Test-6 - 01 Feb.., - Final

TEST SYLLABUS
PHYSICS : Electrostatic and Current Electricity

CHEMISTRY : Coordination Compound, Principles Related to Practical Chemistry
BIOLOGY : Neural Control and Coordination Chemical Coordination and Integration
WEIGHTAGE
Chapter No. of Questions in NEET Marks %age
Electrostatic 3 12 6.6
Current Electricity 5 20 11.11
Coordination Compounds 2 8 4.4
Principles related to Practical Chemistry 2 8 4.4
Neural Control and Coordination 2 8 4.4
Chemical Coordination and Integration 3 12 6.6
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 3 12 6.6
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Duration of test is 3 hours 20 minutes and questions paper contains 200 questions (Phy. 50,
Chem. 50 and Bot. 50 and Zoo. 50). The max. marks are 720. So the total number of question
and utilization of time will remain the same.
2. Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions and section B
will have 15 questions, out of these 15 question, candidates can choose to attempt any 10
questions. So the total number of question and utilization of time will remain the same.
3. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or
the centre in charge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensures that it contains all the pages and that no
question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
Guessing of answer is harmful.
7. Use blue or black ball point pen only to completely darken the appropriate circle.
1
PHYSICS SECTION - A 5. An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in

1. Consider a neutral conducting sphere. A between two charged plates as shown. The
positive point charge is placed outside the lines of force look like
sphere. The net charge on the sphere.
(a)negative and distributed uniformly over
the surface of the sphere
(b)negative and appears only at the point on
the sphere closest to the point charge
(c)negative and distributed non-uniformly
over the entire surface of the sphere
(d)zero
2. The charges on two spheres are
7 C and  5C respectively . they 6. If Ea be the electric filed strength of a short
experience a force F. if each of them is given dipole at a point on its axial line and Ee that
an additional charge of 2  C , then the new on the equatorial line at the same distance,
force attraction will be then
(a)F (b)F/2 (a)Ee = 2Ea (b)Ea = 2Ee
(c) F / 3 (d)2F (c)Ea = Ee (d)none of these
3. Two particles of equal mass m and charge q 7. A molecule with a dipole moment p is
are placed at a distance of 16 cm. they do placed in an electric filed of strength E.
initially, the dipole is aligned parallel to the
q
not experience any force. The value of is field. If the dipole is to be rotated to anti-
m
parallel to the field , then the work required
 to be done by an external agency is
(a) l (b) 0
G (a)-2pE (b)-pE
G (c)pE (d)2pE
(c) (d) 4 0G
 0
8. A cube of side a is placed in a uniform
4. Two charges 5C and  10C are placed electric filed E  E0iˆ  E0 ˆj  E0 kˆ . Total
20 cm apart. The net electric field at the mid – electric flux passing through the cube would be
point between the two charges is (a)E0a2 (b)2E0a2
2
(a) 4.5 10 NC directed towards 5 C
1
6
(c)6E0a (d)none of these
9. Q1, q2, q3 and q4 are point charges located
(b) 4.5 106 NC 1 directed towards 10  C
at points as shown in the figure and S is a
(c) 13.5 106 NC 1 directed towards 5 C spherical gaussian surface of radius R.
(d) 13.5 106 NC 1 directed towards 10  C
ADD- C2/30A, GROUND FLOOR , SERVICE LANE , YAMUNA VIHAR , DELHI -110053, MOBILE NO- 8448459294, 7011427765
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which of the following is true according to
the Gauss’s law
13. A hemisphere is uniformly charged

positively. The electric field at a point on a
diameter away from the centre is directed
(a)perpendicular to the diameter
10. A charge of 17.1104 C is Distributed (b)parallel to the diameter
uniformly over a large sheet of area 200 m2. (c)at an angle tilted towards the diameter
The electric filed intensity at a distance 20 cm (d)at an angel tilted away from the diameter
from it in air will be 14. In a uniformly charged non- conducting
(a) 5 105 N / C (b) 6 105 N / C sphere of total charge Q and radius R, the
electric field E is plotted as function of
(c) 7 105 N / C (d) 8 105 N / C
distance from the centre. The graphs which
11. A charged block is projected on a rough
would correspond to the above will be
horizontal surface with speed V0. The value
of coefficient of friction if the kinetic
energy of the block remains constant is
12. If linear charge density of a wire as shown 15. An electron is released from the bottom
in the figure is  , then plate A as shown in the figure (E = 104
N/C) . the velocity of the electron when it
reaches plate B will be nearly equal to
DD- C2/30A, GROUND FLOOR , SERVICE LANE , YAMUNA VIHAR , DELHI -110053, MOBILE NO- 8448459294, 7011427765
3
18. The acceleration of an electron due to the
mutual attraction between the electron and
0
a proton when they are 1.6 A apart is
16. Assertion In a region, where uniform

