous struggle for existence.
40 Stegosaurus, with his bizarre array of
8
plates and spines, and huge-headed
Triceratops, had evidently carried
specialization to an extreme, while in turn
the carnivorous forms must have required
45 an abundant supply of slow and easily
captured prey.
Coming down to a more recent epoch,
when the big Titanotheres flourished, it is
easy to see from a glance at their large,
50 simple teeth that these beasts needed an
ample provision of coarse vegetation, and
as they seem never to have spread far
beyond their birthplace, climatic change,
modifying even a comparatively limited
55 area, would suffice to sweep them out of
existence. To use the epitaph proposed by
Professor Marsh for the tombstone of one
of the Dinosaurs, many a beast might say,
"I, and my race perished of over
60 specialization." To revert to the horse it
will be remembered that this very fate is
believed to have overtaken those almost
horses the European Hippotheres; they
reached a point where no further progress
65 was possible, and fell by the wayside.
Passage 2
For educated, civilized Man to
exterminate a valuable wild species of
living things is a crime. It is a crime
against his own children, and posterity.
70 No man has a right, either moral or legal,
to destroy or squander an inheritance of
his children that he holds for them in
trust. And man, the wasteful and greedy
spendthrift that he is, has not created even
75 the humblest of the species of birds,
mammals and fishes that adorn and
enrich this earth. With all his wisdom,
man has not evolved and placed here so
much as a ground-squirrel, a sparrow or a
80 clam. It is true that he has juggled with
the wild horse, sheep, and the goats and
produced some hardy breeds that can
withstand his abuse without going down
before it; but as for species, he has not yet
85 created and placed here even so much as
a protozoan.
 The wild things of this earth are not ours, 22. The purpose of the first paragraph
to do with as we please. They have been of Passage 1 is to
given to us in trust, and we must account A. introduce the premise of the
90 for them to the generations which will passage.
come after us and audit our accounts. B. refute a common
misconception.
But man, the shameless destroyer of C. speculate the importance of
Nature's gifts, blithely and persistently the question proposed.
exterminates one species after another. D. highlight the different aspects
95 From ten per cent (or more) of the human of extinction.
race, the high moral instinct which is
honest without compulsion is absent. The 23. As used in line 31 “matter” most
things that seemingly decent citizens,— nearly means
men posing as gentlemen,—will do to A. material.
100 wild game when they secure great B. consequence.
chances to slaughter, are appalling. I C. content.
could fill a book of this size with cases in D. situation.
point.
24. Which of the following best
To-day the women of England, Europe explains the author’s stance on
105 and elsewhere are directly promoting the Man in Passage 2?
extermination of scores of beautiful A. Man, like animals, faces
species of wild birds by the devilish extinction.
persistence with which they buy and wear B. Man is a victim of nature’s
feather ornaments made of their plumage. perils.
110 They are just as mean and cruel as the C. Man is purposefully cruel to
truck-driver who drives a horse with a nature.
sore shoulder and beats him on the street. D. Man unintentionally destroys
But they do it! And appeals to them to do all that surrounds it.
otherwise they laugh to scorn, saying, "I
115 will wear what is fashionable, when I 25. Which choice best provides
please and where I please!" evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
To-day, the thing that stares me in the A. Lines 70-73 (“No … trust.”)
face every waking hour, like a grisly B. Lines 77-80 (“With … clam.”)
spectre with bloody fang and claw, is the C. Lines 92-94 (“But …
120 extermination of species. To me, that is a another.”)
horrible thing. It is wholesale murder, no D. Lines 117-120 (“To-day…
less. It is capital crime, and a black species.”)
disgrace to the races of civilized
mankind. I say "civilized mankind,"
125 because savages don't do it!

