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ESE 2021 : PRELIMS EXAM

CLASSROOM TEST SERIES
BOOKLET SERIES
CIVIL
ENGINEERING
Test No. 8
Section A : CPM PERT + Hydrology and Water Resource Engineering (All Topics)
Section B : Design of Steel Structures - 1 (Part Syllabus) + Surveying and Geology-1 (Part Syllabus)
Topics : Steel : Connections, Tension members, Compression members. Topics: Classification of survey various
methodologies, instruments and analysis of measurement of distances, elevation and direction.
Section C : Solid Mechanics-2 (Part Syllabus) : Topics : Torsion, Principle Stress, theories of
failure and shear stress.

Duration: 1½ hrs. Maximum Marks: 150

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2 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Section A : CPM PERT + Hydrology and Water
Resource Engineering
Q.1 Consider the following statements with
respect to Line of Balance (LOB) diagram:
1. It caters for relaxation time between two
successive tasks.
2. It is helpful in industries which are
probabilistic in nature such as medicinal,
defence etc.
3. LOB enables optimum employment and
efficient utilization of significant
resources.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Q.2 A, B, C and D are the activities of a
network. Their normal and crash durations
(in days) are mentioned on the network
diagram and the associated cost is
mentioned in the table below. The indirect
cost for the entire project is Rs. 1000 per
day. Determine the total cost of the project
at the instant of obtaining two critical paths.
2 (a) Decide – Assign – Breakdown –
B 4(3)
C 10(8)
1 3
A 12(6) D 6(4)
Q.3 Consider the following statements
regarding milestone chart:
1. It focuses on planned significant events
to occurs at specific times in the
program.
2. They are not used in scheduling
methodologies.
3. Activities interrelationships cannot be
depicted.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
Q.4 An owner assigned a small scale work to a
contractor who can complete the work in
28 days under the most favourable
conditions and this time can exceed upto
45 days under worst situations. The most
frequent time to complete such work by the
contractor is 37 days. Determine the
maximum time provided by the owner to
complete the work?
(a) 36.83 days (b) 40.66 days
(c) 45.33 days (d) 42.66 days
Q.5 The correct sequence of the different stages
in development of a bar chart is ________
Represent
(b) Breakdown – Decide – Assign –
Represent
(c) Decide – Breakdown – Assign –
Represent
4
(d) Represent – Decide – Assign –
Breakdown

Q.6 In a small project, three activities A, B and

Activity Cost Normal cost (Rs.) Crash cost (Rs.) C lie on the critical path. Their optimistic,
A 4000 5000 most likely and pessimistic time durations
B 2000 5000 (in weeks) are shown below. What is the
C 4000 5000 probability that the project can be
D completed in 17.21 weeks? For the
5000 7000
probability of 10%, 20% and 30%, the Z
(a) 35000 (b) 32000 values may be taken as 1.26, 0.84 and 0.53
(c) 34000 (d) 31000 respectively.

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 Civil Engineering | Test 8 3

A B C Q.10 In the network shown below, the number

5-7-9 4-6-8 3-6-15 on the arrow gives the duration of the
activity in days. The latest start time and
(a) 90% (b) 70%
interfering float for activity G are ________
(c) 40% (d) 20%
and ______ respectively.
Q.7 Consider the following statements
regarding the Gantt Chart: 2
1. It gives the comparison of actual E(5)
A(3)
progress with the scheduled progress.
2. It gives the idea of physical progress but C(14) H(1) I(1)
1 4 5 6
not financial progress.
3. It may be used for assessing the resource B(4) D(3) G(4) F(6)
requirement.
4. It provides visual representation of all
3
the activities.
Which of the above statements are the
advantages of Gantt Chart?
(a) 11, 0 (b) 0, 10
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 5, 2 (d) 2, 5
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 4 only
Q.11 Which of the following statements are true
Q.8 Determine the shortest duration required
about elements of a network?
to complete the construction project whose
1. In serial activities, activities lying before
network diagram is shown below:
in the network are dependent upon
(Activity duration in days)
activities lying ahead in the network.
6 I 9
4 2. The tail event which marks start of a
B H project is called as final event.
7 5 8
3
E G K
L 8 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2 1 J
1
A
2 C 4 7
5 9 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
9 6
F 10
D 5 8
Q.12 Match List-I (Equipment) with List-II (Type
N 2
3
M
11
O
12
of equipment) and select the correct answer
11 10
using the codes given below the lists:
(a) 41 days (b) 34 days List-I
(c) 44 days (d) 39 days A. Power shovel
B. Scraper
Q.9 The minimum delay available for
C. Bottom dump truck
performing an activity without delaying the
D. Tractor
project is known as
List-II
(a) Total float
(b) Free float 1. Hauling equipment
(c) Interfering float 2. Excavating and hauling equipment
(d) Independent float 3. Excavating equipment