electric filed exists, the net charge within
volume of any size is zero
19. Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the
Reason : the electric flux within an closed
other of radius 2R respectively have the
surface in region of uniform electric field is
same surface charge density  . They are
zero
brought in contact and separated. What will be
(a)If both Assertion and Reason are correct
the new surface charge densities on them
and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion
(b)if both Assertion and Reason are correct
but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion 20. The electric potential at a point in free
(c)if Assertion is true but Reason is false space due to a charge Q coulomb is Q1011
(d)If Assertion is false but Reason is true volts. The electric field at the point is
17. Assertion If a dipole is enclosed by a (a) 4 0Q 1020 Vm1
surface, then according to Gauss’s law,
(b) 12 0Q 1022 Vm1
electric flux linked with it will be zero
Reason The net enclosed by the surface is (c) 4 0Q 1022 Vm1
zero (d) 12 0Q 1020 Vm1
(a)If both Assertion and Reason are correct 21. Three charges 2q, -q, - q are located at the
and Reason is the correct explanation of vertices of an equilateral triangle. At the
Assertion centre of the triangle,
(b)if both Assertion and Reason are correct (a)the field is zero but potential is non-zero
but Reason is not the correct explanation of (b)the field is non- zero but potential is zero
Assertion (c)both field an potential are zero
(c)if Assertion is true but Reason is false (c)both field and potential are non- zero
(d)If Assertion is false but Reason is true 22. The work done to move a charge along an
equipotential from A to B
4
(a)cannot be defined as  A E.dl of the plates is 40C. the capacitance of the
B
capacitor is
(b)must be defined as  A E.dl
B
(a)2F (b)4F
(c)0.5F (d)0.25F
(c)is zero
26. Two parallel plate of area A are separated
(d)can have a non zero value
by two different dielectrics as shown in
23. The electrostatic potential of a uniformly
figure. The net capacitance is
charged thin spherical shell of charge Q
and radius R at a distance r from the center
is
Q Q
(a) for points outside and for
4 0 r 4 0 R
points inside the shell
Q
(b) for both points inside and outside 27. Three capacitors each of capacitance C and
4 0 r
breakdown voltage V are joined in series.
the shell
The capacitance and breakdown voltage of
Q
(c)zero for points outside and for points the combination will be
4 0 r C V V
inside the shell (a) , (b) 3C ,
3 3 3
(d)zero for both points insides and outside the C
shell (c) ,3V (d) 3C ,3V
3
24. Identify the wrong statements
28. In the circuit as shown in the figure, the
(a)the electrical potential energy of a
effective capacitance between A and B is
system of two protons shall increase if the
separation between the two is decreased
(b)the electrical potential energy of a
proton-electron system will increase if the
separation between the two is decreased
(c)the electrical potential energy of a proton
-electron system will increase if the
separation between the two is increase
(d)the electrical potential energy of a
system of two electrons shall increase if the 29. A series combination of n1 capacitors, each
separation between the two is decreased of value C1, is charged by a source of
25. The potentials of the two plates of capacitor potential difference 4V. when another
are + 10 V and -10 V . The charge on one parallel combination of n2 capacitors, each
5
of value C2, is charged by a source of 32. A capacitor of capacitance value 1 F is
potential difference V, it has the same charged to 30 V and the battery is then
(total) energy stored in it, as the first disconnected . if it is connected across a 2  F
combination has. The value of C2, in terms capacitor , then the energy lost by the system
of C2, in terms of C1 is , then is
(a)
16C1
(b)
2C1 (a) 300 J (b) 450 J
n1n2 n1 n2 (c) 225 J (d) 150  J
n2 n2 33. A positively charged particle is released
(c) 16 C1 (d) 2 C1
n1 n1 from rest in a uniform electric field. The
30. Consider copper and aluminium wire electric potential energy of the charge
whose length and resistance are the same. (a)remains a constant because the electric
Also, the specific resistance of aluminium field is uniform
is more than copper. Select the correct (b)increases because the charge moves
statement along the electric field
(a) Copper and aluminium mass are the (c)decrease because the charge moves
same along the electric field
(b) Copper wire has more mass than the (d)decreases because the charge moves
aluminium wire opposite to the electric field
(c) Copper wire has less mass than the 34. In the electric field of a point charge q, a
aluminium wire certain charge is carried from point A to B ,
(d) The information given is incomplete C, D and E then, the work done
31. Consider three voltmeters A, B, and C with
resistance R, 1.5R, and 3R respectively.
Potential difference is applied across the
points X and Y, the voltmeter readings are
VA, VB, and VC.
(a)is least along the path AB

(a) VA = VB ≠ VC
(b)is least along the path AD
(b) VA ≠ VB ≠ VC
(c)is zero along all the paths AB, AC, AD
(c) VA = VB = VC
and AE
(d) VA ≠ VB = VC
(d)is least along AE
6
35. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z)is 38. The current drawn from the battery in
given by V= -x2y-xz3+4 circuit diagram shown is
The electric field E at that point is
39. In the circuit element given here , if the

PHYSICS SECTION - B potential difference at point B, VB = 0, then
the potential difference between A And D
36. A parallel palate air capacitor o capacitor C are
is connected to a cell of emf V and then
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of
dielectric constant K, which can just fill the
air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in
it. Which of the following is incorrect
(a)The potential difference between the 40. Two electric bulbs, one of 200 V-40W and
plates decreases K times other 200 V-100 W are connected in series
(b)the energy stored in the capacitor to a 200V line, then the potential drop
decreases K times across
(c)the change in energy stored is (a)The two bulbs is zero
1 1  (b)both the bulbs is 200 V
CV 2   1
2 K  (c)40 W bulb is more
(d)The charge on the capacitor is not (d)100W bulb is more
conserved 41. An ammeter A, a voltmeter V and a
37. Four wires are made of the same material resistance R are connected as shown in the
and are at the same temperature. Which one figure . if the voltmeter reading is 1.6 V
of them has highest electrical resistance and the ammeter reading is 0.4 A, then R is
(a)Length = 50cm, diameter = 0.5 mm
(b)Length = 100 cm, diameter = 1mm
(c)Length = 200 cm diameter = 2 mm
(d)Length = 300 cm , diameter = 3 mm
7
(a)equal to 4 45. Three electric bulbs of 200 W and 400 W
(b)greater than 4 are connected as shown in figure. The
(c)less than 4 resultant power of the combination is
(d)between 3 and 4
42. A wire of length 100 cm is connected to a
cell of emf 2V and negligible internal
resistance. The resistance of the wire is
3 . The additional resistance required a
potential drop of 1 milli volt per cm is
(a) 60 (b) 47
(c) 57 (d) 35
43. The current in the resistance R will be zero
if
46. Assertion Bulb generally get fused when

