NEETriumph PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

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Chemical Equilibrium
1. Which of the following is not a general 1.
characteristic of physical equilibrium? (1)
(1) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system
at a given temperature.
(2) All measurable properties of the system remain (2)
constant at equilibrium (3)
(3) All the physical processes stop at equilibrium.
(4)
(4) The opposing processes occur at the same rate
at equilibrium so this is dynamic in a nature
2 Which of the following statements is incorrect? 2
(1) In equilibrium mixture of ice and water kept (1)
in perfectly insulated flask mass of ice and
water does not change with time.
(2) The intensity of red colour increases when
(2) (III)
oxalic acid is added to a solution containing
iron (III) nitrate and potassium thiocyanate.
(3) On addition of catalyst, the equilibrium
constant value is not affected. (3)
(4) Equilibrium constant for a reaction with
negative H value decreases as the (4) H
temperature increases
3. For the reaction 3.
H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI (g), the standard free energy H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI (g),
is G > 0. The equilibrium constant (K ) would
G> 0 (K )
be__.
(1) K = 0 (2) K > 1 (3) K = 1 (4) K < 1 (1) K = 0 (2) K > 1 (3) K = 1 (4) K < 1
4. PCl5, PCl3 and Cl2 are at equilibrium at 500K in 4. 500K PCl5, PCl3 Cl2
a closed container and their concentrations are 0.8 0.8 × 10–3 mol L–1,
× 10–3 mol L–1, 1.2 × 10–3 mol L–1 and 1.2 × 10– 1.2 × 10–3 mol L–1 1.2 × 10–3 mol L–1
3
mol L –1 respectively. The value of Kc for the PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) kc
reaction PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) will be
(1) 1.8 × 103 (2) 1.8 × 10–3 (1) 1.8 × 103 (2) 1.8 × 10–3
(3) 1.8 × 10–4 (4) 0.55 × 104 (3) 1.8 × 10–4 (4) 0.55 × 104
5. When hydrochloric acid is added to cobalt nitrate 5.
solution at room temperature, the following
reaction takes place and the reaction mixture
becomes blue. On cooling the mixture it becomes
pink. On the basis of this information mark the
correct answer.
[Co(H 2 O) 6 ]3 (aq)  4Cl (aq )  [CoCl4 ]2 (aq)  6H 2 O(l)
[Co(H 2O)6 ]3 (aq)  4Cl  (aq )  [CoCl4 ]2 (aq)  6H 2 O (l) (pink) (blue)
(pink) (blue)
(1) H > 0
(1) H > 0 for the reaction
(2) H < 0
(2) H < 0 for the reaction
(3) H = 0
(3) H = 0 for the reaction
(4) H
(4) The sign of H cannot be predicted on the basis
of this information.
NCERT Questions / English/Hindi Page 1

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6. We know that the relationship between Kc and Kp is 6. Kp Kc
Kp = Kc (RT)ng Kp = Kc (RT)ng
What would be the value of ng for the reaction ng
NH4Cl (s)  NH3 (g) + HCl (g) NH4Cl (s)  NH3 (g) + HCl (g)
(1) 1 (2) 0.5 (1) 1 (2) 0.5
(3) 1.5 (4) 2 (3) 1.5 (4) 2
7. Consider the reaction. 7.
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
Which of the following is correct, if the total
pressure at equilibrium is increased without
changing the temperature?
(1) K
(1) K will remain same
(2) K
(2) K will decrease
(3) K will increase (3) K
(4) K will increase initially and decrease when (4) K
pressure is very high k
8. At 500 K, equilibrium constant (K c ) for the 8. (Kc) 500 K
following reaction is 5.
1 1 1 1
H 2 (g)  I2 (g)  Hl(g) H 2 (g)  I2 (g)  Hl(g)
2 2 2 2
What would be the equilibrium constant (Kc) for Kc
the reaction at same temperature
2Hl(g)  H 2 (g)  I 2 (g)
2Hl(g)  H 2 (g)  I 2 (g)
(1) 0.04 (2) 0.4
(1) 0.04 (2) 0.4
(3) 25 (4) 2.5 (3) 25 (4) 2.5
9 In which of the following reactions, the 9
equilibrium remains unaffected on addition of
small amount of argon at constant volume?
(1) H2 (g) + I2 (g)  2HI (g) (1) H2 (g) + I2 (g)  2HI (g)
(2) PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) (2) PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(3) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
(3) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
(4) The equilibrium will remain unaffected in all
the three cases. (4)
10. A small amount of acetone is taken in a watch 10.
glass and it is kept open in atmosphere. Which
statement is correct for the given experiment?
(1) The rate of condensation from vapour to liquid
state is higher than the rate of evaporation (1)
(2) The rate of condensation from vapour to liquid (2)
state is equal to the rate of evaporation. (3)
(3) The rate of condensation from vapour to liquid
state is much less than the rate of evaporation.
(4) The rate of condensation from vapour to liquid state (4)
is equal or less than the rate of evaporation.
Page 2 NCERT Questions / English/Hindi

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11. Which of the following is not true about a 11.
reversible reaction? ?
(1) The reaction does not proceed to completion (1)
(2) These can attain equilibruim
(2)
(3) These can proceed in forward as well as in
backward direction (3)
(4) It can be attained only in a closed container (4)
12. In the following reaction 12.
2A  B + C, 2A  B + C,
the equilibrium concentrations of A, B and C are A, B C 300 K 1×
1 × 10–3 M, 2 × 10–3 M and 3 × 10–3 M respectively
at 300 K. The value of Kc for this reaction at the 10–3 M, 2 × 10–3 M 3 × 10–3 M
same temperature is Kc
1 1
(1) (2) 6 (1) (2) 6
6 6
1 1
(3) (4) 36 (3) (4) 36
36 36
13. A + B  C + D. Initially we start the reaction with 13. A + B  C + D. A B
equal concentrations of A and B. At equilibrium we C A
find that the moles of C is two times of A. What is
the equilibrium constant of the reaction? ?
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 2 4 2
(3) 4 (4) 2 (3) 4 (4) 2
14. A + B  C. The unit of equilibrium constant for 14. A + B  C.
the given reaction is : :
(1) Litre mole–1 (2) Mole litre (1) Litre mole–1 (2) Mole litre
(3) Mole litre –1
(4) No unit (3) Mole litre –1
(4) No unit
15. For the reaction C(s) + CO2 (g)  2CO(g) , the partial 15. C(s) + CO2 (g)  2CO(g)
pressures of CO2 and CO are 2.0 and 4.0 atm CO2 CO 2.0 4.0 atm
respectively at equilibrium. The Kp for the reaction is. Kp .
(1) 0.5 (2) 4.0 (3) 8.0 (4) 32.0 (1) 0.5 (2) 4.0 (3) 8.0 (4) 32.0
16. In which of the following reaction Kc and Kp are 16. Kc Kp ?
not equal? (1) 2NO(g)  N2(g) + O2(g)
(1) 2NO(g)  N2(g) + O2(g)
(2) SO2(g) + NO2(g)  SO3(g)+NO(g)
(2) SO2(g) + NO2(g)  SO3(g)+NO(g)
(3) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g) (3) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)
(4) 2C(s) + O2 (g)  2CO2(g) (4) 2C(s) + O2 (g)  2CO2(g)
17. For the following reaction 17.
1 1
CO(g)  O2 (g)  CO 2 (g), value of K p / K c CO(g)  O2 (g)  CO 2 (g), K p / K c
2 2
(1) (RT)1/2 (2) (RT)–1/2 (1) (RT)1/2 (2) (RT)–1/2
(3) (RT) (4) (RT)–1 (3) (RT) (4) (RT)–1

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18. Steam reacts with iron at high temperature to give 18.
hydrogen gas and Fe 3 O 4 (s). The correct Fe3O4 (s)
expression for the equilibrium constant is
PH2 2 (PH2 ) 4 PH2 2 (PH2 ) 4
(1) P 2 (2) (P ) 4 (1) P 2 (2) (P ) 4
H2O H2O H2O H2O
(PH 2 ) 4 [Fe3O 4 ] [Fe3O 4 ] (PH 2 ) 4 [Fe3O 4 ] [Fe3O 4 ]

(3) 4
(PH 2 O ) [Fe] (4) (3) 4
(PH 2 O ) [Fe] (4)
[Fe] [Fe]
19. In a reversible chemical reaction having two reactants 19.
in equilibrium, if the concentration of the reactants
are doubled then the equilibrium constant will
(1) Also be doubled (1)
(2) Be halved (2)
(3) Become one-fourth (3)
(4) Remain the same (4)
20. On doubling P and V at constant temperature, the 20.
equilibrium constant of reaction will
(1) Remain constant (2) Become double (1) (2)
(3) Become one-fourth (4) None of these (3) (4)
21. The reaction quotient Q is used to 21. Q
(1) Predict the extent of a reaction on the basis of (1)
its magnitude
(2)
(2) Predict the direction of the reaction
(3) Calculate equilibrium concentrations (3)
(4) Calculate equilibrium constant (4)
22. According to Le-chatelier’s principle, adding heat 22. 
to a solid  liquid equilibrium will cause the
(1) Temperature to increase (1)
(2) Temperature to decrease (2)
(3) Amount of liquid to decrease (3)
(4) Amount of solid to decrease (4)
23. Two moles of PCl5 were heated in a closed vessel 23. PCl5 2L
of 2L. At equilibrium 40% of PCl5 is dissociated into 40% Cl52 PCl
PCl
3
PCl3 and Cl2. The value of equilibrium constant of
reaction is
(1) 0.53 (2) 0.267 (3) 2.63 (4) 5.3 (1) 0.53 (2) 0.267 (3) 2.63 (4) 5.3
24. PCl5 is dissociating 50% at 250°C at a total pressure 24. 250°C PCl5 , P atm 50%
of P atm. If equilibrium constant is Kp, then which Kp
of the following relation is numerically correct ? ?
(1) Kp = 3P (2) P = 3Kp (1) Kp = 3P (2) P = 3Kp
2K P 2P 2K P 2P
(3) P  (4) K P  (3) P  (4) K P 
3 3 3 3
25. What are the product formed when Deuterium is 25. H2 I2
added equilibrium reaction of H2 and I2 ? ?
(i) HD (ii) DI (iii) D2 (iv) HI (i) HD (ii) DI (iii) D2 (iv) HI
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) (2) (i) and (ii) (1) (i), (ii) (iv) (2) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) All of these (3) (ii) (iv) (4)

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26. The equilibrium constant for the reversible reaction 26. N2 + 3H2  2NH3
N2 + 3H2  2NH3 is K and for reaction K
1 3 1 3
N 2  H 2  NH3 the equilibrium constant is K' N 2  H 2  NH3
2 2 2 2
The K and K ' will be related as: K' K K'
(1) K × K ' = 1 (1) K × K ' = 1
(2) K = K ' (2) K = K '
(3) K' = K (3) K' = K
(4) K = K' (4) K = K'

27. If K c is in the range of …… then appreciable 27. Kc =……
concentrations of both reactants and products are
present at equilibrium .
(1) 10–4 104
(1) 10 –4 to 10 4
(2) 10–3 10 3
(2) 10 –3 to 10 3
(3) 10 +3 to 10 –3 (3) 10+3 10–3
(4) 10 –5 to 10 3 (4) 10–5 10 3
28. The correct relationship between free energy 28.
change in a reaction and the corresponding (Kc )
equilibrium constant (Kc ) is
(1) G = RT ln Kc
(1) G = RT ln Kc
(2) –G = RT ln Kc (2) –G = RT ln Kc
(3) G° = RT ln Kc (3) G° = RT ln Kc

(4) –G° = RT ln Kc (4) –G° = RT ln Kc
29. In an equilibrium reaction if temperature increases 29.
(1) Equilibrium constant increases (1)
(2) Equilibrium constant decreases (2)
(3) Any of the above (3)
(4) No effect (4)
30. Match the following equilibria with the 30.
corresponding condition
(i)  (a)
(i) Liquid  Vapour (a) Saturated solution
(ii)  (b)
(ii) Solid  Liquid (b) Boiling point

(iii) Solid  Vapour (c) Sublimation point (iii) (c)
(iv) Solute (s)  Solute (d) Melting point (iv) (s)  aq (d)
(solution) (e)
(e) Unsaturated solution
(1) (i) - c, (ii) - d, (iii) - a, (iv) - b (1) (i) - c, (ii) - d, (iii) - a, (iv) - b
(2) (i) - b, (ii) - d, (iii) - c, (iv) - a (2) (i) - b, (ii) - d, (iii) - c, (iv) - a
(3) (i) - d, (ii) - c, (iii) - a, (iv) - b (3) (i) - d, (ii) - c, (iii) - a, (iv) - b
(4) (i) - b, (ii) - d, (iii) - a, (iv) - c (4) (i) - b, (ii) - d, (iii) - a, (iv) - c

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31. For the reaction : N2(g)+3H2(g)  2NH3(g) 31. : N2(g)+3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
[NH 3 ]2 [NH 3 ]2
Equilibrium constant Kc = Kc =
[N 2 ][H 2 ]3 [N 2 ][H 2 ]3
Match the following reactions with the
corresponding equilibrium constant
Column I (Reaction) Column II
Column I (Reaction) Column II
(Equilibrium
(Equilibrium
constant)
constant)
(i) 2N 2 (g)  6H 2 (g)  4NH3 (g) (a) 2K c
(i) 2N 2 (g)  6H 2 (g)  4NH 3 (g) (a) 2K c
(ii) 2NH 3 (g)  N 2 (g)  3H 2 (g) (b) 12
(ii) 2NH 3 (g)  N 2 (g)  3H 2 (g) (b) 12 Kc
Kc
(iii) 1 3 (c) 1
(iii) 1 3 (c) 1 N 2 (g)  H 2 (g)  NH 3 (g)
N 2 (g)  H 2 (g)  NH 3 (g) 2 2 Kc
2 2 Kc
(d) K c2
(d) K 2c
(1) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-a (2) (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-c (1) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-a (2) (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-c
(3) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b (4) (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-a (3) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b (4) (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-a
32. Match the following graphical variation with their 32.
description A B
A B (i) (a)
(i) (a) Variation in product
concentration
with time (ii) (b)
(ii) (b) Reaction at
equilibrium
(iii) (c)
(iii) (c) Variation in reactant
concentration
with time
(1) (i) - c, (ii) - a, (iii) - b (1) (i) - c, (ii) - a, (iii) - b
(2) (i) - b, (ii) - a, (iii) - c (2) (i) - b, (ii) - a, (iii) - c
(3) (i) - a, (ii) - c, (iii) - b (3) (i) - a, (ii) - c, (iii) - b
(4) (i) - b, (ii) - c, (iii) - a (4) (i) - b, (ii) - c, (iii) - a
33. Match the columns. 33.
Column-I (Reactions) Column-II (Effect Column-I ( ) Column-II (

of increase in )
pressure) (A) H 2 (g)  I 2 (g)  2HI(g) (p)
(A) H 2 (g)  I 2 (g)  2HI(g) (p) Reaction proceed
backward.
1 (B) 1 (q)
(B)
CO(g)  O 2 (g)  CO 2 (g)
(q) No effect on CO(g)  O 2 (g)  CO 2 (g)
2 reaction. 2
(C) N 2 O4 (g)  2NO2 (g) (r) Reaction proceed (C) N 2 O 4 (g)  2NO2 (g) (r)
forward
(1) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p)
(1) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p)
(2) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p)
(2) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p)
(3) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q)
(3) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q)
(4) A – (q), B – (p), C – (r)

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34. Match the columns (4) A – (q), B – (p), C – (r)
34.
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(A) H O(l)  H O(vap) (p) rate of melting = rate of (A) H 2 O(l)  H 2 O(vap) (p)
2 2
freezing
(B) I 2 (solid)  I2 (vapou) (q) rate of evaporation = (B) I2 (s)  I2 (vap) (q)
rate of condensation
(C) Ice  water (r) rate of sublimation= rate
of condensation (C) Ice  water (r)
(1) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r) (1) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r)

(2) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p) (2) A – (r), B – (q), C – (p)
(3) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q) (3) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q)
(4) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p) (4) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p)
35. Match the columns : 35. :
Column-I Column-II
(A) For the equilibrium NH4I(s)  (p) Forward shift Column-I Column-II
NH3(g) + HI(g), if pressure is (A) NH4I(s) NH3(g) (p)
increased at equilibrium + HI(g),
(B) For the equilibrium N2 + 3H2  (q) No change (B) N2 + 3H2  2NH3 (q)
2NH3 If volume is increased at
equilibrium
(C) For the equilibrium H2O(g) + (r) Backward shift (C) H2O(g) + CO(g) (r)
CO(g)  H2(g) + CO2 (g) inert H2(g) + CO2 (g)
gas is added at constant pressure
at equilibrium (D) PCl5  PCl3 + (s) N2
(D) For the equilibrium PCl5  (s) More N2 and H2
is formed.
Cl2 PCl5 H2
PCl3 + Cl2 what happens if more
PCl5 is added
(1) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s)
(1) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s)
(2) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p)
(2) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p)
(3) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r)
(3) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r)
(4) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
(4) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
36. : PCl5
36. Assertion: In the dissociation of PCl5 at constant
pressure and temperature addition of helium at PCl5
equilibrium increases the dissociation of PCl 5 .
Reason : Helium removes Cl 2 from the field of
: Cl2
action.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the (1)
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
(2)
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion (3)
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (4)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements


37. Assertion : For any chemical reaction at a 37. :
particular temperature, the equilibrium constant is
fixed
Reason : Equilibrium constant is independent of :
temperature. (1)
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2)
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (4)
38. Assertion : Kp can be less than, greater than or 38. : Kp Kc
equal to Kc
Reason : Relation between Kp and Kc depends on : Kp Kc
the change in number of moles of gaseous (ng)
reactants and products (ng)
(1)
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason (2)
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect (3)
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct. (4)
39. Assertion : If volume is kept constant and an inert 39. :
gas such as argon is added which does not take
part in the reaction, the equilibrium remains
undisturbed.
:
Reason : It is because the addition of an inert gas
at constant volume does not change the partial
pressure or the molar concentrations of the
substance involved in the reaction. (1)
is a correct explanation for assertion. (2)
40. Assertion : For equilibrium x(g)  y(g) 40. : x(g)  y(g)
Total no of moles at new equilibrium is less than x(g)
old equilibrium if some amount of x(g) is removed
Reason : The number of moles of the substance :
which is removed is partially compensated as the
system reaches to new equilibrium (1)
is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2)


41. For the reaction 2NH3 (g)  N 2 (g)  3H 2 (g) the 41. Kp
units of Kp will be: 2NH3 (g)  N 2 (g)  3H 2 (g)

(1) atm (2) (atm)3] (1) atm (2) (atm)3
(3) (atm)–2 (4) (atm)2 (3) (atm)–2 (4) (atm)2
42. PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g) if the equilibrium 42. PCl5 (g)  PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g)
concentration of PCl 3 (g) is doubled, the PCl3(g) Cl2(g)
concentration of Cl2(g) would become.
(1) 1/4 of its original value (1) 1/4
(2) 1/2 of its original value (2) 1/2
(3) Twice its original value (3)
(4) unpredictable. (4)
43. The reaction 3Fe(s)  4H 2 O  Fe 3 O4 (s)  4H 2 (g) 43. 3Fe(s)  4H 2 O  Fe 3 O4 (s)  4H 2 (g)
is reversible if it is carried out:
(1) At constant pressure (1)
(2) At constant temperature (2)
(3) In an open vessel (3)
(4) In a closed vessel. (4)
44. In the case of gaseous homogeneous reaction, the 44.
active mass of the reactant is obtained by the
expression: PV P
(1) (2)
PV P RT RT
(1) (2)
RT RT
RT n
RT n (3) (4) RT.
(3) (4) RT. P V
P V
45. CaCO3  CaO  CO2 reaction in a lime kiln goes 45. CaCO3  CaO  CO2
to completion because
(1) CaO does not react with CO2 to give CaCO3 (1) CaO, CO2
(2) Backward reaction is very slow (2)
(3) CO2 formed escapes out (3) CO2
(4) None of these (4)
46. When the rate of disappearance of reactants is 46.
equal to the rate of formation of products, this is
known as, (1)
(1) Chemical reaction
(2)
(2) Chemical equilibrium
(3)
(3) Chemical kinetics
(4) None (4)
47. The equilibrium constant for a reaction; 47.
A  B  C  D is 1 × 10 at 298 K and is 2 at
–2 ABCD 298 K
373 K. The chemical process will be: 1 × 10–2 373 K 2
(1) Exothermic (1)
(2) Endothermic (2)
(3) Unpredictable (3)
(4) There is no relationship between K and H. (4) K H


48. Le-Chatelier principle is not applicable to: 48.
(1) H 2 (g)  I2 (g)  2HI(g) (1) H 2 (g)  I2 (g)  2HI(g)
(2) N2 (g)  3H 2 (g)  2NH3 (g) (2) N2 (g)  3H 2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
(3) PCl 5 (g)  PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g) (3) PCl 5 (g)  PCl3 (g)  Cl2 (g)
(4) Fe(s)  S(s)  FeS(s) (4) Fe(s)  S(s)  FeS(s)
49. The solubility of CO2 in water increases with: 49. CO2
(1) Increase in temperature (1)
(2) Reduction of gas pressure (2)
(3) Increase in gas pressure (3)
(4) Increase in volume. (4)
50. For the following equilibrium 50.
N2O4(g)  2NO2(g) N2O4(g)  2NO2(g)
KP is found to be equal to KC. this is attained when: KP KC
(1) T = 1 K (2) T = 12.18K (1) T = 1 K (2) T = 12.18K
(3) T = 27.3 K (4) T = 273 K. (3) T = 27.3 K (4) T = 273 K.
ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 3 2 3 1 2 1 2 2 3 1 2 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 2 1 1 4 2 4 1 2 2 2 4 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 1 1 2 1 4 3 2 4 4 4 4 4 1 4 2 2 4 2 2 4 2 3 1 2 2 4 2 3 3 3
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 4 3 4 3 3 4 1 1 4 2 2 2 1 2 4 2 1 2 4 4 3 3 2 4 4 4 1 2
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115
A. 3 2 3 4 1 4 4 1 1 3 1 4 4 2 1 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 1 4


Chemical Kinetics
1. A graph of volume of hydrogen released vs time 1. Zn HCl
for the reaction between zinc and dil. HCl is given
in Fig. On the basis of this mark the correct option.
V3  V2 V3  V2
(1) Average rate upto 40s is (1) 40s =
40 40
V3  V2 V3  V2
(2) Average rate upto 40 seconds is (2) 40 sec =
40  30 40  30
V3 V3
(3) Average rate upto 40 seconds is (3) =
40 40
V3  V1 V3  V1
(4) Average rate upto 40 seconds is (4) 40 sec =
40  20 40  20
2. Consider the graph given in Fig. Which of the 2.
following options does not show instantaneous 40th sec ?
rate of reaction at 40th second?
V5  V2 V4  V2 V5  V2 V4  V2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
50  30 50  30 50  30 50  30
V3  V2 V3  V1 V3  V2 V3  V1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
40  30 40  20 40  30 40  20
3. At high pressure the following reaction is zero order 3.
2NH3 (g)  N 2 (g)  3H 2 (g)
1130K
Platinum catalyst 2NH3 (g) 1130K
N 2 (g)  3H 2 (g)
Platinum catalyst
Which of the following options are correct for this

reaction? (i) =
(i) Rate of reaction = Rate constant
(ii)
(ii) Rate of the reaction depends on concentration
(iii)
of ammonia
(iii) Rate of decomposition of ammonia will remain
constant until ammonia disappears completely (iv)
(iv) Further increase in pressure will change the (1) i,iv
rate of reaction (2) ii,iv
(1) i,iv (2) ii,iv (3) i,iii
(3) i,iii (4) ii,iii (4) ii,iii


4. Which of the following graphs is correct for a zero 4.
order reaction ?
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
5. The following data were obtained during the first 5. SO2Cl2

order thermal decomposition of SO 2 Cl 2 at a :
constant volume : SO2Cl 2(g)  SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
SO2Cl 2(g)  SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
Experiment Time/s Total pressure/atm
Experiment Time/s Total pressure/atm
1 0 0.5 1 0 0.5
2 100 0.6 2 100 0.6
Calculate the rate of reaction when total pressure
0.65 atm.
is 0.65 atm.
atm 3 atm
(1) 7.8  10
3
(2) 7.8  105 atm s1 (1) 7.8  10 (2) 7.8  105 atm s1
sec sec
4 atm 6 atm 4 atm 6 atm

(3) 7.8  10 (4) 7.8  10 (3) 7.8  10 (4) 7.8  10
sec sec sec sec
6. Consider the following statements, 6.
I. Hydrolysis of ethyl acetate is a pseudo first order I.
reaction.
II. Concentration of H2O has no role in II. H2O
the determination of the order of the reaction.
III. Rate of the reaction (in I) = k[CH3COOC2H5].
III. (I ) = k[CH3COOC2H5].
Which of the above mentioned statement(s) is/are
correct? ?
(1) I and II (1) I and II
(2) II and III (2) II and III
(3) I and III (3) I and III
(4) I, II and III. (4) I, II and III.


7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct 7.
about order of a reaction?
I. The order of a reaction can be a fractional I.
number.
II.
II. Order of a reaction is experimentally
determined quantity. III.
III. The order of a reaction is always equal to the sum
of stoichiometric coefficients of reactants in the
balanced chemical equation for a reaction.
IV. The order of a reaction is the sum of the powers IV.
of molar concentration of the reactants in the
rate law expression.
Choose the correct option.
(1) I, II and III only (2) I, II and IV only
(1) I, II and III only (2) I, II and IV only
(3) II, III and IV only (4) I, II, III and IV only (3) II, III and IV only (4) I, II, III and IV only
8. Which of the following statements are applicable to 8.
a balanced chemical equation of an elementary ?
reaction ? (i)
(i) Order is same as molecularity (ii)
(ii) Order is less than the molecularity (iii)
(iii) Order is greater than the molecularity (iv)
(iv) Molecularity can never be zero (1) ii, iii (2) i, iv
(1) ii, iii (2) i, iv (3) i,ii (4) ii,iv (3) i,ii (4) ii,iv
9. For a complex reaction..........: 9. ..........:
(i) Order of overall reaction is same as (i)
molecularity of the slowest step
(ii) Order of overall reaction is less than the (ii)
(iii) Order of overall reaction is greater than (iii)
(iv) Molecularity of the slowest step is never zero (iv)
or non-integer.
(1) ii, iii (2) i,iii (1) ii, iii (2) i,iii
(3) i ,iv (4) iii, iv (3) i ,iv (4) iii, iv
10. According to Maxwell Boltzmann distribution of 10. ......
energy,......
I.
I. The fraction of molecules with most probable
kinetic energy decreases at higher temperatures.
II. The fraction of molecules with most probable II.
kinetic energy increases at higher temperatures.
III. Most probable kinetic energy decreases at
higher temperatures. III.
IV. Most probable kinetic energy increases at
IV.
higher temperatures.
The most appropriate option with all correct
statements is :
(1) I and III (2) I and IV (1) I and III (2) I and IV
(3) I and II (4) I, II and III (3) I and II (4) I, II and III


11. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true 11.
about the collision theory of chemical reaction ? ?
I. Number of effective collisions determines the I.
rate of reaction.
II. Collision of atom/molecules possessing II.
sufficient threshold energy results into the
products formation. III.
III. In considering reacting atoms/molecules to be
hard spheres and ignores their structural
features. IV.
IV. Molecules should collide with sufficient
threshold energy and proper orientation for the
collision to be effective.
(1) I, II and III
Choose the most appropriate option regarding the
(2) I, III and IV
above statements.
(3) II, III and IV
(1) I, II and III (2) I, III and IV
(3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
12. For a certain reaction large fraction of molecules 12.
has energy more than the threshold energy, yet the
rate of reaction is very slow. Why?
(1) Ea is high (1) Ea
(2) Improper orientation (2)
(3) Low Ea (3) Ea
(4) Catalyst is not present (4)
13. The reaction between H2(g) and O2(g) is highly 13. H2(g) O2(g)
feasible yet allowing the gases to stand at room
temperature in the same vessel does not lead to the
formation of water. Explain. (1) Ea
(1) Ea is very high (2)
(2) Low temperature
(3) Ea
(3) Ea is very low
(4) Proper orientation (4)
14. Why in the redox titration of KMnO4 vs. oxalic 14. KMnO4
acid, we heat oxalic acid solution before starting
the titration ? ?
(1) Ea is high (1) Ea
(2) High temperature is required (2)
(3) Low temperature is required (3)
(4) Improper orientation (4)
15. The activation energy for the reaction, 15.
2HI(g)  H2(g) + I2(g), 2HI(g)  H2(g) + I2(g),
is 209.5 kJ at 581 K. Calculate the fraction of 581 209.5 kJ
molecules of reactants having energy equal to or
greater than activation energy.
(1) 1.471 × 10 –19
(1) 1.471 × 10 –19
(2) 1.4 × 10 –18 (2) 1.4 × 10 –18
(3) 1.4 × 10 –17 (3) 1.4 × 10 –17
(4) 1.4 × 10 –20 (4) 1.4 × 10 –20


16. The decomposition of a hydrocarbon follows the 16.
equation K = 4.5 × 1011 e–28000/T , calculate Ea. K = 4.5 × 1011 e–28000/T, Ea
(1) 232.79 kJ mol –1 (1) 232.79 kJ mol –1
(2) 208 kJ mol –1 (2) 208 kJ mol –1
(3) 188 kJ mol –1 (3) 188 kJ mol –1
(4) 252 kJ mol –1 (4) 252 kJ mol –1
17. In the presence of a catalyst, the heat evolved or 17.
absorbed during the reaction.......
(1) Increases (1)
(2) Decreases (2)
(3) Remains unchanged (3)
(4) May increase or decrease (4)
18. Match the statements given in Column -I with 18. -I -II :
Column-II:
I II
Column I Column II
(i) (A)
(i) Catalyst alters the (A) cannot be fraction
rate of reaction or zero
(ii) Molecularity (B) proper orientation is (ii) (B)
not there always
(iii) Second half-life of (C) by lowering the
(iii) (C)
first order reaction activation energy
(iv) e  E a / RT (D) is same as the first
(v) Energetically (E) total probability is (iv) e  E a / RT (D)
favourable one (v) (E)
reactions are
sometimes slow
(vi) Area under the (F) refers to the
Maxwell fraction of (vi) (F)
Boltzmann curve is molecules with
constant energy equal to or
greater than
activation energy
(1) (i)  (A); (ii)  (B); (iii)  (C); (iv)  (D)- (1) (i)  (A); (ii)  (B); (iii)  (C); (iv)  (D)-
(v)  (E); (vi)  (F) (v)  (E); (vi)  (F)
(2) (i)  (C); (ii)  (A); (iii)  (D); (iv)  (F)- (2) (i)  (C); (ii)  (A); (iii)  (D); (iv)  (F)-
(v)  (B); (vi)  (E) (v)  (B); (vi)  (E)
(3) (i)  (B); (ii)  (C); (iii)  (A); (iv)  (D)- (3) (i)  (B); (ii)  (C); (iii)  (A); (iv)  (D)-
(v)  (E); (vi)  (F) (v)  (E); (vi)  (F)
(4) (i)  (E); (ii)  (C); (iii)  (A); (iv)  (F)- (4) (i)  (E); (ii)  (C); (iii)  (A); (iv)  (F)-
(v)  (D); (vi)  (B) (v)  (D); (vi)  (B)


19. Consider the following reaction : 19. :
4NH 3 (g)  5O2 (g) 

Pt(s)
 4NO(g)  6H 2 O(g) 4NH 3 (g)  5O2 (g) 
Pt(s)
 4NO(g)  6H 2 O(g)
(i) Rate of reaction with respect to NH3 will be

1  NH 3 
1  NH 3  (i) NH3 
 4 t
4 t
1 O 2  1  H 2 O
1 O 2  1  H 2 O (ii)  
(ii) For the given reaction   5 t 6 t
5 t 6 t
1  NH3  1  NO 1  NH3  1  NO

(iii)  
(iii) For the given reaction   4 t 4 t
4 t 4 t
(iv) For the given reaction (iv)
1  NH3  1 [O2 ] 1  NH 3  1 [O 2 ]

Rate     
4 t 5 t 4 t 5 t
4 NO 6[H 2 O] 4 NO 6[H 2 O]

   
t t t t
Which of the following is the correct code for the

statements above
(1) TTTT
(1) TTTT
(2) TFTF
(2) TFTF
(3) FTFT
(3) FTFT
(4) TFFT
(4) TFFT
20. ?
20. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(i)
(i) Rate of reaction decreases with passage of
time as the concentration of reactants decrease.
(ii) For a reaction pP + qQ  rR + sS (ii) pP + qQ  rR + sS
Rate = k[P]x[Q]y where x = p and y = q = k[P]x[Q]y where x = p and y = q
(iii) Rate law is the expression in which reaction (iii)

rate is given in terms of molar concentration
of reactants with each term raised to some
power, which may or may not be same as the
stoichiometric coefficient of the reacting
species in a balanced chemical equation.
(1) (i) and (iii)
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (i) and(ii)
(2) (i) and(ii)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) only (4) (i) only


21. Study the following graphs and choose the correct 21.
option
(i) In fig. a, A represents average rate and B (i) a, A B

represents instantaneous rate
(ii) In fig. b, D represents average rate and C (ii) b, D C
(iii) Fig. a, A represents instantaneous rate and B (iii) a, A B
represents average rate
(iv) Fig. b, C represents average rate and D (iv) b, C D
(1) (i) and (ii) are correct (1) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iv) are correct (2) (ii) (iv)
(3) (i) and (iv) are correct (3) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii) are correct (4) (ii) (iii)
22. Choose correct option based on following 22.
statements. Here T stands for true statement and (i)
F tor false statement.
(i) Molecularity is defined as the number of
reacting species taking part in a complex (ii)
reaction,
(ii) Molecularity helps in understanding the
(iii)
mechanism of reaction.
(iii) Reactions with the molecularity three are very
rare and slow to proceed. (iv)
(iv) Complex reactions involving more than three
molecules take place in more than one step.
(1) TTTF (2) TFTF (1) TTTF (2) TFTF
(3) FTTF (4) FTTT (3) FTTF (4) FTTT
23. Read the following statements 23.
(i) Order of reaction can be fractional or zero. (i)
(ii) Molecularity of a reaction can be fractional but
(ii)
cannot be zero.
(iii) Slowest step in the complex reaction is
considered as a rate determining step. (iii)
(iv) Units of rate constant for second order reaction
are mol L s–1. (iv)
(v) Order is applicable to elementary as well as –1
complex reactions whereas molecularity is (v)

applicable only for elementary reactions.
Which of the following is the correct code for the
statements above ?
(1) TTFFT (2) TFTFT (3) FFFTT (4) FTTFF (1) TTFFT (2) TFTFT (3) FFFTT (4) FTTFF


24. Consider the following statements with respect of 24.
zero order reaction
(i) The rate of the reaction is independent of (i)
reactant concentration
(ii) The rate of the reaction is independent of (ii)
temperature
(iii)
(iii) The rate constant of the reaction is
independent of temperature
(iv)
(iv) The rate constant of the reaction is independent
of reactant concentration
Choose the correct statement(s).
(1) (i) only (1) (i)
(2) (i) and (ii) only (2) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) and (iv) only (3) (iii) (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)only (4) (i) (iv)
25. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 25.
(i) For a zero order reaction concentration [R] vs (i) [R] (t)
time (t) gives a straight line plot
[R]0 [R]0
(ii) For a first order reaction log does not (ii) log
[R] [R]
vary linearly with time.
(iii) Inversion of cane sugar is a pseudo first order (iii)
reaction.
(1) (i) (iii)
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (i)
(2) (i) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) (3) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) only (4) (iii)
26. Consider the following statements: 26.
(i) Increase in concentration of reactant increases (i)
the rate of a zero order reaction.
(ii) Rate constant k is equal to frequency factor A (ii) k A
if Ea = 0. Ea = 0.
(iii) Rate constant k is equal to frequency factor (iii) k A
A if Ea= . Ea= .
(iv) Ink vs T is a straight line. (iv) Ink vs T
(v) Ink vs 1/T is a straight line. (v) Ink vs 1/T
Correct statements are
(1) (i) and (iv) (1) (i) and (iv)
(2) (ii) and (v) (2) (ii) and (v)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iii)


27. Consider the following statements 27.
(i) Rate constant for every physical and chemical
(i) 10°C
change gets doubled with 10°C rise in
temperature
(ii) On taking log both side Arrhenius equation will (ii)
become
Ea
log k    log A
Ea RT
log k    log A
RT
(iii)
(iii) The energy required to form activated complex
is known as activation energy
Which of the following is the correct code for
statements above?
(1) TTT (2) FIT
(1) TTT (2) FIT
(3) FTF (4) TFT (3) FTF (4) TFT
28. Read the following statements. 28.
(i) e  Ea / RT corresponds to the fraction of molecules (i) e  Ea / RT Ea
that have kinetic energy greater than Ea.
(ii) Ea can be calculated as follows (ii) Ea
k1 E a  T2  T1  k1 E a  T2  T1 
log    log   
k 2 2.303R  T1T2  k 2 2.303R  T1T2 
(iii) Catalyst can alter a reaction both ways means (iii)

it can either decrease on increase rate of
reaction (iv)
(iv) A catalyst always decreases the activation
energy of the reaction but does not alter Gibb's (v)
energy.
(v) A catalyst does not alter equilibrium constant
rather, it helps in attaining the equilibrium
?
faster.
Which of the following is the correct codes for (1) TTTFF
above statements ? (2) TFFTT
(1) TTTFF (2) TFFTT (3) TFFTF
(3) TFFTF (4) FTFTT (4) FTFTT
29. The following statement(s) is (are) correct: 29. :
(i) A plot of log kp versus 1/T is linear (i) log kp 1/T
(ii) A plot of log [X] versus time is linear for a first (ii) X  P, log [X]
order reaction, X  P
(t)
(iii) A plot of log p versus 1/T is linear at constant
(iii) log p 1/T
volume
(iv) A plot of p versus 1 /V is linear at constant (iv) p 1/V
temperature (1) (i)
(1) (i) only (2) (ii)
(2) (ii) only
(3) (i) (iv)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)


30. Match the columns 30.
Column-I Column-II -I -II

(A) Mathematical expression (p) rate (A) (p)
for rate of reaction constant
(B) Rate of reaction for zero (q) rate law (B) (q)
order reaction is equal to
(C) Units of rate constant for (r) order of
(C) (r)
zero order reaction is slowest step
same as that of
(D) Order of a complex (s) rate of (D) (s)
reaction is determined by reaction
(1) A-(q),B-(p),C-(s),D-(r) (1) A-(q),B-(p),C-(s),D-(r)

(2) A-(r),B-(p),C-(s),D-(q) (2) A-(r),B-(p),C-(s),D-(q)
(3) A-(q),B-(s),C-(p),D-(r) (3) A-(q),B-(s),C-(p),D-(r)
(4) A-(p),B-(q),C-(s),D-(r) (4) A-(p),B-(q),C-(s),D-(r)
Column-I Column-II
(A) Zero order reaction (p) L mole–1 -I -II
sec–1 (A) (p) L mole–1 sec –1

(B) First order reaction (q) mole L–1 (B) (q) mole L–1 sec –1
sec
–1 (C) (r) sec–1
(C) Second order reaction (r) sec–1
(1) A-(q),B-(r),C-(p)
(1) A-(q),B-(r),C-(p)
(2) A-(q),B-(p),C-(r)
(2) A-(q),B-(p),C-(r)
(3) A-(p),B-(q),C-(r)
(3) A-(p),B-(q),C-(r)
(4) A-(p),B-(r),C-(q)
(4) A-(p),B-(r),C-(q)
32.
32. Match the columns:
Column-I Column-II
-I -II
(A) The decomposition of (p) Zero order
gaseous ammonia on a reaction (A) (p)
hot platinum surface
(B) The thermal (q) Pseudo first
decomposition of HI order (B) HI (q)
on gold surface reaction.
(C) All natural and (r) Zero order (C) (r)
artificial radioactive reaction at
decay of unstable high
nuclei pressure
(D) Inversion of cane (s) First order (D) (s)
sugar reaction.
(1) A-(r),B-(p),C-(s),D-(q) (1) A-(r),B-(p),C-(s),D-(q)
(2) A-(r),B-(s),C-(q),D-(p) (2) A-(r),B-(s),C-(q),D-(p)
(3) A-(q),B-(s),C-(p),D-(r) (3) A-(q),B-(s),C-(p),D-(r)
(4) A-(q),B-(p).C-(s).D-(p) (4) A-(q),B-(p).C-(s).D-(p)


33. Match the columns: 33.

(A) [R ]  [R] (p) 2.303 (A) [R ]  [R] (p) 2.303
k 0 k log 2 k 0 k log 2
t t1/ 2 t t1/ 2
(B) 2.303 [R ] (q) Rate constant for (B) 2.303 [R ] (q)
k log 0 k log 0
t [R] zero order t [R]
reaction
(C) k (r) [R]0
(C) Value of k for first (r) [R]0 k
k 2t 1/ 2
order reaction when 2t1/ 2 [R]0
[R]0 t  t 1 and[R] 
t  t 1 and[R]  2 2
2 2
(D) k (s)
(D) Value of k for zero (s) Rate constant for
order reaction when first order [R]0
[R]0 reaction t  t1/ 2 and[R] 
t  t1/ 2 and[R]  2
2
(1) A-(s),B-(q),C-(p),D-(r)
(1) A-(s),B-(q),C-(p),D-(r)
(2) A-(q),B-(s),C-(p),D-(r)
(2) A-(q),B-(s),C-(p),D-(r)
(3) A-(q),B-(p),C-(s),D-(r) (3) A-(q),B-(p),C-(s),D-(r)
(4) A-(q),B-(s),C-(p),D-(t) (4) A-(q),B-(s),C-(p),D-(t)

(A) Number of collisions per (p) Effective (A) (p)
second per unit volume of collisions.
the reaction mixture.
(B) Fraction of molecules with (q) Collision
energies equal to or greater frequency (B) Ea (q)
than Ea
(C) Molecules for which (r) e  Ea / RT (C) (r) e  Ea / RT
Rate  Z AB e  Ea / RT shows Rate  Z AB e  E a / RT
significant deviations
(D) Collision in which (s) Complex
(D) (s)
molecules collide with molecules
sufficient T.E. and proper
orientation.
(1) A-(q),B-(r),C-(s),D-(p) (1) A-(q),B-(r),C-(s),D-(p)

(2) A-(r),B-(q),C-(s),D-(p) (2) A-(r),B-(q),C-(s),D-(p)
(3) A-(q),B-(s),C-(r),D-(p) (3) A-(q),B-(s),C-(r),D-(p)
(4) A-(q),B-(r),C-(p),D-(s) (4) A-(q),B-(r),C-(p),D-(s)


35. Consider the energy diagram of a reaction : B  35. BA
A, on the basis of given diagram select the correct
code for matching Column-I and Column-II.