9
26. Which choice best states the
relationship between the two
passages?
A. Passage 1 attacks the stance
taken in Passage 2.
B. Passage 1 provides scientific
evidence for the information
presented in Passage 2.
C. Passage 1 argues for the
failure of Man supported in
Passage 2.
D. Passage 1 demonstrates the
historical context mentioned
in Passage 2.
27. As used in line 100, “secure” most
nearly means
A. fasten.
B. ensure.
C. protect.
D. connect.
28. Which of the following statements
of the author’s stance in Passage 2
is true?
A. The author provides subjective
and objective evidence that
fails to support his claim.
B. The author provides objective
evidence to support his claim.
C. The author provides little
evidence to support his claim.
D. The author provides no
substantial evidence for his
position.
29. Which of the following does the
author of Passage 1 state as a
reason for extinction?
A. Extinction is the inevitable
development of new species.
B. Animals naturally replace
other animals with time due to
the food chain.
C. When animals adapt to their
surroundings, they replace
other animals leading to their
extinction.
D. Extinction does not exist and
is only a myth.
10
30. Which choice best provides
evidence for the answer to the
previous question?
A. Lines 1-4 (“It … reply;”)
B. Lines 8-11 (“In … another;”)
C. Lines 19-24 (“So …
conditions.”)
D. Line 33-39 (“Such …
existence.”)
31. While the author of Passage 1
discusses extinction of nature as
related to nature, the author of
Passage 2 discusses the extinction
of nature as related to
A. man-kind.
B. certain species.
C. the royal class.
D. fashion.
32. When mentioning “Ecocene
Hyracothere” in line 19, which of
the following does the author
assume?
A. The reader is familiar with the
term as a high school student.
B. The reader is an avid reader of
animal literature.
C. The reader is unfamiliar with
the term and so the author
proceeds to explain it.
D. The reader is familiar with the
term and is a professional in
the field.
 The following edited passage is taken
from The Federalist Papers by Alexander
Hamilton on the general power of
taxation.
It has been already observed that the
federal government ought to possess the
power of providing for the support of the
national forces; in which proposition was
5 intended to be included the expense of
raising troops, of building and equipping
fleets, and all other expenses in any way
connected with military arrangements and
operations. But these are not the only
10 objects to which the jurisdiction of the
Union, in respect to revenue, must
necessarily be empowered to extend. It
must embrace a provision for the support
of the national civil list; for the payment
15 of the national debts contracted, or that
may be contracted; and, in general, for all
those matters which will call for
disbursements out of the national
treasury. The conclusion is, that there
20 must be interwoven, in the frame of the
government, a general power of taxation,
in one shape or another.
Money is, with propriety, considered as
the vital principle of the body politic; as
25 that which sustains its life and motion,
and enables it to perform its most
essential functions. A complete power,
therefore, to procure a regular and
adequate supply of it, as far as the
30 resources of the community will permit,
may be regarded as an indispensable
ingredient in every constitution. From a
deficiency in this particular, one of two
evils must ensue; either the people must
35 be subjected to continual plunder, as a
substitute for a more eligible mode of
supplying the public wants, or the
government must sink into a fatal
atrophy, and, in a short course of time,
40 perish.
In the Ottoman or Turkish Empire, the
sovereign, though in other respects
absolute master of the lives and fortunes
of his subjects, has no right to impose a
11
45 new tax. The consequence is that he
permits the bashaws or governors of
provinces to pillage the people without
mercy; and, in turn, squeezes out of them
the sums of which he stands in need, to
50 satisfy his own exigencies and those of
the state. In America, from a similar
cause, the government of the Union has
gradually dwindled into a state of decay,
nearly approaching annihilation. Who can
55 doubt, that the happiness of the people in
both countries would be promoted by
competent authorities in the proper hands,
to provide the revenues which the
necessities of the public might require?
60 The present Confederation, feeble as it is
intended to repose in the United States,
an unlimited power of providing for the
pecuniary wants of the Union. But
proceeding upon an erroneous principle,
65 it has been done in such a manner as to
have entirely frustrated the intention.
Congress, by the articles which compose
that compact (as has already been stated),
are authorized to ascertain and call for
70 any sums of money necessary, in their
judgment, to the service of the United
States; and their requisitions, if
conformable to the rule of apportionment,
are in every constitutional sense
75 obligatory upon the States. These have no
right to question the propriety of the
demand; no discretion beyond that of
devising the ways and means of
furnishing the sums demanded. But
80 though this be strictly and truly the case;
though the assumption of such a right
would be an infringement of the articles
of Union; though it may seldom or never
have been avowedly claimed, yet in
85 practice it has been constantly exercised,
and would continue to be so, as long as
the revenues of the Confederacy should
remain dependent on the intermediate
agency of its members. What the
90 consequences of this system have been, is
within the knowledge of every man the
least conversant in our public affairs, and
has been amply unfolded in different
parts of these inquiries. It is this which
 95 has chiefly contributed to reducing us to a 36. As used in line 25, “sustains”
situation, which affords ample cause both most nearly means
of mortification to ourselves, and of A. bears.
triumph to our enemies. B. comforts.
C. validates.
What remedy can there be for this D. maintains.
100 situation, but a change of the system
which has produced in it a change of the 37. Which of the following is true
fallacious and delusive system of quotas about taxation in the U.S.?
and requisitions? What substitute can A. The government has the right
there be imagined for this ignis fatuus in to pillage its people.
105 finance, but that of permitting the B. The government does not have
national government to raise its own the right to apply new taxes.
revenues by the ordinary methods of C. The government has the right
taxation authorized in every well-ordered to rest a rate for taxation
constitution of civil government? according to what they deem
best suits the needs of the
33. The main idea of the passage is to country.
A. discuss the history of taxation. D. The government deals with
B. refute the necessity of taxation many consequences when
in all government systems. taxing people wrongly.
C. debate the importance of 38. Which choice best provides
taxation within the U.S. evidence for the answer to the
government. previous question?
D. explain the drawbacks of
taxation. A. Lines 41-45 (“In … tax.”)
B. Lines 45-48 (“The …
34. Which of the following is the mercy;”)
author’s position on taxation? C. Lines 67-72 (“Congress …
A. The author argues against States;”)
taxation for the people. D. Lines 89-94 (“What …
B. The author demands lower inquiries.”)
taxation on the wealthy. 39. Throughout the passage, the
C. The author states that taxation author never takes the opportunity
is only a recent phenomenon. to
D. The author believes taxation is
an integral part of the A. provide a definition.
government. B. mention the limitations.
C. give historical context.
35. Which choice best provides D. mention another point of view.
evidence for the answer to the
previous question? 40. As used in line 60, “feeble” most
nearly means
A. Lines 1-4 (“It … forces;”)
B. Lines 9-12 (“But … extend.”) A. ineffective.
C. Lines 19-22 (“The … B. cowardly.
another.”) C. decrepit.
D. Lines 32-34 (“From … D. dim.
ensue;”)