they are switched ON or OFF
Reason When we switch ON or OFF a
circuit, current changes in it rapidly.
(a)Both Assertion and Reason are correct
and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion
(b)Both assertion and reason are correct but
44. The magnitude and direction of the current Reason is not the correct explanation of
in the circuit shown will be Assertion
(c)Assertion is correct and Reason is
incorrect
(d)Assertion is incorrect and Reason is
correct
47. Choose the correct statement .
(a)Kirchhoff,s first law of electricity is
T based on
(a) A from a to e
3 Conservation of charge while the second
7 law is based on conservation of energy
(b) A from b to e
3 (b)kirchhoff’s first law of electricity is
(c)1A from b to e based on conservation of energy while the
(d)1A from a to e
8
second law is based on conservation of 50. Masses of three wires of copper are in the
charge. ratio of 1:3:5 and their lengths are in the
(c)kirchhoff’s both laws are based on ratio of 5:3 : 1 the ratio of their electrical
conservation of charge. resistances is
(d)kirchhoff’s both laws are based on (a)1 : 3 : 5 (b)5 : 3 : 1
conservation of energy (c)12 : 15: 125 (d)125 : 15 : 1
48. What does the internal resistance of a cell
mean?
(a) The resistance of the material used in CHEMISTRY SECTION - A
the cell
51. 2: 4 Dinitrophenyl hydrazine is an example
(b) The vessel of the cell
for
(c) The electrodes of the cell
(a) Tridentate ligand
(d) The electrolyte used in the cell
(b) Monodentate ligand
49. Select the graph which depicts the variation
(c) Polydentate ligand
in thermoelectric power and the
(d) Didentate ligand
temperature difference between the hot and
52. Monocarboxylic acids are functional
cold junction in the thermocouples
isomers of :
(a) Esters
(a) (b) Amines
(c) Ethers
(d) Alcohols
53. The existence of two different coloured
(b) complexes with the composition of
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ is due to
(a) Ionization isomerism
(b) Linkage isomerism
(c) (c) Geometrical isomerism
(d) Coordination isomerism
54. The most stable complex is
(a) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (b) [Fe(NH3)6]3+
(d) (c) [Fe(C2O4)3]3+ (d) [FeCl6]3-
55. The magnetic moment (spin only) of
[NiCl4]2- is
(a) 1.82 BM (b) 5.46 BM
(c) 2.82 BM (d) 1.41 BM
9
3+
56. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of (a) Co , octahedral complex with weak
complex [Ni(CO)4] are: field ligands
(a) Square planar geometry and (b) Co3+, octahedral complex with strong
paramagnetic field ligand
(b) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic (c) Co2+ in tetrahedral complex
(c) Square planar geometry and (d) Co2+ in square planar complex
diamagnetic 61. Which of the following reactions are
(d) Tetrahedral geometry and kinetically favourable?
paramagnetic
57. Both CO3+ and Pt4+ have a coordination
number of six. Which of the following pair
of complexes will show approximately the
same electrical conductance for their 0.001 (a) I and II (b) II and III
M aqueous solutions? (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
62. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
(a) trinuclear (b) mononuclear
(c) tetranuclear (d) dinuclear
63. Which of the following complexes is used
as an anti-cancer agent?
58. Which of these statements about
(a) mer-[Co(NH3)3Cl3]
[Co(CN)6]3- is true?
(b) cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2]
(a) [Co(CN)6]3- has four unpaired electrons
(c) cis-K2[PtCl2Br2]
and will be in a high-spin configuration
(d) Na2CoCl4
(b) [Co(CN)6]3- has no unpaired electrons
64. Which of the following will not be oxidised
and will be in a high-spin configuration
by O3?
(c) [Co(CN)6]3- has no unpaired electrons
(a) KI
and will be in a low-spin configuration
(b) FeSO4
(d) [Co(CN)6]3- has four unpaired electrons
(c) KMnO4
and will be in a low-spin configuration
(d) K2MnO4
59. The crystal field stabilization energy for
65. In the brown ring complex
high spin d4 octahedral complex is
[Fe(H2O)5(NO)] SO4, nitric oxide behaves
(a) 1.8  0 (b) 1.6  0  P as
(c) 1.2  0 (d) 0.6  0 (a) NO+
60. Which of the following is diamagnetic in (b) neutral, NO molecule
nature? (c) NO-
(d) NO2-
10
66. K3 [Al(C2O4)3] is called (d) The complex gives white precipitate
(a) potassium alumina oxalate with silver nitrate solution.
(b) potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III) 71. Which of the following is the correct
(c) potassium aluminium (III) oxalate configuration of the complex [RhCl6]3-?
(d) potassium trioxalato aluminate (VI). 4
(a) High spin t2g eg2
67. Octahedral complex 6
(b) Low spin t2g eg0
3
(c) Low spin t2g eg3
5
(d) High spin t2g e1g
72. Which of the following sequence is correct
regarding field strength of ligands as per
spectrochemical series?
(a) cis (b) trans (a) SCN- < F- < CN- <CO
(c) mer (d) fac (b) F- <SCN- < CN- < CO
68. The type(s) of isomerism exhibited by the (c) CN- < F- < CO < SCN-
following complex is (are) (d) SCN- < CO < F- < CN-
[Co(NH3)5(NO2)] (NO3)2 73. Assertion. Ambidentate ligands form
(a) ionization isomerism only chelates.
(b) linkage isomerism only Reason. Ambidentate ligands contain more
(c) both ionization and linkage isomerisms than one donor atom.
(d) geometrical isomerism (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
69. Assign the hybridization, shape and correct explanation of the assertion.
magnetic moment of K2 [Cu (CN)4] (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(a) sp3, tetrahedral, 1.73 B.M. correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) dsp2, square planar, 1.73 B.M. (c) A is true but R is false.
(c) sp3, tetrahedral, 2.44 B.M. (d) A is false but R is true.
(d) dsp2, square planar, 2.44 B.M. 74. Assertion. Tetrahedral complexes do not
70. Which of the following facts about the show geometrical isomerism.
complex Reason. The relative positions of the
[Cr(NH3)6] Cl3 is wrong? ligands attached to the central metal atom
(a) The complex involves d2sp3 in a tetrahedral complex is same with
hybridization and is octahedral in shape respect to each other.
(b) The complex is paramagnetic (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
(c) The complex is an outer orbital correct explanation of the assertion.
complex
11
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the Code:
correct explanation of the assertion. (a) A(5) B(4) C(1) D(2)
(c) A is true but R is false. (b) A(3) B (4) C(5) D(1)
(d) A is false but R is true. (c) A(4) B (3) C(2) D(1)
75. Assertion. [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]2- both (d) A(3) B(4) C(1) D(2)
have the same geometry. 78. Match the complex ions given in Column I
Reason. Both [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]2- with the hybridisation and number of
have four monodentate ligands. unpaired electrons given in Column II and
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the assign the code:
correct explanation of the assertion. Column I Column II (Hybridisation,)
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the (complex ion) Number of unpaired
electrons)
correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
76. Assertion. Coordination compounds are
formed only by transition metals.
Reason. Transition metals contain vacant Code:
d-orbitals which can accept electron pairs (a) A(3) B(1) C(5) D(2)
