BLOOD BANKING MIDTERM REVIEWER 9.

9. A stab wound patient rushed in the operating room, the doctor request a five unit of
Packed red blood cells and Eight units of fresh frozen plasma for stat transfusion.
1. Monoclonal antibodies: The relative and the attending physician signed the consent for transfusion without
a. Have specificity for a single epitope crossmatching test. As a medical technologist on duty, what blood type is the best to
b. Must be manufactured using hybridoma technology give during this kind of situation?
c. Develop from a single B-cell clone a. “O” positive for Packed RBC since they don’t have any antigens, “AB”
d. All of the above positive for FFP since they don’t have any antibodies
2. Circulating C1 macromolecules complement protein complex consists of which b. “O” positive for packed RBC since they are classified as universal donor.
three proteins? “AB” positive since they don’t have any antibodies
a. C1q, C1r, C1s c. Blood group “O” is the safest to give for PRBC since they don’t have any
b. C1q, C1s, C1f antigens, blood group “AB” is the safest to give for FFP since they don’t
c. C1q, C1s, C1t have any antibodies
3. Which complement proteins are good at inhibiting inflammation? d. I will not issue any blood since the patient ABO Rh typing was not
a. C3 performed
b. C3a 10. A principle of antiglobulin test;
c. C3b a. IgG and C3d are required for RBC sensitization
d. C3 convertase b. Human globulin is eluted from ROC during saline washing
4. The ionic strength of a reaction medium is dependent on: c. Injection of human globulin into an animal engenders passive immunity
a. The number of RBC in the reaction d. AHG reacts with human globulin molecules bound to RBC or free in
b. The amount of antibody in the reaction serum.
c. The level of ions in the reaction medium 11. Polyspecific AHG contains
d. The number of IgM antibodies a. Anti IgG
5. IgD antibody id found on the cell membrane of: b. Anti- 1gG and anti C3d
a. All lymphocyte in circulation c. Anti-IgG and anti- Ca
b. Plasma d. Anti-IgG and anti-C3 convertase
c. B cells 12. RBCs' must be washed in saline at least three times before the addition of AHG
d. T cells reagent to;
6. It is the action of AHG reagent: a. Wash away the hemolyzed cells
a. Reduces the zeta potential of the RBC, allowing closer approach of RBC b. Remove traces of free serum globulins
b. Cross-links RBC that have become sensitive with antibody or c. Neutralizes any excess AHG reagents
complement d. Increase the antibody antigen reaction
c. Enzymatically release SSA from the RBC membrane 13. False positive DAT are most often associated with:
d. Neutralize the secretion a. Use of refrigerated, clotted blood sample in which complement coat ABC
7. Which IG subclass is most important in causing Hemolytic Disease of Newborn? in vitro
a. 1 b. A recipient of a recent transfusion manifesting an Immune response to
b. 2 recently transfused RBC
c. 3 c. Presence of heterophile antibodies from administration of globulin
d. 4 d. A positive control caused by polyagglutinins
8. A positive DAT may be found in which of the following situation? 14. In complement classical pathway, antigen- antibody complex is required to activate
a. A weak D positive patient the pathway. Which of the following complement is activated by C1q?
b. A patient with anti-K a. С3
c. Hemolytic Disease of Newborn b. C5
d. An incompatible crossmatch c. C4
d. C3 convertase
15. After cleaving the C3, C3a will go back to the circulation and become? a. Genotyping
a. Opsonin b. Phenotyping
b. Anaphylatoxin c. Both genotyping and phenotyping
c. Anaphylotocin d. Polymerase chain reaction
d. Anaphylaxis 24. Which genotype(s) will give rise to the Bombay phenotype?
16. C5b67 is used for attachment to target cells, Cb5678 is for; a. HH only
a. Lysis b. HH and Hh
b. Fast lysis c. Hh and hh
c. Engulfment d. hh only
d. Slow lysis 25. What blood type is not possible for an offspring of an AO and BO mating?
17. In complement classical pathway, C3 convertase is; a. AB
a. C4B2a b. A or B
b. C4b2a c. 0
c. CAb2a d. All are possible
d. C3B2a 26. What is the possible offspring if the mother is heterozygous A and the father is
18. In alternative pathway, C5 convertase is; heterozygous B?
a. CbBB36 a. Fifty percent of homozygous AB and O
b. C3BB3B b. Twenty five percent of heterozygous AB and seventy five percent of O
c. C3BbB3b c. Fifty percent of heterozygous AB and O
d. С3bBB3b d. None of the above
19. An ABO type on patient gives the following reactions; 27. Why do IgM antibodies, such as those formed against the ABO antigens, have the
Patient Cells with: Patient Serum with: ability to directly agglutinate red blood cells (RBCs) and cause visible agglutination?
