Last Leap 2

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!"#$%#$&
S. NO. PARTICULARS PAGE NO.
1. Preface ................................................................................................. (i) – (i)
2. Chemistry .......................................................................................... 01 – 218
3. Botany .............................................................................................. 219 – 364
4. Answers........................................................................................... 365 – 385
Preface
Dear NEET Aspirants,
I am pleased to release this package “Last Leap” for NEET 2020. This package
contains selected and important questions which have been prepared and
compiled by our expert faculties who have been teaching AIPMT/NEET since
decades. This package is available in 2 parts viz. Part (I) and Part (II).
When a student will try to solve these questions, he/she can have a real feel
of the examination. These questions will open the different layers of the brain
and will stimulate the deepest nervous tissue to think and recall as well as
analyze the trick in the questions. I am very confident that if a student
sincerely solves these questions independently, there is no reason why he/she
cannot be among the top rankers in the country in the NEET. The “Last Leap”
is going to be the winning Leap for every student who puts his heart and mind
on the questions given in this package.
Wishing you a brighter career.
J.C. CHAUDHRY
Chairman
Aakash Educational Services Limited
(i)
CHEMISTRY
CHAPTER No. TOPIC PAGE No.
1. Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry .......................................... 01 – 14
2. Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties ............. 15 – 24
3. States of Matter : Gases and Liquid ............................................. 25 – 42
4. Thermodynamics ......................................................................... 43 – 56
5. Redox Reactions .......................................................................... 57 – 64
6. Solid State ..................................................................................... 65 – 72
7. Solution ......................................................................................... 73 – 82
8. Chemical Kinetics ........................................................................ 83 – 94
9. Surface Chemistry ..................................................................... 95 – 100
10. Environmental Chemistry ......................................................... 101 – 102
11. Haloalkanes and Haloarenes ................................................... 103 – 112
12. Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers .................................................. 113 – 126
13. Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids .............................. 127 – 150
14. Amines ...................................................................................... 151 – 160
15. Biomolecules ............................................................................ 161 – 164
16. Polymers .................................................................................. 165 – 168
17. Chemistry in Everyday Life ...................................................... 169 – 170
18. Hydrogen .................................................................................. 171 – 176
19. s-Block Elements ..................................................................... 177 – 186
20. p-Block Elements (Gr-13 & 14) ................................................ 187 – 198
21. General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements ... 199 – 202
22. d & f - Block Elements ............................................................. 203 – 210
23. Coordination Compounds ........................................................ 211 – 218
Chapter 1
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
5. The number of molecules present in one drop

SECTION - A (0.05 ml) of benzene (density = 0.78 g/ml) is
Objective Type Questions nearly equal to (NA = 6 × 1023)
1. The molality of dilute aqueous solution of 0.05 M (1) 6 × 1023 (2) 3 × 1021
NaOH is (3) 3 × 1020 (4) 6 × 1019
(1) 0.05 m (2) 18.5 m 6. x1 g of an element gives x2 g of its oxide. The
(3) 55.55 m (4) 0.1 m equivalent mass of the element is
2. The number of moles in 2.0 kg of electrons is !! !" !! !"
(1) " (2) "
! "#$%& !$ !" !" !!
(1) "
'#! !$ !" !!
(3) ! " (4) ! "
(2) 6.023 × 1023 ! !" ! !"
(3) 1.00 7. A solid element burns completely in oxygen to give
gaseous oxide without any change in volume. If the
! vapour density of oxide is 32, the equivalent weight
(4) "#
"#$!% &$!"
'#& &$ of element would be
3. Acid + Base Salt + water (1) 8 (2) 16
If equal volume of acid of normality N1 and base of (3) 24 (4) 32
normality N 2 are mixed. The normality of the
resulting solution is found to be N. Find out the !
8. In order to prepare 500 ml of HCl, what volume
slope of the line in the given graph (N1 > N2) "#
! !
of HCl and HCl should be mixed
,-./&('01*."&/('"0
"# "#
!"#$%&'()*"+
respectively?
(1) 300 ml, 200 ml (2) 200 ml, 300 ml
(3) 250 ml, 250 ml (4) 150 ml, 350 ml
9. 0.90 gm of the acid (molecular weight 90 gm) is
!""#$#"!% neutralized by 40 mL of 0.5 N NaOH. What is the
basicity of the acid?
(1) 0.5 (2) 1.732
(1) 1 (2) 2
!
(3) 1 (4) (3) 3 (4) 4
"
4. A gas is found to have formula [CO]x and its vapour 10. If 1020
molecules are removed from 50 mg N2O,
density is 70. The value of x will be number of moles of N2O left is approximately
(1) 3 (2) 5 (1) 10–2 (2) 10–3
(3) 6 (4) 2.5 (3) 10–4 (4) 0.5
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456
2 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
11. If percentage of cobalt in a complex is 0.25% by 19. On heating 1.763 g of hydrated BaCl2 to dryness,
mass, minimum molecular mass of complex will be 1.505 g of anhydrous salt was remained. The
(molar mass of Co = 59) formula of the hydrate is [Atomic mass of Ba =
(1) 2.41 × 103 (2) 1.25 × 105 137, Cl = 35.5]
(1) BaCl2.H2O (2) BaCl2 .4H2O
(3) 2.36 × 104 (4) 1.20 × 104
(3) BaCl2.2H2O (4) BaCl2.3H2O
12. N2 + 3H2 2NH3, molecular weight of NH3
and N2 are X1 and X2, their equivalent weight are Y1 20. The number of -bonds produced by complete
and Y2, then (Y1 – Y2) is combustion of 7.8 g of benzene in air will be
(1) 6 (2) 14.45 × 1023
!"! ""
(1) (2) (X1 – X2) (3) 7.23 × 1023 (4) 6.023 × 1023
#
(3) (3X1 – X2) (4) (X1 – 3X2) 21. A sample of H2SO4 (density = 1.4 g/ml) is labelled
as 49% by weight. What volume of acid has to be
13. 224 ml of a triatomic gas weighs 1 g at 273 K and used to make 1.0 L of 0.2 M H2SO4 solution?
1 atm. The mass of one atom of this gas is
(1) 2000 ml (2) 28.57 ml
(1) 8.30 × 10–23 g (2) 2.08 × 10–23 g
(3) 13.6 L (4) 1.12 L
(3) 5.53 × 10–23 g (4) 6.24 × 10–23 g
22. Which of the following relationship is correct?
14. 1.7 g of ammonium salt was heated with excess
[A and B are solute and solvent and xA and xB is
of NaOH. The ammonia released in the process
the mole fraction of solute and solvent respectively]
!
neutralises 100 c.c. solution of H SO . What is (1) M = N × n factor
" 2 4
the percentage of ammonia in the salt? !! "###
(1) 20% (2) 35% (2) $
!" %"
(3) 1.7% (4) 40% (3) Molality is independent of the temperature
15. Which of the following statement is correct? (4) Both (2) & (3)
!"#$%"&%'()%'*!+,%(-%./0 23. 10 g H2 is allowed to react completely with 70 g O2.

(1) Equivalent of gas = The mass of water formed is
!"#$%"&%1%+2$%"&%'()%(-%./0
(1) 78.48 g (2) 90 g
(2) Volume of 1 equivalent of gas at STP
(3) 70.65 g (4) 85.73 g
##$% &
=
'()*+,-. 24. N2 + 3H2 2NH3
!-./*01,2 In the above reaction equivalent weight of NH3 and
(3) Molarity = H2 is
'()*+,-.
(4) All of these ! ! ! !
(1) " (2) "
16. Calculate the molarity of CaCl2 when it is dissolved # $ $ #
in 250 ml of the solution and gives 3.011 × 1023 ! ! ! !
chloride ions. (3) " (4) "
# # $ $
(1) 4 M (2) 2 M 25. Equivalent weight of orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4)
(3) 1.5 M (4) 1 M may be (M = molar mass of acid)
17. Calculate the mass of salt produced when 0.2 M, (1) M (2) M/2
100 ml of H2SO4 is mixed with 0.5 M, 100 ml of (3) M/3 (4) All of these
NaOH solution 26. x gram of metal carbonate on heating gives y gram
(1) 13.83 g (2) 2.84 g of metal oxide then which of the following relation
is correct?
(3) 1.02 g (4) 103 g
! " ! "
18. The basicity of H3PO4 in the following reaction (1) (2)
H3PO4 + NaOH Na2HPO4 + H2O is #! $% #! & #! $% #! &
(1) 1 (2) 2 ! " !! "# $

(3) (4)
(3) 3 (4) Zero #! #! $ % !! &
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 3
27. Commercially available concentrated hydrochloric 36. 12 ml of mixture containing carbon monoxide and
acid contains 40% HCl by mass having density nitrogen required 7 ml oxygen to form CO2 and
1.20 gm cm–3. The normality of this solution is NO on combustion, the volume of carbon monoxide
(1) 9.65 N (2) 13.15 N in the mixture will be
(3) 15.26 N (4) 18.10 N (1) 2 ml (2) 10 ml
28. A certain gaseous compound contains carbon and (3) 4 ml (4) 8 ml

oxygen only (mol. wt. = 72.) present in the ratio of 37. The mass of carbon present in 0.5 mole of
1 : 2 by mass. The formula of compound would be K4[Fe(CN)6] is
(1) CO2 (2) CO (1) 1.8 g (2) 18 g
(3) C2O3 (4) C3O4 (3) 3.6 g (4) 36 g
29. The average molar mass of a mixture of CO(g) and 38. A gaseous mixture contains CO 2 and SO 2 in
CO2(g) is 37. The mole percentage of CO(g) in the equimolecular proportion. The weight of 2.24 litres
mixture is approximately of this mixture at NTP is
(1) 37.30 (2) 43.75 (1) 2.2 g (2) 3.2 g
(3) 56.68 (4) 65.25 (3) 5.4 g (4) 10 g
30. Concentration of NaOH solution is 4.0 molal and its 39. If an iodized salt contains 10% of KI and a person
density is 1.11 g/ml. What is the molarity of the takes 20 g of the salt everyday, the iodide ions
solution? going into his body everyday would be
(1) 2.95 (2) 3.82 approximately [Atomic weight of K = 39 u and
I = 127 u]
(3) 4.11 (4) 3.05
(1) 7.2 × 1021 (2) 7.2 × 1019
31. What is the concentration of chloride ion in the
mixture of 500 ml, 1 M NaCl solution and 500 ml, (3) 9.5 × 1018 (4) 3.6 × 1020
1 M CaCl2 solution? 40. 1.5 g of a divalent metal displaced 4 g of copper
(1) 2.5 (2) 1.5 (atomic weight = 64) from a solution of CuSO4.
The atomic weight of the metal is
(3) 1.0 (4) 3.0
(1) 12 (2) 24
32. 2.45 g KClO3 is heated to give O2 which is allowed
to react completely with H 2 obtained from the (3) 48 (4) 6
reaction of zinc and sulphuric acid. The amount of 41. In a hydrocarbon, the mass ratio of carbon to
zinc required for the purpose is (Atomic weight of hydrogen (H) is 6 : 2. The empirical formula of the
Zn = 65,K = 39, Cl = 35.5) hydrocarbon is
(1) 3.90 g (2) 4.60 g (1) CH (2) CH2
(3) 2.65 g (4) 5.20 g (3) CH3 (4) CH4
33. The weight of 50% H2SO4 solution required to react 42. What volume of hydrogen gas at 273 K and 1 atm
completely with 50 g CaCO3 would be pressure will be consumed in obtaining 32.4 g of
(1) 49 g (2) 98 g elemental boron (atomic mass = 10.8) from the
reduction of boron trichloride by hydrogen?
(3) 24.5 g (4) 196 g
(1) 67.2 L
34. Which of the following solution is most
concentrated? (2) 44.8 L
(1) One molar aqueous solution of Na2CO3 (3) 100.8 L
(2) One molal aqueous solution of Na2CO3 (4) 22.4 L
(3) 1% (wt./vol.) aqueous solution of Na2CO3 43. 30 g of magnesium and 30 g of oxygen are
reacted, then the residual mixture contains
(4) All are equally concentrated
(1) 60 g of MgO only
35. The number of protons present in 90 ml of water is
(N0 = Avogadro number) (2) 40 g of MgO and 20 g of O2
(1) 0.5 N0 (2) 5 N0 (3) 45 g of MgO and 15 g of O2
(3) 50 N0 (4) 0.05 N0 (4) 50 g of MgO and 10 g of O2
44. x g of Ag was dissolved in HNO3 and the solution (1) I and II (2) II and III
was treated with excess of NaCl when 2.87 g of
(3) I and III (4) I, II and III
AgCl was precipitated. The value of x is
53. 2 g of a mixture of CO and CO2 on reaction with
(1) 1.08 g (2) 2.16 g
excess I2O5 produces 2.54 g of I2. What would be
(3) 2.70 g (4) 1.62 g the mass percentage of CO 2 in the original
45. If the percentage of water of crystallization in mixture?
MgSO4.xH2O is 13%. Then the value of x is (1) 70% (2) 30%
(1) 1 (2) 5
(3) 50% (4) 10%
(3) 4 (4) 8
54. Maximum number of oxygen atoms are present in
46. An aqueous solution of 0.63 g of oxalic acid
dihydrate (H2C2O4.2H2O) is made upto 250 ml. The (1) 24 gm O3 (2) 11 gm CO2
volume of 0.01 (N) NaOH solution required to (3) 32 gm SO2 (4) 8 gm O2
completely neutralise 1 ml of this soltuion is
#
(1) 40 ml (2) 4 ml 55. When 100 ml of H SO is mixed with 500 ml
!" 2 4
(3) 10 ml (4) 20 ml
#
47. 10 g of a piece of marble was put into excess of of NaOH then nature of resulting solution and
!"
dilute HCl acid. When the reaction was complete, normality of excess of reactant left is
1120 cm 3 of CO 2 was obtained at S.T.P. The
percentage of CaCO3 in the marble is " "
(1) Acidic, (2) Basic,
(1) 25% (2) 50% ! !
(3) 75% (4) 10% # #
(3) Basic, (4) Acidic,
48. The crystalline salt, Na2SO4.xH2O on heating loses !" !"
55.9% of its weight. The formula of the crystalline 56. ‘x’ gram of metal is deposited on passing ‘n’
salt is electrons through its aqueous solution. The
(1) Na2SO4.5H2O (2) Na2SO4.7H2O equivalent weight of the metal will be
(3) Na2SO4.10H2O (4) Na2SO4.H2O $
(1) " !! (2) x.n.NA
49. Two litres of NH3 at 273 K and 1 atm pressure #
neutralised 134 cm3 of a solution of sulphuric acid.
The normality of the acid is # "
(3) " !! (4) $ #
(1) 1.37 N (2) 0.67 N $ !!
57. A sample of H2SO 4 (density 1.787 g cm –3 ) is
(3) 0.93 N (4) 1.12 N
labelled as 86% by weight. What is the normality
50. 7.5 g of a gas occupy 5.6 litre of volume at S.T.P. of acid?
The gas is
(1) 20 (2) 13.6
(1) NO (2) N2O
(3) 31.36 (4) 15.68
(3) CO (4) CO2
58. Haemoglobin contains 0.25% iron by weight. The
51. A gaseous mixture contains oxygen and nitrogen
molecular weight of haemoglobin is 89000.
in the ratio of 1 : 16 by mass. The ratio of their
Calculate the number of iron atom per molecule of
respective number of molecules is
haemoglobin
(1) 1 : 8
(1) 3 atom (2) 4 atom
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 atom (4) 1 atom
(3) 7 : 128
(4) 7 : 64 59. A gaseous hydrocarbon (12 ml) is exploded with
excess of oxygen. On cooling, the contraction in
52. The correct statement for ‘limiting-reagent’ in a volume is 48 ml and there is further contraction of
chemical reaction is 48 ml in volume when passed through lime water.
I. It is consumed at last The molecular formula of hydrocarbon is
II. It is completely consumed (1) C3H6 (2) C3H8
III. It decides the yield of product (3) C4H10 (4) C4H8
60. The volume occupied by one molecule of water 68. The minimum quantity of H2S needed to precipitate
(density 1 g cm–3) is 63.5 g of Cu+2 will be nearly
(1) 18 cm3 (2) 22400 cm3 (1) 63.5 g (2) 31.7 g
(3) 6.023 10–23 cm3 (4) 3.0 10–23 cm3 (3) 34 g (4) 20 g
61. The molality of 15% (wt./vol.) solution of H2SO4 of 69. The equivalent mass of an element is 4. Its chloride
density 1.1 g/cm3 is approximately has vapour density 59.25. Then valency of the
element is
(1) 1.2 (2) 3.6
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 1.7 (4) 2.8
(3) 2 (4) 1
62. The equivalent weight of H3PO4 and Na2HPO4 in
the reaction are respectively 70. The vapour density of mixture containing NO2 and
N2O4 is 38.3 at 27°C. The moles of NO2 in 100 g
!"#$% %!&$" "##%&$" !%#$ of the mixture
(1) 0.563 (2) 0.437
(1) 49, 142 (2) 49, 71
(3) 0.20 (4) 0.665
(3) 98, 71 (4) 98, 142
71. The decomposition of a certain mass of CaCO3
63. The equivalent weight of metal M is x and the
gave 11.2 dm3 of CO2 gas at STP. The mass of
formula of its oxide is MnOm. The atomic mass of
KOH required to completely neutralize the gas is
metal is
(1) 56 g (2) 28 g
%$# %&#
(1) (2) (3) 42 g (4) 20 g
& $
72. The molar ratio of Fe+2to Fe+3 in a mixture of
%&$ !" FeSO4, and Fe2(SO4)3 having equal number of
(3) (4) sulphate ions in both ferrous and ferric sulphate is
# #
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2
64. Number of atoms of iron present in 100 g Fe2O3
having 20% purity is (3) 2 : 3 (4) 4 : 3
(1) 0.10 NA (2) 0.25 NA 73. 3 g of an oxide of a metal is converted to chloride
completely and it yields 5 g chloride. The
(3) 0.50 NA (4) 0.80 NA equivalent weight of metal is
$ (1) 20.86 (2) 12.75
65. 100 ml each of 0.5 N NaOH, HCl and
% (3) 35.10 (4) 33.25
! 74. Three isotopes of each carbon and oxygen is taken
3! 45" are mixed together. The normality of then types of CO2 molecules which can be formed
67
is
OH– ion in resulting solution will be
(1) 6 (2) 9
(1) 0.066 N (2) 0.25 N
(3) 12 (4) 18
(3) 0.15 N (4) 0.95 N
75. The ratio of volume of O2 required for complete
66. The normality of 0.3 M phosphorus acid (H3PO3),
combustion of a gaseous alkane to CO2 formed is
phosphoric acid (H3PO4) and boric acid (H3BO3)
found to be 13 : 8 then molecular formula of
are respectively
alkane is
(1) 0.9, 0.9, 0.9 (2) 0.6, 0.9, 0.9
(1) C5H12 (2) C3H8
(3) 0.6, 0.9, 0.3 (4) 0.9, 0.9, 0.1 (3) C2H6 (4) C4H10
67. A metal M forms a compound M 2 HPO 4 . The 76. 20 volume of H2O2 means
formula of metal sulphate is
(1) 20 ml of O2 is produced by 1 ml solution of
(1) M2SO4 H2O2 at STP
(2) MSO4 (2) Normality of H2O2 is 3.57 N.
(3) M(SO4)2 (3) Molarity of H2O2 is 1.79 M
(4) M2(SO4)3 (4) All of these
77. The mole fraction of NaOH in the aqueous solution (1) 16, 32 (2) 32, 16
is 0.001. The molarity of NaOH solution will be
(3) 16, 16 (4) 32, 32
(For dilute solution molality and molarity are
approx. same) 86. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(1) 0.056 M (2) 55.55 M (1) At 4°C, the weight of 1 dm3 of water is 1000 g
(3) 0.001 M (4) Data is insufficient (2) If specific gravity of a substance is x, then its
absolute density is 1000 x kg m–3
78. n-factor of CO2 formed when calcium carbonate is
heated is (3) Vapor density of a gas is dimensionless
quantity
(1) Zero (2) 1
(4) 1 mole ion of N3– contains 10 NA electrons
(3) 2 (4) 3
87. Equal volume of three flasks contains He, H2 and
79. If a graph is drawn between log10M (y-axis) and
O3 respectively. Find the incorrect statement.
log10V (x-axis) for NaOH solution then intercept is
found to be 0.5. The number of moles of NaOH (1) Number of moles of all the three gases will be
taken in the solution is [M is molarity and V is same
volume (in L) of solution] (2) Number of molecules in three flask will be
(1) 3.16 (2) 0.12 same
(3) 10.5 (4) 0.5 (3) Number of atoms in three flask will be same
80. In a given sample, oleum is labelled as 104.5%. (4) Weight of all the three flask will be different
The percentage of free SO3 in it is
88. 200 mL of 1 M H2SO4, 100 ml of 1 M HNO3 and
(1) 4.5% (2) 10% 100 mL of 3 N H3PO4 are mixed together, then
number of H+ ions present in the solution will be
(3) 20% (4) 40%
(assume 100% ionisation of acids)
81. Weight of Na2CO3 of 80% purity would be required
(1) 0.50 NA (2) 0.7 NA
to neutralize 500 ml of 0.1 N HCl is
(3) 0.43 NA (4) 0.8 NA
(1) 3.3 g (2) 0.8 g
89. The volume occupied by 4 g equivalents of oxygen
(3) 5.3 g (4) 80 g
molecule under STP will be
82. The density of Neon is highest at !!"#
(1) 5.6 litres (2) litres
(1) STP (2) 0°C, 2 atm $
(3) 273 K, 1 atm (4) 273°C, 2 atm (3) 11.2 litres (4) 22.4 litres
83. Equal weight of Fe2O3 and Fe 3O4 has oxygen 90. Calculate the number of molecules of product
atoms in the ratio formed when 100 atoms of A and 100 atoms of B
are allowed to react
68% '()
(1) (2) !!"# "$!"# !"$!"#
697 '*+
! ! (1) 100 (2) 50
(3) (4)
" " (3) 40 (4) 66
!! " 91. 1 g atom of atomic oxygen, 2 g molecule of
84. # ""#$ $ litres of a mixture of O and O weighs dioxygen and 3 g mole of O3 are mixed in a
% % & 2 3
container, then total number of oxygen atoms
64 grams at S.T.P. Then volume of O2 will be
present will be
! (1) 14 NA (2) 6 NA
(1) 22.4 L (2) !!&' L
( (3) 14 (4) 13 NA
,
(3) %%"* L (4) 11.2 L 92. A hydrocarbon consists of carbon and hydrogen in
% the weight ratio of 12 : 1. What is molecular formula
85. Two elements A and B form the compound AB2 and of the compound if its vapour density is 39?
AB3. If 0.5 mole of AB2 weighs 32 g and 2 moles
of AB3 weighs 160 g. Then the atomic weights of (1) C3H3 (2) C2H2
A and B will be respectively (3) C6H6 (4) C4H4
93. 3.01 × 1023 molecules are removed from 196 g of 103. A mixture of Na 2 CO3 and K 2CO 3 weigh 1.2 g
H2SO4, then total number of atoms left are dissolved in 100 cm3 water. 10 cm3 of this solution
consumes 20 cm 3 of 0.1 N HCl for complete
(1) 6.32 × 1024 (2) 1.08 × 1017
neutralisation. What is the composition of mixture?
(3) 2.16 × 1024 (4) 2.16 × 1017
(1) 0.596 g Na2CO3 and 0.604 g K2CO3
94. The basicity of H3PO3 acid is
(2) 0.4 g Na2CO3 and 0.8 g K2CO3
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 0.6 g Na2CO3 and 0.6 g K2CO3
(3) 3 (4) Zero
(4) 0.8 g Na2CO3 and 0.4 g K2CO3
95. The molarity of one ml of pure water is
104. What is the equivalent weight of P4 in the reaction
(1) 0.555 (2) 5.55 given below?
! "#!
(3) 55.5 (4) 555 P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O PH3 + 3NaH2PO2
96. How many electrons are present in 3.2 g sulphide !" !
ion? (1) (2)
# "
(1) 10.8 × 1023 (2) 20.8 × 1023
! !
(3) 18 × 1023 (4) 20 × 18 (3) (4)
" "#
97. 6.3 g of oxalic acid dihydrate is dissolved in water 105. Calcium carbonate reacts with aqueous HCl to give
and volume made up to 250 ml. The volume of CaCl2 and CO2 according to the reaction
0.2 N KOH required to completely neutralise 10 ml CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) +
of acid solution is H2O(!).
(1) 10 ml (2) 20 ml If 1 g of impure CaCO3 reacts completely with 25
(3) 40 ml (4) 50 ml mL of 0.50 M HCl solution, then percentage purity
of CaCO3 is
98. Number of hydrogen atoms in the three moles of
ethane is (1) 50% (2) 62.5%
(1) 6 × 1023 (2) 36 × 1023 (3) 37.5% (4) 27.5%
(3) 10.8 × 1024 (4) 18 × 1023 106. What will be the concentration of chloride ion if 300
ml each of decimolar solution of AgCl and CaCl2 is
99. A human adult breaths in approximately 0.50 dm3
mixed and volume is made 1 litre?
of air at 1.00 bar with each breath. If an air tank
holds 100 dm3 of air at 200 bar, how many breaths (1) 0.03
the tank will supply approximately? (2) 0.06
(1) 20,000 (2) 10,000 (3) 0.09
(3) 40,000 (4) 80,000 (4) 0.1
100. A solution has been prepared by dissolving 0.063 107. If x g of metal carbonate on heating gives y g of
g of HNO3 in 1000 mL of it. Hence [OH– ] in the metal oxide. Then the ratio of weight x/y can be
solution represented as
(1) 10–11 M (2) 10–3 M
# $ % # $ !'
(3) 10–2 M (4) 10–10 M (1)
& $ '(
(2)
& $ '(
101. 25 mL of 3 M HCl is added to 75 mL of 0.05 M
HCl. The molarity of HCl in the resulting mixture is # $ '( # $ "(
approximately (3) (4)
& $ % & $ %
(1) 0.055 M (2) 0.35 M
108. Which of the following has maximum numbers of
(3) 0.788 M (4) 3.05 M equivalents present at STP?
102. Number of protons in 1.8 ml of H2O (!) (1) 1 mole of O2
!# (2) 1 mole of H2
(1) 7$6 (2) 0.1 × NA
67 (3) 1 mole of Cl2
(3) 0.01 × NA × 8 (4) NA (4) All have same equivalents
109. Which has maximum mass? 117. How many moles of sodium sulphate will be
formed, when 300 ml of 0.3 M NaCl is mixed with
!"#
(1) One gram of uranium !"$! # 200 ml of 0.4N H2SO4?
(2) Two gram atom of calcium (1) 0.045 (2) 0.040
(3) Two gram mole of limestone (3) 0.09 (4) 0.08
(4) 2 M of 2 L phosphoric acid 118. Normality of H3PO4 if 10% weight/weight of the
110. What will be the resulting normality of NaCl solution is given having density 1.5 g/cc is
solution formed on mixing 200 ml of decimolar
(1) 4.59 (2) 2.65
NaOH with 40 ml of semimolar HCl?
(3) 3.20 (4) 1.25
(1) 0.25 N (2) 0.083 N
(3) 0.39 N (4) 0.5 N 119. A given number of atoms of calcium weigh 120 g,
then what will be the mass of same number of
111. Calculate the weight of KMnO4 which will react with atoms for sulphur? (If sulphur is monoatomic)
$
500 ml of % solution of ferrous oxalate in acidic (1) 120 g (2) 60 g
&
medium (Mol. wt. of KMnO4 = 158) (3) 96 g (4) 48 g
(1) 15.8 g (2) 158 g 120. Percentage by mass of water of crystallization in
(3) 25.0 g (4) 13.1 g washing soda is (approx.)
112. 2 mole of ammonium ion has (1) 32% (2) 63%
(1) NA × 8 atoms (2) NA × 20 electrons (3) 37% (4) 50%
(3) NA × 20 protons (4) NA × 18 neutrons
121. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
113. In the reaction !! "#! $!#" , if the molar
(1) According to Dulong Petit’s law, atomic mass
mass of N2 is M1, H2 is M2 and NH3 is M3, then
which of the following is true? !"#
= (approx.)
(1) Sum of equivalent weight of N 2 & H 2 is $%&'()(' *&+,
!! "!" (2) Avogadro's law states that equal volume of all
# gases contain equal number of molecules at
(2) Equivalent weight of ammonia is half of the same temperature and pressure
molecular weight
(3) NaNO3 and KNO3 are isomorphs
-"
(3) Equivalent weight of ammonia is "
, (4) 1 amu means of mass of an atom of C-12
(4) Both (1) & (3) "#
114. How many atoms will be left, if from 196 g of 122. 50 g CaCO3 is allowed to react with 50% H2SO4
H2SO4, 0.5 moles of H2SO4 are removed from it? solution by weight. What is the weight of H2SO4
(1) NA × 6 atoms (2) NA × 3.5 atoms (pure) required for the purpose?
(3) NA × 10.5 atoms (4) NA × 7 atoms (1) 98 g (2) 49 g

115. 3 M Na2CO3 is provided having density 1.5 g/cc, (3) 196 g (4) 147 g
then the molality of the same solution will be
123. The order which represents correctly the increasing
(1) 3.15 (2) 3.00 number of atoms present is
(3) 3.95 (4) 2.54 (1) 4 g CO2 < 4 L H2 at STP < 4 amu of He <
116. In the reaction, !!"#" $%#! $%!#"#" !# # 4 mole NH3
equivalent weight of H3PO4 is (M = Mol. wt. of (2) 4 amu He < 4 mole NH3 < 4 g CO2 < 4 L H2
H3PO4) at STP
! (3) 4 amu He < 4 L H2 at STP < 4 g CO2 < 4
(1) M (2) mole NH3
#
! ! (4) 4 amu He < 1 g CO2 < 4 L H2 at STP < 4
(3) (4) mole NH3
" $
124. Which is mismatched? 132. Which of the following pair has equal mass?
(1) Volume of 1 eq. O2 = 5.6 litre at STP (1) 1 mol CaO, 1 mol KOH
(2) Number of oxygen atom is 18 g glucose (2) 1 mol ethanoic acid, 1 mol urea
= 6 × 6.02 × 1023
!
(3) 18 g water = 18 ml of water (3) 1 mol urea, mol glucose
"
(4) 1 g mole of limestone = 100 g (4) All pair have equal mass
125. If the formula of metal nitrate is represented by 133. Which of the following solution has highest
M(NO3)2, then which of the following formula is not molarity?
correct? (1) 1 molal aqueous NaCl
(1) Metal sulphate – MSO4 (2) 1 N aqueous H2SO4
(2) Metal phosphate – M3(PO4)2 (3) 1 N aqueous Na2CO3
(3) Metal nitride – M3N (4) Both (1) & (2) have same molarity
(4) Metal oxide – MO 134. n-factor of Ba(MnO4)2 in acidic medium
126. Correct relation between molality (m) and molarity (M) (1) 10 (2) 7
is (3) 5 (4) 3
- '))) 135. Normality of 10 volume H2O2 is
(1) & .'))) / - &01" 23"40546017389 (1) 1.78 (2) 3.2
! "### (3) 0.8 (4) 2.8
(2) $
%"### & ! $'() *+),'-,.'(/+01 136. Which of the following is correct one?
! "### (1) 1 mol O2 = 22.4 L at all pressure
(3) $
%"##& !' !
(2) 4 g NaOH reacts completely with 100 mL
) $#
(4) * HCl
+!(((, )-
(3) 1 molal aq. solution is less diluted than 1 M
127. Molecular weight which is not possible for a
aq. solution
polymer having 4% sulphur in it
(4) Equivalent mass of oxygen = 8
(1) 1600 (2) 2400
137. The mass of KOH which reacts completely with
(3) 800 (4) 400 100 ml of 1 M H2SO4 is
128. A 1.27 g of gas occupies a volume of 1.13 L at (1) 11.2 g (2) 5.6 g
25°C and 746 mm Hg. The gas may be
(3) 8.75 g (4) 10.50 g
(1) CO (2) CO2
138. Which of the following is correct?
(3) CH4 (4) N2O
(1) Law of mass conservation is invalid for nuclear
129. Assuming air, a mixture of 80% N2 and 20% O2, reactions
by weight. Calculate density of air at STP
(2) Number of electrons present in 1 mole CH4 is
(1) 4.2 g L–1 (2) 2.24 g L–1 6 × 1024
(3) 1.286 g L–1 (4) 4.8 g L–1 (3) Law of constant proportion cannot be used for
H2O and D2O
130. The number of moles of H3O+ in 200 ml of 0.005
M H2SO4 is (4) All of these
(1) 0.005 (2) 0.01 139. 2.45 g KClO3 heated to give O2 which is allowed
to react completely with H2 to form H2O and this
(3) 0.002 (4) 0.001 H2 comes from reaction of Zn and H2SO 4. The
131. 2.75 g metallic oxide contains 1.53 g metal, what weight of Zn required for the purpose is (Molecular
is empirical formula? (Atomic mass of metal = 51) weight of KClO3 = 122.5, At. wt. of Zn = 65)
(1) M2O3 (2) MO (1) 39 g (2) 3.9 g
(3) M2O5 (4) M3O7 (3) 0.39 g (4) 0.039 g
140. Increasing order of number of valence e– in the 147. Molality of NaOH solution if mole fraction of water
following is shown, correctly by is 0.8
(1) 1 L of H2S at STP < 1 gm atom of Ne = 1 gm '))) ')))
(1) (2)
mole CO = 1 gm molecule !! ': +%
'))) ')))
(2) 1 gm atom of Ne < 1 gm molecule !! < 1 (3) (4)
,( ;*
gm mole CO < 1 L of H2S at STP
148. 3BaCl2 + 2Na3PO4 Ba3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl
(3) 1 L of H2S at STP < 1 gm atom of Ne < 1 gm
Maximum amount of Ba 3 (PO 4 ) 2 formed when
molecule !! < 1 gm mole of CO 2 moles each of Na3PO4 and BaCl2 are allowed to
react is
(4) 1 L of H2S at STP = 1 gm atom of Ne < 1 gm
(1) 4 mol (2) 1 mol
molecule !! < 1 gm mole CO
# !
(3) mol (4) mol
141. How many molecules of SO2 are produced when ! "
38 g of carbon disulphide is burnt with 67.2 L of O2 149. The equivalent weight of a metal is 9 and vapour
at STP? density of its chloride is 66.75. The atomic weight
of metal is
(1) NA (2) NA × 2
(1) 23.9 (2) 27
(3) NA × 3 (4) NA × 6 (3) 36.3 (4) 48.3
142. Number of molecules left unreacted (acid or base) 150. Total number of protons in 10 g of CaCO 3 is
on mixing 100 ml of 0.1 M H2SO4 with 100 ml 0.2 (N0 = 6.023 × 1023)
M NaOH (1) 3.01 × 1024 (2) 6.02 × 1024
(1) Approx. 6.02 × 1022 molecules (3) 2.01 × 1025 (4) 3.02 × 1025
151. An unknown element forms an oxide. What will be
(2) Approx. 1.2 × 1024 molecules the equivalent weight of the element if the oxygen
(3) Zero molecules content is 20% by weight?
(1) 16 (2) 32
(4) Approx. 3.1 × 1023 molecules
(3) 8 (4) 64
143. Loschmidt number can be calculated from
152. How many gram of KCl would have to be dissolved
!" in 60 g of H2O to give 20% by weight of solution?
(1) (2) !" %%*))
%%*)) (1) 15 g (2) 1.5 g
(3) 11.5 g (4) 31.5 g
!!
(3) (4) !" %%"* 153. It takes 1.92 × 10 –3 equivalents of KOH to
""#$ neutralise 0.094 g of H2XO4. The atomic mass of
144. How many millimole of H 2 SO 4 are needed to X will be (assuming H2XO4 as dibasic)
dissolve 0.5 gram-molecule of calcium carbonate? (1) 8 (2) 14
(1) 500 (2) 50 (3) 18 (4) 32
154. The charge on 1 gram ion of Al+3 is
(3) 5 (4) 0.5
! !
145. How many moles of electron weigh 1 kg? (1) N e (coulomb) (2) N e (coulomb)
"# A " A
(1) 96500 (2) 6.02 × 1023 NA $
(3) N e (coulomb) (4) 3 × NAe (coulomb)
! !! % A
(3) (4) 155. When 1 L of CO2 is heated with graphite, the
"#! !$ %# !"
"#$ $% "# volume of the gases collected is 1.5 L at STP. The
146. What volume of HCl gas is enough to completely number of moles of CO produced is
! ' "%
neutralize 2 L of NaOH? (1) (2)
% ''"% ""#$
(1) 2240 cc (2) 22400 cc & &$
(3) (4)
(3) 1120 cc (4) 11200 cc ""#$ ""#$
156. Total number of AlF3 molecules in a sample of AlF3 165. 10 g C reacts with 100 g of Cl2 to form CCl4. How
containing 3.01 × 1023 ion of F– is much CCl4 will be formed?
(1) 9 × 1024 (2) 3 × 1024 (1) 108.45 g (2) 110 g
(3) 7.5 × 1023 (4) 1023 (3) 128.33 g (4) 135 g
157. 20 ml of 0.1 M H 3 BO 3 solution on complete 166. The ratio of the masses of sulphuric acid and
neutralisation requires x ml of 0.05 M NaOH orthophosphoric acid needed to neutralise the
solution. The value of x will be same amount of an alkali if the hydrogen sulphate
(1) 20 ml (2) 40 ml and hydrogen orthophosphate were formed is
(3) 120 ml (4) 80 ml (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1
158. What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has a (3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 1
density 1.84 g/cm3 at 35°C and contains 98% 167. 200 ml of PH3 on heating forms P4 and H2, volume
H2SO4 by weight? change at STP in the reaction is
(1) 4.18 M (2) 8.14 M (1) An increase of 100 ml
(3) 18.4 M (4) 18 M (2) An increase of 150 ml
159. The density of a liquid is 1.2 g/mL. There are 35 (3) A decrease of 50 ml
drops in 2 mL. The number of molecules in one
drop are (molar mass of liquid = 70) (4) A decrease of 40 ml
! 168. What volume of hydrogen will be liberated at NTP
! !./ " ! !" by the reaction of excess Zn and 49 g H2SO4?
(1) # 0 (2) # $ ""
% "1 $& ! % #$ &
(1) 3.5 L (2) 8.25 L
6$#:!#
(3) (4) 1.2 NA (3) 6.74 L (4) 11.2 L
;" ;"
169. Density of a gas is found to be 5.46 g/dm3 at 27°C
160. Sum of basicity of H3PO4, H3PO3 H3PO2 and HPO3
at 2 bar pressure. Its density at STP would be
is equal to
(1) 2.48 g/dm3 (2) 3 g/dm3
(1) 7 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 8 (3) 6.9 g/dm3 (4) 10.2 g/dm3
161. 100 ml of A (d = 0.9 g/ml) and 100 ml of B 170. A metal oxide has the formula X2O3. It can be
(d = 1.0 g/ml) are mixed. Mass percentage of ‘A’ reduced by hydrogen to give free metal and water.
in the resulting mixture 0.2 g of metal oxide requires 5 mg of hydrogen for
complete reduction. The atomic mass of metal in
(1) 60 (2) 50 ‘amu’ is
(3) 47.36 (4) 90 (1) 96 (2) 155
162. Which of the following has maximum number of (3) 55 (4) 80
atoms?
171. In a reaction, 4A + 2B + 3C A4B2C3. What
(1) 11.2 L O3 at NTP (2) 11.2 g CO2 will be the number of moles of product formed,
(3) 1.12 L H2 (4) 1.12 g H2 starting from 1 mole of A, 0.4 mole of B and 0.9
mole of C?
163. The maximum amount of NiS precipitated on mixing
1 L of NiSO4 (0.5 M) with 1 L of H2S (1 M) will (1) 0.25 (2) 0.20
correspond to (3) 0.30 (4) 2.32
(1) 0.5 mol (2) 1 mol 172. 5 L N2 and 5 L H2 allowed to react. The substance
(3) 0.25 mol (4) 0.75 mol and its number of moles remains unreacted is
164. A metal oxide (M2O3) contain 40% oxygen. The (1) N2, 0.149 mol (2) H2, 0.149 mol
equivalent weight of M will be (3) H2, 0.074 mol (4) N2, 0.669 mol
(1) 36 173. 40% (w/V) of NaCl solution (density = 1.14 g/ml)
(2) 18 is equivalent to
(3) 12 (1) 0.35 × 105 ppm (2) 4 × 106 ppm
(4) 6 (3) 3.5 × 106 ppm (4) 0.35 × 106 ppm
174. Number of electrons present in 7.2 mg of NH4+ is 182. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(M = molar mass)
(1) 2.4 × 1020 (2) 2.4 × 1021
Substance Equivalent mass
(3) 2 × 1018 (4) 4 × 1020
(1) CaCO3 M/2
175. Haemoglobin contains 0.5% iron by weight. The
molecular weight of haemoglobin is 44800, then the (2) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O M/3
number of iron atom per molecule of haemoglobin (3) NH3 M/3
is
(4) H3BO3 M
(1) 6 (2) 4
183. 6.3 g hydrated oxalic acid is dissolved in 200 ml
(3) 8 (4) 12 of water to prepare a solution. 100 ml of this
176. At STP conditions, 5 L of a gas weighs 9 g. solution can be neutralized completely by
Vapour density of gas is (Mol. mass of oxalic acid = 126)
(1) 40.32 (2) 20.16 (1) 50 ml of 2 N KOH

(2) 100 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
(3) 9 (4) 18
(3) 200 ml of 0.4 N KOH
177. The equivalent mass of an element is 4. Its chloride
has a vapour density 59.5, then the valency of the (4) 100 ml of 0.1 M H2SO4
element is 184. Oxygen exists in three isotopic forms O16(82%),
(1) 3 (2) 4 O17(10%) and O18(8%). Average atomic mass of
oxygen is
(3) 2 (4) 1
(1) 16.34 (2) 16.80
178. When a metal is burnt, its mass increases by
25%, then the equivalent mass of the metal will be (3) 16.92 (4) 16.26
(1) 8 (2) 32 185. The normality of 0.4 M phosphorus acid (H3PO3) is

(1) 0.8 N (2) 0.4 N
(3) 28 (4) 25
(3) 0.1 N (4) 1.2 N
179. In the reaction,
186. Molar concentration of a solution in water is
<1=" (> (8 <1 ,># =? equivalent
mass of ClO3– is (1) Equal to molality of the solution
(M = formula weight of ClO3–) (2) More than molality of the solution
! ! (3) Less than molality of the solution

(1) (2) (4) Always equal to normality of the solution
" #
! ! 187. 200 ml of PH 3 when decomposed produces
(3) (4) phosphorus and hydrogen. The change in volume
$ $
is
180. The percentage of carbon in CO and CO2 are 42%
and 27% respectively. These figures illustrate (1) 100 ml increase
(1) Law of constant proportion (2) 50 ml decrease

(3) 50 ml increase
(2) Law of conservation of mass
(4) 75 ml decrease
(3) Law of reciprocal proportion
188. 3 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated
(4) Law of multiple proportion yields a residue weighing
181. Equal volume of 0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.2 M NaCl are (1) 1.35 g (2) 2.35 g
mixed. The concentration of NO3– ions in the
mixture will be (3) 4.50 g (4) 3.25 g
(1) 0.05 M 189. On dissolving 1 mol each of the following acids in

1 litre water the acid which gives a solution of 1 N
(2) 0.1 M strength is
(3) 0.2 M (1) H4P2O7 (2) H3PO4
(4) 0.15 M (3) H3BO3 (4) H3PO3
190. 10 ml hydrocarbon requires 55 ml oxygen for 198. One litre hard water contains 2 mg MgCl2 and
complete combustion and forms 40 ml CO2. Then 3 mg CaCl2. Calculate the total hardness in terms
the formula of hydrocarbon is of parts of CaCO3 per 106 parts of water by mass.
(1) C4H8 (2) C3H8 (1) 4.8 ppm (2) 1.95 ppm
(3) C4H6 (4) C3H4 (3) 2.75 ppm (4) 3.50 ppm
191. Which one of the following contains maximum 199. Volume of 1 equivalent of any gas at STP is given
number of atoms? by
(1) 100 cc of He at NTP !!"#$%&'()
(2) 100 cc of N2 at NTP (1) 22.4 litre × n-factor (2)
*+,-.'/(
(3) 100 cc of SO2 at NTP (3) 22.4 litre – n-factor (4) 22.4 litre + n-factor
(4) 100 cc of NH3 at NTP
!"# !!+," 45,! $/012
192. Which of the following has highest mass? $%&%' 3 6178#9/:;
$%&%-.) 3 $%&%'.)
200. (%&%)%* (%&%'%* (%&%'%* 7<#89/<:
(1) 0.1 g atom of Fe
(2) 2 g mole of H2 What is the normality of hydrogen ion in resulting
solution?
(3) 11.2 litre of He at STP
(4) 0.2 g mole of NH3 !" $
(1) # (2) #
$ !"
193. 0.9 g Al reacts with dil HCl to give H2. The volume
of H2 gas evolved at 273°C and 1 atm pressure will !! !
be (3) " (4) "
# ##
(1) 1.12 litre (2) 2.24 litre
201. Which of the following is temperature dependent?
(3) 5.6 litre (4) 0.112 litre
(1) Molarity (2) Molality
194. 24.5 g KClO3 heated to give O2, which is allowed
to react completely with H2 to form H2O. This H2 (3) Mole fraction (4) All of these
comes from Zn and H2SO4 reaction. The amount of 202. The number of electrons present in 72 ml of water
Zn required for the purpose is (At. wt. of Zn = 65) is
(1) 0.39 g (2) 3.9 g (1) 2.4 × 1023 (2) 1.2 × 1024
(3) 39 g (4) 390 g (3) 5.6 × 1023 (4) 2.4 × 1025
195. What volume of 1 M H2SO4 is required to react 203. At NTP, 5.6 L of a gas has mass 8 g. The vapour
completely with 100 ml of 2 M NaOH? density of the gas is
(1) 200 ml (2) 150 ml (1) 32 (2) 40
(3) 175 ml (4) 100 ml (3) 16 (4) 8
196. Equivalent weight of Al2(SO4)3 is (M = Molecular 204. The mass of (COOH)2·2H2O needed to prepare
weight) 500 ml of 0.1 M solution is
! ! (1) 12.6 g (2) 6.3 g
(1) (2)
# " (3) 4.5 g (4) 9.0 g
! ! 205. An oxide of sulphur contains 50% S. What will be
(3) (4)
" % its empirical formula?
197. 50 g limestone react with 50% H2SO4 solution (1) SO2 (2) SO3
completely. What is the weight of H2SO4 required
for the purpose? (3) SO (4) S2O3
(1) 49 g 206. 50 ml of an aqueous solution of glucose contain

6.02 × 10 22 molecules, the concentration of
(2) 24.5 g solution is
(3) 98 g (1) 0.1 M (2) 1 M
(4) 100 g (3) 0.2 M (4) 2 M
207. 25 ml of 3 M HNO3 is mixed with 75 ml of 4 M

SECTION - B
HNO3. The molarity of the final mixture would be
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(1) 3.25 M (2) 4 M
In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(3) 3.75 M (4) 3.5 M (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
208. Number of H-atom in 1.7 g of NH 3 is (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(NA = Avogadro number) reason is the correct explanation of the
(1) NA (2) 0.1 × NA assertion, then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(3) 0.3 × NA (4) 3 × NA
reason is not the correct explanation of the
209. Volume of ammonia produced at STP if 2L each of assertion, then mark (2).
N2 and H2 are allowed to react (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(1) 0.5 L (2) 1.0 L false, then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) 1.33 L (4) 2 L
statements, then mark (4).
210. Boron has two isotopes 5 B10 and 5 B 11. If the
1. A : When acid reacts with base then milli
atomic mass of Boron is 10.80, the percentage of equivalents of acid reacted is equal to milli
10 in nature is
5B equivalent of salt produced.
(1) 15 (2) 20 R : Number of moles of acid reacted is equal to no.
(3) 80 (4) 85 of moles of base.
2. A : Moist air is heavier than dry air.
211. 200 ml of 0.5 M H2SO4 is added to 800 ml of
0.1 M HNO3 acid. Final molarity of mixture R : The molecular mass of H2O is more than that
of air.
(1) 18 × 10–2
3. A : In Haber’s process starting with 5 moles of N2
(2) 14 × 10–2 and 5 g of H 2 on complete reaction only
(3) 2.8 × 10–3 1.66 mole of NH3 produced.
R : H2 acts as limiting reagent in this reaction.
(4) 3.6 × 10–2
4. A : The basicity of ‘boric acid’ is one in aqueous
212. An element X exist in two isotopic form X25 and X28 solution.
if their percentage abundance is 40% and 60%
respectively, the average atomic mass of X is R : It accept one OH– to form ! "# ! .
(1) 25.2 5. A : 1 M aqueous H2SO4 is more concentrated than
1N aqueous H2SO4.
(2) 26
R : Molarity involves mole of solute and normality
(3) 27.3 involves equivalent of solute and 1 mole of
(4) 26.8 H2SO4 is equal to 2 equivalent.
213. Consider the following chemical reaction 6. A : A compound contains fixed ratio by mass
according to law of constant composition.
Fe3O4 + CO Fe + CO2
R : It is applicable for isotopes also.
What mass of Fe3O4 is required to obtain 2 kg of
7. A : Number of atoms in 16 g O2 and 16 g O3 is
Fe if the process is 90% efficient?
same.
(1) 3.97 kg
R : O2 and O3 have atomicity 2 and 3 respectively.
(2) 3.07 kg
8. A : 1 g O 2 and 1 g O 3 have equal number of
(3) 2.96 kg oxygen atoms.
(4) 1.45 kg R : O2 and O3 have different molar mass.
!" !" !
Chapter 2
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in
Properties
(1) Na < Mg < Al < Si (2) Mg < Na < Al < Si

SECTION - A
(3) Mg < Al < Na < Si (4) Mg < Si < Al < Na
Objective Type Questions
8. The correct order of ionisation potential of Na, P, Cl
1. If a graph is plotted between versus atomic is
number (Z), then ( is the frequency of X-rays
(1) Na > P > Cl (2) P > Cl > Na
emitted)
(3) Cl > P > Na (4) Cl > Na > P
(1) Straight line is obtained
9. The correct order of second ionisation energy for
(2) Parabola is obtained
the elements C, N, O and F would be
(3) Hyperbola is obtained
(1) O > F > N > C (2) O > N > F > C
(4) Curve is obtained
(3) C > N > O > F (4) F > O > N > C
2. Which of the following will have highest negative 10. Select the correct statement
electron gain enthalpy?
(1) All isoelectronic ions belong to same period of
(1) Oxygen (2) Sulphur the periodic table
(3) Selenium (4) Tellurium (2) Negative electron gain enthalpy decreases from
3. Which of the following ions have pseudo inert gas fluorine to iodine in the group
electronic configuration? (3) The first ionisation potential of Al is less than
(1) Cu+ (2) Fe2+ the first ionisation potential of Mg
(3) O2– (4) Cu2+ (4) All of these
4. Beryllium is diagonally related to 11. Which is correct?
(1) Li (2) Al (1) Ti < Zr < Hf (Radii)
(3) B (4) Si (2) Cu1+ > Cu2+ (Stability in aqueous solution)
5. Element having the smallest size in second period (3) S > Se > Te > Po > O (Electron affinity)
is (4) All of these
(1) Ne (2) F 12. Element with atomic number 102 is placed in
(3) O (4) N (1) s-block (2) p-block
6. Element Uup is placed in group and (3) d-block (4) f-block
block of periodic table. 13. The electron affinity values (in kJ/mol) of three
(1) 4th, d (2) 3rd, f halogens X, Y and Z are respectively –349, –333
and –325. Then, X, Y and Z are respectively
(3) 15th, p (4) 12th, d
(1) F, Cl and Br (2) Cl, F and Br
7. The correct increasing order of second ionisation
energy is (3) Cl, Br and F (4) Br, Cl and F
16 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
14. Select the incorrect statement 23. The element of atomic number 118 will be placed
(1) Bond energy of F2 > Cl2 in which of the following group of long form of
periodic table?
(2) Electronegativity of F > Cl
(1) 15 (2) 16
(3) F is more oxidising than Cl
(3) 18 (4) 17
(4) Electron affinity of Cl > F
15. If the electronic configuration of an element is [Ar] 24. !"! #"" "# $ "%
$ $$ $$$ $%
3d104s24p6 . The element belongs to
The correct increasing order of acidic nature is
(1) s-block (2) p-block
(1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV < III < II < I
(3) d-block (4) f-block
(3) III < I < II < IV (4) I < III < II < IV
16. In compound M–OH, the acidic nature increases
25. The highest third ionisation energy among the
when
following is
(1) I.E. of M is low
(1) Boron (2) Beryllium
(2) I.E. of M is very low
(3) Carbon (4) Nitrogen
(3) I.E. of M is high
26. There are 28 neutrons in the nucleus of the
(4) Acidic nature does not depend on I.E. of M element zM52. It belongs to
17. Which of the following is the most acidic oxide? (1) f-block (2) s-block
(1) NO (2) NO2 (3) p-block (4) d-block
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5
27. Which of the following has no unpaired electrons?
18. Lowest ionisation enthalpy in the periodic table is
(1) Mg+2 (2) Fe+2
shown by
(3) Mn+2 (4) V+3
(1) Chalcogens (2) Halogens
28. The pair of elements which are members of third
(3) Alkali metals (4) Alkaline earth metals
period
19. Element of atomic number 117 is placed in
(1) Be, P (2) Si, Cl
(1) 16th group, 6th period (2) 17th group, 7th period
(3) N, O (4) F, Al
(3) 13th group, 6th period (4) 14th group, 7th period
29. Boron shows diagonal relationship with element
20. Which is exothermic reaction ? having atomic number
(1) Ca Ca+2 (1) 15 (2) 13
(2) N2 – N3 – (3) 14 (4) 12
(3) N2 + O2 2NO
30. Highest electron affinity will be of
(4) O O–
(1) N (2) P
21. Ionisation energy of Be +3 ion is x kJ then
(3) O (4) S
ionisation energy of He+ ion would be
! 31. Eka-aluminium and eka-silicon in Mendeleev’s
!
(1) kJ (2) kJ periodic table respectively are
"# "
! (1) Ga, Ta (2) Ga, Sn
!
(3) kJ (4) kJ
" " (3) Ge, Ga (4) Ga, Ge
22. Which of the following statement is correct? 32. The correct order of radii is
(1) Zeff = Z – (1) Na+ > F– > Al+3 > Mg+2
(2) Z = Zeff – (2) N–3 < Na+ < Mg+2 < O–2
(3) = Zeff – Z – number of penultimate electrons (3) Al+3 < Mg+2 < O–2 < S–2
(4) Zeff = Z – + number of penultimate electrons (4) Mg+2 < N–3 < O–2 < F–
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 17
33. General electronic configuration of first inner 40. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
transition series is (1) The first ionization potential of Al is less than
(1) (n – 2) f 1–14 (n – 1) s2p2 ns2 the first ionization potential of Mg
(2) (n – 3) f 1 – 4 (n – 2) d 0–1(n – 1) s2 (2) The second ionization potential of Mg is greater
than the second ionization potential of Na
(3) (n – 2) f 1 – 14 (n – 1) d 2 ns2
(3) The first ionization potential of Na is less than
(4) (n – 2) f 1–14 (n – 1) d 0 – 1 ns2 the first ionization potential of Mg
34. Predict the atomic number of the element in the (4) The third ionization potential of Mg is greater
periodic table satisfying the outer shell electronic than the third ionization potential of Al
configuration, (n – 1)d 1ns2 for n = 4
41. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) 39 (2) 57
(1) Van der Waal’s radius of iodine is more than
(3) 21 (4) 23 its covalent radius
35. Predict the block to which an element with Z = 90 (2) All isoelectronic ions belong to the same
belongs period of the periodic table
(1) s-block (2) p-block (3) IE1 of N is higher than that of O while IE2 of
O is higher than that of N
(3) d-block (4) f-block
(4) The electron affinity of N is zero
36. The first and the second ionization enthalpies
(in kJ mol–1) of a few elements are given below : 42. Which of the following elements with atomic
numbers 25, 30, 48 and 80 has the highest vapour
Element IE1 IE2
pressure at room temperature?
I 2372 5251 (1) Z = 30 (2) Z = 48
II 520 7300 (3) Z = 80 (4) Z = 25
III 900 1760 43. Among the following, the third ionization energy is
IV 1680 3380 maximum for
Which of the above elements is likely to be a (1) Aluminium (2) Boron

metal that forms a stable binary halide of the (3) Magnesium (4) Beryllium
formula AX2? 44. Which of the isoelectronic ions, K+, Ca2+, Cl– and
(1) I (2) II S2– has the lowest ionization energy?
(3) III (4) IV (1) K+
37. Which of the following elements has the most (2) Ca2+
negative electron gain enthalpy? (3) Cl–
(1) [Ne]3s23p3 (2) [Ne]3s23p4 (4) S2–
(3) [Ne]3s23p5 (4) [Ne]3s23p6 45. Which of the following is not correct?
38. Predict the formula of the stable binary compound (1) Number of s electrons in carbon is double that
that would be formed by the element M (Z = 114) of He
and fluorine (2) Number of paired electron is same in F – and
(1) MF (2) MF6 Ne
(3) MF3 (4) MF4 (3) Number of d electrons are same in Zn2+ and
Cu+ ion
39. The element with atomic number 57 belongs to
(4) Number of filled orbitals are same in F– and
(1) s-block Cl– ion
(2) p-block 46. Which of the following process is exothermic?
(3) d-block (1) K K+ (2) Mg+ Mg2+
(4) f-block (3) O O– (4) S– S 2–
47. The process involving highest release of energy will 57. In which of the following processes, maximum
be energy is released?
(1) F(g) + e– F– (2) Cl(g) + e– Cl– (1) O(g) + e– O– (g)
(3) O(g) + e– O– (4) O(g) + 2e– O2– (2) O–(g) + e– O2–(g)
48. The correct order of first ionisation energies of (3) S(g) + e– S–(g)
some elements is given in the order
(4) S–(g) + e– S2–(g)
(1) B > C < N > O (2) B < C < N > O
58. The element of the fourth period of the periodic
(3) B < C < N < O (4) B > C < N < O table having maximum number of unpaired
49. The period and group of the element in modern electrons is
periodic table which is present in 5th period and (1) 26Fe (2) 24Cr
VI B group of Mendeleev’s periodic table will be
(3) 29Cu (4) 34Se
respectively
59. Which of the following is the strongest reducing
(1) 5 and 6 (2) 5 and 8
agent in aqueous solution?
(3) 4 and 6 (4) 6 and 8
(1) Na (2) Li
50. If there are three electrons present in each orbital
(3) K (4) Cs
and Bohr-Burry principle is not followed in filling of
electrons, the number of elements in 4th period of 60. Ionisation energy of F– is – 320 kJ/mol. The
modern periodic table will be electron affinity of fluorine would be
(1) 18 (2) 27 (1) – 320 kJ/mol (2) – 160 kJ/mol
(3) 32 (4) 48 (3) 320 kJ/mol (4) 160 kJ/mol
51. Which of the following ion has the most negative 61. Which of the following statement is not correct?
value of enthalpy of interaction with water? (1) Among halogens, oxidising behaviour increases
(1) NH4+ (2) OH– down the group
(3) H+ (4) F– (2) Among alkali metals, lithium is the strongest
52. The highest second ionisation energy among the reducing agent in aqueous medium
following is (3) Fluorine is the most electronegative element
(1) Nitrogen (2) Oxygen (4) Lithium is the hardest metal among alkali
(3) Lithium (4) Carbon metals
53. Element having symbol Unb belong to which period 62. The correct order of third ionization energies (IE3)
and group of periodic table respectively? of Na, Mg and Al is
(1) 7, 4 (2) 6, 6 (1) Mg > Na > Al (2) Al > Mg > Na
(3) 7, 3 (4) 6, 5 (3) Na > Mg > Al (4) Mg > Al > Na
54. Which of the following is correct electronic 63. The first element of rare earth metals is
configuration of Gd? (Atomic number = 64) (1) Cerium (2) Actinium
!
(1) !"#$%! &" '#" # !
(2) !"#$%! &" " (3) Uranium (4) Lanthanum
64. Atomic radii of fluorine and oxygen in pm units are
(3) !"#$%! ! &" " (4) !"#$'# # &" $
respectively given by
55. The correct order of electron affinities is
(1) 72, 74 (2) 74, 72
(1) Cl > Si > Na > Ar (2) Si > Cl > Na > Ar
(3) 77, 77 (4) 88, 77
(3) Cl > Na > Si > Ar (4) Cl > Si > Ar > Na
65. In graph of atomic volume versus atomic weight,
56. Which of the following ions has the highest value the elements corresponding to peaks in the curve
of ionic radius? belong to
(1) Li+ (2) B3+ (1) Group –1 (2) Group –18
(3) O2– (4) F– (3) Group –4 (4) Group –14
66. If there are three possible values for spin quantum 73. The ionization enthalpies of lithium and sodium are
number, then how many total elements can be x kJ mol –1 and y kJ mol –1 respectively. Then
present in 3rd period of periodic table? energy required to convert all the atoms present in
(1) 12 (2) 8 7 mg of lithium (Li) vapours and 23 mg of sodium
(Na) vapours
(3) 6 (4) 10
(1) x J ; y J (2) x kJ ; y kJ
67. An atom of an element A has 2 electrons in its
outermost shell while one of the element B has ! " ! "
(3) #$ # (4) #$ #
6 electrons in its outermost shell. Then formula of %& %& %&& %&&
the compound formed by A and B is
74. Which of the following property increases for Na+,
(1) AB (2) A2B Mg2+, Al3+ respectively?
(3) A2B6 (4) A2B3 (I) Size
68. The ratio of cationic size to anionic size is (II) Hydration energy
minimum for the compound
(III) Polarising power
(1) LiF (2) LiI
(IV) Ionisation energy
(3) RbI (4) RbF
69. Which of the following statement is wrong? (1) (I), (II) (2) (I), (III)
(1) Neutron/proton ratio does not reflect the (3) (II), (III) (4) (II), (III), (IV)
periodicity in chemical properties of elements 75. Name of the tripositive ion which is represented by
(2) The I.E. of aluminium is greater than the given configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5
magnesium because penetrating effect of p (1) Fe3+ (2) Cr+3
orbital is greater than s orbital
(3) Co3+ (4) Ni3+
(3) The value of e– gain enthalpy for N is positive
76. The correct order of ionic size
(4) The order of I.E.2 of elements A B C and D
with atomic numbers 6, 7, 8 and 9 respectively (1) N3– > Na+ > F– > O2– > Mg2+
will be C > D > B > A (2) N3– > O2– > F– > Mg2+ > Na+
70. I.E. is the amount of energy required to remove an (3) N3– > O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+
electron from an isolated gaseous atom to infinity.
Then which of following statement regarding I.E. is (4) F– > O2– > N3– > Na+ > Mg2+
incorrect? 77. The hydration energy of Mg2+ ion is larger than that
(1) I.E1 of O+ is greater than O of
(2) I.E1 of noble gas is very high due to large size (1) Al3+ (2) Mg3+
(3) The I.E. of P > S (3) Na3+ (4) Na+
(4) The process of ionisation is an endothermic 78. Highest and lowest possible oxidation states of Ti
reaction is
71. An element with atomic number 56 belongs to (1) +4, –4 (2) +4, +2
which period, block and group of the periodic table
respectively? (3) +4, 0 (4) +2, 0
(1) 6th period; d-block; 3rd group 79. Which of the following has highest 2nd ionization
energy?
(2) 7th period; d-block; 3rd group
(1) N (2) O
(3) 7th period; p-block; 2nd group
(4) 6th period; s-block; 2nd group (3) F (4) C
72. Which of the following electronic configuration is 80. Valence configuration and block number of element
correctly matched? with atomic number 89 is
(1) A(Z = 8) : 1s2 2s2 3s2 3p2 (1) [Rn]6d 17s2, d-block
(2) B2+(Z = 20) : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 (2) [Rn]6f 17s 2, f-block
(3) C+(Z = 24) : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d4 (3) [Rn]6d 2, d-block
(4) D2+(Z = 29) : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 (4) [Rn]7s2, s-block
81. Which is true regarding Ionisation energy? (3) High charge/radius ratio
(1) I – < I (4) All of these
(2) Li < Li + 89. Which of the pair of oxides is neutral?
(3) IE1 of Mg < IE2 of Mg (1) CO & CO2 (2) SO3 & N2O
(4) All of these (3) NO & N2O (4) N2O & CO2
82. Maximum oxidation states of transition metal is 90. The non-transition metals exhibit variable valency
derived from due to
(1) ns electron (1) Unstable core configuration
(2) (n – 1) d electron (2) d – d transition
(3) (n + 1) d electron (3) Poor screening effect of d and f electrons
(4) [ns + (n – 1) d] electrons (4) Small size
83. Which of the following set of compounds are 91. The correct order of negative electron gain enthalpy
amphoteric in nature?
(1) O > S > Se > Te (2) S > O > Se > Te
(1) BeO, B2O3, B(OH)3 (2) BeO, Be(OH)2, Al2O3
(3) S > Se > Te > O (4) S > Se > O > Te
(3) Be(OH)2, NO2, SiO2 (4) Al2O3, MgO, SO3
92. Correct order of 2nd ionisation energy
84. The correct order of electronegativity of carbon atom (1) F > O > N > C (2) O > F > N > C
in C2H6, C2H2 and C2H4 is
(3) F > N > O > C (4) N > F > O > C
(1) C2H2 < C2H4 < C2H6 (2) C2H4 < C2H2 < C2H6
93. The one which is not incorrect statement?
(3) C2H6 < C2H4 < C2H2 (4) C2H6 < C2H2 < C2H4
(1) I.E2 of Na < I.E2 of Mg
85. The electronegativity of two atoms A and B are 3.0
and 1.0 respectively. The approximate percentage (2) CO2 is less acidic than CO
covalent nature of bond formed between A and B is (3) PCl5 has trigonal bipyramidal geometry
(1) 54% (2) 46% (4) All of these
(3) 65% (4) 30% 94. Which of the following will have highest 2 nd
86. Among Be, F, C and N, the highest third ionisation ionization enthalpy, if the outermost electronic
energy is of configuration is given below?
(1) Be (2) F (1) 2p4 (2) 2s1
(3) C (4) N (3) 2p1 (4) 3p6
87. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 95. General electronic configuration of actinoids and its
period is
(1) Acidic nature of oxide of elements of third
period increases from left to right (1) () *+,"%"& () -+.'%")/# , n = 5 and 6 period
(2) Acidic nature of hydracids increases from top
to bottom in a group of periodic table (2) () *+,"%"& () -+.'%")/# , n = 6 and 6 period
(3) Acidic nature of hydracids of element from
carbon to fluorine increases. (3) () *+,"%"& () -+.'%")/# , n = 6 and 7 period
(4) For an atom van der Waal’s radius > covalent
radius > metallic radius (4) () *+,"%"& () -+.'%")/# , n = 7 and 7 period
88. The anomalous behaviour of the first member of 96. Correct order of electron affinity is shown by
each group of representative elements in periodic
(1) Cl > S > F > O
table is due to
(2) Cl > F > S > O
(1) High electronegativity
(3) F > Cl > O > S
(2) Non-availability of d-orbitals in their valence
shelll (4) F > O > Cl > S
97. The chemical formula of the most stable chloride 104. The smallest size among the following ions is
of the element M, will be given by which of the shown by
following, if the IUPAC name of M is ununquadium?
(1) N–3 (2) O–2
(1) MCl (2) MCl2 (3) Ca+2 (4) K+
(3) MCl3 (4) MCl4 105. The element with atomic number 89 belong to
98. Which of the following process is endothermic in (1) d-block, group-3, 7th period
nature?
(2) d-block, group-3, 6th period
A. Al+2 Al+3 B. Cl Cl–
(3) f-block, group-3, 6th period
C. N N–1 D. O–1 O–2
(4) f-block, group-3, 7th period
E. H H+
106. When a graph is plotted between atomic volume vs
(1) A, E (2) A, D, E atomic mass, group-2 elements are present at
(3) A, C, D, E (4) A, B, C, D, E (1) Peak of the graph (2) Bottom of the graph
99. The maximum covalency and oxidation shown by (3) Ascending peak (4) Descending peak
nitrogen in compounds is respectively
107. The general electronic configuration of f-block
(1) 3, +3 (2) 5, +5 element can be given by
(3) 3, +5 (4) 4, +5 (1) (n – 2) f1–14 (n – 1) d1–10 ns2
100. Which of the following sets is mismatched (2) (n – 2) f1–14 (n – 1) d1–10 ns0–2
regarding the nature of oxides?
(3) (n – 2) f1–14 (n – 1) d0–1 ns2
(1) Neutral oxide - CO2, NO, N2O
(4) (n – 2) f1–14 (n – 1) d10 ns2
(2) Amphoteric oxide - BeO, As2O3 108. If ionization enthalpy of potassium is z kJ/mol.
(3) Acidic oxide - Cl2O7, SiO2 Then energy required in eV/mol to convert 3.9 gm
of K to K+ is
(4) Basic oxide - BaO, Na2O
(1) z × 1.6 × 1017 (2) z / 1.6 × 10–17
101. According to Moseley, in the characteristic X-ray
spectra, straight line is obtained when the graph is (3) z / 1.6 × 10–19 (4) z × 1.6 × 10–18
plotted between 109. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, in group-8 the
element placed in each row are
(1) vs Z ( = frequency, Z = atomic number)
(1) Fe, Co, Ni (2) Ru, Rh, Pd
(2) ! vs Z (v = velocity, Z = atomic number) (3) Os, Ir, Pt (4) All of these
(3) ! vs A (v = velocity, A = atomic mass) 110. The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4 and IP5 of an element are 7.1,
14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively. The
(4) vs Z ( = frequency, Z = atomic number) element is likely to be
102. Maximum number of elements that can be (1) Ca (2) Si
accommodated in the periodic table according to
the format of modern periodic table is (3) F (4) Na
111. The correct order of decreasing second I.E. of Ti,
(1) 108 (2) 118
V, Cr and Mn in kJ mol–1 is
(3) 120 (4) 150
(1) Mn > Cr > Ti > V (2) Ti > V > Cr > Mn
(3) Cr > Mn > V > Ti (4) V > Mn < Cr > Ti
(1) In a period noble gases has maximum radii
112. Electronegativity of the element (A) is E1 and I.P.
(2) Sucessive ionization enthalpy is always higher is E2. Hence EA will be
(3) Ionic radius of Na+ is larger than that of atomic (1) 2E1 – E2 (2) E1 – E2
radius of sodium
!! " !"
(4) As, Sb, Te are semi-metals (3) E1 – 2E2 (4)
#
113. Select equations having exothermic step 121. The possible electronic configuration of the atom
having maximum difference in first and second
a. 0 ! (1+ 0"! (1+ ionisation energies is
b. 23 (1+ 45! (1+ 2345(/+ (1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
c. !
2(1+ 2 (1+ (3) 1s2 2s2 2p1 (4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
d. !"! #$% !"" #$% 122. Which of the following has highest I.E1?
e. (1) Sb (2) Se
! "#$%&'( !)!
(3) As (4) Te
Choose the correct code.
123. Identify the electronic configuration of the most
(1) b & e (2) a, b & e
electropositive element
(3) c, d & e (4) b & c
(1) [Kr]5s1 (2) [Kr]5s2
114. Ionisation energy of Na atom will be numerically
(3) [Ar]4s1 (4) [Ar]4s2
equal to
124. The set of atomic numbers representing
(1) Electron gain enthalpy of Na+ ion
chalcogens is
(2) Electron gain enthalpy of Na atom
(1) 14, 32, 50 (2) 18, 36, 54
(3) Ionisation energy of Na– ion
(3) 12, 20, 38 (4) 16, 34, 52
(4) Both (1) & (2)
125. Which of the atom has lowest first ionization
115. Which of the following matching is irrelevant? energy?
(1) N > O < F (IE) (1) ns2np3 (2) ns2np4
(2) Cl2O7 > SO3 > P4O6 (acidity) (3) ns2np5 (4) ns2np6
(3) NF3 > NH3 > H2O (dipole moment) 126. An element (A) forms the oxide A2O5. (A) belongs
to
(4) F– > Cl– > Br– (basic nature)
(1) 13 group (2) 14 group
116. If the ionic radii of K+ and F– are nearly the same
(i.e., 1.34 Å), then the atomic radii of K and F (3) 15 group (4) 18 group
respectively are 127. Identify the element which is a metalloid
(1) 1.34 Å, 1.34 Å (2) 0.67 Å, 1.99 Å (1) Cu (2) Al
(3) 1.99 Å, 0.67 Å (4) 1.99 Å, 1.34 Å (3) B (4) Co
117. Electronegativity on Pauling scale is based on 128. The maximum number of electrons which can be
(1) Bond length (2) Bond energy present in the outermost orbit of elements of third
period of the periodic table is
(3) Atomic radius (4) Covalent radius
(1) 7 (2) 8
118. Zinc, cadmium, mercury belong to which group of
periodic table? (3) 10 (4) 18
(1) 10 (2) 11 129. In third period, the most basic oxide is formed by
(3) 12 (4) 13 (1) S (2) P
119. The ionisation energy will be maximum for the (3) Na (4) Mg
process 130. Which pair of elements is chemically similar?
(1) Ba Ba2+ (2) Be Be2+ (1) Li, Mg (2) Be, Al
(3) Cs Cs+ (4) Li Li+ (3) B, Si (4) All of these
120. Which one of the following pairs of elements has 131. Among the following elements, least electronegative
same number of electrons in their outermost shell? is
(1) Al, Tl (2) Si, Pb (1) O (2) F
(3) As, Bi (4) All of these (3) Cl (4) S
132. The formula of the compound formed by X:[Ne] 3s2, 142. If one orbital can accommodate three electrons then
3p1 and Y:[He] 2s22p5 is the number of elements in third period of periodic table
is
(1) XY2 (2) XY3
(1) 8 (2) 16
(3) X2Y (4) XY
(3) 12 (4) 18
133. The maximum tendency to form a tripositive ion lies
with the element having the electronic configuration 143. The expected atomic number of seventh noble gas
would be
(1) [Ne]3s2 , 3p2 (2) [He]2s2, 2p2
(1) 110 (2) 114
(3) [Ne]3s2, 3p1 (4) [Ne]3s2, 3p6
(3) 118 (4) 122
134. As compared to alkaline earth metals, alkali
144. The correct statement is
metals exhibit
(1) Acidic nature of oxides increases from left to
(1) Higher valency right in a period of periodic table
(2) Higher reducing power (2) Acidic nature of hydracids increases from left
(3) Greater hardness to right in a period of periodic table
(4) All of these (3) Acidic nature of hydracids increases from top
to bottom in a group of periodic table
135. Which pair of elements belongs to same group?
(4) All of these
(1) Element with atomic number 38 and 55
145. Representative elements belong to
(1) s-Block (2) p-Block
(3) d-Block (4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Element with atomic number 18 and 35 146. Formula of chloride of element A whose IE1, IE2,
136. The least stable ion amongst the following is IE3, and IE4 are respectively 4.5 eV, 11 eV, 78 eV
and 110 eV
(1) Al– (2) C–
(1) ACl (2) ACl2
(3) F– (4) Cl–
(3) A2Cl3 (4) A3Cl2
137. Identify the weakest oxidizing agent
147. The correct order of radii is
(1) I2 (2) Br2
(1) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F– > O2–
(3) Cl2 (4) F2
(2) Al3+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > O2– > F–
138. Hydration energy is least for (3) O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
(1) O2– (2) S2– (4) F– > O2– > Na+ > Mg+2 > Al3+
(3) Te2– (4) Se2– 148. Position of element (Z = 108) in long form periodic
139. The element which does not show variable table and its IUPAC name is
oxidation is (1) d block, group 8 – unniloctium
(1) In (2) Ag (2) f-block, group 3 – unnilseptium
(3) Cr (4) W (3) p-block, group 17 – unniloctium
140. Among the following, choose the one which has (4) s-block, group 2 – unniloctium
high ionization enthalpy but zero electron gain 149. The largest atom of 3rd period
enthalpy?
(1) Na (2) Cl
(1) F (2) Na
(3) Fe (4) Ar
(3) He (4) B 150. Which set has the strongest tendency to form
141. The atomic number of first man-made element is anions?
(1) 43 (2) 45 (1) V, Cr, Mn (2) Ga, In, Tl
(3) 41 (4) 46 (3) Na, Mg, Al (4) N, O, F
151. The firmness with which an electron is held by an 1. A : First ionisation energy of nitrogen is greater
atom is a measure of its than oxygen.
(1) Electronegativity (2) Ionisation potential R : Nitrogen has half filled p-orbital (2p3) from
which electron is removed so more energy is
(3) Ionic character (4) Metallic character required.
152. Considering the elements B, Al, Mg and K, the 2. A : The electron affinity of oxygen is less than that
correct order of their metallic character is of nitrogen but greater than that of fluorine.
(1) B > Al > Mg > K (2) Al > Mg > B > K R : Nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine do not belong to
(3) Mg > Al > K > B (4) K > Mg > Al > B the same period of the periodic table.
3. A : Electron gain enthalpy for nitrogen is positive.
153. The element which belongs to group-3 and d-block
is R : Addition of electron in nitrogen is an
endothermic process due to half filled stable
(1) La (Z = 57) (2) Ce (Z = 58) configuration.
(3) Th (Z = 90) (4) Zr (Z = 40) 4. A : Chlorine has maximum negative electron gain
154. Na +, Mg2+, Al 3+
and Si4+ are isoelectronic, their enthalpy in periodic table.
ionic size will follow the order R : Chlorine has smallest size in periodic table.
(1) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ < Si4+ 5. A : The ionic radii of Na+ is lesser than Mg2+.
R : Ionic radii increases with increase in effective
(2) Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+ < Si4+ nuclear charge.
(3) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > Si4+ 6. A : Boron cannot show covalency greater than
four.
(4) Na+ < Mg2+ > Al3+ < Si4+
R : Boron has high ionization energy and high
SECTION - B electronegativity corresponding to 13th group
elements.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions 7. A : In each period, second ionisation energy of
In the following questions, a statement of assertion alkali metal is highest.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) R : Second electron is removed from noble gas
configuration in alkali metals which is most
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
stable.
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1). 8. A : Percentage ionic nature of bond is determined
by the expression 16(XA – XB) + 3.5(XA – XB)2
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the where X A and X B are electronegativity of
reason is not the correct explanation of the element A and B.
assertion, then mark (2). R : Ionic nature of bond between two atoms
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is decreases with increase in electronegativity
false, then mark (3). difference.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false 9. A : IE2 of oxygen is higher than that of fluorine.
statements, then mark (4). R : IE1 of He is higher than that of hydrogen.
!" !" !
Chapter 3
States of Matter : Gases and Liquid
4. Among the following gases which one has the

SECTION - A
lowest root mean square speed at 25°C?
(1) SO2 (2) N2
1. The compressibility factor of N 2 at moderate
(3) O2 (4) Cl2
pressure range is equal to [where a & b are the
van der Waal’s constants] 5. Which is incorrect?
! !" " ! !" " (1) Z > 1 at high pressure for He gas
(1) # # $ (2) # # $
% $% & % $% & !!"#$%
(2) Z = at constant T and V
! ! " ! ! " !&#$%
(3) # " $ (4) # " $
% #$% & % #$% &
!"
2. Which of the following graph does not represent (3) #!
$%
Boyle’s law?
(4) !!"! !!"
6. Out of PCl5(g), NH3, SO3, O2, rate of diffusion is
minimum for
!
(1) (2) !"#$& (1) PCl5 (2) NH3
(3) O2 (4) SO3
" !"#$%
7. According to the kinetic theory of gases, in an
ideal gas, between two successive collisions, a
! gas molecule travels
(3) (4) "
(1) In a circular path (2) In a straight line path
!" ! (3) In a zig-zag path (4) In a parabolic path

8. 8 g O2 gas and 44 g CO2 gas are taken separately
3. Volume versus temperature at constant pressure P1 at same temperature, the ratio of their molar
and P2 for an ideal gas are shown in figure. Which kinetic energy is
of the following is correct?
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1
#! (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
#" 9. A gas can be liquefied at a temperature T K and
"
pressure P provided that
(1) T = TC and P < PC
! (2) T < TC and P > PC
(1) P1 > P2 (2) P1 < P2
(3) T > TC and P > PC
(3) P1 = P2 (4) Can’t be predicted
(4) T < TC and P < PC
26 States of Matter : Gases and Liquid Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
10. What is the mass ratio of SO3 to CO which should 17. The average molecular speed is greatest in which
be mixed so that their partial pressure becomes of the following gas samples?
equal?
(1) 1.0 mol of O2 at 560 K
(1) 40 : 7 (2) 7 : 40
(2) 0.50 mol of Ne at 500 K
(3) 7 : 20 (4) 20 : 7
(3) 0.20 mol of CO2 at 440 K
!" (4) 2.0 mol of He at 140 K
11. The numerical value of for a gas at critical
#$
!" 18. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
conditions is ________ times of at normal
#$ (1) With increase in temperature, viscosity of liquid
conditions for 1 mole of gas decreases
! ! (2) With increase in temperature, most probable
(1) (2) velocity increases
" "
" (3) The fraction of molecules having energy more
(3) (4) 4 than threshold energy increases with increase
!
in temperature
12. For a given mass of a gas, if pressure is increased
two times and temperature is reduced to half, then (4) Dominance of strong repulsive forces among
the volume would become the molecules of gas, compressibility factor (Z)
is indicated by less than unity
!
(1) (2) 4V 19. V ml of O 2 escapes through a small hole in
"
10 second. V ml of another gas, under similar
! temperature and pressure conditions escapes in
(3) 2V2 (4)
# 11 second. The molecular mass of the other gas is
13. Average velocity of nitrous oxide at temperature T (1) 60 (2) 16.85
is a m/s. At what temperature, average velocity of
carbon dioxide becomes 4a m/s? (3) 38.72 (4) 120
(1) 2 T (2) 4 T 20. The unit of van der Waals constant ‘a’ is
(3) 16 T (4) 64 T (1) atm-L / mol (2) atm-mol2 / L
14. If mixture of gases contain 80 g N2 and 40 g He, (3) atm-L2 / mol (4) atm-L2 / mol2
what is the partial pressure of N2 and He in the 21. At high pressure region, the compressibility factor
mixture, if the pressure of 30 bar is exerted by (Z) is equal to
cylinder?
! #$
(1) !!! "# $%&' !"# "# $%& (1) " (2)
#$% !"
(2) !!! "#" $%&' !"# ()#* $%&
!"
(3) !!! "#$%&' !"# ( $%& (3) # (4) Pb – RT
$%
(4) !!! "( $%&' !"# ") $%& 22. Calculate the approximate kinetic energy of the gas
molecules in 82.1 L flask at 27°C and 2 atm
15. The ratio of Boyle’s temperature and critical
pressure.
temperature for a gas is
(1) 11.67 J (2) 24.67 J
! !"
(1) (2) (3) 24.90 kJ (4) 78.33 kJ
"# #
# # 23. Avogadro’s law is valid only at
(3) (4)
$ ! (1) Low pressure and high temperature
16. The unit of van der Waals’ constant ‘a’ is (2) Low temperature and high pressure
(1) atm L2 mol–2 (2) dyne cm4 mol–2 (3) High temperature and high pressure
(3) N m4 mol–2 (4) All of these (4) Low temperature and low pressure
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) States of Matter : Gases and Liquid 27
24. If Vm and Vid are the real and ideal volume of the 31. Which one of these gases has the highest critical
gas respectively, then which of the following will be temperature?
correct for the compressibility factor (Z)?
(1) He (2) NH3
!!" !! (3) O2 (4) CO2
(1) " (2) "
!# !"# 32. Under identical conditions, He and SO2, diffuse
through semipermeable membrane. Then
(3) Z = Vid – Vm (4) Z = Vid × Vm
(1) SO2 diffuses 4 times as fast as He
25. Which of the following vary with temperature?
(1) van der Waals constant ‘a’ (2) He diffuses 5 times as fast as SO2
(2) van der Waals constant ‘b’ (3) He diffuses 4 times as fast as SO2
(3) Compressibility factor Z (4) Rate of diffusion is same in both the gases
(4) All of these 33. Absolute zero temperature is the temperature at
which
!!
26. For He gas is equal to (1) Mass becomes zero
!"
(2) Volume of gas becomes zero
(1) 1.67 (2) 1.40 (3) All molecular motion ceases
(3) 1.33 (4) 1.0 (4) Both (2) & (3)
27. If a gas is passed below the inversion temperature,
34. At what temperature will nitrogen molecules (molar
then it will show
mass 28 g) have the same kinetic energy as
(1) Heating (2) Cooling oxygen molecules at 410 K?
(3) No effect (4) Can’t be predicted (1) 358.75 K (2) 410 K
28. An open vessel at 300 K is heated untill 5/7 part (3) 820 K (4) 40 K
of air present in the vessel escapes out. The
temperature at which the vessel must be heated to 35. The temperature at which rms velocity of H2
do so (assuming volume of vessel is constant) is molecule becomes equal to the r.m.s. velocity of
(1) 750 K (2) 850 K O2 molecules at 300 K
(3) 950 K (4) 1050 K (1) 25.65 K (2) 15.30 K

29. The compressibility factor (Z) for real gas at high (3) 55.20 K (4) 18.75 K
pressure is 36. The volume of a cylinder containing oxygen at NTP
(1) Z = 1 (2) Z < 1 is 2.24 litre and a small hole is made into the
(3) Z > 1 (4) Z < 0 cylinder through which gas leaks. The pressure
dropped to 570 mm of Hg then the number of
30. Which of the following graph represents Boyle’s moles of gas that escaped would be
law and Charles’ law respectively?
(1) 0.050 (2) 0.025
(3) 0.075 (4) 0.01
!"#$%
!"#$&
(1) 37. Which of the following graph represents Boyle’s

&
!"#$% !"#$' law and Charles' law respectively?
!"#$&
(2) " ! (1) !"#$% '()$

#
! $
!"#$& !"#$*
!"#$% !"#$'
(3) !" "%$
# (2) ()*$
! $
(4) All of these !"#$&!!' !"#$&+!,
!"#$% !"#$* (1) C2H6 (2) C10H22

(3) '()$ (3) C5H12 (4) C6H12
44. 15 L of gas at S.T.P. is subjected to four different
conditions of temperature and pressure as
!"#$& !"#$%
mentioned below. In which case the volume remain
!"#$% !"#$& unaffected?
(4) '()$ (1) 273 K, 2 bar (2) 273°C, 0.5 atm
(3) 546°C, 1.5 atm (4) 273°C, 2 atm
!"#$& !"#$* 45. The gas with minimum critical temperature is
38. At high temperature and low pressure, van der (1) H2 (2) He
Waal’s equation is reduced to
(3) NH3 (4) H2O
(1) !# "
! " 46. What is not true about the vander Waal constant
$ # $ %& (2) PV = RT
% #! & ‘b’ among the statements given below?
! ! " I. It is called excluded volume
(3) P(V – b) = RT (4) # " $# $%
% #! &
II. It accounts for the interparticle forces
39. The density of a gas A is four times that of gas B
III. Its units are mol dm–3
at the same temperature. Molar mass of gas A is
half of gas B. The ratio of the pressure acting on IV. Its value depends on molecule size
A and B will be (1) I, II (2) II, IV
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) II, III (4) I, IV
(3) 8 : 1 (4) 1 : 8 47. Four different students collected oxygen gas over
40. A 15.0 L cylinder of He gas is connected to an water, in which case the aqueous tension is
evacuated 235.0 L tank. If the final pressure is maximum?
750 mm Hg, then what have been the original gas (1) 40 mL of O2 at 25°C (2) 20 mL of O2 at 25°C
pressure in the cylinder?
(3) 10 mL of O2 at 30°C (4) 25 mL of O2 at 21°C
(1) 1.645 atm (2) 16.45 atm
48. At low pressure, van der Waal equation can be
(3) 15.46 atm (4) 23 atm
! ! "
41. Specific heat of an elementary gas at constant written as #" $# $%& The compressibility
% #! &
volume is 315 J kg –1 K –1 and that at constant factor of the gas is
pressure is 441 J kg–1 K–1. 7.0 g of the gas is
found to occupy a volume of 4.1 L at 27°C and 1 & "# & # #
(1) $# ! (2) $$ !
atm pressure. What is the atomic mass of the % ! " % !" "
gas?
& $ # & #$ #
(1) 21 u (2) 42 u (3) $% ! (4) $% !
% !"# " % !" "
(3) 63 u (4) 10.5 u 49. The product of PV is plotted against P at two
42. A vessel contains equal masses of three gases A, temperatures T1 and T2 and the result is shown in
B, C and recorded a pressure of 3.5 bar at 25°C. given figure. What is correct about T1 and T2?
The molecular mass of A is half of B while
molecular mass of C is twice that of B. The partial !!
"#
pressure of B in the vessel is !"
(1) 1 bar (2) 2 bar
"
(3) 1.5 bar (4) 2.5 bar (1) T1 > T2
43. A gas with formula CnH2n+2 diffuses through the (2) T2 > T1
porous plug at a rate one sixth of the rate of
(3) T1 = T2
diffusion of hydrogen gas under similar conditions.
The formula of gas is (4) T1 + T2 = 1
50. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of pure water is 17.5 57. Kinetic energy and pressure of a gas of unit
torr, how many mol of water molecules are present volume are related as
per litre of air at 20°C, when relative humidity is ! #
45%? (1) ( & (2) $ !
' "
(1) 6.3 × 10–2 (2) 4.3 × 10–4
%
(3) 4.3 × 10–6 (4) 3.3 × 10–4 (3) $ ! (4) P = 2E
"
51. van der Waal constants of two gases X and Y are 58. At 17°C a monoatomic ideal gas is compressed to
as under "
its volume in isolated system. Temperature after
!"# $"% $*% !
&'(#)*"+)(,-!". &'(#)(,-!$. the compression will be
/ 012 31320 (1) Less than 17°C but greater than zero
4 015 31356
(2) Greater than 17°C but less than 136°C
What is correct about the two gases?
(3) Greater than 17°C
(1) TC(X) > TC(Y) (2) TC(X) = TC(Y)
(4) Remain 17°C
(3) VC(X) = VC(Y) (4) VC(Y) < VC(X) 59. The relative order of different types of velocities at
52. Which of the following mixtures of gases at room a given temperature is correctly given as
temperature does not follow Dalton’s law of partial (1) vrms > vm.p. > vave (2) vrms > vave > vm.p.
pressure?
(3) vm.p. > vave > vrms (4) vm.p. > vrms > vave
(1) H2, N2 (2) H2, O2 60. Vapour density of a gas w.r.t. oxygen is found to
(3) NO, O2 (4) SO3, O2 "
be . If it is a homonuclear diatomic gas, the
53. Four gas balloons , , and of equal !
atomic mass of element will be
volumes containing H 2 , N 2 O, CO and CO 2
respectively were pricked with needle and (1) 12 (2) 14
immersed in a tank of CO2. Which of them will (3) 7 (4) 6
shrink after some time? 61. Graham’s law of diffusion is applicable at
(1) A (2) A and C (1) Constant T and V (2) Constant P and T
(3) B and D (4) A and B (3) Constant P and V (4) All of these
54. A drop of liquid acquires spherical shape because 62. If ‘V’ volume of a gas is dissolved at a pressure P
of in some liquid, then volume of gas dissolved at a
pressure 2P and at constant temperature will be
(1) Its viscous nature
(1) V
(2) Capillary action
(2) 2V
(3) Its tendency to acquire minimum surface area
"
(4) Its tendency to maximize its surface area (3)
!
55. The value of RT for 5.6 L of ideal gas at S.T.P. is (4) Can’t calculate theoretically
reported to be x times the value of PV. The value
63. The incorrect statement among the following is
of x is
(1) Average translational kinetic energy per
(1) 2 (2) 0.25 molecule is the same for all gases at a given
(3) 1 (4) 4 temperature
56. A gas undergoing expansion through porus plug (2) The equation PV = nRT is not applicable to
exhibit neither heating nor cooling if its temperature real gases at high pressure and low
is equal to temperature
(1) Boyle’s temperature #$

(3) is independent of the amount of the gas
!"
(2) Inversion temperature
$%
(3) 0°C (4) ! for H2 and He at 273 K and 1 atm
"#
(4) Critical temperature pressure
64. A real gas is placed in a container, if intermolecular 71. Which of the following gas has maximum critical
attraction are supposed to disappear suddenly then volume (dm3 mol–1)?
(1) The pressure decreases (1) He (2) H2
(2) The pressure increases (3) CO2 (4) NH3
(3) The pressure remain unchanged 72. 5 gram of each of the following gases at 87°C and
(4) The gas collapses 750 mm pressure are taken, which of them will
have least volume?
65. A 3 : 1 molar mixture of He and CH4 is contained
in a vessel at 24 bar pressure. Due to a hole in the (1) HF (2) HCl
vessel, the gas mixture leaks out. The composition (3) HBr (4) HI
of the mixture effusing out initially is
(1) 6 : 1 (2) 4 : 3 73. At what ratio of the partial pressure, !!! " !"! , will
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 2 : 3 the masses of two gases, O2 and N2 contained in
vessel be equal?
66. The kinetic energy of 0.1 mole of SO2 gas is x J
at 1 atm pressure then kinetic energy of the gas at (1) 0.785
2 atm pressure and same temperature would be (2) 8.75
(1) 2 x J (2) x J
(3) 11.4
% % (4) 0.875
(3) J (4) J
$ $
74. The van der Waals equation for 0.5 mol of real gas, is
67. 100 ml of gas A at 200 mm pressure and 200 ml
of gas at 50 mm pressure are mixed in a container ! ! "! " # " $%
of 300 ml then the resultant pressure of gas (1) # & $# $
% (" ! &% ' & '
mixture will be (Assume gases do not combine)
(1) 100 mm (2) 125 mm ! ! "
(2) # & $ '" # $%
% (" ! &
(3) 75 mm (4) 90 mm
68. An ideal gas is filled in a ‘V’ litre container at P ! ! " "#
(3) # $ $
atm pressure and T kelvin temperature. If it is % () ! & % & %'
completely transferred to a container in which its
! ! " "#$
pressure becomes 0.5 P & temperature becomes (4) # % $
2T, the volume of container would be % (& ! & "& '
(1) V (2) 4V 75. Among the gases given below, the highest value of
mean free path is for
!
(3) 2V (4) (1) N2 (2) O2
"
69. The critical temperature of water is higher than that (3) H2 (4) Cl2
of O2 because H2O molecule has
76. Which of the following is correct relation?
(1) Fewer electrons than O2
(2) Two covalent bonds !!
!"
(3) V-shape ! """
(4) Dipole moment > 0 !#
""
"
70. Hydrogen diffuses 6 times faster than gas X. The
molecular mass for X will be "
(1) 72 (1) V1 = V2 = V3
(2) 140 (2) V1 > V2 > V3

(3) 144 (3) V1 < V2 < V3
(4) 100 (4) logV1 = logV2 = logV3
77. Two bulbs A and B are connected by a very small 82. If n1 and n2 moles are diffused and M1 and M2 are
tube (of negligible volume) having a stop cock. molecular masses of two different gases
Volume of bulb A is 100 cm3 and it contains some respectively then relation between n and M
gas. Bulb B is empty and on opening the stop cock according to Graham’s law of Diffusion is
the pressure dropped by 60%. The volume of bulb
B must be &! !! &" !!
(1) = (2) =
&" !" &! !"
(1) 100 cm3 (2) 150 cm3
(3) 200 cm3 (4) 180 cm3 &! !! &"
(3) = (4) = !!"!"
&" !" &!
78. Which of the following represent the plot of log P
versus log V–1 for a given mass of a gas? 83. In a gaseous mixture 16 g oxygen and 2 g
hydrogen are present in one litre bulb at 0°C. Then
!"#$% total pressure of mixture
!"#$%
(1) 75.8 atm (2) 35.6 atm

(3) 33.6 atm (4) 3.56 atm
(1) (2)
84. The relation of critical temperature (TC), van der
!" !" Waal constant (a, b) and gas constant (R) is
!"#$% !"#$%
"
(1) TC = (2) TC = 3b
!)% !
!"#$%
!"#$%
!" *"
(3) TC = (4) #"
#$%& +%$
(3) (4)
85. Temperature at which the CO2 has the same RMS
!" velocity as that of H2 at STP?
!"#$%!" !"#$%
(1) 6600 K (2) 6060 K
79. A rubber balloon permeable to all isotopic forms of
hydrogen is filled with heavy hydrogen and placed (3) 6006 K (4) 6.006 K
in tank of pure hydrogen. After some time, the 86. A graph for Z vs P is plotted for N2 gas at different
balloon will temperature
(1) Shrink in size
$%(
)$
(2) Expand
(3) Remain as such !"#"$%& )#
)"
(4) Shrink to half of its size &%' )!
80. Two gases X and Y are at same temperature and *

pressure. The reduced temperature of X is below The correct relationship between temperatures
unity while that of Y is above unity. This means
that (1) T1 > T2 > T3 > T4 (2) T2 > T3 > T4 > T1
(1) X can be liquefied more easily than Y (3) T3 > T2 > T1 > T4 (4) T4 > T3 > T2 > T1
(2) Y can be liquefied more easily than X 87. According to kinetic theory of gases, for a diatomic
gas
(3) Both X and Y cannot be liquefied by
(1) The pressure exerted by gas is proportional to
compression
the mean velocity of the molecule
(4) Both X and Y can be liquefied at the same
(2) The root mean square velocity of gas is
temperature
inversely proportional to temperature
81. To which of the following mixtures Dalton’s law of
(3) The average K.E. of gas is proportional to the
partial pressure is not applicable?
temperature
(1) CO & CO2 (2) CO2 & N2
(4) On increasing pressure average molecular
(3) CH4 & C2H6 (4) HCl & NH3 speed increases
88. Which forces of attraction are responsible for (1) Isothermal, isobaric, isochoric and adiabatic
liquefaction of He gas?
(2) Adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric
(1) Coulombic forces (2) Dipole forces
(3) Isochoric, isobaric, isothermal and adiabatic
(3) Hydrogen bonding (4) van der Waal’s forces
(4) Isobaric, isothermal, adiabatic and isochoric
89. The van der Waal equation for 1 mole of a gas is
95. When the temperature is increased, the surface
! ! " tension of water
(1) # "# ! $ (V – b) = RT
% $% & (1) Increases
! ! " (2) Decreases
(2) # "# ! $ (4V – b) = RT
% &% & (3) Remains constant
! ! " (4) Show irregular behaviour
(3) # "# ! $ (V – b) = RT
% $ & 96. Which of the following is correct?
! ! " ! ! " " "'( (1) ! " at constant volume and mass of gas
(4) # "# ! $ # $=
% &% &% # & "
(2) # $ at constant pressure and temperature
90. The correct order of critical temperature for given of gas
gas is
(1) He < H2 < N2 < O2 (2) H2 < He < N2 < O2 !
(3) Rate of diffusion of gas
"#$%&'()*+,-./
(3) H2 = He < N2 < O2 (4) H2 = He = N2 = O2
(4) All of these
91. N2 and A2 gas at 300 K are leaked into a vessel
of 3 L for 10 minute from two identical holes. The 97. The compressibility factor (Z) at critical
resulting pressure of the vessel becomes 6 atm temperature, critical pressure and critical volume for
and the mixture contains 0.4 mole of N2. The 1 mole of gas is
molecular mass of A2 is
(1) 3/8 (2) 8/3
(1) 64.42 (2) 22.4
(3) Less than 3/8 (4) More than 3/8
(3) 34.78 (4) 41.14
98. The normal boiling point of liquid is nearly two third
92. Which of the following are not the units of gas of its critical temperature (T C) when both are
constant (R)? expressed on absolute scale is called
(1) dynes K–1mol–1 (2) ergs degree–1mol–1 (1) Guldberg’s Rule
(3) atm L K–1 mol–1 (4) kPa dm3 K–1 mol–1 (2) Trouton’s Rule
93. Same mass of CH4 and H2 is taken in a container.
(3) Third law of thermodynamics
The fraction of total pressure caused by H2 is
(4) Graham’s rule
! "
(1) (2) 99. The speed of six different molecules in a gas are
" #
25 ms–1, 20 ms–1, 30 ms–1, 15 ms–1, 10 ms–1 and
# 25 ms–1. Average speed of gas is
(3) (4) 1
$
(1) 20.8 ms–1 (2) 22.8 ms–1
94. The process represented by I, II, III and IV
respectively is (3) 30.2 ms–1 (4) 25.1 ms–1
' 100. On increasing temperature, which of the following

increases?
''
!"#$$%"#
(1) Viscosity
'''
'! (2) Surface tension of water
(3) Kinetic energy
!"#$%& (4) All of these
101. If the pressure of gas A and B are in 6 : 1 ratio 106. Which expression represents correct variation of
under identical condition of temperature, and density of ideal gas with temperature?
density of gas A is twice that of gas B. The ratio
of molar mass of A and B !! " !! "
(1) "! "" # ! $ (2) "" "! # ! $
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 % !" & % !" &
(3) 6 : 1 (4) 1 : 6 !! " " !! " "

(3) #! #" # ! " $ (4) #! #" # ! ! $
102. Two vessels A and B have volume V and 4V % !""! & % !""" &
respectively. Both vessels contain some water at
same temperature. The pressure in the space 107. A closed flask contains water in all its three states,
above water is P1 for vessel A and P2 for vessel B. solid, liquid and vapour of 0°C. In this situation the
What will be the relationship between P1 and P2? average kinetic energy of water molecule will be
(1) Greatest in the vapour state
(1) P1 = 4P2 (2) P1 = 16P2
(2) Same in all the three state
(3) 4P1 = P2 (4) P1 = P2
(3) Greatest in solid state
103. A certain cylinder contains equal number of (4) Greater in liquid than in vapour state
molecules of dihydrogen and dioxygen gases at a
108. Select the correct statement(s) about the Henry
total pressure of 740 torr. If dioxygen molecules
law constant (KH)
are completely removed, the pressure will
(1) KH value for gases increases with increase in
(1) Remain unchanged temperature
!"# (2) Different gases have same KH values at the
(2) Drop to torr same temperature
$
(3) More the value of KH for a gas more is its
!"#
(3) Drop to torr solubility
%
(4) All are correct
!"#
(4) Drop to torr 109. At the same temperature and pressure which of
& the following will have highest K.E. per mole?
104. Two sealed containers of same capacity at the (1) H2 (2) O2
same temperature are filled with 44 g of hydrogen
(3) CH4 (4) All have same K.E.
gas in one and 44 g of CO 2 in other. If the
pressure of CO2 is 1 atm. What is the pressure in 110. Coefficient of volume expansion of a gas is
the hydrogen container? !
(1)
(1) 1 atm (2) Zero "#$
(3) 22 atm (4) 44 atm %

(2)
"#$
105. Which of the following graph is correct ?
(3) 273
%!&'&%#&'&%" '!()('#()('"
%! '!
%# '# !"#
! %" ! '" (4)
$
(1) (2)
111. The correct increasing order of critical temperature
"#$ "#$%& (Tc) is
!!()(!#()(!" (1) !! !"" #$! "%

!!
!# #$%&'()&*
' !" ! (2) !" #$! %!" %!
+%&'()&*
(3) (4) (3) )* +,! -! -)"
"#$%& " (4) )* -! +,! -)"
112. The temperature at which the average velocity of H2 117. The compressibility factor at high pressure is
molecule will be equal to the root mean square (1) More than one (2) Less than one
velocity at 300 K is
(3) Equal to one (4) Unpredictable
(1) 353.25 K (2) 250.50 K
118. An open vessel containing air at 27°C. If the vessel
(3) 405.75 K (4) 153.60 K is heated to 127°C, then fraction of air escapes out
113. Two gases P and Q having ratio of rate of diffusion from the vessel is
is 1:2 and the ratio of their masses present in the
mixture is 1:3 then the ratio of their mole fraction # !
(1) (2)
would be $ #
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 1 : (6)1/3
! !
(3) 5 : 9 (4) 1 : (12)1/3 (3) (4)
"#$ $
114. Which of the following set of graphs correctly
represents Boyle’s law? 119. Vapour pressure of liquid does not depends upon
(1) Nature of liquid (2) Temperature
!"#$%
(3) Surface area (4) All of these

(1) !" 120. Three isobars I, II and III respectively at P1, P2, P3
'
are shown below.
!
! #$%&! ! &
&&
#!#!#"#!#$#
&&&
!"#$%
#!
(2) !" #"
#! ( "#$%
$%&'" The correct relationship between them is
!
(1) P1 > P2 > P3 (2) P1 < P2 < P3
(3) P1 = P2 = P3 (4) P2 > P3 > P1
! !"
(3) 121. For an ideal gas which of the following graph will
# not be straight line when all other variables are
" ! constant?
(1) P vs T (2) V vs T
!"#$%
! !
(3) P vs (4) V vs P
(4) "
(
122. For a gas, isotherm is of the type shown below
"
$%&'!
#
115. In ideal gas equation, PV = nRT, the gas constant !
*
R may be expressed as ( #$%&'
(1) Work per degree per mole
)
$%&'() )*(+,-.
(2)
/(01(&2-3&( 0%*(
"
!"#$$%"#& &'()%*#
(3) Correct statement about the curve at point A, B
+#*,#"-.%"# *()# and C
(4) All of these (1) At point A gas obeys PV = nRT
116. Kinetic energy of gas molecule is x kJ at 1 atm
pressure and 300 K. Then the kinetic energy of gas !
(2) At point B compressibility factor is "
molecule at 2 atm pressure and 300 K would be #$%
" !"
(1) 2x kJ (2) #$% (3) At point C compressibility factor is #
& $%
(3) x kJ (4) 4x kJ (4) All of these
123. An ideal gas can be liquefied if 129. Which of the following match is incorrect?
(1) Its temperature is more than critical Column-I Column-II
temperature (1) Every 1° change in – The volume of
(2) Its pressure is more than critical pressure and temperature gas changes by
temperature is more than critical temperature !
of the
"#$
(3) Its pressure is more than critical pressure but volume at 0°C
temperature is less than critical temperature
(2) Dalton’s law of – NH3, HCl, H2O
(4) It can be liquefied at any value of P and T partial pressure
applicable to
124. Under similar conditions, which of the following gas
will have same value of Urms as N2? (3) There is no – Kinetic theory
of gas attractive between the
(1) O2 (2) H2 force gas molecules
(3) CO (4) CO2 (4) Only a small – Maxwell
distribution curve
125. To raise the volume of gas four times, which of the
fraction of molecules
following is correct?
have either very high
(1) Both P and T are doubled or very low velocity
(2) Keeping P constant, T is raised four times 130. What is the value of (Pideal – Preal) in case of 22 g
CO 2 confined to a volume of 0.5 L at 27°C?
(3) Keeping T constant, P is reduced to half (Assume Preal = 21.5 atm)
(4) Temperature is halved and pressure is doubled (1) 3.1 atm (2) 4.275 atm
126. The mass of molecule AB is four times the mass (3) 5.427 atm (4) 3.8 atm
of molecule AC. The rms velocity of AB is three 131. Four gas balloons A,B,C,D of equal volumes
times the rms velocity of AC. The ratio of pressure containing H 2, He, Ne, Cl 2 respectively were
exerted by AB & AC in two containers of equal pricked with sharp needle and immersed in a tank
volume and at the same temperature is containing CO2. Which of them will shrink first?
(1) 1 : 12 (2) 12 : 1 (1) H2 (2) He
(3) 1 : 36 (4) 36 : 1 (3) Ne (4) Cl2

132. Hydrogen and oxygen in the molar ratio of 2:1 are
127. The relation between vapour pressure of liquid and
enclosed in a vessel. The hydrogen and oxygen will
external pressure
have same
(1) !"#" #!"# (1) Partial pressure
(2) Average velocity of molecules
"
(2) #$%$ %!"#
(3) Average molar kinetic energy
(4) Average number of molecules
(3) ./$/ $#$% 133. The pressure at Mars is 0.61 kPa. What is the
pressure in mm of Hg?
(4) V.P. is independent of external pressure
(1) 4.6 (2) 3.2
128. A 15.0 L cylinder of Ar gas is connected to an (3) 0.63 (4) 6.3
evacuated 235.0 L tank. If the final pressure is
750 mm Hg. What have been the original pressure 134. A gaseous mixture contains equal mol. of H2 and
of gas in the cylinder? C 2 H 6 if total pressure is P atm, then partial
pressure of H2
(1) 1.645 atm
! !%&
(2) 16.45 atm (1) (2)
"# !'
(3) 76 atm $ !
(3) (4)
(4) 23 atm " "#
135. The gas which show the deviation from ideal 142. At constant temperature, the ratio of rate of
behaviour at high pressure and low temperature is diffusion of SO2 and O2 at 200 mm of Hg and 400
(1) CO2 (2) CH4 mm of Hg respectively is
(3) NH3 (4) All gases (1) 1 : ! (2) 1 : 2

136. The rate of diffusion of gas at constant temperature
is proportional to (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : &
1 143. The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas at

(1) ! " (2) constant pressure varies with
4
!
(1) d 2 (2) d
!
!
(3) ! " (4)
" !
(3) ! (4)
137. The gas which is easily compressible !
(1) Having higher ‘a’ and higher ‘b’ 144. The gas which can be liquefied most easily
(2) Having higher ‘a’ and lower ‘b’ (1) NH3 (2) CO2
(3) Having higher ‘a’ and very higher ‘b’ (3) He (4) N2
(4) Having lower ‘a’ and very lower ‘b’
145. The correct graph shown below to prove Amonton’s
138. Kinetic energy of a gas is a function of pressure - temperature law is given as
(1) Temperature (2) Pressure
(3) Volume (4) All of these
139. If the critical temperature are given below !
(1) (2) !
Gas Tc (K)
A 135
!"# !"#
B 405
C 304
D 33 ! !
(3) (4)
The gas having highest value of van der Waal’s
constant ‘a’ and with minimum ease of liquefaction
is respectively !"# !"#
(1) B, D (2) D, B 146. In terms of SI unit, universal gas constant can be
(3) B, B (4) D, D expressed as
140. Which is true for the graphs of gas laws as (1) 0.0821 L atm mol–1K–1
mentioned below? (2) 8.314 NmK–1
(1) Graph between P vs V at constant temperature (3) 8.314 × 107 erg K–1 mol–1
is straight line, start-up from origin
(4) 2 cal K–1 mol–1
(2) Graph between V and T(°C) at constant
pressure is straight line 147. At what temperature rms velocity of CO2 is equal
to that of most probable velocity of nitrogen gas at
! 27ºC?
(3) Graph between log P and log at constant
"
temperature, has intercept log K (1) 355ºC (2) 355 K
(4) Both (2) & (3) (3) 41ºC (4) 41 K
141. The total kinetic energy of 64 g methane molecule 148. Average kinetic energy of 16 g of oxygen gas at
at 27°C is 27ºC is
(1) 1899.2 J (2) 14965.2 J (1) 6.21 kJ (2) 4.2 kJ
(3) 2649.5 J (4) 36965.4 J (3) 1.87 kJ (4) 3.1 kJ
149. Total pressure exerted by 10 g of acetylene gas at 157. Mean free path of the gas molecule is given
127ºC having volume of 5 dm3 is correctly by
(1) 2.5 torr (2) 1900 torr 5
(1) ! (2)
! " # !
6
(3) 2.5 pa (4) 1900 cm of Hg
150. With the increase in temperature, which of the ! ! !" ! "
following is not true for liquid? (3) # $ (4)
% % !&! #$
(1) Viscosity decrease 158. Triple point of water exist at
(2) Surface tension decreases (1) 1 atm and 0ºC
(3) Boiling point increases (2) 1 mmHg and 0.5ºC
(4) All are true (3) 1 atm and 4ºC
151. Which of the following is mismatched regarding SI (4) 458 mmHg and 0.01ºC
unit? 159. Which of the following is correctly observed?
(1) Surface energy Jm–2 (1) #!"# #!$ (2) $!"# $!$
(2) Surface tension Nm–1
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
(3) b = m3 mol–1 (b = van der Waal constant) 160. Select the correct order for gases represented with
(4) a = P2L2 mol–2 (a = van der Waal constant) their characteristics
152. If at 27ºC, the pressure is increased by 10% what (1) Critical temperature < Boyle’s temperature <
will be the final volume if initial volume is 5 L? Inversion temperature
(1) 5 L (2) 5.5 (2) Mean free path : He > H2 > O2 > N2 > CO2
(3) van der Waal’s constant ‘a’:
(3) 4.5 (4) 4.0
H2O > NH3 > N2 > He
153. If for the diffusion of 5 L of methane from a chamber
requires 5 minute. Then the volume of oxygen gas (4) All of these
diffused in 10 second under similar condition will be 161. At constant pressure, what would be the
percentage decrease in the density of an ideal gas
(1) 5 L (2) 0.5 L
for a 10% increase in temperature?
(3) 0.32 L (4) 0.12 L (1) 10% (2) 9.1%
154. In a closed vessel if sample of gas is at 1 atm P (3) 11% (4) 12.09%
and at temperature of 27ºC. What is the
percentage increase in pressure if the temperature %
162. An open vessel at 350 K is heated untill th of
becomes 227ºC? &'
(1) 200% (2) 166% the air in it has been expelled. Assuming that the
volume of vessel remains constant, calculate the
(3) 20% (4) 66% temperature at which the vessel was heated
155. The ratio of critical temperature to critical pressure (1) 327°C (2) 207°C
of a gas is (3) 113°C (4) 460°C
0 !" 163. The boiling point of water in pressure cooker is
(1) (2)
1' # (1) 100°C (2) > 100°C
," !" (3) < 100°C (4) 25°C
(3) (4)
$% #$% 164. SO2 diffuses two times faster than a gas ‘X’. The
156. At high pressure for one mole of gas, the van der number of molecules present in 128 g of gas ‘X’ is
Waal equation can be converted to (N is Avogadro's number)
-
2 (1) N (2)
(1) PV = RT (2) $. '( "
.
- $
(3) PV – Pb = RT (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) (4)
3 %&
165. Surface tension does not vary with 172. Assuming CO2 to be van der Waal’s gas, calculate
its Boyle temperature. Given, a = 3.59 L2 atm
(1) Temperature
mol–2 and b = 0.0427 L mol–1
(2) Vapour pressure
(1) 751 K
(3) Concentration (2) 1024 K
(4) Size of surface (3) 512 K
166. The volume of two gases ‘X’ and ‘Y’ (having different (4) 2048 K
molecular masses) are the same under identical
173. Increasing the temperature brings change in surface
conditions of temperature and pressure. They would
tension. The new surface tension is
differ in
(1) Greater than previous one
(1) Kinetic energy
(2) Smaller than previous one
(2) Rate of diffusion
(3) Remain unaltered
(3) Critical temperature
(4) Shows irregular behaviour
(4) Both (2) & (3)
174. At 27°C, the ratio of rms velocities of ozone to
167. At what temperature will rms speed of the oxygen is
molecules of the second member of the
homologous series CnH2n+2 be the same as that of % "
(1) (2)
oxygen at 527°C? 4 #
(1) 750°C (2) 477°C "
(3) (4) 0.25
%
(3) 580.3°C (4) 1227°C
175. What is K.E. of 1 g of O2 at 47°C?
168. A gas behaves most likely as an ideal gas under
(1) 1.24 102 J (2) 2.24 102 J
conditions of
(3) 1.24 103 J (4) 3.24 102 J
(1) High temperature, low pressure
176. In order to increase the volume of gas by 10%, the
(2) Low temperature, high pressure pressure of the gas should be
(3) Low temperature, low pressure (1) Decreased by 9.09% (2) Decreased by 10%
(4) High temperature, high pressure (3) Decreased by 5% (4) Increased by 9.09%
169. For a gas at constant temperature which is 177. The kinetic energy of 1 mole of gas at 27°C is
highest? approximately
(1) Vaverage (2) Vmost probable (1) 2.05 kJ (2) 8.56 kJ
(3) Vrms (4) All equal (3) 2 cal (4) 3.74 kJ
170. Which of the following show positive deviation at 178. The equal amount of hydrogen and oxygen are filled
high pressure? in a balloon and a small hole is made, after
sometime 0.01 mole of hydrogen effused out. The
(1) H2 mole fraction of oxygen left in balloon is
(2) N2 (1) 0.50
(3) CO2 (2) 0.098
(4) All of these (3) 0.055
171. The ratio between kinetic energies of 16 g O2 and (4) 0.98
48 g O3 respectively at 300 K will be
179. A vessel is filled with a mixture of nitrogen and
(1) 1 : 1 oxygen gas. At what ratio of partial pressures will
the mass of gases be equal?
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (1) !!! "#$%&'!"! (2) !!! "#$%&!"!
(4) 4 : 7 (3) !!! "#"$%!"! (4) !!! "#$%&'!"!
180. It is easier to liquefy nitrogen as compared to 186. A balloon filled with CO is pricked and thrown into
helium gas because a tank of nitrogen gas under the same T and P.
The balloon will
(1) Nitrogen has higher critical temperature and
lower inversion temperature than helium (1) Shrink
(2) Nitrogen has a lower critical temperature and (2) Remains unchanged in size
higher inversion temperature than helium
(3) Gets enlarged to 2 times
(3) Nitrogen has a higher critical temperature and
higher inversion temperature than helium (4) Gets enlarged to 4 times
(4) Both critical temperature and critical pressure 187. The ratio between the root mean square speed of
of nitrogen is lower than helium H2 at 50 K and that of O2 at 800 K is
! !
181. One litre of nitrogen gas and litre of oxygen gas (1) 1 (2)
" $
at the same temperature and pressure are mixed (3) 2 (4) 4
together. The relation between the masses (M) of
two gases in the mixture is 188. The density of a gas is found to be 2.07 g/L at
30°C and 2 atmospheric pressure. Its density at
(1) !!! "!"! (2) !!! !"! NTP is
(1) 2.714 g/L (2) 1.149 g/L
(3) !!! "!"! (4) %"! &'%#!
(3) 3.915 g/L (4) 7.245 g/L
182. Which of the following quantities are same for all
ideal gases at the same temperature? 189. Which of the following gas has highest critical
temperature?
(1) Pressure of one gram of gas
(1) N2 (2) O2
(2) Number of molecules in one gram of gas
(3) H2O (4) NH3
(3) KE of one mole of gas
190. At what temperature is the KE of a gas molecule
(4) None of these quantities will be same for all
half of its value at 327°C?
gases
(1) 120°C (2) 15.5°C
183. Viscosity of a liquid depends upon
(3) 65°C (4) 27°C
(1) Volume of the liquid
191. Under similar conditions which of the following
(2) Pressure of the liquid
gases will diffuse four times as quickly as oxygen?
(3) Surface area of the liquid
(1) H2 (2) N2
(4) Nature of the liquid
(3) D2 (4) NH3
184. Which of the following parameters is three times
the van der Waals constant ‘b’? 192. Find the correct relationship between P1, P2, P3, P4
for given isobars
(1) Critical temperature
,!
(2) Critical pressure
,"
!"#$%&
(3) Critical volume ,#

(4) Inversion temperature ,$
185. Which of the following mixture of gases follows
Dalton’s law of partial pressure at room
temperature? )*+ !"#$"%&'(%"
(1) CO2 and CO (1) P1 > P2 > P3 > P4
(2) SO3 and N2 (2) P1 < P2 < P3 < P4
(3) N2 and O2 (3) P1 = P2 = P3 = P4
(4) All of these (4) Any of these
193. At constant pressure and temperature, V n. It is 201. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Boyle’s law (2) Charles’ law (1) Vapour pressure of liquid is temperature
(3) Avogadro’s law (4) Ideal gas law dependent
194. If pressure of a gas is doubled, volume reduced to (2) At 1 atm pressure boiling temperature is called
one fourth and the temperature decreases by normal boiling point
100ºC. The initial temperature was
(3) Lower the critical temperature easier will be
(1) 200ºC (2) 100ºC liquefaction of gas
(3) 100 K (4) 200 K
(4) At high altitudes liquids boils at lower
195. If equal weight of H2, He and CH4 are present in a temperature
container and the total pressure is 13 atm, then
partial pressure of H2 will be 202. At what temperature will H2 molecules have the
same kinetic energy as nitrogen molecules have at
(1) 5 atm (2) 6 atm 35°C?
(3) 7 atm (4) 8 atm
!" #$
196. If volume of 1 mole of H2 gas at STP is 25 L, then (1) %
its compressibility factor is !
! '-
(1) 1 (2) 1.11 (2) .
!,
(3) 0.9 (4) 0.8
197. 2.9 g of a gas at 95°C occupied the same volume ! !"
(3) #
as 0.184 g of dihydrogen at 17°C, at the same $%
pressure. Molar mass of gas is
(4) 35°C
(1) 40 (2) 20
203. Which gas has lowest value of Vrms.?
(3) 36 (4) 28
198. van der Waal equation for a gas at very low (1) O2 (2) H2
pressure and high temperature is
(3) SO2 (4) CO2
! !
!" " 204. van der Waals equation, when pressure correction is
(1) ## # $ $% "&' "()
% % ! $& ignored, for one mole can be written as P(V – b) =
RT. The correct expression for compressibility
(2) P(V – nb) = nRT
factor will be
! !"! "
(3) ## # $$ "%&
% $ ! $& (1) #565
$1
(2) #575
$1
'( '(
(4) PV = nRT
199. Meniscus of water is concave due to !" !"
(3) #$%$ (4) #$)$
(1) Viscosity &'( &'(
(2) Vapour pressure 205. van der Waal equation for 1 mole of gas at very
(3) Shape of vessel high pressure
(4) Surface tension ! !"