from the ligands. (b) A(4) B(3) C(2) D (1)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the (c) A(3) B (2) C(4) D(1)
correct explanation of the assertion. (d) A(4) B(1) C(2) D(3)
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the 79. Match the complex species given in
correct explanation of the assertion. Column I with the possible isomerism
(c) A is true but R is false. given in Column II and assign the correct
(d) A is false but R is true. code:
77. Match the coordination compounds given
in Column I with the central metal atoms
given in Column II and assign the correct
code:
Code:
(a) A(1) B(2) C(4) D(5)
(b) A(4) B(3) C(2) D(1)
(c) A(4) B(1) C(5) D(3)
(d) A(4) B(1) C(2) D(3)
12
80. Oxidation number and coordination (d) linkage isomerism, ionization
number of silver in Tollen’s reagent isomerism and geometrical isomerism
respectively are 85. Which of the following complex species is
(a) 1, 1 (b) 2, 1 not expected to exhibit optical isomerism ?
(c) 2, 2 (d) 1, 2 (a) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]+
81. Which one of the following is a (b) [Co(en)3]3+
homoleptic complex? (c) [Co(en)2Cl2]+
(a) tris(ethane-1, 2-diamine) cobalt (III) (d) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
chloride
(b) triamminetriaquachromium (III)
chloride CHEMISTRY SECTION - B
86. The number of possible optical isomers
(c) diamminechloridonitro-N-platinum (II)
for the complexes MA2B2 with sp3 and
(d) dichloride bis(ethane-1, 2-diamine)
dsp2 hybridized metal atom, respectively,
cobalt (III) chloride
is
82. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion
Note : A and B are unidentate neutral and
is:
unidentate monoanionic ligands,
(a) hexadentate ligand with four “O” and
respectively
two “N” donor atoms
(a) 0 and 0 (b) 2 and 2
(b) unidentate ligand
(c) 0 and 2 (d) 0 and 1
(c) bidentate ligand with two “N” donor
87. The correct order of the stoichiometries of
atoms
AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is
(d) tridentate ligand with three “N” donor
treated with the complexes CoCl3.6 NH3,
atoms
CoCl3.5 NH3, CoCl3.4 NH3 respectively is
83. IUPAC name of sodium cobaltinitrite is
(a) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl
(a) Sodium cobaltinitrite
(b) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl
(b) Sodium hexanitriocobaltate (III)
(c) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
(c) Sodium hexanitrocobalt (III)
(d) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl
(d) Sodium hexanitritocobaltate (II).
88. The correct statement with respect to the
84. [Co(NH3)4(NO2)2] Cl exhibits
complexes Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(CN)4]2- is
(a) ionization isomerism, geometrical
(a) nickel is in the same oxidation state in
isomerism and optical isomerism
both
(b) linkage isomerism, geometrical
(b) both have tetrahedral geometry
(c) both have square planar geometry
(c) linkage isomerism, ionization
(d) have tetrahedral and square planar
geometry respectively
13
2- 2-
89. Among [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4] ,[NiCl4] (d) Octahedral, square planar and
species, the hybridisation states at the Ni octahedral
atom are, respectively 94. Low spin complex of d6-cation in an
(a) sp3, dsp2, dsp2 (b) sp3, dsp2, sp3 octahedral field will have the following
(c) sp3, sp3, dsp2 (d) dsp2, sp3, sp3 energy:
90. Complex X of composition of 2 2
(a)   0  2 P (b)   0  P
Cr(H2O)6Cln has a spin only magnetic 5 5
moment of 3.83 BM. It reacts with AgNO3 12 12
(c)   0  P (d)   0  3P
and shows geometrical, isomerism. 5 5
The IUPAC nomenclature of X is 95. Two complexes [Cr(H2O)6Cl3] (A) and
(a) dichloridotetraaqua chromium (IV) [Cr(NH3)6] Cl3 (B) are violet and yellow
chloride dihydrate coloured respectively. The incorrect
(b) hexaaqua chromium (III) chloride statement regarding them is
(c) tetraaquadichloridochromium (III) (a)  0 value of (A) is less than that of (B)
chloride dihydrate
(b)  0 values of (A) and (B) are calculated
(d) tetraquadichlorido chromium (IV)
chloride dihydrate from the energies of violet and yellow
91. Hybridization, shape and magnetic light
moment of K3[Co(CO3)3] is (c) Both absorb energies corresponding to
(a) d2sp3, octahedral, 4.9 B.M. their complementary colours
(b) sp3d2, octahedral, 4.9 B.M. (d) Both are paramagnetic with three
(c) dsp2, square planar, 4.9 B.M. unpaired electrons
(d) sp3, tetrahedral, 9.9 B.M. 96. The magnitude of crystal field stabilization
92. A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be energy (CFSE or  t ) in tetrahedral
shown by one among the following: complexes is considerably less than in the
(a) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (b) [Ni(CN)4]2- octahedral field. Because
(c) TiCl4 (d) [CoCl6]4- (a) There are only four ligands instead of
93. Geometrical shapes of the complexes six so the ligand field is only 2/3 the size
formed by the reaction of Ni2+ with Cl-, hence the  t is only 2/3 the size
CN- and H2O, respectively, are (b) The direction of the orbitals does not
(a) Octahedral, tetrahedral and square coincide with the direction of the ligands.
planar This reduces the crystal field stabilization
(b) Tetrahedral, square planar and energy (  t ) by further 2/3.
octahedral
(c) Both points (a) and (b) are correct.
(c) Square planar, tetrahedral and
(d) Both points (a) and (b) are wrong.
octahedral
14
97. Correct increasing order for the BIOLOGY SECTION - A
wavelength of absorption in the visible 101. Identify the hormone with its correct
region for the complexes of Co3+ is matching of source and function
(a) Oxytocin-Posterior pituitary,
growth and maintenance of
mammary glands
(b) Melatonin- Pineal gland, regulates
the normal rhythm of sleep-wake
98. Which of the following shall form an cycle
(c) Progesterone – corpus luteum,
octahedral complex?
stimulation of growth and
(a) d4 (low spin) (b) d8 (high spin) activities of female secondary sex
(c) d6 (low spin) (d) all of these. organs.
99. Fe2(CO)9 is diamagnetic. Which of the (d) Atrial natriuretic factor –
following is the correct reason? ventricular wall increases the
(a) One CO is present as bridge group blood pressure.
(b) CO is a  -acceptor ligand 102. The mass of cell present inside the
integuments of megasporangium
(c) CO can form  -bond with Fe by back
having abundant food reserve is
bonding (a) Ovule
(d) Metal-metal (Fe-Fe) bonding takes (b) Nucellus
place. (c) Sporogenous cells
100. When EDTA solution is added to Mg2+ ion (d) None of these
solution, then which of the following 103. What is functional megaspore referred
statements is not true? to as?
(a) Four coordinate sites of Mg2+ are (a) The megaspore that degenerates
after formation
occupied by EDTA and remaining two
(b) The megaspore that only
sites are occupied by water molecules develops in female gametophyte.
(b) All six coordinate sites of Mg2+ are (c) The megaspore that undergoes
occupied reduction division.
(c) pH of the solution is decreased (d) The megaspore that is
(d) Colourless [Mg-EDTA]2- chelate is functionally inactive.
formed. 104. A. Acts mainly on liver cells
B. Stimulates glycogenolysis
C. Stimulates gluconeogenesis.
D. Reduces glucose uptake and
utilization
15
Which of the following is correct about Above are the functions of which of the
the action of glucagon from the above hormone?