(A) X-A (p) Enthalpy of reaction (A) X-A (p)
(B) X-B (q) Energy of transition (B) X-B (q)
state (C) A-B (r)
(C) A-B (r) Activation energy of
forward reaction
(D) X (s) Activation energy of (D) X (s)
backward reaction
(1) A-(s),B-(r),C-(q),D-(p) (1) A-(s),B-(r),C-(q),D-(p)
(2) A-(q),B-(r),C-(p),D-(s) (2) A-(q),B-(r),C-(p),D-(s)
(3) A-(r).B-(s).C-(p),D-(q) (3) A-(r).B-(s).C-(p),D-(q)
(4) A-(s),B-(r),C-(p),D-(q) (4) A-(s),B-(r),C-(p),D-(q)
36. In the following reaction, how is the rate of 36.
appearance of underlined product related to the
rate of disappearance of the underlined reactant?
BrO3– (aq) + 5Br– (aq) + 6H+ 3Br2 (1) + 3H2O(1) BrO3– (aq) + 5Br– (aq) + 6H+ 3Br2 (1) + 3H2O(1)
d[Br2 ] d[Br  ] d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br  ] d[Br2 ] d[Br  ] d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br  ]

(1)  (2)  (1)  (2) 
dt dt dt 5 dt dt dt dt 5 dt
d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br  ] d[Br2 ] 5 d[Br  ] d[Br2 ] 3 d[Br  ] d[Br2 ] 5 d[Br  ]

(3)   (4)   (3)  (4) 
dt 5 dt dt 3 dt dt 5 dt dt 3 dt
37. CHCl3 + Cl2 CCl4 + HCl 37. CHCl3 + Cl2 CCl4 + HCl
Rate law for above reaction will be
Rate= k[CHCl3][Cl2]1/2 = k[CHCl3][Cl2]1/2
On the basis of information provided which of the
following option will be correct?
(1) Rate law for any chemical reaction can be
(1)
predicted accurately by looking at balanced
chemical equation.
(2) Rate law for a chemical reaction has to
determine experimentally. (2)
(3) Either determined experimentally or obtained
from balanced chemical reaction, rate law will (3)
be same.
(4) None of the above is correct. (4)


38. The reaction of hydrogen and iodine 38.
monochloride is given as:
H2(g) + 2ICl(g)  2HCl(g) + I2(g) H2(g) + 2ICl(g)  2HCl(g) + I2(g)
The reaction is of first order with respect to H2(g) H2(g) ICl(g)
and ICl(g), following mechanisms were proposed.
Mechanism A: A:
H2 (g) + 2ICl(g)  2HCl(g) + I2(g)
H2 (g) + 2ICl(g)  2HCl(g) + I2(g)
Mechanism B:
B:
H2(g) + ICl(g) HI(g); slow
H2(g) + ICl(g) HI(g);
HI(g) + ICl(g)  HCl(g) +I2 (g); fast
HI(g) + ICl(g)  HCl(g) +I2 (g);
Which of the above mechanism(s) can be
consistent with the given information about the
reaction? ?
(1) A and B both (2) Neither A nor B (1) A B (2) A B
(3) A only (4) B only (3) A (4) B
39. The hypothetical reaction A2 + B2  2AB ; follows 39. A 2 + B 2  2AB;
the following mechanism A2 
 A+A, Fast A2  A + A ,
A + B2 Slow
 AB + B, A + B  
Fast
 AB A + B2  AB + B, A + B  AB
The order of the overall reaction is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3/2 (3) 2 (4) 3/2
40. The initial rates of reaction 40. 3A + 2B + C 
3A + 2B + C  Products, at different initial
concentrations are given below:
–1 Initial rate, Ms–1 [A]0,M [B]0,M [C]0,M
Initial rate, Ms [A]0,M [B]0,M [C]0,M –3
5.0×10 0.010 0.005 0.010
5.0×10–3 0.010 0.005 0.010 –3
–3 5.0×10 0.010 0.005 0.015
5.0×10 0.010 0.005 0.015 –2
–2 1.0×10 0.010 0.010 0.010
1.0×10 0.010 0.010 0.010 –3
1.25×10 0.005 0.005 0.010
1.25×10–3 0.005 0.005 0.010
The order with respect to the reactants, A, B and A, B C
C are respectively (1) 3,2,0 (2) 3,2,1
(1) 3,2,0 (2) 3,2,1 (3) 2,2,0 (4) 2,1,0 (3) 2,2,0 (4) 2,1,0
41. Consider a reaction aG + bH  Products. When 41. aG + bH  G
concentration of both the reactants G and H is H
doubled, the rate increases by eight times. H
However, when concentration of G is doubled G
keeping the concentration of H fixed, the rate is
doubled. The overall order of the reaction is (1) 0 (2) 1
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
42. The decomposition of ammonia on tungsten 42. 500 K
surface at 500 K follows zero order kinetics. The
half-life period of this reaction is 45 minutes when 4 bar
the initial pressure is 4 bar. The half-life period 16 bar
(minutes) of the reaction when the initial pressure
is 16 bar at the same temperature is
(1) 120 (2) 60 (3) 240 (4) 180
(1) 120 (2) 60 (3) 240 (4) 180


43. A substance 'A' decomposes by a first order 43. A
reaction starting initially with [A] = 2.00 M and [A] = 2.00 M
after 200 min, [A] becomes 0.15 M. For this
[A] = 0.15 M t1/2
reaction t1/2 is
(1) 53.72 min (2) 50.49 min (1) 53.72 min (2) 50.49 min
(3) 48.45 min (4) 46.45 min (3) 48.45 min (4) 46.45 min
44. If half-life of a substance is 5 yrs, then the total 44.
amount of substance left after 15 years, when
initial amount is 64 grams is :
(1) 16 grams (2) 2 grams (1) 16 (2) 2
(3) 32 grams (4) 8 grams (3) 32 (4) 8
45. For the first order reaction 45.
C2H4O(g)  CH4(g) + CO(g) the initial pressure C2H4O(g)  CH4(g) + CO(g), C2H4O(g)
of C2H4O(g) is 80 torr and total pressure at the end 80
of 20 minutes is 120 torr. The time needed for 75% C2H4O 75%
decomposition of C2H4O would be :
(1) 20 minutes (2) 40 minutes (1) 20 (2) 40
(3) 80 minutes (4) 120 minutes (3) 80 (4) 120
46. In a zero-order reaction for every 10° rise of 46. 10°
temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature 10°C 100°C
is increased from 10°C to 100°C, the rate of the
reaction will become:
(1) 256 times (2) 512 times (1) 256 times (2) 512 times
(3) 64 times (4) 128 times (3) 64 times (4) 128 times
47. For a first order reaction AP, the temperature (T) 47. AP (T)
dependent rate constant (k) was found to follow (k)
1 1
the equation log k  (2000)  6.0 The pre- log k  (2000)  6.0 A
T T
exponential factor A and the activation energy Ea, Ea
respectively, are (1) 1.0 × 106 s–1 9.2kJmol –1
(1) 1.0 × 10 6 s –1 and 9.2kJmol –1
(2) 6.0 s–1 16.6 kJ mol –1
(2) 6.0 s–1 and 16.6 kJ mol –1
(3) 1.0 × 10 6 s –1 and 16.6 kJ mol –1 (3) 1.0 × 106 s–1 16.6 kJ mol –1
(4) 1.0 × 10 6 s –1 and 38.3kJ mol –1 (4) 1.0 × 106 s–1 38.3kJ mol–1
48. The activation energies of two reactions are E1 and 48. E1 E2 (E1 > E2)
E2 (E1 > E2). if the temperature of the system is T1 T2
increased from T1 to T2, the rate constant of the
k1 k 1'
'
reactions changes from k1 to k in the first reaction
1
k2 k '2
'
and k2 to k in the second reaction. Predict which
2
of the following expression is correct?
k1' k '2 k1' k '2 k1' k '2 k1' k '2

  (1)  (2) 
(1) (2) k1 k 2 k1 k 2
k1 k 2 k1 k 2
k1' k '2 k1' k '2

(3)  (4)  1 k1' k '2 k1' k '2
k1 k 2 k1 k 2 (3)  (4)  1
k1 k 2 k1 k 2


49. The rate constant, the activation energy and the 49. 25°C
arrhenius parameter of a chemical reaction at 25°C 3.0 × 10–4s–1, 104.4
are 3.0 × 10–4s–1, 104.4 kJ mol–1 and 6.0 × 1014 kJ mol–1 6.0 × 1014 s–1 T
s–1 respectively. The value of the rate constant as
T   is :
(1) 2.0 × 1018s –1 (2) 6.0 × 1014s –1 (1) 2.0 × 1018s –1 (2) 6.0 × 1014s –1
(3) Infinity (4) 3.6 × 1030s –1 (3) (4) 3.6 × 1030s –1
50. Collision theory is used to explain how chemical 50.
species undergo a reaction. Using this theory and
the kinetic molecular model, which of the
following does NOT influence the rate of a
chemcial reaction?
(1) The temperature of the system
(1)
(2) The geometry or orientation of the collision
(3) The velocity of the reactants at the point of (2)
collision (3)
(4) All of the above influence the rate (4)
51. The activation energy for a hypothetical reaction, 51. A
AProduct, is 12.49 kcal/mole. If temperature is 12.49 kcal/mole
raised from 295 to 305, the rate of reaction
increased by
(1) 60% (2) 100% (1) 60% (2) 100%
(3) 50% (4) 20% (3) 50% (4) 20%
52. A reactant (A) from two products : 52. (A)
A 
k1
 B Activation Energy E a1 A 
k1
 B E a1
A 
k2
 C Activation Energy E a 2 A 
k2
 C E a2
If Ea2 =2Ea1 then k1 and k2 are releated Ea2 =2Ea1 k1 k2
(1) k 2  k1eEa1 /RT (2) k 2  k1e Ea 2 /RT (1) k 2  k1eEa1 /RT (2) k 2  k1e Ea 2 /RT
(3) k1  Ak 2 eEa1 /RT (4) k1  2k 2 eEa 2 / RT (3) k1  Ak 2 eEa1 /RT (4) k1  2k 2 eEa 2 / RT
53. Which of the following graph(s) represents 53.
exothermic reaction?
(a) (b) (a) (b)
(c) (c)
(1) a only (2) b only (1) a (2) b

(3) c only (4) a and b both (3) c (4) a b


54. Which of the following statements is not correct 54.
for the catalyst? (1)
(1) It catalyses the forward and backward reaction
to the same extent.
(2) It alters G of the reaction. (2)
(3) It is a substance that does not change the (3)
equilibrium constant of a reaction.
(4)
(4) It provides an alternate mechanism by reducing
activation energy between reactants and products.
55. During decomposition of an activated complex. 55.
(i) Energy is always released (i)
(ii) Energy is always absorbed (ii)
(iii) Energy does not change (iii)
(iv) Reactants may be formed (iv)
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (1) (i), (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) and (iv) (2) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (3) (ii) (iii)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) (iv)
56. Under which of the following conditions a match 56.
stick will lit faster ? (1) (21 % O2)
(1) In air (21 % O2)
(2)
(2) In vacuum
(3) In atmosphere of He (3) He
(4) In a jar containing 100% O2 (4) 100% O2
57. Which of the following reactant will react fastest 57.
under identical conditions ?
(1) PCl 5(s) (1) PCl 5(s)
(2) PCl5(g) (2) PCl5(g)
(3) PCl5(aq) (3) PCl5(aq)
(4) PCl5(l) (4) PCl5(l)
58. Which statement is wrong ? 58.
(1) More time is required to cook rice in Massoorie (1)
than that required in KanyaKumari.
(2) Compared to piece of sugar its powder
(2)
dissolves earlier in water.
(3) The time taken to boil potatoes in closed
pressure cooker is same at both sea level and (3)
top of mountain.
(4) Reaction of sodium is faster than sodium- (4)
amalgam with ethanol.
59. Rate of reaction increases with increase in 59.
temperature usually because :
(1) Energy barrier decreases (1)
(2) Activation energy increases (2)
(3) Effective collisions increases (3)
(4) Threshold energy increases (4)


60. The rate of production of D in 2A + B  2C + 4D 60. 2A + B  2C + 4D D
is 1.6 × 10 –3 Ms –1 . Which of the following 1.6 × 10 Ms–1
–3
statement is true for this reaction ?
d[B] d[B]
(1)   3.2  103 Ms 1 (1)   3.2  103 Ms 1
dt dt
d[A] d[A]
(2)   6.4  103 Ms 1 (2)   6.4  103 Ms 1
dt dt
d[C] d[C]
(3)  8.0  104 Ms 1 (3)  8.0  104 Ms 1
dt dt
1 d[A] 1 d[A]
(4)   1.6  103 Ms 1 (4)   1.6  103 Ms 1
2 dt 2 dt
61. In a reaction ; BrO3–(aq) + 5Br–(aq) + 6H+(aq)  3Br2(1) 61. BrO3–(aq) + 5Br–(aq) + 6H+(aq)  3Br2(1) +
+ 3H2O(1) the rate of consumption of Br– is 1.5 × 3H2O(1), Br– 1.5 × 10–2 Ms–1
10–2 Ms–1. The rate of consumption of H+ and rate H+ Br2
of production of Br 2 will be respectively.......
(1) (5 × 6) 1.5 × 10–2, (3 × 6) 1.5 × l0–2 (1) (5 × 6) 1.5 × 10–2, (3 × 6) 1.5 × l0–2
6 2  3  2 6 2  3  2
(2)  1.5  10 ,  1.5  10 (2)  1.5  10 ,  1.5  10
5
  5
  5
  5
 
5 2  5  2 5 2  5  2
(3)  1.5  10 ,    1.5  10 (3)  1.5  10 ,    1.5  10
6 3 6 3
(4) (5 + 6) 1.5 × 10–2, (3 + 6) 1.5 × 10–2 (4) (5 + 6) 1.5 × 10–2, (3 + 6) 1.5 × 10–2
62. The pressure of N 2O 4 in a reaction N 2 O 4(g)  62. N2O4(g)  2NO2(g) N2O4 0.5 atm
2NO2(g) reduces from 0.5 atm to 0.32 aim in 30 0.32 atm NO2
minutes. Find rate of production of NO2
(1) 0.012 atm min–1 (1) 0.012 atm min–1
(2) 0.024 atm min–1 (2) 0.024 atm min–1
(3) 0.006 atm min–1 (3) 0.006 atm min–1
(4) 0.003 atm min–1 (4) 0.003 atm min–1
63. If for a reaction : pA + qB  products, rate of 63. pA + qB 
reaction = K[A]m[B] n then ... = K[A] [B]
m n
(1) (p + q) = (m+n) (1) (p + q) = (m+n)

(2) p + q = m–n (2) p + q = m–n
(3) (p + q) > (m+n) (3) (p + q) > (m+n)
(4) (p + q) = (m+n) OR (p + q)  (m + n) (4) (p + q) = (m+n) OR (p + q)  (m + n)
64. Which reaction has its order in fraction ? 64.
(1) 2N2O5  4NO2 + O2 (1) 2N2O5  4NO2 + O2
(2) 2NO2 + F2  2NO2F (2) 2NO2 + F2  2NO2F
(3) H2 + Br2  2HBr (3) H2 + Br2  2HBr
(4) 2NO + O2  2NO2 (4) 2NO + O2  2NO2


65. A reaction 2A+2B D + E takes place in two steps 65. 2A + 2B  D + E
(i) A + 2B  2C + D (slow) (i) A + 2B  2C + D (slow)
(ii) A + 2C  E (last) (ii) A + 2C  E (last)
The rate law of the reaction is
(1) Rate = K[A]2[B] 2 (1) = K[A]2[B]2
(2) Rate = [A]2[B]2[C] (2) = [A]2[B]2[C]
(3) Rate = K[A][B] (3) = K[A][B]
(4) Rate = K[A][B]2 (4) = K[A][B]2
66. The rate of reaction doubles on increasing 66.
concentration of reactant by 8 times, then what
will be the order of reaction ?
1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4) (1) 1 (2) (3) (4)
2 3 4 2 3 4
67. The rate of reaction becomes 100 times on 67. A 0.1M 1M
changing concentration of reactant A from 0.1M A
to 1M. What will be the order of reaction with
( : A  B)
respect to A ? (Reaction : A  B)
(1) 10 (2) 1 (1) 10 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
68. For a reaction containing only gaseous 68. = K[A][B]
components, rate = K[A][B]. What will be the rate
1
1
if volume of container is made of original 4
4
( : 2A + B  C + D)
volume. (Reaction : 2A + B  C + D)
1 1
(1) times (2) 4 times (1) times (2) 4 times
16 16
1 1
(3) times (4) 16 times (3) times (4) 16 times
8 8
69. The volume is made half of the original volume 69. 2NO(g) + O2(g)  2NO2(g)
in a reaction 2NO(g) + O2(g)  2NO2(g). If order of O2
reaction with respect to O2 is one and that with
NO
respect to NO is two, then initial rate is how many
times more than the rate ?
1 1 1 1
(1) 8 (2) (3) (4) 2 (1) 8 (2) (3) (4) 2
4 2 4 2
70. In a reaction two reactants take part. Rate of 70.
reaction is directly proportional to concentration
of one reactant and inversely proportional to
concentration of second reactant. What will be the
order of reaction ? (1) 0 (2) 1
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2.0 (4) 0.5 (3) 2.0 (4) 0.5
71. What will be the order of reaction if units of rate 71.
of reaction and rate constant are same ?
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 0 (3) 1 (4) 0


72. The rate constant of a reaction is 3 × 10–3 bar–1 sec–1 72. 3 × 10–3 bar–1 sec–1
then state the order of reaction.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 0 (3) 3 (4) 0
73. Which dimensions are included in the unit of a 73.
third order reaction ?
(1) Only time (1)
(2) Time and concentration (2)
(3) Time, concentration and temperature (3)
(4) Only concentration (4)
74. A reaction containing two different reactants is 74.
never... (1) (2)
(1) Bimolecular (2) Unimolecular
(3) Of first order (4) Of second order (3) (4)
75. What will be the order of a elementary reaction 75. 3A 
3A  products ? (1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 1, 2, 3
(2) 1, 2, or 3
(3) 0 (3) 0
(4) any one from 1 to 3 (4) 1 3
76. Reactions having very high order are very rarely 76.
seen. Because ......
(1) More activation energy is required for the active (1)
collision of more molecules.
(2) The possibility of active collision between (2)
more molecules is very less.
(3) With reference to energy active collision of (3)
more molecules is not supported.
(4) Active collision of more molecules is possible (4)
in gas phase only.
77. The order and molecularity of a hydrolysis 77.
reaction of ethyl acetate in basic medium are
............ respectively.
(1) 1, 1 (2) 1, 2
(1) 1, 1 (2) 1, 2
(3) 2, 1 (4) 2, 2 (3) 2, 1 (4) 2, 2
78. Hydrolysis of organic chloride in presence of 78.
excess of water occurs as R – Cl + H2O  R – OH
R – Cl + H2O  R – OH + HCl. The molecularity + HCl
and order of reaction are............. respectively.
(1) 1, 1 (2) 2, 1 (1) 1, 1 (2) 2, 1
(3) 2, 2 (4) 1, 2 (3) 2, 2 (4) 1, 2
79. How much time would require for completion of 79.
a reaction if in a zeroth order reaction the initial 'a'
concentration of reactant is 'a' and rate constant
is K K
a K a K a K a K
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
K 2a 2K a K 2a 2K a


80. The initial concentration of reactant of nth order 80. n 'a'
reaction is 'a' the half reaction time will be directly
proportional to (1) a n + 1 (2) a 1 – n
(1) a n + 1 (2) a 1 – n
(3) a n – 1 (4) an (3) a n – 1 (4) an
81. If concentration of reactant is made 'x' times, then 81. 'x'
its rate constant = ..........
K K
K K (1) In (2)
(1) In (2) x x
x x
(3) K·x (4) K (3) K·x (4) K
82. The half reaction time of a zero order reaction is 82.
1 hr. The initial concentration of reactant A is 2M. A 2M
How much time will be required for the 0.5 M 0.25M
concentration of reactant to become 0.25 M from (1) 1 hr `(2) 4 hr
0.5 M ?
(1) 1 hr (2) 4 hr (3) 0.5 hr (4) 0.25 hr
(3) 0.5 hr (4) 0.25 hr
M M
83. How much approximate time would be required 83.
10 100
to decrease original concentration of a reactant
M M
from to in a first order reaction ? The half
10 100
life period of reaction is 150 seconds. (1) 600 s (2) 900 s
(1) 600 s (2) 900 s
(3) 500 s (4) 1500 s (3) 500 s (4) 1500 s
84. The half life period of a first order reaction is 6.93 84. 6.93
minutes. How much time would require for 99 % 99%
completion of this reaction ? (1) 460.6 min (2) 23.03 min
(1) 460.6 min (2) 23.03 min
(3) 46.06 min (4) 230.5 min
(3) 46.06 min (4) 230.5 min
85. The time required to decrease concentration of 85. RP R
reactant R from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in a first order 0.1M 0.025M
reaction R  P is 40 minutes. State the rate of R 0.01M
reaction when concentration of reactant R in this
reaction is 0.01M : (1) 1.733 × 10 –4M min–1
(1) 1.733 × 10 –4M min–1 (2) 3.466 × 10 –4M min–1
(2) 3.466 × 10 –4M min–1
(3) 3.466 × 10 –5M min–1
(3) 3.466 × 10 –5M min–1
(4) 3.466 × 10 –3M min–1
(4) 3.466 × 10 –3M min–1
86. If the time required for 25 % completion of first 86. 25%
t1
t1 K
order reaction is expressed by and its rate 4
4
t1
t1
constant is K, then its is equal to what ? 4
4
1.38 0.25 0.346 0.29 1.38 0.25 0.346 0.29

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
K K K K K K K K


87. The minimum energy that must be required by 87.
reactants for a reaction to occurs is ......
(1) Potential energy (1)
(2) Internal energy (2)
(3) Activation energy (3)
(4) Threshold energy (4)
88. Which of the following is correct Arrhenius 88.
equation ?
K 2 Ea  1 1 
K 2 Ea  1 1  (1) In K  R  T  T 
(1) In K  R  T  T  1  1 2 
1  1 2 
(2) K  A e Ea RT
(2) K  A e Ea RT
Ea Ea
(3) In K  In A  (3) In K  In A 
RT RT
(4) Given all three (4)
89. What is changed by increasing concentration of 89.
reactants ? (1)
(1) Collision frequency
(2)
(2) Heat of reaction
(3) Threshold energy (3)
(4) Activation energy (4)
90. Activation energy of reaction = .......... 90.
(1) Threshold energy + Energy of products (1) +
(2) Threshold energy – Energy of reactants (2) -
(3) Threshold energy + Energy of reactants (3) +
(4) Threshold energy – Energy of products (4) -
91. Theory of collision is more satisfactory for.......... 91. ..........
reactions,
(1) First order (2) Second order (1) (2)
(3) Bi-molecular (4) None (3) (4)
92. The rate constant of a reaction at 290 K is 3.2 × 92. 290 K 3.2×10–3
10–3. What will be its rate constant at 300 K ? 300 K
(1) 1.6 × 10–3 (2) 6.4 × 10–3 (1) 1.6 × 10–3 (2) 6.4 × 10–3
(3) 3.2 × 10–4 (4) 3.2 × 10–2 (3) 3.2 × 10–4 (4) 3.2 × 10–2
93. The rate constants of a reaction at 300 K and 320 93. 300 K 320 K
K are 0.0231 min–1 and 0.0693 min–1 respectively. 0.0231 min –1 0.0693 min –1
What will he the activation energy of reaction ?
(1) 84 KJ mole–1 (1) 84 KJ mole–1
(2) 34.84 KJ mole –1 (2) 34.84 KJ mole –1
(3) 43.84 KJ mole –1 (3) 43.84 KJ mole –1
(4) 30 KJ mole–1 (4) 30 KJ mole–1
94. If Ea = 0, for a reaction then its rate constant 94. Ea = 0
(1) Increase with increase in temperature (1)
(2) Increase with decrease in temperature (2)
(3) Decrease with decrease in temperature (3)
(4) Is independent of temperature (4)


95. Decrease of which term in the equation,  Ea
95. K= P Z e RT
 Ea
K= PZ e RT would result into a faster reaction?
(1) E (2) T (1) E (2) T
(3) Z (4) P (3) Z (4) P
96. The activation energy of a reaction at definite 96. 2.303
temperature is 2.303 RT Jmol–1, then the ratio of RT Jmol –1
rate constant and Arrhenius constant will be.........

(1) 0.001 (2) 0.01 (1) 0.001 (2) 0.01
(3) 0.02 (4) 0.1 (3) 0.02 (4) 0.1
97. For a reaction C2H5I + OH–  C2H5OH + I– at 30°C 97. C2H5I + OH–  C2H5OH + I–
and 60°C temperature, the values of rate constants 30°C 60°C 0.325
are 0.325 and 6.735 L mol–1 s–1 respectively, what 6.735 L mol s
–1 –1
will be the value of activation energy ?

(1) 20260 K.cal. (1) 20260 K.cal.
(2) 84773 cal (2) 84773 cal
(3) 361.44 cal (3) 361.44 cal
(4) 20260 cal (4) 20260 cal
98. The energy of activation of a reaction is 9 K.cal 98. 9 K.cal mol–1
mol –1 . How many times the rate constant will 295 K 300 K
increase by increasing temperature of a reaction
from 295 K to 300 K ? (1) 1.289 (2) 0.1289
(1) 1.289 times (2) 0.1289 times
(3) 12.89 times (4) 25% (3) 12.89 (4) 25%
99. If activation energies of forward and reverse 99.
reaction of an exothermic reaction are Ef and Er Ef Er
respectively, then (1) Ef < Er (2) Ef > Er
(1) Ef < Er (2) Ef > Er
(3) Ef >>> Er (4) Ef = Er (3) Ef >>> Er (4) Ef = Er
100. The enthalpy change of a reaction for an 100.
endothermic reaction is H. The minimum value H
of activation energy of reaction will be ......... . (1) equal to H (2) zero
(1) Equal to H (2) Zero
(3) More than H (4) Less than H (3) more than H (4) less than H
101. The energy of activation and change in enthalpy 101. AB
of an endothermic reaction A  B are 15 and 5 15 5 Kcal mol–1
Kcal mol–1 respectively. What will be the energy
of activation for a reverse reaction ? (1) 10 Kcal mol–1 (2) 20 Kcal mol–1
(1) 10 Kcal mol–1 (2) 20 Kcal mol–1
(3) 15 Kcal mol–1 (4) zero (3) 15 Kcal mol–1 (4) zero
102. The activation energy and change in enthalpy of 102.
an exothermic reaction are 70 and –30 KJmol–1. –30 KJmol–1
What will be the energy of activation for a reverse
reaction ? (1) 70 KJ mol–1
(1) 70 KJ mol–1 (2) 30 KJ mol–1
(2) 30 KJ mol–1
(3) 40 KJ mol–1
(3) 40 KJ mol–1
(4) 100 KJ mol –1 (4) 100 KJ mol –1


103. The energy of activation for a reaction A  B is 103. AB
Ea in forward direction, then activation enegy in Ea
reverse direction will be.......... (1) Equal to Ea
(1) Equal to Ea
(2) Less than Ea
(2) Less than Ea
(3) More than Ea
(3) More than Ea
(4) Less or more than Ea (4) Less or more than Ea
104. A catalyst will increase rate of reaction by........... 104.
(1) Reacting with reactants. (1)
(2) Decreasing energy of activation. (2)
(3) Reacting with products. (3)
(4) Increasing energy of activation. (4)
105. The rate of reaction increases according to the 105.
adsorption of catalyst. Because.......
(1) Adsorption decreases Ea. (1) Ea
(2) E a of molecules increases in adsorption (2) Ea
reaction.
(3)
(3) Concentration of reactants increases on the
active sites of catalyst.
(4) Adsorption energy is produced which increase (4)
rate of reaction.
106. The rate of a biochemical reaction out of human 106.
body in absence of an enzyme is found to be 10 10 –6
–6
times. If this reaction takes place inside the
human body then what will be the activation
energy of reaction?
(1) (Ea)
(1) The value of (Ea) for reaction occuring inside
the human body is less.
(2) Cannot be said (2)
6 6
(3) (3)
RT RT
(4) External pressure required (4)
107. A reaction 2O3  3O2 takes place in following two 107. 2O3  3O2
steps. Give correct rate law of reaction.
(1) O3  O2 + O (fast) (1) O3  O2 + O (fast)
(2) O + O3  2O2 (slow) (2) O + O3  2O2 (slow)
(1) r = K[O3]2 (1) r = K[O3]2
(2) r = K[O3]2[O2]–1 (2) r = K[O3]2[O2]–1
(3) r = K[O3][O2] (3) r = K[O3][O2]
(4) r = K[O3]2[O2] (4) r = K[O3]2[O2]
108. The rate law of a reaction is rate = K[A]n[B]m. If 108. = K[A]n[B]m A
concentration of A is doubled and that of B is B
halved what will the ratio of rate and original rate ?
of reaction ?
(1) m + n (2) n – m
(1) m + n (2) n – m
1 1
(3) 2 (n – m) (4) (m  n ) (3) 2 (n – m) (4)
2 2 (m  n )


109. For a first order gaseous state reaction : A(g)  109. A(g)  2B(g) +C(g)
2B(g) +C(g) if initial pressure of 'A' is P0 atmosphere 'A' P0 't'
and at a time 't' total pressure is 'P' atmosphere then 'P' atm
its differential rate equation is ...:
2.303 P0 2.303 2P0
2.303 P0 2.303 2P0 (1) log (2) log
(1) log (2) log t P0  Pt t P0  Pt
t P0  Pt t P0  Pt
2.303 P0 2.303 2P0 2.303 P0 2.303 2P0

(3) log (4) log (3) log (4) log
t 2P0  Pt t 2P0  Pt t 2P0  Pt t 2P0  Pt
110. In what condition can nitrogen and oxygen 110.
combine ? Decide true (T) or false (F) statements (T) (F)
for that. (a) N2 O2
(1) Collision must take place between N2 and O2 (b)
(2) In order to collide molecules must have certain
minimum amount of potential energy. (c)
(3) In order to collide molecules must have certain
minimum amount of threshold energy, (d)
(4) Collision must take place in proper direction (1) TFTT (2) FFTT
(1) TFTT (2) FFTT (3) TTTF (4) TFTF (3) TTTF (4) TFTF
111. Which of the following relations are true (T) or 111. :
false (F) :
1 1
1 1 (1)   
(1) rate  energy barrier  E  effective collisions Ea
a
1 1 1 1
(2) rate  energy barrier  E a  effective collisions (2)   Ea 
(3) Rate of adsorption of gas in heterogeneous

K1Pgas
K1Pgas (3) 1  K 2 Pgas
system 1  K P
2 gas
(4) 
(4) Rusting of iron  first order reaction
(1) TFTF
(1) TFTF (2) TTTT
(2) TTTT
(3) TTFF
(3) TTFF
(4) FFTT (4) FFTT
112. Which statements are true (T) and false (F) with 112. 2A + B  C = K[A][B]
reference to reaction 2A + B  C rate = K[A][B]? (T) (F)
(1) Value of K is independent of concentration of (1) K A B
A and B.
(2) K –1
(2) Unit of K is time–1.
(3) Half reaction time is constant. (3)
(4) Rate of formation if C is double than the rate (4) C A
of consumption of A.
(1) TFFF (2) FFFT
(1) TFFF (2) FFFT
(3) TTFF (4) FFTT (3) TTFF (4) FFTT


113. Match the section-I with section-II in true meaning. 113. -I -II
Section-I Section-II Section-I Section-II

(a) 2HI   H2+I2 (a) 2HI   H2+I2
Au Au
 (k) 1  (k) 1
(b) 2N2O5 4NO2+O2 (l) 2 (b) 2N2O5 4NO2+O2 (l) 2
(c) CH3COOCH3 OH – (m) 1.5 (c) CH3COOCH3 OH – (m) 1.5
   
– –
CH3COO +CH3OH CH3COO +CH3OH
(d) H2+Br22HBr (n) 0 (d) H2+Br22HBr (n) 0
(1) (a)-(k), (b)-(n), (c)-(l), (d)-(m) (1) (a)-(k), (b)-(n), (c)-(l), (d)-(m)
(2) (a)-(n), (b)-(k), (c)-(l), (d)-(m) (2) (a)-(n), (b)-(k), (c)-(l), (d)-(m)
(3) (a)-(m), (b)-(k), (c)-(I), (d)-(n) (3) (a)-(m), (b)-(k), (c)-(I), (d)-(n)
(4) (a)-(n), (b)-(k), (c)-(m), (d)-(I) (4) (a)-(n), (b)-(k), (c)-(m), (d)-(I)
114. Match the section-I and section-II correctly 114. -I -II
Section-I Section-II
Section-I Section-II (a) (k) K Lmol–1 s–1
(a) zeroth order (k) unit of K is Lmol s –1 –1
reaction
(b) (l)
(b) first order (l) half-reaction time is directly
reaction proportional to initial concentration
of reactant (c) (m)
(c) second order (m) reaction of acetic anhydride with
reaction excess ethanol is example of it.
(d) pseudo first (n) % decomposition of reactant at (d) (n) t
order reaction –Kt
time t = (1 – e ) × 100 (1 – e –Kt
) × 100
(1) (a)-(l), (b)-(n), (c)-(k), (d)-(m) (1) (a)-(l), (b)-(n), (c)-(k), (d)-(m)
(2) (a)-(k), (b)-(n), (c)-(D, (d)-(m) (2) (a)-(k), (b)-(n), (c)-(D, (d)-(m)
(3) (a)-(k), (b)-(I), (c)-(m), (d)-(n) (3) (a)-(k), (b)-(I), (c)-(m), (d)-(n)
(4) (a)-(D, (b)-(k), (c)-(n), (d)-(m) (4) (a)-(D, (b)-(k), (c)-(n), (d)-(m)
115. Study the graph and match column-I with column-II 115. -I -II
(a) Ea of forward reaction (k) 70 KJ mol–1
(a) (k) 70 KJ mol–1
(b) Threshold energy (l) 30 KJ mol–1
(b) (l) 30 KJ mol–1
(c) Ea of reverse reaction (m) 15 KJ mol–1
(c) (m) 15 KJ mol–1
(d) Enthalpy change of (n) 45 KJ mol–1
reaction (d) (n) 45 KJ mol–1
(1) (a)-(k), (b)-(l), (c)-(n), (d)-(m) (1) (a)-(k), (b)-(l), (c)-(n), (d)-(m)
(2) (a)-(l), (b)-(k), (c)-(m). (d)-(n) (2) (a)-(l), (b)-(k), (c)-(m). (d)-(n)
(3) (a)-(m), (b)-(k), (c)-(n), (d)-(l) (3) (a)-(m), (b)-(k), (c)-(n), (d)-(l)
(4) (a)-(l), (b)-(k), (c)-(n), (d)-(m) (4) (a)-(l), (b)-(k), (c)-(n), (d)-(m)

ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 3 2 3 1 2 1 2 2 3 1 2 2 1 2 1 1 3 2 2 1 1 4 2 4 1 2 2 2 4 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 1 1 2 1 4 3 2 4 4 4 4 4 1 4 2 2 4 2 2 4 2 3 1 2 2 4 2 3 3 3
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 4 3 4 3 3 4 1 1 4 2 2 2 1 2 4 2 1 2 4 4 3 3 2 4 4 4 1 2
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115
A. 3 2 3 4 1 4 4 1 1 3 1 4 4 2 1 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 1 4


ELECTROCHEMISTRY
01. Functioning of daniell cell when external potential 01. (Eext) > 1.1V
(Eext) > 1.1V then the correct statments is : :
(1) Electrons flow from Zn rod to Cu rod hence (1) Zn Cu
current flow from Cu to Zn
Cu Zn
(2) Zinc is deposited at the Zinc electrode and
(2) Zn Cu
copper dissolved at copper electrode
(3) Zn dissolved at anode and copper deposits at
cathode (3) Zn anode Cu
(4) No chemical reaction take place (4)
02. The difference between the electrode potentials of 02.
two electrodes when no current is drawm through :
the cell is called :
(1) Cell potential (2) Cell emf (1) (2) emf
(3) Potential difference (4) Cell voltage (3) (4)
03. An electrochemical cell can behave like an 03.
electrolytic cell when : :
(1) Ecell = 0 (2) Ecell < Eext (1) Ecell = 0 (2) Ecell < Eext
(3) Ecell > Eext (4) Ecell = Eext (3) Ecell > Eext (4) Ecell = Eext
04. Assertion : Fluorine gas is the strongest oxidising 04. :
agent and fluoride ion is the weakest reducing agent.
Reason : The standard electrode potential for fluorine : F2
is the highest so that F 2 gas has the maximum
F2 F–
–
tendency to get reduced to fluoride (F ) ion
(1)
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason (2)
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (3)
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False. (4)
05. Consider the following statements : 05. :
(i) The potential of individual half cell cannot be (i)
measured.
(ii)
(ii) The potential of standard hydrogen electrode
is zero at all temp.
(iii) Lithium has the lowest electrode potential (iii) Li
indicating that lithium metal is the most Li
powerful oxidising agent in an aqueous
solution.
(iv)
(iv) Inert electrodes do not participate in the
reaction but provide their surface for oxidation
or reduction reaction.
The correct statement are
(1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) (1) (ii) (iii) (2) (i), (ii) (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (3) (i), (ii) (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv)


06. Assertion : On dilution, conductivity (k') of 06. :
strong and weak electrolyte is always decrease. (k')
Reason : The number of ions per unit volume that :
carry the current in a solution decrease on dilution.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the (1)
07. The equilibrium constant value for the given reaction is :- 07. :-
Cu(s) + 2 Ag+(aq)  Cu 2+(aq) + 2 Ag(s) Cu(s) + 2 Ag (aq)  Cu (aq) + 2 Ag(s)
+ 2+
[Given :- E°cell = 0.46V] [ :- E°cell = 0.46V]

(1) 3.92 × 1014 (2) 3.92 × 1015 (1) 3.92 × 1014 (2) 3.92 × 1015
(3) 3.92 × 1016 (4) 3.92 × 1017 (3) 3.92 × 10 16
(4) 3.92 × 1017
08. The molar condutivityof 0.1 M monobasic acid is 08. 0.1 M 3.905 S cm2
3.905 S cm 2 mol –1 the molar condutivity at  mol–1 390.5 Scm2 mol–1
(infinits) dilution is 390.5 Scm2 mol–1, the pH of
0.1M pH :
0.1M monobasic acid is :
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5
09. The standard electrode potential for Daniel Cell 09. 1.1V
is 1.1V. The standard Gibbs energy change(G°) (G°) :
for the reactions is: [F = 96487 C mol -1]
[F = 96487 C mol-1]
Zn(s)+ Cu2+(aq.)  Zn2+(aq.) + Cu(s)
Zn(s)+ Cu2+(aq.)  Zn2+(aq.) + Cu(s)
(1) 212.27 KJ mol-1 (2) –212.27 KJ mol -1 (1) 212.27 KJ mol-1 (2) –212.27 KJ mol -1
(3) 212.27 J mol -1
(4) –212.27 J mol -1 (3) 212.27 J mol-1 (4) –212.27 J mol -1
10. ^°m For NaCl, HCl and NaAc are 126.4, 425.9 and 10. NaCl, HCl NaAc ^°m 126.4, 425.9
91.0 S cm2 mol -1 respectively. ^°m for HAc is: 91.0 S cm mol-1
2
HAc ^°m :
(1) 461.3 S cm 2 mol -1 (2) 390.5 S cm2 mol-1 (1) 461.3 S cm 2 mol -1 (2) 390.5 S cm2 mol-1
(3) 643.3 S cm2 mol-1 (4) 208.5 S cm2 mol-1 (3) 643.3 S cm2 mol-1 (4) 208.5 S cm2 mol-1
11. How many coulombs of electricity are required for 11. H2O O2
the oxidation of 1 mole of H2O to O2: :
(1) 9.65 × 104 C (2) 4.825 × 105 C (1) 9.65 × 10 C
4
(2) 4.825 × 105 C
(3) 1.93 × 105 C (4) 1.93 × 104 C (3) 1.93 × 105 C (4) 1.93 × 104 C
12. Match the following column [ on the basis of given 12.
data E°F2 /F  = 2.87V , E°Li+ /Li = – 3.5 v ] E°F2 /F  = 2.87V , E°Li+ /Li = – 3.5 v ]

(i) F2 (a) Strongest reducing agent (i) F2 (a)
(ii) (b) Weakest oxidising agent (ii) (b)
(iii) Li (c) Weakest reducing agent (iii) Li (c)
(iv) Li+ (d) Strongest oxidising agent (iv) Li+ (d)
(1) (i) - c, (ii) - d, (iii) - b, (iv) - a (1) (i) - c, (ii) - d, (iii) - b, (iv) -a
(2) (i) - d, (ii) - c, (iii) - b, (iv) - a (2) (i) - d, (ii) - c, (iii) - b, (iv) -a
(3) (i) - d, (ii) - c, (iii) - a, (iv) - b (3) (i) - d, (ii) - c, (iii) - a, (iv) -b
(4) (i) - a, (ii) - c, (iii) - b, (iv) - d (4) (i) - a, (ii) - c, (iii) - b, (iv) -d


13. After operating the electrolytic cell for some time, 13.
if anode is removed then what will happen ? ?
(1) The cell will work as a capacitor (1)
(2) Ions will start moving randomly (2)
(3) Current will continue to flow for some time (3)
(4) Cathode rod will start working as both anode (4)
and cathode.
14. How many faraday's of change are required to 14. Cr2 O72– Cr3+
reduce 1 mole of Cr2 O72– to Cr 3+ ? ?
(1) 3 F (2) 6 F (1) 3 F (2) 6 F
(3) 2 F (4) 1 F (3) 2 F (4) 1 F
15. The decreasing order of standard electrode 15. :
potential is : (1) Li, Al, Zn, Ba (2) Ba, Al, Zn, Li
(1) Li, Al, Zn, Ba (2) Ba, Al, Zn, Li
(3) Zn, Al, Ba, Li (4) Zn, Ba, Al, Li (3) Zn, Al, Ba, Li (4) Zn, Ba, Al, Li
16. Limiting molar conductivity of which among the 16. 298K
following ions is maximum in water at 298K : :
(1) H+ (2) Na+ (3) K+ (4) Ca2+ (1) H+ (2) Na+ (3) K+ (4) Ca2+
17. Salt bridge do not required Which type of cell : 17. :
(1) Both electrodes (cathode and anode) dip in the (1)
same type of electrolytic
(2) Both electrodes (cathode and anode) dipin the (2)
different type of electrolytic solution.
(3) For daniell cell (3)
(4) When same electrodes dip in the different type (4)
of electrolytic cell
18. Which of the following statement is correct ? 18. ?
(1) CuSO4 solution can store in a Zn pot (1) CuSO4 Zn
(2) AgNO3 solution can store in Au pot (2) AgNO3 Au
(3) AgNO3 solution can store in Al pot (3) AgNO3 Al
(4) CuSO4 solution can store in a Fe pot (4) CuSO4 Fe
19. In electrolysis of NaCl when Pt electrode is taken then 19. NaCl Pt
H2 is liberated at cathode while with Hg cathode it H2
forms sodium amalgam : Hg :
(1) Hg is more inert than Pt
(1) Pt Hg
(2) More voltage is required to reduce H+ at Hg
(2) Pt Hg H+
than at Pt
(3) Na is dissolved in Hg while it does not
dissolved in Pt (3) Hg Na Pt
(4) Concentration of H+ ions is larger when Pt (4) Pt H+
electrode is taken
20. The most convenient method to protect the bottom 20. :
of ship mode of iron is : (1)
(1) Coating it with red lead oxide
(2) Cu
(2) Connecting with Cu block
(3) Connecting it with Mg block (3) Mg
(4) Connecting it with Pb block (4) Pb


21. Equivalent conductivity of a substance increases 21. :
on dilution because of : (1)
(1) Increase in number of ions per unit volume
(2) Increase in molecular attraction (2)
(3) Increase in degree of association (3)
(4) Increase in degree of ionisation of the
substance (4)
22. In a mercury cell, product at anode is : 22. :
(1) HgO(s) (1) HgO(s)
(2) Hg() (2) Hg()
(3) ZnO(s) (3) ZnO(s)
(4) Zn(Hg) (4) Zn(Hg)
23. To protect iron against corrosion the most suitable 23.
metal plating on it, is : :
(1) Copper plating (1) Cu
(2) Zinc plating (2) Zn
(3) Nickel plating (3) Ni
(4) Tin plating (4) Sn
24. An electrochemical cell is set up as : 24. :
Pt|H 2 (1atm) |HCl(0.1M) || CH 3 COOH(0.1M) Pt|H 2 (1atm) |HCl(0.1M) || CH 3 COOH(0.1M)
|H2(1atm),Pt |H2(1atm),Pt
The emf of this cell will not be zero, because:- cell emf
(1) emf depends on moralities of acids used (1) emf
(2) The temp is constant (2)
(3) pH of 0.1 M HCl and 0.1M CH3 COOH is not (3) 0.1 M HCl 0.1M CH3 COOH PH
same
(4) [H+] conc in both compartments are same (4) [H+]
25. In a cell, cell reaction 25.
Zn(s)+ 2H+(aq)  Zn2+(aq) + H2(g) Zn(s)+ 2H+(aq)  Zn2+(aq) + H2(g)
Addition of H2SO4 to cathode compartment will H2SO4
(1) Lower the E and shift equilibrium to left (1) E
(2) Lower the E and shift equilibrium to the right (2) E
(3) Increase the E and shift equilibrium to right (3) E
(4) Increase the E and shift equilibrium to the left (4) E
26. During the electrolysis of water, 4 mole of electrons 26.
were transferred from anode to cathode, the total STP
volume of gases produced at STP will be
:
approximately :
(1) 67.2 L (2) 22.4 L (1) 67.2 L (2) 22.4 L
(3) 44.8 L (4) 89.4 L (3) 44.8 L (4) 89.4 L
27. Which of the following statements about a lead 27. ?
storage cell is false ? (1)
(1) It is commonly used in automobiles and
inverter's (2) PbO2(IV)
(2) The cathode is made up of lead (IV) oxide (3) Pb
(3) The anode is made up of lead (4) 38 %
(4) A 38 % solution of nitric acid is used as an
electrolyte


28. Match the following columns : 28. :
Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II
Electrolysis of Nature of
salts using inert solution after
electrode electrolysis (i) aq. NaCl (a)
(i) aq. NaCl (a) Acidic
(ii) aq.AgNO3 (b)
(ii) aq.AgNO3 (b) Neutral
(iii) aq. CuCl2 (c)
(iii) aq. CuCl2 (c) Basic
(1) (i) - a, (ii) - c, (iii) - b
(1) (i) - a, (ii) - c, (iii) - b
(2) (i) - b, (ii) - a, (iii) - c
(2) (i) - b, (ii) - a, (iii) - c
(3) (i) - c, (ii) - a, (iii) - b (3) (i) - c, (ii) - a, (iii) - b
(4) (i) - c, (ii) - b, (iii) - a (4) (i) - c, (ii) - b, (iii) - a
29. The standard reduction potential of an element is 29. :
given below :  
E K /K  –2.93V , E Ag /Ag  0.8V , E Hg2 /Hg  0.79V
 
E K /K  –2.93V , E Ag /Ag  0.8V , E Hg2 /Hg  0.79V
EMg2 /Mg  –2.37V , ECr3 /Cr  –0.74V
EMg2 / Mg  –2.37V , ECr3 /Cr  –0.74V
arrange these matals in their inereasing order of
(1) Ag < Hg < Cr < Mg < K
reducting power
(1) Ag < Hg < Cr < Mg < K (2) Ag < Cr < Hg < K < Mg
(2) Ag < Cr < Hg < K < Mg
(3) Hg < Ag < Mg < Cr < K
(3) Hg < Ag < Mg < Cr < K
(4) K < Hg < Cr < Hg < Ag (4) K < Hg < Cr < Hg < Ag
30. Match the following columns: 30. :
Column I Column II Column I Column II

(Properties) (Unit of ( (
properties)
(i) (A) cm–1
(i) Molar conductivity (A) cm
–1
(ii) Cell constant (B) 2 –1 (ii) (B) S cm2 mol–1

S cm mol
(iii) Specific conductance (C) S cm2 eq –1 (iii) (C) S cm2 eq–1
(vi) Equivalent (D) S cm
–1
(vi) (D) S cm–1
conductivity
(1) (i) - C, (ii) - D, (iii) - B, (iv) - A
(1) (i) - C, (ii) - D, (iii) - B, (iv) - A
(2) (i) - C, (ii) - A, (iii) - D, (iv) - B (2) (i) - C, (ii) - A, (iii) - D, (iv) - B
(3) (i) - D, (ii) - B, (iii) - C, (iv) - A (3) (i) - D, (ii) - B, (iii) - C, (iv) - A
(4) (i) - B, (ii) - A, (iii) - D, (iv) - C (4) (i) - B, (ii) - A, (iii) - D, (iv) - C
31. If a current of 1.5 ampere flows through a metallic 31. 1.5 A
wire for 3 hours, then how many electrons would ?
flow through the wire ?
(1) 2.25 × 10 22
(1) 2.25 × 1022 electrons
(2) 1.01 × 1023 electrons (2) 1.01 × 1023
(3) 4.5 × 1023 electrons (3) 4.5 × 1023
(4) 1.01 × 1022 electrons (4) 1.01 × 1022


32. Which of the following statements is correct ? 32. ?
(1) Debye-huckel onsager equation is applicable (1) Debye-huckel onsager
for both strong and weak electrolyte
(2) Kohlrausch law is possible to calculate °m
(limiting molar conductivity) only for weak (2)
electrolyte °m
(3) Kohlrausch law is possible to calculate °m for (3)
any electrolyte
°m
(4) Molar conductivity increase with increase in
concentration (4)
33. A solution of Ni(NO3)2 electrolysed between platinum 33. Pt Ni(NO3)2
electrodes using a current of 5 amperes for 20 minutes 20 5A
what mass of Ni is deposited at the cathode? Ni ?
(1) 18.25g (1) 18.25g
(2) 1.825g (2) 1.825g
(3) 0.1825g (3) 0.1825g
(4) 0.01825g (4) 0.01825g
34. On the basis of E° value, O2 gas should be liberated 34. NaCl
at anode but it is Cl2 gas which is liberated in the E° O2
electrolysis of aqueous NaCl. (using inert Cl2
electrode) ?
(1)
(1) It is due to overvoltage of oxygen gas
(2) Chloride ion react with electrode (2) Cl–
(3) Standard electrode potential of H 2O Cl – is
higher than chloride (3) H2O Cl–
(4) Standard electrode potential of Cl– is higher
than H2O (4) Cl– H2O
35. Which of the following relation is incorrect 35.
according to Kohlrausch low :
(1) °m(KCl) – °m (NaCl)
= °m (KBr) – °m (NaBr)
(1) °m(KCl) – °m (NaCl) = °m (KBr) – °m (NaBr)
(2) °m(KBr) – °m = °m(KI) – °m(NaI)
(2) °m(KBr) – °m (NaBr) = °m(KI) – °m(NaI) (NaBr)
(3) °m(NaBr) – °m (NaCl) = °m(KBr) – °m (KCl) (3) °m(NaBr) – °m (NaCl)
= °m(KBr) – °m (KCl)
(4) °m (KBr) – °m (NaBr) = °m(KBr) – °m (NCl) (4) °m (KBr) – °m = °m(KBr) – °m (NCl)
(NaBr)
36. Which type of cell the energy of combustion of 36.
fuel directly convert into electrical energy: :
(1) Lead storage battery (1)
(2) Mercury cell (2)
(3) Nickel-cadmium cell (3) Nickel-cadmium
(4) Fuel cell (4)
37. A Solution of CuSO4 is electrolysed for 10 minutes 37. 1.5 A CuSO4
with a current of 1.5 amperes What is the mass of ?
copper deposited at the cathode?
(1) 29.38g
(1) 29.38g
(2) 2.938g (2) 2.938g
(3) 0.2938g (3) 0.2938g
(4) 0.02938g (4) 0.02938g


38. The conductivity of 0.001M CH3COOH solution 38. 0.001M CH3COOH 3.905 Scm–1.
is 3.905 Scm–1. if °m for acetic acid is 390.5 S CH3COOH °m 390.5 S cm2 mol –1
cm 2 mol –1 . The degree of dissociation and CH3COOH :
dissociation constant of CH3COOH are : (1)  = 0.01%, Ka = 10 –5
(1)  = 0.01%, Ka = 10–5

(2)  = 1%, Ka = 10–7
(2)  = 1%, Ka = 10–7
(3)  = 0.1%, Ka = 10–7 (3)  = 0.1%, Ka = 10–7
(4)  = 0.01%, Ka = 10–7 (4)  = 0.01%, Ka = 10–7
39. The conductivity of electrolytic (ionic) solution 39. :
depend on :
(1)
(1) The nature of the electrolyte
(2) The size of the ions produced, and their (2)
solvation (3)
(3) The nature of the solvent and its viscosity
(4) All of these (4)
40. Assertion : 1 coulomb electricity deposit's 1 g- 40. :1
equivalent of a substance
Reason : 1 faraday is charge on 1 mole of :
electricity (1)
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. (2)
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
(3)
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
41. Assertion : :Lead storage battery is a galvanic cell 41. :
without salt bridge.
Reason : Secondary cell is rechargeable cell :
42. The anodic half cell of lead storage battery is 42. 0.05
recharged using electricity of 0.05 faraday. The
amount of PbSO4 electrolysed in gram during the PbSO4 :
process is : [molar mass of PbSO4 = 303 g mol –1]
[molar mass of PbSO4 = 303 g mol –1]
(1) 15.2 (2) 22.8
(1) 15.2 (2) 22.8
(3) 7.6 (4) 11.6 (3) 7.6 (4) 11.6
43. During electrolysis of CuSO4 (aq) using copper electrode 43. Cu CuSO4
(1) Copper is deposited at anode and copper is :
dissolved at cathode (1)
(2) Copper is dissolved at anode and copper is
deposited at cathode (2)
(3) O 2 gas obtained at anode and copper is (3) O2
deposited at cathode
(4) Copper is dissolved at anode and O2( oxygen) (4) O2
gas is obtained at cathode


44. Charge produced in CH4–O2 fuel cell. if 1 mole 44. CH4–O2 CH4
of CH4 (methane) is consumed, will be : :
(1) 4F (2) 8F (1) 4F (2) 8F
(3) 16F (4) 32F (3) 16F (4) 32F
45. An ion is reduced to the element when it absorbs 6×1022 45. 6 × 1022
electrons the number of equivalents of the ion is : :
(1) 1 (2) 0.1 (1) 1 (2) 0.1
(3) 0.01 (4) 0.001 (3) 0.01 (4) 0.001
46. How much mass of silver will be displaced from 46. 4g AgNO3
a solution of AgNO3 by 4g of magnesium : :
(1) 18g (2) 4g (1) 18g (2) 4g
(3) 36g (4) 16g (3) 36g (4) 16g
47. The electrode potential of Hydrogen electrode is 47. [
[When nature of solution is neutral and pressure [PH = 1 atm]
2
of Hydrogen [PH = 1 atm]
2 (1) –0.059 V (2) 0.59 V
(1) –0.059 V (2) 0.59 V
(3) –0.413 V (4) –0.295 V (3) –0.413 V (4) –0.295 V
48. Represent the cell in which the following reaction 48. :
take place : Mg(s) + 2Aq (0.0001 M)  Mg (0.13M) Ag (s)
+ 2+ +2
Mg(s) + 2Ag+(0.0001 M)  Mg2+(0.13M)+2Ag (s) E°cell = 3.17V emf

if E°cell = 3.17V then E cell (emf of cell) is :-
(1) 2.96 V
(1) 2.96 V
(2) 0.296V
(2) 0.296V
(3) 29.6V (3) 29.6V
(4) 0.0296V (4) 0.0296V
49. On electrolysis, 20g of calcium will be deposited 49. 20g
from its molten salt by : :
(1) 1 mole of electrons (1)
50. In an electrolytic cell of Ag/AgNO3/Ag. When 50. Ag/AgNO3/Ag
current is passed the concentration of AgNO3 is: AgNO3 :
(1) Increase (1)
(2) Decrease (2)
(3) Remains same (3)
ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 2 2 3 1 3 1 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 2 2 3 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 3 1 4
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 3 2 1 4 4 3 2 4 4 2 3 2 2 2 3 3 1 1 3


Ionic Equilibrium
1. A2B3 electrolyte is completely dissociated in aqueous 1. A2B3
solution as: A2B3  2A+3 + 3B–2 Number of A3+ ions A2B3  2A+3 + 3B–2 A3+
would be equal to:-
(1) B2- ions (2) 3/2 of B2- ions (1) B2- (2) B2- 3/2
(3) 2/3 of B2- ions (4) 1/2 of B2- ions (3) B2- 2/3 (4) B2- 1/2
2. The formula weight of H2SO4 is 98. The weight of 2. H2SO4 98 0.1 M 400 mL
the acid in 400mL of 0.1 M solution is:-
(1) 2.45 g (2) 3.92 g (1) 2.45 g (2) 3.92 g
(3) 4.90 g (4) 9.8 g (3) 4.90 g (4) 9.8 g
3. Find out pH of solution having 2 × 10–3 moles of OH– 3. pH OH –
ion's in 2 litre solution :- 2 × 10–3 2 :-
(1) pH = 3 (2) pH = 3 + log2 (1) pH = 3 (2) pH = 3 + log2
(3) pH = 3 – log2 (4) pH = 11 (3) pH = 3 – log2 (4) pH = 11
4. If the molar concentration of PbI2 is 1.5 × 10–3 mol 4. PbI2 1.5 × 10–3
L–1, the concentration of iodide ions in g ion L–1 is:- :-
(1) 3.0 × 10–3 (2) 6.0 × 10–3 (1) 3.0 × 10–3 (2) 6.0 × 10–3
(3) 0.3 × 10–3 (4) 0.6 × 10–6 (3) 0.3 × 10–3 (4) 0.6 × 10–6
5. If  is the degree of dissociation of weak dibasic 5. 
organic acid and y is the hydrogen ion concentration, y
what is the initial concentration of acid :- :-
 (y ) 1  (y ) 1
(1) (2) y()–1 (1) (2) y()–1
2 2
y(  ) 1 y(  ) 1
(3) (4) None of them (3) (4) None of them
2 2
6. Ostwald's dilution law is not applicable for strong 6.
electrolytes because:-
(1) Strong electrolytes are completely ionised (1)
(2) Strong electrolytes are volatile (2)
(3) Strong electrolytes are unstable (3)
(4) Strong electrolytes often contain metal ions (4)
7. The pH of 0.15 M solution aof HOCl (K =9.6×10–6) 7. 0.15 M HOCl (Ka = 9.6 × 10–6) pH :-
is -
(1) 4.42 (2) 2.92
(1) 4.42 (2) 2.92
(3) 3.42 (4) None (3) 3.42 (4)
8. The extent of ionisation increases (weak electrolytes) 8. ( )
(1) With the increase in concentration of solute (1)
(2) On decreasing the temp. of solution (2)
(3) On addition of excess of water to the solution (3)
(4) On stirring the solution vigorously (4)
9. If Ka of HCN = 4 × 10–10, then the pH of 2.5×10–1 9. HCN Ka 4 × 10–10 2.5 × 10–1
molar HCN (aq) is - HCN ( ) pH :-
(1) 4.2 (2) 4.7 (1) 4.2 (2) 4.7
(3) 0.47 (4) 5.0 (3) 0.47 (4) 5.0


10. The molarity of nitrous acid at which its pH becomes 10.
2.(Ka = 4.5 × 10–4) - pH = 2 (Ka = 4.5 × 10–4) :-
(1) 0.3333 (2) 0.4444 (1) 0.3333 (2) 0.4444
(3) 0.6666 (4) 0.2222 (3) 0.6666 (4) 0.2222
11. At 25 C, the dissociation constant for pure water is
0
11. 250C
given by :-
(1) (55.4 × 1014)-1 (2) 1 × 10-14 (1) (55.4 × 1014)-1 (2) 1 × 10-14
1  10 14 1  10 14
(3) (4) None of these (3) (4) None of these
18 18
12. At 90°C, pure water has [H3O+] =10–6.7 mol L–1 what 12. 90°C [H3O+] = 10–6.7
is the value of KW at 90°C:- 90°C KW :-
–6 (2) 10–12
(1) 10–6 (2) 10–12 (1) 10
(3) 10–67 (4) 10–13.4 (3) 10–67 (4) 10–13.4
13. Which of the following is a true statement : 13.
(1) The ionisation constant and ionic product of water (1)
are same. (2)
(2) Water is a strong electrolyte.
(3)
(3) The value of ionic product of water is less than
that of its ionisation constant.
(4) At 298K, the number of H+ ions in a litre of water (4) 298K 1 H+
is 6.23 × 10–16. 6.23 × 10–16
14. What will the pH of 1.0 M ammonium formate solution, 14. 1.0 M pH
If Ka=1 × 10–4 acid Kb =1× 10–5:- Ka=1 × 10–4 Kb = 1 × 10–5
(1) 6.5 (2) 7.5 (1) 6.5 (2) 7.5
(3) 8.0 (4) 9.0 (3) 8.0 (4) 9.0
15. Which salt will not hydrolysis :- 15.
(1) KCl (2) Na2SO4 (1) KCl (2) Na2SO4
(3) NaCl (4) All (3) NaCl (4)
16. Maximum efficiency of cationic hydrolysis will be 16.
shown by :-
(1) A +3 (2) Ga+3 (1) A+3 (2) Ga+3
(3) T+1 (4) T+3 (3) T+1 (4) T+3
17. HCOO– + H2O   HCOOH + OH– is related:- 17. HCOO– + H2O HCOOH + OH–
:-
Kh Kh
(1) h = Kh (2) h = (1) h = Kh (2) h =
C C
Kh Kh
(3) h = (4) Kh = hc (3) h = (4) Kh = hc
V V
18. The pH of aqueous solution of sodium acetate is 18. pH
(1) 7 (2) Very low (1) 7 (2)
(3) > 7 (4) < 7 (3) > 7 (4) < 7
19. If pKb for CN– at 25oC is 4.7. The pH of 0.5M aqueous 19. 25°C CN– pKb 4.7 0.5
NaCN solution is :- M NaCN pH
(1) 12 (2) 10 (1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 11.5 (4) 11 (3) 11.5 (4) 11


20. The highest pH value is of :- 20. pH :-
(1) 0.1 M NaCl (2) 0.1 M NH4Cl (1) 0.1 M NaCl (2) 0.1 M NH4Cl
(3) 0.1 M CH3COONa (4) 0.1 M CH3COONH4 (3) 0.1 M CH3COONa (4) 0.1 M CH3COONH4
21. pH of K2S solution is:- 21. K2S pH :-
(1) 7 (2) Less than 7 (1) 7 (2) 7
(3) More than 7 (4) 0 (3) 7 (4) 0
22. For anionic hydrolysis, pH is given by:- 22. pH :-
1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) pH = pKW - pKb - logc (1) pH = pKW - pKb - logc
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
(2) pH = pKW + pKa – pKb (2) pH = pKW + pKa – pKb
2 2 2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
(3) pH = pKW + pKa + logc (3) pH = pKW + pKa + logc
2 2 2 2 2 2
(4) None of above (4)
23. Ka for cyano acetic acid is 3.5 × 10–3. Then the degree 23. Ka = 3.5 × 10–3 0.05 M
of hydrolysis of 0.05 M. sodium cyano acetate solution
will have the following value :-
(1) 4.559 × 10–6 (2) 5.559 × 10–6
(1) 4.559 × 10–6 (2) 5.559 × 10–6
(3) 6.559 × 10–6 (4) 7.559 × 10–6 (3) 6.559 × 10–6 (4) 7.559 × 10–6
N N
24. Degree of Hydrolysis of solution of KCN is 24. KCN
100 100
(Given Ka = 1.4  10–9) (Ka = 1.4  10–9)

(1) 2.7  10–3 (2) 2.7  10–2 (1) 2.7  10–3 (2) 2.7  10–2
(3) 2.7  10–4 (4) 2.7  10–5 (3) 2.7  10–4 (4) 2.7  10–5
25. The solubility product of sparingly soluble univalent 25.
salt is defined as the product of ionic concentration
in a:-
(1) 1 M solution (1) 1 M
(2) Concentration solution (2)
(3) Very dilute solution (3)
(4) Saturated solution (4)
26. In solubility of salts M2X, QY2 and PZ2 equal, then the 26. M2X, QY2 PZ2
relation between their Ksp will be :- Ksp :-
(1) Ksp(M2X) > Ksp (QY2) > Ksp (PZ2) (1) Ksp(M2X) > Ksp (QY2) > Ksp (PZ2)
(2) Ksp(M2X) = Ksp (QY2) < Ksp (PZ2) (2) Ksp(M2X) = Ksp (QY2) < Ksp (PZ2)
(3) Ksp(M2X) > Ksp (QY2) = Ksp (PZ2) (3) Ksp(M2X) > Ksp (QY2) = Ksp (PZ2)
(4) Ksp(M2X) = Ksp (QY2) = Ksp (PZ2) (4) Ksp(M2X) = Ksp (QY2) = Ksp (PZ2)
27. The expression of solubility product of mercurous 27. :-
iodide is :- (1) [2Hg+]2 × 2 [I–]2 (2) [Hg++]2 × [ 2I–]2
(1) [2 Hg+]2 × 2 [I–]2 (2) [Hg++]2 × [ 2I–]2
(3) [ Hg 22 ] × [I–]2 (4) [Hg2+]2 × [I–]2 (3) [ Hg 22 ] × [I–]2 (4) [Hg2+]2 × [I–]2
28. At 250C, the Ksp value of AgCl is 1.8 × 10–10. If 10–5 28. 250C AgCl Ksp 1.8 × 10–10 Ag+
moles of Ag+ are added to solution then Ksp will be :- 10–5 Ksp
(1) 1.8 × 10–15 (2) 1.8 × 10–10 (1) 1.8 × 10–15 (2) 1.8 × 10–10
(3) 1.8 × 10–5 (4) 18 × 10+10 (3) 1.8 × 10–5 (4) 18 × 10+10


29. At 250C, required volume of water, to dissolve 1g 29. 1g BaSO4 (Ksp = 1.1 × 10–10) 250C
BaSO4 (Ksp = 1.1 × 10–10) will be:- :-
(1) 820 L. (2) 1 L. (1) 820 L (2) 1 L
(3) 205 L. (4) 430 L. (3) 205 L (4) 430 L
30. If the solubility of AgCl (formula mass=143) in water 30. AgCl ( = 143) 25° C
at 25°C is 1.43 10–4 g/100 mL of solution then the 1.43  10–4 100 mL Ksp
value of Ksp will be :–
(1) 1  10–5 (2) 2  10–5
(1) 1  10–5 (2) 2  10–5
(3) 1  10–10 (4) 2  10–10 (3) 1  10–10 (4) 2  10–10
31. If the maximum concentration of PbCl2 in water is 31. 298 K PbCl2 0.01 M
0.01 M at 298 K, Its maximum concentration in 0.1 0.1 M NaCl
M NaCl will be:-
(1) 4 × 10–3 M (2) 0.4 × 10–4 M (1) 4 × 10–3 M (2) 0.4 × 10–4 M
(3) 4 × 10–2 M (4) 4 × 10–4 M (3) 4 × 10–2 M (4) 4 × 10–4 M
32. M2SO4 (M+ is a monovalent metal ion) has a Ksp of 32. M2SO4 (M+ ) Ksp 298K
1.2 × 10–5 at 298 K. The maximum concentration of M+ 1.2 × 10–5 298 K
ion that could be attained in a saturated solution of this
M+ :-
solid at 298 K is :-
(1) 3.46 × 10–3 M (2) 2.89 × 10–2 M
(1) 3.46 × 10–3 M (2) 2.89 × 10–2 M
(3) 2.8 × 10–3 M (4) 7.0 × 10–3 M (3) 2.8 × 10–3 M (4) 7.0 × 10–3 M
33. Solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is 1 × 10–11. At what 33. Mg(OH)2 1 × 10–11 pH
pH, precipitation of Mg(OH)2 will begin from 0.1 M Mg2+ 0.1 M Mg2+ Mg(OH)2 :-
solution :-
(1) 9 (2) 5
(1) 9 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 7 (3) 3 (4) 7
34. Number of moles of Ca(OH)2 needed to prepare 34. Ca(OH)2 pH = 13
250 ml of solution with pH = 13 : 250 ml :
(1) 0.125 (1) 0.125
(2) 0.0125 (2) 0.0125
(3) 0.25 (3) 0.25
(4) 1.0 (4) 1.0
35. A solution, containing 0.01 M Zn and 0.01 M Cu
+2 2+
35. 0.01 M Zn+2 0.01 M Cu2+
is saturated by passing H2S gas. The S–2 concentration H2S
is 8.1×10–21 M, Ksp for ZnS and CuS are 3.0×10–22 S–2
8.1 × 10–21 M ZnS CuS
and 8.0 × 10–36 respectively. Which of the following Ksp 3.0 ×10–22 8.0 × 10–36
will occur in the solution:- :-
(1) ZnS will precipitate (1) ZnS
(2) CuS will precipitate (2) CuS
(3) Both ZnS and CuS will precipitate (3) ZnS CuS
(4) Both Zn2+ and Cu2+ will remain in the solution (4) Zn2+ Cu2+
36. 200 ml of an aqueous solution of HCl (pH=2) is 36. 200 ml HCl (pH=2) NaOH
mixed with 300 ml of an aqueous solution of (pH = 12) 30 ml
NaOH (pH = 12). Thus, pH of the resultant mixture
is :- pH :-
(1) 14.0 (2) 10.2 (1) 14.0 (2) 10.2
(3) 7.9 (4) 11.3 (3) 7.9 (4) 11.3


37. What will happen if the pH of the solution of 0.001 M 37. 0.001 M Mg(NO3)2 pH 9
Mg(NO3)2 solution is adjusted to pH = 9 (KspMg(OH)2=8.9 × 10-12)
(KspMg(OH)2 = 8.9 × 10-12)
(1) ppt will take place (1)
(2) ppt will not take place (2)
(3) Solution will be saturated (3)
38. The solubility product constant Ksp of Mg(OH)2 is 38. Mg(OH)2 9.0 × 10-12
9.0 × 10-12. If a solution is 0.010 M with respect to Mg2+ 0.010 M Mg(OH)2
Mg2+ ion, what is the maximum hydroxide ion con-
centration which could be present without causing the
precipitation of Mg(OH)2 :-
(1) 1.5 × 10-7 M (2) 3.0 × 10-7 M (1) 1.5 × 10-7 M (2) 3.0 × 10-7 M
(3) 1.5 × 10-5 M (4) 3.0 × 10-5 M (3) 1.5 × 10-5 M (4) 3.0 × 10-5 M
39. The dissociation constant of acetic acid at a given 39.
temperature is 1.69 × 10–5. The degree of dissocia- 1.69 × 10–5 0.01M HCl 0.01 M
tion of 0.01M acetic acid in the presence of 0.01 M CH3COOH
HCl –
(1) 0.41 (2) 0.13 (1) 0.41 (2) 0.13
–3
(3) 1.69×10 (4) 0.013 (3) 1.69×10–3 (4) 0.013
40. Which of the following mixture solution has pH  1.0? 40. pH  1.0 ?
M M M M
(1) 100 ml HCl + 100 ml NaOH (1) 100 ml HCl + 100 ml NaOH
10 10 10 10
M M M M
10 10 10 10
M M M M
10 10 10 10
M M M M
(4) 75 ml of HCl + 25 ml NaOH (4) 75 ml of HCl + 25 ml NaOH
5 5 5 5
41. A weak acid HA after treatement with 12 ml of 0.1 41. HA 12 ml, 0.1 M BOH
M strong base BOH has a pH of 5. At the end point, pH 5
the volume of same base required is 26.6 ml. Ka of
26.6 ml
acid -
Ka
(1) 8.2 × 10–6 (2) 1.8 × 10–5 (1) 8.2 × 10–6 (2) 1.8 × 10–5
(3) 8.2 × 10–4 (4) None (3) 8.2 × 10–4 (4) None
42. How many mole of HCl will be required to prepare 1 42. 1 pH = 8.5 NaCN + HCl
lit. of buffer solution (containing NaCN + HCl) of pH HCl
8.5 using 0.01g molecule of NaCN. 0.01 NaCN
(KHCN = 4.1×10–10) (KHCN = 4.1×10–10)
(1) 8.85 × 10–3 (1) 8.85 × 10–3
(2) 8.85 × 10–4 (2) 8.85 × 10–4
(3) 8.85 × 10–5 (3) 8.85 × 10–5
(4) None (4) None