(1) # " $ #$% &'
% $ &
200. The value of van der Waal constant ‘a’ will be
highest for (2) P(V – b) = RT
(1) H2 ! !! "
(3) ## " $# $%
(2) He % # ! $&
(3) CH4 ! ! "

(4) # " $ #$ %& '(
(4) SO2 % $! &
206. Let the rms speed of O2 molecules in a gas is u. 4. A : At Boyle’s temperature, the compressibility
If the temperature is doubled and the oxygen factor of a gas approaches unity.
molecules dissociate into oxygen atoms, the rms R : At Boyle’s temperature the real gas obeys
speed will become ideal gas law.
&
(1) 5. A : The mixture of ideal gas and on their
#
liquefaction gives ideal solution of and .
(2) 6u
R : The ideal gases can liquefied at very low
(3) 2u
temperature.
(4) 1.6u
6. A : H2, O2, N2 etc are permanent gases at NTP.
207. A gaseous mixture contains Ne and O 2 each
having mass 80 g. If the total pressure of the R : H2, O2, N2 are liquefied by decreasing pressure
mixture is 26 bar, the partial pressures of Ne and and increasing temperature.
O2 will be respectively [Ne = 20, O2 = 32] 7. A : Triple point of water is 0.01°C at 4.58 mm of
(1) 16 bar and 10 bar Hg.
(2) 12 bar and 14 bar R : At triple point all the three phases coexist.
(3) 13 bar and 13 bar 8. A : Vapour density is a dimensionless quantity.
(4) 15 bar and 11 bar R : Vapour density of a gas is the density of that
gas w.r.t. density of hydrogen under similar
SECTION - B condition.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions 9. A : Under similar conditions of temperature and

pressure, O2 diffuse 1.4 times faster than SO2.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) R : Density of SO2 is 1.4 times greater than that
of O2.
reason is the correct explanation of the 10. A : At constant temperature, if the pressure of the
assertion, then mark (1). gas is doubled the density is also doubled.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the R : At constant temperature, molecular mass of a
reason is not the correct explanation of the gas is directly proportional to the density and
assertion, then mark (2). inversely proportional to pressure.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is 11. A : Charles’ law may be expressed as logV – logT
false, then mark (3). = constant at constant pressure.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false R : Volume of given mass of a gas is directly
statements, then mark (4). proportional to temperature at constant
pressure.
1. A : On increasing the temperature, the height of
the peak of the Maxwell distribution curve 12. A : The pressure of fixed amount of N 2 gas
decreases. (assuming ideal behaviour) is proportional to its
temperature.
R : The fraction of molecules of the higher
velocities decreases with increase of R : Non-ideal gases always exert higher pressure
temperature. than ideal gas.
2. A : If a gas is heated at constant pressure, its 13. A : The rate of diffusion of H2 is 1.4 times of rate
density will decrease. of diffusion of He.
R : Density is inversely proportional to temperature R : The molar mass of He is double to that of H2.
at constant pressure.
14. A : On decreasing temperature KE decreases for
3. A : Helium shows only positive deviation from ideal gas molecules.
behaviour.
R : At zero degree celsius molecular motion
R : Helium is chemically inert noble gas. ceases and KE become almost zero.
15. A : Ideal pressure is greater than real pressure. 17. A : Pressure of real gas is more than that of ideal
gas always.
R : An inward pull is experienced by the
R : The repulsive forces between the molecules of
molecules as attractive forces become
ideal gas are more than that in real gas.
stronger thus real pressure decreases.
18. A : The ratio by volume of gaseous reactants and
16. A : Helium shows only positive deviation from ideal product is in agreement with their mole ratio at
bahaviour. constant temperature and pressure.
R : Noble gas can be liquefied. R : Volume of gas is inversely proportional to the
number of moles of gas.
!" !" !
Chapter 4
Thermodynamics
6. Enthalpy of formation of water is

SECTION - A
If (bond energy of H – H = 433 kJ/mol
O = O = 492 kJ/mol
1. The heat capacity of 2.0 moles of He gas at
constant temperature is (in cal/mol/K) O – H = 464 kJ/mol)
(1) – 498 kJ/mol (2) 498 kJ/mol
(1) 3 (2) 0
(3) – 249 kJ/mol (4) 249 kJ/mol
(3) 8 (4)
7. Which is incorrect?
2. When 2.0 moles of an ideal gas expands from
(1) Isothermal process at constant pressure,
5.0 L to 10.0 L reversibly and isothermally at 27°C
U=0
in vacuum. Work done by the system is
(2) Isothermal irreversible expansion of ideal gas in
(1) – 34.15 J (2) 0
vacuum, W = 0
(3) 102.5 J (4) – 3.46 kJ (3) Adiabatic process at constant pressure, H = 0
3. 9.2 g of toluene C7H8(!) is completely burnt in air. (4) At equilibrium, !!"#$$ = 0
The difference in heat change at constant pressure
and constant volume at 27°C is 8. The heat of atomisation of PH3(g) is 228 kcal mol–1
and that of P2H4(g) is 355 kcal mol–1. The energy
(1) – 2.5 kJ (2) + 2.5 kJ of the P–P bond is (in kcal)
(3) Zero (4) – 0.50 kJ (1) 36 (2) 150
(3) 101 (4) 51
4. !!!
"
For the reaction ! #!!
!"
9. Calculate the Gibbs energy change when 1 mole
The temperature dependence of equilibrium of NaCl is dissolved in water at 298 K. Given,
constant is given by
a. Lattice energy of NaCl = 778 kJ mol–1
!""" b. Hydration energy of NaCl = – 774.3 kJ mol–1
log10 Kc = #$"
% c. Entropy change at 298 K = 43 J mol–1
The value of S° at a particular temperature is (1) – 3.7 kJ (2) – 9.1 kJ
(1) 4.0 R (2) 18.42 R (3) – 43 kJ (4) – 13.14 kJ
(3) 32.67 R (4) 9.3 R 10. The heat of neutralisation of HCl with NH4OH and
NaOH with CH3COOH are respectively –51.4 and
5. Heat of neutralisation of NaOH with equivalent –50.6 kJeq–1. The heat of neutralisation of acetic
amount of acid is maximum in case of acid with NH4OH will be
(1) HI (2) HCl (1) –50.6 kJeq–1 (2) –57.4 kJeq–1
(3) HBr (4) HF (3) –44.6 kJeq–1 (4) –70.2 kJeq–1
44 Thermodynamics Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
11. The internal energy change when a system goes 18. The work done in an open vessel at 300 K, when
from state A to B is 60 kJ/mole. If the system 112 g iron reacts with dil. HCl to form FeCl2 is
goes from A to B by a reversible path and returns
(1) 1200 cal (2) 600 cal
to state A by an irreversible path, what would be
the net change in internal energy? (3) 300 cal (4) 200 cal
(1) 60 kJ (2) Greater than 60 kJ 19. Enthalpy and entropy of reaction A B are
–20 kJ/mole and +400 J/mole/K respectively, then
(3) Less than 60 kJ (4) Zero at what temperature the process will be
12. x ml of 1 M HCl and x ml of 1 M NaOH are mixed spontaneous?
then temperature increases by y°C. If 2x ml of (1) 60 K (2) 100 K
same acid and base is mixed then temperature
increases by (3) 25 K (4) All of these
(1) y°C (2) 2y°C 20. Which is correct?

(1) For coupled reaction G = positive always
(3) 0.5y°C (4) 3y°C
(2) For irreversible isothermal process, dStotal > 0
13. The specific heat at constant volume for a gas is
0.075 cal/g and at constant pressure is (3) At equilibrium, G° = 0
0.125 cal/g. Find the atomicity of gas
(4) For cyclic process, U 0
(1) One (2) Two 21. Calculate enthalpy of the reaction
(3) Three (4) Four CH CH + 2H2 CH3 – CH3. Given bond energy
of C C, C – H, H – H, C – C are 194, 99, 104,
14. If enthalpy of solution of anhydrous and hydrated 83 kcal respectively
copper sulphate is –x and y kJ/mol respectively,
then enthalpy of hydration of anhydrous copper (1) 181 kcal (2) 77 kcal
sulphate into hydrated copper sulphate is (3) –181 kcal (4) –77 kcal
(1) (x + y) kJ (2) (x – y) kJ 22. For which of the following reaction heat change at
constant pressure is not equal to heat change at
!! ""
(3) # $ #$ (4) (–x – y) kJ constant volume?
% % &
(1) Dissociation of HI(g) into H2(g) and I2(g)
15. Which is extensive property?
(2) Combustion of graphite
(1) Standard electrode potential
(3) Formation of ammonia
(2) pH
(4) All of these
(3) Free energy
23. The enthalpy of formation of H2O(vap) is –a kJ/mol
(4) Molarity and enthalpy of vaporisation of liquid water is
16. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 1 × 102 b kJ/mol. The enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) is
at 300 K. The standard free energy change for this (1) –(a + b)kJ
reaction is (approx.)
(2) (a + b) kJ
(1) + 11.5 kJ (2) – 11.5 kJ
(3) (a – b) kJ
(3) + 26.6 kJ (4) – 26.6 kJ (4) (b – a) kJ
17. The reaction will non-spontaneous, if 24. Which is an intensive property ?
(1) H = +ve and S = +ve (1) Normality
(2) H = –ve and S = –ve (2) pH
(3) H = –ve and S = +ve (3) Temperature
(4) H = +ve and S = –ve (4) All of these
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Thermodynamics 45
25. The correct statement is 32. Which of the following is an intensive property?
(1) Entropy of the system at equilibrium state is (1) Mass (2) Volume
maximum
(3) Specific heat (4) All of these
(2) Total change in entropy at equilibrium is not
zero 33. Which of the following statements is correct?
(3) Work done in isothermal free expansion (1) Rate of diffusion of helium is twice than
process is zero methane under identical condition of
temperature and pressure
(4) Go is zero at equilibrium
26. Which of the following is intensive property? (2) On applying pressure, melting of ice
decreases
(1) Free energy (2) Specific heat
(3) Work done in the expansion of ideal gas in
(3) Heat capacity (4) Entropy vacuum is not zero
! ! !
27. If " # $ " $ # % & ' () *+ then (4) "# # "# ! the heat change in this
, ! - ! $ !
heat change during reaction of metal X with 1 mole reaction represent the enthalpy of formation of
O2 to form oxide to maximum extent is CO2
(1) 320 kJ (2) 160 kJ 34. The latent heat of vaporisation of a liquid at 500 K
(3) –320 kJ (4) –160 kJ and 1 atm pressure is 10.0 kcal/mol, what will be
the change in internal energy of 3 moles of liquid
28. Which of the following conditions will always lead at the same temperature?
to non-spontaneous change at all temperatures?
(1) 13.0 kcal (2) 20 kcal
(1) H = –ve, S = –ve (2) H = +ve, S = +ve
(3) 27 kcal (4) 7 kcal
(3) H = +ve, S = –ve (4) H = –ve, S = +ve
35. In a closed insulated container a liquid is stirred
29. When 0.532 g of benzene (C6H6), is burnt with
with a paddle to increase the temperature, which
excess of oxygen at a constant volume, 22.3 kJ of
of the following is true?
heat is given out. Calculate H for the combustion
process (R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1, boiling point 353 K) (1) E=W 0
(1) –3269.8 kJ mol–1 (2) –3274.2 kJ mol–1 (2) E=W=q 0
(3) 3269.8 kJ mol–1 (4) +3274.2 kJ mol–1 (3) E = 0, W = q 0
30. Which of the following reaction has positive value
(4) W = 0, E = q 0
of enthalpy change ( H)?
(1) C(s) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) 36. 2 mole of an ideal gas at 27ºC is expanded
reversibly from 2 lit to 20 lit. The entropy change
(2) !! " #! " $!# " will be (R = 2 cal/mole K)
! (1) 92.1 cal K–1mol–1 (2) 0 cal K–1mol–1

(3) CO(g) + O (g) CO2(g)
" 2
(3) 4 cal K–1mol–1 (4) 9.2 cal K–1mol–1
(4) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
37. For the process dry ice CO2(g)
31. The favourable conditions for melting of ice is
(1) H is positive and S is negative
(1) High pressure, low temperature
(2) Both H and S are negative
(2) Low pressure, high temperature
(3) Low pressure, low temperature (3) Both H and S are positive
(4) High pressure, high temperature (4) H is negative and S is positive
38. The enthalpy of neutralisation of acetic acid and 45. Absolute value, which can be measured for the
sodium hydroxide is 55.4 kJ. What is enthalpy of thermodynamic macroscopic property of a system
ionisation of acetic acid? is
(1) – 1.7 kJ (2) + 1.7 kJ (1) Internal energy (2) Enthalpy
(3) + 5.54 kJ (4) – 5.54 kJ (3) Gibb’s free energy (4) Entropy
39. Heat of combustion for C(s), H2(g) and CH4(g) are 46. For the reactions which are spontaneous at low
–94, –68 and –213 kcal/mol. Then heat of temperature while non-spontaneous at high
formation of CH4 will be temperature
(1) H = +ve and S = –ve
(1) – 17 kcal (2) – 111 kcal
(2) H = –ve and S = +ve
(3) –170 kcal (4) + 17 kcal
(3) H = +ve and S = +ve
40. AB, A2 and B2 are diatomic molecules. If the bond
enthalpies of A 2 , AB and B 2 are in the ratio (4) H = –ve and S = –ve
1 : 1 : 0.5 and enthalpy of formation of AB from A2 47. If bond enthalpy of N N, H – H and N – H bonds
and B2 is 100 kJ mol–1. The bond energy of A2 will are x1, x2 and x3 respectively, Hfº for NH3 will be
be
$ "
(1) 200 kJ mol–1 (2) 100 kJ mol–1 (1) x1 + 3x2 – 6x3 (2) !# !" "! !
# #
(3) 300 kJ mol–1 (4) 400 kJ mol–1 $ #
(3) # ! # !" !! (4) 6x3– x1 – 3x2
41. Which of the following is always true for a " "
spontaneous change at all temperature?
48. Which of the following is incorrect relation for a
(1) H > 0; S < 0 (2) H < 0; S < 0 perfect gas?
(3) H < 0; S > 0 (4) H > 0; S > 0 ! (" & ##

(1) # $ & (2) $ ! !
42. Which of the following statement is false? % ' &! % " "!
(1) Work is a state function & $# & ##

(3) $ ! ! (4) $ ! !
% " "" % " "!
(2) Temperature is a state function
49. Which of the following reaction will evolve maximum
(3) Change in the state is completely defined when amount of heat?
the initial and final states are specified
(1) $% !"#$
'& "#$% ! '& "#$% !
(4) Work appears at the boundary of the system
(2) $&' !"#$
43. The heat of atomization of PH3(g) is 228 kcal mol–1 '& "#$% ! '& "#$% !
and that of P2H4(g) is 355 kcal mol–1. The energy
of the P–P bond is (3) $!#( (#$
'& "#$% ! '& "#$% !
(1) 102 kcal mol–1 (2) 51 kcal mol–1 (4) Same amount of heat is evolved in all
(3) 26 kcal mol–1 (4) 204 kcal mol–1 50. Select the correct statement
44. Temperature of smoke of a 5 mol of gas is (1) Entropy increases when graphite is converted
decreased by 2 K at constant pressure. The into diamond
correct statement for this is
(2) For a reaction, H is –ve and S is –ve then
(1) Work done by gas is 5R reaction is spontaneous at low temperature
(2) Work done on gas is 10R (3) Entropy decreases when NaCl(s) is dissolved
in water
(3) Work done by gas is 10 R
(4) For spontaneous process S total may be
(4) Work done = 0 negative
51. A system at 27º C absorbed x kJ energy which is 56. Calculate the enthalpy of formation of MgBr2 from
loses by the surrounding at 127ºC. The net change following data
in the entropy of the universe would be
Hsublimation of Mg = 148 kJ mol–1
$ $
(1) + (2) – Hvaporisation of Br2 = 31 kJ mol–1
!"# !"#
HIonisation energy of Mg = 2187 kJ mol–1
$ $
(3) + (4) – HBond dissociation energy of Br2 = 193 kJ mol–1
!"## !"##
52. If observed enthalpy of formation of Benzene is !! "#$% !%&'#()* of Br = –331 kJ mol–1

+x kJ and E H = + y kJ, E C–C = + z kJ,
2
EC=C = + p kJ, EC–H = +q kJ, H(graphite) C(g) = +r HLattice energy = –2421 kJ mol–1
kJ, then resonance energy of Benzene is (E = bond (1) –524 kJ mol–1 (2) –193 kJ mol–1
energy)
(3) +524 kJ mol–1 (4) –1048 kJ mol–1
(1) x + 2r + 4y + 4z – 3p – 2q
57. A system which can neither exchange matter nor
(2) x + 6r + 3y + 4z – 4p – 3q energy with the surrounding is called
(3) x – 6r – 3y + 3z + 3p + 6q (1) Open system (2) Isolated system
(4) x + 3r + 3y + 3z – 3p – 6q (3) Closed system (4) Both (1) & (2)
53. ( H– E) is minimum in which of the following 58. An example of extensive property is
reaction at a given temperature?
(1) Temperature (2) Internal energy
(1) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g)
(3) Viscosity (4) Molar heat capacity
(2) CaCO3 (s) CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
59. The amount of heat evolved when 500 cm3 of 0.1
(3) NH4HS (s) NH3 (g) + H2S (g) M HCl is mixed with 200 cm3 of 0.2 M NaOH
(4) 2NH3 (g) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) solution
54. Which of the following represents standard (1) 2.284 kJ (2) 2.85 kJ
enthalpy of formation of CO2(g)?
(3) 5.71 kJ (4) 3.2 kJ
(1) C(Graphite) + O2 (g) CO2(g)
60. For the reaction, H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g)
" (1) qP < qV (2) qP > qV
(2) CO(g) + O (g) CO2 (g)
! 2
(3) qP = qV (4) qP = 0
! 61. The enthalpy change of a reaction does not depend
(3) C(Graphite) + O (g) CO2(g)
# 3 on
(4) 2C(Graphite) + 2 O2 (g) 2CO2(g)
(1) Physical state of reactants and products
55. The entropy change for an ideal gas in an isochoric
(2) Nature of reactant
process is correctly given by the expression
(3) Different intermediate state
!"
(1) S = n CV R ln (4) Temperature
!!
62. Calculate the H° for
!"
(2) S = n CV ln C (graphite) C (diamond) from the following data
!!
C (graphite) + O2 CO2(g) ; H° = –393.5 kJ
!"
(3) S = n R ln
!! C (diamond) + O2 CO2(g) ; H° = –395.4 kJ
"# ! (1) 1900 J (2) + 788.9 103 J

!"
(4) S= ln
! !! (3) –788.9 103J (4) 1900000 J
63. The enthalpy change for the reaction is called 69. Variation of vapour-pressure with temperature is
shown correctly by
C2H4 + 3O2 2CO2 + 2H2O
!! " !# #"
(1) Enthalpy of formation (1) $%& # ' $
!" ()*+*, % -! -" &
(2) Enthalpy of vaporisation
-! " !# #"
(3) Enthalpy of sublimation (2) $%& # ' $
-" ()*+*, % !! !" &
(4) Enthalpy of combustion
!! "#$%$ & ! ' '"
64. The sign of H, S and G for the given reaction (3) ()* # + $
!" , % -" -! &
!
"! #$% &! #$% "! &#'% !" " !# #"
( (4) $%& # ' $
!! ()*+*, % -! -" &
H S G
70. Which of the following is true?
(1) +ve +ve –ve
(1) +ve catalyst lowers the value of G
(2) –ve –ve –ve (2) +ve catalyst increases the value of G
(3) +ve catalyst has no effect on value of G
(3) +ve +ve +ve
(4) +ve catalyst decreases Keq
(4) –ve –ve +ve 71. The specific heat of an elementary gas is found to
be 0.313 J g–1 at constant volume. If the molar
65. Which of the following equations correctly
mass of gas is found to be 40 g mol–1, what is the
represents the !!" of ethane? atomicity of gas?
(1) 2C(diamond) + 3H2(g) C2H6(g) (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) Zero
(2) C2H4(g) + H2(g) C2H6(g)
72. In which of the following process entropy change
(3) 2C(graphite) + 3H2(g) C2H6(g) ( S) is negative?
(1) Hg(!) Hg(g)
(4) 4C(graphite) + 6H2(g) 2C2H6(g)
(2) Cgraphite Cdiamond
66. A certain gas initially at room temperature (3) AgNO3(s) AgNO3(aq)
undergoes expansion in volume from 4 L to 12 L
(4) I2(s) I2(g)
at constant temperature in vacuum. The work done
in the expansion 73. A reaction A + B C + D + q; is found to have
a positive entropy change, the reaction will be
(1) –973 J (2) +973 J (1) Possible at high temperature
(3) –801 J (4) Zero (2) Possible only at low temperature
(3) Not possible at low temperature
67. The energy required to raise the temperature of
(4) Possible at any temperature
12.0 g of iron from 25°C to 100°C, if specific heat
of iron is 0.45 J°C–1g–1 is 74. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible
when
(1) 0.945 kJ (2) 0.405 kJ (1) Surroundings and system change into each
other
(3) 0.285 kJ (4) 12.34 kJ
(2) There is no boundary between system and
68. The total entropy change of a system and surroundings
surrounding is positive for (3) The surroundings are always in equilibrium with
the system
(1) Reversible process (2) Irreversible process
(4) The system changs into the surrounding
(3) Isochoric process (4) Adiabatic process spontaneously
75. An ideal gas is allowed to expand both reversibly 80. Process IV will be
and irreversibly in an isolated system. If Ti is the
initial temperature and Tf is the final temperature. #
!
Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) Tf(irr) > Tf(rev) ##
(2) Tf > Ti for reversible process but Tf = Ti for #" ###

irreversible process
"
(3) Tf(rev) = Tf(irr) (1) Isobaric
(4) T f = T i for both reversible as well as for (2) Adiabatic
irreversible process
(3) Isochoric
76. Heat of neutralisation of strong base and strong
acid is 57.0 kJ. The heat released when 0.2 mole (4) Isothermal
of HNO3 solution is added to 0.5 mole of NaOH
81. Which of the following neutralization reaction evolve
solution is
maximum amount of heat if one equivalent of each
(1) 57.0 kJ (2) 28.5 kJ acid and base is taken?
(3) 34.9 kJ (4) 11.4 kJ (1) NaOH + HCl
77. The enthalpy of neutralisation of HCl and NaOH is
(2) NaOH + H2SO4
–57.1 kJ. How much heat is released (magnitude
only) if 100 ml 1 N HCl and 50 ml 1 N NaOH are (3) KOH + HF
mixed?
(4) KOH + HBr
(1) 57.1 kJ (2) 5.71 kJ
82. If enthalpy of formation of H2O (vap) is –x kJ and
(3) 0.571 kJ (4) 2.85 kJ enthalpy of vaporisation of water is y kJ then
78. The equation of the heat of formation of Cu2O is enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) would be
" (1) (x + y) kJ
2Cu(s) + O (g) Cu2O(s) ;
! 2 (2) (x – y) kJ
!!" "#$$%& '()*+,
(3) (y – x) kJ
The first and second ionisation enthalpies of Cu are (4) –(x + y) kJ
750 and 2000 kJ/mol, whereas its atomisation
energy is 339.3 kJ/mol. The first and second 83. The correct relation among the following is
electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is –141.4 and (1) H Hydration = H Solution –
of anhydrous comp
+790.8 and its enthalpy of atomisation is
HSolution of hydrated comp
249.2 kJ/mol. The lattice energy of Cu2O is
(2) HHydration = HSolution of hydrated comp – HSolution
(1) –4143.1 kJ mol –1
of anhydrous comp
(2) –3243.9 kJ mol –1
(3) HHydration = HSolution of hydrated comp + HSolution
(3) –2143.1 kJ mol –1
of anhydrous comp
(4) –5243.9 kJ mol –1 (4) H Hydration = H Solution +
of hydrated comp
79. Which of the following statement is correct? 2x HSolution of anhydrous comp
(1) Entropy increases when graphite is converted 84. Which of the following process has maximum work
into diamond done?
(2) Entropy decreases on boiling eggs (1) Isothermal reversible expansion
(3) In isothermal process change in internal energy (2) Isothermal reversible contraction
is not zero
(3) Isochoric
(4) Entropy of rubber band on stretching
decreases (4) Adiabatic
85. A system losses 100 kJ of energy at 127°C to 90. How many moles of butane must be burnt to heat
atmosphere which is at 27°C. The net change in 10 dm 3 of water from 30°C to 100°C? Given
entropy (in kJ/K) of the universe is ( H comb of butane = –2.8 × 10 3 kJ mol –1 ,
!!"!#$ = 1.0 g/cc, specific heat of water
! !
(1) (2) = 4.18 JK–1 g–1)
!" !%
(1) 1.04 mol (2) 2.1 mol
!
(3) (4) Zero (3) 1.5 mol (4) 0.8 mol
!"
91. If enthalpy of combustion of benzene is x at
86. An example of extensive property is constant pressure and y at constant volume then
(1) Temperature which of the following relationship is correct for
combustion reaction of benzene at 27°C?
(2) Internal energy
(1) x – y = –1.5 RT (2) x – y = 1.5 RT
(3) Viscosity
(3) x + y = 3 RT (4) x + y = –3 RT
(4) Molar heat capacity
92. For a reaction ! " , the value of H and S
87. Which of the following process involves increase
are 50.50 kJ mol–1 and 100 J K–1 respectively. The
and decrease in entropy respectively?
temperature at which G = 0 is
(1) Boiling of eggs, dissolution of NaCl in water
(1) 505°C (2) 232°C
(2) Stretching of rubber band, condensation of
(3) 252°C (4) 450°C
water vapour
93. A system X undergoes following changes
(3) Stretching of rubber band, boiling of eggs
(4) Boiling of eggs, stretching of rubber band ! " # !
!"!#$!#%!& !"" #$" #%" & !"# #$# #%# & !"!#$!#%!&
88. In a chemical reaction enthalpy change and entropy The overall process may called
change are 30 kJ mol–1 and 100 J mol–1 respectively
at 27°C, then which of the following statement is (1) Reversible process
correct? (2) Cyclic process
(1) The reaction is spontaneous at 27°C (3) Cyclic as well as reversible process
(2) The reaction is spontaneous below 27°C (4) Isochoric process
(3) The reaction is non-spontaneous at all 94. The most random state of H2O is
temperature
(1) Ice at 0°C, 1 atm
(4) The reaction is at equilibrium
(2) H2O(l) at 0°C, 1 atm
89. The pressure-volume behaviour of various
thermodynamics processes is shown below (3) H2O(l) at 25°C, 1 atm
! !"# (4) H2O(l) at 80°C, 1 atm
!%# 95. The change in Gibb’s free energy at equilibrium is
!$#
(1) Zero (2) Minimum
" (3) Negative (4) Maximum
Find the correct match 96. A gas occupies 2 L at STP. It is provided with
(1) (A) – Isobaric process 300 J of heat so that its volume become 2.5 L at
a pressure of 1 atm. The value of U of the process
(2) (B) – Isochoric process
is
(3) (C) – Isothermal process
(1) 249.3 J (2) 350.6 J
(4) All of these
(3) 150.3 J (4) 400.0 J
97. Calculate enthalpy of neutralisation if 1 mole H2SO4 105. Which has maximum internal energy at 290 K?
is completely neutralised by NaOH and (1) Ne
H+ + OH– H2O + q1 (2) N2
(1) – q1 (2) + q1 (3) O3
(3) – 2 q1 (4) + 2q1 (4) All have equal internal energy
98. Which among the following is an extensive property 106. G = negative for which process?
of the system? (1) Isothermal (2) Spontaneous
(1) Temperature (2) Volume (3) Adiabatic (4) Non-spontaneous
(3) Density (4) Specific heat 107. According to the set of conditions given below,
99. The heat of solution of MSO4 is –15.9 kcal and that which is not true?
of MSO4.5H2O is 2.8 kcal. The heat of hydration of
(1) Isothermal – ! "
MSO4 is !"#$%&'
(1) +18.7 kcal (2) –18.7 kcal (2) Equilibrium – G=0

(3) –15.9 kcal (4) –2.8 kcal (3) In vacuum – Work done = 0
100. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (4) Cyclic process – Work done = 0
(1) The energy of an isolated system is constant 108. H for bond O = O is x kJ/mol, O – H is y kJ/mol
and H – H is z kJ/mol, then enthalpy of formation
(2) Reversible process are infinitely slow in which
of water is given by
system and surrounding are always in
equilibrium !
(1) " #$ (2) "% $ &'
(3) Expansion of gas from high pressure to low #
pressure is called free expansion !
(3) #$ " (4) &' () *
#
(4) Heat has randomising influence on the system
109. Entropy at equilibrium is
101. An endothermic reaction is spontaneous if
(1) Zero (2) Negative
( S = +ve)
(3) Maximum (4) Minimum
(1) H>T S (2) H<T S
110. Reaction will become spontaneous, if
(3) H=T S (4) G=0
(1) Exothermic, S = +ve, – at all temperature
102. Driving force of a reaction is the
(2) Exothermic, S = –ve, – at all temperature
(1) Resultant of enthalpy and entropy change
(3) Endothermic, S = –ve, – at high temperature
(2) Resultant of enthalpy and internal energy
(4) Both (1) & (3)
change
111. 2 mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and
(3) Resultant of entropy and internal energy
reversibly from 1 L to 10 L at 300 K, what is
change
enthalpy change in kJ?
(4) Resultant of work, enthalpy and internal energy (1) 4.98 (2) 11.47
change
(3) –11.47 (4) 0
103. H = E = 0 is a feature of
112. If H = +ve and S = –ve then the process should
(1) Isothermal change (2) Isobaric change be spontaneous at
(3) Isochoric change (4) Adiabatic change (1) Moderate temperature
104. Which of the following is extensive property? (2) High temperature
(1) Specific heat (2) Specific volume (3) Low temperature
(3) Heat capacity (4) Specific gravity (4) Never spontaneous
113. Which of the following set contains only extensive 120. When a gas is passed through a small hole at a
properties? temperature greater than its critical temperature,
Joule -Thomson effect will show
(1) Kinetic energy, density
(1) Cooling of the gas
(2) Specific heat, heat capacity
(2) First cooling then warming
(3) Normality, colour
(3) First warming then cooling
(4) Surface area, Free energy
(4) Warming of the gas
114. Work done if 100 g water is electrolysed at a
constant pressure of 1 atm 121. If enthalpy of hydrogenation of benzene is H1 and
for cyclohexene is H2. The resonance energy of
(1) –19.0 kJ (2) 203.8 J
benzene is
(3) 8.33 kJ (4) 42.20 kJ
(1) –3 H2 + H1 (2) 3 H2 – 2 H1
115. Identify the extensive quantities from the following.
(3) 3 H1 + H2 (4) 3 H1 + 2 H2
(1) Specific heat (2) Heat capacity
!
(3) Pressure (4) Molar entropy 122. "! #$%& '"$(&#! $%& , H = 30 kJ mol–1
'
116. Which of the following element is having non-zero and S = 0.07 kJ K–1 mol–1 at 1 atm, upto which
value of heat of formation? temperature the reaction would not be
spontaneous?
(1) C(graphite) (2) S(rhombic)
(1) T > 428 K (2) T < 428.57 K
(3) O3 (4) O2
(3) T = 100 K (4) T = 873 K
117. Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and XY4 are 30, 60 and
110 J/K mol respectively. For the reaction 123. For the reaction
! !!"" #$% !!"! #$%&'&"! #$%(

(! )*)"+! )(+" , -).)/)&#)012 To be at
" ")&*&+,-&./&01234
equilibrium, the temperature will be Calculate the bond enthalpy of N = N.
(1) 800 K (2) 1600 K Given : B.E. of (N – N) = 163 kJ/mol
(3) 750 K (4) 1800 K B.E. of (N – H) = 391 kJ/mol
118. Which of the following is/are endothermic process? B.E. of (H – H) = 436 kJ/mol
(1) Combustion of glucose (1) 182 kJ/mol (2) 400 kJ/mol
(2) Decomposition of water (3) 300 kJ/mol (4) 218 kJ/mol
(3) Conversion of graphite to diamond 124. When a certain amount of ethylene was burnt
(4) Both (2) & (3) 6226 kJ heat was evolved. If heat of combustion of
ethylene is 1411 kJ, the atoms of oxygen at NTP that
119. Which of the following is true for reversible entered in the reaction is (NA = 6.02 × 1023)
isothermal process?
(1) 26.46 (2) 26.46 NA
3
(1) 4#$% "25#5)678)9:;) ! !! !"#$"
3& (3) (4)
"#$%# %!
!! 125. For the reaction 2H(g) H2(g), the signs of H
(2) ."#$ "#$%$/0,-/()*/
!% and S respectively are
(3) T=0 (1) +, + (2) +, –
(4) All of these (3) –, + (4) –, –
126. For A B; G = – 100 kcal 133. If the heat of combustion of carbon monoxide at
constant volume and at 17°C is – 283.3 kJ, then
C B; G = + 200 kcal
its heat of combustion at constant pressure
For A C the value of G (R = 8.314 J degree–1 mol–1)
(1) + 100 (2) – 300 (1) – 284.5 kJ (2) 284.5 kJ
(3) + 300 (4) + 200 (3) 384.5 kJ (4) – 384.5 kJ
127. Which of the following is an intensive property?
134. 3 moles of an ideal gas expands isothermally and
(1) Temperature (2) Pressure reversibly from 2 litre to 20 litre at 27°C. The work
(3) Viscosity (4) All of these done is
128. At constant temperature, S will be maximum for (1) –17.2 kJ (2) +17.2 kJ
which of the following processes? (3) +11.5 kJ (4) –11.5 kJ
(1) Vaporisation of a pure solvent 135. The heat of neutralisation of a strong acid by a
(2) Vaporisation of solvent from solution containing strong base is equal to H of
nonvolatile and non-electrolytic solute in it (1) H2O + H+ H3O+
(3) Vaporisation of solvent from a solution (2) 2H2 + O2 2H2O
containing nonvolatile but electrolytic solute in
it (3) CH3COOH + NaOH CH3COONa + H2O
(4) Entropy change will be same in all the above (4) H+ + OH– H2O
cases 136. When NH 4NO3 dissolves in water the solution
129. Calculate bond enthalpy of C–Cl in CCl4 (g) becomes cold. What is !" for the process?
CCl4 (g) C (g) + 4Cl (g) (1) Zero (2) Positive
Given : vap H° (CCl4) = 30.5 kJ/mol (3) Negative (4) Data insufficient
f° H (CCl4) = – 135.5 kJ/mol 137. The reaction of NH2CN with dioxygen was carried
H° (C) = 715 kJ/mol out in a bomb calorimeter and enthalpy change was
a
found to be – 742.7 kJ mol–1 at 298 K. Enthalpy
a H° (Cl2) = 242 kJ/mol change of the reaction at constant pressure will be
where a H° is enthalpy of atomisation !
NH2CN(g) + O2(g) N2(g) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
(1) 1304 kJ/mol (2) 326 kJ/mol "
(3) 549 kJ/mol (4) 791 kJ/mol (1) + 743.9 kJ (2) – 743.9 kJ
130. Which of the following process is always feasible? (3) – 741.5 kJ (4) + 741.5 kJ
(1) H > 0, S > 0 (2) H < 0, S > 0 138. A reaction A + B C + D + q is found to have
a negative entropy change and exothermic. The
(3) H > 0, S < 0 (4) H < 0, S < 0
reaction will be
131. The enthalpy of neutralisation of a weak acid with
(1) Feasible at high temperature only
NaOH is –54.1 kJ. The enthalpy of ionisation of the
weak acid will be (2) Feasible at low temperature only
(1) –57.1 kJ (2) –3.0 kJ (3) Not feasible at any temperature only
(3) + 3.0 kJ (4) –111.2 kJ (4) Feasible at any temperature
132. Which of the following are not state function? 139. Which is correct for adiabatic process?
I. q+w II. q (1) W = U
III. w IV. H – TS (2) q = U
(1) I, II & III (2) II & III (3) W = q
(3) I & IV (4) II, III & IV (4) W = –q
140. For isothermal process on an ideal gas 147. The given reaction, !"#$% %&! "'$% %!& ! "'$
(1) q = –W (2) H=0 will be spontaneous at
(3) U=0 (4) All of these (1) Low temperature (2) High temperature
141. If a gas expands from 2 L to 5 L against a (3) Any temperature (4) Data insufficient
pressure 1 atm then the irreversible work done is 148. U° of combustion of ethane is –x kJ mol–1. The
nearly value of ! is
(1) 3 J (2) –3 J (1) = U° (2) > U°
(3) 304 J (4) –304 J (3) < U° (4) = 0
142. (Cp – Cv) for 10 moles of ideal gas will be 149. In a process, 701 J of heat is absorbed by a
system and 394 J of work is done by the system.
" The change in internal energy is
(1) 10R (2)
#$
(1) –307 J (2) 307 J
(3) R (4) 5R (3) –1095 J (4) 1095 J
143. 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) 2Fe2O3(s), 150. Which of the following is intensive property?
entropy change for the reaction is –549.4 JK–1
(1) Ecell (2) !!"#$$
mol –1 at 298 K and enthalpy change for the
reaction is –1648 × 103 J mol–1. They, (3) Molarity (4) All of these
(1) The above reaction is spontaneous at given 151. The relationship between equilibrium constant K
temperature and free energy change of the process is given by
(2) The above reaction is non-spontaneous at given !
temperature (1) G = – RT logK (2) < 789:;
=
(3) The above reaction is at equilibrium (3) G° = 2RT logK (4) G° = 2.303 RT logK–1
(4) All of these 152. The standard enthalpies of formation of NO2(g) and
N 2 O 4 (g) are 8 kcal-mol –1 and 2 kcal-mol –1
144. If bond energies of H2, Cl2 and HCl are x, y and
respectively. The heat of dimerisation of NO2 in
z kJ/mole respectively, then enthalpy of formation
gaseous state is
of HCl is
(1) 10 kcal mol–1 (2) 6.0 kcal mol–1
(1) x + y – 2z (2) 0.5x + 0.5y – z
(3) –14 kcal mol–1 (4) –6.0 kcal mol–1
(3) z – x – y (4) x – y – z
145. The correct sign of H, S and G for the process 153. If &> 5?! "> !?' and heat produced is
2000 kJ, then HCombustion of ‘A’ is
CH4 + O2 CO2 + H2O
(1) – 2000 kJ/mole (2) – 1000 kJ/mole
H S G
(3) – 500 kJ/mole (4) – 250 kJ/mole
(1) –ve +ve –ve
154. Given that :
(2) –ve –ve –ve
C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g); H° = – aJ
(3) –ve +ve +ve
2CO(g) + O2 2CO2(g); H° = – bJ
(4) +ve +ve +ve
The enthalpy of formation of CO(g) will be
146. When two ideal gases intermix with each other,
!" #$
then (1) (2) (2a + b)
%
(1) S=0 (2) G=0
!" #$%
(3) S = –ve (4) H=0 (3) (4) (b – 2a)
#
155. 1 g hydrated oxalic acid upon combustion
SECTION - B
produces 2.2 kcal of heat. Its enthalpy of
combustion is Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(1) –2.2 kcal (2) –126 kcal In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(3) –277.2 kcal (4) –423 kcal (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
156. State function among the following is (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(1) q + w (2) S reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1).
(3) G (4) All of these
157. In which of the following process entropy (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
decreases? reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) NaCl NaCl (aq)
(2) CH2 = CH2 CH3CH3 (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false, then mark (3).
(3) Hard boiling of egg
(4) Reverse osmosis
158. When 200 ml of 0.05 M NaOH and 200 ml of
0.05 M HCl are mixed the rise in temperature is 1. A: G < 0 is criterion for a process to be
T1. If 0.1 M solutions of both are mixed in same spontaneous.
volumes, then the rise in temperature is T2. T1 and R: G is related to H and S by the relation
T2 are related as G = H – T S.
!! 2. A : Heat of neutralisation of HF + NaOH is more
(1) T2 = T1 (2) T2 =
" than that of HCl + NaOH.
!"! R : HF is stronger acid than HCl.
(3) T2 = 2T1 (4) ""
#
3. A : Chlorine when solidified does not have zero
159. For the thermal decomposition of limestone the entropy even at absolute zero.
value of H° and S° are +179.1 kJ mol–1 and
R : Chlorine is a pungent smelling gas and it is
160.2 J/K respectively at 298 K and 1 bar.
difficult to solidify than oxygen.
Assuming that H° and S° do not change with
temperature, the temperature above which 4. A : Standard enthalpy of formation of graphite is
conversion of limestone to lime will be spontaneous lower than that of diamond.
is
R : Entropy of graphite is higher than that of
(1) 845 K (2) 1118 K diamond.
(3) 1008 K (4) 1200 K 5. A : In reversible process system and surrounding
160. At 27°C, PCl 5 is 50% dissociated. What is the exist in dynamic equilibrium.
value of G at 50°C and one atmosphere?
R : The flow of heat is unidirectional from higher
(1) G = – 300 R ln 3 (2) G = + 300 R ln 3 temperature to lower temperature.
(3) G = – 900 R ln 3 (4) G = + 900 R ln 3
6. A : Dissolution of gases in water proceeds with
161. Which of the following reaction is correct? negative value of S.
!! "! R : Dissolution of gases in water is always an
(1) 2.303 log K =
#$ # endothermic process.
(2) G = –2.303 R log K
7. A : An endothermic reaction may not be
!! "! spontaneous at room temperature, but may be
(3) –2.303 log K =
#$ " # spontaneous at high temperature.
! ! " R : Endothermic reaction is non-spontaneous at all

(4) 2.303 log K = # $ ( Ho + So) temperature.
% "# &
8. A : In cyclic process, the net entropy change is 15. A : At high pressure melting of ice is favoured.
zero.
R : Density of ice is less than water.
R : In cyclic process, work done is zero.
16. A : Enthalpy of formation of NH3 can be given by
9. A : In adiabatic expansion of gas temperature enthalpy of following reaction
decreases.
!!!"# "#!!"# $!#$!"#
R : For adiabatic expansion, q = 0.
10. A : Calorific value × Gram. Molecular mass = R : Enthalpy of formation is always positive for all
Molar enthalpy of combustion. the compounds.
R : Combustion reaction is exothermic in nature. 17. A : Crystallisation of a liquid involves the decrease
in entropy.
11. A : The chemical change involving breaking and
making of equal number of bonds has H = 0. R : Density of H2O(l) increases during conversion
R : The ratio of mass/volume is an extensive into solid.
property. 18. A : Combustion of organic compounds is an
12. A : Exothermic process may be spontaneous or exothermic process.
non-spontaneous. R : Enthalpy of formation of elements in standard
R : All endothermic process are always non- state is non-zero.
spontaneous at all temperature.
19. A : In isothermal expansion of ideal gas change in
13. A : HF + NaOH pair releases more energy than internal energy is zero.
HCl + NaOH if same number of equivalent of
each acid and base is taken. R : Internal energy of an ideal gas is the function
of temperature only and increases with
R : Hydration energy of F– is more than that of Cl–
increase in temperature.
due to smaller size of F– ion.
20. A : Many endothermic reactions that are not
14. A : Heat of ionization of water is equal to the heat
spontaneous at room temperature become
of neutralization of a strong acid with a strong
base, having opposite sign. spontaneous at high temperature.
R : Heat of neutralization for both HNO3 and HCl R : Entropy of system increases with increase in
with NaOH is –57.1 kJ per mole. temperature.
!" !" !
Chapter 5
Redox Reactions
6. The oxidation number of middle carbon in the

SECTION - A carbon sub-oxide is
Objective Type Questions (1) – 2 (2) + 4
1. The equivalent mass of As 2S3 in the following
!
reaction (3) (4) Zero
"
As 2 S 3 + NaClO 3 + NaOH Na 3 AsO 4 +
NaClO + Na2SO4, is 7. The mass of FeSO4 required to oxidise by 50 ml
of 0.2 M KMnO4 solution in the acidic medium is
(Assuming molar mass of As2S3 is M)
(1) 2.5 g (2) 2.0 g
! !
(1) (2) (3) 7.6 g (4) 10.56 g
" "
8. The oxidation state of Fe in Fe0.93 O1.00 is
! !
(3) (4) !""
"# "$
(1) + 2 (2)
2. The oxidation number of ‘S’ in H2SO5 is #$
(1) 8 (2) 6 #$
(3) (4) + 3
!""
(3) – 2 (4) 4
9. Molarity of 200 ml KMnO4 in acidic medium, which
3. The number of peroxide linkage in CrO5 is
can oxidise 20 ml of 30 volume H2O2 completely
(1) Zero (2) One is
(3) Two (4) Three (1) 1.6 M (2) 0.11 M
4. The number of moles of Fe C2O4 required to react (3) 3.2 M (4) 2.6 M
with one mole of KMnO4 in the acidic medium is
10. Number of peroxide linkage in CrO 5 , H 2 SO 5 ,
! " H2S2O8 are respectively
(1) mole (2) mole
" ! (1) 2, 1, 2
(2) 2, 2, 2
#
(3) mole (4) 1.0 mole (3) 1, 1, 1
!
5. If ‘M’ is the molar mass of P4 in the following (4) 2, 1, 1
reaction 11. !"#$! + KI Cu2I2 + I2 + K2SO4
P4 + 3OH– + 3H2O 3H2PO2– + PH3 Equivalent weight of underlined compound in this
The equivalent mass of P4 is reaction is
! ! !
(1) (2) (1) M (2)
" "# "
! ! !
(3) (4) M (3) (4)
# # "
58 Redox Reactions Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
12. 6NaOH + 3Cl2 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O 19. Which of the following is intramolecular redox
reaction?
n-factor of NaOH in this reaction is
(1) HNO3 + H2S S + NO + H2O
!
(1) 1 (2) (2) SO2 + H2S S + H2O
"
! " (3) KClO3 2KCl + 3O2
(3) (4)
" ! (4) Cl2 + NaOH NaCl + NaClO + H2O
13. How many mole of KMnO4 would be required for 20. Number of peroxide linkage in K 3 CrO 8 and
the complete reaction with one mole of sulphite ion Na2S2O3 is
in acidic solution?
(1) 2, 1 (2) 3, 0
# !
(1) (2) (3) 4, 0 (4) 1, 1
! "
$ $ 21. Oxidation number of N-atom in HNO4 is
(3) (4)
! ! (1) +3 (2) +7
! (3) +5 (4) +2
14. !"# (1 mole) in neutral aqueous medium
"
disproportionates to 22. Value of coefficient z and q respectively for

# % balanced reaction, xFeS 2 + yO 2 zFe 2 O 3 +
(1) mole of %&' ! and mole of MnO2 qSO2 is
$ $
(1) 4, 2 (2) 1, 4
% #
(2) mole of !"# ! and mole of MnO2 (3) 2, 8 (4) 4, 11
$ $
! ! 23. 100 gram sample of ferrous oxalate is oxidised
(3) mole of Mn2O7 and mole of MnO2 completely by 200 ml of 1M KMnO 4 in acidic
" "
medium. Percentage purity of sample is
# % approximately
(4) mole of Mn2O7 and mole of MnO2
$ "
(1) 10 (2) 25
15. Correct option for oxidation number of carbon in
hydrogen cyanide and hydrogen isocyanide is (3) 48 (4) 75
(1) HCN > HNC (2) HNC > HCN 24. Which can’t act as both oxidant and reductant ?
(3) HCN HNC (4) Not fixed (1) H2O2 (2) SO2
16. If M is the molar mass of K2Cr2O7. The equivalent (3) SO3 (4) HNO2
mass of K2Cr2O7 in the following reaction
25. Oxidation number of iron present within square
K2Cr2O7 K2CrO4 + Cr2O3 + O2 is bracket in Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 is
(1) +2 (2) +3
! !
(1) (2) (3) 8/3 (4) 0
" #
26. Which of the following is not a disproportionation
! ! reaction?
(3) (4)
"# %"
(1) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O 3NaH2PO2 + PH3
17. Which of the following can act as both oxidising as
(2) 3Cl2 + 6NaOH 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O
well as reducing agent?
(1) H2O2 (2) SO2 (3) 2HNO2 NO + NO2 + H2O
(3) HNO2 (4) All of these (4) 2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2
18. Which of the following is correct about bleaching 27. The n-factor of M 0.25 O in the reaction,
powder? M0.25O MO is
(1) It has both ionic and covalent bonds (1) 1.5
(2) The oxidation number of chlorine is –1 (2) 4.5
(3) The oxidation number of chlorine is +1 (3) 3
(4) All of these (4) 2.5
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Redox Reactions 59
28. The oxidation number of S-atom in H2S2O8 and 36. What is the coefficient of oxalate ion in the
H2SO5 respectively is following reaction?
(1) +6, +6 (2) +8, +7 MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O
(3) +6, +4 (4) +4, +6 (1) 4 (2) 2
29. How much volume of 0.03 M KMnO4 is needed to (3) 3 (4) 5
completely oxidise 1.8 g of anhydrous oxalic acid? 37. When SO 2 is passed through the solution of
(1) 266.66 ml (2) 240 ml potassium iodate, the oxidation state of Iodine
changes from
(3) 133.33 ml (4) 210 ml
(1) + 5 to 0 (2) + 5 to – 1
30. In the reaction
(3) – 5 to 0 (4) –7 to –1
I2 + 2Na2S2O3 Na2S4O6 + 2NaI
38. In the reaction between SO2 and O3 the equivalent
the equivalent weight of oxidant is weight of sulphur dioxide is
! (1) The same as its molecular weight
(1) M (2)
"
! (2) Half of the molecular weight
(3) (4) 2M
# #
31. One mole of K2Cr2O7 oxidises how many moles of (3) of the molecular weight
"
Sn+2?
#
# (4) of the molecular weight
(1) 3 (2) &
$
# 39. Which substance is serving as a reducing agent in
(3) (4) 6 the following reaction?
%
32. The oxidation state of central bromine atom in 14H+ + Cr2O72– + 3Ni 2Cr3+ + 7H2O + 3Ni2+
Br3O8 is (1) H+ (2) Cr2O72–
(1) Zero (3) H2O (4) Ni
(2) + 3 40. In the following reaction
(3) + 4 4P + 3KOH + 3H2O 3KH2PO2 + PH3
(4) + 7 (1) Only phosphorus is oxidised
33. The number of moles of HCl taking part in redox (2) Only phosphorus is reduced
change when reacts with KMnO4 to give Cl2 is (3) Phosphorus is both oxidised and reduced
(1) 16 (2) 6 (4) Phosphorus is neither oxidised nor reduced
(3) 8 (4) 10 41. The oxidation state shown by silicon when it
34. Calculate the number of moles of FeSO4 oxidised combines with strong electropositive metal is
by 1 mole of K2Cr2O7 (1) – 2 (2) – 4
! (3) + 4 (4) + 2
(1) 3 moles (2)
moles
" 42. In alkaline medium ClO2 oxidise H2O2 to O2 and
! reduced itself to Cl– then how many mole of H2O2
(3) 6 moles (4) moles
" will be oxidised by one mole of ClO2?
35. When 3.92 g of ferrous ammonium sulphate (1) 1.0 (2) 1.5
[FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O] dissolved in dil. H2SO4
(3) 2.5 (4) 3.5
was added to 50 cm3 of KMnO4, the pink colour
just disappeared. The strength of KMnO4 used in 43. Equivalent weight of FeC2O4 in the change
terms of g/litre will be FeC2O4 Fe3+ + CO2 is
(1) 6.32 " !
(2) 0.2 (1) (2)
! #
(3) 5.58 ! !
(3) (4)
(4) 7.82 # #
44. Equivalent mass of oxidising agent in the reaction 53. The oxidation number and covalency of sulphur in
S8 is
SO2 + 2H2S 3S + 2H2O is
(1) 0, 0 (2) 0, 2
(1) 32 (2) 64
(3) 0, 4 (4) 0, 6
(3) 16 (4) 8
54. Which is disproportionation reaction?
45. A, B and C are three elements forming part of a
compound in oxidation state of +2 +5 and –2 (1) !"!#! !"!# #!
respectively. What could be the compound?
(1) A2(BC)2 (2) A2(BC4)2 (2) !!"#$%&'(! !)"*'(! +" '&#'(! ,&"(
(3) A3(BC4)2 (4) ABC (3) !"" #$%# &%'! $%$ &!" '"%
46. Oxidation state of Cr atom in K3CrO8 is
(4) !"#$%&!'! !"#'" %&! '
(1) +2 (2) +6
55. Cu + aHNO 3 Cu(NO 3)2 + bNO 2 + H2 O. The
(3) +4 (4) +5
value of a and b is
47. For the oxidation of As2S3 into AsO43– and S by
(1) 3, 2 (2) 4, 2
HNO 3 the equivalent weight of ‘As 2S3’ will be
(Molar mass of As2S3 is M) (3) 2, 4 (4) 2, 3
! ! 56. Equivalent mass of oxidising agent in the reaction
(1) (2)
" $ !"! #$! ! %! #$! "
! ! (1) 32 (2) 64
(3) (4)
% "$ (3) 16 (4) 8
48. In a reaction, 3 mol of electrons are gained by 57. Number of electrons transferred in each case when
1 mole of HNO 3 acid assuming no change in KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent to give MnO2,
oxidation state of hydrogen, the possible product Mn2+, Mn(OH)3 and MnO42– are respectively
obtained due to reduction will be
(1) 3, 5, 4 and 1 (2) 4, 3, 1 and 5
(1) 1 mol of NO2 (2) 0.5 mol of N2O
(3) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (4) 5, 4, 3 and 1
(3) 1 mol of NO (4) 0.5 mol of NO
58. KI can be oxidised by KMnO4 in acidic medium
49. The equivalent mass of HCl in the reaction and alkaline medium, the products formed are
2 KMnO4 + 16 HCl 2KCl + 2MnCl2 + 5 Cl2 + respectively
8H2O is
(1) I2, I2 (2) I–, I2
" '
(1) M (2) M (3) I2, !""! (4) !"#! , !""!
! !
# # 59. Number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by one mole
(3) M (4) M of Sn2+ ion in acidic medium is
! '
50. The oxidation number of Cr-atom in CrO5 is !
(1) (2) 3
"
(1) +10 (2) +5
%
(3) +6 (4) +3 (3) (4) 6
"
51. The oxidation number of two different chlorine
atoms in bleaching powder (CaOCl2) 60. In the reaction
(1) 0, 0 (2) –1, 0 KMnO4 + H2SO4 + H2C2O4 K2SO4 + MnSO4 +

CO2 + H2O
(3) –1, –1 (4) –1, +1
which of the following act as autocatalyst?
52. In which of the following process, nitrogen is
oxidised? (1) MnO4–
(2) Mn2+
(1) !"! !" (2) !"! !"
(3) C2O4–2
(3) !" ! !" ! (4) !"! !#" (4) SO4–2
61. Phenolphthalein cannot be used as an indicator in 69. Choose the correct statement
the titration of (1) Oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is +10
(1) Strong acid versus strong base (2) Oxidation number of S in S8 is –2
(2) Weak acid versus strong base (3) Formal charge on the central oxygen in ozone
(3) Strong acid versus weak base is +1
(4) All of these (4) Formal charge on C in CO3– – is +2
70. Equivalent mass of reducing agent in the reaction
62. When Cl 2 is passed through hot conc. NaOH
solution, oxidation number of Cl changes from Fe3O4 + KMnO4 Fe2O3 + MnO2
(1) 0 to +5 and 0 to +3 (2) 0 to +7 and 0 to –1 ! !
(1) (2)
(3) 0 to –1 and 0 to +3 (4) 0 to +5 and 0 to –1 $ "
63. The reaction, ! !

(3) (4)
# "
!"#$ %&'( "#$! %&'( )"# %&'( 71. Calculate the oxidation number of underlined atoms
is an example of for the compounds KClO 4 and (CH 3 ) 2 SO
respectively
(1) Oxidation reaction (1) +1, 0 (2) +2, 0
(2) Reduction reaction (3) +1, 2 (4) +7, 0
(3) Disproportionation reaction 72. Which of the following is not correct for balanced
(4) Non-redox reaction redox reaction?
64. n-factor of HCl in the reaction (1) The total increase in oxidation number must
equal to total decrease in oxidation number
KMnO4 + HCl KCl + MnCl2 + Cl2 + H2O is
(2) There should be same number of atoms of
(1) 1 (2) 6 each kind in reactants and products
! ' (3) The sums of actual charges on both sides of
(3) (4) the equation must be equal to each other
' !
65. The pressure of hydrogen gas is increased from 1 (4) The use of half cell reaction does not permit us
atm to 100 atm, keeping the concentration of to balance equations using only the principles
hydrogen ions constant at 1 M. The voltage of of atom and charge conservation
hydrogen electrode at 25°C becomes !""#
(1) 0.059 V (2) –0.059 V
(3) 0.295 V (4) 0.118 V 73. a C 6H5CHO + b Cr2O72– + H+ +
66. 9 × 10 –3 mole X n+ reacts completely with 6 × 10 –3 Cr +3 + H 2 O. Then what are the values of
mole K2Cr2O7 to give !"! and Cr 3 +. The value of stoichiometric coefficients a and b respectively?
n is (1) 3, 1 (2) 2, 1
(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 3, 2 (4) 3, 0
(3) 4 (4) 1 74. In the reaction C 2H 5 OH + O 2 CO 2 + H 2O.
What will be the change in oxidation state for
67. The number of moles of HCl which act as reducing underlined ‘O’ atom?
agent in the reaction given below is
(1) 0 (2) +2
2KMnO4 + 16HCl 2KCl + 2MnCl2 + 5Cl2+8H2O
(3) 1 (4) 3
(1) 10 (2) 12
75. Out of hypochlorite ion, chlorite ion, chlorate ion
(3) 14 (4) 16 and perchlorate ion which can undergo
68. In the intramolecular Cannizzaro’s reaction when disproportionation reaction?
glyoxal is reacted with concentrated NaOH, the n- (1) Only hypochlorite ion
factor of glyoxal is (2) Only hypochlorite and chlorite ions
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) All mentioned ions
(3) 2 (4) 1 (4) All ions except perchlorate ion
76. For the reactions 83. Equivalent weight of NaOH in the reaction
A. [Ag(NH3)2]+ + 2H+ Ag+ + 2NH4+ 3Cl2 + 6NaOH 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O
B. Cl2 + 2OH– Cl– + ClO– + H2O (1) 48 (2) 40
C. 2CrO42– + 2H+ Cr2O72– + H2O (3) 35 (4) 20

Which of the following is correct? 84. Which of the following set of oxidation state is not
known for oxygen?
(1) Reaction A is a redox reaction
(2) Reaction B and C are redox reactions !
(1) –2, –1, 0 (2) –2, , –1
(3) A and C are not redox reactions "
(4) Reaction B is a disproportionation non-redox (3) –2, +2, 0 (4) –2, +6, 0
reaction
85. !!"#! !!"#" "!!
77. Which of the following cannot acts as both
oxidising as well as reducing agent? For the above disproportionation reaction, n-factor
(1) Nitrous acid (2) Hydrogen sulphide for H3PO3 is
(3) Sulphur dioxide (4) Hydrogen peroxide
$ %
78. If ‘M’ represents molecular weight, then what will (1) (2)
% "
be the equivalent weight of oxidant and reductant
respectively for the following redox reaction? (3) 2 (4) 6
K2MnO4 + Cl2 KCl + KMnO4 86. Inappropriate matching of oxidation number of
Asterisked element
! !
(1) !" (2) "!
!
# # !
(1) !" # $ %& (2) !"#$%&" '# (#)*'
! !
(3) M, M (4) " ! !
# # (3) # " $%&# '()*+ (4) !"#" $%&'()
79. 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) 2Na+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) + H2(g).
Which of the following option is correct for above 87. Which of the following compound undergoes
reaction? disproportionation reaction?
(1) Disproportionation redox reaction (1) HNO2 (2) H3PO4
(2) Redox reaction in which H 2 O acts as a (3) HClO2 (4) Both (1) & (3)
reducing agent
88. Oxidation number of ‘C’ in HCN is
(3) Redox reaction in which Na gets reduced
(1) –3 (2) +3
(4) Redox reaction in which Na acts as a reducing
agent (3) +2 (4) Zero
80. The oxidation state of H in alkali metals hydride is 89. In the standardisation of Na2S2O3 using K2Cr2O7
by iodometry, the equivalent mass of Na2S2O3 is
(1) +1 (2) –1
(where M is molecular mass of Na2S2O3)
(3) Not defined (4) Both (1) & (2)
81. Which of the following is intra molecular redox !
(1) M (2)
reaction? &
(1) Cl2 + NaOH NaCl + NaClO + H2O ! !
(3) (4)
(2) Cu + HNO3 Cu(NO3)2 + NO + H2O # "
(3) K2MnO4 KMnO4 + MnO2 90. The number of peroxide linkage in H2S2O8 is
(4) KClO3 KCl + O2
(1) 4
82. What is the oxidation number of N-atom in pernitric
acid (HNO4 )? (2) 2
(1) +7 (2) +3 (3) 5
(3) +5 (4) +6 (4) 1
99. FeS2 + O2 Fe2O3 + SO2
91. In the reaction !!"#" "!! $%$!!"#!
In this reaction equivalent mass of FeS2 will be
the equivalent mass of H3PO2 will be
!
, !"# (1) M (2)
'- &
(1) (2)
. $
! !
! %"# (3) (4)
(3) (4) "" "
" !
100. In CrO 5 , how many oxygen atoms have –1
92. !"!# !"! #! in this reaction, equivalent oxidation number?
mass of H2O is (1) 0 (2) 2
(1) 18 (2) 9 (3) 4 (4) 5
(3) 36 (4) 27 101. 60 ml of an aqueous solution of H2O2 was treated

with an excess of KI solution in dil H2SO4, the
93. Oxidation state of N in ammonium nitrate liberated iodine required 50 ml of 0.1 N Na2S2O3
(1) +3, +5 (2) –3, +5 solution for complete reaction. The strength of
H2O2 in g/l is
(3) –3, +3 (4) –3, –5
(1) 0.68 (2) 1.42
94. How many moles of KMnO4 is required for the
(3) 2.84 (4) 1.3
oxidation of 2 mol ferrous oxalate in acidic
medium? 102. Strongest oxidising agent is
(1) KMnO4 (2) F2
& !
(1) (2) (3) K2Cr2O7 (4) Cl2
! &
103. !"#"! $%&' () $%&' *+ $%&'
% #
(3) (4) XeO3(g) + F2(g) + 3H2O(l)
" "
Incorrect statement regarding the reaction
95. What is the n-factor of nitrogen in the process
NO3– N2? (1) %&$"! is reductant
(1) 8 (2) 10 (2) F– is reductant
(3) 6 (4) 5 (3) !"#"! is oxidant

96. Oxidation number of sodium in sodium amalgam is (4) Reaction is redox reaction
(1) +1 (2) –1 104. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
(3) +2 (4) 0 (1) +10 (2) +8
97. KMnO4 reacts with ferrous ammonium sulphate in (3) +6 (4) +4

acidic medium. 10 ml of 0.1 M KMnO 4 is
105. Oxalate ions are oxidised by !"!#"! ion to form
equivalent to
a gas and that is
(1) 20 ml of 0.1 M FeSO4 .(NH4)2SO4.6H2O
(1) O2 (2) CO2
(3) CO (4) H2
106. Number of moles of Fe 2+ required to react
(4) 50 ml of 0.1 M FeSO4 .(NH4)2SO4.6H2O completely with 1 mol of !"#! in acidic medium
98. The brown ring complex compound is formulated as is
[Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4. The oxidation state of iron is (1) 3 (2) 4
(1) 1 (3) 5 (4) 6
(2) 2 107. In Br3O8, the oxidation number of Br atoms are
(3) 3 (1) +6, +4, +6 (2) +6, +6, +2
(4) 0 (3) +2, +4, +6 (4) +6, +6, +6
113. Oxidation number of sulphur in H2S2O8

108. !! "# $ $!#" $ $##!"# is an example of
(1) +4 (2) +6
(1) Oxidation of P4
(3) +8 (4) +2
(2) Reduction of P4
114. Which of the following will not act as reducing
(3) Disproportionation of P4 agent?
(4) Hydration of P4 (1) SO2 (2) H2O2
109. When the following redox reaction is balanced, the (3) CO2 (4) NO2
stoichiometric coefficient of H2O will be
SECTION - B
!"#$%&" '$! $% ' !"$#! %!$ Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(1) 2 (2) 3 In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(3) 5 (4) 10 (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
110. The oxidation state of oxygen in H2S2O8 is (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(1) –2 only (2) –1 only assertion, then mark (1).
(3) –1 and –2 (4) Zero and –2 (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
111. How many moles of !"#! are required to oxidise assertion, then mark (2).
2 moles of !"! to !"" in acidic medium? (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
& " false, then mark (3).
(1) (2) (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
" !
% &
(3) (4) 1. A : Oxidation number of Cr-atom in K3CrO8 is +5.
" !
R : Oxidation number of oxygen atom in K3CrO8 is
112. Number of moles of KMnO4 required to oxidise –2.
0.2 mol KI in alkaline medium
2. A : The reaction 3ClO– ClO3– + 2Cl– is an
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 example of disproportionation reaction.
(3) 0.6 (4) 1.2 R : n-factor of reactant ClO– is 4.
!" !" !
Chapter 6
Solid State
(1) A3B2 (2) A4B5

SECTION - A
(3) A6B9 (4) AB
7. Ratio of density of bcc and fcc lattice (approx.) of
1. A metal iodide crystallises in bcc structure in which same element having edge length 4 and 3 nm
M+ is surrounded by iodide ions. If each ion radius respectively
is 2.17 Å, then length of one side of unit cell is
(1) 1 : 20 (2) 1 : 5
(1) 5.011 Å (2) 8.00 Å
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 3 : 2
(3) 2.17 Å (4) 4.34 Å
2. A metal of group-I crystallises in a body centred 8. In a solid lattice, a cation has left a lattice site
cubic lattice. If atomic mass of metal is 40, and is located at an interstitial position. The lattice
calculate number of unit cells in 4.0 g metal. defect is
(1) 6 × 1023 (2) 6 × 1024 (1) Interstitial defect (2) Vacancy defect
(3) 3 × 1023 (4) 3 × 1022 (3) Frenkel defect (4) Schottky defect
3. In a closed packed structure of mixed oxides, the 9. KCl crystallizes in the same type of lattice as does
lattice is composed of oxide ions, one eighth of !!" !
tetrahedral voids are occupied by trivalent cation NaCl. Given that "#$ and !" "#$ .
(A 3+ ) and one-fourth of octahedral voids are !#$ !#
occupied by divalent cation (B2+). Find the formula Calculate the ratio of the side of the unit cell for
of oxide KCl to that for NaCl
(1) A2B2O4 (2) ABO4 (1) 1.372 (2) 1.63
(3) ABO (4) A2BO4 (3) 1.143 (4) 0.732
4. A crystal of lead (II) sulphide has NaCl structure. 10. CsBr possesses bcc structure. The edge length of
In this crystal, the shortest distance between a the unit cell is 200 pm. Find out the interionic
Pb 2+ ion and S – – ion is 300 pm. What is the distance?
volume of unit cell of lead sulphide?
(1) 173.2 pm
(1) 209.6 × 10–24 cm3 (2) 207.8 × 10–23 cm3
(2) 346.4 pm
(3) 216 × 10–24 cm3 (4) 209.8 × 10–23 cm3
(3) 100 pm
5. Select the incorrect statement
(4) 200 pm
(1) The number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids
present in fcc structure are in the ratio of 1 : 2 11. If the crystal is rotated about an axis through an
angle of 360°, it gives the same appearance three
(2) Solids containing F-centres are paramagnetic times. The crystal will have
(3) 68% space is unoccupied in bcc
(1) Tetrad axis of symmetry
(4) ZnO shows metal excess defect
(2) Diad axis of symmetry
6. AB has NaCl type structure, if all the atoms
touching one of the triad axis is removed, formula (3) Triad axis of symmetry
of unit cell will be (4) Any one of these
66 Solid State Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
12. Potassium crystallizes in a bcc lattice, hence the 20. The possible types of two dimensional lattices and
co-ordination number of potassium in the lattice is three dimensional primitive unit cells are
respectively
(1) 4 (2) 6
(1) 5 and 14 (2) 5 and 7
(3) 8 (4) 12
(3) 7 and 14 (4) 7 and 28
13. If the body diagonal of cube crystal is 2.50 Å, the
approximate edge length of unit cell is 21. The number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids
formed by one half of a sphere with its adjacent
(1) 2 Å (2) !" layer in close packing are respectively
(3) 3 Å (4) #" (1) 4 and 3 (2) 8 and 6
14. In AB3, anions B are present in ccp structure and (3) 2 and 3 (4) 4 and 6
cation A is present in octahedral void, the 22. In the crystal structure of Fe3O4, Fe2+ and Fe3+
percentage of octahedral void occupied is occupy collectively
(1) 25% (2) 33% (1) 50% tetrahedral and 50% octahedral voids
(3) 50% (4) 67% (2) 25% tetrahedral and 75% octahedral voids
15. The percentage of tetrahedral holes occupied in (3) 12.5% tetrahedral and 50% octahedral voids
diamond is (4) 50% tetrahedral and 100% octahedral voids
(1) 25% (2) 50% 23. LiBr and KCl have radius ratio equal to 0.38 and
(3) 75% (4) 100% 0.77 respectively, they have crystal structure like
16. In a compound atoms A, B and C are located at (1) ZnS and NaCl type respectively
corners, edge centres and face centres respectively (2) NaCl and CsCl type respectively
of the unit cell. If the atoms touching one of the (3) CsCl and ZnS type respectively
body diagonal plane of symmetry are removed. The
formula of the compound is (4) Both have NaCl type
(1) ABC (2) AB4C3 24. NaCl can show
(3) AB5C4 (4) A2B3C4 (1) Stoichiometric defect
17. A solid ‘AB’ have NaCl structure. If all the face (2) Metal deficiency defect
centred atoms along one of the tetrad axis are (3) Metal excess defect
removed, then the resultant stoichiometry of the
(4) Both (1) & (3)
solid is
25. When AgCl is doped with 10–4 mol percentage
(1) AB2 (2) A2B RuCl3, what will be the concentration of cationic
(3) A4B3 (4) A3B4 vacancies per mole of AgCl?
18. If the distance between Na+ and Cl– ions in sodium (1) 6.023 × 1017
chloride crystal is X pm, the length of the edge of (2) 12.046 × 1019
the unit cell is
(3) 10–6
! (4) 12.046 × 1017
(1) 4X pm (2) "#
$
26. Which of the following statements is incorrect
! about magnetic properties of crystals?
(3) "# (4) 2X pm
$ (1) Fe 3 O 4 is ferrimagnetic but becomes
19. In a compound, atoms of element Y forms ccp paramagnetic at 850K
(2) CrO2 is a ferromagnetic substance, used for
!
lattice and those of element X occupy of making magnetic tapes for use in audio
" recording
tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound will
be (3) Ferromagnetic and antiferromagnetic solids
become paramagnetic at high temperature
(1) X2Y (2) X3Y4
(4) Ferrimagnetic substances possess zero net
(3) X2Y3 (4) X4Y3 magnetic moment
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Solid State 67
27. AB has ZnS type structure. What will be interionic 34. Alkali metals crystallise in
distance between A+ and B– if lattice constant of (1) B.C.C. arrangement
AB is 200 pm?
(2) F.C.C. arrangement
(1) "# ! (2) $%% # (3) H.C.P. arrangement
"## (4) Simple cubic arrangement
(3) 100 (4)
! 35. In fcc unit cell, distance between centre of two
spheres which are touching each other and
28. In a crystalline solid, particle C is packed in cubic
distance between centre of two nearest non-
close packing, particle A occupies 25% of
touching sphere is respectively (where a = edge
tetrahedral voids and particle B occupies 50% of
length, r = radius of atom)
octahedral voids. If the particles along one of the
face diagonal are removed, then simplest formula (1) !"# !" (2) 2r, a + r
of the compound is
!
(1) A4BC6 (2) A4BC8 (3) "! (4) Both (2) & (3)
#
(3) A8B8C13 (4) AB2C4 36. Formula of the compound having atoms A at
29. In a cubic crystal of A and B, A atoms are alternate face centre and body centre, atoms B at
arranged at the corners and edge centres while B 50% of edge centre and atoms C at alternate
atoms are arranged at alternate face centres and corners
body centre. What will be the formula of (1) ABC (2) A2B3C2
compound? (3) A3B4C4 (4) A4B3C
(1) AB (2) A4B5/2 37. Which of the following is correct regarding
(3) A2B (4) A8B7 AB AB AB ......... packing?
(1) Its coordination number is 6
30. Calculate the number of formula units of a crystal
AB, having CsCl type structure in 240 gm. The unit (2) Volume of the unit cell is !" ! # !
cell edge length of AB is 200 pm and density of
the crystal is 6 gm/cc (3) Atoms are located at corners in the body and
50% of face centre
(1) 10 × 1024 (2) 5 × 1024
(4) All of these
(3) 10 × 1030 (4) 5 × 1030
38. Total number of carbon atoms in unit cell of
31. A crystal of CsCl type changes into NaCl type by diamond is
(1) Increasing the temperature (1) 2
(2) Increasing the pressure (2) 4
(3) Decreasing the temperature (3) 8
(4) Infinite
(4) Increasing the pressure and decreasing the
temperature 39. Approximate number of unit cells present in
1g molecule of KCl is
32. In a cubical close packing structure of mixed
oxide, the lattice is made of oxide ion. 20% of the (1) NA (2) NA × 4
tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent X2+ ion !! !!
and 50% of octahedral voids are occupied by Y3+ (3) (4)
" " #"$%
ion. The formation of the oxide is
40. Which is mismatch regarding the location of ions?
(1) X2Y2O3 (2) XY2O4
Structure Location
(3) X4Y5O10 (4) XYO4 (1) NaCl – Cations in all octahedral void
33. A crystalline solid A+B– possess rock salt structure. (2) ZnS – Cations in alternate tetrahedral
If all the cations A lying at the top face of unit cell voids
are removed then simplest formula of solid will be
(3) Na2O – Cations in all tetrahedral voids
(1) A3B4 (2) AB2
(4) CaF2 – Anions in half of tetrahedral
(3) A2B (4) A5B6 voids
41. Which of the following is incorrect? 47. A compound AB has, NaCl like structure, if all the
(1) On increasing pressure NaCl changes to CsCl ions along one C4-axis (tetrad axis) are removed,
then formula of the compound will be
(2) Zinc oxide is white but on heating becomes
yellow (1) AB (2) A2B3
(3) Conductivity of intrinsic semiconductor (3) ! !""# (4) A15B12

increases on doping $
(4) All of these 48. Interionic distance between opposite ion is x in
42. If edge length of the unit cell remains same, then NaCl type crystal then length of edge must be
the order between nearest neighbour distance (d) (1) x (2) 2x
can be written correctly by
(3) !"# (4) $ "#
(1) dsimple cube = dbcc = dfcc
(2) dsimple cube > dfcc > dbcc 49. In CsBr type crystal, the 2nd coordination number
of Cs+ ion is
(3) dsimple cube > dbcc > dfcc
(1) 6 (2) 8
(4) dbcc > dfcc > dsimple cube
(3) 4 (4) 12
43. If all the interfacial angles are right angle, but all
edge lengths are not equal to each others, then 50. The ionic radii of Rb+
and I– are 1.46 Å and 2.16 Å
the crystal system becomes respectively. The most probable type of structure
exhibited by this is
(1) Rhombohedral (2) Orthorhombic
(1) CsCl type (2) NaCl type
(3) Monoclinic (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) ZnS type (4) CaF2 type
44. In the figure shown below, if shaded circle
represents octahedral void, with radius x and 51. MgAl 2 O 4 has spinel structure. Percentage of
radius of spheres surrounding it is y, then the octahedral voids occupied and tetrahedral voids
correct relation between x and y is shown as occupied respectively by tripositive and dipositive
ion is
(1) 12.5%, 25% (2) 12.5%, 50%
(3) 25%, 12.5% (4) 50%, 12.5%
52. A metal crystallizes in bcc structure with its edge
length 400 pm, the atomic radius of metal will be
(1) 346.4 pm (2) 173.2 pm
!" # !" #
(1) $ % (2) $ % (3) 282.8 pm (4) 141.4 pm
# #
53. In a solid ‘AB’ having the NaCl structure. ‘A’ atoms
forms ccp. If all the face centred atoms only along
(3) ! "# $ % &' (4) ! "# $ % &' one of the tetrad axes are removed, then the
45. If A is filled in half of tetrahedral voids and B is in resultant stoichiometry of the solid is
tetrahedral voids as well as octahedral voids in (1) AB2 (2) A2B
equal amount in a CCP lattice formed by oxide
ion, then formula of solid will be (3) A4B3 (4) A3B4
(1) ABO (2) AB2O4 54. A crystalline solid is made of X, Y and Z

elements. Atoms of X form fcc packing, atoms of
(3) A2BO4 (4) AB3O4 Y occupy octahedral voids while atoms of Z
46. A solid AB has CsCl type structure. The edge occupy tetrahedral voids. What is the simplest
length of unit cell is 404 pm. The closest approach formula of solid if atoms along one body diagonal
between A+ and B– ions is are removed?
(1) 350 pm (1) X5Y4 Z8
(2) 404 pm (2) XYZ
(3) 202 pm (3) X8Y4 Z5
(4) 101 pm (4) X2YZ
55. The possible distance between two tetrahedral 62. Which of the following set contains only covalent
voids in ccp structure is (a = edge length) or network solids?
!" ! (1) SiO2, SiC, diamond (2) AlN, MgO, H2O

(1) (2)
# " (3) Cu, graphite, CaF2 (4) ZnS, H2O, Ag
! 63. In which of the following case density of solid is
(3) (4) All of these more than ideal crystal?
#
56. Which of the following statement is not true for (1) NaCl
cubic close packing?
(2) KBr at higher temperature
(1) There is one octahedral void in the centre of
(3) AgBr
the body
(4) ZnO upon heating
(2) There are twelve octahedral voids on the twelve
edges of the cube 64. The distance between two nearest neighbours in
(3) There are eight tetrahedral voids per unit cell body centred cubic lattice of axial length a, is
(4) Each diagonal of the unit cell has two !

(1) a (2) "
tetrahedral voids and two octahedral voids #
57. Doping of Ge with small amount of In, gives ! !
(3) " (4) "
(1) Insulators ! $
(2) n-type semi-conductor 65. The number of atoms contained in a face centred
(3) p-type semi-conductor unit cell of a diatomic molecular solid is
(4) Oscillator (1) 8 (2) 2

58. A pure crystalline substance on being heating (3) 4 (4) 6
gradually first forms a turbid looking liquid at a 66. Which of the following interstitial site is formed
constant temperature and then at a still higher when the three closed packed spheres of one layer
constant temperature the turbidity completely is put over three closed packed spheres of the
disappears. This is characteristic of substance second layer, their positions being inverted w.r.t.
(1) Isomeric crystal (2) Liquid crystal each other?
(3) Isomorphous crystal (4) Allotropic crystal (1) Tetrahedral
59. Oxide ions forms the hexagonal unit cell, and M3+ (2) Octahedral
ions are present in 2/3 of octahedral void, hence
(3) Rhombohedral
molecular formula of oxide
(4) Tetragonal
(1) MO2 (2) M2O
67. An ionic solid is hexagonal close packing of
(3) M2O3 (4) M3O4
Q–2 ions and P+x ions are half of tetrahedral voids.
! The value of x should be
60. If lies between 0.225 to 0.414, then cation
!! (1) 1 (2) 2
would be present
#
(1) At body centre (3) 4 (4)
"
(2) At edge centre 68. Which of the following is incorrect?
! (1) The coordination number of each type of ions
(3) At "# of body diagonal from corner
$ in CsCl crystal is 8
! (2) A metal that crystallises in bcc structure has
(4) At "# of body diagonal from corner
$ a coordination number of 12
61. If a b c, = = 90°, 90°, the crystal (3) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of
system is its ions with other unit cells
(1) Cubic (2) Orthorhombic (4) The length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm
(3) Monoclinic (4) Hexagonal &'!" ()*+,-*'#$ $.$*+,/
69. The number of atoms in 100 g of a fcc crystal with 77. The arrangement ABCABCABC..... is referred to
density = 10.0 g/cm3 and cell edge length equal to (1) Octahedral close packing
200 pm is
(2) Hexagonal close packing
(1) 5 × 1024 (2) 5 × 1025
(3) Tetrahedral close packing
(3) 6 × 1023 (4) 2 × 1025
(4) Cubic close packing
70. Scandium oxide (Sc2O3) crystallises with the oxide
ions in a closed packed array with the scandium 78. The edge length of the unit cell of NaCl crystal
ions in octahedral holes. What fraction of the lattice is 552 pm. If ionic radius of sodium ion is
octahedral holes are filled? 95 pm, what is the ionic radius of chloride ion?
(1) 190 pm (2) 368 pm
!
(1) All (2) (3) 181 pm (4) 276 pm
"
! # 79. The crystal with a b c, = = = 90° is
(3) (4) (1) Cubic (2) Orthorhombic
" "
71. If NaCl is doped with 10–3 mol % of SrCl2, what is (3) Tetragonal (4) Hexagonal
the number of cation vacancies per mole? 80. Which of the following match is incorrect?
(1) 6.023 × 1020 (2) 6.023 × 1018 (1) Schottky defect – Number of ionic
(3) 6.023 × 1019 (4) 6.023 × 1017 vacancies
72. The packing fraction of HCP in two dimension is increases
nearly (2) Electrolysis of aq. NaCl – H2 and Cl2 at
(1) 74% (2) 68% cathode and
anode
(3) 80% (4) 90%
(3) SO2, CO2, SiCl4 – Lewis acid
73. Which is true about piezoelectric crystals?
(4) B(OH)3 – Tribasic acid
(1) They produce an electric current on heating
81. The hcp and ccp structure for a given element will
(2) They produce an electric current when a not have
mechanical stress is applied
(1) The same co-ordination number
(3) They produce electric current on cooling
(2) The same density
(4) They produce electric current on standing for
sometimes (3) The same voids
74. What are the number of atoms per unit cell and (4) The same fraction of occupied space
number of nearest neighbours in a simple cubic 82. If B is doped with silicon
structure?
(1) n-type semiconductor is formed
(1) 1, 6 (2) 4, 12
(2) p-type semiconductor is formed
(3) 2, 8 (4) 2, 6
(3) Insulator is formed
75. In NaCl, the centres of two nearest like charged
(4) Polymer is formed
ions are present at a distance of
83. In Fe0.93O, the percentage of Fe+3 by number is
! ! nearly
(1) (2)
" "
(1) 15%
!" (2) 10%
(3) %& (4)
#
(3) 20%
76. The number of atoms/molecules contained in one
face centred cubic unit cell of a monoatomic (4) 25%
substance is 84. ZnO(s) becomes yellow upon heating because
(1) 1 (1) Zn2+ has d10 configuration
(2) 2 (2) ZnO is a covalent compound
(3) 4 (3) There is impurity present in ZnO
(4) 6 (4) Of metal excess defects
85. In a compound, ‘X’ atoms make cubic close 91. The co-ordinatation number of a sphere in
packed lattice and ‘Y’ occupy one-third of the hexagonal close packing in two dimension is
tetrahedral voids present. What is the formula of
(1) 12 (2) 8
the compound?
(3) 6 (4) 4
(1) X3Y2 (2) X2Y3
92. Total number of voids present on body diagonals in
(3) XY3 (4) X3Y3 one unit cell of cubic close packing is
86. Which of the following is a molecular solid? (1) 4 (2) 8
(1) SiC (2) Diamond (3) 6 (4) 9
(3) AlN (4) I2 93. Edge length of a cube is 400 pm. Its body diagonal
87. Which of the following is not possible distance would be
between any two tetrahedral voids in cubic close (1) 600 pm (2) 566 pm
packed lattice? [a = edge length]
(3) 693 pm (4) 500 pm
! !" 94. In a compound, atoms of element Y form CCP
(1) (2)
" # lattice and those of the element X occupy 2/3rd of
tetrahedral void. The formula of the compound will
$" !"
(3) (4) be
! #
(1) X4Y3 (2) X2Y3
88. The edge length (a) of the unit cells in terms of
radius of spheres (r) constituting simple cubic, bcc (3) X2Y (4) X3Y4
and fcc unit cell are respectively
95. Solid CO2 is an example of
$% (1) Molecular solid (2) Covalent solid
(1) a = 2r, a = and a = !"
& (3) Metallic solid (4) Ionic solid
96. The percentage of the available space occupied in
$% a hexagonal close packing of spheres in three
(2) a = ! ! " , a = 2r and a =
& dimensions is
(1) 26% (2) 76%
$%
(3) a = 2r, a = and a = ! ! " (3) 52.4% (4) 74%
&
97. In cubic close packing of sphere in three
$% dimensions, the coordination number of each
(4) a = ! ! " , a = ! ! " and a = sphere is
&
(1) 6 (2) 9
89. The point defect which is shown by AgBr(s)
crystals is/are (3) 3 (4) 12
(1) Metal excess defect 98. If ‘A’ forms CCP lattice and B occupies 20% of
octahedral voids, then the formula of compound is
(2) Frenkel defect
(1) AB (2) AB2
(3) Schottky defect
(3) A5B (4) A3B
(4) Both (2) & (3)
99. Which one of the following statements is correct?
90. Select the correct statement(s)
(1) The total number of atoms present in a simple
(1) The packing efficiency is maximum in the fcc cubic unit cell is two
structure
(2) The packing efficiency is maximum for bcc
(2) The total number of atoms present in a simple structure
cubic unit cell is one
(3) Total number of octahedral voids present on
(3) Total number of octahedral voids present in ccp diagonals in unit cell of cubic close packing is
unit cell is 3 except that present at body one
center
(4) The coordination number is always 8 in fcc
(4) All are correct structure
100. Coordination number of cation and anion

SECTION - B
respectively in fluorite structure is in the ratio
(1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 8 (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(3) 8 : 4 (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(4) 2 : 3 assertion, then mark (1).
101. Radius of Fe atom if it crystallizes in FCC lattice (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
of edge length 400 pm
(1) 200 pm (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(2) 141.44 pm
(3) 332 pm statements, then mark (4).
(4) 119 pm 1. A : On heating zinc oxide turns yellow.
R : Electrons trapped at anionic site is known as
102. In ‘Pervoskite’ structure, Ca atom occupies
E centre.
corners, O atom occupies face centres and ‘Ti’
occupies the mid of lines joining opposite face 2. A : In hcp structure, each sphere is surrounded by
centres. Then, in the given unit cell formula, the eight other spheres.
oxidation state of ‘Ti’ is R : ABC, ABC ................. represents hcp
structure.
(1) +2
3. A : In cubic close packing (ABCABC...) C layer is
(2) –2 put over octahedral voids of B layer.
(3) +4 R : If third layer is put over tetrahedral voids of

second layer, hcp is obtained.
(4) +6 4. A : LiCl shows pink colour, when heated in
103. Compound which can exhibit Schottky defect and presence of lithium vapours.
Frenkel defect both? R : LiCl shows frenkel defect.
5. A : The correct order of size of void is
(1) AgCl
cubic > octahedral > tetrahedral > trigonal.
(2) AgBr
R : The cations or anions can occupy the voids.
(3) CsCl 6. A : Ferromagnetic solids becomes paramagnetic
upon heating.
(4) NaCl
R : Unpaired electrons starts pairing upon heating.
104. In case of ionic solids maximum possible
7. A : Crystalline solids have sharp melting point.
coordination number is
R : Crystalline solids have definite enthalpies of
(1) 6 fusions.
(2) 8 8. A : The total number of atoms present in ccp
arrangement, per unit cell is 4.
(3) 12
R : In ccp, atoms occupy corners and body
(4) 10 centers of a cubic unit cell.
!" !" !
Chapter 7
Solution
4. A glucose solution weighing 200 g contains 36 g

SECTION - A
water. The molal concentration of solution is
!"# !$$$ !"" #"""
1. The boiling temperature and composition curve of (1) (2)
!%$ &" #$" !""
“water ethanol” solution is given below.
&" !$$$ #%& #"""
(3) (4)
!%$ ''(' #$" !""
'()*(+,-.+(
!"#$#%&
! 5. 1 kg of 0.3 mole glucose solution in water is

" cooled to – 3.2°C. What weight of ice would be
separated out if a solution containing 50 g ethylene
#
glycol in 0.2 kg water freezes at – 9.3°C?
. / (1) 960 g (2) 784 g

!"#$%&'()*+",%"&%-
At point ‘C’, the mixture has ethanol 95.8% by (3) 50 g (4) 37.2 g
weight in vapour phase. If this solution is boiled at 6. Correct order of depression in freezing point of
78.13°C, then percentage by weight of water in following aqueous solutions
liquid phase is (boiling temperature = 78.13°C)
A. 0.1 M NaCl B. 0.1 N BaCl2
(1) 95.8% (2) 4.2%
C. 0.3 M Glucose D. 0.1 M K4[Fe(CN)6]
(3) 80.8% (4) 43.5%
(1) D < B = C < A
2. If the total vapour pressure of the liquid mixture A
and B is given by the equation P = 160 XA + 80, (2) B < A < C < D
then the ratio of the vapour pressure of the pure (3) D < C < A < B
liquids A and B is given by
(4) A < B = C < D
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
7. Which of the following passes through
(3) 2 : 5 (4) 3 : 1
semipermeable membrane?
3. A solution containing 0.1 mole of urea in 1 L of
(1) Solute (2) Solvent
glacial acetic acid, when cooled the first crystal
which appears at the freezing point contain the (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Only colloids
molecules of 8. Which one of the following is not an ideal solution?
(1) Urea
(1) C2H5Br and C2H5I mixture
(2) Acetic acid
(2) C6H5Cl and C6H5Br mixture
(3) Both urea and acetic acid
(3) C6H6 and C6H5CH3 mixture
(4) Either of these depending upon experimental
(4) C2H5Cl and C2H5OH mixture
conditions
74 Solution Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
9. The plant cells contract, when placed in 17. Solutions A, B, C and D are respectively 0.1 M
urea, 0.05 M KBr, 0.05 M MgCl2 and 0.1 M AlCl3.
(1) Hypotonic solution (2) Hypertonic solution
Which one of the following pair is isotonic?
(3) Isotonic solution (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) A and B (2) B and C
10. 0.1 molal aqueous solution of sodium bromide (3) A and D (4) A and C
freezes at –0.335°C at atmospheric pressure. Kf
18. 0.2 moles of KCl and 0.1 mole of MgCl2 were
for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1. The percentage of
dissolved in water to have 500 ml of solution, the
dissociation of the salt in solution is
molarity of Cl– ions is
(1) 40 (2) 60 (1) 0.8 M (2) 0.4 M
(3) 80 (4) 90 (3) 0.04 M (4) 0.08 M
11. 0.2 molal solution of a weak electrolyte AB is 20% 19. A 0.004 M solution of K4[Fe(CN)6] is isotonic with
dissociated. Freezing point of the solution would 0.01 M solution of urea at same temperature. The
be [Kf = 1.86°C/m]
molarity of ! in the solution will be
(1) – 0.90°C (2) – 0.45°C (1) 0.375 M (2) 3 M
(3) – 0.25°C (4) – 0.71°C (3) 0.006 M (4) 0.015 M
12. At a particular temperature, the vapour pressure 20. The boiling point of water in pressure cooker is
of two liquids, A and B are 140 and 160 mm Hg (1) 100°C (2) > 100°C
respectively. If 2 moles of A and 6 moles of B are
(3) < 100°C (4) 25°C
mixed to form an ideal solution, its vapour pressure
(mm Hg) at the same temperature will be 21. Which statement is correct?
!"#$%&'""'()!*
(1) 155 (2) 110 +'%%',)*&)-..)/,
!"#$%&
#!)%#/')!'/0'"#!1"'
(3) 115 (4) 130
!"#$%&'""'()!*)#$*!2'"
13. Vapour pressure of 1 molal aqueous solution of +'%%',)*&)3..)/,))4#0#45!6)
!"#$%&&
!""#$%#&'(&) #!)(*17,')!'/0'"#!1"'
solute at 100°C is
(1) In case-I vapour pressure decreases while
(1) 1.00 atm (2) 0.9823 atm increases in case-II
(3) 0.0177 atm (4) 0.80 atm (2) Vapour pressure increases in both the cases
14. 7.483 × 105 Nm–2 osmotic pressure is found for (3) Vapour pressure decreases in both the cases
0.1 M Kx[Fe(CN)6] which dissociate 50% at 300 K, (4) Vapour pressure remains same in case-I while
the value of x is increases in case-II
(1) 1 (2) 2 22. Calculate the molality of a solution of urea in
(3) 3 (4) 4 acetic acid if the mole fraction of urea in solution
is 0.5 (Molecular weight of urea = 60)
15. On mixing 10 ml of CH3COCH 3 and 40 ml of
"# "#
CHCl3, the total volume of the solution is (1) (2)
! !
(1) < 50 ml (2) > 50 ml
"## "#
(3) = 50 ml (4) Cannot be predicted (3) (4)
! !
16. When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous
23. The value of Henry’s law constant
solution of KI, the
(1) Increases with increase in temperature
(1) Freezing point is raised
(2) Decreases with increase in temperature
(2) Freezing point is lowered
(3) Increases with decrease in temperature
(3) Freezing point does not change (4) Independent of temperature and depend only
(4) Boiling point does not change on pressure
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Solution 75
24. If P° and P are the vapour pressures of pure (1) Flow of solvent molecules occurs from C1 to C2
solvent and solution of nonvolatile solute only
respectively and n1, n2 are moles of solvent and (2) Flow of solvent molecules occurs from C2 to C1
solute, then which of the following relation holds only
good for a solution of all concentrations?
(3) Flow of solvent occurs from C1 to C2 and C2 to
" " !! " " !" C1 also
(1) (2)
" !" !! " !! (4) Flow of solute occurs from C1 to C2
" " !" " " !! 29. The osmotic pressure of a solution obtained by
(3) (4) mixing 100 ml each of 1.8% (w/v) glucose (M =
" !! " !" !!
180) solution and 0.4% (w/v) NaOH (M = 40)
25. The relation Tb = Kbm (where Tb is elevation in solution at 300 K will be (Assume complete
boiling point and 'm' is molality of solution) holds ionization of NaOH)
good for (1) 2.46 atm (2) 3.69 atm
(1) Solutions of any solute (3) 5.42 atm (4) 7.38 atm
(2) Dilute solutions of nonvolatile solute only 30. Which of the following solution will have minimum
(3) Solutions of all concentrations but of nonvolatile vapour pressure?
solute (1) 1 N NaCl (2) 1 N MgCl2
(4) Dilute solution of volatile solute only (3) 1 N AlCl3 (4) 1 M sucrose
26. Which of the following is correct statement? 31. A solution of 5.85%(w/v) NaCl has boiling point
(1) Azeotropes are formed in non ideal solution at equal to 5.8%(w/v) Mg(OH)2 solution. If NaCl is a
all concentrations strong electrolyte then what will be the degree of
dissociation of Mg(OH) 2? (Assume molarity =
(2) A solution boils at constant temperature only molality)
when it forms an azeotrope
(1) 1 (2) 0.5
(3) Maximum boiling azeotropes show a maxima
(3) 0.75 (4) 0.33
in pressure composition curve
32. Which of the following is a chemical
(4) Minimum boiling azeotropes show a maxima in
semipermeable membrane?
temperature composition curve
(1) Pig’s bladder (2) Parchment paper
27. The correct relation for Kb is
(3) Cellophane (4) Copper ferrocyanide
%&#"
(1) ' $ 33. At 17ºC the osmotic pressure of sugar solution is
$ "### ! !
580 torr. The solution is diluted and the temperature
%&#" is raised to 57ºC. The osmotic pressure is found
(2) ' $ to be 165 torr. The extent of dilution is
$ "### !!
(1) 2 times (2) 4 times
$%&#"
(3) ' $ (3) 6 times (4) 8 times
"### ! !
34. Liquid A and B form solution deviating from Raoult’s
$%&#" law and the former has stronger intermolecular
(4) ' $
"### !! forces, if XA and YA are the mole fractions of ‘A’ in
(M = mol. mass of solvent, T0 = boiling point of solution and in vapour in equilibrium respectively,
solvent, l v, H v = latent heat and enthalpy of then
vaporisation respectively) #! #!
(1) " ! (2) " !
28. When two solutions of concentrations C1 and C2 ! !
(C 1 > C 2 ) are separated by semipermeable #!

(3) " ! (4) YA + XA = 1
membrane then !
35. The mole fraction of a solute in aqueous solution (1) Increases 10 times
is 0.5. The molality of solution is
!
(1) 9.80 (2) 25.65 (2) Decreases "# times
!$
(3) 55.55 (4) 15.75 (3) Increases 100 times
36. Which of the following set of aqueous solutions are (4) Remains as such
having same freezing point?
42. Molarity of liquid nitric acid, if density of its
(1) 1 M NaCl and 2 M glucose aqueous solution is 0.95 g/cc
(2) 0.05 M urea and 0.025 M HCl (1) 15 (2) 9.5
(3) 100 ml 0.1 M Na2SO4 and 100 ml of 0.1 M (3) 0.15 (4) 0.95
Ca(OH)2
43. Calculated molecular mass is greater than
(4) All of these observed molecular mass for which of the given set
37. The difference between elevated boiling point and of examples?
depressed freezing point of an aqueous solution is (1) 1 Maq MgCl2, 1 Maq Urea, 1 Maq sucrose
102ºC. The molality of the solution if it contains
non-volatile and non-electrolyte solute will be (2) 0.1 Maq Al2(SO4)3, 0.1 Maq NaCl, 0.1 M acetic
acid in benzene
" #$"
(1) ! (2) ! (3) 0.1 Maq HCl, 0.1 Maq H2SO4, 0.1 Maq Ca(OH)2
" !! ! !"
(4) Both (2) & (3)
!" !! %
(3) (4) ! 44. When HNO 3 is mixed in H 2 O, which of the
% ! !"
following set of information will be correct?
38. Which of the following solutions will be having the
maximum freezing point? (1) !!"!#$ !%&'! !%" ' " #()* $%&
# (2) HNO 3 – H 2 O interaction > HNO 3 – HNO 3

(1) Al (SO4)3 interaction, Smix > 0
!" 2
(2) 18% (wt/volume) glucose solution (3) Smix < 0, Vmix < 0
" (4) Hmix < 0, it forms minimum boiling azeotrope
(3) Na2SO4
! 45. Following solutions are given below
(4) 3.42% (wt/volume) sucrose solution I. Centimolar magnesium bromide solution
39. Total vapour pressure of a mixture of 2 mole A
II. Centinormal potassium chloride solution
(P°A = 200 torr) and 4 mole B (P°B = 400 torr) is
250 mm. Therefore solution shows III. Normal solution of urea
(1) Positive deviation from Raoult’s law IV. Molar solution of aqueous benzoic acid
(2) Negative deviation from Raoult’s law Correct order of freezing point is given below as
(3) No deviation (1) III > IV > I > II

(4) Molecular masses of A and B are also required (2) II > I > IV > III
40. In the preparation of solution of two liquids by (3) IV > III > I > II
mixing them, Vmixing is found to be negative, then (4) II > I > III > IV
the values of Hmixing and Smixing will be
46. Ebullioscopic constant calculation depends upon
(1) H>0& S>0 (2) H<0& S>0
(1) Freezing point of solvent
(3) H<0& S<0 (4) H>0& S<0
(2) Molecular mass of solute
41. A liquid (v.p. = 100 mm Hg) is transferred from a
vessel of 100 ml capacity to 1000 ml capacity, (3) Enthalpy of vapourisation of solvent
hence its vapour pressure (4) All of these
47. A 1% solution of a non electrolyte having molecular 54. Which of the following is correct?
mass approximately 69 is isotonic with 5% (w/v)
solution of !!"!
(1) !" #"
$ "!
(1) Urea (2) Glucose
! !"# $ "
(3) Potassium chloride (4) Sucrose (2) %! %" # $
% !"# &
48. Vapour pressure of pure water, if lowering of vapour
!! "
pressure becomes 0.125 torr when 50 g of cane- (3) !" !!
#$%
sugar is added to 0.5 litre of water is
(4) All of these
approximately
(1) 0.03 atm (2) 23.8 atm
(1) Solubility of CO 2 in water is explained by
(3) 30 atm (4) 2.3 atm
Henry’s law
49. When placed in hypotonic solution, plant cell will
(2) Henry’s law can be applied even at very low
(1) Remain as such temperature
(2) Shrink (3) Henry’s law cannot be applied in solubility of
(3) Swell O2 in blood
(4) Both shrink and swell (4) Both (1) & (3)
50. What will be the concentration of chloride ion when 56. 18 g glucose and 34.2 g sucrose are added in one
100 ml of 0.1 M AgCl is mixed with 200 ml of 0.05 litre water, the osmotic pressure of solution at 27°C
M BaCl2 solution? is (assume no volume change)
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.05 M (1) 4.9 atm (2) 2.4 atm
(3) 0.2 M (4) 0.01 M (3) 9.6 atm (4) 3.55 atm
51. In which of the following boiling point will not be 57. An aqueous solution of AB has boiling point of
increased? 101.8°C when it is 100% ionised. The freezing
(1) Addition of KI in 1 M glucose solution point of the same solution is –1.80°C. Hence AB
(Kb/Kf = 0.3)
(2) Addition of KI in 1 M urea solution
(1) Is 100% ionised at freezing point of solution
(3) Addition of KI in 1 M HgI2 solution
(2) Is 50% ionised at freezing point of solution
(4) Addition of KI in 1 M NaCl solution
(3) Neither dissociated nor associated at freezing
52. 10 g of a non-volatile solute when dissolved in
point of solution
100 g benzene raises its boiling point by 1°.
Molecular mass of the solute is (Kb for benzene = (4) Forms a associated molecule at freezing point
2.53 Kg mol–1) of solution
(1) 25 58. Which has maximum molal depression constant?
(2) 253 (1) 0.1 M aq. KCl
(3) 44 (2) 0.1 M aq. sodium sulphate
(4) 180 (3) 0.2 M aq. barium phosphate
53. If an aqueous solution of sugar is allowed to (4) Same for all
freeze, then crystals of which will be separated out
59. What will be the resultant osmotic pressure if 300
first?
ml of solution with osmotic pressure 2 atm is
(1) Sugar mixed with 200 ml of same solution with osmotic
(2) Water pressure 3 atm, at 27°C?
(3) Sugar + glucose (1) 2 atm (2) 3 atm

(4) Glucose + Fructose (3) 2.5 atm (4) 2.4 atm
60. A solution of W g urea in 500 g of water is cooled 67. Solution A is 1 M of toluene in benzene but B
to –0.5°C. 128 g of ice separates out. What is the is 1 m of toluene in benzene having density
value of W? (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg/mol) 0.85 g/cc, then correct statement
(1) 4 g (2) 6 g (1) b.p. of A < b.p. of B
(3) 5 g (4) 8 g (2) b.p. of A > b.p. of B
61. Solubility of a gas X in water increases by lowering (3) b.p. of A = b.p. of B
the temperature. This means that
(4) f.p. of A = f.p. of B
(1) Dissolution process is endothermic
68. If t moles of a solute which dimerises is dissolved
(2) Dissolution process is independent of in one L-water, then degree of association is
temperature given by
(3) Sdissolution > 0
!! !"# ! $ % &! '
(1) (2)
(4) Hdissolution < 0 &! #! $
62. The molecular weight of benzoic acid in benzene ! "! !!
as determined by depression in freezing point (3) ! (4)
#! $ "# ! $
method corresponds to
69. Solvent which is better to be used during
(1) Ionization of benzoic acid ebullioscopic measurement has
(2) Dimerization of benzoic acid (1) High Kb (2) Low Kb
(3) Trimerization of benzoic acid (3) Kf = Kb (4) Unpredictable
(4) Solvation of benzoic acid 70. 0.9 gm of a hydrocarbon with molecular formula
63. Van’t Hoff factor of 80% ionised Hg2Cl 2 in its H2(CH2)n when dissolved in 180 gm of solvent
aqueous solution will be freezes at 8.48°C. If freezing point of pure solvent
is 9°C, then the formula of hydrocarbon is
(1) 1.6 (2) 2.6
(Kf = 12 K kg mol–1)
(3) 3.6 (4) 4.6
(1) C8H6 (2) C8H18
64. Assuming the salts to be unionised in solution.
Which of the following has the highest osmotic (3) C8H16 (4) C7H8
pressure? 71. 0.5% (w/v) aqueous solution of KCl was found to
(1) 1% (w/v) CsCl (2) 1% (w/v) RbCl freeze at – 0.24°C. The degree of dissociation of
the solute at this concentration will be (Kf for H2O
(3) 1% (w/v) KCl (4) 1% (w/v) NaCl = 1.86 K kg mol–1).
65. Which of the following is an intensive property?
(1) 74.5% (2) 19.2%
(1) Boiling point of the solution
(3) 92% (4) 48%
(2) Freezing point of the solution
72. Select the correct statement
(3) Osmotic pressure
(1) Freezing point, boiling point and vapour
(4) All of these pressure are all colligative properties
66. A solution containing 30 g of a non-volatile solute (2) The freezing point, boiling point and vapour
exactly in 90 g water has a vapour pressure of pressure all decrease when a solute is
2.8 kPa at a given temperature. When 18 g of dissolved in a solvent
water is added to the solution, the new vapour
(3) Plots of freezing point versus molal
pressure becomes 2.9 kPa at the same
concentration for ethyl alcohol, propyl alcohol
temperature, the molar mass of the solute is
and butyl alcohol dissolved in water will all be
(1) 34 g mol–1 (2) 23 g mol –1 linear with different slopes
(3) 46 g mol–1 (4) 17 g mol –1 (4) All are incorrect
73. The vapour pressure of two liquids A and B are 100 78. Equal moles of benzene and toluene are mixed.
and 80 torr respectively. The total pressure of the The vapour pressures of benzene and toluene in
solution obtained by mixing 2 moles of A and 3 pure state are 700 and 600 mm Hg respectively.
moles of B would be The mole fraction of benzene in vapour state is
(1) 20 torr (2) 36 torr (1) 0.50 (2) 0.7
(3) 88 torr (4) 180 torr (3) 0.53 (4) 0.6
74. Which of the following is the correct order of boiling 79. At freezing point of a solution which of the
points of the following solutions? (Assume following are in the equilibrium?
complete dissociation of salts)
(1) Liquid solvent, solid solvent
a. 0.15 M NaCl
(2) Liquid solvent, solid solute
b. 0.4 M glucose solution
c. 0.15 M CaCl2 solution (3) Liquid solute, solid solvent
d. 0.15 M urea solution (4) Liquid solute, solid solute
(1) d < a < c < b (2) d < b < a < c 80. Vapour pressure of a solution is 4.5 atm. This
solution has been separated from the solvent by
(3) d < a < b < c (4) d < c < b < a
semipermeable membrane. If 5.2 atm external
75. When you dissolve sugar in a glass containing ice pressure is applied over the solution, then
and water in equilibrium, and assuming that no
heat enters or leaves the system (1) Osmosis will be stopped
(1) Some of the ice should melt and the (2) Osmosis will be held in opposite direction
temperature of water/ice mixture should (3) Solute molecules will start migrating
increase
(4) No effect on osmosis
(2) Some of the ice should melt and the
temperature of the water/ice mixture should 81. van’t Hoff’s factor for a dilute solution of potassium
decrease argentocyanide is (assuming, = 1)
(3) Some of the water should freeze and the (1) 2 (2) 0.25
temperature of the water/ice mixture should (3) 0.5 (4) 3
increase
82. A 1.2 M solution of NaCl is isotonic with 2.4 M
(4) Some of the water should freeze and the solution of glucose. Calculate the van’t Hoff’s factor
temperature of the water-ice mixture should of NaCl solution (Assuming NaCl completely
decrease dissociates)
76. At 323 K, the vapour pressure in millimeters of Hg
(1) 2.36 (2) 1.50
of a methanol-ethanol solution is represented by
the equation p = 120 xA + 140, where xA is the (3) 2 (4) 1.00
mole fraction of methanol. Then the value of 83. 5.85 g NaCl is dissolved in 200 ml of water at
! 27°C. The osmotic pressure of solution will be
"#$ ! is
"! # % (Assume that NaCl is completely ionised)
!
(1) 250 mm Hg (2) 140 mm Hg
(1) 6 atm (2) 12.315 atm
(3) 260 mm Hg (4) 20 mm Hg
(3) 24.63 atm (4) 30 atm
77. x mole of KCl and y mole of BaCl 2 are both
dissolved in 1 kg of water. Given that x + y = 0.1 84. A 0.1 molal solution of nitrous acid freezes at
and K f for water is 1.86 K/molal. What is the – 0.198ºC. The Kf of water is 1.86 K kg mole–1.
observed range of Tf if the ratio of x and y is The percentage ionization of nitrous acid at this
varied? concentration is
(1) 0.37° to 0.55° (2) 0.185° to 0.93° (1) 15% (2) 17.5%
(3) 0.56° to 0.93° (4) 0.37° to 0.93° (3) 9.6% (4) 6.5%
85. The mole fraction of benzene in solution containing

30% mass in CCl4 is !"!!!#$% !"!!!!#$% !"!!#$%
(1) 0.20 (2) 0.45 90. &'( &'( &'(
(3) 0.83 (4) 0.65
! " #
86. 0.6 ml of acetic acid having density 1.06 g/ml, is
dissolved in one litre of water. The depression in Which of the following is correct about van’t Hoff
freezing point observed is 0.02°C. van’t Hoff factor factor of A, B & C? (Assume complete ionization
of acetic acid is (assuming molarity = molality and of KCl)
Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1) (1) iA > iB > iC (2) iA < iB < iC
(1) 1.88 (approx) (2) 1.99 (approx) (3) iA > iB < iC (4) iA = iB = iC
(3) 1.06 (approx) (4) 2.6 (approx)
91. Which of the following substance will sublime?
87. Henry’s law constant (KH) values for P, Q, R and
S are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 × 10 –5 and 0.413 (1) H2O (ice) (2) Graphite
respectively. Which one has maximum solubility? (3) Diamond (4) CO2 (dry ice)
(1) P (2) Q
92. Choose the correct statement(s)
(3) R (4) S
88. Choose the incorrect statement (1) Ethanoic acid dimerises in benzene
(1) When methyl alcohol is added to water, boiling (2) Ethanoic acid dissociates in water
point of solution increases (3) van’t Hoff factor of CH3COOH is less than 1 in
(2) Lowering of vapour pressure of a solution benzene while that in water is more than 1
causes depression in freezing point
(4) All are correct
(3) Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes
with temperature 93. Consider the following graph
(4) When a non-volatile solute is added to a
volatile solvent, elevation in boiling point is 234,5
!"#$%&'#&())%&(
observed
-'($,"'+
89. Which of the following graph is correct for an ideal
!"#$"%
binary liquid solution containing nonvolatile solute? &'()*+,
./'0*+
&'()*+,
(1) !"#$%&'()(
1! 1" 1# 1$
1*56*/4,$/*3
*!"#"$ *!"#"% Choose the correct option(s) :
*&"#"% *&"#"$
(1) Depression in freezing point = T2 – T1
(2) Elevation in boiling point = T3 – T4
(2) !"#$%&'()(
(3) Boyle temperature = T3 – T2
(4) All are correct
*!"#"$ *!"#"% 94. 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein
*&"#"% *&"#"$ contains 0.63 g of the protein. The osmotic
pressure of such a solution at 27°C is found to be
2.57 × 10–3 bar. What will be the approx molar
(3) !"#$%&'()(
mass of the protein?
[R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1]
*!"#"$ *!"#"%
(1) 61022 g mol–1 (2) 30520 g mol–1
*&"#"% *&"#"$
(4) All are correct (3) 15255.5 g mol–1 (4) 122044 g mol–1
95. 31 g of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) is mixed with 102. Which of the following solution has maximum
500 g of water. What will be the freezing point of boiling point?
water? [Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1] (1) 0.1 M KNO3 (2) 0.01 M CH3COOH
(1) 269.14 K (2) 271.29 K (3) 0.5 M urea (4) 0.2 M K4[Fe(CN)6]
(3) 275.01 K (4) 273.95 K 103. If 25.6 g of sulphur is dissolved in 100 g benzene,
96. Which is true about azeotropic mixture? solution shows depression of freezing point of
5.12°C. If (Kf)Benzene is 5.12°C kg/mol, then the
(1) It is a constant boiling mixture
best possible structure of sulphur molecule may be
(2) Vapour phase composition and liquid phase given as (Atomic weight of S = 32 g)
composition are same (1) Monoatomic molecule, S
(3) Cannot be separated by simple distillation (2) Diatomic molecule, S2
(4) All are true (3) Crown shape, S8
97. If two solutions have same osmotic pressure then (4) Polymeric shape, Sn
the solution are said to be
104. 0.5 molal aqueous solution of KCl, MgCl2 and
(1) Hypertonic (2) Isotonic FeCl 3 have freezing points T 1 , T 2 and T 3
(3) Hypotonic (4) Isobaric respectively. Which of the following is correct?
98. The magnitude of heat of solution on addition of (1) T1 > T2 > T3

solvent to solution (2) T3 > T2 > T1
(1) Decreases (3) T2 > T1 > T3
(2) Increases (4) T1 > T3 > T2
(3) Remains constant
SECTION - B
(4) Increases or decreases
99. If mole fraction of the solvent in a solution
decreases, then In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(1) Vapour pressure of solution increases
(2) Boiling point decreases reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) Osmotic pressure increases assertion, then mark (1).
(4) All are correct statements (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
100. Which one is isotonic with 3 M NaCl aq. solution?
(1) 3 M Urea (2) 2 M BaCl2
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3) 1 M AlCl3 (4) 2 M KCl false, then mark (3).
101. Consider the following 0.01 M aqueous solutions (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
of statements, then mark (4).
I. KCl 1. A : Ethanol water mixture forms minimum boiling
azeotropes.
II. CaCl2
R : 95.4% ethanol in water (by volume), the liquid
III. Glucose
and vapour have the same composition, and no
The relative lowering of vapour pressure will be in further separation occurs.
the order
2. A : C2H5I and C2H5Br form ideal solution.
(1) III > II > I (2) I > II > III
R : The interaction between the components are
(3) III > I > II (4) II > I > III similar to those in the pure components.
3. A : Azeotropes have different composition in liquid 5. A : When 100 ml of A mixed with 25 ml of B then
and vapour state depending upon the volatility total volume cannot exceed 125 ml.
of components. R : Intermolecular forces between A and B is
always stronger than pure A or pure B.
R : Composition in both, liquid and vapour phase
depends upon volatility of the substance. 6. A : Raoult’s law for the solution of non-volatile
solute can be given as
4. A : A liquid mixture which distil with change in
"# "! !!"#$%&
composition is called zeotropic mixture.
"! !!"#'&(% !!"#$%&
R : Non-ideal solution forms zeotropic mixture at R : Raoult’s law is not applicable for the solution
composition other than a zeotropic point. of FeCl3 in water.
!" !" !
Chapter 8
Chemical Kinetics
6. For a reaction : A B.
SECTION - A
!"
Objective Type Questions The graph is plotted between #$% (Y-axis) and
!&
1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct log (a – x) (X-axis). The slope of the line is found
regarding Arrhenius equation? to be 45º. The order of reaction will be
(1) If Ea = 0, then 100% reactant will convert into !"
[where rate, (a – x) conc. of reactant at
product !#
time 't']
(2) If T is equal to infinite, then 100% reactant is
converted into product (1) Zero (2) One
(3) Ea cannot be negative (3) Two (4) Three
(4) All of these 7. The unit of rate constant of second order reaction
is
2. At particular concentration, the half life of the
(1) s–1 (2) mol L–1 s–1
reactant is 100 minutes. When the concentration
of the reactant becomes 10 times, the half life of (3) mol–1 L s–1 (4) mol–2 L2 s–2
the reaction becomes 60 seconds, then what will 8. For a first order reaction, initial concentration is 2.5
be the order of reaction? M, rate constant is x s–1, then t3/4 for the reaction
(1) 1 (2) 2 is
(3) Zero (4) 3 !"#$% !"#$%
(1) & (2) &
3. The rate constant of the given reaction, ' '
!"#$%&
R(g) 2P(g) is 2.48 × 10–4 s–1 (3) 0.3465x s (4) '
(
A 1 : 1 molar ratio of R to P in the reaction 9. If rate constant at 310 K for a reaction is 100 and
mixture is attained after rate constant at 300 K for a reaction is 40, then
temperature coefficient is
(1) 32 min (2) 27.3 min
(1) 1.03 (2) 3.5
(3) 20 min (4) 0 min
(3) 2.5 (4) 0.40
4. A graph drawn between concentration of reactant
(a – x) and time ‘t’ is found to be a straight line. 10. For a zero order reaction, the initial amount of
The reaction is of reactant is 20 g and half-life is 30 minutes. The
amount of reactant left after 60 minutes would be
(1) First order (2) Zero order
(1) 5 g (2) 10 g
(3) Third order (4) Second order
(3) 2.5 g (4) Zero
5. A first order reaction, which is 50% completed in
11. For an exothermic chemical process occurring in
30.2 minutes has a half life period of
two steps as follows
(1) 102.2 min (2) 58.2 min (i) A + B Y (slow)
(3) 30.2 min (4) 120.2 min (ii) Y AB (fast)
84 Chemical Kinetics Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
The process of reaction can be best described by 13. A hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 2XY follows
the mechanism as given below
1232 X2 ! 2X (fast)
X + Y2 XY + Y (slow)
(1) -/ X+Y XY (fast)
0
-).)/ The order of the overall reaction is
!"#$%&'()$'*'+,&(#%" (1) 1 (2) 1.5
(3) 2 (4) 3
14. For a zero order reaction, a graph of [A] versus ‘t’
1232
is linear and have
(1) Negative slope and non-zero intercept
(2) 0
-).)/ (2) Negative slope and zero intercept
-/
(3) Positive slope and non-zero intercept
!"#$%&'()$'*'+,&(#%"
(4) Positive slope and zero intercept
15. The rate constant of a reaction is 3 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1.
1232 Hence, the order is
(1) 1
(3) -).)/ 0 (2) Zero
-/
(3) 2
!"#$%&'()$'*'+,&(#%" (4) 3
16. Which is mismatched?
1232
-/ (1) &'() *+),"*",-),

(4)
0
-).)/ !"#$%
!"#$%&'()$'*'+,&(#%"
12. For the first order gas phase decomposition

reaction (2) &!"# '()*+&'"*,-*
A(g) B(g) + C(g)
If P 0 is the initial pressure of A and Pt is total !"#$%
pressure after time t, then correct relation is
"#$%$ !!
(1) & '()
* !! !" % '($)*+,'*-,$-
(3) &
"#$%$ !!
(2) & '()
* "!! !"
!"#$
"#$%$ !!
(3) & '()
* !" "!!
(4) $"#! %&'()*%+)*,)
"#$%$ !!
(4) & '()
* !" !!
!"#!
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Chemical Kinetics 85
17. Rate constants of forward and backward reaction of 23. A graph is plotted between half life and
concentration.
!!!
" –3
! " is 3.25 × 10 and 1.62 × 10
! #!! –4
respectively. The equilibrium constant is !!"