12
41. What reasoning does the author
use in regards to the presence of
taxation?
A. The evils of taxation far
outweigh the benefits.
B. Taxation is a necessary
component of keeping the
government from collapsing
entirely.
C. Imposing new taxes is against
the law.
D. Taxation and stealing people’s
money are parallel.
42. What is the relationship between
the final paragraph and the rest of
the passage?
A. The final paragraph touches
on ideas built up in the rest of
the passage through rhetorical
questions.
B. The final paragraph asks the
reader questions that are
irrelevant to the rest of the
passage.
C. The final paragraph initiates a
new point of view separate
from the rest of the passage.
D. The final paragraph provides
evidence to support the rest of
the passage.

13
 The following edited passage is taken
from Our Common Insects By A.S.
Packard on the early stages of the
humble bee.
Another puzzle for the adaptation
specialists to solve is how to account for
the change from the caterpillar with its
powerful jaws, to the butterfly with its
5 sucking or haustellate mouth-parts. We
shall best approach the solution of this
difficult problem by a study of a wide
range of facts, but a few of which can be
noticed here. The older entomologists
10 divided insects into haustellate or
suctorial, and mandibulate or biting
insects, the butterfly being an example
of one, and the beetle serving to
illustrate the other category. But we
15 shall find in studying the different
groups that these are relative and not
absolute terms.
We find mandibulate insects with
enormous jaws, like the Dytiscus, or
20 Chrysopa larva or ant lion, perforated,
as in the former, or enclosing, as in the
latter two insects, the maxillæ (b),
which slide backward and forward
within the hollowed mandibles (a, Fig.
25 209, jaws of the ant lion), along which
the blood of their victims flows. They
suck the blood, and do not tear the flesh
of their prey.
The enormous mandibles of the adult
30 Corydalus are too large for use and, as
Walsh observed, are converted in the
male into simple clasping organs. And
to omit a number of instances, in the
suctorial Hemiptera or bugs we have
35 different grades of structure in the
mouth-parts. In the biting lice
(Mallophaga) the mouth is mandibulate;
in the Thrips it is mandibulate, the jaws
being free, and the maxillæ bearing
40 palpi, while the Pediculi are suctorial,
and the true bugs are eminently so. But
in the bed bug it is easy to see that the
beak is made up of the two pairs of
14
jaws, which are simply elongated and
45 adapted for piercing and sucking.
Among the so-called haustellate insects
the mouth-parts vary so much in
different groups, and such different
organs separately or combined perform
50 the function of sucking, that the term
haustellate loses its significance and
even misleads the student. For example,
in the house fly the tongue (Fig. 210 l,
the mandibles, m, and maxillæ, mp, are
55 useless), a fleshy prolongation of the
labium or second maxillæ, is the sucker,
while the mandibles and maxillæ are
used as lancets by the horse fly (Fig.
211, m, mandibles, mx, maxillæ). The
60 maxillæ in the butterfly are united to
form the sucking tube, while in the bee
the end of the labium (Fig. 212) is
specially adapted for lapping, not
sucking, the nectar of flowers. But even
65 in the butterfly, or more specifically the
moth, there is a good deal of
misapprehension about the structure of
the so-called "tongue." The mouth-parts
of the caterpillar exist in the moth.
70 The mandibles of the caterpillar occur in