43. Which of the following solution will have pH = 10 at 43. pH 298 K 10
298 K -
(1) 10–10 N HCl solution (1) 10–10 N HCl
(2) 10–4 N NaOH solution (2) 10–4 N NaOH
(3) 10–10 N NaOH solution (3) 10–10 N NaOH
(4) both 1 & 2 (4) 1 2
44. The pH of a solution is 7. A base is added to increase 44. pH 7
the pH upto 12.0 in this solution. The increase in OH– pH 12 OH–
ion concentration will be -
(1) 5 (2) 1000
(1) 5 times (2) 1000 times
5
(3) 10 times (4) 10–5 times (3) 105 (4) 10–5
45. Which of the following salt does not change the pH of 45. pH
pure water on dissociation -
(1) KCl (1) KCl
(2) AlCl3 (2) AlCl3
(3) Na2CO3 (3) Na2CO3
(4) Al2(SO4)3 (4) Al2(SO4)3
46. The pH of a solution resulting when 50 mL of 0.2 M 46. 50 mL 0.2 M 50 ml, 0.20 M acetic acid
HCl is mixed 50 mL of 0.20 M acetic acid is - pH
(1) 0.70 (2) 0.30 (1) 0.70 (2) 0.30
(3) 1.00 (4) 2.00 (3) 1.00 (4) 2.00
47. Consider the following reactions 47.
(I) [Al(OH)3(H2O)3] + OH– ]–
[Al(OH)4(H2O)2 + H2O (I) [Al(OH)3(H2O)3] + OH– [Al(OH)4(H2O)2]– + H2O
X X
(II) [Al(OH)3(H2O)3] + H3O+ [Al(OH)2(H 2O)4]+ + H2O (II) [Al(OH)3(H2O)3] + H3O+ [Al(OH)2(H 2O)4]+ + H2O
X X
Select the correct statement -
(1) X is an acid in I and base in II (1) I X II
(2) X is a base in I and acid in II (2) I X II
(3) X is a base in I and II both (3) I II X
(4) X is an acid in I and II both (4) I II X
48. Blue litmus turns red in the following mixture of acid 48.
and base -
(1)100mL of 1×10–2M H2SO4+100mL of 1×10–2M (1)100mL of 1×10–2M H2SO4+100mL of 1×10–2M
Ca(OH)2 Ca(OH)2
(2) 100 mL of 1 ×10–2 M HCl + 100 mL of 1 × 10–2 M Ba(OH)2 (2) 100 mL of 1 ×10–2 M HCl + 100 mL of 1 × 10–2 M Ba(OH)2
(3) 100 mL of 1 ×10–2 M H2SO4 + 10 mL of 1 × 10–2 M NaOH (3) 100 mL of 1 ×10–2 M H2SO4 + 10 mL of 1 × 10–2 M NaOH
(4) 100 mL of 1 ×10–2 M HCl + 100 mL of 1 × 10–2 M NaOH (4) 100 mL of 1 ×10–2 M HCl + 100 mL of 1 × 10–2 M NaOH
49. A mixture of weak acid is 0.1 M in HCOOH 49. 0.1 M HCOOH
(Ka = 1.8×10–4) and 0.1 M in HOCN (Ka = 3.3×10–4). (Ka = 1.8 × 10 ) –4
0.1 M HOCN (Ka = 3.3×10–4)
Hence, [H3O+] is - [H3O+]
(1) 7.14 × 10–3 M (1) 7.14 × 10–3 M
(2) 4.1 × 10–4 M (2) 4.1 × 10–4 M
(3) 0.20 M (3) 0.20 M
(4) 4.1 × 10–3 M (4) 4.1 × 10–3 M


50. Which buffer solution has maximum pH - 50. pH
(1) Mixture which is 0.1 M in CH3COOH and 0.1 M (1) 0.1 M CH3COOH 0.1 M CH3COONa
in CH3COONa [pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.74] [pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.74]
(2) Mixture which is 0.2 M in CH3COOH and 0.2 M (2) 0.2 M CH 3 COOH 0.2 M
in CH3COONa CH3COONa
(3) Mixture which is 0.1 M in NH4Cl and 0.1 M in (3) 0.1 M NH4Cl 0.1 M NH4OH
NH4OH [pKa (NH4+) = 9.26] +
[pKa (NH4 ) = 9.26]
(4) All the solutions have equal pH which is 4.74 (4) pH 4.74
51. A 50.00 mL sample of acetic acid was titrated with 51. 50.00 mL 0.1200 M KOH
38.62 mL of 0.1200 M KOH to reach the equivalence
point. What was the pH of the titration mixture when 38.62 mL pH
19.31 mL of base has been added in 50 ml acetic acid 50 ml 19.31 mL
sample? [pKa (acetic acid) =4.74] [pKa (acetic acid) =4.74]
(1) 2.94 (2) 3.54 (1) 2.94 (2) 3.54
(3) 4.74 (4) 5.74 (3) 4.74 (4) 5.74
52. Which is correct statement 52.
(1) Among H2O, H3O+, AlCl3, CH3+, H2O act as Lewis (1) H 2 O, H 3 O + , AlCl 3 , CH 3 + H 2O
base, nucleophilic reagent as well as ligand in complex
compound
(2) The pH of decinormal solution of KOH is 1 (2) KOH Decinormal pH
(3) To a solution containing equimolar mixture of (3) Sodium acetate Acetic acid
sodium acetate and acetic acid. Some more amount Sodium acetate
of sodium acetate solution is added. The pH of mixture
solution decrease pH
53. The pH of a solution is 6.0. In this solution – 53. pH = 6.0 –
(1) [H+] = 100[OH¯] (2) [H+] = 10[OH¯] (1) [H+] = 100[OH¯] (2) [H+] = 10[OH¯]
1 1
(3) [H+] = [OH¯] (4) [H+] = [OH¯] (3) [H+] = [OH¯] (4) [H+] = [OH¯]
10 10
54. How much water from 5L of 10–3 M HCl must be 54. 5L, 10–3 M HCl pH
evaporated to change its pH by 2 unit ? 2
(1) 0.5 L (2) 0.05 L (1) 0.5 L (2) 0.05 L
(3) 4.5 L (4) 4.95 L (3) 4.5 L (4) 4.95 L
55. CH3NH2 (0.1 mole, Kb = 5 × 10–4) is added to 0.08 55. CH3NH2 (0.1 mole, Kb = 5 × 10–4) HCl 0.08
moles of HCl and the solution is diluted to one litre.
The resulting hydrogen ion concentration is – –
(1) 1.6 × 10–11 (2) 8 × 10–11 (1) 1.6 × 10–11 10–11
(2) 8 ×
(3) 5 × 10–5 (4) 8 × 10–2 (3) 5 × 10–5 (4) 8 × 10–2
56. From separate solutions of four sodium salts NaW, 56. NaW, NaX, NaY NaZ
NaX, NaY and NaZ had pH 7.0, 9.0, 10.0 and pH 7.0, 9.0, 10.0 11.0
11.0 respectively, when each solution was 0.1 M,
0.1 M
the weakest acid is–
(1) HW (2) HX
(1) HW (2) HX
(3) HY (4) HZ
(3) HY (4) HZ


57. Match List I with List II and choose the correct an- 57. I II
swer from the code given below – –
List - I List - II -I - II
(A) Normal-salt (a) NaHCO3 (A) -salt (a) NaHCO3
(B) Acid salt (b) NaNH4HPO4 (B) salt (b) NaNH4HPO4
(C) Complex salt (c) Na2HPO3 (C) salt (c) Na2HPO3
(D) Mixed salt (d) CuSO4.4 NH3 (D) salt (d) CuSO4.4 NH3
(1) A-c, B-a, C-d, D-b (2) A-a, B-b, C-c, D-d (1) A-c, B-a, C-d, D-b (2) A-a, B-b, C-c, D-d
(3) A-b, B-c, C-a, D-d (4) A-d, B-a, C-b, D-c (3) A-b, B-c, C-a, D-d (4) A-d, B-a, C-b, D-c
58. Processes 58.
(a) HCO3– + H2O H2CO3 + OH– (a) HCO3– + H2O H2CO3 + OH–
(b) HCO3– + H2O H3O+ + CO3–2 (b) HCO3– + H2O H3O+ + CO3–2
represents – –
(1) (a) Hydrolysis (b) Ionisation (1) (a) (b)
(2) (a) Hydrolysis (b) Hydrolysis (2) (a) (b)
(3) (a) Ionisation (b) Hydrolysis (3) (a) (b)
(4) (a) Ionisation (b) Ionisation (4) (a) (b)
59. Which is correct statement - 59.
(1) The pH of 0.4% NaOH solution is 13 (1) 0.4% NaOH pH 13
(2) If Kw = 1.44 × 10–14 at 70ºC then pOH of water is (2) 70º C Kw = 1.44 × 10–14 pOH 6
between 6 to 7 7
(3) Same volume of two solution which contain pH=3 (3) pH=3 pH=5
and pH=5 are added then pH of resultant solution is 3.3 pH 3.3
(4) All are correct (4)
60. pH of solution of a strong base X(OH)3 is 9. If base is 60. X(OH)3 pH 9
completely dissociates then its molarity will be -
(1) 1 × 10–5 M (1) 1 × 10–5 M
(2) 3.33 × 10–6 M (2) 3.33 × 10–6 M
(3) 1 × 10–9 M (3) 1 × 10–9 M
(4) 3.33 × 10–10 M (4) 3.33 × 10–10 M
61. By the mixing of 50 ml of 0.1 M NaOH in 150 ml of 61. 0.1 M HCl 150 0.1 M NaOH 50
0.1M HCl, volume of solution made 1 litre by addition 1
of extra water. pH of this solution is - pH
(1) 1.0 (2) 2.0 (1) 1.0 (2) 2.0
(3) 3.0 (4) 4.0 (3) 3.0 (4) 4.0
62. pH value of 0.005 M Barayta solution will be(log5=0.7) 62. 0.005 M pH (log5=0.7)
(1) 2.3 (2) 11.7 (1) 2.3 (2) 11.7
(3) 2.0 (4) 12.0 (3) 2.0 (4) 12.0
–9
63. pH of 1 × 10 M NaOH solution remains - 63. 1 × 10–9 M NaOH pH
(1) between 6 and 7 (2) between 7 and 8 (1) 6 7 (2) 7 8
(3) 9.0 (4) 5.0 (3) 9.0 (4) 5.0
64. If value of Kh of salt BNO3 is 5 × 10–6 then value of 64. BNO3 Kh 5 × 10–6 BOH
Kb for BOH will be - Kb
(1) 2 × 10–8 (2) 5 × 10–20 (1) 2 × 10–8 (2) 5 × 10–20
(3) 5 × 108 (4) 2 × 10–9 (3) 5 × 108 (4) 2 × 10–9


65. Hf(H2O) = X; Heat of neutralisation of CH3COOH 65. H f (H 2 O) = X; CH 3 COOH NaOH
and NaOH will be
(1) Less than 2X (2) less than X (1) Less than 2X (2) less than X
(3) X (4) between X and 2X (3) X (4) between X and 2X
66. Which one of the following statements is not true 66.
(1) the conjugate base of H2PO4– is HPO42– (1) H2PO4– HPO42–
(2) pH + pOH = 14 for all aqueous solutions at 25°C (2) 25°C pH + pOH = 14
(3) the pH of 1 × 10–8 M HCl is 8 –8
(3) 1 × 10 M HCl pH 8
(4) 96500 coulombs of electricity when passed through
(4) CuSO4 96500
a CuSO4 solution deposits 1 gram equivalent of cop-
1
per at the cathode
67. When rain is accompained by a thunderstorm, the 67.
collected rain water will have a pH value pH
(1) slightly lower than that of rain water without thun-
derstorm (1)
(2) slightly higher than that when the thunderstorm is (2)
not there
(3)
(3) uninfluenced by occurrence of thuderstorm
(4) which depends on the amount of dust in air (4)
68. H3BO3 is 68. H3BO3
(1) monobasic and weak lewis acid (1) monobasic weak lewis acid
(2) monobasic and weak bronsted acid (2) monobasic weak bronsted acid
(3) monobasic and strong lewis acid (3) monobasic strong lewis acid
(4) tribasic and weak bronsted acid (4) tribasic weak bronsted acid
69. The pKa of acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) is 3.5. The 69. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) pKa 3.5
pH of gastric juice in human stomach is about 2-3
gastric juice pH 2-3
and the pH in the small intestine is about 8. Aspirin
will be pH 8
(1) unionized in the small intestine and in the stomach
(2) completely ionized in the small intestine and in the (1)
stomach
(2)
(3) ionized in the stomach and almost unionized in the
small intestine (3)
(4) ionized in the small intestine and almost unionized
in the stomach (4)
70. Strongest conjugate base is - 70.
(1) Cl– (2) Br– (1) Cl– (2) Br–
(3) F– (4) I– (3) F– (4) I–
71. Given pH of a solution A is 3 and it is mixed with 71. A pH 3 B pH 2
another solution B having pH 2. If both mixed with
same volume then resultant pH of the solution will be pH
(1) 3.2 (2) 2.26 (1) 3.2 (2) 2.26
(3) 3.4 (4) 3.5 (3) 3.4 (4) 3.5
72. What is the conjugate base of OH– 72. OH–
(1) O2 (2) H2O (1) O2 (2) H2O
(3) O –
(4) O2– (3) O– (4) O2–


73. A precipitate of AgCl is formed when equal volumes 73. AgCl
of the following are mixed. [Ksp for AgCl = 10–10] [Ksp for AgCl = 10–10]
(1) 10–4M AgNO3 and 10–7M HCl (1) 10–4M AgNO3 10–7M HCl
74. The first and second dissociation constants of an acid 74. H2A acid
H2A are 1.0 × 10–5 and 5.0 × 10–10 respectively. The 1.0 × 10–5 5.0 × 10–10
overall dissociation constant of the acid will be
(1) 5.0 × 10–15 (2) 0.2 × 105 (1) 5.0 × 10–15 (2) 0.2 × 105
(3) 5.0 × 10–5 (4) 5.0 × 1015 (3) 5.0 × 10–5 (4) 5.0 × 1015
75. What will be the concentration of acetate ion in 75. 1.0 M [Ka = 2 × 10–5] 0.1M
a 1.0 M solution of acetic acid containing 0.1 M HCl :-
HCl [Ka = 2 × 10–5]:-
(1) 2 × 10–3 M (2) 2 × 10–4 M (1) 2 × 10–3 M (2) 2 × 10–4 M
(3) 2 × 10–2 M (4) 2 × 10–6 M (3) 2 × 10–2 M (4) 2 × 10–6 M
76. The strongest Bronsted base in the following anion is. 76.
(1) CN– (2) Cl– (1) CN– (2) Cl–
(3) HPO42– (4) PO43– (3) HPO42– (4) PO43–
77. Which is the set of amphiprotic species? 77.
(1) H3O+, HPO42–, HCO3– (1) H3O+, HPO42–, HCO3–
(2) H 2O, HPO32–, H2PO2– (2) H 2O, HPO32–, H2PO2–
(3) H 2PO4–, H2PO3–, H2O (3) H 2PO4–, H2PO3–, H2O
(4) All of these
(4)
78. Given that Kw for water is 10–13 M2 at 62°C, compute
78. 62°C Kw 10–13 M2
the sum of pOH and pH for a neutral aqueous solution
62°C pH pOH
at 62°C.
(1) 7.0 (2) 13.30 (1) 7.0 (2) 13.30
(3) 14.0 (4) 13.0 (3) 14.0 (4) 13.0
79. A beer has a pH of 4.30. What is the [H3O+]? 79. beer pH 4.30 [H3O+]
(1) 3.0 × 10 –4
(2) 2.0 × 10 –4
(1) 3.0 × 10–4 (2) 2.0 × 10–4
(3) 2.0 × 10–5 (4) 5.0 × 10–5 (3) 2.0 × 10–5 (4) 5.0 × 10–5
80. The pH of a solution is 5. To this solution acid was 80. pH, 5
added so that its pH value becomes 2.0. The increase pH H+
in H+ concentration is.
(1) 100 times (2) 5 times (1) 100 (2) 5
(3) 2.5 times (4) 1000 times (3) 2.5 (4) 1000
81. pOH of 0.002 M HNO3 is. 81. pOH 0.002 M HNO3
(1) 11 + log2 (2) 11 – log2 (1) 11 + log2 (2) 11 – log2
(3) –3 + log2 (4) None of these (3) –3 + log2 (4)
82. To a 10 mL of 10 N H2SO4 solution water has been
–3
82. 10 N H2SO4 10 mL
–3
added to make the total volume of one litre. Its pOH

would be. pOH
(1) 3 (2) 12 (1) 3 (2) 12
(3) 9 (4) 5 (3) 9 (4) 5


83. 10–5 M NaOH solution at 25°C is diluted 1000 times. 83. 10–5 M NaOH 25°C 1000
The pH of the resultant solution will be. pH
(1) be equal to 8 (1) 8
(2) lie between 7 and 8 (2) 7 8
(3) lie between 6 and 7 (3) 6 7
(4) remain unchanged (4)
84. 4.0g of NaOH and 4.9g of H2SO4 are dissolved in 84. 4.0g, NaOH 4.9g, H2SO4
water and volume is made upto 250 mL. The pH 250 mL
of this solution is. pH
(1) 7.0 (2) 1.0 (1) 7.0 (2) 1.0
(3) 2.0 (4) 12.0 (3) 2.0 (4) 12.0
85. Given : Enthalpy of ionization of two acid : 85.
H° (HCN) = 45.2 kJ mol–1 H° (HCN) = 45.2 kJ mol–1
H° (CH3COOH) = 2.0 kJ mol–1 H° (CH3COOH) = 2.0 kJ mol–1
which relationship for the two acids is true.
(1) pK (HCN) = pK (CH3COOH) (1) pK (HCN) = pK (CH3COOH)
(2) pK (HCN) > pK (CH3COOH) (2) pK (HCN) > pK (CH3COOH)
(3) pK (HCN) < pK (CH3COOH) (3) pK (HCN) < pK (CH3COOH)
45.2 45.2
(4) pK (HCN) = pK  (CH3COOH) (4) pK (HCN) = pK  (CH3COOH)
2.1 2.1
86. What is the percent ionization () of a 0.01 M HA 86. 0.01 M HA ?
solution? (K = 10–4) (K = 10–4)
(1) 9.5% (2) 1% (1) 9.5% (2) 1%
(3) 10.5% (4) 17% (3) 10.5% (4) 17%
87. A weak base MOH of 0.1 N concentration shows 87. MOH 0.1 N pH 9
a pH value of 9. What is the percentage degree of ?
ionization of the base?
(1) 0.01% (2) 0.001%
(1) 0.01% (2) 0.001%
(3) 0.1% (4) 0.02% (3) 0.1% (4) 0.02%
88. What concentration of HCOO– is present in a solution 88. 0.01 M HCOOH (K = 1.8 × 10–4) 0.01 M HCl
of 0.01 M HCOOH (K = 1.8 × 10–4) and 0.01 M HCl? HCOO–
(1) 1.8 × 10–3 (2) 10–2 (1) 1.8 × 10–3 (2) 10–2
(3) 1.8 × 10–4 (4) 10–4 (3) 1.8 × 10–4 (4) 10–4
89. What is [NH4+] in a solution that contain 0.02 M NH3 89. 0.02 M NH3 (Kb = 1.8 × 10–5) 0.01 M KOH
(Kb = 1.8 × 10–5) and 0.01 M KOH?
(1) 9 × 10–6 (2) 1.8 × 10–5 (1) 9 × 10–6 (2) 1.8 × 10–5
(3) 3.6 × 10–5 (4) None of these (3) 3.6 × 10–5 (4)
90. Carbonic acid (H 2 CO 3 ), a diprotic acid has 90. (H2CO3)
K 1  4.0  10 7 and K 2  7.0  10 11 . What is the K 1  4.0  10 7 K 2  7.0  10 11 0.025
[HCO3–] of a 0.025 M solution of carbonic acid? M [HCO3–]

?
(1) 7.8 × 10–3 (2) 6.6 × 10–4
(1) 7.8 × 10–3 (2) 6.6 × 10–4
(3) 10–10 (4) 1.0 × 10–4 (3) 10–10 (4) 1.0 × 10–4


Q. 91 to 100 Assertion and Reason type questions 91 100
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the Reason (1)
is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason (2)
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True statement but Reason is false (3)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False statements (4)
91. Assertion : If water is heated to 50°C then pH will 91. : 50°C pH

increase.
Reason : Kw decreases with increase in temperature. : Kw
92. Assertion : The ionization constants of weak diprotic 92. : K 1  K 2 .
acid are in the order of K 1  K 2 . : H+
Reason : Removal of H+ from anion is difficult as
compare to neutral molecule.
93. Assertion : In a titration of weak acid with strong 93. :
base, the pH at the half equivalence point is pKa. pH pKa
Reason : At half equivalence point, it will form acidic :
buffer at it’s maximum capacity where [acid] = [salt] [acid]=[salt]
94. Assertion : Sparingly soluble salts AB and XY2 with 94. : AB XY2
the same solubility product, will have different solubility.
Reason : Solubility of sparingly soluble salt depend
:
upon solubility product.
95. Assertion : Solubility of sparingly soluble salt 95. :
decreases due to common ion effect.
Reason : Solubility product constant does not depend :
on common ion effect.
96. Assertion : Solubility of AgCN in acid solution is 96. : AgCN
greater than that is pure water.
Reason : Solubility equilibrium of AgCN in acidic
: AgCN HCN
solution is shifted in forward direction due to formation
of HCN.
97. Assertion : The pKa of acetic acid is lower than 97. : pKa
that of phenol.
Reason : Acetic acid have more acidic strength then :
phenol
98. Assertion : Degree of ionisation of 0.1 M acetic 98. :
acid solution will decrease in the presence of 0.05 HCl
M HCl aq solution
:
Reason : Due to common ion effect the ionisation
of Weak electrolyte will decrease
99. Assertion : On mixing 500 mL of 10–6 M Ca2+ ion 99. : 500 mL, 10–6 M Ca2+ 500 mL, 30 ×
and 500 mL of 30 × 10–6 MF– ion, the precipitate of 10 M F
–6 –
CaF2
CaF2 will be obtained (Ksp of CaF2 = 10–8) (Ksp of CaF2 = 10 )
–8
Reason : If Ksp is greater than ionic product, a : Ksp

precipitate will develop.


100. Assertion : NaCl is precipitated when HCl gas is 100. : NaCl HCl
passed in a saturated solution of NaCl. NaCl
Reason : HCl is strong acid. : HCl
ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 3 2 4 1 3 1 2 3 4 4 1 4 4 1 4 1 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 2 4 4 3 2 4 3
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 2 1 2 2 4 2 4 3 4 1 1 2 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 3 1 1 4 2 4 1 1 4 2
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 2 4 2 3 1 1 4 3 2 4 3 1 1 1 3 1 4 4 1 3 2 1 2 1 1 3 3 4
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 1 1 3 2 1 1 1 4 2


Redox Reactions
1. First definition of " Oxidation: is given on the basis of 1.
(1) Rxn with O2 (1) O2
(2) Rxn with H2 (2) H2
(3) Rxn with Cl2 (3) Cl2
(4) Rxn with Br2 (4) Br2
2. 2H2S + O2  2S + 2H2O 2. 2H2S + O2  2S + 2H2O
The above reaction is oxidation acc. to :
(1) Addition of O2 (1) O2
(2) Addition of H2 (2) H2
(3) Removal of H2 (3) H2
(4) Removal of O2 (4) O2
3. In which of the following element addition of 3.
oxygen, oxidation does not occur:
(1) Cl 2 (2) Br2 (3) F2 (4) H2 (1) Cl 2 (2) Br2 (3) F2 (4) H2
4. Statement-1: Oxidation is addition of any 4. -1:
electronegative element
-2:
Statement-2: Reduction is addition of any
electropositive element -3 : H2
Statement-3 : Oxidation is removal of H2
-4 : O2
Statement-4 : Reduction is removal of O2
How Many statements are correct
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4
5. 2HgO  
 2Hg + O2 5. 2HgO 
 2Hg + O2

Assertion : this reaction is oxidation reaction :

Reason : In this reaction Removal of O2 occur : : O2
6. CH2 = CH2 + H2  CH3 – CH3(g): 6. CH2 = CH2 + H2  CH3 – CH3(g):
Assertion : This reaction is reduction Rxn :
Reason : Here, Addition of H2 takes place : H2
7. In redox reactions : 7.
(1) First oxidation than reduction takes place (1)
(2) First reduction than oxidation take place
(2)
(3) Oxidation and reduction takes place
simultanoly (3)
(4) Any Rxn takes place (4)


8. (1) 2Na + H2  2NaH is oxidation of Na 8. (1) 2Na + H2  2NaH Na
(2) 3Fe3O4 +8Al(s)  9Fe(s) + 4Al2O3 is reduction (2) 3Fe3O4 +8Al(s)  9Fe(s) + 4Al2O3 Fe3O4
of Fe 3O4
(3) H2S +Cl2  2HCl + S is oxidation of Cl2 (3) H2S +Cl2  2HCl + S Cl2
(4) In second reaction Al is reduced (4) Al
How many statements are correct :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
9. 2Na + Cl 2(g)  2NaCl(s) 9. 2Na + Cl 2(g)  2NaCl(s)
In above reaction which one is losing electrons
(1) Na (1) Na
(2) Cl 2 (2) Cl 2
(3) NaCl2 (3) NaCl2
(4) None of these (4) None of these
10. Asseratio : 2Na + O2  Na2O is redox reaction 10. : 2Na + O2  Na2O
Reason : Because in this reaction Na is loosing : Na, e– O2
electrons and O2 gains electrons
11. A substance that looses electrons and gets oxidised 11. e–
in redox reaction is called ?
(1) Oxidising Agent (1)
(2) Reducing agent (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
12. A substance that gains electrons and looses 12. e–
electrons are respectively formed as :
(1) O.A and R.A (1)
(2) R.A and O.A (2)
(3) O.A and Oxidant (3)
(4) R.A and Reductant (4)
13. 2Na+ + 2e– 2Na is an 13. 2Na+ + 2e– 2Na
(1) Complete redox reaction (1)
(2) Half oxidation reaction (2)
(3) Half reduction reaction (3)
(4) Complete neutralisation reaction (4)
14. A metal when combines with EN element, it acts as 14.
(1) Oxidant
(2) reductant (1) (2)
(3) Present in solid state (3)


15. Zn + Cu2+(aq)  Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s) 15. Zn + Cu2+(aq)  Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
Statement : :
(a) In this reaction Zn is oxidised (a) Zn
(b) In this reaction Zn is reduced (b) Zn
(c) In this reaction Cu2+ reduced (c) Cu2+
(d) In this reaction Cu2+ Oxidised
(d) Cu2+
(e) Zn is oxidised because it is placed above from
(e) Zn
Cu in electrochemical series
Cu
(f) electron releasing tendency in electrochemical
series is Zn > Ag > Cu (f) e– Zn > Ag > Cu
Which of following statements are true :
(1) a, c, e (2) a, c, d (1) a, c, e (2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, f (4) b, d, e, f (3) b, c, f (4) b, d, e, f
16. H2 +Cl2  2HCl 16. H2 +Cl2  2HCl
In this reaction how many species has oxidation
number zero :
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
17. CH4 + 4 Cl2  4CCl4 + 4HCl 17. CH4 + 4 Cl2  4CCl4 + 4HCl
(a) O.N of C in CH4 is +4 (a) CH4 C +4
(b) O.N of C in CH4 is –4 (b) CH4 C –4
(c) O.N of Cl in Cl2 is –1 (c) Cl2 Cl –1
(d) O.N of Cl in Cl2 is 0 (d) Cl2 Cl 0
(e) O.N of Cl in CCl4 is –1 (e) CCl4 Cl –1
(f) O.N of Cl in HCl is –1 (f) HCl Cl –1
How many statements are correct ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 2 (3) 3 (4) 2
18. Which of the following elements have oxidation 18.
Number is not zero : (1) Cl 2 (2) Br2
(1) Cl 2 (2) Br2 (3) HCl (4) Na– Hg (3) HCl (4) Na– Hg
19. Fluorine always oxidation number in free state : 19. F
(1) –1 (2) +1 (1) –1 (2) +1
(3) 0 (4) +3 (3) 0 (4) +3
20. Statement -1: F always shows –1 oxidation 20. -1: F –1
number in combined state
Statement -2: It is most EN element in periodic -2:
table
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (2) I II
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is (3) I II
correct (4) I II
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 21. H2O2, BaO2, CO2, OF2, H2O, K2Cr2O7, KO2, O2F2,
21. H2O2, BaO2, CO2, OF2, H2O, K2Cr2O7, KO2, O2F2, O3–, RbO 2
O3–, RbO 2 –2
In How many compounds oxygen shows O.N of
–2 : (1) 6 (2) 4
(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 5 (3) 3 (4) 5


22. Assertion: Hydrogen shows +1 ON in all binary 22. : +1
compounds
Reason : H has EN value of 3.1 :H 3.1
23. Statement -1 Highest ON of group (1) is +1 23. -1 (1) +1
Statement -2 Highest ON of group (2) is +2 -2 (2) +2
Statement -3 Highest ON of Al is +3 -3 Al +3
Statement -4 ON of P in P4O10 is +4 -4 P4O10 P +4
-5 S 0
Statement -5 S has lowest ON of zero
-6 +7
Statement -6 All halogens has highest ON of +7
How many statements are incorrect :
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 1 (3) 4 (4) 1
24. Stock notation of CuO, MnO and MnO2 are: 24. CuO, MnO MnO 2 Stock
(Notation)
(1) Cu+1, Mn +2, Mn +4
(1) Cu +1, Mn +2, Mn +4
(2) Cu(II), Mn(II), Mn(IV)
(2) Cu(II), Mn(II), Mn(IV)
(3) Cu(I), Mn(II), Mn(IV) (3) Cu(I), Mn(II), Mn(IV)
(4) Cu+2, Mn2+, Mn4+ (4) Cu+2, Mn2+, Mn4+
25. Increase and decrease in oxidation number are 25.
respectively termed as : (1)
(1) Oxidation and reduction (2)
(2) Reduction and oxidation
(3)
(3) Exothermic and endothermic
26. 2Cu2O +Cu2S  6Cu(s) + SO2(g) 26. 2Cu2O +Cu2S  6Cu(s) + SO2(g)
Statement (a) Cu2O undergoes reduction (a) Cu2O
Statement (b) Cu2O undergoes oxidation (b) Cu2O
Statement (c) Cu2S undergoes reduction (c) Cu2S
Statement (d) Cu 2S undergoes oxidation and (d) Cu2S
reduction
(e) Cu2O  Cu Cu
Statement (e) In Cu2O  Cu, ON of Cu is increasing
(f) Cu2O  Cu Cu
Statement (f) In Cu2O  Cu, ON of Cu is decreasing
Which of the following is correct
(1) a, d, f (1) a, d, f
(2) b, c, e (2) b, c, e
(3) a, c , f (3) a, c , f
(4) b, d, f (4) b, d, f


27. C+ O2  CO2(s) 27. C+ O2  CO2(s)
(a) it is combination redox Rxn (a)
(b) it is intermolecular redox Rxn (b)
(c) Here C is oxidised (c) C
(d) Here C is Reduced (d) C
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 0 (4) 4 (3) 0 (4) 4
28. In KClO3, ON of Cl is : 28. KClO3, Cl
(1) 0 (2) –1 (1) 0 (2) –1
(3) +5 (4) +7 (3) +5 (4) +7
29. 2NaH  2Na + H2 29. 2NaH  2Na + H2
(1) it is decomposition redox Rxn (1)
(2) it is intermolecular redox Rxn (2)
(3) Here Na is Reduced (3) Na
(4) ON of Hydrogen in NaH is +1 (4) NaH H +1
30. Which of the above statement is incorrect : 30. Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)  ZnCl2 +H2
Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)  ZnCl2 +H2
(a) It is non metal displacement reaction (a)
(b) Zn is getting oxidised to ZnCl 2 (b) Zn ZnCl2
(c) It is intermolecular redox Rxn (c)
(d) It is intramolecular redox Rxn (d)
(e) In HCl H– is reduced (e) HCl H
(f) It is the method to prepare H2 gas (f) H2
(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 1 (3) 5 (4) 1
31. Which is not a redox reaction : 31.
(1) Fe(s) + 2HCl(aq)  FeCl2(aq) +H2 (1) Fe(s) + 2HCl(aq)  FeCl2(aq) +H2
(2) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)  ZnCl2(aq) +H2 (2) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq)  ZnCl2(aq) +H2
(3) NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O (3) NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O
(4) 2Mg +O2  2MgO (4) 2Mg +O2  2MgO
32. Match the column: 32.