statements? (a) Oestrogens
(a) A, B only (b) Progesterone
(b) B, C only (c) Testosterone
(c) A, B, C only (d) Relaxin
(d) All of these 108. The number and length of stamens in
105. The following are function of insulin flowers are
except (a) variable in different species.
(a) Glycogenesis (b) same in plants present in similar
(b)  glucose utilization by climatic condition.
hepatocyte. (c) variable and dependent on the
(c)  glucose utilization by adipocyte amount of hormonal secretion.
(d) Gluconeogenesis (d) variable in different species and
106. Select the correct matching depend on the seasonal variation.
(a) Insulin - Decreases uptake 109. Arrange the correct working sequence
of glucose of ‘FSH’.
utilization by (i) Binding to membrane receptor
hepatocyte and (ii) Biochemical response
adipocytes (iii) Generation of second messenger
(b) Cortisol - Decreases RBC (iv) Physiological response (Ovarian
production and growth)
causes (a) i – ii – iii – iv
inflammation. (b) i – iii – ii – iv
(c) Thymosin -Promotes (c) iv – iii – ii – i
production of (d) iii – i – iv – ii
antibodies to 110. Exine of pollen is
provide humoral (A) hard outer layer of pollen grain.
immunity also. (B) most resistant organic matter
(d) Thyroxin - No role in water known.
and electrolyte (C) layer made up of sporopollenin.
balance. (D) layer which can withstand high
107. A. Anabolic effect on protein and temperature, strong acids and
carbohydrate metabolism alkali.
B. Influences male sexual behavior (E) layer which cannot be degraded
(libido) by any enzyme.
C. Stimulate spermatogenesis Which of the following is correct?
D. Muscular growth, aggressiveness (a) A and B
and low pitch voice (b) A,B,C,D and E
(c) A,B,C and D
(d) A,C and E
16
111. The posterior pituitary gland is not a (d) Both a and c
“true” endocrine gland because 115. Mary is about to face an interview. But
(a) it only stores and releases during the first five minutes before the
hormones interview she experiences sweating,
(b) it is provided with a duct increased rate of heart beat,
(c) t secretes enzymes respiration, etc. Which hormone is
(d) it is under the regulation of the responsible for her restlessness?
hypothalamus (a) Estrogen and progesterone
112. Which part do not contain Nissl's (b) Oxytocin and vasopressin
granule? (c) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
(d) Insulin and glucagon
116. The bigger cell that receives abundant
food and has irregularly shaped
nucleus is called
(a) Generative cell
(b) Vegetative cell
(c) Germ cell
(d) Sperm cell
117. The resting axonal membrane is
(a) Unpolarized
(b) Unpolarized and more permeable
to K+.
(c) Polarized and more permeable to
Na+ .
(d) Polarized and more permeable to
K+.
(a) A (b) B
118. Na/K pumps transports
(c) C (d) All
(a) 3Na+ out for 2K+ in
113. Synaptic knob contains synaptic
(b) 3 Na+ in for 2K+ out
vesicles which possess chemicals called
(c) 2Na+ out for 3K+ in
(a) Prostaglandins
(d) 2Na+ in for 3K+ out
(b) Interferons
119. Graves’ disease is caused due to
(c) Antibodies
(a) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland
(d) Neurotransmitters
(b) Hyporsecretion of adrenal gland
114. Function performed by the outer three
(c) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland
layers of microsporangium?
(d) Hyporserction of thyroid gland.
(a) Protection to developing pollen
120. Which of the following statement is
(b) Provides nourishment to
true about neural membrane?
developing pollen
(a) Different type of ion channels
(c) Helps in the dehiscence of anther
present.
to release pollen
17
(b) Ion channels are selectively (5) At a chemical synapse, the
permeable. membrane of the pre- and
(c) Impermeable to negatively Postsynaptic neurons are
charged protein is present in separated by a fluid-filled space
axoplasm. called synaptic cleft.
(d) All the above (a) 2 (b) 3
121. Choose the correct sequence for (c) 4 (d) 5
depolarization and repolanzation. 124. How does steroid hormone influence
(A) Stimulus applied at a site on cellular activities?
polarized membrane. (a) Binding to DNA and forming a
(B) Increased permeability for Na+. gene-hormone complex
(C) Generation of action potential. (b) Activating cyclic AMP located on
(D) Increase permeability for K+. the cell membrane
(E) Restoration of membrane (c) Using aquaporin channels as
potential. secondary messenger
(a) A➔ B ➔ C ➔ D ➔ E (d) Changing the permeability of cell
(b) B➔A➔C➔D➔E membrane.
(c) A➔ D ➔ C ➔ B ➔ E 125. Fight-or-flight reactions cause
(d) A ➔ B ➔ D ➔ C ➔ E activation of
(a) the pancreas leading to a
122. Thymosin is responsible for
reduction in the blood sugar
(a) Raising the blood sugar level
levels
(b) Raising the blood calcium level
(c) Differentiation of T-lymphocytes (b) the adrenal medulla, leading to
increased secretion of
(d) Decrease in blood RBC
epinephrine and norepinephrine
123. Select the total number of true
(c) the kidney, leading to suppression
statements from the following.
(1) There are two types of synapses, of the renin-angiotensin-
aldosterone pathway
namely electrical synapses and
(d) the parathyroid glands, leading to
chemical synapses.
increased metabolic rate
(2) Electrical synapses are rare in our
126. At a chemical synapse, the membrane
system.
of the pre- and Postsynaptic neurons
(3) At chemical synapse, the
are separated by a fluid-filled space
membranes of pre- and
called
Postsynaptic neuron are in very
(a) Synaptic cleft
close proximity.
(4) Transmission of an impulse (b) Inter neuron
(c) Chiasmata
across electrical synapses is very
(d) Podocytes
similar to impulse conduction
along a single axon.
18
127. Identify A to H in the given figure. prominent folds known as sulci
and gyri.
(b) Concentrated neuron cell body
gives grey colour to cerebral
cortex.
(c) Fibres of the tract covered with
myelin sheath constitutes the
inner part of cerebral
hemisphere.
(d) Cerebrum is wrapped around the
(a) A: Neurotransmitters, B: structure called medulla.
Presynaptic membrane, C: 130. Identify A, B, C and D in the given
Receptors, D: Axon, E: Synaptic figure
vesicles, F: Axon terminal, G:
Synaptic cleft, H: Postsynaptic
membrane.
(b) A: Axon, B: Axon terminal, C:
Synaptic vesicles, D: Presynaptic
membrane, E: Synaptic cleft, F:
Postsynaptic membrane, G:
Receptors, H: Neurotransmitters.
(c) A: Receptors, B: Postsynaptic
membrane, C: Presynaptic
membrane, D: Axon terminal, E:
Neurotransmitters, F: Synaptic (a) A-Physiological response,
cleft, G: Synaptic vesicles, H: Axon. B-Proteins,
(d) A: Axon terminal, B: C-Receptor-hormone complex,
Neurotransmitters, C: Synaptic D-Uterine cell membrane.
vesicles, D: Axon, E: Presynaptic (b) A-Receptor hormone complex,
membrane, F: Postsynaptic B-Proteins,
membrane, G: Receptors, H: C-Uterine cell membrane,
Synaptic cleft. D- Physiological response.
128. The outermost part of the three cranial (c) A-Uterine cell membrane,
meninges is B-Receptor hormone complex
(a) Arachnoid (b) Dura C- Proteins
(c) Pia (d) Sclera D-Physiological response.
129. Select the incorrect statement from the (d) A-Proteins,
following. B-Uterine cell membrane,
(a) In cerebral cortex, the greyish C-Physiological response
appearance is thrown into D-Receptor hormone complex.
19
131. The association area in cerebral cortex BIOLOGY SECTION - B