(1) 2 (2) 20
! !
(3) (4) !
" "# "#$"%
18. A reaction mixture has been made by taking equal The order of the reaction will be
concentration of two reactants. It takes 40 minutes
for the completion of 50% of the reaction. For the (1) 0 (2) 1
completion of next 50% of the reaction time taken (3) 2 (4) 3
is 80 minutes. What is the order? 24. For a first order kinetics, the time required for 75%
(1) Zero (2) 1 completion is ________ of its half life
(3) 2 (4) 3 $
(1) !" (2) Twice
!! #
!!!"
19. In the reversible reaction !"#" #!!! "" ## , the
! " $
(3) Half (4) !"
rate of disappearance of NO2 is equal to %
25. Which of the following remains unchanged when a
!""
(1) #$%! &! catalyst is added?
"!
(1) Enthalpy of reaction (2) Activation energy
(2) 2K1 [NO2]2 – 2K2 [N2O4] (3) Rate constant (4) Reaction rate
(3) 2K1 [NO2]2 – K2 [N2O4] 26. In a second order kinetics, the volume of reaction
(4) K1 [NO2]2 – K2 [N2O4] vessel is halved at constant temperature, the
specific reaction rate
20. Half life of a reaction is found to be inversely
proportional to the cube of initial concentration. The (1) Remains constant
order of reaction is (2) Increases by 4 times
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) Becomes one fourth of initial
(3) 4 (4) 5 (4) Increases but less than 4 times
21. Which of the following statement(s) is/are 27. In the given reaction
incorrect?
PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(1) The rate of a reaction is same at any time
during the reaction initially only PCl5(g) is present at 1.5 atm. After
10 minutes the pressure becomes 2.5 atm. The
(2) The rate of a reaction is independent of rate constant of the reaction will be (in minute–1)
temperature change
"
(3) The rate of a reaction decreases with increase (1) 0.2303 #$% (2) 0.2303 log3
!
in concentration of reactant(s)
(4) All of these " &
(3) &'("&" #$% (4) *+%$*$ '()
! %
22. For a particular reaction, 2A + B Products, it is
seen that when the concentration of only B is !
28. The reaction, A2(g) B(g) + C(g);
doubled, the half life did not change but when the "
concentration of only A is doubled the rate of shows increase in pressure from 100 mm to 120
reaction increased by two times. The unit of rate mm in 5 minutes. The rate of disappearance of A2
constant for this reaction would be is
(1) mol L–1 s–1 (1) 4 mm min–1
(2) s–1 (2) 8 mm min–1
(3) L mol–1 s–1 (3) 16 mm min–1
(4) Unitless (4) 2 mm min–1
29. The rate expression for a reaction is R = K[H+] [X]. 34. In the given reaction
If pH is increased by one, the reaction rate is !"
(1) Increased by 10 times $!"
!"
(2) Decreased by 10 times #!
!"#!
(3) Increased by 2 times !"$## !"
#"
(4) Constant
30. The decomposition of a substance ‘R’ takes place
according to first order kinetics. Its initial
$!"
"
concentration is reduced to th in 24 s. The rate the fraction of p-nitrophenol in overall amount of
!
product will be
constant of the reaction is
0! ( " (!
- ! &%#$ ! (1) 0 (2)
(1) , (2) ! (!
%# "# "
!! ! " ("
#+ ( ! # ! (3) (4) ( (
(3) ) (4) ! !! ! "
* "
31. The two reactions are given below 0 %$ #
35. If the ratio of rate constants is equal to 2,
0 "$ #
A B + energy
0 !$ #
C + energy D the value of 0 should be
"$ #
If the temperature is increased, then what is the
!
effect on reaction rates in both reactions? (1) 2 (2)
"
(1) Both rates are increased
!
(2) Both rates are decreased (3) 4 (4)
#
(3) In A B, the rate is decreased and in 36. In a reaction, when concentration is increased by
C D, the rate is increased four times, rate constant remains unchanged, the
order of reaction will be
(4) In A B, the rate is increased and in
(1) 0 (2) 3
C D, the rate is decreased
(3) 2 (4) Any order
32. For study in chemical kinetics, following
relationship is observed 37. The value of rate constant depends on
(1) Presence of catalyst
/**
ln K (sec–1) = -%+# (2) Temperature
.
the activation energy (in cal) of the reaction will be (3) Change in concentration of reactants
(1) 2.303 × 8.314 × 800 (4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) 2.303 × 2 × 800 38. For a third order kinetics, which of the following
relationship is incorrect?
(3) 8.314 × 800
(4) 2 × 800 &
(1) ' "#
!"#$"%!
33. For a gas phase reaction, following rate law is
observed (2) r (conc)3
r = k[A]x [B]2 (3) K is independent to concentration

(4) All of these
when conc. of A & B both become double the rate
is increased by y times and when volume of 39. A substance ‘A’ is 20% decomposed in 1 hr
container is tripled the rate is decreased by 27 following 1st order kinetics. The percentage of ‘A’
times the value of x and y are respectively left after 3 hr will be
(1) 2, 8 (2) 1, 9 (1) 81% (2) 60%
(3) 1, 8 (4) 2, 9 (3) 51.2% (4) 20%
40. In an exothermal reaction A B. The activation 45. For decomposition of ammonia on tungsten surface
energy of reverse reaction is three times that of (1) Half life period is dependent on initial
forward reaction. If enthalpy of the reaction is concentration
–80 kJ mol–1, the activation energy of the reverse
reaction is !"#$# %
(2) & '()
(1) 120 kJ mol–1 (2) 40 kJ mol–1 * %+,
(3) 80 kJ mol–1 (4) 160 kJ mol–1 (3) t99.9 is equal to 10 half life
41. Decompositon of H2O2 is a first order reaction. To (4) Both (2) & (3)
determine the rate of reaction initially 10 ml of 46. 5 g radioactive substance is taken in 1 L flask.
standard KMnO4 solution are required and after 10 How much substance will be left after 100 years,
min, 5 ml of KMnO4 solution are required, the rate if half life of substance is 25 years?
constant will be (1) 2.5 g (2) 1.5 g
(1) 6.93 hr –1 (2) 0.0693 min–1 (3) 0.625 g (4) 0.3125 g
(3) 5.6 min–1 (4) 0.015 min–1
47. For the reaction
42. Which of the following graphs represents first-order
2NO + Br2 2NOBr
reaction?
Mechanism given is
NO + Br2 ! NOBr2 (fast)
!"# $! %"&
!"# " NOBr2 + NO 2NOBr (slow)

"#$
I. II. Then which of the following is true?
! ! (1) Order of the above reaction is less than
molecularity of reaction
(2) Order of the above reaction is equal to
molecularity of reaction
!"# $! %"&
"!"#
(3) Order is greater than molecularity of reaction
III. IV. (4) Relation between order and molecularity cannot
be predicted
! !
48. If the initial conc of unity is reduced to half in 25
(1) I & II (2) I, II & III s for a zero order reaction, then rate constant will
(3) I & IV (4) III & IV be
43. Kinetics of decomposition of H2O2 is studied by (1) 0.027 mol L–1 s–1 (2) 0.027 s–1
volumetric measurement of concentration of H2O2 (3) 0.02 mol L–1 s–1 (4) 0.02 L mol–1 s–1
by standard KMnO4 solution at different time interval.
49. If for a Ist
order reaction, k = 8.5 × 105e–15000 K/T
If 20 ml of 0.2 N KMnO4 is required at start and
the energy of activation is given by
after 10 minutes 10 ml of 0.2 N KMnO4 is required
(1) 150 kJ/mol
&$% ! " ! !
then rate constant K of ( #$% ! " ! ! is (2) 125 kJ/mol
&'
(3) 50 kJ/mol
+*)() "*)()
(1) #$%&"! (2) $%& #"! (4) 500 kJ/mol
'( '(
50. For the reaction ; 2A 4B + C,
*)"(" +*)()
(3) $%& #"! (4) $%& # "! At a given time if rate of formation of B is given by
'( '( x mol/L/s. Then rate of change of concentration of
44. In a first order kinetics, if the concentration of A at that time and rate of reaction at that time can
reactant is halved and temperature is increased by be given respectively by
20ºC from initial, the reaction rate will be
1
(assuming temperature coefficient equal to 2) (1) 2 3 1 (2) –2x, x
%
(1) Unaltered (2) Twice of initial
! ! !
(3) 8 times of initial (4) 4 times of initial (3) " # (4) "#!$
$ % %
51. For the elementary gaseous reaction 57. If activation energy of forward and reverse reactions
2P + Q 3R. How the rate is affected if the are 36.8 kJ/mole and 91.3 kJ/mole. Then reaction
volume is made triple? is
(1) Rate increases 9 times (1) Exothermic
(2) Rate increases 27 times (2) Endothermic
(3) Rate decreases 27 times (3) Independent of temperature
(4) Rate remains unchanged (4) Neither exothermic nor endothermic
52. If for an endothermic process, 58. For two reactions, activation energies are !!! and
A+B C + D – 30 kJ/mol, the activation energy
for the forward reaction is 95 kJ/mol, then the !!! and rate constants are K1 and K 2 at same
activation energy for backward reaction will be temperature. If K1 > K2, then
(1) 95 kJ/mol (2) 65 kJ/mol (1) !!! > !!!
(3) 125 kJ/mol (4) 30 kJ/mol
(2) !!! < !!!
53. If for the reaction A + B Product, order with
respect to A and B is respectively 1.5 and zero. (3) !!! = !!!
Then in the given table x and y will be respectively
(4) Cannot be predicted
! " #$%& 59. In the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g). If initially
!"!# !"!# &"! 10 g H2 were taken and after 10 s, 34 g NH3 is
$ !"!#& &"! formed, then rate of reaction (assuming volume of
!"!% !"!# ' container is 1 L and N2 is present in excess)
(1) 0.067 mol L–1 s–1 (2) 0.2 mol L–1 s–1
(1) 0.02, 5.0 (2) 0.01, 14
(3) 2 mol L–1 s–1 (4) 0.5 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 0.02, 14 (4) 0.01, 5
54. Exp. [A] [B] Initial rate !!"#
60. For any first order reaction is
i. 0.012 0.035 0.1 !$"%
ii. 0.024 0.070 0.8 !

(1) 1 (2)
iii. 0.048 0.070 1.6 "
The rate for A + B Products will be (3) 2 (4) 3
(1) Rate = K(A)3 (2) Rate = K(B)3 61. The slope of plot for the reaction
(3) Rate = K(A)(B)2 (4) Insufficient data N2 + 3H2 2NH3 would be equal to
55. Consider the following statements
!"#$%
i. First order reactions follow an exponential time

course
ii. If curve is plotted t1/2 against [C]inital of reactant
!
is a straight line passing through origin then it
"
will be of zero order reaction
!!
iii. Rate of reaction is always proportional to the (1)
"#$%$&'
concentrations of reactants
!!
Of these statements (2)
"#$%$&'
(1) i, ii, iii are correct (2) i and ii are correct
!!
(3) ii, iii are correct (4) i and iii are correct (3)
"
56. The half life of a first order reaction is 10 minutes. (4) This type of plot is not possible
If experiment is started with 0.08 mol/litre, then
time taken to reduce the concentration to 0.01 mol/ 62. The rate constant of a reaction has same
litre dimension as rate of reaction. The reaction is of
(1) 10 minute (2) 30 minute (1) Zero order (2) 1st order
(3) 20 minute (4) 40 minute (3) 2nd order (4) 3rd order
63. A graph plotted between log K versus 1/T for 68. For a reaction, A(g) B(g)
calculating activation energy is shown by Following data were obtained at 37°C for above
reaction
$%&'(
!"#$$%"#&'(
67 87 97
(1) )&*+&,,-./
!"# .01(&1*(#&23!"#4
: 9 8
2"#103*5#4
$%&'( The order of reaction is
(2) (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4
!"#
69. Which of the following graph is incorrect?
$%
$%&'( )(*"+"*,(* & '"()*(
(3) %&'( %!"#

(1) (2)
!"#
!"#!$ !"#!$
$%&'( %&
!" % &'()*(
) %*+,-+
(4) " $"#$
#$%&%'(
!"# (3) (4)
64. On plotting a graph between concentration of ! !
!"#
product and time for calculating the instantaneous
rate of reaction, the graph has 70. Rate constant of a first order reaction is dependent
on
(1) Positive slope (2) Negative slope
(1) Time
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Cannot predicted
(2) Temperature
65. For the first order reaction, which one is not
(3) Concentration of reactants
correct?
(4) All of these
(1) t3/4 = 2 × t1/2 (2) t7/8 = 3t1/2
71. Consider the following graphs
(3) t99.9% = 10t1/2 (4) t90% = 2.5t1/2
66. X Y (K1 = 1010.e–500/T) !"#"$"%&'()
X Z (K2 = 1012.e–1000/T)
(i) !"#
At what T both K1 and K2 are equal?
'&&
(1) 500 K (2) ()
*%#&# $
,'-&- "'"&"
(3) ./ (4) ./ !"#"$"%&'()
!&& !&&&
67. Reaction A + B C + D + 38 kcal has (ii) !"#$%
activation energy 20 kcal. Activation energy for the
reaction
C+D A + B is &
(1) 20 kcal
(%&)*+,+ !
(2) – 20 kcal """#$%&%
(iii) %&' "#$!
(3) 18 kcal "#$
(4) 58 kcal
!
Which of the above graphs represents the 1st order !

reaction?
(1) Only (i) (2) Only (ii) !"#$%#&%
(3) Only (iii) (4) (ii) & (iii) (1)
'()*+$%
72. For the reaction M + N A + B, energy of !"#$%&'()$''*+&(#%"
activation is
!
'
!"#$%#&%
(2)
" #$
'()*+$%
(
!"#$%&'()$''*+&(#%"
!
! %#&
(1) x (2) y '()*+$%

(3) x + y (4) x + y – z (3)
!"#$%#&%
! !"#$%&'()$''*+&(#%"
73. For any order reaction, !"# depends on
nth
!$"% !
(1) Concentration of reactant always
(2) Concentration of product always '()*+$%
(4)
(3) Order of reaction !"#$%#&%
(4) Pressure only !"#$%&'()$''*+&(#%"
74. The gas phase decomposition of A as 77. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) The existence of certain intermediates in a
!"#$ %&"#$ '"#$ reaction mechanism can sometimes be proven
follows first order kinetics and pressure measured because intermediates can sometimes be
after 15 minute and infinite time are 205 and 450 trapped and identified
mm of Hg respectively, in a constant volume (2) Intermediates in a reaction mechanism cannot
container at a constant temperature. Calculate the be isolated because they do not have finite life
total pressure inside the flask after 50 minute. times
(1) 122.5 mm (3) Reaction mechanisms cannot have more than
(2) 293.26 mm one intermediate
(3) 150 mm (4) Intermediates in a reaction mechanism appear
in the overall balanced equation for the reaction
(4) 50 mm
78. The reaction rates for many spontaneous reactions
75. Diazonium salt decomposes as
are actually very slow. Which of the following is the
" #
! ! "# "#$%$!! best explanation for this observation?
(1) The standard entropy change is < 0
At 0°C, the evolution of N2 becomes four times (2) The activation energy is high
faster when the initial concentration of the salt is
increased four times. Therefore, it is (3) The standard free energy change for the
reaction is > 0
(1) A first order reaction
(4) These reactions are endothermic
(2) A second order reaction
79. Gaseous N 2 O5 decomposes according to the
(3) Zero order reaction following equation
(4) A third order reaction
-
76. Which of the following reaction energy diagrams 4" 5& 6)7 %45" 6)7 5" 6)7
%
best represents a reaction in the forward direction,
that is non-spontaneous with two intermediate 0" 1#
The experimental rate law is 230" 1# 4 .
states? 5
At a certain temperature the rate constant is 84. For the reaction, 3A Product, the rate law is
k = 5 × 10–4 s–1. In how many seconds will the rate = k[A]2. Half life of reaction is given by
concentration of N2O5 decrease to one-tenth of its
!
initial value? (1) !!" # "#$ (2) "!" #
#$%
(1) 2 × 103 s (2) 4.6 × 103 s
(3) 2.1 × 102 s (4) 1.4 × 103 s !
(3) "!" # (4) !"# ! "#$!
80. Nitrogen monoxide NO, reacts with ozone O3, to #$%#
produce NO2 and O2 85. Consider a reaction aG + bH Products. When
concentration of both the reactants G and H is
456)7 5% 6)7 45" 6)7 5" 6)7 doubled, the rate increases by eight times.
However when concentration of G is doubled
Consider the following mechanism for the reaction keeping the concentration of H fixed, the rate is
a. !! "#$ !" "#$ !"#$ (slow) doubled. The overall order of reaction is
(1) 0 (2) 1
b. !"#$% "#$% !"! #$% (fast)
(3) 2 (4) 3
Which one of the following rate laws would be
86. For a first order homogeneous gaseous reaction,
consistent with the mechanism proposed above?
A 2B + C, then initial pressure was Pi while
(1) Rate = k[NO] [O] [O3] total pressure after time t was Pt. Thus the rate
(2) Rate = k[NO] constant K for the reaction would be
(3) Rate = k[NO] [O3] !#$%$ ! !"! "
(4) Rate = k[O3] (1) & *
'() # $
% $"! "" &
81. A and B are two different chemical species
!#$%$ ! !"! "
undergoing first order decomposition with rate (2) & '() # $
constants kA and kB which are in the ratio of 3 : * % !"" "! &
2 respectively. If the initial concentration of A and
"#$%$ ! !! "
B are in the ratio of [A]0 : [B]0 = 3 : 2. What would (3) & '() # $
be the ratio of [A] : [B] after three half lives of A? * % !! !" &
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 4 !#$%$ ! $"! "
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 (4) & *
'() # $
% !"! "" &
82. For the zero order reaction, A 2B, the rate 87. For a zero order reaction the initial amount of
constant is 2 × 10 –6 M min –1. The reaction is
started with 10 M of A. What will be concentration reactant is 100 g and its half life !! " is 20
of A after 2 days? minute. The amount of reactant left after 40 minute
will be
(1) 7.56 M (2) 9.10 M
(1) Zero (2) 25 g
(3) 8.500 M (4) 9.994 M
(3) 12.5 g (4) 50 g
83. For a given first order gaseous reaction, if initial
pressure is P0 and after t minutes total pressure 88. The half life of a first order reaction is 69.3 second.
becomes Pt then the rate constant K is The value of the rate constant of the reaction is
An(g) nA(g) (1) 1 s–1
(2) 0.1 s–1
" !!
(1) # $% (3) 0.01 s–1
& %!! !"
(4) 0.001 s–1
" !"
(2) # $%
& !! %!"
89. The time of completion of 90% of a 1st order
reaction is approx
- ! 8! 69 -7 " (1) 1.1 times that of half life
(3) 0 '9 # $
! % 98! 8" & (2) 2.2 times that of half life
"#$%$ !! (3) 3.3 times that of half life

(4) & *
'()
!! !" (4) 4.4 times that of half life
!"
!!!!
! 96. Choose the incorrect statement
90. !" "#$ %&" "#$ #!!!
! '!&# "#$ , the rate of
!" (1) Catalyst alters the rate of reaction by changing
disappearance of NH3(g) will be Ea
(1) K1[N2][H2]3 – K2[NH3]2 (2) e–Ea/RT is fraction of molecules with energy
(2) 2K2[NH3]2 – 2K1[N2][H2]3 equal or greater than Ea
(3) K2[NH3]2 – K1[N2][H2]3 (3) Second t1/2 of first order reaction is half of the
first t1/2
(4) 2K1[N2][H2]3 – K2[NH3]2
(4) All of these
91. In Arrhenius’s equation K = Ae–Ea/RT. A may be 97. The following chemical reaction is of zero order at
termed as the rate constant at high pressure :
(1) Very low temperature !!"# $
2NH3(g) %& '(&()*+&
N2(g) + 3H2(g)
(2) The boiling temperature
Choose the correct option(s) for the reaction
(3) Zero activation energy
(1) Rate of reaction is proportional to the
(4) Very high activation energy concentration of NH3
92. Time required for completion of 99.9% is ____ (2) Unit of rate constant is mol L–1 s–1
times of half life of the first order reaction
(3) Half-life of the reaction is independent of
(1) 2 (2) 4 concentration of NH3
(3) 10 (4) 1 (4) All are correct
93. 87.5% of a first order reaction is completed in 98. A first order reaction is 30% completed in 30
45 minute. The time in which 99.9% of the minute. How much time will it require for 100%
reaction will be completed is completion?
(1) 120 minute (2) 60 minute (1) 100 minute (2) 90 minute
(3) 150 minute (4) 100 minute (3) 60 minute (4) Infinite
94. Which of the following graph is correct for 1st order 99. Consider the following chemical reaction:
reaction? 5Br(–)(aq) + BrO3(–) (aq) + 6H(+)(aq) 3Br2(aq) +
3H2O(l)
Choose the correct expression
%&'!
"#$
%&' $!"# :;< ' ( = $ :;<" =
(1)
(1) (2) ! & !
!"#$!# " % & !"#$ %
! !"#! (2)
' ( '
!! " ! !"
(3) " # $ = $ ! #"# $
# % &
%&'()*+ !"## $ % !&! " $
(3) (4) All are correct (4)
' '
100. Consider the following statements regarding
!"#$
complex reaction :
95. Select the correct statement I. A complex reaction proceeds through several
steps.
(1) Molecularity of the reaction can be zero or
fractional II. The molecularity of reaction is the sum of
molecularity of each step.
(2) We always determine order of reaction from
balanced chemical equation III. Order of a complex reaction is determined by
the fastest step in its mechanism.
(3) The enthalpy of reaction remains constant in
the presence of catalyst Choose the correct statement(s)
(1) I & II (2) II & III
(4) All collisions of reactant molecules lead to
product formation (3) Only I (4) I, II & III
101. Consider the following graph 106. The unit of rate constant for 2nd order reaction is
.()/0,)+&1(%234+! (1) time–1
(2) L mole–1 s–1
!
(3) mole–2 L2 s–1
#$%&'()
6 " (4) L mole–2 s–2
107. For the reaction :
*+,(),-)
CH3OCH3(g) CH4(g) + H2(g) + CO(g)
The rate of reaction is given as R = K(CH3OCH3)3/2
5/2+ in a closed vessel. If pressure of CH3OCH3(g) is
Choose the incorrect statement(s) expressed in terms of bar and time in minute (min),
(1) Reaction is exothermic in forward direction i.e., then the units of rate constant (K) should be
H = –ve (1) [bar]1 [min]–1
(2) Activation energy for forward reaction is x – y (2) [bar]–2 [min]–1
(3) Using catalyst will decrease H value of the (3) [bar]–1 [min]–1
reaction
(4) [bar]–1/2 [min]–1
(4) All of these
102. Which curve represents zero order reaction?
SECTION - B
!"#$%&'()
!"#$%&'()

(1) (2) In the following questions, a statement of assertion
! ! (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
!"#$%&'()
!"#$%&'()

(3) (4) (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
! !
103. The threshold energy of a chemical reaction false, then mark (3).
depends upon
(1) Nature of reacting species statements, then mark (4).
(2) Temperature 1. A : Product can form only when the required
(3) Concentration of species orientation and energy conditions of reactants
are favourable.
(4) Number of collision per unit time or collision
frequency R : All collisions between reactants yield the
desired product.
104. If in a first order reaction 100 gm of reactant
becomes 50 gm in 6.93 hrs, then what will be the 2. A : For elementary reactions, the law of mass
weight left after 23.03 hours? action and rate law expressions are generally
same.
(1) 10 g (2) 20 g
R : Molecularity of elementary reaction is always
(3) 30 g (4) 40 g one.
105. Time taken to reduce the concentration of a first 3. A : At very high temperature (approaches to
order reaction to 1/4th of initial concentration if half- infinity) rate constant becomes equal to
life is 30 minute collision frequency.
(1) 30 minute (2) 60 minute R : The collisions in which molecules collide with
(3) 120 minute (4) 45 minute proper orientation is called ineffective collisions.
4. A : Base catalysed hydrolysis of ethyl acetate is 5. A : The overall order of the reaction is the sum of
a first order reversible reaction. power of all the reactants in the rate
R : Order of reaction always depend on the expression.
stoichiometry of the reaction. R : There are many higher order reactions.
!" !" !
Chapter 9
Surface Chemistry
SECTION - A 6. H2S + As2O3

Objective Type Questions Above reaction leads to formation of colloidal
1. A packet of colloidal system and two electrodes solution of by method.
are taken. When voltage is applied so that liquid (1) S, reduction
medium moves under the influence of electric field.
(2) S, oxidation
This phenomenon is called
(3) As2S3, double decomposition
(1) Electrophoresis (2) Electroosmosis
(4) As2S3, oxidation
(3) Electrodialysis (4) Electrolysis
7. In Fe(OH) 3 sol obtained by peptization when
2. Which of the following ion will have the highest
subjected to “electrophoresis effect”
flocculating value for the coagulation of positive sol
particles? (1) Colloidal particles will migrate towards anode
(1) Br– (2) CO32– (2) Colloidal particles will migrate towards cathode
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) [Fe(CN)6]4– (3) Colloidal particles migrates first towards anode
3. Micelle formation occurs only above a particular and then towards cathode
temperature known as (4) Colloidal particles remain stationary
(1) Inversion temperature 8. Colloidal solutions are not purified by
(2) Kraft temperature (1) Dialysis (2) Electrodialysis
(3) Curie’s temperature (3) Ultrafilteration (4) Electrophoresis
(4) Boyle’s temperature 9. Colloidal system of liquid in gas is an example of
4. Which is not correctly matched? (1) Smoke (2) Foam
(1) Argyrol – Colloidal sol of silver (3) Milk (4) Fog
(2) Purple of cassius – Colloidal sol of platinum 10. The protective action of colloids is expressed in
(3) Aqua dag – Colloidal sol of graphite terms of
in water (1) Gold number (2) Avogadro’s number
(4) Colloidion – Colloidal sol of (3) Atomic number (4) Oxidation number
cellulose nitrate in
11. Potassium sterate is an example for
ethanol
(1) Multimolecular colloid
5. Tanning is used for hardening of leather. The
process involves (2) Associated colloid
(1) Peptization (2) Coagulation (3) Macromolecular colloid
(3) Adsorption (4) Absorption (4) Lyophilic colloid
96 Surface Chemistry Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
12. Slope of Freundlich adsorption isotherm is given by 18. The potential difference between electric double
layer on colloidal particles is called
!
(1) log K (2) log (1) Electromagnetic potential
"
! (2) Electrokinetic potential
(3) log P (4)
" (3) Zeta potential
13. ZSM-5 is used to convert (4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) Alcohol to petrol 19. The most suitable coagulating reagent having
(2) Benzene to toluene fastest rate of coagulation of arsenic sulphide
sol is
(3) Toluene to benzene
(4) Heptane to toluene (1) !" "! (2) I –
14. Adsorption is accompanied by (3) Mg+2 (4) Na+
(1) Decrease in entropy of system 20. Which of the following is not correct about
(2) Decrease in enthalpy chemical adsorption?
(3) The value of T S is negative (1) It is irreversible
(4) All of these (2) It is related to the ease of liquifaction of gas
15. Select the correct statement? (3) It is highly specific

(4) All of these
(1) Brownian movement does not depend upon the
nature of the colloid 21. Tyndall effect is best observed in
(2) Tyndall effect helps to confirm the (1) Lyophillic colloids (2) Lyophobic colloids
heterogeneous nature of the colloidal solutions (3) Suspension (4) True solution
(3) A positively charged sol is formed by the 22. Bredig’s arc method can be used for making
addition of excess of hot water to ferric chloride colloidal sol of
(4) Both (2) & (3) (1) Sodium (2) Starch
16. Which pair is correctly matched? (3) Gold (4) Sulphur
Colloidal solution Adsorbed ion 23. The cavity diameter of zeolites lie between
(1) [Fe(OH)3] Fe3+ (1) 1 nm – 100 nm
(2) [As2S3] As3+ (2) 450 pm – 1000 pm
(3) [SnO2] SnO32– in acidic (3) 260 pm – 740 pm
medium (4) 260 nm – 850 nm
(4) [AgI] I– in excess of AgNO3 24. Artificial smoke screens are made by
17. Consider the following statements (1) TiO2 (2) Al2O3
(i) The process of converting a precipitate into (3) PbO (4) Na2O
colloidal sol is called peptization.
25. 1 mol of [AgI]Ag+ can be coagulated by
(ii) Collodion is a 4% solution of nitro cellulose in (1) 1 mol of AgNO3
a mixture of alcohol and ether.
"
(iii) Clouds are aerosols having small droplets of (2) mol of AgNO3
!
water suspended in air.
"
Choose the correct statement(s) (3) mol of AgNO3
!
(1) Only (ii) (2) (i) & (ii) "
(4) mol of CaCl2
(3) (i) & (iii) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii) !
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Surface Chemistry 97
26. Foam rubber is an example of 32. Electrokinetic potential is
(1) Liquid in gas (2) Gas in solid (1) Potential difference between fixed layer and
diffuse layer of similar charge
(3) Gas in liquid (4) Solid in gas
(2) Movement of colloidal particles towards one of
27. Dispersion of starch in hot water is called the electrode on applying electrode potential
(1) Emulsion (2) Hydrophilic sol (3) Potential difference between fixed layer and
(3) Hydrophobic sol (4) Associated colloid diffused layer of opposite charge
(4) Both (1) & (3)
28. Freshly obtained SnO 2 is added to water
containing little HCl. The sol obtained would be 33. The charge on the sol particles is due to
(1) Positively charged due to preferential adsorption (1) Electrons capture by sol particles during
electrode dispersion of metals
of H+ ion
(2) Preferential adsorption of ions from solution
(2) Negatively charged due to preferential
adsorption of SnO32– (3) Acidic or basic medium
(3) Positively charged due to preferential adsorption (4) All of the above possible
of Sn4+ ion 34. Point out false statements
(4) Positively charged due to preferential adsorption (1) Brownian motion and Tyndall effect are shown
of Sn2+ ion by colloidal solution
(2) Different colours of a colloidal solution are due
29. For the coagulation of 100 ml of arseneous
to different size of colloidal particles
#
sulphide sol, 50 ml of NaCl is required. The (3) Blood is a colloidal solution
!"
flocculation value of NaCl is (4) If 2.5 mg of X is added in 1 ml colloidal
solution of gold to prevent coagulation on
(1) 5
adding 1 ml of 10% NaCl its gold number is
(2) 20 2.5
(3) 50 35. Which of the following is an application of
adsorption?
(4) 100
(1) Separation of inert gases
30. The value of zeta potential depends on
(2) Softening of hard water
(1) Drift velocity of colloidal particles
(3) Heterogeneous catalysis
(2) Dielectric constant of dispersion medium (4) All of these
(3) Viscosity of dispersion medium 36. Lyophilic solutions are
(4) All of these (1) Irreversible solution
31. Which of the set is mismatched regarding the (2) Self stabilizing
catalyst used and its type? (3) Easily coagulable
(1) Haber’s process – Fe catalyst, (4) They are prepared from inorganic compounds
Heterogenous only
catalysis 37. Peptization is used for
(2) Hydrolysis of – H2SO4 catalyst, (1) Preparation of colloidal sol
sugar Homogenous
(2) Purification of colloidal sol
catalysis
(3) Separation of two colloidal sol
(3) Ostwald process – Platinum gauge,
(4) Preparation of emulsion
Homogeneous
catalysis 38. Argyrol is colloidal solution of
(4) Hydrogenation of – Nickel, Heterogenous (1) Ag (2) Au
vegetable oil catalysis (3) Cu (4) Starch
39. On adding AgNO 3 solution to KI solution a !

46. Graph between %&' and log p is a straight line
negatively charged colloidal solution will be formed #
in which of the following conditions? at an angle 45° with intercept on y-axis, 0.3010.
Then the amount of the gas adsorbed in gram per
(1) 100 ml of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 100 ml of 0.1 M KI
gram of the adsorbent when pressure is 0.2 atm is
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.6
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.2
47. The volume of gases H 2, CH 4, CO 2 and NH 3
40. Which of the following is aerosol? adsorbed by 1 g of adsorbent at 288 K are in the
(1) Smoke (2) Cloud order
(3) Jellies (4) Both (1) & (2) (1) H2 > CH4 > CO2 > NH3
41. The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is given by the (2) CH4 > CO2 > NH3 > H2
relationship
(3) CO2 > NH3 > H2 > CH4
! "# (4) NH3 > CO2 > CH4 > H2
, then the correct statement is
$ % &#
48. Peptization is a process of
! "
(1) at very high pressure (1) Precipitating the colloidal particles
# $
! (2) Purifying the colloidal solution
(2) "# at very low pressure
$ (3) Dispersing the precipitate into colloidal sol
# $ (4) Movement of colloidal particles towards the
(3) at low temperature and high pressure
! " opposite charged electrodes
(4) All of these 49. Bleeding is stopped by application of ferric
42. Which of the following is lyophilic? chloride. This is because
(1) Gelatin sol (2) Silver sol (1) The blood starts flowing in opposite direction
(3) Sulphur sol (4) As2S3 sol (2) The ferric chloride seals the blood vessel
43. An example of solid-solid system is (3) The blood reacts and forms a solid which seals
(1) Smoke (2) Pumic stone the blood vessel
(3) Dust (4) Gem stones (4) The blood is coagulated and thus the blood
vessel is sealed
44. According to adsorption theory of catalysis the
reaction rate increases because 50. Find the incorrect match
(1) Adsorption produces heat which increases the Sol. Coagulating power
rate of reaction (1) Fe(OH)3 NaCl > CaCl2
(2) In the process of adsorption, the kinetic energy (2) Gold NaCl < CaCl2
of the molecules increases
(3) Soap sol AlCl3 > NaCl
(3) The concentration of reactants at the active
(4) As2S3 AlCl3 > CaCl2
centres becomes low due to adsorption
51. Gold number is a measure of the
(4) The activation energy of the reaction becomes
high due to adsorption (1) Protective action by a lyophilic colloidal on
lyophobic colloid
45. In the Haber process of synthesis of NH3
(2) Protective action by a lyophobic colloid on
(1) Mo acts as catalyst and Fe as a promoter
lyophilic colloid
(2) Fe acts as catalyst and Mo as a promoter
(3) Number of milligram of gold in a standard red
(3) Fe acts as inhibitor, Mo as catalyst gold solution
(4) Fe acts as promoter and Mo as autocatalyst (4) Number of millimoles of lyophilic solution
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Surface Chemistry 99
52. FeCl3 when added to hot water, we obtain 59. Choose the incorrect match
(1) Positively charged colloid (1) Liquid in liquid – Fog
(2) Negatively charged colloid (2) Solid in liquid – Sol
(3) True solution (3) Liquid in solid – Gel
(4) Suspension (4) Gas in liquid – Foam
53. Rate of physisorption increases with 60. Which of the following is not true to the
(1) Decrease in temperature phenomenon of physisorption?
(2) Increase in temperature (1) H<0 (2) H>0
(3) Decrease in pressure (3) S<0 (4) G = –ve
(4) Decrease in surface area 61. Match column I to column II
54. If colloidal sol of AgI is prepared by adding AgNO3
Column-I Column II
to KI solution till AgNO3 is in slight excess then
colloidal particle acquire a. Osmosis (i) Movement of
dispersed phase
(1) No charge
particles towards
(2) Negative charge oppositely charged
(3) Positive charge electrode
(4) Either positive or negative charge b. Dialysis (ii) Movement of solvent
55. Zeolites are particles through
SPM towards
(1) Shape selectives catalysts
concentrated
(2) Oxidising agents solution side
(3) Reducing agents
c. Electrophoresis (iii) Colloidal sol
(4) Antiseptics formation
56. Fog is an example of colloidal system d. Peptisation (iv) Purification of
(1) Liquid dispersed in gas colloids
(2) Gas dispersed in gas (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) Solid dispersed in gas (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(4) Gas dispersed in liquid 62. Collodion is
57. Tails of comet are visible due to (1) 4% solution of nitrocellulose in a mixture of
(1) Adsorption (2) Reflection alcohol and ether
(3) Tyndall effect (4) Brownian motion (2) 95.5% solution of ethanol
58. Which of the following graph is correct for (3) Colloidal solution of gold
Freundlich adsorption isotherm?
(4) A type of semipermeable membrane
63. Which of the following is an example of associated
!"#$%&'
!"#$%&'
(1) (2) colloid?

(1) Protein + water (2) Soap + water
(3) Rubber + benzene (4) As2O3 + Fe(OH)3
!"#$% !"#$%
64. Among the electrolytes Na2SO4, CaCl2, Al2(SO4)3
and NH4Cl, the most effective coagulating agent
!"#$%&'
!"#$%&'
(3) (4) for Sb2S3 sol is

(1) Na2SO4 (2) CaCl2
(3) Al2(SO4)3 (4) NH4Cl
!"#$% !"#$%
65. Which one of the following has the highest 1. A : A hydrophilic sol is more stable than
coagulation value for As2S3 solution? hydrophobic sol.
(1) Na+ (2) Mg2+
R : In hydrophilic sol, colloidal particles are heavily
(3) Ca2+ (4) Al3+
hydrated as compared to hydrophobic sol.
SECTION - B 2. A : Scattering of light makes sky appear blue.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions R : Colloidal dust particles present in air scatters
In the following questions, a statement of assertion the blue light most.
3. A : Soaps form negative sol.
reason is the correct explanation of the R : Micelles formation takes place above CMC and
assertion, then mark (1). kraft temperature.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the 4. A : One part of micelles is lyophillic in nature.
assertion, then mark (2). R : Micelles have lyophillic COO– group.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is 5. A : Colloidal solutions show colligative properties.
R : Colloidal solutions do not show Brownian
statements, then mark (4). motion.
!" !" !
Chapter 10
Environmental Chemistry
8. The smog is essentially caused by the presence

SECTION - A
of
(1) O2, O3
1. The pollutant released in Bhopal gas tragedy was
(2) O2, N2
(1) Mustard gas
(3) Oxide of N and S
(2) Methyl isocyanate
(3) Hydrogen sulphide (4) O3, N2
(4) Bromine vapours 9. The most abundant hydrocarbon pollutant is
2. The photochemical smog can be suppressed by (1) Methane
(1) Nitrogen oxide
(2) Ethane
(2) Hydrocarbon
(3) Propane
(3) Radical trap
(4) Butane
(4) Formaldehyde
3. Due to atmospheric pollution, rain water becomes 10. ‘White lung cancer’ is caused by
(1) Acidic (2) Basic (1) Asbestos
(3) Amphoteric (4) Neutral (2) Silica
4. The water pollution can be checked by
(3) Textiles
(1) BOD (2) COD
(4) Paper
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) pKw
11. Excessive accumulation of organic matter in H2O
5. Ozone depletion occurs in
bodies leads to
(1) Tropospheric pollution
(1) Decrease in species diversity
(2) Stratospheric pollution
(3) Air pollution (2) Increase in species diversity
(4) Photochemical smog (3) Green house effect

6. pH of acid rain is (4) No effect on species diversity
(1) 5.6 (2) 6.5 12. Greenhouse effect is due to the presence of
(3) Less than 5.6 (4) More than 5.6
(1) He layer in the atmosphere
7. Which of the following is present in maximum
amount in acid rain? (2) Infrared light reaching the earth
(1) HNO3 (2) H2SO4 (3) Oxygen in atmosphere
(3) HCl (4) H2CO3 (4) CO2 layer in the atmosphere
102 Environmental Chemistry Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
13. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

SECTION - B
(1) PAN is a powerful lacrimator, it causes tears
in eyes Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(2) NO 2 in the presence of sunlight produces In the following questions, a statement of assertion
smog (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(3) A carcinogen is material that causes cancer (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(4) All of these statements are correct
14. Excess of which of the following in drinking water
is the cause of ‘blue baby’ syndrome?
(1) Nitrate assertion, then mark (2).
(2) Sulphate (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3) Fluoride false, then mark (3).
(4) Iron (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

15. Green chemistry deals with the
1. A : Both SO2 and NO2 are major components of
(1) Production of green vegetables
air pollution.
(2) Reduction in the production of pollutants
R : SO 2 forms reducing smog while NO 2 is a
(3) Study of ozone hole component of oxidising smog.
(4) Waste management 2. A : For green house effect, presence of green
16. Viable particulates in atmosphere is plants is essential.
(1) Mist R : Chlorophyll of the green plants causes green
(2) Fumes house effect.
(3) Smoke 3. A : Classical smog is oxidizing in nature.
(4) Fungi R : Classical smog is caused by NO2.
!" !" !
Chapter 11
Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
4. Nitroethane on treatment with excess of Cl2 in

SECTION - A
presence of NaOH gives
(1) ClCH2CH2NO2 (2) CH3CHClNO2
1. Which of the following reaction is known as
(3) Cl2CHCH2NO2 (4) CH3CCl2NO2
Borodin Hunsdiecker reaction?
5. The poisonous gas obtained by exposing
!""#$ !"#$%&"# chloroform to air and sunlight is
(1)
(1) CH2Cl2 (2) COCl2
!"#%! (3) HCHO (4) CH3Cl
'(!%)#$
(2) 6. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) Polar solvent always accelerates the rate of
!""#$ !"!#$$%" SN2 reaction
(3)
(2) Inductive effect operates through bond
!"!!##" (3) The addition of HBr to propene gives

!"#$%&'(!
(4) 2-bromopropane
(4) All of these
2. C2H5Cl + AgF C2H5F + AgCl. The reaction !"#$%&'
7. CICH2 · CHCl2 P(major), the product ‘P’
is known as
will be
(1) Finkelstein reaction (2) Swarts reaction
(1) HOCH2 – CHCl2 (2) ClCH2.CHO
(3) Hunsdiecker reaction (4) HVZ reaction
(3) CH2 = CCl2 (4) ClCH = CHCl
3. Incorrect order of SN1 reaction is – (in terms of fast
rate) 8. !"!!# !"#$%&' $%&'()*('+,-.
"# !
Correct statement about the above reaction
(1)
$
(1) Rate of reaction doubles when conc. of halide
is doubled
(2) !" # !" (2) Rate of reaction quadruples when conc. of
halide is doubled
(3) CH2 = CH – Br > CH2 = CH – CH2 – Br (3) Reaction proceed via formation of cyclic
transition state
(4) #
!" (4) Rate of reaction quadruples when conc. of
!" halide as well as base is doubled
104 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
9. For SN1 reaction preferred solvent will be 15. Alkyl fluoride is more conveniently prepared by the
(1) Water (2) Benzene reaction
(3) Ether (4) Toluene (1) CH3CH2Cl + Hg2F2
10. The halogen acids react readily with alkene to form (2) CH3CH3 + F2
alkyl halides. The order of reactivity of halogen acid (3) CH2 = CH2 + HF
is
(4) All of these
(1) HI > HCl > HBr > HF
1&! ! +)*+,,' -./
(2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF 16. $3#2 " !
0 ()*+,, !"#$%&'
(3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
The product ‘y’ is
(4) HI > HBr > HF > HCl
!"#"$!% !"#"$!%
11. Which of the following compound is most easily (1) (2)
dehydrohalogenated? !"#"$!% !"#"$!%
!" !" (3) CH3COOH (4) CH3COOK
! !
17. The dipole moment of some alkyl halides is
(1) ! (2) correctly given as
(1) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I
!" !"
! ! (2) CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I
(3) (4) (3) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I
(4) CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3F > CH3I
!""!"! !"!# 18. The number of ‘C’-atoms in monohaloalkane of
12.
lowest molar mass which can show position
The major product is isomerism and optical isomerism are respectively
!""!"! !"!!"!#$ (1) 3 and 4 (2) 4 and 5
(1) (2)
#$ (3) 3 and 5 (4) 3 and 6
$% 19. Correct order of dipole moments is given as
!"#!"! !"!!""
(3) (4) (1) CH3Cl > CH2Cl2 >CHCl3 > CCl4
#$
(2) CHCl3 > CH2Cl2 > CH3Cl > CCl4
13. Which of the following compound is most polar? (3) CHCl3 > CH3Cl > CH2Cl2 > CCl4
#$ #$ (4) CH3Cl > CHCl3 > CH2Cl2 > CCl4
!"!
(1) (2) 20. Select the correct order of boiling points of some
!"! alkyl halides
#$ i. n-butyl chloride
(3) (4) All are equally polar ii. Iso-butyl chloride

iii. Tertiary butyl chloride
!"!
!"#$%&'(
iv. Secondary butyl chloride
14. !"!#!""#!"#!"! %
)*!+,-. (1) i > ii > iii > iv (2) i > iii > ii > iv
$
What is ‘A’? (3) i > ii > iv > iii (4) i > iv > ii > iii
(1) CH3–CH = CH–CH3 21. Melting point of dichlorobenzene (C6H4Cl2) are
correctly given as
(2) CH3–CH2–CH = CH2
(1) o-C6H4Cl2 > m-C6H4Cl2 > p-C6H4Cl2
(3) !" !#!$%$!" "
(2) p-C6H4Cl2 > m-C6H4Cl2 > o-C6H4Cl2
!"!
(3) p-C6H4Cl2 > o-C6H4Cl2 > m-C6H4Cl2
(4) CH3–C C–CH3 (4) o-C6H4Cl2 > p-C6H4Cl2 > m-C6H4Cl2
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 105
!"#! !"!
!$%&'&()* !"!
22. !"# !"#"
!$%&'&(+* !"! !"!
The products (A) and (B) in reactions are (1) (2)
respectively
(1) POCl3 and H3PO3 (2) POCl3 and H3PO2 !"!
(3) H3PO4 and POCl3 (4) H3PO3 and POCl3 !"!

23. The reagent which is not used for the following (3) Mixture of (1) & (2) (4)
conversion, CH3CH2OH CH3CH2I, is
(1) HI (2) NaI and conc.H2SO4 !"
(3) NaI and H3PO4 (4) All of these

"!" "& ' %&"&"
30. In the reaction # " ! , the
24. 3CH3Cl + SbF3 3CH3F + SbCl3, the reaction is #$ " !!!
(1) Finkelstein reaction major product (A) will be

(2) Sandmeyer’s reaction !" !"
(3) Gattermann reaction !#!

(1) (2)
(4) Swart’s reaction
!#!
25. Total number of open chain structural isomers of
monochloro derivative having formula C5H11X are !"
!"!
(1) 8 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 12 (3) (4)
26. Reactivity of halorenes towards electrophilic !#!

substitution reactions is correctly given as
!
(1) C6H5I > C6H5Br > C6H5Cl > C6H5F -.&/00 +,
31. # "!
(2) C6H5I < C6H5Br < C6H5Cl < C6H5F ()*#" !"#$%&'
(3) C6H5I > C6H5Br > C6H5Cl < C6H5F (X) in this reaction is
!" #
(4) C6H5I < C6H5Br < C6H5Cl > C6H5F
(1) # (2) !"
27. The maximum yield of product in Borodin
Hunsdiecker reaction is given by !
(1) CH3CH2CH2COOH (2) (CH3)2CHCOOH (3) Mixture of (1) & (2) (4) !
(3) (CH3)3CCOOH (4) !!""!"#!$$"
32. Consider the given reaction
!"#
"#! !
28. Major product obtained on dehalogenation of #$%%&' # !"
meso-2, 3-dichlorobutane will be Which one of the following acid will give maximum
(1) Cis-2-butene (2) Trans-2-butene yield of R – Br in the above reaction?
(3) 2-methyl propene (4) Butene-1 (1) !" !#$#!"#$#!%%"
29. Product of reaction !"!
!"! (2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – COOH

" !"!
!"! (3) !"!#$#!#$#!%%"
%#$
#"!
" !# !"#$ !"!
" " (4) C6H5COOH
33. Arrange the following in decreasing order of 38. The number of isomers of compound C2BrCIFI
solvolysis for SN1 reaction (1) 9 (2) 6
!"#!"$!"!!"! (3) 8 (4) 4
(I) "
!% 39. An optically active 3-bromo-3-methyl hexane on
hydrolysis gives
!"!!""!"!"!#
(II) (1) Optically inactive mixture
(2) Optically active mixture
!"!!"!"!"!"!
(III) # (3) 3-methyl-2-hexanol with inversion of
!# configuration
!# (4) No reaction
#
!
(IV) !"!!""!""!"!
!"#$
40. & . P is
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > IV > II > III $!%"
(3) IV > I > II > III (4) II > I > IV > III "#!
34. In the reaction sequence !
!"#$% &!'!$!(&(")*+%,
!"!#! $ -./-00
% (1)
$!#"
The product ! is "#
!
#
""
(1) COCl2 (2) !!""!!!!!"" (2)
$%!!$%!!"%
(3) C6H5CHO (4) C6H5CO4 "#!
"&! !"
35. &$( % & % $ ""& "
x. The product ‘x’ is
''
&$( % & % $ (3)
$"!!$"!!""
(1) Meso form #!!
(2) Racemic mixture !"
(3) X contains no asymmetric carbon
(4) X is optically active (4)
$!""
36. The total number of structural isomeric #!!
trichloroderivatives formed by propane are
41. Which of the following aryl halide undergoes
(1) 3 (2) 4 nucleophilic substitution by elimination-addition
(3) 5 (4) 6 mechanism and not by addition-elimination
mechanism?
$%
!" !"
37. !"!#!#!"! + Alcoholic KOH
#!$
!"! (1) (2)
This process gives
(1) Isobutene !"
!"
(2) Tertiary butyl alcohol #!$ $#!
(3) Both but more fraction of alkene (3) (4)
(4) Both but more fraction of alcohol
#$!
42. Which of the following is correct for successful
!"!
bimolecular nucleophilic reaction?
!"#)
(1) !! " reactions proceeds via increase in Gibb’s 45. (
$%&'%()"#(
free energy
#$
(2) Proceeds with retention of configuration Major product is
(3) !! " reactions follow 1st order kinetics
!"!
!"!
(4) !! " mechanism can rapidly occur in polar
aprotic solvent (1) (2)
#"" #""
43. Which of the following compounds is most reactive
towards nucleophilic substitution reaction in polar
protic medium? !"!"#$%"!
!"!
"!! #""
(3) (4)
(1) !!" "!"#$#%&
&'
46. The densities of polychloromethane varies as

"!! (1) CCl4 > CHCl3 > CH2Cl2 < CH3Cl
(2) !!" %& (2) CCl4 > CHCl3 = CH2Cl2 > CH3Cl
(3) CCl4 < CHCl3 < CH2Cl2 < CH3Cl
"!!
(4) CCl4 > CHCl3 > CH2Cl2 > CH3Cl
!
""!! !"
47. #$%&'()'$
"!# $%
(3) !!"" "!"#$#%&
The compound in the reaction
(4) ! !" #$!%&%'(

(1) (2)
!!"
44. Which of the following will be obtained by the
bromination of isopropyl benzene in presence of !"!
sunlight?
#$% #
(3) (4)
(1) !"!#!"!#!"!#$% !!" !!"
48. ! "#
! is
!"#!"!$"
(2)
%&
(1) (2)
!"
(3) !"#$!%!&" !"
!"
!"!#!"#!"" (3) (4)

(4)
$% !"
53. When C6D5Br reacts with NaNH2/liquid. NH3, the

49. ! !" "#$#%&' !! "##$" product obtained is
!
% (
What is the name of the above reaction and ( '!!
product X? !"!
(1) (2)
(1) Finkelstein iodide exchange method; ( (
(
!" ! # #
#
(2) Hunsdiecker Borodin reaction; # !"! # !"!
(3) (4)
" !# ! # #
# #
(3) Hunsdiecker Borodin reaction;
$%& !"# !"
54. CH 3 CH=CH 2 A $%%$
B X;
#!! !""
X is
(4) Birmbaun simonini reaction; (1) CH3CH = CH2
(2) CH3CH2CH3
# !! !"" !#!
(3) MgBrCH2 CH2 CH2 MgBr
50. In the reaction
!"! #$%&'%$()*+,
!"- !" !". # (4)
Which of the following statement is correct 55. Which of the following compound containing allylic
regarding above reaction? halogen?
(1) Product (P) is 3-bromopropene
!"
(2) The reaction follows free radical addition (1)
mechanism
(3) The reaction follows free radical substitution !"
mechanism via the formation of allyl free (2)
radical
!
(4) Both (1) & (3) (3)
!"#
51. !"!!""#$ (4)

$%"#
!"
The product and are 56. Which of the following option is wrong?
(1) Same compounds (2) Positional isomers (1) Major product of reaction
(3) Functional isomers (4) Geometrical isomers
#"!#""#"$%$#" !" with HBr is
!"#$%&"'(' 5&!014
52. !"!#" ! %&
)!"#$%*+$,%-. #"!#""#""$%$#" !"
/+01#$"1
+6178! 5&!014 2342$ &'
' $ #
!"! !"!
Product E is
!"#"
(1) Ethanol (2) Dimethyl ether (2)
$""
(3) Methoxy ethane (4) Ethoxypropane !#
61. The most reactive chloride towards S N 1
#$! mechanism among the following is
(3) !"#$!#$"#$"!%"#&
!"!#$#!%
!"#"" !"
#$! (1) ! (2)
#$""%"#$
#$!
!"
!"#
(3) (4) (CH3)3C – Cl
(4) is reduced as well as oxidised by
62. Which of the following will have highest
conc. NaOH at a same time nucleophilicity?
57. The product of given reaction
(1) !" (2)
!
$ "* # !"#"$%"#"&'()
(3) !" (4) !"
!
63. Most reactive species for SN2 will be

(1)
(1) (2)
!" !"
(2) !!"" !!""
!"
!"
(3) (4)
(3) ! !
64. Which one of the following compounds possesses
the highest melting point?
(4) !!"" #
!" !"
58. An SN1 reaction at an asymmetric carbon of a !"
(1) (2)
compound always gives
!"
(1) An enantiomer of the substrate
(2) A product with opposite optical rotation !" !"
(3) A mixture of diastereomers (3) (4)

(4) A maximum racemized product
!"
59. At low temperature, the slow addition of molecular
bromine (1 eq) to H2C = CH – CH2 – C CH gives 65. Which of the following used to prepare both
alkane and alkene?
(1) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CBr = CHBr
(1) Wurtz reaction
(2) BrCH2 – CHBr – CH2 – C CH
(2) Kolbe’s reaction
(3) H2C = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CBr3
(3) Williamson’s synthesis
(4) CH3 – CBr2 – CH2 – C CH
(4) Sandmeyer reaction
60. The SN2 mechanism for
66. The best method to prepare alkyl chloride from an
R – X + KOH (aq) R – OH + KX follows with alcohol is by adding
(1) 80% Retention (2) 40% Inversion (1) PCl5 (2) PCl3
(3) 100% Inversion (almost) (4) 90% Retention (3) SOCl2 (4) ZnCl2
72. The total number of stereoisomers in

!"
CH3 – CH = CH – CHClCH3 is
!"#$%& '(! )#*
67. % ! # (1) 8 (2) 3
((+$ (!)"*)
&'()*"+
(3) 4 (4) 2
#$!
#
!"
Compound C is ,!!" ,!#
73. !"!#$%
$%&'()*+
!" !"
The product is
(1) (2) #
!"
#$$% #$!"%&#''$ $!!" $!#
(1)
!" !"
#%%$ %&
#
!"
(3) (4) #%%$ $!!" $!#
#$! #$! (2)
68. Arrange the following in increasing order of dipole %&

moment
#
I. Toluene II. m-dichlorobenzene !"
$!!" $!#
III. o-dichlorobenzene IV. p-dichlorobenzene (3)
(1) I < IV< II< III (2) IV< I < II < III %&
(3) IV < II < III < I (4) IV < II < I < III #
!"
69. DDT is formed from $!!" $!#
(4)
(1) Benzene and chlorobenzene
%&
(2) Chloral and chlorobenzene
74. Which of the following reacts with water most
(3) Chloral and benzene readily?
(4) Chlorobenzene and chlorine (1) Tropylium chloride (2) Vinyl chloride
70. Which of the following compound shows greater
(3) Allyl chloride (4) t-butyl chloride
reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution?
75. SN2 reaction is favoured by
(1) m-chloronitro benzene
(1) Strong nucleophile
(2) Chlorobenzene
(3) o-chloronitrobenzene (2) Polar protic solvent
(4) o-chlorophenol (3) Less crowding at the electrophilic centre
!"! #$%&'"$()( (4) Both (1) & (3)

71. !"# $%&'()*+,-.(*+/% !0#
#
76. Which of the following does not give alkane on
compound (X) and (Y) respectively are reduction with zinc and dilute HCl?
(1) C6H5CH3 and C6H5CHO (1) Alkyl fluoride
(2) C6H6 and C6H5CHO (2) Alkyl chloride
(3) C6H5CH3 and C6H5COOH (3) Alkyl iodide
(4) C6H6 and C6H5COOH (4) Alkyl bromide
77. In following reaction, !"!
!"!#$$%! !""#$ !)!!"#*%!"! +,-./0)
!"#$#%&!#$#%''() (A) 82.
%&'%((
Major product A is
!"#$!
!" "
!"!#$% %&'($)
(1) (2) Product in the above reaction sequence is
!"! !!$!
!""# !"!
(1) (2)
(3) (4) !##" !##"
$%
#$ !""#
!""#
!!"#" #
78. (3) (4)
!""# !""#
The reaction is known as
83. Unsymmetrical alkanes can be best prepared by
(1) Sandmeyer reaction
(1) Wurtz reaction
(2) Balz Schiemann reaction
(2) Corey house synthesis
(3) Frankland reaction
(3) Frankland reaction
(4) Gattermann reaction (4) Kolbe’s electrolysis
79. For the same alkyl group, correct order of boiling 84. CHCl3 is used as an anaesthetic, but kept in dark
point is bottles because
(1) RF > RBr > RCl > RI (1) It is highly volatile
(2) RF > RCl > RBr > RI (2) It has high viscosity
(3) RI > RBr > RCl > RF (3) It forms highly poisonous gas phosgene
(COCl2) in presence of air and light
(4) RI > RBr > RF > RCl
(4) All of these
80. Major product of the reaction
85. Of the five isomeric hexanes, the isomer which can
!"! give two monochlorinated structural isomers is
!"!#$#!#$#!% + CH3 – CH2 – ONa ! (1) n-hexane
!"#$%&' (2) 2,3-dimethylbutane
!"!
(3) 2,2-dimethylbutane
What is A?
(4) 2-methylpentane
(1) Ethene (2) t-butylethyl ether
!"#$%&'%"$ (!)
(3) Ethanol (4) Isobutene 86. !"#$#%&# ' !(
!"#
81. !"$ !"%!# &'()*+(
!"$!"%$% This reaction is The compound ‘B’ is
(1) Swarts reaction

(1) (2) !"
(2) Finkelstein reaction
(3) Gattermann reaction #$
(3) ! (4)
(4) Sandmeyer’s reaction !"
!"! 3. A : Alkyl iodides are most reactive alkyl halides in

!"#$#!"! both SN1 and SN2 reactions.
87. !!""#"$%$&#"
%& '#()*+,&-. R : Alkyl iodides are least polar alkyl halides.
Identify A. 4. A : Ethylbromide and bromobenzene can be
distinguished by treating with aq. KOH followed
!"!
!"! by treatment with AgNO3.
!"! R : Bromobenzene undergoes nucleophilic
(1) (2) substitution while ethyl bromide does not
!"! undergo nucleophilic substitution.
!"! !"#$#%!!"$#&%!!'!
!"! !"#$!
5. A:
(3) (4)
!"! !"! !"#$#%!&!'"
SECTION - B
Assertion - Reason Type Questions R : Reaction follows SN2 mechanism.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) ! !"#!$ $%#&#!
6. A: "##$% .
assertion, then mark (1). R : Fluorine forms covalent bond with Mg.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the 7. A : C 6 H 5 F gives large amount of m-nitration
reason is not the correct explanation of the products than all the other halides.
assertion, then mark (2). R : F is least electronegative.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is 8. A : Nucleophilic substitution reaction of an
false, then mark (3). optically active 3° alkyl halide gives a mixture
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false of enantiomers.
statements, then mark (4). R : The reaction occurs by SN1 reaction.
1. A : Vinyl chloride can be easily hydrolysed.
9. A : Tertiary alkyl halides undergo SN1 reaction.
R : Resonance is not observed in vinyl chloride.
R : It has steric hindrance.
2. A : The reactivity of alkyl halide for nucleophilic
substitution reaction follows the order: 10. A : Amongst dichlorobenzenes, p-dichlorobenzene
has maximum melting and boiling point.
RI > RBr > RCl
R : p-dichlorobenzene is highly symmetrical
R : Leaving ability of halide ions follows the order: whereas o and m dichlorobenzenes are
I– > Br– > Cl– unsymmetrical.
!" !" !
Chapter 12
Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
6. In the reaction of phenol with CHCl3 and aqueous

SECTION - A NaOH, the electrophile attacking the ring is
Objective Type Questions (1) CHCl3
1. Ethanol and propanol can be distinguished by
(2) : CCl2
(1) Iodoform test (2) Lucas test
(3) CHCl2
(3) Victor Meyer’s test (4) All of these
(4) COCl2
2. Formation of oxonium salts shows that ethers are
(1) Acidic in nature (2) Basic in nature 7. Which of the following alcohol is dehydrated most
easily?
(3) Neutral in nature (4) Amphoteric in nature
!"
!"!
!"#
3. !"!#$#!#$#%#$#!"! &'()*+, (1)
!"!
Predict the major products of the reaction !"
(1) (CH3)3COH + CH3I (2)

(2) (CH3)3C – I + CH3OH
(3) (CH3)3C – O – C(CH3)3
!"
(4) All of these
(3)
4. Which one of the following reaction will not give
alkyl halide as product?
(1) Dimethyl ether + HI (4) !"! !""#"
(2) Dimethyl ether + Cl2
8. 1-cyclopentyl ethan-1-ol is treated with conc.
(3) Dimethyl ether + PCl5 H2SO4 to form a product which is further treated
(4) Dimethyl ether + HBr with HCl. The final product is further treated with
potassium tert-butoxide to form
'( %&
!"#$%
5. !""#$%& (1) Cyclopentylethene
#&&$'()*$+!
Mechanism by which above reaction takes place is (2) !"!

(1) Carbocation
(2) Carbanion
(3) !""
(3) Free radical
(4) Benzyne (4) 1-ethylcyclopentene
114 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
!" !#"! 13. Reagent (X) for the reaction is

!"! !"# $%!&'"
9. #"!$#$! ## $ !()*+,-#
!"!%"
!"! !
!"!%"
Which reaction intermediate is present in above
(1) SeO2
reaction?
!
! (2) Me2SO
(3) OsO4
(1) (2) CH3+
(4) RCO3H
! 14. What is the decreasing order of boiling point of the
(3) :CH2 (4) following alcohols?
!"!
!" "
!"!!!!#" # !"!!!"!!"!#"# !""!"!!"!!"!#"
!"!#$%!"" " "
10. $%&'()*('+,-. !"! !"!
#!! $%& $'& $(&
Major product of the reaction is (1) X > Y > Z
!" !" (2) Z > Y > X

$% (3) X > Z > Y
(1) (2)
#!! $% #!! (4) Y > Z > X
15. Presence of poisionous peroxide in the sample of
!" !" an ether is detected by using
$% (1) Cu2O and H2SO4
(3) (4)
#!! #!! (2) AgNO3
$% (3) FeSO4 and KCNS
%!!#&'!( (4) All of these
" &
!!"!#$"!
16. Final product ‘B’ of the reaction
11. !"!#!"$%$!""
$%#! !"! #"
!& " "! "!&#! $ % , is
)*! $*""+!!, !"" !'" "!' ()*+,
" '
-.%!"#$'!(#$!!"#$"!
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2OH
x and y respectively are
(1) !"!!"!"! , CH3CH2CH2OH (2) !"!!!"!!"!!#!""
" "
#" #" #"
(2) !"!!"!"! , !"!!"!"! (3) CH2=CH–CH2–OCH3
#" #" %!"!

(3) CH3CH2CH2–OH, CH3CH2CH2OH (4) !"!#!"$!"
%!"!
(4) CH3CH2CH2OH, !"!!"!"!
17. In hydroboration oxidation reaction of alkenes, the
#" hydroboration step and overall reactions
12. A compound of molecular formula C5H10 O5 is respectively follows
changed to C13H18O9 by treatment with acetic
(1) Markownikof and Anti-Markownikof addition
anhydride. How many alcohol groups are present
in the compound? (2) Anti-Markownikof and Markownikof addition
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) Markownikof addition in both
(3) 3 (4) 4 (4) Anti-Markownikof addition in both
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 115
!"!!!"! !"!!!"!
!"!#" " " " "
!"#$%%&'( 22. !" !" %&$"
18. !"$#" %&' ! ! !"! !"!
)*+,-&./012#3
" "
!# $" $
!"!#"
The product obtained is used as solvent in
Product (A) is preparation of alcohol from alkene, which is that
method?
!"!# !"!#
(1) Aldol condensation
(1) !"$# (2) !"!
(2) Hydroboration oxidation
!"!# !"!# (3) Oxo-process
(4) Hydration of alkene
!"!# !""
(3) !" (4) !"$# *"##"+#!
23. "!#"$%&'()( ##" "#"#$ %
#$!
!"! !"" !
(1) ! !" "!" #!" #!" # (2) ! !" "!!"#!" #!" $

#$%&'"(&)&*"! ! "
19. !"! -
#$$%&""+",+"# #" $"
The product of above reaction may be (3) ! !" "!!" #!!" !!" $ (4) "!#"!"#$"#"#"##
"
#"
!
!"!
(1) !"!#" (2) 24. Dehydration in decreasing order for following
#" alcohols will be
!"! " i. !" !#!"$!"$!" "

" "
(3) (4) %"
" !"! ii. !"!#!""#!"#!"!
#" #"
$"
"!#!"
20. ' iii. !" !!" "!" "#!" "
!" "$%&
!"
$"
The product in above reaction will be (1) i > ii > iii (2) ii > i > iii
"#! (3) iii > ii > i (4) i > iii > ii
(1) (2) !"

! !!"#" $!#$##!
25. # !!# $% in the reaction,
"#! A and B are (if ring not expand)
(3) (4) ! (1) $

!"!
!""#
"#! '(
'"#$%&&!
-. '(
21. ! "! (2) !"#$%
! *+, ) ( &
In the above reaction, the product ‘P’ may be

)*
)*
(1) ICH2CH2CH2CH2OH (2) !"!!"!!"!!"!#$" (3) ( !"#$%&'
!
$" "
(3) I.CH2(CH2)2.CH2I (4) Butane (4) !
26. We know that compound containing acidic

#!&#
hydrogen when react with Na metal gives H2 gas.
H2O, alcohol, C2H2 also have acidic hydrogen. The (1) !!" # #
$% "&!
order of acidic strength is #&"
(1) CH CH > H2O > ROH
(2) ROH > H2O > CH CH #!!"
(3) H2O > CH CH > ROH (2) !!" # #
"$!
(4) H2O > ROH > CH CH #!#
27. In Victor-Meyer test if a blue colour compound
nitrolic acid is formed and it turns red on adding
NaOH, then the alcohol and nitrolic acid are $!" #!#
respectively (3) # #
(1) 1° alcohol, !" !#!#$%" !!" #!!"
$%"
(2) 2° alcohol, !" !#!#$%"

$!"
$%"
(4) # #! #!%#!"
!%"
(3) 1° alcohol, !"#$! !!" #!"
!%"
#$
30. In the following reaction
!%"
(4) 2° alcohol, !"#$! !"
!" #!
"
!%" !!" # #
#$ !$!
%&'()*+,*)-./01
" %&'()*($
!!" !#$
28. !"!#$%&'(' * % ! The product is
+,-.!/!"
+,,-.!!""
) !$
+ "
(1) !!" #$!#$!
In the above sequence of reaction, the product ‘D’
is
!
""
(2) ! " #$!!#
!
(1) (2)
!"!#"
!!" "!"#!
!"" !
""
(3) ! " #!#$!
#" !
(3) (4)
!"! !$
!"! !"!#" !
(4) !!" #$!%#$
!#
31. In the reaction
!!" $#%$!## !
29. final #!$ !%
$ " !"#$%&'
!"!!"!!"! &
#!" $#" (%)*+
!""#
product will be The product ‘A’ is
!$ !"#
!
(1) !!" #$"#$"#$! (1) !"
$"!#%#$"#&#$"!
!"#
(2) !"
!#$! $"!#%#$"#&#$"!
#!$ #"
" !"#
(2) !"!!"!!"! (3) !"
!""#
#"
! !"#
(3) !"!# !""!""!"! (4) !"
$"!#%#$"#&#$"!
$"+
$#! #
%&'(&)#* !"#$ !
35. $"+ % $ % !"
#
$!% $# $"+
(4) !"!#!!!#!
!#"$ What is the product formed in the reaction?
(1) !"!#! !"" (2) !"!#! $

!" $% %&
!"! !"!
"#"!!
32. x. The product x is (3) CH3—CH2CH2—CHO (4) No reaction
36. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
increasing acidic strength?
(1) (2)
!" !" !"
#!!
(3) (4) (1) ! !
#!!
' "%# # $%& #!!
33. CH3—CH CH2 !
""!" # !"! ' "#$%& !
"# "# "#
The product ‘P’ is !"!
(2) ! !
(1) &$0 % &$% &$/ % #$
( !"!
#' !"!
(2) &$0 % &$% &$/ % '
( !" !" !"
#$ #!!
(3) CH3—CH2—CH2—OD (3) ! !
#!!
(4) !"! # !"# !"! #!!
&
%$ !" !" !"
34. Select the major product of given reaction #!!
!" (4) ! !
!"#"$%!"#"$%"&"$%! #!!
'()*+",+*-./01 #!!
37. Which of the following has highest pKa value? 42. Cyclopentene is best prepared from cyclopentanol
by using
(1) o-cresol (2) Ethanol
(1) Conc. H3PO4 (2) Conc. HCl/ZnCl2
(3) p-cresol (4) Catechol
(3) Conc. HBr (4) Conc. HI
38. Reduction of ethyl alcohol can be performed by
using !"#
43. !"" #$%
(1) Red P + HI (2) LiAlH4 ! "
(3) NaBH4 (4) All of these
The compound Q in the reaction
39. Which of the following is inappropriate resonating
!
structure of !" ? (1) (2) #
!"
!
!" !
! "# ! "# !
(3) (4)
(1) (2) $ "#
44. Which of the following is most acidic?
#
!
!" !"# (1) CH3CH2OH (2) !"!#$#!"#$#%"
!"!
(3) (4)
# (3) (CH3)3 – C – OH (4) H2O
40. The product of following reaction is 45. The acidic strength of methoxyphenols are in order
!"! (1) Para > Ortho > Meta > Phenol
!"#$%&$!'%!'((#"$)$*%+
!"!#$#!#$#!"#%#!"" ?
!""#$,-.%#$/$,-(% (2) Para > Ortho > Phenol > Meta
!"!
(3) Meta > Phenol > Ortho > Para
!"!
(4) Meta > Phenol > Para > Ortho
(1) !"!#$#!##$##!"#$#!"!
!"! %" !"#"$
$
46. %
!"! &$"'"&$!
(2) !"!#$#!#$#!""#$#!""%"
P is
!"!
%" !"! "#!
(3) !"!#$#!##$##!"#$#!"! (1) (2)
! "#!
!
!"!
%!" #$ !" !"
(4) !"#$#%!!#$#%#$#%!!#$#%!" (3) !"!"!"#"" (4)
%!"
47. Which of the following option is incorrect?
!!"!#"!"
!"#!$" % & (1) Sodium may be used to dry diethyl ether and
41. .
not ethanol
The compound Y is
(2) Anhydrous CaCl2 cannot be used for drying
(1) 3-methyl heptane-4-ol ethanol containing traces of water
(2) 4-methyl heptane-3-ol (3) Williamson synthesis is not superior method
(3) 3-methyl heptane-4-duter-ol for preparation of ether
(4) 3-methyl heptane-4-one (4) An ether fire is not extinguished by water
48. How many optical isomers are possible for !"#
2,3-pentanediol?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1)
(3) 5 (4) 4 $%&%!
49. Function of bleaching powder in the formation of !"#
chloroform from ethanol is
(1) To carry out chlorination of acetaldehyde (2)
(2) To carry out hydrolysis of chloral
$!!
(3) Carry out oxidation of ethanol
!
(4) All of these
50. t-butyl alcohol and phenol can be distinguished by (3)
(1) Lucas test "#$#!%
(2) Neutral FeCl3 test (4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Both (1) & (2) 53. Which of the following gives haloform reaction?
(4) Sodium bicarbonate test (1) !" !#$#!#$#%#$#!"!#
!"# %
51. !""#"$%&"'()*+ , -./ 0 (2) CH3 – OH

! " #
(3) !" #$#!" #$#!"#$#!" #$#!"
! " " !
What is the name of enclosed reaction and major %#$#"
product P?
(4) !" #$#!"#$#!" %
! "
!"#
&#$#"
$#!%"%$#%&%$#!
(1) Fries rearrangement; 54. Which of the following is true for phenols?
(1) Phenol on reaction with PCl5 give triphenyl
(2) Claisen rearrangement; phosphate as a major product
!"# (2) Electrophilic substitution reaction is performed

in presence of Lewis acid
$#!%"%$#%&%$#!
(3) The intermediate arenium species is more
stable where electrophile attacks on meta
position
!"# (4) The ortho and para are more deactivated than
meta positions
(3) Claisen rearrangement;
!"#"$
$#!%"%$#%&%$#! !"%
!"
#
#$
$
55.
&' ()*
!"#
Product Y is
(4) Fries rearrangement;
!
$#!%"%$#%&%$#! (1) (2)
!"#"$
!"!#! $!%#" !
52. !
(3) (4)
Product P may be
56. Which of the following option is true for below !" !

conversion? 61. !" !" # !"#$%
$; P is
!" !" !
#$ 23"4,567&89: 23"4,567&8(: 23"4,567&8):
"
!"#$%&'()&* .$./! 1!#!
)++&",- !
!"#$%&)0+&*
" #% (1) ! (2) ! !
! " !
(1) Reaction (1) is called Dow’s process !
(3) " (4)
(2) B is phenol and formed via activated !
nucleophilic substitution
62. Which of the following reaction is incorrect for
(3) B is sodium salt of salicyclic acid major product?
(4) C is acetyl salicyclic acid
!" !
!"#$%#!&'#(!)*" !" !
57. %&#$'$%$ $%&$($&!) "
+'#(,)*"!---#.# (1)
!""#"$!"%!
"
!/( 12 34 (!* /(!0,12
+ * % #$
What is E? !"
(1) 2-methoxy-2-methylpropane
(2) #$%#&'"!(!"
(2) 1-methoxy-2-methylpropane
(3) 2-methoxy-butanol !"
(4) 2-methoxybutane !"#$%&'
(3)
!"#$%&!'()* %+,-.&#/0"
58. !"! !"" !"# $%& $'&
!""#$&!0 #$%&'( )
! !
!"#$%&%$'()%* !"#$%&!'%&!(&
!"#$ (A) and (C) are (4) !
+,)#'()%* !)#$*&
!
(1) Identical
63. Which of the following ethers is not cleaved by HI?
(2) Positional isomers
(1) Dicyclohexyl ether (2) Phenetole
(3) Functional isomers
(3) Di-tert-butyl ether (4) Diphenyl ether
(4) Tautomers
!"
59. In the reaction sequence
!!""#
!"#$! % 64. !$"% # $ %
!"!& # $ #!"! $ #!&"!
!"!#" $%# &'
!"# !$# B is
(B) will be (1) !!"" # !!"" (2) !!"" # !!""
(1) H2C=CH—CHO
(3) !!"" # !#"" (4) !!"" #
(2) H2C=CH—CH2OH
65. Among the following compound the strongest
(3) Mixture of H2C=CH—COOH and acid is
H2C=CH—CH2OH
(1) !" !" (2) C6H6
! (3) C2H6 (4) CH3OH
(4) ""
#!$ $# % $% !$#! % $# $#! 66. Williamson’s synthesis of ethers is an example of
60. The number of methoxy and ethoxy groups in a (1) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
compound is determined and estimated by (2) Nucleophilic addition reaction
(1) Zeisel method (2) Kolbe’s method (3) Electrophilic addition
(3) Williamson’s method (4) Hofmann’s method (4) Electrophilic substitution reaction
67. Dehydration of cyclopentyl carbinol with conc. 72. Alkyne A reacts with reagents R1 and R2
H2SO4 forms
! !"#$! "
(1) Cyclopentane (2) Methyl cyclopentane %" # $
% !##$! &
(3) Cyclopentene (4) Cyclohexene
! !"! #$"% "
%" %" &" ## $$
% ""'"'" &
68. !!""!#$! !$#$!"# !!"#" &
To give identical product. A cannot be
!!"" !"#
(1) !"! ! !" (2) CH CH
The major product of above reaction is
(1) !!""!#$! !$#$!"# (3) (4) CH3 – C C – CH3
!!"" !"# 73. The product of the following reaction is

!"!
% !"# !"#$%&!'%!'((#"#$)%*
(2) !!""!#$!
!"! ! !" !"" #
!$#$!!"" !""#$+,-%%$.$+,(%
!"!
!"#
What is X?
!"# % !"!
(3) !!""!#$! !$#$!"# (1) "#!"" ! !"" !"!
!!"" !"!
(4) !!""!#$!" "!$#$!"# !" #"!

!!"" !"# (2) #"! # #" #"!
69. The product B in the following sequence of #"!
reactions is
!"!
)!'
!"#$%&% ( # (3) !"! ! !"" !""#"
'
!"!
(1) C6H5OD (2) C6H5CH2OD
(3) C6H5CH2OH (4) C6H5CH2CH2OD !"!
70. Which of the following compound is most acidic? (4) !"! ! !" !"!
(1) Phenol (2) p-Cresol !"! #"
(3) o-Nitrophenol (4) p-Nitrophenol 74. Which of the following method is used to
71. Product [A] in the reaction distinguish between phenol and ethanol?
$% $% (1) Bromine water test
&%! ! "# (2) Ferric chloride test
! "
&%! !"# , is
(3) Reaction with Na
# (4) Both (1) & (2)

!"!
! !"! 75. Which of the following reagent can provide
(1) (2) !"! distinction between p-cresol and benzyl alcohol?
!"!
# (1) Na
!#!" ! # "!! (2) FeCl3 solution

(3) (4) ! " " (3) Schiff ’s base
!"!
"!! (4) Tollen’s reagent
76. Which will undergo hydrolysis most easily via SN1 82. Which of the following will show turbidity
mechanism? immediately with conc. HCl/ZnCl2?
(1) CH3OH (2) C6H5OH
(1) !"!#$#!""#$#!"#$#!"!
(3) (CH3)3COH (4) C2H5OH
%&
83. Which of the following will not give ether on
" reaction with CH3CH2ONa?
(2) !"#$#!"#$#!#$#!"
! ! (1) CH3CH2Cl (2) C6H5CH2Cl
!"! %& (3) (CH3)3CCl (4) CH3Cl
84. Which of the following will decompose diethyl
(3) ether most readily?
!" #$
(1) H2O (2) HI
(4) (CH3)3C – Br
(3) NaOH (4) All of these
!
!" # $#" 85. When picric acid is treated with aqueous sodium
77. !"% !#$% % #
%%%&' bicarbonate (NaH14CO3), a gas is liberated with
Which is true about the above reaction? effervescence. The gas evolved would be
(1) Major product B is 2-butanone (1) H2 (2) CO2

(3) 14CO (4) NO2
(2) A and B is formed due to electrophilic addition 2
reaction 86. Which one of the following will most readily be

dehydrated in acidic condition?
(3) Product A can be alkene or alkyne
! !" !"
(4) All of these
(1) (2)
78. A mixture of ortho-nitrophenol and para-nitrophenol
can be separated by
! #
(1) Sublimation (2) Fractional distillation
(3) (4)
(3) Vacuum distillation (4) Steam distillation !" #"
79. Cyclohexene on reaction with OsO4 followed by
reaction with NaHSO3 gives !""
(1) cis-diol (2) trans-diol !"!!$ !"#$ %&' !""#$%&""#$

87. (A) $'! (B)
(3) Epoxy cyclohexane (4) Alcohol
80. Identify the product D in the following series of The product (B) is
reaction
!"! !"!
!"#$%" !
% )*# +$,-
!"!!##" $ % ! &
&&'( (.% (1) (2)
(1) Methane (2) Alcohol
!#
(3) Acetylene (4) Benzaldehyde
!"" !"!
81. The major product formed on hydroboration
!"!#" !"#!$
oxidation of 1-methyl cyclopentene is
(3) (4)
!"! !"!
#"
88. Phenyl magnesium bromide reacting with tert-
(1) (2)
methylalcohol gives
#" #"
(1) Ph – OH (2) Ph – H
!"! !"! &'! %&!
(3) (4) !"#$#%#$#&## &'! !"#$#%## %&!
# (3) (4)
" &'! %&!
89. Which is the best reagent to convert cyclohexanol 95. Identify the product B
into cyclohexene?
(1) Conc. HCl (2) Conc. HBr !%"& !###" "'#$"
!"# !$#
(3) Conc. H3PO4 (4) HCl (conc.) + ZnCl2
!"#$
90. "% !$%$!"$&$!"& '( X is #$ !"
(1) (2)
(1) !"!#$#!"#$#!"" !" !"
!% &'
!" !"
(2) !"!#$#!"#$#!"" (3) (4)
!"
&' !%
(3) ON – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl !"#!
96. In which of the following reaction,
(4) #$%&%!'%&%!'!%&%!'"
!" will not be formed?
91. At low temperature phenol reacts with Br2 in CS2 '$
to form !"#$
(1) !"#$!%&
(1) m-bromophenol
(2) o- and p-bromophenols &$
(3) p-bromophenol (2) !"#$!%!
(4) 2,4,6-tribromophenol
92. Which of the following is not formed when glycerol '$
reacts with concentrated HI? (3) !"#$!()%&
(1) CH2 = CHCH2I (2) CH3CH = CH2
(3) CH3(OH)CH(I)CHI (4) CH3CH(I)CH3 '$
!"#$
(4) !"*#$!+",'#
!"#$ !
93. !"#$%&'" (
#!!"!
The compound A is '()*
97. $%!#& +,-./0*
(1) CH2 = CHCHO (2) !"!#$#!"!"% !" 12)3-,4
!& %" Product of the reaction is
! !"!!# !"!!#
(3) "#!$%$"$%$"#! (4) !"!#$#!"!"% (1) (2)
"& %" !& "$ !#
# !"!#" !"!#"
"
94. !"#$%! % &%#' (3) (4)
! "
!$ "#
Here B is 98. Which of the following is having lowest pKa?
! !" !"
!
#
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
"! !"
!" "#
!" !"
!"! !"!
(3) (4) (3) (4)

"!
!" !" !#"! !"!
99. Dehydration of the following in increasing order is

!"#!
!"#!
!" !"
(3) (4) "#!
#$% #$$% ! !
"#
!" !" $%!&'!""
105. In the reaction, !
#$$$% #$&% #!("# !"#$%&'
(1) I < II < III < IV (2) I < II < IV < III A is
(3) II < III < IV < I (4) I < III < IV < II (1) Benzene (2) Benzoquinol
100. The compound that reacts with CH3MgBr to yield (3) Benzoquinone (4) Catechol
methane as one of the compounds is
106. CH3CH2CH2OH can be prepared by
(1) !" !####!" "$" (2) CH3CH2NH2
!"#$%!
(3) H2O (4) All of these (1) CH3CH2COOCH3 &'()*
101. When ethylene oxide reacts with ethylmagnesium
bromide, followed by hydrolysis, the compound !"#$%!
(2) CH3CH2CHO &'()*
formed is
(1) Isopropyl alcohol (2) n-butyl alcohol %
'!"('
(3) CH3MgBr + !"!"#$!"!
(3) Tert-butyl alcohol (4) n-propyl alcohol
(4) All of these
!" 107. Find the major product of the following reaction?
!" !"
102. #$%&! '
#$%&'()*('+,-./
!" !"#$%&'
+ CHCl3 + NaOH ?
Major product is
!" !"
!"
!" #$ !"
#$ (1) (2)
(1) (2)
!" !" !"
#$ !"
#"!
!" (3) (4)
!"
(3) (4) !#$

#$ !" #$ !"# !!$
108. !"#$%&% %&'("
' B . B is
103. A compound (Y) reacts with Grignard reagent to (
produce an aldehyde. (Y) can be
(1) Ethyl alcohol (2) Ethyl formate (1) %
(3) Acetyl chloride (4) Acetic anhydride

(2) !"
!
!
104. +#,-!!- "# . (A) is
! $%&'()*
(3) !"!#!"!#$%
!"#!
(1) (2) (4)
! !"#!
!
! &#'(')
! 113. "##$% *
109.
! +,-.,//0
A should be Product P of the reaction
(1) B2H6–THF/DCOOH
(2) B2H6–THF/DCOOD (1)
(3) B2D6–THF/HCOOH !" #
(4) B2D6–THF/HCOOD
(2)
! !
!!"#"
"
#$!%&#$" $!#
(3)
!" !"
110. (4) No reaction
%&'(%)*#'!($+ $!#(
%&&'(,-.$" ,-#$
! "#!
114. The product of the reaction ! + HBr is
Which of the following is correct?
!"!# !"! #"!

$" #$ (1) !"
(1) % (2) %& $%
"#!
!"! (2)
#"
(3) $ (4) All are correct
#"!
(3) $%
!"#$!%!#&'!()
111. !" (*+,-.+
#$ !"
The compound A is "#!

(4) $%
(1) (2)
! 115. In the reaction sequence
(3) (4) !"! ""#"

# !"! $"%
! &'#"
" #$%&'
!
!"#!$%&!'("
112. !"#$#!"! & (major product) The product ‘B’ is
%"
!" !"
Identify X.
(1) (2)
!"! !"!
(1) (2)
!"
(3) (4) #"

(3) !"#$#!"! (4) !"#$#!"!
6. A : 3° ROH are reactive towards Na metal.

SECTION - B
R : Greater the stability of carbonium ion, greater
is the reactivity toward base.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) 7. A : Phenol does not react with NaHCO3 but
2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol does react with evolution
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the of CO2.
assertion, then mark (1). R : 2,4, 6-trinitrophenol is a stronger acid than
carbolic acid.
reason is not the correct explanation of the 8. A : Anhydrous CaCl 2 can be used for drying
assertion, then mark (2). ethanol.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is R : Sodium metal does not react with ethanol.
9. A : Dehydration of glycerol with KHSO4 gives
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false acrolein.
R : Acrolein is an , -unsaturated aldehyde.
1. A : The Boiling points of alcohols are greater than
that of ethers. ! !"
R : Alcohols form intermolecular H-bonds while in
!"#$%&'(!)*(+
ethers weak dipole-dipole interactions exist. 10. A : ,"#( "-#
2. A : The solubility of alcohols in water decreases
with the increase in the number of carbon ! !"
atoms. R : Above reaction takes place by 1,4-addition of
H– ion.
R : The non-polar alkyl group or the hydrophobic
portion supports the solubility of alcohol. 11. A : Picric acid is more acidic than formic acid.
3. A : Alcohols are generally soluble in water. R : Picric acid has three –COOH groups whereas
R : ROH and H2O form intermolecular hydrogen formic acid has one –COOH group.
bonding. 12. A : Boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of
4. A : Reaction of (CH3)2C=CH–CH2Br with aq. NaOH methoxymethane.
gives 2-methylbut-3-en-2-ol as kinetic product. R : Ethanol is H-bonded while methoxy methane is
R : Carbocation formed in the reaction undergoes not.
allylic rearrangement to give more stable 13. A : – OH, – OCH3 groups are o, p-directing.
carbocation..
R : Only those functional groups in which oxygen
5. A : Phenol is more acidic than alcohol and water. atom is attached to benzene ring are
R : Phenoxide ion is resonance stabilised. o,p-directing groups.
!" !" !
Chapter 13
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
5. Which step is known as rate determining step

SECTION - A during Cannizzaro’s reaction?
Objective Type Questions (1) Proton transfer
1. !",!"-!##"
!"#!
$
$" %!&
% $"'
!. (2) Attachment of base (OH–)
()*+# $$+
(3) Hydride transfer
Identify C
(4) Any one of these
(1) CH3CH2COCl
6. Select the correct increasing order of boiling point
(2) CH3CH2CH(OH)CN
(1) CH 3 OCH 3 < CH 3 CHO < CH 3 CH 2 OH <
(3) CH3CH2CH(OH)COOH CH3COOH
(4) CH3CH2CH2COOH (2) CH 3 CHO < CH 3 OCH 3 < CH 3 CH 2 OH <
CH3COOH
2. Which of the following on reduction with Pd/
BaSO4, S will give acetaldehyde? (3) CH 3 CHO < CH 3 OCH 3 < CH 3 COOH <
CH3CH2OH
(1) (CH3CO)2O (2) CH3COCl
(4) CH 3 OCH 3 < CH 3 CH 2 OH < CH 3 CHO <
(3) CH3CONH2 (4) CH3COOC2H5 CH3COOH
3. The most reactive compound towards formation of 7. Which of the following is most reactive towards
cyanohydrin on treatment with KCN followed by nucleophilic substitution?
acidification (1) RCOCl (2) RCONH2
(1) Benzaldehyde (3) (RCO)2O (4) RCOOR
(2) p-nitrobenzaldehyde
!"!
(3) Phenyl acetaldehyde
!"#$%&'!%*!(%)!
(4) p-hydroxy benzaldehyde 8. #
!""#$+!'
4. Predict the final product in the reaction sequence
Product formed and name of reaction are
%" !" ! #!!$ &'(#)*$! respectively
!"!#0 +,-&./
$ % !
!""#
(1) CH3COONa
(2) !"! !"" !" !"# (1) , Koch reaction

#
#"
(3) !"! !" !"" !"# !"#

#
#"
(2) , Etard reaction
(4) CH3CH2OH
128 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
!""# !))"
(3) , Etard reaction 15. !" !!" #$%&'('#
!))"
The acid obtained in the above reaction can also
!"#
be obtained if ‘A’ reacts with the following
(4) , Stephen reaction
compound
(1) H2O (2) CH3MgBr
9. Which of the following will exhibit highest boiling
point? (3) C2H5MgBr (4) aq. NaOH
(1) CH3CH2CH2OH (2) CH3OCH2CH3 16. Iodoform test is not given by
(3) CH3CH2CHO (4) !"!#$#!#$#!"! (1) CH3COOH
% (2) CH3 – COOCH3
10. The correct order of reactivity of C6H5MgBr with (3) CH3CONH2

(4) All of these
!"!#$ "!!'"'"!!$ "!!'"'"#!"$ "#!"'"'" #!"$
17. Iodoform test is not given by
# # #
% %% %%% %& (1) CH3COCH2COOC2H5 (2) CH3COCH3
(1) II > III > I > IV (2) I > II > III > IV (3) CH3CH2COCH3 (4) CH3CH2CHOHC2H5
18. PCl5 reacts with propanone to give
(3) IV > III > II > I (4) II > I > III > IV
(1) Gem-dichloride
11. Which of the following aldehyde may give
Cannizzaro reaction? (2) Vic-dichloride
(1) !"!#$#!"#$#!"% (2) CH3 – CHO (3) Propanal
!"! (4) Propane chloride
$ !%& !! " #
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CHO (4) All of these 19. !"' !##" !$( % )*%&+
& !
12. !"* !"# !"#$%!&" '# $ %!&" $()

% . The compound C will be
Identify A and B.
!##"
(1) CH3COOH, C2H5OH (1) !" ! (2) !"!#$#!%%"
!##"
(2) CH3COOH, CH3COOC2H5 !&
(3) CH3COOC2H5, CH3COCH2COOC2H5 (3) CH3COOH (4) !""#
(4) All of these !""#

20. Which of the following will produce single product
&'' !"#$ %!
13. ! " #$%( . Identify X. on reduction with LiAlH4?
(1) CH3CH2CHO (2) CH3CH2OH (1) CH3COOCH2CH3
(3) CH3CH2COCH2CH3 (4) All of these (2) CH3CH2OCOCH2CH3
(3) CH3OCOCH3
!"# $% &'()*+!*!
14. ! " # (4) CH3CH2OCOCH2CH2CH3
,-.,/ &''()+!0"
!"# $!! %& "
21. CH3CH2CHO Product
!"!#!
!"!#! Identify the product.
(1) (2) (1) 3-Hydroxy butanal
(2) 3-Hydroxy-2-methyl pentanal
!"# !""#
(3) 3-Hydroxy propanal
(3) (4) (4) 4-Hydroxy-4-methyl pentan-2-one
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 129
!"#$! #$,$ !"#!"#""$%"$

22. !"!!##" $ % Identify D. 26. !"# $ . Then, P
%&'()*+%$#$"
"#!"#""$$&'
,!" ,#- %&'()*+
& # !
, will be
!%%" !%
(1) !"#$#!"#%#!"!!&&"
(1) !""#!"$#$#!#$#!"! (2) !""##$#!#$#!"!
%"
(2) !"#$#!#%#!&&"
%" %"
!"!
(3) !""#!"$#$#!#$#!"! (4) !!""#$#!#$#!%%"
!& !"#
(3) !"#$#!"#%#!&&"
23. Which of the following compounds will give
carboxylic acid with nitrous acid?
(1) RCOCl (2) RCONH2 (4) !"#$#!"#%#!"!
(3) RCOOR (4) (RCO)2O
24. In Cannizzaro’s reaction, the intermediate that will !
be the best hydride donor is !"!#$%&
27.
! "# ""'
!
(1) "! " The product of the reaction is
! (1) (2)
!" !"
! $!
(2) $
!"
"#
(3) (4)
! # !
"
28. Which of the following compound(s) show
(3) "" "
Cannizzaro’s reaction?
"!#
(1)
! # !"#
"
(4) "" " %

$!# (2) !"#"!$%
25. Rate of the reaction
!"#
) )
(3)
!"#"$"#"%"&"'( !"#"$"#"'("&"% !"#
is fastest when Z is (4) All of these
(1) Cl 29. Toluene on oxidation with chromyl chloride in
(2) NH2 presence of H2O yields
(3) OCOCH3 (1) Benzaldehyde (2) Chlorobenzene
(4) OC2H5 (3) Benzoic acid (4) Benzyl alcohol
#!!" #
!""# ""
!" 35. Characteristic reactions of !"!!!!!"!
! !
30. Benzene,
(1) Nucleophilic substitution
the reagent (A) and (B) respectively in this (2) Electrophilic addition
reaction is
(3) Nucleophilic addition
(1) NaOH / CaO and Zn(dust) (4) Electrophilic substitution
"
(2) Zn(dust) and NaOH(CaO) !"! !"#$ !%$&
#
(3) H2 / Ni and NaOH(CaO)
36.
(4) Zn(dust) and H2 / Ni '($# ')#
'')! $
! ! !
R and S respectively are
31. (a) (b) ! !""# !#"
!"!!"# !##"
!"
!"
(1) $ (2) $
Principal functional group present in the
compounds (a) and (b) respectively are !""# !""# !#" !#"
(1) (a) Ketone, (b) Alcohol (3) (4)
$ $
(2) (a) Ketone, (b) Ketone
37. The electrophile formed in Gattermann aldehyde
(3) (a) Carboxylic acid, (b) Ester reaction is
(4) (a) Carboxylic acid, (b) Ether
(1) # " ! (2) " # !"
32. Malonic acid is heated to form a product which is
treated with NaOH form sodium salt. This salt is (3) "#! " ! (4) " !
electrolysed in aqueous medium to form product A. !
If malonic acid is directly treated with NaOH and 38. Darzen’s reaction proceeds through
electrolysed in aqueous medium it forms B. The
(1) SN1 path (2) SN2 path
difference in molar mass of A and B is
(3) SNi path (4) All of these
(1) 4 (2) 2
39. The compounds which can give haloform test are
(3) 12 (4) 15
i. CH3CH2Cl ii. CH3CH2OH
33. Which of the following will have minimum pKa
iii. CH3CHO iv. CH3CH2CHO
value?
(1) i, ii, iii and iv (2) ii, iii, iv only
!" !""# (3) i, ii, iii only (4) ii and iii only
! !"
(1) (2)
!!
!
!!"#$%& &
40. #"! $%$ & #
(3) C2H5OH (4) H2O
34. The highest value of pK a is for which of the In the above sequence of reaction, the product ‘C’ is
following? ! !
!! !! "!!#
!" (1) (2)
&
(1) !"#!#!$$% (2) CHCl2COOH
& "
!""# !!
!"
!
(3) (4) "!#!
(3) CH2ClCOOH (4) CH3COOH
41. On heating mixture of acetic acid and propanoic
acid in presence of manganous oxide at 300ºC, the "
product which is not formed is !"#$%!
$%&
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3COCH3 48.
!""!#!
(3) CH3CH2COCH3 (4) CH3CH2COCH2CH3 &'(%!
$'&
*! ) %&'%(( $
42. In the given reaction CH3COCl (A).
"#! (A) and (B) in this reaction are respectively
The product (A) is
"# "#
(1) CH3COOH (2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3CH2OH (4) CH3CH3 (1) and
43. The given reaction is known as !""# !""!#!
!&! (" !"#$!%!#&'!"()
!"#$%$&#'!& "*+,)-.% #"
!&! (#
&!! ("
(2) and
!&'#&$%$#"!
&!! (# !"!#" !""!#!
(1) Oppenauer oxidation
#" "#
(2) Pinacol reduction
(3) M.P.V. reduction
(3) and
(4) Beckmann rearrangement !"!#" !""!#!
44. Preparation of carbonyl compound by dry
distillation of calcium salts of fatty acid gives #"
!"
mixture of product in the preparation of
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO (4) and
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) All of these !"!#"
45. Number of carbon atoms in smallest simple
aldehyde having chiral carbon will be 49. The reagent used for the following conversion is
(1) 4 (2) 5 %" %"

$ $
(3) 6 (4) 7 !"! # !" # !"% !"! # !" # !"!
46. The chemical which does not act as oxidising
agent in Walker’s process is (1) Red P + HI
(1) PdCl2 (2) CuCl2 (2) Zn-Hg + HCl;
(3) O2 (4) MnO2 "#"!#

47. Give the correct match for some reactions in (3) (i) NH2—NH2 , (ii) $ !# !
"#"!#
column-I and the reagent used in them given in
column-II (4) All of these
Column-I Column-II
!"!#" $%"!%#&" #
a. Koch reaction (i) CO + H2 50. !"!!"# $ %
#
b. Gattermann- (ii) CO + HCl $'&()*%+"(,("%+ $''&(""#-"
aldehyde synthesis
!
c. Oxo process (iii) CO + H2O
d. Gattermann-Koch (iv) HCN + HCl ! is
aldehyde synthesis
(1) CH3CN (2) CH3CH2NH2
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3CONH2
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
51. The reaction in which aldehydes can be prepared !"#

but ketones can’t be, is
"$%
a. Rosenmund reduction reaction 58. & , the product ! is
b. Stephen’s reaction
c. Wacker’s process !#"
!"#$
$%
(1) a, b & c (2) Only a & b
(1) (2)
(3) Only b & c (4) Only a & c
52. Reagent used in Etard’s reaction is
!"# #$ !"#$
(1) MnO2 and H2SO4(65%) at 40°C $%
(3) (4)
(2) CrO2Cl2 in CCl4 & H2O
(3) CrO3 & (CH3CO)2O
59. In the reaction
(4) SnCl2 & HCl in ether
! !
,)-" +! )*
53. In the reaction, "#. "!") %&'( the !"#$%&
'&( #$%#& "#$%! $%#&#$#&#$%" !"#$' ' -
product (A) is ()*+,
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3CH2OH the product ! is
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) CH3CH(OH)CH3
54. Reaction of aldehydes and ketones with primary ! !#
amine produces " "#!
(1) Schiff’s base (2) Schiff’s reagent (1)
""##
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Oxime
55. Correct order of acidity of some benzoic acid ! "!"#!
derivatives is "#
(2) "#!
!""# !""#
!$
(I) (II) !
"#! "#! "!"#"
!""# !""# (3)
(III) (IV)
!$ !
!
!$
" "#! "#! "#"
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > IV > III > I (4)
(3) II > III > IV > I (4) II > IV > I > III
56. Cyanohydrin is formed by the action of HCN upon 60. Self Claisen condensation can’t be shown by
(1) All aldehydes and all ketones (1) Ethyl ethanoate (2) Phenylethanoate
(2) All aldehydes and some ketones (3) Ethyl benzoate (4) Phenyl propanoate
(3) Some aldehydes and all ketones 61. 2-pentanone and 3-pentanone can be distinguished
by
(4) Some aldehydes and some ketones
(1) I2/NaOH only (2) NaHSO3 only
57. Hydrolysis of ester in alkaline medium is called
(3) NaCN/HCl (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Trans-esterification
62. One of the most common alcohol used for
(2) Fries-rearrangement protection of carbonyl group is
(3) Fischer-Tropsh esterification (1) Glycol (2) Glycerol
(4) Saponification (3) 1, 3-Profundiol (4) Ethanol
63. In the reaction sequence 68. HVZ reaction can be given by the molecule
! (1) Benzoic acid
$$ (2) Formic acid
1-! 0- / -
" 3#2 + " + "#. *
(3) 2, 2-dimethylpropanoic acid
‘X’ will be (4) 2-methylpropanoic acid
% 69. Reaction of CO with NaOH at elevated pressure

&& and temperature produces
(1) # #"" $ # $ !"#"! (1) HCOOH (2) HCOONa
(3) C2O4H2 (4) C2O4Na2
%
&& !
(2) "!" # " # $! # " !!! !
!" #$%&"!
70. " # $
$ !
%%
(3) & #"" # &"! # & # !"! Product “C” in this reaction is
(4) Mixture of (1) & (2) !"!#! !"!#!

64. Fehling solution does not give red precipitate with #"
(1) (2)
(1) Aromatic aldehyde
(2) Saturated aliphatic aldehyde
!"
!"
(3) Unsaturated aliphatic aldehyde
(4) Glucose
65. In the given reaction, (3) (4)
% 71. Which of the following compounds will give acetic

0
&& acid with KMnO4/ !# / ?
& ! % ' %& !
"#( $ " $ "#( !.
!"#!$$
(1) CH3 – CHO
The product ‘A’ is (2) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(3) CH3 – C C – CH3
$ $
%% %% (4) All of these
(1) !& ! # ! # !"! (2) !" ! # ! # !" !
72. Benzoic acid on treatment with hydrazoic acid in
the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid gives
% %
&& && (1) Benzamide (2) Sodium benzoate
(3) !"# ! $ ! $ !"# ! (4) "#" $ " $ "#!! (3) Aniline (4) C6H5CON3
66. Acetaldehyde can directly be converted into ethyl 73. Sodium salt of which one of the monobasic acids
acetate by which of the following reactions? on electrolysis does not give hydrocarbon?
(1) Cannizzaro reaction (2) Tischenko reaction (1) C6H5COOH

(2) HCOOH
(3) Esterification (4) Claisen reaction
(3) CH3COOH
67. Metaformaldehyde is a
(4) COOH – CH = CH – COOH
(1) Trimer of formaldehyde
74. Which one of the following is least reactive for
(2) Tetramer of formaldehyde nucleophilic substitution reaction?
(3) Trimer of acetaldehyde (1) Acid (2) Acid chloride
(4) Tetramer of acetaldehyde (3) Acid amide (4) Ester
75. In the given reaction 81. Arrange these esters in decreasing order of ease
of esterification with $!!#! " !
% %
!"# a.
!"#"$"#"%& !"#"$"#"$' !#% $ !# $ !""#
&
[X] will not be !#%
(1) PCl5 (2) PCl3

b. !#% $ !# $ !#! $ !""#
(3) SOCl2 (4) HCl/anhy ZnCl2 &
!#%
76. Acetic anhydride is used in laboratory as
(1) Solvent (2) Dehydrating agent
!#%
(3) Acetylating agent (4) Both (2) & (3) &
77. In the given reaction : c. !#% $ !# $ !""#
&
!#%
$ $
"" ""
% $#
% # ! # $" % # ! # $ # !"! d. (CH3 – CH2)3 – C – COOH
[X] will be (1) b > a > c > d (2) a > b > c > d
(3) c > d > b > a (4) d > c > b > a
(1) CH2N2
$! # !"
(2) CH3OH 82. H2N—CH2CH2CH2CH2—CHO product is
(3) CH3COOH
(1) H2N—CH2—CH2CH2CH2—CH2OH
(4) Both CH2N2 and CH3OH
(2) !"
78. Claisen condensation takes place between
(1) Two molecules of ester having no -hydrogen
(3) !
(2) Two molecules of esters having -hydrogen
atom
(4) !"
(3) Two molecules of Ketones
#!"#!!$%&'(
(4) One molecule of ester having a -hydrogen and !""!!#$%$
!!"
one molecule of Ketone having no -hydrogen 83.
!"!
79. Which one of the following dibasic acids on strong
#"
heating gives CO2, CO and HOH?
!"!$%&'
(1) Formic Acid (2) Oxalic Acid (1)
(3) Malonic Acid (4) Succinic Acid !"!
#
80. 1 mole sodium bicarbonate reacts with salicylic
!!
acid to form !"!!!""!"!
(2)
!" !"!
#!!$%
!"!!""!""!"#
(1) C6H5ONa (2)
(3)
!"!
!"# !$% #
!!
$!!% #!!$%
!"!!""!!"!
(3) (4) (4)
!"!
(3) C6H5–COOH
!"#$"#"
84. !" + ! " product is
$" $"
$ $
(4) !!""!!"#"#!"!!!""
(1) !" (2) !"
88. Which of the following reagents reacts differently
with HCHO, CH3CHO and CH3COCH3?
(1) HCN (2) NH2–NH2
#
(3) $ (4) !"#$ (3) NH2OH (4) NH3
# !"!
89. !"" $ ! $ !"! $ !"! $ !"! $ !"# #$%
product.
%%
!"!#"$%$"
! #
85. In the given reaction, !!""#!#"
!! The product is
$
!
The product will be
(1)
(1) Mixture of syn and antioxime
(2) Only syn oxime !"!#!
(3) Only anti oxime (2)
(4) No reaction
86. Which one of the following pair can be separated
by the use of sodium bisulphite? (3) !"!
# #
!!
(1) CH3CHO and !"!"!"!"!
!"!
# # (4)
!! "" #
(2) !"!!""!"""!!!"" and !!""!!!!"#
90. Which of the following reaction is also called
$ # formylation of benzene?
!! !!
(3) !" ! !"" " !#!" ! and ! " ! " ! " ! " ! (1) Gatterman-koch aldehyde synthesis
(2) Gattermann aldehyde reaction
(4) CH3CH2CHO and !"! !"!"#
! (3) Perkin reaction
!"!
(4) Reformatsky reaction
87. In the given reaction 91. Which of the following compound can give
$ $ Cannizzaro’s reaction?
"" "" !"#$%&!'()*!+,#
! !" "!! !!#! !" " % (1) CH3CHO
"
!""#$&-&.&
(2) !"! $ !" $ !"#
The product ! is %
!"!
#" #"
" "
(3) CH3—CH2—CH2—CHO
(1) !!""!!!!!!!""
" " (4) CH3COCH3
!"#!"#
92. In the esterification reaction alcohol molecule
$" $ act as
$ $$
(2) !!""!!#"#!!!!"" (1) Electrophile (2) Nucleophile
$
(3) Ambiphile (4) Unpredictable
!"#
93. Which of the following compound cannot give 97. Which of the following can give positive silver mirror
haloform reaction? test?
(1) CH3CHO (1) HCHO (2) HCOOH
(2) !"! # !"" # ! # !"" # !"! !"#"

%%
$
(3) (4) All of these
(3) !"!!"" # !"" # ! # !"!
%%
$ 98. In the given reaction
(4) !"! # ! # !"! # # !

$$ $$ !" "
%% #$%&$'( "! !
$ !"!"! % &
94. Which of the following carbonyl compound can give -,, )*!"+,*!
( '
Cannizzaro reaction?
(1) HCHO (2) (CH3)3CCHO The product (E) is
!"# (1) Benzyl alcohol
(3) ! (4) All of these
!"# (2) Benzaldehyde
95. An organic compound A (C8H6) on treatment with (3) Benzophenone

dil. H2SO4 and HgSO4 gives a compound (B) which (4) Diphenyl methanol
can also be obtained from reaction of Benzene with
99. Acetone, when treated with trifluoroperoxy acetic
an acid chloride in presence of anhydrous AlCl3.
acid forms mainly
(B) on reaction with I2 in aq. KOH yields (C) and
yellow compound (D). (B) in the above reaction (1) Methyl methanoate (2) Methyl ethanoate
sequence is
(3) Ethyl methanoate (4) Diphenyl carbonate
# 100. Which of the following can be decarboxylated by
! !" !! heating and without any other reagent?
! !"!
(1) 2-ketobutanoic acid
(1) (2)
(2) 3-ketobutanoic acid
(3) 3-formyl propanoic acid
(4) Benzoic acid
#
!! 101. Weakest acid
! !"!!"" !"!!""
(3) (4) (1) !!# $!!"
96. C5H10O2 (A) on reaction with excess of CH3MgBr

(2) #""$
followed by acidic hydrolysis gives
2, 3-dimethyl-2-butanol. (A) is
!"!
# " #
$$ " $$
(1) !" !!" "!!!#!!" ! (2) !"!!!!!!#!"! !""#
" (3)
!"! "!$
#
$$
(3) $"!$"!$"!!$!!" (4) !"!!!" "!#!!!!" !
" (4) !""#
$"!
102. Which of the following give ethane dial and 2-keto !"
107. ! " #$! $ %% #
propanal on ozonolysis? $ " ! &
&&
'
#" !
(1) P is
!
(1) !!"
(2) $""
!
(3) CH2 = CH—CH = CH—CH3
(2) !!"
(4) Both (2) & (3)
103. 2-methyl propene gives on oxidation with hot
!
KMnO4
(1) Acetone (2) Ethanoic acid (3) !
(3) CO2 and H2O (4) Both (1) & (3)

(4) ! " # $#!! %" # " !
## ##
!"# $%&'()*! *!+,- " "
104. $ " ./0
!"*
$&&'
The compounds C and D are !"#$%&'()* +",-.*/!!0""121*3*
108. ! #
#
!"!# ! /!0 4$0/)*252*3
(1) !"# ; % $ 678(
$
The compound ‘D’ is
(2) !" ; !"#
$ %
!"#"$"#"%" !"#"$"
!"#"!$! !
(3) ;
% (1) (2)
(4) ; !"# ! "

! ! "# !"#"$"
105. Which of the following reactivity order is correct for (3) (4)
esterification reaction?
(1) CH3OH > CH3CH2OH > CH3CH2CH2OH
109. Structure of C 8H8Cl 2, which on aqueous alkali
(2) HCOOH > CH3COOH > CH3CH2COOH hydrolysis gives a product which does not give
positive iodoform test, but gives silver mirror test is
(3) HCOOH < CH2COOH < CH3CH2COOH
!%
(4) Both (1) & (2) !%
106. Which of the following is an incorrect match? !"#"!!$"
(1) (2) !!""#$#!#$#!"#
!%
! !%
!!
(1) Iodoform reaction !"#" $# "# " "#" !"!!#
(2) Fries rearrangement Phenol ester

(3) (4) C6H5CH2CHCl2
(3) Kolbe’s reaction Phenol !#
(4) Periodic acid oxidation of Ethanol Ethanal !""
110. The Cannizzaro reaction of formaldehyde involves

"
an
(1) Intramolecular shift of proton ! !""#
(2)
(2) Intramolecular shift of hydride
(3) Intermolecular shift of H-atom
(4) Intermolecular shift of hydride #"
111. Which of the following has the lowest pKa value? !" !##"
(3)
%
(1) !"!#$#!""#$#!#$#%"
#"!
&
!" !$$"
(2) !"!#$#!"#%#!#%#&" (4)
$ 115. Collin’s reagent carry out the conversion

!"#"$%
(1) !"# # !$"$
(3)
(2) !"#$ $%!##"
% (3) !"#"$ $
(4) !"#"$" "$"#"$"#"%!
(4) !"#"$ $
'(" )*+ , - !"#$ %&!
112. !".!"/!##" $%& '( 116. In the reaction
The final product (B) in the above reaction is !"#!
!"!#$#!"% &'( &)(
(1) Alanine (2) Pyruvic acid
(3) Citric acid (4) Lactic acid [Y] will be
113. (A), (B) and (C) are three dicarboxylic acids such (1) Glyoxal (2) Glycolic acid
that (3) Glyoxalic acid (4) Oxalic acid
(A) !"#$%# &'()*' +!, !,!
!
(B) !"#$%&'()* "*)+ !,! !"!
117. '()*+*'!)
#$%&
(C) !"#$ !%&'$(#$) *!+ !
! &
Then the A, B, C are in sequence of
"#$%
(1) Adipic acid, malonic acid, succinic acid
(2) Malonic acid, adipic acid, succinic acid Compound (C) is
(3) Adipic acid, succinic acid, malonic acid
"
(4) Malonic acid, succinic acid, adipic acid
114. Which of the following carboxylic acids undergoes (1) CHBr3 (2)
decarboxylation most easily on heating?
!""#$
"
! !
! !#! !""# "#!
(1) (3) (4)
"!!#
118. Upon treatment with NaOEt, a proton would be 122. In the given reaction
removed from which carbon atom in ethyl
!! "#$%"
propanoate? &'(
)*+% #!
# [X] will be
!"!!""!#!""!"! (1) OHC—(CH2)3—CHO
(2) HOH2C—(CH2)3—CHO
$ % & ' (3) HOH2C—(CH2)3—CH2OH
(1) a (2) c (4) HOOC—(CH2)4—COOH
(3) b (4) d 123. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing
order of reactivity for hydrolysis reaction
!"#$! !"#$ %&! a. C6H5COCl
119. !"!!" !"!"! %"#&'(#) $ A "
B P.
The number of possible products (P) will be "
(1) 1 (2) 2 b. !"! # #$

(3) 3 (4) 4 $
120. Schiff’s reagent is used for the differentiation c. !"! ! !#
between
(1) HCHO and CH3CHO !
(2) CH3COCH3 and CH3CHO d. !"# # #$
! Codes:
""
(3) #!$" % #$# % #% #$$ and (1) b > d > a > c (2) b > d > c > a
(3) a > b > c > d (4) d > c > b > a
!
"" 124. Which compound will be most reactive for perkin
#!$" % #% #$# % #$$ condensation with acetic anhydride?
(1) C6H5CHO
(4) HCHO and C6H5CHO
121. Arrange the following acids in decreasing order of (2) !"! # !"#
ease of esterification with CH3OH/H+
(3) #!$ !"#
a. !"! #!" # !$$"
%
" (4) !"! !"#
b. #$$ % #$ % #$# % #!!$
" 125. In the given reaction
#$$ !
!"!
# !"!#$%& "'"("
"#$
c. !"! $ ! $ !%%" !)%&
# X will be
!"!
!
d. (C2H5)3 C—COOH #"! !"
Select the correct answer from the codes given (1) (2)
below
"#!
(1) b > d > a > c
!#
(2) a > b > c > d !" ! #"
(3) c > b > a > d (3) (4)

"#! !"!
(4) b > a > c > d
!$"
130. The least reactive compound towards nucleophilic
!"#$%!$&&%
126. !"#"!$!"%"&" '"""""%"""""!( addition reaction is
!$" '()*+%"!,*+%"*'-)*.&%
(1) Propanone
)*+,-*."/*0
(2) 3-pentanone
B can be (3) 2-pentanone
!
(4) 2,4–Dimethyl pentan-3-one
(1) "# !$"$"# ! (2) HCHO
(3) C3H8 (4) CH4 about HCOOH?
127. Benzoyl chloride is prepared from benzoic acid by (1) It is a stronger acid than CH3COOH
(2) It forms formyl chloride with PCl5
(1) Cl2 : h (2) SO2Cl2
(3) It gives CO and H2O on heating with conc.
(3) Cl2 : H2O (4) SOCl2
H2SO4
128. Which of the following reactions will yield benzyl (4) Reduces Tollen’s reagent
alcohol?
!!
!"# $ !%"&'()
132. ! "#$%"!
"#$#%#&
!
(1) !"*#
"#
53
$
!""# % + %# ,
'$()*#+,#-,.,/,01#+)2+ %3!#4#%3#4#%3"%35
!"# !"#$%&!'()*
(2) " A can be
!""#$& +&#,
!"#$%!&"%&#$'()* (1) CH2 = CH – CH3
(3) !"!!"# $
!""#$& +&#,
!"#$%!&"'()*
"
(4) !"#!$""% #
!""#$& +&$, (2) !"!#$#!"#%#!#%#!""
!"# !"# !""
!"#$%&'()*++,-
129. ! . (3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
!""#$(!)("' !"#$%& '
!"# !"# (4) CH CH

Major product P is !"# !"#
!"#$%&'(
!""# !#!"# 133. + $%&'()*
!"# !"# )*+,!"-
(1)
!"
!""# !#!"# !"
!""# !#!"# (1) (2)
!"
(2) !"
!#!"# !""#
!" !"
!""# !""#
!"!#"
(3) (4)
(3) !"!#"
!""# !""# !" !"
!
134. Which of the following does not undergo Claisen
!"#"$ condensation?
(4) (1) CH3COOC2H5 (2) CH3COOCH3
$!!% $%!!% (3) CH3CH2COOC2H5 (4) (CH3)3CCOOC2H5
!"# $%&'( )*+), !

135. CH3COOC2H5 ! , if RMgX is in (1)
!""# -!./-
excess, then A will be !
!
(1) Aldehyde (2) Ketone # "
(2) " #
(3) 2°-alcohol (4) 3°-alcohol
! !
136. Which of the following has highest ionization
constant? !
(1) o-nitrobenzoic acid (2) p-nitrobenzoic acid (3)
" "
(3) m-nitrobenzoic acid (4) Benzoic acid
!
137. Which of the following is incorrect?
"
(1) o-methyl aniline is poor base than aniline (4)
! ! !
(2) o-methyl benzoic acid is stronger than benzoic
acid 141. Aldol condensation is given by
% (1) 2-methyl pentanal (2) 1-phenyl propanone
(3) !" !!# #$ is more stable than (CH3)3C+
(3) Phenyl acetaldehyde (4) All of these
!"
142. In the acid catalysed hydrolysis of methyl acetate
(4) undergoes intramolecular aldol
the key tetrahedral intermediate produced in the
rate determing step is
#"$%$!
!
condensation !" "#! ! ! !"# "
% (1) (2)
#! ! "#! ! "# " !"# "
!"#"!$!
138. #
&!$ $"%/$ !
' 0 7 !
! "
()*+,-. ('123. ('4256. ! !# !" " $%$!
a. Product B is more acidic than propanoic acid (3) (4)
b. Product C is more basic than NH3 "# " !"# " #!! "#!!
c. Product B is less acidic than HCOOH 143. Reductive ozonolysis of 1,3-butadiene gives
d. Product C is resonance stabilised base (1) Acetaldehyde and formaldehyde
The correct statements is/are (2) Formaldehyde and glyoxal
(1) a, b, c & d (2) b & c (3) Formaldehyde and acetone
(3) a, b & d (4) a, c & d (4) Acetaldehyde and CO2
139. Which of the following can give Fehling solution 144. Which of the following will not react with NaHCO3
test? to give CO2?
(1) Fructose in alkaline medium
!"
(2) HCOOH #!! #!!
!""#
(3) !"#$#!"# #!"#$#% (1) (2)
(4) All of these #!!
140. !" !"!"#
Which of the following is not a product of the (3) (4)

complete reductive ozonolysis of above compound?
145. Reduction of esters with sodium and alcohol is 151. The correct order of acidic strength of following
referred to as acids
(1) Bouveault - Blanc reduction I. C2H5COOH
(2) Mendius reduction II. CH2 = CH – COOH
(3) Clemensen’s reduction III. CH C – COOH
(4) MPV reduction (1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
146. A dicarboxylic acid forms anhydride readily on (3) III > II > I (4) III > I > II
heating. The potassium salt of the acid on
electrolysis in aqueous solution produces ethyne 152. In the following reaction
gas as one of the product. The acid can be
!
(1) Succinic acid (2) Oxalic acid
!"!!#!$
(3) Maleic acid (4) Fumaric acid "#$
! The compound ‘A’ is
! !
147.
! !
The reagent which can bring about the above !

(1) (2)
conversion is
"
(1) C2H5MgBr/H2O (2) (CH2OH)2/H2SO4
(3) CH3OCH3 (4) C2H5OH/H2SO4 ! !
(3) (4)
148. Which statement is wrong regarding acetaldehyde
with benzaldehyde?
"
(1) Both react with hydroxylamine to form oximes
(2) Both react with HCN to form cyanohydrin !""# !#!"#
'()*+,"#*'-./-) $ $
(3) Both react with NaOH to form polymers 153. & %
"
(4) Both react with hydrazine to form hydrazones '(()*# "# "#
149. Carbonyl compounds when treated with sodium The compound ‘A’ is
bisulphite solution generally a crystalline sodium
bisulphite addition product is formed but which of !""# !"#
the following carbonyl compound not forms $ $
crystalline addition product with NaHSO3 ? (1) (2)
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
!"# !"!#"
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) C2H5COC2H5 $ $
(3) (4)
! #"
"# !
!"
150. $ .
#$%&'() !"#$#%&
154. "#$
%'(
What is P? ! !
The correct statement about the reaction is
! !"
!" #$
(1) (2) (1) Compound ‘A’ is
! "#!
!""# !""# (2) It is an example of Clemmensen reduction
!$
(3) Ring contraction takes place
(3) (4)
(4) All of these
!!" #$% & '( )"!

158. Which has highest pKa?
155. ! " *+" ,- $(.
# $%&'(& %&()
(1) CF3COOH (2) CCl3COOH
Compound ‘A’ is (3) CH3COOH (4) HCOOH
(1) C2H5OH (2) CH3CH2 – Cl
159. Which of the following cannot exhibit tautomerism?
(3) C2H5CN (4) CH3NC
!
!"#
& !
!!!"#$%&'( "-($./*.'$!,
156. ! " (1) !"!#$#%#$#!"! (2)
)*+$," ! "--($,
./*.'$," 0!#
#
Choose the correct option ! !
!
$ (3) (4)
!"#"$"#"!%! !
!##"
(1) C can be 160. !"! $ , A may be
!!""
!##"
!"#"$"#"!%!
"%
$ (1) !"#$#!%! (2) CO2 + CH3COOH
"# "# !""%
(3) O = C = C = C = O (4) CO2 + H2O
(2) B can be
%
!""# !""# 161. !"!#$#!#$#!""#$#!%%" & , A may be
!"# !"#
&
(3) A can be (1) !"#!$%$"$%$"#"$%$"&'"&
%
!"# !"!#"
(2) !"!#$#!#$#!"!
(4) All are correct
&
157. The product (X) in the following reaction is
(3) !"!#$#!#$#!"#%#!""
$
(4) All of these
$ !"#"$!!%" !"#$! !
&'(
$"%&'($#%$
)*"+,-. 162. !"#"$ %""&!! ' , A is
!"#$%&'
#" !"#
!
(1)
(1) !"#"$ %!!
$%
!
(2) $% !"#"$!%! (2) %!! !"#"$
! %!!
#" !"!#"
(3) (3) %!! !"#"$
! %!!
"% !""#$#!!%"
(4) (4) !"#"$
163. In ketonic group which type reaction mainly # !"!#"

occurs?
169. !"!#" 1,2"" "##
(1) Electrophilic addition $ % &
" $%&'()*+,-'./0
(2) Nucleophilic addition !

(3) Electrophilic substitution #
The compound Z can be
(4) Nucleophilic substitution
"# " !
164. Reductive ozonolysis of form
(1) (2)
(1) Heptanal (2) 5-ketoheptanal !"!#" "#!!#
(3) 6-ketoheptanal (4) Mixture of (1) & (2) %
!
'()'*#""+%# !"#"$
165. "!%%" /01#&#2#3
,-,#.
(3) (4)
4 2#!5"
"#!
$%
6
!""# !""#
X in the above reaction is
(1) CCl4 (2) CHCl3 170. I. II.
(3) HCl + CO2 (4) COCl2 $#!
166. The electrophile in Reimer Tiemann reaction is !""#
!""#
(1) !"! (2) !"! $#!
III. IV.
(3) !!"! (4) All of these
% $#!
!"!"$"!#$#!"!
The correct acidic strength order is
!"!#$#! !#$#!"!
! (1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I
167. , X will be
(3) III > II > I > IV (4) III > I > II > IV
% 171. In H.V.Z reaction the catalyst will be
(1) Ni/H2 / !" !"#$!$#$!"!" (1) White P4 (2) Red P4
(2) (Ph)3P = C(CH3)2 (3) Black P4 (4) Any of these
!
%
!"#$!
(3) LiAlH4 / !" !"#$!$#$!" !" 172. ! . X is
%&"'()*
(4) (CH3)3P = C(Ph)2 !

"!!
!"# $%&'()*! (1) (2)
!!"#$#"#$#"!#%#"!" & '
168.
!" !"
"!!
#
1,%'(*! +,-(*!
( " (3) (4)
+2$34#- +,,-(./0(!"*
The product D is 173. CH3COOH ! (CH3CO)2O, where X is

(1) 4-Hydroxy-2-methylpent-3-enone (1) H2C = C = O
(2) 2-Methylpenta-1,3-diene (2) P2O5
(3) 4-Methylpent-3-enone (3) Quartz tube, porcelain chips, 800°C
(4) Cyclohexanone (4) All of these
174. In Cannizzaro reaction if concentration of base is !$
high, then it follows the kinetics of
(1) CH3–CH2CH2 OH (2) !"!#!#!"!
(1) First order (2) Second order
!$
(3) Fourth order (4) Zero order (3) !"!#!""#!"#!$ (4) !"!#!#!"!
!!""!" ()*+&"'"
175. !"#$#%&'%#" ! ( !$ $
#$"!%&#'!"
The compound B can be !

"#$%&'!(' "
180. /0123%4325678
!" ! ")$%*+,-' #.' "!
(1) (2) Major product of the reaction is
!"#" ! !"#$#!
! (1) (2)
$"
(3) (4)
!"#" ! !"!
(3) (4)
176. Compound ‘A’ [M.F. C 3 H 8 O] is treated with
acidified K 2 Cr2 O7 to form a product ‘B’ [M.F. 181. Malonic acid on heating gives _____ while on
C3H 6O] . ‘B’ forms a shining silver mirror on decarboxylation with sodalime gives ______
warming with ammonical AgNO3. ‘B’ when treated
(1) Acetic acid, ethane
with an aq. solution of H2NCONH.NH2, in acidic
medium gives a product ‘C’. Identify the structure (2) Propanoic acid, methane
of ‘C’. (3) Propanoic acid, ethane
(1) CH3CH2CH = N.NHCONH2 (4) Acetic acid, methane
(2) !"!"#$!$%$&$#$!'&"&"# 182. Acetic acid is obtained when
!"! (1) C3H7OH is oxidised with KMnO4
(3) H3C – CH = N.NHCONH2 (2) Calcium acetate is distilled in presence of
calcium formate
(4) CH3CH2CH = N.CONHNH2
(3) Acetaldehyde is oxidised with K2Cr2O7 and
177. In conversion of 2-butanone to propanoic acid H2SO4
which reagent is used?
(4) Glycerol is heated with H2SO4
(1) SeO2 (2) Fehling solution
!"# $%&
(3) NaOH / I2, H+ (4) Tollen’s reagent 183. !'"( !"# )
$% What is A?
( (1) ! !" "#$#!#$#! !" "
#$!#(()*
178. !" # $%&%' %
$"*+
(2) ! !" "#$#!"#$#!#$#! !" "
%" %
X can be (3) !!""#$#!"#$#!!""