(1) H2 +Cl2 2HCl (A) Disproportion Rxn (1) H2 +Cl2 2HCl (A)
(2) KClO3  KCl +O2 (B) Intermolecular (2) KClO3  KCl +O2 (B)
n
Redox Rx
(3) Cl2 +OH–  Cl– +ClO3– (C)
(3) Cl2 +OH–  Cl– +ClO3– (C) Intramolecular
n (4) Cl– +ClO3–  Cl2 +OH– (D)
Redox Rx
(4) Cl– +ClO3–  Cl2 +OH– (D) Comproportion Rxn
(1) (1)–B, (2)–C, (3)–A, (4)–D
(1) (1)–B, (2)–C, (3)–A, (4)–D (2) (1)–C, (2)–B, (3)–A, (4)–D
(2) (1)–C, (2)–B, (3)–A, (4)–D
(3) (1)–C, (2)–B, (3)–D, (4)–A
(3) (1)–C, (2)–B, (3)–D, (4)–A
(4) (1)–B, (2)–C, (3)–D, (4)–A (4) (1)–B, (2)–C, (3)–D, (4)–A


33. How many species will show disproportion 33.
reaction?
Cl –, Cl 2, H 2O 2, SO 3, SO 42– , PO 43– , P 4 , O 2 , SO 2 , Cl –, Cl 2, H 2O 2, SO 3 , SO 42– , PO 4 3–, P 4 , O 2, SO 2 ,
MnO2 MnO 2
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 7 (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 7
34. Product of fullowing reaction will be 34. Cl 2 +Hot & conc  NaOH
n
Cl 2 +Hot & conc  NaOH

n
(1) Cl– and OCl– (2) Cl– and ClO3–

(1) Cl– and OCl– (2) Cl– and ClO3–
(3) Cl – and O2 (4) ClO3– and ClO (3) Cl and O2
–
(4) ClO3– and ClO
35. In carbon sub oxide (C3O2) O.N of each carbon 35. (C3O2)
are :
(1) +2, 0, +2 (2) 0, 0, 0 (1) +2, 0, +2 (2) 0, 0, 0
(3) +1, +2, 0 (4) 0, +2, 0 (3) +1, +2, 0 (4) 0, +2, 0
36. ON of Br in Br3O8 will be : 36. Br3O8 Br
16 8 16 8
(1) –1 (2)  (3)  (4) 0 (1) –1 (2)  (3)  (4) 0
3 3 3 3
37. ON of oxygen in O3– is : 37. O3–
1 1 1 1
(1)  (2)  (3) 0 (4) +2 (1)  (2)  (3) 0 (4) +2
2 3 2 3
38. Match the column: 38.
(A) Superoxide (P) +2 (A) (P) +2
(B) Peroxide (Q) –1/2 (B) (Q) –1/2
(C) O2F2 (R) –1
(C) O2F2 (R) –1
(D) OF2 (S) +1
(D) OF2 (S) +1
(1) A–Q, B–R, C–P, D–S (1) A–Q, B–R, C–P, D–S
(2) A–R, B–Q, C–P, D–S (2) A–R, B–Q, C–P, D–S
(3) A–Q, B–R, C–S, D–P (3) A–Q, B–R, C–S, D–P
(4) A–S, B–P, C–Q, D–R (4) A–S, B–P, C–Q, D–R
39. O.N. of Pb in Pb(NO3)2 is : 39. Pb(NO3)2 Pb
(1) +2 (2) +4 (3) 0 (4) +1 (1) +2 (2) +4 (3) 0 (4) +1
40. O.N. of Ca in calcium amalgam is : 40.
(1) +2 (2) –1 (3) 0 (4) +4 (1) +2 (2) –1 (3) 0 (4) +4
41. Maximum O.N. of following will be : 41.
(A) Cr (P) +7 (A) Cr (P) +7
(B) Mn (Q) 0 (B) Mn (Q) 0
(C) F (R) –1 (C) F (R) –1
(D) Al (S) +3 (D) Al (S) +3
(T) +6 (T) +6
(1) A–S, B–T, C–R, D–S (1) A–S, B–T, C–R, D–S
(2) A–T, B–P, C–Q, D–S (2) A–T, B–P, C–Q, D–S
(3) A–P, B–T, C–Q, D–S (3) A–P, B–T, C–Q, D–S
(4) A–P, B–S, C–R, D–T (4) A–P, B–S, C–R, D–T


42. In Reaction 42.
Cr 2O72– + SO32–  Cr 3+ +SO 42– Cr 2O72– + SO32–  Cr 3+ +SO42–
Statement a - it happens in Acidic medium a-
Statement b - here Cr 2O72– is oxidant b- Cr2O72–
Statement c - here Cr 2O72– is reductant c- Cr2O72–
Statement d -In SO32– S-present in +6 d - SO32– S +6
Statement e - Cr3+ has green colour e - Cr3+
Which of the following are correct statements
(1) a, c, d, e (2) a, b, c, e (1) a, c, d, e (2) a, b, c, e
(3) a, b , e (4) a, d, e (3) a, b , e (4) a, d, e
43. In which medium K 2Cr 2O 7 only act as strong 43. K2Cr2O7
oxidising agent:
(1) Acidic (2) Weakly alkaline (1) (2)
(3) Basic (4) Neutral (3) (4)
44. xCr2O72– + yH+ + zFe2+  PFe3+ + QCr3+ +RH2O 44.
Which of the following set is correct : xCr2O72– + yH+ + zFe2+  PFe3+ + QCr3+ +RH2O
x y z P Q R x y z P Q R
(1) 2 7 6 6 2 14 (1) 2 7 6 6 2 14
(2) 1 14 3 3 2 7 (2) 1 14 3 3 2 7
(3) 1 14 6 6 2 7 (3) 1 14 6 6 2 7
(4) 2 7 3 3 2 14 (4) 2 7 3 3 2 14
45. Match the following for MnO4–: 45. MnO4– :
+2 +2
(A) Acidic Medium (P) Mn (A) (P) Mn
(B) Basic Medium (Q) MnO42– (B) (Q) MnO 4
2–
(C) Neutral Medium (R) MnO2 (C) (R) MnO 2
(1) A-P, B-Q, C-R (1) A-P, B-Q, C-R

(2) A-P, B-R, C-Q (2) A-P, B-R, C-Q
(3) A-R, B-P, C-Q (3) A-R, B-P, C-Q
(4) A-R, B-Q, C-P (4) A-R, B-Q, C-P
46. ON of Mn in MnO4– will be : 46. MnO4– Mn
(1) +4 (2) +6 (1) +4 (2) +6
(3) 0 (4) +7 (3) 0 (4) +7
47. Tin (IV) oxide is : 47. (IV)
(1) SnO (2) SnO2 (1) SnO (2) SnO2
(3) Pbo (4) PbO2 (3) Pbo (4) PbO2
48. NH3 + O2  NO + H2O 48. NH3 + O2  NO + H2O
Which of the following is wrong statement :
(1) In NH3, O.N. of N is –3 (1) NH3, N –3
(2) In O2 O.N of O is zero (2) O2 O
(3) Here, NH3 is reducing Agent (3) NH3
(4) Here, O2 is reductant (4) O2
49. Mercury (II) Chloride is : 49. Mercury (II)
(1) Hg2Cl 2 (2) HgCl 2 (1) Hg2Cl 2 (2) HgCl 2
(3) HgCl 3 (4) MnCl 2 (3) HgCl 3 (4) MnCl 2

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50. Why F2 is best oxidant among halogans : 50. F2
(1) it is smallest (1)
(2) it is most EN element (2)
(3) it is present in gaseuos form (3)
(4) it is non-reactive (4)
51. Product of reaction of MnO4– and Fe2+ will be in 51. MnO4– Fe2+
acidic medium :
(1) MnO43– and Fe 3+ (2) MnO42– and Fe (1) MnO43– and Fe 3+ (2) MnO42– and Fe
(3) Mn+2 and Fe3+ (4) MnO2 and Fe3+ (3) Mn+2 and Fe3+ (4) MnO2 and Fe3+
52. Match the column : 52.
(A) Element exihibit only – ve state (1) Cs (A) (1) Cs

in combined form
(B) Element exihibit only – ve and (2) I (B) (2) I
+ve state in combined state
(C) Element show only +ve O.N in (3) F
(C) (3) F
combined state
(D) Always show zero oxidation (4) Ne
(D) (4) Ne
state
(1) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 (1) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(2) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (2) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(3) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (3) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
53. MnO4– + I–(aq)  MnO2 +I2 53. MnO4– + I–(aq)  MnO2 +I2
In this reaction oxidant will be :
(1) MnO4– (2) I– (1) MnO4– (2) I–
(3) MnO2 (4) I2 (3) MnO2 (4) I2
54. What is the limitation of oxidation number : 54.
(1) In recent past years reduction and oxidation (1)
are checked by e density around atom
– e–
(2) O.N doesn't give proper information about (2)
oxidation and reduction
(3) ON has fractional values (3)
(4) It only defines for ionic bond (4)
55. Which of the following is correct stock notation 55. Auric Stock notation
for auric chloride ?
(1) Au(III) Cl3 (2) Au(II) Cl2
(1) Au(III) Cl3 (2) Au(II) Cl2
(3) Au(I) Cl2 (4) None of these (3) Au(I) Cl2 (4)
56. Assertion : 2Na + H2  2NaH(s) 56. : 2Na + H2  2NaH(s)
Here Na is oxidised Na
Reason : Na act as reducing agent in this Rxn : Na

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57. O.N of H in CaH2, NH3, H2 and LiH are : 57. CaH2, NH3, H2 LiH H
(1) +1,+1,0,+1 (2) –1,+1,0,–1 (1) +1,+1,0,+1 (2) –1,+1,0,–1
(3) +2,+1,0,+1 (4) +1,+1,0,+1 (3) +2,+1,0,+1 (4) +1,+1,0,+1
58. Among NH3, HNO3, NaN3 and Mg3N2 the number 58. NH3, HNO3, NaN3 Mg3N2
of molecules having nitrogen in negative
oxidation state :
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
59. Which of the following species will undergo 59.
disproportion Rxn:
(1) ClO4– (2) SO42– (1) ClO4– (2) SO42–
(3) Cl – (4) P4 (3) Cl – (4) P4
60. The number of electron involved in the end of one 60.
mole nitrate ion to hydrazine is : e–
(1) 8 (2) 5 (1) 8 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 7 (3) 3 (4) 7
ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 1 3 3 4 4 1 3 2 1 1 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 3 3 1 3 4 1 2 1 1 1 3 1 3
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 1 1 2 1 2 2 3 1 3 2 3 1 3 1 4 2 4 2 2 3 3 1 1 1 1 2 3 4 4

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Topic : Solid state
1. The number of spheres in contact with a 1. :
tetrahedral void is :
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 8
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 8
2. Which of the following has hcp crystal structure ? 2. hcp ?
(1) NaCl (2) CsCl (1) NaCl (2) CsCl
(3) Zn (4) RbCl (3) Zn (4) RbCl
3. Rhombic sulphur exhibits : 3. (Rhombic sulphur) :
(1) Cubic geometry (1)
(2) Monoclinic geometry (2)
(3) Tetragonal geometry (3)
(4) Orthorhombic geometry (4)
4. Which of the following is an example of face 4. ?
centred cube ?
(1) Cu (2) Ag
(1) Cu (2) Ag
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these (3) (1) (2) (4)
5. Which of the following is not a crystalline solid ? 5. ?
(1) KCl (2) CsCl (1) KCl (2) CsCl
(3) Glass (4) Rhombic S (3) (4)
6. A metallic crystal crystallizes into a lattice 6.
containing a sequence of layers AB AB AB...... AB AB AB......
Any packing of spheres leaves out voids in the
lattice. What percentage of volume of this lattice
is empty space ? ?
(1) 74% (2) 26% (1) 74% (2) 26%
(3) 50% (4) None of these (3) 50% (4)
7. Cu has fcc unit cell and edge length 362 pm than 7. Cu fcc
density of copper is : 362 pm :
(1) 8.90 g cm –3 (2) 2.23 g cm –3 (1) 8.90 g cm –3 (2) 2.23 g cm –3
(3) 6.29 g cm –3 (4) 4.45 g cm –3 (3) 6.29 g cm –3 (4) 4.45 g cm –3
8. The co-ordination number of fcc is : 8. fcc :
(1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 4 (1) 12 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 4
9. What is the % of volume occupied by atom in bcc: 9. bcc %
(1) 58% (2) 68% (3) 78% (4) 88% (1) 58% (2) 68% (3) 78% (4) 88%
10. Co-ordination number in ccp is ? 10. ccp ?
(1) 6 (2) 8 (1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 18 (3) 12 (4) 18
11. Total volume of atoms present in a face -centred 11.
cubic unit cell of a metal is (r is atomic radius): r
24 3 12 3 24 3 12 3
(1) r (2) r (1) r (2) r
3 3 3 3
16 3 20 3 16 3 20 3
(3) r (4) r (3) r (4) r
3 3 3 3
12. In a compound, atoms of element Y form ccp lattice 12. Y ccp
and those of element X occupy 2/3rd of tetrahedral X 2/3rd
voids The formula of the compound will be : :
(1) X2Y3 (2) X2Y (1) X2Y3 (2) X2Y
(3) X3Y4 (4) X4Y3 (3) X3Y4 (4) X4Y3
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13. Percentages of free space in cubic close packed 13.
structure and in body centered packed structure :
are respectively :
(1) 48 % and 26% (2) 30 % and 26 % (1) 48 % 26% (2) 30 % 26 %
(3) 26% and 32% (4) 32 % and 48 % (3) 26% 32% (4) 32 % 48 %
14. In a face centred cube lattice atom A occupies the 14. A
corner positions and atom B occupies the face B B
centre positions if one atom of B is missing from
one of the face centred points, the formula of the
compound is : :
(1) A2B (2) AB2 (1) A2B (2) AB2
(3) A 2B 3 (4) A2B5 (3) A 2B 3 (4) A2B5
15. Copper crystallizes in fcc lattice with a unit cell 15. 361 pm fcc
edge of 361 pm. The radius of copper atom is : :
(1) 108pm (2) 128pm (1) 108pm (2) 128pm
(3) 157pm (4) 181pm (3) 157pm (4) 181pm
16. How many Cl– ions are there around Na+ ion in 16. NaCl Na+ Cl– :
NaCl crystal :
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
17. The number of atoms contained in a fcc unit cell 17. fcc
of a monoatomic substance is : :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6 (3) 4 (4) 6
18. An octahedral void is surrounded by how many 18. ?
spheres ? (1) 6 (2) 4
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 12 (3) 8 (4) 12
19. For orthorhombic system axial ratio are a  b  19. abc
c and the axial angles are
(l)        (2)        (l)        (2)       
(3)      (4)        (3)      (4)       
20. The number of atoms in 100 g of an fcc crystal 20. fcc 100
with density d = 10g cm–3 and cell edge as 200 d = 10g cm–3 200
pm is equal to pm
(1) 3 × 1025 (2) 0.5 × 1025 (1) 3 × 1025 (2) 0.5 × 1025
(3) 1 × 1025 (4) 2 × 1025 (3) 1 × 1025 (4) 2 × 1025
21. When electrons are trapped into the crystal in anion 21.
vacancy, the defect is known as : :
(1) Schottky defect (1)
(2) Frenkel deferct (2)
(3) Stoichiometric defect (3)
(4) F-centres (4) F-
22. The edge length of face centred unit cubic cell is 22. 508
508 pm. Then the radius of that atom will be : pm :
(1) 179.6 pm (2) 288 pm (1) 179.6 pm (2) 288 pm
(3) 618 pm (4) 398 pm (3) 618 pm (4) 398 pm
23. The crystal system of a compound with unit cell 23. a = 0.387,
dimensions a = 0.387, b = 0.387 and c = 0.504 nm b = 0.387 c = 0.504 nm  =  = 90°
and  =  = 90° and  = 120° is :  = 120° :
(1) Cubic (2) Hexagonal (1) (2)
(3) Orthorhombic (4) Rhomhombic (3) (4)
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24. The incorrect statement for cubic close packed 24. :
(ccp) three dimensional structure is: (1) 68%
(1) The effciency of atom packing is 68%
(2) 74%
(2) The effciency of atom packing is 74%
(3) The number of octahedral and tetrahedral (3)
voids per atom are 1 and 2 respectively 1 2
(4) The unit cell edge length is 2 2 times the (4) 2 2
radius of the atom
25. Which premitive unit cell has unequal edge 25. (a  b  c)
lengths (a  b  c) and all axial angles different 90° :
from 90°:
(1) Tetragonal (2) Hexagonal (1) (2)
(3) Monoclinic (4) Triclinic (3) (4)
26. A substance AxBy crystallizes in a face centered 26. AxBy (fcc)
cubic (fcc) lattice in which atoms 'A' occupy each 'A' 'B'
corner of the cube and atom 'B' occupy the centres AxBy
of each face of the cube. Identify the correct
composition of the substance AxBy
(1) AB 3
(1) AB 3
(2) A4B3 (2) A4B3
(3) A3B (3) A3B
(4) composition cannot be specified (4)
27. Which of the following is an amorphous solid? 27. ?
(1) Graphite (C) (2) Quartz glass (1) (C) (2) (SiO2)
(3) NaCl (4) Silicon carbide (SiC) (3) NaCl (4) (SiC)
28. The sharp melting point of crystalline solids is due to: 28. :
(1) a regular arrangement of constituent particle,
(1)
observed over a short distance in the crystal
lattice
(2) a regular arrangement of constituent particles
observed over a long distance in the crystal (2)
lattice
(3) same arrangement of constituent particles in
different directions. (3)
(4) different arrangement of constituent particles
in different directions. (4)
29. Which of the following solids is not an electrical 29. ?
conductor? A. Mg(s) B. Ti(s)
A. Mg(s) B. Ti(s) C. I2(s) D. H2(s)
C. I2(s) D. H2(s)
(1) (A)
(1) (A) only
(2) (B) Only (2) (B)
(3) (C) and (D) (3) (C) (D)
(4) (B), (C) and (D) (4) (B), (C) (D)
30. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity due to 30. ....
the presence of........ (1)
(1) lone pair of electrons (2)
(2) free valence electrons (3)
(3) cations (4)
(4) anions
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31. Graphite cannot be classified as..... 31.
(1) conducting solid (2) network solid (1) (2)
(3) covalent solid (4) ionic solid (3) (4)
32. Cations are present in the interstitial sites in 32. .......
(1) Frenkel defect (1)
(2) Schottky defect (2)
(3) Vacancy defect (3)
(4) Metal deficiency defect (4)
33. Schottky defect is observed in crystals when.... 33. ....
(1) some cations move from their lattice site to (1)
interstitial sites
(2) equal number of cations and anions are missing (2)
from the lattice
(3) some lattice sites are occupied by electrons. (3)
(4) some impurity is present in the lattice. (4)
34. To get a n-type semiconductor from silicon, it 34. n-
should be doped with a substance with valence.....
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 5 (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 5
35. The total number of tetrahedral voids in the face 35.
centred unit cell is....
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 12 (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 12
36. Which of the following point defects are shown 36. AgBr(s)
by AgBr(s) crystals? ?
(A) Schottky defect (A)
(B) Frenkel defect (B)
(C) Metal excess defect (C)
(D) Metal deficiency defect (D)
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (C) and (D) (1) (A) (B) (2) (C) (D)
(3) (A) and (C) (4) (B) and (D) (3) (A) (C) (4) (B) (D)
37. In which pair most efficient packing is present? 37. ?
(1) hcp and bcc (1) hcp bcc
(2) hcp and ccp (2) hcp ccp
(3) bcc and ccp (3) bcc ccp
(4) bcc and simple cubic cell (4) bcc
38. The percentage of empty space in a body centred 38. .........
cubic arrangement is......
(1) 74 (2) 68 (1) 74 (2) 68
(3) 32 (4) 26 (3) 32 (4) 26
39. Which of the following statement is not true about 39.
the hexagonal close packing? ?
(1) hcp is present in zinc metal. (1) hcp
(2) It has 74% packing efficiency. (2) 74%
(3) Tetrahedral voids of the second layer are (3)
covered by the spheres of the third layer
(4) In this arrangement spheres of the fourth layer (4)
are exactly aligned with those of the first layer
40. Silicon doped with electron-rich impurity forms : 40. .......
(1) p-type semiconductor :
(2) n-type semiconductor (1) p-
(3) intrinsic semiconductor (2) n-
(3)
(4) Insulator
(4)
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41. The correct order of the packing efficiency in 41.
different types of unit cells is...... .......
(1) fcc < bcc < simple cubic (1) fcc < bcc <
(2) fcc > bcc > simple cubic (2) fcc > bcc >
(3) fcc < bcc > simple cubic (3) fcc < bcc >
(4) bcc < fcc < simple cubic (4) bcc < fcc <
42. In the cubic close packing, the unit cell has..... 42. .....
(1) 4 tetrahedral voids each of which is shared by (1)
four adjacent unit cells.
(2) 4 tetrahedral voids within the unit cell. (2)
(3) 8 tetrahedral voids each of which is shared by (3)
four adjacent unit cells.
(4) 8 tetrahedral voids within the unit cells. (4)
43. Match the types of defect given in Column I with 43. I II
the statement given in Column II.
Column I Column II I II
(i) Impurity defect (a) NaCI with anionic (i) (a) NaCI F-
sites called F-centres
(ii) Metal excess (b) FeO with Fe3+
defect
(iii) Metal (c) NaCI with Sr2+ and (ii) (b) Fe 3+ FeO
deficiency some cationic sites (iii) (c) Sr2+ NaCI
defect vacant
(1) (i)  (c), (ii)  (a), (iii)  (b) (1) (i)  (c), (ii)  (a), (iii)  (b)
(2) (i)  (b), (ii)  (a), (iii)  (c) (2) (i)  (b), (ii)  (a), (iii)  (c)
(3) (i)  (a), (ii)  (c), (iii)  (b) (3) (i)  (a), (ii)  (c), (iii)  (b)
(4) (i)  (a), (ii)  (b), (iii)  (c) (4) (i)  (a), (ii)  (b), (iii)  (c)
44. Match the items given in Column I with the items 44. I II
given in Column II.
I II
Column I Column II (i) Mg (a) p-
(i) Mg in solid state (a) p-Type
semiconductor
(ii) MgCl2 (b) n-
(ii) MgCl2 in molten (b) n-Type
state semiconductor
(iii) Silicon with (c) Electrolytic (iii) (c)
phosphorus conductors
(iv) Germanium with (d) Electronic (iv) (d)
boron conductors
(1) (i)  (d), (ii)  (c), (iii)  (b), (iv)  (a) (1) (i)  (d), (ii)  (c), (iii)  (b), (iv)  (a)
(2) (i)  (a), (ii)  (c), (iii)  (b), (iv)  (d) (2) (i)  (a), (ii)  (c), (iii)  (b), (iv)  (d)
(3) (i)  (c), (ii)  (d), (iii)  (b), (iv)  (a) (3) (i)  (c), (ii)  (d), (iii)  (b), (iv)  (a)
(4) (i)  (d), (ii)  (c), (iii)  (a), (iv)  (b) (4) (i)  (d), (ii)  (c), (iii)  (a), (iv)  (b)
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45. Match the type of packing given in Column I with 45. I II
the items given in Column II.

(i) Square close (a) Triangular voids (i) (a)
packing in two
dimensions
(ii) Hexagonal close (b) Pattern of spheres is (ii) (b)
packing in two repeated in every
dimensions fourth layer
(iii) Hexagonal close (c) Coordination
(iii) (c)
packing in three number 4
dimensions
(iv) Cubic close packing (d) Pattern of sphere is (iv) (d)
in repeated in alternate
layers
(1) (i)  (d), (ii)  (c), (iii)  (b), (iv)  (a) (1) (i)  (d), (ii)  (c), (iii)  (b), (iv)  (a)
(2) (i)  (c), (ii)  (a), (iii)  (d), (iv)  (b) (2) (i)  (c), (ii)  (a), (iii)  (d), (iv)  (b)
(3) (i)  (c), (ii)  (d), (iii)  (b), (iv)  (a) (3) (i)  (c), (ii)  (d), (iii)  (b), (iv)  (a)
(4) (i)  (d), (ii)  (c), (iii)  (a), (iv)  (b) (4) (i)  (d), (ii)  (c), (iii)  (a), (iv)  (b)
46. Assertion : The total number of atoms present in 46. :
a simple cubic unit cell is one.
Reason : Simple cubic unit cell has atoms at its
:
corners, each of which is shared between eight
adjacent unit cells.
reason is the correct explanation of the (1)
assertion
(2)
assertion
47. Assertion : Graphite is a good conductor of 47. :
electricity however diamond belongs to the
category of insulators. :
Reason : Graphite is soft in nature on the other
hand diamond is very hard.
(1)
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason (2)
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48. Assertion : Total number of octahedral voids 48. :
present in unit cell of cubic close packing
including the one that is present at the body centre,
is four.
:
Reason : Besides the body centre there is one
octahedral void present at the centre of each of the
six faces of the unit cell and each of which is
shared between two adjacent unit cells. (1)
(2)
49. Assertion : The packing efficiency is maximum 49. : fcc
for the fcc structure. : fcc
Reason : The cordination number is 12 in fcc
(1)
structures.
is the correct explanation of the assertion (2)
(3)
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
50. Assertion : Semiconductors are solids with 50. : 10–6 104 ohm–1m–1
conductivities in the intermediate range from 10–
6
– 10 4 ohm –1 m –1 .
:
Reason : Intermediate conductivity in
semiconductor is due to partially filled valence
band. (1)
(2)
ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 3 3 4 3 3 2 1 1 2 3 3 4 3 4 2 3 3 1 2 2 4 1 2 1 4 1 2 2 3 2
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 1 2 4 2 1 2 3 4 2 2 4 1 1 2 1 2 3 2 3
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Solution
1. Assertion : The van't Hoff factor for a weak 1. :
electrolyte in water is dependent of its
concentration. :
Reason : The degree of dissociation of a weak
electrolyte increase on dilution.
(1)
2. Assertion : The vapour pressure of KI solution 2. : KI HgI2
decreases initially with the adition of HgI2.
Reason : HgI2 forms complex with KI : HgI2 , KI
2KI + HgI2(s)  K2[HgI4] 2KI + HgI2(s)  K2[HgI4]
There is net decrease in the amount of species in
solution resulting larger mole fraction of solvent.
3. Assertion : The vapour pressure of 1 molal urea 3. :1 1
and 1 molal glucose will be different.
Reason : The vapour pressure of solution may be : P = P0 XA
calculated as - P = P0 XA, XA = mole fraction of XA =
solvent
(1)
4. Assertion : Relative lowering of vapour pressure 4. :
is equal to mole fraction of the solvent.
Reason : Relative lowering of vapour pressure is :
not colligative property.


5. Assertion : Molality, mole fraction and mass 5. :
fraction change with temperature.
Reason : Molarity and Normality do not change :
with temperature. (1)
(2)
6. Assertion : When dried fruits and vegetable are 6. :
placed in water they slowly get swelled.
Reason : It happens due to phenomenon of
:
osmosis.
(1)
7. Assertion : A catalyst enhance the rate of reaction. 7. :
Reason : The energy of activation of the reaction :
is lowered in presence of a + ve catalyst
(1)
8. Assertion : Solubility of n-alcohol in water 8. : n-
decreases with increase in molecular weight
Reason : The hydrophobic nature of alkyl chain :
increase
(1)
9. For a solution contains non volatile solute. The 9.
relative lowering of vapour pressure is 0.2 if the 0.2
solution contains 5 moles in all which of the
following is true :
(1) 0.2
(1) Mole fraction of solute is 0.2
(2) Number of moles of solute is 0.2 (2) 0.2
(3) Number of moles of solvent is 3 (3) 3
(4) Mole fraction of solvent is 0.3 (4) 0.3


10. Which of the following statement are correct for 10. (KH)
Henry's constant (KH) : (1) KH
(1) KH is characteristic constant for a given gas
solvent system (2) KH+
(2) Higher is the volue of KH+ lower is solubility
of gas for a given partial pressure of gas
(3) KH
(3) KH has temperature dependence
(4) All of the above (4)
11. An aqueous solution containing 28% by mass of 11. 37°C 28%
a liquid of a liquid A (molecular mass = 140) has A =140
a vapour pressure of 160 mm at 37°C. Find the
160 mm A
vapour pressure of pure liquid A (the vapour
37°C 150 mm )
pressure of water at 37°C is 150 mm)
(1) 360 mm (2) 458.3 mm (1) 360 mm (2) 458.3 mm
(3) 179.15 mm (4) 716.6 mm (3) 179.15 mm (4) 716.6 mm
12. A 0.020 m solution of each of the following 12. 0.020 m
compounds is prepared. Which solution would -0.144°C
you expect to freeze at - 0.144°C ? Kf(water) = 1.80 Kf( ) = 1.80 K kg. mol–1
K kg. mol–1 -
where :
py =
py = pyridine
en =
en = ethylenediamine
EDTA = ethylenediaminetetraacetate EDTA =
(1) [Co(en)2Cl 2]Cl (1) [Co(en)2Cl 2]Cl
(2) na[Co(EDTA)] (2) na[Co(EDTA)]
(3) [Cr(py)5Cl]Cl2 (3) [Cr(py)5Cl]Cl2
(4) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 (4) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
13. Which of the following 0.05 M aqueous solution 13. 0.05 M
will have the lowest freezing point?
(1) Potassium iodide (2) Sodium sulphate (1) (2)
(3) Sucrose (4) Aluminium oxalate (3) (4)
14. PtCl 4.6H2O can exist as a hydrated complex. 1 14. PtCl4.6H2O
molal aqueous solution has depression in freezing 1 3.72°
point of 3.72° Assume 100% ionisation and 100% K (H 2O) = 1.86 mol kg
–1
K (H 2O) = 1.86 mol –1

kg then complex is :
(1) [Pt(H2O)6]Cl 4 (2) [Pt(H2O)Cl2.2H2O (1) [Pt(H2O)6]Cl 4 (2) [Pt(H2O)Cl2.2H2O
(3) [Pt(H2O)3Cl 3].3H2O (4) None (3) [Pt(H2O)3Cl 3].3H2O (4) None
15. Cosider the following solution 15.
I. 1 M aq glucose I. 1 M
II. 1 M aq NaCl II. 1 M NaCl
III. 1 M C6H5COOH in C6H6 III. 1 M C6H5COOH
IV. 1 M (NH4)2SO4 IV. 1 M (NH4)2SO4
Incorrect is :
(1) All are isotonic solutions (1)
(2) III is hypotonic of I, II, IV (2) III I, II, IV
(3) I, II, IV are hypertonic of III (3) I, II, IV III
(4) IV is hypertonic of I, II, III (4) IV I, II, III


16. An ideal solution contains two volatile liquid A (P° 16. A (P° = 100 torr) B (P° = 200 torr)
= 100 torr) and B (P° = 200 torr). If mixture contain A 1 Mole
1 mole of A and 4 mole of B then total vapour B 4 mole
pressure of the distillate is : (1) 180 (2) 188.88
(1) 180 (2) 188.88 (3)198.88 (4) 150 (3) 198.88 (4) 150
17. A 5% solution of glucose is isotonic with 1.1% 17. 30°C 5% KCl 1.1%
solution of KCl at 30°C. Calculate the degree of KCl
isonisation of KCl (1) 44% (2) 66%
(1) 44% (2) 66% (3) 22% (4) 88% (3) 22% (4) 88%
18. Which among the following aqueous solution 18.
have highest boiling point (1) 1 KCl
(1) 1 molal KCl solution
(2) 2
(2) 2 molal glucose
(3) 1 molal Co(NO3)2 solution (3) 1 Co(NO3)2
(4) 1 molal NaCl solution (4) 1 NaCl
19. The boiling point of azeotropic mixture of two liquids 19.
is lower than both component liquids when :
(1) Mixture shows positive deviation from Raoult's law (1)
(2) Mixture shows negative deviation from Raoult's law (2)
(3) Mixture shows no deviation from Raoult's law (3)
(4) Mixture has very high mole fraction of solvent. (4)
20. An ideal solution has vopour pressure of 80 torr, 20. 80
when the mole fraction of a non volatile solute is 0.2
0.2. What would be the vapour pressure of the pure
solvent at the same temperature (in torr)
(1) 64 (2) 80 (1) 64 (2) 80
(3) 100 (4) 400 (3) 100 (4) 400
21. The amount of gas absorbed by a solid depends on 21.
the nature of gas. In general, easily liquefiable gases
are readily adsorbed as vander waal's forces are
stronges. Which of the following gas will adsorbed
with maximum extent at same conditions :
(1) gas X (Tc = 300 K) (1) gas X (Tc = 300 K)
(2) gas Y (Tc = 320K) (2) gas Y (Tc = 320K)
(3) gas Z (Tc = 290 K) (3) gas Z (Tc = 290 K)
(4) All gases adsorbed with equal extent (4) All gases adsorbed with equal extent
22. Solids can adsorb solutes from solution also, 22.
When solution of the acetic acid is adsorbed by
the charcoal and the concentration of the acid
decreases in the solution. Which of the following
relation will explain above phenomenon :
x x x x
(1)  kCn (2)  kC1/n (1)  kCn (2)  kC1/n
m m m m
x 1 x 1
(3) log  log k  log C (3) log  log k  log C
m n m n
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) (3)


23. Which of the following is incorrect regarding 23.
prepration of colloids :
(1) Chemical method : (1)
Oxidation Oxidation
SO2  2H 2S   3S(sol)  2H 2O SO2  2H 2S   3S(sol)  2H 2O
(2) Peptization : Process of converting a precipitate (2)
into colloidal sol
(3) Bredig's Are method : Prepration of Gold sol (3) AuCl3
by reduction of AuCl3
(4) Solvent exchange method : Solution of sulphur
(4)
in alcohol to water, a colloidal sol of sulphur is
obrtained.
24. The aggregated particles formed are called 24.
micelles. These are also known as associated
colloids. The formation of micelles takes place X
only above a particular temperature called X and
above a particular concentration called Y. Here X Y X Y
and Y are respectively:
(1) Critical temperature and molal concentration (1)
(2) Kraft temperature and critical micelle
concentration. (2)
(3) Critical temperature and critical micelle
concentration (3)
(4) Kraft temperature and kraft micelle
concentration (4)
25. The process of setting of colloidal particles is 25.
called coagulation or precipitation of the sol.
Which of the following process is not used for
coagulation : (1)
(1) By mixing of two oppositely charged sol (2)
(2) By additon of electrolyte
(3)
(3) By normal electro-dialysis
(4) By electrophoresis (4)
26. Which has maximum osmotic pressure at 26. T
temperature T kelving : (1) 1 M 100
(1) 100 ml of 1 M urea solution
(2) 1 M 300
(2) 300 ml of 1 M glucose solution
(3) 1 M 100 1M
(3) Mixture of 100 ml of 1 M urea solution and
300 ml of 1 M glucose solution 300
(4) All are isotonic (4)
27. The concentration of ''10 volume H2O2 is : 27. ''10 H2 O 2
(1) 30 % w/w (2) 3 % w/w (1) 30 % w/w (2) 3 % w/w
(3) 1% w/w (4) 10% w/w (3) 1% w/w (4) 10% w/w
28. A 5% (w/v) solution cane sugar is isotonic with 28. 5% (w/v) 1% (w/v) X
1% (w/v) solution of substance X. The moleculart X
weight of X is :
(1) 34.2 (2) 171.2 (1) 34.2 (2) 171.2
(3) 68.4 (4) 136.8 (3) 68.4 (4) 136.8


29. Arraange the following solution in order of 29.
decreasing freezing point : (i) 0.075 M CuSO4
(i) 0.075 M CuSO4 (ii) 0.060 M (NH4)2SO4
(ii) 0.060 M (NH4)2SO4 (iii) 0.14 M urea
(iii) 0.14 M urea
(iv) 0.04 M MgCl 2
(iv) 0.04 M MgCl 2
(1) i > ii > iii > iv
(1) i > ii > iii > iv
(2) iv > iii > i > ii (2) iv > iii > i > ii
(3) iii > ii > i > iv (3) iii > ii > i > iv
(4) ii > iii > i > iv (4) ii > iii > i > iv
30. Which solution have maximum boiling point : 30.
(1) 1% glucose in water (1) 1%
(2) 1 % sucrose in water (2) 1%
(3) 1% NaCl in water (3) 1% NaCl
(4) 1% CaCl2 in water (4) 1% CaCl2
31. Following pair of solution are in contact by 31.
semipermeable membrane in which case the
phenomenon of osmosis will take place: (1) 0.1 M 0.1 m HCl
(1) 0.1 M Urea and 0.1 m HCl
(2) 0.2 M 0.2 M
(2) 0.2 M Glucose and 0.2 M urea
(3) 1 ×10–3 M CaCl2 and 1.5 ×10–3 M HCl (3) 1 ×10 M CaCl2
–3
1.5 ×10–3 M HCl
(4) 0.1 M Sucrose and 0.1 M maltose (4) 0.1 M 0.1 M
32. In a solution of A in B, A is tetramerises as 4A  32. A B A
A4. If degree of association is 30% the van't Hoff 4A  A4 30%
factor is approximately :
1 1
(1) 0.775 (2) (1) 0.775 (2)
4 4
(3) 4 (4) Unpredictable (3) 4 (4) Unpredictable
33. If pKa = - log ka = 4 for a weak acid HX and Ka - 33. HX pKa = - log ka = 4
C2 then Van't haff factor when C = 0.01 M is : Ka - C2 C = 0.01 M
(1) 1.01 (2) 1.02 (1) 1.01 (2) 1.02
(3) 1.10 (4) 1.20 (3) 1.10 (4) 1.20
34. 3.24 of Hg(NO3)2 (molar mass = 324) dissolved 34. Hg(NO3)2 3.24 = 324 1000
in 1000 g of water constitutes a solution having –0.0558°C
a freezing point of –0.0558°C while 21.68 g of
21.68 Hg2Cl2 ( = 271) 2000 g
Hg 2Cl 2 (molar mass = 271) in 2000 g of water
constitutes solution with a freezing point of – –0.0744°C
0.0744°C. The k f for water is 1.86 K Kgmol –1. kf = 1.86 K Kgmol–1
About the state of ionisation of these two solids in
water it can be unferred that :
(1) Hg(NO3)2 Hg2Cl2
(1) Hg(NO3)2 and Hg2Cl2 both completely ionized.
(2) Hg(NO3)2 is fully ionized but Hg2Cl 2 is fully (2) Hg(NO3)2 Hg2Cl 2
unionized
(3) Hg(NO 3) 2 and Hg 2 Cl 2 both are completely (3) Hg(NO3)2 Hg2Cl2
unionized
(4) Hg(NO3)2 Hg2Cl2
(4) Hg(NO3)2 is fully unionized but Hg2Cl2 is fully
ionized


35. A graph of osmotic pressure () vs molarity (M) 35.
of aqueous solution of urea at room temperature (M)
is given below. The slope of the line represents :
 
M M
(1) Concentration (1)
(2) Universal gas constant (2)
(3) RT (3) RT
36. Two liquid A and B have vapour pressure in the 36. A B PA0 : PB0 1:3
ratio PA0 : PB0 1:3 at a certain temperature. If the A B
ratio of mole fractions of A to B in the vapour phase 4:3
4 : 3, then the mole fraction of B in the solution B
at the same temperature is :
1 2 1 2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
5 5 5 5
4 1 4 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
5 4 5 4
37. A 0.002 molar solution of NaCl having degree of 37. 0.002 NaCl 27°C 90%
dissociation of 90% at 27°C, has osmotic pressure
equal to: (1) 3 (2) 2
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 2 (3) 5 (4) 2
38. Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mole A 38. 1 A (PB0  240 ) 2 (PB0  150 )
(PB0 150 torr) and 2 mole (PB0 150 torr) is 200
00
torr. in this case :
(1)
(1) There is positive deviation from Raoult's law
(2)
(2) There is negative deviation from Raoult's law
(3)
(3) There is no deviation from Raoult's law
39. Which of the following shows positive deviation 39.

from Raoult's law : (i)
(i) Chloroform and acetone (ii)
(ii) Carbondisulphide and acetone (iii)
(iii) Ethanol and Acetone (iv)
(iv) Phenol and Aniline
(1) i ii
(1) i and ii
(2) ii iii
(2) ii and iii
(3) i iv
(3) i and iv
(4) ii and iv (4) ii iv


40. Consider the following statements regarding 0.1 molar 40. 0.1 KCl
aqueous solutions of glucose and potassium chloride :
(A) The boling point of the solution of glucose will
(A) b.p. KCl b.p
be lower than that of the solution of potassium
chloride.
(B) The freezing point of the solution of glucose (B) KCl
will be higher than that of the solution of
potassium chloride.
(C) The osmotic pressure of the solution of glucose (C) KCl
will be lower than that of the solution of
potassium chloride.
(D) The lowering of vapour pressure of both (D)
solution will be the same
Which of the above statements are correct -
(1) A, B D (2) A, B C
(1) A, B, and D (2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D (4) A, C and D (3) B, C D (4) A, C D
41. Which of the following statement is correct if the 41. A, B C
intermolecular force in liquids A, B and C are in A<B<C ?
the order A < B < C ?
(1) B, A
(1) B evaporates more readily than A
(2) B, C
(2) B evaporates less readily than C
(3) A and B evaporate at the same rate (3) A B
(4) A evaporate more readily than C (4) A, C
42. The molarity and molality of solution of urea is 42. 5M 5m
5M and 5m respectively density of solution is :
(1) 1.3 g cm –3 (2) 1.3 g/L (1) 1.3 g cm –3 (2) 1.3 g/L
(3) 1 g cm –3
(4) Can not be predicted (3) 1 g cm –3 (4)
43. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids boil at a 43.
lower temperature than boiling point either of
them when :
(1)
(1) It is saturated
(2)
(2) It does not deviate from Raoult's law
(3) It show negative deviation from Raoult's law (3)
(4) It show positive deviation from Raoult's law (4)
44. Mole fraction of compound A in vapour phase is 44. A X1
X1 and in liquid mixture is X2 then total vapour
pressure of liquid mixture is : X2
PA X 2 PA X 2 PA X 2 PA X 2

(1) (2) (1) (2)
X1 X2 X1 X2
PB X1 PB X 2 PB X1 PB X 2

(3) (4) (3) (4)
X2 X1 X2 X1
45. If relative decrease in vapour pressure is 0.053 for 45. 0.1 NaCl, 3 H2 O
a solution, containing, 0.1 mol NaCl in 3 mol H2O, 0.053 NaCl
NaCl is ........ ionized :
(1) 60 % (2) 50 % (1) 60 % (2) 50 %
(3) 100 % (4) 40 % (3) 100 % (4) 40 %


