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FACULTY OF MEDICINE
Biology
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Sample questions
from Biology
Sample questions from Biology 1
1. Which of the following statements are the part of the cell theory:
a. only animals are composed of cells
b. all cells consist of the same elements and molecules
c. all cells come from existing cells
d. all living things are made of cells
e. cells are the basic units of structure and function in all living organisms
f. cells must contain DNA
g. all cells are surrounded by the plasma membrane
h. all cells have the ability of storing and replicating the genetic information
2. Bacteria:
a. are the simplest cellular organisms
b. are prokaryotes
c. may form multicellular organisms
d. can only form unicellular organisms
e. may have numerous membranous organelles
f. have no membranous compartments within a cell
g. contain large central vacuoles
h. are usually surrounded by a strong cell wall
3. Which of the following statements are correct:
a. DNA contains the four different bases A, G, U, and C
b. nucleic acids contain sugar groups
c. plants have chloroplasts and therefore can live without mitochondria
d. cytosol is only present in eukaryotic cells
e. ribosomes become linked by an mRNA molecule to form polyribosomes
f. cytoplasmic membrane consists of phospholipid double layer and peripheral and integral proteins
g. lysosomes digest only substances that have been taken up by endocytosis
h. cell wall is permeable
4. The basic cell surfaces of eukaryotic cells include:
a. plasmalemma
b. nuclear envelope
c. cuticle
d. pellicle
e. cell wall
f. cytoplasmic membrane
g. slime capsule
h. nuclear membrane
5. Cytoplasmic membrane:
a. is usually the only biomembrane in prokaryotic cells
b. regulates the intake of substances into the cell
c. is called plasmalemma
d. is called nuclear membrane
e. belongs to basic cellular surfaces
f. contains receptors so cells can receive signals
g. forms the environment for life and metabolic activity of organelles
h. primarily provides mechanical protection of the cell
6. There are two basic types of cells:
a. plant and animal
b. nuclear and nucleus-free
c. differentiated and non-differentiated
d. prokaryotic and eukaryotic
e. microscopic and submicroscopic
f. simple and compound
g. membrane and non-membrane
h. somatic and germ
7. Which of the following organelles are found in plant cells but not in animal cells:
a. mitochondria
b. endoplasmic reticulum
c. central vacuole
d. Golgi apparatus
e. chloroplasts
f. nucleolus
g. lysosomes
h. ribosomes
8. What is the name of the jelly-like substance inside the cell:
a. cytoplasm
b. cytokinesis
c. cytosol
d. plasma membrane
e. matrix
f. plasmalemma
g. karyon
h. karyolemma
9. Prokaryotic cells do not have:
a. plastids
b. membrane-bounded organelles
c. ribosomes
d. nucleus
e. cytoplasmic membrane
f. DNA
g. nucleolus
h. mitochondria
10. Biomembranes consist of:
a. a double layer of proteins and molecules of saccharides
b. a double layer of lipids and integral and peripheral proteins
c. a double layer of phospholipids and a double layer of saccharides
d. a single layer of phospholipids and two layers of the molecules of proteins
e. molecules of phospholipids which form a double layer and molecules of proteins
f. the external protein layer and the internal lipid layer
g. integral and peripheral lipids and molecules of proteins
h. a double layer of phospholipids, in which molecules of proteins are immersed
11. Eukaryotic cells, unlike prokaryotic ones:
a. have membrane-bounded organelles
b. do not have membrane-bounded organelles
c. have a nucleus bounded by double membrane
d. do not have nuclear envelope
e. have circular nuclear chromosomes
f. possess a nucleus
g. have their internal space compartmentalized into organelles
h. contain DNA as a store of genetic information
12. Animal cells, unlike plant cells:
a. are separated from the external environment by a cytoplasmic membrane
b. contain lysosomes filled with enzymes that degrade polymers into their monomeric subunits in the cell
c. contain vacuoles
d. are surrounded by the polysaccharide cell walls
e. may have plasmodesmata that connect neighbouring cells
f. do not have any cell wall
g. have a tonoplast
h. may contain myofibrils, tonofibrils, neurofibrils
13. The cytoskeleton of a cell:
a. enables for spatial division of organelles in the cell
b. represents a static skeleton of the cell
c. is employed in the process of diffusion
d. is employed in the process of phagocytosis
e. is employed in the process of pinocytosis
20. Mitochondria:
a. are organelles with single membrane
b. are organelles with double membrane
c. synthesize their own specific proteins
d. have the molecules of the DNA in the matrix
e. have the enzyme complex for the Krebs cycle in the matrix
f. are filled with stroma
g. represents a dynamic skeleton of the cell
h. have enzymes of the oxidative phosphorylation localized on the mitochondrial cristae
21. How many biomembranes do the mitochondria have:
a. one
b. two – one granular and one smooth
c. two
d. one or two according to the energy requirements of the cell
e. two – the inner one folded and the outer one smooth
f. two with mitochondrial pores
g. one or two according to the type of the cell
h. two – one permeable and one semipermeable
22. Golgi apparatus:
a. is responsible for transporting, modifying, and packaging of proteins
b. is responsible for transporting, modifying, and packaging lipids into vesicles for delivery to targeted
destinations
c. is important for lysosome formation
d. is important for formation of secretory vesicles
e. is located in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells
f. acts as storage compartment for nutrients and wastes of the cell
g. is responsible for cell oxidations
h. is made up of approximately four to eight cisternae
23. Dictyosomes:
a. are part of chloroplasts
b. comprise the Golgi apparatus
c. are similar to lysosomes
d. are part endoplasmic reticulum
e. are present in prokaryotic cells
f. are found in eukaryotic cells
g. are part of the endomembrane system in the cytoplasm
h. are stacks of flat, membrane bounded cisternae
24. The cytoskeleton of the cell:
a. belongs to membranous structures
b. is necessary for all types of cellular active movements
c. represents a dynamic structure of the cell
d. represents a static structure of the cell
e. belongs to fibrous structures
f. belongs to non-living parts of the cell
g. is formed by microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments
h. is formed by nucleoprotein fibres
25. Nucleolus:
a. is in the cytoplasm and consists of the RNA and proteins
b. is in the nucleus and consists of the DNA and proteins
c. is a permanent structure of the nucleus
d. is made up of rRNA and proteins
e. is a region where rRNA synthesis occurs
f. is a structure which disappears during the cell division
g. has a nucleolar envelope
h. is localized into the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells
26. Nucleus of eukaryotic cells:
a. contains chromatin
b. contains centriole
c. is the control centre of the cell
d. contains the majority of the cell’s genetic material
e. has nuclear envelope made of one biomembrane only
f. is present in all cells of our body
g. is a submicroscopic structure
h. occurs in all eukaryotic cells except some highly specialised ones
27. Prokaryotic cell:
a. may contain thylakoids
b. may contain chloroplasts, e.g. cyanobacteria
c. contains prokaryotic ribosomes
d. has a cytoplasmic membrane
e. has a nucleoid
f. has the linear DNA molecules placed in cytoplasm
g. has its internal space compartmentalized by membranes into organelles
h. has homologous circular chromosomes placed in cytoplasm
28. Proteosynthesis can take place in:
a. lysosomes
b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. ribosomes
d. mitochondria
e. plasma membrane
f. nucleus
g. dictyosomes
h. vacuoles
29. These organelles store DNA in the cell:
a. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. vacuoles
c. nucleus
d. chloroplasts
e. structural organelles of the cell
f. mitochondria
g. ribosomes
h. nucleolus
30. The following do not belong to membranous organelles:
a. ribosomes
b. lysosomes
c. bacterial nucleus
d. mitochondria
e. centriole
f. cytoskeleton
g. nucleolus
h. vacuoles
31. The following belong to the membranous organelles:
a. nucleolus
b. centrosomes
c. ribosomes
d. chromosomes
e. Golgi apparatus
f. cytoskeleton
g. lysosomes
h. vacuoles
32. The following belong to the mitotic apparatus of the cell:
a. centromeres
b. chromosomes
c. astrosphere
d. centrioles
e. polar bodies
f. mitotic spindle
g. chromatids
h. nucleolus organizer regions
33. Endocytosis:
a. is e.g. pinocytosis
b. involves rearrangement of cytoplasmic membrane and cytoskeleton
c. is a passive transport of substances into the cell
d. is an active transport of substances into the cell
e. is an active transport of substances out of the cell
f. does not require any energy of ATP
g. requires carrier proteins
h. is e.g. phagocytosis
34. Plant cell in hypertonic solution:
a. loses water
b. increases its pressure
c. does not change the volume
d. undergoes plasmolysis
e. takes up water by osmosis
f. increases its volume
g. decreases its internal volume
h. loses water and the plasma membrane detaches from the cell wall
35. Diffusion and osmosis have in common that:
a. both are an example of active transport of substances
b. both require energy of ATP
c. both are an example of passive transport of substances
d. molecules move through cytoplasmic membrane from the place of lower concentration to the place of
higher concentration
e. in both rearrangement of cytoplasmic membrane and cytoskeleton happens
f. molecules move through cytoplasmic membrane from the place of higher concentration to the place of
lower concentration
g. both do not require energy of ATP
h. in both rearrangement of cytoplasmic membrane and cytoskeleton does not happen
36. Passive transport of substances across cell membrane:
a. does not require energy
b. is e.g. the transfer of glucose and of amino acids against the concentration gradient
c. is the transfer of substances against their concentration gradient
d. is e.g. diffusion
e. is e.g. osmosis
f. is passage of solutes down their concentration gradient
g. does not depend on the concentration gradient of the given substance
h. is typical for the passage of water molecules, gases, ethanol
37. Hypotonic solution:
a. is the solution with lower concentration of the solutes
b. is the solution with higher concentration of the solutes
c. causes the plasmolysis of plant cells
d. causes the burst of animal cells
e. causes the lysis of red blood cells
f. causes detachment of the plasma membrane from the cell wall
g. is e.g. distilled water
h. causes osmotic water intake by the cell
38. Transport proteins of the plasma membrane:
a. transport the substances in form of vesicles down the concentration gradient
b. are universal for the transport of all substances
c. are very specific to the transported substances
d. specifically transport some of the substances into the cell
e. are important in endocytosis
45. Active transport across the cytoplasmic membrane is typical for the transport of:
a. water
b. gases
c. ethanol
d. calcium ions into the cells
e. substances by means of transport proteins called solute pumps
f. sodium ions against a concentration gradient
g. potassium ions against a concentration gradient
h. substances that does not require energy of ATP
46. Cell wall:
a. is selectively permeable
b. is permeable for water and substances soluble in water
c. forms an osmotic barrier of the plant cell
d. is a product of the protoplast of the plant cell
e. has a nourishment function
f. maintains the shape of the cell
g. is semipermeable
h. of the bacterial cell contains pectin
47. Which of the following is the digestion centre of the animal cells:
a. vesicles
b. Golgi apparatus
c. central vacuole
d. cytoplasm
e. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
f. rough endoplasmic reticulum
g. lysosomes
h. membrane organelles containing hydrolytic enzymes
48. Which of the following processes take place in chloroplasts:
a. photosynthesis
b. oxidative phosphorylation
c. synthesis of their specific proteins
d. glycolysis
e. Krebs cycle
f. detoxification of drugs and poisons
g. synthesis of their own nucleic acids
h. production of polysaccharides for plant cell walls
49. Vacuoles:
a. are surrounded by a membrane called the tonoplast
b. are filled with cytosol
c. can store waste
d. carry out hydrolysis
e. are much more important in prokaryotic cells
f. serve as a storage organelles
g. are a product of plant cell protoplast
h. are filled with stroma
50. Nuclear envelope:
a. surrounds the genetic material and nucleolus in eukaryotic cells
b. consists of two lipid bilayers - the inner nuclear membrane, and the outer nuclear membrane
c. surrounds the genetic material and nucleolus in prokaryotic cells
d. has many small openings called nuclear pores
e. is the membrane that encloses the cell
f. is double membrane that encloses the nuclear genome
g. is permeable barrier that separates the nucleus from the cytoplasm in eukaryotic cells
h. contains nuclear pores
51. Plant cell in contrast to the animal cell has:
a. mitochondria
b. plastids
c. ribosomes
d. vacuoles
e. rough endoplasmic reticulum
f. cell wall
g. lysosomes
h. microtubules
52. Cells of all the animals:
a. are eukaryotic
b. are prokaryotic
c. have membranous organelles
d. have lysosomes
e. have a pellicle
f. are interconnected by plasmodesmata
g. contain leucoplasts
h. reproduce by binary fission
53. Lysosomes are cell organelles that:
a. digest phagocytosed material
b. contain hydrolytic enzymes
c. contain digestive enzymes
d. are present in animal cells
e. are present in plant cells
f. are present in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells
g. are present in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells
h. are studded with protein-manufacturing ribosomes
54. Flagella and cilia:
a. are composed of nine sets of triplet microtubules arranged into a ring
b. are made up of microfilaments
c. have a “9 + 2” arrangement of microtubules
d. are structurally identical to centrioles
e. maintain the shape of the cell
f. are made up of microtubules
g. have a “9 + 3” arrangement of microtubules
h. are anchored in the cell by a basal body
55. The following are not found in plant cells:
a. lysosomes
b. neurofibrils
c. tonofibrils
d. hydrolytic enzymes
e. tonoplast
f. nucleoli
g. plasmodesmata
h. myofibrils
56. Tonoplast:
a. is on the surface of leucoplasts
b. is a permeable membrane on the surface of vacuoles
c. is a semipermeable membrane on the surface of vacuoles
d. is semipermeable
e. is on the surface of lysosomes
f. is the membrane that surrounds the vacuole
g. is unique to animal cells
h. separates the content of vacuoles from cytoplasm
57. The following are found in the stroma of chloroplasts:
a. thylakoids
b. circular molecules of the DNA
c. chromatin
d. linear molecules of the DNA
e. hydrolytic enzymes
f. cell sap
g. carotenoids
h. plastid ribosomes
58. The double helix structure of the DNA and its significance for the transmission of genetic information
was discovered:
a. by C. Woese
b. in the year 1944
c. in the year 1953
d. by F. H. Crick
e. by J. G. Mendel
f. in the year 1866
g. by J. D. Watson
h. in the year 1966
59. The following are the monomers of proteins:
a. nucleotides
b. peptides
c. amino groups
d. atoms of carbon and nitrogen
e. amino acids
f. nitrogenous organic bases
g. monosaccharides
h. nucleosides
60. Amino acids are linked in the polypeptide chain by:
a. ester bonds
b. phosphodiester bonds
c. glycoside bonds
d. peptide bonds
e. hydrogen bonds
f. peptide bonds between the nitrogenous bases
g. covalent bonds
h. noncovalent bonds
61. Proteins:
a. are important in cell signalling as receptors or hormones
b. act as an energy storage in the cell
c. are made up of nucleotides