the head of the moth as two small
tubercles. They are aborted in the adult.
While the maxillæ are as a rule greatly
developed in the moth, in the caterpillar
75 they are minute and almost useless. The
labium or second maxillæ, so large in
the moth, serves simply as a spinneret in
the caterpillar. But we find a great
amount of variation in the tongue or
80 sucker of moths, and in the silk moths
the maxillæ are rudimentary, and there
is no tongue, these organs being but
little more developed than in the
caterpillar.
85 Figure 213, B, shows the minute blade-
like maxilla of the magnificent Luna
moth, an approximation to the originally
blade-like form in beetles and
Neuroptera. The maxillæ in this insect
90 are minute, rudimentary, and of no
service to the creature, which does not
take food. In other moths of the same
 family we have found the maxillæ 45. As used in line 91, “service”
longer, and touching at their tips, though most nearly means
95 too widely separate at base to form a A. work.
sucking tube, while in others the B. use.
maxillæ are curved, and meet to form a C. ritual.
true tube.
D. resource.
46. Which of the following best
summarizes the final paragraph?
A. Some maxillae are long
while others are curved.
B. Some moths have maxillae
that are curved.
C. The Luna moth has a blade-
like maxilla.
D. The maxillae differ between
different kinds of moths.
47. The overall text structure mostly
resembles
A. a narrative.
B. an encyclopedia.
Head of Humble Bee C. a magazine.
Source: A.S. Packard D. a newspaper.
48. Which of the following is a
43. Which point does the author use characteristic of haustellate
to suggest that the work of insects?
newer entomologists differs A. They have enormous jaws.
from that of the older B. They are diverse in organ
generation? structures.
A. definitions related to insects C. The maxillae play a huge
B. the development of butterfly role.
parts D. The tubercles are removed in
C. the division of insects into adulthood.
groups 49. Which choice best provides
D. the understanding of evidence for the answer to the
metamorphosis previous question?
44. Which choice best provides A. Lines 18-26 (“We …
evidence for the answer to the flows.”)
previous question? B. Lines 46-52 (“Among …
A. Lines 5-9 (“We … here.”) student.”)
B. Lines 9-14 (“The … C. Lines 59-64 (“The …
category.”) flowers.”)
C. Lines 18-26 (“We … D. Lines 70-72 (“The …
flows.”) tubercles.”)
D. Lines 29-32 (“The …
organs.”)

15
50. As used in line 93, “found” most
nearly means
A. discovered.
B. recovered.
C. obtained.
D. considered.
51. The tone of the passage is best
described as
A. objective and informative.
B. subjective and ambiguous.
C. patronizing and judgmental.
D. sarcastic and ironic.
52. The graphic represents which of
the figures mentioned in the
passage?
A. Figure 209
B. Figure 210
C. Figure 211
D. Figure 212

16
17
 EST I – Literacy Test I
Answer Key

Passage 1 Passage 3

1. C 23. B
2. B 24. C
3. D 25. D
4. C 26. C
5. B 27. B
6. A 28. A
7. A 29. D
8. B 30. A
9. D 31. A
10. B 32. B
11. A 33. D
Passage 4
Passage 2
12. D 34. C
13. B 35. A
14. C 36. C
15. A 37. B
16. D 38. A
17. A 39. D
18. A 40. A
19. D 41. C
20. B 42. B
21. D 43. A
22. A 44. B
 EST I – Literacy Test II
Answer Key

Passage 1 Passage 3
1. D 22. A
2. C 23. D
3. C 24. C
4. C 25. C
5. C 26. B
6. B 27. B
7. B 28. B
8. A 29. C
9. A 30. C
10. A 31. A
32. D
Passage 2
11. B Passage 4
12. A 33. C
13. B 34. D
14. A 35. C
15. C 36. D
16. C 37. C
17. D 38. C
18. C 39. A
19. D 40. A
20. B 41. B
21. A 42. A
Passage 5
43. C
44. B
45. B
46. D
47. B
48. B
49. B
50. A
51. A
52. D