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4 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Codes: Q.17 Find out the total working time by the mixer
A B C D to complete the job of roof slab measuring
(a) 2 3 1 1 20 m × 15 m × 0.2 m using the following
(b) 3 3 1 2 data:
(c) 2 3 3 1 Cycle time per batch of 150 liters = 3 minutes
(d) 3 2 1 2 Working time per hour = 45 minutes
Number of batches per hour = 15
Q.13 The initial cost of an equipment is Rs. 1100,
(a) 48 hrs (b) 41 hrs
scrap value is Rs. 400 and life of equipment
(c) 35 hrs (d) 55 hrs
is 5 years. The rate of interest for sinking
fund is 8%. Calculate the depreciation for Q.18 A graph is plotted between book value and
the 4th year using sinking fund method. the life of an equipment from different
[Take 1.083 = 1.2597, 1.082 = 1.1664] methods of depreciation. The method of
(a) Rs. 162.33 (b) Rs. 119.32 depreciation represented by the line A, B
(c) Rs. 150.31 (d) Rs. 127.99 and C is _____, _________ and ________
respectively.
Q.14 The money upto 10% of the total cost of
work is given to a contractor for all the
necessities required to begin the work. This
money is known as _______ Ci
Book value (Rs.)

(a) Kick start advance

(b) Earnest money
(c) Mobilisation advance C
B
(d) Rateable value A
Q.15 A tractor weighing 15000 kg has equal Cs
weight distribution between the front and
n
rear wheels. It is working on a level haul Life of equipment (years)
road whose rolling resistance is 45 kg per
tonne. The drawbar pull indicated by the (a) straight line, sinking fund, declining
manufacturer is 1200 kg. The actual drawbar balance
pull available is __________ kg. (b) declining balance, straight line, sinking
(a) 1350 (b) 1050 fund
(c) 1875 (d) 525 (c) sinking fund, straight line, declining
Q.16 Consider the following statements balance
regarding the “Factories Act”: (d) declining balance, sinking fund, straight
1. Overtime wages are usually 1.5 times the line
ordinary rate. Q.19 Calculate the distance upto which the
2. Maximum working hours is 48 hours per material can be hauled without any extra
week along with 2 holidays a week. cost using the following parameters:
Which of the above statements are incorrect? Cost of borrow per m3 = Rs. 4
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 only Cost of haulage beyond free haul per m3
(c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 = Rs. 0.8/m3m

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 Civil Engineering | Test 8 5

Limit of economic haul = 400 m (a) 143 ha (b) 156 km2

Assume 1 m3 of excavated material hauled (c) 0.143 km2 (d) 0.0156 km2
through 30 m distance.
Q.23 A triangular DRH due to a storm has a peak
(a) 250 m (b) 150 m
discharge of 20 m3 /s. The corresponding
(c) 300 m (d) 200 m
UH has a peak discharge of 10 m3/s. The
Q.20 The relationship between maximum runoff volume due to this given storm is
intensity (i), return period (T) and duration (Catchment area is 100 ha.)
of rainfall (D) is given by (a) 2000 m3 (b) 200000 m3
 D  a
n (c) 2 ha-m (d) 20 ha-m
Tx
(a) i  (b) i 
k  D  a
n
Tk x Q.24 The maximum flood discharge from a
kx kT x catchment area of 16 km2 from a region in
(c) i  (d) i  n Delhi is _________. (Given that CD for Delhi
T D  a 
n
D  a
is 8)
Here, k, x, a and n are coefficients for the
(a) 72 m3/s (b) 79 m3/s
area represented by the station.
(c) 64 m3/s (d) 81 m3/s
Q.21 Well function W(u) is given by which of the
Q.25 A bridge has an expected life of 30 years
following equation? (Consider unsteady
and is designed for a flood magnitude of
flow in confined aquifer)
return period 50 years. The risk of this
Q  e u hydrologic design is _______.
(a) W  u   0 du
4T u 50 50
 29   29 
u2 u3 (a) 1    (b)  
(b) W  u   0.5772  u    ...  30   30 
2.2! 3.3!
50 50
e u
 1   30  1
 (c)   (d)  
(c) W  u   u dy  30   29 
u2
 e u Q.26 Consider Gumbel’s extreme value
(d) W  u   u du
distribution. Choose the correct statements:
u2
1. Gumbel defined a flood as the largest
Q.22 A 2 hr unit hydrograph can be
of 24 hourly flows.
approximated as a trapezoid as shown in
2. Probability of occurrence of an event
figure below. The unit hydrograph refers
equal to or larger than a value
to a catchment area of
x0 according to Gumbel is
y
P  xx0   1  e e , where y
Discharge (m /s)