46. The vapour pressure of the solution of two liquids 46. A (P° = 80 mm) (P° = 120 mm)
A (P° = 80 mm) and B(P° = 120 mm) is found to be 100 mm XA = 0.4
100 mm when XA = 0.4. The result shows that :
(1) Solution exhibits ideal behaviour (1)
(2) Solution shows Positive deviation (2)
(3) Solution shows negative deviation (3)
(4) None (4)
47. By studying the elevation in boiling point of 47.
aqueous solution of glucose the value of Kb for Kb 0.51 K kg mol–1
water is found to be 0.51 K kg mol–1. The value K4[Fe(CN)6] kb
that can be expected from the aqueous solution
of K4[Fe(CN)6] is :
(1) 0.51 (2) 2 × 0.51 (1) 0.51 (2) 2 × 0.51
(3) 5 × 0.51 (4) 3 × 0.51 (3) 5 × 0.51 (4) 3 × 0.51
48. If an equimolal solution of CaCl 2 and AlCl 3 in 48. CaCl2 AlCl3
water have freezing point T1 and T2 respectively T1 T2
then :
(1) T1 > T2 (2) T2 > T1
(1) T1 > T2 (2) T2 > T1
(3) T1 = T2 (4) 3T1 < 4T2 (3) T1 = T2 (4) 3T1 < 4T2
49. Minimum boiling azeotropes : 49.
(1) Show +ve deviation from Raoult's law (1)
(2) Have A-B attraction forces weaker than A-A (2) A-B A-A B-B
or B-B forces
(3) Show elevated vapour pressure (3)
50. Osmotic pressure of a solution is 0.0821 atm at 50. 300K 0.0821 atm
temperature of 300K. The concentration in mol/L will
be : (1) 0.33 (2) 0.066
(1) 0.33 (2) 0.066
(3) 0.3 × 10 –2
(4) 3 (3) 0.3 × 10–2 (4) 3
51. 1.8 g of fructose is added to 2kg of water. The 51. 1.8 g 2kg
freezing point of the solution is (kr = 1.86 km–1) : (kr = 1.86 km–1) :
(1) –186°C (1) –186°C
(2) 0.0096°C (2) 0.0096°C
(3) –0.0186°C (3) –0.0186°C
(4) –0.0093°C (4) –0.0093°C
52. A grater value of colligative property of a 52.
substance indicates that : (1)
(1) The substance has less molecular weight
(2)
(2) The substance has more molecular weight
(3) the substance has high vapour pressure (3)
(4) none of these (4)
53. Raoult's law is valid for solution of - 53.
(1) Non-volatile solutes (1)
(2) Non-electrolyte solutes (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)


54. Which graph show +ve deviation : 54.
A PB
° A PB
°
B B
PA ° C PA ° C
V.P V.P
XA = 1 XB = 1 XA = 1 XB = 1
XB = 0 XA = 0 XB = 0 XA = 0
(1) A (1) A
(2) B (2) B
(3) C (3) C
55. During depression of freezing point in a solution 55.
the following are in equilibrium :
(1) Liquid solvent - Solid solvent (1)
(2) Liquid solvent - solid solute (2)
(3) Liquid solute - solid solute (3)
(4) Liquid solute - solid solvent (4)
56. For a solution contains non volatile solute. The 56.
relative lowering of vapour pressure is 0.2 if the 0.2 5
solution contains 5 moles in all which of the
following is true :
(1) 0.2
(1) Mole fraction of solute is 0.2
(2) Number of moles of solute is 0.2 (2) 0.2
(3) Number of moles of solvent is 3 (3) 3

(4) Mole fraction of solvent is 0.3 (4) 0.3
57. Which of the following statement are correct for 57. (K)
Henry's constant (KH) :
(1) KH
(1) KH is characteristic constant for a given gas
solvent system
(2) KH+
(2) Higher is the volue of KH+ lower is solubility
of gas for a given partial pressure of gas
(3) KH has temperature dependence (3) KH
58. In aqueous solution of potassium ferrocyanide 58. (K4[FeCN6])
(K4[FeCN6]) the degree of dissociation of salt is 800%
800% then the value of vant Hoff's factor is :
(1) 4.8 (1) 4.8
(2) 3.4 (2) 3.4
(3) 4.2 (3) 4.2
(4) 5.0 (4) 5.0


59. Consider the following statements regarding 0.1 59. 0.1 KCl
molar aqueous solutions of glucose and potassium
chloride :
(A) The boiling point of the solution of glucose (A) b.p KCl b.p
will be lower than that solution of potassium
chloride.
(B) f.p. KCl f.p.
(B) The freezing point of the solution of glucose
will be higher than that of the solution of
potassium chloride.
(C) KCl
(C) The osmotic pressure of the solution of the
glucose will be lower than that of the solution
of potassium chloride.
(D)
(D) The lowering of vapour pressure of both
solutions will be same.
Which of the above statments are correct ? (1) A, B D (2) A, B C
(1) A, B and D (2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D (4) A, C and D (3) B, C D (4) A, C D
60. 0.1 molar aqueous solution of an electrolyte AB2 60. AB2 0.1 80%
is 80% ionized. The boiling point of solution at 1 1 atm
atm is :(Kb for H2O = 0.5 Kg/mol) (Kb H2O = 0.5 Kg/mol)
(1) 273.18 K (2) 373.18 K (1) 273.18 K (2) 373.18 K
(3) 373.13K (4) 373.19K (3) 373.13K (4) 373.19K
61. When two volatile liquid (P° = 60 mm Hg) and Y 61. X(P° = 60 mm Hg) Y(P° = 60 mm
(P° = 60 mm Hg) are mixed in such a way that mole fraction Hg) Y
of Y in vapour phase is found 0.2 then mole fraction of 0.2 X
X in solution will be (Assume that solution is ideal)
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.7 (1) 0.3 (2) 0.7
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.6 (3) 0.8 (4) 0.6
62. An ideal solution has vapour pressure of 80 torr, 62. 80 torr
when the mole fraction of a non volatile solute is 0.2
0.2. what would be the vapour pressure of the pure
solvent at the same temperature. (in torr) (1) 64 (2) 80
(1) 64 (2) 80 (3) 100 (4) 400 (3) 100 (4) 400
63. Which has maximum osmotic pressure at 63. T
temperature T kelvin : (1) 1 M 100 ml
(1) 100 ml of 1 M urea solution (2) 1M 300 ml
(2) 300 ml of 1M glucose solution
(3) 1 M 100 ml 1M
(3) Mixture of 100 ml of 1 M urea solution and
300 ml of 1 m glucose solution 300 ml
(4) All are isotomic (4)
64. H2O2 solution used for hair bleaching is sold as 64. H2O2 5
a solution of approximately 5.0 g H2O2 per 100 H2O2 100 mL 34
mL of the solution. The molecular weight of H2O2
is 34.The molarity of this solution is
approximately- (1) 3.0 (2) 1.5
(1) 3.0 (2) 1.5
(3) 0.15 (4) 4.0
(3) 0.15 (4) 4.0


65. Assertion : The van't Hoff factor for a weak 65. :
electrolyte in water is dependent of its
concentration, :
Reason : The degree of dissociation of a weak
electrolyte increase on dilution.
(1)
(2)
66. Assertion : The vapour pressure of KI solution 66. : KI HgI2
decreases initially with the adition of HgI 2.
Reason : HgI2 forms complex with KI : HgI2 KI
2Ki + HgI2(s)  K2[HgI4] 2Ki + HgI2(s)  K2[HgI4]
67. Assertion : The vapour pressure of 1 molal urea 67. :
and 1 molal glucose will be different.
Reason : The vapour pressure of solution may be :
calculated as-
P = P0 XA = mole fraction of solvent P = P0 XA =
68. Assertion : Relative lowering of vapour pressure 68. :
is equal to mole fraction of the solvent.
Reason : Relative lowering of vapour pressure is :
not colligative property.

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69. Assertion : Molality, mole fraction and mass 69. :
fraction change with temperature.
Reason : Molarity and Normality do not change :
with temperature.
(1)
70. Assertion : When dried fruits and vegetable are 70. :
placed in water they slowly get swelled.
Reason : It happens due to phenomenon of :
somosis.
(1)
71. Assertion : A catalyst enhance the rate of reaction. 71. :
Reason : The energy of activation of the reaction :
is lowered in presence of a+ve catalyst
72. Assertion : Solubility of n-alcohol in water 72. : n-
decreases with increases with increase in
molecular weight :
Reason : The hydrophobic nature of alkyl chain
increase. (1)
(2)
ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 1 4 4 4 4 1 1 1 1 4 1 4 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 3 2 4 3 2 3 4 2 3 2 3
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 1 1 3 2 3 3 3 2 2 2 4 1 4 1 3 3 1 1 4 3 4 1 3 1 1 1 4 3 2 3
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72
A. 3 3 4 2 1 4 4 4 4 1 1 1

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Topic : Solutions
1. A mixture has 18 g water and 414g ethanol. The 1. 18 g 414g
mole fraction of water in mixture is (assume ideal )
behaviour of the mixture)
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.7 (4) 0.9 (1) 0.1 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.7 (4) 0.9
2. 171 g of cane sugar (C12H22O11) is dissolved in 1 2. 171 (C12H22O11)
litre of water. The molarity of the solution is : :
(1) 2.0 M (2) 1.0 M (3) 0.5 M (4) 0.25 M (1) 2.0 M (2) 1.0 M (3) 0.5 M (4) 0.25 M
3. The density (in g mL–1) of a 3.60 M sulphuric acid 3. 3.60 M 29%
solution that is 29% H2SO4 (Molar mass = 98 g H2SO4 (g mL–1 ) H2SO4
mol–1) by mass will be : = 98 g mol –1):
(1) 1.88 (2) 1.22 (3) 1.45 (4) 1.64 (1) 1.88 (2) 1.22 (3) 1.45 (4) 1.64
4. Which one of the following modes of expressing 4.
concentration of solution is independent of
temperature
(1) Molarity (2) Molality (1) (2)
(3) both (1) and (2) (4) Grams per litre (3) (1) (2) (4)
5. What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution which is 5. H2SO4 98%
98% by weight and the density of solution at 35°C 35°C 1.84 gm/ cm3 -
is 1.84 gm/ cm3-
(1) 4.18 M (2) 8.14 M (1) 4.18 M (2) 8.14 M
(3) 18.4 M (4) 18 M (3) 18.4 M (4) 18 M
6. What is false for mole fraction - 6.
(1) x < 1 (2) – 2 < x < 2 (1) x < 1 (2) – 2 < x < 2
(3) 0 < x < 1 (4) Always non negative (3) 0 < x < 1 (4)
7. In a mixture of A and B, components show 7. A B
negative deviation when
(1) A - B interaction is stronger than A – A and
B – B interaction (1) A - B A–A B–B
(2) A – B interaction is weaker than A – A and (2) A – B A–A B–B
B – B interaction
(3) Vmix > 0, Smix > 0
(3) Vmix > 0, Smix > 0
(4) Vmix = 0, Smix > 0 (4) Vmix = 0, Smix > 0
8. Benzene and toluene form nealy ideal solutions. At 8. 20°C
20°C the vapour pressure of benzene is 75 torr and 75 22
that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial vapour pressure
20°C 78g 46g
of benzene at 20°C for a solution containing 78g of
benzene and 46g of toluene in torr is: :
(1) 25 (2) 50 (3) 53.5 (4) 37.5 (1) 25 (2) 50 (3) 53.5 (4) 37.5
9. Equimolal solutions in the same solvent have : 9. :
(1) Same freezing point but different boiling point (1)
(2) Same boling point but different freezing point (2)
(3) Different boiling and different freezing point (3)
(4) Same boiling and same freezing points (4)
10. The vapour pressure of water at 20° C is 17.5 mm 10. 20° C 17.5 mm Hg 20°C
Hg. If 18g of glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 178.2 g 18g (C6H12O6)
g of water at 20°C, the vapour pressure of the
:
resulting solution will be :
(1) 15.750 mm Hg (2) 16.500 mm Hg (1) 15.750 mm Hg (2) 16.500 mm Hg
(3) 17.325 mm Hg (4) 17.675 mm Hg (3) 17.325 mm Hg (4) 17.675 mm Hg
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11. A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing 11.
acetone and ethanol. Which one of the following ?
statement is correct regarding the behaviour of the
(1)
solution ?
(1) The solution is non-ideal, showing +ve deviation
form Raoult's Law (2)
(2) The solution is non-ideal, showing –ve
deviation from Raoult's Law
(3)
(3) acetone shows +ve deviation while ethanol
shows – ve deviation from Raoult's Law
(4) The solution formed is an ideal solution (4)
12. The vapour pressure of a solvent A is 0.80 atm. 12. A 0.80 atm
When a nonvolatile substance B is added to this B
solvent its vapour pressure drops to 0.6 atm. What 0.6 atm B
is mole fraction of B in solution ? ?
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.50 (3) 0.75 (4) 0.90 (1) 0.25 (2) 0.50 (3) 0.75 (4) 0.90
13. A solution of 1 molar concentration of a solution 13. 1
will have maximum boiling point elevation when :
the solvent is : (1) (Kb=1.2 K kg mol–1)
(1) Ethyl alcohol (Kb=1.2 K kg mol–1)
(2) (Kb=0.52 K kg mol–1)
(2) Water (Kb=0.52 K kg mol–1)
(3) Benzene (Kb=2.53 K kg mol –1) (3) (Kb=2.53 K kg mol–1)
(4) Chloroform (Kb=3.63 K kg mol–1) (4) (Kb=3.63 K kg mol–1)
14. A 0.001 molal solution of [Pt(NH3)4Cl4] in water 14. [Pt(NH3)4Cl4] 0.001
has a freezing point depression of 0.0054°C. Kf for 0.0054°C Kf 1.80
water is 1.80, the correct formulaion for the above
molecule is -
(1) [Pt(NH3)4Cl 3]Cl (2) [Pt(NH3)4Cl 2]Cl 2
(1) [Pt(NH3)4Cl 3]Cl (2) [Pt(NH3)4Cl 2]Cl 2
(3) Pt(NH3)4Cl]Cl 3 (4) [Pt(NH3)4Cl 4] (3) Pt(NH3)4Cl]Cl 3 (4) [Pt(NH3)4Cl 4]
15. In a 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX 15. HX 0.2
the degree of ionization is 0.3 Taking Kf for water 0.3 Kf 1.85
as 1.85. The freezing point of the solution will be :
nearest to :
(1) –0.480°C (2) –0.360°C
(1) –0.480°C (2) –0.360°C
(3) –0.260°C (4) +0.480°C (3) –0.260°C (4) +0.480°C
16. 18 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2g of 16. 18 g (C6H12O6) 178.2g
water. The vapour pressure of water for this 100°C
aqueous solution at 100°C is -
(1) 759.00 torr (2) 7.60 torr (1) 759.00 torr (2) 7.60 torr
(3) 76.00 torr (4) 752.40 torr (3) 76.00 torr (4) 752.40 torr
17. The molality of a urea solution in which 0.0100g 17. STP 0.3000 dm 3 [(NH 2) 2CO]
of urea, [(NH2)2CO] is added to 0.3000 dm 3 of 0.0100 g -
water at STP is -
(1) 5.55 × 10 m –4
(2) 33.3 m
(1) 5.55 × 10–4 m (2) 33.3 m
(3) 3.33 × 10 m–2
(4) 0.555 m (3) 3.33 × 10–2 m (4) 0.555 m
18. Which of the following solutions would have the 18. -
highest osmotic pressure - M M
(1) NaCl (2) Urea
M M 10 10
(1) NaCl (2) Urea
10 10
M M
M M (3) BaCl2 (4) Glu cose
(3) BaCl2 (4) Glu cos e 10 10
10 10
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19. Which of the following solution has the highest 19. -
boiling point - (1) 0.1 M
(1) 0.1 M glucose
(2) 0.1 M BaCl2
(2) 0.1 M BaCl2
(3) 0.1 M NaCl (3) 0.1 M NaCl
(4) 0.1 M Urea (4) 0.1 M
20. The compound whose 0.1 M solution has 20. 0.1 M 25°C
maximum osmotic pressure at 25°C will be -
(1) CaCl 2 (2) KCl (1) CaCl 2 (2) KCl
(3) Glucose (4) Urea (3) (4)
21. Which of the following salt has the same value of 21. K3[Fe(CN)6]
Van't Hoff factor as that of K3[Fe(CN)6]
(1) Al2(SO4)3 (2) NaCl (1) Al2(SO4)3 (2) NaCl
(3) Al(NO3)3 (4) Na2SO4 (3) Al(NO3)3 (4) Na2SO4
22. According to raoult's law the relative lowering of 22.
vapour pressure for a solution is equal to -
(1) Moles of solute (1)
(2) Mole fraction of solvent (2)
(3) Moles of solvents (3)
(4) Mole fraction of solute (4)
23. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K, 23. 273 K 10 g (P1),
when 10 g glucose (P1), 10 g urea (P2) and 10 g 10 (P2) 10 (P3) 250 ml
sucrose (P3) are dissolved in 250 ml of water is
(1) P1 > P2 > P3 (1) P1 > P2 > P3
(2) P3 > P1 > P2 (2) P3 > P1 > P2
(3) P2 > P1 > P3 (3) P2 > P1 > P3
(4) P3 > P2 > P1 (4) P3 > P2 > P1
24. The vapour pressure of an ideal solution having 24. 0.2 0.8
0.2 mole non-volatile solute & 0.8 mole solvent, 60 mm
is 60 mm. The vapour pressure of pure solvent at
this temperature will be -
(1) 120 mm (2) 150 mm (1) 120 mm (2) 150 mm
(3) 60 mm (4) 75 mm (3) 60 mm (4) 75 mm
25. Vapour pressure of CCl4 at 25°C is 143 mm Hg. 25. 25°C CCl4 143 mm 100ml CCl4
0.5 gm of a non-volatile solute (mol. wt. 65) is
0.5 gm =65)
dissolved in 100 ml of CCl 4. Find the vapour
pressure of the solution. (Density of CCl4 is 1.58 (CCl4 1.58 gm/cm3)
gm/cm 3)
(1) 141.93 mm (2) 94.39 mm
(1) 141.93 mm (2) 94.39 mm
(3) 199.34 mm (4) 143.9 mm (3) 199.34 mm (4) 143.9 mm
26. The vapour pressure decreases by 10 mm of Hg, 26. 10 mm of Hg
when solute's mole fraction in a solution is 0.2. If 0.2 20 mm of
the vapour pressure decreases is 20 mm of Hg, then
Hg
the mole fraction of solute will be -
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 (1) 0.2 (2) 0.4
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.8 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.8
27. 5% solution of sucrose is isotonic with 1% 27. 5% 'A' 1%
solution of a compound 'A' then the molecular 'A'
weight of compound 'A' is
(1) 32.4 (2) 68.4 (1) 32.4 (2) 68.4
(3) 121.6 (4) 34.2 (3) 121.6 (4) 34.2
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28. Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1. If your automobile 28. Kf 1.86 K kg mol–1
radiator holds 1.0 kg of water, how may grams of 1.0 kg
ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) must you add to get the –2.8°C
freezing point of the solution lowered to –2.8°C? (C2H6O2) ?
(1) 72g (2) 93g (1) 72g (2) 93g
(3) 39g (4) 27g (3) 39g (4) 27g
29. For a dilute solution containing 2.5 g of a non- 29. (non-volatile non-
volatile non-electrolyte solute in 100 g of water, electrolyte) 2.5g 100 g
the elevation in boiling point at 1 atm pressure is (boiling point)
2°C. Assuming concentration of solute is much
1 atm 2°C
lower than the concentration of solvent, the vapour
(mm
pressure (mm of Hg) of the solution is (take Kb =
of Hg) (Kb = 0.76 K kg mol –1
)
0.76 K kg mol –1)
(1) 724 (2) 740 (1) 724 (2) 740
(3) 736 (4) 718 (3) 736 (4) 718
30. Consider separate solution of 0.500 M 30. 0.500 M C 2 H 5 OH(aq), 0.100 M
C2H5OH(aq), 0.100 M Mg3(PO4) 2(aq), 0.250 M Mg 3(PO4) 2(aq), 0.250 M KBr(aq) 0.125 M
KBr(aq) and 0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) at 25°C. Which Na3PO4(aq) 25°C
statement is true about these solution, assuming
all salts to be strong electrolytes?
(1) They all have the same osmotic pressure. (1)
(2) 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq) has the highest osmotic (2) 0.100 M Mg3(PO4)2
pressure.
(3) 0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) has the highest osmotic (3) 0.125 M Na3PO4
pressure.
(4) 0.500 M C2H5OH(aq) has the highest osmotic (4) 0.500 M C2H5OH
pressure.
31. The vapour pressure of acetone at 20°C is 185 torr. 31. 20°C 185 torr 20°C
When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was 1.2 g 100 g
dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20° C, its vapour 183 (g mol–
pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass (g mol–1) 1
) :
of the substance is:
(1) 32 (2) 64
(1) 32 (2) 64
(3) 128 (4) 488 (3) 128 (4) 488
32. A solution containing 62 g ethylene glycol in 250 32. 250 g 62g
g water is cooled to –10°C. If Kf for water is 1.86 –10°C. Kf
K kg mol–1, the amount of water (in g) separated 1.86 K kg mol–1
as ice is : (g ) :
(1) 32 (2) 48 (1) 32 (2) 48
(3) 16 (4) 64 (3) 16 (4) 64
33. Elevation in boiling point for 1 molal solution of 33. 2K
glucose is 2K. The depression in the freezing point
of 2 molal solutions of glucose in the same solvent 2K Kb Kf
is 2K. The relation between Kb and Kf is
(1) Kb = 0.5 Kf (2) Kb = 2 Kf
(1) Kb = 0.5 Kf (2) Kb = 2 Kf
(3) Kb = 1.5 Kf (4) Kb = Kf (3) Kb = 1.5 Kf (4) Kb = Kf
34. K2Hgl4 is 40% ionised in aqueous solution. The 34. K2Hgl4 40%
value of its van't Hoff factor (i) is : (i) :
(1) 1.8 (2) 2.2 (1) 1.8 (2) 2.2
(3) 2.0 (4) 1.6 (3) 2.0 (4) 1.6
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35. A beaker contains a solution of substance 'A'. 35. 'A' 'A'
Precipitation of substance 'A' takes place when
small amount of 'A' is added to the solution. The
_______.
solution is_______.
(1) saturated (2) supersaturated (1) (2)
(3) unsaturated (4) concentrated (3) (4)
36. Colligative properties depend on________. 36. ________
(1) the nature of the solute particles dissolved in
(1)
solution.
(2) the number of solute particles in solution. (2)
(3) the physical properties of the solute particles (3)
dissolved in solution.
(4) the nature of solvent particles. (4)
37. Which of the following aqueous solutions should 37.
have the highest boiling point?
(1) 1.0 M NaOH (2) 1.0 M Na2SO4 (1) 1.0 M NaOH (2) 1.0 M Na2SO4
(3) 1.0 M NH4NO3 (4) 1.0 M KNO3 (3) 1.0 M NH4NO3 (4) 1.0 M KNO3
38. The unit of ebulioscopic constant is ________. 38.
(1) K kg mol–1 or K (molality)–1 (1) K kg mol–1 K( )–1
(2) K kg K–1 or K–1 (molality) (2) K kg K–1 K–1 ( )
–1 –1 –1
(3) kg mol–1 K–1 or K–1 (molality)–1 (3) kg mol K K ( )–1
(4) K mol–1 or K (molality) (4) K mol–1 K( )
39. In comparison to a 0.01 M solution of glucose, the 39. 0.01 M 0.01 M MgCl2
depression in freezing point of a 0.01 M MgCl 2 _______
solution is _______. (1)
(1) the same
(2)
(2) about twice
(3) about three times (3)
(4) about six times (4)
40. At a given temperature, osmotic pressure of a 40.
concentrated solution of a substance _______. _______.
(1) is higher than that of a dilute solution. (1)
(2) is lower than that of a dilute solution.
(2)
(3) is same as that of a dilute solution.
(4) cannot be compared with osmotic pressure of (3)
dilute solution. (4)
41. The values of Van't Hoff factors for KCl, NaCl and 41. KCl, NaCl K2SO4
K2SO4, respectively, are__________. __________.
(1) 2, 2 and 2 (1) 2, 2 and 2
(2) 2, 2 and 3 (2) 2, 2 and 3
(3) 1, 1 and 2 (3) 1, 1 and 2
(4) 1, 1 and 1 (4) 1, 1 and 1
42. 4L of 0.02 M aqueous solution of NaCl was 42. 0.02 M NaCl 4L
diluted by adding one litre of water. The molarity
of the resultant solution is________.
(1) 0.004 (2) 0.008
(1) 0.004 (2) 0.008
(3) 0.012 (4) 0.016 (3) 0.012 (4) 0.016
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43. Match the items given in Column I and Column II. 43. I II
Column I Column II
(i) Saturated (a) Solution having same I II
solution osmotic pressure at a given (i) (a)
temperature as that of
given solution.
(ii) (b)
(ii) Binary (b) A solution whose osmotic
solution pressure is less than that of
another. (iii) (c)
(iii) Isotonic (c) Solution with two
solution components.
(iv) (d)
(iv) Hypotonic (d) A solution which contains
solution maximum amount of solute
that can be dissolved in a
given amount of solvent at
a given temperature.
(v) (e)
(v) Solid (e) A solution whose osmotic
solution pressure is more than that
of another. (vi) (f)
(vi) Hypertonic (f) A solution in solid phase.
solution
(1) (i) – (d); (ii) – (c); (iii) – (a); (iv) – (b); (v) – (f); (1) (i) – (d); (ii) – (c); (iii) – (a); (iv) – (b); (v) – (f);
(vi) – (e) (vi) – (e)
(2) (i) – (c); (ii) – (d); (iii) – (a); (iv) – (b); (v) – (f); (2) (i) – (c); (ii) – (d); (iii) – (a); (iv) – (b); (v) – (f);
(vi) – (e) (vi) – (e)
(3) (i) – (d); (ii) – (a); (iii) – (c); (iv) – (b); (v) – (f); (3) (i) – (d); (ii) – (a); (iii) – (c); (iv) – (b); (v) – (f);
(vi) – (e) (vi) – (e)
(4) (i) – (d); (ii) – (c); (iii) – (b); (iv) – (a); (v) – (f); (4) (i) – (d); (ii) – (c); (iii) – (b); (iv) – (a); (v) – (f);
(vi) – (e) (vi) – (e)
44. Match the items given in Column I with the type of 44. I II
solutions given in Column II.
Column I Column II
I II
(i) Soda water (a) A solution of gas in
solid (i) (a)
(ii) 'Sugar' (b) A solution of gas in (ii) (b)
solution gas
(iii) German silver (c) A solution of solid
(iii) (c)
in liquid
(iv) Air (d) A solution of solid (iv) (d)
in solid (v) (e)
(v) Hydrogen gas (e) A solution of gas in
in palladium liquid
(f)
(f) A solution of liquid
in solid
(1) (i) – (e); (ii) – (a); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (b); (v) – (c) (1) (i) – (e); (ii) – (a); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (b); (v) – (c)
(2) (i) – (e); (ii) – (c); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (b); (v) – (a) (2) (i) – (e); (ii) – (c); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (b); (v) – (a)
(3) (i) – (e); (ii) – (d); (iii) – (c); (iv) – (b); (v) – (a) (3) (i) – (e); (ii) – (d); (iii) – (c); (iv) – (b); (v) – (a)
(4) (i) – (e); (ii) – (c); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (a); (v) – (b) (4) (i) – (e); (ii) – (c); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (a); (v) – (b)
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45. Match the laws given in Column I with expresions 45. I II
given in Column II.
Column I Column II
(i) Raoult's law (a) Tf  K f m I II
(ii) Henry's law (b)   CRT (i) (a) Tf  K f m
(iii) Elevation of (c) p  x1p10  x 2 p 02 (ii) (b)   CRT
boiling point
(iii) (c) p  x1p10  x 2 p 02
(iv) Depression in (d) b  K b m . .
freezing point (iv) (d) b  K b m
(v) Osmotic (e) p  K H .x (v) (e) p  K H .x
pressure
(1) (i) – (e); (ii) – (a); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (b); (v) – (c) (1) (i) – (e); (ii) – (a); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (b); (v) – (c)
(2) (i) – (e); (ii) – (c); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (b); (v) – (a) (2) (i) – (e); (ii) – (c); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (b); (v) – (a)
(3) (i) – (c); (ii) – (e); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (a); (v) – (b) (3) (i) – (c); (ii) – (e); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (a); (v) – (b)
(4) (i) – (e); (ii) – (c); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (a); (v) – (b) (4) (i) – (e); (ii) – (c); (iii) – (d); (iv) – (a); (v) – (b)
46. Match the terms given in Column I with expressions 46. I II
given in Column II.
Column I Column II
(i) Mass (a) Number of moles of the I II
percentag solute component
e Volume of solution in litres (i) (a)
(ii) Volume (b) Number of moles of a component

percentag Total number of moles of (ii) (b)
e all the components
(iii) Mole (c) Volume of solute component

in solution (iii) (c)
fraction  100  100
Total volume of solution
(iv) Molality (d) Mass of the solute component (iv) (d)
in solution  100
 100
Total mass of the solution
(v) (e)
(v) Molarity (e) Number of moles of the solute
component
Mass of solvent in ki log rams
(1) (i)–(e); (ii)–(a); (iii)–(d); (iv)–(b); (v)–(c)

(1) (i)–(e); (ii)–(a); (iii)–(d); (iv)–(b); (v)–(c)
(2) (i)–(e); (ii)–(c); (iii)–(d); (iv)–(b); (v)–(a) (2) (i)–(e); (ii)–(c); (iii)–(d); (iv)–(b); (v)–(a)
(3) (i)–(c); (ii)–(e); (iii)–(d); (iv)–(a); (v)–(b) (3) (i)–(c); (ii)–(e); (iii)–(d); (iv)–(a); (v)–(b)
(4) (i)–(d); (ii)–(c); (iii)–(b); (iv)–(e); (v)–(a) (4) (i)–(d); (ii)–(c); (iii)–(b); (iv)–(e); (v)–(a)
47. Assertion : Molarity of a solution in liquid state 47. :
changes with temperature.
Reason : The volume of a solution changes with :
change in temperature.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason (1)
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
48. Assertion : When methyl alcohol is added to 48. :
water, boiling point of water increases.
Reason : When a volatile solute is added to a :
volatile solvent elevation in boiling point is
observed.
(1)
49. Assertion : When NaCl is added to water a 49. : NaCl
depression in freezing point is observed.
Reason : The lowering of vapour pressure of a
:
solution causes depression in the freezing point.
reason is the correct explanation of the (1)
assertion
(2)
assertion
50. Assertion : When a solution is separated from the 50. :
pure solvent by a semipermeable membrane, the
solvent molecules pass through it from pure solvent
side to the solution side.
Reason : Diffusion of solvent occurs from a :
region of high concentration solution to a region
of low concentration solution. (1)
(2)
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion
ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 1 3 2 2 3 2 1 2 4 3 1 1 4 2 1 4 1 3 2 1 3 4 3 4 1 2 2 2 1 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 4 2 1 2 2 2 1 3 1 2 4 1 2 3 4 1 4 1 2
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
Topic : Surface Chemistry
1. Which of the following statements about physical 1.
adsorption is not correct ?
(1) It is usually monolayer (1)
(2) It is reversible in nature (2)
(3) It involves van derWaals interactions between (3)
adsorbent and adsorbate
(4) It involves small enthalpy of adsorption as (4)
compared to chemisorption
2. Which of the following statements regarding 2.
adsorption is not correct ?
(1) Extent of adsorption of gases on charcoal (1)
increases with increase in pressure of the gas
(2) Extent of adsorption is independent of
(2)
temperature
(3)
(3) Extent of chemisorption by a givenmass of
adsorbent is limited
(4) Extent of adsorption is dependent on the nature (4)
of adsorbent
3. There is desorption of physical adsorption when: 3.
(1) Temperature is increased (1)
(2) Temperature is decreased (2)
(3) Pressure is increased (3)
(4) Concentration is increased (4)
4. The rate of chemisorption : 4.
(1) Decreases with increase of pressure (1)
(2) Increases with increase of pressure (2)
(3) Is independent of pressure (3)
(4) Is independent of temperature (4)
5. Which of the following statements about 5.
chemisorption is not applicable?
(1) It involves chemical forces between adsorbent (1)
and absorbate
(2) It is irreversible in nature (2)
(3) It involves high heat of adsorption (3)
(4) It involves lowactivation energy (4)
6. Which of the following is not characteristic of 6.
chemisorption?
(1) It is irreversible (1)
(2) It is specific (2)
(3) It is multilayer phenomenon (3)
(4) Heat of adsorption of about –200 kJ (4) –200 kJ

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7. Softening of hard water is done using sodium 7.
aluminium silicate (zeolite). The causes :
(1) Adsorption of Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions of hard water (1) Na+ Ca2+ Mg2+
replacing Na+ ions.
(2) Adsorption of Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions of hard water (2) Al3+ Ca2+ Mg2+
replacing Al3+ ions
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) None of these. (4)
8. Which one is false in the following statement ? 8.
(1) A catalyst is specific in its action (1)
(2) A very small amount of the catalyst alters the (2)
rate of a reaction
(3) The number of free valancies on the surface (3)
of the catalyst increases on sub-division
(4) Ni is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of (4) Ni
ammonia
9. A catalyst increases rate of reaction by : 9.
(1) Decreasing enthalpy (1)
(2) Decreasing internal energy (2)
(3) Decreasing activation energy (3)
(4) Increasing activation energy (4)
10. Which requires catalyst ? 10.
(1) S  O 2  SO 2 (2) 2SO 2  O 2  2SO 3 (1) S  O 2  SO 2 (2) 2SO 2  O 2  2SO 3
(3) C  O 2  CO 2 (4) All (3) C  O 2  CO 2 (4)
11. A catalyst in a reaction : 11.
(1) Increases the activation energy of the forward
(1)
reaction.
(2) Increases the activation energy of the backward
(2)
reaction.
(3) Increases the activation energy of both the
reactions. (3)
(4) Decreases the activation energy of both the
reactions (4)
12. A catalyst in a reaction changes which of the 12.
following?
(1) Equilibrium constant(2) Entropy (1) (2)
(3) Rate constant (4) Nature of products. (3) (4)
13. Consider the following reactions ; 13.
(i) 2SO 2  O 2  2SO 3 (ii) N 2  3H 2  2NH 3 (i) 2SO 2  O 2  2SO 3 (ii) N 2  3H 2  2NH 3
(iii) N 2  O 2  2NO (iv) H 2  I 2  2HI (iii) N 2  O 2  2NO (iv) H 2  I 2  2HI
The reactions which require a catalyst are :
(1) (i) and (iii) (1) (i) (iii)
(2) (ii) and (iv) (2) (ii) (iv)
(3) (i) and (ii) (3) (i) (ii)
(4) all of these (4)

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14. Which of the following kind of catalysis can be 14.
explained by the adsorption theory ?
(1) Homogeneous catalysis (1)
(2) Acid-bas catalysis (2)
(3) Heterogeneous catalysis (3)
(4) Enzyme catalysis (4)
15. A biological catalyst is essentially : 15.
(1) An enzyme (2) A carbohydrate (1) (2)
(3) An amino acid (4) A nitrogeneous base (3) (4)
16. Colloidal solution of gold prepared by different 16.
methods of different colours because of :
(1) Different diameters of colloidal gold particles (1)
(2) Variable valency of gold (2)
(3) Different concentration of gold particles (3)
(4) Impurities produced by differentmethods (4)
17. An example of intrinsic colloid (lyophilic colloids) is: 17.
(1) As2S3 sol (2) Fe(OH)3 sol (1) As2S3 sol (2) Fe(OH)3 sol
(3) Egg albumin (4) Au sol (3) Egg albumin (4) Au sol
18. Which of the following sols is negatively 18.
charged? (1)
(1) Arsenious sulphide
(2)
(2) Aluminium hydroxide
(3) Ferric hydroxide (3)
(4) Silver iodide in silver nitrate solution (4)
19. Peptisation is: 19.
(1) Conversion of a colloidal into precipitate form (1)
(2) Conversion of precipitate into colloidal sol
(2)
(3) Conversion of metal into colloidal sol by
passage of electric current (3)
(4) Conversion of colloidal sol intomacromolecules (4)
20. Bleeding is stopped by the application of ferric 20.
chloride. This is because:
(1) The blood starts flowing in opposite direction (1)
(2) The blood reacts and forms a solid, which seals (2)
the blood vessel
(3) The blood is coagulated and thus the blood (3)
vessel is sealed
(4) The ferric chloride seals the blood vessel. (4)
21. Which of the following is a hydrophilic colloidal sol? 21.
(1) Barium sulphate sol (1)
(2) Arsenious sulphide sol (2)
(3) Starch sol (3)
(4) Silver iodide sol (4)
22. Cloud is an example of : 22.
(1) Solid dispersed in gas (1)
(2) Liquid dispersed in gas (2)
(3) Liquid dispersed in solid (3)
(4) Solid dispersed in liquid (4)

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23. Which one among the following sols is 23.
hydrophobic? (1) (2)
(1) Gum (2) Gelatin
(3) Starch (4) Sulphur (3) (4)
24. Colloidal gold is prepared by : 24.
(1) Mechanical dispersion (1)
(2) Peptisation (2)
(3) Bredig's arc method (3)
(4) Hydrolysis (4)
25. Tyndall effect is observed in : 25.
(1) Solution (2) Precipitate (1) (2)
(3) Sol (4) Vapour (3) (4)
26. Lyophillic colloids are stable due to : 26.
(1) Charge on the particle (1)
(2) Large size of the particle (2)
(3) Small size of the particle (3)
(4) Layer of dispersionmediumon the particles (4)
27. Peptization is a process of : 27.
(1) Precipitation of colloidal particles. (1)
(2) Purification of colloids.
(2)
(3) Dispersing precipitate into colloidal sols.
(4) Movement of colloidal particles in the (3)
electrical field. (4)
28. Gold number of a lyophilic sol is such property 28.
that: (1)
(1) The larger its value, the greater is the peptising
power
(2)
(2) The lower its value, the greater is the peptising
power
(3) The lower its value, the greater is the protecting (3)
power
(4) The larger its value, the greater is the protecting (4)
power
29. Protective sols are : 29.
(1) Lyophilic (2) Lyophobic (1) (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these (3) (1) (2) (4)
30. Which of the following ions is most effective in the 30.
coagulation of an arsenious sulphide solution?
(1) K+ (2) Mg2+ (3) Al3+ (4) C (1) K+ (2) Mg2+ (3) Al3+ (4) C
31. Which of the following ions is most effective in 31.
the coagulation of ferric hydroxide solution ?
(1) Cl – (2) Br– (3) NO2– (4) SO42– (1) Cl – (2) Br– (3) NO2– (4) SO42–
32. Gold number gives : 32.
(1) The amount of gold present in the colloid.
(1)
(2) The amount of gold required to break the
colloid. (2)
(3) The amount of gold required to product the
(3)
colloid.
(4) None of the above. (4)


33. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice cream in 33.
order to :
(1) Prevent making of a colloid. (1)
(2) Stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization. (2)
(3) Stabilize the mixture. (3)
(4) Enrich the aroma. (4)
34. Which one of the following will have the highest 34.
coagulation power for a ferric hydroxide sol ?
(1) NaCl (2) BaCl 2 (1) NaCl (2) BaCl 2
(3) K2CrO 4 (4) K3[Fe(CN)6] (3) K2CrO 4 (4) K3[Fe(CN)6]
35. Small liquid droplets dispersd in another liquid is 35.
called: (1) (2)
(1) Suspension (2) Emulsion
(3) Gel (4) True solution (3) (4)
36. At CMC, the surfactant molecules : 36. CMC
(1) Decomposes (1)
(2) Become completely soluble (2)
(3) Associate (3)
(4) Dissociate (4)
37. Some type of gels like gelatin loose water slowly. 37.
The process is known as :
(1) Synerisis (1)
(2) Thixotropy (2)
(3) Peptisation (3)
(4) Imbibition (4)
38. Inwhich one of the following properties emulsions 38.
differ from colloidal sols ?
(1) Tyndall effect (1)
(2) Brownian Movement (2)
(3) Electrophoresis (3)
(4) Size of the particles of the dispersed phase (4)
39. Cod liver oil is : 39. (Cod liver oil)
(1) Fat dispersed in water (1)
(2) Water dispersed in fat (2)
(3) Water dispersed in oil (3)
(4) Fat dispersed in oil (4)
40. Select correct statement (s): 40.
(1) Hydrophilic colloid is a colloid in which there is (1)
a strong attraction between the dispersed phase
and water
(2) Hydrophobic colloid is a colloid in which there (2)
is a lack of attraction between the dispersed phase
and water (3)
(3) Hydrophobic sols are often formed when a
solid crystallises rapidly from a chemical
reaction or a supersaturated solution


41. A reddish brown sol (containing Fe3+) is obtained 41. (Fe3+ )
by:
(1) The addition of small amount of FeCl3 solution
(1) FeCl3 Fe(OH)3
to freshly prepared Fe(OH)3 precipitate
(2) The addition of Fe(OH)3 to freshly prepared
FeCl3 solution (2) FeCl3 Fe(OH)3
(3) The addition of NH 4OH to FeCl 3 solution
dropwise
(3) FeCl3 NH4OH
(4) The addition of NaOH to FeCl 3 solution
dropwise (4) FeCl3 NaOH
42. Which is an example of coagulation? 42.
(1) Curdling of milk (1)
(2) Purification of water by addition of alum (2)
(3) Formation of deltas at the river beds (3)
(4) All the three are example of coagulation (4)
43. Gold number of some lyophilic sols are : 43.
I : Casein : 0.01 I: : 0.01
II : Haemoglobin : 0.03 II : : 0.03
III : Gumarabic : 0.15 III : : 0.15
IV : Sodium oleate : 0.40 IV : : 0.40
Which has maximum protective power :
(1) I (2) II (1) I (2) II
(3) III (4) IV (3) III (4) IV
44. Arsenic (III) sulphide forms a sol with a negative 44. (III)
charge.Which of the following ionic substances
should be most effective in coagulating the sol ?
(1) KCl (1) KCl
(2) MgCl 2 (2) MgCl 2
(3) Al2(SO4)3 (3) Al2(SO4)3
(4) Na3PO4 (4) Na3PO4
45. The stabilisation of a lyophobic colloid is due to : 45.
(1) Preferential adsorption of similiar charged
(1)
particle on colloids surface
(2) The large electro-kinetic potential developed (2)
in the colloid
(3) The formation of a covalent bond between two (3)
phases
(4) The viscosity of themedium (4)
46. Smoke has generally blue tinge. It is due to 46.
(1) Scattering (1)
(2) Coagulation (2)
(3) Brownianmotion (3)
(4) Electro-osmosis (4)
47. Compared to common colloidal sols, micelles 47.
have: (1)
(1) Higher colligative properties
(2)
(2) Lower colligative properties
(3) Same colligative properties (3)


48. Which one of the following statements is false for 48.
hydrophilic sols ? (1)
(1) They do not require electrolytes for stability
(2) Their viscosity is of the order of that of water (2)
(3) Their surface tension is usually lower than that (3)
of dispersionmedium.
49. Which one of the following statements is correct: 49.
(1) Brownian movement is more pronounced for (1)
smaller particles than for bigger ones
(2) Sols of metal sulphides are lyophilic (2)
(3) Schulze-Hardy law states, the bigger the size (3)
of the ion, the greater is its coagulating power
(4) One would expect charcoal to adsorb (4)
hydrogen gasmore strongly than chlorine
50. Colloidal solutions of gold prepared by different 50.
methods are of different colours because of:
(1) Different diameters of colloidal gold particles (1)
(2) Variable valency of gold (2)
(3) Different concentration of gold particles (3)
(4) Impurities produced by differentmethods (4)
51. The potential difference between the fixed 51.
charged layer and the diffused layer having
opposite charge is called : (1)
(1)Water potential
(2)
(2) Zeta potential
(3) Electrode potential (3)
ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 1 2 1 2 4 3 1 4 3 2 4 3 3 3 1 1 3 1 2 3 3 2 4 3 3 4 3 3 1 3
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51
A. 4 4 2 4 2 3 1 4 3 4 1 4 1 3 1 1 2 2 1 1 2


SURFACE ELECTROCHEMISTRY
01. Which of the following process is responsible for 01.
The formation of delta at a place where river meet ?
the sea?
(1) (2)
(1) Emulsification (2) Colloid formation
(3) Coagulation (4) Peptisation (3) (4)
02. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets 02. :
converted to colloidal solution by:
(1) (2)
(1) Coagulation (2) Electrolysis
(3) Diffusion (4) Peptisation (3) (4)
03. At high concentration of soap in water, soap 03.
behaves as: (1)
(1) Molecular colloid
(2)
(2) Associated colloid
(3) Macro molecular colloid (3)
(4) Lyophilic colloid (4)
04. Extent of physisorption of a gas increase with: 04. :
(1) Increase in temperature (1)
(2) Decrease in temperature (2)
(3) Decrease in surface area of adsorbent (3)
(4) Decrease in strength of vander waals forces (4)
05. Match the statement given in column-I with 05. -I -II
phenomenon given in column-II
Column I Column II
(i) Dispersion medium (A) Osmosis I II
moves in an electric field (i) (A)
(ii) Solvent molecules pass (B) Electropho

Electrophoresis through resis (ii) (B)
semipermeable
membrane towards
solvent side
(iii) Movement of charged (C) Electroos (iii) (C)
colloidal particle under mosis
the infuence of applied
electric potential towards
oppositvely charged
electrodes (vi) (D)
(vi) Solvent molecules pass (D) Reverse
through semipermeable osmosis
membrane towards
solution side
(1) (i) - C, (ii) - D, (iii) - B, (iv) - A (1) (i) - C, (ii) - D, (iii) - B, (iv) - A
(2) (i) - C, (ii) - A, (iii) - D, (iv) - B (2) (i) - C, (ii) - A, (iii) - D, (iv) - B
(3) (i) - D, (ii) - B, (iii) - C, (iv) - A (3) (i) - D, (ii) - B, (iii) - C, (iv) - A
(4) (i) - B, (ii) - D, (iii) - A, (iv) - C (4) (i) - B, (ii) - D, (iii) - A, (iv) - C


06. Which of the following substance will precipitate 06.
the negative charged emulsion : :
(1) Glucose (1)
(2) Urea (2)
(3) NaCl (3) NaCl
07. Match the following columns: 07. :
-I -II
Column-I Column-II
(i) Protective colloid (a) FeCl3+ NaOH (i) (a) FeCl3+ NaOH
(ii) Liquid-liquid colloid (b) Lyophillic colloid (ii) (b)
(iii) Positive charge colloid (c) Emulsion (iii) (c)
(iv) negative charged colloid (d) FeCl3 + hot water
(iv) (d) FeCl3 +
(1) (i) - b, (ii) - c, (iii) - d, (iv) - a (1) (i) - b, (ii) - c, (iii) - d, (iv) - a
(2) (i) - c, (ii) - a, (iii) - d, (iv) - b (2) (i) - c, (ii) - a, (iii) - d, (iv) - b
(3) (i) - d, (ii) - b, (iii) - c, (iv) - a (3) (i) - d, (ii) - b, (iii) - c, (iv) - a
(4) (i) - b, (ii) - d, (iii) - a, (iv) - c (4) (i) - b, (ii) - d, (iii) - a, (iv) - c
08. Match the type of colloidal systems given in 08. -I -II
column-I with the name given in column-II : :

(i) Solid in liquid (a) Foam (i) (a)
(ii) Liquid in solid (b) Sol (ii) (b)
(iii) Liquid in liquid (c) Gel (iii) (c)
(iv) Gas in liquid (d) Emulsion (iv) (d)
(1) (i) - b, (ii) - c, (iii) - d, (iv) - a (1) (i) - b, (ii) - c, (iii) - d, (iv) -a
(2) (i) - c, (ii) - a, (iii) - d, (iv) - b (2) (i) - c, (ii) - a, (iii) - d, (iv) -b
(3) (i) - d, (ii) - b, (iii) - c, (iv) - a (3) (i) - d, (ii) - b, (iii) - c, (iv) -a
(4) (i) - b, (ii) - d, (iii) - a, (iv) - c (4) (i) - b, (ii) - d, (iii) - a, (iv) -c
09. Assertion : Coagulation power of Al3+ is more 09. : Al3+ Na+
than Na +. :
Reason : Greater the valency of the flocculating ion
added greater is its power to cause precipitation.
(1)
10. Which of the following statement is wrong for 10. ?
chemisorption ?
(1)
(1) It forms unimoleular layer
(2) No appreciable activation energy is needed (2)
(3) Initially it increases with the increase of
(3)
temperature
(4) It is irreversible in nature (4)


11. The formation of micelles which occurs only above 11.
a particular concentration is called : :
(1) Kraft temperature (1)
(2) Micelle concentration (2)
(3) Absolute concentration (3)
(4) Critical micelle concentration (4)
12. Colloidal solution of gold can be prepared by: 12. :
(1) Bredig's arc method (1)
(2) Double decomposition (2)
(3) Hydrolysis (3)
(4) Peptization (4)
13. Browian movement belongs to which of the 13. ?
following given property ? (1)
(1) Mechanical
(2)
(2) Electrical
(3) Colligative (3)
(4) Optical (4)
14. Which of the following is not a favourable 14.
condition for physical adsorption ? ?
(1) High pressure (1)
(2) Negative H (2) H
(3) Higher critical temperature of adsorbate (3)
(4) High temperature (4)
15. Which of the following is an example of 15. ?
absorption ? (1)
(1) Water on silica gel (2)
(2) Water on calcium chloride
(3)
(3) Hydrogen on finely divided nickel
(4) Oxygen on metal surface (4)
16. Assertion : Brownian motion is responsible for 16. :
stability of sols.
Reason : Colloidal solutions do not show :
brownian motion. (1)
(2)
17. What happens when a lyophilic sol is added to a 17. ?
lyophobic sol ?
(1)
(1) Lyophilic sol is protected
(2) Film of lyophilic sol is formed over lyophobic (2)
sol
(3) Film of lyophobic sol is formed oven lyophilic (3)
sol
(4) A true solution will formed (4)


18. Which of the following phenomenon occurs when 18.
a chalk stick is dipped in ink ? ?
(1) Adsorption of coloured substance (1)
(2) Adsorption of solvent (2)
(3) Absorption and adsorption both of solvent (3)
(4) Absorption of coloured substance (4)
19. Which of the following electrolytes will have 19. AgI/Ag+
maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag+ sol ? ?
(1) Na2S (2) Na3PO4 (3) Na2SO4 (4) NaCl (1) Na2S (2) Na3PO4 (3) Na2SO4 (4) NaCl
20. Which of the following is not a colloid ? 20. ?
(1) Milk (2) Blood (1) (2)
(3) Gold sol (4) Urea solution (3) (4)
21. Which of the following method is not employed 21.
for the purification of colloids ? ?
(1) Electro-dialysis (2) Dialysis (1) (2)
(3) Peptizaltion (4) Ultracentrifugation (3) (4)
22. Potential difference between fixed layer and 22.
diffused layer in colloidal sol is known as : :
(1) Electrode potential (1)
(2) Zeta potential (2)
(3) Standard hydrogen electrode potential (3)
(4) Electric dipole potential (4)
23. Which of the following colloidal property is not 23.
dependent on charge of colloidal particle : :
(1) Electro-osmosis (2) Tyndall effect (1) (2)
(3) Coagulation (4) Electrophoresis (3) (4)
24. The statement not applicable to chemi-sorption is : 24. :
(1) Highly specific (1)
(2) Dependent of temperature (2)
(3) Irreversible (3)
(4) Multilayered (4)
25. The shape selective catalyst (ZSM-5) converts : 25. (ZSM-5) :
(1) Benzene to toluene (1)
(2) Alcohol to gasoline (petrol) (2)
(3) Heptane to butane (3)
(4) Toluene to benzene (4)
26. Bleeding is stopped by the application of ferric 26.
Chloride this is because : :
(1) The blood starts flowing in opposite direction (1)
(2) The blood reacts and from a solid , which seals (2)
the blood vessel
(3) The blood is coagulated and the blood vessel (3)
are sealed
(4) The ferric chloride seals the blood vessel (4)
27. The cloud is an example of : 27. :
(1) Solid dispersed in gas (1)
(2) Liquid dispersed in gas (2)
(3) Liquid dispersed in solid (3)
(4) Solid dispersed in liquid (4)


28. Which of the following factor's are responsible for 28.
the stability of lyophilic sol ? ?
(1) Charge on colloidal particles (1)
(2) Solvation of colloidal particles (2)
(3) By the addition of an electrolyte (3)
(4) (1) and (2) both (4) (1) (2)
29. A lyophilic sol can be coagulated : 29. :
(1) By the adding an electrolyte (1)
(2) By adding a suitable solvent (2)
(3) By the mixing of two same charged sol (3)
(4) (1) and (2) both (4) (1) (2)
30. The brownian movement doesn't depend on 30. ?
following factors ? (1)
(1) The size of particle
(2)
(2) Viscosity of the solution
(3)
(3) Nature of the colloid
31. Which of the following anions will have minimum 31.
flocclation value for the ferric oxide solution ? ?
(1) Cl – (1) Cl –
(2) Br– (2) Br–

(3) SO42– (3) SO42–
(4) [FeCCN6]3– (4) [FeCCN6]3–
32. Which of the following is an example of 32. :
coagulation: (1)
(1) Curdling of milk (2)
(2) Purification of water by the addition of alum
(3)
(3) Formation of deltas at the river beds
(4) All example an of coagulation (4)
33. The sky has generally blue tinge it is due to : 33. (sky) :
(1) Scattering (1)
(2) Coagulation (2)
(3) Brownian movement (3)
(4) Electro-osmosis (4)
34. Assertion : In physical adsorption, adsorption 34. :
increases with increase in temperature.
Reason : Physisorption is of endothermic in :
nature. (1)
(2)


35. Assertion : Aqueous gold colloidal solution is red 35. :
in colour. :
Reason : The colour arises due to scattering of
light by colloidal gold particles. (1)
(2)
36. The movement of colloidal particle under applied 36.
electric current is known as : :
(1) Elcetrodialysis (1)
(2) Dialysis (2)
(3) Osmosis (3)
(4) Electrophoresis (4)
37. Assertion : Medicines in the colloidal state are 37. :
more effective. :
Reason : In the colloidal state the medicines are
easily assimilated by the body. (1)
(2)
38. Which of the following is related to adsorption ? 38. ?
(i) H  –Ve (ii)  s  – Ve (i) H  –Ve (ii) S  –Ve
(iii) – T S  –Ve (iv) G  –Ve (iii) –T  S  –Ve (iv)  G  – Ve
The correct option is
(1) Only (iii) (1) (iii)
(2) (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) (3) (i), (ii) (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (iii) (iv)
[Type of colloid] [Example] [ ] [ ]
(i) Liquid aerosol (a) Dust (i) (a)
(ii) Gel (b) Cheese (ii) (b)
(iii)Solid aerosol (c) Butter (iii) (c)
(iv)Emulsion (d) Fog (iv) (d) (Fog)
(1) (i) - (d), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c) (1) (i) - (d), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c)
(2) (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (a) (2) (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (a)
(3) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d) (3) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d)
(4) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b) (4) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b)
40. Which of the following is positively charged sol ? 40. ?
(1) Silver sol (2) As2 S3 (1) (2) As2 S3
(3) Sol of starch (4) Haemoglobin (3) (4)


-I -II
Column-I Column-II (i) (a)
(i) Dialysis (a) Cleansing action of soap
(ii) Peptisation (b) Coagulation (ii) (b)
(iii) Emulsification (c) Colloidal sol formation (iii) (c)
(iv) Electrophoresis (d) Purification of colloidal (iv) (d)
sol
(2) (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d) (2) (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d)
(3) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d) (3) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d)
(4) (i) - (d), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (b) (4) (i) - (d), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (b)
42. Macth the following columns : 42. :
Column-I Column-II I( ) II
Enzyme Source of enzyme (i) (a)
(i) Zymase (a) Stomach
(ii) (b)
(ii) Diastase (b) Soybean
(iii) Urease (c) Malt (iii) (c)
(iv) Pepsin (d) Yeast (iv) (d)
(2) (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d) (2) (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d)
(3) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (a) (3) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (a)
(4) (i) - (d), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (b) (4) (i) - (d), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (b)
43. Which of the following enzyme was obtained by 43. ?
the different source ? (1)
(1) Invertase
(2)
(2) Zymase
(3) Maltase (3)
(4) Urease (4)
44. Match the following columns ? 44. ?

Process Catalyst (i) (a) 'Ni'
(i) Haber's process (a) Finely
(ii) (b) (Pt)
divided 'Ni'
(ii) Alcohol convert (b) Platinum (Pt)
into gasoline Gauze (iii) (c) Fe'
(iii) Ostwald's process (c) Finely
(iv) (d) ZSM-5
divided 'Fe'
(iv) Hydrogenation of (d) ZSM-5
vegerable oils
(1) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b)
(1) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b) (2) (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d)
(2) (i) - (c), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d)
(3) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (a) (3) (i) - (d), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (a)
(4) (i) - (c), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (a) (4) (i) - (c), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (a)


45. Which of the following statements is correct ? 45. ?
(1) Promoters are substances that decrease the (1)
activity of a catalyst
(2) Poisons are substances that increase activity of
(2)
a catalyst
(3) In haber's process, Mo (Molybdenum) act as
a promoter for iron (3) Mo
(4) In haber's Ni (Nickel) act as a promoter for iron (4) Ni
46. Which of the following forms a colloidal solution 46. :
in water :
(1) NaCl (2)
(1) NaCl (2) Glucose
(3) Ba(NO3) 2 (4) Starch (3) Ba(NO3) 2 (4)
47. Consider the following statements : 47. :
(i) More easily liquefiable gases adsorb easily (i)
(ii) silica gel are used to remove moisture (ii)
X X
(iii) = K P1/n (where n < 1) (iii) = K P1/n ( n < 1)
M M
Choose the correct statements.
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (1) (i) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) (i) (iii) (4) (i), (ii) (iii)
48. Principal emulsifying agent for oil-water emulsions is : 48. :
(1) Long chain alcohol (1)
(2) Lamp black (2)
(3) Heavy metal salts of fatty acids (3)
(4) natural and synthetic soaps (4)
49. Emulsifier is an agent which can ? 49. ?
(1) Accelerates the dispersion (1) (dispersion)
(2) Stabilizes the emulsion (2)
(3) Homogenires of emulsion (3)
50. Which of the following will show tyndall effect : 50. :
(1) aq solution of NaCl (1) NaCl
(2) aq solution of urea (2) urea
(3) aq solution of glucose (3)
(4) aq solution of protein (4)
ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 3 4 2 1 1 3 1 1 1 2 4 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 2 4 3 2 2 4 2 3 2 4 4 3
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 4 1 4 1 4 1 3 1 4 1 3 4 3 3 4 1 4 2 4


Thermodynamics
1. Internal energy of an ideal gas depends only upon : 1. :
(1) Volume (1)
(2) Pressure (2)
(3) Temperature (3)
(4) Density (4)
2. 1 mole each of CaC2, A14C3, Mg2C3 reacts with 2. CaC 2, A1 4 C 3, Mg 2 C 3
excess water in separate open flasks workdone
during the dissolution shows the order :
(1) CaC2 = Mg2C3 < A14C3
(1) CaC2 = Mg2C3 < A14C3
(2) Mg2C3 < CaC2 < Al4C3
(2) Mg2C3 < CaC2 < Al4C3
(3) CaC2 = Mg2C3 = Al4C3 (3) CaC2 = Mg2C3 = Al4C3
(4) Mg2C3 < A14C3 < CaC2 (4) Mg2C3 < A14C3 < CaC2
3. One mole of an ideal gas expands reversibly and 3. 27°C
adiabatically from a temperature of 27°C. If the 3kJ
work done during the process is 3kJ, then final
temperature of the gas is : (Cv = 20 J/K) (Cv = 20 J/K)
(1) 100 K (2) 150 K (1) 100 K (2) 150 K
(3) 195 K (4) 255 K (3) 195 K (4) 255 K
4. Which statements is/are correct? 4. ?
 H      H    
(1)      T   R (1)    R
 P     P  T 
 H      H    
(2)     (2)    
  P  T  v   P  T  v
 E   E 
(3)   for ideal gas is zero (3)  
 V T  V T
5. Dissociation of sodium azide is given by, 5. , NaN3 Na + 3/2N2
NaN3 Na + 3/2N2, H for this is: H –
(1)  f ( NaN3 ) (1)  f ( NaN3 )
3 3
(2) f ( N2 )  f ( NaN3 ) (2) f ( N2 )  f ( NaN3 )
2 2
 3   3 
(3) f ( NaN3 )   f ( Na)  f ( N2 )  (3) f ( NaN3 )   f ( Na)  f ( N2 ) 
 2   2 
3 3
(4) f ( Na )  f ( N2 )  f (NaH3 ) (4) f ( Na )  f ( N2 )  f (NaH3 )
2 2
6. The standard heat of combustion of solid boron 6.
is equal to: 1
(1) f (B2 O3 ) (2) f (B2 O3 )
1 2
(1) f (B2 O3 ) (2) f (B2 O3 )
2 1
(3) 2 f (B 2 O 3 ) (4)  f (B2 O3 )
1 2
(3) 2f (B2 O3 ) (4)  f (B2 O3 )
2


7. Consider this equation and the associated value 7. H°
for H°: 2H2(g) + 2Cl2(g) 4HCl(g) ; H° = –92.3kJ
2H2(g) + 2Cl2(g) 4HCl(g) ; H° = –92.3kJ
?
Which statement about this information is
incorrect? (1) H°
(1) If the equation is reversed, the H° value + 92.3 kJ
equals + 92.3 kJ
(2) HCl H2 Cl2
(2) The four HC1 bonds are stronger than four
bonds in H2 and Cl2 (3) H° –92.3 kJ HCl
(3) The H° value will be –92.3 kJ if HCl is
produced as a liquid
(4) 1 HCl 23.1 kJ
(4) 23.1 kJ of heat will be evolved when 1 mole
of HCl(g) is produced
8. According to Predict the sign of S for each of 8. S
the following is correct:
S S
(1) CO(g) + 2H2(g)CH3OH +ve (1) CO(g) + 2H2(g)CH3OH +ve
(2) Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) 2FeO(s) +CO2(g) +ve (2) Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) 2FeO(s) +CO2(g) +ve
(3) C2H4(g) +2O2(g) 2CO(g) +2H2O(g) +ve (3) C2H4(g) +2O2(g) 2CO(g) +2H2O(g) + ve
(4) CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO2 (g) –ve (4) CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO2 (g) – ve
(5) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g) –ve (5) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g) –ve
(6) Evaporation of water +ve (6) + ve
(7) Sublimation of ammonium chloride –ve (7) –ve
(1) 1,2, 4,5 (1) 1,2, 4,5
(2) 2,3,5,6 (2) 2,3,5,6
(3) 1,2,3,4 (3) 1,2,3,4
(4) 3,4,5,6 (4) 3,4,5,6
9. If x and y are extensive variables, then: 9. x y
(1) (x + y) is an extensive variable (1) (x + y)
(2) x/y is an intensive variable (2) x/y
(3) dx/dy is an intensive property (3) dx/dy
(1) 1,2, 3 (2) l,2 (1) 1,2, 3 (2) l,2
(3) 2,3 (4) l,3 (3) 2,3 (4) l,3
10. Out of internal energy (I), boiling point (II), pH (III) 10. (I), (II), pH (III) E.M.F.
and E.M.F. of the cell (IV) intensive properties are : (IV) :
(1) I, II (1) I, II
(2) II, III, IV (2) II, III, IV
(3) I, III, IV (3) I, III, IV
(4) I, II, III, IV (4) I, II, III, IV
11. U will be zero for which processes ? 11. U ?
(1) Cyclic process (1)
(2) Isothermal expansion (2)
(3) Isochoric process (3)
(4) Adiabatic process (4)
(1) 1, 3, 4 (1) 1, 3, 4
(2) l, 2 (2) l, 2
(3) l, 3 (3) l, 3
(4) 2, 4 (4) 2, 4


12. What will be the nature of change in internal 12.
energy in case of processes shown below? ?
(I) (II) (I) (II)
(III) (IV) (III) (IV)
(1) +ve in all cases (1) +ve

(2) –ve in all cases (2) –ve
(3) –ve in I and III and + ve in II and IV (3) I III –ve II IV + ve
(4) Zero in all cases (4)
13. Match the Column-I with Column-II. 13. -I -II

(1) (p) AC Isotherm (1) (p) AC
AB Adiabatic AB
BC Isochoric
BC
(2) (q) AB Isotherm (2) (q) AB

AC Adiabatic AC
BC Isochoric
BC
(3) (r) AB Adiabatic (3) (r) AB

AC Isotherm AC
BC Isochoric
BC
(4) (s) AC Adiabatic (4) (s) AC

AB Isotherm AB
BC Isochoric
BC
(1) (1)  (P); (2)  (q); (3) (s); (4)  (r) (1) (1)  (P); (2)  (q); (3) (s); (4)  (r)
(2) (1) (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (r); (4)  (s) (2) (1) (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (r); (4)  (s)
(3) (1) (q); (2)  (s); (3)  (r); (4)  (p) (3) (1) (q); (2)  (s); (3)  (r); (4)  (p)
(4) (1) (s); (2)  (q); (3)  (s); (4)  (r) (4) (1) (s); (2)  (q); (3)  (s); (4)  (r)


14. Match the Column-I with Column-II: 14. -I -II

(Process) (Relation) (Process) (Relation)
(1) Isothermal (p) V (1) (p) V
 const  const
T T
(2) Isobaric (q) V  (2) (q) V 

 const  const
T 1 T 1
(3) Isochoric (r) P (3) (r) P
 const  const
T T
(4) Adiabatic (s) PV=const (4) (s) PV=const
(1) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (s); (4)  (r) (1) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (s); (4)  (r)
(2) (1)  (s); (2)  (p); (3)  (r); (4)  (q) (2) (1)  (s); (2)  (p); (3)  (r); (4)  (q)
(3) (1)  (p, q, r); (2)  (q, s); (3)  (r, s); (4)  (3) (1)  (p, q, r); (2)  (q, s); (3)  (r, s); (4) 
(r) (r)
(4) (1)  (p, q, r, s); (2)  (q, r, s); (3)  (s); (4) (4) (1)  (p, q, r, s); (2)  (q, r, s); (3)  (s); (4)
 (r)  (r)
15. One mole of a mono atomic gas is subjected to 15.
following cyclic and reversible :
Calculate T1 and T2. T1 T2

(1) 243.6 K, 2436 K (2) 243.6 K, 243.6 K (1) 243.6 K, 2436 K (2) 243.6 K, 243.6 K
(3) 2436 K, 2436 K (4) 24.36 K, 24.36 K (3) 2436 K, 2436 K (4) 24.36 K, 24.36 K
16. The work done during adiabatic expansion or 16.
compression of an ideal gas is given by : :
(1) nC v  (1) nC v 
nR nR
(2) (  ) (T2  T1 ) (2) (  ) (T2  T1 )
 T2 T1  T1P2   T2 T1  T1P2 
(3) nRPext  T P  (3) nRPext  T P 
 1 2   1 2 
V2 V2
(4) 2.303RT log V (4) 2.303RT log V
1 1
(1) 1,3,4 (2) 1,2,3 (1) 1,3,4 (2) 1,2,3

(3) 1,2 (4) 2,4 (3) 1,2 (4) 2,4


17. A given mass of gas expands form the state A to 17. A B
the state B by three paths, 1, 2 and 3 as shown in
the figure. If w1, w2 and w3 respectively be the w1, w2 w3
work done by the gas along three paths then:
(1) w1 > w2 > w3 (1) w1 > w2 > w3

(2) w1 < w2 < w3 (2) w1 < w2 < w3
(3) w1 = w2 = w3 (3) w1 = w2 = w3
(4) w2 < w3 < w1 (4) w2 < w3 < w1
18. Calculate q for the reversible isothermal expansion 18. 127°C 10 dm 3 20 dm 3
of one mole of an ideal gas at 127°C from a (q)
volume of 10 dm3 to 20 dm3.
(1) 2305.3 J (2) -2305.3 J (1) 2305.3 J (2) -2305.3 J
(3) 1153 J (4)-1153 J (3) 1153 J (4)-1153 J
19. A system does 40 J work on surrounding as well as 19. 40 J
gives out 20 J energy. Calculate the change in 20 J
internal energy,
(1) –60 J (1) –60 J
(2) +60 J (2) +60 J
(3) –20 J (3) –20 J
(4) +20 J (4) +20 J
20. Calculate q. for the isothermal reversible 20. 273K 1 bar
expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from an 0.1 bar
initial pressure of 1.0 bar to a final pressure of 0.1 (q)
bar at a constant temperature of 273 K. (1) –5227 J (2) +5227 J
(1) –5227 J (2) +5227 J
(3) –2513 J (4) +2513 J (3) –2513 J (4) +2513 J
21. What is the final temperature of 0.10 mole 21. 0.10 75
monoatomic ideal gas that performs 75 cal of work cal 227°C
adiabatically if the initial temperature is 227°C?
 3   3 
(use R = 2 Cal/ K-mol)  C  R  (use R = 2 Cal/ K-mol)  C  R 
 2   2 
(1) 750 K (2) 300 K (1) 750 K (2) 300 K
(3) 350 K (4) 250 K (3) 350 K (4) 250 K
22. In an isothermal ideal gas expansion : 22.
(1) w = 0 (2) U1 = U2 (1) w = 0 (2) U1 = U2
V2 V2
(3) H1 = H2 (4) q = nRT ln V (3) H1 = H2 (4) q = nRT ln V
1 1
(1) 2, 3, 4 (1) 2, 3, 4
(2) l, 2, 3 (2) l, 2, 3
(3) l, 3 (3) l, 3
(4) 2, 4 (4) 2, 4


23. Match the Column I with Column II: 23. I II
Column I Column II
Column I Column II
(1) Reversible cooling of (p) w = 0, q < 0,
(1) (p) w = 0, q < 0,
an ideal gas at U > 0
U > 0
constant volume
(2) Reversible isothermal (q) w < 0, q > 0, (2) (q) w < 0, q > 0,
expansion of an ideal U > 0 U > 0
gas (3) (r) w = 0, q = 0,
(3) Adiabatic expansion (r) w = 0, q = 0, U = 0
of non-ideal gas into U = 0
vacuum (4) (s) w < 0, q > 0,
U = 0
(4) Reversible melting of (s) w < 0, q > 0,
sulphur at normal U = 0
melting point (1) (1)  (p); (2)  (s); (3)  (r); (4)  (q)
(1) (1)  (p); (2)  (s); (3)  (r); (4)  (q) (2) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (q, r, s); (4)  (r, s)
(2) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (q, r, s); (4)  (r, s)
(3) (1)(p, q, r); (2)(q, s); (3) (r, s); (4)  (r)
(3) (1)(p, q, r); (2)(q, s); (3) (r, s); (4)  (r)
(4) (1)(p, q, r, s); (2)(q, r, s); (3)(s); (4)(r) (4) (1)(p, q, r, s); (2)(q, r, s); (3)(s); (4)(r)
24. A gas expands from a volume of 3.0 dm3 to 5.0 24. 3.0 atm 3.0 dm3 5.0 dm3
dm3 against a constant pressure of 3.0 atm. The
work done during expansion is used to heat 10.0 290.0 K
mole of water of temperature 290.0 K. Calculate (
the final temperature of water. (Specific heat of = 4.184 JK–1 g–1)
water = 4.184 JK–1 g–1) (1) 290.8 K (2) 289.1 K
(1) 290.8 K (2) 289.1 K
(3) 309.8 K (4) 308. IK (3) 309.8 K (4) 308. IK
 5   5 
25. A gas  Cv,m  R  behaving ideally was allowed 25.  Cv,m  R 
 2   2 
to expand reversibly and adiabatically from 1 litre
to 32 litre. It's initial temperature was 327°C. The 327°C
molar enthalpy change (in J/mol) for the process is: (J/mol)
(1) –1125 R (2) –1575 R (1) –1125 R (2) –1575 R
(2) –675 (4) –2025 R (2) –675 (4) –2025 R
26. P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes 26. P-V
are given in the figure : :
Plot A and B should correspond to: A B

(1) He and O2 (2) He and Ar (1) He O2 (2) He Ar
(3) O2 and He (4) O2 and F2 (3) O2 He (4) O2 F2


27. An ice cube at 0.00°C is placed in 200 g of distilled 27. 0.00°C 200 g 25°C
water at 25°C. The final temperature after the ice
is completely melted is 5°C. what is the mass of 5°C ?
the ice cube ? (Hfus = 340Jg ,Cp = 4.18 Jg °C )
–1 –1 –1
(Hfus = 340Jg–1,Cp = 4.18 Jg–1 °C–1) (1) 23.6 g (2) 46.3 g

(1) 23.6 g (2) 46.3 g (3) 50.0 g (4) 80.0 g (3) 50.0 g (4) 80.0 g
28. Match the Column-I with Column-II 28. -I -II

(Reaction) (Relation) (Reaction) (Relation)
(1) H2(g)+Cl2(g)2HCl(g) (p) H=U+RT
(1) H2(g)+Cl2(g)2HCl(g) (p) H=U+RT
(2) N2(g)+O2(g)  2NO(g) (q) H=U (2) N2(g)+O2(g)  2NO(g) (q) H=U
(3) H2(g)+I2(g) 2Hl(g) (r) H=U–2RT (3) H2(g)+I2(g) 2Hl(g) (r) H=U–2RT
(4) N2(g)+3H2(g) 2NH3(g) (s) Forward shift (4) N2(g)+3H2(g) 2NH3(g) (s)
by increasing
pressure
(1) (1)  (q); (2)  (q); (3)  (p); (4)  (r, s) (1) (1)  (q); (2)  (q); (3)  (p); (4)  (r, s)
(2) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (q, r, s); (4)  (r, s) (2) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (q, r, s); (4)  (r, s)
(3) (1)  (p, q, r); (2)  (q, s); (3)  (r, s); (4)  (r) (3) (1)  (p, q, r); (2)  (q, s); (3)  (r, s); (4)  (r)
(4) (1)  (p, q, r, s); (2)  (q, r, s); (3)  (s); (4)  (r) (4) (1)  (p, q, r, s); (2)  (q, r, s); (3)  (s); (4)  (r)
29. Which of the following are applicable for a 29.
thermochemical equation ? It tells :
(1) About the physical state of reactants and (1)
products
(2)
(2) About the allotropic form (if any) of the
reactants (3)
(3) Whether the reaction is exothermic or (4)
endothermic
(1) 1, 3, 4
(4) Whether a particular reaction is spontaneous
or not (2) 1, 2, 3, 4
(1) 1, 3, 4 (2) 1, 2, 3, 4 (3) l, 2, 3
(3) l, 2, 3 (4) 2, 4 (4) 2, 4
30. Consider the following statements : 30.
I. Change in enthalpy is always smaller than I.
change in internal energy.
II. The variation in enthalpy of a reaction with II.
temperature is given by Kirchhoff s equation.
III. The entropy change in reversible adiabatic III.
process is equal to zero.
Select the correct answer :
(1) I and II (1) I II
(2) II and III (2) II III
(3) III and I (3) III I
(4) All are correct (4)