d. have metabolic function – e.g. fibrous proteins
e. are important in immune responses
f. may have mechanical function – e.g. globular proteins
g. are composed of amino acids joined by phosphodiester bonds
h. have structural function
62. The building blocks of nucleic acid molecules are:
a. amino acids
b. adenine, guanine, thymine, cytosine
c. nucleotides
d. chromatin fibres
e. nitrogenous bases
f. nucleosides
g. ribonucleotides or deoxyribonucleotides
h. pentoses
63. Nucleic acids:
a. are polypeptides
b. are esters of higher fatty acids and glycerol
c. are polynucleotides
d. are macromolecules
e. consist of monomers called nucleotides
f. consist of monomers called amino acids
g. do not belong to polymers
b. are diploid
c. have 2 sets of chromosomes
d. are genetically homologous
e. are genetically identical
f. are genetically different
g. are genetically different after differentiation
h. are produced by meiosis
71. Bivalents are formed:
a. in the prophase of the second meiotic division
b. in the anaphase of the first meiotic division
c. in the prophase of the first meiotic division
d. by pairing of homologous chromosomes
e. by pairing of genetically identical chromosomes
f. by pairing of heterologous chromosomes
g. in the prophase I and disjoin in the anaphase I
h. in the prophase of the reductional division of mitosis
72. Mark the correct answer:
a. only diploid cells undergo meiosis
b. only haploid cells undergo meiosis
c. in the anaphase I, sister chromatids move to the opposite poles of the cell
d. in the anaphase I, double-chromatid chromosomes move to the opposite poles of the cell
e. individual chromosomes in the metaphase I align in the equatorial plane
f. bivalents align in the equatorial plane in the metaphase I
g. crossing-over occurs in the prophase of meiosis II
h. the second meiotic division is characterised by the reduction of the chromosome number
73. Zygote:
a. is a fertilized egg
b. is formed by the reductional division
c. is a mature gamete
d. is formed by a fertilization
e. is haploid
f. is diploid
g. is termed as blastomere
h. results from the fusion of a female gamete and male gamete
74. Karyokinesis:
a. is division of a cell nucleus in mitosis or meiosis
b. is division of a cell into two daughter ones
c. is part of the interphase of the cell cycle
d. is part of the cell cycle
e. is a process of reduplication of the nuclear DNA
f. is a process of cytoplasm division in the cell
g. precedes cytokinesis
h. compartmentalizes the two new nuclei into separate daughter cells
75. Cell division:
a. is termed as karyokinesis
b. may be binary fission in prokaryotic cells
c. is usually part of M–phase of the cell cycle
d. occurs in the interphase of the cell cycle
e. provides for regeneration of the damaged tissues and organs
f. is needed to compensate for the loss of the cells
g. means reproduction of the cells
h. includes karyokinesis and cytokinesis
76. Daughter cells produced by mitotic division:
a. are genetically identical to the parent cell
b. are genetically identical to each other
c. are identical, each of the chromosomes is divided transversely, similarly to the division in the 1st meiotic
division
d. have half the number of chromosomes, each of the chromosomes is divided longitudinally, similarly to the
division in the 2nd meiotic division
e. are diploid
f. are haploid
g. are genetically different to each other
h. are identical, i.e. diploid
77. Cells produced by meiosis:
a. are genetically identical to the parent cell
b. are not genetically identical to each other
c. have one chromosome set
d. are always genetically identical to each other
e. have two chromosome sets
f. are gametes
g. are not genetically identical to the mother cell
h. are the basis of variability of organisms
78. Meiosis I:
a. resembles mitosis
b. reduces chromosome number from diploid to haploid
c. is the second meiotic division
d. does not guarantee equal distribution of the genetic material
e. results in four daughter haploid cells
f. is the first meiotic division
g. does not change the number of chromosomes
h. is the first mitotic division
79. Meiosis:
a. produces daughter cells with a full diploid chromosome number
b. reduces the amount of genetic material to the half
c. results in the formation of haploid gametes
d. results in the formation of diploid gametes
e. results in the formation of gametes that are not genetically identical
f. creates four haploid cells, each genetically distinct from the parent cell
g. consists of two divisions with a different course
h. divides one cell into two genetically identical daughter cells
80. Equational division of meiosis:
a. is the first meiotic division
b. is the second meiotic division
c. has prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, telophase I
d. has prophase II, metaphase II, anaphase II, telophase II
e. has complicated prophase, in which crossing-over occurs
f. follows a short interphase with a brief DNA replication
g. follows a short interphase without no DNA replication
h. reduces the number of chromosomes
81. The movement of water molecules across the plasma membrane toward the place with higher solute
concentration is:
a. plasmolysis
b. lysis
c. process not requiring energy of ATP
d. passive transport
e. active transport
f. osmosis
g. endocytosis
h. exocytosis
82. Chromosomes:
a. are visible only in dividing cells
b. are visible in the interphase
c. homologous are genetically identical
d. have a centromere also termed as secondary constriction
a. RNA
b. DNA
c. proteins
d. nucleoproteins
e. mRNA
f. ribonucleotides
g. tRNA
h. phospholipids
96. Synthesis of RNA occurs:
a. in all phases of the cell cycle
b. in the G1 and G2 phase
c. in the M phase
d. in the cell nucleus and the endoplasmic reticulum
e. at the beginning of the M phase
f. in the mitochondria
g. on the principle of complementarity of nitrogenous bases
h. in the chloroplasts of plant cells
97. In animal cells DNA replication takes place:
a. in the cytoplasm
b. only in the nucleolus
c. only in the nucleus
d. in the nucleus and mitochondria
e. in the nucleus and lysosomes
f. during interphase
g. during the S phase
h. during the M phase
98. In the DNA molecule, the following are complementary base pairs:
a. A-G, C-G, A-T, G-C
b. C-T, A-T, G-C, C-G
c. G-A, C-G, T-A, G-C
d. T-A, G-C, A-T, C-G
e. T-A, G-C, T-C, G-A
f. C-G, A-T, G-C, T-A
g. A-U, A-T, A-G, C-G
h. G-C, G-A, C-T, A-T
99. DNA polymerase catalyzes:
a. joining of nucleoproteins
b. joining of deoxyribonucleotides
c. joining of ribonucleotides
d. formation of deoxyribonucleotides
e. the process of replication
f. the process of transcription
g. pairing of bases
h. elongation of the newly synthesized DNA strand
100. tRNA is produced:
a. by replication
b. on the ribosomes
c. by translation
d. by transcription from the DNA
e. as double stranded molecule
f. as single stranded molecule
g. in the cell nucleus
h. in the mitochondria
101. rRNA is formed:
a. by the transcription
b. by the replication
c. by the translation
d. on the ribosomes
e. by the reduplication according to the DNA template
f. as single stranded molecule
g. in the nucleolus
h. as double stranded molecule
102. DNA synthesis:
a. uses inorganic nitrogenous bases
b. is the creation of ribonucleic acid molecules
c. uses deoxyribonucleotides
d. uses nucleosides
e. uses deoxyribonucleoproteins
f. uses molecules of ATP
g. uses amino acids
h. is termed as replication
103. The template for the DNA synthesis in the cell:
a. is one nucleoside strand
b. are both complementary DNA strands
c. is only one strand of the original DNA
d. is each of separated DNA strands
e. is the sequence of bases of only one DNA strand
f. is the mRNA strand
g. is the molecule of protein
h. are ribonucleotides of both strands of the original DNA
104. RNA molecules in the plant cell are synthesized:
a. in the nucleus
b. in cytoplasm
c. on the ribosomes
d. on the endoplasmic reticulum
e. using the DNA template strand
f. using the DNA nontemplate strand
g. in the mitochondria