Anti-A Anti-B Anti-D A cells B cells a. IgM antibodies are larger molecules and can bind more antigen
0 4+ 0 1+ 0 b. IgM antibodies tend to clump together more readily to bind more antigen
a. "B"+ c. IgM antibodies are found in greater concentrations than IgG antibodies
b. "B positive" d. IgM antibodies are not limited by subcinss specificity
c. "B" positive 28. Which of the following enhancement mediums decreases the zeta potential,
d. "B" positive with weak reaction of A cells allowing antibody and antigen to come closer together?
a. LISS
20. The major immunoglobulin of anti-B in a group A individuals is/are; b. Polyethylene glycol
a. IgM c. Polybrene
b. IgG and IgM d. ZZAP
c. IgM and IgA 29. A patient's serum is incompatible with O cells. The patient RBCs give a negative
d. IgG and IgD reaction to anti-H lectin. What is the most likely cause of these results?
21. This is considered as the best way to differentiate blood group "O" individual with a. The patient may be a subgroup of A
Bombay phenotype. b. The patient may have an immunodeficiency
a. ABO typing c. The patient may be a Bombay
b. Anti-H lectin d. The patient may have developed alloantibodies
c. Anti-A lectin 30. ABO blood group system is discovered by.
d. Anti-B lectin a. Karl Landsteiner
22. Which of the following statements is true? b. Karl Landstener
a. An individual with the BO genotype is homozygous for B antigen c. Karl Landsteinier
b. An individual with the BB genotype is homozygous for B antigen d. Karl Landsteineir
c. An individual with the 00 genotype is heterozygous for 0 antigen
d. An individual with the AB phenotype is homozygous for A and B antigens
23. What type of serological testing does the blood bank technologist perform when
determining the blood group of a patient?
Association type: a. Each statement is correct
b. The first statement is correct. second statement is wrong.
Choose A if the correct answer is A 42. Prozone and post zone can both lead to
Choose B if the correct answer is B a. false negative
b. False positive
Choose C if the correct answer is both A and B 43. Shift to the right the 2-3DPG is decrease, in shift to the left the 2-3DPG is increase. D.
NONE OF THE CHOICES
Choose D if neither A nor B is the correct answer a. Each statement is correct
31. The MedTech on duty use a blood bag with ACD anticoagulant, therefore the blood b. The first statement is correct, second statement is wrong.
unit should process for blood component within. 44. PCH is associated in what antibody?
a. 6 hours after collection a. Donut Landsteiner
b. 8 hours after collection b. Donath Landsteiner
32. This enhancement media cause agglutination by adjusting the zeta potential 45. In Bohr effect pH is contributed by your hydrogen, and CO2 level to hemoglobin
between RBC, it requires 60 minutes of incubation. affinity for oxygen. D. NONE OF THE CHOICES
a. 22% albumin a. The first statement is correct, second statement is wrong
b. 22% protein media b. Each statement is correct.
33. The medtech on duty use a blood bag with CPD anticoagulant, therefore the blood 46. 2 months old baby girl obtained the following result of ABO Rh typing.
unit should process for blood component within. Patient Cells with: Patient Serum with:
a. 6 hours after collection Anti-A Anti-B Anti-D A cells B cells
b. 8 hours after collection 4+ 0 0 0 0
34. This enhancement media increases the test sensitivity, it requires 30 minutes of What the medtech on duty should do? D. NONE OF THE CHOICES
incubation D. NONE OF THE CHOICES (PEG) a. Release the result
a. 22% albumin b. Report as “A” negative
b. 22% protein media 47. In Haldane effect, effect of oxygen to the affinity of hemoglobin to the partial carbon
35. End product of embden Meyerhof pathway D. NONE OF THE CHOICES (PYRUVATE) dioxide
a. Pyruvate kinase a. The statement is correct.
b. Pvruvate kinate b. The statement is incorrect.
36. The MedTech on duty directly added the enzymes to the serum and RBC mixture 48. What makes ABO blood group different among others?
this method is: a. IgM subclass
a. Prohibited and should repeat the test b. Reverse typing
b. Called as one step procedure 49. Additive solutions contain the following:
37. Presence of product of globin denaturation can lead to the presence of. D. NONE OF a. Saline
THE CHOICES (HEINZ BODIES) b. Guanine
a. Donle bodies 50. An individual classified as blood group A has A antigen and anti-B while blood group
b. Bite cells B individual has anti-B and A antigen.