6 units dimensionless variable

3

24
3. For a sample size of N. yn  0.577
and Sn = 1.2825.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of these
0
30 units Time hr Q.27 A 4 hr hydrology UH (R) of a catchment of
area 240 km2 is in form of a triangle with
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6 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

peak discharge 40 m3/s. Another 4 hr UH Q.31 In a river carrying a discharge of 173 m3/s,
(Q) is also triangular in shape and has the the stage at station A was 3.6 m and the
same time base as R but has a peak flow of water surface slope was 1 in 600. If during
80 m3/s What is catchment area of Q? a flood, the stage was 3.6 m and the water
(a) 240 km2 (b) 480 km2 surface slope was 1 in 2000, what was the
(c) 960 km2 (d) 48 km2 flood discharge (approximately)?
(a) 264 m3/s (b) 348 m3/s
Q.28 The following rainfall data refer to stations 3
(c) 300 m /s (d) 96 m3/s
A, B and C. The value of P at station C will
be: Q.32 Consider the following statements related
to the effect of horizontal earthquake
Normal annual rainfall A B C
(in mm) acceleration:
180 360 240
1. For reservoir full condition, the worst
Annual rainfall (in mm) 150 270 P case occurs when the earthquake
for the year 2020
acceleration acts towards the upstream
(a) 194 mm (b) 250 mm direction and the corresponding inertia
(c) 196 mm (d) 190 mm force acts in the downstream direction.
2. For reservoir empty condition, the worst
Q.29 An inflow hydrograph is routed through a case occurs when the acceleration due
reservoir to produce an outflow to earthquake acts towards the
hydrograph. The peak flow of the inflow downstream direction and the
hydrograph is P1 and the time of occurrence corresponding inertia force acts in the
of the peak is t1. The peak flow of outflow upstream direction.
hydrograph is P2 and the time of occurrence Which of the above statements are correct?
of the peak is t2. Which one of the following (a) 1 only
statements is correct? (b) 2 only
(a) P1 > P2 and t1 > t2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) P1 > P2 and t1 < t2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) P1 < P2 and t1 > t2
Q.33 Consider the following data for a soil:
(d) P1 < P2 and t1 < t2
Root zone depth = 2.5 m
Q.30 Choose the correct statements regarding the Existing water content = 12%
factors affecting trap efficiency of a Dry density of soil = 18 kN/m3
reservoir: Water applied to the soil = 500 m3
1. Larger is the silt size, lower is the trap Water lost due to evapotranspiration and
efficiency. deep percolation = 10%
2. If the shape is diverging, velocity is less Area of plot = 1000 m2
near the dam and hence trap efficiency Density of water = 10 kN/m3
is more. What is the field capacity of this soil?
3. With increase in age of reservoir, (a) 24.5% (b) 10%
sediment transportation decreases. (c) 18.5% (d) 22%
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Q.34 Consider the following statements
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 only
regarding the effects of water logging:

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 Civil Engineering | Test 8 7