31. Given the following enthalpy of reaction and the 31. B2H6 (g)
indicated heats of formation, determine the (kJ/mol)
enthalpy of formation of B2H6 (g) in kJ/mol: B2H6 (g) + 3O2 (g) B2O3 (s) + 3H2O(g);
B2H6 (g) + 3O2 (g) B2O3 (s) + 3H2O(g); rH°=–1941kJ/mol
rH°=–1941kJ/mol
rH°f(H2O, s) = – 241.8 kJ/mol;
rH°f(H2O, s) = – 241.8 kJ/mol;
rH°f(H2O, g) = –241.8 kJ/mol
rH°f(H2O, g) = –241.8 kJ/mol
(1) –75.6 (1) –75.6
(2) + 75.6 (2) + 75.6
(3) –28.4 (3) –28.4
(4) –57.4 (4) –57.4
32. The standard enthalpies of formation of CO2 (g), 32. 25°C CO2 (g), H2O(/) s
H2O(/) and glucose(s) at 25°C are –400 kJ/mol, –400, –300 –1300 kJ/
–300 kJ/mol and –1300 kJ/mol, respectively. The mol 25°C
standard enthalpy of combustion per gram of
glucose at 25°C is :
(1) + 2900Kj (2) –2900kJ
(1) + 2900Kj (2) –2900kJ
(3) –16.11kJ (4) +16.11 kJ (3) –16.11kJ (4) +16.11 kJ
33. The heat of ionisation of formic acid is 1.5 kJ/ 33. 1.5 kJ/mol.
mol. 9.2 g formic acid on reaction with 7g 9.2 g 7g
ammonium hydroxide gives 10.8 kJ of heat. 10.8 kJ
Calculate the heat of ionization of ammonium
hydroxide.
(1) 2.04 kJ/mol (2) 1.5 kJ/mol
(1) 2.04 kJ/mol (2) 1.5 kJ/mol
(3) 1.6kJ/mol (4) 1.7kJ/mol (3) 1.6kJ/mol (4) 1.7kJ/mol
34. In a Gobar gas plant, gobar gas is formed by 34.
bacterial federation of animal refuse. If mainly
contains methane and its heat of combustion is 800 kJ mol–1
800 kJ mol–1 according to following equation :
CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O; H = –800kJ CH4 + 2O2  CO2 + 2H2O; H = –800kJ
How much Gobar gas would have to be produced 50
per day for a small village of 50 families, if it is
assumed that each family requires 20,000 kJ of
20,000 kJ
energy per day? The methane content in Gobar
gas is 80% by mass. 80%
(1) 15 kg (2) 20kg (1) 15 kg (2) 20kg
(3) 25kg (4) 30kg (3) 25kg (4) 30kg
35. Determine U° at 300 K for the following reaction 35.
using the listed enthalpies of reaction : 300 K U°
4CO(g) + 8H2 (g) 3CH4 (g) + CO2 (g) + 2H2O(/) 4CO(g) + 8H2 (g) 3CH4 (g) + CO2 (g) + 2H2O(/)
1 1
C(graphite) + O2 (g) CO(g): H°1 = – 110.5 kJ C(graphite) + O2 (g) CO(g): H°1 = – 110.5 kJ
1 2 1 2
CO(g) + O2 (g) CO2(g): H°2 = –282.9 kJ CO(g) + O2 (g) CO2(g): H°2 = –282.9 kJ
12 12
H2 (g) + O2 (g) H2O(l): H°3 = –285.8 kJ H2 (g) + O2 (g) H2O(l): H°3 = –285.8 kJ
2 2
C(graphite) + 2H2 (g) CH4 (g); H°4 = –74.8 kJ C(graphite) + 2H2 (g) CH4 (g); H°4 = –74.8 kJ
(1) –686.2 kJ (1) –686.2 kJ
(2) –653.5 kJ (2) –653.5 kJ
(3) –747.4 kJ (3) –747.4 kJ
(4) –727.4 kJ (4) –727.4 kJ


36. Bond dissociation enthalpies of H2(g) and N2(g) 36. H2(g) N2(g) 436.0 kJ mol–1
are 436.0 kJ mol –1 and 941.8 kJ mol –1 and 941.8 kJ mol–1 NH3 (g) –
enthalpy of formation of NH3 (g) is –46 kJ mol–1. 46 kJ mol–1 NH3(g)
What is enthalpy of atomization of NH3(g)?
(1) 1070.9 kJ/mol (1) 1070.9 kJ/mol
(2) 1170.9 kJ mol–1 (2) 1170.9 kJ mol–1
(3) 1270.9 kJ/mol (3) 1270.9 kJ/mol
(4) 1370.9 kJ/mol (4) 1370.9 kJ/mol
37. AB, A2 and B2 are diatomic molecules. If the bond 37. AB, A2 B2 A2,AB B2
enthalpies of A2,AB and B2 are in the ratio 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 0.5 A2 B2
0.5 and the enthalpy of formation of AB from A2 AB –100 kJ mol –1
A2
and B2 is –100 kJ mol–1, what is the bond enthalpy ?
of A2? (1) 400 kJ mol–1 (2) 200 kJ mol–1
(1) 400 kJ mol–1 (2) 200 kJ mol–1
(3) 100 kJ mol–1 (4) 300 kJ mol–1 (3) 100 kJ mol–1 (4) 300 kJ mol–1
38. The heats of atomization of PH3 (g) and P2H4 (g) 38. PH3 (g) P2H4 (g)
are 953 kJ mol–1 and 1485 kJ mol–1 respectively. 953 kJ mol–1 1485 kJ mol–1 P—P
The P—P bond energy in kJ mol–1 is : kJ mol–1 :
(1) 214 (1) 214
(2) 318 (2) 318
(3) 426 (3) 426
(4) 1272 (4) 1272
39. 1 mole of an ideal gas is allowed to expand 39. 27°C
isothermally at 27°C until its volume is tripled.
Calculate Ssys and Suniv under the expansion is S S
carried out reversibly. (1) 9.1 J/K/mol, 0 J/K/mol
(1) 9.1 J/K/mol, 0 J/K/mol
(2) 0, 9.1 J/K/mol
(2) 0, 9.1 J/K/mol
(3) 9.1, –9.1 J/K/mol (3) 9.1, –9.1 J/K/mol
(4) 0, 0 J/K/mol (4) 0, 0 J/K/mol
40. Which of the following statements is (are) correct? 40. ?
(1) The entropy of the universe increases and tends (1)
towards the maximum value
(2) All natural processes are irreversible (2)
(3) For the isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, (3) H U
H and U are equal
(4) The heat of formation of an element in the (4)
standard state is zero
(1) 1, 2, 4 (2) 1, 2, 3, 4 (1) 1, 2, 4 (2) 1, 2, 3, 4
(3) l, 3 (4) 2, 4 (3) l, 3 (4) 2, 4
41. In which of the following entropy increases ? 41. ?
(1) Rusting of iron (1)
(2) Melting of ice (2)
(3) Crystallization of sugar from solution (3)
(4) Vaporization of camphor (4)
(1) 1, 2, 4 (2) 1, 2, 3, 4 (1) 1, 2, 4 (2) 1, 2, 3, 4
(3) l, 3 (4) 2, 4 (3) l, 3 (4) 2, 4


42. Which of the following statements is (are) false ? 42. ?
(1) The entropy of the universe decreases and (1)
increases at a periodic rate
(2)
(2) The entropy of the universe increase and tends
toward the maximum value
(3) For endothermic spontaneous processes the (3)
total entropy change decrease
(4) The entropy of the universe decrease and tends
(4)
to zero
(1) 1, 3, 4 (2) 1,2, 3, 4 (1) 1, 3, 4 (2) 1,2, 3, 4
(3) l, 3, 4 (4) 2, 4 (3) l, 3, 4 (4) 2, 4
43. 'For which of these processes is the value of S 43. S ?
negative ? I.
I. Sugar is dissolved in water. II.
II. Steam condenses on a surface.
III. CaCO3, CaO, CO2
III. CaCO3 is decomposed into CaO and CO2.
(1) I only (2) II only (1) I (2) II
(3) I and III only (4) II and III only (3) I III (4) II III
44. Match the Column-I with Column-II: 44. -I -II :
Column II
Column II Column I (Entropy
Column I (Entropy (Process) change)
(Process) change) (1) (p) S system > 0
(1) Reversible isothermal (p) S system > 0
compression of an ideal gas
(2) (q) S system < 0
(2) Isothermal free expansion (q) S system < 0
(P ext = 0) of an ideal gas (P ext = 0)
(3) Reversible adiabatic (r) S system = 0 (3) (r) S system = 0
expansion of an ideal gas
(4) Reversible ideal gas (s) Information (4) (s)
expansion insufficient
(1) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (r, s); (4)  (r) (1) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (r, s); (4)  (r)
(2) (1)  (q); (2)  (p); (3)  (r); (4)  (s) (2) (1)  (q); (2)  (p); (3)  (r); (4)  (s)
(3) (1)(p, q, r); (2)(q, s); (3)(r, s); (4)  (r) (3) (1)(p, q, r); (2)(q, s); (3)(r, s); (4)  (r)

(1) O2(g) (p)  f   ve; Sf   ve (1) O2(g) (p)  f   ve; Sf   ve
(2) O3(g) (q) f   ve; Sf   ve (2) O3(g) (q) f   ve; Sf   ve
(3) Br2(g) (r) f   ve; Sf   ve (3) Br2(g) (r) f   ve; Sf   ve
(4) H2O(l) (s) f  0; Sf  0 (4) H2O(l) (s) f  0; Sf  0
(1) (1)  (s); (2)  (r); (3)  (p); (4)  (q) (1) (1)  (s); (2)  (r); (3)  (p); (4)  (q)
(2) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (q, r, s); (4)  (r, s) (2) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (q, r, s); (4)  (r, s)
(3) (1)(p, q, r); (2)(q, s); (3)(r, s); (4) (r) (3) (1)(p, q, r); (2)(q, s); (3)(r, s); (4) (r)



(Reaction) (Process) (Reaction) (Process)
(1) Entropy of (p) Decrease (1) (p)
vaporization (2) (q)
(2) S for spontaneous (q) Is always S
process positive
(3) Crystalline solid (r) Lowest (3) (r)

entropy
(4) U in adiabatic (s)  vap (4) (s)  vap
expansion of a gas Tb Tb
U
(1) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (s); (4) (r) (1) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (s); (4) (r)
(2) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (q, r, s); (4)  (r, s) (2) (1)  (p); (2)  (q); (3)  (q, r, s); (4)  (r, s)
(3) (1)  (p, q, r); (2)  (q, s); (3)  (r, s); (4)  (3) (1)  (p, q, r); (2)  (q, s); (3)  (r, s); (4) 
(r) (r)
(4) (1)  (q, s); (2)  (q); (3)  (r); (4)  (p) (4) (1)  (q, s); (2)  (q); (3)  (r); (4)  (p)
47. In a fuel cell (a device for producing electricity 47.
directly from chemical reaction), methanol is used
as fuel and oxygen gas is used as an oxidizer.
The reaction is,
CH3OH(/) +3 /2O2(g) CO2(g) +2H2O(/)
Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change for CH3OH(/) +3 /2O2(g) CO2(g) +2H2O(/)
the reaction that can be converted into electrical
work. If standard enthalpy of combustion for
methanol is –726 kJ mol-1, calculate the efficiency –726 kJ mol–1
of conversion of Gibbs energy into useful work. (fG°for
(Options are only fit efficiency) ( f G°for
CO2, H2O, CH3OH, O2 are –394.36, –237.13, –
CO 2 ,H 2O,CH 3OH, O 2 are –394.36, –237.13, –
166.27 and zero respectively.) 166.27 and zero respectively.)
(1) 46.7% (2) 56.7% (1) 46.7% (2) 56.7%
(3) 76.7% (4) 96.7% (3) 76.7% (4) 96.7%
48. Which of the following thermodynamic relation 48.
is correct ?
(1) dG = VdP – SdT (2) dU = PdV + TdS
(1) dG = VdP – SdT (2) dU = PdV + TdS
(3) dH = TdS – VdP (4) dG = VdP + SdT (3) dH = TdS – VdP (4) dG = VdP + SdT
49. For a reaction to be spontaneous in neither 49.
direction, which of the following is/are correct
regarding the closed system ? (1) (G)T,P = 0
(1) (G)T,P = 0
(2) (G)T,P < 0
(2) (G)T,P < 0
(3) (S)U,V = 0 (3) (S)U,V = 0
(4) (S)U,V > 0 (4) (S)U,V > 0
(1) 1, 2 (2) 1, 3 (1) 1, 2 (2) 1, 3
(3) 2, 3 (4) l, 2, 4 (3) 2, 3 (4) l, 2, 4


50. Which of the following statements is(are) correct? 50.
(1) The heat of neutralization of a strong acid with (1)
a strong base is always the same for per
equivalent
(2)
(2) The enthalpy of combustion is always negative
(3)
(3) A spontaneous change involves a lowering of
free energy (4) 298 K
(4) The enthalpy of an element in the standard
state is assumed to be unity at 298 K (1) 1,3, 4 (2) 1,2,3
(1) 1,3, 4 (2) 1,2,3 (3) l,3 (4) 2,4 (3) l,3 (4) 2,4
51. Which of the following conditions are true about 51.
spontaneous process ?
(1) (Gsystem)T,P < 0 (1) (Gsystem)T,P < 0
(2) Ssystem + S surroundings > 0 (2) Ssystem + S surroundings > 0
(3) (Gsystem)T, P = 0 (3) (Gsystem)T, P = 0
(4) Ssystem + Ssurroundings < 0 (4) Ssystem + Ssurroundings < 0
(1) 1, 3, 4 (2) l, 2, 3 (3) l, 2 (4) 2, 4 (1) 1, 3, 4 (2) l, 2, 3 (3) l, 2 (4) 2, 4
52. Match the Column-I with Column-II: 52. -I II

(1) H = + ve, (p) Spontaneous at all (1) H = + ve, (p)
S =+ ve temperature S =+ ve
(2) H = – ve, (q) Non-spontaneous
(2) H = – ve, (q)
S =+ ve at all temperature
S =+ ve
(3) H = + ve, (r) Non-spontaneous
S = – ve at high (3) H = + ve, (r)
temperature S = – ve
(4) H = – ve, (s) Spontaneous at (4) H = – ve, (s)
S = – ve high temperature S = – ve
(1) 1  (p); 2 (p,q); 3  (r,s); 4  (r,s) (1) 1  (p); 2 (p,q); 3  (r,s); 4  (r,s)
(2) 1  (p); 2 (q); 3  (q,r,s); 4  (r,s) (2) 1  (p); 2 (q); 3  (q,r,s); 4  (r,s)
(3) 1  (s); 2 (p); 3  (q); 4  (r) (3) 1  (s); 2 (p); 3  (q); 4  (r)
(4) 1  (p,q,r,s); 2 (q,r,s); 3  (s); 4  (r) (4) 1  (p,q,r,s); 2 (q,r,s); 3  (s); 4  (r)
53. In a closed insulated container a liquid is stirred 53.
with a paddle to increase the temperature which
of the following is true? (1) E = W  0, q = 0
(1) E = W  0, q = 0
(2) E = W = q  0
(2) E = W = q  0
(3) E = 0,W = q  0 (3) E = 0,W = q  0
(4) W = 0, E = q  0 (4) W = 0, E = q  0
54. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal 54.
gas under adiabatic condition is :
(1) q > 0, T > 0 and w > 0 (1) q > 0, T > 0 and w > 0
(2) q = 0 T = 0 and w = 0 (2) q = 0 T = 0 and w = 0
(3) q = 0, T < 0 and w > 0 (3) q = 0, T < 0 and w > 0
(4) q < 0, T = 0 and w = 0 (4) q < 0, T = 0 and w = 0


55. For adiabatic reversible expansion of an ideal gas, the 55.
expression relating pressure and volume of the gas is:
P1V1 P2 V2 P1V1 P2 V2
(1) P1V1  P2 V2 (2) T  T (1) P1V1  P2 V2 (2) T  T
1 2 1 2
1 1
(3) P1V1  P2 V2  (4) P  (3) P1V1  P2 V2  (4) P 
V V
56. Choose the correct answer- A thermodynamic state 56.
function is a quantity: (1)
(1) Used to determine heat changes (2)
(2) Whose value is independent of path (3)
(3) Used to determine pressure-volume work
(4) Whose value depends on temperature only (4)
57. Tind work done in the irreversible process C  A. 57. CA
(1) 4.51 atm (2)Zero (1) 4.51 atm (2)

(3) 8.12 L-atm (4) unpredictable (3) 8.12 L-atm (4) unpredictable
58. An ideal gas expands in volume from 1 × 10–3 m3 58. 10 Nm
5 –2
300K
to 1 × 10–2 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure 1 × 10–3 m3 1 × 10–2 m3
of 1 × 105 Nm–2. The work done is :
(1) – 900 kJ (2) – 900 J (1) – 900 kJ (2) – 900 J
(3) 270 kJ (4) 940 kJ (3) 270 kJ (4) 940 kJ
59. When two moles of hydrogen expands isothermally 59. 1 atm 25°C
against a constant pressure of 1 atm, at 25°C from 15 L 50 L
15 L to 50 L, the work done (in litre-atm) will be : -atm
(1) –17.5 (2) –35 (1) –17.5 (2) –35
(3) –51.5 (4) –70 (3) –51.5 (4) –70
60. A gas undergoes change from state A to state B. 60. A B
In this process, the heat absorbed and work done 5J 8
by the gas is 5 J and 8 J, respectively. Now gas is
J A
brought back to A by another process during
which 3 J of heat is evolved. In this reverse 3J B A
process of B to A
(1) 6J of the work will be done by the gas
(2) 6J of the work will be done by the surrounding (1) 6J
on gas (2) 6J
(3) 10 J of the work will be done by the (3) 10J
surrounding on gas
(4) 10 J of the work will be done by the gas (4) 10J


61. When one mole of sulphuric acid react with one 61.
mole of zinc dust in a bomb calorimeter, then U U W
and W correspond to: (1) U < 0, W = 0
(1) U < 0, W = 0
(2) U > 0, W = 0
(2) U > 0, W = 0
(3) U = 0,W < 0 (3) U = 0,W < 0
(4) U < 0, W > 0 (4) U < 0, W > 0
62. A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands 62. 37°C 0.04
reversibly from 50 mL to 375 mL at a constant 50mL 375 mL
temperature of 37° C. As it does so, it absorbs 208 280 J q W
J of heat. The values of q and W the process will be (R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1) (In 7.5 = 2.01 )
: (R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1) ( In 7.5 = 2.01 ) (1) q = + 208J, W = –208J
(1) q = + 208J, W = –208J
(2) q = + 208J, W= +208J
(2) q = + 208J, W= +208J
(3) q = –208J, W = +208J (3) q = –208J, W = +208J
(4) q = –208J, W = –208J (4) q = –208J, W = –208J
63. If H is the change in enthalpy and E, the change 63. H E
in internal energy accompanying a gaseous
reaction, then :
(1) H E
(1) H is always greater than E.
(2) H < E only if the number of moles of the (2) H < E
products is greater than the number of moles
of the reactants.
(3) H is always less than E. (3) H E
(4) H < E only if the number of moles of (4) H < E
products is less than the number of moles of
the reactants.
64. In a closed vessel a mixture of two moles of carbon 64. (CO) CO2 2
monoxide and one mole of oxygen is ignited to CO 1
convert the carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide.
H E
If H is the enthalpy change and E is the change
in internal energy, then:
(1) H = E (1) H = E
(2) H > E (2) H > E
(3) H < E
(3) H < E
(4) The relationship depends on the capacity of
the vessel (4)
65. Two reactions are given below 65.
(i) CO(g) + l/2 O2(g)CO2(g) (i) CO(g) + l/2 O2(g)CO2(g)
(ii) Ag2O(s)  2Ag(s) + 1/2 O2(g) (ii) Ag2O(s)  2Ag(s) + 1/2 O2(g)
Which of the following statements is true?
(1) For (i) H < E and for (ii) H > E (1) H < E (i) H > E (ii)
(2) For (i) H > E and for (ii) H < E (2) H > E (i) H < E (ii)
(3) For both (i) and (ii) H > E (3) H > E (i) (ii)
(4) For both (i) and (ii) H < E (4) H < E (i) (ii)


66. A fixed mass'm' of a gas is subjected to 66. 'm' K L M N
transformation of states from K to L to M to N K
and back to K as shown in the figure.
The succeeding operations that enable this

transformation of states are :
(1) Heating, Cooling, Heating, Cooling (1) , , ,
(2) Cooling, Heating, Cooling, Heating (2) , , ,
(3) Heating, Cooling, Cooling, Heating (3) , , ,
(4) Cooling, Heating, Heating, Cooling (4) , , ,
67. On heating one end of a piece of a metal, the other 67.
end becomes hot because of:
(1) Energised electrons moving to the other end (1)
(2) Minor perturbation in the energy of atoms (2)
(3) Resistance of the metal (3)
(4) Mobility of atoms in the metal (4)
68. If H°f for H2O2 and H2O are – 188 kJ/mol and – 68. H2O2 H2O H°f –188 kJ/mol
286 kJ/mol, what will be the enthalpy change of – 286 kJ/mol
the reaction:
2H2O2(l)  2H2O (l) + O2 (g) 2H2O2(l)  2H2O (l) + O2 (g)
(1) –196kJ (2) –494kJ (1) –196kJ (2) –494kJ
(3) 146kJ (4) –98kJ (3) 146kJ (4) –98kJ
69. The standard enthalpy of formation of octane 69. (C8H18) = –250 kJ mol–1
(C 8 H 18 ) is –250 kJ mol –1 . The enthalpy of CO2(g) H2O (l) –394
formation of CO2(g) and H2O (l) are –394 kJ mol– kJ mol –1
–286 kJ mol –1
C8H18(g)
1
and –286 kJ mol–1 respectively. The enthalpy of
combustion of C8H18(g) is : (1) – 5200 kJmol–1 (2) – 5726 kJmol–1
(1) – 5200 kJmol–1 (2) – 5726 kJmol–1
(3) – 5476 kJmol–1 (4) – 5310 kJmol–1 (3) – 5476 kJmol–1 (4) – 5310 kJmol–1
70. The heat released when 0.6 mole HC1 solution is 70. 0.6 HCl 0.25 NaOH
added to 0.25 mole of NaOH is:
(1) 3.425 kcal (2) 8.22 kcal (1) 3.425 kcal (2) 8.22 kcal
(3) 11.645 kcal (4) 13.7 kcal (3) 11.645 kcal (4) 13.7 kcal
71. The heat of solution of one mole of Na2SO4.10H2O 71. 1 Na2SO4.10H2O –78.7 kJ
is –78.7 kJ, and that of dehydration, –81.6 kJ. The –81.6 kJ
heat of solution (kJ) of anhydrous sodium sulphate is (kJ)
(1) +2.9kJ (2) +160.3 kJ (1) +2.9kJ (2) +160.3 kJ
(3) –2.9kJ (4) –160.3 kJ (3) –2.9kJ (4) –160.3 kJ
72. According to Hess's law, the heat of reaction 72.
depends upon: (1)
(1) State of reactant and product (2)
(2) Nature of reactant and product
(3)
(3) Different intermediate reactions
(4) Inital final and enthaly change of reaction (4)


73. A reaction proceeds through two paths I and II to 73. XZ I II
convert X  Z
What is the correct relationship between Q, Q1 Q, Q1,Q2

and Q2 ?
(1) Q = Q1 × Q2
(1) Q = Q1 × Q2
(2) Q = Q1 + Q2
(2) Q = Q1 + Q2
(3) Q = Q2 – Q1
(3) Q = Q2 – Q1
(4) Q = Ql / Q2 (4) Q = Ql / Q2
74. The heat of dissociation of benzene in isolated 74. 5335 kJ/mol
gaseous atoms is 5335 kJ/mol. The.bond C – C, C = C = C – H 347.3,
enthalpies of C – C, C = C and C – H bonds are 615 416.2 kJ
347.3, 615 and 416.2 kJ respectively. Magnitude
of resonance energy of benzene is :
(1) 1.15 kJ
(1) 1.15 kJ
(2) 15.1 kJ
(2) 15.1 kJ
(3) 49.1 kJ (3) 49.1 kJ
(4) 1511 kJ (4) 1511 kJ

75. Using the data provided, calculate the multiple 75. C2H2 C = C
bond energy (kJ mol–1) of a C = C bond in C2H2. (kJ mol )
–1
That energy is : (take the bond energy of a C–H

( C–H 350 kJ mol–1)
bond as 350 kJ mol–1)
2C(s)  2C(g) ; H = 1410 kJ mol–1 ;
2C(s)  2C(g) ; H = 1410 kJ mol–1 ;
H2(g)  2H(g) ; H = 330 kJ mor–1 ;
H2(g)  2H(g) ; H = 330 kJ mor–1 ;
2C(s) + H2(g)  C2H2; H = 225 kJ mol–1 2C(s) + H2(g)  C2H2; H = 225 kJ mol–1
(1) 1165 (1) 1165
(2) 837 (2) 837
(3) 865 (3) 865
(4) 815 (4) 815
76. Standard entropies of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 76. X2, Y2 XY3 60, 40 50
and 50 JK–1 mol–1 respectively. For the reaction JK mol
–1 –1
1 3
X 2  Y2  XY3 ,   J
2 2 1 3
X 2  Y2  XY3 ,   J
to be at equilibrium, the temperature should be : 2 2
(1) 500 K (1) 500 K
(2) 750 K (2) 750 K
(3) 1000 K (3) 1000 K
(4) 1250 K (4) 1250 K


77. For an Ideal gas, consider only P-V work in going 77. X Z
from an initial state X to the final state Z. The P-V Z
final state Z can be reached by either of the two
paths shown in the figure. Which of the following (S
set choice is correct? (take S as change in entropy W )
and W as work done)
(1) Wx  y z  Wx  y (1) Wx  y z  Wx  y
(2) Sx  yz  Sx  y (2) Sx  yz  Sx  y
(3) Sx  z  Sx  y  Sy  z (3) Sx  z  Sx  y  Sy  z
(4) Wx z  Wx  y  Wy z (4) Wx z  Wx  y  Wy z
(1) 1,2 (2) 1,3 (1) 1,2 (2) 1,3
(3) 2, 3 (4) 1,2,3 (3) 2, 3 (4) 1,2,3
78. The true statement amongst the following is: 78.
(1) S is a function of temperature but S is not a (1) S S
function of temperature.
(2) Both S and S are functions of temperature.
(2) S S
(3) S is not a function of temperature but S is a
function of temperature. (3) S S
(4) Both S and S are not functions of temperature. (4) S S
79. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal expansion at 79.
constant pressure. During the process :
(1) Enthalpy remains constant but entropy increases (1)
(2) Enthalpy decreases but entropy increases (2)
(3) Enthalpy increases but entropy decreases (3)
(4) Both enthalpy and entropy remain constant (4)
80. If x1, x2 and x3 are enthalpies of H – H, O = O and 80. H – H, O = O , O – H x1, x2
O – H bonds respectively, and x4 is the enthalpy x3 x4
of vaporization of water, estimate the standard
enthalpy of combustion of hydrogen.
x2 x2
x2 x2 (1) x1   2x 3  x 4 (2) x1   2x 3  x 4
(1) x1   2x 3  x 4 (2) x1   2x 3  x 4 2 2
2 2
x2 x2 x2 x2
(3) x1   x3  x4 (4) 2x 3  x1   x4 (3) x1   x3  x4 (4) 2x 3  x1   x4
2 2 2 2
81. Enthalpy of a reaction at 27°C is 15 kJ mol–1 The 81. 27°C 15 kJ mol–1
reaction will be feasible if entropy is :
(1) 15 J mol–1K–1 (1) 15 J mol–1K–1
(2) – 50 J mol–1 K–1 (2) – 50 J mol–1 K–1
(3) Greater than 50 J mol–1 K–1 (3) 50 J mol–1 K–1
(4) Less than 50 J mol–1 K–1 (4) 50 J mol–1 K–1


82. At 25°C the enthalpy change, for the ionization 82. 25°C
of trichloro acetic acid is +6.3 kJ mol–1 and the +6.3 kJ mol–1 +
entropy change, is + 0.0084 kJ mol–1 K–1. Then 0.0084 kJ mol K–1–1
pKa of tricholoro acetic acid is: pKa

(1) 1.74 (1) 1.74
(2) 2.52 (2) 2.52
(3) 0.66 (3) 0.66
(4) 4.72 (4) 4.72
83. Consider the following reaction at 1000 °C 83. 1000 °C
and choose the correct statement at 1000°C. 1000°C
1 1 

(I) Zn(s)  O2 (g)   ZnO(g); (I) Zn(s)  O2 (g)   ZnO(g);
2 2
G° = –360 kJ mol–1 G° = –360 kJ mol–1
1 1 

(II) C(s)  O 2 (g)   CO(g); (II) C(s)  O 2 (g)   CO(g);
2 2
G° = –460 kJ mol–1 G° = –460 kJ mol–1
(1) ZnO is more stable than CO (1) ZnO, CO
(2) ZnO can be reduced to Zn by C (2) C ZnO Zn
(3) ZnO and CO are formed at equal rate (3) ZnO CO
(4) ZnO cannot be reduced to Zn by C (4) ZnO C Zn
84. 1 mole of ice is converted to liquid at 273 K; H2O 84. 273 K 1

(s) and H2O (l) have entropies 38.20 and 60.03 J H2O (s) H2O (l) 38.20 60.03
mol–1deg. Enthalpy changes in the conversion will J mol deg
–1
be:
(1) 59.59 J/mol (1) 59.59 J/mol
(2) 5959.59 J/mol (2) 5959.59 J/mol
(3) 595.959 J/mol (3) 595.959 J/mol
(4) 5.959 J/mol (4) 5.959 J/mol
85. Thermodynamics mainly deals with : 85.
(1) Interrelation of various forms of energy and (1)

their transformation from one form to another.
(2) Energy changes in the processes which depend (2)
only on initial and final states of the
microscopic system containing a few molecules (3)
(3) How and at what rate these energy (4)
transformation are carried out.
(4) The system in equilibrium state or moving from (1) 1,2
one equilibrium state to another equilibrium (2) 2,3
state.
(3) 3,4
(1) 1,2 (2) 2,3 (3) 3,4 (4) l,4
(4) l,4


86. Match the following : 86.
(A) (i)
(A) Adiabatic (i) Heat
process
(B) Isolated (ii) No exchange of (B) (ii)
system energy and matter
(C) Isothermal (iii) Constant temperature (C) (iii)
change
(D) Path (iv) No transfer of heat (D) (iv)
function
(1) A  iv; B ii; C  iii; D  i (1) A  iv; B ii; C  iii; D  i
(2) A ii; B iii; C  iv; D  i (2) A ii; B iii; C  iv; D  i
(3) A iii; B i; C ii; D  iv (3) A iii; B i; C ii; D  iv
(4) A  i; B  iv; C iii; D ii (4) A  i; B  iv; C iii; D ii
87. The pressure-volume work of an ideal gas can be 87.
vf vf
calculated by using the expression W    Pex dV . W    Pex dV

vi vi
The work can also be calculated from the pV-plot

by using the area under the curve within the pV-
specified limits. When an ideal gas is compressed (1) (2) Vi
(1) reversibly or (2) irreversibly from volume Vi
Vf
to Vf. Choose the correct option.
(1) W ( )=W( )
(1) W (reversible) = W (irreversible)
(2) W (reversible) < W (irreversible) (2) W ( )<W( )
(3) W (reversible) > S (irreversible) (3) W ( )>S( )
(4) W (reversible) = (irreversible) + Pex.dV (4) W ( )=( ) + Pex.dV
88. Expansion of a gas in vacuum is called free 88.
expansion. Calculate the work done and the
change in internal energy when 1 litre of ideal
gas expands isothermally into vacuum until its
total volume is 5 litre? (1) W = 0, U = 4 atm × lit
(1) W = 0, U = 4 atm × lit
(2) U = 0, W = 4 atm × lit
(2) U = 0, W = 4 atm × lit
(3) W= 4 atm-lit, U = 4 atm × lit (3) W= 4 atm-lit, U = 4 atm × lit
(4) W = 0 , U= 0 (4) W = 0 , U= 0
89. Calculate the enthalpy change on freezing 1.0 mol 89. 10.0°C 1.0 –10.0°C
of water at 10.0°C to ice at – 10.0°c,
fusH = 6.03 kJ mol–1 at 0°C fusH = 6.03 kJ mol–1 at 0°C
Cp [H2O(/)] = 75.03 J mol–1 K–1 Cp [H2O(/)] = 75.03 J mol–1 K–1
Cp [H2O(s)] = 36.8 mol–1 K–1 Cp [H2O(s)] = 36.8 mol–1 K–1
(1) –3.6 kJ/mol (2) –7.15 kJ/mol (1) –3.6 kJ/mol (2) –7.15 kJ/mol
(3) –1.8 kJ/mol (4) –10.3 kJ/mol (3) –1.8 kJ/mol (4) –10.3 kJ/mol
90. If the combustion of 1g of graphite produces 20.7 90. 1g 20.7 kJ
kJ of heat, what will be molar enthalpy change?
(1) –20.7kJ (1) –20.7kJ
(2) –2.48 × 102kJ (2) –2.48 × 102kJ
(3) –7.48 × 102 kJ (3) –7.48 × 102 kJ
(4) –10.48 × 102 kJ (4) –10.48 × 102 kJ


91. Given : N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) ; rH° = – 91. N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) ; rH° = – 92.4
92.4 kJ mol–1 . What is the standard enthalpy of kJ mol –1
formation of NH3(g)? NH3(g)

(1) –92.4 kJ (2) +92.4 kJ (1) –92.4 kJ (2) +92.4 kJ
(3) +46.2 kJ (4) –46.2 kJ (3) +46.2 kJ (4) –46.2 kJ
92. Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of 92. CH3OH(/)
CH3OH(/) from the following data :
3 3
(i) CH3OH(l) + O (g)  CO2(g) + 2H2O(/); (i) CH3OH(l) + O (g)  CO2(g) + 2H2O(/);
2 2 2 2
rH° = –726 kJ mol–1 rH° = –726 kJ mol–1
(ii) C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g); CH° = – 393 kJ (ii) C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g); CH° = – 393 kJ
mor1 mor1
1 1
(iii) H2(g) + O (g)  H2O(/); fH° = –286kJ (iii) H2(g) + O (g)  H2O(/); fH° = –286kJ
2 2 2 2
mol –1 mol –1
(1) –339 kJ (2) –439 kJ (1) –339 kJ (2) –439 kJ
(3) –139kJ (4) –239kJ (3) –139kJ (4) –239kJ
93. Assertion : Combustion of all organic compounds 93. :
is an exothermic reaction.
Reason : The enthalpies of all elements in their :
standard stated are zero. (1)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(2)
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false. (3)
(d) A is false but R is true. (4)
94. One mole of acetone requires less heat to vapourise 94. 1
than 1 mole of water. Which of the two liquids
has higher enthalpy of vapourisation ?
(1) Water (2) Acetone (1) (2)
(3) Both equal (4) Cannot product (3) (4)
95. For the process CCl4(g)  C(g) + 4 Cl(g) calculate 95. CCl4(g)  C(g) + 4 Cl(g), CCl4(g) C–Cl
bond enthalpy of C–Cl in CCl4(g)
Given : vapH° = (CC14) = 30.5 kJ mol–1 : vapH° = (CC14) = 30.5 kJ mol–1
fH° = (CC14) = –135.5 kJ mol–1 fH° = (CC14) = –135.5 kJ mol–1
H°(C)= 715.0 kJ mol–1 H°(C)= 715.0 kJ mol–1
where H° is enthalpy of atomisation H°
H° (Cl2) = 242 kJ mol–1 H° (Cl2) = 242 kJ mol–1
(1) 1304 kJ (2) 652kJ (1) 1304 kJ (2) 652kJ
(3) 326kJ (4) 158 kJ (3) 326kJ (4) 158 kJ
96. Consider the reactions given below. On the basis 96.
of these reactions find out which of the algebraic
relations given in options (a) to (d) is correct ? (A) C(g) + 4H(g)  CH4(g); rH =x kJ mol–1
(A) C(g) + 4H(g)  CH4(g); rH =x kJ mol–1
(B) C(graphite's) + 2H2(g) CH4(g);
(B) C(graphite's) + 2H2(g) CH4(g);
rH =y kJ mol–1
rH =y kJ mol–1
(1) x = y (2) x = 2y (3) x > y (4) x < y (1) x = y (2) x = 2y (3) x > y (4) x < y


97. Assertion : A liquid crystallises into a solid and 97. :
is accompanied by decrease in entropy.
Reason : In crystals, molecules organize in an :
ordered manner. (1)
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(2)
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false. (3)
(4) A is false but R is true. (4)
98. Match the following : 98.
(A) Entropy of vaporisation (i) decreases (A) (i)

(B) K for spontaneous (ii) is always positive (B) K (ii)
process (C) (iii)
(C) Crystalline solid sate (iii) lowest entropy
U (D)
(D) in adiabatic
expansion of ideal gas U
(1) A  ii; B  ii; C  iii; D  i (1) A  ii; B  ii; C  iii; D  i

(2) A  i; B  ii; C  iii; D  i (2) A  i; B  ii; C  iii; D  i
(3) A  iii; B  i; C  ii; D  iii (3) A  iii; B  i; C  ii; D  iii
(4) None of the above (4)
99. A reaction, A + B  C + D + q is found to have a 99. A+BC+D+q
positive entropy change. The reaction will be :
(1) Possible at high temperature (1)
(2) Possible only at low temperature (2)
(3) Not possible at any temperature (3)
(4) Possible at any temperature (4)
100. Match the following processes with entropy 100.
change:
Reaction Entropy of
Reaction Entropy of
change
change
(A) (i) S = O
(A) A liquid vapourises (i) S = O
(B) Reaction is non- (ii) S = positive (B) (ii) S =
spontaneous at all
temperatures and
H is positive H
(C) Reversible (iii) S = negative (C) (iii) S =
expansion of an
ideal gas
(1) A  ii; B  iii; C  i (1) A  ii; B  iii; C  i
(2) A  iii; B i; C  ii (2) A  iii; B i; C  ii
(3) A  i; B  ii; C iii (3) A  i; B  ii; C iii
(4) A  ii; B  i; C iii (4) A  ii; B  i; C iii

ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 3 1 2 4 1 2 3 2 1 2 2 4 1 2 1 3 2 1 1 2 4 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 3 2
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 3 3 3 4 2 1 1 1 2 1 3 2 2 1 4 4 1 1 2 3 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 2
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 4 3 1 3 1 1 3 1 1 3 2 3 4 2 2 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 4 1 2 4 2 2
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 4 2 1 3 3 1 1 4 1

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(PH 2 ) 4 [Fe3O 4 ] [Fe3O 4 ] (PH 2 ) 4 [Fe3O 4 ] [Fe3O 4 ]

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(4) K = K' (4) K = K'

(3) G° = RT ln Kc (3) G° = RT ln Kc

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Column-I (Reactions) Column-II (Effect Column-I ( ) Column-II (

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(1) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r) (1) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r)

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units of Kp will be: 2NH3 (g)  N 2 (g)  3H 2 (g)

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Which of the following options are correct for this

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5. The following data were obtained during the first 5. SO2Cl2

4 atm 6 atm 4 atm 6 atm

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4NH 3 (g)  5O2 (g) 

(i) Rate of reaction with respect to NH3 will be

1  NH3  1  NO 1  NH3  1  NO

(iv) For the given reaction (iv)

1  NH3  1 [O2 ] 1  NH 3  1 [O 2 ]

4 NO 6[H 2 O] 4 NO 6[H 2 O]

Which of the following is the correct code for the

Rate = k[P]x[Q]y where x = p and y = q = k[P]x[Q]y where x = p and y = q

(iii) Rate law is the expression in which reaction (iii)

(4) (i) only (4) (i) only

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(i) In fig. a, A represents average rate and B (i) a, A B

complex reactions whereas molecularity is (v)

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(iii) Catalyst can alter a reaction both ways means (iii)

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Column-I Column-II -I -II

(1) A-(q),B-(p),C-(s),D-(r) (1) A-(q),B-(p),C-(s),D-(r)

sec–1 (A) (p) L mole–1 sec –1

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