38. If excess antibodv occurs it is also called as. a. The first statement is correct.
a. Prozone b. The first statement is incorrect. second statement is correct.
b. Postzone 51. Additive solution contains the following: C. BOTH CORRECT
39. Shift to the left the pH will increase, in shift to the right the CO2 is increase D. NONE a. Adenine
OF THE CHOICES b. Mannitol
a. The first statement is right. the second statement is wrong 52. H gene attached in immunodominant sugar.
b. The first and second statement is right. a. L-fucose
40. The MedTech on duty encounter a prozone, what is the remedy for this incident? D. b. L-fucosyl
NONE OF THE CHOICES (DILUTION OF SERUM) 53. It is solution that use to restore the ATP levels of blood unit.
a. Increase serum: cell ratio a. Additive solution
b. Increase the drops of reagent b. Rejuvenation solution
41. Shift to the right the CO2 is increase. in shift to the left CO2 will decrease
54. A gene attached in __________ immunodominant sugar D. NONE OF THE CHOICES 67. Which of the following is the C3 convertase of the alternative pathway?
a. Alpha-3-N-acetylgalactosamyl transferase a. С3bBB
b. N-acetyl galactosamyl b. C3BBb
55. Red cell freeze stored at -65 deg cel, shelf life of 7 years. 68. Helper T cells is coreceptor of MHC class II, Cytotoxic T cells is coreceptor of MHC
a. The first statement is correct, the second statement is incorrect class I
b. Each statement is correct. a. Each statement is correct
56. Bombay phenotype case was first isolate at b. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct.
a. Bombai India 69. Which of the following is the start of the membrane attack unit of alternative
b. Mombai, Indi pathway? D. NONE OF THE CHOICES
57. Red cell freeze use glycol as freezing agent, stored at -65 deg cel. D. NONE OF THE a. CD5 convertase
CHOICES b. CD567
a. The first statement is correct, second statement is incorrect. 70. CD4 is coreceptor of MHC class I, CD8 is coreceptor of MHC Class II.
b. Each statement is correct. D. NONE OF THE CHOICES
58. H gene is also known as; D. NONE OF THE CHOICES (FUT 1) a. Each statement is correct
a. FUT-2 gene b. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct.
b. FUT-long gene 71. C3 convertase of alternative pathway is stabilized by;
59. Platelet's response in primary hemostasis, 20% of the released platelet sequestered a. Properdin
in the spleen as functional reserve. D. NONE OF THE CHOICES b. Propierdin
a. First statement is correct. second statement is incorrect. 72. Activated B cell and T cells is combined CD 25 and IL-2.
b. Each statement is correct. a. Statement is correct
60. In DAT IgG binds in FC chain of antibody found in cells of the patient that cause of b. Statement is incorrect
agglutination. 73. Simplest and most common technique to enhance agglutination
a. True a. ABO typing anti sera
b. false b. Centrifugation
61. Single donor platelet can increase 30,000/ul. platelet count, random donor platelet 74. LAK cells is combined NK cells + CD3. NK cells is combine CD 16 and CD 56
can increase 8,000/uL platelet count. a. Each statement is correct
a. The first statement is correct, the second statement is incorrect. b. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct
b. Each statement is correct 75. Duffy A and Duffy B is enhanced by enzymes
62. Which of the following the best example of drug induced hemolytic anemia C. BOTH a. True
CORRECT b. False
a. Penicillin Thymocvtes is also known as matured T cells, plasma cells matured B cells D. NONE
b. Penicillin OF THE CHOICES
63. Platelet concentrate should store at 25 deg cel, while PRBC should store at 10 deg c. Each statement is correct.
cel. D. NONE OF THE CHOICES d. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct.
a. The first statement is correct. the second statement is incorrect.
b. Each statement is correct 76. To confirm the Warm auto immune hemolytic anemia should.
64. 85% of immature T cells resides in medulla, 1.5% of mature T cells resides in cortex a. Pre-warm the sample and process again with anti-|gG and anti-c3d
D. NONE OF THE CHOICES b. Incubated at cold temperature and process again the sample
a. The first statement is correct, second statement is incorrect. 77. Glycolysis is break up of glucose, glucose has 4 ATP.
b. Each statement is correct a. Each statement is correct
b. First statement is correct. second statement is incorrect.
65. ABH gene Is developed as early as 78. Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when.
a. 37th davs of life a. Maternal antibody coating fetal RBC
b. 37th weeks of life b. Maternal antigen coating fetal antibody
66. Heavy chain is coded in chromosome 14, light chain is coded in chromosome 2 79. Hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs when.
a. Each statement is correct. a. Recipient antibody coating donor RBC
b. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct. b. Recipient antigen coating donor antibody
80. An enzyme trypsin is coming from d. Neither
a. Pig stomach 90. C3b is classified as.
b. Pig meat a. Very potent opsonin
81. In immediate spin phase the usual antibody detected is; b. Very potent ananhvlotoyin
a. IgG 91. This potentiators increase the reaction between the positive charge of the antibody
b. IgM and the negative charge or RBC
82. In incubatory phase the usual antibody detected is. a. 22% albumin
a. IgG b. LISS
b. IgM 92. When using LISS as enhancement media, it requires
83. ABO genes are coded for specific enzymes. a. 15 mins incubation at 37 degrees Celsius
a. Glycosy transterase b. 30 mins incubation at 37 degrees Celsius
b. Glycocyl transferase 93. IgG are best in.