1. Inhibiting activity of soil bacteria. side of the barrage to reduce uplift

2. Spread of disease like Dengue and pressure. The thickness of floor required
Malaria. at point C shown in the figure to resist the
3. Rise in soil temperature. residual uplift pressure according to Bligh’s
4. Rise in salt content of soil. creep theory will be
5. Delay in cultivation operation. (Assume specific gravity of concrete is 2.25)
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 ad 4 (d) 1, 4 and 5 6m
Weir
Q.35 Consider the following statements related
to Kennedy’s theory A B
1. The sites related in the analysis of 3m C
Kennedy’s theory did not require any 14 m
6m
silt clearance for longer period of time 8m
and were thus supposed to be flowing
with non-silting and non-scouring
velocity. 10 m 20 m
2. The amount of silt held in suspension is
proportional to the upward force of (a) 1.8 m (b) 2.4 m
vertical eddies, and varies as the bed (c) 2.88 m (d) 1.92 m
width (B) and some power of the Q.38 The groyne which is constructed in such a
velocity of flow in the channel. way that it points towards upstream at an
Which of the following statements is/are angle of 10° to 30° to the line normal to the
correct? bank is _______.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) repelling groyne
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) deflecting groyne
Q.36 The protection works required, when jump (c) attracting groyne
height curve (JHC) lies above tail water (d) inclined groyne
curve (TWC) at all discharges is: Q.39 The left branch canal carrying a discharge
(a) A horizontal option of a length of 20 m3/s has culturable command area of
5(d2 – d1) will be sufficient. 10,000 hectares. The intensity of irrigation
(b) Providing cistern depressed below the is 80%, and the base period is 120 days. The
bed level with sloping glacis upstream. right branch canal carrying discharge of
(c) Providing a sloping apron above the bed 8 m3/s has culturable command area of 3200
level. hectares, intensity of irrigation is 50%, and
(d) Providing a low level bucket sharply the base period is 120 days. As far as
upturned at the end. efficiencies of the two canal system are
Q.37 A barrage is constructed on a pervious concerned then
foundation and sheet piles are provided on (a) Both canal systems are equally efficient
upstream, intermediate and downstream (b) Right canal is more efficient

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8 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series
(c) Can’t be said due to insufficient data
(d) Right canal is less efficient
Q.40 A saddle syphon has the following data:
Full reservoir level = 435.00 m
Level of centre line of syphon outlet = 429.60 m
High flood level = 435.77 m
High flood discharge = 550 cumec
If the dimension of the throat of the syphon
are: width = 5 m and height = 1 m, how
many syphon units are required to pass the
flood safely? [Take Cd = 0.8]
(a) 13 (b) 12
(c) 14 (d) 11
Q.41 A rectangular masonry dam is 3 m at the
base. The maximum permissible height
required when the factor of safety against
sliding is 1.50, coefficient of friction = 0.50,
density of concrete is 2.4 times the density
of water, w = 10 kN/m 3 , C = 1 is: (also
consider uplift force)
(a) 5.7 m (b) 3.8 m
(c) 4.8 m (d) 7.2 m
Q.42 An irrigation water has the following
characteristics:
Concentration of Na+ = 24 milli-equivalents
per litre
Concentration of Ca +2 = 3.6 milli-
equivalents per litre
Concentration of Mg +2 = 1.52 milli-
equivalents per litre
What is the value of Sodium Absorptions
Ratio (SAR)?
(a) 3.1 (b) 15
(c) 16 (d) 12.84
Q.43 The minimum size of gravel that will not
move in the bed of a wide rectangular
channel of depth 1 m and longitudinal slope
0.0036 is __________.
(a) 6 mm (b) 39.6 mm
(c) 60 mm (d) 45.8 mm
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Q.44 There are two different areas A and B to
be drained by means of closed tile drainage
system. Given:
kA 2 SA 1 
b2  a2 A 5
 ,  , 2 
kB 1 SB 1.5 b  a 2  B 6
If both the drains carry 1% of average
annual rainfall in 24 hours then what will
be the ratio of their average annual rainfall?
(a) 2.5 (b) 1
(c) 3.75 (d) 3.5
Q.45 A water course commands an irrigated area
of 600 hectares. The intensity of irrigation
of rice in this area is 70%. The
transplantation of rice crop takes 15 days,
and total depth of water required by the
crop is 30 cm including the useful rain falling
on the field. Find the duty of irrigation
water for the crop on the field during
transplantation at the head of the field.
(a) 432 m3/cumecs
(b) 1432 m3/cumecs
(c) 345.6 ha/cumecs
(d) 432 ha/cumecs
Direction (Q.46 to Q.50): The following items
consist of two statements, one labelled as
Statement (I) and the oth er labelled as
Statement (II). You have to examine these two
statements carefully and select your answers
to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
are true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II)
are true but Statement (II) is not a
correct explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II)
is true.
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Q.46 Statement (I): Interfering float indicates the
portion of float of an activity which cannot
be consumed without affecting adversely
the float of the subsequent activities.
Statement (II): Interfering float can be
written as the difference of latest finish time
of the activity under consideration and
earliest starting time of the following
activity.
Q.47 Statement (I): Generally for clayey soils,
AET/PET = 1 for nearly 50% drop in the
available moisture.
Statement (II): When soil moisture reaches
permanent wilting point, the AET reduces
to zero.
Q.48 Statement (I): For best possible results in
Muskingum method of routing, the time
interval t should be chosen such that
2kx < t < k.
Statement (II): If t < 2kx, the coefficient
C1 will he negative where, C0, C1 and C2 are
coefficients for Muskingum method of
routing.
Q.49 Statement (I): A silt extractor or silt ejector
is a device by which the silt after it has
entered the canal is extracted.
Statement (II): It is a preventive measure
and is constructed on the canal at some
distance away from the head regulator.
Q.50 Statement (I): One of the advantage of drip
irrigation is nutrients preservation.
Statement (II): Deep percolation losses can
be reduced to a considerable extent in drip
irrigation method.
Section B : Design of Steel Structures - 1 +
Surveying and Geology -1
Q.51 The slenderness ratio of a tie member in
truss subjected to wind loads and possible
reversal of stresses is limited to
(a) 145 (b) 350
(c) 250 (d) 300
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Civil Engineering | Test 8 9
Q.52 Consider inelastic buckling in a compression
member. Then which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. In the derivation of buckling load for
columns, the flexural rigidity (EI) is
assumed to be constant.
2. In the inelastic zone, the stiffness of
compression member is proportional to
tangent modulus.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.53 An angle section ISA 75 × 50 × 10 mm is
used as a tie and connected to a gusset plate
with longer leg using 18 mm diameter bolts.
Using an allowable tensile stress of
150 N/mm2, the safe tensile strength of the
angle is (based on working stress method)
(a) 130 kN (b) 127 kN
(c) 142.5 kN (d) 122 kN
Q.54 Which of the following statements are
correct for a lug angle used in a tension
member connection?
1. Lug angles decrease the length of the
end connections of channel section.
2. Lug angles connecting a channel shaped
member should be placed symmetrically
with respect to the section of the
member.
3. Lug angles reduce the size of gusset
plate.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.55 Consider Perry Robertson approach based
on which IS 800 : 2007 recommends design
stress in compression. The grade of steel
used for a compression member is Fe410. If
 is 1.3 and non-dimensional effective
slenderness ratio is 0.5 then design
compressive stress is
(a) 108 MPa (b) 90.9 MPa
(c) 70.14 MPa (d) 100 MPa
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10 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series