%"
% % %
(1) !"!#$#!#$#%" (2) !"#"$"#"$"#"%! (4) ! !" "#$#!#$#!#$#! !" "
% %
&'
184. The reaction,
% % %
(3) !"!#$#!##$#%" (4) (CH3CO)2O !"#"$ '"()" "!"#"$ '"& , is fastest
& ()
179. !"!#!#!"! !"#!
%&'
$%&'()*
%(' when X is
(1) Cl (2) NH2
$
The product ‘B’ is: (3) OC2H5 (4) OCOR
185. Select the reagent for the following reaction 189. An ester (A) with molecular formula C9H10O2 was
treated with excess of CH3 MgBr followed by
!"#$%$&"#!'"$%$"#! hydrolysis and the compound so formed was
treated with concentrated H2SO4 to form olefin
(1) SeO2 (2) O3, Zn/H2O (B). Ozonolysis of (B) gives ketone with molecular
formula C8H8O which shows positive iodoform
(3) Hot acidic KMnO4 (4) PCC test. The structure of (A) is
! ! (1) CH3CH2COOC6H5 (2) C6H5CH2COOCH3
!"#$%& (%)*" $!'+,#
186. ! " # (3) C6H5CH2CH2COOH (4) C6H5COOC2H5
!'#$&
!
%
What is y? !"#$%&!'()*$!+$($,-# /%0"
190. !"!"#$!$#$%$#$!#"$ & '
!""#$&!.
!" #!#$
(1) #!#$ (2) !" The product B is
!"! &
#!#$ #!#$
#$ (1) !" !"#$!$#$!% (2) !"!"#$!$#$!"#$#$!%
(3) (4) #$
!%
!
"#! (3) !" !"#$!$#$!% (4) CH3CH2CH2Cl
$%&'&#% #!!
187.
)*+,*+*& ( ) &
-.&./01*+2 !"#$$%&%
B is 191. !" !!" "####!####!####!" ! !""#$'()*!+
"!! !"! !!""####!####!####!"# .
In this reaction ‘X’ is $ $
(1)
(1) HNO3
% (2) O3
!!" "!!
(3) O2
(4) KMnO4 (hot) solution
(2)
192. Which of the following is the strongest acid?
#! #!
! !"
#!" "#! #"! !""#
(3) !$
(1) (2)
$#
!!" $!" $"!
(4) !""#
!""#
# "!! !$
188. Identify X in the following sequence of reaction (3) (4)

#!! !#!
!"# $%!&'( $) !$
! "*#+,$%&' "*#+- $"!
!""# % 1%"2 *./0
193. Which of the following does not give aldol
(1) CH3COCH2CH3
condensation reaction?
(2) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CHO (2) Ph – CH2 – CHO
(3) (CH3)2CHCHO
!"!
(4) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(3) !" !#$#!"#$#!"% (4) Both (2) & (3)
194. In Etard reaction toluene is converted into 201. Self condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate in
presence of sodium ethoxide forms
!""# "#
(1) Ethyl butyrate (2) Ethyl propionate
(1) (2) (3) Acetoacetic ester (4) Methylacetoacetate

!"#"!
202. C6H6 + (Z) C6H5COR. (Z) is
!#" !"!#! (1) !"#"$"#"! (2) !"#"$"#"$%

% &
(3) (4)
%
(3) !"#"$"#"%"#"$"#"! (4) Both (2) & (3)
195. On heating with aq. KOH, which of the following
produces ethanal? %
& 203. Acetic anhydride on reduction with LiAlH4 gives
(1) CH3COOCH3 (2) !"!#$#!#$#%"" (1) Acetaldehyde
(2) Ethane
(3) CH3 – CHCl2 (4) !"!#$#!#$#!%
(3) Ethyl alcohol
&
(4) Acetone
196. When methyl cyanide is allowed to react with
ethyl magnesium halide followed by acidic 204. To convert Butan-2-one to propanoic acid, the
hydrolysis, the major product formed is most appropriate reagent is
(1) C2H5CHO (2) CH3CHO (1) Tollen’s reagent
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) C2H5COCH3 (2) Fehling’s solution
197. Ethanal can act as (3) (i) NaOH + I2, (ii) H+/H2O
(1) An oxidizing agent (2) A reducing agent (4) (i) NaOH + NaI, (ii) H+
(3) Only electrophile (4) Both (1) & (2) 205. Which one of the following ester does not
undergo self Claisen condensation?
198. The reactivity order of the given compounds
towards nucleophilic addition reaction is !
a. HCHO (1) R – CH2 – COOCH3 (2) !"#"$"#"$%%$& !
b. CH3CHO !
c. (CH3)2CO
!
(1) a > b > c (2) c > b > a
(3) !"#"$%"#"$&&$!%" (4) CH3COOCH3
(3) b > c > a (4) c > a > b
206. In the given reaction,
199. Cyanohydrin of compound (X) gives lactic acid on
hydrolysis. (X) is $
$
!" #$# !"# as a major
(1) PhCH2CHO (2) CH2O $%&'!'&%!"##""&'('&%#
(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3COCH2CH3 product. X will be
200. The most acidic H-atom in the given compound is !

!
7%! "#!
(1) (2)
7! !"!"$#!"%
"#$ "%$ "&$ "'$
"#! "
!"!#!
(1) a (2) b
(3) (4)
(3) c (4) d !"#
207. The correct order of acidic strength is 213. Find the product Z in the given reaction sequence
(1) p-nitrophenol > o-nitrophenol > m-nitrophenol !""!"# !"#$! '(!&)*+,"
# $
(2) HCOOH > Ph-COOH > CH3COOH !$%&
#""$ !##" !##" +!%#$%

!"! % $
%
(3) > >
!"#$#!"! !"#$#!%%"
!"! (1) (2)
!"! %& &'
(4) All are correct
#$$%
208. Which of the following is least reactive towards $%
!"
hydrolysis reaction?
(3) (4)
(1) CH3COOCOCH3 (2) CH3COCl
!""!!#"
!"
%
(3) CH3COOCH3 (4) !"# ! 7"!# #$!
!"#$"%$&' $!
209. Which of the following is the most acidic ? 214. #$ !%&%#%'%( ! " , Now B
(1) Will give Iodoform test

(1) ! "##$ (2) Will give Tollen’s test
(3) Will not give aldol condensation
(2) !" !##$ (4) All of these
!
(3) !""# 215. !"!#" !$

&"'(')*+
" #
%!""#"
(4) !!" "##! B is

!"# !
!""# "#!
210. HCOOH and can be distinguished (1) (2)
by
!"!
(1) NaHCO3 test (2) Tollen’s test ! "#
(3) Lucas test (4) Baeyer’s reagent (3) (4)
211. The major product of the reaction of hypochlorous
acid with ethyne in diffused sunlight is !"#"$%!#$%"&"$%"#"$%"
(1) Cl – C C – Cl (2) CH2Cl – CHO
!"#$%&!'('! )*+&,!&
216. ' (""")""$
(3) Cl2CH – CHO (4) Cl2CH – COOH )**+&-"&.&/",
212. If following solutions are analysed separately,
then which is having least pH value? Products !"" and ! are
Solutions
!"
A. H2O #"!#"!$%$#""#&$#"!
B. Phenol (aq) (1)
C. Ethyl alcohol (aq)

!"
D. Benzoic acid (aq)
#"$%$#"!$&$#"!!
(1) A (2) B (2)
#""
(3) C (4) D
!" 3. A : Esterification follows the reactivity order for
#"$%$#"!$&$#"!#"! alcohols : 1° > 2° > 3°.
(3)
#"! R : Esterification for acids follows the reactivity
order : HCOOH > CH3COOH > RCH2COOH.
(4) None of these
4. A : Nitration of benzaldehyde gives
217. Match the column I with column II
m-nitrobenzaldehyde.
Column I Column II
(Name Reaction) (Reagent) R : Formyl group increases the electron density on
ring at meta position.
a. Gattermann-Koch (i) CrO2Cl2– CS2, !! "
5. A : Acetyl chloride doesn’t show haloform reaction.
b. Rosenmund (ii) CO, HCl, Anhy.AlCl3
R : Acetyl chloride has no -Hydrogen.
reduction
c. Stephen reaction (iii) H2 + Pd – BaSO4 6. A : 2-methylpropanal also shows Cannizzaro
reaction.
d. Etard reaction (iv) SnCl2 + HCl, !! "
R : It contains sterically hindered -H atom.
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
7. A : Benzaldehyde undergoes condensation
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) reaction when heated in presence of KCN.
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
R : Benzaldehyde has no -H atom.
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
8. A : In crossed Cannizzaro reactions the acid is
218. Lemon is sour due to presence of always produced by sterically less hindered
(1) Acetic acid (2) Aspartic acid carbonyl compound.
(3) Citric acid (4) Ascorbic acid R : Formation of acid takes place through
nucleophilic substitution reaction mechanism.
SECTION - B
9. A : The addition of ammonia derivatives on carbonyl
Assertion - Reason Type Questions compounds is carried out in weakly acidic
medium.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) R : In weakly acidic medium attacking nucleophile
is also protonated.
assertion, then mark (1). 10. A : Carboxylic acids have a
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the carbonyl group but it does not give the test of
reason is not the correct explanation of the carbonyl group.
R : Due to resonance in carbonyl group double
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is "
bond character of ! group is greatly
reduced.
11. A : Ketones can be prepared from RCOCl and a
1. A : Acetic acid does not undergo haloform
Grignard reagent R MgCl.
reaction.
R : One equivalent of Grignard reagent reacts with
R : Acetic acid is a stronger acid than formic acid. ester to form ketone.
2. A : Formaldehyde can be obtained by the 12. A : Boiling points of ketones are higher than
oxidation of ethylene glycol with HIO4. aldehydes of same molecular mass.
R : Glycol contains two vicinal primary alcoholic R : Ketones are more polar than aldehydes of
groups. same molecular mass.
13. A : Acyl chlorides are most reactive acid !" &

derivatives towards nucleophilic substitution. 15. A : !"#$#!#$#!#$#% does not undergo Cannizzaro
R : In acyl chloride, Cl – is the best leaving group !"
among all acid derivatives. reaction.
"#$
14. A : Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones in R : !!"! is better leaving group than H– ion.
nucleophilic addition reactions. 16. A : Esterification of carboxylic acids with alcohol is
a nucleophilic acyl substitution.
R : Magnitude of positive charge present on
carbonyl carbon of aldehydes is more than that R : Both the C–O bond lengths in HCOO– are
of ketones. equal.
!" !" !
Chapter 14
Amines
5. Which one of the following amines will react with

SECTION - A
HNO2 to give nitrogen?
(1) CH3CH2NH2 (2) CH3CH(CH3)NH2
!"!
(3) (CH3)3C — NH2 (4) All of these
!"! # !$!% " "&' ""% !"# $%&
" !
1. ! ( )# &
" # 6. CH3NH2 + Hinsberg reagent !""# &'(
!"! Product ! is
C in the given reaction is (1) (CH3)3NHCl
!" "#
'
(2) !"#"$"#"%&! %(
(1) (2)
'
!" !"!
'
!"
(3) !"#"$%"#"&%!
(3) (4) '
)
2. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (4) !"#"$%&'!("
(1) –NH2 is strongly activating group )
(2) Pyridine is more basic than pyrrole
!"! !"# "$% $ &'"
! "
(3) 3° amine is more basic than 2° amine in 7. # $%&'()*
nonpolar solvent "#!"$$#
(4) All of these Major product formed is

3. Reduction of nitrobenzene with Zn and NaOH (aq) #$!
!"!
produces
#$
(1) Azoxy benzene (2) Aniline (1) (2)
(3) Azobenzene (4) Hydrazobenzene
!"
!" #$%&'()
4. !"# $%"& $ '(
!"#$#"! !"#$#"!
A and B are respectively %&
(1) RCN, RCH2NH2 (2) RNC, RNHCH3 (3) (4)
(3) RCN, RNHCH3 (4) RNC, RCH2NH2
%&
152 Amines Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
"#!$#! 14. The product formed during the course of given

!"#! reaction is
8. ! . Identify A.
!"!
!"#
!"!#$!%
(1) %&'()*+
!"!#" #$""
(2) !"! !"!

#$ #$ ,&
!"#"! (1) (2)
(3)
#$ #$""
!"
!"! !"
(4)
(3) (4)
%& !" !"
!"#! $%!&%"$" #$""
9. !"!!""#$ % #
'"()*"+,-./(0+.1*1
!"$%,2,3(" 15. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
!
(1) Methylamine is less basic than aniline
Identify C. (2) HNC can be obtained by carbylamine reaction
(1) CH3CH2COOH (2) CH3CH2NH2
(3) Secondary amine reacts with Hinsberg’s
(3) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (4) CH3CH2CHO reagent to form the product soluble in KOH
10. Which of the following does not react with acetyl (4) All of these
chloride?
16. The correct order of basic nature of amines
(1) (C2H5)2NH (2) C2H5NH2
(3) (C2H5)3N (4) All of these
"#"%"#!%"#!%$#! "#"%"#'('"#%$#!
& &&
11. The compound which on reaction with aqueous
!""#!$ $!#%"!
nitrous acid at low temperature, produces an oily
nitrosoamine is &&&
(1) Diethylamine (2) Ethylamine (1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I
(3) Aniline (4) Methylamine (3) III > II > I (4) III > I > II
12. Reduction of which of the following compounds 17. In the given reaction
produces 3° amine
%
(1) Alkane nitriles (2) N,N-dialkylamides !"# !"#$%!
!!""####!####$# &'(
(3) Alkyl isocyanides (4) Aldoximes !"#
13. Cyclobutyl amine when reacted with aqueous HCl [X] will be
and potassium nitrite gives
(1) C6H5 – CH2OH
!"
(2) C6H5COOH
(1) (2) !"!#$#!%
(3) C6H5CONH2
(3) !"!#$#&" (4) All of these !"$

(4) !!""####!"#####$#
!"$
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Amines 153
18. When N-phenyl hydroxylamine is warmed with
!
Tollen’s reagent, product obtained will be 23. $%" #!"!! O ! will give
(1) An acid (2) Nitro compound
(1) Ph2NH + CH3OH (2) Ph2NCH3 + H2O
(3) Nitroso compound (4) An amine
(3) PhNHCH3 + PhOH (4) PhN CH2 + H2O
19. Compound A, C 5H 11 NO is not soluble in cold
!"# ! "$! "# !!
dilute, alkaline or acidic solution. When A is 24. (CH3)2NH A final product will
refluxed in NaOH solution, a gas B is evolved and be
a salt (C) is formed. Acetyl chloride reacts with
(1) (CH3)2NNO2 (2) (CH3)2NNO
(B) to give (D) C4H9NO. B reacts with HNO2 to
give yellow oil E. The structure of E is (3) CH3—O—CH3 (4) (CH3)2NH
$ 25. Which of the following will not be oxidised by
$%! KMnO4?
!"!# !"!!#!!"!
(1) (2) " (1) Ph—NH2 (2) Ph—CH2—NH2
$%!
!"!
(3) (CH3)3 N (4) Ph—NH—Ph
$%
26. Which of the following will give blue colour with
(3) &%" $ # !"! (4) '!"! &" $ # !"! HNO2 followed by NaOH.
# "
!" (1) CH3–NH2 (2) C6H5–NO2

#"! !"# ! (3) (CH3)2CHNO2 (4) (CH3)3CNO2
20. major product will be
27. Final product C of series will be
!" !
!"!
(1) !" (2) !"!#! $%&' %! # &&'"

! " #
()& #%
!
#"!
(3) (4)
!"
!"
&'()* ! % !"#!$ #"!
21. C6H5NO2 product will be #!!"
(1) (2)
(1) C6H5NH2
(2) C6H5NHOH #"!
#"!
(3) C6H5N NC6H5 !"!
! !"
(4) LiAlH4 cannot reduce C6H5NO2 #
!!
!"! !"! %! (3) $ (4)
" " "
!!"! "#!
22. !"!!!"!#!!"! !"!!!"$#!!"! #""
" "
!"! !"!
28. product will be
#$%&'&#()*
!
!""!"&!"#'(!"")##%"
(1) (2)
The above reaction is
! !
(1) Cope elimination
(2) Hofmann’s elimination
(3) Perkin reaction (3) (4)
(4) Swart’s reaction ! !
29. Compound having the highest pKb value among the !"! !"!
following is
!$!"!
(1) p-toluidine (2) m-toluidine (3) (4)
!$!"!
(3) o-toluidine (4) Aniline
#"" #""
30. An aliphatic monoamine has a VD = 36.5. On
heating the amine with excess of CH3I for a long 33. Compound (X) C7H9N react with NaNO2/HCl(con)
at 0ºC followed by -naphthol to give orange
time, a quaternary salt containing 55.5% of iodine
coloured dye. compound (X) will be
is produced. What may be the structural formula
of the amine? (I = 127) !"!
#!"" #"! !"!#"!
(1) !" only (2) !" only (1) (2)
#!"" #!""
!"! #""
!
!"!#!#$"" $#"#!
(3) ! (4) Both (1) & (2)
!"! (3) (4) All of these
31. Final product D of the series will be
34. The correct decreasing order of basic nature of
!"! amines in aqueous medium is
!"!#"$!%&# %'(#") *+*&!!#") ./0'1) (1) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
$ $ % & '.
&# ,-"
(2) (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N > CH3NH2
"#
(3) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
(4) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
(1)
!"!#" !# 35. Which of the following is most basic in aqueous
solution?
#$#! $
""
(2)
!%!"" !!"#!
!" (1)
!"!#" !#
!"!!#"!
(3) (2)
!"! #""$ "#

(4) ""
(3) !!"#!
32. In the given reaction sequence
!"! " "
" "
!"#!"$%"$ &'" ## !%#
$ % ! (4) "
"#!"$$# #$#
!()*+',-'+./01%
"
#""
36. Identify the end product in the following reaction
The product ‘C’ is sequence
!"! !"! !"!
$%
10! +,+"! )*'(#$' #"!"!
(1) (2) #%! #$! #"!
-,./0 & %$
$%
#"" #""
!"! !" !"

!"! (3)
#$ !"
(1) (2)
%&
#$ !"#"$ $"#"!
(4)
!" !"
!" $"#"!
(3) (4)
!" "$!!
!" 41. %&'()*+,-
37. Which of the following is the correct sequence of #"!$"!
decreasing basic character?
X is
(1) CH2 = CHCH2NH2 > CH CCH2NH2 >
! !"
CH3CH2CH2NH2 (1) (2)
(2) CH CCH2NH2 > CH2 = CHCH2NH2 > "#! #"!
CH3CH2CH2NH2 !
(3) CH3CH2CH2NH2 > CH2 = CHCH2NH2 >
!"
CH C–CH2–NH2 (3) (4)
(4) CH3CH2CH2NH2 > CH C–CH2–NH2 > #"!!"
CH2=CHCH2NH2 42. In the given reaction sequence
%&!'# $"!' !! "" !"# $"
38. In the given compound !(")#* !$ % &'(
!!"
#$% [Y] will be
"&!
(1) C6H5—NH—NH2
#$$$%
"!! (2) C6H5—NH—NH—C6H5
#$$%
(3) C6H5—N=N—C6H5
the most basic amino group is
(4) C6H5—CH=N—NH—C6H5
(1) I (2) II
43. In the given reaction
(3) III (4) All are equally basic
!"
39. Which of the following has highest boiling point? !"
#$%$& )*+
(1) Diethyl amine
'(
(2) Ethyldimethyl amine
[P] is
(3) n-butyl amine
(4) Methyl-n-propyl amine (1) !"#"$
!"!#!"$"%&' %! # -0!
40. !"#$%&'($)($( * + , %&
()*)+,& -./' %!#
12 +#
- 3456 (2) $#')'*
The compound ‘D’ is
!"#"$ $"#"! "#$#%
(1) (3)
$"#"! !
!"#"$
(4)
(2)
!
!"#"
!"#$ "++#
44. " ! !+ !"
(1) (2)
#$% "++#
! " " #$
!"! !"!#"
For the above reaction, reactivity of (A) will be #$$" $##"
maximum when G is (3) (4)
#$$" $##"
(1) CH3 — (2) CH3 — O —
49. Which of the following is most basic?
(3) SO3H — (4) — NH2
45. Which of the following is the strongest base? !"! !"!
#""
# (1) (2)
!"! ! "
(1) (2) !"! !"!
" (3) (4)

" #""
! ! #""
(3) (4)
! !"! 50. The 2 nd most basic among the following in
46. Which of the following is an intermediate aqueous medium is
compound of Hofmann bromide degradation (1) C2H5NH2 (2) (C2H5)2NH
reaction?
(3) (C2H5)3N (4) NH3
(
51. Which can be most reactive towards coupling
!"#$!%&%'($%&%)*! reaction?
(1) R – N = C = O (2) R – NH – Br
! "
&# (1) !"#"$ %! &'
(3) ! "#!$"$%#! (4) RNH2

! "
# (2) !" #! !"
!"!
!"#$%$&!#'#()* ! "
47. &'( X is (3) !"! !! #$
+"#(",&!%
#$"
#"" ! "
(4) !" #! $%
!"! !"!
52. Most basic amine in following is
(1) (2)
#$" (1) o-methyl aniline (2) Benzyl amine
#"" (3) p-methyl aniline (4) m-methyl aniline
!"! !"! 53. Which has least pKb value?
!"!
(3) (4)
#$" #""
(1) (2) Diphenylamine
#$" #""
!"!
(3) (4)
!"#$%&'%&()* # . !"
48. A is !
0,)1! +,%-"./
"
54. m-nitroaniline can be obtained from m- 60. Which of the following is least basic?
dinitrobenzene by reduction with
!
(1) (NH4)2S (2) Sn/HCl " !
(1) (2)
(3) LiAlH4 (4) Electrolytic reduction
!!"#$#%!
55. $&&# !"#$!"%# #&&$ ' " ( !
! ! "
"
! (3) (4)
#
"
Product C is #
61. Coupling of diazo salt with phenol is most
(1) Cyclic anhydride (2) Cyclic ester favourable in
(3) Cyclic amide (4) Cyclic amines (1) Acidic solution
56. p-Chloroaniline and anilinium chloride can be (2) Neutral solution

distinguished by (3) Basic solution
(1) Sandmeyer reaction (2) Na2SO4 (4) Equally favourable in all medium
(3) AgNO3 (4) All of these !(%)"
62. !"#$#%#$#&'!##############!
57. Which of the following will give nitrosoamine when (
treated with HNO2? Product is
(1) CH3CH2NH2 (2) !" (1) Phenylcyanide (2) Benzamine

(3) Chlorobenzene (4) Aniline
(3) C6H5CH2NH2 (4) (CH3CH2)3N
63. Write the basicity order of the following
58. The order of basic strength of nitrogen in given %!
structure is I. !!"#$#" %! II. !" !#!" "#$" "
"
%
!"""# !""#
! ! III. !"#!$"#%# IV. !"!#!#$""
(1) II > I > III > IV (2) I > III > II > IV
"
!"# (3) III > I > II > IV (4) I > II > III > IV
#"!"!"!
!"!
(1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I
!"#$!
(3) I > III > II (4) III > II > I 64. #$#%&! #'
!"! What is A?
!"! %&'()* +,+-!./.()* !"
59. % & !
#$!"" 0123)
56&-# (!-
#$" ( ' (1)
!"# (" 4-!
-(
Choose the correct statement &

%&" (2) !"#$#%#$#!"#
!""#
(1) E is (2) B is !"#"$"#"%
#$
!"! (3)
#$! "$" !"#"

!"
(3) D is (4) C is (4)
!!"#
!"! 69. In the given reaction

#"#$"
65. ' "#$()*+), -(.(/0123+*4)(3)45 !"" %-%.!
%&" !"#$#%"! &'()*+,
"!/
#$ !""
The compound X is The major product is
!"! #"!
(1) !"
(1)
#"!
!"!
#$
(2)
!"!
(2) !"#"$ !%
!""
(3) !"#$#!"!
(3) $" "! !%
!"!
(4) !&!$& !%
(4) !"#$#%"
66. Which of the following is most reactive towards !"!
electrophilic substitution reaction?
# "
!"#$"! !!"# !$!
(1) !
70. . Then ‘X’ is
!"!#$"!
(2) (1) (i) HBF4, (ii) NaNO2/Cu
(2) NaNO3
%
(3) NaNO2
!"#$#$"!
(3) (4) HNO3
71. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis cannot be used for

!"!#$"#!"" the preparation of
(4) (1) CH3CH2NH2
67. The ortho/para directing group among the following !"!

is (2)
(1) COOH
(3) CH3NH2
(2) CN
(4) CH3CH2CH2 – NH2
(3) COCH3
#
!"#$! !"%
(4) NHCOCH3 72. !"!#""#$%!&" ' ( !
68. The reaction of phenol with benzene diazonium
C is
chloride produces
(1) Phenyl hydrozine (1) CH3NCS
(2) Phenyl hydroxyl amine (2) CH3NH2
(3) p-amino azobenzene (3) CH3SCN

(4) p-hydroxy azobenzene (4) CH3NH – SH – CH3
! "
73. !"#!"$$# !"#!"$"% !#! !"!
#
!"#!&#! !"#!"$&#!
% $ (3)
!"#!$# !"$$#
Find the correct statement regarding the above

reaction sequence. !"! !#!
(1) Step 2 can be described as nucleophilic

substitution reaction (4)
(2) The reagent NaNO2/HCl can be used in 4th

step SECTION - B
(3) RCH2N = C = O is the intermediate involved in Assertion - Reason Type Questions
step 3
(4) All of these (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
74. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
basic strength reason is the correct explanation of the
!"! !"! !"! assertion, then mark (1).
#$"" !#! $""
%&' %&&' %&&&'
(1) I > II > III
(2) II > III > I statements, then mark (4).
(3) I > III > II 1. A : Lower aliphatic amines are soluble in water.
R : Lower aliphatic amines can form intermolecular
(4) II > I > III
H-bonding with H2O.
#$$% 2. A : Secondary amines have higher boiling points
than their respective tertiary isomers.
75. ! R : H-bonding is absent in tertiary amines.
3. A : Amines have higher b.p. than those of the
" corresponding alcohols.
R : Alcohols possess intramolecular H-bonding.

X and Y are respectively
4. A : Nitration of aniline can only be done by
!"#$! !"! protecting —NH2 group through acetylation.
R : Acetylation of aniline results in the increase of
(1) electron density at the benzene ring.
5. A : Nitration of aniline at low temperature gives
47% m-nitroaniline.
!"! !"#"$"#"%
R : In acidic medium, NH2 group is converted into
(2)
! "#! group which is m-directing.
6. A : C6H5NH2 is a 1° amine and can be prepared &
!
by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis. !"#"$%!
R : C6H5NH2 is strongly basic in nature. 9. A: is more basic than
7. A : pKb of aniline is higher than ethylamine.
&
R : The lone pair of – NH2 group in aniline is
!
involved in conjugation with benzene ring. !"#$#%#$#%"!
8. A : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts

reaction.
R : Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more R : Delocalisation of lone pair of electron
stable than those of aliphatic amines. decreases the basic strength.
!" !" !
Chapter 15
Biomolecules
8. Insulin is
SECTION - A
(1) An amino acid (2) A protein
(3) A carbohydrate (4) A lipid
1. Lactose on hydrolysis gives
9. At isoelectric point, amino acid will have
(1) -D-Galactose and -D-Glucose
(2) -D-Galactose and -D-Glucose (1) Monopolar cationic structure
(3) -D-Galactose and -D-Glucose (2) Monopolar anionic structure
(4) -D-Galactose and -D-Glucose (3) Monopolar cationic or anionic structure
2. The given structure of -amino acid exist at which (4) Minimum solubility in water
pH?
10. Amino acids present in naturally occurring proteins
!
! are
""# $ $%%
! (1) D-form only (2) L-form only
"
(3) Either D or L (4) Both D and L
(1) 1 (2) 11
(3) 2 (4) 6 11. In denaturation, which structure of proteins does
not get changed chemically?
3. Mannose and glucose are diastereomers. They are
known as (1) Primary
(1) C4-Epimers (2) Anomers (2) Secondary
(3) C2-Epimers (4) C4-Anomers (3) Tertiary
4. Isoelectric point for neutral amino acid, glycine is
(4) Quaternary
(1) 7
12. Which is not true about glucose?
(2) < 7
(3) > 7 (1) Glucose on complete reduction with HI and red
phosphorus finally gives n-hexane
(4) All of the above are possible
5. Proteins are made up by various arrangements of (2) It reacts with acetic anhydride and gives
hexaacetate derivatives
(1) Amino acids (2) Fats
(3) Nucleosides (4) Carbohydrates (3) Glucose combines with hydroxyl amine to form
a monoxime
6. The rapid interconversion of -D-glucose and
-D-glucose in solution is known as (4) Mild oxidation of glucose with Br2 water gives
gluconic acid
(1) Racemisation (2) Mutarotation
13. Cellulose is a
(3) Tautomerism (4) Conformation
(1) Linear polymer of -glucose
7. In glycine, the basic group is (when pH > 7)
(1) – NH2 (2) – COOH (2) Linear polymer of -glucose
$ (3) Branched polymer of -glucose
(3) !"! (4) !"#"!"$

! (4) Branched polymer of -glucose
162 Biomolecules Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
14. Final product of the series during boiling with dilute 20. Correct order of sweetness of sucrose, fructose,
acid maltose and glucose is
Starch (C6H10O5)n A B C (1) Fructose > sucrose > glucose > maltose
(1) Sucrose (2) Glucose (2) Glucose > fructose > maltose > sucrose
(3) Sucrose > fructose > glucose > maltose
(3) Dextrin (4) Maltose
(4) Maltose > fructose > sucrose > glucose
$ $ $ 21. The total number of optical isomers in sorbitol is
# !"#
# #!!
# !!$%!
"
15. !!""# !!"!#$ !!"!%$! &'( (1) 10 (2) 8

# #
"% "% (3) 16 (4) 12
In the above synthesis, the product [D] can be 22. The number of asymmetic carbon atoms in
pyranose form of glucose is
(1) A carbohydrate (2) Lipid
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) Amino acid (4) All of these (3) 5 (4) 6
16. Sucrose itself is a non-reducing sugar it is due to 23. Arrange in order of increasing acidic strength
(1) The presence of equal amount of D(+) glucose (
""! !"!
and D (–) fructose % &
(2) The easy conversion of sucrose into invert #$$"
sugar on hydrolysis '
(1) x > z > y (2) z < x < y
(3) The linkage of both the anomeric carbon atom
(3) x > y > z (4) z > x > y
in an actual form
24. The number of molecules of acetic anhydride that
(4) The presence of -hydroxy keto group in its can react with glucose is
structure
(1) 2 (2) 4
!"# ! '%! & !"#$%
17. B Glucose A (3) 5 (4) 6
A and B respectively are 25. The number of –OH groups attached with primary,
secondary and tertiary carbon in open chain
(1) Gluconic acid, Gluconic acid structure of glucose respectively is
(2) Saccharic acid, Saccharic acid (1) 1, 4, 1 (2) 1, 4, 0
(3) Saccharic acid, Gluconic acid (3) 2, 3, 1 (4) 1, 3, 2
(4) Gluconic acid, Saccharic acid 26. The number of moles of HCOOH and HCHO
formed respectively when glucose is treated with
18. The number aniline and ammonia molecule formed HIO4
during the glucosazone formation when glucose
reacts with phenyl hydrazine is (1) 5 mole and 1 mole (2) 1 mole and 5 mole
(3) 2 mole and 4 mole (4) 4 mole and 2 mole
(1) 1, 1 (2) 1, 2
27. Choose the correct statement
(3) 2, 1 (4) 1, 4
(1) All monosaccharides are reducing in nature
19. In the given reactions
(2) Glucose has total 16 stereoisomers
*/ (3) Cyclic form of glucose has 4 stereocenters
!"#$%&!$%&'%(()
*+!,-,*+,-,*..+ # !"# (4) D-Galactose and D-glucose are C-2 epimer to
!""#$&" '(& each other
Product [X] will be 28. In maltose the two glucose molecules are linked
by
(1) - Amino acid (2) - Aminoamide
(1) (C-1, C-4) - link (2) (C-1, C-4) - link
(3) - Amino acid (4) - Aminoamide
(3) (C-1, C-2) - link (4) (C-1, C-2) - link
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Biomolecules 163
29. Percentage of amylose in starch is 38. Which of the amino acid is optically inactive?
(1) 15 - 20% (2) 20 - 30% (1) Glycine
(3) 80 - 85% (4) 30 - 35% (2) Alanine
30. Conversion of glucose into gluconic acid can be (3) Serine
best carried out by
(4) Valine
(1) !"! # $! % (2) !"#$! % $& 39. Cyclic structure of glucose consist
(3) Conc. HNO3 (4) ! ! "#! $" % & (1) Ether group
31. The two forms of D-glucopyranose obtained from (2) Alcoholic group
solution of D–glucose are known as (3) Aldehydic group
(1) Epimers (4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) Anomers 40. Which of the following statement is incorrect for
(3) Enantiomers glucose?
(4) Geometrical isomers (1) Its stable cyclic form is furanose form
32. -D(+) -glucose and -D(+) -glucose are (2) It does not give positive 2, 4-DNP test
(1) Enantiomers (3) Heating with HI/Red P, it forms n-hexane
(2) Geometrical isomers (4) It has four secondary alcoholic groups in open
(3) Epimers chain
(4) Anomers 41. Which of the following compound cannot be

carbohydrate?
33. Vitamin B12 contains metal
(1) Ca (II) (2) Zn (II) " !%!$%
(3) Fe (II) (4) Co (III) (1) !"!#$#!#$#!"% (2) !"#"$
34. Denaturation of protein is caused by !""%" !%!$%
(1) Increasing temperature

!"$ !&"$&
(2) Changing the pH
(3) !"#$"% (4) !"#"$
(3) Addition of detergent
!"!$" %!&'$&()!
(4) All of these
!&"$&
35. The number of moles of phenylhydrazine required
to form glucosazone when it reacts with glucose 42. Which of the biomolecule(s) is insoluble in water?
is
(1) - keratin
(1) 1 (2) 2
(2) Haemoglobin
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Ribonuclease
36. Which among the following is the monomer of
starch? (4) Adenine
(1) Glucose (2) Sucrose 43. In case of sucrose

(3) Fructose (4) Lactose (1) C1 – C4 glycosidic linkage is responsible for its
non reducing nature
37. Which of the following does not undergo
hydrolysis? (2) C1 – C4 glycosidic linkage is responsible of its
reducing nature
(1) Cane sugar
(3) C1 – C2 glycosidic linkage is responsible for
(2) Fructose
its non reducing nature
(3) Glucose
(4) C1 – C2 glycosidic linkage is responsible for its
(4) Both (2) & (3) reducing nature
164 Biomolecules Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
SECTION - B 2. A : Uracil occurs in DNA, but not in RNA.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions R : RNA undergoes replication.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion 3. A : Starch contains about 20% amylose and 80%
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) amylopectin.
R : In starch the glucose units are linked by
assertion, then mark (1). -linkages.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the 4. A : Monosaccharides which differ in configuration at
reason is not the correct explanation of the C2 in ketoses are called anomers.
R : Glucose and galactose are anomers.
false, then mark (3). 5. A : Glycine is amphoteric in nature.
R : It contain acidic and basic groups.
1. A : Maltose is a reducing sugar but sucrose is 6. A : Glucose and fructose are anomers of each
not. other.
R : Hemiacetal linkage is present in sucrose, R : Stereoisomers having different configurations at
which is absent in maltose. C – 2 carbon of glucose are anomers.
!" !" !
Chapter 16
Polymers
!" !"!#$%*,-..$-,/012+
SECTION - A #
Objective Type Questions $%&'()*+,-./0(*1
8.
!"!#$%&'()**+
1. Which of the following is biodegradable 2
polyamidepolymer? $3*-44+.&'5(6
(1) PHBV (2) Nylon 2, 6 ,-./0(*1
Identify A and B.
(3) Cellulose (4) All of these
2. Terylene is copolymer of (1) Bakelite, Novolac (2) Novolac, Bakelite
(1) Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol (3) Bakelite, Bakelite (4) Novolac, Novolac
(2) Adipic acid and Hexamethylene diamine 9. Which is not correct regarding condensation
polymerisation?
(3) Caprolactum and tetramethylene diamine
(1) Presence of at least two functional groups in
(4) Terephthalic acid and ethylene diamine
monomer
3. Polymers which on heating in a mould become
(2) Stepwise slow addition
infusible and form hard mass are called
(3) Polypropylene is a condensation polymer
(1) Elastomers
(4) Catalyst is not necessary
(2) Fibres
(3) Thermoplastics ./*0 %*+(
10. #-'$ &!# - %, $ !""# +
(4) Thermosetting polymers )&'( $%# "!
4. Which is a homopolymer? -.*/ %*+(

"!!% # & %" , $& # !" Product
(1) Perlon (2) Dacron ) &'( $% # "!
(3) Bakelite (4) Glyptal If product has mol. wt. (x + y – 18), then it is an
5. Natural polymer is example of
(1) Polyester (2) Nylon-6 (1) Head to head condensation
(3) Starch (4) Cellulose diacetate (2) Head to tail condensation

6. Which of the following is cross-linked polymer? (3) Tail to tail condensation
(1) Teflon (2) Nylon (4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Orlon (4) Bakelite 11. Which one of the following is chain growth
7. Monomer of neoprene is polymer?
(1) Isoprene (2) Chloroprene (1) Nylon-6 (2) Nylon-6,6
(3) Butadiene (4) Vinylacetylene (3) Polypropylene (4) Glyptal
166 Polymers Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
12. Perspex (Plexiglas) is a polymer of 20. Find out the wrong statement
(1) Methyl methacrylate (2) Methyl acrylate (1) Eye lens are manufactured by PMMA
(3) Methyl acrylonitrile (4) Acrylonitrile (2) Monomer of both natural rubber and gutta
percha is isoprene
13. Nylon-6,6 is a strong crystalline fibre due to
presence of (3) Bakelite is a condensation polymer
(1) Covalent bonds (2) Peptide linkages (4) Glucose and fructose can be distinguished by
Tollen’s reagent
(3) H-bonding (4) Long chain
21. The repeating unit of Nylon-6,6 is
14. The monomer of nylon-6 is
(1) Caprolactum (1) !"#$%$&"'!("$%$)'$%$"#$%$&"'!(" $%$)'*#
(2) Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine (2) !)'$%$&"'!($$%$)'$%$"#$% $&"'!($$%$"#*#

(3) Ethylene glycol and phthalic acid (3) !"#$%$&"'!($$%$)'$%$"#$%$&"'!($ $%$)'*#
(4) Phenol and formaldehyde (4) !)'$%$&"'!($$%$)'$%$"#$% $&"'!("$%$"#*#
15. Which of the following products are formed by 22. In which polymer strength of intermolecular force is
polymerisation of phenol and formaldehyde? strongest?
(1) Bakelite (1) Rubber (2) PVC
(2) Novolac (3) Nylon (4) Polystyrene
(3) Malamine-formaldehyde polymer 23. For the polymer shown below
(4) Both (1) & (2) !"#$!!%"#$"&"#"%"#$!"'# , monomer used is
16. In the given reaction; #(
( %&' $ !"# %#&'()*"+,!"#$ (1) Neoprene (2) Isoprene
HC C—CH=CH2 A
B (3) Chloroprene (4) All of these
Compound (B) is used as superior resistant to 24. Which of the following is not an addition polymer?
vegetable and mineral oil, it is called
(1) Neoprene
(1) Polyvinyl chloride (2) Chloroprene
(2) Orlon
(3) Neoprene (4) Polyisoprene
(3) Teflon
17. A synthetic textile fibre in common use today
(4) Bakelite
contains in it repeating units of
25. Polymer used in bullet-proof windows is
(1) Terephthalic acid and glycol
(1) PMMA
(2) CH2 = CH – Cl and glycol
(2) Lexan
(3) Hexamethylene diamine and glycol
(3) Nomex
(4) Terephthalic acid and hexamethylene diamine
(4) Kevlar
18. Which is not true about polymers?
(1) Polymers do not carry any charge "!" !"#$%$&'($)**'+',-
$
(2) PHBV is a biodegradable polymer 26. !!"####"###"!###"!! !"#$%$+.)-($)**'+',-
%
(3) Polymers contain repeating unit
A and B respectively are
(4) Polymers have low molecular weight
(1) Gutta percha, gutta percha
19. Which of the following act as chain transfer agent?
(2) Natural rubber, natural rubber
(1) Carbon tetrachloride (2) Amines
(3) Gutta percha, natural rubber
(3) Quinol (4) Phenols
(4) Natural rubber, gutta percha
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Polymers 167
27. Which of the following is incorrect match? 34. Which of the following is an example of step
growth polymer?
(1) Dacron :
(1) Neoprene
! !
(2) PVC
!"#!$%$"#!!$%$"$%$$$$$$$%$"
! (3) Nylon-6, 6
(2) Nylon 6,6 : (4) Buna - S
( ( 35. The monomer of the polymer PMMA (polymethyl

methacrylate) is
!"#$#%&"!'##$#!"#$#&#$#%&"!'"!$#&
! (1) CH2 = CH – COOH
!"" (2) CH2 = CH – COOC2H5
(3) Neoprene : !"!#$#!#%#!"#$#!"! !""

!
(3) !"!#$#!#%#!&&!""
(4) Teflon : !"!#$#!"! ! !""
28. Polyethene is (4) !"!#$#!#%#!&&"
(1) Addition polymer (2) Synthetic polymer 36. Which one of the following is the repeating unit of
(3) Natural polymer (4) Both (1) & (2) Neoprene?
29. Which of the following is not thermoplastic

(1) !"!#%#!#$#!"#%#!"
polymer?
!' !""
(1) Polyethene (2) Polystyrene
(3) PVC (4) Bakelite (2) !"!#$#!#%#!"
30. Glyptal is classified as a !""
(1) Polyolefin (2) Polyester
(3) !"!#$#!#%#!"#$#!"!
(3) Polyamide (4) Polyether
!&
31. Which one is a protein fibre?
(1) Cotton (2) Silk (4) !"!#$#!#%#!"#$#!"!
!""
(3) Rayon (4) Polyester
32. The monomer unit of orlon is SECTION - B
(1) Allyl cyanide Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(2) Acrylonitrile In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(3) Vinyl chloride (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(4) Ethene (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
33. Which monomer will give radical polymerisation
most readily?
(1) CH2 = CH2
(2) CH3 – CH = CH2 assertion, then mark (2).
(3) C6H5 – CH = CH2 (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(4) !"!"#$!$%$!"#
!"! statements, then mark (4).
168 Polymers Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
1. A : Bakelite is hard and possesses high melting R : Stiffness is lost in vulcanisation.

point. 3. A : A plasticizer makes the polymer soft.
R : H-bonding is present among the particles. R : A plasticizer is a non-volatile liquid.
2. A : Vulcanisation of rubber is heating of synthetic 4. A : Nylon-2,6 is a biodegradable polymer.
rubber with sulphur. R : Glycine is one of the monomers of nylon-2,6.
!" !" !
Chapter 17
Chemistry in Everyday Life
8. Morphine diacetate is commonly known as

SECTION - A
(1) Heroin (2) Marijuane
(3) Brufen (4) Quinine
1. Select the correct match
9. Dilute solution of which of the following is used as
(1) Penicillin – Broad spectrum antibiotics mild antiseptic for human eyes?
(2) Equanil – Tranquilizer (1) Boric acid (2) Cresol
(3) 0.2% phenol solution – Disinfectant (3) Salol (4) Bithional
(4) All of these 10. Sulpha drugs are the derivatives of
2. Drug which arrests the growth of the organism is
called (1) "$ !"#$!"
(1) Analgesics (2) Antibiotics

(3) Antihistamines (4) Antifertility drug (2) "!! !"#$!"
3. Composition of dettol is
(3) $!# !"!#$!
(1) Same as that of bithional
(2) Chloroxylenol and -terpineol
(4) $" !"!#$!
(3) Chlorohexidine gluconate
(4) Phenyl salicylate and -terpineol 11. Which of the following is not broad spectrum
4. Equanil is antibiotics?
(1) Penicillin (2) Tetracycline
(1) Analgesic (2) Antiallergic
(3) Chloramphenicol (4) All of these
(3) Antidepressant (4) Antipyretic
12. Which of the following is used as anti-oxidant?
5. Which of the following causes allergy?
(1) BHA (2) BHT
(1) Histamine (2) Veronal
(3) PG (4) All of these
(3) Acetylcholine (4) Serotonin
13. Which of the following element is not found in
6. Select the incorrect statement antibiotic penicillin?
(1) Some disinfectants can be used as antiseptics (1) N (2) O
at low concentration
(3) P (4) S
(2) Sulphadiazine is a synthetic antibacterial
14. Which of the following is used as antiseptic?
(3) Aspirin is analgesic and antipyretic both
(1) Iodine (2) Bithional
(4) Ampicillin is a natural antibiotic
7. Ampicillin is as
(1) Analgesic (2) Antibiotic (3) (4) All of these
(3) Antimalarial (4) Antipyretic !"
170 Chemistry in Everyday Life Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
15. Pick out unsaturated acid from the following 26. -Terpineol is one of the constituent of Dettol. The
structure of terpineol is
(1) Oleic acid (2) Lauric acid
!"! !"
(3) Stearic acid (4) Palmitic acid
16. The name of the following structure is
(1) (2)
!"
"!# #"!
"!! #" #$
!"!
!"! !"
#"$!$"!
(1) Sulphanilamide (2) Phenacetin (3) (4)
(3) Ibuprofen (4) Paracetamol
"!# #"!
17. Tincture of iodine is " !!!"! #$
(1) I2 (aq) (2) I2 and KI #"
(3) Alcohol + water + I2 (4) KI (aq) 27. In the given reaction,
18. An example of artificial sweetener is [X] + Acetic anhydride Aspirin
(1) Aspartame (2) Alitame [X] will be
(3) Sucralose (4) All of these (1) Benzoic Acid
19. Dettol is mixture of chloroxylenol and (2) o-Methoxybenzoic acid
(1) Chlorhexidine (2) Terpeneol (3) o-Hydroxybenzoic Acid
(3) Ampicillin (4) Amoxicillin (4) p-Hydroxybenzoic Acid
20. Which of the following is a bacteriostatic?
(1) Penicillin (2) Aminoglycosiders SECTION - B
(3) Ofloxacin (4) Erythromycin Assertion - Reason Type Questions
21. 2-Acetoxy benzoic acid is In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(1) Antiseptic (2) Analgesic (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(3) Antibiotic (4) Mordant dye
22. The most successful and widely used artificial assertion, then mark (1).
sweetener is (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(1) Aspartame (2) Saccharin reason is not the correct explanation of the
(3) Sucralose (4) Alitame
23. Which of the following is an example of false, then mark (3).
tranquilizer?
(1) Aspirin (2) Equanil statements, then mark (4).
(3) Paracetamol (4) Chloramphenicol 1. A : Medicines used for relieving pains are called
24. Which of the following does not increase the analgesics.
nutritional value of food ? R : Aspirin is an analgesic.
(1) Minerals (2) Carbohydrates 2. A : Synthetic detergents are a combination of
hydrophilic groups on one end of the molecule
(3) Artificial sweeteners (4) Fats and hydrophobic groups on the other.
25. Find the correct statement
R : The water attracting groups make the
(1) Sucralose is an artificial sweetner compound soluble in H2O while H2O repelling
(2) Penicilin is a narrow spectrum antibiotic groups make the compound oil soluble.
(3) Phenol can be used as antiseptic as well as 3. A : Savlon is a solution of chlorhexidine gluconate
disinfectant in a suitable solvent.
(4) All of these R : It is used as an antiseptic.
!" !" !
Chapter 18
Hydrogen
SECTION - A !"#$ !"%$ &

6. !" ##$ Product
'()*+,-
1. Which is not a polymeric/dimeric hydride? Product formed is
(1) FeO + H2 (2) Fe2O3 + H2O
(1) BeH2 (2) MgH2
(3) Fe2O3 + H2 (4) Fe3O4 + H2
(3) BH3 (4) NaH
7. A substance on heating gives oxygen and it turns
2. Which of the following metal will not evolve H2 acidified KI solution violet and reduces acidified
when react with dil. HNO3? KMnO4 solution. Hence, the substance is
(1) Mg (2) Zn (1) SO2 (2) K2CrO4
(3) Fe (4) Cu (3) H2O2 (4) All of these
3. What volume of 15 V H 2 O 2 required to react 8. Which can be used for removing both temporary
completely with 10 ml of 1 M KMnO 4 in acidic and permanent hardness of water?
medium? (1) Na2CO3.10H2O (2) Boiling
(1) 18.72 ml (2) 25.51 ml (3) Ca(OH)2 (4) Na6P6O18
(3) 14.20 ml (4) 10.65 ml 9. Molarity of a solution of 1 litre H2O2 marked as 20
4. H2O2 functions as a volume is
(1) Bleaching agent (1) 1.78 (2) 3.57
(2) Oxidising agent (3) 20 (4) 0.20
(3) Oxidant for a rocket fuel 10. KMnO4 + H2SO4 + H2O2 Product (1)
(4) All of these KI + H2SO4 + H2O2 Product (2)
5. Consider the two reactions: In the reaction (2) and (1) respectively, hydrogen
peroxide act as
(i) H2O2 + 2KI I2 + 2KOH
(1) Both oxidising agent
(ii) H2O2 + O3 2O2 + H2O (2) Both reducing agent
H2O2 behaves as (3) Oxidising and reducing agent
(1) A reducing agent in both (i) and (ii) (4) Reducing and oxidising agent
(2) An oxidising agent in both (i) and (ii) !!!

"
11. CHCl3 + D2O #!!
! Product
(3) A reducing agent in (i) and oxidising agent Product formed is
in (ii)
(1) CDCl3 + DOH (2) CDCl3 + H2O
(4) An oxidising agent in (i) and reducing agent
in (ii) (3) CDCl3 + D2O (4) CHCl3 + DOH
172 Hydrogen Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
12. Which is used as tracer ? 21. The fastest reaction will be

(1) H11 (2) H12 #!
(3) H13 (4) Ortho hydrogen $!
!"!
13. Incorrect statement is
%!
(1) Hybridisation of oxygen for water in solid, liquid
and gas phase is sp3 (1) (2)
(2) Density of water is more than the density of (3) (4) All have same rate
ice
!"#$%&
(3) Boiling point of HF > Boiling point of H2O, as 22. !!"#"#"$$%!%# !%!%#"#"$$!%#
electronegativity of F > O '()*
+,-%.)/
(4) All of these
The above process is known as
14. The percentage by weight of oxygen in H2O2 is
(1) 5.88 (2) 94.11 (1) Coal gasification (2) Coal digestion
(3) 91.99 (4) 6.25 (3) Syngas gasification (4) Water gasification
15. Which of the following reaction involve in Bosch’s 23. Electrolysis of molten hydrolith produces
process used for the manufacturing of H2? (1) H2 gas at cathode (2) H2 gas at anode
!"" #
(1) !"*#" $%&%'()&
!# $"+ (3) N2 gas at cathode (4) N2 gas at anode
(2) !! "# !!# "#! $!! 24. An element having valence shell electronic
configuration 3d64s2 when reacts with hydrogen
(3) !"# $%!& "#" &# $%! forms
!"#$%&'( (1) Saline hydrides
(4) !" )#* $" %#)
16. Which of the following hydride does not give H2 at (2) Electron rich hydrides
anode on electrolysis in molten state? (3) Interstitial hydrides
(1) SrH2 (2) BaH2 (4) No hydrides
(3) MgH2 (4) CaH2
25. How many hydrogen bonded water molecules are
17. H2 O2 restores the colour of old lead paintings, present in CuSO4.5H2O?
blackened by the action of H2S gas, by
(1) 4 (2) 5
(1) Oxidising PbSO3 to PbSO4
(3) 2 (4) 1
(2) Converting PbCO3 to Pb
26. Permanent hardness of water cannot be removed
(3) By oxidising PbS to PbSO4 by
(4) Converting PbO2 to Pb
(1) Boiling
18. H2O2 is miscible with water in all proportions and
(2) Permutit method
forms a hydrate H2O2.xH2O. The value of x is
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) Caligon’s method
(3) 4 (4) 5 (4) Washing soda method
19. " # !
are related as 27. In acidic medium H2O2 converts HOCl to
"#" " #" " !
(1) Iso electronic (2) Isotones (1) HCl (2) Cl2
(3) Isodiaphers (4) All of these (3) O2 (4) HOCl2
20. Tritium is radioactive. It is distintegrated by emitting 28. Ionic hydrides on treatment with water evolve
(1) ray (2) ray (1) H2 (2) H2O2

(3) ray (4) K-capture (3) H2O (4) O2
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Hydrogen 173
29. The reaction called coal-gasification is 39. H2O2 is prepared by the electrolysis of
"#$% ! (1) 50% H2SO4 (2) 50% HNO3
(1) C(s) + H2O(g) CO(g) + H2(g)
(3) 50% HClO4 (4) 50% H3PO4
(2) CO + H2O CO2 + H2
(3) CH4 + H2O CO + 3H2
(1) Atomic hydrogen is more reactive than nascent
(4) CH4 + 2H2O CO2 + 4H2
hydrogen
30. Freezing point and boiling point of heavy water w.r.t.
(2) Metal hydrides are powerful reducing agents
that of water are respectively
(3) Group I hydride are more reactive than group-II
(1) Higher and lower (2) Lower and higher
hydrides
(3) Higher and higher (4) Lower and lower (4) All of these
31. The hydrides which are crystalline but 41. Which one of the following statements is incorrect
non-stoichiometric are about ‘Calgon’?
(1) Ionic hydrides (2) Covalent hydrides (1) It is sodium hexametaphosphate
(3) Polymeric hydrides (4) Interstitial hydrides (2) Its molecular formula is NaAlSiO4
32. When Cu is reacted with hot concentrated solution (3) It is used for the removal of permanent
of H2SO4 then the gas obtained is hardness
(1) O2 (2) H2 (4) It removes cations like Mg2+, Ca2+ present in
water
(3) SO2 (4) SO3
42. From the reaction
33. Which of the following property of hydrogen does
not resemble to alkali metals? ! !!" "! !! # it can be concluded
that
(1) Unipositive ion
(2) Formula of oxides (1) H– is a weaker base than H2O
(3) Ionization energy (2) H– is a stronger acid than H2O
(4) Formula of sulphides (3) H– is strong base than H2O
34. Which isotope of hydrogen is radioactive? (4) H– and H2O have same acidic strength
(1) Protium (2) Tritium 43. In the reaction

(3) Deuterium (4) All of these !#"!"
# "$ !#" "#
35. Which of the following is not commercial method Isotopic oxygen goes with
for preparation of H2 gas?
(1) H2O only (2) O2 only
(1) Metal + Alkali
(3) Both H2O and O2 (4) Data insufficient
(2) Electrolysis of brine
44. Find the correct statement
(3) Electrolysis of water
(4) Reaction of steam with coke (1) The boiling point of D2O is higher than H2O
36. Which of the following is called ‘syngas’? (2) Heavy water has lesser value of dielectric
constant than H2O
(1) H2 + CO (2) N2 + CO
(3) Strongest H-bonding is present in HF
(3) H2 + NO (4) N2 + CO2
(4) All of these
37. Which is not a saline hydride?
45. Hydrogen peroxide acts as oxidising agent in
(1) BaH2 (2) NaH
(3) MgH2 (4) CaH2 (1) Neutral medium
38. Which of the following will not form a hydride? (2) Acidic medium
(1) Ti (2) Cr (3) Basic medium

(3) V (4) Fe (4) All of these
46. 500 ml of a sample of water contains 0.5 mg of 55. The water gas is
CaCl2 and 0.5 mg MgCl2. The degree of hardness (1) CO(g) + H2(g) (2) NO(g) + H2(g)
of water is
(3) CO2(g) + H2O(g) (4) CO + N2
(1) 1.95 ppm (2) 2.25 ppm
56. Which of the following is electron rich hydride?
(3) 2.90 ppm (4) 0.95 ppm
(1) C2H6 (2) B2H6
47. Which of the following substance will be able to
reduce hydrogen peroxide? (3) NH3 (4) Both (1) & (3)
(1) Cl2 57. Which of the following can be used for the
(2) PbS preparation of H2O2?
(3) KMnO4 in presence of H+ (1) KO2 (2) BaO2
(4) All of these (3) PbO2 (4) SnO2
48. Which does not cause hardness of water? 58. Which of the following pairs of substances on
reaction will not evolve H2?
(1) CaCl2 (2) MgSO4
(1) Iron + steam (2) Sodium + ethanol
(3) Na2CO3 (4) Ca(HCO3)2
(3) Copper + dilute HCl (4) Fe + H2SO4
49. Which of the following option regarding heavy water
is correct? 59. We can determine whether the colourless liquid is
water or not by
(1) 1 molecule of heavy water contains 10
neutrons (1) Tasting
(2) It is used as a moderator (2) Smelling
(3) It is used in tracer technique (3) Adding a pinch of anhydrous CuSO4
(4) All are correct (4) Adding small amount of NaCl
50. Which of the following option is incorrect? 60. In hydrated salts, H2O molecule may present as
(1) Sodium hydroperoxide is an acidic salt (1) Co-ordinated water
(2) H2O2 can be used as an antiseptic (2) Interstitial water
(3) Hydrogen peroxide acts as a bleeching agent (3) Hydrogen bonded water
(4) H2O2 possess linear structure (4) All of these
51. Correct order is 61. Products which are mainly obtained by the reaction
of zinc with aqueous alkali (NaOH)
(1) Protium > Deuterium > Tritium (% abundance)
(1) Na and Zn(OH)2 (2) Na, ZnO and H2O
(2) Protium > Deuterium > Tritium (m.p)
(3) Na2ZnO2 and H2 (4) Na2O, ZnO and H2
(3) Protium > Deuterium > Tritium (b.p)
62. The O – O – H bond angles in solid and gas phase
(4) Protium < Deuterium < Tritium (Reactivity) of H2O2 are
52. Which of the following cannot be used for (1) 90.2° and 111.5° (2) 101.9° and 94.8°
generation of H2? (3) 90.2° and 94.8° (4) 101.9° and 111.5°
(1) Zn + NaOH (2) Al + NaOH 63. Which one is incorrect statement for H2O2?
(3) Na + Mg(OH)2 (4) LiH + H2O (1) It decomposes slowly on exposure to light
53. The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is (2) It has a non-planar structure
(1) ! (2) ! (3) It is immiscible in water
!! "!
# (4) It shows its oxidising action both in acidic and
(3) "! (4) Both (1) & (2)
basic medium
54. The molecular weight of heavy water is 64. Which of the following is producer gas?
(1) 18 (2) 16 (1) H2O + CO (2) CO + H2
(3) 20 (4) 22 (3) CO + N2 (4) CO2 + N2
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Hydrogen 175
65. Which of the following reaction is called water 74. For which of the following properties, highest value
gas? is observed for heaviest isotope of hydrogen?
!"#$ (1) Atomic mass (2) Boiling point
(1) !"#$% &% "#$% &'()* !
!"% #$% &% #$%
(3) Density (4) All of these
!"#$%
" &" '$
(2) !"#$ %()*+, &'
!&"'$ %" "'$
75. High purity dihydrogen is obtained by
!"#$% (1) Electrolysis of water
(3) !"# $% &&
()*+,
"#$ & ' $%&
(2) Electrolysis of warm barium hydroxide solution
!"
(4) !"# #$% "$&#$% %$&'(
!&$ #$% '"$ #$% (3) Reaction of granulated zinc with dil. HCl
66. Which of the following carbide yield CH 4 with (4) Reaction of granulated zinc with aq. KOH
water? 76. ‘syn gas’ is
(1) BaC2 (2) Mg2C3 (1) CH4 + O2 (2) CO + H2
(3) Al4C3 (4) CaC2 (3) CO + CO2 (4) CO2 + H2
67. Which of the following cannot be used for 77. Which of the following hydride react with water and
liberating dihydrogen from dilute hydrochloric acid? produces dihydrogen gas?
(1) BeH2 (2) MgH2
(1) Zinc (2) Gold
(3) NaH (4) All of these
(3) Iron (4) Magnesium
78. In which of the following hydrides, the law of
68. The ortho and para hydrogen are having constant composition does not hold good?
(1) Same chemical but different physical (1) Ionic hydride (2) Covalent hydride
properties
(3) Molecular hydrides (4) Metallic hydrides
(2) Same physical but different chemical
79. Find the incorrect statement about water
properties
(1) In the gas phase water is a bent molecule
(3) Same physical and chemical properties with a bond angle of 104.5°
(4) Different physical and chemical properties (2) In liquid phase one water molecule can form
69. H2O2 acts as four H bonds
(1) Oxidizing agent (2) Reducing agent (3) Ice has a highly ordered two dimensional H-
bond
(3) Bleaching agent (4) All of these
(4) Only one H-bonded water molecules are
70. In transforming 0.01 mole of PbS to PbSO4, the associated in CuSO4.5H2O
volume of 10 volume H2O2 required will be
80. Permanent hardness of water is due to
(1) 11.2 ml (2) 22.4 ml
(1) Soluble MgSO4 and CaCl2
(3) 33.6 ml (4) 44.8 ml
(2) Insoluble MgCl2 and CaSO4
71. In acidic medium, which change does not occur by (3) Soluble MgHCO3 and insoluble CaSO4
H2O2?
(4) Soluble MgHCO3 and CaCO3
(1) KI I2 (2) Fe2+ Fe3+
81. In laboratory D2O2 can be prepared by
(3) Fe3+ Fe2+ (4) PbS PbSO4
(1) BaO2.8H2O (s) + D2SO4 (aq)
72. Which common reagent removes permanent
(2) K2S2O8 + 2D2O
hardness of water?
(3) H+ + OH–
(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) NaCl
(4) Electrolysis of H2O
(3) Na2CO3 (4) Na2SO4
82. Incorrect statement about H2O2
73. In which of the following property hydrogen
(1) H2O2 is a non-planar molecule
resembles with halogens?
(2) H2O2 is a non-polar molecule
(1) Low reactivity
(3) H2O2 acts as an oxidizing agent and reducing
(2) Formation of ionic compound
agent
(3) High ionization enthalpy
(4) H2O2 is a diprotic acid
(4) Core electronic configuration
83. The allotropes of hydrogen are

SECTION - B
(1) Ortho and meta Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(2) Ortho and para In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(3) Para and meta
(4) Hydrogen does not show allotropy reason is the correct explanation of the
84. In which of the following reactions, H2O2 acts as
reducing agent? (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(1) Mn2 + H2O2 Mn4 + 2OH(–) assertion, then mark (2).
(2) PbS(s) + 4H2O2(aq) PbSO4(s) + 4H2O(l) (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3) HOCl + H2O2 H3O + Cl(–) + O2
(4) 2Fe2 (aq) + 2H (aq) + H2O2(aq) statements, then mark (4).
Fe3 + 2H2O(l) 1. A : Calcium oxide is basic while H2O2 is acidic.

R : H2O2 acts as oxidising as well as reducing
85. Which one of the following statements is incorrect
agent.
about H2O2?
2. A : H2O2 reduces Cl2 to HCl.
(1) It is used a hair bleach and as a mild
R : H2O2 is also called anti-chlor.
disinfectant.
3. A : Boiling point of hydrogen peroxide is higher
(2) It is sold in the market as PERHYDROL. than water.
(3) It is used in pollution control treatment of R : Hydrogen peroxide has open book like
domestic and industrial effluents. structure while H2O is angular.
(4) It is highly explosive when mixed with water. 4. A : The rate of diffusion of D2 is greater than H2.
R : Rate of diffusion is directly proportional to
86. Incorrect statement about H2O2 is square root of molecular weight.
(1) H2O2 is a non-planar molecule 5. A : D2O is called heavy water.
(2) Dielectric constant of H2O2 is more than H2O R : Its degree of dissociation is very high.
6. A : Hydrogen peroxide forms only one series of
(3) H2O2 is used as a mild bleaching agent
salts called peroxides.
(4) All of these R : H 2 O 2 molecule has only one replaceable
87. Which of the following gives H2 when reacts with hydrogen atom.
dil. HNO3? 7. A : At room temperature, ordinary dihydrogen
contains 75% of ortho hydrogen and 25% of
(1) Mn para hydrogen.
(2) Fe R : Thermal conductivity of para hydrogen is 50%
greater than that of ortho hydrogen.
(3) Ni
8. A : H2O2 is polar molecule.
(4) Zn
R : Hybrid state of oxygen in H2O2 is sp.
!" !" !
Chapter 19
s-Block Elements
6. Crude common salt is hygroscopic because of

SECTION - A
impurities of
(1) CaBr2 and MgBr2
1. Correct order of solubility of Group I bicarbonate is
(2) Ca(HCO3)2 and Mg(HCO3)2
(1) RbHCO3 > KHCO3 > NaHCO3
(3) CaSO4 and MgSO4
(2) NaHCO3 > KHCO3 > RbHCO3
(4) CaCl2 and MgCl2
(3) LiHCO3 = NaHCO3 = KHCO3 = RbHCO3
7. Correct order of reducing character of alkali metal
(4) All Group I bicarbonates are insoluble in aqueous state is
2. Strongest reducing agent in aqueous solution of (1) Li < Na < K < Cs (2) Cs < K < Na < Li
Group I and colour imparted to flame by this
(3) Li < Cs < K < Na (4) Na < K < Cs < Li
element is
8. When Na metal is dissolved in liquid ammonia, a
(1) Cs, blue (2) Cs, red
blue solution is formed. The blue colour is due to
(3) Li, crimson red (4) Li, pink
(1) Solvated Na+ ion (2) Solvated electrons
3. A substance which gives a brick red flame and
breaks down on heating to give oxygen and a (3) Solvated !"!
" ion (4) Solvated protons
brown gas is
9. Which is the correct order?
(1) Magnesium nitrate
(1) CsCl > KCl > NaCl > LiCl (Ionic nature)
(2) Calcium carbonate
(2) MgO > Al2O3 > SO3 > Cl2O7 (Basic nature)
(3) Calcium nitrate
(3) Cs > Rb > Na > K > Li (Density)
(4) Magnesium carbonate
(4) All of these
4. Select the correct order of increasing thermal
10. Which is coloured because of odd electron bond?
stability of alkaline earth metal carbonates
(1) Na (2) KO2
(1) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3
(3) CsOH (4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) CaCO3 < BeCO3 < MgCO3
11. Which of the following s-block element form oxide
(3) MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3
and nitride when treated with air?
(4) CaCO3 < MgCO3 < BeCO3
(1) K (2) Na
5. An amphoteric oxide dissolves in HCl to form a
(3) Mg (4) Rb
salt. The salt does not impart any colour to the
flame and fumes in moist air. The oxide is 12. Which of the following can’t exist ?
(1) CaO (2) Na2O (1) LiCl.2H2O (2) MgCl2.6H2O
(3) BeO (4) MgO (3) [Al(H2O)6]3+ (4) [BeF6]4 –
178 s-Block Elements Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
13. Incorrect statement about beryllium halide is 20. The rate of setting of plaster of Paris is enhanced
and retarded respectively by
(1) It is covalent in nature
(2) Beryllium chloride fumes in dry air (1) Alum, sodium chloride
(3) In solid state beryllium chloride exist as (2) Borax, alum

polymer (3) Sodium chloride, alum
(4) All of these (4) Alum, borax
14. Correct order of ionic mobility in aqueous medium 21. Which of the following metal bicarbonate does not
is exist in solid state?
(1) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ (1) LiHCO3 (2) NaHCO3
(2) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+ (3) KHCO3 (4) All of these
(3) Li+ = Na+ = K+ = Pb+ = Cs+
22. The correct order of density of alkali metals is
(4) Li+ > K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(1) Na < K < Rb < Cs (2) K < Na < Rb < Cs
15. Which among the following is strongest oxidising
(3) Na < K < Cs < Rb (4) K < Na < Cs < Rb
agent?
23. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric in
(1) Na2O2 (2) Li2O
nature?
(3) Na2O (4) KO2
(1) MgO (2) SiO2
16. When CO2 is passed in excess of lime water, the
milkiness first formed disappears due to (3) CO2 (4) Al2O3
(1) Reversal of original reaction !! "!#

24. ! " Z(colourless gas). Z gives blue
(2) Formation of volatile calcium derivatives in colour solution with CuSO4 and X does not give
gaseous state flame test. X, Y and Z respectively are
(3) Formation of water soluble calcium bicarbonate
(1) Ca, Ca(OH)2, H2 (2) Mg, Mg3N2, NH3
(4) Formation of water soluble calcium carbonate
(3) Na, Na3N, NH3 (4) Ba, Ba(NO3)2, H2
17. Select the incorrect statement(s)
25. Which of the following compound liberates oxygen
(1) Li and Mg have widely different properties on heating?
(2) NaHCO3 and LiHCO3 are solid compounds (1) Li2CO3 (2) LiOH
(3) Stability of hydrides follows the order (3) LiNO3 (4) NaOH
LiH > NaH > KH
26. Which of the following is correct order of basic
(4) Both (1) & (2) strength of hydroxides?
18. Which of the following carbonate is sparingly (1) LiOH > NaOH > KOH > RbOH
soluble in water?
(2) RbOH > NaOH > KOH > LiOH
(1) Li2CO3 (2) Na2CO3
(3) RbOH > KOH > NaOH > LiOH
(3) K2CO3 (4) Rb2CO3
(4) LiOH > RbOH > KOH > NaOH
19. Li2CO3, K2CO3, CaCO3, MgCO3
27. Carbonates of alkaline earth metals dissolve in
I II III IV
water in the presence of CO2 because of
The correct order of solubility is
(1) Formation of bicarbonates
(1) I < II < III < IV
(2) Formation of hydroxides
(2) III < IV < II < I
(3) Formation of complex
(3) III < IV < I < II
(4) Acidic nature of CO 2 and basic nature of
(4) IV < III < II < I carbonates
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) s-Block Elements 179
28. Which of the following compounds is used as 37. The size of Be2+ and Al3+ is not so close but they
dehydrating agent? show diagonal relationship due to
(1) CaF2 (2) CaCl2 (1) Different effective nuclear charge
(3) CaCO3 (4) Ca(OH)2 (2) Different atomic number
29. A fire work gives crimson red colour. It possibly (3) Similar charge per unit area
contains some salt of (4) Similar electron affinity
(1) Calcium (2) Barium 38. Which of the following pairs of elements cannot
(3) Strontium (4) Potassium form alloys?
30. Magnesium keeps on burning in (1) K, Cs (2) Cs, Rb
(1) N2 (2) O2 (3) Na, K (4) Li, Rb
(3) CO2 (4) All of these 39. The property of group 2 elements that increases
with increase in their atomic number
31. Calcium is obtained by
(1) Solubility of their sulphates
(1) Electrolysis of molten CaCl2
(2) Thermal stability of carbonates
(2) Electrolysis of aqueous solution of CaCl2
(3) Solubility of their carbonates
(3) Reduction of CaO with carbon
(4) Electronegativity and ionisation energy
(4) Roasting of lime stone
40. Dry powder fire extinguisher contains
32. Liquid sodium is used in nuclear reactors as
(1) Sand
(1) Moderator (2) Coolant
(2) Sand and Na2CO3
(3) Fuel (4) Control rods
(3) Sand and baking soda
33. A solution of potassium metal in liquid ammonia is
strongly reducing due to the presence of (4) Sand and K2CO3
(1) Sodium atoms (2) Sodium hydride 41. Which of the following can form complexes?
(3) Sodium amide (4) Solvated electrons (1) Be
34. Plaster of Paris hardens by (2) Ca

(3) Mg
(1) Giving off CO2
(4) All of these
(2) Changing into CaCO3
42. The incorrect reaction for thermal decomposition
(3) Giving out water
among the following is
(4) Combining with water
(1) $"#"! " $"#"! ! !!
35. When CO 2 is passed through brine solution,
saturated with ammonia, white crystals precipitate (2) $""$! ! $! #"! !
out. The crystals are of
(3) #$%"! " &$% ! ! #"! ! !!
(1) NH4HCO3 (2) NH4Cl
)*+
(3) Na2CO3 (4) NaHCO3 (4) #$ ! !" , #$ ! " !" !
#"$%"&'#(& "
36. Which of the following has highest negative value of 43. Densities of alkaline earth metals is correctly given
enthalpy of formation? as
(1) LiCl (1) Be < Ca < Mg < Sr < Ba
(2) NaCl (2) Ca < Be < Mg < Sr < Ba
(3) CsCl (3) Ca < Mg < Be < Sr < Ba
(4) RbCl (4) Be < Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba
44. KHCO 3 can’t be prepared in Solvay’s process 54. Which has maximum tendency to form
because complexes?
(1) KHCO3 is less soluble than NaHCO3 (1) Ba (2) Ca
(2) KHCO3 is more soluble than NaHCO3 (3) Mg (4) Be
(3) KHCO3 is insoluble 55. What is the formula of carnallite?
(4) Both KHCO3 and NaHCO3 are equally soluble (1) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O (2) KCl.MgBr2.6H2O
45. The incorrect statement among following is (3) KBr.MgBr2.6H2O (4) KCl.MgCl2
(1) Density of Be is higher than that of Mg 56. Which is mismatched?

(1) NaOH – Castner - Kellner cell
(2) BaCO3 is less soluble than CaCO3
(2) K2CO3 – Solvay Ammonia process
(3) BaO2 is a peroxide
(3) H2O2 – Merck’s method
(4) LiNO3 produces LiNO2 on strong heating
(4) All of these
46. Reaction of KO2 with water produces
57. The colour and magnetic property of diluted solution
(1) KOH (2) H2O2 of alkali metals in ammonia respectively is
(3) O2 (4) All of these (1) Blue, paramagnetic (2) Bronze
47. The correct thermal stability order is (3) Blue, diamagnetic (4) Bronze, diamagnetic
(1) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH 58. Anhydrone is
(2) NaH > LiH > KH > CsH > RbH (1) Mg(ClO4)2 (2) MgSO4
(3) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH (3) Ca(ClO3)2 (4) MgCl2.MgBr2
(4) RbH > KH > CsH > NaH > LiH 59. Calcium burns in nitrogen to produce a white solid
which dissolves in sufficient water to produce a gas
48. Which is most stable?
! and an alkaline solution. The solution on
(1) NaF (2) NaCl
exposure to air produces a solid layer of ! on
(3) NaBr (4) NaI the surface. The compound " and ! are
49. Which will react with N2 to form nitride? (1) ! Ca3N2, " CaO
(1) Li (2) Na
(2) ! Ca3N2, ! NH3
(3) K (4) Rb
(3) " NH3, ! CaCO3
50. Which alkali metal salts are mostly hydrated?
(4) " CaCO3, ! CaO
(1) LiCl (2) NaCl
60. Which imparts brick red colour to bunsen flame?
(3) KCl (4) CsCl
(1) Mg
51. Which can form super oxide?
(2) Ca
(1) Li, K (2) Li, Cs
(3) Sr
(3) K, Rb (4) Li, Na
(4) Ba
52. Which does not impart colour to flame?
61. Which of the following has maximum solubility in
(1) BeCl2 (2) BaCl2 water?
(3) CaCl2 (4) SrCl2 (1) Be(OH)2
53. In vapour phase (1200 K) BeCl2 exist as (2) Mg(OH)2
(1) Monomer (2) Dimer (3) Ba(OH)2
(3) Trimer (4) Polymer (4) Sr(OH)2
62. The order of solubility of lithium halide in non-polar 70. The solubility of NaCl is highest in
solvent is
(1) CCl4 (2) CH3OH
(1) LiI > LiBr > LiCl > LiF
%
(2) LiF > LiI > LiBr > LiCl
(3) !"!!#$#!"! (4) C6H6
(3) LiCl > LiF > LiI > LiBr
71. During electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaOH
(4) LiBr > LiCl > LiF > LiI using inert electrode. The substance produced at
63. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? cathode is
(1) Dilute solution of alkali metals in ammonia is (1) Na (2) H2

blue and paramagnetic (3) O2 (4) H2O
(2) Concentrated solution of alkali metal in 72. Which of the following chemical reaction is
ammonia is bronze and paramagnetic incorrect?
(3) Na2CO3 decomposes readily on heating %
(1) 2KNO3(s) K2O(s) + 2NO2(g) + !! &'(
(4) All of these $
%
64. Nitrogen dioxide cannot be obtained by thermal (2) 2LiNO3(s) Li2O( s) + 2NO2(g) + !! &'(
$
decomposition of
(1) KNO3 (2) Pb(NO3)2 (3) 2NaHCO 3 (s) Na 2 CO 3 (s) + H 2 O(g) +
CO2(g)
(3) LiNO3 (4) All of these
)
65. Hybrid state of Be in solid BeCl2 (4) 2KO2(s) + CO2(g) K2CO3(s) + !! &'(
$
(1) sp 3 (2) sp 2 73. Correct order of solubility product
(3) sp (4) dsp 2 (1) LiOH > NaOH > KOH
66. Hybridisation of BeCl2 above 1200 K and in solid (2) Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2
state is
(3) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3
(1) sp3 only (2) sp only
(4) MgSO4 < CaSO4 < BaSO4
(3) sp, sp3 (4) sp, sp2
74. Correct order of basic nature is
67. Drying agent which reacts with CO2 and removes (1) NaOH > KOH > Mg(OH)2 > Ca(OH)2
water is
(2) KOH > NaOH > Ca(OH)2 > Mg(OH)2
(1) NaCl (2) CaO
(3) Ca(OH)2 > Mg(OH)2 > KOH > NaOH
(3) AgOH (4) SiO2
(4) NaOH > Ca(OH)2 > Mg(OH)2 > KOH
68. If Na+ ion is larger than Mg+ 2 ion and S2 – ion is
75. Alkali metals combines with mercury to form
larger than Cl– ion. Which of the following will be
compounds known as Amalgams. This reaction is
least soluble in water?
(1) Highly endothermic
(1) NaCl (2) Na2S
(2) Exothermic
(3) MgCl2 (4) MgS
(3) Less endothermic
69. The correct order of solubility of the following metal
sulphates are (4) Neither exothermic nor endothermic
!"#$! %&#$! '(#$! #)#$! 76. The hydration energy of Mg+2 ions is larger than
that of
* ** *** *+
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I (1) Al+3 (2) Na+
(3) II > III > I > IV (4) III > II > I > IV (3) Be+2 (4) Mg+3
77. Which of the following reaction is not correct for 84. Which is most electropositive element?
Na2O?
(1) Li (2) Na
(1) Na2O + H2O NaOH (3) Cs (4) Ba
(2) Na2O + ZnO Na2ZnO2 85. Number of crystalline water present in washing
(3) Na2O + Al2O3 NaAlO2 soda is
!"" # (1) 6 (2) 4
(4) Na2O NaO2 + Na
(3) 10 (4) 2
78. Correct order of solubility of hydroxides of group 2
86. The chemical name of Plaster of Paris is
(1) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2
(1) Calcium sulphate bihydrate
(2) Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Be(OH)2
(2) Calcium sulphate monohydrate
(3) Ca(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Be(OH)2
(3) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate
(4) Be(OH)2 = Mg(OH)2 = Ca(OH)2
(4) Calcium sulphate hydrate
79. Which of the following option related to s-block
element is correct? 87. Slaked lime reacts with CO 2 gas form milky
insoluble carbonate. The formula of carbonate is
(1) Hydrated radii > Ionic radii > Metallic radii
(1) (NH4)2CO3 (2) CaCO3
(2) Metallic radii > Hydrated radii > Ionic radii
(3) Na2CO3 (4) BaCO3
(3) Hydrated radii > Metallic radii > Ionic radii
88. Which of the following cation has largest size in
(4) Ionic radii > Metallic radii > Hydrated radii aqueous medium?
80. Which of the following alkaline earth metal does (1) Li+ (2) Na+
not give flame colouration?
(3) K+ (4) Cs+
(1) Be (2) Mg
89. Beryllium nitrate is unusual because it forms basic
(3) Ca (4) Ba nitrate, the correct composition of basic nitrate of
81. The paramagnetic nature of KO2 is due to Be is
(1) Presence of one unpaired electron in 2p (1) [Be2O(NO2)6 ]
molecular orbital (2) [Be3O2(NO3)6 ]
(2) Presence of one unpaired electron in 2p (3) [Be4O(NO3)6 ]
molecular orbital
(4) [Be3O(NO3)6 ]
(3) Presence of two unpaired electron in 2p
molecular orbitals 90. Which is mismatched?
(4) Presence of one unpaired electron in *2p !

(1) Plaster of Paris – CaSO4· "!#
molecular orbitals $
82. In the outermost orbit maximum electrons in (2) Epsom salt – MgSO4 ·7H2O
s-block element is (3) Chile salt petre – KNO3
(1) 8 (2) 18 (4) Glauber salt – Na2SO4 ·10H2O
(3) 2 (4) 32 91. Be2C + H2O A + Be(OH)2
83. Alkaline earth metals dissolve in liquid NH3 giving Al4C3 + H2O B + Al(OH)3
highly conducting ______ solutions (dil)
Hybridisation of carbon in B and A respectively is
(1) Deep green
(1) sp and sp3
(2) Deep blue black (2) sp2 and sp3
(3) Light green (3) sp and sp
(4) Deep red (4) sp3 and sp3
92. Which is mismatched regarding the method of 101. Lithium and beryllium shows similarities to
preparation? (1) Mg and Si
(1) Na – Down’s process
(2) Al and Mg
(2) Na2CO3.10H2O – Solvay’s Ammonia process
(3) Mg and Al
(3) NaOH – Castner Kellner cell
(4) Na and Si respectively
(4) NaOH – Serpeck’s process
102. Oxygen reacts with lithium and sodium to form
93. The minimum reduction potential of Lithium is due (major products) respectively
to
(1) Monoxide and peroxide
(1) High energy of sublimation
(2) Monoxide and superoxide
(2) High ionisation of energy
(3) Peroxide and monoxide
(3) High hydration energy
(4) Peroxide and superoxide
(4) High bond dissociation energy
103. Cs and K are used as electrodes in photoelectric
94. Which of the following is correct for CsBr3?
cells because they have
(1) It is a covalent compound
(1) Same electronic configuration
(2) Contains Cs3+ and Br– ion
(2) Tendency to lose electron by absorbing light
(3) Contains Cs+ and !"! ion energy
(3) High ionization enthalpy compared to other
(4) Contains Cs+, Br– and Br2 molecule
members
95. Which of the following is least soluble in water?
(4) High positive value of standard reduction
(1) BeSO4 (2) MgSO4 potential
(3) BaSO4 (4) SrSO4 104. Which one is incorrect statement?
96. Photoelectric effect is maximum in (1) LiF and CsI are highly soluble in water
(1) Cs (2) Na
(2) Li is the most and Na is the least powerful
(3) K (4) Li reducing agents among alkali metals
97. The ion which shows maximum mobility in (3) Alkali metal hydrides are ionic solids
aqueous solution?
(4) Most of alkali metal halides are highly soluble
(1) Rb+ (2) Cs+ in water
(3) Li+ (4) Be2+ 105. The correct solubility order in water is
98. Which of the following order is correct? (1) CaSO4 < SrSO4 < BaSO4
(1) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH (Reducing power) (2) CaSO4 < BaSO4 < SrSO4
(2) BeCO 3 < MgCO 3 < CaCO 3 < SrCO 3
(3) SrSO4 < CaSO4 < BaSO4
(Solubility)
(4) BaSO4 < SrSO4 < CaSO4
(3) BeO < MgO < CaO < SrO (Basic nature)
106. Find the incorrect statement
(4) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl (Atomic radii)
99. Which of the following carbide is methanide? (1) Calcium oxide absorbs moisture and carbon
dioxide
(1) CaC2 (2) BeC2
(2) Be exhibits coordination number of six
(3) Mg2C3 (4) Al4C3
(3) Beryllium and aluminium ions have strong
100. Products of the reaction between KO2 and H2O are tendency to form complexes
(1) KOH, H2O2 and O2 (2) KOH and H2
(4) When carbon dioxide is passed through lime
(3) KOH and H2O2 (4) K and H2O2 water it turns milky
107. Which of the following is not a form of CaCO3? 117. The hybrid state of Be at 500ºC in vapour BeCl2
and solid BeCl2 are respectively
(1) Limestone (2) Chalk
(3) Quicklime (4) Marble (1) sp2 and sp2 (2) sp2 and sp3
108. The setting of plaster of Paris may be catalysed (3) sp3 and sp2 (4) sp3 and sp3
and retarded by adding 118. Find the incorrect match
(1) NaCl and borax respectively Compound Uses
(2) NaCl and alum respectively (1) Sodium hydrogen – Baking soda carbonate
(3) NaCl and boric acid respectively (2) Sodium hydroxide – Concentration of
(4) Both (1) & (2) bauxite
109. Compared with alkaline earth metals, alkali metals (3) Quick lime – Manufacturing of
have cement
(1) Higher melting point (4) 2CaSO4 H2O – Dead burnt plaster
(2) Smaller atomic radii 119. The radioactive members of s block are
(3) Lower ionization energy (1) He, H2 (2) K, Ra
(4) All of these (3) Fr, Ra (4) Cs, Fr
110. Which of the following alkaline earth metal does 120. The correct order of hydration enthalpies
not exhibit colour when heated in flame?
(1) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Li+
(1) Mg (2) Be
(2) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+
(3) Ca (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Mg2+ > Be2+ > Ca2+ > Ba2+
111. Most covalent compound among following
(4) Ba2+ > Ca2+ > Mg2+ > Be2+
(1) CsF (2) LiI
121. Which of the following oxide of alkali metal is
(3) CsI (4) NaF
paramagnetic?
112. Which one of the following alkali metals form
(1) Li2O
hydrated salts?
(2) Na2O2
(1) Li (2) Na
(3) KO2
(3) K (4) Cs
113. Flame test is not given by salts of (4) MgO
(1) Be (2) Mg 122. Which of the following compound when placed in

flame produces yellow colouration?
(3) Li (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) LiCl
114. Most water soluble sulphate
(2) NaNO3
(1) BaSO4 (2) CaSO4
(3) K2SO4
(3) MgSO4 (4) BeSO4
(4) All of these
115. The compound formed upon combustion of sodium
metal in excess air free from moisture and CO2 is 123. Anomalous property of Lithium
(1) Na2O2 (2) NaO (1) Reacts with N2 to form nitride
(3) NaO2 (4) NaOH (2) Strongest reducing agent
116. Baking soda is (3) Lithium hydrogen carbonate does not exist in
(1) Na2CO3 H2O (2) NaOH solid state
(3) Na2CO3 (4) NaHCO3 (4) All of these
!"#$%&'('&)
124. Na2CO3.10H2O Na2CO3.xH2O + yH2O 130. Choose the incorrect match :
!"#$%&'('&) (1) Baking soda – NaHCO3
Na2CO3.xH2O Na2CO3
The value of x and y in the above reaction (2) Slaked lime – CaO
respectively is (3) Washing soda – Na2CO3 .10H2O
(1) 5, 5
!
(4) Plaster of Pairs – "#$%! & ' " %
(2) 4, 6 (
(3) 7, 3 131. Which of the following set does not form peroxide
under normal condition?
(4) 1, 9
(1) K, Na (2) K, Cs
125. !"#$%%&'()*)+&#) ,)))))*))))))! (3) Li, Be (4) Ca, Ba

!!" !!"
132. Best reducing agent among the following is
-)))))))))))))-)*)./! (1) Li (2) Na
Compound A, B and C in the reaction are (3) K (4) Cs
(1) A is amphoteric oxide 133. Element A oxide of A (X)
(2) B is covalent nitride Element B oxide of B (Y), and if
(3) C is amphoteric hydroxide X+Y salt
(4) All of these The elements A and B can be
126. The hybrid state of Be in its chloride in solid phase (1) Na and Mg (2) Be and Na
is (3) S and Ca (4) Cl and S
(1) sp (2) sp2 134. Which of the following statement is correct?
(3) sp3 (4) dsp2 (1) Alkali metals are paramagnetic but their salts
127. Which of the hydroxide aqueous solution will have are diamagnetic
highest Kb? (2) Except lithium and sodium all the alkali metals
(1) Be(OH)2 (2) Ca(OH)2 can form oxides with paramagnetic character
(3) Sr(OH)2 (4) Ba(OH)2 (3) Salts of sodium in aqueous solution can never
be acidic in nature
128. !"#$%&!"'(!$! )*+,-("../"0"12/('(%!$ (4) All are correct
!"#$%&'($)
!$!(/72/55 135. The alkaline earth metal which has minimum
!3+340+/55(53+46*31 melting point is
The milky appearance in the above test is due to (1) Mg

formation of (2) Ca
(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) Ca(HCO3)2 (3) Sr
(3) CaCO3 (4) CaO (4) Ba
129. Cause of diagonal relationship is due to simillar 136. The oxide which gives H 2 O2 on treatment with
value of dilute acid is
(1) Ionisation energy (1) PbO2
(2) Electron affinity (2) Na2O2
(3) Polarizing power (3) MnO2
(4) Electronegativity (4) TeO2
4. A : Li has lower reduction potential than Na.

SECTION - B
R : Li reacts more violently with water than
sodium.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion 5. A : Beryllium nitrate is unusual and forms basic
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) nitrate [Be4O(NO3)6] in addition to normal salt.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the R : It shows diagonal relationship with Al.
assertion, then mark (1). 6. A : The stability of hydrides of alkali metals
decreases down the group.
reason is not the correct explanation of the R : Lattice energies of these hydrides decrease
assertion, then mark (2). down the group due to increase in the size of
metal ions.
false, then mark (3). 7. A : In solid BeCl2 hybridisation of Be-atom is sp3.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false R : In solid state BeCl2 exists in polymeric form.
statements, then mark (4). 8. A : The first ionization energy of Be is greater than
1. A : Alkali metals can be extracted by chemical that of B.
reduction. R : In Be electron is removed from 2s2 orbital (full
R : Alkali metals are weak reductants. filled) which is more stable but in B atom
electron is removed from 2p1 orbital which is
2. A : All alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia, less stable.
giving conducting solution.
9. A : Be does not impart any characteristic colour
R : Both ammoniated cation and ammoniated to the bunsen flame.
electrons are formed.
R : It requires a very large amount of energy for
3. A : Three centre two electron bonds are present in excitation of the electrons.
BeH2.
10. A : LiAlH4 can be used as reducing agent.
R : In BeH2 hybridisation of Be is sp3 and bond
angle is 109° 28 . R : LiAlH4 can easily provide H ion.
!" !" !
Chapter 20
p-Block Elements (Gr-13 & 14)
6. Which does not show inert pair effect?

SECTION - A
(1) Al (2) Sn
(3) Pb (4) Tl
1. Which is incorrect?
7. H3BO3 is a acid.
(1) PbI2 + I2 PbI4
(1) Monobasic acid (2) Dibasic acid
(2) In diborane ‘B’ is sp3 hybridised
(3) Pyrosilicate contains Si2O76– (3) Tribasic acid (4) Tetrabasic acid
(4) Borax has 8 mole of water of crystallisation per 8. The dissolution of Al(OH)3 by a solution of NaOH
mole results in the formation of
2. Boron when heated with carbon powder at high (1) [Al(H2O)4(OH)]2+

temperature forms (2) [Al(H2O)2(OH)4]–
(1) BC2 (2) B4C3 (3) [Al(H2O)3(OH)3]
(3) B2C3 (4) B4C (4) [Al(H2O)6(OH)3]
3. Correct statement about B2H6 is 9. Which of the following is the correct order of first
(1) Each boron atom undergoes sp2 hybridisation ionisation energy of group-14 elements?
(2) All the atoms forms 2e– – 2 centre bond (1) C < Si < Ge < Sn < Pb
(3) Hb – B – Hb bond angle is 112° (2) C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb
(4) The boron atoms are linked through hydrogen (3) C > Si > Ge > Sn < Pb
bridges
(4) C > Si < Ge > Sn < Pb
4. Which is not correctly matched?
10. Inorganic benzene is
(1) Cassiterite – SnO2
(1) BN
(2) Cerussite – PbCO3
(2) B2H6
(3) Borax – Na2[B4O5(OH)3] 8H2O
(3) B3N3H6
(4) Corundum – Al2O3
(4) H3BO3
5. Lab preparation of diborane is shown correctly by
11. Permutit is technical name given to
!"# $
(1) BF3 + NaH
(1) Aluminates of calcium and sodium
!"#$%&'
(2) NaBH4 + I2 (2) Silicates of calcium and sodium
(3) B2O3 + H2 + Al (3) Hydrated silicates of aluminium and sodium
(4) All of these (4) Silicates of calcium and magnesium
188 p-Block Elements (Gr-13 & 14) Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
12. Which statement is incorrect? 20. Borax on heating strongly above its melting point
produces
(1) An element (Z = 114) has four valence
electrons (1) Sodium borate (2) Sodium metaborate
(2) PbO2 is more oxidising than PbO (3) Boric anhydride (4) Both (2) & (3)
21. The strongest reducing agent among the following is
(3) Carbon tetrachloride is hydrolysed by water
(1) GeCl2 (2) SnCl2
(4) Carbon suboxide is formed by dehydration of
malonic acid (3) PbCl2 (4) SnCl4
22. The type of bond which exists between B atoms in
)-.&,
13. !"#$%$&'!$ ()*$%$!"' diborane is
!"#$%%&'(! (1) Normal covalent bond
)*+&,&
(2) Ionic bond
(&* (3) Metallic bond
Compound (B) is (4) Three center two electron bond
(1) B2H6.2NH3 (2) B3N3H6 23. Which of the following aluminium halide is most
covalent?
(3) (BN)x (4) H3BO3
(1) Aluminium fluoride (2) Aluminium chloride
!"
14. !"## units are present in (3) Aluminium bromide (4) Aluminium iodide
"
24. Which of the following halide does not exist?
(1) Pyrosilicates (2) Cyclic silicates
! !
(3) Sheet silicates (4) Orthosilicates (1) !#!"#$" "$ (2) !#!"#" "$
! !
15. Silica reacts with (3) !#!"#$" "$ (4) !#!!"" "$
(1) H2SO4 (2) HNO3 25. The correct statement is
(3) HF (4) HCl (1) Inorganic benzene is less reactive than
16.
!" benzene
!"!#"$#%&'(!$ )*+ )#+
(2) The hybridisation of two boron atom in borax is
Formula of (B) and its colour for copper is sp2 and the other two boron atom is sp3
(1) NaBO2, Blue (2) Cu(BO2)2, Blue (3) Fullerene (C70) has 20 six membered rings
(3) Cu(BO2)2, Green (4) NaBO2, B2O3, Green (4) All of these
17. Which is incorrect about Borax ? 26. The maximum number of atoms in diborane (B2H6)
lying in the same plane is
(1) It is acidic in nature
(1) 8 (2) 6
(2) Total number of B – O – B bonds is equal to
(3) 4 (4) 7
B – OH bond
27. The purest and thermodynamically most stable
(3) It is represented as Na2[B4O4(OH)4].8H2O allotrope of carbon respectively is
(4) All of these (1) Fullerene, diamond (2) Graphite, diamond
18. Correct order of atomic radii of group-13 elements (3) Fullerene, graphite (4) Diamond, Fullerene
(1) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl 28. Which of the following statement is correct?
(2) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In (1) In the diborane, bond length of 3c - 2e bond is
less than 2c - 2e bond
(3) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
(2) Boron react with alkali solutions evolving O2
(4) B < Al < Ga < Tl < In gas
19. The ratio of - and -bonds in borazine is (3) AlCl 3 forms dimer but BCl 3 does not form
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 4 : 1 dimer
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 4 (4) H2O2 act as oxidising agent only
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) p-Block Elements (Gr-13 & 14) 189
29. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 36. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(1) CO2 turns lime water milky (1) B 2H6 reacts with excess of ammonia at low
(2) BF 3 > BCl 3 > BBr 3 > BI 3 : order of acidic temperature to form ionic substance
strength (2) B2H6 reacts with excess of ammonia at high
(3) In borax, boron is both sp2 and sp3 hybridised temperature to form a white slippery solid
called boron nitride
(4) B(OH)3 is a Lewis acid
(3) Borazine is inorganic benzene but has –ve and
30. !"#!""""$%%&#%%% +ve formal charges in it on B and N
!"#$%% respectively
'#!""""$%%&#%%% (4) All of these
!"#$%%
37. Which of the following bonds are present in
Compound and are respectively silicone?
(1) K3AlF6 and KBF4 (2) KAlF4 & K3BF6

(1) !#$!"!#$!"!#$!"!#$!
(3) K3AlF6 and K3BF6 (4) K2AlF4 & KBF4
31. Hybridization of Boron in diborane and borax are ! ! ! !
respectively (2) !"#!$!"#!%!$!
! ! ! !
(1) sp3 in diborane and sp2 in borax
(2) sp2 in diborane and sp3 in borax ! ! ! !
(3) sp3 in diborane and sp2 & sp3 in borax (3) !"#!"#!"#!"#!
! ! ! !
(4) sp2 in diborane and sp2 in borax
! ! ! ! !
32. Boranes have general formula
(4) !"#!$ !"#!$!"#!
(1) BnHn+4 (2) BnHn+6 ! ! ! ! !
(3) BnH2n+2 (4) Both (1) & (2) 38. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
33. Which of the following is Tincal? (1) Boric acid is a Lewis acid
(1) Na2B4O7.10H2O (2) Ca2B6O11.5H2O (2) Al2O3 is amphoteric while B2O3 is acidic
(3) Na2B4O7.4H2O (4) CaB4O7
(3) B 2 O 3 can combine with CuO to give
34. The stability of dihalides of group 14 elements metaborate and borax bead test
follow which of the order?
(4) All of these
(1) SiCl2 < GeCl2 < PbCl2 < SnCl2
39. Boron has very high melting point due to
(2) GeCl2 < PbCl2 < SnCl2 < SiCl2
(1) Small size
(3) SiCl2 < GeCl2 < SnCl2 < PbCl2
(2) Hund’s rule
(4) GeCl2 < SiCl2 < PbCl2 < SnCl2
(3) Covalent nature
(1) Graphite is thermodynamically more stable (4) High nuclear charge
than diamond 40. The hybridisation of boron in B2H6 and BH4– is
(2) The M-M bond energy of C > Si > Ge > Sn (1) sp2, sp2
(3) The number of carbon per unit lattice of
(2) sp3, sp2
diamond is 6
(3) sp2, sp3
(4) Carbon is most electronegative element of the
group (4) sp3, sp3
41. CO is extremely stable oxide of carbon but SiO is 49. A silicate having an anion of general formula
unstable because (Si2O52–)n is an example of
(1) Carbon can form coordinate covalent bond (1) Orthosilicates
(2) Carbon is smaller than silicon (2) Pyrosilicates
(3) p -p bond present between carbon and (3) Ring silicates
oxygen which is not possible in SiO
(4) Sheet silicates
(4) CO is neutral while SiO is amphoteric
50. Which of the following oxides has three-
42. CO2 is a gas while SiO2 is solid because dimensional structure?
(1) CO2 is a small molecule while SiO2 is a large (1) CO (2) CO2
molecule
(3) SiO2 (4) SO2
(2) In CO2 p -p bond exist between C and O and
in SiO2 p –d bond exist between Si and O 51. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
increasing first ionisation energy?
(3) In SiO2 p -p bond exists between Si and O
(1) Pb < Sn < C < Si (2) Pb < C < Si < Sn
(4) CO2 is a discreate molecule where molecular
forces of attraction exist while SiO 2 is a (3) Sn < Pb < Si < C (4) Sn < C < Si < Pb
covalent solid
52. 1000 mL of air is allowed to react completely with
43. Which of the following is not used as water boron. The approximate volume of the air remained
softner? unreacted will be
(1) Calgon (2) Silicone (1) 220 mL (2) 170 mL
(3) Permutit (4) Organic resin (3) 110 mL (4) 10 mL
44. Purest form of carbon is 53. The correct order of first ionisation potential in
Boron family is given as
(1) Diamond (2) Graphite
(1) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl
(3) Coal (4) Fullerene
45. In the reaction 2B + 6HNO3 (2) B > Al > Ga > In < Tl
! + 6NO2
The product ! is (3) B > Al < Ga < In > Tl
(1) B2O3 (2) 2HBO3 (4) B > Al < Ga > In < Tl
(3) 2H3BO2 (4) 2H3BO3 54. CO 2 gas cannot be used to extinguish the fire
caused by reaction of saline hydride with water,
46. Formula of inorganic graphite and carborundum are because
respectively
(1) Saline hydride will reduce CO2
(1) B3N3H6 and Al2O3 (2) BN and Al2O3
(2) CO2 will catch fire
(3) BN and SiC (4) B3N3H6 and SiC
(3) CO2 will form carbonates with saline hydride
47. Graphite is used as anode but not diamond
because (4) All of these
(1) It contains free carbon atoms between two 55. Which cannot show stable +3 oxidation state?
layers
(1) Al (2) Ga
(2) It contains free electrons between two layers
(3) Tl (4) B
(3) Carbon is a highly electronegative element
56. !"" ! is not possible due to
(4) All of these
(1) Very small size
48. How many B–O–B bonds are present in structure
of crystalline borax? (2) High ionization energy
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) Non-metallic nature
(3) 5 (4) 6 (4) Absence of d-orbitals
57. Which is weakest Lewis acid? 66. Which has least first ionization energy?
(1) BF3 (2) BCl3 (1) Si (2) Sn
(3) BBr3 (4) BI3 (3) Pb (4) Ge
58. Which of the following is most basic? 67. Correct order of acidity in aqueous medium is
(1) B2O3 (2) Al2O3 (1) H2O2 > H2O > CO2 > CH4
(3) Ga2O3 (4) In(OH)3 (2) CO2 > H2O2 > H2O > CH4
59. Which is known as inorganic graphite? (3) H2O2 > CO2 > H2O > CH4
(1) AlN (2) BN (4) CO2 > H2O > H2O2 > CH4
(3) Al2BrCl5 (4) B(BrF2) 68. In silicon dioxide
60. An aqueous solution of Borax will be ______ in (1) Each silicon atom is surrounded by four
nature. oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is
bonded to two silicon atoms
(1) Acidic (2) Basic
(2) Each silicon atom is surrounded by two
(3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is
61. Which one is strongest oxidising agent? bonded to two silicon atoms
(1) CO2 (2) SiO2 (3) Silicon atom is bonded to only two oxygen
atoms
(3) SnO2 (4) PbO2
(4) There are one sigma and one bond between
62. Which of the following is not correct about silicon and oxygen atoms
silicones?
69. Which of the following form most stable dihalide?
(1) They are chemically inert and water repelling in
nature (1) Al (2) Pb
(2) Lower silicons are oily liquids (3) Fe (4) Ag
(3) They are used in making waterproof clothes 70. Which of the following halide is least stable and
has doubtful existence?
(4) Good electrical conductor
(1) CCl4 (2) PbCI2
63. For C60 fullerenes, which of the following statement
(3) SiCI4 (4) PbI4
is not true?
71. The species that does not contains peroxide ion is
(1) 20 six membered ring and 12 five membered
rings (1) PbO2 (2) H2O2
(2) Six membered rings are connected to other 5 (3) SrO2 (4) BaO2
and 6 membered rings
72. In graphite, the electrons are
(3) Five membered rings are connected to other 5
(1) Localised on every third carbon atoms
and 6 membered rings
(2) Present in antibonding orbitals
(4) All the carbons are in sp2 hybrid state
(3) Localised on each carbon atom
64. Which is most thermodynamically stable allotrope
of carbon? (4) Spread throughout the layer
(1) Diamond (2) C60 73. Formula of anion of pyrosilicates is
(3) C70 (4) Graphite (1) SiO44–
65. Which is an example of arachno-borane? (2) Si2O76–
(1) B5H10 (2) B6H12 (3) (SiO32– )n
(3) B7H14 (4) B8H13 (4) (Si2O5)n2n–
74. Which is not correct about BF3? 81. Silica in its normal form is almost non-reactive
because of
(1) It is stronger Lewis acid than BCl3
(1) Si is sp3 hybridised
(2) It does not form dimer like Al2Cl6
(2) Si – O bond enthalpy is very high
(3) It can combine with F– ion to form !"! ion
(3) Solid state
(4) It contains back -bonding
(4) Covalent nature
75. Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6 in solid
"! "
state as well as in solution of non polar solvents, 82. !"!# & $" $"#%%&%'!" .
such as benzene. When dissolved in water, it gives !"#$%& +,-"&./0-# 30)4$%&
'(")$*( 10*(-2 '(")$*(
(1) Al3+ + 3Cl–
What is Z?
(2) Al2O3 + 6HCl
(1) Al2Si2O8 · xH2O (2) Al2SiO3 · xH2O
(3) [Al(OH)6]3– + 3HCl
(3) AlSi2O8 · xH2O (4) Al2O3
(4) [Al(H2O)6]3+ + 3Cl–
76. H 2 O2 restores the colour of old lead paintings
blackened by the action of H2S gas by (1) C – C bond length in diamond is 154 pm
(1) Converting PbO2 to Pb (2) Graphite is soft and slippery
(2) Oxidising PbS to PbSO4 (3) Fullerenes are the pure form of carbon
(3) Converting PbSO3 to Pb (4) Carbon black is obtained by burning
(4) Oxidising PbSO3 to PbSO4 hydrocarbons in excess of air
77. The descending order of atomic radius of elements 84. The correct statement about diborane is
of group 13 in periodic table is (1) Boron atom is sp3 hybridised
(1) Tl > In > Ga > Al > B (2) Six atoms are present in same plane
(2) Tl > Al > Ga > In > B (3) Molecule behaves as Lewis acid
(3) Tl > In > Al > Ga > B
(4) All of these
(4) Tl > Ga > In > Al > B
85. LiH + (BH3)2 P
78. Which of the following is correct about diborane?
Which of the following option is correct for above
(1) Terminal B–H bonds are 2c–2e bonds reaction?
(2) It has 3c–2e bond (1) BH3 acts as a Lewis acid
(3) The hybridisation of ‘B’ is sp3 in B2H6 (2) H– acts as a Lewis base
(4) All of these (3) ‘P’ is Lithium borohydride which acts as a
powerful oxidising agent
79. Which one of the following species decomposes
most easily? (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Pb(CH3COO)4 (2) PbCl4 86. Which of the following is not true for borazine and
benzene?
(3) PbI4 (4) PbCl2
(1) Both are isolectronic
80. The thermodynamically most stable crystalline form
of carbon is (2) Both posses 12 bonds
(1) Graphite (2) Bucky ball (3) Both possess planar ring structure
(3) Diamond (4) Coal (4) Both are polar
87. Borax is very useful in the manufacture of boro- 92. Which of the following regarding Boron nitride is
glass which is quite resistant to heat. Which of the correct?
following option related to structure of borax is
(1) Its structure is similar to diamond in which both
true? ‘B’ and ‘N’ is sp3 hybridised
(1) Its ionic formula is [B2O4(CH)4]– (2) Its structure is similar to graphite in which both
(2) It contains four B – O – B bonds ‘B’ and ‘N’ is sp2 hybridised
(3) BN posses linear structure
(3) Two boron atoms have triangular geometry and
two boron atoms are tetrahedral (4) BN is ionic, hence non-directional in nature
(4) All of these 93. Which of the following option is correct?
88. B(OH)3 is (1) Stability: B+3 > Al+3 > Ga+3 > In+3 > Tl+3
(1) Monobasic and weak Arrhenius acid (2) Stability: Ga+ < In+ < Tl+
(2) Monobasic and electron pair accepter (3) Al < Al+ < Al2+ (I.E.)
(4) All of these
(3) Tribasic and weak Bronsted Lowry acid
94. Which of the following regarding ‘C’ and its
(4) Monobasic and weak Bronsted base
compounds are not true?
89. The aluminosilicate which can be used to convert (1) Bond order between ‘C’ and ‘O’ is three and
alcohols directly into gasoline is metal carbonyl bond is dative
(1) ZSM – 5 (2) CO is neutral oxide
(2) ZSM – 2 (3) CO is toxic because it forms a complex with
haemoglobin in the blood and this complex is
(3) Silicones
more stable than oxy-haemoglobin
(4) Beryl
"#$"%&'!(!")&
(4) '&,&+&,&!&,&' '!&*&+!!
90. Which of the following option regarding aluminium
chloride is true? !
(1) Anhydrous aluminum chloride exists as a 95. Which of the following halide of group 14 is ionic?
dimer and is covalent in nature (1) SnF4
(2) Hydrated aluminium chloride is [Al(H2O)6]Cl3 (2) SnCl4
and is covalent in nature
(3) PbCl4
(3) AlCl3 is a Lewis base
(4) PbI4
(4) All are true
96. The correct order of acidic nature is
!"# $
91. B(OH)3 A + H2O
(1) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3
!"# $
2A B + H2O (2) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
!" # $%&
B C + H2O (3) BF3 > BCl3 > Bl3 > BBr3
CoO + C D(Blue) (4) BI3 > BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
A, B, C and D are respectively 97. The correct formula of borax is
(1) HBO2; Tetraboric acid; B2O3; Cobalt metaborate (1) Na2[B4O5(OH)4]. 8H2O
(2) HBO3; H4B2O7; B2O3; Cobalt metaborate (2) Na2[B4O8(H2O)4]. 5H2O
(3) HBO2; H4B2O7; B3O2; Co(BO2)2 (3) Na2[B4O4(OH)3]. 9H2O
(4) H4B2O7; HBO2; B2O3; Cobalt metaborate (4) Na2B4O7. 7H2O
98. Boric acid on heating at 370 K gives 105. The correct structure of anion of pyrosilicate is
!
(1) HBO2 #
(2) H2B4O7 !" !
(1) !
# #
(3) B2O3 #
!
! !
(4) H3BO3 # #
! !
(2) # !" # !" #
99. Inorganic benzene is called ! !
# !
#
(1) Borazine #
(2) Disulphuric acid !"

! # #
# !
(3) Caro’s acid (3) !
#$%$!"$%$# # $%$!"$%$#
! !
(4) All of these #

! ! !
100. The first ionisation energy of the elements of group # # #
XIV follow the order
(4) !" # !" # !"
(1) C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb ! ! !
# # #
(2) Pb > Sn > Ge > Si > C 106. Unlike PbCl4, the compounds PbBr4 and PbI4 are
(3) Ge > Sn > Pb > Si > C not found because
(1) Chlorine is more electronegative
(4) C > Si > Ge > Pb > Sn
(2) Iodine and bromine are unable to oxidise Pb to
101. Which of the following shows +2 most stable
Pb4+
oxidation state and why?
(3) Iodine and bromine have small size
(1) Sn-inert pair effect (2) Pb-inert pair effect
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Pb-due to non metal (4) Ge-due to non metal
107. Which of the following does not undergo
102. Cyclic silicates contains hydrolysis?
!" (1) PbCl4 (2) SnCl4
(1) !"#$ ! %#
(3) SiF4 (4) CCl4
(2) Si2O7–2
108. Which of the following has almost same structure
(3) SiO44– to that of graphite?
"
(4) #$%!&# '"!" (1) B2O3 (2) H3BO3
(3) BCl3 (4) BN
109. At least four allotropes of boron may be obtained
(1) The suspension of slaked lime in water is under different conditions but all the four allotropic
known as milk of lime forms contain
(2) Plaster of Paris is hemihydrate of calcium (1) B6 octahedral units (2) B4 tetrahedral units
sulphate
(3) B8 tetrahedral units (4) B12 icosahedral units
(3) The acidic nature of oxides of group-13
increases down the group 110. Which of the following has three centred two
electrons bond?
(4) Beryllium chloride is covalent in nature
(1) BeH2
104. Diborane reacts with H2O to form
(2) MgH2
(1) HBO2 (2) H3BO3 (3) B2H6
(3) 2(CH3)2N·B2H6 (4) B2(CH3)6 (4) All of these
111. Correct order of thermal stability of hydride of group 119. Carbon monoxide reacts with certain metals to
14 is form metal carbonyls. It is due to
(1) CH4 < SiH4 < GeH4 < SnH4 (1) One sigma and two bonds in CO molecules
(2) CH4 > SiH4 > SnH4 > GeH4 (2) Presence of a lone pair on carbon
(3) SnH4 < GeH4 < SiH4 < CH4 (3) Presence of a lone pair on oxygen
(4) CH4 < SiH4 > GeH4 > SnH4
(4) Poisonous nature of CO
112. The number of five membered and six membered
rings in C70 fullerene respectively is
(1) 12, 20 (2) 12, 25 (1) PbX2 is more stable than PbX4
(3) 15, 20 (4) 10, 20 (2) PbCl4 is less stable than SnCl4
113. Which of the following statement is correct? (3) N(CH3)3 is pyramidal but N(SiH3)3 is planar
(1) Borazine is not isoelectronic with benzene (4) (SiH3)3N is a stronger base than (CH3)3N
(2) In benzene, electrons are partially delocalised 121. Linear silicones have the repeating unit of
(3) In borazine, electrons are partially delocalised
(1) '!"#$%&' (2) '!"#$%!&'
(4) Borazine is also called benzene
(3) '!"!#$%&' (4) '!"!#$%!&'
114. For group-13 elements, the value of electronegativity
122. [SiF6]2– exist but [SiCl6]2– does not exist because
(1) Decreases from top to bottom
(2) Increases from top to bottom (1) Smaller size of F than Cl
(3) First decreases from B to Al then increases (2) F is more electronegative than Cl
(4) First increases then decreases marginally (3) Interaction of F lone pair electrons with d
orbital of silicon is weaker than that of Cl lone
115. C60 fullerene dissolve in toluene to produce pair electron
(1) Orange colour (2) Red colour
(4) All of these
(3) Blue colour (4) Purple colour
123. C60 molecule is known as buckminsterfullerene. It
116. Sheet silicate has general formula contains ‘X’ six-membered rings and ‘Y’ five
membered rings. Here
(1) !"#!$#!" %$ (2) !"#$!"
# %$
(1) X = 12, Y = 26
(3) "#!$%! (4) !"#!!
(2) X = 26, Y = 20
117. Carbon differs from rest of the members of its
group due to its (3) X = 20, Y = 12
(1) Smaller size (4) X = 12, Y = 20
(2) Higher electronegativity !!""#

124. ()# #(&&)'# * . What is A?
(3) Higher ionisation enthalpy
(1) C3O2 (2) C5O2
(4) All of these
(3) CO (4) CO2
118. In graphite each carbon atom is sp2 hybridised and
make three sigma bonds with three neighbouring 125. When borax is heated in a bunsen burner flame
carbon atoms. The fourth electron of carbon with CoO on a loop of platinum wire, then
(1) Forms single bond (1) A red coloured Co(BO3)2 bead is formed
(2) Forms a bond (2) A blue coloured Co(BO2)2 bead is formed
(3) Makes graphite a good conductor (3) A green coloured Co(BO2)3 bead is formed
(4) Both (2) & (3) (4) No reaction takes place
126. Halide of highest acidity is 134. Consider the following reaction :

(1) BF3 (2) BI3 Na2B4O7 x + y.
(3) BBr3 (4) BCl3 If x is sodium metaborate, then y is
127. AlCl3 on hydrolysis gives (1) NaBO2
(1) Al2O3 . H2O (2) Al(OH)3 (2) B2O5
(3) Al2O3 (4) AlCl3 . 6H2O (3) B2O3
128. The general formula of sheet silicate is (4) HBO2
(1) +$%&$ ,"!" (2) !"#!$# %"!" 135. In which of the following halide B–X bond length is
lowest?
(3) +$%!&&% ," (4) [SiO2]n (1) BF3 (2) BCl3
129. Which of the following compound contains (3) BBr3 (4) BI3
3-center-2-electron bond?
136. Equivalent mass of boric acid, if its molecular
(1) Al2Cl6 mass is M
(2) B2H6 !
(1) M (2)
(3) Cr2O72(–) "
(4) All of these !

(3) (4) 2M
"
130. In which pair, both compounds are amphoteric?
137. Incorrect statement about Borax is
(1) B2O3 and B(OH)3
(1) Boron is present in sp2 and sp3 hybrid state
(2) Al2O3 and Ga(OH)3
(2) 10 molecules of water present as water of
(3) Ga2O3 and In(OH)3 crystallisation
(4) TI2O and TIOH (3) Used in borax bead test
131. From the given reaction sequence find correct (4) Dissolves in H2O to produce alkaline solution
match
138. CO 2 dissolves in water to produce H 2CO 3 acid,
!"#$"%&'()*+ (),+(-(./!(-(/! which dissociates into two steps
!!" !!&!
)!+ 012/" !!!
"
! HCO3–(aq) + H3O+ (aq) ;
H2CO3(aq) + H2O #!!
#!$%&"
)3+(-(4./# Ka1
(1) A is Pb(NO3)2 (2) D is PbCrO4 !!!

"
HCO3–(aq) + H2O #!!
! CO32–(aq) + H3O+ (aq) ;
Ka2
(3) C is PbS (4) All are correct
The two ionization constant of H2CO3 are related
132. Boric acid is polymeric due to
as
(1) Its acidic nature
(1) Ka1 > Ka2
(2) The presence of hydrogen bonds
(2) Ka1 <<< Ka2
(3) Its monobasic nature
(3) Ka1 < Ka2
(4) Its geometry
(4) Ka1 = Ka2
133. Volume ratio of gasd evolved when aluminium
139. Hybrid state of C in CO2 and its dipole moment is
dissolves in dil. HCl and dilute NaOH respectively is
(1) sp2, =0 (2) sp, >0
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) sp, =0 (4) sp3, =0
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 3
140. Number of bonds, bonds and lone pairs in CO,
SECTION - B
respectively are
(1) 1, 2, 1 (2) 1, 2, 2
(3) 2, 1, 0 (4) 2, 1, 2 In the following questions, a statement of assertion
141. Which of the following involves formation of 8
membered ring structures? (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(1) SiO2 (2) Graphite assertion, then mark (1).
(3) Borazole (4) All of these (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
142. In silicones repeating unit is reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) R2CO (2) R2–SiO
(3) R2SiO2 (4) RSiO3 false, then mark (3).
143. Neutral oxide is (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) CO statements, then mark (4).
(2) CO2 1. A: Total number of coordinate bonds and

covalent bonds in borazine is 3 and 12
(3) SiO2 respectively.
(4) PbO2 R: Its structure is similar to benzene.
144. Most stable halide among the following is 2. A: Diamond is thermodynamically less stable
(1) CF4 than graphite.
(2) CCl4 R: Diamond has p - p bonds.
(3) CBr4 3. A : Boron always forms covalent bond.
(4) CI4 R : Boron has diagonal relationship with silicon.