84. What is the possible offspring if the mother is heterozygous A and the father is a. Agglutination
heterozygous B? D. NONE OF THE CHOICES b. Precipitation
a. Firty percent of homozvgous AB and O 94. The addition of adenine in an anticoagulant preservative formulation aids in which
b. Twenty five percent of heterozygous AB and seventy five percent of O of the following?
85. In shift to the left affinity of the oxygen is increase, therefore. a. Maintaining ATP levels for red cell viability.
a. The pH will increase, partial CO2 increase. temperature increase b. Maintaining platelet function in stored blood
b. The pH will increase. partial CO2 increase. temperature increase. 2-3 DPG c. Reducing the plasma potassium levels during storage
decrease d. Maintaining 2,3-BPG levels for oxygen release to the tissues.
c. The pH will increase, partial CO2 increase, temperature decrease, 2-3DPG 95. Which of the following is most accurate regarding platelet apheresis criteria?
increase a. The minimum platelet count must be 3.0x1011, pH must be ≥ 6.0
d. The pH will increase, partial CO2 decrease, temperature decrease and 2- b. The minimum platelet count must be 3 0x1011, pH must be ≤ 6.2
3DPG decrease. c. The minimum platelet count must be 3.0x1011, pH must be ≥ 6.2
86. Transfusion of alkalosis blood unit can lead to formation of; d. The minimum platelet count must be 3.0x1011, pH must be ≤ 6.0
a. Hgb F 96. Which of the following shelf life is correct?
b. Hgb A a. Frozen RBC at -65 deg cel = 7 years
c. Hgb D b. Fresh frozen plasma at -18 deg cel = 1year
d. Hgb E c. Fresh frozen plasma at -65 deg cel = 1 year
87. In shift to the right affinity of the oxygen is decrease, therefore. d. Platelets at 6 deg cel = 5 days
a. The ph will decrease, 2-3DPG will decrease. PCO2 will decrease, 97. When 2,3-BPG levels drop in stored blood, which of the following occurs as a result?
temperature will decrease a. RBC potassium indices
b. The pH will decrease, 2-3DPG will increase, PCO2 will decrease b. RBC ability to release oxygen decrease
temperature will increase c. Plasma hemoglobin is stabilized
c. The pH will decrease, 2-3DPG will increase PCO2 will increase, d. ATP synthesis increases
temperature will increase 98. Which of the following test is not performed during donor processing?
d. The pH will decrease, 2-3DPG will increase, PCO2 will increase, a. ABO and Rh grouping
temperature will decrease b. HbsAg
88. Shift to the right occurs as compensation of: c. HIV-1 Ag
a. Anemia d. HCsAb
b. Acid base balance 100. A 70 kg ran has a platelet count of 15,000/uL and there are no complicating
c. Hypoxia factors such as HLA sensitization. If he has given a platelet pool of six units, what
d. Lack of oxygen would you expect his post transision count to be?
89. One gram of hgb is equivalent of 1.44 mL of oxygen a. 21,000-27,000/uL
a. True b. 25,000-35-000/uL
b. False c. 45,000-75,000/uL
c. Mavbe d. 75,000-125,000/uL
FINAL EXAM c. Recipient red cells and donor plasma
d. Donor plasma and recipient red cells
1. How can interfering anti-P1 antibody to be removed from a mixture of 8. Can crossmatching be performed on September 14 using a patient sample
antibodies? drawn on September 12th?
a. Neutralization with saliva a. No, a new sample would need
b. Agglutination with human milk b. Yes, but only if the previous sample has no alloantibodies
c. Combination with urine c. No, a new sample is needed because the 2-day Ilmit has expired
d. Neutralization with hydatid cyst fluid d. Yes, a new sample would not be needed
2. Which antibody is frequently seen in patient with warm autoimmune hemolytic 9. What ABO types may donate to any other ABO type?