h. using RNA polymerases
105. The amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain is determined:
a. by the sequence of triplets in the tRNA
b. by the sequence of nucleosides of the DNA
c. by the sequence of triplets in the rRNA
d. by the sequence of triplets in the mRNA
e. by the sequence of triplets in the nuclides in the RNA
f. by the peptide bond
g. on the basis of complementarity of codon of the mRNA and anticodon of the tRNA
h. on the basis of complementarity of codon of the mRNA and anticodon of the rRNA
106. Complementarity of bases:
a. describes a relationship between mRNA and amino acids
b. describes a relationship between tRNA triplets and amino acids
c. is the basic principle of DNA replication
d. is seen between two antiparallel strands of DNA
e. describes a relationship between codon and anticodon
f. is the basic principle of transcription of genetic information
g. allows the formation of identical copies of DNA molecules
h. describes a relationship between rRNA and amino acids
107. Protein synthesis takes place:
a. in the mitochondria and chloroplasts
b. only in the mitochondria
c. in the nucleus
d. in all of the membranous organelles
e. with the help of proteases
f. on the ribosomes
a. DNA to mRNA
b. DNA to DNA
c. mRNA into polypeptide
d. tRNA to rRNA
e. mRNA to ribosomes
f. DNA to rRNA
g. DNA to tRNA
h. RNA to RNA
115. Replication is a transmission of genetic information from:
a. DNA to mRNA
b. DNA to DNA
c. mRNA to DNA
d. RNA to RNA – e.g. in RNA viruses
e. mRNA to tRNA
f. DNA to DNA in the cytoplasm of the eukaryotic cell
g. mRNA to mRNA
h. ribosomes to polypeptide
116. Translation is a transmission of the genetic information from:
a. DNA to rRNA
b. DNA to mRNA
c. form of sequence of ribonucleotides into the sequence of amino acids
d. tRNA to polypeptide
e. mRNA to polypeptide chain
f. ribosomes to polypeptide
g. mRNA to DNA
h. rRNA to polypeptide chain
117. Ribosomal RNA functions in:
a. transcription
b. replication
c. translation
d. reduplication
e. the formation of ribosomes
f. proteosynthesis in the M phase
g. proteosynthesis in the G1 phase
h. condensation of chromosomes
118. Transfer RNA functions in:
a. translation
b. transcription
c. replication
d. the transfer of specifically bound amino acids into the nucleus
e. the transfer of amino acids to ribosomes
f. proteosynthesis in G1 phase
g. the formation of ribosomes
h. the transfer of genetic information from nucleus to ribosomes
119. The following processes occur in the RNA synthesis:
a. RNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, C, G, T according to the DNA template
b. DNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, U, G, C according to the DNA template
c. RNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, C, G, U according to the DNA template
d. RNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, C, G, U according to the DNA template,
the necessary energy is supplied by the ADP
e. RNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, C, G, U according to the DNA template,
the necessary energy is supplied by the AMP
f. RNA-polymerase catalyses the synthesis of RNA in the M phase of the cell cycle
g. RNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, C,G,U according to the RNA template
h. RNA-polymerase catalyses joining of nucleotides containing A, C, G, U according to the DNA template,
the necessary energy is supplied by the ATP
120. Primary structure of DNA:
c. is a triplet code
d. is used in the translation of genetic information
e. is used in the transcription of genetic information
f. contains 64 anticodons
g. has two start codons
h. is degenerate
127. Polypeptide chains:
a. are synthesized from mRNA templates
b. are specified by codons in ribosomes
c. are made up of amino acids
d. are synthesized from rRNA templates
e. are made up of nucleotides
f. are synthesized from DNA templates
g. have specific amino acids sequences
h. are made using the genetic information stored in the DNA
128. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme:
a. used to generate complementary RNA from an RNA template
b. used in a process termed reverse transcription
c. catalysing replication of DNA in the prokaryotic cell
d. catalysing the synthesis of mRNA
e. catalysing the transcription of genetic information from RNA into DNA
f. used to generate complementary DNA from RNA template
g. which was first discovered in viruses
h. which was first discovered in bacteria
129. Degeneracy of the genetic code means that:
a. all of the organisms use the same way of encoding genetic information
b. each nucleotide is part of several codons
c. each nucleotide is part of a single codon
d. single amino acid may be coded for by more than one codon
e. only four coding letters are necessary for the entry of the genetic information
f. there are more codons than coded amino acids
g. apart from structural genes it also encodes regulation genes
h. the genetic code is redundant
130. Mark the correct statement about tRNA molecule:
a. it is double stranded
b. it is single stranded
c. its structure resembles a clover leaf
d. its structure resembles a lime tree leaf
e. the end triplet of tRNA arm is called anticodon
f. carries genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes
g. carries amino acids to the ribosome
h. serves as the physical link between the mRNA and the amino acid sequence of proteins
131. Mark the correct statement about mRNA molecule:
a. it is double stranded
b. it is single stranded
c. its structure resembles a clover leaf
d. it is translated into protein
e. it cannot be found in prokaryotic cells
f. it occurs also in prokaryotic cells
g. its synthesis is catalysed by DNA polymerase
h. it is a template for a protein synthesis
132. Which of the following is true about DNA replication:
a. it proceeds in the 5´→ 3´ direction
b. it proceeds in the 3´→ 5´ direction
c. it is catalysed by the RNA polymerase
d. only newly synthesized DNA strands are used as templates
e. both strands of the parental DNA molecule are used as templates
c. 47,XXX
d. 47,XY,+21
e. 47,XX,+21
f. 46,XY,+13
g. 46,XXX
h. 46,XY,+22
146. Johann Gregor Mendel:
a. first introduced test cross
b. discovered the material nature of the determinants of heredity
c. stated that some alleles are dominant while others are recessive
d. cultivated new species of plants
e. precisely defined genotypic and phenotypic ratios of heterozygotes
f. proved that each pair of alleles segregate from each other during the formation of gametes
g. stated that genes are localised on chromosomes
h. showed that the DNA is a carrier of the genetic information
147. The basic genetic characteristic of homozygotes is:
a. they have identical karyotype
b. they have identical number of genes
c. they inherited identical alleles of a given gene from their parents
d. they have identical genotype
e. they have identical alleles on the given gene locus
f. they form the identical number of zygotes
g. they have alleles of the given gene in complete linkage
h. they form gametes with different alleles of the homozygous gene
148. The cross, in which mating organisms differ in two alleles of a one gene is called:
a. backcrossing
b. somatic hybridization
c. reciprocal crossing
d. monohybridism
e. cross between relatives
f. inbreeding
g. dihybridism
h. panmixia
149. The basic characteristic of heterozygotes is:
a. they have two different alleles of particular gene
b. they have different genotype and phenotype
c. they do not have identical gene pool
d. they are produced by cross of phenotypically different parents
e. they inherited different alleles of the given gene from their parents
f. they form different zygotes
g. they form gametes with different alleles of the heterozygous locus
h. they have alleles of the given gene in complete linkage
150. How do we determine the genotype of an individual with dominant trait in the case of complete
dominance:
a. by the use of test cross
b. by the use of reciprocal cross
c. by crossing a tested individual with the recessive homozygote