4. A : AlF3 is almost insoluble in anhydrous HF but
145. Hybridization of Si in !"#"! is
dissolves in NaF.
(1) sp3 R : NaF produces free F– in molten state.
(2) dsp2 5. A : B – X bond length in BX 3 is shorter than
(3) sp3d2 expected value.
(4) sp3d3 R : p – p back bonding occurs between B and

X.
146. The unique ability of carbon to show the maximum
catenation is due to 6. A : Like C, Si cannot form SiO under normal
conditions.
(1) Absence of vacant d-orbital in outer orbit
R : Because of bigger size and low
(2) High electronegativity electronegativity, Si cannot form p – p bond.
(3) Strong C–C bond 7. A : Boric acid is a Lewis acid.
(4) Non-metallic nature R : Boric acid accepts one OH– to form B(OH)4–
147. Maximum covalency shown by boron is 8. A : Borax bead test is not suitable for Al(III).
(1) 6 R : Solution of borax is neutral in nature.
(2) 8 9. A : Trihalides of boron family fume in moist air.
(3) 2 R : Trihalides of group 13 elements are
(4) 4 hygroscopic.
10. A : Between SiCl4 and CCl4, only SiCl4 reacts 13. A : Tl+3 can be reduced easily to Tl+.
with H2O.
R : Tl shows inert pair effect.
R : SiCl4 is ionic and CCl4 is covalent.
11. A : Molten AlBr3 is a poor conductor of current. 14. A : Pyrosilicates contain two units of $%&'' joined
R : AlBr3 is a covalent compound, so does not along a corner containing oxygen atom.
dissociate into Al+3 and Br – completely.
R : In pyrosilicate hybridization of Si atom is sp.
12. A : Ge is refined by Zone refining method.
15. A : BCl3 and BF3 are Lewis acids.
R : In Ge impurities present are more soluble in
the molten state than in the solid state of the R : Both the compounds are electron deficient
metal. species.
!" !" !
Chapter 21
General Principles and Processes of
Isolation of Elements
7. Extraction of aluminium from bauxite containing

SECTION - A
silica as chief impurity is done preferably by
(1) Baeyer’s process
1. Bauxite, an ore of aluminium is purified by
(2) Hall’s process
(1) Hall’s process
(3) Serpeck’s process
(2) Serpeck’s process
(4) Hoope’s electrolytic process
(3) Bayer’s process
8. Which of the following is not a carbonate ore?
(4) All of these
(1) Siderite (2) Zincite
2. In the extraction of copper metal from sulphide ore,
the copper metal is formed by reduction of Cu2O (3) Calamine (4) Dolomite
with
9. Which of the following is not an ore of silver?
(1) FeO (2) FeS
(1) Pyrargyrite (2) Argentite
(3) Cu2S (4) CO
(3) Anglesite (4) All of these
3. If an ore is containing ZnS and PbS, the
depressant used is 10. Which of the following method is not used for
concentration of an ore?
(1) H2S (2) NaCN
(1) Froth floatation
(3) HgS (4) HCN
(2) Gravity separation
4. Which is mismatched?
(3) Magnetic separation
(1) Zincite – ZnO
(4) Amalgamation
(2) Calamine – ZnCO3
11. Liquation process is based upon difference
(3) Siderite – FeCO3
between
(4) Malachite – CuCO3
(1) Volatility
5. The slag obtained during the extraction of copper
from copper pyrites is composed mainly of (2) Fusibility
(1) Cu2S (2) FeSiO3 (3) Ductility
(3) CuSiO3 (4) SiO2 (4) Reaction rate with CO(g)
6. The ore having two different metal atoms is 12. Silica and chromite are respectively
(1) Haematite (1) Neutral refractories
(2) Galena (2) Neutral and basic refractories
(3) Magnetite (3) Acidic and neutral refractories
(4) Copper pyrites (4) Acidic and basic refractories
200 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
13. Which of the following may involve self reduction 22. Removal of impurities like sand, stones and other
process? useless silicates from an ore is called
(1) HgS + O2 Hg + SO2 (1) Concentration (2) Refining
(2) PbO + C Pb + CO2 (3) Separation (4) Roasting
(3) Fe2O3 + CO Fe + CO2 23. Carbon cannot be used in the reduction of Al2O3
(4) All of these because
14. For which of the following metals, distilation method (1) The enthalpy of formation of CO2 is more than
is used for purification? that of Al2O3
(1) Zn (2) Cd (2) Pure carbon is not easily available
(3) Hg (4) All of these (3) The enthalpy of formation of Al2O3 is very high
15. Identify the metal M which is present in its ore as (4) It is an expensive process
MFeS2 24. Flux used in the smelting of copper ore is
(1) Cu (2) Sn (1) Coke (2) Magnesia
(3) Pb (4) Zn (3) Silica (4) Lime stone
16. Magnesium oxide is used for the lining in steel 25. Which one of the following is an example of auto
making furnance because reduction process ?
(1) It is reduced to Mg metal easily (1) Fe3O4 + 4CO 3Fe + 4CO2
(2) It acts as a flux (2) 2Cu2O + Cu2S 6Cu + SO2
(3) It increases oxidizing power of steel (3) ZnO + CO Zn + CO2
(4) All of these (4) All of these
17. From wolframite, the impurity cassiterite is removed 26. Levigation method for the concentration of ore is
by used when
(1) Gravity separation method (1) Ore and impurities have different boiling points
(2) Magnetic separation method (2) Ore and impurities have different densities
(3) Hydrometallurgy (3) Ore and impurities have different affinities
(4) Pyrometallurgy towards oxygen
18. The metal which can be purified by Mond’s process (4) Ore and impurities have different melting points
is 27. Extraction of metals of I group is difficult due to
(1) Ni (2) Cu (i) High thermal stability of their compounds
(3) Al (4) All of these (ii) High reducing power of metals of group I
19. Which of the following is not purified by Van Arkel (iii) Their ability to react with water
method?
(1) (i) Only
(1) Si (2) Zr
(2) (i) & (ii) only
(3) Ti (4) Ni
(3) (iii) Only
20. During bessemerisation process impurities are
(4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(1) Oxidised (2) Reduced
28. Froth floatation process is based on
(3) Remains unchanged (4) Vaporised
(1) Specific gravity of the ore particles
21. Diaspore is an ore of aluminium having molecular
formula (2) Magnetic properties of the ore particle
(1) Al2O3.2H2O (2) Al2O3.H2O (3) Wetting properties of ore particles
(3) Al2O3 (4) NaAlO2 (4) Electrical properties of the ore particle
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 201
29. Van Arkel method of purification of metal involves 36. Willemite is an ore of
conversion of metal to a
(1) Zn (2) Mn
(1) Volatile stable compound
(3) Mg (4) Zr
(2) Volatile unstable compound
37. Which of the following is not an ore of copper?
(3) Non volatile stable compound
(1) Chalcopyrites (2) Malachite
(4) Non volatile unstable compound
(3) Azurite (4) Epsomite
30. Which is true about metallurgy of iron in blast
furnance? 38. Which of the following metal is extracted through
its complex formation method?
(1) First oxidation and then reduction
(1) Ag (2) Au
(2) First reduction and then oxidation
(3) Fe (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Only reduction
39. The reaction Cu2S + 2Cu2O 6Cu + SO2 is an
(4) Only oxidation example of
31. In Mac-Arthur forest cyanide process hot air is (1) Oxidation (2) Reduction
used for
(3) Auto reduction (4) Disproportionation
(1) Oxidation of Na2S into Na2SO4
40. Mercury is purified by
(2) Oxidation of Na2S into Na2S2O3
(1) Crystallisation (2) Distillation
(3) Reduction of Na2S2O3 into Na2S
(3) Froth floatation (4) Poling
(4) Reduction of Na2SO4 into Na2S
41. Which of the following is not an ore of calcium?
32. Of the following metals the one which cannot be
obtained by the electrolysis of the aqueous solution (1) Gypsum (2) Dolamite
of its salt? (3) Lime stone (4) Corundum
(1) Ag (2) Mg 42. Which of the following metal cannot be extracted
(3) Cu (4) Au by smelting?
33. Which of the following method is based on (1) Zn (2) Al

distribution law? (3) Pb (4) Fe
(1) Mond’s process (2) Parke’s process 43. Which is correct match?
(3) Cupellation process (4) Polling process (1) Aluminium : Calamine
34. The chemical composition of ‘slag’ formed during (2) Copper : Malachite
the smelting process in the extraction of copper is
(3) Magnesium : Bauxite
(1) Cu2O + FeS (2) FeSiO3
(4) Zinc : Carnallite
(3) CuFeS2 (4) Cu2S + FeO
44. When iron is red heated and suddenly cooled in
35. In the blast furnace at lower temperature, following water then iron becomes more hard and brittle. This
reaction take place process is known as
3A + CO 2B + CO2 (1) Care hardening (2) Nitriding
B + 4CO 3Fe + 4CO2 (3) Annealing (4) Quenching
Compound A and B respectively are 45. van Arkel method is used to refine
(1) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4 (1) Ga and In
(2) CaCO3 and CaO (2) Zr and Ti
(3) FeO and SiO2 (3) Ag and Au
(4) FeO and CaO (4) Ni and Fe
202 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
46. Which of the following pair of metals are refined by 52. The extraction of gold by leaching with NaCN
distillation? involves
(1) Sn and Fe (1) Oxidation
(2) Zn and Hg (2) Reduction
(3) Cu and Ag (3) Both oxidation and reduction
(4) Fe and Cu (4) Neither oxidation nor reduction
47. The slag obtained during the extraction of copper 53. Which of the following metal can be extracted by
from copper pyrite ore is auto reduction method?
(1) CaSiO3 (1) Au
(2) SiO2 (2) Ag
(3) CuSiO3 (3) Fe
(4) FeSiO3 (4) Pb
48. Copper matte contains
SECTION - B
(1) Cu2O and Cu2S
(2) CuO and CuS
(3) Cu2S and FeS (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(4) Cu2S and FeO (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
49. In Hall-Heroult process, the purified Al2O3 is fused
with
(1) Na3AlF6 (2) NaHCO3
(3) Na2CO3 (4) AgCl assertion, then mark (2).
50. Which of following is the reaction of calcination? (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(1) 2Ag + 2HCl + [O] 2AgCl + H2O (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(2) 2ZnS + 3O2 2ZnO + 2SO2
1. A : Tin is purified by liquation.
(3) MgCO3 MgO + CO2
R : Hg can be easily vapourised.
(4) 2Zn + O2 2ZnO 2. A : In smelting, the roasted ore is heated with
powdered coke in presence of flux.
51. During electrorefining of copper, gold may be
recovered from R : Oxides are reduced to metals by C or CO and
impurities are removed as slag.
(1) Electrolyte
3. A : During metallurgy of aluminium, cryolite is
(2) Anode mud added with bauxite.
(3) Cathode mud R : Cryolite is a fusion supportive, it increases
(4) Cathode conductivity of bauxite.
!" !" !
Chapter 22
d & f - Block Elements
5. Which triad belongs to same period?

SECTION - A
(1) Cu, Ag, Au (2) Fe, Co, Ni
(3) Zn, Cd, Hg (4) All of these
1. Which of the following metal ion is having
magnetic moment 5.95 B.M.? 6. Total number of elements of 3d (horizontal row)
+ 4d (horizontal row) will be
(1) Ti3+ (2) Mn2+
(1) 28 (2) 18
(3) Cu2+ (4) Cr2+
(3) 20 (4) 14
7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
(1) The green manganate ion is paramagnetic and
when a mixture of NaCl and K 2Cr 2O7 is gently
tetrahedral
warmed with conc. H2SO4?
(2) The green manganate ion is diamagnetic and
(1) The vapour when passed into NaOH solution
tetrahedral
gives a yellow solution of Na2CrO4
(3) The purple permanganate ion is diamagnetic
(2) Chlorine gas is evolved
and tetrahedral
(3) Chromyl chloride is formed
(4) KMnO4 is strongest oxidising agent in acidic
medium (4) Both (1) & (3)
3. Reduction of permanganate ion is represented by 8. Among the following outermost electronic
half reactions given below configurations of transition metals, which shows
the highest oxidation state?
Alkaline : MnO4– + e– MnO42–
(1) 3d 5, 4s2 (2) 5d 7, 6s2
Neutral : MnO4– + 4H+ + 3e– MnO2 + 2H2O
(3) 5d 6, 6s2 (4) 4d 10, 5s1
Acidic : MnO 4– + 8H + + 5e – Mn 2+ +
!"!
4H2O 9. !"#"$%&"#"%! ' 3
KMnO4 is most powerful oxidising agent in ()**+ 2/)2.*"5.6,7
,-.-/)*0 2)891",):9;6.
(1) Acidic medium ,-12-/+0
#$%&'
(2) Neutral medium
(3) Alkaline medium 4
(4) Equal in all A and D in above reaction is
4. Correct order of magnetic moment for Mn2+, V2+, (1) K2MnO4, KMnO4 (2) MnSO4, K2MnO4
Fe2+, Ti2+ is (3) MnO2, KMnO4 (4) MnO2, K2MnO4
(1) Ti2+ = V2+ = Mn2+ = Fe2+ 10. In the first transition series, the dip in the melting
(2) V2+ < Ti2+ < Mn2+ < Fe2+ point is observed in
(3) Ti2+ < V2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+ (1) Cr (2) Mn
(4) Ti2+ < V2+ < Mn2+ < Fe2+ (3) Fe (4) Co
204 d & f - Block Elements Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
11. The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced by 1 mole 17. In the titration of Fe2+ ion with KMnO 4 in acidic
of SO2 in acidic medium is medium, which of the following acid can be used?
! ! (1) dil. HCl (2) dil. H2SO4
(1) (2)
" " (3) dil. HNO3 (4) All of these
# ! &'( %!
(3) (4) 18. %&'() $#" !
" # !"#!$$ !"#!$$
12. A solution of K2Cr2O7 and sulphuric acid react with The spin only magnetic moment of B is
H 2 O2 to produce blue coloured compound (1) 5.916 (2) 1.1
which is soluble in ether and produces blue colour (3) 3.2 (4) 4.95
solution. Which of the following statements are
19. In moist air, copper corrodes to produce a green
correct regarding compound ? layer on its surface. The formula of green layer is
A. The oxidation state of Cr in this compound is (1) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (2) (CuCO3)2.Cu(OH)2
+6
(3) CuCO3.Cu2O (4) (CuCO3)2Cu2O
B. This compound has 2 peroxy linkage
20. Which of the following species has maximum
C. The hybridization of Cr in is sp3d2 tendency to form complexes?
D. It is strongest base among all compound of (1) La3+ (2) Lu3+

chromium (3) Gd3+ (4) Ce3+
(1) A and B are correct 21. Chromyl chloride when dissolved in NaOH solution
(2) A, B and C are correct gives yellow solution. The yellow solution contains
(3) A, B & D are correct (1) Cr2O72– ions (2) CrO42– ions
(4) A & D are correct (3) CrO5 (4) Cr2O3
13. Which is not the characteristic of the transition 22. The equivalent mass of KMnO4 in acidic medium,
metals? alkaline medium and neutral medium respectively
(if molecular mass is M)
(1) They show variable oxidation state
" " " ! !
(2) They form coloured compounds (1) # # (2) " "!
% $ ! $ #
(3) They have low enthalpy of atomisation
" " " "
(3) #"# (4) "# #
(4) They act as good catalysts $ ! ! $
14. On adding NaOH solution to the aqueous solution 23. O3 cannot be used for oxidation of
of K2Cr2O7, the colour of the solution changes from
(1) KI (2) FeSO4
(1) Orange to yellow (2) Yellow to orange
(3) KMnO4 (4) K2MnO4
(3) Orange to red (4) Yellow to pink
24. For which of the following ions, the colour is not
15. The electronic configuration of actinoids can not be due to d-d transition?
assigned with accuracy on the basis of Aufbau
(1) CrO4–2 (2) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
principle because of
(3) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ (4) [CoF6]3–
(1) Overlapping of inner orbitals
25. Iron is rendered passive by treatment with
(2) Free movement of electrons over all the orbitals
concentrated
(3) Small energy difference between 5f and 6d
(1) HCl (2) H2SO4
levels
(3) H3PO4 (4) HNO3
(4) Lanthanoid contraction
26. In the reaction given below what is true about the
16. If ‘x’ is the number of unpaired electrons, the
missing substance?
magnetic moment (in Bohr magneton) is given by
MnO2 + 4HCN Mn(CN)2 + ...... + 2H2O
(1) #$ # "! (2) #$ # "!
(1) It is pseudohalogen (2) It is hydrogen
(3) #$ # "! (4) #$ # "! (3) It is chalcogen (4) It is methane
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) d & f - Block Elements 205
27. Ammonium dichromate on heating gives 35. Amongst CuCl2.2H2O, Cr2O3, Sc2O3, the colourless
(1) Chromic acid and ammonia species is/are
(1) Cr2O3 and Sc2O3
(2) Chromium sesquioxide and nitrogen
(2) Sc2O3 and CuCl2.2H2O
(3) Chromium sesquioxide and ammonia
(3) Sc2O3
(4) Chromic acid and nitrogen
(4) Cr2O3 and CuCl2.2H2O
28. The correct order of acidic strength of CO2, CuO,
CaO, H2O is 36. The element A, B, C and D have atomic number
23, 24, 25, 26 respectively. Which one has
(1) CaO < CuO < H2O < CO2
maximum second ionization potential?
(2) H2O < CuO < CaO < CO2
(1) A (2) B
(3) CaO < H2O < CuO < CO2
(3) C (4) D
(4) H2O < CO2 < CaO < CuO
37. The lanthanoid which shows +4 oxidation state is
29. When excess of KI is added to aqueous CuSO4,
(1) Lu (2) Ce
the solution acquires dark brown colouration. This
is due to the formation of (3) Pm (4) Yb
(1) CuI2(s) (2) Cu2I2(s) 38. The element of 3d, 4d & 5d series with highest
melting point are respectively
(3) I3–(aq) (4) I2(s)
(1) Mn, Mo, W (2) Mn, Tc, W
30. A complex of certain metal has the magnetic
moment of 4.91 BM where as another complex of (3) Cr, Tc, W (4) Cr, Mo, W
same metal with same oxidation state has zero 39. Among the following transition metal ions the one
magnetic moment. The metal ion would be with lowest and highest magnetic moment is
(1) Co+2 (2) Mn2+ respectively
(3) Fe3+ (4) Fe2+ Cr+2, Ti+2, Cu+2, V+2
31. Correct order of oxidising power of some oxidising (1) Cr+2, V+2
agents is (2) Cu+2, Cr+2
(1) $%##! !""#$" ! !"#"#! (3) Cu+2, Ti+2
(2) !""# "$ ! !"#"#! $%##! (4) All have same magnetic moment
40. For the following sequence of reactions
(3) !"#"#! !""#$"! $%##!
(i) Chromite ore + Na2CO 3 + O2 [A] + Fe2O3 +
(4) $%##! !"#"#! !""#$"! CO2
32. The number of peroxide linkages in K3CrO8 is (ii) [A] + 2H+ [B] + 2Na+ + H2O
(1) 1 (2) 2 (iii) [B] + 2KCl [C] + NaCl
(3) 3 (4) 4 [A], [B], [C] respectively are
0 (1) Na2Cr2O7, Na2CrO4, K2CrO4
33. The element which does not show d configuration
in its highest oxidation state (2) Na2Cr2O4, Na2Cr2O7, K2CrO4
(1) V (2) Mn (3) Na2CrO4, Na2Cr2O7, K2Cr2O7
(3) Cr (4) Fe (4) NaCrO4, K2CrO4, K2Cr2O7
34. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 41. CuSO4 reacts with excess of KCN to form
(1) The highest oxidation state shown by (1) Cu(CN) (2) Cu(CN)2
transition element is +8
(3) K3[Cu(CN)4] (4) K4[Cu( CN)4]
(2) Sc, Y and La do not show variable oxidation
state 42. Pyrolusite when fused with KOH and oxidised with
air, it forms
(3) Potassium dichromate is more soluble than
sodium dichromate (1) Mn3O4 (2) KMnO4
(4) Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solution (3) K2MnO4 (4) MnO2
43. Among the following transition metal oxides, the 52. The correct order of melting point is
one which is most and least basic are respectively
(1) Mn > Fe > Cr (2) Cr > Fe > Mn
CrO, VO, FeO, TiO
(1) TiO, VO (2) TiO, FeO (3) Fe > Mn > Cr (4) Fe > Cr > Mn
(3) FeO, TiO (4) FeO, CrO 53. Which of the following oxide is most acidic?
44. Blue vitriol on strong heating gives anhydrous (1) MnO2 (2) Mn2O7
compound which on reaction with KI solution gives
(3) ZnO (4) V2O3
white precipitate of
(1) CuI2 (2) Cu2I2
(3) CuI3 (4) CuSO4 (1) KCN is used as depressant in the separation of
mixture of PbS and ZnS
45. In the reaction
(2) Highest oxidation state of transition metal
4M + 8CN– + 2H2O + O2 4[M(CN)2]– + 4OH– shown is +8
The metal ‘M’ is
(3) Lanthanoids form stable compounds in +4 state
(1) Cu (2) Fe
(4) Compounds of zinc are diamagnetic
(3) Au (4) Zn
!"! #$" %&' (! )$#
46. When K2Cr2O7 is heated with alkali, it gives 55. Ferrochrome $!
!"# %*' +#,
!$#%
(1) CrO42– (2) Cr2O3
Then which of the following is correctly given?
(3) Cr (4) None of these
(1) (B) in alkaline medium changes colour from
47. The incorrect statement among the following is yellow to orange
(1) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3 (2) (B) in acidic medium give blue colour on
(2) In lanthanide series, ionic radii of Ln3+ ion reaction with H2O2
decrease
(3) (B) on reaction with PbCl2 in acidic medium
(3) La is actually an element of transition series give reddish brown colour because of formation
rather than lanthanide series of CrO2Cl2
(4) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because of (4) All of these
lanthanide contraction
56. Which of the following compound does not give
48. Which of the following ionic species will impart chromyl chloride test?
colour to aqueous solution?
(1) AgCl (2) CaCl2
(1) Ti4+ (2) Cu+
(3) NaCl (4) All of these
(3) Zn2+ (4) Cr3+
57. When calomel reacts with NH4OH, we get
49. Which of the following is correct order of m.p.?
(1) Ti < V < Cr < Mn (1) Hg(NH2)Cl (2) NH2 – Hg – Hg – Cl
(2) Fe < Co < Ni < Cu (3) Hg2O (4) HgO

(3) Mn < Fe > Co > Ni 58. In the standardization of Na2S2O3 using K2Cr2O7 in
iodometry, the equivalent mass of K2Cr2O7 is
(4) Cr < Mn < Fe < Co
50. An explosion takes place, on heating concentrated !"#$%&#'()*'++
H2SO4 with KMnO4 due to formation of (1)
,
(1) Mn2O7 (2) MnO2
!"#$%&#'()*'++
(3) MnSO4 (4) Mn2(SO4)3 (2)
-
51. The nature of hydride formed by the element of
atomic number 24 is !"#$%&#'()*'++
(3)
(1) Ionic hydride (2) Covalent hydride .
(3) Interstitial hydride (4) No hydride (4) Same as molecular mass
59. K2Cr2O7 A + B + O2 69. Gold forms chloroauric acid when reacts with
Compound ‘A and B’ respectively are (1) Conc. HCl (2) Conc. HNO3
(1) K2CrO4 and Cr2O3 (2) K2CrO4 and CrO3 (3) Conc. H2SO4 (4) Aqua regia
(3) Cr2O3 and KO2 (4) No reaction
70. How many d-block elements have the ability to
60. Platinum black is evolve hydrogen gas from 2% nitric acid?
(1) Pt mixed with CuO
(1) 1 (2) 2
(2) Pt coated with black paint
(3) Pt powder formed by reduction of PtCl4 (3) 18 (4) 4
!
(4) Pt powder 71. !"#$ " %& '"#$" "#$! (&! $)
61. The separation of which of the following ions is not The value of x, y and z respectively for the
possible by H2S in acidic medium? balanced chemical reaction is
(1) Pb2+, Bi3+ (2) Cd2+, Co2+
(1) 4, 3 & 2 (2) 3, 2 & 1
(3) Cu2+, Ni2+ (4) Cu2+, Zn2+
(3) 4, 3 & 3 (4) 3, 2 & 2
62. Which metal is protected by layer of its own
oxide? 72. Which of the following element is radioactive?
(1) Al (2) Pt (1) 57La (2) 61Pm
(3) Au (4) Ag
(3) 63Eu (4) 68Er
63. Coloured compound is
73. Which of the two element have least difference in
(1) ZnCO3 (2) CaSO4
atomic radii?
(3) TiCl4 (4) Ni (dmg)2
(1) Ti, Fe (2) Zr, Hf
64. The oxidation state of Ag in Tollen’s reagent is
(1) +1 (2) +2 (3) Ca, Ba (4) Li, Na
(3) 0 (4) +1.5 74. The pair in which both member have same
65. Order of thermal stability of ZnO, HgO and CdO is magnetic moment is
(1) HgO < CdO < ZnO (2) CdO < HgO < ZnO (1) Mn2+, Fe2+ (2) Ni2+, Cu2+
(3) HgO > CdO > ZnO (4) ZnO < HgO < CdO (3) Co3+, Mn2+ (4) Co3+, Fe2+
66. What will be the nature of hydrides formed by
75. Which of the following element belongs to actinide
elements having electronic configuration [Ne]3s1,
series?
[Ne]3s23p2 and [Ar]4s13d 5 respectively?
(1) Ionic, covalent, interstitial (1) La
(2) Covalent, interstitial, ionic (2) Gd
(3) Covalent, interstitial, covalent (3) Lu
(4) Ionic, covalent, covalent
(4) Th
67. Which of the following compound is coloured due
to charge transfer? 76. Find the correct statement about given reaction
(1) KMnO4 (2) K2Cr2O7 !"# $%&'()*%+,-,
!"#$%&'()* +#**,-'$%&)($,-
(3) Cu2O (4) All of these /01
68. Which of the following is the consequence of !./012,-'//3&4-536
lanthanoids contraction? /31 !&#.%*-'$%&)($,
/21
(1) Difficulty in the separation of lanthanoids
(2) Similarity in size of elements belonging to (1) (A) is paramagnetic
same group of second and third transition (2) All bond lengths are equal in (B) having p –d
series character
(3) Basic strength of hydroxides decrease from
(3) Oxidation state of I in (C) is +5
La(OH)3 to Lu(OH)3
(4) All of these (4) All of these
77. Titanium shows magnetic moment of 1.73 BM in its 88. On addition of KMnO4 to well cooled conc. H2SO4,
compound. What is the oxidation state of Ti in the the compound formed which decomposes on
compound? warming is
(1) + 1 (2) + 4 (1) MnO3 (2) Mn3O4
(3) + 3 (4) + 2 (3) Mn2O7 (4) MnO3+
78. Which of the following has maximum number of 89. In dichromate ion
unpaired electron? (1) 4, Cr – O bonds are equivalent
(1) Zn (2) Fe2+ (2) 6, Cr – O bonds are equivalent
(3) Fe (4) Fe3+ (3) 3, Cr – O bonds are equivalent
79. Which metal is known as non-typical transition (4) All Cr – O bonds are equivalent
metal?
90. Which of the following compounds is both coloured
(1) Tungsten (2) Platinum and paramagnetic?
(3) Iron (4) Cadmium (1) VOSO4 (2) Cu2O
80. In the equation, (3) K2Cr2O7 (4) KMnO4
4M + 8CN– + 2H2O + O2 4[M(CN)2]– + 4OH– 91. The correct increasing order of radii
The metal M is (1) Yb+3 < Pm+3 < Ce+3 < La+3
(1) Gold (2) Copper (2) Ce+3 < Yb+3 < Pm+3 < La+3
(3) Silver (4) Both (1) & (3) (3) Yb+3 < Pm+3 < La+3 < Ce+3
(4) Pm+3 < La+3 < Ce+3 < Yb+3
81. Reaction of Zn with cold and very dilute nitric acid
yields 92. Which of the following statements is incorrect
about cerium? (Z = 58)
(1) Zn(NO3)2 + N2O (2) Zn(NO3)2 + NO
(1) The oxidation state of cerium are +3 and +4
(3) Zn(NO3)2 + NH4NO3 (4) Zn(NO3)2 + NO2
(2) Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidizing agent
82. Non-typical transition elements are
(3) The +3 oxidation state of cerium is not known
(1) Fe, Co and Ni (2) Sc, Y, La and Ac in solution
(3) Ti, Zr and Hf (4) All of these (4) The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more
83. Which transition metal has lowest melting point? stable than +4 oxidation state
(1) Cr (2) Mn 93. What would be the oxidation state of chromium in

the final product formed by the reaction between KI
(3) Fe (4) Co and acidified K2Cr2O7?
84. On heating, KMnO4 is not converted into (1) + 6 (2) + 4
(1) K2MnO4 (2) MnO2 (3) + 3 (4) + 2
(3) O2 (4) MnO 94. Metals usually do not occur in nature as nitrate
because
85. When gold is reacted with aqua regia then it is
converted into (1) Metal nitrates are insoluble in water
(1) HAuCl4 (2) AuCl3 (2) All metal nitrates are volatile
(3) AuCl (4) No reaction (3) Metal nitrates are soluble in water
86. Most paramagnetic species is (4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) FeSO4 (2) NiCl2 95. In the reaction,
(3) Zn(NO3)2 (4) Cr2(SO4)3 K2Cr2O7+14 HCl 2KCl+2CrCl3+3Cl2+7H2O
87. Which of the following sulphide is not black? how many moles of HCl act as reducing agent in
balanced chemical equation?
(1) ZnS (2) HgS
(1) 14 (2) 8
(3) Ag2S (4) CuS
(3) 6 (4) 5
96. Which of the following statement is correct?
SECTION - B
(1) Actinoids have greater tendency to form
complex than lanthanoids Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(2) Ce exhibit +3 and +5 oxidation states In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(3) Actinoids are non-radioactive
(4) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lr(OH)3 (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
97. Element of which of the following pair of groups in assertion, then mark (1).
periodic table are called non-typical transition
elements? (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(1) 3 and 5 (2) 5 and 12
(3) 6 and 8 (4) 3 and 12
98. Which of the following compound is coloured due false, then mark (3).
to charge transfer?
(1) CuSO4.5H2O (2) Cu2O statements, then mark (4).
(3) CuCl2 (4) All of these 1. A : E° value for the Mn 3+/Mn 2+ is much more
positive than that of Cr3+/Cr2+.
99. !"!#"! is orange coloured due to
R : Third ionisation energy of Mn is very high.
(1) d-d transition
2. A : Mn2+ shows a magnetic moment of 5.92 B.M.
(2) Resonance
R : This is due to the presence of four unpaired
(3) Charge transfer spectra electrons in 3d orbitals.
(4) Hydration 3. A : Ce4+ is good oxidizing agent.
100. What is the common oxidation state for lanthanoids ? R : Sm2+ is a good reducing agent.
(1) +4 (2) +3 4. A : In weakly alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidizes
(3) +2 (4) +1 iodides to iodates.
101. Which of the following set of oxides are R : KMnO4 behaves as stronger oxidising agent in
amphoteric in nature ? strongly alkaline medium than in acidic
(1) ZnO, Cr2O3 (2) Mn2O7, V2O5 medium.
(3) V2O5, CrO (4) Cr2O3, Mn2O7 5. A : Ce 4+ is used as an oxidising agent in

volumetric analysis.
102. The element ‘La’ and ‘Ac’ are
R : Ce4+ has tendency of attaining +3 oxidation
(1) s-block element (2) p-block element state.
(3) d-block element (4) f-block element 6. A : KMnO4 is stored in dark coloured bottles.
103. Which of the following statement is incorrect? R : On heating with alkalies KMnO4 is converted to
(1) The purple colour of KMnO 4 is due to manganate.
d-d-transition
7. A : La(OH)3 is more basic than Lu(OH)3 .
(2) Oxidation state of Cr is +6 in dichromate ion
R : The basic character of oxides and hydroxides
and +3 in chromate ion
decreases from La(OH)3 to Lu(OH)3 .
(3) K2Cr2O7 is a powerful reducing reagent
8. A : HgCl2 and SnCl2 exist together in aqueous
(4) All are incorrect solution.
104. The spin only magnetic moment of [Cr(CO)6] is R : On heating HgCl2 is liquefied.
(1) 0 9. A : White tin vessels cannot be used in cold
countries.
(2) 4.90 BM
R : At low temperature white tin changes into grey
(3) 2.84 BM
tin, which is very brittle and easily comes into
(4) 5.92 BM powdered form.
10. A : Elements of group 3 and group 12 of periodic R : Equivalent weight of KMnO4 is lowest in acidic
table are called non-typical transition elements. medium.
R : All transition elements are d-block elements
13. A : Cr2O72– ions have orange colour.
but all d-block elements are not transition
elements. R : It is due to presence of unpaired electron.
11. A : All the actinoids are strong reducing agents. 14. A : Actinoids exhibit variable oxidation states.
R : All the actinoids are radioactive.
R : 5f, 6d and 7s sub-shells are of comparable
12. A : KMnO4 acts as oxidizing agent in acidic, basic
energies.
and alkaline medium.
!" !" !
Chapter 23
Coordination Compounds
6. Maximum number of isomers are formed by

SECTION - A
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
(2) [Fe(C2O4)3]3–
1. Coordination number is maximum in
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (3) [Pt(NH3)BrCl(NO2)]SO4
(2) [Cr(C2O4)3]3– (4) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)2]Cl3

(3) [CoCl3(H2O)3] 7. What is the overall dissociation constant for the
[M(NH3)4]2+ ion if for this complex is 2.1 × 1013?
(4) All have same coordination number
2. acid ligands is (1) 2.1 × 1013 (2) 1.05 × 1013
(1) CO (2) NO2 (3) 4.2 × 1013 (4) 4.7 × 10–14
(3) CO32– (4) NH3 8. The number of secondary and primary valency for
3. Which of the following compound can give 2 mole Pentaamminechloridocobalt(III) chloride is
AgCl per mole of the compound with excess of (1) 6, 2 (2) 5, 2
AgNO3?
(3) 6, 3 (4) 5, 3
(1) NiCl2 6H2O (2) CuCl2 4NH3
9. dmg + NiCl2 + NH4OH Complex (A) + NH4Cl + H2O
(3) CoCl3 5NH3 (4) All of these
4. Find the correct statement about the ligand given The hybridisation, magnetic character and oxidation
below state of nickel in complex ! are respectively
"!!"&&" (1) dsp2, diamagnetic, + 2
!!"#$#% "
"!!"&&
(2) dsp2, paramagnetic, + 2
"!!"&&"
!!"#$#% (3) sp3, diamagnetic, 0
"!!"&&"
I. This is ethylenediamine tetraacetate ion (4) sp3, paramagnetic, + 2
II. This is flexidentate ligand 10. Which of the following is an example of co-
ordination isomerism?
III. This ligand forms optically active complex with
Co3+ (1) [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br
IV. This ligand is used for estimation of hardness (2) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2
of water
(3) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]
(1) I, II (2) II, III
(3) I, II, III (4) I, II, III, IV (4) All of these
5. The oxidation state of iron in Fe[ 5 – (C5H5)2] is 11. Which of the following is a -complex?
(1) + 1 (2) + 3 (1) [Fe(n5 – C5H5)2] (2) [CoCl2(en)2]SO4

(3) + 2 (4) – 3 (3) [CuCl4]2– (4) Li[AlH4]
212 Coordination Compounds Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
12. What is the secondary valency of cobalt in the 21. In the complex [Pt(Py) 4] [PtCl 4], the oxidation
complex [Co(en)2F2]ClO4 ? number of Pt atom in former and later part of the
compound are respectively
(1) 4 (2) 5
(1) 0 and 0 (2) +4 and +2
(3) 3 (4) 6
(3) +2 and +2 (4) 0 and +4
13. Which of the following is incorrect?
22. Coordination number of Cr is 6. A complex entity
(1) [NiCl4]2– is paramagnetic
with C2O42–, en and superoxide as ligand is
(2) [Fe(CN)6]3– is paramagnetic
[Cr(C2O4)x (en)y (O2)z]+. The ratio x : y : z is
(3) [Ni(CN)4]2– is diamagnetic
(1) 1 : 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 : 1
(4) [Fe(CN)6]4– is strongly paramagnetic
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 : 1
14. Highest magnetic moment is possessed by 23. In the complex, potassium pentacyanonitrosyl
(1) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 vanadate (0), the number of counter ions per
molecule and the coordination number of central
(3) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ (4) Cis-platin
metal ion are respectively
15. Total number of geometrical isomers for
(1) 5, 5 (2) 4, 6
[Pt(NH3)(Br)(Cl)(I)(NO2)(py)] is
(3) 5, 6 (4) 4, 4
(1) 6 (2) 36
24. The complexes [M(CO)5(SCN)]Cl and [Mn(CO)5
(3) 10 (4) 15
(NCS)]Cl are
16. Organometallic compound is
(1) Resonating forms (2) Linkage isomers
(1) Na2CO3 (2) Na – O – CH3
(3) Co-ordination isomers (4) Ionisation isomers
(3) NaNH2 (4) Na2C2 25. Which of the following square planar complexes
17. The effective atomic number of Fe in Fe(CO)5 is will be able to show geometrical isomerism?
(1) 34 (2) 26 (1) MX4 (2) MX3Y
(3) 36 (4) 54 (3) M(XX )2 (4) M(YY)2
18. The coordination compound [Co(NH 3)6][Cr(CN)6] 26. The solution of which of the following complexes will
can exhibit be non-conducting?
(1) Hydrate isomerism !% #$! !# !#
(2) Ionisation isomerism #$! #$! $%! $%!
(1) !" !% (2) !"
(3) Coordination isomerism
#$! #$! $%! $%!
(4) All of these !% #$! !#
19. Which of the following statement(s) is correct? $%! !% #$!
(1) Bond length of C – O in metal carbonyl is less $%! !# #$! !%
than in CO molecular state (3) !" (4) !" !%
!# $%! #$! #$!
(2) Shape of [PtCl4]2– is square planar
!# #$!
(3) In square planar complexes, metal assumes
27. Arrange the following metal carbonyls in increasing
sp3 hybridization
order of bond length of CO
(4) The complex [Co(NH3)3Cl3] gives white ppt. with Ni(CO)4, [Co(CO)4]–, [Fe(CO)4]2–
AgNO3 solution I II III
20. Zinc but not copper is used for the recovery of Ag (1) III < I < II (2) I < II < III
from the complex [Ag(CN)2]– because
(3) I < III < II (4) III < II < I
(1) Zinc is cheaper
28. Which of the following complex has highest
(2) Zn is more powerful reducing agent magnetic moment?
(3) Cu does not form complex (1) [FeF6]3– (2) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) [Fe(CN)6]4– (4) [Ni(CN)4]2–
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Coordination Compounds 213
29. Among the divalent ions of first row of transition 37. Ferrocene is
element, the tendency to form stable complexes (1) Fe( 5
– C5H5)2 (2) Fe( 2
– C5H5)2
increases as
5 5
(3) Cr( – C5H5)2 (4) Os( – C5H5)2
(1) MnII < FeII < NiII < CuII
38. The hybridization of Ni in [NiCl4] and Pt in [PtCl4]–
–
(2) MnII > CuII > NiII > FeII respectively are
(3) CuII > MnII > FeII > NiII (1) sp3, sp3 (2) dsp2 and dsp2
(4) NiII > MnII > CuII > FeII (3) dsp2 and sp3 (4) sp3 and dsp2
30. In [Fe( 5 – C5H5)2] the co-ordination number and 39. The outer orbital complex is
oxidation state of iron are respectively
(1) [Cr (NH3)6]3+ (2) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(1) 10, +2 (2) 6, +3
(3) [V(H2O)6]3+ (4) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(3) 4, 0 (4) 4, +2
40. Select the correct statement
31. The stability constants of the complexes formed by (1) Flexidentate ligands can also be called
a metal ion (M2+) with NH3, CN–, H2O and en are ambidentate ligands
of the order of 1011, 1027, 1015 and 108 respectively.
Then (2) !" is a -acid ligand
!
(1) en is the strongest ligand
(3) Ambidentate ligands are monodentate ligands
(2) CN– is the strongest ligand
(4) [PtCl4]–2 is an outer orbital complex
(3) The strength of the ligands has no relationship
41. What are the oxidation states of Ni in the
with given values
complexes [Ni(dmg)2] & Ni(CO)4?
(4) All ligands are equally strong (1) +6, +4 (2) +2, 0
32. Dimethyl glyoxime reagent is used as co-ordinating (3) +2, +4 (4) +6, 0
reagent in the quantitative estimation of
42. Which is not an example of ambidentate ligands?
(1) Copper (2) Palladium
(1) !"#
(3) Silver (4) Nickel
(2) !"!
33. If a multidentate ligand is cyclic in nature and
there are no unfavourable steric factors, then the (3) !"
stability of complex is greatly enhanced. This is !"! !"!
called (4) " ! ! #! ! #! ! " ! !
(1) Ligand effect (2) Co-ordination effect 43. Which is an example of coordination isomerism?
(3) Macrocyclic effect (4) Synergic effect (1) [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]2+, [Co(ONO)(NH3)5]2+
34. The neutral binary complexes formed by metal and (2) [Co(NO3)(NH3)5]SO4, [Co(SO4)(NH3)5]NO3
CO ligands are collectively called (3) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3, [CrCl(H2O)5]Cl2.H2O
(1) Heteroleptic carbonyls (4) [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] & [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]
(2) Homoleptic carbonyls 44. Which is a diamagnetic complex?
(3) Polycarboxy complexes (1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
(4) Polynuclear complexes (2) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
35. Which of the following is a -acid ligand? (3) [Fe(CN)6]3–
(1) ONO– (2) CO (4) [Fe(CN)6]4–
(3) NO2– (4) CI– 45. What is the correct relationship of splitting of
tetrahedral and octahedral system?
36. The number of possible isomer for the complex ion
[Co en(Cl)2Br2]– is "
(1) t
=– 0
(2) t
= !
(1) 2 (2) 3 !
(3) 4 (4) 6 "

(3) 0
=4 t
(4) " !
!
46. What is the wrong statement regarding stability of 53. In which pair of complex the EAN of metal atom/
coordination compounds? ion is same?
(1) Greater the charge on central metal greater the (1) [Ni(en)2]2+, [Sc(H2O)6]3+
stability of the compound (2) [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Co(CN)6]3–
(2) Chelation increases stability (3) [Ni(CO)4], [Fe(CN)6]4–
(3) Conjugation on chelation decreases stability (4) [Ni(en)2]2+, [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(4) Stability is a thermodynamic concept 54. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
47. Which of the following is not the property of (1) Greater the stability constant of complex
Mn2(CO)10? greater is its stability
(1) 1 Mn–Mn bond (2) Greater the charge on the central metal ion
(2) 10 Mn–CO bond greater is the stability of complex
(3) It has two square pyramidal unit (3) Greater is the basic character of the ligand,
greater is the stability of the complex
(4) It is a liquid
(4) Chelate complexes have low stability constant
48. Irving-Williams order for increasing stability of
55. Which among the following complex is/are outer
complexes formed by Co, Ni, Cu and Fe in +2
orbital complex?
oxidation state is
(1) Co < Ni < Cu < Fe !"#$"%&# '!" (&'%$$ #"% !$
$%& #"" !
(2) Fe < Cu < Ni < Co %$
$"#"& ! %"#$' !& %
(3) Fe < Co < Ni < Cu #""" ! $"# !
(4) Ni < Co < Cu < Fe (1) II, III, IV (2) II, III only
49. [Pt(NH3)(py)(CN)(NO2)] can have maximum number (3) I, IV only (4) II only
of geometrical isomers equal to 56. Which of the following pairs contains only
(1) 2 (2) 3 tetrahedral complex?
(3) 4 (4) 5 (1) [ZnCl4]2– & [MnCl4]2–
50. Which one species is square planar in geometry? (2) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ & [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (2) [NiCl4]–2 (3) [MnCl4]2– & [Ni(CN)4]2–
(3) [Ni(CO)4] (4) [FeCl6]4– (4) [ZnCl4]2– & [Ni(CN)4]2–
51. The two complexes PtCl4·2NH3 and PtCl4·2KCl do 57. Which among the following complex will have zero
not give precipitate of AgCl when treated with dipole moment?
AgNO3. They give zero and three moles of ions %')("'& ) !( % !"# $%&'()*! +" ,-" .
respectively in solutions for one mole of complex. $"! #$$%
The structural formulae of both complexes are
*+,-. /%0*('1! &" "2" !
(1) [PtCl2(NH3)2]Cl2 and K2[PtCl6] respectively #$$$%
(2) [PtCl4(NH3)2] and K2[PtCl2(NH3)2] respectively (1) III only (2) I, III
(3) [PtCl4(NH3)2] and K2[PtCl6] respectively (3) I only (4) II, III
(4) [PtCl4]·2NH3 and [PtCl4]·2KCl respectively 58. Which of the following is/are correct regarding this
complex? [CrCl2 (OH)2 (NH3)2 ] –
52. The correct IUPAC name of [Pt(en)2Cl(ONO)]++ is
a. It shows geometrical isomerism
(1) Chlorodiethylenediaminenitritoplatinum(IV) ion
b. It shows optical isomerism
(2) Bis(ethylenediamine)chloronitro-o-platinum(IV)
ion c. It shows ionization isomerism
(3) Chloridobis (ethylenediamine) nitritoplatinum(IV) d. It shows hydrate isomerism

ion (1) a only (2) Both a & b
(4) Chlorodiethylenediaminenitro-o-platinum(IV) ion (3) a, b & c (4) a, b, c & d
59. Which of the following pair are having same 65. When CuSO4 is treated with excess of KCN, then
hybridization of central atom? which of the following is formed as final product?
(1) [PtCl4]2– and [NiCl4]2– (1) K3[Cu(CN)4 ] and (CN)2
(2) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ and [PtCl4]2– (2) K2[Cu(CN)4 ] and Cu2(CN)2
(3) [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]2– (3) K4[Cu(CN)6 ] and (CN)2
(4) All of these (4) K[Cu(CN)4 ] and Cu2(CN)2
60. The number of five membered and six membered 66. Which of the following type of complex can exhibit
ring that can be formed in Ni(dmg)2 respectively is facial and meridional isomers?
(1) 1, 1 (2) 2, 2 (1) MA4B2 (2) MA3B3

(3) 1, 2 (4) 2, 1 (3) MA2B2 (4) MABCDEF
61. Which type of isomerism is shown by cis 67. The EAN of Mn in Mn2(CO)10 is
[Co(en)2Br2]+?
(1) 35 (2) 38
(1) Geometrical and co-ordination
(3) 36 (4) 37
(2) Optical
68. Of the following complexes, the one with the
(3) Geometrical and linkage largest value of the crystal field splitting is
(4) Both (1) & (2) (1) [Fe(H2O)6 ]+3 (2) [Ru(CN)6 ]3–
62. Find the correct match (3) [Fe(H2O)6 ]+2 (4) [Fe(NH3)6 ]3+
Complex Nature 69. Magnetic moment of [Ag(CN)2]– is zero. How many
(1) K4[Fe(CN)6 ] Paramagnetic unpaired electrons are there?
(2) [FeF6 ]4– sp3d2 hybridisation (1) Zero (2) 4
(3) [Ni(CO)4 ] Square planar complex (3) 3 (4) 1
(4) [Cu(NH3)4 ]2+ Diamagnetic, square planar 70. The hybridisation of beryllium in the complex
[Be(H2O)4](NO3)2 is
complex
(1) sp (2) sp 2
63. Which is mismatched regarding spin only magnetic
moment of the complexes? (3) sp 3 (4) sp 3d 2
(1) [FeF6 ]3– = 5.92 BM 71. !"#"$!%&'(!)! - !"#%*+"("$%&'(!)"!- !"#%*+"(!"$!%&'()!%./0(

%,( %,,( %,,,(
(2) Cr(CO)6 = 0.00 BM
(3) [Ni(CN)4]2– = 0.00 BM Which of the following set of compounds is
optically active?
(4) cis Platin = 2.84 BM
(1) I & II only
64. Match the information given in Column-I and
Column-II (2) I & III only
Column-I Column-II (3) II & III only

(4) I, II & III
a. Brown ring (i) Fe4 [Fe(CN)6 ] 3
2 72. The total number of -bonds possible in [Ni(CO)4 ]
b. Prussian blue (ii) K[PtCl3( – C2H4)]
is
c. Zeiss’s salt (iii) (Ph3P)3RhCl
(1) 4 (2) 8
d. Wilkinson catalyst (iv) [Fe(H2O)5NO]+2
(3) 12 (4) 6
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
73. When O 2 reacts with PtF 6 , which one of the
(2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) following is formed?
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (1) O2 PtF6(–) (2) PtOF5
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (3) O2(–) PtF6 (4) PtOF4
74. Choose the correct statement 82. Identify the metal that form a tetrahedral complex
with Cl– ligand and of magnetic moment 5.91 BM
(1) In [NiCl4 ] – –, Ni has dsp2-hybridisation
in +2 oxidation state
(2) [PtCl2(NH3)2 ] has three geometrical isomers (1) Ni (2) Mn
possible
(3) Cr (4) Fe
(3) [Fe(CN)6 ] 4(–) is diamagnetic
83. Oxidation number and effective atomic number of
(4) [Cr(ox)3 ] 3(–) has three stereoisomers and two central metal ion in ferrocene respectively is
structural isomers possible (1) +1, 35 (2) +2, 35
75. [Pt(NH3)4Cl2 ]Br2 and [Pt(NH3)4Br2 ]Cl2 related to (3) +3, 36 (4) +2, 36
each other as
84. Which one of the following statements is true
(1) Optical isomers about [Cu(NH3)4]+2?
(2) Linkage isomers (1) The complex is tetrahedral
(3) Ionization isomers (2) Cu+2 in the complex is dsp2 hybridised
(4) Co-ordination isomers (3) Cu+2 in the complex is diamagnetic

(4) Both (2) & (3)
76. Identify the false statement
85. Identify incorrect statement
(1) The general electronic configuration of the
transition elements is (n – 1)d1 – 10ns1 – 2 (1) Tetrahedral complex containing two
unsymmetrical bidentate ligand can exhibit
(2) IUPAC name of K 3 [Al(C 2O4)3 ] is potassium optical activity as they lack plane of symmetry
tris (oxalato) aluminate (III)
(2) Zeise’s salt is an organometallic compound
(3) Oxidation state of Na in sodium amalgam is +1 containing C2H4 molecule as one of the ligand
(4) BF3 is weakest Lewis acid amongst all BX3 (3) EAN (effective atomic number) of Fe in its
complex is always 36
77. In [Fe(H2O)6 ] 2+, hybridization of the central atom
and geometry is (4) All of these
86. Dimethyl glyoxime gives a red precipitate with Ni2+
(1) sp 3d 2, octahedral (2) d 2sp 3, octahedral
which is used for its detection. To get this
(3) sp 3d, pentagonal (4) sp 3, tetrahedral precipitate readily, the best pH range is
78. The CFSE value of d 5 ion in a weak octahedral (1) < 1 (2) 2 – 3
ligand field is (3) 3 – 4 (4) 9 – 11
(1) –8 Dq (2) 4 Dq 87. The coordination number and primary valence of Cr
in trisoxalato chromium (III) ion is
(3) –6 Dq (4) 0 Dq
(1) 3, 3 (2) 6, 3
79. Which of the following can act as flexidentate
ligand? (3) 6, 6 (4) Unpredictable
(1) dipy (2) dmg 88. Which of the following has highest magnetic
moment?
(3) gly (4) edta4–
(1) K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) [Fe(H2O)6]SO4
80. The complex having square planar geometry is (3) K3[Fe(CN)6] (4) [Co(NH3)6]SO4
(1) [PtCl4]2– (2) [CuCl4]2– 89. What is the secondary valency of the metal in the
(3) [NiCl4]2– (4) All of these complex bis(ethane-1, 2-diammine) difluorido cobalt
(III) perchlorate?
81. The factors which can increase the stability of
(1) 4 (2) 2
complex is
(3) 3 (4) 6
(1) Presence of chelate rings
90. The complex with maximum number of
(2) Synergic effect stereoisomers is
(3) Macrocyclic effect (1) [PtCl3(C2H4)]– (2) [CuBr2Cl2]–2
(4) All of these (3) [Co(ox)3]–3 (4) [Cr(NH3)2 (en)2]+3
91. Facial and meridional isomerism is exhibited by 101. Which of the following complex can exhibit
which of the following complex? geometrical isomerism?
(1) MA4B2 (2) MA3B3 (1) [Pt(ox)2]–2 (2) [Pt(gly)2]
(3) M(AA)3 (4) M(AB)3 (3) [Pt(en)2]+2 (4) All of these
92. Low spin complex is formed by 102. The geometries of Ni(CO)4 and [Cu(NH3)4]+2 are
(1) sp3d2 hybridization (2) d 2sp 3 hybridization respectively
(3) sp3d hybridization (4) sp3 hybridization (1) Tetrahedral and square planar
93. In which of the following complex, central metal is (2) Both tetrahedral
dsp2 hybridized?
(3) Square planar and tetrahedral
(1) [PtCl4]2– (2) [NiCl4]2–
(4) Both square planar
(3) [CuCl4]2– (4) All of these
103. Which of the following complexes is the example
94. The coordination number and oxidation number of x of dsp2 hybridisation?
in the compound [x(SO4)(NH3)5]Cl will be
(1) [Ni(CO)4] (2) [Ni(CN)4]–2
(1) 6 and 4 (2) 10 and 3
(3) [Zn(NH3)4]+2 (4) [ZnCl4]2–
(3) 2 and 6 (4) 6 and 3
104. When cobalt (III) nitrite and potassium nitrite
95. In aqueous solution, complex [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] solutions are mixed in the molar ratio of 1 : 3, a
exists as compound is formed that gives 4 ions in the
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ and [Cr(CN)6]3– solution. The formula of the complex formed is
(2) [Co(NH3)6]2+ and [Cr(CN)6]2– (1) Co(NO2)3 2KNO2 (2) Co(NO2)3 3KNO2
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3– and [Cr(CN)6]3+ (3) K3[Co(NO2)6] (4) K[Co(NO2)4]
(4) Does not dissociate 105. The outer orbital complexes among the following
96. The geometry of [NiCl4]2– and [PtCl4]2– are are
(1) Tetrahedral I. [Co(CN)6]–3 II. [Fe(H2O)6]+2
(2) Square planar III. [Co(NH3)6]+3 IV. [CoF6]–3
(3) Square planar and tetrahedral respectively (1) II & IV (2) II & III
(4) Tetrahedral and square planar respectively (3) I & IV (4) I & II
97. Which of the following complex ion is expected to 106. The value of 'x' in the complex is
absorb visible light?
(#
(1) [Ni(CO)4] (2) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ !!"# $ %&
! "
(#
"
%&!"#!$" !'("$#
(3) [Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3]3+ (4) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (1) 5 (2) 2
98. Hybrid state of Sn in [Sn(OH)6]2– (3) 6 (4) 4
(1) sp3 (2) sp3d2
107. The spin only magnetic moment of metal ion having
(3) sp3d (4) sp3d3 d 8 system in square planar complex with strong
99. Amongst the following ions which one has the ligand field is
highest magnetic moment value? (1) Zero (2) 2.83 BM
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (3) 3.87 BM (4) 4.90 BM
(3) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ (4) [FeF6]3– 108. In complex MCl3 5H2O, the secondary valency of
100. The IUPAC name of the following complex metal is 6 and it has no molecule of water present
[(CO)3Fe(CO)3Fe(CO)3] is out of coordination sphere. Calculate the volume of
0.1 M AgNO3 solution needed to precipitate the free
(1) Tricarbonyl iron (0) - - tricarbonyl iron (0)
chloride ions in 200 ml of 0.01 M solution of the
(2) Non-carbonyl di iron (I) complex
(3) Hexacarbonyl iron (0) - - tricarbonyl iron (II) (1) 80 ml (2) 40 ml
(4) Tri- -carbonyl-bis (tricarbonyl iron (0)) (3) 20 ml (4) 120 ml
109. Cuprous chloride is insoluble in water but soluble (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
in solutions containing excess of chloride ion to false, then mark (3).
form soluble chloride complexes that may have
composition
(1) [CuCl2]– (2) [CuCl3]2–
3– 1. A: 0 depends upon the nature of ligand and
(3) [CuCl4] (4) All of these
charge of metal ion.
110. Which of the following is acid ligand?
R : d4 to d7 co-ordination entities are more stable
(1) CO (2) NO+
for strong field as compared to weak field
(3) CH2 = CH2 (4) All of these cases.
111. Which one of the following complexes should be
2. A : Metal carbonyls are organometallic
most stable ?
compounds.
(1) [CoF6]3– (2) [CoCl6]3–
R : Fe(CO)5 has trigonal bipyramidal geometry.
(3) [Co(C2O4)3]3(–) (4) [Co(H2O)]3(–)
112. fac-mer isomerism is exhibited by 3. A : (Ph3P)3RhCl is Wilkinson’s catalyst.
(1) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (2) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 R : (Ph3P)3RhCl can show optical isomerism but
(3) [Cr(ox)3]3– (4) [MnCl4]2– does not show geometrical isomerism.
113. Which type of isomerism is shown by both 4. A : [Cr(NH3)6 ] 3+ is paramagnetic.
complex A and B?
R : [Cr(NH3)6 ] 3+ shows d 2 sp3 hybridization.
[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)4Cl2].Cl.2H2O
5. A : Co-ordination number of Ni in Ni(CO)4 is 4.
(A) (B)
(1) Electronic isomerism (2) Hydrate isomerism R : The number of electron pairs accepted by the
transition metal is called coordination number
(3) Ionisation isomerism (4) No isomerism
of transition element in this compound.
114. Which of the following is most stable complex?
6. A : Geometrical isomerism is not observed in
(1) [Fe(CN)6]4– (2) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
complexes of co-ordination number 4 of
(3) [FeF6]3– (4) [Fe(NH3)6]3+ tetrahedral geometry.
115. Which one of the following complex is expected to
R : In tetrahedral complexes, any two ligands lie at
be of violet colour?
109.5°.
(1) !"#$%!&'" (! $)*' (2) !"#$%! &'" $()'*! $+,' 7. A : [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is a paramagnetic complex.
! !
(3) !"#$%! &'! $()'! * (4) !"#$%&'" ( $)*' R : Due to unavailability of empty 3d orbital it is
formed by sp3 hybridization.
116. Which one of the following complex has maximum
energy difference between t 2g and e g set of 8. A : Metal carbon bond in metal carbonyls possess
orbitals? both and character.
(1) !"#$"%" &# '! (2) !"#$%&! '" (! R : The metal to ligand bonding creates a synergic
effect which strengthens the bond between CO
(3) #$%&'(! )" *! (4) !)$%&! '" (! and metal.
9. A : The magnitude of ( t) in tetrahedral complex is
SECTION - B less than that in octahedral complex ( 0).
Assertion - Reason Type Questions !
R: ! " .
In the following questions, a statement of assertion "
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) 10. A : BaSO 4 is insoluble in water but soluble in
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the sodium salt of ethylene diamine tetra acetic
reason is the correct explanation of the acid.
assertion, then mark (1). R : BaSO4 is purely ionic nature.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the 11. A : [NiCl4]2(–) is square planar.
assertion, then mark (2). R : ‘Ni’ has dsp2 - hybridisation.
!" !" !
BOTANY
CHAPTER No. TOPIC PAGE No.
1. The Living World .................................................................................... 219 – 232
2. Plant Kingdom ........................................................................................ 233 – 254
3. The Cell Cycle and Cell Division ............................................................ 255 – 266
4. Transport in Plants ................................................................................. 267 – 278
5. Mineral Nutrition ...................................................................................... 279 – 288
6. Photosynthesis in Higher Plants ............................................................ 289 – 302
7. Respiration in Plants .............................................................................. 303 – 314
8. Plant Growth and Development ............................................................. 315 – 326
9. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production ................................... 327 – 334
10. Microbes in Human Welfare ................................................................... 335 – 342
11. Organisms and Populations .................................................................. 343 – 356
12. Biodiversity and Conservation ................................................................ 357 – 364
Chapter 1
The Living World
5. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t.

SECTION - A
taxonomic categories?
(1) Among seven obligate categories only four
1. Mark the incorrect one (w.r.t. taxonomic key)
categories were contributed by Linnaeus
(1) Based on contrasting characters
(2) Polymoniales has correlated families like
(2) Generally analytical in nature Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae
(3) Each statement is called couplet
(3) Family represents the group of closely related
(4) Used for identification of plants or animals genera
2. Animals, dogs and mammals represent (4) Sub species or variety can be treated as
(1) Taxa at different levels lowest unit of classification
(2) Taxonomic hierarchy 6. Taxonomical aids are helping hands of taxonomy,
(3) Taxa at equivalent level and two of them functions for ex-situ conservation
strategy, these are
(4) Categories at equivalent level
(1) Botanical garden and herbarium
3. Which of the following statement is not true w.r.t.
binomial nomenclature? (2) Zoological parks and museums
(1) No names are recognised prior to those used (3) Zoological parks and botanical gardens
by Linnaeus in 1785 in the 9th edition of
Systema Naturae (4) Museums and botanical gardens
(2) Generic name, species name and author 7. Living organisms exhibit distinctive characteristics
citation collectively form binomial epithet to differentiate from non living objects. Which one
of the following statements can be considered as
(3) Principle of priority is the most important of all
defining property of living things ?
the rules of ICBN
(4) If a species name has two or more words in (1) Increase in body mass as a criterion for growth
its name, a hyphen is put between these (2) Reproduction is synonymous with growth in
4. According to rules of binomial nomenclature unicellular organisms
(1) Generic name can be single or compound (3) Ability of living organisms to sense their
(2) Names of families and sub-families should be surroundings
based on name of type, genus and such (4) Metabolic reactions that can be demonstrated
families names are plural outside the body in cell-free system only
(3) Two species belonging to same genus can 8. First step of taxonomy is
have similar specific names
(1) Classification (2) Nomenclature
(4) Two genera in plants or animals can have the
same name (3) Identification (4) Characterisation
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
220 The Living World Last Leap For NEET (Part-II)
9. Select the group of taxons representing same 16. Growth can not be taken as a defining property of
category of taxonomic hierarchy. living organisms because
(1) sativum, tuberosum, indica (1) Non-living objects also exhibit growth by
accumulation of material on the surface
(2) Solanum, nilotica, Brassica
(2) Unicellular organisms also grow by cell division
(3) Potato, tomato, Fabaceae
(3) Growth occurs throughout the life span in
(4) Petunia, Datura, Solanaceae animals
10. Deposition is a last step of herbarium technique (4) A dead organism does not grow
which include arrangement of 17. Choose incorrect statement w.r.t. taxa
(1) Species folders (2) Genus folders (1) Term given by H. J. Lam for plants
(3) Sub-species folders (4) Varieties folders (2) It is abstract term and represents rank in
11. Which one of the following taxonomical aids is hierarchy
useful in providing information for the actual (3) Can indicate categories at very different levels
account of habitat and distribution of plants of a (4) Mammals and dogs represent taxa at different
given area? levels
(1) Manuals (2) Monographs 18. Which statement is incorrect w.r.t. genus?
(3) Flora (4) Couplet (1) Each genus may have one or more than one
12. Biologists have established certain procedures and specific epithets
techniques to store and preserve the information as (2) It comprises a group of related species
well as specimens. Amongst these which one has (3) It has more characters in common in
collection of both preserved plant and animal comparison to species of other genera
specimens?
(4) Potato and brinjal belong to different genus
(1) Zoological parks (2) Herbarium
19. Find odd one out for taxonomic keys
(3) Museum (4) Botanical gardens (1) Statement in key is called lead
13. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. living organisms (2) Generally analytical in nature
(1) Growth and cellular organisation are (3) Separate taxonomic keys are not needed for
considered as defining properties of living each taxonomic category
organisms
(4) Concept of key was developed by John Ray
(2) Reproduction can be an all inclusive defining 20. Hominidae, Anacardiaceae, Muscidae and Poaceae
characteristic of living organisms belong to
(3) Living organisms are self replicating, self (1) Same family (2) Same order
regulating and evolving interacting systems
(3) Same category (4) Kingdom animalia
(4) Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are living 21. Taxonomic keys are based on the contrasting
things characters in a pair and each statement in the key
14. Study of diversity of organisms and evolutionary is called
relationship amongst them on the basis of all (1) Couplet (2) Lead
possible characters is called as
(3) Grade (4) Clade
(1) Taxonomy (2) Systematics
22. Choose the wrong statement w.r.t. distinguishing
(3) Alpha-taxonomy (4) Phylogeny characteristics of living beings
15. Mark the incorrect statement (1) In majority of higher organisms, the growth and
reproduction are mutually exclusive events
(1) Flora contains the actual account of habitat and
distribution of plants of a given area (2) Degrowth will occur when catabolism exceeds
anabolism
(2) Manuals are useful in providing information for
identification of names of species found in an (3) Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are neither
area living things nor living reactions
(4) Growth cannot be taken as a defining property
(3) Monographs contain information on many taxa
of living organisms, if we take increase in body
(4) Each statement in the key is called ‘lead’ mass as a criterion of growth
Last Leap For NEET (Part-II) The Living World 221
23. Which of the following is not a rule for binomial 29. Which suffix is used for 'class' according to
nomenclature? international code of Botanical Nomenclature?
(1) The name of categories higher than the name (1) - phyceae
of genus are not printed in italics (2) - opsida
(2) Binomial epithet consists of two Latin and one (3) - ales
Roman word
(4) More than one option is correct
(3) Generic and common names can never be the
same 30. All taxonomic categories together constitutes the
taxonomic hierarchy, where
(4) The name of the discover is given after
scientific name either in full or in abbreviated (1) Each rank or taxon represents a unit of
form classification
24. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. living beings (2) Species essentially is not the lowest category
(1) Growth cannot be taken as a defining property (3) Subspecies or variety constitutes the lowest
of living organisms category of hierarchy
(2) Growth can be easily observed in vitro culture (4) Genus is an aggregate of closely related tribes
(3) Metabolic reactions cannot be demonstrated 31. Living organisms exhibit many distinctive
outside the body in cell-free system characters where one character is said to be the
(4) All organisms, from the prokaryotes to the defining property i.e.
most complex eukaryotes can sense and (1) Reproduction (2) Growth
respond to environmental cues
(3) Metabolism (4) Consciousness
25. Fragmented organism regenerates the lost part of
32. Select incorrect statement
its body and become a new organism in
(1) Growth occurs by synthesis of protoplasmic
(1) Planaria
and apoplasmic substances
(2) Silk worm
(2) Reproduction is synonymous with growth in
(3) Flat worm unicellular organisms
(4) More than one option is correct (3) Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are surely
26. According to ICBN rules, families and subfamilies living things
names are (4) Consciousness is the most obvious and
(1) Printed in italics technically complicated feature of all living
(2) Always underlined organisms
(3) Based on the name of type genus 33. Reproduction is not at all inclusive defining
characteristic of living organisms because one of
(4) Must having suffix "eae" and "ineae" the feature fragmentation, which occurs in
respectively
(1) Protonema of moss
27. What is incorrect for taxonomic hierarchy?
(2) Planaria
(1) There are 7 obligate and more than 21
intermediate categories (3) Chlorella
(2) Higher the category, fewer the number of (4) More than one option is correct
organism 34. Which of the following statement is not concerned
(3) Lower the category, more the number of with the museum?
common features (1) They have collections of preserved plant and
(4) Greatest similarity in structure is found in animal specimens for study and reference
between members of a species (2) These are generally set up in educational
28. Which one of the following contains the actual institutes
account of habitat and distribution of plants of a
(3) Birds and mammals are usually stuffed and
given area?
preserved
(1) Flora (2) Manual
(4) They donot have collections of skeletons of
(3) Monograph (4) Catalogue animals
35. Select correct statement w.r.t. binomial 43. Specimens of algae, fungi, mosses and ferns are
nomenclature kept in/as
(1) Biological names are generally in italics (1) Herbarium (2) Botanical gardens
(2) Italics printing of scientific names indicate their (3) Museums (4) Flora
Latin origin
44. Polytypic genus is
(3) This system was given by father of taxonomy
in Historia Plantarum (1) A genus having more than one species
(4) Binomial epithet consists of three Latin words (2) A genus having one species
36. Angiosperms, dicots and mango represent (3) A species with two or more subspecies
(1) Categories of different levels (4) A genus having similar name for species and
(2) Categories of same level subspecies
(3) Same taxa of same category 45. Which of the given scientific name is written, as
(4) Different taxa of different levels mentioned in the rules of binomial nomenclature?
37. Which one of the following combination of taxa (1) Rosa indica Linn. (2) Rosa Indica Linnaeus
represent same category of hierarchy? (3) Rosa Indica L. (4) Rosa indica Linn.
(1) Lion, leopard, tiger 46. Mark the incorrect statement
(2) Potato, brinjal, grasses
(1) Metabolic reactions can be demonstrated
(3) Petunia, Datura, Solanaceae outside the body in cell-free systems
(4) Solanaceae,Convolvulaceae, Polymoniales (2) Reproduction and cellular organisation are the
38. Taxon name ending with “-eae” suffix represents defining features of life forms
(1) Class (2) Order (3) Monocots and grasses represent taxa at
(3) Family (4) Tribe different levels
39. Which one of the following plant’s nomenclature is (4) Separate taxonomic keys are required for each
autonym also? taxonomic category
(1) Rattus rattus 47. Each character is given equal importance and at
(2) Acacia nilotica indica the same time hundreds of characters can be
considered in
(3) Brassica oleracea capitata
(1) Numerical taxonomy
(4) Acacia nilotica nilotica
(2) Phenetics
40. Find odd one out w.r.t. taxonomic categories
(3) Chemotaxonomy
(1) Primata (2) Diptera
(3) Poales (4) Monocotyledonae (4) More than one option is correct
41. Biological concept of species given by Ernst Mayr 48. Select the incorrect match
is applicable for Taxon Category
(1) Mangifera indica (1) Insecta – Class
(2) Pisum sativum
(2) Tiger – Species
(3) Homo sapiens
(3) Cruciferae – Family
(4) Orchid – Order
42. Taxonomic literature that contains the actual
account of habitat and distribution of plants of a 49. Find the odd one w.r.t. taxonomic hierarchy of
given area is mango
(1) Monograph (2) Flora (1) Sapindaceae (2) Sapindales
(3) Manual (4) Catalogue (3) Dicotyledonae (4) Angiospermae
50. Which of the following are the defining features of 56. Key is a taxonomical device
living organisms? a. Of analytical nature.
(1) Consciousness, reproduction b. Where contrasting traits are collectively called
(2) Metabolism, cellular organisation lead.
(3) Growth, consciousness, metabolism c. Based on acceptance or rejection of choice
between two options.
(4) Cellular organisation, growth, reproduction
d. Prepared separately for each taxonomic
51. Taxonomic aid which contains actual account of
category.
habitat and distribution of plants of a given area is
known as (1) All are correct
(1) Manual (2) Monograph (2) b & d are incorrect
(3) Catalogue (4) Flora
(3) a & d are incorrect
52. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. taxonomic
hierarchy (4) All are correct except b
(1) Family has fewer common characters than 57. Find odd one out w.r.t. taxonomic literature
species (1) Museums (2) Flora
(2) Variety is lowermost rank of Linnaeus
(3) Manual (4) Monograph
hierarchy
(3) Order is a group of closely related classes, 58. Which of the given taxonomic aid is useful as ex
with few general characters situ conservation method?
(4) It consists of seven obligate categories and (1) Herbarium (2) Botanical garden
about 21 intermediate categories
(3) Museum (4) Catalogue
53. Read the following four statements (a-d)
59. All given are related to the taxonomic hierarchy of
a. Higher the category, fewer will be the number mango, except
of common characters.
(1) Poales (2) Anacardiaceae
b. Higher the category, lower is the number of
organisms in it. (3) Dicotyledonae (4) Angiospermae
c. Class is a group of related division. 60. The scientific nomenclature representing the
d. Families are characterised mainly on the basis species of wheat is
of reproductive features of plants.
(1) Triticum (2) Aestivum
Select the incorrect statements.
(3) aestivum (4) Triticum aestivum
(1) a, b & c (2) b, c & d
61. Herbarium is not prepared for
(3) a, b & d (4) a, c & d
54. Which of the following criteria form the basis of a. Bryophytes
modern taxonomic studies? b. Algae, fungi and lichens
(1) Development process
c. Larger woody structures
(2) Ecological information of organisms
d. Succulent plants
(3) External and internal structure
e. Flowering twig of vascular plant
55. Mark the incorrect option f. Aquatic plants
(1) All organisms are aware of their surroundings (1) All of these (2) All except ‘e’
(2) The basis of taxonomy like identification, (3) a, b & d only (4) a, e & f
naming and classification of organisms are
62. Suffixes like -phyceae, -ae and -opsida are used for
universally evolved under international codes
the category called
(3) Barley, rice, cat and grasses represent taxa at
same level (1) Division (2) Class
(4) Clade is also known as monophyletic taxon (3) Order (4) Kingdom
63. a. Tigon and Liger are hybrids produced under 70. Which of the following pair represents the defining
captive conditions properties of living beings?
b. Modern concept of species is based upon “an (1) Intrinsic growth, reproduction
ideal pattern” for each species & genus
(2) Cellular organisation, metabolism
c. Taxon represents a taxonomic group of real
organisms (3) Consciousness, extrinsic growth
(1) a & c are correct (2) b & c are correct (4) Reproduction, growth
(3) a & b are correct (4) All are correct 71. Consider the following statements and find the
correct one
64. Select the example/s that represent both autonyms
and trinomial a. Living organisms are self replicating, evolving
and self regulating interactive systems capable
(1) Corvus splendens splendens
of responding to external stimuli
(2) Brassica oleracea captita
b. Wheat, monocots and plants represent taxa of
(3) Acacia nilotica nilotica the same level
(4) More than one option is correct c. Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of
65. Technically most complicated and all inclusive determining the relation to other taxa of same
property of living is level
(1) Reproduction (2) Consciousness d. Lower the taxa, more are the characteristics
(3) Growth (4) Metabolism that the members within the taxon share
66. Which one of the following pair of tax constitute or (1) All are correct, except ‘b’
form the same taxonomic category? (2) All are correct
(1) Solanum and Solanaceae (3) All are correct, except ‘c’
(2) Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae
(4) All are correct, except ‘d’
(3) Felidae and Muscidae
72. Which taxonomic aid is useful as a quick referral
(4) Triticum and Pisum system in taxonomic studies?
67. Third kingdom was created by Haeckel to include (1) Museum
(1) Only unicelled eukaryotic organisms (2) Botanical garden
(2) Unicelled, colonial and multicelled forms (3) Taxonomic key
(3) All unicelled organisms
(4) Herbarium
(4) Multicelled, filamentous organisms
73. Which one is incorrect w.r.t. rules of binomial
68. Find the group out of the five kingdoms of nomenclature?
Whittakar that shows osmotrophic nutritional
behaviour (1) Biological names are generally in Latin and
written in italics
(1) Monera, protista and fungi
(2) First word represents the genus and second
(2) Monera, protista and animalia component is specific epithet
(3) Monera, protista and plantae
(3) Both the words in a biological name when
(4) Protista, fungi and animalia handwritten, are underlined separately
69. No names are recognised prior to those used by (4) Printed in italics to indicate their Greek origin
Linnaeus in 1758 in the 10th edition of
74. Process by which anything is grouped into
(1) Philosophia Botanica convenient categories based on some easily
(2) Systema Naturae observable characters called
(3) Historia Naturalis (1) Classification (2) Nomenclature
(4) Species Plantarum (3) Identification (4) Characterisation
75. Fundamental elements of taxonomy are 80. Match the column I with column II
(1) Characterisation and classification only Column I Column II
(2) Characterisation, identification and a. Dicotyledonae (i) Phylum
classification only
b. Arthropoda (ii) Class
(3) Characterisation, classification and
nomenclature only c. Diptera (iii) Family
(4) Characterisation, identification, classification d. Anacardiaceae (iv) Order
and nomenclature (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
76. Which of the following are the defining features of (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
life forms?
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) Metabolism, reproduction
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Cellular organisation, consciousness
81. Mark the incorrect match
(3) External growth, reproduction
(4) Consciousness, external growth (1) Lloyd Botanical Garden – Darjeeling
77. Mark the wrong statement w.r.t. systematics (2) Indian Botanical Garden – Pune
(1) It takes into account evolutionary relationships (3) National Botanical – Lucknow
between organisms Research Institute
(2) The word systematics is derived from Greek (4) Royal Botanical Garden – Kew
word ‘systema’ which means systematic 82. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
nomenclature of organisms
(1) Taxonomic keys are generally analytical in
(3) It involves study related with different kinds of
nature
organisms, their diversities and relationships
among them (2) Biological museums have collections of
(4) It is taxonomy alongwith phylogeny preserved plant and animal specimens for
study and reference
(1) Family is a group of related genera with still (3) Herbaria cannot serve as quick referral
less number of similarities as compared to systems in taxonomical studies
genus and species (4) Manuals are useful in providing information for
(2) Families are characterised on the basis of identification of names of species found in an
vegetative characters only area
(3) Each genus may have one or more than one 83. The international size of herbarium sheet on which
specific epithets representing different plants after drying and pressing are mounted is
organisms, but having morphological similarities
(1) 16 × 11 cm2 (2) 16½ × 11½ inches2
(4) Genera Solanum, Datura and Petunia are
placed in the family Solanaceae (3) 12½ × 16½ m2 (4) 41 × 29 inches2
79. Select the correct combination of the statements 84. Biological concept of species given by Ernst Mayr
(a-d) regarding taxonomic hierarchy cannot be applied to
a. As we go higher from species to kingdom, the (1) Organisms that reproduce by asexual methods
number of common characters goes on only
decreasing (2) Sexually reproducing forms breeding the whole
b. Lower the taxa, more are the characteristics year
that the members within the taxon share
(3) Sexually reproducing forms breeding in a
c. Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of particular season
determining the relationship to other taxa at
the same level (4) Sexually reproducing organisms having external
fertilization
d. Kingdom plantae comprises all plants from
various phyla 85. Which of the following category was not included
The correct statements are in Linnaean hierarchy?
(1) Only c & d (2) a, b, c (1) Class (2) Genus
(3) b, c, d (4) Only a (3) Phylum (4) Order
86. Select the incorrect statement. 92. Taxonomical aid which provides information for
(1) Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are living identification of names of species found in an area
reactions is
(1) Manual (2) Flora
(2) Human being is the only organism who has
self-consciousness (3) Monograph (4) Herbarium
(3) Reproduction is an all inclusive property of 93. Taxonomic aid which provides index to the plant
living beings species found in an area is
(4) Unicellular organisms also grow by cell-division (1) Flora (2) Monograph
87. The scientific names ensure that (3) Manual (4) Catalogue
a. Each organism has only one name. 94. Consider the following statements and select the
correct set of options for these.
b. Description of any organism should enable
people to arrive at the same name. a. The common mode of reproduction is
fragmentation in ________.
c. Such a name has not been used for any other
known organism. b. Dicots and monocots with few similar
characters are assigned to a higher category
d. Universally accepted principles are followed.
called _____.
The correct statements are
c. Taxonomical aids with conservation of live
(1) a, b & c (2) a, c & d specimens provide means of _______
(3) All are correct (4) Only a & c strategies.
88. Zoological parks provide (1) (a) Unicellular algae and moss protonema
(1) Quick referral system in taxonomic study (b) Class
(2) Conditions similar to natural habitats for (c) In-situ conservation
animals (2) (a) Yeast and Hydra
(3) Collections of preserved animal specimen for (b) Division
study and reference
(c) Ex-situ conservation
(4) Information on any one taxon
(3) (a) Moss protonema and filamentous algae
89. Basis of modern taxonomic studies includes all,
except (b) Division
(1) External and internal structures of organisms (c) Ex-situ conservation
(2) Developmental process and ecological (4) (a) Moss protonema and filamentous algae
information of organisms (b) Genus
(3) Observable morphological characters (c) Ex-situ conservation
(4) Listing of all organisms but their 95. Which of the following are twin characteristics of
characterisation is not required growth?
90. Taxonomy in which number and codes are (1) Increase in density and decrease in mass
assigned to all the characters and the data are
processed using computers is (2) Increase in mass and decrease in volume
(1) Phenetics (2) Biosystematics (3) Increase in volume and decrease in density
(3) Alpha taxonomy (4) Classical taxonomy (4) Increase in mass and increase in number
91. A taxon as a group of related species with more 96. Select the incorrect statement
common characters is represented by which one (1) A multicellular organism grows by cell division
of the following group of organisms?
(2) In plants growth by cell division occurs only up
(1) Radish, cabbage and cauliflower to a certain age
(2) Tomato, potato, and chilli (3) In animals growth is definite
(3) Lion, tiger and leopard (4) Cell division occurs in certain tissues of
(4) Cat, dog and mice animals to replace lost cells
97. Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive 103. The approximate number of plant species which
events in have been scientifically named and classified is
(1) Unicellular organisms only (1) 1.2 million (2) 0.2 million
(2) Higher animals and lower plants (3) 0.5 million (4) 1.7 million
(3) Majority of higher animals and plants
104. In which one of the following options the two
(4) Some bacteria and lower animals taxonomic categories given are correctly matched
98. Select correct match w.r.t. column I and column II with their organism?
Column I Column II Taxonomic Categories Organism
a. Fungi (i) Budding (1) Diptera and Felidae – Musca
b. Planaria (ii) Fragmentation
(2) Solanaceae and Polymoniales – Datura
c. Filamentous algae (iii) Asexual spore and
(3) Canidae and Primata – Gibbon
protonema of
mosses (4) Triticum and Sapindales – Wheat
d. Yeast (iv) Regeneration 105. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. binomial
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) nomenclature
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (1) Each biological name has two components -
99. The most obvious and technically complicated the generic name and the specific epithet
feature of all living organisms is (2) Both words, when handwritten are separately
(1) Consciousness (2) Metabolism underlined
(3) Reproduction (4) Growth (3) Biological names are generally in italics and
100. Read the following statements: written in Latin
(A) All organisms are aware of their surroundings. (4) The first word starts with a capital letter
(B) Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are not living 106. The process by which anything is grouped into
reactions. convenient categories based on some easily
(1) Both (A) & (B) are correct observable characters, is known as
(2) Only (B) is correct (1) Phylogeny (2) Nomenclature
(3) Both (A) & (B) are incorrect (3) Identification (4) Classification
(4) Only (A) is correct 107. Which one of the following represents autonym?
101. All living phenomena are due to underlying
(1) Brassica oleracea capitata
interactions. Properties of tissues are not present
in the constituent cells, but arise as a (2) Acacia nilotica nilotica
(1) Result of interactions among the molecular (3) Hibiscus rosa-sinensis
components comprising the organelle
(4) Acacia nilotica indica
(2) Result of interactions among the organelles
only 108. Linnaeus gave some principles of the binomial
nomenclature in book
(3) Result of interactions among the constituent
cells (1) Philosophia Botanica
(4) Result of interactions among the organelles (2) Species Plantarum
and non-living cells
(3) Systema Naturae
102. Which of the following pair of characters
unexceptionally present in all living organisms and (4) Genera Plantarum
absent in non-living objects? 109. The number of obligate and intermediate categories
(1) Consciousness, Reproduction which are used in taxonomic hierarchy, are
respectively
(2) Metabolism, Cellular organisation
(3) Growth, Reproduction (1) 6 & 21 (2) 7 & 21
(4) Reproduction, Metabolism (3) 21 & 6 (4) 7 & 5
110. External and internal structure along with the 117. Select correct match w.r.t. column I and column II
structure of cell, development process and
Column I Column II
ecological informations of organism are essential
and form the basis of a. Division (i) Primata
(1) Old systematic studies b. Class (ii) Poaceae
(2) Classical systematic studies c. Order (iii) Angiospermae
(3) Old taxonomic studies d. Family (iv) Insecta
(4) Modern taxonomic studies (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
111. Which one of the following sequences is correct (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
w.r.t. taxonomic hierarchy in ascending order? (3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) Species order genus family (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(2) Genus family tribe order 118. Read the following statements :
(3) Family order class phylum (A) As we go higher from species to kingdom, the
(4) Order division phylum class number of common characteristics goes on
decreasing.
112. Term ‘Taxonomy’ was given by
(B) Lower the taxa, less are the characteristics that
(1) A.P. de Candolle (2) Santapau the members within the taxon share.
(3) C. Linnaeus (4) Theophrastus (C) Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of
113. Select correct statement w.r.t. systematics determining the relationship to other taxa at
the same level.
(1) It is the study of different kinds of organisms
without their evolutionary relationships (1) Only (A) is correct
(2) The word systematics is derived from the Greek (2) (B) and (C) are correct
word Systema (3) (A) and (B) are correct
(3) It includes taxonomy as well as phylogeny (4) (A) and (C) are correct
(4) It is a part of overall taxonomic arrangement 119. Which of the following taxonomical aids serve as
that include identification only quick referral systems in taxonomical studies?
114. Biological concept of species was given by ____ (1) Zoological parks (2) Botanical gardens
and it is based on _____.
(3) Museum (4) Herbarium
(1) Ernst Mayr, fixity of species
120. The international size of herbarium sheet is
(2) John Ray, fixity of species
(1) 31 × 19 cm2 (2) 21 × 29 cm2
(3) Ernst Mayr, reproductive isolation
(3) 41 × 29 cm2 (4) 26 × 45 cm2
(4) Carolus Linnaeus, reproductive isolation
121. Read the following statements :
115. Select the correct option w.r.t. Polytypic genus
(A) Herbarium sheets are arranged according to a
(1) Panthera universally accepted system of classification.
(2) Brassica (B) Herbarium is a store house of conserved
(3) Solanum animal specimens.
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Both (A) & (B) are incorrect
116. Select odd one w.r.t. family (2) Only (A) is correct
(1) Muscidae (2) Felidae (3) Both (A) & (B) are correct
(3) Anacardiaceae (4) Diptera (4) Only (B) is correct

122. Select the correct statement w.r.t. taxonomic key 130. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. the
(1) It is used for identification of plants only characteristics of living organisms
(2) Each statement in the key is called couplet (1) Fungi, filamentous algae and mosses easily
(3) It is based on similarities and dissimilarities multiply by mitospores formation
(4) Similar taxonomic keys are required for each (2) Planaria exhibits true regeneration
taxonomic category such as family, genus and (3) Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are living
species reactions, not living things
123. Biological museums are generally set up in
(4) Cellular organisation is the defining property of
educational institutes such as schools and
life forms
colleges and they have collections of
(1) Conserved plant specimens only 131. The most obvious and technically complicated
feature of all living organisms as their defining
(2) Living plant and animal specimens
property is
(3) Preserved plant specimens only
(1) Reproduction
(4) Preserved plant and animal specimens
(2) Cellular organisation
124. National Museum of Natural History is situated at
(1) Delhi (2) London (3) Metabolism
(3) Kolkata (4) Lucknow (4) Consciousness

125. Breeding of rare fauna and ex-situ conservation can 132. The fundamental element of taxonomy which
be done in includes the grouping of organisms into convenient
(1) Botanical gardens categories on the basis of easily observable
characters is
(2) Botanical gardens and Museums
(3) Zoological parks (1) Characterisation
(4) Museums and Zoological parks (2) Identification

126. Which of the following is useful in providing (3) Nomenclature
information for identification of names of species
(4) Classification
found in an area?
(1) Flora (2) Manuals 133. “Father of taxonomy” is credited for all following
contributions, except
(3) Monographs (4) Catalogues
(1) First used the term systematics
127. Flora contains the actual account of habitat and
distribution of plants of a given area. It (2) Established binomial nomenclature
(1) Contains information on any one taxon (3) Classified all organisms into two kingdoms
(2) Is analytical in nature and based on couplets mainly on the basis of nutrition
(3) Provides index to the plant species found in a (4) The nomenclature was used first in “Species
particular area Plantarum”
(4) Includes alphabetical arrangements of species 134. Scientific names of unicellular organisms with
describing their features
naked DNA have been standardised by
128. Who was the earliest to attempt a more scientific
(1) ICBN (2) ICNB
basis for classification?
(1) Copeland (2) R.H. Whittaker (3) ICTV (4) ICZN
(3) Aristotle (4) Carl Woese 135. Which one of the following categories of taxonomic
hierarchy will have maximum number of common
129. How many kingdoms include heterotrophic
members in five kingdom classification system? characters?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) Family (2) Order

(3) 1 (4) 4 (3) Division (4) Class
136. In binomial nomenclature 140. Biological concept of species is based upon
a. Biological names are always in italics and !
written in Latin and truly explained by the population of
b. Generic name starts with capital letter ! "
c. Both names are separately underlined to
indicate their Latin origin (1) A – Reproductive isolation
d. Author’s name is given after species name in B – Mule
abbreviated form in italics
(2) A – Reproductive isolation
(1) All statements are correct, except d
(2) b, c & d are correct B – Oryza sativa
(3) a & d are incorrect (3) A – Physiological isolation

(4) Only c & d are incorrect B – Hinny
137. Consider the following statements and select
(4) A – Morphological isolation
correct set
a. Mango, dicots and plants represent taxa at B – Mangifera indica
same level.
141. Read the following statements:
b. Wheat family and mango family belong to
different orders but same division. (a) Growth cannot be taken as a defining property
c. Potato and sweet potato families are included of living organisms
in order Polymoniales. (b) Growth occurs due to synthesis of
d. Species is genetically open system. protoplasmic and apoplasmic substances
e. Dicots, monocots and mammals represent taxa (c) In unicelled organisms, reproduction is not
at same level.
synonymous with growth
(1) b, c & e (2) a, c & d
(d) In majority of higher animals and plants, growth
(3) a, c, d & e (4) a, d & e
and reproduction are mutually exclusive events
138. Taxonomical aids that provide means of ex-situ
conservation strategies are (1) Only (a) & (b) are correct
(1) Herbarium (2) Zoological parks (2) (b), (c) & (d) are correct
(3) Botanical gardens (4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) Only (c) is incorrect
139. Select correct match between column I and II
(4) (a), (c) & (d) are correct
Column I Column II
a. As quick referral system in (i) Monograph 142. Taxonomic aid which has collection of preserved
taxonomical plant and animal specimens is
studies
(1) Herbarium
b. Collection of preserved plants (ii) Herbarium
and animals (2) Zoological park
c. Index to the plant species (iii) Museum (3) Museum
found in a
particular (4) Monograph
area
143. “It may be a photosynthetic protistan to one
d. Complete information (iv) Flora biologist may be a plant to another.”
of any one
taxon Which of the following justify the above statement?
(1) Smallest living cells
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) Reproduce sexually only
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (3) Flagellated structures are absent
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) Possess pigments identical to higher plants
144. Find odd one (w.r.t. defining features of life forms) 151. Three different genera viz. Solanum, Petunia and
(1) Reproduction Datura belong to the same immediate category i.e.
______
(2) Consciousness
(1) Tribe
(3) Metabolism
(2) Sub-family
(4) Intrinsic growth
145. Which one of the following explains binomial (3) Family
epithet in correct way (in the light of ICBN rules)? (4) Sub-order
(1) Mangifera indica Linn
152. Which of the following group of families are
(2) Hibiscus rosa sinensis included in the order Polymonials?
(3) Pisum sativum Linnaeus (1) Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae
(4) Pisum sativum Linn (2) Anacardiaceae and Convolvulaceae
146. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. taxonomic keys
(3) Solanaceae and Anacardiaceae
(1) Generally analytical in nature
(4) Anacardiaceae and Poaceae
(2) Based on couplet
153. Plant order, polymoniales, includes families like
(3) Indented key is most popular key
(1) Convolvulaceae and Poaceae
(4) Each statement in the key is called a lead
147. Which one of the following taxonomical aids are (2) Poaceae and Anacardiaceae
useful in providing information for identification of (3) Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae
names of species found in an area?
(4) Anacardiaceae and Solanaceae
(1) Flora (2) Manuals
154. Genus represents aggregate of closely related
(3) Monograph (4) Catalogues
species. Which of the following group of species
148. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? does not belong to same genus?
(1) All organisms are aware of their surroundings (1) Potato, Brinjal
(2) Biological concept of species is applicable to
(2) Brinjal, Makoi
all existing organisms
(3) Cellular organisation of the body is defining (3) Lion, Leopard
feature of life forms (4) Potato, Sweet potato
(4) Solanum and Brassica are polytypic genera 155. A research scholar has collected ten plants from
149. Category ‘Family’ has a group of related genera field and find the following distinguishing feature
with still less number of similarities as compared
a. Perianth present – 6 flowers
to
a. Calyx, corolla present – 4 flowers
(1) Order and class
(2) Class and division b. Unisexual flower – 5
(3) Phylum and kingdom b. Bisexual flower – 5

(4) Genus and species What kind of taxonomical aid he is trying to use?
150. Plant taxon like Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae (1) Herbarium
can be included together in which one of the
following categories? (2) Keys
(1) Family (2) Class (3) Museum
(3) Genus (4) Order (4) Monograph

2. A : Principle of priority is the most important rule
SECTION - B of binomial nomenclature.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions R : The first given scientific names are preferred.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion 3. A : Animals are provided conditions similar to their
natural habitats in zoological parks.
R : Zoological parks are means of in situ
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the conservation.
reason is the correct explanation of the 4. A : Extrinsic growth occurs in non-living objects.
assertion, then mark (1). R : True growth always occurs from inside in living
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the beings.
reason is not the correct explanation of the 5. A : Two plants A and B are treated as two
assertion, then mark (2). taxonomic species.
R : Both A and B are different in correlated
characters.
6. A : Complexity of classification increases in
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false ascending order.
statements, then mark (4). R : Common characters increase in ascending
1. A : The number of common characters is fewer in order.
family than genus. 7. A : Properties of cellular organelles are not present
in the molecular constituents of the organelle.
R : Taxon is a taxonomic group of real organisms R : Properties of tissues are present in the
assigned to a category. constituent cells.
!"!"!
Chapter 2
Plant Kingdom
5. Most of the members of pteridophyta

SECTION - A
(1) Show diplohaplontic life cycle
(2) Bear strobili/cones
1. Match the following
(3) Lack both tracheids and sieve tube in vascular
!"#$% &'()%*+,((* -"$#%""$'.(/ bundles
(4) Are homosporous
0$1 6)(7/ 041 -"().*%$/ 0.1 =>+"$'%)$"
$"#$% :'$)3; 6. Prothallus of Dryopteris is attached to soil by
021 8%*+$"#$% 051 <$//.'(" 0..1 =?@>+$4.3$" unicellular rhizoids developed from
031 9)%%/ 0)1 &'$)3; 0...1 !2:%/' (1) Anterior part of dorsal surface
$"#$% (2) Posterior part of ventral surface
(1) (a-r-ii), (b-p-iii), (c-q-i) (3) Anterior part of ventral surface
(4) Posterior part of dorsal surface
(2) (a-q-i), (b-p-iii), (c-r-ii)
7. Mark the incorrect statement (w.r.t. gymnosperms)
(3) (a-q-i), (b-r-ii), (c-p-iii)
(1) Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species
(4) (a-q-i), (b-p-ii), (c-r-iii)
(2) Dimorphic root, stem and leaves in Pinus
2. Find out the feature common in the all known (3) Generally tap roots are present
members of phaeophyceae.
(4) Palmately compound leaves in Cycas
(1) Presence of trumpet hyphae
8. How many chromosomes are present in wing of
(2) Absence of chlorophyll-c and d Pinus seed if microspores have 12 chromosomes?
(3) Presence of macroscopic thallus (1) 24 (2) 12
(4) Absence of unicellular thallus (3) 36 (4) Zero
9. Anthoceros thallus and coralloid roots of Cycas are
3. Bryophytes include the various mosses and
similar in
liverworts that are found commonly growing in
moist shaded areas in the hills. In this group (1) Presence of Rhizobium
(2) Performing N2-fixation
(1) Always unicellular rhizoids are present
(3) Presence of vascular supply
(2) Sexual reproduction is oogamous type
(4) Absence of rhizoids
(3) Sporophyte is always a complete parasite
10. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. red
(4) Main plant body produces gametes by meiosis algae?
4. Funaria, Marchantia and Riccia plants (1) Mostly marine, greater concentration found in
warmer areas
(1) Belong to bryopsida
(2) Unicellular members are not found
(2) Have elaters for the spore dispersal
(3) Sexual reproduction is only oogamous
(3) Show heteromorphic type of life cycle (4) Stored food is very similar to amylopectin and
(4) Are vegetatively reproducing by gemmae glycogen in structure
234 Plant Kingdom Last Leap For NEET (Part-II)
11. Cycas is different from Pinus in presence of 17. Gametophytic phase of pteridophytes is
(1) Diplontic life cycle (1) An inconspicuous, small, unicelled, mostly
(2) Circinate ptyxis photosynthetic, thalloid structure called
prothallus
(3) Endospermic seeds
(2) A small, multicelled, photosynthetic,
(4) Male cone
filamentous structure called protonema
12. Which of the following feature of Selaginella
(3) A small, inconspicuous, multicelled, thalloid
resembles Anthoceros?
structure called prothallus
(1) Presence of heterosporous condition
(4) A multicelled, conspicuous, photosynthetic,
(2) Presence of rhizophore leafy and thalloid structure called gametophore
(3) Sporic meiosis and presence of non-vascular 18. Select an incorrect match
gametophyte
(1) Coralloid roots – Sago palm
(4) Gametic meiosis and absence of rhizoids in
female gametophyte (2) Peristome teeth – Funaria
13. Mark the correct statement (3) Mycorrhiza – Pinus
(1) All archegoniates contain vascular tissue (4) Gemmae – Riccia
(2) All tracheophytes bear seeds 19. Cord moss differs from hornworts in
(3) All spermatophytes belong to phanerogams (1) Having columella for conductive function
(4) All embryophytes are heterosporous (2) Presence of partially dependent sporophyte
14. Artificial system (3) Possessing pseudoelaters for spore dispersal
(1) Gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual (4) Presence of multicellular jacketed sex organs
characteristics
20. Selaginella is said to have near approach to seed
(2) Gave equal importance to each character and habit and considered an important step in evolution
at the same time hundreds of characters can because of
be considered
(1) Precocious development of gametophyte
(3) Is based on cytological information
(2) Heterosporous sporangia and siphonogamous
(4) Is based on chemical constituents
reproduction
15. In mosses
(3) Oogamous sexual reproduction
(1) Leafy stage of gametophyte develops directly
(4) Formation of embryo in life cycle
from a spore
21. Plants are classified according to their evolutionary
(2) Upright, slender axis bear spirally arranged
and genetic affinities in
leaves
(3) Rhizoides are unicellular (1) Natural system of classification
(4) Sporophyte consists of foot and capsule only (2) Artificial system of classification
16. Which of the following condition is associated with (3) Cladistic system of classification
all the pteridophytes? (4) Eichler’s system of classification
(1) Heterospory 22. The family tree of organisms prepared on the basis
(2) Endoscopic embryo development of numerical taxonomy is called
(3) Zooidogamy (1) Cryptogram (2) Cladogram

(4) Presence of megaphyllous leaves (3) Monogram (4) Dendrogram
Last Leap For NEET (Part-II) Plant Kingdom 235
23. Select correct statements w.r.t. algae 30. Find correct match w.r.t. reserve food materials
(a) Gametophytic plant body is independent a. Gracilaria (i) Starch
(b) Rolling alga has colonial coccoid thallus b. Macrocystis (ii) Chrysolaminarin
(c) Reserve food material is mainly starch c. Navicula (iii) Floridean starch
(d) Zoospores are asexual, motile mitospores d. Ulothrix (iv) Mannitol
(e) Sex organs are non-jacketed (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(f) Have holoblastic embryogeny (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) (a), (c), (d) and (e) (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) (a), (b), (d) and (f) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) (b), (d), (e) and (f) 31. Select correct statements w.r.t. Bryophytes
(4) All are correct except (f)
(a) Have independent gametophytic main plant
24. Which one of the following was a criterion of algal body
classification given by Fritsch?
(b) Independent plant body is concerned with
(1) Thallus structure and flagellation spores formation.
(2) Modes of reproduction (c) Sex organs are multicellular, jacketed and
(3) Reserve food materials always sessile
(4) More than one option is correct (d) Sporophytic plant body develops from spore
germination
25. Photosynthetic pigments found in chlorophycean
members are (e) More differentiated plant body than algae
(1) Chlorophyll a, b and carotenoids (f) Homosporous condition exists
(2) Chlorophyll a, c and fucoxanthin (1) All are correct, except (c)
(3) Chlorophyll a, d and violaxanthin (2) (a), (e) and (f)
(4) Chlorophyll a, b and phycobilins (3) (a), (d), (e) and (f)
26. Kingdom plantae of Whittaker does not include (4) (b), (c), (e) and (f)
which one of the following group of algae? 32. Vascular amphibians of plant kingdom are
(1) Brown algae
(1) Thallophytes (2) Bryophytes
(2) Red algae
(3) Pteridophytes (4) Gymnosperms
(3) Blue-green algae
33. Anthoceros resembles with algal thallus in the
(4) Green algae
(1) Presence of sporophytic plant body
27. The type of life cycle in Fucus is
(2) Absence of heteromorphic life cycle
(1) Haplontic (2) Diplontic
(3) Presence of cells having one chloroplast with
(3) Haplo-diplontic (4) Triphasic haplobiontic single pyrenoid
28. Zoospores with laterally inserted heterokont flagella (4) Non-vascular nature and embryogeny
are found in the members of class
34. In the life cycle of Funaria, how many antherozoids
(1) Rhodophyceae (2) Phaeophyceae can be formed from 100 sperm mother cells?
(3) Chlorophyceae (4) Dinophyceae
(1) 100 (2) 200
29. Which one of the following statements is correct
(3) 400 (4) 800
for red algae but incorrect for brown algae?
35. The adult gametophytic plant body in green moss
(1) Presence of non sulphated polysaccharides in
is differentiated into
cell wall
(1) Diploid rhizonema and chloronema
(2) Presence of Gaidukov phenomenon
(2) Primary protonema and secondary protonema
(3) Cells possess refractile vesicles containing
phenolic compounds (3) Foot, seta and capsule
(4) Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation (4) Rhizoids, main axis and phylloids
36. Companion cells and sieve tubes are absent in 44. Which statement is incorrect for the life cycle of
phloem of Pinus?
(1) Algae and Mosses (1) Shows dimorphic stem and leaves
(2) Ferns and Conifers (2) Seed cones are homologous to dwarf shoot
(3) Cycades and Monocots (3) Pollination occurs at 4-celled stage of pollen
grains
(4) Monocots and Dicots
(4) Seeds show multicotyledonary condition
37. Which one of the following feature is shown in life
cycle of Selaginella? 45. Find the correct match
(1) Microspores exhibit exosporic germination Column I Column II

a. Maiden hair tree (i) Pinus species
(2) Chemotactic movement of antherozoids under
the influence of citric acid b. Turpentine (ii) Cycas species
(3) Origin of roots from rhizophore and c. Sago palm (iii) Abies species
eusporangiate condition d. Canada balsam (iv) Ginkgo biloba
(4) Siphonogamy (1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
38. Gametophytic plant body in Dryopteris is (3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Monoecious prothallus with multicellular 46. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. bryophytes
rhizoids (1) First group of plants where embryo formation
(2) Monoecious, protandrous, thalloid with occurred
unicellular rhizoids (2) Non-vascular homosporous plants
(3) Heart shaped and vascular (3) Sporophyte is parasitic on multicellular green
(4) Non vascular, dioecious with branched rhizoids gametophyte
39. Antherozoids in Dryopteris are (4) Fertilization is internal as well as external
(1) Multiflagellate and spirally twisted 47. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. Funaria?
(2) Biflagellate and helical (1) Funaria is monoecious and autoicous
(3) Biflagellate and boat-shaped (2) It has single antheridium on antheridial branch
(4) Multiciliate and top-shaped (3) Vegetative propagation occurs by budding in
40. Male and female gametophytes do not have an secondary protonema
independent, free living existence in (4) Each androcyte produces a biflagellate sperm
(1) Cryptogams only having curved body
(2) Vascular cryptogams 48. The sporangium develops from group of cells in
(3) Gymnosperms which of the following group of pteridophytes?
(4) Bryophytes and pteridophytes (1) Equisetum and Adiantum
41. Gymnosperms are also said to be (2) Dryopteris and Selaginella
(1) Spermatophytes with pericarp (3) Dryopteris and Pteris
(2) Phanerogams with ovary
(4) Selaginella and Equisetum
(3) Phanerogams without ovary
49. Cedar wood oil is obtained from ____ and useful in
____
42. Ovule in gymnosperms is generally
(1) Juniperus virginiana, microscopy
(1) Unitegmic and orthotropous
(2) Abies balsamea, painting
(2) Unitegmic and anatropous
(3) Juniperus virginiana, cooking
(3) Bitegmic and orthotropous
(4) Tritegmic and orthotropous (4) Cedrus deodara, terpentine production
43. Pinus endosperm is ontogenetically similar to 50. In all gymnosperms and angiosperms, the type of
which structure of Maize? life cycle is
(1) Endosperm (2) Ovule (1) Diplontic (2) Diplohaplontic
(3) Embryo sac (4) Scutellum (cotyledon) (3) Haplontic (4) Haplo-diplontic
51. Wood in gymnospermic tree is generally 57. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. Pinus life cycle
(1) Hard, ring porous (1) Presence of dimorphic root, stem branches
(2) Hard, diffused porous and leaves
(3) Soft, nonporous (2) Pollination occurs at 4-celled stage
(4) Soft, ring porous (3) Ovuliferous scale bears 2 pairs of ovule
52. Red algae resemble blue green algae in (4) Gametophytic generation of seed is
represented by endosperm
(a) Presence of complex post-fertilization
development 58. Which one of the following organism cannot survive
in sulphur polluted area?
(b) Absence of motile stage throughout the life
cycle (1) Spike moss (2) Spanish moss
(c) Presence of complementary chromatic (3) Reindeer moss (4) Irish moss
adaptation 59. Brown algae differ from red algae is having
(d) Presence of trumpet hypha for transport of (1) Unicellular forms
food.
(2) Phycocolloids in their cell wall
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c)
(3) Autotrophic mode of nutrition
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (c) and (d)
(4) Flagella
53. Bryophytes are also called amphibians of plant
kingdom because 60. Minimum number of gemmae required to produce
15 thalli in Marchantia is
(1) Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte
(1) 4 (2) 8
(2) Zygote does not undergo meiosis immediately
(3) 16 (4) 32
(3) Produce biflagellate male gametes
61. Choose the wrong statement w.r.t. seed habit of
(4) Can live in soil but depend on water for
Selaginella
fertilization
54. Find out the correct match (1) Endospermic development of gametophytes
(1) Pagoda tree – non-motile sperm (2) Gametophytes show precocious development
(2) Sago palm – living fossil (3) Formation of two types of gametophytes
(3) Gnetum – Homoxylous wood (4) Sporophytes are nutritionally dependent on

gametophyte
(4) Ephedra – Chilgoza
62. Pinus ovule is
55. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. bryophytes
(1) Orthotropous and bitegmic
(1) Have independent gametophyte with unicellular
rhizoids always (2) Anatropous and unitegmic
(2) Sporophyte is fully or partially dependent upon (3) Orthotropous and unitegmic
gametophyte
(4) Anatropous and bitegmic
(3) They are non-vascular archegoniates
63. Find the correct statement regarding Bryophytes
(4) Homosporous forms with sporic meiosis
(1) Vascular terrestrial plants of moist habitats
56. Rhodophycean members show which one of the
(2) External water does not require for fertilization
following features?
(3) Bryophytes seldom achieve great heights
(1) Characteristic colour is due to dominance of
fucoxanthin (4) Dominant phase is free living sporophyte
(2) Asexual reproducton by zoospores is quite 64. Funaria shows
common
(1) Diphasic gametophyte
(3) Absence of flagellated gametes in their life
(2) Dioecious sporophyte
cycle
(3) Isomorphic alternation of generations
(4) Sexual reproduction by isogamy, anisogamy
and oogamy method (4) Dimorphic rhizoids
65. Phaeophycean members 73. Sporophyte is parasite over the gametophyte in

(1) Are of different colours due to variation in (1) Stoneworts and liverworts
amount of fucoxanthin
(2) Cord moss and club moss
(2) Are used as food supplements by exobiologists
(3) Irish moss and spanish moss
(3) May reach to the height of 100 cm
(4) Possess trumpet hyphae as homologous (4) Green moss and hair cap moss
structure to phloem 74. Sex organs in cord moss are
66. In Pinus (1) Embedded on lower surface of gametophyte
(1) Pollen grains seeds and fruits are winged (2) Projected on antheridiophore and
(2) Dimorphic roots, leaves and stem branches are archegoniophore
found
(3) Acrocarpous in nature
(3) Male cones and female cones mature at the
same time (4) Pleurocarpous in nature
(4) Seeds are never edible and contain resin 75. Regulated mechanism of spores dispersal in
67. In which of the following group of plants antheridia Funaria is due to the presence of
is absent but archegonia is present? (1) Stomium (2) Endostome
(1) Casuarina, Cyperus (3) Annulus (4) Columella
(2) Arum, Polysiphonia 76. Prothallus of fern is
(3) Thuja, Araucaria (1) Cordate, green and vascular
(4) Banana, Ginkgo (2) Non vascular and monoecious
68. Most important criteria for the classification of algae (3) Monoecious and protogynous
is
(4) Cordate, homothallic with multicellular rhizoids
(1) Thallus structure
77. Find incorrect statement w.r.t. gymnosperms
(2) Pigmentation
(1) All are perennial woody plants and smallest
(3) Reserve food materials group in plantae
(4) Reproduction (2) Have dimorphic leaves
69. Find odd one w.r.t. life cycle in green algae
(3) Wood is homoxylous in most of the members
(1) Ulothrix (2) Spirogyra
(4) Antheridia are present and pollination is direct
(3) Cladophora (4) Chlamydomonas
78. Siphonogamous type fertilization with the
70. Which one of the following alga is not a source of involvement of ciliated sperms is found in
food? (1) All phanerogams
(1) Laminaria (2) Alaria
(2) All phanerogams without ovary
(3) Ulva (4) Durvillea
(3) Conifers and Gnetum
71. Female sex organ of red algae is
(4) Cycas and Ginkgo
(1) Unicellular carpogonium
79. Ovule in gymnosperm is
(2) Multicellular carpogonium with trichogyne
(1) Unitegmic, unilayered and orthotropous
(3) Unicellular nucule
(2) Unitegmic, bilayered and orthotropous
(4) Multicellular archegonium
(3) Unitegmic, trilayered and orthotropous
72. Non-vascular embryophytes show
(1) Independent gametophyte and sporophyte
80. Wing in the seed of Pinus originates from
(2) Single uninucleate or binucleate neck canal
(1) Bract scales
cell
(2) Seed coat
(3) Homosporous and exosporic condition
(3) Lower surface of the ovuliferous scales
(4) Chemotropic movement of antherozoids by
sucrose and K+ (4) Upper part of the ovuliferous scales
81. Formation of 'yellow cloud' in the pine forest is 89. Heterokont flagella in brown algae have
concerned with
(1) Longer tinsel flagella directed downward
(1) Release of pollen grains
(2) Shorter acronematic directed upward
(2) Secretion of resin
(3) Shorter whiplash directed downward
(3) Development of female cones
(4) Both longer and shorter flagella are
(4) Spur formation and development pantonematic
82. The female gametophyte of gymnosperm is
90. The isomorphic alternation of generation is found in
(1) Monosporic, 7-celled and 8-nucleate which non-embryophyte?
(2) Haploid, multinucleate and unicellular (1) Spirogyra (2) Chlamydomonas
(3) Tetrasporic and multinucleate (3) Caulerpa (4) Cladophora
(4) Haploid and formed by many mitosis 91. A cell of a moss protonema has 10 chromosomes.
83. Parental sporophytic generation in gymnospermic How many chromosomes will be present in
seed is represented by calyptra, columella and spores formed in its life
(1) Endosperm (2) Suspensor cycle?
(3) Perisperm (4) Cotyledons (1) 20, 20, 10 (2) 10, 20, 10
84. Adventive polyembryony in conifers is due to (3) 10, 10, 10 (4) 20, 20, 20
(1) Ovule with 2-8 archegonia 92. Spermatophytes without ovary show
(2) Splitting of embryo tissue (1) Presence of antheridia
(3) Development of extra embryos from rosette
(2) Phloem with companion cells
cells
(3) Sessile ovule not borne on placenta
(4) Presence of more than one egg cell in
archegonium (4) Diplo-haplontic life cycle
85. Group of plantae representing diplontic life cycle are 93. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. the life cycle of
(1) All phanerogams Selaginella
(2) Only heteroxylous phanerogams (1) Archegoniate with single uninucleate neck
(3) Most of the cryptogams canal call
(4) All thallophytes (2) Development of male gametophyte is
86. Select incorrect statement with respect to endosporic
coralloid root of Cycas (3) It has most primitive type of stele
(1) It originates from primary tap root (4) Sporangia develop marginally on the
(2) It is apogeotropic and dichotomously branched undersurface of leaf at the base of spikes
(3) It has root cap and root hairs 94. Choose the incorrect statement regarding
(4) Middle cortex region has endophytic blue green numerical taxonomy
algae (1) It is evolved around 1950
87. Find odd one out w.r.t. habitat
(2) Characteristics are given equal weightage and
(1) Azolla importance
(2) Salvinia
(3) It was first attempted by Linnaeus
(3) Osmunda
(4) Proper selection of characters and their
(4) Marsilea analysis
88. Gemmae are green multicellular asexual buds in
95. In rhodophyceae, the mode of sexual
________ and each gives rise to ________
daughter plants reproduction is
(1) Liverworts and mosses; two (1) Anisogamy
(2) Stoneworts and liverworts; two (2) Oogamy
(3) Funaria and Marchantia, one (3) Isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy
(4) Ferns and mosses, one (4) Anisogamy and oogamy
96. The calyptra of capsule has 10 chromosomes in 103. Polyembryony, multicotyledonous condition,
Marchantia. What would be the number of ectomycorrhiza association and winged seeds are
chromosome in its elater? features characteristic to
(1) 10 (2) 20 (1) Cycas (2) Ephedra
(3) 30 (4) 5 (3) Pinus (4) Gnetum
97. The endosperm of gymnosperm represents 104. Development of the zygote into embryo, taking
(1) Triploid structure place in female gametophytes is
(2) Female gametophytes (1) An event which is precursor to seed habit
(3) Male gametophytes (2) Found in all embryophytes
(4) Diploid embryonic part (3) Observable in all gymnosperms and

angiosperms
Column I Column II
105. Spread of pteridophytes is limited and restricted to
a. Bog Moss (i) Selaginella
narrow geographical regions due to
b. Stone wort (ii) Ginkgo
(1) Sporophytic main plant body
c. Spike moss (iii) Chara
(2) Anemophilous pollination
d. Maiden hair tree (iv) Sphagnum
(3) Specific requirement for gametophytic growth
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) and need of water for fertilisation
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) Homosporous nature in majority of members
99. First embryophytes are concerned with
106. Identify the structures A, B and C in the figure
(1) Presence of primitive vascular system as stele given below
(2) Multicellular non-jacketed sex organs
(3) Dependent sporophyte
(4) Prothallus as gametophytic form
100. Read the following statements carefully and mark
the correct w.r.t. gymnosperms
(a) Pollen grains are carried by air currents
(b) Pollen tube carries the male gametes to
archegonia
(c) Ovules are exposed before fertilisation but get
covered after fertilisation
(d) They produce same type of spores
(1) a, b & d
(2) a & b
(3) a & c (1) A - Gametophyte ; B - Leaves ; C - Rhizoids
(4) b & d (2) A - Capsule ; B - Leaves ; C - Rhizoids
101. All given structures of Pinus life cycle are haploid, (3) A - Capsule ; B - Frond ; C - Rhizoids
except
(4) A - Capsule ; B - Leaves ; C - Adventitious
(1) Endosperm (2) Pollen roots
(3) Egg (4) Nucellus 107. Creeping, green, branched and frequently
102. Select an incorrect match filamentous green algae like stage in Funaria
(1) Taxus – Anticancerous compound (1) Is called prothallus
(2) Ephedra – Antiasthmatic drug (2) Arises upon spore germination
(3) Cedrus – Cedar wood oil (3) Is known as gametophore
(4) Pinus – Edible seed (4) Bear gemma cups for sexual reproduction
108. Liverworts are different from mosses in 114. The multicellular female gametophyte of the
(1) Not having multicelled jacketed sex organs gymnospermic plants
(2) Having a completely parasitic sporophyte on (1) Is transferred to soil at the time of fertilisation
gametophyte (2) Has an independent free-living existence
(3) Having a dominant independent gametophyte (3) Is haploid and vascular structure
phase in life cycle
(4) Is always retained within megasporangium
(4) Being homosporous
115. Sexual reproduction is oogamous in
109. Find the correct set w.r.t. brown algae
(1) Volvox and Fucus
Reserve food Cell wall Flagella
(2) Spirogyra and Ulothrix
(1) Floridean Pecto- Absent
(3) Trichoderma and Polysiphonia
starch cellulose
(4) Batrachospermum and Colletotrichum
(2) Starch Agar and non- 2, isokont,
116. Vascular archegoniates with diplontic life cycle are
sulphate esters median
(1) Bryophytes
(3) Laminarin and Cellulose and 2,heterokont,
(2) Pteridophytes
Mannitol algin lateral
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Mannitol Sulphated 2-8,
esters heterokont,
117. Select the correct match w.r.t. column I and
lateral
column II
110. Which group of organisms are members of red
Column-I Column-II
algae?
a. Marchantia (i) Mucilage drop
(1) Trichodesmium, Porphyra, Chondrus
b. Pinus (ii) Frond
(2) Gloiopeltis, Dictyota, Sargassum
c. Dryopteris (iii) Rhizophore
(3) Batrachospermum, Polysiphonia, Porphyridium
d. Selaginella (iv) Elaters
(4) Gelidium, Gracilaria, Chara
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
111. Ectocarpus and Polysiphonia are similar in
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
presence of
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) Hemicellulosic cell wall
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) Unicellular thallus
118. Gymnosperms differ from angiosperms in
(3) Chlorophyll a
(1) Presence of integumented ovule
(4) Sulphated phycocolloids
(2) Type of life cycle
112. Bryophytes include the various mosses and
(3) Presence of direct pollination
liverworts that are usually
(4) Stage of meiosis
(1) Siphonogamous
119. Different sets of algal characters are given below.
(2) Occur in damp, humid and shady localities Select the correct set w.r.t. chlorophyceae
(3) Heterosporous Reserve food Flagella Cell wall
(4) Devoid of vascular bundles and embryogeny (1) Floridean starch 2-8, equal, Pecto
113. The plants Selaginella and Salvinia will produce apical cellulose
___________ during their life cycle (2) Starch 2-8, equal, Cellulose
(1) Unisexual gametophytes apical
(3) Mannitol, 2, unequal, Algin and
(2) Non-motile male gametes
Laminarin apical Cellulose
(3) Monoecious gametophytes
(4) Starch Two, unequal, Cellulose
(4) Spores by zygotic meiosis lateral
120. Identify the plant in a figure given below and the 123. Which of the following group of plants shows free
structure labelled A living existence of both sporophyte and
gametophyte?
(1) Spirogyra and Cycas
(2) Cycas and Selaginella
(3) Dryopteris and Adiantum
(4) Cycas and Ginkgo
124. Which of the following is not the characteristic
feature of the smallest group of plant kingdom?
(1) Absence of lateral veins in leaf
(2) Absence of lateral conduction in leaves
!
(3) Absence of covered ovule
(1) Equisetum ; A – Root (4) Absence of sieve tube
(2) Selaginella ; A – Rhizine 125. Pyrenoids as food storage structure are associated
(3) Salvinia ; A – Modified leaf with chloroplast in
(4) Selaginella ; A – Rhizophore (1) Algae and liverworts
121. Independent, free living, photosynthetic, multicelled (2) Liverworts and mosses
gametophyte is not found in (3) Algae and hornworts
(1) Taxus (2) Marchantia (4) Algae, hornworts, ferns
(3) Dryopteris (4) Funaria 126. Horsetails, mosses and ferns
122. Identify the diagrams A, B, C and D (1) Are terrestrial plants having vascular tissues
(2) Lack archegonia
(3) Produce parasitic gametophytes
!"#$ (4) Form gametes by mitotic division
%"$&"' 127. The gymnosperms are plants in which the ovules
are not enclosed by ovary wall and remain exposed
A. B.
always.
In this group
(1) Female gametophyte grows parasitically over
triploid endosperm
(2) Eustelic condition exists in stem
!"#$"% (3) Roots are generally adventitious
(4) All species have dimorphic root, stem and
leaves
C. D.
128. Structure of reserve food in red algae resembles
(1) Pectose, Lipids
(1) A – Sphagnum; B – Funaria; (2) Amylopectin, Glycogen
C – Salvinia; D – Selaginella (3) Laminarin, Mannitol

(2) A – Selaginella; B – Sphagnum; (4) Protein, Starch
C – Salvinia; D – Funaria 129. Green algae differs from bryophytes in
(3) A – Salvinia; B – Funaria; (1) Having gametophytic plant body
C – Sphagnum; D – Selaginella (2) Absence of trachea
(4) A – Pistia; B – Funaria; (3) Having zooidogamy
C – Sphagnum; D – Salvinia (4) Life cycle pattern
130. Which one of the following statement about the 133. Gymnosperms differ from angiosperms in having
given diagram is correct? (1) Dependent male and female gametophytes
(2) Haploid endosperm
!"#$%&'())* (3) Non-motile male gametes
(4) Heterospory and diplontic life cycle
134. Which of the following plant group does not exhibit
heterospory during the life cycle?
+),-&'())*
(1) Salvinia, Azolla, Ginkgo
(2) Eucalyptus, Cedrus, Cycas
(3) Wolfia, Sequoia, Selaginella
.//0'
(4) Dryopteris, Adiantum, Polytrichum
(1) Male and female gametophytes do not have
135. Gloriosa, Petunia, Lupinus, Lathyrus odoratus and
free living existence
Tulip
(2) Have meroblastic and exoscopic embryogeny
(1) Are ornamental plants
(3) Leaves have reticulate venation and sieve tube
(2) Produce ex-albuminous seeds
(4) Have heteroxylous, non-porous wood and
homospory (3) Have polyandrous androecium
131. When vascular bundles are found scattered in the (4) Produce zygomorphic flowers
ground tissue in stem, the stele is 136. Read the given statements:
(1) Eustele (2) Actinostele (i) Cycas is a dioecious plant.
(3) Atactostele (4) Meristele (ii) Female cone in Cycas matures in about
132. Identify the given organisms respectively labelled as 3 years.
A, B, C and D
(iii) Ginkgo, Cycas and Equisetum resemble each
other w.r.t. motile male gamete.
(iv) Coralloid roots in Pinus is apogeotrophic.
Identify the option (1-4) with two true statements.
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (i) & (iii) (4) (ii) & (iv)
A. B. 137. Identify the organisms on the basis of following
diagrams
!"#$%
!"#$%
C. D. )*+,-
.#/%012*
&'( &3(
(1) A-Laminaria; B-Polysiphonia; '+"9:/1%%-"

C-Sphagnum; D-Equisetum !"#$%
(2) A-Fucus; B-Dictyota; 3"1$56-2 ;+%"+:
C-Polytrichum; D-Equisetum '7+2

(3) A-Dictyota; B-Polysiphonia;
C-Sphagnum; D-Chara
(4) A-Fucus; B-Polysiphonia; .#/%012*
C-Sphagnum; D-Chara &4( &8(
(1) A - Laminaria; B - Chara; 144. Which of the following statement is correct for
C - Fucus; D - Porphyra the artificial systems of classification?
(2) A - Porphyra; B - Laminaria; (1) Based on natural affinities among the
C - Chara; D - Fucus organisms
(3) A - Chara; B - Laminaria; (2) Classified the plants on the basis of

C - Porphyra; D - Fucus morphology and phytochemistry
(4) A - Porphyra; B - Fucus; (3) Traits used in these systems are liable to
change
C - Chara; D - Laminaria
138. Match the Column I with Column II (4) Based on characters like habit, colour, number
and internal structure of leaves
Column I Column II
a. Spirogyra (i) Ice cream 145. Match the following columns
b. Selaginella (ii) Psilotales Column-I Column-II

c. Chondrus (iii) Plywood (a) Cytotaxonomy (i) Dendrogram
d. Cedrus (iv) Pond scum (b) Phenetics (ii) Computer analysis
e. Rhynia (v) Little club moss (c) Chemotaxonomy (iii) Chromosome
(1) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(iii), e(ii) behaviour
(2) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(ii), e(iii) (iv) Adanson
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv), e(v)
(v) Raphides
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i), e(v)
(vi) Numerical methods
139. For the formation of 100 thalli of Marchantia how
many gemmae are required? (vii) Gene sequencing
(1) 100 (2) 50 (1) a(iii), b(i, ii, iv, vi), c(v, vii)
(3) 25 (4) 1 (2) a(iii), b(i, ii, v, vi), c(iv, vii)
140. The ploidy level of archegonium, perigonial cell, (3) a(iii, vii), b(ii, iv, vi), c(i, v)
protonema and collumella of moss respectively is
(4) a(iii), b(i, ii, iv), c(v, vi, vii)
(1) N, 2N, 2N, N (2) 2N, N, N, N
146. Algae are chlorophyll bearing, simple, thalloid,
(3) N, N, 2N, N (4) N, N, N, 2N
autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms in which
141. In Cycas the pollen grains are shed at the _____
celled stage. (1) The size ranges from the microscopic
unicellular forms like Chlamydomonas to the
(1) 3 (2) 4
filamentous forms like Volvox
(3) 2 (4) 5
(2) Hydrocolloids are universally present
142. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Pinus
(3) Thallus structure, size and pigments are highly
(1) Fertilisation is siphonozooidogamous
variable
(2) The time gap between the pollination and
fertilization is four months (4) Major criteria of classification is cell wall
(3) It shows symbiotic association with Nostoc 147. Members of red algae are mostly marine,
(4) The ploidy level of the wing of the seed is 2n occurring both at surface water and at great
depths in oceans except for a few fresh water
143. ‘Seeded plants’, ‘maize’ and ‘dicots’ represent
species. These algae usually
(1) Taxa of same category
(1) Reproduce asexually by motile spores
(2) Categories at division, species and order level
respectively (2) Show oogamous reproduction by motile
gametes
(3) Taxa at division, species and class level
respectively (3) Lack chlorophyll-a and fucoxanthin
(4) Categories of same taxon (4) Reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation
148. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. non-vascular 153. Ovules present on loose megasporophylls,
archegoniates of plant kingdom unbranched stem and dicotyledonous condition
(1) Sporophytic plant body is semi or total parasite are features related to
(2) Gemmae are multicellular, achlorophyllous, (1) Cycas (2) Pinus

sessile asexual bodies in some liverworts (3) Cedrus (4) Ephedra
(3) Meiospore is the first cell of gametophytic 154. Identify the labels A, B, C and D in the figure
generation given below
(4) All are homosporous forms with exoscopic
embryogeny
149. In heterosporous members of the pteridophyta
(1) Development of embryo takes place within the
female gametophyte !
#
(2) Zygote produces a multicellular and
undifferentiated sporophyte
$
(3) Gametophyte is monoecious
(4) Spore germination is exosporic
150. The leaves of gymnosperms
"
(1) Are not adapted to withstand extremes of
temperature
(2) May be simple or compound
(3) Are needle shaped in all members
(4) Lack transfusion tissue (1) A – Gametophyte; B – Sporophyte;
151. Find the one which is not concerned with haplo- C– Leaves; D – Foot
diplontic life cycle (2) A – Gametophyte; B – Sporophyte;
(1) Organisms where life cycle phases are C– Leaves; D – Seta
multicelled and always free living
(3) A – Sporophyte; B – Gametophyte;
(2) Bryophytes
C– Leaves; D – Foot
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) A – Sporophyte; B – Gametophyte;
(4) Brown algae like Ectocarpus and Kelps
C– Sporophyll; D – Seta
152. Some characters are given below
155. Rhodophyceae is similar to phaeophyceae in
a. Origin of rhizoids by storage tissue in female
gametophyte (1) Being exclusively marine
b. Endosporic male gametophyte (2) Having heterokont flagella
c. Presence of ligule (3) Having no unicelled forms
d. Heterospory (4) Including multicelled forms
e. Dictyostele in stem 156. Stipe, hold fast and frond are the terms
Select the correct w.r.t. Selaginella associated with
(1) All are correct except ‘e’ (1) Gracilaria
(2) All are correct except ‘a’ (2) Polysiphonia
(3) b, c & d (3) Laminaria
(4) b, c & e (4) Chara