anemia? a. A negative, B negative, AB negative, O negative
a. Anti- jka b. AB negative, A negative, B negative
b. Anti-Fyb c. AB negative
c. Anti-K d. O negative
d. Anti-e 10. What type(s) of red cell is (are) acceptable to trans fuse to an O-negative
3. An antibody show strong reactions in all test phase. All screen and panel cells patient?
are positive. The serum is then tested with cord cell and the reaction is a. A negative, B negative, AB negative, or o negative
negative. What antibody is suspected? b. AB negative, A negative, B negative
a. Anti-p c. AB negative
b. Anti-i d. O negative
c. Anti-H 11. A technologist removed 4 units of blood from the blood bank refrigerator and
d. Anti-I placed them on the counter. A clerk was waiting to take the units for
4. An antibody is detected in a pregnant woman and is suspected of being the transfusion. As she checked the paperwork, she noticed that one of the units
cause of fetal distress. The antibody reacts at the IAT phase but does not react was leaking onto the counter. What should she do?
with DTT-treated cells. This antibody caused in vitro hemolysis. What is the a. Issue the unit if the red cells appear normal
most likely antibody specificity? b. Reseal the unit
a. Anti-Lea c. Call the medical director and ask for an opinion
b. Anti-Lua d. Discard the unit
c. Anti-Xga 12. What is the pathophysiological cause surrounding anaphylactic and
d. Anti-Lub anaphylactoid reactions?
5. Refer to Panel 1. Which antibody is most likely implicated? a. Antibody in patient serum is detected 3-7 days after transfusion, and
a. Anti-Fyb is attached to donor red blood cells
b. Anti-c and Anti-K b. Donor plasma has reagins (IgE or IgA) that combine with allergens in
c. Anti-e patient plasma
d. Anti-Jkb c. Patient is deficient in IgE and develops IgE antibodies via
6. An emergency trauma patient requires transfusion. Six units of blood are sensitization from transfusion or pregnancy
ordered stat. There is no time to draw a patient sample. O-negative blood is d. Patient is deficient in IgA and develops IgA antibodies via
released. When will compatibility testing be performed? sensitization from transfusion or pregnancy.
a. Compatibility testing must be performed before blood is issued 13. What may be found in the serum of a person who is exhibiting signs of TRALI
b. Compatibility testing is not necessary when blood is released in (transfusion-related acute lung injury)?
emergency situations a. Red blood cell alloantibody
c. Compatibility testing may be performed immediately using donor b. IgA antibody
serum c. Allergen
d. Compatibility testing will be performed when a patient sample is d. Antileukocyte antibody
available 14. What would be the result of group A blood group given to an O patient?
7. What does a minor crossmatch consist of? a. Nonimmune transfusion reaction
a. Recipient plasma and recipient red cells b. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
b. Recipient plasma and doner red cells c. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
 d. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
15. A female cancer patient with hemoglobin of 6 g/dL was admitted to the
hospital with acute abdominal pain. Small bowel resection was indicated, but 22. what components may be shipped together
the attending physician wanted to raise the patient’s hemoglobin to 12 g/dL a. wash red cell
before the surgery. How many units of RBC’s would likely to required to b. platelets
accomplish this? c. Packed RBC and granulocytes
a. 2 d. Cryoprecipitate
b. 3 23. Which of the following donors could be accepted for whole blood donation?
c. 8 a. A construction worker who was incarcerated for oplate abuse
d. 6 b. Woman who is 16th week pregnant
16. What is the component of choice for a patient with chronic granulomatous c. a man who is currently taking finasteride (Propecia)
disease (CGD)? d. A triathlete with a pulse of 45
a. FFP 24. which physical examination result is caused for rejecting a whole blood donor?
b. RBC's a. Weight of 105 lb
c. Cryoprecipitate b. Pulse of 75
d. Granulocytes c. temperature of 99.3 deg F
17. all of the following statement regarding FFP are true, except: d. Diastollic pressure of 110mm Hg
a. After thawing, FFP must be transfused within 24 hours 25. Which situation is not cause for indefinite deferral of donor?
b. storage temperature for FFP with a one year shelf life is greater than a. A male currently on dutasteride (Avodart)
or equal - 18 degree Celsius b. Donation of a unit of blood that transmitted hepatitis B virus to
c. when thawed, FFP must be stored between 1 degree Celsius to 6 recipient
degrees Celsius c. History of Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
d. FFP must be prepared within 24 hours of collection d. Accidental needle stick one year ago; negative for infectious
18. a unit of packed RBC's it is split using the open system. One of the half unit is disease
used. What may be done with the second-half unit? 26. can an autologous donor donate blood on Monday, if he is having surgery on
a. Must retain the original expiration date Friday?
b. must be issued within 48 hours a. No, he or he can donate up to 88 hours before surgery
c. must be a irradiated b. no, he or he cannot donate within seven days of surgery
d. must be issued within 24 hours c. yes, he or she can donate, but only half a unit
19. what should be done if a noticeable club is found in RBC unit? d. yes, he or she can donate up to 72 hours before surgery
a. Issue the unit; the blood will be filtered 27. what is the youngest age a person can make an allogeneic whole blood
b. issued the unit; note the presence of cloth on the release form donation?