d. it cannot be distinguished
e. by the analysis of gene linkage
f. by the use of molecular-biology methods
g. on the basis of phenotypic differences
h. on the basis of the crossing-over frequency
151. Which of the following is true about incomplete dominance:
a. it is a type of inheritance
b. it results in a third phenotype
c. it produces offspring with same phenotype as dominant parent
d. it refers that the expressed physical trait is a “mixture” of the both alleles
h. AaBb x AaBb
164. Specify the genetic scheme of cross between two different homozygotes:
a. BB x cc
b. Aa x Aa
c. AA x aa
d. aa x Aa
e. AAbb x aaBB
f. AABb x Aabb
g. AABB x AABB
h. bb x BB
165. The trait exhibits incomplete dominance. Individuals of the F 1 generation resulting from monohybrid
cross are:
a. phenotypically identical, but they have different genotypes
b. phenotypically and genotypically identical
c. phenotypically identical to the one parent
d. different from one another
e. heterozygous
f. uniform
g. different from both of their parents
h. phenotypically identical to both parents
166. The monohybrid cross between two identical homozygotes produces:
a. phenotypically and genotypically uniform individuals
b. one half of individuals with the dominant trait and one half of individuals with the recessive trait
c. individuals with identical quality of trait and genotype
d. genotypically uniform, but phenotypically different individuals
e. phenotypically uniform heterozygote individuals
f. a pure-breeding line
g. two categories of different homozygotes
h. only homozygous individuals
167. Mendel’s laws are based on the assumptions that:
a. the case in point is monogenic heredity
b. one gene encodes one trait
c. target genes are localised on sex chromosomes
d. target genes are linked
e. target genes are localised on one chromosome
f. target genes are localised on different autosomes
g. if more than one trait is analysed, each of them is determined by the gene localised on different
chromosome
h. target genes are localised on the X chromosome
168. Genotypic ratio:
a. is the proportion of genotypes among the offspring produced by a particular cross
b. is the proportion of individual properties or traits among the offspring produced by a particular cross
c. is always identical with the phenotypic ratio
d. may be identical with the phenotypic ratio
e. is 1:2:1 in F2 generation of monohybrid cross and complete dominance
f. is 1:2:1 in F2 generation of monohybrid cross and incomplete dominance
g. is 9:3:3:1 in F2 generation of dihybrid cross and complete dominance
h. is 3:1 in F2 generation of monohybrid cross and complete dominance
169. What is true about the genetic cross Aa x Aa involving complete dominance:
a. parents can produce 3 types of gametes - AA, Aa, aa
b. parents can produce only 1 type of gametes - Aa
c. parents can produce 2 types of gametes - A, a
d. none of the offspring can be recessive homozygote
e. some offspring can receive both recessive alleles
f. more offspring will have dominant trait than recessive trait
g. smaller number of offspring will have dominant trait than recessive trait
h. offspring will be uniform and heterozygous
170. What is true about the genetic cross AA x aa involving complete dominance:
a. recessive homozygote cannot occur in the progeny
b. dominant homozygote cannot occur in the progeny
c. progeny resemble the parent with the dominant trait
d. progeny resemble the parent with the recessive trait
e. progeny will be uniform and heterozygous
f. progeny will be uniform and dominant homozygous
g. individual with the recessive trait may occur in the progeny
h. there will be only individuals with the dominant trait in the progeny
171. What is the expected number of phenotypes in F2 generation resulting from monohybrid cross in the
case of incomplete dominance:
a. 2
b. 1
c. 23
d. 3
e. smaller than the number of genotypes
f. equal to the number of genotypes
g. more than the number of genotypes
h. 32
172. What is true about the progeny resulting from the monohybrid cross between two dominant
homozygotes:
a. no splitting of phenotypes occurs
b. every member of the F1 generation is dominant homozygote
c. splitting of phenotypes and genotypes occurs in the F2 generation
d. phenotypically and genotypically identical individuals occur
e. proportion of homozygotes and heterozygotes is 1:1
f. trait is manifested stronger than with their parents
g. members of the F1 generation are uniformly heterozygous
h. recessive homozygous individuals occur only in the F2 generation
173. Consider complete dominance and cross between homozygous dominant and heterozygous parents
(AA x Aa). Mark the correct answer:
a. progeny are phenotypically identical
b. phenotypic ratio among progeny is 1:1
c. phenotypic ratio among progeny is 3:1
d. progeny are genotypically uniform
e. no splitting of phenotypes occurs in the progeny
f. one fourth of the progeny have a recessive phenotype
g. one half of the progeny are dominant homozygotes
h. one half of the progeny are heterozygotes
174. What is true about the genetic cross between two different homozygotes (AA x aa) involving
incomplete dominance:
a. phenotypic ratio is 3:1
b. all of the progeny are heterozygotes
c. phenotypic ratio is 1:1
d. progeny are genotypically identical
e. progeny are phenotypically identical, they differ by genotypes
f. progeny are phenotypically identical with the dominant parent
g. all offspring are phenotypically identical and identical with the dominant parent
h. all offspring are phenotypically identical and different from both parents
175. Phenotypic ratio of 1:1:1:1 is valid for:
a. reciprocal cross between heterozygotes and complete dominance
b. cross between dominant homozygote and heterozygote and complete dominance
c. cross between double heterozygote and recessive homozygote in the case of complete dominance
d. cross between two double heterozygotes and complete dominance
e. testcross in dihybridism
f. cross between double heterozygote and recessive homozygote in the case of incomplete dominance
g. dihybrid cross and the gene linkage
h. extra-chromosomal inheritance
182. What is the proportion of heterozygotes among offspring in a monohybrid cross Aa x Aa:
a. 75 %
b. 50 %
c. 25 %
d. 3:1
e. 2:1
f. 1/3
g. 2/3
h. 1/2
183. Dihybrid cross is a cross:
a. between two heterozygotes AaBB with the phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1
b. between two heterozygotes AaBb with the phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1
c. between two heterozygotes AaBb with the genotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1
d. when we study the heredity of two different pairs of alleles
e. between two homozygotes AAbb x aaBB
f. when the individuals differ in two traits
g. between two homozygotes AA x bb
h. between two homozygotes AABB x aabb
184. What is the phenotypic ratio in the progeny of the heterozygote crossed with the recessive
homozygote in dihybridism:
a. 2:2:1:1, if the genes demonstrate complete linkage
b. 1:1:1:1, if the studied genes assort independently
c. 9:3:1:1
d. 1:1, if the studied genes assort independently
e. 3:3:1:1
f. 1:1, if the genes demonstrate complete linkage
g. 3:1, if the genes demonstrate complete linkage
h. 3:1, if the studied genes assort independently
185. What is the phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation in dihybridism and complete dominance, if the
genes observed are not linked:
a. 12:4:2
b. 9:3:1
c. 9:3:3:1
d. 1:1:1:1
e. 3:3:1:1
f. 15:1
g. 3:1
h. 1:2:1
186. Which cross will generate the phenotypic ratio of 3:3:1:1 on the assumption of complete dominance:
a. AaBb x AABb
b. AAbb x AABb
c. AABb x aaBB
d. AaBb x Aabb
e. AaBb x aaBb
f. aaBb x Aabb
g. AABB x AaBb
h. aaBb x AaBB
187. If we do not find the phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 in the F 2 generation of a dihybrid cross, the reason
for this may be:
a. small number of the progeny assessed
b. inbreeding
c. gene shift
d. gene linkage
e. spontaneous mutations