Q.56 The distance between two station was 4. The North line of map is marked on the
1000 m when measured with a 20 m chain. right hand top corner with help of
The same distance when measured with a alidade.
30 m chain was found to be 990 m. If 20 m (a) All are correct
chain was found 0.05 m too long then the (b) 1, 2 and 3
error in 30 m chain was _________ mm. (c) 2, 3 and 4
(a) 227.27 (b) 621.30 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 378.80 (d) 172.58
Q.61 On an old map, a line was drawn to a
Q.57 The fore bearing of lines AB, BC, CD and magnetic bearing of 320°, when declination
DE are 45°, 120°, 200° and 280° respectively. was 3°W. The present magnetic bearing of
What is the sum of internal angles B, C line, if declination is 2°E is ______.
and D ________. (a) N48°W (b) N42°W
(a) 205° (b) 265° (c) N35°W (d) N45°W
(c) 315° (d) 305°
Q.62 A rectangle of sides 100 m and 150 m has
Q.58 Top 10 m of a 70 m high tower is visible errors of ±0.02 m and ±0.03 m respectively.
from the horizon of earth. The distance What will be the magnitude of most
between the tower and horizon point is probable error in area of rectangle?
________ km.
97
(Take radius of earth = 6400 km) (a) 2 3 m 2 (b) m2
2
(a) 42.33 (b) 29.93
(c) 63.13 (d) 12.22 (c) 2 97 m 2 (d) 3 2 m 2
Q.59 A road is planned on a 4% gradient. Q.63 Consider the following statements
Contour map for this area is made with a regarding levelling operation and choose
scale of 1 cm = 250 m with contour interval the incorrect one
of 50 m. Determine radius of arc in cm to (a) The internal focussing telescope is
get point of alignment on next contour. focused by moving the plane convex
(a) 12 (b) 5 lens.
(c) 15 (d) 10 (b) The error due to curvature is always
Q.60 Consider the following statements positive.
regarding plane table survey and choose (c) The operation of levelling from any BM
correct statements: to starting point of any project is known
1. The accuracy with which the instrument as fly levelling.
station can be established is known as (d) The real image of object is formed in the
strength of fix. plane of cross hairs.
2. The two point problem is one of method Q.64 Consider the following statements
of resection, which is used to correct regarding a theodolite and choose the
orientation of table. correct ones:
3. The strength of fix is bad, if plane table 1. The index bar is provided on the
station is taken on the circumference of standard in front of vertical circle of
the great circle. theodolite.