c. filter the unit in the blood bank before issue a. 14
d. do not issue the unit b. 15
20. all of the following are true regarding washed RBC, except; c. 18
a. our BC's are washed with 1-2 L of normal saline d. 16
b. volume is 180mL 28. which of the following vaccinations carries no deferral period?
c. leukocyte I removed a. Rubella
d. shelf life is extended b. varicella zoster
21. transfusion of an irradiated product is indicated in all of the following condition c. polio
except: d. recombinant HPV
a. exchange transfusion 29. how does a irradiation prevent transfusion associated graft versus host disease
b. bone marrow transplant (TA-GVHD)?
c. severe combined immune deficiency syndrome (SCIDS) a. UV rays and X-rays destroy the lymphocytes ability to divide
d. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA) b. X-ray cause lysis of the lymphocyte
c. gamma rays enhanced lymphocyte reactivity
d. gamma rays and X-ray destroy the lymphocyte ability to divide
 c. Anti-D
d. Anti-Jka
30. which of the following is acceptable according to AABB standards? 38. A crossmatch was performed on October 16th and the blood was transfused on
a. Rejuvenated RBC's may be made within five days of update and the same day what date can the original test sample be discarded?
transfuse or frozen within 24 hours of rejuvenation a. October 19
b. frozen RBC's must be prepared within 30 minutes of collection and b. October 22
may be used within 10 years c. October 21
c. irradiated RBC's must be treated within eight hours of collection and d. October 24
transfused within 6 hours 39. which of the following errors would cause the most severe action?
d. rejuvenated RBC's may be made within 3 days of outdated and a. Group B blood given to group O patient
transfused or frozen within 24 hours of rejuvenation b. group O blood given to Group A patient
31. Di ko Mabasa (HAHAAH) c. Group B blood given to group AB patient
32. From the following components prepared from whole blood, indicate the d. group of blood given to Group A patient
temperature for platelet concentrate: 40. which system use a donor bag with attached satellite bags for preparation of
a. 1-6 degrees Celsius platelet concentrate?
b. 1-10 degrees Celsius a. Closed system
c. 20-24 degrees Celsius, w/o agitation b. single donor platelet
d. 20-24 degrees Celsius, w/ agitation c. open system
33. From the following component prepared from whole blood, indicate the d. random donor platelet
temperature for granulocyte concentrate: 41. the medical technologist on duty check their blood inventory, upon checking
a. 2-6 deg C, w/ temperature monitoring she noticed that one of the blood bags is leaking. What the medical
b. 1-10 deg C, w/o temperature monitoring technologist should do?
c. 20-24 degrees Celsius, w/ agitation a. Call the attention of the chief medical technologist
d. 20-24 degrees Celsius, w/o agitation b. Call the attention of the pathologist
34. A man turns pale and complaints of dizziness while donating blood. Choose the c. change the cell life of the unit to 24 hours
correct action: d. discard the unit
a. continue the donation, he is probably not going to faint 42. a blood unit released to the nurse on duty 30 minutes ago, after 30 minutes
b. tell him to sit upright and not have a reaction until the donation is called the blood bank department informing that the transfusion will not
finished proceed because the patient had fever. What the medical technologist should
c. discontinue the donation and provide a paper bag do?
d. withdraw the needle and raise his feet a. Accept the blood unit and tag 24 hours of expiration
35. false negative result with reactive check sales occurred when performing an b. Accept the blood you need and tug a same expiration of the blood
antibody screening test is most likely due to: bag
a. Dirty glassware c. Call the chief medical technologist and report the incident
b. failure to allow blood clotting d. discard the unit
c. inadequate washing of red cells 43. mobile blood nation was conducted in a far-flung area, the team will expectedly
d. excessive washing of the red cells arrive at the blood bank department 12 hours after the collection. Should
36. which of the following will be INCOMPATIBLE in the major cross matching? medtech on duty process the blood you needs to different blood components?
RECIPIENT DONOR a. Yes, since they use a triple blood bag
a. Group A pos : Group A neg b. yes, the time of collection doesn't affect the blood unit
b. Group A pos : Group O pos c. No, it should be processed 9 hours after the collection
c. Group A neg : Group AB pos d. No, it should be processed 8 hours after the collection
d. Group A pos : Group AB pos 44. which IG subclass is most important in causing hemolytic disease of newborn
37. This antibody, which is labile in bookstore syndrome and patients plasma, is a. 2
frequent cause of HTR’s appearing > 24 hours post-transfusion: b. 3
a. Anti-A c. 4
b. Anti-k d. 1
45. A positive DATA may be found in which of the following situation? 52. All of the following are characteristics of RH null syndrome excent:
a. A week the positive patient a. Increase hemoglobin
b. A patient with anti-K b. Decrease hematocrit
c. Incompatible crossmatch c. Decrease hemoglobin
d. HDN d. Increase reticulocyte count 53.