f. decreased viability of a genotype
g. incomplete dominance of one trait
h. sex-linked trait
188. Assume complete dominance. If we find 4 phenotypic groups in the F2 generation of dihybrid cross,
how many of them will have the recessive phenotype only for one trait:
a. not a single one
b. only one
c. two, as with monohybridism
d. three
e. two, those that will be homozygous for that trait
f. two, those that will be equally represented
g. one, that will have the highest proportion
h. one, that will be the least numerous
189. Dihybrid cross examines the transmission of:
a. two alleles: A, a
b. two independent traits
c. one pair of alleles
d. two pairs of alleles: A/a; B/b
e. one dominant trait
f. identical alleles of two independent genes
g. two different alleles of one gene
h. two genes
190. All possible types of gametes formed by dihybrid (CcDd) are:
a. CD, CD, Cc, Cd
b. CD, Cd, cd, cD
c. CC, DD, cd, Dc
d. Cc, Dd, cd, CD
e. cd, Dd, CD, cD
f. CC, Cc, DD, Dd
g. CD, cd, CD, cd
h. Cc, CD, Cd, cD
191. The organism with the genotype AABb produces:
a. two types of gametes, because of dihybridism
b. two types of gametes: AA, Bb
c. two types of gametes, due to heterozygosity only for one trait
d. 50 % of gametes AB and 50 % of gametes Bb
e. three types of gametes
f. four types of gametes, because of dihybridism
g. three types of gametes, in the case of intermediarity
h. one type of gametes
192. Double heteroyzgotes can form:
a. gametes - AA, Aa, BB, ab
b. 16 phenotypes in the F2 generation
c. 10/16 of heterozygotes in the F2 generation
d. 4 phenotypic groups in the F2 generation in the case of complete dominance
e. 4 types of gametes
f. 3/4 of heterozygotes at least in one locus in the F2 generation
g. 9 different genotypes in the F2 generation
h. 2 different genotypes in the F1 generation
193. How many different types of gametes can trihybrid (AaBbCc) produce:
a. 3
b. 32
c. 6
d. 8
e. 4
f. 23
g. 9
h. 2
194. How many different genotypes can be found in the F2 generation of dihybrid cross:
a. 12
b. 32
c. 23
d. 16
e. 9
f. 8
g. 4
h. 2
195. What progeny result of a cross between two double heterozygotes on the assumption of complete
dominance:
a. 4 types of homozygotes in the F2 generation
b. only heterozygotes in the F2 generation
c. only homozygotes identical with one of the parents
d. 1/16 of homozygotes in the F2 generation
e. 1/16 of double recessive homozygotes in the F2 generation
f. 3 phenotypic categories in the F2 generation
g. 1/4 of double homozygotes in the F2 generation
h. uniform homozygotes in the F1 generation
196. The relationship between alleles IA and IB of the ABO blood-group system is:
a. dominant
b. recessive
c. codominant
d. both alleles are equally strong and neither of them dominates over each other
e. neutral
f. independent from external factors
g. polygenic
h. intermediate
197. Which of the following are Mendelian traits in human:
a. ABO blood group and body height
b. IQ and body height
c. galactosemia
d. all inborn developmental defects
e. traits determined by a single-gene
f. diabetes
g. neurosis
h. phenylketonuria
198. Heterozygote is an individual:
a. with two different alleles of the given gene
b. with two identical alleles of the given gene
c. with two different genes of the allelic pair
d. with a different quality of alleles of gene loci
e. with two identical alleles of the gene
f. with different sex chromosomes
g. with more than two alleles of the given gene
h. with two different genes
199. Rough hair of guinea pigs (R) is dominant over the smooth one (r), the black colour of the hair (B) is
dominant over the white one (b). There also were individuals with smooth white hair in the progeny of the
white smooth-haired female guinea pig and the black rough-haired male guinea pig. What was the
genotype of the male:
a. RRBb
b. RRbb
c. RrBb
d. rrbb
e. RrBB
f. Rrbb
g. rrBb
h. RRBB
200. Cross of the white-eyed male drosophila and the homozygous red-eyed female (the red colour of eyes
is dominant over the white one) produces following progeny:
a. all of the females and males with red eyes
b. one half red-eyed females and all of the males with red eyes
c. uniform red-eyed progeny
d. all of the females with red-eyes and one half red-eyed males
e. one half of the females and males with red eyes
f. one half white-eyed males and all of the females with red eyes
g. uniform white-eyed progeny
h. 3/4 of the progeny with red eyes and 1/4 with white eyes
201. Cross of the white-eyed male drosophila and the heterozygous red-eyed female (the red colour of eyes
is dominant over the white one) produces following progeny:
a. all of the males with red eyes and one half of females with white eyes
b. one half of females with white eyes and one half of males with white eyes
c. one half of females with white eyes and all of the males with red eyes
d. all of the females with red eyes and one half of males with white eyes
e. one half of progeny with red eyes and one half with white ones
f. all of the females with white eyes and all of the males with red eyes
g. uniform red-eyed progeny
h. uniform white-eyed progeny
202. In case of independent assortment of genes:
a. Mendel’s laws do not hold true
b. only parental types of gametes are formed in every case
c. Mendel’s laws hold true
d. heterozygote AaBb forms four types of gametes: AB, Ab, aB, ab
e. heterozygote AaBb forms four types of gametes: AA, Aa, Bb, bb
f. heterozygote AaBb forms only two types of gametes: AB, ab
g. heterozygote AaBb forms two types of gametes: Aa, Bb
h. heterozygote AaBb forms only two types of gametes: Ab, aB
203. Qualitative traits in humans are usually:
a. polygenic
b. determined by a single-gene
c. determined by the genes, the effects of which are summed up
d. determined by one gene of major effect
e. determined by several genes which are in linkage
f. autosomal
g. determined by a large number of genes from different loci
h. determined by the genes of minor effect
204. Which of the statement below is true:
a. genotype is determined by the phenotype
b. phenotype is determined by the genotype
c. genome is a genetic material of an organism, including all of its genes
d. genome is a set of alleles and genes in the organism
e. genome is a set of the genetic information in a population
f. gene pool and the external environment determine the phenotype
g. gene pool is a set of the genetic information in a population
h. genotype has no influence on the phenotype of the individual
205. Assume that the colour of the eyes is determined by one gene with two alleles. Brown colour of the
eyes is dominant over the blue one. The probability that a child with blue eyes will be born to two brown-
eyed parents is:
a. 0%, if both parents are homozygotes
b. 100%
c. 50%, if both parents are heterozygotes
d. 25%, if both parents are heterozygotes
e. 75%, if one of the parents is a dominant homozygote and the other one is heterozygote
f. 25%, if one of the maternal grandparents and one of the paternal grandparents had blue eyes
g. 50%, if one of the maternal grandparents and one of the paternal grandparents had blue eyes
h. 0%, they can’t have a child with blue eyes
206. If the frequency of a dominant phenotype in a stable population is 84%, the frequency of recessive
allele in that population is:
a. 16%
b. 0.16
c. 4%
d. 0.04%
e. 0.4
f. 40%
g. 81%
h. 0.81
207. If the frequency of a recessive allele in a stable population is 7%, the frequency of dominant allele in
that population is:
a. 14%
b. 0.14
c. 49%
d. 0.49
e. 0.93
f. 93%
g. 64%
h. 0.64
208. If the frequency of a recessive allele in a stable population is 40%, the frequency of dominant
homozygotes in that population is:
a. 16%
b. 0.16
c. 0.36
d. 36%
e. 0.48
f. 48%
g. 0.64
h. 64%
209. If the frequency of a recessive allele in a stable population is 40%, the frequency of heterozygotes in
that population is:
a. 16%
b. 0.16
c. 0.36
d. 36%
e. 0.48
f. 48%
g. 64%
h. 0.64
210. A point mutation that changes a codon specifying an amino acid into a stop codon is called a:
a. missense mutation