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2. Vertical circle of theodolite measures 0°
to 90°.
3. Swinging of theodolite is turning of
telescope in vertical plane.
4. One swinging and one transisting are
needed to change the face of theodolite
from left to right or right to left.
(a) All are correct
(b) only 1, 2 and 3
(c) only 1, 2 and 4
(d) only 2, 3 and 4
Direction (Q.65 to Q.67): The following items
consist of two statements, one labelled as
Statement (I) and the oth er labelled as
Statement (II). You have to examine these two
statements carefully and select your answers
to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
true and Statement (II) is the correct
explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
true but Statement (II) is not a correct
explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II)
is true.
Q.65 Statement (I): Batten plates are designed
to resist moments and longitudinal forces
arising due to transverse shear force.
Statement (II): Battening of columns shall
be done where the columns are subjected
to eccentric loading in the plane of battens.
Q.66 Statement (I): For a sufficiently lower value
of depth to thickness of web, the web will
yield under shear before buckling.
Statement (II): For a sufficiently lower
value of depth to thickness of web, the
elastic critical shear stress increases above
the value of yield shear stress.
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Civil Engineering | Test 8 11
Q.67 Statement (I): Shear strain induced due to
bending influences the bending stresses in
flanges causing warping of flanges.
Statement (II): For flanges of built-up
sections, shear lag effect may be
considerable and of concern.
Section C : Solid Mechanics - 2
Q.68 A hollow cylindrical steel shaft is 1.5 m long
and has inner and outer diameters
respectively equal to 40 mm and 60 mm.
What is the approximate largest torque that
can be applied to the shaft if the shearing
stress is not to exceed 120 MPa?
(a) 3 kNm (b) 4 kNm
(c) 5 kNm (d) 6 kNm
Q.69 A beam of triangular section with 100 mm
base width and 250 mm deep is subjected
to a maximum shear force of 50 kN. What
is the maximum shear stress induced in the
beam?
(a) 4 MPa (b) 6 MPa
(c) 5.33 MPa (d) 9 MPa
Q.70 The deflection curve for a simple beam as
shown below is given by the following
equation:
q0 L4 x
y 4
sin  
 EI  2 
q(x)
Select the correct option about the load
pattern:
(a) The load has the shape of a sine curve,
acts downward and has maximum
intensity q0.
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12 ESE 2021 Prelims Exam • Classroom Test Series
(b) The load has shape of a sine curve, acts
downward and has maximum intensity
1.5q0 .
(c) The load has the shape of a cosine curve,
acts upward as well as downward and
has maximum intensity q0.
(d) The load has the shape of a cosine curve,
acts downward and has a maximum
intensity q0.
Q.71 The limit of proportionality in the material
of a structural steel member when subjected
to simple tension, is 280 N/mm 2 . The
principal stresses in the material are
1 = 122 MPa and 2 = –60 MPa. Poisson’s
ratio = 0.3. According to maximum strain
theory, the factor of safety is________.
(a) 2.5 (b) 1.5
(c) 2 (d) 3
Q.72 The temperature rise necessary to induce
buckling in a 1 m long rod of slenderness
ratio 100 is approximately_______°C.
Assume the rod to be fixed at both ends
and the coefficient of thermal expansion of
rod material is 20 × 10–6/°C.
(a) 200°C (b) 100°C
(c) 50°C (d) 75°C
Q.73 A circular shaft of radius ‘R’ is subjected to
a torsion T at free end as shown in figure
below. If the shaded region resists a torque
T1 

T1, then what is the value of  1   ?
 T 
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T
R/3 2R
1 1295
(a) (b)
1296 1296
1 80
(c) (d)
81 81
Q.74 In a strained material, the principal stresses
in x and y directions respectively are
100 N/mm2 (T) and 60 N/mm2 (C) on an
inclined plane, the normal to which makes
an angle of 30° to x-axis. The normal stress
on the plane will be _________.
(a) 60 N/mm2 (b) 80 N/mm2
(c) 20 N/mm 2 (d) 40 N/mm2
Q.75 Statement (I): Shearing force may be
defined as the rate of change of loading
intensity.
Statement (II): Shearing force at a section
is the algebraic sum of the forces to the left
or right of the section.
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
true and Statement (II) is the correct
explanation of Statement (I).
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
true but Statement (II) is not a correct
explanation of Statement (I).
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
is false.
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II)
is true.
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