is responsible for
(a) Intersensory association 136. Match the columns
(b) Memory Hormone Function
(c) Communication A. Gastrin i. Acts on
(d) All of these exocrine
132. The part of brain located between pancreases
thalamus and hypothalamus of and
forebrain and pons is known as stimulates
(a) Midbrain secretion of
(b) Hindbrain water and
(c) Limbic system bicarbonate
(d) All of these ion.
133. Find the total number of hormones B. Secretin ii. Acts both on
from the following which binds to pancreases
intracellular receptors and gall
Cortisol, Testosterone, T3, Glucagon, bladder and
Oxytocin, FSH, Progesterone, ICSH, stimulates
Oestrogen, GH secretion of
(a) 4 (b) 5 pancreatic
(c) 6 (d) 7 enzyme and
134. Which of the following is true about bile juice,
midbrain? respectively
(a) A canal called cerebral aqueduct C. CCK iii. Acts on
passes through the midbrain. cholecystokinin gastric gland
(b) The dorsal portion of midbrain and
consists of four round swelling stimulates
called corpora quadrigemina. secretion of
(c) It forms the part of brain stem. HCl and
(d) All of these pepsinogen
135. Limbic system is a part of D. GIP (Gastric iv. Inhibit
(a) Forebrain inhibitory gastric
(b) Midbrain peptide) section and
(c) Hindbrain motility.
(d) Pons
(a) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(b) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(c) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
20
141. Assertion: Unmyelinated fibres are
137. Which of the following is false about without myelin sheath.
hindbrain? Reason: Schwann cells are absent in
(a) Pons part of it consists of fibre unmyelinated fibres.
tracts that interconnects different (a) If both assertion and reason is
regions of brain. true and reason is the correct
(b) Cerebellum part of it has very explanation of assertion.
convoluted surface to (b) If both assertion and reason is
accommodate many neurons. true but reason is not the correct
(c) Medulla of this part is connected explanation of assertion.
to spinal cord. (c) If assertion is true but reason is
(d) Hindbrain is responsible for false.
regular excitement, pleasure, rag (d) If both assertion and reason is
and fear. false.
138. Presence of which of the following 142. Assertion: Impulse transmission across
conditions in urine are indicative of and electrical synapse is always faster
Diabetes Mellitus? than that across a chemical synapse.
(a) Uremia and Ketonuria Reason: At electrical synapses, the
(b) Uremia and Renal Calculi membranes of pre-and post-synaptic
(c) Ketonuria and Glycosuria neurons are in very close proximity.
(d) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia (a) If both assertion and reason is
139. The medulla 1s the centre for true and reason is the correct
(a) Respiration explanation of assertion.
(b) Cardiovascular Reflex (b) If both assertion and reason is
(c) Gastric Secretion true but reason is not the correct
(d) All of these explanation of assertion.
140. Assertion: The surface of cerebrum is (c) If assertion is true but reason is
highly folded. false.
Reason: To increase the area for (d) If both assertion and reason is
having more neurons. false.
(a) If both assertion and reason is 143. The _________ of kidney produces
true and reason is the correct peptide hormone called_____ which
explanation of assertion. stimulates erythropoiesis.
(b) If both assertion and reason is (a) Podocyte, Erythropoietin
true but reason is not the correct (b) JG cells, Erythropoietin
explanation of assertion. (c) JG cells, Rennin
(c) If assertion is true but reason is (d) JG cells, Renin
false. 144. The potential difference across resting
(d) If both assertion and reason is membrane is negatively charged. This
false.
21
is due to differential distribution of the
following ions 148. Select the incorrect statement from the
(a) Na+ and K+ ions following
(b) CO2++ and Cl ions (a) GIT secretes four major peptide
(c) Ca++ and Mg++ ions hormones
(d) Ca++ and Cl ions. (b) Several other non-endocrine
145. When a neuron is in resting state, i.e., tissues secrete hormones called
not conducting any impulse, the axonal growth factors
membrane is (c) Hormone receptors are located in
(a) Equally permeable to both Na+ target tissues only.
and K+ ions (d) Hormone receptors are non-
(b) Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ specific in nature.
ions 149. Select the correct statement
(c) Comparatively more permeable (a) Glucocorticoids stimulate
to K+ ions and nearly gluconeogenesis
impermeable to Na ions+ (b) Glucagon is associated with
(d) Comparatively more permeable hypoglycemia.
to Na+ ions and nearly (c) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells
impermeable to K+ ions. and adipocytes.
146. Which of the following regions of the (d) Insulin is associa1ted with
brain is incorrectly paired with its hyperglycemia.
function? 150. A widely used rooting hormone is
(a) Medulla oblongata – homeostatic (a) 2,4, -D
control (b) NAA
(b) Cerebellum – Language (c) 2,4,5 – T
comprehension (d) Cytokinin
(c) Corpus callosum –
Communication between the left BIOLOGY SECTION - C
and right cerebral cortices
(d) Cerebrum – calculation and 151. Select the total number of endocrine
contemplation. glands from the following
147. Select the incorrect statement from the Pituitary, pineal, thyroid,
following parathyroid, adrenal, pancreas,
(a) Neural system provides point to thymus, gonads.
point rapid coordination among (a) 7 (b) 8
organs. (c) 6 (d) 5
(b) Neural coordination is fast. 152. Select the incorrect statement from the
(c) Neural coordination is short-lived following
(d) Nerve fibres innervates all the (a) Invertebrates possess very simple
cells of body so cellular function endocrine system.
is continuously regulated.
22
(b) Anterior pituitary is under Posterior pituitary, E-
control of hypothalamus by portal Hypothalamus neurons.
system. (d) A-Hypothalamic neurons, B-
(c) Posterior pituitary is under direct Posterior pituitary, C-Anterior
neural regulation of pituitary, D-Portal circulation, E-
hypothalamus. Hypothalamus.
(d) Hypothalamus secreted tropic 155. Unisexuality of flowers prevents
hormones. (a) geitonogamy, but not xenogamy
153. Which of the following statement is (b) autogamy and geitonogamy
incorrect about pituitary? (c) autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(a) Located in bony cavity called sella (d) Both geitonogamy and xenogamy
turcica. 156. Double fertilization leading to
(b) Attached to hypothalamus by initiation of endosperm in angiosperms
stalk is required for
(c) Divided anatomically into (a) Fusion of one polar nucleus and
adenophypophysis and the second male gamete only
neurohypophysis. (b) Fusion of two polar nuclei and the
(d) Secrete released and inhibitory second male gamete
hormones. (c) Fusion of four or more polar
154. Identify A to E in the given figure. nuclei and the second male
gamete only
(d) All the above kinds of fusion in
different angiosperms.
157. Generative cell was destroyed by laser
but a normal pollen tube was still
formed because
(a) Vegetative cell is not damaged
(b) contents of killed generative cell
stimulate pollen growth
(c) Laser beam stimulates growth of
(a) A-Hypothalamus, B-Hypothalamic
pollen tube
neurons, C-Portal circulation, D-
(d) The region of emergence of pollen
Posterior pituitary, E-Anterior
tube is not harmed.
pituitary.
158. Winged pollen grains are present in
(b) A-Posterior pituitary, B-
(a) Mustard (b) Mango
Hypothalamic neurons, F-
(c) Cycas (d) Pinus
Hypothalamus, D-Anterior
159. The body of the ovule is fused within
pituitary, E-Posterior pituitary
the funcile at
(c) A-Anterior pituitary, B-Portal
(a) Hilum (b) Micropyle
circulation, C-Hypothalamus, D-
(c) Nucellus (d) Chalaza
23
160. Match the following columns 161. _______ induces ovulation of fully
Column I Column II matured follicle (Graafian follicles) and
A. Atrial wall 1. ANF maintains the corpus luteum, formed
B. Thyroid 2. PTH from the remnatns of the Graafian
gland follicles after ovulation.
C. Parathyroid 3. T3,T4,TCT (a) FSH (b) ACTH
D. GIT 4. CCK, GIP, (c) LH (d) GH
gastrin and 162. Over secretion of GH (Growth
secretin hormone) in child leads to
(a) Dwarfism (b) Cretinism
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (c) Gigantism (d) Tetany
(b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(c) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
163. Select the correct matching of a hormone, it source and function
Hormone Source Function