b. nonsense mutation
c. frameshift mutation
d. translocation
e. deletion
f. addition
g. coding mutation
h. noncoding mutation
211. A point mutation that changes a codon specifying an amino acid to different codon that specifies the
same amino acids is called:
a. missense mutation
b. nonsense mutation
c. silent mutation
d. translocation
e. deletion
f. addition
g. coding mutation
h. noncoding mutation
212. Which of the following diseases results from a numerical chromosome aberration:
a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b. hemophilia A
c. hemophilia B
d. sickle cell anemia
e. Turner syndrome
f. Down syndrome
g. Patau syndrome
h. syndrome of dry eye
213. The normal human karyotype contains:
a. 23 haploid sets of chromosome
b. 46 diploid sets of chromosomes
c. 46 chromosomes
d. 22 pairs of autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes
e. 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes
f. 2 haploid sets of gonosomes
g. 23 pairs of gonosomes
h. 2 haploid sets of chromosomes
214. The morphological subtype of chromosome according to position of centromere is:
a. metacentric
b. submetacentric
c. acrocentric
d. telocentric
e. telomeric
f. metameric
g. acromeric
h. submetameric
215. Autosomes are:
a. not a sex-determining chromosomes
b. unpaired chromosomes
c. only found in somatic cells
d. only found in diploid cells
e. somatic chromosomes
f. chromosomes that do not determine the sex of mammals
g. chromosomes responsible for sex determination of mammals
h. chromosomes that reside in the nucleus
216. Human chromosomes are classified according to size and shape into:
a. 3 groups
b. 4 groups
c. 5 groups
d. 6 groups
e. 7 groups
f. 8 groups
g. 9 groups
h. 10 groups
217. Which of the following statement is true about a somatic mutation:
a. it is not transmitted on to offspring
b. a mutation occurs in gametes
c. it is present in all cells of an organism
d. it is transmitted on to offspring
e. it is only present in daughter cells that arise from mutant cell
f. it is not present in sex cells
g. it is present only on somatic chromosomes
h. can occur in any of the cells of the body except the germ cells
218. Which of the following statement is true about a germline mutation:
a. it is not transmitted on to offspring
d. X0
e. XXX
f. similar to drosophila
g. Y0
h. YY
225. In the case of monogenic X-linked inheritance, the phenotypic expression of the gene is dependent:
a. on only one allele in women
b. on the recombination frequency
c. on person's gender
d. on extrachromosomal inheritance
e. on the quality of allele
f. size of X chromosome
g. on the quality of genes on the Y chromosome in heterogametic sex
h. on the gene linkage
226. An example of X-linked trait in a human is:
a. eye colour
b. brachydactyly
c. daltonism
d. lipid metabolism disorder
e. albinism
f. diabetes
g. hemophilia
h. body weight
227. In the marriage of the daltonic man and dominant homozygous woman for this trait we can expect:
a. all of their sons being colourblind
b. all of their children being healthy
c. half daughters being carriers and 25% of sons being healthy
d. 50% of healthy sons and healthy daughters
e. all daughters being carriers
f. half of children being colourblind regardless of gender
g. all sons being healthy and half daughters being carriers
h. all of their sons being healthy
228. Y chromosome:
a. is usually larger than X chromosome
b. is nor present in some species
c. belongs to gonosomes
d. is present in the half of female gametes in mammals
e. is present in all individuals of a certain species
f. contains fewer genes than X chromosome in a human
g. is found in somatic cells of female birds
h. occurs only in homogametic individuals
229. The genes that are located on the sex chromosomes can be said to be:
a. gonosomes
b. heterochromosomes
c. sex-linked genes
d. sex chromosomes
e. autosomes
f. somatic chromosomes
g. linked if they are on the same chromosome
h. necessary not only for the expression of sexual traits
230. In the human, male sex cells have:
a. half the number of chromosomes and both gonosomes
b. haploid number of autosomes and chromosomes XX
c. haploid number of gonosomes and autosomes
d. half the number of chromosomes, including X or Y heterochromosome
e. unequal gonosomes equipment
f. more frequent occurrence of the Y chromosome
a. hip bone
b. thigh bone
c. upper arm bone
d. backbone
e. sternum
f. femur
g. tibia
h. scapula
238. The largest and the most complex joint in human body is named:
a. shoulder joint
b. hip joint
c. ankle
d. articulation between femur, tibia and fibula
e. articulation between thigh bone and hip bone
f. articulation between thigh bone, fibula and patella
g. knee joint
h. articulation between thigh bone, tibia and patella
239. Joint surfaces of the hip joint are covered by:
a. fibrocartilage
b. elastic cartilage
c. hyaline cartilage
d. cartilage, which is formed by fibrocytes
e. collagen cartilage
f. cartilage, which is formed by osteocytes
g. cartilage, which is formed by chondrocytes
h. hyaline cartilage, which is present also in epiglottis
240. Epiphysis is:
a. small endocrine gland
b. rounded end of the long bone
c. rounded end of the breastbone
d. extended terminal portion of the long bone
e. pineal body
f. midsection of the long bone
g. gland producing melanin
h. intermediate lobe of the pituitary gland
241. Periosteum in humans:
a. covers inside of the joints
b. covers outer surface of the bones
c. supports and innervate the bone
d. enables bone to grow in thickness
e. enables bone to grow in length
f. covers the whole bone except of the joint surfaces
g. covers the whole bone including the joint surfaces
h. covers inner surface of the bones
242. Organic component of human bones:
a. is named as ossein
b. decreases with age
c. constitutes approximately 90 % of the bone’s mass
d. is located in the bone marrow
e. enables flexibility of the bones
f. constitutes 25 – 30 % of the bone intercellular mass in adulthood
g. is lower in newborns in comparison with adults
h. constitutes 50 – 55 % of the bone intercellular mass in adulthood
243. The growth plate of human bones:
a. enables bone to grow in thickness
b. joins the true ribs each other
c. enables bone to grow in length
e. 3 700
f. 600, the most of them are paired muscles
g. 1 700
h. 600, the most of them are not paired muscles
269. The basic unit of the skeletal muscle is:
a. striated muscle fibre
b. muscle fascicle
c. mononuclear muscle fibre
d. multinucleated muscle fibre
e. myofibril
f. head, belly and tail
g. actin and myosin
h. sarcolemma
270. Striated muscles attach to:
a. smooth muscles
b. bones
c. tendons
d. skeleton so that muscle bridges one or more joints
e. bones directly
f. bones through the fibrous strips
g. skeleton so that muscle always bridges one joint
h. cartilages
271. Which muscle types have specific morphological and functional status:
a. myocardium
b. myocardium because functionally and morphologically it combines the properties of smooth and striated
muscles
c. myocardium because it is tubular
d. heart muscle
e. epicardium – specific muscle, which ensures the heart action
f. pericardium – specific striated muscle
g. myocardium, because it is structurally similar to skeletal muscle and functionally similar to smooth muscle
h. heart muscle because it is structurally similar to smooth muscle and functionally similar to skeletal muscle
272. Muscle fascicle comprises:
a. 10 – 100 mononuclear muscle fibres
b. 10 – 100 multinuclear muscle fibres
c. 10 – 100 myofibrils
d. head, belly and tail
e. 10 – 100 fibres
f. actin and myosin myofibrils
g. 10 – 100 fascicles
h. 10 – 100 multinuclear muscle fibres, which act antagonistic or synergistic
273. Which proportion of the body weight is comprised by the weight of human muscles:
a. in men approximately 36 % of body weight
b. in women approximately 32 % of body weight
c. in women approximately 36 % of body weight
d. in men approximately 32 % of body weight
e. in both men and women the proportion is the same