157. From the characters given below, how many are 161. Select a correct set of features with its group
associated with numerical taxonomy?
(1) Phaeophyceae – Alginic acid, presence
a. Usage of statistical tools for data analysis of archegonia,
b. Based on all observable characteristics heterokont flagella
c. After the data processing numbers and codes (2) Chlorophyceae – Cellulose cell wall,
are assigned to all characters isokont flagella,
pyrenoids
d. Hundreds of characters are considered at
same time (3) Liverworts – Complex sporophyte,
gemma, absence of
e. Give equal weightage to all characters archegonia
(1) 5 (2) 4 (4) Mosses – Simple sporophyte,
(3) 3 (4) 2 Thalloid gametophyte,
158. Choose the correct identification for figures given multicelled rhizoid
below 162. Gelidium, Ectocarpus, Chara, Dictyota,
Polysiphonia, Gracilaria, Sargassum, Porphyra,
!"#$%&'() Fucus, Laminaria, Volvox, Ulothrix, Spirulina,
Nostoc
*$+, Choose the correct option w.r.t. number of
-.+,#.$+,
members and their algal group
!"#$%&'(
(1) Red alga - 3 members
)*+( 3#4.50 (2) Brown alga - 5 members
a. b.
(3) Green alga - 4 members
(4) Blue green alga - 1 member
/0&1$2,
163. Choose the correct sequence of steps involved in
life cycle of bryophyte.
(1) (a) Green alga,
[A - Sporophyte, B - Zygote, C - Gametogenesis,
(b) Brown alga D - Gametophyte, E- Meiosis, F - Syngamy,
(2) (a) Non-vascular embryophyte, G - Spore]
(b) Vascular embryophyte (1) A C E F B D G

(3) (a) Aquatic non-embryophyte, (2) D C F B A E G
(b) Tracheophyte (3) D C F B E G A
(4) (a) Phaeophycean member, (4) D C F E B A G
(b) Leafy bryophyte 164. The first cell representative of gametophytic
generation is
159. Fusion between one large, non-motile female
gamete and a smaller motile male gamete is (1) Zygote (2) Oospore
seen in
(3) Spore mother cell (4) Spore
(1) Spirogyra (2) Puccinia
165. Elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal is present
(3) Ustilago (4) Volvox in
160. Leaf like photosynthetic organ is associated with (1) Riccia (2) Sphagnum
algal group
(3) Marchantia (4) Anthoceros
(1) Showing only oogamous reproduction
166. Multicelled, green, filamentous juvenile
(2) Having predominance of r-phycoerythrin gametophyte and a mature erect leafy
gametophyte are found in all, but not in
(3) Where members may reach a height of
100 metres (1) Sphagnum (2) Polytrichum
(4) Usually having grass-green colour (3) Funaria (4) Marchantia
167. Asexual buds produced in Marchantia are 174. Which of the following feature(s) of gymnosperms
(1) Multicellular, green, 2n allow them to tolerate or withstand extreme
conditions?
(2) Non-green, multicellular, stalked
(3) Bilobed, green, n (1) Thick cuticle (2) Reduce leaves
(4) Stalked, green, unicellular (3) Sunken stomata (4) All of these
168. Heterosporous ferns are 175. Identify the set of correctly labelled terms
(1) Selaginella and Dryopteris
(2) Equisetum and Selaginella #
(3) Adiantum and Pteris

(4) Salvinia and Selaginella !
$
169. True stem, root and leaves are present in
(1) Polytrichum (2) Lycopodium
(3) Sphagnum (4) Pogonatum
170. In the vascular amphibians
(1) Majority flourish well in sandy soil
(2) Dominant phase is inconspicuous, multicellular " &
thalloid gametophyte %
(3) Macrophyllous leaves are present in horsetails
(4) Sporophyll can aggregate to form strobilus
(1) A – Foot, C – Capsule
171. If number of chromosomes in VCC of fern is 8
(2) F – Sporophyte, D – Seta
then find the number of chromosomes in rhizoid,
oosphere, leaf cell, megaspore respectively (3) A – Seta, B – Rhizoids
(1) 8, 8, 16, 8 (2) 16, 16, 8, 8 (4) C – Leaves, E – Gametophyte
(3) 8, 16, 16, 8 (4) 16, 8, 8, 16 176. Protonema of mosses and prothallus of fern
172. Choose odd one out w.r.t. members of pteropsida. shows which of the following similarity?
(1) Dryopteris (2) Pteris (1) Non-green (2) Haploid nature
(3) Adiantum (4) Selaginella (3) Vascular (4) Possess roots
173. Which of the following set of statements is 177. Sporophytic generation represented by only single
correct for given plant? cell i.e., zygote is seen in
(1) Conifers (2) Ferns
(3) Algae (4) Mosses
178. Which of the following feature was not used by
Bentham and Hooker for classification of plants?
(1) Ultra structure (2) Phytochemistry
(3) Embryology (4) Phylogeny
a. Reduce gametophytes having independent free 179. In natural classification system

living existence (1) Equal weightage is given to vegetative and
b. Possess compound leaves sexual characters
c. Form special roots having symbiotic (2) Natural affinities among the organisms are
association of prokaryotic algae considered
d. Stem shows branching (3) Organisms belonging to the same taxa are
e. Homosporous nature phylogenetically related to common ancestor
(1) a, b & d (2) a, c & d (4) Cytological informations are also used to
(3) b & c (4) b, d & e resolve confusions
180. The algae which reproduce asexually by non- 187. Common characters between Volvox and Fucus
motile spores and sexually by non-motile gametes are
are (1) Habitat and pigments
(1) Ectocarpus and Ulothrix (2) Zoospores and anisogamous reproduction
(2) Gelidium and Dictyota (3) Chlorophyll-a and oogamous reproduction
(3) Laminaria and Polysiphonia (4) Thallus structure and reserve food
(4) Porphyra and Polysiphonia 188. Spores containing structure in Sphagnum is
181. Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes place by (1) Gametophytic plant body
(1) Secondary protonema (2) Basal part of sporophytic plant body
(2) Prothallus (3) Capsule of sporophyte
(3) Gemmae (4) Androgonial mother cell
(4) Multicellular rhizoids 189. Vascular cryptogams are characterised by
182. Male and female gametophytes do not have an (1) Dependent vascular gametophyte
independent free-living existence in (2) Independent sporophyte
(1) Equisetum and Cedrus (3) Presence of vessels in xylem
(2) Pinus and Cedrus (4) Archegonium with 4–6 NCC
(3) Cycas and Sphagnum 190. Select incorrect statement w.r.t gymnosperms.
(4) Pinus and Selaginella (1) Sporophytic plant with tap root system
183. Select incorrect w.r.t. brown algae (2) Sporophylls form lax or compact strobili
a. Gametes are pyriform and bear two lateral (3) Endosperm is a post fertilising structure
flagella.
(4) Multicellular female gametophyte is retained
b. Presence of chlorophyll a, c. within megasporangium.
c. Cell wall has sulphated phycocolloid. 191. The life cycle pattern shown by phanerogams is
d. Post fertilization changes occurs. (1) Haplontic (2) Diplontic
e. Stored food is similar to amylopectin and (3) Diplo-haplontic (4) Haplo-diplontic
glycogen. 192. Some plants of arid regions modify their stems
(1) b, d, e (2) a, c, d into fleshy cylindrical structure for ________ in
(3) c, d, e (4) a, b, c _______.
184. Non-vascular amphibians of plant kingdom (1) Photosynthesis, Euphorbia
(1) Have free living independent sporophyte (2) Photosynthesis, Opuntia
(2) Are of great economic importances (3) Food storage, Ruscus
(3) Do not possess multicellular jacketed sex (4) Water and food storage, Asparagus
organs 193. Agar-agar is obtained from the cell wall of
(4) May have unicellular or multicellular rhizoids (1) Gelidium (2) Sargassum
185. Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes in (3) Laminaria (4) Chondrus
gymnosperms 194. Select odd one out w.r.t. algae found exclusively
(1) The male and female gametophytes do not in marine water and having large / macroscopic
have an independent free living existence size.
(2) Intermediate meiosis do not occur (1) Chl. a, c (2) Fucoxanthin
(3) The sporophyte is partial parasite on (3) Floridean starch (4) Cellulosic wall
gametophyte 195. Pteridophytes are distributed in narrow
(4) Seeds are enclosed in pericarp geographical regions because
186. Which character unified the grouping of bacteria, (1) Their prothallus requires cool damp shady
cyanobacteria, fungi, mosses, ferns and seeded place to grow
plants in the same kingdom? (2) They require water for fertilization
(1) Nutrition mode (2) Nucleus feature (3) They bear sori on ventral surface
(3) Reproduction (4) Cell wall (4) More than one option is correct
196. Select odd one out w.r.t. haplodiplontic life cycle 202. Certain marine brown and red algae produce large
(1) Ectocarpus (2) Funaria amount of
(3) Polysiphonia (4) Pinus (1) Carrageen and algin respectively
197. Select common features amongst green algae, (2) Fixed nitrogen
brown algae and red algae (3) Sulphated phycocolloids
a. Presence of cellulose in cell wall. (4) Water holding substances
b. Flagellate spores or gametes. 203. Which of the statements (1–4) for the following
c. Presence of chlorophyll a. organism is correct?
d. Non-embryophytes.
e. Oogamous sexual reproduction.
f. Differentiated gametophytic plant body.
(1) a, c, d & f (2) b, d, e & f
(3) a, b, c & f (4) a, c, d & e
198. The male sex organ called antheridium produces
biflagellate male gametes always in
(1) Moss, ferns and Selaginella
(1) Presence of internal fertilization
(2) Liverworts, mosses and spike moss
(2) Absence of trumpet hyphae
(3) Spike moss and irish moss
(3) Presence of chlorophyll a & d
(4) Moss, ferns and cycades
(4) Absence of static female gamete
199. Find correct match (column I with column II)
204. Match the Column I with Column II
Column I Column II
Column I Column II
a. Homosporous and (i) Selaginella
a. Ectocarpus (i) Unbranched,
eusporangiate pteridophyte
filamentous algae
b. Rhizophore (ii) Equisetum
b. Ulothrix (ii) Coenobium
c. Female gametophyte (iii) Pinus
c. Volvox (iii) Branched,
as endosperm
filamentous algae
d. Indirect pollination (iv) Pisum
d. Chlamydomonas (iv) Microscopic
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) unicellular form
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
200. Protonema is filamentous, creeping, green (3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) Sporophytic stage of reindeer moss 205. Spirogyra, Dictyota and Sargassum are similar in
(2) Gametophytic stage of cord moss having
(3) Gametophytic stage of irish moss (1) Laminarin and mannitol as reserve food
(4) Sporophytic stage of club moss (2) Unicelled and non-jacketed sex organs
201. Consider the following statements (a–d) about (3) Archegonia and antheridia
algae: (4) Multicelled and jacketed sex organs
(a) Highly variable in form and size 206. Algae in which sexual reproduction is
(b) Commonly asexual reproduction by exogenous accompanied by complex post fertilization
motile spores developments have
(c) Simple, thalloid and largely aquatic organisms (1) Lateral flagellation in gametes
(d) A few of the marine forms such as kelps, form (2) More amount of fucoxanthin in plastids
massive vascular plant bodies (3) Apical flagellation in spores
(1) Only (d) is incorrect (4) Floridian starch as reserve food
(2) Only (c) is incorrect 207. Polytrichum is attached to the substratum by
(3) (a) & (c) are correct (1) Unicellular rhizoids (2) Adventitious roots
(4) All statements are correct (3) Multicellular rhizoids (4) Tap roots
208. Zygotes do not undergo reduction division 213. Multicellular, free-living, autotrophic and thalloid
immediately during the life cycle of gametophyte is found in the life cycle of
(1) Ulothrix (1) Chlamydomonas (2) Taxus
(2) Marchantia (3) Pteris (4) Juniperus
(3) Funaria 214. Which of the following statements is correct for
majority of the pteridophytes?
(1) Development of similar kinds of spores
209. Read the following statements : (2) Presence of gametic meiosis
(a) Leafy liverworts have tiny leaf-like appendages (3) Meroblastic and endoscopic embryogeny
in two rows on the stem-like structures.
(4) Presence of diplontic life cycle
(b) Mosses are of little ecological importance. 215. Development of the zygotes into young embryo
(1) Both (a) & (b) are incorrect takes within the female gametophytes in
(2) Only (b) is correct (1) Adiantum (2) Selaginella
(3) Only (a) is correct (3) Riccia (4) Batrachospermum
216. Pollen tube carrying the male gametes grow
(4) Both (a) & (b) are correct
towards archegonia in the ovules during the life
210. Antheridium and archegonium are produced at the cycle of
apex of leafy shoots in (1) Pteridophytes (2) Angiosperms
(1) Peat moss (2) Ceylon moss (3) Gymnosperms (4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) Irish moss (4) Spanish moss 217. Select the two correct statements out of the four
211. Examine the figure given below and select the (a–d) given below about gymnosperms.
right option giving all the three parts (a, b & c) a. Roots in some non-vascular archegoniates have
correctly identified. fungal association in the form of mycorrhiza
b. Leaves are well adapted to withstand extremes
!"# of temperature, humidity and wind
c. Nucellus is protected by ovary wall and the
composite structure is called an ovule
d. Multicellular female gametophyte is retained
within megasporangium
(1) a & c (2) b & c
(3) c & d (4) b & d
!%# 218. In which of the following plants, seeds contain
!$#
haploid endosperm for future growth of embryo into
seedling?
(1) Cedrus, Ephedra (2) Eucalyptus, Pinus
(1) (a) Seta (2) (a) Main axis
(3) Cycas, Pisum (4) Selaginella, Ginkgo
(b) Strobilus (b) Female sex organ,
219. Male gametophyte of conifers is
(c) Gametophyte (c) Sporophyte (1) Well developed and multicelled
(3) (a) Main axis (4) (a) Stipe (2) Highly reduced and haploid
(b) Capsule (b) Capsule (3) 13-celled and diploid
(c) Gametophyte (c) Antheridiophore (4) Haploid and possess vascular tissues
212. Main plant body of first vascular plants is 220. Which of the following pair is matched wrongly?
(1) Undifferentiated and spore producing (1) Pinus – Homoxylous wood
(2) Cycas – Unbranched stem
(2) Differentiated and gamete producing
(3) Transfusion tissue – Root of Ginkgo
(3) Undifferentiated and gamete producing biloba
(4) Differentiated and spore producing (4) Anemophily – Sequoia
221. Polysiphonia differs from Wolfia in possessing/ 226. Protonema in mosses is
representing (1) Filamentous, branched, diploid
(1) Haplo-diplontic life cycle (2) Green, creeping, haploid
(2) Chlorophyll-a pigment
(3) Bears sex organs and buds
(3) Oogamous reproduction
(4) Produces spore after meiosis
(4) Triple fusion
227. Which of the following post fertilization event is
222. Read the following statements (w.r.t. angiosperms) not associated with gymnosperms?
(a) Embryo sac formation is preceded by meiosis (1) Zygote Embryo
(b) Pollen grains germinate on the ovule and the (2) Ovules Seeds
resulting pollen tube grows through the tissues
of stigma and style (3) Ovary Fruit
(c) A large group of plants occurring in wide range (4) Nucellus Perisperm
of habitats 228. Gametophyte in the pteridophytes is
(d) Synergids, antipodals and PEN degenerate a. Small, inconspicuous
after fertilization
b. Long lived, unicellular
How many of the above statement(s) is/are
c. Mostly photosynthetic thalloid
wrong?
d. Short lived, haploid
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) One How many statements are correct w.r.t.
gametophyte?
223. Given below are three statements each with one
blank. Select the option which correctly fill up the (1) Two (2) Three
blanks in two statements. (3) Four (4) One
(A)______ systems gave equal weightage to 229. Ginkgo and Pteris resemble each other in having
vegetative and sexual characteristics. (1) Sieve tubes
(B)Number and codes are assigned to all the (2) Archegonia
characters and the data are then processed in
______ taxonomy. (3) Free living existence of gametophytes
(C)______ systems assume that organisms (4) Vessels
belonging to the same taxa have a common 230. Vascular cryptogams are/have
ancestor. (1) Gametophytic main plant body with true root,
(1) (A) – Artificial stem and leaf
(C) – Natural (2) Archegoniates with many neck canal cells
(2) (B) – Phenetics (3) Chemotactic movement of aflagellate male
(C) – Artificial gametes
(3) (A) – Artificial (4) Asiphonogamy internal fertilization
(B) – Chemotaxonomy 231. Examine the figures A, B, C and D. In which one
(4) (C) – Phylogenetic of the four options all the labellings are correct?
(A) – Artificial
224. Which of the following components are present in
the phloem of gymnosperms?
(1) Albuminous cells and sieve tube elements
(2) Albuminous cells and sieve cells
(3) Companion cell and sieve tube elements
(4) Companion cell and sieve cells
225. Great variation in body size and shape of A. B.
chloroplast is seen in members of ______ and
_____ respectively.
(1) Brown, Green algae (2) Red, Green algae
(3) Green, Red algae (4) Brown, Red algae
234. The endosperm in gymnosperm is

(1) Gametophytic in nature
(2) Formed after fertilization
C. D. (3) The result of double fertilization

(4) Formed from megaspore mother cell by mitosis
235. Which one of the statements is incorrect w.r.t.
(1) A – Laminaria heterospory?
B – Salvinia (1) It develops into dioecious gametophyte
C – Male thallus of Marchantia (2) It is the important step in evolution because it

is a precursor of seed habit
D – Cycas
(3) It develops into dioecious sporophyte
(2) A – Polysiphonia
(4) It is found in few pteridophyte, all gymnosperm
B – Equisetum and angiosperm
C – Female thallus of Marchantia 236. There is large variation in form and size of algae.
D – Ginkgo Choose the correct option w.r.t. unicellular (A)
colonial (B) and branched filamentous alga (C).
(3) A – Chara
A B C
B – Selaginella
(1) Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Ulothrix
C – Sphagnum
(2) Chlorella, Rolling alga Spirogyra
D – Ginkgo
(3) Chlamydomonas, Volvox Ectocarpus
(4) A – Fucus
(4) Chlorella, Porphyra Chara
B – Fern
237. Sporophyte is differentiated into foot, seta and
C – Funaria capsule in the
D – Pinus (1) Salvinia (2) Sargassum
232. Read the following statements (3) Sphagnum (4) Selaginella
a. Sporophyte is the dominant, photosynthetic, 238. Two types of spores are produced by the
independent phase of the plant. (1) Selaginella (2) Equisetum
b. Highly reduced female gametophyte as (3) Dryopteris (4) Adiantum
embryosac is present in their ovule.
239. Correct statement in relation to spike moss is
c. The pollen grains are carried in air currents and
come in contact with the opening in the (1) The stem is generally monostelic
ovules. (2) Stalked small leaves possess a small scaly
How many statements are correct for flap called ligule near the base of adaxial
gymnosperms and angiosperms respectively? surface
(1) One and two (2) Zero and three (3) Roots develop at the base of non-green thread
like leafless structure called rhizophore
(3) Two and two (4) Three and two
(4) Male gametophyte shows precocious growth
233. Select the correct option w.r.t. given characteristic and at maturity possesses a single prothalial
in column where + = present, – = absent. cell
Vascular Archegonium Embryo Spermatophyte
tissue
240. Plant with two leaves only is the member of
(1) Algae – + – – (1) Vascular cryptogams
(2) Bryophyta + – – – (2) Spermatophyte without ovary
(3) Pteridophyta + + + + (3) Angiosperm with reticulate venation
(4) Gymnosperms + + + + (4) Spermatophyte with ovary
241. Which group of plantae includes atracheophytic 248. Zygotic meiosis is associated with which of the
embryophytes? following life cycle pattern?
(1) Thallophyta (1) Haplontic
(2) Bryophyta (2) Diplontic
(3) Pteridophyta (3) Diplohaplontic
(4) More than one option is correct (4) More than one option is correct
242. Details of the sexual system of classification were
SECTION - B
published in
(1) Genera Plantarum
(2) Species Plantarum In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(3) Systema Naturae
(4) Families of flowering plants reason is the correct explanation of the
243. Group of algae with non sulphated phycocolloidal assertion, then mark (1).
substance in their cell wall are also characterised (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
by reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) Absence of unicellular forms assertion, then mark (2).
(2) Dominating heterotrichous thallus organisation (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3) Gametophytic plant body in all of the members
(4) Absence of vegetative reproduction by
fragmentation
1. A : Gametophyte is inconspicuous in vascular
244. Diploid sporophyte as dominant phase and single
cryptogams.
to few celled haploid gametophyte are present in
the life cycle of all R : Its conspicuous stage is sporophyte.
(1) Algae (2) Bryophytes 2. A : In most of the spermatophytes, endosperm is
a pre-fertilisation structure which represents
(3) Fungi (4) Spermatophytes
food laden female gametophyte.
245. Gracilaria and Gelidium reproduce sexually by
R : It is a new triploid material derived from triple
(1) Non-motile spores fertilisation.
(2) Fragmentation 3. A : Direct pollination occurs in the life cycle of
(3) Flagellate gametes naked seeded plants.
(4) Non-flagellate gametes R : Stigma is absent in these plants.
246. Absence of archegonia and presence of 4. A : Spore is the first cell of gametophytic
companion cells in phloem are characteristic generation in bryophytes.
features of ____ R : Gametophyte is independent.
(1) Monocots only (2) Dicots only 5. A : Heterotrichous nature of thallus is advance
(3) All angiosperms (4) All spermatophytes feature in green algae.
247. In which of the following meiosis occurs during R : Thallus is made up of multicellular unbranched
zygospore germination? filaments.
(1) Dryopteris 6. A : In Cladophora and Ectocarpus, the life cycle is

diplohaplontic isomorphic.
(2) Bread mould
R : Both haploid gametophytic and diploid
(3) Ulothrix
sporophytic phases are morphologically
(4) More than one option is correct identical in these algae.
7. A : Pteridophytes are commonly called vascular 13. A : Seed represents three generations in flowering
amphibians. plants.
R : Seed was developed in pteridospermales for the R : Gametophyte is interlocked between two
sporophytic generations in these plants.
first time.
14. A : Zygote is the first cell of sporophytic generation
8. A : Sex organs are multicellular and jacketed in in all vascular plants.
Riccia.
R : It is retained within the venter of archegonium
R : Sex organs are embedded on dorsal surface of in all embryophytes.
thallus and developed acropetally. 15. A : Mosses reduce the impact of falling rain and
9. A : All archegoniates are sciophytes with prevent soil erosion.
independent sporophytes. R : They form dense mats on the soil.
16. A : Seed is post fertilisation product in
R : Capsule in sporophyte is chlorophyllous and
gymnosperms.
photoautotroph in all.
R : Endosperm is post fertilisation product in
10. A : Psilophytes are most primitive vascular plants. angiosperms.
R : Plant body have true root, stem and leaves. 17. A : Syngamy and meiosis are essential for
alternation of generation.
11. A : Lower gymnosperms have fern like leaves.
R : Meiosis is an equational division.
R : Leaves show furcate venation.
18. A : Zygotic meiosis occurs in Volvox.
12. A : Microsporophyll of gymnosperm is analogous R : Life cycle is haplontic in this algae.
to stamen of angiosperm. 19. A : Red algae occupies deepest position in oceanic
R : Male gametes of Cycas are largest in the plant water among all algae.
kingdom. R : Red light penetrates deepest.
!"!"!
Chapter 3
The Cell Cycle and Cell Division
5. Which phase of heterotypic division in mammals

SECTION - A
can last for months or years?
(1) Leptotene (2) Pachytene
1. The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
its genome, synthesises other constituents of the
cell and eventually divides into two daughter cells 6. The diploid cell of a self conscious primate has 6
is termed as pg DNA. What would be the DNA content in the
cell at G2-phase of interphase during cell cycle?
(1) Karyokinesis
(1) 6 pg (2) 12 pg
(2) Karyochorisis
(3) 3 pg (4) 24 pg
(3) Cell division
7. How many meiosis are required to form 100 pollen
(4) Cell cycle grains from microspore mother cells?
2. Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under (1) 100 (2) 50
the microscope, do not show
(3) 25 (4) 200
(1) Golgi bodies and ER
8. Meiosis II is said to be similar to mitosis, however
(2) Nucleolus and nuclear membrane the two differ in some aspects like
(3) Chromosome and centromere a. In meiosis II, the two daughter cells formed
(4) More than one option is correct from each cell are generally genetically different
b. Meiosis II is initiated immediately after
3. The anaphase is characterised by the following key
cytokinesis
events, except
c. In animals, mitosis takes place in both haploid
(1) Centromere of each chromosome is pointing
and diploid cells
towards the pole
d. Synaptonemal complex is formed in meiosis II
(2) Chromosomes move to opposite poles
e. Centromere does not divide in meiosis II
(3) Chromatids of chromosome separate
(4) Appearance of isobrachial chromosome as
V-shaped structures (1) a, d & e (2) b, c & e
4. Choose correct statements regarding the meiosis I (3) a & b (4) b & e
9. What is incorrect for the cells that are in
(1) It involves pairing of homologous chromosomes
quiescent stage?
(2) Four haploid cells are formed
(1) These cells do not divide
(3) It does not involve DNA replication before
(2) Cells in this stage are metabolically not active
karyokinesis
(3) Heart cells exhibit this stage
(4) Anaphasic separation of chromatids lead to
reduction in chromosomes number (4) These cells exit G1 phase
256 The Cell Cycle and Cell Division Last Leap For NEET (Part-II)
10. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t cell division 16. How many total mitotic divisions are required to
produce 124 root cells?
(1) Ribonuclease suppresses prophase
(1) 31 (2) 124
(2) In meiosis-II number of chromosomes as well
as amount of DNA is reduced to half (3) 123 (4) 62
(3) When a cell grows its karyoplasmic ratio 17. Cell division associated with repairing and healing
decreases, which leads to cell division is
(4) Nuclear membrane reappears during telophase (1) Amitosis (2) Mitosis
11. G1 phase corresponds to the interval between (3) Meiosis (4) All of these
mitosis and initiation of DNA replication. During G1
18. Nuclear envelope degenerates during organisation
phase
of spindle in
(1) Cell replicates its DNA
(1) Eumitosis (2) Dinomitosis
(2) 2C DNA increases to 4C
(3) Karyochorisis (4) Amitosis
(3) DNA replication begins in the nucleus and
19. Choose odd one w.r.t. mitogen
centriole duplication in cytoplasm
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin
(4) Cell is metabolically active
(3) Gibberellins (4) Colchicine
12. Final stage of meiotic prophase-I is marked by
20. Choose incorrect pair
(1) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(1) Synapsis - Zygotene
(2) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(2) Synaptonemal complex - Leptotene
(3) Appearance of tetrad
(3) Crossing over - Pachytene
(4) Crossing over
(4) Terminalisation - Diakinesis
13. If the initial amount of DNA is 2C and number of
chromosomes in the cell is 24. What would be the 21. Choose correct statement regarding meiosis from
amount of DNA and number of chromosomes in given statements
same dividing cell in G2 phase ? (i) Poleward movement of dyads occurs during
(1) 2C, 48 (2) 4C, 48 anaphase I
(3) 4C, 24 (4) 2C, 24 (ii) Meiosis II involves separation of chromatids
14. In oocytes of some vertebrates, which of the (iii) DNA synthesis takes place in interkinesis
following stages in meiosis can last for years? stage
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii)
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene (3) (i) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
15. Some events of cell cycle are given below 22. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. cell cycle
a. Duplication of centriole (a) Cell is metabolically active in antephase
b. Tubulin synthesis (b) Centriole duplicates in S-phase along with DNA

replication
c. Formation of synaptonemal complex, and
(c) Chromosome number becomes double in
d. Decondensation of chromosomes
S-phase
Find the stages of cell cycle where these events
(d) Interphase represents the phase between two
take place respectively
successive M phase
(1) G2 phase, G2 phase, Zygotene, Diakinesis
(e) M-phase lasts more than 95% duration of cell
(2) S phase, G2 phase, Zygotene, Telophase cycle
(3) S phase, G1 phase, Diplotene, Telophase (1) (a) and (c) (2) (c) and (e)
(4) G1 phase, G2 phase, Pachytene, Diakinesis (3) (c), (d) & (e) (4) (b), (c) & (e)
Last Leap For NEET (Part-II) The Cell Cycle and Cell Division 257
23. Dividing cells at the end of prophase when viewed 31. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
under the microscope do not show all, except
(1) Period of active mitosis ranges from
(1) Nucleolus and nuclear membrane 10 minutes to several hours
(2) Golgi complex (2) Mitotic poison is obtained from a plant
belonging to the family Liliaceae
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Synaptonemal complex plays an important role
(4) Condensed chromosomes
both in meiosis as well as mitosis
24. What is the amount of DNA in metaphase stage of
(4) Mitosis is responsible for growth, repair and
a meiocyte if a microspore of the same plant has
healing
30 pg DNA?
32. During cell cycle, time taken for the completion of
(1) 30 pg (2) 60 pg
M-phase is
(3) 15 pg (4) 120 pg
(1) 5-10% of the total cell cycle
25. Mitosis in higher group of plants is
(1) Anastral and acentric
(2) Anastral and centric
(3) Amphiastral and centric 33. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
(4) Amphiastral and acentric meiosis?
26. Poleward separation of homologous chromosome (1) There is splitting of centromeres in anaphase II
without centromere division occurs in (2) Bivalent to univalent stage of homologous
(1) Metaphase I (2) Anaphase II chromosome is concerned with anaphase-I
(3) Anaphase I (4) Metaphase II (3) Meiosis never occurs in haploid cells
27. What would be the DNA content in a diploid cell at (4) All chromosomes form a single plate in
anaphase-I if its egg cell has 10 pg DNA? metaphase-I
(1) 10 pg (2) 20 pg 34. Random distribution of paternal and maternal

chromosomes into daughter cells occurs in
(3) 30 pg (4) 40 pg
(1) Zygotene (2) Anaphase I
28. Sister chromatids
(3) Anaphase II (4) Pachytene
(1) Are two different chromosomes attached to
each other 35. Bending of chromosomes and attachment of
spindle fibres occur at _______
(2) Are exact copies of one chromosome that are
attached to each other (1) Primary constriction only
(3) Shows exchange of genes among themselves (2) Secondary constriction only
(4) Are chromosomes that carry different genes (3) Both the constrictions simultaneously
(4) First of all at primary constriction and later on
29. How many meiosis are required for the formation of
at secondary constriction
200 seeds in Pisum sativum?
36. A diploid cell of human being has ______ picogram
(1) 200 (2) 250
of DNA
(3) 300 (4) 400
(1) 2 - 3 (2) 5 - 6
30. Interzonal fibres appear between the
(3) 15 - 20 (4) 16 - 18
(1) Daughter centromeres
37. At which of the following stages of meiosis
(2) Centromere and the pole chromomeres are visible?
(3) Two poles (1) Leptotene (2) Metaphase-II
(4) Two centrioles (3) Diplotene (4) Prophase-II
38. If a sperm of an organism has 5 pg of DNA in its 46. Find out an incorrect statement for leptotene stage
nucleus, how much DNA would be present in a of reductional division
somatic cells of this organism during (1) Chromatids are clearly visible
metaphase-I ?
(2) Chromomeres are clearly visible
(1) 5 pg (2) 10 pg
(3) Bouquet stage appears in many animal cells
(3) 20 pg (4) 40 pg
(4) Chromosome appears as a single thread
39. Desynapsis starts in which stage of cell division?
47. Suppose an onion root tip cell has 14
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene chromosomes and 10 pg DNA, what will be the
number of chromosomes and amount of DNA
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
present at G2 phase of cell cycle?
40. Synaptonemal complex is
(1) 14 & 20 pg (2) 14 & 10 pg
(1) Formed between sister chromatids (3) 7 & 2.5 pg (4) 7 & 5 pg
(2) Required for synapsis 48. The stage of the cell cycle in which cells remain
(3) Formed in zygotene metabolically active but no longer proliferate, is
called
(1) G2 phase (2) G0 phase
41. Which one of the following event is absent in
pachytene stage? (3) S-phase (4) M-phase
(1) Synaptonemal complex is more distinct 49. The stage present between meiosis-I and meiosis-
II is
(2) Formation of recombination nodules
(1) Called as interkinesis
(3) Exchange of chromatids segments
(2) Generally short lived
(3) Followed by prophase-II
42. Cell grows maximum is size with more synthesis
of RNA and protein in
50. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce
(1) Pre-mitotic gap phase 101 seeds in a typical dicot plant?
(2) Post mitotic gap phase (1) 125 (2) 126
(3) Second growth phase (3) 127 (4) 128
(4) Synthetic phase 51. Tubulin proteins for spindle fibre formation are
43. Prophase I of meiosis is typically longer and more synthesised in
complex where recombination between nonsister (1) G1 phase (2) G2 phase
chromatids of homologous chromosomes occurs in
(3) Late prophase (4) Early metaphase
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene 52. Correct sequence of cell cycle is
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis (1) G1 G2 S M
44. Some cells do not exhibit cell division and are said
(2) M G2 S G1
to be arrested in __________ and can re-enter the
cell cycle in _________ . (3) M G2 S G1
(1) G1 and G2 (2) G1 and S (4) S G2 M G1

(3) G0 and G1 (4) G1 and G0 53. Which of the following stage of M-phase is
considered as tetraploid stage for human cell?
45. Homologous chromosomes join laterally in the
process of synapsis to form bivalents was first (1) Anaphase of mitosis
observed by (2) Anaphase-I of meiosis
(1) Van Beneden (2) Montgomery (3) Metaphase-I of meiosis
(3) Strasburger (4) Johannsen (4) More than one option is correct
54. Colchicine induces polyploidy by interfering with the 62. NHC proteins are synthesised
spindle formation but the plant from which it is (1) In S-phase only
obtained remains unaffected
(2) Alongwith histones only
(1) Due to presence of anticolchicine
(3) Throughout cell cycle
(2) Because colchicine remains inactive
(4) In M-phase only
(3) Because spindle is made up of microfilaments
63. Congression is
in this plant
(1) Centripetal movement of chromosomes
(4) Because cells of this plant are already
polyploid (2) Arrangement of chromosomes in ball like
structure
55. The beginning of diplotene stage is recognised by
(3) Anaphasic movement of chromosomes
(1) Terminalisation of chiasmata completely
(4) Centrifugal movement of chromosomes
64. During the meiotic division, the homologous
(3) Disappearance of nuclear membrane chromosomes separate but sister chromatids
completely remain associated at their centromeres in
(4) Synapsis of chromosomes (1) Anaphase-II (2) Zygotene
56. Which one of the following chemical inhibits mitotic (3) Anaphase-I (4) Diakinesis
cell division by agglutination of chromosomes? 65. Find the correct match w.r.t. cell cycle
(1) Cyanide (2) Insulin Column-I Column-II
(3) Mustard gas (4) Colchicine a. Spireme stage (i) Anaphase
57. Which phase is an interval between mitosis and b. Synaptonemal (ii) Zygotene
initiation of DNA replication? complex formation
(1) S-phase (2) G2-phase c. Interzonal spindle (iii) Prophase
(3) G1-phase (4) M-phase fibres stage
d. Terminalisation (iv) Diakinesis
58. Chromosome appears as a single thread with
initiation stage
distinct chromomeres is a characteristic feature of
(v) Diplotene
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(v)
(3) Metaphase (4) Telophase I
(3) a(ii), b(v), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(v)
59. Presence of interzonal fibres is a major difference
of spindle fibre types between 66. Which of the following statement is correct for the
post-mitotic phase of the cell cycle?
(1) Prophase – Metaphase
(1) Change in chromosome number but not in
(2) Metaphase – Anaphase DNA amount
(3) Anaphase – Telophase (2) Change in DNA amount but not in chromosome
(4) Leptotene – Zygotene number
60. Terminal meiosis is (3) No synthesis of nucleotides and amino acids
(1) Zygotic (2) Sporogenic (4) Neither change in the chromosome number
nor amount of DNA
(3) Gametic (4) Oosporic
67. If the amount of DNA in meiocyte at G1 phase is
61. Total number of mitotic divisions required to 2C then, the amount of DNA in each daughter cell,
produce 256 cells from a single cell will be after meiosis-I will be
(1) 8 (2) 128 (1) 2C (2) 1C
(3) 14 (4) 255 (3) 4C (4) 8C
68. Select the correct statement about G1 phase of 72. Prophase as the first stage of mitosis is marked by
cell cycle the
(1) Cell is metabolically inactive (1) Initiation of condensation of chromosomal
material
(2) Cell stops growing
(2) Reappearance of Golgi bodies and ER
(3) It is not a phase of synthesis of non-histone
proteins (3) Completion of condensation of chromosomes
(4) DNA in the cell does not replicate (4) Different shape of chromosome
69. If spores have 10 chromosomes and 20 picogram 73. In a microspore, the number of chromosomes is
DNA then what would be the chromosome number 10 and DNA content is 20 pg. What is the number
and DNA amount in spore mother cell at the end of chromosomes and DNA content in its meiocyte
of S-phase in the life cycle of same plant? at G1 stage?
(1) 40 chromosomes and 80 pg DNA (1) 20, 20 (2) 10, 40
(2) 20 chromosomes and 80 pg DNA (3) 20, 40 (4) 10, 20

74. If amount of DNA in sperm cell is 10 picogram,
(3) 20 chromosomes and 40 pg DNA
then what will be amount in microsporocyte in
(4) 40 chromosomes and 40 pg DNA antephase of the cell cycle?
70. Certain stages of cell division are represented by (1) 10 pg (2) 20 pg
figures given below, identify them correctly
(3) 80 pg (4) 40 pg
75. Find out the incorrect statement
(1) Karyokinesis occurs twice in both mitosis and
meiosis
(2) The nuclear membrane disappears by the end
of prophase-II
! " # (3) Exchange of chromosomal segments takes
(1) A – Metaphase II, place during meiosis-I
B – Prophase I, (4) Onion root tip is useful to study mitosis
C – Anaphase II 76. If the number of bivalents aligned on the equatorial
(2) A – Metaphase II, plate of metaphase-I is 10. What will be the
number of chromosomes in each haploid cell after
B – Prophase I, meiosis II?
C – Anaphase I (1) 5 (2) 10
(3) A – Metaphase I,
(3) 15 (4) 20
B – Prophase I,
77. Nuclear envelope as well as nucleolus disappear
C – Anaphase I completely
(4) A – Metaphase I, (1) In late prophase, early prophase-II and
B – Prophase II, diplotene
C – Anaphase II (2) In early prophase-I and late prophase-II
71. Match the following (3) By the end of prophase-I and telophase-II
Column-I Column-II
(4) By the end of diakinesis and prophase-II
a. Interkinesis (i) Cell growth
78. Suppose 10 chromosomes and 14 pg DNA
b. Pachytene (ii) Chiasma present in each cell of onion root tip, what will be
c. Diplotene (iii) Centriole duplication the number of chromosomes and amount of DNA
d. G2 phase (iv) Recombination nodule present at antephase of cell cycle?
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (1) 10 and 28 pg (2) 10 and 14 pg
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (3) 28 and 10 pg (4) 5 and 7 pg
79. The attachment of spindle fibre to kinetochores of 88. In which of the following phase of cell cycle
chromosomes is the key feature of chromosomes are represented by monad?
(1) Metaphase (2) Anaphase (1) Anaphase (2) Anaphase-I
(3) Early prophase (4) Telophase (3) Metaphase (4) Metaphase-I
80. During poleward movement of separated daughter 89. Diplotene stage is initiated by
chromosomes at anaphase
(1) Synaptonemal complex development
(1) Their ends are toward poles and centromere
toward equator
(3) Disappearance of nuclear membrane and
(2) Their ends are toward equator and centromere
nucleolus completely
toward pole
(4) Starting of spindle formation
(3) Interzonal fibres contract and pull
chromosomes 90. Chromosomes number is reduced to half in
(4) Sister chromatids are pulled on same pole by (1) Homotypic division (2) Heterotypic division
kinetochore fibre (3) Equational division (4) Mitosis
81. The stage in which cell is metabolically active but 91. The substances which do not inhibit mitosis are
fails to divide is
(1) Azides and cyanides
(1) G1-phase (2) G0-phase
(2) Mustard gas and chalones
(3) S-phase (4) M-phase
(3) Insulin and gibberellin
82. The preparatory phase between meiosis-I and
(4) Cyanides and chalones
meiosis-II is called
92. Cell division proper lasts for only about one hour
(1) Intermitosis
out of the average duration of 24 hours of cell cycle
(2) Interphase in humans, where
(3) Intermeiotic interphase (1) The interphase lasts more than 95% of the
(4) Interkinesis duration
83. How many meiotic divisions are required to produce (2) The M-phase lasts more than 95% of the
100 seeds in a typical dicot plant? duration
(1) 125 (2) 126 (3) The interphase lasts less than 5% of the
(3) 127 (4) 128 duration
84. Longest phase of cell division is (4) The G2 phase lasts about 95% of the duration
(1) Prophase (2) Anaphase 93. G2 to M transition is triggered by
(3) Metaphase (4) Telophase (1) Maturation promoting factor
85. Proteins for spindle fibre formation are synthesised (2) G1 cyclin + cdc2 kinase
in (3) Mitotic cyclin + cdc2 kinase
(1) G1 phase (2) G2 phase (4) More than one option is correct
(3) Late prophase (4) Early metaphase 94. Which of the following factor is responsible for the
86. The correct sequence of cell cycle is anaphasic movement in mitosis?
(1) G1 G2 S M (1) Dissolution of microtubules of tractile fibres
(2) G1 S G2 M (2) Expansion of interzonal fibres
(3) M G2 S G1 (3) Dissolution of interzonal fibres
(4) S G1 M G2 (4) More than one option is correct
87. Which of the following stage of M-phase is 95. In which of the following stage, cells remain
considered as tetraploid stage? metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless
(1) Anaphase of mitosis called on to do so depending on the requirement
(2) Anaphase-I of meiosis of the organism?
(3) Metaphase-II of meiosis (1) G1 (2) S
(4) More than one option is correct (3) G2 (4) G0
96. Which of the following phase of cell division is 104. Specific site for attachment of spindle fibres to the
involved in decondensation of chromosomes? chromosome is
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(1) Centrosome (2) Kinetochore
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
(3) Centriole (4) Blepheroplast
97. If egg of an organism has 20 pg of DNA in its
nucleus. How much DNA would a diploid cell of 105. Identify the label A, B, C and D in the following figure
same organism have in pachytene (x), diakinesis # $
(y) and anaphase-I (z)?
!"#
$%# %!
&'
(1) x = 40 pg ; y = 40 pg ; z = 80 pg
(2) x = 80 pg ; y = 80 pg ; z = 80 pg "
%" !
(3) x = 40 pg ; y = 80 pg ; z = 80 pg
(4) x = 80 pg ; y = 40 pg ; z = 40 pg
(1) A – ‘S’ phase; B – Prophase; C – M phase;
98. Double metaphasic plate in meiosis develops D – G0 phase
during
(2) A – ‘S’ phase; B – G0 phase; C – Telophase;
(1) Metaphase I (2) Metaphase II
D – Cytokinesis
(3) Anaphase I (4) Anaphase II
(3) A – ‘S’ phase; B – Prophase; C – Cytokinesis;
99. Mark the incorrect match (w.r.t. mitotic poison)
D – G0 phase
(1) Ribonuclease – Metaphase
(2) Azide – Prophase (4) A – ‘S’ phase; B – Prophase; C – G0 phase;
D – Cytokinesis
(3) Mustard gas – Agglutination of
chromosomes 106. Correctly match the events of cell cycle with the
respective stage or substage of their occurrence
(4) Cyanide – Prophase
Column-I Column-II
100. A large number of nucleotides, amino acids for
histone synthesis and energy rich compounds are a. Equatorial plate (i) Anaphase-II
formed in b. Diplotene (ii) Synapsis
(1) Invisible phase (2) Synthetic phase c. Centromeric splitting (iii) Metaphase
(3) Post synthetic phase (4) Post mitotic phase d. Zygotene (iv) Chiasmata
101. Prophase-II of meiotic division (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(1) Is preceded by centrioles duplication in (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
animals 107. Find the odd one w.r.t. meiotic cell cycle
(2) Is followed by DNA duplication in plants (1) DNA replication occurs once only i.e., before
(3) Begins with the simultaneous splitting of the Gap-2
centromere of each chromosome (2) Karyokinesis occurs twice
(4) Is marked by reappearance of nucleolus (3) Reduction of ploidy at metaphase-I
102. Condensation of chromosomes is completed and (4) Crossing over in tetrad stage
they can be observed clearly under the microscope 108. Identify the correct match :
in
(1) A haploid plant does not produce gametes
(1) Telophase (2) Prophase
(2) Meiosis does not occur in haploid cells
(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
(3) All plants form gametes by meiosis
103. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. interphase of
(4) Mitosis cannot be the means for gamete
cell cycle
formation
(1) Generation time of different cells depends upon
109. M phase starts with the nuclear division,
pre-mitotic gap phase
corresponding to the separation of daughter
(2) Cells of G0-phase are metabolically inactive and chromosomes and usually ends with
non-proliferating
(1) Division of cytoplasm
(3) Ploidy level is changed due to DNA replication
in S-phase (2) Telophase
(4) Post-mitotic gap phase show maximum size (3) G2 phase
growth and nucleotides synthesis (4) Karyokinesis
110. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 117. Match the following
a. Colchicine inhibits the formation of mitotic Column I Column II
spindle. a. G1 phase (i) Longest phase of cell cycle
b. Centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm of dicot b. M phase (ii) Synthesis of histone proteins
plants during interphase.
c. S-phase (iii) Cell quiescence
c. Cell cycle is under the genetic control.
d. G0 phase (iv) Nuclear division
(1) Only a is correct (2) b & c are correct
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) Only b is correct (4) a & c are correct (3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
111. Prophase of the mitotic division is 118. Identify A, B, C and D stages of mitosis in the
(1) Longer and more complex than prophase-I of figure given below
meiosis
(2) Shorter and less complex than prophase-I of
meiosis
(3) Longer and less complex than prophase-I of
meiosis
(4) Shorter and more complex than prophase-I of
meiosis
!"# !$# !%#
(1) A - Late prophase;
112. Stage between the meiosis-I and meiosis-II is
B - Early prophase;
(1) Characterised by polymerisation of nucleotides
C - Transition to metaphase
(2) Short lived than preparatory phase of cell cycle
(2) A - Early prophase;
(3) Called karyokinesis
B - Late prophase;
(4) Characterised by DNA as well as centriole
duplication C - Metaphase
113. If at the end of meiosis each daughter cell has four (3) A - Early prophase;
chromosomes, how many chromosomes would a B - Anaphase;
diploid cell have in G1 phase of cell cycle? C - Metaphase
(1) 2 (2) 4 (4) A - Interphase;
(3) 8 (4) 16 B - Prophase;
114. Choose the incorrect match C - Metaphase
(1) Synapsis – Zygotene 119. Select the correct statement
(2) Phragmoplast – E.coli (1) Human cells divide once in approximately every
(3) DNA replication – S-phase 24 hours
(4) Pachytene – Crossing over (2) Centrioles duplicates in the cytoplasm during
G2 - phase
115. Which of the following stage is recognised by the
dissolution of synaptonemal complex, so the (3) In the quiescent stage cells remain
recombined homologous chromosomes will start metabolically inactive
separating? (4) During G1 - stage cell is metabolically active
(1) Metaphase II (2) Diakinesis but does not grow
(3) Diplotene (4) Pachytene 120. Chromosomes clusters at spindle poles and their
identity is lost as discrete elements during
116. Read the following statements (a-c) carefully and
find out the option (1-4) representing the correct (1) Interphase (2) Prophase
sequence of events in amitotic division. (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
a. A constriction appears in the cytoplasm. 121. Which of the following changes occur when a
b. Nucleus of the cell elongates. bivalent passes from zygotene to pachytene
c. A constriction appears in the nucleus which stage?
gradually deepens and divides the nucleus into (1) A tetrad is changed into dyad
two daughter nuclei. (2) A monad is changed into dyad
(1) c a b (2) b a c (3) A dyad is changed into tetrad
(3) b c a (4) a c b (4) A bivalent is changed into tetravalent
122. Beginning of diplotene is recognised by 128. Recombination between homologous chromosomes

(1) Terminalisation of chiasma is completed by the end of
(1) Interphase (2) Pachytene
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene
(3) Exchange of genetic material between
homologous chromosomes 129. Diplotene stage is characterized by all of these
statements, except
(4) Disappearance of nuclear membrane
(1) Extended and metabolically active in oocytes
123. Which of the following statement about telophase- (2) Dissolution of tripartite ladder like structure
I is correct?
(3) Can last for months or years
(1) Congression stage
(4) Bivalents separate from each other at the site
(2) Disjunction of homologous chromosome stage of crossing over
(3) Centromere dividing stage 130. Study the given diagram and mark the correct
(4) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus reform stage option
124. Invisible phase of cell cycle is characterised by
(1) Quiescent stage !
(2) Most variable in length
"
(3) Doubling in amount of DNA &
(4) Synthesis of protein kinase $
(
'
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#
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!"
125. %
(1) Cells in this stage remain : F

metabolically active but no
longer proliferate
(2) DNA replicates in nucleus and : A
Formation of recombination nodules and chiasmata centriole duplicates in the
occur in which of the above stages? cytoplasm
(1) A & B (2) B & C (3) Constitutes more than 95% : D and E
duration of cell cycle
(3) B only (4) A only
(4) Interval between mitosis : C
126. a. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of and initiation of DNA replication
chromosomes during metaphase.
131. All are the significance of mitosis, except
b. Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio
(1) Production of daughter cells with identical
between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
genetic complement
c. Pachytene stage is relatively short-lived (2) Restoration of nucleocytoplasmic ratio
compared to the leptotene.
(3) Plays important role in evolution by inducing
d. Interkinesis is short lived stage characterised variations
by duplication of DNA. (4) Responsible for growth of multicellular
(1) a, b & c are correct (2) Only c is incorrect organisms
(3) b & d are correct (4) a & b are correct 132. Which of the following statements are related with
127. Select correct match (column I with column II) the first phase of karyokinesis in mitosis?
A. Morphology of chromosomes can be most
Column I Column II
easily studied.
a. Bivalent as tetrad (i) Diplotene B. Centrioles, which had undergone duplication
b. Chromatids separation (ii) Telophase I during S phase, begin to move towards
c. Terminalisation start phase (iii) Anaphase II opposite poles of the cell.
C. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform.
d. Nuclear membrane and (iv) Pachytene
D. The initiation of condensation of chromosomal
nucleolus reappear
material.
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (1) C, D (2) B, D
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (3) A, B (4) B, C
133. Meiosis involves 140. Stage between the two meiotic divisions is
(1) Formation of two diploid daughter cells at the (1) Followed by prophase-I
end of process
(2) Characterised by DNA, RNA and protein
(2) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and replication
recombination between them
(3) Generally short lived
(3) Two cycles of DNA replication
(4) Featured by chromosome condensation
(4) Two sequential cycles of cell division but single
cycle of nuclear division 141. The microtubules from the opposite poles of the
spindle attach to the pair of homologous
134. Identify the mismatched pair:
chromosomes in
(1) Synapsis of homologous – Leptotene
chromosomes (1) Metaphase-I (2) Prophase-I
(2) Appearance of recombination – Pachytene (3) Metaphase (4) Metaphase-II
nodule 142. Consider the following four statements (I–IV) related
(3) Transition to metaphase-I – Diakinesis to cell cycle, and select the correct option stating
(4) Formation of synaptonemal – Zygotene them as true [T] and false [F].
complex I. Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase is
135. Mark the stage of cell cycle in which centromeres a continuous process.
split and chromatids move to opposite poles. II. Interphase is the phase of actual cell division.
(1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase III. The number of chromosomes doubles in S-
(3) Telophase-I (4) Anaphase-I phase
136. Mark the correct statement: IV. The cells that do not divide further exit G1-
(1) The stage between two successive meiotic phase to enter an inactive stage.
divisions is generally long lived Options:
(2) In plant cells, wall formation starts in the I II III IV
centre of the cell and grows outward to meet
the existing lateral walls (1) T F F F
(3) Meiosis results in conservation of specific (2) F T T T
chromosome number of each species across (3) F F T T
generations in asexually reproducing
(4) T F F T
organisms
143. Mark the option which truly represents the event of
(4) Telophase - I can last for months or years
cell division stage in given diagram
137. Choose the odd one w.r.t significance of meiosis
(1) Conservation of specific chromosome number
of each species
(2) Increases genetic variability
(3) Able to regenerate part or whole of the
organism
(4) Introduces new combination of traits
138. In which of the following phases centromeres split
and chromatids separate and then chromatids (1) Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of
move to opposite poles? chromosomes
(1) Metaphase-I, Anaphase (2) Splitting of centromere
(2) Anaphase, Anaphase-I (3) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform
(3) Anaphase-I, Metaphase-II (4) More than one option is correct
(4) Anaphase, Anaphase-II 144. If a meiospore has 20 picograms DNA then what
139. Recombinase enzyme is activated in which of the was the DNA content in its meiocyte at G1 and
following phase of meiosis? S phase respectively?
(1) Leptotene (2) Pachytene (1) 20, 40 (2) 40, 80
(3) Zygotene (4) Diplotene (3) 20, 80 (4) 40, 40
145. The complete disintegration of nuclear envelope 3. A : At telophase stage two daughter nuclei are
marks the formed.
(1) Early prophase R : The nuclear membrane is formed in telophase.
(2) Start of second phase of mitosis 4. A : As a result of synapsis each gene is brought
into close contact with its allele located on
(3) First phase of mitosis
homologous chromosomes.
(4) End of second phase of mitosis
R : Synaptonemal complex separates paired
146. Restorage of nucleocytoplasmic ratio is performed homologous chromosomes.
in
5. A : DNA replication occurs in premitotic phase in
(1) G1 phase (2) S phase plant cell.
(3) G2 phase (4) M phase R : DNA polymerase is not active in synthetic
147. Which of the following structure(s) is/are not phase of plant cell.
reformed during telophase stage? 6. A : The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the
(1) Nucleolus, ER (2) Golgi complex dissolution of the synaptonemal complex.
(3) Nuclear envelope (4) Chromosomes R : Shifting of chiasmata from centre to ends of
bivalent is called terminalisation.
SECTION - B 7. A : In telophase stage of mitosis two daughter
Assertion - Reason Type Questions nuclei are formed.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion R : The nuclear membrane formation has started in
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) telophase.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the 8. A : Synapsis occurs during the zygotene stage of
reason is the correct explanation of the meiosis.
assertion, then mark (1). R : Synaptonemal complex joins non-sister
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
reason is not the correct explanation of the 9. A : DNA replication occurs in postmitotic gap
assertion, then mark (2). phase in plant cell.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is R : DNA polymerase is most active in synthetic
false, then mark (3). phase of plant cell only.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false 10. A : No splitting of centromere in anaphase I takes
statements, then mark (4). place.
1. A : Meiosis I is heterotypic division. R : In some cases telophase I is omitted .
R : It brings about change from haploid to diploid 11. A : Metaphase II of meiosis involve formation of
state. bivalents on equatorial plate.
2. A : Meiosis II is a homotypic division. R : Bivalent is formed during leptotene.
R : Chromosomes number remain same during 12. A : Tubulin proteins are synthesized in G2 phase.
Meiosis II division. R : It is longest phase of cell cycle.
!"!"!
Chapter 4
Transport in Plants

SECTION - A
(1) Process of sugar loading at source is an
Objective Type Questions active process
1. Rate of the diffusion of substances is affected by, (2) At the sink, incoming sugars are actively
all, except transported out of phloem
(1) Gradient of concentration (3) Unloading of minerals occurs at fine vein
(2) Temperature but not pressure endings through diffusion
(3) Density (4) Xylem transports only inorganic nutrients while
phloem transports only organic materials
(4) Both temperature and pressure
8. Facilitated transport is related with all, except
2. Choose the incorrect match
(1) Uphill transport
(1) Water melon – 92% water (2) Transport saturates
(2) Plasmolysis – Tradescantia (3) Highly selective
discolor
(4) Require special membrane proteins
(3) Root pressure – 2 atmosphere
9. In facilitated diffusion
(4) Facilitated transport – Uphill transport (1) Special proteins allow movement of molecules
3. Which one of the following shows correct from low to high concentration
relationship for a vacuolated plant cell? (2) Transport rate reaches maximum when all
(1) = – (2) = transporter lipids are used
w s p w s
(3) = + (4) = (3) Allows cell to select substances for uptake
w s p s p
4. The cells get swell up, when placed in (4) Sensitive to inhibitors which react with fatty
acid side chains
(1) Hypertonic solution (2) Hypotonic solution
10. Which of the given feature is not common between
(3) Ultratonic solution (4) Isotonic solution active transport and facilitated diffusion?
5. The translocation in phloem is explained by the (1) Uphill transport
(1) Cytochrome pump hypothesis (2) Requirement of special membrane proteins
(2) Pressure flow hypothesis (3) Highly selective nature
(3) Transpiration pull and cohesion theory (4) Saturation kinetics
(4) Starch ( ) sugar conversion hypothesis 11. Water molecules are directed to ________ at inner
boundary of cortex, as this layer offers a great
6. Transpiration in old stem and fruits occur through resistance against movement.
(1) Cork cells (1) Symplast of suberised cells
(2) Lenticels (2) Symplast of non-suberised cells
(3) Stomata (3) Apoplast of lignified cells
(4) Hydathodes (4) Symplast of lignified cells
268 Transport in Plants Last Leap For NEET (Part-II)
12. Select the correct statement w.r.t. rate of diffusion 18. Root pressure theory proposed by Priestley for
ascent of sap may not be accepted because of all,
(1) Directly proportional to density of medium
except
(2) Inversely proportional to DPG (1) The magnitude of root pressure is insufficient
(3) Directly proportional to difference of diffusion (2) Actively transpiring plants do not generate root
pressure at the two ends of a system pressure
(4) Directly proportional to the distance between (3) Root pressure develops in certain seasons only
the two (4) Development of root pressure in gymnosperm
is absent
13. Which of the following condition is favourable for 19. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. phloem
the opening of stomata? transport
(1) pH 5, low CO2 concentration and light (1) Can be transported in any required direction
(2) pH 7, low CO2 concentration and light (2) Phloem loading and unloading utilises ATP
(3) Phloem loading sets up a water potential
(3) Darkness, pH 5 and high CO2 concentration
gradient between source and sink
(4) High CO2 concentration and low K+ ions (4) Immobilisation of sugar is not necessary at sink
14. With reference to the given graph the cell will be 20. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. pressure flow
fully turgid if : hypothesis of organic solute translocation
$"#" (1) This theory was proposed by Munch
!"
! (2) Solutes are carried en mass from the region of
!"#$$%"#
low T.P. to high T.P.

!# # (3) Dissolved sugars follow symplast pathway
"
(4) Loading of sugar is an active process
" !"#" 21. Which one of the following equation is correct for
incipient plasmolysed cell?
!$! !$% !$& !$' (1) DPD = OP – TP (2) OP = TP
%&'()* (3) w = s + p (4) w = s – p
(1) A = C and B = 0 22. Major movement of water through root cortical cells
(2) B = C and A = 0 occurs by
(1) Transmembrane pathway
(3) A = B and C = 0
(2) Vacuolar pathway
(4) A = B = 0 and C = maximum value
(3) Symplast pathway
15. Value of O.P. in a vacuolated cell is (4) Apoplast pathway
(1) Less than DPD 23. Rate of transpiration is increased by
(2) More than DPD (1) Low root/shoot ratio
(2) High CO2 concentration in guard cells
(3) Equal to T.P.
(3) Low relative humidity
(4) More than one option is correct (4) High atmospheric pressure
16. Which one of the following statement is incorrect 24. Select the possible path of water movement from
when absorbed water passes from root hair cell to the given hypothetical arrangement of cells
xylem through symplastic pathway?
(1) A negative pressure is developed in xylem ! !"!#$
+ ! !"!# ,
(2) OP and energy plays the major role %&!'!(
(3) Forces for water absorption develop in root
(4) It leads to the formation of root pressure in
)&!'!*!
xylem %&!'!$!
17. Water potential of a cell is affected by

-
(1) Solute potential (2) Pressure potential (1) A B C (2) C A B
(3) Osmotic potential (4) All of these (3) C B A (4) B A C
Last Leap For NEET (Part-II) Transport in Plants 269
25. Maximum O.P. is developed by 32. When a flaccid cell (TP = Zero) is kept in isotonic
solution, its TP
(1) 10% glucose (2) 5% Na2CO3
(1) Will increase (2) Will decrease
(3) 3% NaHCO3 (4) 6% NaCl
(3) Will remain zero (4) Becomes negative
26. Hydathodes consist of a group of loosely arranged
achlorophyllous and parenchymatous cells called 33. Select the correct statement w.r.t. imbibition
(1) Increase in volume of imbibant is proportional
(1) Complementary cells (2) Cork cells
to the water absorbed
(3) Epithem cells (4) Velamen cells
(2) A semipermeable membrane is required
27. Girdling experiments cannot be carried out in (3) Pressure developed is often small and less
(1) Monocots (4) Heat is produced which is a part of kinetic
(2) Dicots with bicollateral vascular bundles energy of imbibate
(3) Dicots with collateral vascular bundles 34. The movement of substances in xylem and phloem
elements is basically a mechanism of
(1) Diffusion (2) Osmosis
28. Facilitated transport is similar to simple diffusion in
(3) Mass flow (4) Facilitated transport
(1) Presence of uphill transport
35. Select an incorrect statement regarding the role or
(2) Absence of transport saturation effect of transpiration
(3) Absence of movement of transport proteins (1) It decreases the amount of water available in
young cells
(4) Response to protein inhibitors
(2) A lot of energy is wasted in absorbing and
29. According to K+ ion pump hypothesis of stomatal
lifting of extra water which is lost
opening given by Levitt which of the following
statement is incorrect? (3) Excessive transpiration induces plants to
produce inhibitors like ABA
(1) With the help of cytokinin, ATP and c-AMP
(4) The quality of fruits is decreased if
guard cells absorb K+ ions
environmental conditions favour transpiration
(2) Vacuoles present in guard cells are useful in 36. Select incorrect statement regarding phloem
storing solutes transport
(3) During closure of stomata malic acid is changed (1) Phloem transport is not much influenced by
to malate which causes leakage of K+ and Cl– deficiency of water
ions
(2) All the substances contained in phloem move
(4) At time of opening of stomata H + ions are with same velocity
absorbed by chloroplasts and mitochondria (3) Due to specialization for transport the
from cytoplasm in guard cell metabolic activities of sieve elements are very
30. Active transport can occur high
(1) At intact closed membrane only (4) Phloem transport is both acropetal and
basipetal
(2) At fragmented isolated membrane also
37. Which one of the following events occurs in
(3) At impermeable membrane also process of guttation?
(4) Even in absence of ATP hydrolysis (1) There is exudation of watery drops from the
edge of leaves of broken twigs
31. Maximum pressure which is produced in
osmotically active solution when it is separated (2) Guttated water is impure and have insoluble
from pure water by a semipermeable membrane is organic impurities
called (3) It occurs due to the development of positive
pressure in xylem present in the vein ending
(1) TP (2) s
(4) There is exudation of watery drops from
(3) OP (4) DPD permanently open pores on leaf surface
38. Which of the following factor has opening effect on 45. Suppose there are three cells A, B and C as
stomata? shown in figure, what is the direction of movement
(1) High temperature > 35°C even in darkness of water?
(2) CO2 conc. above 500 ppm . /
(3) A high pH in subsidiary cells
!!"!#!$%!&'()
(4) More than one option is correct !!"!#!$*!&'()
"!"!!!!$*!&'()
39. Water potential will be minimum in case of "!"!!!!,!&'()
(1) Pure water (2) 2% NaNO3
(3) 2% glucose (4) 5% KCl
40. Phloem loading is !!"!#!$+!&'()
(1) Crushing of primary phloem due to secondary "!"!!!!$-!&'()
growth
(2) Movement of photosynthate from mesophyll
cells to sieve elements 0
(1) A B and C
(3) Long distance transport from source to sink
(2) A B and B C
(4) Only apoplastic movement of photosynthate
from mesophyll cells to sieve elements (3) C A&B;A B
41. Water potential is a measure of free energy (4) C B&A C
associated with water per unit ______. 46. Stomatal opening is favoured by
(1) Volume (2) Mass (1) High CO2 conc. in guard cells
(3) Area (4) Density (2) Blue light and low temperature
42. What will be the value of TP of a cell if its OP and (3) Storage of starch in guard cells
w are 8 bars and – 5 bars respectively?
(4) Dissociation of malic acid in guard cells
(1) 8 bars (2) 5 bars
47. Apoplast in the system of adjacent cell walls is
(3) 13 bars (4) 3 bars
continuous throughout the plant, except
43. "Transpiration is considered as necessary evil" in
(1) Casparian strips
plants. Select the correct statements w.r.t.
transpiration (2) Cortex cells
a. Transpiration in old stems and fruits occur (3) Epidermis
through lenticels (4) Intercellular cortical space
b. Transpiration woody tissue 48. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. phloem
c. Transpiration is not measured with potometer transport
(1) Translocation is variable so transport is
( unidirectional
d. Transpiration !"#$%$&'
(2) Translocation of sucrose and water occurs
(1) a, b and c are correct through companion cells only
(2) a, c and d are correct (3) Phloem sap is slightly alkaline
(3) a, b and d are correct (4) Phloem is cutout to prove its role in
(4) All are correct traslocation during girdling experiment
44. What is the direction of water movement between 49. A positive hydrostatic pressure developing in xylem
two adjoining cells A and B, if elements due to active absorption of solute
particles is
A. s = –20 bars; p = 12 bars
(1) Responsible for transpiration pull
B. s = –25 bars; p = 20 bars
(2) Involved in ascent of sap
(1) A B
(3) Related to phenomenon of loss of liquid
(2) ! ! " droplets through hydathodes
(3) A B (4) The major driving force for absorption of water
(4) More than one option is correct by root hairs
50. How many different types of aquaporins are present 58. Transpiration is increased if internal factor like
in water channels?
(1) Atmospheric temperature and wind velocity are
(1) 4 (2) 8 high
(3) 6 (4) 2
(2) Sunken stomata and trichomes are high in
51. Simple diffusion does not saturate because it
number
(1) Occurs along the direction of concentration
gradient (3) Root / shoot ratio and leaf area are high
(2) Does not consume metabolic energy (4) Relative humidity and soil water are low
(3) Does not require carrier protein 59. The sucrose molecules present in mesophyll cells
(4) Occurs through channels are passed into the sieve tubes through companion
52. The TP of a cell at the stage of limited plasmolysis is cells by
(1) Negative (2) Positive (1) Active process
(3) Zero (4) Infinite (2) Facilitated diffusion
53. The water is first lost from cytoplasm and then from (3) Simple diffusion
vacuole during plasmolysis because
(4) Partially active and partially passive process
(1) Concentration of vacuolar sap is higher
(2) Tonoplast is impermeable for water 60. On the basis of following diagram identify the
correct direction of water movement
(3) Concentration of vacuolar sap is similar to
external solution
0
54. Phloem sap mainly contains !"!#$#%#&'(
(1) Water and sucrose

(2) Water and hormones 2
)*"*#$#+#&'( !#$#./#&'( 1
,*"*#$#-#&'(
"#$#-#&'(
(3) Water and amino acids
(4) Organic acids and nitrogenous compounds
55. At the time of stomatal opening the cellulosic "
microfibrils of the cell wall of guard cell are oriented (1) (2) B A C
! #
(1) Radially "
(2) Longitudinally (3) A B C (4)
!$ #
(3) Radially as well as longitudinally
61. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. dicot
(4) In all possible directions
stomatal apparatus
56. Mark the incorrect statement
(1) Chloroplast of guard cell is without RuBisCO
(1) All solutions have a lower water potential than
pure water (2) In guard cell cellulose microfibrils are oriented
(2) All minerals cannot be absorbed passively by longitudinally making it easier for the stomata
the roots to open
(3) More the solute molecules, more negative is (3) Guard cells are green heterotrophic cells
the s
(4) The inner wall of each guard cell, towards the
(4) Effects of root pressure is observable at night pore or stomatal aperture is thick and elastic
and early morning when transpiration is high
and absorption is low 62. Deduce the value of w , s and p for a flaccid
57. A plant adjusts the quantity and types of solutes cell if its OP is 25 bars
that reach the xylem due to special control points (1) = –50, = –25, = 25
w s p
which are transport proteins embedded in plasma
membrane of (2) w = zero, s = –25, p = 25
(1) Cortical cell (2) Pericycle cell (3) w = –25, s = –25, p = zero
(3) Hypodermal cell (4) Endodermal cell (4) w = 25, s = 50, p = 25
63. Select the correct sequence of passive absorption 70. Certain features of different transport mechanisms
path of water in a plant are given below, among these the common feature
between active transport and facilitated diffusion are
(1) Soil Root hair Epidermis Secondary
cortex Endodermis Pericycle a. Involvement of membrane proteins
Metaxylem b. Uphill transport
(2) Soil Root hair Cortex Passage cells c. Saturation kinetics
Pericycle Root protoxylem Root d. Highly selective nature
metaxylem e. ATP requirement
(3) Soil Epidermis Cortex Endodermis (1) a, c & d (2) a, b & d
Pericycle Root metaxylem Root
(3) a, c, d & e (4) b, c & d
protoxylem Root hair
71. Movement by diffusion is a slow process. It
(4) Soil Epidermis Cortex Pericycle
Endodermis Root protoxylem (a) May involve transport proteins.
(b) Is obvious in gases and liquids.
64. Simple diffusion is not saturated because
(c) Is more likely in solids than of solids.
(1) There is no requirement of energy
(d) Requires ATP energy.
(2) There is no requirement of carrier protein
Identify the correct set of statements :
(3) It occurs along the concentration gradient
(1) (a), (b) & (d) (2) (a), (b) & (c)
(4) More than one option is correct (3) (b), (c) & (d) (4) (c) & (d)
65. If solutes are added in a solution water potential of 72. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. transport in
solution will become plants
(1) Positive (2) More negative (1) Xylem transport is unidirectional and passive
(3) Zero (4) More positive (2) Phloem transport is multidirectional and active
66. Which of the following feature of cell wall of guard (3) In senescent plant organs, nutrients are
cell helps in the opening of stomata? withdrawn from growing points and stored in
the organ
(1) Facilitate intake of K+ and H+ ions
(4) Short distance transport occurs by diffusion
(2) Release cytokinin
73. All the given statements are correct w.r.t.
(3) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils movement by diffusion, except
(4) Thick outer wall (1) From intercellular spaces of the leaf to outside
67. Active transport is different from simple diffusion in (2) Energy independent
the
(3) Occurs in random fashion
(1) Absence of transport protein movement
(4) Dependent on a living system
(2) Presence of downhill movement
74. Active transport is different from facilitated diffusion
(3) Presence of uphill movement in
(4) Absence of transport protein saturation (1) Requirement of special proteins
68. Which of the following is not the feature of (2) Being highly selective in nature
facilitated transport?
(3) Uphill transport
(1) Requires special membrane proteins
(4) Exhibiting transport saturation
(2) Highly selective
75. Amount of the fresh weight as dry matter in most
(3) Transport saturates of the herbaceous plants is about
(4) Uphill movement (1) 10 –15% (2) 25 – 35%
69. Pressure potential is equal to osmotic potential in (3) 60 – 80% (4) 90 – 92%
(1) Fully plasmolysed cell 76. Deduce the value of w for a flaccid plant cell if its
(2) Flaccid cell osmotic pressure is 25 bars
(3) Turgid cell (1) Zero (2) 50 bars
(4) Cork cell (3) – 25 bars (4) 25 bars
77. Pressure potential is negative in the case of 84. Which of the following values of OP, DPD and TP
(1) Limiting plasmolysis appear correct for a fully turgid cell?
(2) Xylem under low transpiration OP DPD TP

(3) Evident plasmolysis (atm) (atm) (atm)
(4) Cell placed in hypotonic solution (1) 10 00 10
78. What occupies the space between the cell wall (2) 7 2 5
and the shrunken protoplast in a plasmolysed cell?
(3) 15 9 6
(1) Water (2) Cytoplasm
(4) 12 5 7
(3) Hypertonic solution (4) Hypotonic solution
85. According to potassium pump theory, stomatal
79. The apoplastic movement does not involve the
crossing through (1) Closing is ATP independent step
(1) Cell wall (2) Opening does not require EMP pathway
(2) Intercellular space (3) Opening is ATP independent step
(3) Cell membrane and tonoplast (4) Closing requires high OP in vacuole of guard
(4) More than one option is correct cell
80. Continuous chains of water molecules can be 86. If cell A with OP = 6 atm and TP = 5 atm
re-established in the xylem which often break is surrounded by B cell with OP = 3 atm and
under the enormous tensions created by TP = 2 atm, what will be direction of water
transpiration, due to the greatest contribution of movement?
(1) Negative pressure (1) A B (2) B A
(2) Turgor pressure
(3) A ! B (4) No movement
(3) Root pressure
87. The loss or excretion of water in the form of liquid
(4) Imbibition pressure
droplets from the leaves and other parts of an
81. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. transpiration uninjured plant is called guttation. It
(1) Magnitude of cuticular transpiration in ferns is (1) Occurs through stomata, lenticels and
as good as stomatal transpiration epidermal cells
(2) Some dicot leaves have amphistomatic
(2) Is not possible at early hours of the morning
condition
(3) Takes place during humid periods
(3) Orientation of the microtubules in cell wall of
guard cells have no role in stomatal opening (4) Was first studied by Tumarov in 1887
(4) The outer wall of each guard cell is thin and 88. Imbibition is possible if
elastic
(1) Adsorbant is hydrophobic and living
82. Rate of transpiration is increased by increasing all,
except (2) Imbibant is non-living and hydrophobic
(1) Temperature (2) Wind velocity (3) Liquid has low w than adsorbant
(3) Root : shoot ratio (4) Relative humidity (4) Imbibant has low water potential
83. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. rate of diffusion 89. Magnitude of tensile strength of water according to
(1) Inversely proportional to square root of density Dixon and Jolly is
of the substance (1) 1-5 Mpa (2) 2-8 Mpa
(2) Directly proportional to square root of density (3) 40-50 Mpa (4) 10-30 Mpa
of the substance
90. Choose odd one out w.r.t. critical element
(3) Increases with increasing temperature
(1) P (2) N
(4) Directly proportional to difference of diffusion
pressure at two ends (3) K (4) Mg
91. Which value will go on increasing if a flaccid cell 98. Minerals are unloaded at fine vein endings and
is placed in hypotonic solution? they are picked up by cells through
(1) DPD (2) p (1) Passive symport
(3) s (4) OP (2) Simple diffusion
92. The transpiration driven ascent of xylem sap (3) Active transport
depends mainly on the three physical properties of
water. These properties result in (4) Passive antiport
(1) Low tensile strength as well as low capillarity 99. Correct sequence of values of osmotic pressure of
(2) High tensile strength as well as high capillarity cell sap in herbs, shrubs and trees is
(3) High tensile strength but low capillarity (1) Herbs > shrubs > trees
(4) Low tensile strength but high capillarity (2) Shrubs > herbs > trees
93. Root pressure (3) Trees > shrubs > herbs
(1) Is responsible for pushing up water to small (4) Herbs > trees > shrubs
heights 100. Match the column I with column II
(2) Plays a major role in water movement in tall
Column I Column II
trees
a. Antitranspirants (i) Stomatal closure
(3) Accounts for the majority of water transport
b. Guttation (ii) Water vapour
(4) Is a negative hydrostatic pressure
94. Girdling experiment explains that c. Night recovery (iii) Hydathode
(1) Phloem is the path for translocation of starch d. Abscisic acid (iv) Phenyl mercuric
acetate
(2) Food transport takes place in one direction
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) Sugar translocation takes place from root to
shoot (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Unloading of sugars is active phenomenon 101. Water which comes out during guttation is
95. Which of the following is incorrect statement? (1) A solution containing many organic and
(1) Closely packed imbibant will imbibe more water inorganic substances
than loosely packed one (2) A solution containing organic substances only
(2) During plasmolysis water is first lost from (3) A solution containing inorganic substances
cytoplasm and then from vacuole only
(3) s is always less than zero in solutions (4) Pure water
(4) Transpiration maintains the shape and structure 102. A water logged soil is considered to be
of the plants by keeping cells turgid physiologically dry because of
96. Cell A has w = –3 bars and cell B has w = –8 (1) Decreased viscosity of water
bars. Choose the correct option w.r.t. water
(2) Increased viscosity of water
movement
(3) Abundance of salts
(1) Cell A to B
(4) Anaerobic condition
(2) Cell B to A
(3) Water cannot move in negative value of w
(4) Data insufficient Column I Column II
97. Direction of movement of water from outside into a. Osmotic pressure (i) Potometer
cell and also from one cell to next cell is from b. Wind velocity (ii) Psychrometer
(1) Higher DPD to lower DPD c. Rate of transpiration (iii) Osmometer
(2) Lower DPD to higher DPD d. Relative humidity (iv) Anemometer
(3) Higher OP to lower OP (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(4) Lower DP to higher DP (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
104. According to pressure flow hypothesis of sugar 109. Consider the following statements
translocation, a. Transpiration is an evil but unavoidable
(1) Sucrose is loaded in sieve tube cells with the b. Pinus seeds cannot germinate without
help of energy mycorrhizae
(2) Glucose is loaded from companion cell to c. Transpiration increases with increased humidity
sieve tube by active transport d. Direction of movement in the phloem is
(3) Passive transport is necessary to move the unidirectional of these statements
sucrose out of the phloem sap (1) Only a & b are correct
(4) Process of loading of sugars at the source (2) a, b & c are correct
produces a hypotonic condition in the phloem (3) c & d are correct
105. The flow of water upward through the xylem in (4) All the statements are correct
plants can achieve fairly high rates, up to 110. Substances that have a hydrophilic moiety find it
difficult to pass through the cytoplasmic membrane
(1) 0.25 m/min (2) 15 cm/hr
and are transported with the help of proteins known
(3) 0.25 cm/min (4) 15 m/min as facilitated diffusion. Choose odd one out w.r.t.
106. Identify A, B and C in the following figure. this process
(1) Highly selective
! (2) No saturation kinetics
(3) ATP not required
(4) Downhill transport
111. Movement of water through the symplast involves
crossing the
# (1) Intercellular spaces
"
(2) Cell wall
(1) A – Starch sheath
(3) Cell membrane
B – Symplastic path
C – Apoplastic path 112. The property of water that does not help in ascent
(2) A – Pericycle of sap driven by transpiration force, is
B – Symplastic path (1) Surface tension
C – Apoplastic path (2) Positive hydrostatic pressure in xylem
(3) Cohesion between water molecules
(3) A – Casparian strip
(4) Adhesion between water and tracheary
B – Symplastic path elements
C – Apoplastic path 113. Which of the following statement is true with
(4) A – Endodermis respect to the means of transport given below?
B – Apoplastic path
C – Transmembrane path
107. Select the incorrect match
(1) Symport : molecules move in opposite
direction
(2) Aquaporins : water channels
(3) Facilitated diffusion : passive transport
(4) Translocation : through vascular system
108. Germinating seeds get their supply of water
!"#$%&'()$& 322$%&'()$&
through *+&,$-- *+&,$--
(1) Diffusion (2) Osmosis
(3) Imbibition (4) Plasmolysis .$/0%12$&
(1) Very specific as it does not allow cell to select 120. The control points, where a plant adjusts the
substances for uptake quantity and types of solute that reach the xylem,
(2) Lipids form channels in the membrane for are
molecules to pass through, some channels
(1) Transport proteins of endodermal cells
are always open, others can be controlled
(3) It can cause net transport of molecules from a (2) Carrier proteins of epidermal cells
low to a high concentration (3) Porins of outer membrane of plastids and
(4) Transport rate reaches maximum when all of mitochondria
the protein transporters are being used (4) Transport proteins of outer cortical cells
114. Rate of transpiration is decreased, if
121. Which of the following statement for root pressure
(1) Available water in the soil is sufficient
is correct?
(2) Temperature increases
(1) It plays a major role in water movement up in
(3) Relative humidity is low
tall trees
(4) Root-shoot ratio decreases
115. When the cells are placed in a solution of higher (2) It is responsible for water loss in liquid phase
water potential, water diffuses into the cell causing from tip of grass blades
the cytoplasm to build up a pressure against the (3) It accounts for majority of water transport in
wall, that is called most of the plants
(1) Wall pressure (2) Turgor pressure (4) More than one option is correct
(3) Osmotic pressure (4) Imbibition pressure
122. Fill in the blanks:
116. If a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is
applied to pure water or a solution, its water A. Most mineral must enter the root by ______
potential absorption in the cytoplasm of epidermal cells.
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
B. Chief sinks for the mineral elements are
(3) Becomes zero (4) Remains constant ______ regions of plants.
117. Loss of water vapours from aerial parts of living
plants C. Phloem sap is mainly ______.
(1) Is purely a physical phenomenon (1) A – Passive
(2) Occurs through hydathode and stomata B – Growing
(3) Is not concerned with ascent of sap C – Water and sucrose
(4) Cools leaf surface
(2) A – Passive
118. Read the following statements:
B – Mature
(A) Apoplast is a system of interconnected
protoplasts. C – Sugar, hormones and amino acids
(B) Symplastic movement may be aided by (3) A – Active
cytoplasmic streaming.
B – Growing
(1) Only (B) is correct
(2) Both (A) & (B) are incorrect C – Water and sucrose
(3) Only (A) is correct (4) A – Active
(4) Both (A) & (B) are correct B – Mature
119. Mark the correct match: C – Amino acids and sucrose
(1) Attraction of water molecules – Cohesion
123. In girdling experiment, the swelling of a portion of
to the surface of tracheary
bark above ring indicate that
elements
(2) Mutual attraction between – Adhesion (1) Phloem is the tissue responsible for
water molecules translocation of food
(3) Two molecules cross the – Antiport (2) Xylem is responsible for translocation of water
membrane in the same direction and sucrose
(4) Water loss in liquid phase from – Guttation (3) Phloem transports only inorganic materials
leaf tips of many herbaceous
plants (4) Minerals ions are frequently remobilised
124. In a plant cell 129. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. imbibition
(1) Cell wall acts as an important barrier to (1) Special type of diffusion
movement of water and molecules (2) Depends on affinity between adsorbant and
(2) For a solution at atmospheric pressure is adsorbate
w
greater than s (3) Responsible for emergence of seedling
(3) Vacuolar sap does not contribute to the solute (4) Occurs against concentration gradient
potential 130. Which one of the following is a case of wrong
(4) Cell membrane and the tonoplast together are matching?
important determinants of movement of
(1) Root pressure – Observable at night and early
molecules in or out of the cell
morning
125. Read the following statements (w.r.t. Imbibition):
(2) Pressure potential – Usually negative
A. Special type of diffusion when water is
absorbed by solid colloids. (3) Symplast – Plasmodesmata
B. There is enormous increase in volume of (4) Loading of sugars at source – Active transport
imbibant. 131. Water diffuses from plants to the surrounding air
C. Affinity between the absorbant and absorbate because of lower concentration of water vapours in
is a pre-requisite. the
D. Water movement occurs against the (1) Sub-stomatal cavity
concentration gradient. (2) Atmosphere
(1) Only A is correct (3) Intercellular spaces
(2) Only A and B are correct (4) Substomatal cavity as wall as intercellular
(3) Only A, B and C are correct spaces
(4) All are correct 132. What happens, when a cell is placed in a solution,
126. What is the greatest contribution of root pressure? which balances the osmotic pressure of the
(1) Plays major role in water movement up tall cytoplasm?
trees a. There is no net flow of water towards the inside
(2) Re-establish the continuous chains of water or outside.
molecules in the xylem b. Cells are said to be flaccid.
(3) Responsible for providing water for c. becomes positive.
P
photosynthesis and other metabolic
d. Enlargement and extension growth of cells
phenomenon
occur.
(4) Responsible for ‘en masse’ movement of
The correct statement is/are
substances, without energy expenditure to long
distances (1) a only (2) a & b only
127. In a flowering plant there is a complex traffic of (3) a, b & c only (4) All are correct
compounds moving in different directions. Choose 133. Water flows into the cell and out of the cell and are
the correct direction w.r.t water and organic in equilibrium too when the cells are placed in
compounds respectively.
(1) Hypertonic solution (2) Isotonic solution
(1) Unidirectional, Multidirectional
(3) Hypotonic solution (4) Pure water
(2) Bidirectional, Multidirectional
134. Membrane permeability towards water is regulated
(3) Multidirectional, Unidirectional
by
(4) Multidirectional, Bidirectional
(1) Aquaporins protein (2) Ion channels
128. From the given below features, how many are
associated with facilitated diffusion? (3) Histones (4) Ionophores
135. In water transport mechanism when water is mainly
Uphill transport, ATP dependent, Highly
selective, Require membrane proteins, sensitive pulled through the plant then driving force developed
to inhibitors, Along concentration gradient is
(1) Three (2) Two (1) Root pressure (2) OP and ATP
(3) Four (4) Five (3) Transpiration force (4) Positive pressure
136. Sugar is moved in the form of sucrose to sieve (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
tube reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) By companion cell actively assertion, then mark (2).
(2) By companion cell passively (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(3) Directly from mesophyll cells through simple false, then mark (3).
physical process (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) Directly from mesophyll cells through water statements, then mark (4).
channels 1. A : Channels are peripheral protein that function as
137. Loading of sugars in phloem selective pores for passive transport.
(1) Increases the osmotic pressure of sieve tube R : They are also called aquaporins.
cell
2. A : Guard cells take K+ ions from neighbouring
(2) Decreases the osmotic pressure of sieve tube
cells during stomatal opening.
cell
(3) Is an energy independent process R : Turgor pressure of subsidiary cells increases
during stomatal opening.
(4) Induces movement of water from sieve tube to
companion cell 3. A : Girdling is performed to identify the tissues
138. The sugar is moved from source to companion cell through which the food is transported.
in the form of R : It involves removal of a ring of bark, that leads
(1) A disaccharide (2) Glucose to development of swelling above the girdle
due to stoppage of food transport to the lower
(3) Starch (4) A polysaccharide
regions.
139. Which one of the following association is
established by Pinus plant with mycorrhiza to 4. A : Root endodermis has the ability to actively
perform absorption of water and minerals? transport ions in one direction only.
(1) Obligate (2) Facultative R : Cells have lignified wall with transport proteins
(3) Parasitic (4) Helotism as control points.
140. The accepted mechanism for the translocation of 5. A : Transpiration is evaporative loss of water by
sugars from source to sink is plants.
(1) Protoplasmic streaming theory R : It occurs mainly through lenticels.
(2) Pressure flow hypothesis 6. A : Most of the water flow in the roots occurs via
(3) Protein lecithin theory the apoplast.
(4) Cytochrome pump theory R : Cortical cells are loosely packed, and hence
141. According to pressure flow hypothesis in phloem offer no resistance to water movement.
transport, organic solutes flows from the regions of 7. A : An alcohol dipped cell kept in hypertonic
(1) Low turgor pressure solution of sucrose remains unaffected.
(2) High turgor pressure R : Alcohol in high concentration dissolves lipids of
(3) Low osmotic pressure the membrane.
(4) Low diffusion pressure 8. A : Energy driven negative pressure flow is
142. ________ seeds cannot germinate and establish observed in sieve tube.
without the presence of mycorrhizae
R : Photosynthates flow bidirectionally from source
(1) Cycas (2) Pinus to sink and sink to source at a time.
(3) Oxalis (4) Nicotiana 9. A : Pinus has an obligate association with the
SECTION - B mycorrhizae.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions R : Pinus seeds cannot germinate and establish
without the presence of mycorrhizae.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) 10. A : Movement of ions in cortical region of root is
mainly passive.
reason is the correct explanation of the R : Well developed intercellular spaces are found
assertion, then mark (1). in cortex.
!" !" !
Chapter 5
Mineral Nutrition
6. Denitrification is carried out by

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions (1) Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus
1. Hydroponics has been successfully employed as a (2) Nitrosomonas and Anabaena

technique for the commercial production of (3) Nitrobacter and Nostoc
(1) Timber plants (2) Cereals (4) Ferrobacillus and Thiobacillus
(3) Vegetables (4) Pulses 7. Asparagine and glutamine found in plants are
2. The criteria for essentiality of an element are all,
(1) Preferred for storage of nitrogen
except
(2) Enzymatic part of proteins
(1) Absolutely necessary for supporting normal
growth and reproduction (3) Prosthetic group of proteins
(2) The essential element must be replaceable by (4) Transported mainly through parenchyma
another element
8. Out of the following statements
(3) It is involved in the metabolism of plants
a. Ureides are rich in nitrogen
(4) Its deficiency will show hunger sign
b. Amides are transported via phloem and ureides
3. Match the column I and column II
via xylem
Column I Column II
c. Soyabean transports fixed nitrogen as amides
a. Fe3+ (i) Catalase only
b. Mg2+ (ii) Chlorophyll d. Several amino acids are formed from
c. SO42– (iii) Phosphorylation -ketoglutaric acid by transamination
d. H2PO4– (iv) Coenzyme A e. Glutamate dehydrogenase is the key enzyme
involved in reductive amination
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) The correct statements are
4. Molybdenum is not required for (1) a & e (2) a, d & e
(1) Nitrogen metabolism (3) b & c (4) a, c & d

(2) Synthesis of nitrogenase 9. The symptoms that appear due to manganese
toxicity may actually be the deficiency symptoms
(3) Nitrate reductase activity
of
(4) Nitrite reductase activity
(1) Iron, boron and zinc
5. How many ATP are required for the reduction of four
nitrogen molecules? (2) Iron, magnesium and calcium
(1) 32 (2) 48 (3) Molybdenum, magnesium and copper

(3) 64 (4) Zero (4) Calcium, magnesium and potassium
280 Mineral Nutrition Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
10. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. mineral 17. Strike the odd one out w.r.t. function
absorption (1) Chlorine water splitting reaction of photo-
(1) Uptake of K+ ions into outer or free space of synthesis
cells is passive (2) Nickel Reprocessing of H2 gas generated
(2) In the metabolic phase Ca2+
ions pass into during nitrogen fixation
inner space, i.e., cytoplasm and vacuole (3) Mn Activates Kreb’s cycle enzyme
(3) Absorption of ions into inner space is passive (4) Na Secondary messenger in protein
signalling
(4) Maximum mineral absorption occurs through
zone of cell elongation 18. Translocated and storage form of fixed nitrogen in
soyabean is commonly
11. Mark the correct one (w.r.t anaerobic free living
diazotroph) (1) Ureides
(1) Azotobacter (2) Clostridium (2) Asparagine
(3) Rhizobium (4) Frankia (3) Glutamine
12. Microelements (4) More than one option is correct

(1) Do not become toxic in slight excess 19. Which of these micro-elements is an activator for
both rubisco and pepcase?
(2) Show balancing effect
(1) Zn (2) Mg
(3) Are toxic in slight excess
(3) Mn (4) Cu
(4) Build up plant body and different protoplasmic
constituents 20. During symbiotic nitrogen fixation in leguminous
plants, ATP needed to reduce one mole of
13. Match column I with column II dinitrogen into ammonia with the release of
Column I Column II hydrogen is
a. Ureids (i) Casuarina (1) 8 (2) 16
b. Denitrification (ii) Nitrocystis (3) 12 (4) 6
+
c. Nitritification (iii) Glycine max 21. Number of H and ATP required for the reduction of
two molecules of nitrogen are
d. Actinomycetes (iv) Pseudomonas
(1) 8 H+ and 16 ATP (2) 16 H+ and 32 ATP
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) 8 H+ and 8 ATP (4) 4 H+ and 8 ATP
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
22. Which element is function as activator of carbonic
14. One of the beneficial element in the metabolic anhydrase and lactate dehydrogenase?
activities required for higher plants, is
(1) Mn+2 (2) Mg+2
(1) N (2) Mn
(3) Cu+2 (4) Zn+2
(3) Nickel (4) Cobalt
23. Interveinal chlorosis due to the deficiency of
15. The element which can form complexes with
(1) B (2) Fe
polyphenols and can serve as an alternative to
lignin in reinforcement of cell wall is (3) Cl (4) Ni
(1) Ca (2) B 24. Frankia
(3) Mg (4) Si (1) Is symbiont with number of non-leguminous
plants like Alnus, Casuarina, Myrica
16. During root nodule formation
(2) Is a rod shaped gram positive bacteria which
(1) Bacteria secrete flavonoids and betaines
produces endospores
(2) Legume root releases nod factors to attract (3) Can also fix nitrogen in free living condition in
bacteria soil
(3) Root hair wall degrades in the region of curling (4) Fix nitrogen in leaf nodules where nitrogenase
of root hair is protected from O 2 damage by
(4) Bacteria contributes auxin and haeme leghaemoglobin (LHb)
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Mineral Nutrition 281
25. How many essential elements are called non 28. Which of the following element is most critical as
mineral elements? well as most abundant in plant bodies?
(1) 3 (2) 5 (1) C (2) N
(3) 7 (4) 9 (3) P (4) K
26. Match column-I and column-II
29. Which one of the following is oxidative pathway of
Column-I Column-II nitrogen metabolism steps?
a. Mo (i) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(1) Nitrate assimilation
b. Mg (ii) Rubisco
(2) Biological N2-fixation
c. Zn (iii) Dinitrogenase
(3) Nitrification
d. Ca (iv) Calmodulin
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) Denitrification
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) 30. Nitrogen fixation is of three types
27. Which of the following graph best represents A. Natural / atmospheric
two phases of mineral absorption?
B. Industrial
C. Biological
What are their relative contribution?
&()*%+,"*#
+*$%,-&#.
!"#$%&'
'(%)* (1) A 20% (2) A 10%

(1) B 20% B 40%
!"#$#%&
'(%)* C 60% C 50%
/#0* (3) A 10% (4) A 30%
B 30% B 30%
C 60% C 40%
&()*%+,"*#
!"#$%&'
,+$%-.&#/'()%*+ 31. Symptoms of manganese toxicity may actually be

the deficiency symptoms of
(2) (1) Fe, Ca and N (2) Fe, Mg and Ca
!"#$#%&'()%*+
(3) Zn, Ca and B (4) Ca, Mg and P
0#1+
32. With regard to mechanism of nitrogen fixation
select an incorrect statement
(1) N2 fixation is an energy intensive process
&()*%+,"*#
,+$%-.&#/
!"#$%&'
'()%*+ (2) Many intermediates like dimide and

hydroxylamine are produced
(3)
(3) During fixation N2 gets attached to one of the
!"#$#%&'()%*+
two components of nitrogenase enzyme
0#1+ (4) Released H 2 can be metabolised by some
bacteria having hydrogenase enzyme
33. In the following reaction, which important step of
amino acid synthesis is shown?
&()*%+,"*#
,+$%-.&#/
!"#$%&'
'()%*+ Glutamic acid + Oxaloacetic acid

!"#$#%&
(4) '()%*+ -ketoglutaric acid + Aspartic acid
(1) Reductive amination (2) Catalytic amidation
0#1+ (3) Transamination (4) Deamination

34. Nitrogen fixing ability is found in 41. One of the given is not associated with glutamate
dehydrogenase activity, deciding the fate of
(1) Some anaerobic microbes only
ammonia in N2-metabolism
(2) Some aerobic microbes only
(1) Glutamic acid
(3) Some eubacteria and archaebacteria also
(2) -KGA
(4) Some photosynthetic and chemosynthetic (3) Oxaloacetic acid
microbes only
(4) NADPH
35. Chelating agents are required to increase the
solubility of _______ in _______ soils 42. Select a correct set of preferred storage forms of
nitrogen in a variety of plants
(1) Fe, alkaline (2) Fe, acidic
(1) Glutamine, Asparagine, Ureids
(3) Mg, acid (4) Zn, acidic
(2) Glutamine, Aspartic acid, Ureids and sucrose
36. In hydroponics
(3) Glutamic acid, Aspartic acid, Ureids and protein
(1) Cost of infrastructure is low
(4) Glutamine, -ketoglutaric acid and Ureids
(2) Soil borne pathogens are absent
43. Which of the following mineral element is required
(3) Problem of weeding is present by meristematic as well as differentiating tissues?
(4) pH is maintained at 7-8 (1) Ca (2) Fe
37. During nodule formation in legume root, infection (3) Mg (4) S
thread is formed by
44. Which of the following element is required for
(1) Cell wall of root hair uptake and utilisation of Ca++ ions, membrane
(2) Plasma membrane of root epidermis functioning and pollen germination?
(3) Plasma membrane of root hairs (1) Zn (2) B

(3) Mo (4) Cl
(4) Fusion of plasma membrane and golgi derived
vesicles 45. Manganese competes with ______ and magnesium
for uptake and with ______for binding with
38. Choose incorrect match
enzymes?
(1) Storage elements – C, N, P and S
(1) Ca, Mg (2) Fe, Mg
(2) Non-mobile elements – N, P, K, Mg and C
(3) Fe, Mo (4) Ca, Fe
(3) Balancing elements – Mg, Ca and K
46. What is the similarity between Frankia and
(4) Protoplasmic elements – C, H, O, N, P and S Rhizobium?
39. Product of biological nitrogen fixation first enters in (1) Filamentous structure
which one of the following pathway to synthesize
(2) Live in root nodules of legumes
amino acid?
(3) Free living soil bacteria
(1) Nitrate assimilation
(4) Require nitrogenase to fix N2 in free living
(2) Reductive amination
condition
(3) Transamination
47. Find the odd one w.r.t. co-factors of pyruvate
(4) Nitrification dehydrogenase
40. Find incorrect match with respect to catalytic (1) Mn2+ (2) NAD+
effect of minerals
(3) Lipoic acid (4) TPP
(1) Dinitrogenase – Mo
48. Deficiency of which mineral element may cause
(2) Z-enzyme – Mn N-deficiency in a plant?
(3) PEP carboxylase – Mg (1) Na (2) Mo
(4) Carbonic anhydrase – Ca (3) Mn (4) K
49. Nod factor is 57. Manganese toxicity inhibits ________ translocation
(1) Involved in root hair curling in shoot apex
(2) Polyribonucleotide (1) Solute, MoO22+ (2) Ca++
(3) Cluster of genes (3) Ca++, Mg ++ and Fe++ (4) N, S and Mo

58. Which of the following mineral element is a
(4) Produced by plant only
constituent of thiamine, biotin and ferredoxin?
50. Nitrogen is absorbed by plants mainly as NO–3 and
(1) Magnesium (2) Sulphur
finally reduced to ammonia mainly in
(3) Calcium (4) Iron
(1) Leaves (2) Roots
59. First stable product of symbiotic N2 fixation is
(3) Vascular tissues (4) Soil
(1) Nitrate (2) Amino acid
51. How many ATP molecules are required to form one
(3) Ammonia (4) Nitrite
molecule of NH3 during N2-fixation?
60. Essential elements as activators of rubisco and
(1) 2 (2) 6
nitrogenase respectively are
(3) 8 (4) 16
(1) Mg & Mo (2) Mg & Ca
52. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. nodules formation
(3) Zn & Mg (4) Mn & Fe
in legumes
61. Involvement in normal functioning of cell membrane,
(1) Bacteria infects tetraploid cortical cells synthesis of middle lamella, formation of mitotic
(2) Nod factors are produced by both plants and spindle are functions of
bacteria (1) Fe (2) Cu
(3) Rhizobium contributes cytokinin and heme (3) Ca (4) Mg
part
62. Sulphur is the main constituent of
(4) Bacteroid is membrane bounded motile stage
(1) Thymine, biotin and coenzyme A
as the site of nitrogen fixation
(2) Methionine and cytosine
53. ________ is required for uptake and utilisation of
Ca2+, cell elongation and membrane functioning in (3) Biotin and coenzyme A
plant. (4) Nitrogenase, cysteine and thymine
(1) Boron (2) Chlorine 63. Select the correct statement w.r.t. translocation of
mineral ions
(3) Iron (4) Sulphur
(1) The chief sinks for the mineral elements are the
54. In plants, amides are transported to other parts of
older regions of the plant
the plant via ________
(2) Remobilisation of minerals occur from older to
(1) Xylem vessels
younger leaves
(2) Sieve tube (3) The most of the nitrogen travels as inorganic
(3) Phloem parenchyma ions through xylem
(4) More than one option is correct (4) Large amount of P and S are carried as
55. Select the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. N 2 organic compounds through xylem
fixation 64. The technique of growing plants where the roots
(1) Reductive amination – Transaminase are kept in a nutrient solution is called
(2) Nitrate reductase – Molybdoflavoprotein (1) Geoponics (2) Aeroponics
(3) Hydroponics (4) Phytotron
(3) Source of electrons – Ferredoxin
65. Which one of the following is not required by plants
for nitrite reduction
in excess of 10 m mole kg–1 of dry matter?
(4) Fixation of one N2 – Requires 16 ATP
(1) Calcium (2) Magnesium
56. Select the correct match
(3) Manganese (4) Phosphorus
(1) Ca – Opening and closing of stomata 66. Essential elements are classified into how many
(2) S – Photolysis of water broad categories on the basis of diverse functions?
(3) Fe – Ferredoxin (1) Two (2) Four
(4) Mg – Catalase activity (3) Seventeen (4) Sixty
67. Select the correct match w.r.t. form and functions 74. All the given statements are incorrect, except
of essential elements
(1) Clostridium is an aerobic, free living N2 fixer
Column I Column II
(2) Mature root nodules have no vascular
a. Photosynthesis, synthesis (i) Ca2+ connection with roots
of DNA and RNA
(3) Both Frankia and Rhizobium are found free
b. Constituent of thiamine (ii) Fe3+ living in soil, but as symbionts, can fix
and coenzyme A atmospheric N2
c. Constituent of cytochrome (iii) Mg2+ (4) The ATP required during N 2 fixation by
and activator of catalase Rhizobium is supplied by bacteria itself
enzyme 75. Amides are structural part of proteins in plants and
d. Formation of mitotic (iv) S they
spindle and cell wall (1) Have low N/C ratio

synthesis (2) Have high N/C ratio
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (3) Have replaced !"! part by hydroxyl radicle
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) More than one option is correct
68. Deficient element is that element which is present 76. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. biological N2
(1) At critical concentration level fixation
(2) Below the critical concentration (1) ATP required is supplied by bacteria
(3) Above the critical concentration (2) Leghaemoglobin is a product of symbiosis
(3) Nitrogenase enzyme is found exclusively in
69. The deficiency of which one of the following pair of prokaryotes
elements will appear first in young leaves?
(4) Infection thread formation occurs
(1) Ca (2) Mg and K
77. The process of nitrate reduction to ammonia is
(3) N and K (4) P
possible in presence of
70. Entry of ions into the inner space is
(1) Flavoproteins (2) Nitrogenase
(1) Apoplastic pathway (2) Rapid uptake of ions
(3) Transaminase (4) Choline esterase
(3) Energy dependent (4) Energy independent
78. Match the following element with proper function
71. Select the step in nitrogen metabolism which is an
oxidative pathway Column-I Column-II
(1) Nitrification (2) Denitrification a. S (i) Metabolism of urea
(3) Nitrate assimilation (4) Nitrogen fixation b. Mn (ii) Nodule formation
72. Which one of the following pair is correctly c. Ca (iii) Photolytic evolution
matched? of oxygen
(1) NH3 NO2– : Nitrocystis
d. Ni (iv) Organisation of
(2) NO2– NO3– : Aspergillus mitotic spindle
(3) N2 NH3 : Nitrobacter (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) NO3– N2 : Nitrococcus (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
73. During nodule formation in leguminous plants
79. The technique of growing plants in soil less culture
(1) Only bacteria secrete nod factors requires
(2) Lectin proteins of bacteria identifies the legume (1) Pure mineral salts only
plant
(2) Impure water and mineral nutrient salts
(3) Bacteria infects and forms bacteroid stage in
diploid cortical cells (3) Purified water and mineral nutrient salts
(4) Cortical cells divide by hormonal stimulation (4) Pure water only
80. During development of root nodules in legumes, 89. Essential elements components of energy related
bacteria secrete chemical compounds in plants, are
(1) Cytokinin (2) Nod factors (1) Ca, K (2) Mg, P
(3) Auxin (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Fe, S (4) N, P
81. Which of the following element is constituent of 90. Which of the following is not associated with
thiamine, biotin and coenzyme A? nodule formation in leguminous crops?
(1) S (2) Ca (1) Plants nif gene (2) Cytokinins
(3) Mg (4) K (3) Auxins (4) Lectins
82. During ammonification, the enzymes used, are 91. Consider the following equation regarding biological
(1) Proteases and nitrogenase nitrogen fixation and select the correct choice
(2) Deaminase and nitrite reductase !!"# $%& # $'& # $""&
( 2NH 3 + H 2 + ! +
(3) Proteases, peptidases and deaminase 16Pi
(4) Nitrate reductase and deaminase (a) (b) (c) (d)
83. The nitrogenase is capable of nitrogen reduction (1) 6 e– 6 H+ 10 ATP 10 ADP
and present (2) 8 e– 8 H+ 16 ATP 16 ADP
(1) Exclusively in aerobic prokaryotes (3) 6 e– 6H+ 10 ADP 10 ATP
(2) In prokaryotes and some leguminous plants
(4) 8 e– 8 H+ 16 ADP 16 ATP
(3) In certain prokaryotes
(4) Exclusively in anaerobic prokaryotes
Enzyme Activator
84. During N2-fixation, the energy is obtained from the
(1) Catalase – Iron
(1) Respiration of the host cells
(2) Tyrosinase – Copper
(2) Photosynthesis of the host cells
(3) RNA - polymerase – Zinc
(3) Respiration of the N2-fixing microbes
(4) Nitrogenase – Molybdenum
(4) Respiration of host cells and N 2 -fixing
microbes 93. Which of the following ions stimulate quick release
of electrons from water?
85. Rhizobium has symbiotic relationship with the
roots of all, except (1) Mg++ (2) Ca++
(1) Sweet pea (2) Gram (3) Cl– (4) Mn++
(3) Sesbania (4) Alnus 94. Elements most readily mobilised are
86. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. criteria for (1) P, S & Ca (2) N, K & P
essentiality of an element
(3) N, P & Fe (4) S, Zn & P
(1) It must be specific
95. The enzyme which helps in reductive amination is
(2) The element is indirectly involved in the
(1) Glutamate dehydrogenase
metabolism
(2) Transaminase
(3) In absence of the element, the plants show
hunger signs (3) -Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(4) It must be necessary for reproduction (4) Glutamate synthetase
87. An activator of alcohol dehydrogenase is 96. Hydroponics has been successfully employed as a
technique for the commercial production of
(1) MoO22+ (2) Zn2+ vegetables such as
(3) Mg2+ (4) Ca2+ (1) Potato and Trifolium
88. Select the odd one w.r.t. transamination (2) Tomato and potato
(1) Glutamic acid (2) Glutamine (3) Tomato, seedless cucumber and lettuce
(3) Methionine (4) Cysteine (4) Chilli and brinjal
97. Some beneficial elements required by higher plants 105. During biological nitrogen fixation by bacteroid of
are Rhizobium, its enzyme can conduct which of the
(1) Nitrogen, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen following conversion?
(2) Selenium, cobalt, silicon and sodium
(1) !"! !#" !#!
(3) Iron, copper and chlorine
(4) Molybdenum, zinc and manganese
(2) !"! !"" !#!
98. Decomposition of organic nitrogen of dead plants
and animals into ammonia is called
(3) !"! !"
(1) Nitrogen fixation (2) Denitrification
(3) Ammonification (4) Nitrification
(4) !! !""
(1) Frankia : free-living in soil 106. Bulk or mass flow
(2) Rhizobium : root nodules in Alnus (1) Occurs during long distance transport of water
and minerals but not food
(3) Nitrifying bacteria : chemoautotroph
(4) Rhodospirillum : anaerobic N2-fixing bacteria (2) Is achieved through negative hydrostatic
pressure gradient in a ‘garden hose’
100. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. role of iron in plants
(1) Activates catalase enzyme (3) Involves movement of substances from one
point to another as a result of pressure
(2) Essential for chlorophyll formation
difference between the two points
(3) Constituent of ferredoxin
(4) Joining of subunits of ribosomes
101. Which of the following statement is not associated 107. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. nitrogenase
with manganese toxicity in plants? (1) Synthesized by nif gene of bacteria
(1) Appearance of brown spots surrounded by (2) It is O2 sensitive enzyme
chlorotic veins
(3) It is made up of two unequal subunits
(2) Inhibition of calcium transport in shoot apex
(4) Manganese is a component of this enzyme
(3) Manganese competes with iron and
magnesium for uptake 108. Select correct option w.r.t. most important amides
(4) Manganese competes with iron for binding with found in plants
enzyme (1) Glutamic acid, aspartic acid
102. What is the fate of nitrate absorbed by plant from (2) Asparagine, glutamine
the soil?
(3) Uric acid and urea
(1) Reduced to nitrogen
(4) -ketoglutaric acid and glutamic acid
(2) Oxidised to nitrite
109. Out of the following elements, how many mineral
(3) Reduced to ammonia
elements are micronutrients and macronutrients
(4) Oxidised to amide respectively?
103. Activator for ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase -
Mo, S, Mn, Ca, Zn, B, Cu, Ni, Mg
oxygenase and phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
is (1) 3 & 6 (2) 6 & 3
(1) Mg2+ (2) Zn2+ (3) 4 & 5 (4) 5 & 4
(3) Mo (4) Fe2+ 110. Any mineral ion concentration in tissues that
104. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly reduces the dry weight of tissues by !!!!!!"!!!!! is
matched?
considered !!!!!!"!!!!! . Select the correct option for
(1) Delayed flowering – N, S, Mo A and B which can fill the provided gaps.
(2) Inhibition of cell division – Ca, Mo, Cu
(1) A – 20 percent, B – Toxic
(3) Components of – C, H, O, N
(2) A – 10 percent, B – Toxic
biomolecules and cell
(4) Components of energy – Mg, P (3) A – 10 percent, B – Nontoxic
related molecules (4) A – 20 percent, B – Nontoxic
111. Mark the correct option (w.r.t. essential elements 117. Fill in the blanks from the given below options
function as enzyme activators)
!"#$%&# '(&)*+&,-
(1) Ca+2 for alcohol dehydrogenase
!"#$%&'()*"+,#"%( 4567"%#"0) "
(2) Zn+2 for PEPCo
(3) Fe for catalase -.,(#/),//%0",#'1 ! 9'&:6'/
(4) Mo for Rubisco
112. Four statements (a-d) are given below where the 23!)*"+,#"%( 87/'(# #
correct are
A B C
a. Essential element must be directly involved in
(1) Symbiotic Non-legumes Absent
the metabolism of the plant
b. Deficiency of a specific element cannot be met (2) Symbiotic Legumes Absent
by supplying some other element (3) Free living Non-legumes Present
c. The essential element must be necessary for (4) Symbiotic Legumes Present
supporting normal growth and reproduction
118. Number of ATP molecules required for the fixation
d. Plants can set the seeds and reproduce even of one N2 is
in the absence of an essential element
(1) a, b, c, d (1) 8 (2) 16
(2) a, c, d (3) 24 (4) 32
(3) a, b, c 119. Inhibition of cell division is due to the deficiency of
(4) b, c, d
(1) N, P, Co (2) N, K, Mg, Si
113. a. Hydroponics is a technique of growing plants
in a nutrient solution (3) N, K, S, Mo (4) Ca, Mg, Cu, Na
b. Hydroponics involves exposure of plant root to 120. How many organisms in the list given below are
a mist of nutrient solution free living nitrogen-fixing aerobic?
c. Roots are exposed to direct light during Rhizobium Beijernickia
hydroponics to induce the growth of algae
d. Purified water and mineral nutrient salts are Rhodospirillum Azotobacter
used in hydroponics Frankia
(1) c & d are correct (2) a & c are correct (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) b & c are correct (4) a & d are correct
(3) 5 (4) 2
114. During absorption of elements by isolated cells,
tissues or organs, the initial uptake 121. Which among the following cannot be a feature of
(1) Is rapid process micronutrient?
(2) Occurs in inner space (1) Maintain ribosome structure
(3) Occurs through ion channels (2) Activator of catalase, aconitase
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Activator of nitrogenase
115. Elements whose essentiality is restricted to only
some specific plants are called (4) Pollen germination
(1) Critical elements 122. In biological and industrial nitrogen fixation,
(2) Macronutrients nitrogen is converted into
(3) Beneficial elements (1) Ammonia (2) Nitrate
(4) More than one option is correct (3) Nitrite (4) Amino acid
116. Essential elements are grouped into _____ broad
123. During fixation of 2 molecules of nitrogen (N2), how
categories on the basis of function while these
many ATP and how many ammonia will be
elements divided into _______ broad categories
based on their quantitative requirements. required and produced respectively?
(1) Four, One (2) Three, One (1) 32 and 2 (2) 16 and 2
(3) Four, Two (4) Three, Two (3) 32 and 4 (4) 64 and 8
!"#$%& 129. On the basis of given equation, identify the

124. A + B + NADPH C + H2O + NADP substrate ‘A’?
The above given reaction is of reductive amination
A + Glutamic acid !"#$%#&'$#%( Aspartate + -KGA
of nitrogen metabolism, what will be appropriate
substrate and product at the place of A, B and C (1) Pyruvic acid
respectively?
(2) Oxaloacetic acid
(1) -ketoglutaric acid, NH4+ and glutamine
(3) Succinic acid
(2) Aspartic acid, NH4+ and asparagine
(4) Citric acid
(3) -ketoglutaric acid, NH4+ and glutamate
130. The root nodules of leguminous plants contain
(4) -ketoglutaric acid, N2 and glutamic acid
(1) Nitrite reductase and haemoglobin
125. The soyabeans export the fixed nitrogen mainly as
(2) Nitrate reductase and Nitrobacter
(1) Glutamate (3) Nitrogenase and leghaemoglobin
(2) Glutamine (4) Nitrogenase and nitrite reductase
(3) Ureides
SECTION - B
(4) Asparagine
126. Which of the following categories are utilised for
grouping of essential elements? In the following questions, a statement of assertion
a. Components of biomolecules
b. Part of energy-related biomolecules reason is the correct explanation of the
c. Activator or inhibitor of enzymes assertion, then mark (1).
d. Alter the osmotic potential of a cell (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(1) a & b only
(2) a, c & d
(3) a & d only false, then mark (3).
(4) All are correct (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
127. Characteristic feature of chlorine deficient plants is statements, then mark (4).
1. A : Leghemoglobin protects nitrogenase from
(1) Premature leaf abscission
oxygen.
(2) Stunted and thickened near root tips
R : It creates low partial pressure of oxygen near
(3) Necrotic leaf tips to nitrogenase.
(4) Distorted and small leaves 2. A : Heterocyst is pale coloured, nitrogenase
128. Choose odd one w.r.t. chief sink for mineral ions containing cell specialised for nitrogen fixation.
(1) Lateral meristems R : Thick wall of heterocyst is impermeable for O2

and permeable for N2 .
(2) Storage organs, fruits
3. A : Only few prokaryotic species can utilise the
(3) Older leaves nitrogen in molecular form.
(4) Flowers, apical meristems R : It is an energy intensive process.
!" !" !
Chapter 6
Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
6. Which photosynthetic pigments play a protective

SECTION - A role by absorbing the excess light and diverting it
Objective Type Questions away from chlorophyll?
1. Choose incorrect statement regarding early (1) Phycobilins (2) Carotenoids
experiments on photosynthesis (3) Phycocyanin (4) Phycoerythrin
(1) Priestley experiment revealed the essential role 7. The rate of photosynthesis declines under
of air in growth of green plant conditions of water stress because of
(2) Ingenhousz showed that sunlight is essential (1) Stomatal closure
to the plant process
(2) Increase in CO2 supply
(3) It is green parts of the plants that could release
(3) Increased leaf water potential
oxygen
(4) High leaf water potential that reduces leaf
(4) Von Sachs provided evidence for production of
expansion
carbon dioxide when plants grow
8. Find out the incorrect pair
2. There is clear division of labour within the
chloroplast. The membrane system is responsible (1) Pineapple – CAM plant
for (2) Euphorbia – C3 and C4 plant
(1) Trapping of light energy (3) Sorghum – C3 plant
(2) Conversion of CO2 into glucose (4) Maize – C4 plants
(3) Consumption of ATP and NADPH 9. In case of cyclic photophosphorylation
(4) Providing site for dark reaction (1) Large amount of ATP and small amount of
3. Which of the following occurs when light of NADPH + H+ are produced
wavelengths only beyond 680 nm are available for (2) Photoexcited electron is finally accepted by PS I
excitation? (3) Primary electron acceptor is phaeophytin
(1) Cyclic photophosphorylation (4) ATP synthesis is affected by DCMU
(2) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation 10. Which of the following reactions is not involved in
(3) Splitting of water into H+ and OH– C2 cycle?
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Carboxylation (2) Transamination
4. The first product of dicarboxylic acid cycle in a (3) Reduction (4) Decarboxylation
C4-plant is 11. Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. cyclic
(1) RUBP (2) Oxaloacetic acid photophosphorylation?
(3) PGA (4) Malic acid (1) Produces ATP only
5. The number of ATP required for phosphorylation to (2) Operate under low light intensity, low CO 2
form a RUBP during regeneration steps is availability and anaerobic condition
(1) 18 (2) 3 (3) External electron donor is required
(3) 5 (4) 1 (4) Performed by PS-I independently
290 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Last Leap For NEET (Part-II)
12. The absorption spectra of chlorophyll-a and-b show 19. How many photons, e – and H+ are involved in
that they absorb maximum light in photolysis of water to evolve two molecules of O2?
(1) Blue-violet and red wavelengths (1) 4 photons, 2e–, 2H+
(2) Violet and blue (2) 16 photons, 8e–, 8H+
(3) Green and yellow (3) 8 photons, 4e–, 4H+
(4) Orange and violet (4) 8 photons, 8e–, 8H+
13. Photosystem I
20. First step of regeneration of RUBP is
(1) Has P-680 as reaction centre
(1) Condensation (2) Transketolation
(2) Performs non-cyclic photophosphorylation only
(3) Transacetylation (4) Hydration
(3) Is located in non-appressed part of grana
thylakoids as well as stroma thylakoids 21. Carotenoids absorb strongly in
(4) Hand over its electron to pheophytin (1) Yellow - orange range
14. PCO cycle (2) Blue - violet range
(1) Brings about assimilation of CO2 (3) Orange - red range
(2) Is favoured by high O2 concentration (4) Complete visible range
(3) Is an anabolic process 22. One of the following is not a electron carrier in
(4) Releases O2 Z-scheme of photophosphorylation
15. During the electron transport in the thylakoid (1) Pheophytin (2) Cytochrome
membrane which of the following conditions will (3) Fe–S (4) Plastocyanin
occur?
23. Select the correct statement w.r.t. development of
(1) Increase proton concentration in the stroma
proton gradient across a membrane in chloroplast
(2) Increase in pH in the lumen during ATP synthesis
(3) Movement of protons from stroma to lumen (1) Transport of H+ from thylakoid lumen to stroma
(4) Inactivation of transmembrane channel of F0 of (2) Reduction of NADP + on inner surface of
ATPase granum
16. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. carotenoids (3) Development of more acidic pH in stroma than
(1) Yellow-orange pigments of lipid nature lumen
(2) Helps chlorophyll against photo-oxidation (4) H+ transport by quinone pump to lumen
(3) Raw material is glycine and succinyl CoA 24. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(4) These are components of light harvesting (a) Releases O2, catalysed by OEC present on
system outer surface of grana
17. All given are characteristic to plants performing
(b) Has one electron carrier that contains vitamin
cooperative photosynthesis, except
K1
(1) Thick walled cells of bundle sheath are
(c) Excited electron reduces electron acceptors
surrounded by concentrically arranged
FRS, Q and pheophytin respectively
mesophyll cells
(d) Electron donor, that provides replacement of
(2) Agranal chloroplast is found located in bundle
electron, is water
sheath cells
(3) PEPCo is present in the cytoplasm of From above given statements
mesophyll cells (1) All are correct (2) (a) & (b) are correct
(4) Bundle sheath cells lack RuBisCo (3) (b) & (d) are correct (4) (a) & (d) are correct
18. CAM plants differ from C4 plants in 25. Which one of the following substrate acts as
(1) Spatial separation of both carboxylation connecting link between respiration and
(2) Presence of C3-cycle enzymes photosynthesis?
(3) Plenty of organic acid synthesis during day (1) PGA (2) Fumarate
(4) Plenty of carbohydrates synthesis during day (3) PGAL (4) -KGA
Last Leap For NEET (Part-II) Photosynthesis in Higher Plants 291
26. The graph given below shows effect of wavelength 32. How many assimilatory power molecules are
on rate of photosynthesis. The relationship between required for the synthesis of one maltose molecule
wavelength of light and rate of photosynthesis is in a C4 plant?
called
(1) 12 NADPH + H+ and 18 ATP
!" (2) 24 NADPH + H+ and 30 ATP

(3) 24 NADPH + H+ and 36 ATP
# (4) 24 NADPH + H+ and 60 ATP
33. How many PGA molecules are regenerated from
$ 10 molecules of phosphoglycolate in PCO cycle?
(1) 10 (2) 20
%
(3) 5 (4) 6
& 34. Chlorophyll synthesis starts from