46. a stab wound patient rushed in the operating room, the doctor request A 5 53. Stomatocytes usualyl present at;
units of packed red blood cells an 8 unit of fresh frozen plasma for stat that a. Rh deficiency
transfusion. The relative and the attending physician signed the consent for b. Rh null disease
transfusion without crossmatching test. As a medical technologist on duty, c. RH null syndro
what blood type is the best to give during this kind of situation? d. RH null syndrome
a. "o" positive for Packed RBC since they don't have any antigens, "AB" 54. This system considered as only system that is not manufactured by your RBC,
positive for FFP since they don't have any antibodies instead it is adsorbed by by your RBC
b. "O" positive for packed RBC since they are classified as universal a. Lewes
donor, "AB" positive since they don't have any antibodies b. Louis
c. Blood group "AB" is the safest to give for PRBC since they don't have c. Lowis
any antigens, blood group "O" is the safest to give for FFP since they d. Lewis
don't have any antibodies. 99. The medtech on duty encounter A prozone, what is the remedy for this incident? D.
d. Blood group "O" is the safest to give for PRBC since they don't NONE OF THE CHOICES (DILUTION OF SERUM)
have any antigens, blood group "AB" is the safest to give for FFP e. Increase serum: cell ratio
since they don't have any antibodies. f. Increase the drops of the reagents
47. A patient's serum is incompatible with O cells. The patient RBCs give a negative 55. Shift to the right the CO2 is increased, in shift to the left CO2 will decrease
reaction to anti- H lectin. What is the most likely cause of these results? a. each statement is correct
a. The patient may be a subgroup of A b. The first statement is correct, second statement is wrong
b. The patient may have an immunodeficiency. 56. Prozone and post zone can both lead to
c. The patient may have developed alloantibodies. a. false negative
d. The patient may be Bombay. b. false positive
48. Panel 57. shift to the right that 2-3 DPG is decrease, in shift to the left the 2-3 DPG is
49. What is the disposition of a donor red blood cell unit that contains an antibody? increased D. NONE OF THE CHOICES
a. The unit must be discarded a. each statement is correct
b. Only the plasma may be used to make components b. The first statement is correct, second statement is wrong
c. The antibody must be absorbed from the unit 58. PCH is associated in what antibody?
d. The unit may be labeled indicating it contains antibody and release a. Donut Landsteiner
into inventory b. Donath Landsteiner
50. A major crossmatch and screening cells are 2+ at IS, 1+ at 37°C, and negative at 59. In Bohr effect pH is contributed by your hydrogen, and CO2 level is hemoglobin
the lAl phase Identity the most likely problem affinity for oxygen?
a. Combination of antibodies a. The first statement is correct, second statement is wrong
b. No problem at all b. each statement is correct
c. Rouleaux 60. 2 months old baby girl obtained the following result of ABO Rh typing.
d. Cold alloantibody
51. IN antigen; Patient cells with Patient serum
a. India antigen Anti-A Anti- B Anti-D A1 cells B cells
b. INdian antigen
c. INdia antigen 4+ 0 0 0 0
d. Indian Antigen
What the medtech on duty should do? D. NONE OF THE CHOICES
 a. Release the result 73. which of the following is the C3 convertase of the alternative pathway?
b. Report as “A” negative a. C3bBB
61. In Haldane effect, effect of oxygen to the affinity of hemoglobin to the partial b. C3BBb
carbon dioxide. 74. Helper T cells is coreceptor of MHC class II, save the toxic diesel is coreceptor of
a. The statement is correct. MHC class I.
b. The statement is Incorrect. a. each statement is correct
62. What makes ABO blood group different among others? b. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct
a. IgM subclass 75. Which of the following is the start of the membrane attack unit of alternative
b. Reverse tvping pathway? D. NONE OF THE CHOICES
63. Additive solutions contain the following;
a. Saline a. CD5 convertase
b. Guanine b. CD567
64. An individual classified as blood group A has A antigen and anti-B While blood 76. CD4 is coreceptor of MHC class I, CD8 is coreceptor of MHC class II D. NONE OF
group B Individual has anti-B and A antigen. THE CHOICES
a. The first statement is correct
b. The first statement is incorrect, second statement is correct a. each statement is correct
65. Additive solution contains the following: C. BOTH b. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct
a. Adenine 77. C3 convertase of alternative pathway is stabilized by;
b. Mannitol a. Properdin
66. In DAT IgG binds in FC chain of antibody found in cells of the patient that cause b. Propierdin
of agglutination. 78. Activated B cell and this cell is combined CD25 and IL 2
a. True a. statement is correct
b. false b. Statement is incorrect
67. Single donor platelet can increase 30,000/uL platelet count, random donor 79. Simplest and most cons n technique to enhance agglutination
platelet can increase 8,000/uL platelet count. a. ABO typing anti sera
a. The first statement is correct, the second statement is incorrect. b. Centrifugation
b. Each statement is correct. 80. LAK cells is combined NK cells + CD3, NK cells Is combine CD 16 and CD 56
68. Which of the following the best example of drug induced hemolytic anemia C. a. Each statement is correct
BOTH b. First statement is incorrect, second statement Is correct
a. Penicillin 81. Duffy A and Duffy B is enhanced by enzymes.