(a) Oxytocin Posterior pituitary Increased loss of water
through urine
(b) Prolactin Posterior pituitary Regulates growth of
mammary gland
(c) GnRH Hypothalamus Stimulates secretion of
gonadotropin from posterior
pituitary
(d) TSH Anterior pituitary Stimulates thyroid gland to
secrete thyroid hormone.
164. Which of the following regulates the (c) Hormones of hypothalamic

function of anterior pituitary? neuron via hypothalamo
(a) Pineal hypophyseal portal system.
(b) direct neural regulation of (d) All the above.
hypothalamus
24
165. Select the correct statement from the B. In adult women, hypothyroidism
following may cause menstrual cycle to
(A) Hypothalamus contains many become irregular.
nuclei which produces hormones. C. Protein hormone is secreted by
(B) Posterior pituitary is under direct thyroid and Thyrocalcitonin
neural regulation of regulates the blood calcium level.
hypothalamus. D. Maintenance of water and
(C) Oxytocin and vasopressin are electrolyte balance is also
actually synthesized in influenced by the thyroid
hypothalamus and transported hormone.
axonally to adenohypophysis E. Oxytocin cause milk ejection from
(D) LH induces ovulation and mammary gland.
destroys corpus luteum. Select the correct statement
(a) A and B only (a) A, B and C only
(b) A and D only (b) A, B, C and E only
(c) B and D only (c) All except D
(d) C and D only (d) All statements are correct.
166. Select the incorrect statement from the 169. The process by which PTH increases
following blood Ca2+ level except.
(a) Hypersecretion of GH leads to (a) Acts on bones and stimulates the
gigantism. process of bone
(b) ACTH stimulates synthesis and reabsorption/dissolution/
secretion of glucocorticoids from demineralizations
adrenal cortex. (b) Reabsorption of C2+ by the renal
(c) Oxytocin acts on skeletal muscles tubules
of our body and stimulates their (c) Increases C2+ absorption from the
contraction. digested food.
(d) ADH reduces loss of water (d) Increase osteoplastic activity.
through urine. 170. Male gametes in angiosperms are
167. Which of the following statement is formed by
incorrect about thyroid gland? (a) Mitotic division in vegetative cell
(a) It is composed of follicles and (b) Meiotic division in pollen mother
stromal tissues. cell
(b) It secretes tetraiodothyronine or (c) Meiotic division in vegetative cell
thyroxin (T4) and (d) Mitotic division in generative cell
triiodothyronine (T3), TCT,. 171. A. Increase alterness
(c) It consists of 4 lobes B. Pupillary constriction
(d) It is stimulated by hormone TSH. C. Polierection
168. A. Melatonin influences menstrual D. Increases heart rate
cycle and our defence capability E. Increases respiratory rate
25
F. Sweating (c) B
Which of the above are effects of (d) C
adrenaline/noraderenaline? 175. 1 to 2 million Islets of Langerhans in a
(a) All except C human pancreas represents _____ per
(b) All except B and F cent of the pancreatic tissue.
(c) All except B (a) 2-3 (b) 4-6
(d) All except B, E and F (c) 10 (d) 1-2
172. Which of the following layers are 176. Which of the following statement is
present in adrenal cortex from inner to correct?
outer? (A) Pollen grains are shed in 2-celled
(a) Zona reticularis, zona fasciculate stage in >40% plants.
and zona glomerulosa. (B) Pollen grains are shed in 3-celled
(b) Zona fasciculate, zona stage in < 60% plant
glomerulosa and zona reticularis. (C) Generative cell divides meiotically
(c) Zona glomerulosa, zona to form male gametes.
reticularis and zona fasciculate. (D) Intine of pollen is made up of
(d) Zona glomerulosa, zona sporopollenin
fasciculate and zona reticularis. (a) A, B, C (b) All are correct
173. Which of the following is incorrect (c) All are wrong (d) Only C
about glucocorticoids? 177. Select the incorrect statement from the
(a) Inhibit cellular uptake and following
utilization of amino acids. (a) Coordination is the process
(b) Maintains cardiovascular system through which two or more
as well as kidney function organs interact and complement
(c) Anti-inflammatory and the function of one another.
suppresses the immune response. (b) Neural system provides on
(d) Glucocorticoids stimulates organized network of point to
gluconeogenesis, lipogenesis and point connection for quick
proteolysis. coordination
174. Which one of the following is (c) Neural organization is complex in
incorrect? lower invertebrates.
(A) Parthenium or carrot gases (d) Vertebrates have more developed
causes pollen allergy neural system.
(B) Vegetative cell of pollen has 178. Which of the following system relays
abundant food reserve. impulse from CNS to skeletal muscles?
(C) All pollen’s cause severe allergies (a) Somatic neural system
and bronchial affictions (b) Sympathetic neural system
(D) Sporopollen is the most resistant (c) Parasympathetic neural system
organic matter known (d) Autonomic neural system
(a) All are correct
(b) A
26
179. Dendrites transmit impulse _____ cell (b) Nitrogen (–196oC)
body and axon transmit impulse ______ (c) Oxygen (–196oC)
cell body. (d) Nitrogen (+196oC)
(a) Towards, away from 184. Identify the parts of A to F in the
(b) Away, towards following figure?
(c) Towards, towards
(d) Away, away
180. Syncarpus condition is referred to as
(a) Gynoecium containing single
pistil
(b) More than one pistil fused
together
(c) More than one pistil free from one
another
(a) A-Filiform apparatus
(d) Gynoecium containing many
pistils. B- Polar nuclei
181. Schwann cell is absent in C- Antipodals,
(a) Myelinated neuron D-Synergids, E-Egg
(b) Non-myelinated neuron F-Central cell