(1) Acetyl CoA and lysine
" (2) Succinyl CoA and tryptophan
%"" %'" '"" ''" $"" $'" ("" ('"
(1) Warburg’s effect (2) Action spectrum (3) OAA and methionine
(3) Absorption spectrum (4) Enhancement effect (4) Glycine and succinyl CoA
27. Serine is converted into hydroxypuruvate in C2-cycle 35. In C3-cycle, NADPH + H+ is involved in the reduction
in of
(1) Chloroplast (1) 3-PGA (2) 1, 3 diPGA
(2) Peroxisome (3) 3-PGAL (4) DHAP
(3) Mitochondria 36. CAM plant differs from C4-plant in
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Primary carboxylation site
28. Essentiality of sunlight for photosynthesis was first (2) Secondary CO2 acceptor molecule
stated by
(3) Both carboxylations in different cells
(1) Priestley (2) Dutrochet
(4) Both carboxylations at different time
(3) de Saussure (4) Jan Ingenhousz
37. Choose the wrong statement regarding photosystem-II
29. Serine and hydroxypyruvate are produced in ____
and ____ respectively during photorespiration. (1) The reaction centre is P680
(1) Mitochondria, peroxisome (2) It is located in the non-appressed part of the
(2) Peroxisome and mitochondria grana thylakoids
(3) Chloroplast and peroxisome (3) It is associated with oxygen evolving complex
(4) Mitochondria and chloroplast (4) Involved only in non-cyclic ETC
30. Which of the following is not a feature of cyclic 38. Read the following statements carefully
photophosphorylation ?
a. CO2 compensation point is 25-100 ppm
(1) Inhibited by DCMU and triazines
b. Optimum temperature is 30° – 45°C
(2) Predominant in bacteria
c. RuBP is the first acceptor of CO2
(3) Primary electron acceptor is Fe containing
protein d. Fixation of one molecule of CO2 requires 5 ATP
and 2 NADPH
(4) Synthesises ATP only
Find the correct statements for C4 plants
31. Primary electron acceptor of PS II is
(1) Cytochrome b6 (2) Plastoquinone (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) Pheophytin (4) FRS or Fe-S (3) (a) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
39. First stable product of PCR cycle is 46. Arrange the following photosynthetic pigments in
increasing order, with respect to molecular weight
(1) Oxaloacetic acid
A Chl. a B Chl. c
(2) Sedoheptulose-1, 7-diphosphate
C Xanthophylls D Carotene
(3) 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde
(1) A C D B (2) D C B A
(4) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
(3) D C A B (4) D B C A
40. ________ is a copper containing blue coloured
47. Tetrapyrrolic structure is absent in
soluble protein
(1) Phycocyanin (2) Chlorophyll
(1) Pheophytin (2) Plastocyanine
(3) Phytochrome (4) Carotenoids
(3) Bacteriorhodopsin (4) Plastoquinone
48. Select correct statement with respect to action
41. Photolysis of H2O is a feature of eukaryotic green spectrum of photosynthesis
plants. It is carried out by oxygen evolving complex
(1) It requires a single exposure to full light
(OEC), a small complex of protein. This complex
(2) It requires study of light utilisation at various
(1) Contains two Mn ions
wavelengths
(2) Oxidises one molecule of water to form one (3) It represents the amount of light of different
molecule of O2, 4H+ and 2e– wavelengths absorbed by a pigment
(3) Is attached to thylakoid membrane towards (4) It represents the amount of fluorescence
lumen side
49. In T.W. Engelmann experiment of action spectrum
(4) Also contains Cl–, Ca++ and Mg++ of chlorophyll, bacteria showed
42. In light reaction of photosynthesis how many ATP (1) Chemotactic movement
is produced per NADP reduction, when sufficient (2) Magnetotactic movement
CO2, O2 and light is available?
(3) Aerotactic movement
(1) 1.3 (2) 1.5
(4) Phototactic movement
(3) 1.8 (4) 1.2 50. In photosynthesis, photolysis of water is concerned
43. CF0 – CF1 particles found on thylakoid membrane with OEC (O2 evolving complex). This OEC is
connected to
(1) Are not similar to F0 – F1 particles
(1) PS-II only
(2) Are concerned with ATP hydrolysis only
(2) PS-I only
(3) Perform facilitated diffusion to produce ATP
(3) PS-I and PS-II both
(4) Have no proton channel
(4) NADH-reductase enzyme
44. Some self feeder bacteria show anoxygenic
51. During photosynthetic electron transport in thylakoid
photosynthesis and lack pigment system II. This
membrane, proton gradient is developed during
statement proves that
(1) Uphill journey of electron
(1) Splitting of H2O is coupled to PS-I
(2) Downhill journey of electron
(2) PS-I developed earlier in evolution
(3) Diffusion of H+ through CF0 – CF1 particle
(3) PS-II developed earlier in evolution
(4) Electron transfer from plastocyanin to P700
(4) Splitting of H2O occurs only in eukaryotes
52. During cyclic photophosphorylation only ATP is
45. Select incorrect statement regarding cyclic synthesised and reduced ferredoxin passes its
photophosphorylation electron to
(1) Only PS-I participates (1) Plastocyanin (2) Plastoquinone
(2) It works when enough NADPH2 but small ATP (3) Pheophytin (4) NADP
are present 53. At low temperature and low light intensity the
(3) It works when small NADPH2 and small ATP duration of dark phase in photosynthesis
are present (1) Decreases (2) Increases
(4) It needs light of longer wavelength (> 680 nm) (3) Remains same (4) Immediately stops
54. The primary acceptor molecule of cyclic thermo- 60. PS-I and ATP synthase are found in
chemical phase of CO2 reduction in bryophyte is (1) Primarily stacked region of thylakoid membrane
(1) RuBisCO (2) PEP (2) Unstacked region of thylakoid mainly protruding
(3) PEPC (4) RuBP into the stroma
55. In C4 plants, RuBisCO is found in bundle sheath (3) In unstacked region protruding into lumen
cells and ETS is completed in
(4) Both unstacked and stacked region of thylakoid
(1) Mesophyll cells membrance
(2) Bundle sheath cells
61. When photosynthesis reaches a steady state how
(3) Mesophyll and bundle sheath cells jointly many triose phosphates out of the total produced,
(4) ETS is absent in C4 plants contributes to regeneration of RuBP ?
56. In C4 plants, 3-PGA is produced in C3 cycle in " $
bundle sheath cells. This 3-PGA is (1) (2)
! #
(1) Further reduced to PGAL in bundle sheath
cells by NADH2 % "
(3) (4)
! !
(2) Further reduced to PGAL by NADPH2
62. In photorespiration, 2 molecules of glycine are
(3) Used to produce oxaloacetic acid liberating
converted by glycine decarboxylase, a
CO2
multienzyme complex to serine, NH4+ and CO2.
(4) Used to produce pyruvic acid which is changed This ammonia formed is
to PEP
(1) Released to outside as it is toxic
57. Select an incorrect statement regarding operation
of photorespiration (2) Captured by chloroplast to form amino acids
(1) It involves 3 organelles present in same cell (3) Converted to serine in mitochondria
(2) H 2 O2 is produced in peroxisome and is (4) Gradually oxidised to NO2– and NO3–
metabolised by catalase 63. Under photorespiratory conditions i.e. air with high
(3) O 2 is taken up by all 3 organelles which O2 and low CO 2, the photosynthetic efficiency
release CO2 simultaneously decreases and quantum requirement for CO 2
(4) It requires expenditure of ATP fixation
58. Select an incorrect statement (1) Decreases (2) Increases
(1) PS-I produces a strong reductant capable of (3) Remain same (4) Become zero
reducing NADP+ and a weak oxidant 64. In C 4 plants what is approximate cost of CO 2
(2) PS-II produces a very strong oxidant capable concentrating mechanism in bundle sheath cells?
of oxidising water and a weaker reductant than
(1) 1 ATP (2) 2 ATP
PS-I
(3) 5 ATP (4) 30 ATP
(3) The reductant produced by PS-II re-reduces the
oxidant produced by PS-I 65. Examine the figure given below and select the
(4) PS-II produces a very strong reductant capable wrong option.
*
of reducing NADP+
59. Name the process / phenomenon marked as A in !!"#$$$!%&'(
diagram below !"#$
%&! &! !"#
%&! !$#%&#
!"#$%&' +
!"#$%$&"'##
'($)* +,-./0-./1234/2567 )
* (1) A – Present in only grana lamellae
(2) B – Involves down hill movement of electron in
%&! terms of oxidation reduction potential
(1) C4 cycle (2) C2 cycle (3) C – Absorbs 700 nm light
(3) Decarboxylation (4) Reduction (4) The electrons return back to the reaction center
66. How many extra ATPs are required to form two 73. Which of the following feature of C4 plant shares
molecules of glucose in CAM plants as compared with CAM plants?
to C3 plants? (1) Dark acidification
(1) 24 (2) 48 (2) Mesophyll cell as the site of primary
(3) 72 (4) Zero carboxylation
67. Number of electrons, photons and ATP required for (3) Presence of photoactive stomata
the reduction of 2CO2 molecules in C3-plants are (4) Similar value of transpiration ratio
(1) 8e–, 16 photons and 6 ATP 74. How many chlorophyll-a molecules form the
(2) 8e–, 8 photons and 6 ATP reaction center in photosystem-I?
(3) 4e–, 8 photons and 6 ATP (1) Many (2) One
(4) 8e–, 16 photons and 10 ATP (3) Three (4) Six
68. The evolution of C4 photosynthetic system is 75. The energy required to pump protons across the
probably one of the strategies for thylakoid membrane to produce proton gradient, is
(1) Maximising the availablity of CO 2 and provided by
minimising the loss of H2O (1) Photophosphorylation
(2) Minimising the loss of O2 and maximising the (2) Electron transportation
availability of H2O (3) ATP
(3) Minimising the availability of CO 2 and
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation
maximising the loss of H2O
76. There is no photorespiration in C4 plants because
(1) Cell wall of bundle sheath cell is thick and
69. First stable product of Melvin Calvin cycle in impervious to gaseous exchange
C4-plants is
(2) High CO2 concentration is maintained in the
(1) Malic acid bundle sheath cells
(2) Phosphoglyceric acid (3) They grow in tropics
(3) Oxaloacetic acid (4) More than one option is correct
(4) Ribulose biphosphate 77. CO 2 is utilised for the carboxylation of RuBP
70. Which molecule of Calvin cycle can enter RuBP inside the bundle sheath cells of
regeneration pathway and also forms hexose (1) Maize, Sorghum (2) Tomato, Bell pepper
sugar?
(3) Cacti, Sedum (4) Rice, wheat
(1) Fructose 1, 6-diphosphate
78. Examine the figure given below and select the right
(2) Ribulose – 5–phosphate option giving all the three parts (a, b & c) correctly
(3) Fructose – 2, 6 – diphosphate identified.
(4) Fructose – 6 – phosphate )-+
71. Match the following ),+ !
& '())&*%+, /012-
Column-I Column-II !
!"#$% & '())&*%+, $%# !&# "
!"# /012
a. Engelmann (i) Scenedesmus
b. Ruben and Kamen (ii) Stellaria media )*+
c. Calvin (iii) Chlorella
d. Hill (iv) Cladophora
!-.
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) !-.
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) !!" #$"%&%#!#$&%'"(
72. “Kranz anatomy” is present in (a) (b) (c)
(1) All photosynthetic plants (1) PS-II ETS PS-I
(2) Only C3 plants (2) ETS PS-I PS-II
(3) Only succulent plants (3) PS-I PS-II ETS
(4) Only C4 plants (4) ETS PS-II PS-I
79. Night acidification occurs in 87. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. C4 plants
(1) Sugarcane (2) Maize (1) The bundle sheath cells may form several
layers around the vascular bundle
(3) Pineapple (4) Mango
(2) Kranz anatomy is seen in maize, rice, wheat
80. The first step of photorespiration is
(3) Large number of chloroplasts are present in the
(1) Oxygenation bundle sheath cells
(2) Decarboxylation (4) Mesophyll is undifferentiated
(3) Phosphorylation 88. How many ATP molecules are required for the
synthesis of two sucrose molecules by C4 plants?
(4) Condensation
(1) 36 (2) 30
81. Site of C3-cycle in CAM plants is
(3) 60 (4) 120
(1) Bundle sheath cell
89. During non-cyclic photophosphorylation, electrons
(2) Mesophyll cell extracted from water first pass to
(3) Cytoplasm of palisade cell (1) PS II (2) Phaeophytin
(4) Thylakoid membrane of spongy tissue cell (3) OEC (4) FRS
82. Optimum temperature for C4 plants is higher than 90. All given statements are correct w.r.t.
C3 plants because high temperature favours chemiosmotic hypothesis of photosynthesis,
except
(1) Stomatal opening
(1) Photolysis of water produces H + ions that
(2) Phosphorylation of pyruvate accumulate within the lumen of thylakoid
(3) Synthesis of malic acid (2) Protons are transported across the membrane
(4) Decarboxylation of malic acid from lumen of thylakoid to stroma side of
chloroplast, which is carried out by primary
83. Lamellae of the grana and stroma lamellae are acceptor of electrons
similar in the
(3) Conversion of NADP+ to NADPH + H+ removes
(1) Presence of carboxydismutase protons from the stroma side of chloroplast
(2) Absence of OEC (4) ATP production occurs towards stroma side of
(3) Absence of PS-II chloroplast due to movement of protons from
lumen side through CF0 – CF1 complex
(4) Presence of PS-I
91. CAM plants are not different from C4 plants in
84. Mark the step of Calvin cycle during which (1) Having scotoactive stomata
carbohydrate is formed at the expense of
photochemically made ATP and NADPH (2) Performing CO2 fixation twice in the same cell
i.e., mesophyll
(1) Reduction (2) Carboxylation
(3) Production of dicarboxylic acids in mesophyll
(3) Regeneration (4) Glycolysis cytoplasm
85. RuBP carboxylase-oxygenase enzyme is present (4) Lacking dimorphic chloroplast
in
92. How many ATP and NADPH + H+ molecules are
(1) Mesophyll cells of all photosynthetic plants required to produce two molecules of maltose in
(2) Bundle sheath cells of the C3 as well as C4 Zea mays plant?
plants (1) ATP = 120 ; NADPH + H+ = 48
(3) All the mesophyll cells of the C3 plants (2) ATP = 30 ; NADPH + H+ = 12
(4) The lumen of thylakoid in C3 plants (3) ATP = 72 ; NADPH + H+ = 48
86. Kalanchoe, pineapple and Sedum are similar in the (4) ATP = 18 ; NADPH + H+ = 12
absence of 93. Photorespiration
(1) PCR-cycle (1) Does not produce energy and CO2
(2) PEPcase (2) Begins when light intensity is very low
(3) Dark acidification (3) Rate increases with the age of leaves
(4) Chloroplast dimorphism (4) Requires carboxylase activity of Rubisco
94. ‘Reduction’ and ‘regeneration’ steps of Calvin cycle 100. Accessory pigments of thylakoids
are a. Can directly absorb light and transfer the e– to
(1) Most crucial steps chlorophyll a
b. Enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming
(2) NADPH dependent
light to be utilised for photosynthesis
(3) Present in thylakoid membrane c. Protect chlorophyll a from photo-oxidation
(4) Energy dependent (1) All are correct
95. CAM plants differ from C4 plants in (2) Only c is correct
a. Twice carboxylation (3) Only b is incorrect
(4) Only a is incorrect
b. Diurnal separation of carboxylation
101. Enzyme involved in the synthesis of reducing agent
c. Having low transpiration ratio in Z-scheme is located in /on
d. Involvement of PEPcase (1) Matrix of chloroplast
e. Absence of Kranz anatomy (2) Lumen of thylakoid
f. Presence of C3 cycle in chloroplast (3) Outer side of thylakoid membrane
(1) b, c, f are correct (4) Inner surface of thylakoid membrane
102. First e– acceptor and the ultimate source of e– in
(2) a, c, e are correct
non-cyclic photophosphorylation are respectively
(3) b, c, e are correct (1) FRS and PC
(4) b, e, f are correct (2) Pheophytin and NADP+
96. C 3 plants show saturation of photosynthetic (3) Pheophytin and H2O
process when CO2 concentration is (4) Fd and H2O
(1) About 360 ppm 103. Select the correct match
(2) Beyond 450 ppm (1) C3 plants – CO2 saturation level at 360
ppm
(3) About 100 ppm
(2) C4 plants – CO2 saturation level at 450
(4) About 25 ppm ppm
97. Photorespiration involves/is (3) CAM plants – Scotoactive stomata
(1) Release of CO2 with utilization of ATP and O2 (4) Photorespi- – Favoured by high CO2
ration concentration
(2) Formation of phosphoglycolate
104. Light dependent uptake of oxygen and output of
(3) A wasteful process CO2 without the production of ATP involves
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Glucose oxidation (2) Glycolate oxidation
98. Non-cyclic flow of electrons is not possible in the (3) Lipid oxidation (4) Serine oxidation
stroma lamellae because it lacks 105. Select the correct statement w.r.t. dicarboxylic
acid cycle
(1) PS-I as well as PS-II
(1) This pathway is less energy consuming than
(2) NADP-reductase and PS-II the C3 pathway
(3) ATP synthetase and PS-I (2) Primary CO2 acceptor is present in mesophyll
cell
(4) Cytochrome bf complex and PS-I
(3) Bundle sheath cells perform non-cyclic
99. Internal CO 2 concentration and amount of photophosphorylation
chlorophyll are
(4) Both carboxylations show time separation
(1) Environmental and internal factors respectively 106. C3 cycle occurs in
(2) Dependent on the growth of the plant only (1) C3 plants only
(3) External factors affecting photosynthesis (2) C4 plants only
(4) Dependent on the genetic predisposition of the (3) CAM plants only
plant (4) C3, C4 and CAM plants
107. Decarboxylation occurs in PCO cycle in 114. Final CO2 acceptor in C4 and CAM plants is a
(1) Chloroplast _______ compound.
(2) Peroxisome (1) C5 (2) C3
(3) Mitochondria (3) C4 (4) C2
(4) Sphaerosome 115. Action spectrum for photosynthesis was first given
by Engelmann by using
108. Chloroplasts are aligned with their flat surface,
(1) Green algae and aerobic bacteria
parallel to the tangential walls of cells when
(1) Moderate incident light comes (2) Brown algae and anaerobic bacteria
(3) Red algae and green-S-bacteria
(2) Diffused light comes
(3) Plant is kept in strong light (4) Blue algae and purple-S-bacteria
(4) When intermittent strong and diffused light is 116. The membranous system of chloroplast is
responsible for the synthesis of
given
(1) ATP, NADPH and sugars
109. Photosynthetic rate and productivity will increase
by increasing CO2 concentration in (2) Starch and NADPH
(1) Bell pepper and tomatoes (3) ATP by oxidative phosphorylation
(2) Sugarcane and sugarbeet (4) NADPH and ATP
(3) Maize and Sorghum 117. Synthesis of PGA from RUBP and CO2 in C 3
plants, is
(4) Atriplex and Eleusine
(1) ATP dependent
110. How many cell types does the leaf have to fix CO2
in C3 and CAM plants respectively? (2) Dependent on most abundant biological protein
(1) 3 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (3) NADPH dependent
(3) 1 and 2 (4) 1 and 1 (4) Dependent on phosphoglycerokinase
111. Choose odd one w.r.t. events involved in ‘photo- 118. How many turns of C4 cycles are required to
chemical’ phase of photosynthesis in eukaryotes produce one molecule of sucrose in Zea mays?
(1) Water splitting, formation of high energy (1) 2 (2) 6
intermediates (3) 12 (4) 24
(2) Oxygen release, formation of ATP and NADH 119. The CAM plants
(3) Light absorption, electron transport system (1) Show highest photosynthetic rate
(4) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation, (2) Lack PEP carboxylase activity
chemiosmosis
(3) Are not adapted for the conditions of extreme
112. How many ATP and NADPH + H+ are required for desiccation
the synthesis of one maltose molecule in a C3
plant? (4) Are not as photosynthetically efficient as C4
plants
(1) ATP = 18 ; NADPH + H+ = 12
120. In the C4 plants, CO2 acceptor in mesophyll cells
(2) ATP = 36 ; NADPH + H+ = 24
and bundle sheath cells respectively are
(3) ATP = 12 ; NADPH + H+ = 12
(1) 4C organic acid, 3C organic acid
(4) ATP = 18 ; NADPH + H+ = 18
(2) 3C organic acid, 4C organic acid
113. According to chemiosmosis hypothesis for
photosynthesis, energy is used (3) 5C keto sugar, 3C keto compound
(1) To pump protons across a membrane (4) 3C molecule, 5C keto sugar

(2) To activate the photosystems 121. Number of carboxylation during photosynthesis in
rice is/are
(3) To create a high concentration of protons within
the thylakoid lumen (1) 1 (2) 2
(4) More than one option is correct (3) 3 (4) 4
122. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. 130. During cyclic photo-phosphorylation in green plants,
photorespiration the process of reduction of CO2 to carbohydrates
(1) Glycolate is oxidised to glyoxylate in
(1) Goes on unhindered
chloroplast
(2) Glycine enters mitochondria (2) Is appreciably retarded
(3) Increased O2 level increases photorespiration (3) Is enhanced
(4) The phosphoglycolates is dephosphorylated to (4) Stops completely
form glycolate
131. Which of the following statements is correct?
123. Under water stress condition, the rate of
photosynthesis declines because of (1) Most of photosynthesis takes place in blue
(1) Reduced leaf water potential and red regions of spectrum
(2) Increased leaf water potential (2) In PS-I the reaction centre chl-a has an
(3) Stomatal closure and the resultant decrease in absorption peak at 680 nm
CO2 supply
(3) PS-II has FRS as primary electron acceptor
124. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. light reaction (4) Accessory pigments forms the reaction centre
(1) The primary acceptor of PS-II is phaeophytin 132. Select the odd one out w.r.t. C4-plants
(2) The splitting of water is associated with PS-II (1) Adapted to dry tropical regions
(3) In PS-I, the reaction centre Chlorophyll-a has (2) Have C4 oxaloacetic acid as first CO2 fixation
an absorption peak at 680 nm
product
(4) The LHC are made up of core and antenna
molecules (3) They do not use Calvin cycle as main
biosynthetic pathway
125. During cyclic photophosphorylation
(1) Only PSI is functional (4) They tolerate high temperatures
(2) The excited electron passes on to NADP 133. The major limiting factor for photosynthesis is
reductase
(1) Light (2) Carbon dioxide
(3) The electrons move in lamellae of the grana
from higher to lower redox potential (3) Temperature (4) Water
(4) More than one option is correct 134. Stroma lamellae in chloroplasts
126. Calvin pathway occurs in (1) Cannot perform cyclic photophosphorylation
(1) C3-plants only
(2) Lack both PS II and NADP reductase
(2) C3- plants and some C4 plants
(3) Do not possess multiprotein electron carriers
(3) All photosynthetic plants
(4) C3- plants and some CAM plants (4) Are activated when irradiated with light
wavelengths shorter than 700 nm
127. For every CO2 molecule entering the Calvin cycle,
_____ molecules of ATP and _______ of NADPH 135. Consumption of O 2 occurs in ____and _____
are required. during photorespiration
(1) 2, 3 (2) 3, 2 (1) Chloroplast, peroxisome
(3) 12, 18 (4) 18, 12
(2) Peroxisome, mitochondria
128. Select the odd one (w.r.t. double carboxylation)
(3) Chloroplast, mitochondria
(1) Sorghum (2) Maize
(4) Mesophyll cells, bundle sheath
(3) Sugarcane (4) Wheat
129. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Hatch and 136. Stroma lamellae membrane differs from grana
Slack pathway lamellae in
(1) PEP is regenerated in mesophyll (1) Presence of PS-I and PS-II

(2) Few number of chloroplasts in bundle sheath (2) Absence of PS-I, cytochromes and ATPase
(3) RUBP carboxylase is absent in mesophyll (3) Presence of PS-I and NADP reductase
(4) Multilayered bundle sheath (4) Absence of PS-II and NADP reductase
137. Read the following statements and select correct 141. Photosynthetic active radiation (PAR) in
set for photosynthesis. photosynthesis lies in between
a. External electron donar in non-cyclic (1) 100 – 400 nm (2) 400 – 700 nm
photophosphorylation is H2O.
(3) 760 – 950 nm (4) 10 – 100 nm
b. Splitting of each molecule of H 2 O is
associated with eight photons. 142. Read the following statements w.r.t. antenna
molecules.
c. Per carbon assimilation requires two additional
ATP in Sorghum than Triticum. (a) The LHC are made up of hundreds of pigment
molecules bound to proteins.
d. CAM plants have double carboxylation and
dimorphic chloroplasts. (b) Water splitting complex is associated with the
e. Oxygenase activity of Rubisco is absent due to PS-II.
CO2 concentration effect in C4 plants. (1) Only (b) is correct
(1) a, c & e (2) a, b & d (2) Both (a) & (b) are incorrect
(3) c, d & e (4) b, d & e (3) Only (a) is correct
138. a. Peaks of absorption spectrum can be seen at (4) Both (a) & (b) are correct
blue and red part of spectrum, where red peak
is higher. 143. Final electron acceptor in the Z-scheme of light
reaction is
b. C4 plants can concentrate CO2 at RuBisCO
site in bundle sheath cells. (1) Ferredoxin (2) Plastoquinone
c. Photorespiration involves both formation and (3) NADP+ (4) Fe-S
breakdown of H2O2 in mitochondria. 144. Breakdown of proton gradient across the thylakoid
(1) a & b are correct membrane is due to
(2) a & c are correct (1) Removal of protons from stroma by NADP
(3) a, b & c are correct reductase
(4) Only b is correct (2) Active transport of protons through F0 part
139. Mark the statements true (T) or false (F). (3) Diffusion of protons through transmembrane
A. Less than 1 percent of water reaching the channel
leaves is used in photosynthesis and plant (4) Pumping of protons through F1 part
growth.
145. If CO2 concentration increases in atmosphere then
B. Cellulose microfibrils of guard cells are oriented which of the following plants will be benefitted?
longitudinally, making it easier for the stoma to
open. (1) Maize, Sorghum (2) Tomato, Bell pepper
C. Transpiration can create pressure sufficient to (3) Eleusine, Sugarcane (4) Sugarcane, Maize
lift a xylem sized column of water over 130 146. How many ATP molecules per CO2 are required at
metres high. the reduction step of Calvin cycle?
D. C4 plants loses only half as much water as a (1) 3 (2) 2
C3 plant for the same amount of CO2 fixed.
(3) 18 (4) 5
A B C D
147. a. C4 pathway is found in plants adapted to dry
(1) F T F T
tropical regions
(2) F T F F
b. C3 pathway is the main biosynthetic pathway
(3) T F T T in C4 plants
(4) T F F T
c. C4 plants have greater productivity of biomass
140. C4 plants are twice efficient than C 3 plants in
(1) All are correct
_____ but lose only _____ as much water as a C3
plant. (2) Only b is incorrect
(1) N2 fixation, 75% (2) Fixing carbon, 75% (3) Only c is correct
(3) N2 fixation, 50% (4) Fixing carbon, 50% (4) Both b & c are incorrect
148. In the given graph what does A, B represent?

!"! %'$ %&$()$
152.
! !"#$ *$ '0)12+.$3124356+
" !+,"-+,. /%&$
%&$
/%&$
!"#$%&'()*+(,-
%'$
7+812+
The amount of GP increases when a

photosynthesizing plant has been transferred in
dark for a short time because
!"" #"" $"" %""
&'()*)+,-./01/*2,.-/2+/+'+03)-4)5/6+37 (1) CO2 is not available due to stomatal closure
(1) A – Absorption spectrum, (2) ATP is not available
B – Action spectrum (Chl. a) (3) Light reaction is inhibited
(2) A – Action spectrum, (4) NADP (reduced) is not available
B – Absorption spectrum (carotenoids) 153. Select correct statement w.r.t. photorespiration
(3) A – Absorption spectrum, (1) 3-PGA and 2-phosphoglycolic acid are
B – Action spectrum (Chl. b) oxidised
(4) A – Action spectrum, (2) Rate is directly proportional to age of plants

and environmental temperature
B – Absorption spectrum (Chl. a)
(3) ATP is produced at many steps
149. A chromatographic separation of the leaf pigments
shows that colour in leaves is due to four (4) 25% of carbon passing out of chloroplast is
pigments which are retrieved or reclaimed
(1) Chl a – blue green, Chl b – yellow green, 154. PEP carboxylase is found in CAM and C4 plants.
Xanthophyll – yellow, Carotene – yellow orange This enzyme is
(2) Chl a – yellow green, Chl b – blue green, (1) Switched on in day in C4 plants
Xanthophyll – yellow, Carotene – yellow orange (2) Switched off in night in CAM plants
(3) Chl a – blue green, Chl b – red, Xanthophyll – (3) Switched off in day in C4 plants
orange, Carotene – yellow
(4) Switched on in day in both CAM and C4 plants
(4) Chl a – yellow green, Chl b – blue, green,
Xanthophyll – yellow, Carotene – orange 155. When the leaves are exposed to more light than
they can utilize, the reaction centre of PS-II is
150. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. stroma lamellae
inactivated and damaged and this phenomenon is
(1) Presence of PS I called
(2) Site of cyclic photophosphorylation (1) Photorespiration
(3) Perform photosynthesis at wavelength > 680 (2) Insularisation
nm
(3) Photoinhibition
(4) Presence of NADP+ reductase
(4) Thermal deactivation
151. Which of the following is correct for C4-plants?
156. How many molecules of serine and CO2 are formed
MC – Mesophyll cells respectively from 10 molecules of glycolate during
BSC – Bundle sheath cells Decker's process?
(1) MC – Lack PEPcase, RuBisCO present (1) 10 and 10
(2) BSC – RuBisCO present, Lack PEPcase (2) 5 and 10

(3) MC – Lack RuBisCO, PEPcase (3) 5 and 5
(4) BSC – RuBisCO, PEPcase present (4) 10 and 5
157. In PCR cycle reducing power is used during the 164. Mark the incorrect option (w.r.t. factors promoting
production of photorespiration)
(1) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (1) High light intensity
(2) RUBP (2) Low temperature
(3) DHAP (3) Ageing of leaf

(4) High O2 concentration
(4) DPGA
165. PGA as the first CO 2 fixation product was
158. In the photorespiratory pathway
discovered in photosynthesis of
(1) O2 is used with the synthesis of sugar (1) Bryophyte (2) Angiosperm
(2) There is no production of NADPH and CO2 (3) Algae (4) Gymnosperm
(3) Regeneration of PGA with the utilisation of ATP 166. Priestley performed the experiment which
(4) Carbon loss is seen with the production of ATP hypothesised that plants restore to air whatever
breathing animals and burning candles remove.
159. How many additional ATP molecules are required Which plant was utilised by him?
by maize plant as compared to rice for the
(1) Tomato (2) Mint
formation of one maltose?
(3) Hydrilla (4) Potato
(1) 12 (2) 24
167. How many ATPs are required per CO2 fixation by
(3) 30 (4) 18 rice and maize respectively?
160. Who hypothesised that “plants restore to the air (1) 3, 5 (2) 5, 3
whatever breathing animals and burning candles
(3) 5, 5 (4) 3, 3
remove?
168. Plants showing cooperative photosynthesis differs
(1) Julius Von Sachs (2) Englemann from plants having scotoactive stomata
(3) Joseph Priestley (4) Van Niel in_________
161. The excited electron does not pass on to NADP+ but (1) Showing diurnal separation of photosynthetic
is cycled back to the PS I complex through the ETC process
in (2) Having both C3 and C4 cycle in same cell
(1) Stroma lamellae (3) Forming oxaloacetic acid as first stable
product of primary CO2 fixation
(2) Granal membrane only
(4) Having thick walled bundle sheath cells
(3) Thylakoid lumen
surrounded by concentrically arranged
(4) Matrix mesophyll cells
162. How many additional ATP molecules are required 169. In sugarcane, first product of CO2 fixation is
for the reduction of 2CO2 molecules in pea and (1) -ketoglutarate (2) 3 PGA
maize respectively?
(3) PEP (4) OAA
(1) 6 and 10 (2) 3 and 5 170. Cornelius van Niel, who, based on his studies of
(3) Zero and 10 (4) Zero and 4 ____(A) , demonstrated that photosynthesis is
essentially a light dependent reaction in which
163. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. C3 cycle
hydrogen from a suitable compound _____(B)____
(1) For one CO2 fixation three ATPs are required CO2 to carbohydrates.
(2) Regeneration of the CO2 acceptor molecule (1) A-Unicellular green alga, B-oxidises
RuBP is not crucial for the continuation of the (2) A-Purple and green sulphur bacteria, B-
cycle Reduces
(3) The first stable product is PGA (3) A-Blue green alga, B-oxidises
(4) Carboxylation is the most crucial step (4) A-Multicellular green alga, B-Reduces
SECTION - B 5. A : The reaction centre is similar in both the

pigment systems.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion R : Chlorophyll a is present in both pigment
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) systems which receives energised electron
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the from LHC.
6. A : The primary CO2 acceptor is 3 -C compound
in C4 and CAM plants.
reason is not the correct explanation of the R : Mesophyll cell lacks rubisco enzyme in both
group of plants.
false, then mark (3). 7. A : Carotenoids are fat soluble pigments.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false R : They are present in light harvesting complex.
1. A : Temperate plants fix CO2 in GP. 8. A : The C4 plants have greater productivity of
R : Some tropical monocots and dicots fix CO2 biomass.
directly into C4 acid. R : C 4 plants lack a process called
2. A : In C 4 plants initial fixation of CO 2 and its photorespiration.
subsequent reduction takes place in different
cells. 9. A : CO2 fixation is decreased in C3 plants during
R : Initial fixation requires PEP. low CO2 corcentration.
3. A : In carboxylation a carboxylase enzyme R : O2 competes with CO2 for RuBisCo enzyme.
catalyzes the formation of C–H bond between
CO2 and H-atom of an organic molecule. 10. A : When light is made to split into its spectral
R : Both PEPcase and RuBisCo show components and then used to illuminate
carboxylase and oxygenase activity. Cladophora, aerobic bacteria accumulate
4. A : ATP is synthesized on the outer surface of mainly in the region of blue and red light of the
thylakoid membrane. split spectrum.
R : Protons flow from thylakoid lumen to stroma
results in breakdown of proton gradient. R : Plants absorb red and blue lights only.
!" !" !
Chapter 7
Respiration in Plants
7. In the figure given below, the correct match is

SECTION - A
!"#$%&'
!
1. During EMP pathway, the fructose 1,6-diphosphate ! 8
splits into !"($')*"+',(+'
-./,%&0,*1' 789!
(1) PGAL and DHAP (2) PGA and PGAL
789!
(3) DHAP and PGA (4) Pyruvate and ATP 789:5;5:!
/()#34$
2. The respiratory quotient of tripalmatin as respiratory 789:5;5:!
*$4+
substrate is 6 789:5;5:!
(1) 4 (2) 1.3 !
(3) 1 (4) 0.7 ! 789!
/,%&0,%'2%" < ;56="
3. Which one of the following is an integral /()#34$5*$4+
membrane protein complex that forms the channel
through which the protons cross the inner (1) A-Ethanol, B-Lactic acid, C-Dihydroxyacetone
membrane? phosphate
(1) F0 – F1 (2) F0 (2) A-Lactic acid, B-Ethanol, C-Oxaloacetic acid
(3) F+ and F– (4) CF1 (3) A-Lactic acid, B-Ethanol, C-3-Phosphoglyceric
4. The fermentation product of yeast are acid
(1) Methyl alcohol and ethyl alcohol (4) A-Ethanol, B-Lactic acid, C-3-Phosphoglyceric
(2) Methyl alcohol and carbon dioxide acid
(3) Ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide
8. Which of the following conversion of Krebs cycle is
(4) Pyruvate and acetaldehyde not catalysed by dehydrogenase enzyme?
5. Find odd one (w.r.t. synonyms of shunt of
(1) Conversion of isocitric acid to oxalosuccinic
glycolysis)
acid
(1) OPPP (2) HMP
(3) PPP (4) PCO (2) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
6. During aerobic respiration, the site where both ATP (3) Malic acid to oxaloacetic acid
and NADH + H+ are synthesised are (4) Oxalosuccinic acid to -ketoglutaric acid
(1) Cytosol and inner mitochondrial membrane
(2) Cytosol, mitochondrial matrix and inner 9. FADH2 + 2Fe3+S 2Fe2+S + 2H+ + FAD
mitochondrial membrane
The above reaction is related with
(3) Mitochondrial matrix and inner mitochondrial
membrane (1) Complex IV (2) Complex III
(4) Cytosol and mitochondrial matrix (3) Complex II (4) Complex I
304 Respiration in Plants Last Leap For NEET (Part-II)
10. Cis-aconitate + H2O Isocitrate 16. How much energy in kJ would be produced when
a sucrose molecule enters respiration after
The enzyme and cofactor in above reaction are oxidative decarboxylation ?
_______ and _______ respectively
(1) 2870 kJ (2) 5470 kJ
(1) Aconitase, Fe2+
(3) 1794 kJ (4) 2588 kJ
(2) Aconitase, Mg2+
17. In CAC
(3) Aconitase, Mn2+ (1) Citrate synthetase is pacemaker which is
(4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase, Fe2+ inhibited by ATP alone
11. Mark the correct one (w.r.t Ethyl alcohol fermentation) (2) Oxalosuccinic acid is formed by oxidation of
isocitric acid
(1) In presence of alcohol dehydrogenase,
pyruvate is broken down to form acetaldehyde (3) Oxaloacetic acid forms raw material for
terpenes and cytochromes
(2) Acetaldehyde is reduced to ethyl alcohol
(4) Succinate dehydrogenase brings about
(3) Hydrogen for reduction is obtained from
reduction of succinic acid to fumaric acid
NADPH + H+
18. Connecting link between respiration and protein
(4) No carbon dioxide is produced synthesis is
12. Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor in (1) Acetyl Co-A (2) Oxaloacetic acid
ETS. How many molecules of oxygen are required
to oxidise 6 molecules of pyruvic acid? (3) -ketoglutarate (4) Succinyl Co-A
19. Step common to EMP and CAC is
(1) 15 O2 (2) 20 O2
(1) Oxidative decarboxylation
(3) 30 O2 (4) 40 O2
(2) Decarboxylation
13. In the glycolytic pathway of aerobic respiration how
many ATP molecules are utilised for the breakdown (3) Oxidative phosphorylation
of six fructose molecules? (4) Substrate level phosphorylation
(1) Six (2) Three 20. Number of ATP generated per atom of oxygen
(3) Ten (4) Twelve utilized in respiration
14. Fate of pyruvate depends upon cellular needs, it (1) Is high in protoplasmic respiration
can (2) Depends upon substrate which is being
a. Enter aerobic respiration oxidized
b. Take part in alcohol fermentation (3) Is high in floating respiration

(4) Depends upon substrate which is being
c. Perform lactic acid fermentation
reduced
d. Participate in alanine synthesis
21. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Pasteur effect
(1) All are correct (2) Only b is incorrect
(1) Decrease in the rate of sugar breakdown
(3) Only d is incorrect (4) Only c is incorrect
(2) Increase in the rate of sugar breakdown
15. Find an incorrect statement w.r.t. ETS of
(3) Transition from aerobic to anaerobic respiration
respiration
(4) Decrease in the rate of ATP production
(1) Cyt c and UQ work as mobile carriers
22. One turn of -oxidation of fatty acid yields
(2) Cyt a3 performs terminal donation of electrons
(1) One acetyl CoA and NADH + H+
(3) Terminal electron acceptor is located at outer
(2) One acetyl CoA and FADH2
(3) One acetyl CoA + 1 NADH + H+ + 1 FADH2
(4) UQ works as common electron acceptor for
both, membrane enzyme complex I and II (4) Two molecules of acetyl CoA
Last Leap For NEET (Part-II) Respiration in Plants 305
23. How many ATP molecules are formed during 32. Select an incorrect statement with regard to ETS
aerobic oxidation of two -ketoglutaric acid in cellular respiration
molecules?
(1) Convert electron motive force (emf) into proton
(1) 9 (2) 18 motive force (pmf)
(3) 8 (4) 38
(2) Involves in ATP generation
24. In HMS, complete degradation of one glucose
molecule leads to the formation of (3) Have multiprotein complexes embedded as
+ + intrinsic and tunnel proteins
(1) 6 NADH + H (2) 12 NADH + H
+ + (4) Have single electron transport chain
(3) 12 NADPH + H (4) 6 NADPH + H
25. Transfer of yeast cell from anaerobic to aerobic 33. Which of the following enzyme is exclusively found
condition inside mitochondria and is not synthesized under
the control of mitochondrial DNA?
(1) Increases the rate of sugar breakdown
(2) Increases CO2 evolution (1) NADH dehydrogenase
(3) Decreases rate of sugar breakdown (2) Cyt c reductase
(4) Is called Warburg effect (3) Succinic dehydrogenase
26. Which one of the given reaction does not involve (4) Cyt c oxidase
decarboxylation?
34. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, responsible for
(1) -ketoglutarate Succinyl CoA pyruvate decarboxylation in cellular respiration in
(2) Fumarate Malate eukaryotes, is found in
(3) Oxalo-succinate -ketoglutarate (1) Cytoplasm
(4) Pyruvate Acetyl CoA (2) Perimitochondrial space
27. During mitochondrial ETS, copper containing
(3) Mitochondrial matrix
cytochrome hands over its electrons to
(1) Cyt. a (2) Cyt. b (4) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(3) Cyt. c (4) Oxygen 35. In glycolysis

28. In Warburg - Limpan - Dickens pathway complete (1) A reduced coenzyme is produced
degradation of one molecule of glucose produces (2) Group of insoluble enzymes located in cell
(1) 4 NADPH molecules membrane is involved
(2) 8 NADPH molecules (3) An amino acid is produced at the end
(3) 12 NADPH molecules (4) 3 carbon and 4 carbon intermediates are
(4) 38 ATP molecules produced
29. The net gain of ATP from complete oxidation of one 36. NADH 2 generated in glycolysis is a source of
molecule of DHAP in muscles and nerve cells is energy and produces 3 ATP in ETS. In absence of
(1) 8 ATP (2) 19 ATP O2 which process is responsible for regenerating
(3) 36 ATP (4) 38 ATP NAD needed for glycolysis?
30. ATP provides energy by (1) ETS
(1) Metabolizing substances (2) Oxidative decarboxylation
(2) Allowing sugars to cross cell membrane (3) Fermentation
(3) Transferring an energized phosphate group to
(4) Deamination
the substrate
(4) Helping to store sugar for later use 37. What is the similarity between EMP and PPP
(HMS)?
31. During ethyl alcohol or lactic acid fermentation
(1) Both are present in cytosol
(1) Pyruvic acid produced in glycolysis is oxidised
(2) Products contain no energy (2) Both produces NADPH2
(3) CO2 is always produced (3) Both produces similar type of intermediates
(4) Coenzyme NAD+ is regenerated (4) Both have oxidative decarboxylation phase
38. Both ubiquinone and cytochrome bc1 complex of 48. GTP is formed at which step of Krebs cycle during
inner mitochondrial membrane are structurally and aerobic respiration?
functionally similar to _______ and _______ of (1) Conversion of isocitric acid into oxalosuccinic
photosynthetic electron transport chain respectively acid
(1) PC, cyt-b6f (2) PQ, NADP reductase (2) Oxidation of -ketoglutaric acid into succinyl co-
(3) Pheo, PQ (4) PQ, cyt-b6f A
39. In mitochondrial inner membrane how many sites (3) Conversion of succinyl Co-A into succinic acid
of energy conservation along ETS is present? (4) Oxidation of malic acid into oxaloacetic acid
(1) 3 (2) 4 49. Find the odd one out w.r.t. amphibolic nature of Krebs
(3) 5 (4) 2 cycle
40. Which of the following cell organelles is not a site (1) Oxaloacetic acid helps in pyrimidine
of -oxidation of fats in plant or animals? biosynthesis
(1) Mitochondria (2) Peroxisomes (2) Acetyl CoA is released from -oxidation of fatty
(3) Glyoxysome (4) Sphaerosomes acid
41. In Kreb's cycle malate is formed from fumarate by (3) -ketoglutaric acid provides carbon skeleton for
process of reductive amination reaction
(1) Hydration (2) Dehydration (4) Succinyl CoA works as raw material for
(3) Dehydrogenation (4) Decarboxylation chlorophyll biosynthesis
42. Which of the following intermediate of cellular 50. How many total H+ are required to be transported
pathway is precursor of gibberellins, carotenoids, back to matrix if 5 ATP molecules are generated
sterols, and fatty acids? by enzyme complex V of F 1 particle during
respiration?
(1) Succinyl CoA (2) Acetyl CoA
(1) 15 protons (2) 10 protons
(3) Oxaloacetate (4) PEP
(3) 9 protons (4) 20 protons
43. Chemiosmotic theory of P. Mitchell explains a
general mechanism of energy conservation across 51. Which of the given component/e– carrier is common
(1) Inner mitochondrial membrane to both photosynthetic and respiratory e– transport
chain?
(2) Thylakoid membrane
(1) Cytochrome c (2) Quinone compound
(3) Cell wall
(3) Pheophytin (4) Cytochrome a
52. Choose the correct option for the following
44. Pacemaker enzyme of EMP pathway depends diagram
upon which mineral for its activity?
$%&'()
(1) Mn (2) Mo
(3) Mg (4) Fe
!! !
!
45. How many oxidations and decarboxylations occurs
" #
during one TCA cycle? *++,'-
.(&/01/+2'(%3-
(1) 4 and 2 (2) 6 and 2 .,.4'%+,
(3) 2 and 4 (4) 2 and 6 (1) ‘A’ is peripheral membrane protein
46. A 3-C end product of cytoplasmic respiration in (2) Protons activate the catalytic site present in ‘B’
eukaryote is not involved in
(3) ‘B’ is an integral protein complex that form the
(1) Lactic acid fermentation proton channel
(2) Alcoholic fermentation (4) For each ATP production, 3H+ passes through
(3) -oxidation of fatty acid complex
(4) Alanine biosynthesis by transamination 53. For five molecules of acetyl CoA entering the
47. How many additional H+ has to be transported in aerobic respiratory pathway, how many ATP
PMS by NADH 2 molecules to produce 6 ATP molecules are produced by substrate level
during oxidative phosphorylation? phosphorylation?
(1) 12H+ (2) 8H+ (1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 16H+ (4) 4H+ (3) 12 (4) 5
54. First oxidative decarboxylation reaction in aerobic 62. In glycolysis, ATP is synthesised during conversion
respiration occurs in ______ and requires of
________. (1) Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
(1) Inner mitochondrial membrane, Mn2+ (2) Fructose-6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-
(2) Cytoplasm, K+ bisphosphate
(3) Mitochondrial matrix, TPP (3) 3-phosphoglyceric acid to 2-phosphoglyceric
acid
(4) Inter membrane space, Fe2+
(4) 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate
55. How many glycine molecules condense to form one
molecule of serine in photorespiration? 63. Small protein attached to the outer surface of inner
mitochondrial membrane and acting as a mobile e–
(1) Two (2) One
carrier is
(3) Four (4) Six
(1) Cytochrome a3 (2) Cytochrome c1
56. What will be value of RQ in Opuntia and
(3) Cytochrome a (4) Cytochrome c
Bryophyllum in night?
64. How many total ATP molecules will be produced
(1) > 1 (2) < 1
when a molecule of 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde
(3) Zero (4) directly enters the glycolysis and is completely
57. Which of the following product is produced after oxidized ?
first oxidation in aerobic respiration? (1) 17 (2) 5
(1) Oxalosuccinic acid (3) 15 (4) 20
(2) Citric acid 65. Which of the following statement is correct?
(3) 1, 3 biphosphoglyceric acid (1) Glycolysis is present in facultative anaerobes,
(4) Pyruvic acid not in obligate anaerobes
58. Formation of ATP in mitochondrial ETS of a green (2) Usually carbohydrates are oxidised to release
cell in light is called energy in cellular respiration
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation (3) Oxidation of one molecule of NADH gives rise
to 3 molecules of ATP in anaerobic respiration
(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(4) Fermentation takes place under anaerobic
(3) Substrate level phosphorylation
conditions in prokaryotes only
(4) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
66. How many molecules of metabolic water are
59. What will be net gain of ATP if one molecule of released after complete oxidation of one molecule
PGAL is oxidised completely in a bacterial cell? of pyruvic acid?
(1) 1 (2) 20 (1) 12 (2) 5
(3) 38 (4) 4 (3) 10 (4) 6
60. How many ATP molecules are obtained as net gain 67. The complete combustion of glucose inside the cell
if one molecule of 1, 3-biphosphoglyceric acid is yields
oxidised completely inside a cell?
(1) 38 ATP only
(1) 20 (2) 17
(2) Energy, most of which is given out as heat
(3) 34 (4) 3
(3) Energy, most of which is given out as ATP
61. Lactic acid as well as alcoholic fermentation both
(4) Heat energy only
(1) Involve similar type of reducing agent
68. Lactic acid and alcoholic fermentation are similar
(2) Produce NADH + H+ as the energy source in the presence of
(3) Involve glycolysis and ETC (1) TCA cycle (2) Link reaction
(4) Involve different types of decarboxylases (3) ETC (4) EMP pathway
69. What does A, B and C represents in the given 76. When a molecule of pyruvic acid undergoes lactic
below diagram of thylakoid? acid fermentation then
!
, ! (1) 3 ATP are lost (2) 1 ATP is lost
2!$#
(3) 6 ATP are lost (4) 2 ATP are gained
2!$#,
! + 77. During the oxidation of C20H39COOH the RQ value
is
!
(1) > 1 (2) < 1
,
!
, ,
! (3) 1 (4) Zero
,
! &'()*
78. How many oxidative decarboxylation steps are
involved during the oxidation of one molecule of
pyruvic acid?
-./0(1
(1) Three (2) One
%
!$# !"# (3) Two (4) Four
(1) PS II, Cyt b-f, F0 (2) Cyt b-f, PS II, F1 79. Which of the following is considered as the first
(3) Cyt b-f, PS I, F1 (4) PS I, Cyt b-f, F0 oxidation step of aerobic respiration?
70. During glycolysis how many redox equivalents are (1) Glucose Glucose-6-P
removed from PGAL to form a reduced molecule (2) -Ketoglutaric acid Succinyl CoA
of co-enzyme? (3) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(1) One (2) Two 1,3-phosphoglyceric acid
(3) Three (4) Four (4) Fructose 1,6-Diphosphate
71. How many ATP molecules are produced from one Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate + DHAP
molecule of 3-PGA through substrate level
80. Acetyl CoA provides 2 carbon compounds for the
phosphorylation in aerobic respiration?
synthesis of all except
(1) 6 (2) 3
(1) ABA (2) Head of chlorophyll
(3) 2 (4) 1
(3) Gibberellin (4) Steroid
72. RQ value will be one when the substrate is 81. Alcoholic fermentation is almost similar to
(1) Carbohydrate (2) Protein anaerobic respiration, it is
(3) Fat (4) Organic acid (1) Oxidative decarboxylation
73. In anaerobic respiration, NAD +
is reduced in (2) Reductive decarboxylation
glycolysis. This NADH + H+ is oxidised by (3) Oxidative phosphorylation
(1) Lactic acid (4) Oxidative phosphorylation evolving CO2 also
(2) Acetaldehyde 82. Reduction of coenzyme occurs first in aerobic
(3) Ethyl alcohol respiration at
(4) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (1) Pyruvic acid (2) Isocitrate
74. How many NADH molecules are oxidised to NAD+ (3) PGAL (4) -KGA
with the help of ETC, if one molecule of glucose is 83. In ETS the number of ATP molecules synthesized
oxidised completely inside the nerve cell? depends on
(1) 10 (2) 8 (1) O2 (2) Substrate
(3) 12 (4) 2 (3) Electron donor (4) Proton gradient
75. Fatty acids enter the aerobic respiratory pathway 84. What is the net ATP production when two
after being converted to the molecules of glucose are fermented to lactic acid?
(1) Pyruvate (2) PGAL (1) Two (2) Four
(3) Acetyl CoA (4) DHAP (3) Eight (4) Ten
85. Which of the following compound of cellular 92. Continuous supply of which organic acid is
respiration is neither the product of EMP nor TCA? required to run TCA cycle continuously?
(1) Oxaloacetic acid (2) Activated acetyl (1) Acetyl Co-A (2) -ketoglutaric acid
(3) PGAL (4) -KGA (3) Oxaloacetic acid (4) Citric acid
86. Which is correct for 16 C fatty acid? 93. A mobile electron carrier which transfers electron
(1) It undergoes -oxidation in cytosol and yields between complex-III and complex-IV is
131 ATP (1) Cytochrome-b and present on inner
(2) It undergoes -oxidation in plastid and yields mitochondrial membrane
129 ATP (2) Cytochrome-c and present on outer side of
(3) It undergoes -oxidation in mitochondria and inner mitochondrial membrane
yields 131 ATP (3) Cytochrome oxidase and present on outer
(4) It undergoes -oxidation in mitochondria and mitochondrial membrane
yields 129 ATP (4) Cytochrome-c and present on outer
87. All living organisms retain the enzymatic machinery mitochondrial membrane
to partially oxidise glucose without the help of O2.
94. Formation of ATP in mitochondria in green cells of
This breakdown of sugar is called
leaf during day time also is called
(1) Anaerobic respiration
(1) Substrate level oxidation
(2) Aerobic respiration
(2) Oxidative phosphorylation
(3) Glycolysis
(3) Photophosphorylation
(4) Fermentation
(4) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
88. First step of transition reaction is catalysed by
95. How many ATP molecules are obtained as net gain
enzyme namely
if two molecules of fructose-1,6-biphosphate
(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase oxidised completely inside the bacterial cell?
(2) Transacetylase (1) 80 (2) 76
(3) Decarboxylase (3) 40 (4) 38
(4) Pyruvate kinase 96. During respiratory electron transport chain, the
89. How many times more CO2 is produced in HMP ubiquinone receives electrons from FADH2 via
than alcoholic fermentation? enzyme complex
(1) 6 times (2) 3 times (1) I (2) III
(3) 2 times (4) Zero (3) II (4) V
90. Transition from anaerobic to aerobic respiration in 97. Respiratory quotient for the tripalmitin is
yeast cells will represented as
(1) Decrease glucose oxidation !"#! !"#$%!
(1) (2)
(2) Increase glycolysis !#! !&'%!
(3) Decrease coenzyme reduction !"#$%! !"#!
(3) (4)
(4) Increase total CO2 production !('%! $#!
91. Which is incorrect for ATPase? 98. Tricarboxylic acid cycle
(1) This is made up of two parts (1) Is present in all living organisms
(2) F0 is an integral membrane protein (2) Is involved in catabolism only
(3) This is reversible in function (3) Requires pyruvate as substrate entrant
(4) This is found in mitochondria only (4) Requires O2 supply
99. Which is not produced during Kreb’s cycle? 104. Cytochrome-c is a small protein acts as a mobile
(1) Energy (2) NAD+ carrier attached to
(3) 4C compound (4) 6C compound (1) Outer surface of inner membrane for transfer of
e– between complex II and III
100. Match the following and select the correct option
from those given below (2) Inner surface of the inner membrane for transfer
Column I Column II of e– between complex II and IV
a. Decarboxylation (i) Acetyl CoA (3) Outer surface of the inner membrane for
transfer of e– between complex III and IV
b. Enolase (ii) OAA
c. Carotenoids precursor (iii) -ketoglutaric acid (4) Inner surface of the inner membrane for transfer
of e– between complex IV and V
d. Alkaloids precursor (iv) 2-PGA
105. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. citric acid
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
cycle
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) First oxidation occurs at isocitrate level
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(2) Substrate level phosphorylation between
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) succinyl CoA and succinic acid
101. Monerans lack
(3) This cycle is inhibited by malonate
(1) Kreb’s Cycle
(4) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl
(2) ETS group with OAA to release citrate and water
(3) Glycerol-3-Phosphate Shuttle 106. Consider the statements a, b, c and d w.r.t.
(4) EMP fermentation by yeast and select the correct
102. Two redox equivalents are first removed in choice
respiration in all living organisms at _____ level. a. Production of CO2 and ethanol
(1) Pyruvate (2) PGAL b. Complete oxidation of glucose
(3) Isocitrate (4) -KGA
c. The reducing agent in NADH + H+
103. Name the products marked as A, B and C in given
d. It is achieved under anaerobic condition
diagram
!"#$ (1) a & b are correct
% (2) b is incorrect
(3) c is incorrect
&'%( (4) a, b & c are correct
()%* 107. How many oxygen molecules are involved in ETS
if one molecule of citric acid is completely
oxidised?
+ (1) Four (2) Three
, (3) Two (4) Six
'!6 108. Select the incorrect statement
-./01$23435/ ,6!
(1) All living organisms have enzymatic machinery
A B C to partially oxidise glucose without oxygen
(1) Fatty acid and PEP Acetyl CoA (2) In plants, glucose is derived from sucrose
glycerol which is the end product of photosynthesis
(2) Glucose Pyruvic acid Acetyl CoA (3) 2ATP are produced as net gain by direct
(3) Glucose-6-Ph PEP OAA phosphorylation during glycolysis
(4) Fatty acid and Pyruvic acid Acetyl CoA (4) One dehydrogenation and one decarboxylation
glycerol step occur during EMP pathway
109. Consider the following statements about 114. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. cytochrome c
fermentation
(1) Peripheral mobile carrier protein
a. Yeast produces CO 2 and ethanol by
(2) Attached to the outer surface of inner
incomplete oxidation of glucose.
b. Some bacteria produce lactic acid from pyruvic
acid. (3) Attached to the inner surface of inner
c. In both lactic acid and alcohol fermentation a
lot of energy is released. (4) Transfers electrons between complex III and IV
d. H2O is not released. 115. How many ATP are produced through ETS by four
The correct statements are turns of Krebs cycle?
(1) Only a & d (2) a, b & d (1) 12 (2) 11
(3) b & d (4) a, c & d (3) 10 (4) 44
110. Identify A, B, C and D in the following diagram 116. Which of the following reaction is present in
) mesophyll cells of Sorghum?
*+,-. #'%
/&0- (1) Malic acid + NADP+ OAA + NADPH
(2) PEP + CO2 OAA
(3) Aspartic acid + Pyruvic acid PEP + Alanine
!
!" (4) PEP + AMP + PPi Pyruvic acid + ATP +
( $ H3PO4
117. During citrate synthesis in Krebs cycle
(1) A molecule of CoA is used
# %&
#$% (2) There is condensation of acetyl group with
oxalosuccinic acid
(1) A - Inner mitochondrial membrane; B - F0; (3) There is condensation of acetyl group with
C - F1; D - Matrix oxaloacetic acid and water
(2) A - Inner mitochondrial membrane; B - F0; (4) Succinyl CoA is oxidised in presence of citrate
C - Matrix; D - F1 synthetase
(3) A - Matrix; B - F 1; C - Inner mitochondrial 118. Study the pathway given below.
membrane; D - F0
(4) A - Cytoplasm; B - F0; C - Matrix; D - F1
111. The nature of the substrate taking part in
respiration can be very easily detected by
measuring the
(1) Q10
(2) R.Q.
(3) Volume of CO2 evolved
(4) Volume of O2 taken
112. Which ETS inhibitor in mitochondria inhibits
electron transfer between cyt. b and cyt. c1?
(1) Cyanide (2) Antimycin A
(3) DNP (4) Rotenone
113. In fermentation
(1) Partial breakdown of glucose take place
(2) One molecule of glucose will produce 8 ATP
(3) NADH is oxidized to NAD in vigorous way In which of the following options correct words for
(4) More than one option is correct all the three blanks (A), (B) and (C) are indicated?
(1) (A) Acetyl CoA 123. At which of the following step of aerobic respiration,
(B) Glycerol first decarboxylation takes place?
(C) Succinyl CoA (1) Oxalosuccinic acid -ketoglutaric acid
(2) (A) Succinyl CoA
(2) -ketoglutaric acid Succinyl CoA
(B) Acetyl CoA
(C) Pyruvic acid (3) Pyruvic acid Acetyl CoA
(3) (A) Fumaric acid (4) Succinic acid Succinyl CoA
(B) DHAP 124. To synthesize 10 molecules of acetyl CoA in
(C) Acetyl CoA aerobic respiration, how many molecules of
(4) (A) Succinyl CoA glucose are required?
(B) Glycerol (1) 10 (2) 20
(C) Acetyl CoA
(3) 2 (4) 5
119. Two redox-equivalents are released for the first time
in mitochondrial matrix (for one glucose molecule) 125. The common feature of aerobic respiration and
at alcoholic fermentation process is
(1) Oxidation of PGAL (1) ATP and metabolic H2O as end products
(2) Oxidative decarboxylation of -KGA
(2) NADH + H+ oxidation
(3) Dehydrogenation of succinate
(4) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic acid (3) Oxygen use
120. Which enzyme conducts the irreversible reaction of (4) Complete breakdown of glucose to CO2 & H2O
glycolysis and is also called the pacemaker of the
126. RQ of tripalmitin is
process?
(1) Hexokinase !"#$! !"#)$%!
(1) !"$! (2) !&')%!
(2) Pyruvate kinase
(3) Phosphofructokinase #)$%! %"#$!
(4) Hexosephosphate mutase (3) *+,-)% (4) &"$!
!
121. The figure given below shows the structure of ATP
127. During glycolysis
synthase with its two parts labelled A & B. Select
the part correcly matched with its feature/function (1) ATP molecules are synthesized between
!"#
fructose-6-phosphate and fructose 1,
6-diphosphate
! (2) Water molecules are released between PEP
&'
and pyruvate
!"# !$# (3) NAD+ is oxidized between PGAL and BPGA
!$# #% (4) ATP molecules are synthesized in the

(1) A – Integral thylakoid membrane protein conversion of BPGA to PGA
complex 128. Match the following and select the correct option
(2) B – Peripheral membrane lipid complex from these given below
(3) A – Forms the channel for proton pumping Column I Column II
(4) B – Presence of catalytic site
a. NADH dehydrogenase (i) Complex - V
122. Which of the following process in mesophyll cell
results in the release of CO2 with the utilisation of b. Cytochrome bc1 complex (ii) Complex - III
ATP?
c. ATP synthetase (iii) Complex - IV
(a) Glycolysis (b) Krebs cycle
d. Cytochrome c oxidase (iv) Complex - I
(c) Photorespiration (d) Link reaction
(1) (b) & (c) (2) (c) & (d) (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) Only (c) (4) All (a), (b), (c) & (d) (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
129. The continued oxidation of acetyl coA via the TCA 136. During glycolysis the two redox equivalents are
cycle requires the replenishment of removed during conversion
(1) -ketoglutaric acid (2) Succinic acid (1) PGAL BPGA
(3) Malic acid (4) Oxaloacetic acid (2) Glucose Glucose 6-phosphate
130. Choose the odd one (3) Pyruvic acid Acetyl CoA
(1) Under certain conditions organic acids can be (4) Succinyl CoA Succinic acid.
used as respiratory substrate 137. Two copper centers are component of
(2) Carbon skeleton produced during respiration is (1) Cytochrome bc1 complex
used as precursor for biosynthesis of other (2) NADH dehydrogenase complex
molecules
(3) ATP synthase complex
(3) During cellular respiration, energy is released
(4) Cytochrome c oxidase complex
in a series of slow stepwise reactions
138. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. chemiosmotic
hypothesis
131. Amongst the following steps of glycolysis which (1) Based on related proton gradient
one is energy yielding and this energy is trapped
by the formation of ATP? (2) Number of protons (H +) required for ATP
generation is same in chloroplast and
(1) BPGA PGA mitochondria
(2) 3PGA 2PGA (3) ATPase enzyme confirmational change
(3) 2PGA 2PEP generates several molecules of energy packed
(4) Fructose-6-PO4 Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate ATP
(4) Protons move through facilitated diffusion
132. Which of the following complex of mitochondrial
ETS having two copper centres? 139. In the process of aerobic respiration how many
ATP molecules will be generated from first formed
(1) Cytochrome b c1 complex
molecule of triose phosphate?
(2) NADH dehydrogenase complex
(1) 40 ATP (2) 20 ATP
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase complex
(3) 12 ATP (4) 24 ATP
(4) Cytochrome c oxidase complex
140. Fo part of ATPase forms a transmembrane channel
133. For the synthesis of five ATP, how many protons that carries out
should pass through F0 part from intermembrane (1) Active diffusion of protons
space to the mitochondrial matrix?
(2) Active diffusion of ATP
(1) 4 (2) 10
(3) Facilitated diffusion of H+
(3) 6 (4) 8
(4) Facilitated diffusion of H+ and e–
134. In muscles, during exercise, when oxygen is
141. Amongst the different multi protein complexes of
inadequate for cellular respiration
ETS in inner mitochondrial membrane, which
(1) Pyruvic acid is oxidised to lactic acid complex is largest?
(2) 45% of the energy in glucose is released in the (1) Complex V
form of ATP (2) Complex I
(3) NADH + H+ is oxidised to NAD+ (3) Complex III
(4) Pyruvic acid is reduced to ethanol and CO2 (4) All complexes have equal size
135. In mitochondrial electron transport chain, reduced 142. Precursor of alkaloids and pyrimidines in TCA
ubiquinone is oxidised with the help of cycle is the product of
(1) Cytochrome bc1 complex (1) Oxidation of isocitrate
(2) ATP synthase (2) Decarboxylation of oxalosuccinate
(3) NADH dehydrogenase complex (3) Oxidative decarboxylation of -KGA
(4) Succinate dehydrogenase complex (4) Dehydrogenation of malic acid
143. Choose the correct sequence of electron carriers 2. A : Malate-aspartate shuttle is less efficient and is
in cellular respiration found in skeletal muscles and nerve cells of
(1) FMN, FeS, UQ, cyt b, cyt c, cyt a – a3 brain.
(2) FMN, FeS, cyt c, UQ, cyt b, cyt a – a3 R : ATP yield per molecule of glucose is 36,
(3) FAD, UQ, cyt b, cyt c, FMN, cyt a – a3 instead of 38 in this shuttle.
(4) FAD, FeS, UQ, cyt a –a3, cyt b, cyt c 3. A : Complex III in inner mitochondrial membrane
144. Warburg-Lipman-Dickens pathway has cyt-b and cyt c1.
(1) Requires glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase R : It oxidizes reduced ubiquinol.
enzyme only
4. A : Pyruvic acid is directly reduced to lactic acid
(2) Is possible in eukaryotes only
without decarboxylation in fermentation
(3) Occurs in cytoplasm and chloroplast
process.
(4) Does not involve oxidative decarboxylation step
R : The enzyme required in lactic acid fermentation
145. Read the following statements w.r.t. glycolysis and
is lactic dehydrogenase which also require
select the right choice.
FMN and Zn++.
a. Two redox equivalents are removed from PGAL.
5. A : Yeast is involved in alcoholic fermentation.
b. Pyruvic acid is the key product.
c. Glucose undergoes complete oxidation to R : Yeast poison themselves to death when
produce two molecules of pyruvic acid. concentration of alcohol reaches about 13%.
d. The conversion of PEP to pyruvic acid is 6. A : The continued oxidation of acetyl CoA via the
energy requiring process. TCA cycle requires the continued
(1) Only c is incorrect (2) b & d are correct replenishment of OAA.
(3) c & d are incorrect (4) Only b is correct R : OAA is the primary acceptor molecule with
146. PCR cycle is different from PCO cycle in aldehyde group.
(1) Involvement of peroxisome 7. A : In mitochondrial ETC, FMN is reduced with the
(2) It is favoured by high CO2 concentration help of enzyme complex I.
(3) Initial oxygenation occurs inside chloroplast R : Cytochrome c oxidase complex contains
(4) Regeneration of PGA is energy dependent cytochromes a-a3 and two copper centres.
process 8. A : Glycerol would enter the respiratory pathway
SECTION - B after being converted to glucose-6-phosphate.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions R : Glucose-6-phosphate is substrate of link

reaction.
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) 9. A : Acetyl CoA is a 2C compound.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the R : Acetyl CoA is connecting link between EMP
reason is the correct explanation of the and TCA.
10. A : Fermentation is slow oxidation of glycolytic
reduced coenzymes.
assertion, then mark (2). R : In fermentation, not much energy is released.
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is 11. A : Conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl Co-A
false, then mark (3). involve dehydration.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false R : Such reactions catalysed by puruvate
dehydrogenase, Mg2+ and NADH.
1. A: -ketoglutaric acid is a key substance in
nitrogen metabolism. 12. A : Proteins are the favoured substrate for
respiration.
R : It acts as a connecting link between respiration
and photosynthesis. R : They enter the glycolytic pathway directly.
!" !" !
Chapter 8
Plant Growth and Development
6. Vernalisation is done to promote flowering in

SECTION - A
(1) Summer annuals, biennials and some
Objective Type Questions perennials
1. Yield of rice is enhanced in low land areas by (2) Spring annuals and biennials
prevention of lodging with application of
(3) Winter annuals and biennials
(1) Agent orange (2) 2,4,5-T
(4) Spring annuals and perennials
(3) NAA (4) NAAM
7. On Sunday morning, the area of leaf A was 10
2. In plants, removal of apical bud makes the plant cm2 and that of leaf B was 100 cm2. On following
(1) Herbaceous (2) Bushy Monday morning, area of leaf B was 110 cm2 and
that of leaf A was 20 cm2. The relative growth rate
(3) Succulent (4) Tall
of leaf B and A is respectively
3. The formation of cork by the activity of cork
(1) 100% and 10% (2) 10% and 100%
cambium is an example of
(3) 11% and 20% (4) 55% and 16%
(1) Differentiation (2) Dedifferentiation
8. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(3) Redifferentiation (4) Plasmatic growth
(1) Prevention of lodging – Auxins
4. Match the column I and column II
(2) Bolting – Gibberellins
Column I Column II
(PGR) (Application) (3) Delay in senescence – Cytokinins
a. Abscisic acid (i) Masculanizing effect (4) Triple response test – ABA
b. Cytokinins (ii) Xylem differentiation 9. Meristematic cells at growing point of Eucalyptus
divide in such a fashion that one daughter remains
c. Auxins (iii) Promotes nutrient
meristematic, while other grows and differentiate.
mobilization It
d. Gibberellins (iv) Seed development (1) Is geometric growth
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) Gives linear curve
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (3) Is common in unicellular organisms
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) Give typical sigmoid or S-curve
(4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) 10. Auxin
5. A PGR that promotes female flower formation in (1) Inhibits respiration by decreasing availability
cucumbers and epinasty of leaf is of respiratory substrate
(1) NAA (2) Decreases storage of solutes inside the cells
(2) BAP (3) Promotes division in cells of vascular cambium
(3) GA3 (4) Promotes abscission of young leaves and
(4) Ethylene fruits
316 Plant Growth and Development Last Leap For NEET (Part-II)
11. Florigen is related with all, except 18. Triple response test is done for a phytohormone
(1) It is same though different groups of plants which is derived from
require different photoperiodicities (1) Violaxanthin (2) Acetyl CoA
(2) It is produced by the joint activity of leaves (3) Tryptophan (4) Methionine
and growing points 19. Dormancy in cereal seeds occurs due to
(3) It is produced even in juvenile stage (1) Hard seed coat
(4) It is a hypothetical hormone which has not (2) Demand of after ripening period
yet been extracted (3) Inhibitor chemicals
12. There are number of physiological events in the life (4) Immature embryo
of a plant where more than one PGR interact to
affect that event. This statement is correct for the 20. Which plant hormone prevents fruit and leaf drop at
following processes, except early stages but promotes abscission of old and
mature leaves as well as fruits?
(1) Dormancy in seeds (2) Bolting
(1) Gibberellins (2) Abscissic acid
(3) Abscission (4) Apical dominance
(3) Auxins (4) Ethylene
13. Which of the following statements is not related to
21. Bioassay for gaseous plant growth regulator is
growth and differentiation in plants?
(1) Triple response test
(1) Differentiation and growth in plants is open
(2) Split pea test
(2) Loss of end walls in case of vessels elements
(3) Chlorophyll preservation test
(3) Show indeterminate growth
(4) Dwarf pea test
(4) Both are quantitative phenomenon
22. A brief flash of light prevents flowering in SDP if
14. A ________ is characteristic of living organism scotoperoid is interrupted. This is due to
growing in a natural environment.
(1) Requirement of darkness above a critical length
(1) Straight line curve (2) Sigmoid curve
!!"
(3) Bell shaped curve (4) Hyperbola (2) !
!"
15. Seed germination in castor and cucumber is
(1) Epigeal and hypogeal, respectively (3) SDP requires darkness below a critical period
(4) Inductive photoperiod must be above a critical
(2) Hypogeal
length
(3) Epigeal
23. Find correct match w.r.t. the roles of PGRs
(4) Hypogeal and epigeal, respectively
Column-I Column-II
16. PGR which is believed to be involved in phloem a. Promotion of cambium activity (i) Gibberellin
transport, is
b. Bolting (ii) Auxin
(1) Cytokinin (2) NAA
c. Tight epicotyl hook (iii) ABA
(3) Gibberellins (4) Dormin
d. Flowering in Strawberry (iv) Ethylene
17. Match the following w.r.t. seed dormancy)
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
Column - I Column - II
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
a. Apple (i) Excessive salt (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
b. Wheat (ii) Impermeable to water (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
c. Atriplex (iii) Impermeable to gases 24. Interruption of dark period by flash of light prevents
d. Chenopodium (iv) Absence of growth flowering in
hormones (1) LDP
(v) Phenolic compounds (2) SDP
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(v), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (3) DNP
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) More than one option is correct
Last Leap For NEET (Part-II) Plant Growth and Development 317
25. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 31. Select odd one out w.r.t. physiological effects of
(1) Cytokinin increases resistance to low and high plant growth regulator which is biosynthesized from
temperature and diseases tryptophan
(2) GA3 increases yield of malt from barley (1) Inhibits the growth of the axillary buds
(3) C2H4 inhibits abscission of leaves, flowers and (2) Also induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes
fruits (3) Leads to early seed production in conifers
(4) Cotton test is a bioassay of ABA (4) Widely used as herbicides
26. If leaf A and leaf B have grown by 5 cm2 in one 32. Select incorrect statement regarding phytochrome
day. Initial size of leaf A was 10 cm2 while that of pigment
leaf B was 15 cm2. What is the correct in the
(1) It is a chromoprotein whose state is influenced
following statements?
by light
(1) Relative rate of growth is faster in leaf A
(2) In darkness Pr is produced in cytoplasm
(2) Relative rate of growth is faster in leaf B
(3) Pfr is extraordinarily unstable
(3) Absolute growth is faster in leaf A
(4) It is one of main structural protein pigment in
(4) Absolute growth is faster in leaf B plant kingdom
27. Find the odd one out on the basis of photoperiodic 33. Which one of the following plants cannot flower if
response to flowering the duration of light exposure is less than critical
(1) Soyabean (2) Wheat photo-period?
(3) Coffee (4) Rice (1) Short night plants (SNPs)
28. Select an incorrect statement regarding chemical (2) Long night plants (LNPs)
or physiological characteristics of auxins
(3) DNPs
(1) They have an unsaturated terpenoid structure
(4) SDPs
(2) Involved in major plant activities like root
initiation, vascular differentiation and tropic 34. PGR synthesised from methionine shows one of
responses the physiological effects which is
(3) Free auxins are unbound diffusible forms (1) Positive geotropism to stem
(4) In grafting experiment, auxin is added to (2) Inhibition of rice seedling growth
enhance cambial activity for union between (3) Root initiation at high concentration
stock and scion (4) Retards the process of chlorophyll degradation
29. In vernalisation
35. Select incorrect statement regarding physiological
(1) Stimulus is perceived by growing tips effects of auxins
(2) Freshly vernalised plant can’t be devernalised (1) Auxin promotes growth in stems and
(3) The receptor for cold treatment is known coleoptiles while inhibiting growth in roots
(4) Both juvenile and reproductive phases of plants (2) Auxin rapidly increases the extensibility of cell
are shortened wall
30. Which of the following graph best represents (3) Auxin has no effect on vascular differentiation
relationship between growth and concentration of (4) Phototropism is mediated by the lateral
nutrients? redistribution of auxin
36. Which of the following phytochrome is regarded as
!"#$%&
!"#$%&
regulator of plant height?

(1) (2) (1) GA (2) CK
(3) IAA (4) C2H4
!"#$% !"#$%
37. Gibberellins are
(1) Tetracyclic diterpenoids
!"#$%&
!"#$%&
(2) Sesquiterpenoids
(3) (4)
(3) Actually phytoalexins
!"#$% !"#$% (4) Glycoside
38. Match the following columns. 45. The process of making a plant receptive for
Column-I Column-II flowering stimulus by a previous cold treatment
does not require
(PGR) (Effect / target)
(1) Anaerobic condition
a. Gibberellins (i) Enhances leaf
senescence (2) 3 - 17°C in case of Hyoscyamus niger
b. Cytokinins (ii) Delay leaf senescence (3) Protoplasmic hydration
c. Auxins (iii) Delay leaf abscission (4) Actively dividing cells
d. Ethylene (iv) Transition from juvenile to 46. Which of the following is not an example of tip
adult phase growth?
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (1) Pollen tubes (2) Root hairs
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) Cotton fibres (4) Leaf expansion
39. Ethylene as a hormone accelerates the ripening of
47. Which is not related with the effects of red light?
edible fruits. All such fruits exhibiting a rise in
respiration before ripening are called climacteric (1) Stimulates germination
fruits. Which of the following does not show such
(2) Induces increase in leaf area
response?
(3) Inhibits growth of lateral roots
(1) Mango (2) Grape
(3) Banana (4) Tomato (4) Stimulates flowering in SDPs
40. Kinetin (cytokinin) was first discovered as a 48. Match the following column
breakdown product of Column I Column II
(1) DNA (2) t-RNA
a. Cause apical dominance (i) Cytokinin
(3) Spindle fibres (4) m-RNA
b. Substitute vernalization (ii) Auxins
41. Overproduction of which of the plant growth
regulator has been implicated in genetic tumours? c. Richmond Lang effect (iii) Gibberellic acid
(1) Ethylene (2) Auxins d. Flowering in strawberry (iv) Abscisic acid
(3) Cytokinins (4) Gibberellins (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
42. Select incorrect statement regarding physiological (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
characteristics of ABA
49. The PGR which promotes the production of male
(1) Promotes flowering is some SDP flowers in female plants of Cannabis is
(2) It promotes desiccation tolerance in the
(1) Gibberellin (2) Auxin
embryo
(3) It promotes root growth and inhibits shoot (3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene
growth 50. Find the odd one w.r.t seed germination
(4) It promotes mitosis in vascular cambium in (1) Gram (2) Wheat
winter
(3) Mango (4) Onion
43. Which of the following is primary photoreceptor in
photoperiodism? 51. Winter varieties of wheat, if planted in !!!!!!"!!!!!
(1) Florigen (2) Phytochrome
would !!!!!!"!!!!! mature grain within a span of a
(3) Cryptochrome (4) Chlorophylls flowering season.
44. Which type of plants will flower when the day (1) A – Spring, B – Produce
length exceeds (or the night length is less than) a
certain critical duration in a 24 hour cycle? (2) A – Autumn, B – Produce
(1) LDPs (2) SDPs (3) A – Autumn, B – Not produce
(3) DNPs (4) SLDPs (4) More than one option is correct
52. The hormone which promotes nutrient mobilisation 60. Plant growth involves synthesis of more
thereby, helping in delay of leaf senescence and protoplasm, cell division, cell enlargement and cell
overcoming apical dominance is differentiation. It is, therefore, influenced by many
(1) Cytokinin (2) Ethylene factors like
(3) Gibberellin (4) ABA (1) Gravity determines the direction of shoot
53. The response of plants to periods of day and night growth only
was first observed on (2) Temperature should be 28-30°C for the proper
(1) Tomato (2) Corn growth of most plants
(3) Tobacco (4) Oat (3) Nutrients are required for the synthesis of
54. Formation of cork cambium from parenchyma cells protoplasm but not as a source of energy
is
(4) Light is required for tissue differentiation but not
(1) Differentiation (2) Dedifferentiation for the synthesis of pigments
(3) Redifferentiation (4) Obliteration 61. PGR showing flowering and synchronising fruit set
55. Which plant hormone induces the production of in pineapple, is biosynthesised from
hydrolytic enzymes like amylase for mobilising
storage reserves during early seedling growth? (1) Acetyl CoA (2) Tryptophan
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin (3) Methionine (4) Violaxanthin

(3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene 62. There are many plants, where there is no
correlation between exposure to light duration and
56. Thinning of cotton and promotion of femaleness in
cucumber are physiological effects of PGR which induction of flowering response, such plants are
(1) Helps to withstand desiccation conditions and (1) Xanthium and Glycine max
is antagonistic to GAs (2) Barley and Wheat
(2) Increases the market period of fruits by
(3) Chrysanthemum and Oryza sativa
delaying senescence
(4) Maize and Sunflower
(3) Is synthesised in large amounts in ripening
fruits and tissues undergoing senescence 63. Environmental plasticity is found in
(4) Prevents fruit and leaf drop at early stages and (1) Cotton (2) Buttercup
produced by growing apices of stem
(3) Larkspur (4) Coriander
57. Mark the incorrect option w.r.t. abscisic acid
64. ________ was isolated by ________ from tips of
(1) Increases the tolerance of plants to various
coleoptile of ________ seedlings
kinds of stresses
(2) It induces flowering in some long day plants (1) Auxin, F.W. Went, oat
(3) It plays an important role in seed development (2) GA3, E. Kurosawa, tobacco
and maturation (3) Cytokinin, F. Skoog, rice
(4) In most situations, it acts as an antagonist to
(4) Ethylene, Yabuta, mango
gibberellins
65. Ethephon
58. Devernalisation can occur if the freshly vernalised
plant is exposed to (1) Hastens fruit ripening in apples
(1) High temperature (2) Accelerates abscission in flowers
(2) Desiccating conditions (3) Causes thinning of cotton
(3) Low temperature (4) More than one option is correct
(4) Both (1) & (2) 66. Methionine derived phytohormone shows
59. Which plant hormone was isolated by F.W. Went (1) Phloem transport
from tips of coleoptiles of oat seedlings? (2) Apogeotropism in root
(1) Auxin (2) Zeatin (3) Prevention of lodging in cereals
(3) Gibberellin (4) Abscisic acid (4) Vernalization
67. The common volatile hormone is not concerned 75. Plant growth regulators are broadly grouped into
with two categories on the basis of function. Which
(1) Initiation of flowering and synchronisation of fruit growth hormone fits either of groups?
set in pineapple (1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin
(2) Speeding up the malting process in brewing (3) Gibberellins (4) Ethylene
industry
76. The site of perception of light/dark duration for
(3) Promotion of rapid internode or petiole
flowering releases a hormonal substance which
elongation in deep water rice plants
moves from
(4) Promotion of root growth and root hair formation
(1) Leaves Shoot apex
68. Match the Column-I with Column-II
(2) Meristem Leaves
Column-I Column-II
a. Auxin (i) Delay of leaf (3) Embryo Shoot apex
senescence (4) Undifferentiated tissue Differentiated tissue
b. BAP (ii) Climacteric respiration 77. A plant hormone is used to extend market period
c. Abscisic acid (iii) Herbicide of some fruits by
d. Ethylene (iv) ‘40 C’ compound as (1) Delay senescence
precursor molecule (2) Inducing seed dormancy
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) Inducing abscission layer formation
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(4) Thinning
69. Thinning of cotton, cherry and walnut is possible
by 78. ABA induces seed dormancy and helps seed to
withstand
(1) ABA (2) IAA
(3) C2H4 (4) BAP (1) Desiccation
70. Mark the odd one w.r.t. flower inhibition by light (2) Unfavourable factors for growth
break reaction (3) Anaerobic condition
(1) Rice (2) Barley (4) More than one option correct
(3) Coffee (4) Soyabean
79. Which is incorrect statement for plant growth?
71. Which of the following hormone is used to speed
up the malting process in brewing industry? (1) Some plant parts show limited growth
(1) IAA (2) GA3 (2) Plant shows open form of growth
(3) ABA (4) IBA (3) Plants possess indeterminate meristems only
72. Select correct statement w.r.t. PGR derived from (4) Plant’s growth is restricted to certain regions
methionine 80. Which plant hormone is used to prepare weed free
(1) Richmond Lang effect lawns?
(2) Climacteric effect (1) Kinetin (2) 2,4-D
(3) Bolting effect
(3) Zeatin (4) Dormin
(4) Masculinizing effect
81. Why does exogenous application of gibberellin
73. Select the correct match increase sugar contents in sugarcane?
(1) Auxin – Parthenocarpy in tomatoes
(1) Gibberellin elongates nodal region
(2) GA3 – Overcoming apical dominance
(2) Gibberellin enhances rate of photosynthesis
(3) Cytokinin – Bolting in cabbage
(3) Gibberellin converts starch in sugar
(4) Ethylene – Richmond Lang effect
74. Which of the following effect of gibberellin helps to (4) Gibberellin increase the length between two
extend the market period of some fruits? nodes
(1) Ability to elongate the length of axis 82. Which substance of coconut milk induces the
growth of lateral buds even in the presence of
(2) Ability to delay senescence
apical bud?
(3) Ability to elongate and improve the shape of
fruits (1) Kinetin (2) Zeatin
(4) Ability to promote bolting (3) IAA (4) All except (2)
83. The plant hormone which promotes root hair 90. Why does exogenous application of auxin on older
formation and rapid internodal elongation in deep leaves and fruits cause abscission?
water rice plant, is
(1) Auxin induces formation of ABA
(1) GA3 (2) C2H2
(2) Auxin prevents transportation of Zn
(3) ABA (4) C2H4
(3) Auxin induces formation of ethylene
84. Plant growth regulators showing antagonistic
behaviour to the cambium activity are (4) Auxin directly acts as ABA in older plant part
(1) Auxin and Cytokinin (2) Gibberellin and ABA 91. Process of deposition of lignin on the cell wall of
(3) Auxin and ABA (4) Ethylene and Auxin a cell produced by fusiform initial cell, is known as
85. Induction of flowering in plants depends upon (1) Secondary growth (2) Dedifferentiation
(1) Duration of light period only (3) Redifferentiation (4) Differentiation
(2) Duration of dark period only 92. Which is not the character of phase of cell
(3) Combination of light and dark exposures as elongation?
well as their relative durations (1) Vacuolation
(4) Amount of pigment synthesized at shoot tip (2) New cell wall deposition
86. The hormone responsible for vernalisation is (3) Protoplasmic modification
produced by
(4) Reduction in nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(1) Low temperature stimulus
93. Decapitation is widely applied in tea plantations
(2) Light stimulus
because it
(3) High nutrients stimulus and anaerobic
condition (1) Inhibits lateral bud formation nearby tip
(4) Duration of light and temperature stimulus (2) Induces lateral bud formation nearby tip
87. A plant is exposed according to diagrammatic (3) Induces lateral bud growth
summary given below? If the plant is SDP, will the (4) More than one option is correct
plant produce flower?
94. Which is incorrect for short day plants?
(1) They always require photoperiod shorter than
critical photoperiod for flowering
! " # $! $% $" $& $#
*+,-(./ (2) Higher concentration of phytochrome red
!"#$% induces flowering
(3) Higher concentration of phytochrome far-red
&'() induces flower
(1) Yes, because of longer dark period (4) Interruption of light does not prevent flowering
(2) Yes, because of longer light period 95. Which one of the following tissue is formed after
(3) No, because of interrupted dark period redifferentiation in woody dicotyledons?
(4) No, because of interrupted light period (1) Cork cells and phelloderm
88. In which phase of growth, the cell attain its (2) Phellogen
maximum size in term of wall thickening and (3) Vascular cambium
protoplasmic modification?
(4) Sclerenchyma
(1) Phase of elongation
96. Gibberellin is different from tryptophan derived
(2) Phase of maturation hormone in which of the following applications?
(3) Phase of meristematic (1) Substitution of low temperature stimulus in
(4) Phase of modification flowering
89. Phytochrome red absorbs light of wavelength (2) Cell elongation
(1) 640 nm (2) 660 nm (3) Parthenocarpic development
(3) 730 nm (4) 440 nm (4) In increasing number and size of grape fruits
97. Growth in plants is 106. What happen if low temperature exposure is given
(1) Under the control of external factors only to the actively dividing cells of plants?
(2) Extrinsic and quantitative phenomenon (1) Flowering is qualitatively dependent only
(3) Manifested by apparent growth only (2) Flowering is either quantitatively or qualitatively
(4) Intrinsic with plasmatic growth also dependent
98. 2,4-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (3) It accelerates precocious reproductive
(1) Is widely used to kill monocot weeds development late in the growing season
(2) Is used to prepare weed rich lawns by (4) Flowering is induced in biennials
gardeners 107. Abscisic acid
(3) Is widely used to kill broad leaved weeds (1) Inhibits seed dormancy
(4) Is an artificial auxin that increases storage (2) Is antagonist to ethylene in most situation
period in potato
(3) Plays an important role in seed maturation
99. Which of the following plants must be exposed to
light for a period less than a well defined critical (4) Initiates seed germination in peanuts
photoperiod for flowering in them? 108. Find odd one out w.r.t. LDP
(1) Rice, coffee (1) Wheat (2) Tomato
(2) Oat, radish (3) Cabbage (4) Spinach
(3) Cucumber, tomato
109. During experiment, when lettuce seeds are soaked
(4) Cotton, maize in water and kept in light, 90% germinate. If
100. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. growth in plants however they are soaked and kept in dark, 10%
(1) Indeterminate and quantitative germinate.
(2) Increase in the amount of protoplasm at The correct explanation for this observation is
cellular level (1) In dark, P fr gets converted into P r which
(3) Irreversible permanent increase in size inhibits germination
(4) Watermelon expresses growth by increase in (2) In light, P fr gets converted into P r which
number of cells activates germination
101. Skoog and Miller’s effect is the role of kinetin in (3) In light, P r gets converted into P fr which
(1) Delaying senescence inhibits germination
(2) Morphogenesis (4) In dark, P r gets converted into P fr which
(3) Flowering in pineapple inhibits germination
(4) Stomatal opening 110. In tea plantation and hedge making decapitation
102. Select the odd one w.r.t. developmental plasticity results into
(1) Buttercup (2) Cotton (1) Inhibition of axillary buds
(3) Lerkspur (4) Coriander (2) Rossette habit
103. Which one of the following functions is not concerned (3) Petiole elongation
with a PGR, synthesised from methionine?
(4) Lateral shoot growth
(1) Longitudinal growth of seedlings
111. Read the statement a, b, c and d and select the
(2) Apical hook formation in dicot seedlings correct choice w.r.t. gibberellins (GAs)
(3) Initiates germination in peanut seed
a. They delay senescence
(4) Sprouting of potato tubers
b. Promote bolting just prior to vegetative growth
104. Most commonly used hormone in agriculture fields
is biosynthesised from c. They are isolated from fungi only
(1) Acetyl CoA (2) Tryptophan d. Induce flowering in LDP
(3) Phenylurea (4) Methionine (1) a, b & c are correct
105. In most situations, ABA acts as an antagonist to (2) b, c & d are incorrect
(1) Kinetin (2) Auxin (3) a & d are correct
(3) GAs (4) Ethylene (4) b, c & d are correct
112. Select the odd one out w.r.t. sigmoid curve 120. Translocation of organic solute occurs through
(1) It is a characteristic of living organisms phloem and
growing in a natural environment (1) Involves use of ATP for both loading and
(2) It is typical for all cells, tissues and organs of unloading in phloem
a plant
(2) Do not involve symplast of sieve tubes
(3) Only one daughter cell continues to divide
(3) Is conducted by companion cells, passively
(4) Initial growth is slow
(4) Follows the mass flow or pressure flow theory
113. Which plant growth regulator is widely used in tea of Levitt
plantations and hedge making?
121. Select an incorrect match
(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellins
(3) Ethylene (4) Cytokinin (1) Auxin – Weed free lawns
114. In flowering plants, the transition from vegetative to (2) Gibberellin – Flowering in pineapple
reproductive phase takes place exclusively in (3) Ethylene – Growth of lateral roots
response to
(4) ABA – Seed development
(1) CO2 concentration (2) Temperature
(3) Length of day (4) Nutrients
w.r.t. arithmetic growth?
115. Thinning of cotton, cherry and walnut is done by
(1) It is found in root elongation at constant rate
(1) Ethylene (2) Abscisic acid
(2) Cells divide in such a manner that only one
(3) Vernalisation (4) Gibberellin
daughter cell remains meristematic while the
116. Sugarcane crop yield can be increased by as other differentiates and matures
much as 20 tonnes per acre by application of a
hormone which is biosynthesised from (3) It follows mathematical progression of 2, 4, 8,
16, 32, 64,....
(1) Tryptophan (2) Acetyl coenzyme A
(4) It is mathematically expressed as Lt = Lo + rt
(3) Methionine (4) Nucleic acid
117. When the plants are exposed to the necessary 123. Select odd one w.r.t. differentiation
inductive photoperiod then hormonal substance for (1) Secondary wall thickening in tracheary
flower induction is synthesised in elements
(1) Shoot apices (2) Loss of nucleus in tracheary elements
(2) Young leaves
(3) Loss of protoplasm in sieve tube
(3) Mature leaves
(4) Deposition of suberin in cells
124. Read the following statements (A - D)
118. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. arithmetic
growth A. Helps in closing of stomata.
(1) It is found in stem and root growth B. Induces seed dormancy.
(2) It is found in initial multiplication of unicellular C. Inhibits cambial activity.
organisms and growth of very early embryo
D. Seedling develops epicotyl hook.
(3) It gives a linear curve on platting the length of
Select the correct option w.r.t. physiological role of
the organ against time
ABA (abscisic acid) by selecting True (T) and
(4) Only one daughter cell continues to divide False (F).
while the other differentiates and matures
A B C D
119. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Developmental heterophylly – Buttercup (1) F T T T
(2) Dedifferentiated structure – Phelloderm (2) T F F F

(3) Root hair formation – Ethylene (3) T T T F
(4) Flowering in LDPs – Pr > Pfr (4) F T T F
125. Three leaves have grown by 10 cm2 in one day. 132. Mark the correct one w.r.t. cytokinins
Initial size of leaf A was 20 cm2, while that of leaf
(1) Promote adventitious shoot formation
B and leaf C was 30 cm2 and 5 cm2 respectively,
which leaf shows maximum relative growth rate? (2) They inhibit phloem translocation
(1) All leaves have same relative growth rate (3) They are synthesized in shoot apex only
(2) Leaf A (4) They inhibit nutrient mobilisation
(3) Leaf B 133. What would be expected to happen if you cut the
shoot tips of tea?
(4) Leaf C
(1) Inhibition of lateral growth
126. Find the odd one w.r.t. intrinsic plasticity
(2) Growth of lateral buds
(1) Cotton (2) Coriander
(3) Promotion of horizontal growth & male flowers
(3) Buttercup (4) Larkspur
(4) Inhibition of flowering
127. Find out the correct statement w.r.t. Gibberellins
134. Cells of which zone attain maximal size in terms
(1) They produce narrow range of physiological of wall thickening and protoplasmic modifications?
responses in plants
(1) Meristematic zone (2) Elongation zone
(2) GA3 was the last gibberellins to be discovered
(3) Maturation zone (4) Cell division zone
(3) They never cause delay in senescence
135. Plant growth regulators which inhibit and promote
(4) Gibberellins hasten maturity period in juvenile the formation of lateral shoot respectively is
conifers
(1) Auxin, gibberellins
128. Which of the following is not the function of
ethylene? (2) Cytokinin, ethylene
(3) Gibberellins, abscisic acid
A. Promotes root growth and root hair formation.
(4) Auxin, cytokinin
B. Used to prepare weed free lawns by gardeners
136. Promotion of flowering by a period of low
C. Enhances respiration rate during fruit ripening.
temperature is seen in biennial plants like
D. Speed up malting process in brewing industry
(1) Sugarbeet, Wheat
(1) A & C (2) B & D
(2) Carrot, Mango
(3) A & D (4) B & C
(3) Rice, Cabbage
129. Which of the following plays important role in plant
(4) Sugarbeet, Cabbage
growth and development?
137. In which of the following options the PGR is
(1) Intrinsic control (2) Extrinsic control
correctly matched with its two functions?
(3) Genomic control (4) All of these
(1) Abscisic acid – (i) Induce immediate
130. Chilling treatment prior to flowering stomatal closure in leaves
(1) Is essential for biennials (ii) Induce rooting is a twig
(2) Hastens vegetative growth phase and (2) Gibberellins – (i) Bolting in rosette plant
reproductive growth phase
(ii) Speed up the malting
(3) Can’t be reversed with high temperature process in brewing
treatment industry
(4) Requires anaerobic condition (3) Ethylene – (i) Delay leaf senescence
131. Select the incorrect match (ii) Controls xylem
differentiation
(1) C2H4 – Gaseous PGR
(4) Auxin – (i) Used to kill
(2) Cytokinin – Guanine derivatives
monocotyledonous weeds
(3) ABA – Precursor is carotenoids
(ii) Promotes nutrient
(4) IAA – Acidic hormones mobilisation
138. When the plants are exposed to the necessary

inductive photoperiod, a hormone migrates from
SECTION - B
(1) Bud to leaves for inducing flowering Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(2) Leaves to buds for inducing seed germination In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(3) Leaves to shoot apices for inducing flowering (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
(4) Bud to leaves for inducing seed germination (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
139. The phytohormone that speed up the malting reason is the correct explanation of the
process in brewing industry is also responsible for assertion, then mark (1).
a. Initiates rooting in stem cutting. (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
b. Increases chloroplast in leaves. reason is not the correct explanation of the
c. Promotes root hair formation.
d. Hastens the maturity period in juvenile (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
conifers. false, then mark (3).
e. Inhibits seed germination. (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
f. Promotes internode elongation just prior to
flowering. 1. A : Sunflower is a day neutral flowering plant.
(1) a & c (2) b & d R : There is no correlation between exposure to
(3) d & f (4) e & f light duration and induction of flowering
140. Find the odd one out w.r.t vernalisation. response.
(1) Sugar beet (2) Cabbage 2. A : In abscission shedding of leaves, flowers and
(3) Xanthium (4) Carrots fruits occurs from a living plants.
141. Match column I with column II R : Specific cells in leaf petiole differentiate to form
Column I Column II a separation layer having thickened cell walls.
a. Methionine (i) Kinetin 3. A : By de-differentiation process cells can
b. Dicot weedicide (ii) GA3 regenerate whole plants.
c. Coconut milk (iii) 2, 4-D R : Cells loose their differentiated characteristics
d. Acetyl CoA (iv) Ethylene and reinitiate cell division.
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) 4. A : Florigen is synthesized in leaves and
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) translocated to the shoot apical meristem.
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) R : It is translocated via phloem and xylem.
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) 5. A : Lactuca is a positively photoblastic seed.
142. Mark the correct option (w.r.t. Ethephon)
R : Seed germination in Lactuca is induced by far
(1) Releases auxin slowly red light
(2) Helps in thinning of cotton
6. A : First step for seed germination is breaking of
(3) Releases ethylene readily seed coat.
R : Differential imbibition occurs in seed coat and
143. The heterophylly in which the leaves of different inner material of seed.
shape and incisions occur at the same time, is
termed as 7. A : Light and gravity affect certain stages of
(1) Adaptive heterophylly growth.
(2) Environmental heterophylly R : In the presence of light the plants undergo
(3) Developmental heterophylly etiolation.
(4) Habitual heterophylly 8. A : Vernalisation refers to the promotion of
144. Environmental heterophylly is found in flowering by the short period of low
temperature in dry seeds.
(1) Ficus heterophylla (2) Mustard
(3) Sagittaria (4) Hemiphragma R : It shortens the reproductive phase of the plant.
9. A : Ethylene helps the plants to increase their 13. A : Ethephon hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes.
absorption surface. R : Ethephon releases ethylene readily.
R : It promotes root growth and root hair formation. 14. A : The N2 fixing bacteria become anaerobic during
10. A : Breaking of seed dormancy by giving cold fixing events.
treatment to seedling in presence of air is R : The enzyme nitrogenase is highly sensitive to
vernalisation. the molecular oxygen.
R : Vernalisation increases vegetative growth period 15. A : In coriander, the leaves of juvenile plants are
different in shape from those in mature plants.
to bring early flowering.
R : It shows environmental plasticity.
11. A : 2,4-D is a selective herbicide.
16. A : Promotion of flowering by a period of low
R : 2,4-D kills dicot weeds in crop fields. temperature is called vernalisation.
12. A : Vegetative shoot changes into reproductive R : Vernalisation prevents precocious reproductive
shoot by perceiving photoperiodic stimulus development.
itself. 17. A : 2,4-D is widely used as herbicide.
R : Phytohormone which is responsible for apical R : It is used to kill mature monocotyledonous
dominance also breaks seed dormancy. plants.
!" !" !
Chapter 9
Strategies for Enhancement in
Food Production
6. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. SCP?

SECTION - A
(1) Quantitatively and qualitatively superior proteins
(2) Production involves utilisation of organisms
1. Sum total of all the diverse alleles for all the genes which has high rate of biomass production and
in a given crop is called germplasm. Germplasm of growth
a crop will not consists of
(3) Can be obtained from both unicellular and
(1) Wild relatives and desi varieties
multicelullar organisms
(2) Improved varieties presently under cultivation
(4) 250 g of Methylophilus methylotrophus can
(3) Heterozygous lines produced by plant breeders produce 20 tonnes of protein per day
(4) Superior varieties not being cultivated now 7. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. green manuring
2. Conventional method of breeding for disease
(1) Quick growing leguminous plants
resistance involves
(2) Checks weed growth and soil erosion
(1) Mutation and introduction
(2) Polyploid breeding and tissue culture (3) Reclamation of alkaline soils
(3) Genetic engineering and mutation (4) Consist of mixture of cattle dung and crop
residues
(4) Hybridisation and selection
8. Plants whose seeds are used for obtaining
3. In maize, resistance to stem borer and in cotton
biodiesel are
resistance to jassids is achieved by which of the
following characteristics respectively? (1) Soyabean, Cluster bean
(1) Morphological and genetical (2) Peanut, Euphorbia
(2) Physiological and physiological (3) Soyabean, Milkweed
(3) Biochemical and morphological (4) Euphorbia, Brickellia
(4) Genetical and biochemical 9. Which of the following is problem associated with
4. Wider adaptation, uniform seed quality, greater energy cropping?
stability is shown by the varieties produced through (1) Plant utilized for energy cropping are less
(1) Pure line selection efficient as CO2 fixers
(2) Clonal selection (2) Less ecofriendly
(3) Homozygous selection (3) High cost of production and diversion of
(4) Mass selection agriculture to alcohol generation
5. Nobel cane production is an example of (4) Enhance the amount of food available
(1) Intravarietal hybridisation 10. Which of the following is a variety of Brassica
(2) Intervarietal hybridisation resistant to insect pests?
(3) Intrageneric hybridisation (1) Pusa Sawani (2) Pusa Sadabahar
(4) Intraspecific hybridisation (3) Pusa Swarnim (4) Pusa Gaurav
328 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Last Leap For NEET (Part-II)
11. Callus culture 19. In India plant introductions are governed by

(1) Must be constantly agitated at 100–250 rpm __________
(2) Grows much faster than suspension culture (1) ICRISAT (2) NBRI
(3) Medium contains 2,4-D and BAP (3) NBPGR (4) CSIR
(4) Consists of single cells and small groups of 20. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
cells suspended in a liquid medium (1) A dwarfing gene Norin-10 was reported in
12. Nobel Prize winner Norman E. Borlaug of Japan
International Centre for Wheat and Maize (2) A dwarfing gene dee-geo-woo-gen, was
Improvement in Mexico developed semi-dwarf variety reported in Taiwan
of
(3) Triticale is intrageneric hybrid
(1) Wheat (2) Rice
(4) Jaya and Ratna varieties of rice were developed
(3) Maize (4) All of these
in India
13. In cotton _________ and _________ characters are
21. Which of the following techniques offer vast
associated to resistance for jassids and bollworm
potential for manipulation of plants in-vitro to
respectively.
produce new varieties?
(1) High nitrogen and low sugar content
(1) Hybridisation and selection
(2) Smooth leaves and solid stem
(2) Tissue culture and somatic hybridisation
(3) Nectar less varieties and hairy leaves
(3) Conventional breeding and introduction
(4) Hairy and smooth leaves
(4) Polyploid breeding and hybridization
14. All given below are natural adaptations of plants
against insect pests, except 22. Find odd one w.r.t. vitamin A enriched variety
developed by IARI
(1) Solid stem in wheat against stem sawfly
(1) Carrots (2) Pumpkin
(2) Smooth leaved and nectar-less cotton varieties
do not attract bollworms (3) Mustard (4) Spinach
(3) Low aspartic acid and high nitrogen content in 23. Which of the following antinutritional factor is
maize against borer insects responsible for causing lathyrism?
(4) Hairy leaves in cotton against jassids (1) Glucosinolate (2) Erucic acid
15. Which of the given plant is a source of biodiesel? (3) Cyanoalanine (4) Chlorellin
(1) Jatropha curcas 24. First somatic hybrid was obtained by Carlson et al
(2) Zea mays in __________.
(3) Parthenium argentatum (1) Raphanobrassica (2) Triticale
(4) Simmondsia chinensis (3) Tobacco (4) Potato
16. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? 25. Which of the following is not a green manure crop?
(1) Wheat – Himgiri (1) Trifolium alexandrianum
(2) Brassica – Pusa Sawani (2) Crotolaria Juncea
(3) Cowpea – Pusa Komal (3) Cyamopsis tetragonoloba
(4) Bhindi – Prabhani kranti
(4) Capsella bursa-pastoris
17. Glucosinolates, the antinutritional factors, are
26. Cultivation of petrocrops was done first of all
present in oils obtained from ________
by_______
(1) Lathyrus sativus (2) Brassica napus
(1) Italians (2) Russians
(3) Helianthus annus (4) Arachis hypogea
(3) Germans (4) Indians
18. Protoplasts of two somatic cells can be made to
fuse together with the help of _________ 27. Most common petrocrops are
(1) Electrofusion (1) Euphorbia antisyphilitica
(2) PEG (2) Cannabis sativa
(3) Physiological fusion (3) Calotropis procera
(4) More than one option is correct (4) More than one option are correct
Last Leap For NEET (Part-II) Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 329
28. Single cell protein is useful in all, except 35. Pusa shubhra is a variety of
(1) Provides much needed proteins (1) Cauliflower resistant to white rust
(2) Reduces environmental pollution (2) Cauliflower resistant to black rot
(3) Provides poor fat (3) Chilli resistant to chilli mosaic virus
(4) Reduces the pressure on agricultural (4) Brassica resistant to white rust
production system
36. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
29. Agricultural loss due to pests is generally about
(1) Himgiri variety of wheat is resistant to leaf and
(1) 5% (2) 10%
stripe rust disease
(3) 15% (4) 30%
(2) Pusa Sawani 2 variety of Bhindi has developed
30. Match the following resistance against shoot and fruit borer insect
Column I Column II pests
(Varieties) (Method of Development) (3) Pusa Gaurav variety of Brassica is resistant to
a. Pomato (i) Mutation breeding Aphids
b. NP 836 (ii) Polyploid breeding (4) High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar
c. ADT-37 (iii) Somatic hybridization content in maize leads to resistance to maize
stem borers
d. Triticale (iv) Interspecific hybridisation
37. Find the correct match of following crops w.r.t.
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
diseases and insect/pest resistance
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
Column I Column II
31. The minimum number of growing seasons of new
selected lines in farmers fields before a. Chilli (i) Pusa Sawani
commercialization is b. Mustard (ii) Pusa Shubhra
(1) One (2) Two c. Okra (iii) Pusa Swarnim
(3) Three (4) Four d. Cauliflower (iv) Pusa Sadabahar
32. Which of the following periods represent the correct (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
phase of Green Revolution?
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) Mid 1950s
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) Mid 1960s
(3) Mid 1990s
38. Select the incorect statement w.r.t. inbreeding
(4) Mid 1980s
depression
33. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) It is associated with loss of vigour
(1) Semi-dwarf wheat — Mexico
(2) Appearance of a number of defective traits in
(2) IR – 8 — Philippines normally self pollinated plants
(3) Jaya — Taiwan (3) It occurs due to increase in homozygosity in
(4) Ratna — India recessive alleles
34. Which of the following statements is false? (4) A majority of cross pollinated crops and all
(1) The capacity to generate a whole plant from animals show inbreeding depression
any cell is called totipotency 39. Which one is incorrect w.r.t. SCP?
(2) In tissue culture the nutrient medium must (1) The biomass is obtained from unicellular and
provide a carbon source such as sucrose, multicellular micro-organisms
nitrogen source such as urea, vitamins and
growth regulators like auxins, cyctokinins (2) High quality of protein and low quantity of fats
constitute good human food
(3) When a plant is infected with virus, the
meristem (apical and axillary) is free of virus (3) It minimises environmental pollution
(4) Somatic hybrids are obtained by fusing isolated (4) Biomass is obtained from multicellular
protoplasts from two different varieties of plants microorganisms only
40. Select an incorrect match w.r.t. resistant varieties 48. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. variety
of common crops Crop Variety
(1) Pusa swarnim – Cauliflower
(1) Cowpea – Pusa Swarnim
(2) Pusa komal – Cow-pea
(2) Chilli – Pusa Sadabahar
(3) Himgiri – Wheat
(3) Cauliflower – Pusa Shubhra
(4) Pusa gaurav – Brassica
41. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. green manure (4) Wheat – Himgiri
(1) Reduces soil alkalinity 49. N. Borlaug of Mexico produced triple dwarf wheat
(2) Prevents soil erosion with all superior characters except
(3) Increases C/N ratio in soil (1) Smaller growth period

(4) Increases crop yield by 30-50% as compared (2) High lysine and tryptophan
to farmyard manure (3) High yield
42. Which of the following plant variety is resistant to
(4) Resistance for lodging and common pests and
yellow mosaic virus?
pathogens
(1) Himgiri (2) Pusa komal
50. High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar content
(3) Prabhani kranti (4) Pusa swarnim leads to resistance against stem borers in
43. Plant part used for tissue culture is called explant.
(1) Wheat (2) Cotton
It is sterilized by
(3) Maize (4) Brassica
(1) Antimicrobial chemicals
(2) Steam 51. The high yielding and disease resistant varieties of
wheat introduced all over the wheat growing belt of
(3) Dry heat
India are
(1) Jaya and Ratna
44. Cereals are generally deficient in
(2) Sonalika and Ratna
(1) Tryptophan and lysine
(2) Methionine and cysteine (3) Kalyan Sona and Sonalika
(3) Cysteine and lysine (4) Kalyan Sona and Himgiri
(4) Methionine and tryptophan 52. Apical and axillary meristem can be induced to
45. Which of the following feature of maize can result grow in-vitro to specifically raise
in resistance to maize stem borers? (1) Early growing plant varieties
(1) Low aspartic acid (2) Virus free plants
(2) Low sugar and high nitrogen content
(3) Plants with tolerance against environmental
(3) High aspartic acid and low nitrogen content factors
(4) High nitrogen and sugar content (4) Plants with high yield
46. Cyanoalanine
53. In the period of 40 years between 1960 to 2000
(1) Is present in khesari dal production of wheat increased by 600%. This was
(2) Is long chain saturated fatty acid producing due to the development of semi-dwarf varieties of
heart defects wheat such as
(3) Results in favism (1) Jaya (2) Kalyan Sona
(4) Free lines are Canola and Hoya (3) Pusa Komal (4) Himgiri
47. Pomato is not suitable for its commercial
54. Cotton plant is resistant to jassids due to presence
utilisation because
of
(1) Its cultivation is expensive
(1) Smooth leaves
(2) This plant did not have all the desired
combination of characteristics (2) Solid stem
(3) It is resistant to number of plant pathogens (3) Hairy leaves
(4) More than one option is correct (4) High amount of aspartic acid in stem
55. Which of the following explant can be utilised for 61. Find the incorrect match w.r.t. single cell protein
producing virus free plants through tissue culture? (1) Fungi – Candida utilis
(1) Apical meristem (2) Algae – Scenedesmus
(2) Anther (3) Bacteria – Trichoderma viride
(4) BGA – Spirulina
(3) Axillary bud
62. Select the correct match with respect to crop,
(4) More than one option is correct variety and resistance to diseases
56. Many high yielding wheat varieties introduced in all Crop Variety Resistance to
wheat growing belt of India in 1963, are diseases
(1) Chilli Pusa komal Chilly mosaic virus
(1) Sonalika and Lerma Rojo-64
(2) Brassica Pusa sadabahar White rust
(2) Kalyan Sona and NP-836 (3) Cauliflower Pusa shubhra Black rot
(3) Kalyan Sona and Sonalika (4) Wheat Pusa swarnim Leaf and stripe rust
63. First man made cereal crop is
(4) Jaya and Ratna
(1) Oryza sativa (2) Triticale
57. Different varieties of plants are given that are
(3) Raphanobrassica (4) Pomato
resistant against diseases and insect pests, where
64. Breeding of crops with higher level of vitamins and
the varieties of Brassica are
minerals, or higher protein and healthier fats is
(1) Pusa Swarnim, Pusa Gaurav called
(2) Pusa Gaurav, Pusa Sem 2 (1) Micro-propagation (2) Biofortification
(3) Somatic hybridization (4) Tissue culture
(3) Pusa Sawani, Pusa Komal
65. Capacity to generate a whole plant from any
(4) Pusa Sadabahar, Himgiri cell/explant is called
58. Mark the incorrect match (w.r.t. variety and their (1) Regeneration (2) Rejuvenation
resistance to pests /disease) (3) Totipotency (4) Propagation
(1) Pusa Gaurav, Pusa Sem 2 – Aphids 66. India is mainly an agricultural country. Agriculture
accounts for approximately __________ of India’s
(2) Pusa Swarnim – Leaf curl
GDP and employs nearly __________ of the
(3) Pusa Sawani – Fruit borer population.
(4) Pusa Sadabahar – Chilly mosaic virus (1) 22 percent, 43 percent
(2) 33 percent, 62 percent
59. Match the column I with column II
Column I Column II
(Variety) (Plant)
67. Resistance of maize to stem borer is due to
a. Lerma Rojo-64 (i) Cotton (1) Low nitrogen content
b. Ratna (ii) Barley (2) High aspartic acid content
c. Indore-2 (iii) Wheat (3) Low sugar content
d. Erectoids (iv) Rice (4) More than one option is correct
68. Which of the following is the root and tedious
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
process of any plant breeding programme
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) respectively?
60. Which varieties were brought to India from Mexico a. Selection of parents
and modified through gamma mutation? b. Collection of variability
c. Cross hybridisation
(1) PV-18 and NP 836
d. Testing of superior recombinants
(2) Sonalika and Jaya
e. Commercialisation of new cultivars
(3) Sonora 64 and Lerma Rojo (1) a, d (2) c, d
(4) Ganga and Sonalika (3) b, c (4) d, e
69. In mung bean, mutation breeding has provided 76. Semi-dawrf rice varieties are
resistance against
(1) Jaya and Ratna
(1) Yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew
(2) Atomita and Lerma Rojo
(2) White rust and bacterial blight
(3) Leaf and stripe rust (3) Kalyan Sona and Jaya
(4) Leaf curl and bacterial blight (4) Ratna and Norin-10
70. Biofortification includes the improvement in all, 77. In Mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus
except and powdery mildew were induced using
(1) Vitamin content (2) Micronutrient content (1) Hybridization
(3) Carbohydrate content(4) Protein content
(2) Selection
71. Find correct match (column-I with column-II)
(3) Mutation
Column I Column II
(Crop variety) (Disease resistance) (4) Germplasm collection
a. Pusa shubhra (i) White rust 78. In wheat, stem sawfly unable to cause destruction
b. Pusa sadabahar (ii) Black rot of crop due to
c. Pusa swarnim (iii) Hill bunt (1) Low nitrogen and sugar content
d. Himgiri (iv) TMV (2) Hollow stem
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (3) Solid stem
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) Nectarless flowers
72. Which of the following is correctly matched w.r.t.
development of crop variety? 79. Select the correct match
(1) Kalyan Sona (wheat) – Mass selection Crop Variety Resistance to
(2) ADT-37 (rice) – Mutation disease
(3) Remei and Jagannath (rice) – Hybridisation (1) Wheat Atlas-66 Hill bunt
(4) Rice guan-18 – Androgenic haploid culture (2) Brassica Pusa komal Black rot
73. Variety of okra (Bhindi) resistant to shoot and fruit
(3) Cowpea Pusa swarnim White rust
borer insects is
(4) Chilli Pusa sadabahar Leaf curl
(1) Pusa Sawani (2) Pusa Komal
(3) Pusa Sem 2 (4) Pusa Gaurav 80. Read the following statement and select the right
choice
74. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. SCP
(1) Alternate source of proteins for human and a. Semi-dwarf varieties, Jaya and Ratna were
animal nutrition developed in IRRI, Philippines.
(2) Can be grown on waste material b. Classical plant breeding involves crossing or
(3) Decreases environmental pollution hybridisation of pure lines.
(4) 250 g of Methylophilus methylotropus produces c. Saccharum barberi was originally grown in
250 tonnes of protein South India.
75. The entire collection of plants/seeds having all the d. Genetic variability is the root of any breeding
diverse alleles for all the genes in a given crop is programme.
called
(1) Only a is correct
(1) Gene cloning
(2) b & d are correct
(2) Germplasm collection
(3) cDNA library (3) a, b & c are correct
(4) Biofortification (4) b, c & d are correct
81. During biofortification, breeding for improved 88. Interspecies as well as intergeneric plants hybrids
nutritional quality is undertaken with objective of are produced by which of the tissue culture
improving all, except methods?
(1) Micronutrient and mineral content (1) Gynogenic culture (2) Meristem culture
(2) Oil quality (3) Androgenic culture (4) Somatic hybridization
(3) Protein content and quality 89. The entire collection of plants/seeds having all the
(4) Vitamin quality diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called
82. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t somatic (1) Genome (2) Genepool
hybridisation (3) Germplasm collection (4) Gene flow
(1) Isolated protoplast from two different varieties of 90. In the given cross, breeder is selecting the
plants can be fused to get hybrid organisms which are given in blocks. What kind of
(2) The somatic hybrid may be synkaryon or selection is being performed by plant breeder?
heterokaryon !"# $ !" %#&'(
(3) Naked protoplasts are isolated using hydrolytic
enzyme protease !!# !" "" )!#&'(
(4) The protoplasts are fused using chemicals i.e.
PEG. !!#$##!! ""#$##""
83. Select odd one w.r.t SCP
(1) Spirulina (2) Methylophilus !!# "" )"#&'(
(3) Mushrooms (4) Frankia (1) Mass selection
84. In mung bean, resistance to powdery mildew was (2) Pure line selection
introduced by (3) Clonal selection
(1) Polyploidy breeding (2) Mutation breeding (4) Selection of hybrid vigour
(3) Genetic engineering (4) Hybridisation 91. Select odd one out w.r.t. pest or insect resistance
85. Somaclones are produced by (1) Pusa gaurav (2) Pusa sawani
(1) Micropropagation (2) Mutation (3) Pusa sem-2 (4) Pusa swarnim
(3) Polyploidy (4) Hybridisation 92. Haploids are of great importance in crop
86. If we were to list the traits that the breeders have improvement because they
tried to incorporate into crop plants, the first (1) Are useful in study of meiosis
preference would be (2) Grow better in acidic condition
(1) Increased tolerance to insects, pests and (3) Do not express mutation
extreme temperature
(4) Give homozygous lines after colchicine
(2) Increased crop yield and tolerance to extreme treatment
temperatures
93. Mark the correct statement
(3) Improved quality and increased crop yield
(1) ADT-37 is intergeneric variety
(4) Resistance to pathogens and tolerance to high
(2) A dwarfing gene dee-geo-woo-gen was reported
salinity
in Taiwan and introduced in rice varieties by
87. Find the correct match w.r.t. crop variety for their IRRI, Philippines
disease resistant.
(3) A neurotoxin glucosinolate is present in
Column I Column II Khesari and causes lathyrism
a. Pusa Komal (i) Tobacco mosaic (4) Atlas 66 is a protein rich variety of rice
virus 94. Which part of a plant is best suited for making
b. Pusa Sadabahar (ii) Black rot virus-free plants through tissue culture?
c. Pusa Shubhra (iii) White rust (1) Apical meristems
d. Pusa Swarnim (iv) Bacterial blight (2) Axillary meristems
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (3) Haploid part like anther
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) More than one option is correct
95. Which of the following is the incorrectly matched?