b. Penicillin a. True
69. Platelet concentrate should store at 25 deg cel, while PRBC should store at 10 b. False
deg cel. D. NONE OF THE CHOICES 82. Thymocvtes is also known as matured T cells, plasma cells matured B cells D.
NONE OF THE CHOICES
a. The first statement is correct, the second statement is incorrect.
b. Each statement is correct. a. Each statement is correct.
70. 85% of immature T cells resides in medulla, 15% of mature T cells resides in b. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct.
cortex. D. NONE OF THE CHOICES 83. To confirm the Warm auto immune hemolytic anemia should.
a. Pre-warm the sample and process again with anti-IgG and anti-c3d
a. The first statement is correct, second statement is incorrect. b. Incubated at cold temperature and process again the sample.
b. Each statement is correct. 84. Glycolysis is break up of glucose, glucose has 4 ATP.
71. ABH gene is developed as early as: a. Each statement is correct
a. 37th days of life b. First statement is correct, second statement is incorrect.
b. 37th week of life 85. Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when.
72. Heavy chain is coded in chromosome 14, light chain is coded in chromosome 2 a. Maternal antibody coating fetal RBC
a. each statement is correct b. Maternal antigen coating fetal antibody
b. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct
86. Hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs when. d. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin
a. Recipient antibody coating donor RBC 97. The temperature range for maintaining RBC's and whole blood during shipping
b. Recipient antigen coating donor antibody Is;
87. An enzyme trypsin is coming from a. 0-4 deg cel
a. Pig stomach b. 1-6 deg cel
b. Pig meat c. 1-10 deg cel
88. In immediate spin phase the usual antibody detected is; d. 5-15 deg cel
a. IgG 98. Platelets play an important role in maintaining hemostasis, one unit of donor
b. IgM platelets derived from whole blood should yield platelets.
89. In incubatory phase the usual antibody detected is. a. 5.5 x106
a. IgG b. 3.0 x106
b. IgM c. 5.5 x1011
90. ABO genes are coded for specific enzyme d. 3.0 x1011
a. Glycosyl transferase 99. During preparation of platelet concentrate, the hermetic seal of the primary
b. Glycocyl transferese bag is broken. The red blood cells.
91. What is the possible offspring if the mother is heterozygous A and the father is a. Must be discarded
heterozygous B? D. NONE OF THE CHOICES b. May be labeled with a 21-day expiration date if collected in CPD
c. Must be labeled with a 24-hour expiration date.
a. 50% of homozygous AB and O d. May be glycerolized within 6 days and stored frozen.
b. 25% of heterozygous AB and 70% of O
92. the addition of adenine in an anticoagulant-preservative formulation aids in
which of the following?
a. Maintaining ATP levels for red cell viability.
b. Maintaining platelet function in stored blood.
c. Reducing the plasma potassium levels during storage
d. Maintaining 2-3 DPG levels for oxygen release to the tissue
93. which of the following is most accurate regarding platelet apparatus criteria?
a. The minimum platelet count must be 3.0x10^11, pH must be >6.0
b. The minimum platelet count must be 3.0x10^11, pH must be <6.2
c. The minimum platelet count must be 3.0x10^11, pH must be >6.2
d. The minimum platelet count must be 3.0x10^11, pH must be <6.0
94. Which of the following shelf life is correct?
a. Frozen RBC at -65 de cel = 7 years
b. Fresh frozen plasma at -18 deg cel = 1year
c. Fresh frozen plasma at -65 deg cel = 1 year
d. Platelets at 6 deg cel = 5 days
95. When 2,3-BPG levels drop in stored blood, which of the following occurs as a
result?
a. RBC potassium Indices
b. RBC ability to release oxygen decrease
c. Plasma hemoglobin is stabilized
d. ATP synthesis Increases
96. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf-life storage blood. Which of the
following Is a result of this storage lesion?
a. Increase in pH
b. Increase in plasma potassium
c. Increase in plasma sodium