(c) Astrocytes (b) A-Antipodals, B-Polar nuclei,
(d) Both (b) and (c) C-Central cell,
182. Pollen grains D-Egg, E-Synergids,
(A) Represent gametophytic phase of F-Filiform apparatus
plant (c) A-Antipodals, B-Central cell,
(B) Can cause severe allergies like C-Polar nuclei,
asthma and bronchitis. D-Egg, E-Synergids,
(C) Are rich in nutrient F-Filiform apparatus
(D) Are used as food supplements (d) A-Filiform apparatus,
(E) Are available in form of tables and B-Central cell, C-Polar nuclei,
syrups in market of western D-Antipodals, E-Egg: F-Synergids
countries 185. What is the ploidy level of nucleus
(a) Only A is correct MMC, functional megaspore and female
(b) All are correct gametophyte?
(c) All are wrong (a) 2n, n, 2n, 2n
(d) Only A, B and C are correct. (b) 2n, n, 2n, n
183. Pollens are stored in (c) 2n, 2n, n, n
(a) Oxygen (–196oC) (d) n, 2n, n, n
27
(c) A-Chasmogamous flower
BIOLOGY SECTION - D B-Chasmogamous flower
(d) A- Cleistogameous flower
186. The inside three mitotic division which B- Self-polinated flower.
occurs in the megaspore are 190. The distribution of pteridophytes and
(a) Followed by cytoplasmic division bryophytes is limited to some
immediately geographical zones only
(b) Strictly free nuclear not (a) Because their spores can
immediately followed by cell wall germinate in only specific kind of
formation soil only.
(c) Wall formation occurs after the (b) Because they require water for
completion of the second mitosis fertilization
(d) Wall formation will never occur. (c) Because they have only specific
187. The central cell pollination which are available in
(a) Contains two haploid nuclei narrow geographical range
(b) Has two polar nuclei (d) Only some weather conditions
(c) Located in the centre of embryo permit fruit formation in them.
sac 191. Which of the following is correct in
(d) All of these reference to animal pollinated plants?
188. The male and female gametes of (a) Butterflies, flies, beetles, wasps,
angiosperm are respectively ants, moths and bats are common
(a) Motile, non-motile pollinating agents
(b) Non-motile, motile (b) Rodents, lizards and primates are
(c) Motile, motile also pollinators in some species.
(d) Non-motile, non-motile. (c) Animal pollinated plants are
189. What are A and B in this figure? specifically adapted for particular
species.
(d) All the above.
192. Which one of the following is correct
for yucca plant?
(a) Moth species and yucca plant
cannot complete their life cycles
without each other
(b) The moth deposits in egg in the
locule of ovary of yucca plant.
(c) The larva of the moth came out of
(a) A-Chasmogamous flower the eggs as the seed starts
B- Cleistogameous flower developing of yucca.
(b) A- Cleistogameous flower (d) All the above.
B- Chasmogamous flower
28
193. The pollen pistil interaction refers to (b) TSH (Thyroid stimulating
(a) Pistil’s ability to recognize the hormone)
pollen (c) PRL (Prolactin)
(b) Acceptance of pollen to promote (d) ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic
post-pollination events hormone)
(c) Both are incorrect 198. Match the following columns
(d) Both a and b are correct Column I Column II
194. Which one of the following is correct A. Peptide, i. Epinephrine
for artificial hybridization? polypeptide
protein
(A) Combine desirable characters to hormones
produce superior varieties. B. Steroid ii. T3 and T4
(B) Approach towards crop (thyroid
improvement programme. hormones)
(C) Desired pollen grains are used for C. Iodothyronines iii. Cortisol,
pollination testosteron
e, estradiol,
(D) Stigma is exposed to receive progesteron
pollen. e and
(a) All are correct aldosterone.
(b) Only A D. Amino acid iv. Pituitary
(c) Only A and B derivatives hormones,
pancreatic
(d) Only A, B and C hormones
195. For artificial hybridization purpose and
which flowers of female plant is hypothalamic
emasculated. hormone.
(a) Only having pistil (unisexual) (a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(b) Having both pistil and anthers (b) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(bisexual) (c) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(c) Having only anthers (unisexual) (d) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(d) All are correct. 199. Hormone receptors are located in
196. Select the total number of hormones target tissue only. Their position is
secreted by pars distalis from the (a) In plasma membrane
following (b) In cytoplasm
GH, PRL, MSH, FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH, (c) In nucleus
ADH. (d) Any of the above depending on
(a) 4 (b) 5 the type of hormone.
(c) 6 (d) 8 200. Select the correct matching
197. Which of the below hormone (a) Interstitial cells - Testosterone
stimulates the synthesis and secretion (b)  -cells - Glucagon
of thyroxin? (c)  -cells - Insulin
(a) GH (Growth hormone) (d) Follicular cells - TCT

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TEST SYLLABUS

PHYSICS : Electrostatic and Current Electricity

PHYSICS SECTION - A 5. An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in

13. A hemisphere is uniformly charged

a proton when they are 1.6 A apart is

16. Assertion In a region, where uniform

(a)is least along the path AB

39. In the circuit element given here , if the

46. Assertion Bulb generally get fused when

131. The association area in cerebral cortex BIOLOGY SECTION - B

163. Select the correct matching of a hormone, it source and function

Hormone Source Function

164. Which of the following regulates the (c) Hormones of hypothalamic

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