SECTION - B
(1) Leaf rust of wheat – Puccinia recondita
(2) Tikka disease of groundnut – Fusarium udum
(3) White rust of crucifers – Albugo candida In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(4) Late blight of Potato – Phytophthora infestans (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
96. Which one of the following statement is wrong? (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(1) Gene norin 10 was reported in Japan reason is the correct explanation of the
(2) IR-8 was developed at IRRI
(3) Saccharum barberi was originally grown in (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
North India reason is not the correct explanation of the
(4) Saccharum officinarum has lower sugar assertion, then mark (2).
content (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
97. The Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New false, then mark (3).
Delhi has released vitamin C fortified varieties of
(1) Mustard, bathua and bitter gourd
(2) Spinach, pumpkin and bathua
1. A : Cross hybridization for raising superior varieties
(3) Bitter gourd, tomato and carrot
is a time consuming and tedious process.
(4) Lablab, mustard and spinach
R : Usually one in few hundred to a thousand
98. Which of the following statement is wrong?
crosses shows the desirable combination.
(1) 2.5 g of Methylophilus methylotrophus can be
expected to produce 0.25 tonnes of protein per 2. A : Heterosis is superiority of F 1 hybrid over
day parents.
(2) Hybrid breeding have led to the development of R : It is due to supression of dominant allele by
several high yielding varieties of millets to
recessive allele.
water stress
(3) Brown rust of wheat and black rot of crucifers 3. A : Atomita-2 variety of wheat was produced by
diseases are caused by fungal pathogens gamma treatment.
(4) Smooth leaved and nectar-less cotton varieties R : Reimei variety of rice is also produced by
do not attract bollworms gamma treatment.
99. The Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New
4. A : Effectiveness of hybridization determines the
Delhi has released vitamin C, calcium and iron
success of a breeding experiment.
fortified variety of
(1) Pumpkin (2) Bathua R : Hybridization is the oldest practice of crop
(3) Spinach (4) Carrots improvement.
100. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 5. A : Somatic hybrids by fusing tomato and potato
(1) Green revolution was dependent to a large have been achieved.
extent on plant breeding technique R : It provided all the desired combination of
(2) The selection of superior recombinants is characteristics for commercial utilization.
crucial to the success of the breeding objective
6. A : Recombinant progeny obtained in plant
(3) Crop varieties like PV-18, HUW-468 and ADT-
breeding are self pollinated for several
37 developed by inbreed selection
generation.
(4) Saccharum barberi was originally grown in
North India, but had poor sugar content and R : It helps to prevent segregation of characters in
yield the progeny.
!" !" !
Chapter 10
Microbes in Human Welfare
SECTION - A 5. Enzyme which has the fibrinolytic effect is
Objective Type Questions (1) Protease (2) Amylase
1. Which of the following statement is not concerned (3) Lipase (4) Streptokinase
with antibiotics? 6. Compounds which acts as competitive inhibitors of
(1) They are ‘prolife’ in context of human beings enzyme HMG CoA reductase of liver are produced
(2) Have ability to retard or kill the growth of from
microbes (1) Prokaryotic unicellular organisms
(3) Work by acting on different metabolic
(2) Eukaryotic multicellular organisms
pathways
(4) First antibiotic is actinomyces based (3) Prokaryotic multicellular organisms
2. Choose the correct sequence of microbes involved (4) Eukaryotic unicellular organisms
in biogas production 7. Swiss cheese is associated with which of the
(1) Fermentative microbes, decomposers, following?
methanogens
(1) Ripened, moisture content 45%, hard cheese
(2) Decomposers, methanogens, putrefying
microbes (2) Large holes, moisture content < 40%, hard
cheese
(3) Putrefying microbes, methanogens, saprophytic
microbes (3) Processed, large holes, moisture content 50%
(4) Decomposers, fermentative microbes, (4) Raw cheese, semisoft, large holes
methanogens
8. Statins are produced by and have
3. In the STPs, biological process of microbial been commercialised as .
degradation of organic matter involves
(1) Bacteria, blood-cholesterol lowering agent
(1) Utilisation of activated sludge as inoculant
produced in the physical process (2) Trichoderma, immunosuppressive agent
(2) Mainly involves anaerobic breakdown of organic (3) Yeast, blood-cholesterol lowering agent
matter
(4) Bacteria, clot buster
(3) Masses of unicellular bacteria entangled in
filamentous bacterial forms represent flocs 9. The fermentative activity of fungus Trichoderma
(4) DO is greatly reduced by the microbial activity polysporum yields which of the following
substance?
4. Baculoviruses does not show
(1) Host specificity (1) Statin
(2) Narrow spectrum applications (2) Cyclosporin - A

(3) Effects on non-target pathogens (3) Gluconic acid
(4) Utility in IPM programme (4) Soya sauce
336 Microbes in Human Welfare Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
10. Large holed Swiss cheese is ripened with the help 17. Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack ________.
of CO2 producing bacterium called (1) Birds and mammals
(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (2) Fishes and reptiles
(2) Leuconostoc cremoris (3) Insects and other arthropods
(3) Streptococcus cremoris (4) Pathogenic fungi
(4) Propionibacterium sharmanii 18. Which of the following is not used for ripening of
cheese?
11. The property of domestic sewage of becoming
decomposed through microbial activity is known as (1) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(1) Incineration (2) Putrescibility (2) Lactobacillus acidophilus
(3) Pyrolysis (4) Pasturisation (3) Penicillium roquefortii

(4) Penicillium camembertii
12. Yoghurt is produced by curdling of milk with the help
of 19. Which of the following is used in detergents to
remove proteinaceous spots?
(1) Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus
bulgaricus (1) Citric acid (2) Gluconic acid
(2) S. lactis and S. cremoris (3) Proteases (4) Amylases

20. Which of following statement is correct?
(3) L. acidophillus and Fusarium oxysporum
(1) Alcoholic fermentation by yeast and conversion
(4) Spirulina and Saccharomyces cerevisiae
of alcohol to acetic acid both are aerobic
13. Roquefort cheese is associated with which of the processes
following? (2) Alcoholic fermentation is aerobic and
(1) Ripened, soft cheese conversion of alcohol to acetic acid is
anaerobic one
(2) Unripened, hard cheese
(3) Alcoholic fermentation by yeast is anaerobic
(3) Ripened, semihard cheese and conversion of alcohol to acetic acid is
(4) Unripened, soft cheese aerobic one
14. Find odd one out w.r.t. bioinsecticides (4) Alcoholic fermentation by yeast and conversion
of alcohol to acetic acid both are anaerobic
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis, releasing cry proteins
processes
(2) Rotenone is obtained from roots of Trichoderma
21. Screw worm was eradicated by releasing
(3) Species specific nucleopolyhedrovirus (1) Sterile females
(4) Azadirachtin from neem (2) Sterile males
15. Match column I with column II (3) Both sterile females and sterile males
Column I Column II (4) Pheromones
a. Statins (i) Propionibacterium 22. Use of renewable resources which causes
b. Swiss cheese (ii) Aspergillus minimum pollution and maintain the optimum yield
lavel, can be regarded as _________
c. Cyclosporin A (iii) Monascus
(1) Agroforestry
d. Citric acid (iv) Trichoderma
(2) Social forestry
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(3) Sustainable agriculture
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) Organic forestry
16. Biological activities are carried out in which of the 23. Which of the following is correct for mycorrhiza?
following effluent treatment plants?
(1) Absorbs nitrogen and water only
(1) Primary treatment
(2) Helps in nitrogen fixation and hence, regarded
(2) Secondary treatment as fertilizer
(3) Tertiary treatment (3) Absorb and store N, P, K and Ca
(4) Chemical treatment (4) Restricted to gymnospermous plants only
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Microbes in Human Welfare 337
24. Gasohol contains a mixture of 32. In STPs, primary sludge is produced when sewage
(1) 85 – 90% petrol with 10 – 15% diesel is
(2) 85 – 90% alcohol with 10 – 15% petrol (1) Passed through filtration and sedimentation
(3) 85 – 90% petrol with 10 – 15% alcohol (2) Anaerobically digested
(4) 75% petrol with 25% alcohol (3) Treated with aerobic heterotrophic microbes in
25. Statins produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus the aeration tank
have been commercialised as
(4) Chlorinated and treated with UV rays
(1) Immunosuppressive agent
33. Match the following micro-organisms to the related
(2) Blood-cholesterol lowering agent products.
(3) Clot buster
Column-I Column-II
(4) Agents to increase immunity
a. Swiss cheese (i) Monascus
26. Who was/were awarded Nobel prize in 1945 for the
discovery of penicillin? b. Statin (ii) Propionibacterium
(1) Alexander Fleming c. Butyric acid (iii) Trichoderma
(2) Ernest chain and Howard Florey d. Cyclosporin A (iv) Clostridium
(3) Fleming, Chain and Florey (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Howard Florey
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
27. Nutritional quality of curd is better than milk due to
presence of excess amount of 34. Leavening of flour is brought about by
(1) Vitamin C (2) Vitamin B6 (1) Zymase, protease and amylase

(3) Vitamin B12 (4) Calcium (2) Amylase, pectinase and maltase
28. The technology of biogas production in India was (3) Protease, pectinase and zymase
(1) Imported from Japan (4) Zymase, amylase and maltase
(2) Imported from Denmark 35. Match the following
(3) Imported from USA
Column-I Column-II
(4) Developed in India due to efforts of IARI and
KVIC a. Gluconic acid (i) Penicillium
29. Most efficient nitrogen fixer in rice field is ______ b. Cyclosporin A (ii) Monascus
and in sugarcane field is _______ respectively c. Statins (iii) Rhizopus
(1) Aulosira, Cylindrospermum d. Amylases (iv) Trichoderma
(2) Cylindrospermum, Aulosira
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Nostoc, Anabaena
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Microcystis, Macrocystis
36. Microbial degradation of organic matter in STP
30. The enzyme which is not involved in leavening
process, is takes place during
(1) Zymase (2) Rennin (1) Primary treatment (2) Secondary treatment
(3) Amylase (4) Maltase (3) Tertiary treatment (4) Reverse osmosis
31. To make soft and porous bread, a small quantity 37. Biogas
of yeast powder is added to wheat flour and the
(1) Production involves utilisation of obligate
same is kneaded. What is the correct event for it?
anaerobes only
(1) Amylase converts starch into maltose sugar
(2) Is methane rich fuel having CO2 and H2S in
(2) It is due to fermentation of glucose
traces
(3) It is due to production and accumulation of
ethyl alcohol and CO2 (3) Generation involves use of fermentive microbes
during solubilisation
(4) It is due to evaporation of ethyl alcohol
and CO2 (4) Has calorific value of 4429 kcal/m3
38. Eleven membered cyclic oligopeptides obtained 43. Select the incorrect match
from fungus Trichonderma polysporum and used as (1) Monascus – Statins
immunosuppressive agent is
(2) Trichoderma – Thurioside
(1) Statin (2) Streptokinase (3) Aspergillus – Citric acid
(3) Cyclosporin A (4) Proteases (4) Propionibacterium – Swiss cheese
39. Find the incorrect statement /s 44. The true bacteria that can fix atmospheric nitrogen
while free living in the soil are
a. Flocs are masses of anaerobic bacteria
associated with fungal filaments (1) Frankia, Azospirillum
b. BOD gets reduced significantly when the (2) Anabaena azollae, Azotobacter
secondary treatment is done using aerobic (3) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium
microbes (4) Rhodospirillum, Azotobacter
c. Activated sludge can be sedimented only after 45. The competitive inhibitor of -hydroxy- -methyl-
anaerobic digestion of sewage glutaryl CoA reductase is the fermentation product
of
d. Mixture of gases is released during aerobic
digestion of sewage (1) Streptococci (2) Monascus
(1) a, b, c & d (2) Only (c) (3) Trichoderma (4) Propionibacterium

46. During sewage treatment a small part of the
(3) All, except (b) (4) a, b & d
activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration
40. The effective biocontrol agent of several plant tank to
pathogens is (1) Serve as inoculum
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis (2) Ladybird beetle (2) Serve as nutrient medium
(3) Trichoderma (4) Baculovirus (3) Produce biogas
41. Select the correct match (4) Produce CO
47. Which of the following organism is not used in
Column-I Column-II
organic farming?
a. Gluconic acid (i) Colletotrichum (1) E. coli (2) Anabaena
gloeo-sporioides
(3) Oscillatoria (4) Nostoc
b. Cyclosporin A (ii) Monascus purpureus
48. Bioactive molecule used as immunosuppressant in
c. Statins (iii) Trichoderma organ transplant patients is
polysporum (1) Cyclosporin-A (2) Statins
d. Collego (iv) Penicillium (3) Streptokinase (4) TPA
chrysogenum 49. Effective biocontrol agent of fungal origin against
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) several plant pathogens is
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (1) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Trichoderma
42. Find the correct match w.r.t. biopesticides
(3) Baculovirus
Column-I Column-II
(4) Streptomyces
a. Parthenium (i) Cactoblastis
50. ‘Flocs’, developing during secondary treatment of
hysterophorus cactorum
sewage refers to
b. Hypericum perforatum (ii) Zygogramma (1) Masses of obligate anaerobic bacteria
bicolorata associated with fungal filaments
c. Opuntia (iii) Chrysolina (2) Masses of bacteria developing in anaerobic
sludge digesters
d. Milk weed vines (iv) Phytophthora
palmivora (3) Mesh formed by groups of methanogenic
bacteria
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Mesh of fungal filaments when associated with
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) masses of aerobic bacteria
51. Which of the following organism is common in root 57. Consider the following statements (a–d) each with
ecosystems and acts as an effective biocontrol one or two blanks.
agent of several plant pathogens? a. All solids that settle during primary treatment
(1) Nucleopolyhedrovirus of sewage forms !"# and supernatant forms
(2) Lady bird beetle the !""# .
(3) Cactoblastis b. Secondary treatment of sewage is also known
(4) Trichoderma !"""# treatment.
as
52. Read the following four statements (a–d), find out c. A small part of the activated sludge is pumped
the incorrect option w.r.t. lactic acid bacteria back into the aeration tank to serve as the
a. In our stomach, they play beneficial role by !"#$
.
checking disease causing microbes.
!#$
b. LAB produce acids that coagulate and d. The sewage water is treated till is
completely digest the milk proteins. reduced.
Which of the following option gives the correct fill
c. Improves the nutritional quality by increasing
ups for the respective blank numbers from (i) to (v)
the amount of riboflavin.
in the statements?
d. Require suitable temperature for their
(1) (i) Primary sludge (iii) Flocs (v) DO
multiplication.
(2) (ii) Effluent (iii) Biological (iv) Inoculum (v) BOD
(1) a & b (2) a & c
(3) (i) Primary sludge (iii) Flocs (iv) Inoculum (v) DO
(3) b & c (4) b & d
(4) (i) Effluent (ii) Primary sludge (iii) Flocs (v) BOD
53. Different varieties of cheese are known by their 58. Find out which one of the following statement is not
characteristic texture, flavour and taste, the correct with respect to biogas plant?
specificity coming from the
(1) It has a floating cover which keeps on rising as
(1) Flavouring agent used gas is produced
(2) Microbes used (2) It consists of a 10-15 feet deep tank in which
(3) It is inherent quality bio-wastes are collected and a slurry of dung
is fed
(4) Molecular interaction between chemicals
(3) Main gases produced are methane, isobutane
54. Find the odd one out with respect to distillation of and propane
fermented broth.
(4) Spent slurry may be used as fertiliser
(1) Rum (2) Brandy 59. Which one of the following pair is wrongly
(3) Wine (4) Whisky matched?
55. Alexander Fleming accidently discovered antibiotic Biological agent Target
penicillin from a mould, but he was working on (1) Ladybird Aphids
(1) Streptococci (2) Streptobacilli (2) Dragonflies Mosquitoes
(3) Staphylobacilli (4) Staphylococci (3) Trichoderma Insect pests and weeds
56. Which of the following option gives the correct (4) Baculoviruses Insects and other
matching of microbe, product and use? arthropods
60. Which of the following statement is the correct
Microbe Product Use
about bio-fertiliser?
(1) Saccharomyces Methanol Rum
(1) Bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria are major
(2) Streptococcus Streptokinase Blood-cholesterol sources
lowering agent
(2) These are ecofriendly
(3) Monascus Statins Clot buster (3) Micro-organisms involved can be symbiotic or
(4) Trichoderma Cyclosporin A Organ free living
transplantation (4) All of these
61. Find the odd one out with respect to mycorrhiza. 68. Baculoviruses are pathogens that
(1) Many members of genus Glomus form (1) Attack insect and arthropods
mycorrhiza (2) Placed in genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(2) Fungal partner absorbs all the nutrients from (3) Shows specific insecticidal application
soil except phosphorus (4) All of these
(3) Provide protection against root-borne 69. Which of the following is a source of cyclosporin
pathogens A?
(4) Provide tolerance to salinity and drought (1) Trichoderma polysporum
62. Mark the mis-matched pair (2) Monascus purpureus
(1) Aspergillus niger – Citric acid (3) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(2) Nucleopolyhedrovirus – Narrow spectrum (4) Mortierella renispora
weedicide 70. Find a correct match
(3) Blue green algae – Important (1) Trichoderma – Statins
biofertiliser
(2) Monascus – Cyclosporin A
in paddy fields
(3) Propionibacterium – Camembert cheese
(4) Glomus – Mycorrhiza
(4) Cactoblastis – Eradication of Opuntia
63. Masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments
71. Which of the following pair of alcoholic drinks is
to form mesh like structures is called as
produced by distillation of the fermented broth?
(1) Flocs (2) Primary sludge
(1) Wine and Rum
(3) Sewage (4) Biofertiliser
(2) Beer and Wine
64. Eleven membered cyclic oligopeptide which act as (3) Wine and Brandy
an immunosuppressive agent is obtained through
(4) Brandy and Whisky
fermentive activity of
72. Select the correct match w.r.t. microbes and their
(1) Aspergillus niger
product
(2) Trichoderma polysporum
Column I Column II
(3) Byssochlamys fulvo (Microbes) (Product)
(4) Mortierella a. Aspergillus niger (i) Ethanol
65. Proteases used in detergents and clearing of b. Acetobacter aceti (ii) Butyric acid
juices are obtained from c. Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric acid
(1) Monascus purpureus (2) Mortierella renispora d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae (iv) Acetic acid
(3) Streptococcus (4) Trichoderma sp. (1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
66. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t streptokinase
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
enzyme activity
(1) Presence of fibrinolytic effect 73. !!!!!!"!!!!! produced by the !!!!!!"!!!!! and modified
by genetic engineering is used as “clot buster” for
(2) Used as a blood clot buster
removing clots from the blood vessels of patients
(3) Produced by Streptococci who have undergone myocardial infarction leading
(4) Used as an immunosuppressive agent to heart attack.
67. During waste water treatment process in STPs (1) (A) Cyclosporin A
(1) Floating debries is removed by sedimentation (B) Streptococcus
(2) Primary effluent is passed directly in secondary (2) (A) Immunosuppressive agent
settling tank for treatment (B) Trichoderma polysporum
(3) Sedimented flocs are activated sludge in (3) (A) Streptokinase
secondary settling tank
(B) Streptococcus
(4) Secondary treatment is carried out in aeration
tank by anaerobic heterotrophic bacteria and (4) (A) Streptokinase
fungi (B) Trichoderma polysporum
74. Statins, commercialised as blood cholesterol 81. Wine and beer are produced
lowering agent, are produced by (1) By distillation only
(1) Penicillium chrysogenum
(2) By fermentation and distillation
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) By fermentation but without distillation
(3) Monascus purpureus
(4) Without fermentation and distillation
(4) Staphylococci
82. Alternate source of proteins for animal and human
75. Which of the following significantly reduces the
nutrition may be
biochemical oxygen demand of the effluent in
STPs? a. Methylophilus methylotrophus
(1) Masses of algae associated with fungal b. Spirulina
filaments
c. Mushroom
(2) Masses of bacteria associated with algal
(1) a & b only (2) Only (a)
filaments
(3) Masses of bacteria associated with fungal (3) Only (b) (4) All a, b, & c
filaments 83. Which of the following is one of the most
(4) Masses of algae associated with viruses significant discoveries of the twentieth century that
greatly contributed towards the welfare of human
76. Bacillus thuringiensis
society?
(1) Controls aphids and Ladybird beetle
(1) Biogas (2) Curd
(2) Are available in sachets as syrups
(3) Penicillin (4) Citric acid
(3) Serves as an important biofertiliser in paddy
fields 84. Match the Column-I with Column-II
(4) Releases toxin in the gut of insect larvae and Column-I Column-II
the larvae get killed (Bioactive molecules) (Source)
77. Which of the following organism can fix a. Cyclosporin A (i) Monascus
atmospheric nitrogen while free living in the soil?
b. Statins (ii) Clostridium
(1) Rhizobium (2) Frankia
c. Clot buster (iii) Trichoderma
(3) Glomus (4) Azospirillum
d. Butyric acid (iv) Streptococcus
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(1) The greater the BOD of waste water, more is
its polluting potential (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(2) Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack 85. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.
several insects and plants A. ________ are the masses of bacteria
(3) Trichoderma species are effective biocontrol associated with fungal filaments to form mesh-
agents of several plant pathogens like structures.
(4) Sporeine was first bioinsecticide B. ________ is used as a ‘clot buster’.
79. Biogas is a mixture of gases produced from the C. Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for
microbial activity and it consists of all, except ________ insecticidal application
(1) Methane and CO2 D. ________ are organisms that enrich the
(2) Hydrogen and nitrogen nutrient quality of the soil.
(3) Sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide (1) A – Flocs
(4) Hydrogen sulphide and nitrogen D – Biofertilisers
80. Which one of the following is incorrectly (2) B – Cyclosporin-A
matched?
C – Broad spectrum
(1) TPA – Streptococcus
(3) A – Primary sludge
(2) Statins – Inhibits cholesterol
synthesis C – Narrow spectrum
(3) Cyclosporin A – Immunosuppressive agent (4) B – Streptokinase
(4) Citric acid – Clostridium butylicum D – Biopesticides
86. In a STP, microbial flocs are formed in 90. Sewage treatment process includes all of these
features, except
(1) Anaerobic sludge digester
(1) A small part of the activated sludge is pumped
(2) Primary treatment back into the aeration tank to serve as
inoculum
(3) Aeration tank
(2) Activated sludge cannot be used in anaerobic
(4) Physicochemical treatment digestion process
87. Use of some microbes as biofertiliser to enhance (3) Anaerobic bacteria digest bacteria in sludge
digesters
crop productivity is called
(4) Transfer of primary effluent in aeration tanks
(1) Organic farming (2) Marine farming
91. The source of toddy is
(3) Micro farming (4) Compost farming (1) Opened spadices of coconut
88. Dough used for making dosa and bread are (2) Opened catkins of coconut
fermented respectively by (3) Unopened spadices of coconut
(1) Bacteria, Fungi (4) Unopened catkins of coconut
(2) Fungi, Bacteria SECTION - B

(3) Eukaryotic, Prokaryotic organism Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(4) Yeast, Moneran (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
89. Three water samples were collected. Drinking (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
water, untreated sewage water and secondary reason is the correct explanation of the
effluent. The samples were labelled A, B, and C but assertion, then mark (1).
laboratory attendant did not note the source of (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
sample. The BOD values of the samples recorded reason is not the correct explanation of the
is 20 mg/L, 2 mg/L and 400 mg/L respectively. assertion, then mark (2).
Using this data select the correct source of water (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
for the labels A, B and C false, then mark (3).
(1) A – Secondary effluent (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
B – Drinking water 1. A : Wine and Beer are produced through the
C – Untreated sewage process of distillation.
R : Nutrient medium utilized for wine in Hordeum
(2) A – Untreated sewage vulgare.
B – Drinking water 2. A : After 24 hours toddy remains palatable.
R : Toddy does not undergo fermentation.
C – Secondary effluent
3. A : BOD is a measure of the organic matter
(3) A – Drinking water present in the water.
B – Secondary effluent R : Greater the BOD of waste water, less is its
polluting potential.
C – Untreated sewage
4. A : Baculoviruses as biocontrol agents have no
(4) A – Untreated sewage negative impact on plants, mammals and target
insects.
B – Secondary effluent
R : These are effective against several plant
C – Drinking water pathogens.
!" !" !
Chapter 11
Organisms and Populations
5. For which of the following cases, population density

SECTION - A can be easily determined by utilizing non-biological
Objective Type Questions parameter?
1. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. parasitism (1) Fish density
(2) Density of bacteria in culture plate
(1) Parasites show adaptations like loss of
digestive system and high reproductive (3) Siberian cranes at Bharatpur, Wetlands
capacity (4) Tiger census
(2) Parasite may reduce the survival, growth and 6. Population growth of a species is not related to
reproduction of host which of the following parameters?
(1) Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)]
(3) Life cycles of ectoparasites are more complex
(2) Out of four basic processes effecting
(4) Brood parasitism is seen in birds population growth three leads to increase in
2. Choose correct salt concentration for sea and population size
hypersaline lagoons in parts per thousand (3) Under normal conditions, natality and mortality
are most important factors
(1) 5%, 30–35% (2) 30–35%, > 100%
(4) For a newly colonised habitat immigration
(3) 30–35%, 70% (4) > 100%, 100% plays major role than birth rate
3. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. structure formed in 7. Which of the following interactions acts as
the different organisms during suspended phase conduits for energy transfer across the trophic
levels?
(1) Bacteria, fungi – Thick wall spores
(1) (+, +) (2) (+, –)
(2) Higher plants – Seed, vegetative
(3) (+, 0) (4) (–, –)
propagules
8. Which of the following represents an incomplete
(3) Zooplanktons – Diapause stage ecosystem?
(4) Ectothermic organisms – Torpid state during (1) Small pond, forest lake
favourable season (2) Tree ecosystem, Estuaries
4. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. adaptations in (3) Agricultural ecosystem, kitchen-garden
organisms (4) Rain water pond, sea bottom
(1) Altitude sickness in humans is a physiological 9. Match the following
means to counteract the stressful condition Column I Column II
(2) Biochemical adaptations are seen in a. Standing state (i) Perfect
organisms present at great depths in oceans b. Gaseous cycles (ii) Amount of nutrients
(3) Allen’s rule is seen in mammals of colder c. Standing crop (iii) Imperfect
climate d. Sedimentary cycles (iv) Living matter at
(4) Desert lizards lack the physiological and different trophic levels
behavioural means to manage their body (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
temperature (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
344 Organisms and Populations Last Leap For NEET (Part-II)
10. During nutrient immobilisation, nutrients get 17. For calculating the “intrinsic rate of natural
incorporated in the body of living organisms like increase” which of the following parameters are
(1) Micro-organisms only required?
(2) Detrivores, Decomposers (1) Birth rate and death rate
(3) Osmotrophs only (2) Natality and carrying capacity
(4) Phagotrophs only (3) Population density and death rate
11. A set of characters for desert adaptation are (4) Carrying capacity and mortality
(1) Respiratory roots, salt secreting glands, C4 18. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. decomposition
cycle (1) Detritus acts as the raw material for
(2) Turions, thick cuticle on leaf surface, CAM decomposition
pathway (2) Followed the sequence of fragmentation,
(3) Phylloclade, stomatal pits, CAM pathway humification and mineralisation
(4) Phyllode, aerenchyma, high OP of cell sap (3) Rate is fast for substances like DNA, RNA
12. Verhulst-Pearl population growth is described by (4) Anaerobiosis and low temperature results in
the equation building up of organic matter
!" 19. When the resources are unlimited
(1) = rN a. The population exhibits J-shaped curve.
!#
(2) Nt = N0ert b. Carrying capacity has no role in population
growth form.
(3) Nt = N0 + B + I – D – E
c. The exponential increase will never express a
!" !# "" sudden crash.
(4) $" # $
!% % # & d. The population grows to express the sigmoid
curve.
13. The plants Dipterocarpus and Salvadora species
belong to the biomes ________ and ________ (1) a and b are correct
respectively. (2) a and c are incorrect
(1) Tropical rain forests, Coastal biome (3) b and d are incorrect
(2) Tropical rain forests, Deserts (4) b and c are incorrect
(3) Tropical deciduous forests, Deserts 20. Select the correct match
(4) Coastal biomes, Tropical deciduous forests (1) Clown fish and sea anemone –
14. Association where both the populations are Protocooperation
benefitted but not essential for survival of either (2) Cuckoo and crow – Brood parasitism
population. This association is shown by
(3) Ophrys and Colpa – Commensalism
(1) Adamsia paliata attached to shells of
(4) Goat and Abingdon tortoise – Predation
Eupagarus prideauxi
21. Very small animals are rare in polar regions. The
(2) Lianas
reason may be attributed that
(3) Epiphytes and epizoans
(1) They are warm blooded
(4) Zoochlorellae and zooxanthellae
(2) Thermoregulation is energetically expensive
15. 1 metre long penguin in Antarctica and ½ metre
(3) Most animals are able to migrate
long in Galapagos island explain and relates
(4) They have comparatively low surface area :
(1) Bergman’s rule (2) Jordan’s rule
volume ratio
(3) Chargaff’s rule (4) Allen’s rule
22. In Verhulst Pearl logistic growth
16. Find the odd one out w.r.t. evergreen forests at the (1) Population does not reach beyond carrying
altitude of 1700-3000 m capacity
(1) Picea and Abies (2) Population finally reaches an asymptote
(2) Cedrus and Cupressus (3) Environmental resistance is effective from the
(3) Silver fir and Deodar beginning
(4) Butea and Bombax (4) All of these
Last Leap For NEET (Part-II) Organisms and Populations 345
23. Find the odd one out w.r.t. CO2 fertilization effect 31. Humus is dark coloured amorphous substance and
(1) Decreased rate of transpiration (a) Is essential for nutrient cycling
(2) Increased rate of carbon assimilation (b) Helps in crumbing of soil
(3) Development of mycorrhiza (c) Makes the soil spongy

(1) All are correct
(4) Decreased modulation
(2) Only (b) is correct
24. Which of the following is not a feature of K-
selected species as an adaptation for competition? (3) Only (a) and (b) are correct
(4) Only (a) is correct
(1) Large adult size
32. Most of the soils possess 3-4 horizons and a
(2) Long generation time number of sub-horizons. These can be studied
(3) High energy allocation to reproduction using a three dimensional volume of soil called
(4) Slow development, few and large-sized (1) Recon (2) Muton
offsprings (3) Complon (4) Pedon
25. Among various abiotic factors the most relevant 33. Two soil processes bringing about transport and
factor is deposition of minerals are called eluviation and
illuviation, occuring in
(1) Temperature (2) Light
(1) A1 and A2 layers of soil horizon
(3) Water (4) Soil
(2) A2 and B1 layers of soil horizon
26. Select an incorrect statement regarding niche
(3) A1 and B1 layers of soil horizon
(1) The term was coined by Grinnel (4) B1 and B2 layers of soil horizon
(2) It represents functional role of an organism in 34. Select the correct match
a ecosystem
(1) Black soil - B – C soil
(3) Niche has a specific set of environmental
(2) Red soil - Acidic laterite
regimes
(3) Loam soil – 50% porosity
(4) Two different or related species can occupy
(4) Colluvial soil – By flood activity
same niche at same time if their trophic
requirements are identical 35. Type of suspended part of life where organism
becomes metabolically inactive during hot
27. __________ first correctly defined ‘Ecology’ summers is
(1) Haeckel (2) Reiter (1) Diapause (2) Aestivation
(3) Odum (4) Daubenmaire (3) Hibernation (4) Dormancy
28. Find out the plant which is characteristic of a 36. Very small organisms are rare in polar areas due
biome having high rate of evapotranspiration to their large surface area relative to their volume,
(1) Dalbergia (2) Calophyllum these organisms are
(3) Dipterocarpus (4) Prosopis cineraria (1) Regulates (2) Partial conformers
29. Identify a pair of zones in a lake, associated with (3) Migratory (4) Conformers
maximum organisms of transducer category
37. All given are adaptations of living organisms,
(1) Euphotic and littoral zone except
(2) Disphotic and Twilight zone (1) Seals reduce the loss of body heat using
(3) Twilight and profundal zone blubber
(4) Euphotic and Twilight zone (2) Desert lizards has the ability to fulfil their
30. In case of snow blindness, the cornea absorbs water demands by internal fat oxidation
harmful UV rays which are distributed between (3) Allen’s rule describe adaptations in mammals
__________wavelength of colder areas
(1) 100 – 280 nm (2) 280 – 400 nm (4) Archaebacteria can survive at extremes of
(3) 280 – 320 nm (4) 320 – 400 nm temperature

Column-I Column-II (3)
!
%&'()*+"&,
a. Opuntia (i) Vivipary -$,."+/
b. Nymphaea (ii) Drought escaper
c. Rhizophora (iii) Asterosclereid !"#$
d. Boerhaavia (iv) Drought resistant

(4) !
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) %&'()*+"&,
-$,."+/
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
39. A population of 50 Paramecia in a water body
becomes 150 after a period of 1 hour. What should !"#$
be the change in population per individual? 43. Choose a correct statement regarding life history
(1) 2 per individual (2) 3 per individual variations
(1) Mammals breed only once in life time
(3) 1 per individual (4) 2.5 per individual
(2) Some organisms like Bambusa breeds many
40. Which pair of the factors is most important for times in life
influencing the density of a given population? (3) Large number of small sized individuals are
(1) Mortality and immigration produced by Oyesters
(2) Birth and emigration (4) Large number of small sized individuals are
produced by Mammals
(3) Natality and mortality
44. Gause proposed the principle of competitive
(4) Death and emigration exclusion using
41. The growth form called Verhulst Pearl Logistic (1) Trifolium (2) Tribolium
Growth is (3) Oryzaephilum (4) Paramecium
(a) Not followed by insects during rainy season 45. The most observed circumstantial evidences in
favour of Gause's principle is
(b) Followed by algal blooms in a eutrophic lake
(1) Extinction of Abingdon tortoise
(c) Represented under limited resource conditions
(2) Extinction of Heath hen
(1) All are correct (3) Extinction of Tasmanian wolf
(2) Only a and c are incorrect (4) Extinction of Dodo
(3) Only a is correct 46. Population of less distributed species increases
dramatically when its superior competitor is removed
(4) Only b is incorrect
experimentaly from a geographical area. The
42. Select a graphical representation which is phenomenon is called as
experienced by a population having realised 'r' due (1) Competitive exclusion
to unlimited resource supply. (2) Competitive release
(3) Resource partitioning
!
(4) Niche displacement
(1)
%&'()*+"&, 47. Predators-Prey relation is a negative interaction
-$,."+/ and
(a) It helps transfer of energy in an ecosystem
!"#$ (b) It keeps prey population under control
(c) Predator does not exterminate its prey by
overexploitation
! (1) All are correct
(2)
%&'()*+"&,
-$,."+/ (2) Only (c) is incorrect
(3) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(4) Both (a) and (c) are correct
!"#$
48. A negative interaction which is controlled by 55. Many factors influence the rate of decomposition
secretion of inhibitory chemicals is best explained by where
(1) Prosopis juliflora (1) Nitrogenous compounds are decomposed at
(2) Juglans nigra a slow rate
(3) Capparis decidua (2) Decomposer microbes occur in alkaline soils
(4) More than one option is correct (3) Detrivores are abundant in neutral and slightly
49. "When two organisms realizes positive effects but alkaline soils
the association is not necessary for their survival" (4) Over 25°C decomposers become less active
such a relationship can be better termed as
56. Phosphorus cycle is different from carbon cycle
(1) Mutualism (2) Proto-cooperation
(1) In having maximum gaseous contribution
(3) Hyperparasitism (4) Commensalism
(2) In maximum availability in oceans
50. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. ecotones
(1) Estuary is an ecotone between fresh and (3) In being purely sedimentary
marine ecosystem (4) In being contributed by plants during stomatal
(2) Ecotones are more productive in comparison opening
to the parent communities 57. Death of organism is the beginning of food chain in
(3) Number of individuals decreases when we which
move from community margin to ecotone area (1) Energy and nutrient requirement is met by
(4) Edge species are essentially present in degrading organic matter.
ecotones (2) Major conduct for energy flow is operational in
51. Environment produce differences in the phenotypes aquatic ecosystem
and genotypes, like (3) Number of trophic levels are limited
(a) Ecotypes are genetic variants
(4) Producers belong to first trophic level
(b) Ecoclines are intermediate forms between two
58. Straight line relation of species area curve can be
ecads
expressed as
(c) Ecophenes are purely environmental variants
(1) log S = log C + Z log A
(1) All are incorrect
(2) log C = log Z + S log A
(2) Only (a) and (c) are correct
(3) Only (a) and (b) are correct (3) C = ASZ
(4) Only (b) and (c) are correct (4) S = CAZ
52. Select a correct match 59. If in a pond there are "A" Pistia plants last year
(1) Tansley – Microcosm and through reproduction 100 new plants were
added. The birth rate is 0.4 per year, calculate the
(2) Lindeman – Ten Percent law
value of "A"
(3) Mobius – Geobiocoenosis
(1) 400 (2) 125
(4) Sukhachev – Biocoenosis
(3) 250 (4) 140
53. Mark the correct sequence of process of
decomposition 60. Find odd one out w.r.t. population interaction
(1) Fragmentation Leaching Mineralisation (1) Opuntia and Cactoblastis cactorum
Catabolism (2) Orchids on trees like mango
(2) Catabolism Fragmentation Leaching (3) Smoother crops and weeds
Mineralisation
(4) Balanus and Chathamalus
(3) Fragmentation Leaching Catabolism
(4) Leaching Catabolism Fragmentation 61. —, O relationship where chemical secretion of one
Mineralisation Humification organism inhibits the growth of other in that area
is shown by
54. Find out the trophic status for Nepenthes khasiana
(1) Prosopis juliflora
(1) Primary producer only
(2) Primary producer and secondary producer (2) Vanda and Dendrobium
(3) Secondary producer and secondary consumer (3) Cactoblastis Cactorum
(4) Primary producer and secondary consumer (4) Carausius
62. Which of the given establishes a strong ecological 70. During the past century, the temperature of the
relation between two organisms of different earth has increased by
taxonomic groups evolved together? (1) 0.4°C (2) 0.2°C
(1) Interaction between Ox-pecker birds and Rhino (3) 0.6°C (4) 0.9°C
(2) Interaction between epiphytic orchids and trees 71. Mark the incorrect one w.r.t. UV-B
(3) Interaction between Tribolium and Trifolium (1) UV-B is almost completely absorbed by the
(4) Interaction between Ophrys and Colpa ozone layer
63. The science of exploring molecular, genetic and (2) It damages DNA
species level diversity for products of economic (3) It is associated with snow blindness
importance is called (4) It causes ageing of skin
(1) Bioprospecting (2) Biofortification 72. Ecologically the most relevant environmental factor
(3) Bioremediation (4) Biocoenosis that directly affects the rate of metabolism of a
species and decides its distribution is
64. Read the given statements carefully
(1) Temperature (2) Rainfall
a. Leaves of tall trees have drip tips to prevent
rainfall injury (3) Water (4) Light
b. Buttresses occur to provide support to tall plants 73. Nutrient rich top soil, synchronous autumn leaf fall
and 3-4 strata are features of a tropical deciduous
c. Most common tree species are Dipterocarpus forest and the characteristic plants are
and Hopea
(1) Diospyros, Tectona, Shorea
These statements are concerned with
(2) Tectona, Shorea, Dipterocarpus
(1) Tropical rain forest
(3) Laguncularia, Butea, Acacia
(2) Temperate broad leaf forest (4) Prosopis, Boswallia, Cenchrus
(3) Temperate coniferous forest 74. Match the following
(4) Tropical decidious forest Column-I Column-II
65. Warm blooded animals living in colder areas have Type of interaction Organism
shorter extremities than the animals of warmer
a. Proto-cooperation (i) Lantana and
areas is explained by
Pteridophytes
(1) Allen’s rule (2) Bergman’s rule b. Commensalism (ii) Sea anemone and
(3) Gloger’s rule (4) Rensch’s rule clown fish
66. Chaenocephalus and Trematomus live comfortably c. Amensalism (iii) Cuckoo and crow
even in extreme cold due to presence of d. Parasitism (iv) Hermit crab and
(1) Antifreeze solutes in body fluids sea anemone
(2) Ice nucleating proteins (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Chaperonins (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Proline and sorbitol 75. Various stages of primary succession in a newly
67. The relationship between oxpecker and rhinoceros is formed fresh water pond are given
(1) +, – (2) +, + a. Scrub stage
b. Reed swamp stage
(3) 0, – (4) 0, +
c. Submerged plant stage
68. Verhulst – Pearl logistic population growth is
represented by d. Phytoplanktons
e. Forest
!"
(1) #" f. Floating plant stage
!$ g. Marsh meadow stage
!" !# "" Arrange these according to their sequence of
(2) $" # $
!% % # & occurrence
(3) Nt = N0e rt
(1) d, c, f, b, a, g, e (2) d, b, c, f, g, a, e
(4) Nt = N0 + I + B – E – D (3) d, f, c, b, e, g, a (4) d, c, f, b, g, a, e
69. Organisms living in areas which experience brief 76. Find the odd one out w.r.t. occupation by many
summer (below 10°C) and prolonged winter are species
(1) Hekistothermal (2) Mesothermal (1) Trophic level (2) Guild
(3) Microthermal (4) Megathermal (3) Niche (4) Habitat
77. Many specialized and narrow niches are found in 85. A simplified model of phosphorus cycle is given
(1) Climax community below, select the correct set from the options to fill
at position A, B and C
(2) Seral community
!"#$%&'( /
(3) Intermediate community
(4) Transitional community ) 34.25'
0+..'(-12,,
78. How many climatic zones are present on high
mountains of sub-tropical region? *"+,-$",%.+"#
(1) 3 (2) 4 6%#-"11

!
(3) 2 (4) 1
(1) A – Producer, B – Detritus, C – Rock minerals
79. The soil transported through the effect of wind is
(2) A – Detritus, B – Producer, C – Rock minerals
(1) Colluvial soil (2) Terai soil
(3) A – Rock minerals, B – Detritus, C – Producer
(3) Eolian soil (4) Alluvial soil (4) A – Detritus, B – Rock minerals, C – Consumer
80. When you study the composition of living 86. World’s the most problematic aquatic weed is
organisms, carbon constitutes ________% of dry
(1) Salvinia (2) Azolla
weight of organisms and is next only to water
(3) Eichhornia (4) Vallisneria
(1) 71 (2) 49
87. Trichoderma is a soil fungus used in biological
(3) 52 (4) 36 control of other fungi as it
81. If in a pond there are 50 lotus plants last year and (1) Eats other fungi
through reproduction 10 new plants added, taking
(2) Produces allochemicals
the current population to 60, so the birth rate is
________ offspring per lotus per year (3) Act as parasite on others
(4) Inhibits glycan synthesis
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.8
88. The association of sea anemone and clown fish is
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.6
(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism
82. Select the incorrect stage w.r.t. suspend
(3) Protocooperation (4) Competition
(1) Diapause in phytoplanktons
89. Mark the correct statement (w.r.t. Connell’s
(2) Endospores in bacteria elegant field experiments)
(3) Seed dormancy (1) Chathamalus dominates the intertidal area
(4) Hibernation (2) Competitively superior but small barnacle
excludes the inferior and large barnacle
83. Soil porosity is maximum in
(3) Study of rocky intertidal communities of the
(1) Sandy soil (2) Loam soil American Pacific Coast
(3) Clay soil (4) Laterite soil (4) Balanus excludes the Chathamalus from
intertidal zone
84. A population following Verhulst -Pearl Logistic
growth 90. Desert lizards
(1) Will exhibit J-shape curve (1) Lack physiological as well as behavioural
adaptations
(2) Is characterised by an asymptote when it
(2) Move into shade if the ambient temperature
reaches the carrying capacity
starts decreasing
(3) Shows a sudden crash after reaching the
(3) Bask in the sun and absorb heat when their
asymptote body temperature is below the comfort zone
!" (4) Manage to keep their body temperature fairly
(4) Will express as #"
!$ constant by physiological means
91. If there is an increase in external temperature, then 97. Choose the odd one w.r.t trophic level
which of the following graph is applicable for 99%
animals and nearly all plants? (1) Zooplanktons (2) Tadpole
(3) Grasshopper (4) Phytoplanktons
#$)*$%&#+%$
#$)*$%&#+%$ 98. Behavioural means to cope environmental
!"#$%"&'(
!"#$%"&'(
variations include
(1) (2) (1) Secretion of solid urine by Kangaroo rat
!"#$%&'( !"#$%&'( (2) Increase in red blood cell production at high

)#$*+$%'#,%$ )#$*+$%'#,%$
altitude
(3) Desert lizard bask in sunlight when temperature
#$)*$%&#+%$
#$)*$%&#+%$
!"#$%"&'(
!"#$%"&'( drops below the comfort zone
(3) (4) (4) Leaves reduced to spines in Opuntia

99. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. succession
!"#$%&'( !"#$%&'(
)#$*+$%'#,%$ )#$*+$%'#,%$ Characteristics Seral stage Climax stage
92. If 8 individuals in a laboratory population of 40 fruit
(1) Ecological niches Few Many
flies died during a specified time interval, say two
weeks, the death rate in the population during this (2) Efficiency of High Low
period is energy use
! ! " (3) Nutrient Low High

(1) (2) conservation
"# $ #$
(4) Community Simple Complex
! " !" organisation
(3) (4)
#$ % # $
100. Find correct match w.r.t. asexual / vegetative
93. In a particular climatic condition, decomposition reproduction
rate is slower if detritus is rich in
Column-I Column-II
(1) Nitrogen and water soluble substances
a. Terror of Bengal (i) Gootee
(2) Chitin and nitrogen
b. Bladder wort (ii) Offset
(3) Lignin and chitin
c. Pomegranate (iii) Turion
(4) Water soluble substances and lignin
94. Vertical distribution of different species occupying d. Marchantia (iv) Gemmae
different levels is best seen in (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) Deciduous forest (2) Grassland (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Tropical rain forest (4) Savanna 101. Mammals of colder areas generally have shorter
95. A stage of suspended development under extremities in comparison to the tropical mammals.
unfavourable conditions seen in many zooplankton This statement comes under the
species is
(1) Allen’s rule (2) Jordan’s rule
(1) Dormancy (2) Diapause
(3) Bergman’s rule (4) Gloger’s rule
(3) Aestivation (4) Hibernation
102. Which statement is incorrect w.r.t. epiphytes?
96. MacArthur found that closely related species of
warblers living on the tree shows (1) Commonly found in tropical rainforest
(1) Competitive exclusion (2) Having hygroscopic root
(2) Coexistence (3) Velamen tissues are present in root
(3) Interference competition (4) Show + , + relationship in population
(4) Competition release interaction
103. Consider the following statements w.r.t. biomes 107. A person who is working as a disc jockey (DJ)
and select correct options might suffer from
a. Hopea, woody climbers and epiphytes are (1) Psychological and physiological disorder
common in tropical rain forests.
(2) Sleeplessness, increased heart beating, altered
b. Coastal biomes are detritus based biomes. breathing pattern
c. The soil of tropical rain forest has high base (3) Permanent damage of hearing ability in long
content. run
d. Tropical deciduous biomes have highest
standing crop among all biomes.
108. Which of the following is correct with respect to
(1) a & b (2) a & c
ozone?
(3) b, c & d (4) a, c & d
(1) Good ozone – Lowest altitude
104. When environmental resources/responses are
limiting, the growth curve shown by a population (2) Bad ozone – Troposphere
will be (3) Good ozone – Troposphere
6
(4) Bad ozone – Higher altitude
-./012#(.3 !"
$%&" 109. Ecology is basically concerned with how many
!*34(#5%+", !#
(1) levels of biological organisation?
(1) Five (2) Four
'()*%+#,
(3) Six (4) Three
6 110. Given is a representation of age pyramid for a
-./012#(.3 #
!6%7%" human population
(2) !*34(#5%+", !"
$%&" "
"
!# !
# 6
'()*%+#,
6
#
-./012#(.3 !" !6%7%" "
$%&" " !
(3) !*34(#5%+", !# # 6
Find the correct statement w.r.t. this pyramid
(1) It explains growing population in a developing
'()*%+#,
!" country
6 $%&"
!# (2) It explains the stable population of under
-./012#(.3
(4) !*34(#5%+", developed country
(3) It explains the stable population of a developed
'()*%+#,
country
105. All given features are characteristic to parasites, (4) It explains negative growth or a declining
except population
(1) Host specificity 111. What is the concentration of salt (measured as
(2) Loss of unnecessary sense organs and salinity in parts per thousand) in inland waters?
presence of some special structures like (1) Less than 5% (2) 30-35%
suckers (3) More than 5% (4) More than 10%
(3) Low reproductive potential
112. Population density
(4) Complex life cycle pattern
(1) Measured as biomass is generally most
106. Competition is necessary for/to
appropriate
(1) Symbiosis
(2) For tiger is estimated usually by total numbers
(2) Extinction of biodiversity
(3) Large number of niches formation (3) Is measured necessarily as relative densities
(4) Increase the fitness of one species in the (4) Measured as total number is not easily
presence of another species adaptable measure for larger population
113. Match the column-I with column-II 118. Mark the incorrect statement (w.r.t. humus)
Column I Column II (1) Dark coloured amorphous substance
a. Regulate (i) Endotherms
(2) Highly resistant to microbial action
b. Conform (ii) Nearly all plants
(3) Reservoir of nutrients
c. Diapause (iii) Zooplanktons
(4) Cannot be degraded further
d. Suspend (iv) Aestivation
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) 119. Decomposition of detritus is favoured by all the
given below factors, except
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
114. Fill in the blanks with correct options. (1) Anaerobiosis
(2) Detritus rich in nitrogen and sugars
Adaptation is morphological, !"# , behavioural
attribute that enables the organism to survive and (3) Warm and moist environment
!""# in its habitat. Many adaptations have (4) Detritus rich in reserve carbohydrates
evolved over a long evolutionary time and are 120. Consider the following four statements (a–d), select
!"""# the correct option stating which ones are true (T)
fixed.
Options : or false (F).
(1) (i) Genetical (ii) Move (iii) Physiologically a. Organisms at each trophic level depends on
(2) (i) Physiological (ii) Reproduce (iii) Genetically those at higher trophic level for their energy
(3) (i) Reproductive (ii) Synthesize food demands.
(iii) Morphologically b. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living
(4) (i) Reproductive (ii) Move (iii) Genetically material at a particular time called standing
115. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched? crop.
(1) Allen’s rule – Mammals with shorter c. Each trophic level has a certain mass of non-
ears and limbs in living material at a particular time called standing
colder areas state.
(2) Expanding population – High number of d. The number of trophic levels in a grazing food
individuals at pre- chain is not restricted.
reproductive stage
Options
(3) Population density – (B + I) < (D + E)
increasing a b c d
(4) Sigmoid curve – Logistic growth (1) T T F F

116. Find the odd one out with respect to population (2) F T F T
interaction where at least one individual is
(3) T F T F
benefitted.
(4) F T T F
(1) Predation (2) Amensalism
(3) Parasitism (4) Commensalism 121. Which one of the following statement is wrong
about greater biological diversity in tropics?
117. According to Gause's ‘Competitive Exclusion
(1) Tropical latitudes have remained relatively
Principle’ two closely related species competing for
undisturbed for millions of years
the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and
(2) Tropical environments are less seasonal and
the competitively inferior one will be eliminated
relatively more constant and predictable
eventually and superior will survive. This is
(3) Less rainfall and highly fertile soil
countered by which of the following principle?
(4) More solar energy is available
(1) Connell’s elegant field experiment
122. Mycorrhizal association plays important role in
(2) “Resource partitioning” by MacArthur which of the following bio-geochemical cycle?
(3) Natural selection theory (1) Carbon cycle (2) Sulphur cycle
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Nitrogen cycle (4) Phosphorus cycle
123. A stage of suspended development shown by 129. In the given diagram, organisms showing ‘A’ type
zooplankton species under unfavourable condition of response
in lakes and ponds is called +
!"#$%"&'('$)$'
(1) Hibernation (2) Aestivation
(3) Diapause (4) Regulation
,
124. Examine the figure given below showing biome
distribution with respect to annual temperature and
precipitation and select the correct option out of 1
to 4.
!"#$%#$$&#'%(")*"+#(&+"%,-./
!"# !$# !"#$%&'()($*$(

(1) Are evolutionarily successful
!%#
(2) Can maintain thermal and osmotic balance
(3) Are 99% plants and animals
(4) Show homoestasis
130. Organisms showing logistic growth curve do not
!&# have which one of the feature?
(1) Geometric growth of a population
!"#$%#$$&#'%()"*+(+,#,+-$%.*/0
(1) (D) – Dipterocarpus, Silver fir (2) Lives under limited resource condition
(2) (B) – Permafrost regions (3) More realistic growth curve
(3) (C) – Quercus lanuginose (4) Growth form is characterised by function of
(4) (A) – Well developed stratification carrying capacity (K)
125. The following population interactions (a & b) 131. Match the following (column I with column II)
between species A and B are called as Column I Column II
a. , 0 (Population (Example)
interaction)
b. – –
a. Commensalism (i) Presence of lice
(1) (a) Mutualism, (b) Predation
among hairs of human
(2) (a) Commensalism, (b) Competition
b. Parasitism (ii) Mycorrhizae
(3) (a) Parasitism, (b) Competition
c. Mutualism (iii) Barnacles growing on
(4) (a) Commensalism, (b) Amensalism
the back of whale
126. In more common type of population growth curve
d. Predation (iv) Prickly pear cactus
(1) Environmental resistance begins to operate to
and Cactoblastis
enhance the exponential phase
(2) An equilibrium is reached when the size of (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
population approaches the carrying capacity of (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
the area 132. Mark the mis-matched pair
(3) Equilibrium is never reached in population size (1) Zooplanktons – Diapause
(4) Population grows well beyond the carrying (2) Bamboo – Breed once in their life time
capacity of the area
(3) Pelagic fishes – Produce a large number of
127. Find odd one out w.r.t. population interactions small-sized offspring
(1) Crocodile bird and crocodile (4) Mango trees – Can grow in temperate
(2) Convolvulus and wheat countries
(3) Barnacles and whale 133. Many species of small plants (herbs and shrubs)
growing in forests are adapted to photosynthesise
(4) Sea anemone and hermit crab
optimally under very low light conditions because
128. Tropical rain forest is characterised by
(1) They take more water from soil
(1) High leaching, low base contents in soil and
(2) Light is a limiting factor
abundant epiphytes
(3) They are constantly overshadowed by tall
(2) Buttress, high leaching and high base content canopied trees
(3) Hopea, Dipterocarpus, Teak and Deodar (4) Availability of light on land is not linked that of
(4) 23-27°C, 2000-3500 cm annual precipitation temperature
134. Which of the following organisms do not have 140. a. Unlike carbon cycle, there is no respiratory
mechanism to maintain internal temperature? release of phosphorus into atmosphere.
(1) Gymnosperms (2) Birds b. The natural reservoir of phosphorus is
atmosphere.
(3) Mammals (4) Both (1) & (2)
c. Herbivores and other animals obtain
135. a. Many adaptations have evolved over a long phosphorus from plants.
evolutionary time and are genetically fixed.
d. Gaseous exchanges of phosphorus between
b. Kangaroo rat in North American desert is organism and environment are negligible.
capable of meeting its water requirements by
(1) Statements a & d are incorrect
internal fat oxidation.
(2) Statements a & b are incorrect
c. Altitude sickness is an example of
morphological adaptation. (3) Statements a & d are correct
d. Mammals from colder climate generally have (4) Statements a, c & d are correct
shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. 141. Which one is of lower level in a expanding
population?
(1) Statement a, b & d are incorrect
(1) Biotic potential
(2) Statement b, c & d are correct
(2) Environmental resistance
(3) Statement c is incorrect
(3) Carrying capacity
(4) Statement c & d are correct
(4) Fertility rate
136. If 8 individuals in a laboratory population of 40 fruit-
flies died during a specified time interval, say a 142. Species confined to particular region and not found
anywhere else, is known as
week, the death rate will be ____ individuals per
fruitfly per week. (1) Keystone species (2) Endemic species
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (3) Allopatric species (4) Endangered species
(3) 5 (4) 0.4 143. !!!!!!"!!!!! and !!!!!!"!!!!! are some of the problems
137. In nature, a given habitat has enough resources to that have come in the wake of the Green
support a maximum possible number, beyond Revolution.
which no further growth is possible. This limit is (1) (A) Water logging, (B) Bioprospecting
known as (2) (A) Bioprospecting, (B) Soil salinity
(1) Environmental resistance (3) (A) Water logging, (B) Soil salinity
(2) Intrinsic rate of natural increase (4) (A) Bioprospecting, (B) Soil erosion
(3) Carrying capacity 144. The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from
(4) Exponential growth the ground to the top of the atmosphere is
measured in terms of
138. Interaction between sea anemone that has stinging
tentacles and clown fish that lives among them, is (1) Mega pascal unit (2) Svedberg coefficient
an example of (3) Dobson units (4) Decibels
(1) Amensalism (2) Commensalism 145. Process of decomposition is favoured by
(3) Parasitism (4) Predation (1) High temperature and anaerobiosis
139. Select incorrect match w.r.t. population (2) Cool and dry environment
interactions where ‘+’ sign for beneficial interaction, (3) Aerobic condition and low temperature
‘–’ sign for detrimental and 0 for neutral interaction.
(4) Warm and moist environment
Species A Species B Name of 146. Amount of carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium
interaction etc present in the soil at any time, is referred to as
(1) (+) (–) Predation (1) Standing crop
(2) (+) (–) Parasitism (2) Standing quality
(3) (+) (0) Commensalism (3) Standing state
(4) (+) (–) Amensalism (4) More than one option is correct
147. Ecology is basically concerned with four levels of 154. Which of the following organisms are abundant in
biological organisation, which one of the following the bottom of the pond?
is correct representation?
(1) Zooplanktons and actinomycetes
(1) Population Ecosystem Biome Landscape
(2) Bacteria, fungi and flagellates
(2) Communities Population Ecosystem
Biome (3) Phytoplanktons and flagellates
(3) Organisms Population Communities Biome (4) Green algae, actinomycetes and flagellates
(4) Species Ecosystem Communities 155. The type of population interaction exhibited by
Biome visiting flamingos and resident fishes in South
148. Which group of organisms is not able to maintain American Lakes, is also shown by
a constant internal environment, hence called (1) Sparrow eating any seed
conformers?
(2) Cuckoo and crow
(1) Mammals
(2) Bacteria, birds and lower plants (3) Abingdon tortoise and goats in Galapagos
Island
(3) Majority of animals and nearly all plants
(4) Birds (4) Sea anemone and clown fish
149. If in a pond there are 20 lotus plants last year and 156. All birds and mammals
through reproduction 8 new plants are added, (1) Avoid stress by escaping in time only
taking the current population to 28. The birth rate
is as (2) Their body temperature changes with the
ambient temperature
(1) 0.04 offspring per lotus per year
(2) 0.4 offspring per lotus per day (3) Can regulate but only over a limited range of
environmental conditions, beyond which they
(3) 0.28 offspring per lotus per day
simply conform
(4) 0.4 offspring per lotus per year
(4) Maintain homeostasis by physiological or
150. The relationship of Yucca and Pronuba and that of
behavioural regulation
clown fish and sea anemone are regarded ______
and _______ respectively. 157. During the past century, the temperature of Earth
(1) Mutualism, commensalism has increased by ____, most of it during the last
three decades.
(2) Amensalism, commensalism
(3) Symbiosis, protocooperation (1) 6°C (2) 0.6°C
(4) Mutualism, predation (3) 0.8°C (4) 7°C
151. The concept of Joint Forest Management was 158. The salt concentration measured as salinity in
introduced by the Government of India in parts per thousand in inland waters is
(1) 1974 (2) 1980 (1) < 5% (2) 30-35%
(3) 1987 (4) 1990
(3) 50% (4) > 100%
152. Fitness of one species (measured in terms of
intrinsic rate of increase) is significantly lower in 159. The given age pyramids labelled by A and B for
the presence of another species during the interaction human population represent
between %&'()*+,*&-./(01+
(1) Barnacles and whale
(2) Abingdon tortoise and goats
2+,*&-./(01+
%*+)*+,*&-./(01+
(3) Ophrys and bee
!"# !$#
(4) Sea anemone and clown fish
(1) (A) Positive population, (B) Stable population
153. Under adverse conditions many zooplankton
species in lakes are known to enter a stage of (2) (A) Stable population, (B) Declining population
suspended development, called as (3) (A) Stable population, (B) Expanding population
(1) Regulate (2) Conform (4) (A) Growing population, (B) Declining
(3) Diapause (4) Migrate population
160. What is correctly explained using the given age (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
pyramid? reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) A stable population, where post reproductive statements, then mark (4).
individuals are minimum 1. A : Physiological and behavioural means can allow
(2) A growing population, where young individuals the organism to maintain homeostasis.
are maximum R : Organisms which show this phenomena are
(3) A declining population, where post reproductive called conformers.
individuals are maximum 2. A : A small pond is an example of incomplete
(4) A population showing negative growth ecosystem.
161. Negative growth is represented by which of the R : Decomposers are absent.
following age pyramid graph? 3. A : Zone of manipulation/ Restoration is
(1) Urn shape (2) Bell shape characteristic of biosphere reserves
(3) Triangular shape (4) Both (1) & (2) R : Biosphere reserves are supported by local
162. An urn shaped age pyramid represents / indicates tribes in transition zone
(1) Positive growth in population 4. A : Humus largely stays in top soil
(2) A low percentage of young individuals R : It is only slightly soluble in water
(3) High percentage of young individuals 5. A : Environment is believed to be holistic in nature
(4) High birth rate R : All environmental factors are integrated within
163. Which statement stands true for an urn shaped limits of time and space
pyramid? 6. A : Tropics show great diversity.
(1) This is shown by a mature stable population R : Tropical environment show seasonal variations
(2) This has a very high proportion of pre- and unpredictable.
reproductive individuals
7. A : Soil composition, grain size and aggregation
(3) This has a very small number of pre- determine the percolation and water holding
reproductive individuals capacity of the soils.
(4) This pyramid has least number of reproductive R : The nature and properties of soil in different
individuals places vary.
164. In Urn shaped age pyramid of populations, the
8. A : Many fish thrive in Antarctic waters where the
number of
temperature is always below zero.
(1) Pre-reproductive individuals is maximum
R : Antifreeze solutes are present in the body fluid
(2) Pre-reproductive individuals is minimum of these animals.
(3) Reproductive individuals is minimum followed
9. A : As we climb a hill, nausea, fatigue and heart
by post-reproductive individuals
palpitations occur.
(4) Pre-reproductive individuals is maximum
R : At hill top atmospheric pressure is low.
followed by reproductive individuals
165. Which of the following is not a characteristic of 10. A : Irrigation without proper drainage of water leads
tropical rain forest? to waterlogging in the soil.
(1) Low base content due to leaching R : Waterlogging draws salt to the surface of the
soil.
(2) Leaf drip tips
(3) Synchronous leaf fall 11. A : Predation is a conduit for energy transfer
across trophic levels.
(4) Highest standing crop among all Indian biomes
R : It does not help in controlling prey population.
SECTION - B 12. A : Humus serves as a reservoir of nutrients.
Assertion - Reason Type Questions R : It is colloidal in nature.
In the following questions, a statement of assertion 13. A : Organisms which cannot maintain thermal and
(A) is followed by a statement of reason (R) osmotic balance with environment are called
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the conformers.
reason is the correct explanation of the R : Thermoregulation is energetically expensive
assertion, then mark (1). process, especially for large animals.
!" !" !
Chapter 12
Biodiversity and Conservation
7. Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM) is

SECTION - A situated at
Objective Type Questions (1) Bhopal (2) Jaipur
1. Term biodiversity was utilized to describe the (3) Bastar (4) Dehradun
combined diversity at all the levels of biological
organisation by 8. The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to
(1) Robert May (2) Von Humboldt (1) Bird flu virus infection
(3) Wilson (4) David Tilman’s (2) Non-availability of the food
2. Global species diversity and land area covered by (3) Over-exploitation by humans
India with respect to world is
(4) Increased number of predatory birds
(1) 12%, 7% (2) 2.4%, 9%
9. Amazonian rain forest in South America is home to
(3) 8.1%, 2.4% (4) 4%, 3%
(1) 3000 species of birds
3. Which of the following factor has not aided in high
species diversity of tropics? (2) 1300 species of fishes
(1) Less seasonal variation promoting niche (3) 40,000 species of amphibians
generalization (4) 427 species of mammals
(2) Availability of more solar energy
10. Diversity between the two communities is called
(3) Pest pressure as
(4) Less migration
(1) diversity (2) diversity
4. Anthroprogenic extinction is called
(3) diversity (4) diversity
(1) Fifth mass extinction
11. Habitat fragmentation
(2) Fourth mass extinction
(3) Sixth mass extinction (1) Increases core area
(4) Seventh mass extinction (2) Is a part of evil quartet
5. Amazon rain forests are considered as lungs of the (3) Increases diversity
planet as they contribute of the total
(4) Increases species richness
oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere.
(1) 10% (2) 15% 12. Choose the incorrect statement regarding patterns
of biodiversity
(3) 20% (4) 30%
6. Introduction of alien species into new area possess (1) Little biodiversity at the pole
a threat to extinction of indigenous species due to (2) It shows latitudinal and altitudinal gradient
(1) Their high nutrient requirement (3) It increases as we move from Columbia to
(2) Their symbiotic relationship Greenland via New York
(3) Absence of its natural predator (4) Very harsh conditions bring about reduction in
(4) More intraspecific competition it
358 Biodiversity and Conservation Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
13. In a stable community 21. Select an incorrect match

(1) High productivity with large variation from year (1) Biodiversity Bill – 2002
to year can be seen
(2) Forest (conservation) Act – 1972
(2) Must be resistant to invasion by alien species
(3) World Summit – 2002
(3) Having high species diversity that not show the
resistant or resilence to occasional (4) Wild Life Protection Act – 1972
disturbances 22. Silent valley in kerela is a National Reserve and
(4) More input of nutrients is their in reservoir pool is famous for
14. The IUCN red list (2004) documents the extinction (1) Endemic reptiles and Pteridophytes
of 784 species in the last 500 years. The one (2) Endemic mammals and Bryophytes
which is not included among recent extinctions is
(3) Endemic birds and Gymnosperms
(1) Pigmy hog (2) Steller’s sea cow
(4) Endemic amphibians and Bryophytes
(3) Thylacine (4) Quagga
23. Select a correct statement from the given
15. Match column I with column II
Column I Column II (1) Estimates of prokaryotic diversity are based
upon biochemical criteria
a. Asiatic wild ass (i) Silent valley
(2) Mycoplasma has 10–150 genes
b. Critically endangered (ii) Cupressus
cashmeriana (3) There are about 10,000 strains of rice
c. Vulnerable (iii) Berberis nilghiriensis (4) Genetic diversity helps in formation of ecads
d. Lion tailed macaque (iv) Rann of Kutch 24. Indian biodiversity has a higher magnitude in
_________hot spots
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (1) One (2) Two
16. The diversity which helps in process of speciation (3) Three (4) Four
and formation of ecotype is 25. Private ownership rights are provided for
(1) Species diversity (2) Genetic diversity conservation strategy in
(3) Ecosystem diversity (4) Community diversity (1) Wildlife Sancturies
17. Zone of degraded area of a biosphere reserve (2) National park
which is selected for restoration to a near natural (3) Hot spot
form is included in
(4) Biosphere reserve
(1) Natural zone (2) Buffer zone
26. Given are the available data for number of birds
(3) Manipulation zone (4) Core zone for different geographical areas, where
18. The water supplying capacity of soil is indicated by __________is the data for India
(1) Field capacity + PWP (1) 1200 (2) 1300
!"#$% &'('&")* (3) 1400 (4) 105
(2)
+,+ 27. Species-Area relationship was expressed
(3) Field capacity – PWP numerically and graphically by
(4) Field capacity × PWP (1) Hofmeister (2) Tilman
19. Which of these is promoted by Earth summit? (3) Humboldt (4) Robert constanza
(1) CBD (2) PAR 28. Taxol is an anticancerous alcohol obtained from
(3) UNEP (4) MAB the _________ of Taxus
20. Indian government has recomended_______ as a (1) Root (2) Seed
useful plant in social forestry (3) Fruit (4) Bark
(1) Lupinus arcticus 29. One of the given organisms is not an example of
(2) Parthenium argentatum recent extinction
(3) Leucaena leucocephala (1) Pisaster (2) Quagga
(4) Prosopis chilensis (3) Caspian tiger (4) Thylacine
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Biodiversity and Conservation 359
30. Due to its contribution towards regulation of 36. Select a correct match
climate and high biodiversity____________ is
(1) Mycoplasma – 100 genes
considered 'Lungs of planet'.
(2) Virus – 450 genes
(1) Thar desert
(3) Drosophila – 13,000 genes
(2) Eastern Himalaya
(4) Oryza – 20,000 genes
(3) Western Ghats
37. There are ___________ National parks and
(4) Amazonian Rain Forest
_________ biosphere reserves in India
31. Find out a correct statement w.r.t. 'evil quartet
(1) 90, 448 (2) 448, 14
(1) Habitat fragmentation reduces the edge area (3) 448, 90 (4) 90, 14
and increases the core area
38. Select correct statement w.r.t. Biodiversity
(2) Habitat loss is the major of evil quartet
(1) Biodiversity increases from low to high
(3) Parthenium argentatum is a exotic species latitudes
and is harmful for ecosystem
(2) Trophical environments are more seasonal and
(4) Over exploitation resulted in extinction of water can reduce niche specialisation
hyacinth from India
(3) Paradox of enrichment favours growth,
32. Which of the given set belongs to endangered biodiversity and speciation simultaneously
category?
(4) Berberis nilghiriensis and Pigmy hog are
(1) Bentinckia, Cupressus critically endangered species
(2) Ailurus, Bentinckia 39. One of the evil's quartret which leads to
insularization effect is
(3) Bentinckia, Antelope
(1) Overexploitation
(4) Sus salvanius, Berberis
(2) Introduction of alien species
33. Degree of endemism and habitat loss determines
the ____ (3) Habitat destruction
(1) Hot spots (2) National Park (4) Habitat fragmentation
(3) Wildlife Sancturies (4) Biosphere reserve 40. There is recognized an ‘Evil Quartet’ responsible for
loss of biodiversity, where the most important evil
34. India has 10 biogeographical regions where the is
largest area is
(1) Coextinctions
(1) Eastern himalaya (2) Western ghat
(2) Habitat destruction
(3) Deccan penninsula (4) Nicobar island
(3) Over exploitation
35. Match the column I and column II (4) Introduction of alien species
Column I Column II 41. The greatest biodiversity on earth is for
a. Mitigate climatic (i) Amrita Devi (1) Western Ghats
change (2) Indo Burma region
b. Appiko movement (ii) IPCC, 1988 (3) Forest of North East Himalayas
c. NFPI (iii) Pandurang Hegde (4) Amazonian forest
d. Wildlife protection (iv) 67% forest 42. The phenomena of reduction in species diversity in
act cover in hilly area small patches is called
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (1) Insularization
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) Resilience
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (3) Fragmentation
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) Destruction
43. Mark the incorrect one w.r.t. Exotic species 50. Which of the following is a correct set of critically
(1) Eupatorium has invaded forests in the north- endangered plant and animal respectively?
east replacing Teak (1) Cupressus cashmeriana ; Black buck
(2) Nile perch, a small predator fish introduced in (2) Bentinckia nicobarica ; Pigmy hog
lake Victoria of East America (3) Berberis nilghiriensis ; Pigmy hog
(3) Water hyacinth was introduced in India for its (4) Nepenthes khasiana ; Red panda
beautiful flowers and shape of leaves
51. Select the incorrect pair w.r.t. recent extinctions
(4) Lantana camara has replaced native species in
many forests of UP and MP (1) Dodo – Mauritius
44. Activities like research and education are allowed (2) Quagga – Africa
in (3) Thylacine – Australia
(1) Natural zone and buffer zone (4) Steller’s Sea Cow – Indonesia
(2) Buffer zone 52. Select the incorrect sequence w.r.t. global
(3) Natural or core zone biodiversity
(4) Both core and transition zone (1) Angiosperm > Fungi > Algae
45. Mark the incorrect match. (2) Fishes > Birds > Reptiles
(3) Reptiles > Birds > Mammals
(1) Hot spot – Norman Myers
(4) Fungi > Algae > Mosses
(2) Rivet popper hypothesis – Paul Ehrlich
(3) IUCN red list (2004) – Documents of
extinction of 784 (1) National forest policy – 1988
plant species (2) Environment (protection) Act – 1986
(4) Wild Life Institute of India – Bhopal (3) Air (prevention and control of pollution)
46. Fig can maintain community structure during food Act – 1982
scarcity in tropical rain forest. These act as (4) Water (prevention and control of pollution)
(1) Exotic species (2) Pioneer species Act – 1974
54. Biomes with very sparse vegetation, high rate of
(3) Edge species (4) Key stone species
evapotranspiration and albedo are
47. Mark the incorrect pair
(1) Tropical rain forests
(1) Biodiversity bill – 2000 (2) Tropical deciduous forest
(2) Wild life (Protection) act – 1972 (3) Coastal biomes
(3) National forest policy – 1988 (4) Desert biomes
(4) Forest (Conservation) act – 1980 55. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. biodiversity
48. Which of the given is the major cause of species (1) Increases from high to low latitudes
extinction? (2) Conditions favouring growth induce biodiversity
(1) Pollution (2) Coextinction and speciation
(3) Habitat loss (4) Alien species (3) Habitat destruction or loss is the primary
cause for the loss of biodiversity
49. Consider the given facts w.r.t. biosphere reserves
and find the correct one (4) Whooping crane and blue whale are more
susceptible to extinction due to fixed habitat
a. 14 in India and migratory routes
b. Tribal settlements are allowed in core zone 56. All given are included among 34 hot spots of world,
c. Meant to conserve a specific animal species except
d. High species diversity with high degree of (1) Indo-Burma
habitat loss (2) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
(1) Only (a) (2) Both (a) & (b) (3) Himalaya
(3) Both (a) & (d) (4) All, except (c) (4) Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar
57. World Summit on sustainable development was 65. How many species of birds are present in India?
held in 2002 in (1) 1,400 (2) 1,200
(1) Rio de Janeiro (2) Montreal (3) 105 (4) 56
(3) Kyoto (4) Johannesburg 66. Mark the correct option (w.r.t. biodiversity hot
spots)
58. How many genetically different strains of rice are
found in India? (1) Ex-situ conservation
(1) Less than 50,000 (2) 1000 (2) Cover more than 2% of the earth’s land area
(3) Regions with accelerated habitat loss
(3) More than 50,000 (4) 3,00,000
(4) High frequency of ubiquitous species
59. The historic convention on biological diversity
“The Earth Summit” was held in 67. Read the following statement carefully.
(1) Canada (2) Johannesburg ‘Amazon forest is estimated to produce, through

photosynthesis, 20 percent of the total oxygen in
(3) Kyoto (4) Rio de Janeiro the earth’s atmosphere’.
60. Among vertebrates, maximum species diversity This is _______ aspect for conserving biodiversity.
belong to a taxon, known as (1) Narrowly utilitarian (2) Broadly utilitarian
(1) Fishes (2) Birds (3) Economic aspect (4) Ethical
(3) Mammals (4) Amphibians 68. Find odd one out w.r.t. invasive alien species
61. Out of the ‘Evil Quartet’ major cause of biodiversity (1) Prosopis cineraria (2) Clarias gariepinus
loss is (3) Lantana camara (4) Eichhornia
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation 69. The largely tropical Amazonian rain forest in South
(2) Over-exploitation America
(1) Produce 20% of the total O 2 in the earth’s
(3) Exotic species invasion
atmosphere
(4) Co-extinctions
(2) Has 3000 species of birds
62. The most important cause of biodiversity loss is (3) Has 378 species of fishes
(1) Habitat loss (4) Is home to 4000 species of plants
(2) Over exploitation 70. In the given diagram representing proportionate
number of species of major taxa of vertebrates.
(3) Alien species invasion
What does (A) and (B) represent?
(4) Co-extinction
63. The World summit on sustainable development held
in _______ in ______ . (Fill the gaps respectively !"#
by selecting the correct option).
(1) 2002, Johannesburg, South Africa
!$#
(2) 2002, Johannesburg, South America
(1) (A) Birds, (B) Reptiles
(3) 1992, Rio de Janerio, Brazil
(2) (A) Birds, (B) Amphibians
(4) 2002, Rio de Janerio, Brazil
(3) (A) Fishes, (B) Mammals
64. In-situ conservation (4) (A) Amphibians, (B) Reptiles
(1) Includes cryopreservation as well as sacred 71. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. broadly utilitarian
groves outside natural habitat reasons for saving biodiversity
(2) Protects whole ecosystem (1) Nutrient cycling, aesthetic pleasure
(3) Includes hot spots as well as wildlife safari (2) Crop pollination, control of soil erosion
parks (3) Climate regulation, biological pest control
(4) More than one option is correct (4) Industrial products, construction material
72. Which one of the following pair is wrongly 78. Which of the following ‘Evil Quartet’ was
matched? responsible for extinction of cichlid fishes in lake
Legislation Year Victoria?
(1) Environment (Protection) Act 1986 (1) Over-exploitation
(2) Air (Prevention and (2) Co-extinction
Control of Pollution) Act 1981 (3) Habitat loss
(3) Noise as an air pollution 1987 (4) Alien species invasion
(4) Water (Prevention and 79. Mark the correct option (w.r.t. recent extinctions)
Control of Pollution) Act 1984 (1) Whooping crane and Dodo
73. A person starts his journey from Rajasthan and (2) Caspian tiger and Steller’s Sea Cow
finally reached Meghalaya. So, from what type of
(3) Javan tiger and Giant Panda
biome he started his journey and his destination
has which type of biome? (4) Quagga and Bald Eagle
(1) Grassland Deciduous forest 80. Sacred groves and zoological parks help in
(2) Desert Tropical rain forest (1) In-situ and ex-situ conservation respectively
(3) Grassland Tropical rain forest (2) Ex-situ and in-situ conservation respectively
(4) Desert Deciduous forest (3) In-situ conservation only
74. With respect to biodiversity in India, examine the (4) Ex-situ conservation only
following statements and select the correct option. 81. Which of the following is the most important cause
(1) In terms of species diversity India’s share is driving animals and plants to extinction?
8.1% (1) Biological invasion
(2) India is one of the 12 mega-diversity countries (2) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(3) There are three biodiversity hotspots in India (3) Over-exploitation
(4) All of these (4) Co-extinctions
75. Using large outdoor plots, David Tilman confirmed 82. Which of the following is not an endangered plant
that in India?
(1) Higher biodiversity leads to increase in (1) Podophyllum (2) Nepenthes khasiana
productivity
(3) Blue Vanda (4) Artemesia
(2) High species diversity shows less year to year
83. Variation of genes within the species known as
variation in total biomass
genetic diversity plays an important role in all,
(3) Role of human being in maintaining ecosystem except
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Process of speciation
76. In May 2009, UNESCO added three biosphere (2) Formation of ecotypes
reserves from India in its list of biosphere
reserves. Which of the following was not included (3) Maintaining diversity at community level
in this list? (4) Promoting habitat diversification and r-selection
(1) Simplipal Biosphere Reserve 84. Which of these is not an in-situ conservation
(2) Manas Biosphere Reserve strategy of biodiversity?
(3) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve (1) Hotspots (2) Wildlife sanctuaries
(4) Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve (3) Sacred groves (4) Cryopreservation
77. What do you mean by bioprospecting? 85. Which of the following option represents the
(1) Biological analysis of living things to classify mis-matched pair?
them (1) Montreal Protocol – control the emission of
(2) Exploring molecular, genetic and species level ODS
diversity for products of economic importance (2) Environment (Protection) Act – 1986
(3) Exploring forests to identify diversity present (3) Catalytic converter – reducing emission of
there poisonous gases
(4) It is branch of biology which deals with (4) Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act –
prospect of conservation 1985
86. Mark the incorrect statement (w.r.t. Amazonian rain 92. Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are
forest) less seasonal, relatively more constant and
(1) Contributes 20% of the total oxygen predictable. Such constant environment promote
(2) Called as lungs of the planet (1) Deforestation
(3) Home to more than 40,000 species of plants (2) Mass extinctions
(4) Located in North America showing greatest (3) Over-exploitation

biodiversity on earth (4) Niche specialisation
87. Select endangered species 93. Ex-situ conservation methods include protective
(1) Bentinckia nicobarica maintenance of threatened species in
(2) Cupressus cashmeriana (1) Botanical gardens and hot spots
(3) Berberis nilghiriensis (2) National parks and seed banks

(3) Tissue culture and biosphere reserve
(4) All of these
(4) Wildlife safari parks and cryopreservation
88. Rivet popper hypothesis explains
94. David Tilman’s long term ecosystem experiments
(1) Effect of decrease in biodiversity on ecosystem
using outdoor plots explained that
(2) Main cause of biodiversity loss
(1) Decreased diversity contributed to more
(3) That within a region species richness increased species richness
with increasing area, but upto a certain limit
(2) Increased diversity contributed to higher
(4) Cause of mass extinction productivity
89. Five closely related species of warblers living on (3) Increased diversity contributed to less species
the same tree were able to avoid competition due richness
to
(4) Decreased diversity contributed to more
(1) Reducing the feeding efficiency of other productivity
species
95. Which of the following are the last refuges for a
(2) Competitive exclusion of species large number of rare and threatened plants in
(3) Competitive release of species Meghalaya?
(4) Behavioural differences in their foraging (1) Sacred groves (2) Botanical gardens
activities (3) Wildlife sanctuaries (4) Museums
90. Which one of the following statement is correct? 96. Select the correct option w.r.t. in-situ conservation
a. Habitat loss is primary cause of biodiversity (1) Zoological parks (2) Botanical gardens
loss that reduced forest covering to 14%.
(3) Wildlife safari parks (4) Sanctuaries
b. Over-exploitation leads to the extinction of
passenger pigeon. 97. The historic Convention on Biological Diversity held
in Rio de Janerio in 1992, called upon all nations
c. In India, the Air Act was amended in 1987 to to take appropriate measures for conservation of
include noise as an air pollutant.
biodiversity and sustainable utilisation of its
d. Montreal protocol become effective in 1989 to benefits is also known as
reduce the emissions of greenhouse gases.
(1) Montreal Protocol (2) Kyoto Protocol
(1) a, b & c (2) a, c & d
(3) Earth Summit (4) World Summit
(3) b & c (4) a & d 98. Select incorrect statement
91. The historic convention on biodiversity, called ‘Earth (1) Biodiversity decreases from lower to higher
Summit’ was
latitudes
(1) Held in 1992, in Rio de Janeiro (2) Intercommunity diversity is called -diversity
(2) Aimed to reduce ODS (3) Tropical environment is more seasonal, relatively
(3) Held to mitigate the global climatic changes more constant and predictable
(4) More than one option is correct (4) Biodiversity is moderate in temperate regions
99. Which of the following group represents exotic 105. In general, loss of biodiversity in a region may lead
species? to
(1) Glycyrrhiza and Parthenium (1) Increase in plant production
(2) Eichhornia crassipes and Nile perch (2) Decreased variability in certain ecosystem
(3) Thylacine and Dodo processes such as plant productivity
(4) Podophyllum and Blue Vanda (3) Increase in species richness
100. Match the following (4) Lowered resistance to environmental

perturbations such as drought
Column I Column II
106. Which of the following is not a part of ‘Evil
a. Tiger (i) Khangchendzonga Quartet’?
National Park
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
b. Lion (ii) Kaziranga National Park
(2) Alien species invasion
c. Rhino (iii) Gir National Park
(3) Over-exploitation
d. Snow (iv) Ranthambore National Park
Leopard (4) Co-evolution
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) SECTION - B

(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) Assertion - Reason Type Questions
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) In the following questions, a statement of assertion
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)
101. The number of biosphere reserves, national parks (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
and wildlife sanctuaries in India are respectively reason is the correct explanation of the
(1) 14, 98, 500 (2) 14, 90, 448 assertion, then mark (1).
(3) 22, 92, 498 (4) 16, 88, 462 (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
102. Mark the correct matched pair. assertion, then mark (2).
(1) Ex situ conservation – Seed banks (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(2) Earth Summit – Johannesburg false, then mark (3).
(3) In situ conservation – Cryopreservation (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) Equador – Temperate forest statements, then mark (4).
103. Find the incorrect match (w.r.t. species diversity 1. A : -diversity exists between two communities
in Amazonian rain forest) and is greater than -diversity
(1) Fishes – 40,000 R : -diversity is regional diversity only
(2) Birds – 1300 2. A : Fragmentation of habitat promotes complex
interactions amongst species.
(3) Reptiles – 427
R : For a small area, more steeper curve is
(4) Mammals – 427
obtained for species-area relationship.
104. On a logarithmic scale the species-area
3. A : In situ conservation involves protection of whole
relationship is a straight line described by the
ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels.
equation
R : Zoological parks, botanical gardens and wildlife
!"#$%$&$!"#$'$($)$!"#$* safari parks serve this purpose.
4. A : A stable community must be resilient or
Which symbol represents regression coefficient?
resistant to occasional disturbances.
(1) S (2) C R : Rivet popper hypothesis explains the role of
(3) Z (4) A biological diversity on ecosystem health.
!" !" !
Last Leap for NEET (Part-II) Answers 365
ANSWERS
CHEMISTRY
Chapter - 1 : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Section A : Objective Type Questions
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1)
8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (4) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (2)
22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (3)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (3)
36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (2) 41. (4) 42. (3)
43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (2)
50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (3) 58. (2) 59. (4) 60. (4) 61. (3) 62. (2) 63. (2)
64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (2)
71. (1) 72. (2) 73. (4) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (4) 77. (1)
78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (3) 81. (1) 82. (2) 83. (1) 84. (1)
85. (2) 86. (4) 87. (3) 88. (4) 89. (4) 90. (2) 91. (1)
92. (3) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (3) 96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (3)
99. (3) 100. (1) 101. (3) 102. (4) 103. (1) 104. (2) 105. (2)
106. (3) 107. (4) 108. (1) 109. (4) 110. (2) 111. (1) 112. (2)
113. (4) 114. (3) 115. (4) 116. (1) 117. (2) 118. (1) 119. (3)
120. (2) 121. (3) 122. (1) 123. (4) 124. (2) 125. (3) 126. (1)
127. (4) 128. (1) 129. (3) 130. (3) 131. (3) 132. (4) 133. (1)
134. (1) 135. (1) 136. (4) 137. (1) 138. (4) 139. (2) 140. (3)
141. (1) 142. (3) 143. (1) 144. (1) 145. (3) 146. (2) 147. (2)
148. (3) 149. (2) 150. (1) 151. (2) 152. (1) 153. (4) 154. (4)
155. (3) 156. (4) 157. (2) 158. (3) 159. (3) 160. (1) 161. (3)
162. (1) 163. (1) 164. (3) 165. (1) 166. (4) 167. (1) 168. (4)
169. (2) 170. (1) 171. (2) 172. (1) 173. (4) 174. (2) 175. (2)
176. (2) 177. (1) 178. (2) 179. (1) 180. (4) 181. (1) 182. (3)
183. (1) 184. (4) 185. (1) 186. (2) 187. (1) 188. (2) 189. (3)
190. (3) 191. (4) 192. (1) 193. (2) 194. (3) 195. (4) 196. (4)
197. (3) 198. (1) 199. (2) 200. (3) 201. (1) 202. (4) 203. (3)
204. (2) 205. (1) 206. (4) 207. (3) 208. (3) 209. (3) 210. (2)
211. (1) 212. (4) 213. (2)
Section B : Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (1)
8. (2)
366 Answers Last Leap for NEET (Part-II)
Chapter - 2 : Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (4)
8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (2)
22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (4) 27. (1) 28. (2)
29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (4)
36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (2) 41. (2) 42. (3)
43. (4) 44. (4) 45. (4) 46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (4) 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (3) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (3)
57. (3) 58. (2) 59. (2) 60. (3) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (1)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (1) 68. (2) 69. (2) 70. (2)
71. (4) 72. (2) 73. (1) 74. (4) 75. (1) 76. (3) 77. (4)
78. (3) 79. (2) 80. (1) 81. (4) 82. (4) 83. (2) 84. (3)
85. (1) 86. (1) 87. (4) 88. (4) 89. (3) 90. (3) 91. (3)
92. (2) 93. (3) 94. (2) 95. (4) 96. (2) 97. (2) 98. (3)
99. (4) 100. (1) 101. (1) 102. (2) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (1)
106. (4) 107. (3) 108. (2) 109. (4) 110. (2) 111. (3) 112. (1)
113. (1) 114. (1) 115. (3) 116. (3) 117. (2) 118. (3) 119. (2)
120. (4) 121. (1) 122. (3) 123. (1) 124. (4) 125. (2) 126. (3)
127. (3) 128. (2) 129. (3) 130. (4) 131. (4) 132. (2) 133. (3)
134. (2) 135. (3) 136. (1) 137. (1) 138. (3) 139. (2) 140. (3)
141. (1) 142. (3) 143. (3) 144. (4) 145. (4) 146. (2) 147. (3)
148. (1) 149. (4) 150. (4) 151. (2) 152. (4) 153. (1) 154. (3)
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1)
8. (3) 9. (2)
Chapter - 3 : States of Matter : Gases and Liquids

1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (4)
29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (4)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (3) 48. (3) 49. (2)
50. (2) 51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (2)
57. (1) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (2) 62. (1) 63. (3)
64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (2) 69. (4) 70. (1)
71. (3) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (2) 75. (3) 76. (2) 77. (2)
78. (1) 79. (2) 80. (1) 81. (4) 82. (3) 83. (3) 84. (3)
85. (3) 86. (4) 87. (3) 88. (4) 89. (3) 90. (1) 91. (4)
92. (1) 93. (1) 94. (4) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (1) 98. (1)
99. (1) 100. (3) 101. (2) 102. (4) 103. (2) 104. (3) 105. (1)
106. (3) 107. (1) 108. (1) 109. (4) 110. (1) 111. (4) 112. (1)
113. (4) 114. (2) 115. (4) 116. (3) 117. (1) 118. (4) 119. (3)
120. (2) 121. (4) 122. (4) 123. (3) 124. (3) 125. (2) 126. (4)
127. (4) 128. (2) 129. (2) 130. (1) 131. (1) 132. (3) 133. (1)
134. (3) 135. (4) 136. (2) 137. (2) 138. (1) 139. (1) 140. (4)
141. (2) 142. (1) 143. (4) 144. (1) 145. (4) 146. (2) 147. (3)
148. (3) 149. (2) 150. (3) 151. (4) 152. (3) 153. (4) 154. (4)
155. (2) 156. (3) 157. (2) 158. (3) 159. (3) 160. (4) 161. (2)
162. (1) 163. (2) 164. (2) 165. (4) 166. (4) 167. (2) 168. (1)
169. (3) 170. (4) 171. (2) 172. (2) 173. (2) 174. (3) 175. (1)
176. (1) 177. (4) 178. (3) 179. (3) 180. (3) 181. (2) 182. (3)
183. (4) 184. (3) 185. (4) 186. (2) 187. (1) 188. (2) 189. (3)
190. (4) 191. (1) 192. (2) 193. (3) 194. (4) 195. (4) 196. (2)
197. (1) 198. (4) 199. (4) 200. (4) 201. (3) 202. (4) 203. (3)
204. (1) 205. (2) 206. (3) 207. (1)
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (3)
Chapter - 4 : Thermodynamics
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (4)
8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (4)
15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (4)
22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (3)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (1)
36. (4) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (1)
43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (4) 49. (1)
50. (2) 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (1)
57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (3) 61. (3) 62. (1) 63. (4)
64. (2) 65. (3) 66. (4) 67. (2) 68. (2) 69. (4) 70. (3)
71. (1) 72. (2) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (1) 76. (4) 77. (4)
78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (3) 81. (3) 82. (4) 83. (1) 84. (1)
85. (1) 86. (2) 87. (4) 88. (4) 89. (4) 90. (1) 91. (1)
92. (2) 93. (2) 94. (4) 95. (1) 96. (1) 97. (3) 98. (2)
99. (2) 100. (3) 101. (2) 102. (1) 103. (1) 104. (3) 105. (4)
106. (2) 107. (4) 108. (1) 109. (3) 110. (1) 111. (4) 112. (4)
113. (4) 114. (1) 115. (2) 116. (3) 117. (2) 118. (4) 119. (4)
120. (4) 121. (1) 122. (2) 123. (2) 124. (2) 125. (4) 126. (2)
127. (4) 128. (1) 129. (2) 130. (2) 131. (3) 132. (2) 133. (1)
134. (1) 135. (4) 136. (2) 137. (2) 138. (2) 139. (1) 140. (4)
141. (4) 142. (3) 143. (1) 144. (2) 145. (2) 146. (4) 147. (3)
148. (3) 149. (2) 150. (4) 151. (4) 152. (3) 153. (3) 154. (3)
155. (3) 156. (4) 157. (4) 158. (1) 159. (2) 160. (2) 161. (1)
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (3)
8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1)
Chapter - 5 : Redox Reactions

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (3)
8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (3)
22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (1) 28. (1)
29. (1) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (1)
36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (3) 41. (2) 42. (3)
43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (2)
50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (3)
57. (1) 58. (3) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (3)
64. (3) 65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (1) 68. (3) 69. (3) 70. (1)
71. (4) 72. (4) 73. (1) 74. (1) 75. (4) 76. (3) 77. (2)
78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (2) 81. (4) 82. (3) 83. (1) 84. (4)
85. (2) 86. (4) 87. (4) 88. (3) 89. (1) 90. (4) 91. (1)
92. (2) 93. (2) 94. (1) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (4) 98. (1)
99. (3) 100. (3) 101. (2) 102. (2) 103. (1) 104. (3) 105. (2)
106. (3) 107. (1) 108. (3) 109. (4) 110. (3) 111. (2) 112. (2)
113. (2) 114. (3)
1. (3) 2. (3)
Chapter - 6 : Solid States

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (2)
8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (1)
22. (3) 23. (4) 24. (4) 25. (4) 26. (4) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (3) 30. (2) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (3)
36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (3)
43. (2) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (2) 51. (4) 52. (2) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (4) 56. (4)
57. (3) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (3) 61. (3) 62. (1) 63. (4)
64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (2) 69. (1) 70. (2)
71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (2) 74. (1) 75. (1) 76. (3) 77. (4)
78. (3) 79. (2) 80. (4) 81. (3) 82. (1) 83. (1) 84. (4)
85. (1) 86. (4) 87. (2) 88. (3) 89. (4) 90. (4) 91. (3)
92. (4) 93. (3) 94. (1) 95. (1) 96. (4) 97. (4) 98. (3)
99. (3) 100. (3) 101. (2) 102. (3) 103. (2) 104. (2)
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (1)
8. (3)
Chapter - 7 : Solution
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (4)
15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (4)
22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (2)
29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (3)
36. (4) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (2) 41. (4) 42. (1)
43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (3) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (3)
50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (1)
57. (4) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (2) 61. (4) 62. (2) 63. (2)
64. (4) 65. (4) 66. (1) 67. (2) 68. (2) 69. (1) 70. (2)
71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (3) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (3) 77. (1)
78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (2) 81. (1) 82. (3) 83. (3) 84. (4)
85. (2) 86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (1) 89. (3) 90. (4) 91. (4)
92. (4) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (2) 98. (3)
99. (3) 100. (2) 101. (4) 102. (4) 103. (3) 104. (1)
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2)
Chapter - 8 : Chemical Kinetics

1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (3)
8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (4)
22. (3) 23. (4) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (2)
29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (4) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (2) 42. (1)
43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (3) 49. (2)
50. (3) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (2) 56. (2)
57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (3) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (2)
64. (1) 65. (4) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (4) 70. (2)
71. (4) 72. (3) 73. (3) 74. (2) 75. (1) 76. (4) 77. (1)
78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (4) 81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (2)
85. (4) 86. (1) 87. (1) 88. (3) 89. (3) 90. (2) 91. (3)
92. (3) 93. (3) 94. (2) 95. (3) 96. (3) 97. (2) 98. (4)
99. (3) 100. (3) 101. (4) 102. (3) 103. (1) 104. (1) 105. (2)
106. (2) 107. (4)
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (3)
Chapter - 9 : Surface Chemistry

1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (4)
15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (2)
22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (3)
29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (3) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (4)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (1) 39. (4) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (4) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (4)
50. (1) 51. (1) 52. (1) 53. (1) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (1)
57. (3) 58. (4) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (2) 62. (1) 63. (2)
64. (3) 65. (1)
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (3)
Chapter - 10 : Environmental Chemistry

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (1)
15. (2) 16. (4)
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (4)
Chapter - 11 : Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (3)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (2)
15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (2)
29. (2) 30. (4) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (2) 42. (4)
43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (4)
50. (4) 51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (4) 55. (4) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (3) 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (1)
64. (3) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (2) 69. (2) 70. (3)
71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (1) 75. (4) 76. (1) 77. (2)
78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (4) 81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (3)
85. (2) 86. (1) 87. (1)
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (4)
8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (4)
Chapter - 12 : Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (3)
8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (1) 21. (3)
22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (1) 28. (1)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (3) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (4)
36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (3) 42. (1)
43. (4) 44. (4) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (4)
50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (4) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (1)
57. (1) 58. (1) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. (3) 62. (2) 63. (4)
64. (3) 65. (4) 66. (1) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (4) 70. (4)
71. (2) 72. (1) 73. (4) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (4) 77. (1)
78. (4) 79. (1) 80. (3) 81. (1) 82. (3) 83. (3) 84. (2)
85. (3) 86. (2) 87. (1) 88. (2) 89. (3) 90. (2) 91. (2)
92. (3) 93. (1) 94. (4) 95. (4) 96. (3) 97. (1) 98. (4)
99. (2) 100. (4) 101. (2) 102. (1) 103. (2) 104. (1) 105. (3)
106. (4) 107. (3) 108. (3) 109. (2) 110. (1) 111. (3) 112. (3)
113. (2) 114. (3) 115. (3)
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (1)
8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (3)
Chapter - 13 : Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (1)
8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (1) 21. (2)
22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (4)
29. (1) 30. (2) 31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (1) 42. (3)
43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (3)
50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (1) 55. (3) 56. (2)
57. (4) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (3) 61. (4) 62. (1) 63. (4)
64. (1) 65. (2) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (3)
71. (4) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (4) 76. (4) 77. (4)
78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (2) 81. (1) 82. (2) 83. (2) 84. (1)
85. (1) 86. (2) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (1) 90. (1) 91. (2)
92. (2) 93. (2) 94. (4) 95. (2) 96. (2) 97. (4) 98. (3)
99. (2) 100. (2) 101. (4) 102. (2) 103. (4) 104. (1) 105. (4)
106. (4) 107. (3) 108. (4) 109. (4) 110. (4) 111. (4) 112. (1)
113. (1) 114. (1) 115. (3) 116. (2) 117. (4) 118. (3) 119. (2)
120. (2) 121. (2) 122. (3) 123. (1) 124. (3) 125. (2) 126. (2)
127. (4) 128. (1) 129. (2) 130. (4) 131. (2) 132. (1) 133. (1)
134. (4) 135. (4) 136. (1) 137. (4) 138. (4) 139. (4) 140. (4)
141. (4) 142. (4) 143. (2) 144. (3) 145. (1) 146. (3) 147. (2)
148. (3) 149. (4) 150. (3) 151. (3) 152. (2) 153. (3) 154. (4)
155. (3) 156. (1) 157. (4) 158. (3) 159. (2) 160. (3) 161. (2)
162. (2) 163. (2) 164. (3) 165. (4) 166. (3) 167. (2) 168. (3)
169. (4) 170. (1) 171. (2) 172. (4) 173. (4) 174. (3) 175. (2)
176. (1) 177. (3) 178. (4) 179. (4) 180. (3) 181. (4) 182. (3)
183. (2) 184. (1) 185. (2) 186. (4) 187. (2) 188. (1) 189. (4)
190. (1) 191. (2) 192. (4) 193. (3) 194. (3) 195. (3) 196. (4)
197. (4) 198. (1) 199. (3) 200. (2) 201. (3) 202. (4) 203. (3)
204. (3) 205. (2) 206. (1) 207. (4) 208. (4) 209. (2) 210. (2)
211. (3) 212. (4) 213. (4) 214. (1) 215. (3) 216. (2) 217. (4)
218. (3)
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (2)
8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (2)
Chapter - 14 : Amines
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (4)
‘ 8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (1)
15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (3) 41. (4) 42. (4)
43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (3)
50. (3) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (1) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (3) 60. (4) 61. (3) 62. (1) 63. (2)
64. (3) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (4) 68. (4) 69. (1) 70. (1)
71. (2) 72. (2) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (4)
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (1)
8. (2) 9. (1)
Chapter - 15 : Biomolecules
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (4)
8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1)
22. (3) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (1)
29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (1) 37. (4) 38. (1) 39. (4) 40. (1) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (3)
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (4)
Chapter - 16 : Polymers
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (2)
8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (4)
22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (4)
29. (4) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (3) 35. (3)
36. (3)
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2)
Chapter - 17 : Chemistry in Everyday Life

1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (2)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4)
15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (2)
22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (3)
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (2)
Chapter - 18 : Hydrogen
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (3)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (1)
22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (1)
29. (1) 30. (3) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (4) 41. (2) 42. (3)
43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (4) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (4)
50. (4) 51. (1) 52. (3) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (3) 60. (4) 61. (3) 62. (2) 63. (3)
64. (3) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (4) 70. (4)
71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (3)
78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (1) 81. (2) 82. (2) 83. (2) 84. (3)
85. (4) 86. (2) 87. (1)
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (2)
8. (3)
Chapter - 19 : s-Block Elements

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (4)
8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (1) 28. (2)
29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (4)
36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (3) 41. (4) 42. (4)
43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (1)
50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (1) 54. (4) 55. (1) 56. (2)
57. (1) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (2) 61. (3) 62. (1) 63. (1)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (4) 69. (1) 70. (2)
71. (2) 72. (1) 73. (2) 74. (2) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (4)
78. (1) 79. (3) 80. (2) 81. (4) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (3)
85. (3) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (1) 89. (3) 90. (3) 91. (4)
92. (4) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (3) 96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (3)
99. (4) 100. (1) 101. (3) 102. (1) 103. (2) 104. (1) 105. (4)
106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (4) 109. (3) 110. (1) 111. (2) 112. (1)
113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (1) 116. (4) 117. (2) 118. (4) 119. (3)
120. (2) 121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (4) 124. (4) 125. (4) 126. (3)
127. (4) 128. (3) 129. (3) 130. (2) 131. (3) 132. (1) 133. (3)
134. (4) 135. (1) 136. (2)
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (1)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (3)
Chapter - 20 : p-Block Elements (Gr-13 & 14)

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (1)
8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (1)
22. (4) 23. (4) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (3)
29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (3) 32. (4) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (3)
36. (4) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (4)
43. (2) 44. (4) 45. (4) 46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (4)
50. (3) 51. (3) 52. (4) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (3) 56. (4)
57. (1) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (4) 62. (4) 63. (3)
64. (4) 65. (2) 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (2) 70. (4)
71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (2) 74. (1) 75. (4) 76. (2) 77. (3)
78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (1) 81. (2) 82. (1) 83. (4) 84. (4)
85. (4) 86. (4) 87. (3) 88. (2) 89. (1) 90. (1) 91. (1)
92. (2) 93. (4) 94. (4) 95. (1) 96. (2) 97. (1) 98. (1)
99. (1) 100. (4) 101. (2) 102. (1) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (2)
106. (2) 107. (4) 108. (4) 109. (4) 110. (4) 111. (3) 112. (2)
113. (3) 114. (3) 115. (4) 116. (1) 117. (4) 118. (4) 119. (2)
120. (4) 121. (3) 122. (1) 123. (3) 124. (1) 125. (2) 126. (2)
127. (2) 128. (2) 129. (2) 130. (2) 131. (4) 132. (2) 133. (1)
134. (3) 135. (1) 136. (1) 137. (2) 138. (1) 139. (3) 140. (2)
141. (1) 142. (2) 143. (1) 144. (1) 145. (3) 146. (3) 147. (4)

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (1)
8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (3)
15. (1)
Chapter - 21 : General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (3)
8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (4)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (1) 21. (2)
22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (3)
29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (4) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (2) 41. (4) 42. (2)
43. (2) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (1)
50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (3) 53. (4)
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1)
Chapter - 22 : d & f - block elements

1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (4)
8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (2)
22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (1)
29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (3) 32. (4) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (3)
36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (3) 41. (3) 42. (3)
43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (3)
50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (2) 56. (1)
57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (3) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (4)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (4) 68. (4) 69. (4) 70. (1)
71. (4) 72. (2) 73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (4) 77. (3)
78. (4) 79. (4) 80. (4) 81. (3) 82. (2) 83. (2) 84. (4)
85. (1) 86. (1) 87. (1) 88. (3) 89. (2) 90. (1) 91. (1)
92. (3) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (3) 96. (1) 97. (4) 98. (2)
99. (3) 100. (2) 101. (1) 102. (3) 103. (4) 104. (1)
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (1)
Chapter - 23 : Coordination Compounds
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (4)
8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (1)
15. (4) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (1)
29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (3) 41. (2) 42. (4)
43. (4) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (2)
50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (3) 54. (4) 55. (1) 56. (1)
57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (2) 62. (2) 63. (4)
64. (3) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (2) 69. (1) 70. (3)
71. (4) 72. (3) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (3) 76. (3) 77. (1)
78. (4) 79. (4) 80. (1) 81. (4) 82. (2) 83. (4) 84. (2)
85. (3) 86. (4) 87. (2) 88. (2) 89. (4) 90. (4) 91. (2)
92. (2) 93. (1) 94. (4) 95. (1) 96. (4) 97. (4) 98. (2)
99. (4) 100. (4) 101. (2) 102. (1) 103. (2) 104. (3) 105. (1)
106. (2) 107. (1) 108. (2) 109. (4) 110. (4) 111. (3) 112. (1)
113. (2) 114. (1) 115. (4) 116. (4)
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (3)
8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (4)
BOTANY
Chapter - 1 : The Living World
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (3)
8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (2)
22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (4) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (1)
29. (4) 30. (1) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (4) 40. (4) 41. (4) 42. (2)
43. (3) 44. (1) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (4) 49. (1)
50. (2) 51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (2) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (4)
57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (4) 61. (2) 62. (2) 63. (1)
64. (4) 65. (2) 66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (1) 69. (2) 70. (2)
71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (1) 75. (4) 76. (2) 77. (2)
78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (2) 81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (1)
85. (3) 86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (2) 89. (4) 90. (1) 91. (3)
92. (1) 93. (1) 94. (3) 95. (4) 96. (2) 97. (3) 98. (4)
99. (1) 100. (4) 101. (3) 102. (2) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (3)
106. (4) 107. (2) 108. (1) 109. (2) 110. (4) 111. (3) 112. (1)
113. (3) 114. (3) 115. (4) 116. (4) 117. (2) 118. (4) 119. (4)
120. (3) 121. (2) 122. (3) 123. (4) 124. (1) 125. (3) 126. (2)
127. (3) 128. (3) 129. (4) 130. (1) 131. (4) 132. (4) 133. (3)
134. (2) 135. (1) 136. (3) 137. (1) 138. (4) 139. (1) 140. (2)
141. (3) 142. (3) 143. (4) 144. (1) 145. (4) 146. (3) 147. (2)
148. (2) 149. (4) 150. (4) 151. (3) 152. (1) 153. (3) 154. (4)
155. (2)
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (3)
Chapter - 2 : Plant Kingdom

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (4)
8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (3)
22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (2)
29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (4)
36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (3) 42. (1)
43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (4) 49. (1)
50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (3)
57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (4) 60. (2) 61. (4) 62. (3) 63. (3)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (4)
71. (1) 72. (3) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (4)
78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (4) 81. (1) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (3)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (1) 89. (3) 90. (4) 91. (2)
92. (3) 93. (4) 94. (3) 95. (2) 96. (2) 97. (2) 98. (2)
99. (3) 100. (2) 101. (4) 102. (3) 103. (3) 104. (4) 105. (3)
106. (2) 107. (2) 108. (2) 109. (3) 110. (3) 111. (3) 112. (2)
113. (1) 114. (4) 115. (1) 116. (3) 117. (2) 118. (3) 119. (2)
120. (4) 121. (1) 122. (3) 123. (3) 124. (2) 125. (3) 126. (4)
127. (2) 128. (2) 129. (4) 130. (1) 131. (3) 132. (1) 133. (2)
134. (4) 135. (1) 136. (3) 137. (2) 138. (1) 139. (2) 140. (4)
141. (1) 142. (4) 143. (3) 144. (3) 145. (1) 146. (3) 147. (4)
148. (2) 149. (1) 150. (2) 151. (1) 152. (3) 153. (1) 154. (2)
155. (4) 156. (3) 157. (2) 158. (3) 159. (4) 160. (3) 161. (2)
162. (2) 163. (2) 164. (4) 165. (2) 166. (4) 167. (3) 168. (4)
169. (2) 170. (4) 171. (1) 172. (4) 173. (3) 174. (4) 175. (3)
176. (2) 177. (3) 178. (4) 179. (2) 180. (4) 181. (3) 182. (2)
183. (3) 184. (4) 185. (1) 186. (4) 187. (3) 188. (3) 189. (2)
190. (3) 191. (2) 192. (1) 193. (1) 194. (3) 195. (4) 196. (4)
197. (4) 198. (2) 199. (2) 200. (2) 201. (3) 202. (4) 203. (1)
204. (4) 205. (2) 206. (4) 207. (3) 208. (4) 209. (3) 210. (1)
211. (3) 212. (4) 213. (3) 214. (1) 215. (2) 216. (3) 217. (4)
218. (1) 219. (2) 220. (3) 221. (1) 222. (1) 223. (4) 224. (2)
225. (1) 226. (2) 227. (3) 228. (2) 229. (2) 230. (4) 231. (2)
232. (3) 233. (4) 234. (1) 235. (3) 236. (3) 237. (3) 238. (1)
239. (4) 240. (2) 241. (2) 242. (1) 243. (1) 244. (4) 245. (4)
246. (3) 247. (4) 248. (1)
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (2)
8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (3)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (3)
Chapter - 3 : The Cell Cycle and Cell Division

1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (3)
8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (1)
22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (2)
29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (1)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (4) 41. (4) 42. (2)
43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (4)
50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (3)
57. (3) 58. (1) 59. (2) 60. (3) 61. (4) 62. (3) 63. (1)
64. (3) 65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (1) 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (3)
71. (1) 72. (1) 73. (3) 74. (2) 75. (1) 76. (2) 77. (4)
78. (2) 79. (1) 80. (2) 81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (1) 84. (1)
85. (2) 86. (2) 87. (1) 88. (1) 89. (2) 90. (2) 91. (3)
92. (1) 93. (4) 94. (4) 95. (4) 96. (4) 97. (2) 98. (1)
99. (1) 100. (4) 101. (1) 102. (3) 103. (4) 104. (2) 105. (3)
106. (1) 107. (3) 108. (2) 109. (1) 110. (4) 111. (2) 112. (2)
113. (3) 114. (2) 115. (3) 116. (3) 117. (2) 118. (2) 119. (1)
120. (4) 121. (3) 122. (2) 123. (4) 124. (3) 125. (4) 126. (4)
127. (1) 128. (2) 129. (4) 130. (1) 131. (3) 132. (2) 133. (2)
134. (1) 135. (1) 136. (2) 137. (3) 138. (4) 139. (2) 140. (3)
141. (1) 142. (4) 143. (1) 144. (2) 145. (2) 146. (4) 147. (4)
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1)
8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (3)
Chapter - 4 : Transport in Plants

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (4)
8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (4)
22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (3)
29. (3) 30. (1) 31. (3) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (4)
36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (1) 39. (4) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (4)
43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (3)
50. (2) 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (4)
57. (4) 58. (3) 59. (1) 60. (1) 61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (2)
64. (2) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (4) 69. (3) 70. (1)
71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (1) 76. (3) 77. (3)
78. (3) 79. (3) 80. (3) 81. (3) 82. (4) 83. (2) 84. (1)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (4) 89. (4) 90. (4) 91. (2)
92. (2) 93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (1) 96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (3)
99. (3) 100. (4) 101. (1) 102. (4) 103. (3) 104. (1) 105. (1)
106. (3) 107. (1) 108. (3) 109. (1) 110. (2) 111. (3) 112. (2)
113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (2) 116. (1) 117. (4) 118. (1) 119. (4)
120. (1) 121. (2) 122. (3) 123. (1) 124. (4) 125. (3) 126. (2)
127. (1) 128. (3) 129. (4) 130. (2) 131. (2) 132. (2) 133. (2)
134. (1) 135. (3) 136. (1) 137. (1) 138. (1) 139. (1) 140. (2)
141. (2) 142. (2)
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (1)
8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (1)
Chapter - 5 : Mineral Nutrition

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (1)
8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (4)
15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (2) 21. (2)
22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (2)
29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (3) 35. (1)
36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (1)
43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (4) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (1) 61. (3) 62. (3) 63. (2)
64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (2) 69. (1) 70. (3)
71. (1) 72. (2) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (1) 77. (1)
78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (4) 81. (1) 82. (3) 83. (3) 84. (1)
85. (4) 86. (2) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (1) 91. (2)
92. (3) 93. (3) 94. (2) 95. (1) 96. (3) 97. (2) 98. (3)
99. (2) 100. (4) 101. (4) 102. (3) 103. (1) 104. (2) 105. (4)
106. (3) 107. (4) 108. (2) 109. (2) 110. (2) 111. (3) 112. (3)
113. (4) 114. (4) 115. (3) 116. (3) 117. (1) 118. (2) 119. (3)
120. (4) 121. (1) 122. (1) 123. (3) 124. (3) 125. (3) 126. (4)
127. (2) 128. (3) 129. (2) 130. (3)
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2)
Chapter - 6 : Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1)
8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (2) 21. (2)
22. (3) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (4)
29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (3) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (2) 41. (3) 42. (2)
43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (3)
50. (1) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (4) 55. (1) 56. (2)
57. (3) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (3) 62. (2) 63. (2)
64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (1) 68. (1) 69. (2) 70. (4)
71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (2) 74. (2) 75. (2) 76. (4) 77. (1)
78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (1) 81. (2) 82. (2) 83. (4) 84. (1)
85. (3) 86. (4) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (3) 90. (2) 91. (3)
92. (1) 93. (3) 94. (4) 95. (3) 96. (2) 97. (4) 98. (2)
99. (4) 100. (4) 101. (3) 102. (3) 103. (3) 104. (2) 105. (2)
106. (4) 107. (3) 108. (1) 109. (1) 110. (4) 111. (2) 112. (2)
113. (4) 114. (1) 115. (1) 116. (4) 117. (2) 118. (3) 119. (4)
120. (4) 121. (1) 122. (1) 123. (4) 124. (3) 125. (1) 126. (3)
127. (2) 128. (4) 129. (2) 130. (2) 131. (1) 132. (3) 133. (2)
134. (2) 135. (1) 136. (4) 137. (1) 138. (4) 139. (3) 140. (4)
141. (2) 142. (4) 143. (3) 144. (3) 145. (2) 146. (2) 147. (1)
148. (4) 149. (1) 150. (4) 151. (2) 152. (3) 153. (2) 154. (1)
155. (3) 156. (3) 157. (1) 158. (3) 159. (2) 160. (3) 161. (1)
162. (4) 163. (2) 164. (2) 165. (3) 166. (2) 167. (1) 168. (4)
169. (4) 170. (2)
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (3)
Chapter - 7 : Respiration in Plants

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (3)
8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (1)
15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (1)
22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (3)
29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (3) 35. (1)
36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (2)
43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (3) 49. (2)
50. (2) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (4) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (3)
57. (3) 58. (1) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (4)
64. (4) 65. (2) 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (4) 69. (3) 70. (2)
71. (3) 72. (1) 73. (2) 74. (2) 75. (3) 76. (1) 77. (2)
78. (3) 79. (3) 80. (2) 81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (3) 84. (2)
85. (2) 86. (3) 87. (3) 88. (3) 89. (2) 90. (1) 91. (4)
92. (3) 93. (2) 94. (2) 95. (1) 96. (3) 97. (2) 98. (4)
99. (2) 100. (1) 101. (3) 102. (2) 103. (4) 104. (3) 105. (4)
106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (4) 109. (2) 110. (2) 111. (2) 112. (2)
113. (1) 114. (3) 115. (4) 116. (2) 117. (3) 118. (4) 119. (4)
120. (3) 121. (4) 122. (3) 123. (3) 124. (4) 125. (2) 126. (2)
127. (4) 128. (1) 129. (4) 130. (4) 131. (1) 132. (4) 133. (2)
134. (3) 135. (1) 136. (1) 137. (4) 138. (2) 139. (2) 140. (3)
141. (2) 142. (4) 143. (1) 144. (3) 145. (3) 146. (2)
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (4)
Chapter - 8 : Plant Growth and Development

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (4) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (1)
29. (1) 30. (2) 31. (3) 32. (4) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (3)
36. (1) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (1) 41. (3) 42. (4)
43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (4) 51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (4) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (2)
64. (1) 65. (4) 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (3) 70. (2)
71. (2) 72. (2) 73. (1) 74. (2) 75. (4) 76. (1) 77. (1)
78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (2) 81. (4) 82. (2) 83. (4) 84. (3)
85. (3) 86. (1) 87. (3) 88. (2) 89. (2) 90. (3) 91. (3)
92. (3) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (1) 96. (1) 97. (4) 98. (3)
99. (1) 100. (4) 101. (2) 102. (1) 103. (1) 104. (4) 105. (3)
106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (2) 109. (1) 110. (4) 111. (3) 112. (3)
113. (1) 114. (3) 115. (1) 116. (2) 117. (3) 118. (2) 119. (3)
120. (1) 121. (2) 122. (3) 123. (3) 124. (3) 125. (4) 126. (3)
127. (4) 128. (2) 129. (4) 130. (1) 131. (2) 132. (1) 133. (2)
134. (3) 135. (4) 136. (4) 137. (2) 138. (3) 139. (3) 140. (3)
141. (1) 142. (2) 143. (4) 144. (3)
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (3)
8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (3)
Chapter - 9 : Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (4)
8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (3)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (2)
22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (4) 28. (3)
29. (4) 30. (2) 31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (1) 41. (3) 42. (3)
43. (1) 44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (1) 49. (2)
50. (3) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (3)
57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (2) 60. (3) 61. (3) 62. (3) 63. (2)
64. (2) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (3)
71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (1) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (1) 77. (3)
78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (2) 81. (4) 82. (3) 83. (4) 84. (2)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (4) 89. (3) 90. (2) 91. (4)
92. (4) 93. (2) 94. (4) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (1) 98. (3)
99. (2) 100. (3)
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (1)
Chapter - 10 : Microbes in Human Welfare

1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (2)
8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2)
15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (2)
22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (4)
29. (1) 30. (2) 31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (4) 35. (1)
36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (2) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (2)
50. (4) 51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (4)
57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (3) 60. (4) 61. (2) 62. (2) 63. (1)
64. (2) 65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (3) 68. (4) 69. (1) 70. (4)
71. (4) 72. (2) 73. (3) 74. (3) 75. (3) 76. (4) 77. (4)
78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (4) 81. (3) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84. (1)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (1) 89. (1) 90. (2) 91. (3)
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (4)
Chapter - 11 : Organisms and Populations

1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (2)
8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (2)
22. (4) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (1) 28. (4)
29. (1) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (1) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (4) 42. (4)
43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (2)
50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (1) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (2) 61. (1) 62. (4) 63. (1)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (2) 68. (2) 69. (1) 70. (3)
71. (1) 72. (1) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (4) 76. (3) 77. (1)
78. (1) 79. (3) 80. (2) 81. (3) 82. (1) 83. (3) 84. (2)
85. (1) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (1) 89. (4) 90. (3) 91. (2)
92. (1) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (2) 96. (2) 97. (4) 98. (3)
99. (2) 100. (1) 101. (1) 102. (4) 103. (1) 104. (3) 105. (3)
106. (3) 107. (4) 108. (2) 109. (2) 110. (3) 111. (1) 112. (4)
113. (1) 114. (2) 115. (3) 116. (2) 117. (2) 118. (4) 119. (1)
120. (4) 121. (3) 122. (4) 123. (3) 124. (2) 125. (2) 126. (2)
127. (2) 128. (1) 129. (3) 130. (1) 131. (4) 132. (4) 133. (3)
134. (1) 135. (3) 136. (2) 137. (3) 138. (2) 139. (4) 140. (4)
141. (2) 142. (2) 143. (3) 144. (3) 145. (4) 146. (4) 147. (3)
148. (3) 149. (4) 150. (1) 151. (2) 152. (2) 153. (3) 154. (2)
155. (3) 156. (4) 157. (2) 158. (1) 159. (2) 160. (2) 161. (1)
162. (2) 163. (3) 164. (2) 165. (3)
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (2)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (1) 13. (3)
Chapter - 12 : Biodiversity and Conservation
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1)
8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (3) 21. (2)
22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (4)
29. (1) 30. (4) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (1)
36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (4) 39. (4) 40. (2) 41. (4) 42. (1)
43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (3) 49. (1)
50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (3) 54. (4) 55. (2) 56. (4)
57. (4) 58. (3) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (1)
64. (2) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (1) 70. (2)
71. (4) 72. (4) 73. (2) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (2) 77. (2)
78. (4) 79. (2) 80. (1) 81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (4) 84. (4)
85. (4) 86. (4) 87. (1) 88. (1) 89. (4) 90. (3) 91. (1)
92. (4) 93. (4) 94. (2) 95. (1) 96. (4) 97. (3) 98. (3)
99. (2) 100. (4) 101. (2) 102. (1) 103. (1) 104. (3) 105. (4)
106. (4)
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (2)
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1. Preface ................................................................................................. (i) – (i)

2. Chemistry .......................................................................................... 01 – 218

3. Botany .............................................................................................. 219 – 364

4. Answers........................................................................................... 365 – 385

CHAPTER No. TOPIC PAGE No.

1. Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry .......................................... 01 – 14

2. Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties ............. 15 – 24

3. States of Matter : Gases and Liquid ............................................. 25 – 42

5. Redox Reactions .......................................................................... 57 – 64

6. Solid State ..................................................................................... 65 – 72

8. Chemical Kinetics ........................................................................ 83 – 94

9. Surface Chemistry ..................................................................... 95 – 100

10. Environmental Chemistry ......................................................... 101 – 102

11. Haloalkanes and Haloarenes ................................................... 103 – 112

12. Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers .................................................. 113 – 126

13. Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids .............................. 127 – 150

14. Amines ...................................................................................... 151 – 160

15. Biomolecules ............................................................................ 161 – 164

16. Polymers .................................................................................. 165 – 168

17. Chemistry in Everyday Life ...................................................... 169 – 170

18. Hydrogen .................................................................................. 171 – 176

19. s-Block Elements ..................................................................... 177 – 186

20. p-Block Elements (Gr-13 & 14) ................................................ 187 – 198

22. d & f - Block Elements ............................................................. 203 – 210

23. Coordination Compounds ........................................................ 211 – 218

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

5. The number of molecules present in one drop

(1) 3 (2) 5 (1) 10–2 (2) 10–3

(3) 6 (4) 2.5 (3) 10–4 (4) 0.5

!"#$%"&%'()%'*!+,%(-%./0 23. 10 g H2 is allowed to react completely with 70 g O2.

(1) 1 (2) 2 ! " !! "# $

(3) 15.26 N (4) 18.10 N (1) 2 ml (2) 10 ml

28. A certain gaseous compound contains carbon and (3) 4 ml (4) 8 ml

(3) NA × 10.5 atoms (4) NA × 7 atoms (1) 98 g (2) 49 g

(3) 120 ml (4) 80 ml (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1

(1) 40.32 (2) 20.16 (1) 50 ml of 2 N KOH

(1) 8 (2) 32 185. The normality of 0.4 M phosphorus acid (H3PO3) is

! ! (3) Less than molality of the solution

(1) Law of constant proportion (2) 50 ml decrease

(1) 0.05 M 189. On dissolving 1 mol each of the following acids in

(1) 49 g 206. 50 ml of an aqueous solution of glucose contain

207. 25 ml of 3 M HNO3 is mixed with 75 ml of 4 M

(1) Na < Mg < Al < Si (2) Mg < Na < Al < Si

(3) O2– (4) Cu2+ (4) All of these

4. Beryllium is diagonally related to 11. Which is correct?

(1) Li (2) Al (1) Ti < Zr < Hf (Radii)

(3) B (4) Si (2) Cu1+ > Cu2+ (Stability in aqueous solution)

Which of the above elements is likely to be a (1) Aluminium (2) Boron

(1) 7, 4 (2) 6, 6 (1) Mg > Na > Al (2) Al > Mg > Na

(3) 7, 3 (4) 6, 5 (3) Na > Mg > Al (4) Mg > Al > Na

(3) 12 (4) 13 (1) S (2) P

(3) 41 (4) 46 (3) Na, Mg, Al (4) N, O, F

States of Matter : Gases and Liquid

4. Among the following gases which one has the

!" ! (3) In a zig-zag path (4) In a parabolic path

(3) 16 T (4) 64 T (1) atm-L / mol (2) atm-mol2 / L

(3) 950 K (4) 1050 K (1) 25.65 K (2) 15.30 K

(1) 37. Which of the following graph represents Boyle’s

(2) " ! (1) !"#$% '()$

!"#$% !"#$* (1) C2H6 (2) C10H22

(1) Boyle’s temperature #$

-/ (1) &'() +),"",-),