f. variably, according to the way of living
g. individually, according to one´s predispositions
h. in men often higher proportion than in women
274. Which of the following muscles does not belong to the muscles of respiration:
a. external intercostal muscles
b. internal intercostal muscles
c. pectoralis major
d. diaphragm
e. trapezius muscle
f. masseter muscles
g. deltoid muscle
h. back muscles
275. Muscle tone is:
a. muscle contraction
b. resting tension of the muscle
c. degenerative disorder of a muscle
d. power acting on contraction of striated muscle
e. maximal contraction of striated muscle
f. state of certain muscle tension of each muscle even at rest
g. muscle reaction on external stimulus
h. muscle relaxation
276. Which of the following belong to facial muscles:
a. sphincters of the mouth which may move a mandible
b. mimetic muscles which may move a mandible
c. masseter muscles
d. laughing muscle
e. nasal muscle
f. pharyngeal muscles, which are important in the phonation
g. mimetic muscles which make a facial expression
h. muscles of the mouth
277. Muscles of the forearm:
a. ensure movements in shoulder joint
b. ensure movements in elbow joint
c. ensure movements in carpal joints
d. comprise three-headed muscle of the upper arm
e. comprise two-headed muscle of the upper arm
f. comprise flexors
g. comprise extensors
h. ensure elbow flexion – for example two-headed muscle of the upper arm
278. Which of the following is the extensor of human upper limb:
a. two-headed muscle of the upper arm
b. three-headed muscle of the upper arm
c. three-headed muscle of the upper arm, which is antagonistic to two-headed muscle of the upper arm
d. four-headed muscle of the upper arm
e. deltoid muscle
f. all the muscles of the upper arm
g. three-headed muscle of the upper arm, which is synergistic to two-headed muscle of the upper arm
h. three-headed muscle of the upper arm, which belongs to muscles of the shoulder girdle
279. Two-headed muscle of the thigh:
a. belongs to flexors
b. belongs to extensors
c. belongs to adductors
d. causes the flexion in hip joint
e. causes the flexion in knee joint
f. enables the movement of the lower limb toward a body midline
g. enables external rotation in hip joint
h. acts as the extensor of hip joint
280. Which of the following is the flexor of the upper limb:
a. deltoid muscle
b. ulnar extensor of the carpus
c. muscle which causes the elbow flexion
d. two-headed muscle of the upper arm
e. three-headed muscle of the upper arm
f. superficial flexor of the fingers
g. ulnar flexor of the carpus
h. radial flexor of the carpus
281. Which of the following is the longest muscle in human body:
g. agglutinins
h. gamma globulins
294. The physiological level of glucose in human blood is called:
a. glycaemia
b. sedimentation
c. haematocrit
d. coagulation
e. haemostasis
f. diabetes mellitus
g. anaemia
h. homeostasis
295. Permanent increase of the level of glucose in blood is:
a. named as glycaemia
b. named as sedimentation
c. characteristic for a metabolic disease in which the body is enable to produce any or enough insulin
d. characteristic for diabetes mellitus
e. named as anaemia
f. named as hypertension
g. named as alimentary hyperglycaemia
h. named as chronic hypoglycaemia
296. The proportion of erythrocytes in the overall blood volume is called:
a. sedimentation
b. glycaemia
c. haematocrit
d. agglutination
e. coagulation
f. vasoconstriction
g. leucosis
h. hypertension
297. The average number of erythrocytes in an adult man is:
a. 4.3 – 5.3 x 106 in 1 microlitre of blood
b. 4.3 – 5.3 x 1012/l of blood
c. 3.8 – 4.8 x 1012/l of blood
d. 4 – 9 x 109/l of blood
e. 135 – 170 g/l of blood
f. 150 – 300 x 109/l of blood
g. 4.3 – 5.3 x 109/l of blood
h. 18 – 20 x 109/l of blood
298. The decreased number of erythrocytes or haemoglobin in human blood is called:
a. leucocytosis
b. anaemia
c. leucosis
d. hypotension
e. haemophilia
f. cyanosis
g. hypertension
h. leukemia
299. The majority of molecular oxygen in human blood is:
a. physically dissolved
b. bound to the atoms of the haemoglobin iron
c. bound to the atoms of plasmatic protein iron
d. bound to the globin part of haemoglobin
e. bound to divalent iron of the haem
f. bound to the haem part of haemoglobin
g. bound to trivalent iron of the haem
h. bound to the plasma proteins
300. Erythrocytes of a healthy adult person:
h. increased sedimentation
338. The lymphatic system of man:
a. does not have the same anatomic branching as the cardiovascular system
b. supplies the tissues by the tissue fluid
c. is formed by lymphatic vessels
d. takes the excessive tissue fluid away from the tissues
e. transports lymph
f. has its own heart
g. creates high pressure in its vessels
h. takes the waste substances away from the tissues
339. The lymph of man:
a. has similar components as blood plasma
b. contains blood cells
c. does not contain blood cells
d. supplies the tissues with nutrients
e. is filtered in lymphatic nodes
f. flows into the tissues under low pressure
g. contains immune cells
h. flows in lymphatic vessels
340. Lymphatic nodes:
a. produce lymph
b. filter lymph
c. filter blood
d. produce lymphocytes
e. are e.g. tonsils
f. retain foreign microorganisms
g. retain toxins and waste substances
h. belong to the circulatory system
341. The lymph of man:
a. arises by the filtration in the lymphatic nodes
b. deliver part of the lymph into blood
c. arises in capillaries
d. circulates in the enclosed lymph stream
e. contains many lymphocytes
f. is an extracellular liquid
g. normally does not contain erythrocytes
h. contains a higher amount of proteins than blood plasma
342. The following belongs to the respiratory system of man:
a. stomach
b. esophagus
c. lungs
d. airways
e. pharynx
f. trachea
g. wind pipe
h. larynx
343. Breathing of man:
a. is regulated by the respiratory centre located in the spinal cord
b. is regulated by the respiratory centre located in the medulla oblongata
c. is regulated by the respiratory centre
d. is regulated by the respiratory centre in the lungs
e. responds to the requirements of the organism automatically
f. is regulated by the respiratory centre, which is influenced by the nerve stimuli
g. is regulated by the respiratory centre, which is influenced by the chemical stimuli
h. is divided into upper and lower breathing
344. The right lung of man:
a. has two lobes
g. potentiometer
h. voltmeter
357. Vocal cords ligaments and cartilage flap separating the respiratory system from the digestive system
can be found in:
a. the nasal cavity
b. the nasopharynx
c. the pharynx
d. the larynx
e. the trachea
f. the lungs
g. the thyroid cartilage
h. epiglottis
358. External respiration of man:
a. is an exchange of breathing gases between the blood and cells of the whole body
b. is an exchange of breathing gases between the atmospheric air and blood
c. is an exchange of O2 and CO2 between the blood and tissues by diffusion
d. includes lung ventilation, distribution and diffusion of breathing gases
e. is the so called lung breathing
f. is regulated from the breathing centre in the spinal cord
g. is the so called tissue breathing
h. is oxygenation of haemoglobin followed by the change of its colour to dark blue
359. The following is included in the defence breathing reflexes:
a. cough
b. nausea
c. nose blowing
d. vomiting
e. sneezing
f. sweating
g. defecation reflex
h. nausea reflex
360. Internal respiration of man:
a. provides for the distribution of the inhaled air into all the alveoli
b. is an exchange of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues by diffusion
c. is a proper exchange of air between the lungs and the environment
d. takes place in the lung alveoli
e. is the so called pulmonary breathing
f. includes pulmonary ventilation, distribution, and diffusion of gases
g. is the so called tissue breathing
h. is an exchange of breathing gases between the blood and tissues by the passive transport
361. Irritation of the laryngeal epithelium, trachea and bronchi induces the following in man:
a. cough
b. snuffles
c. sneezing
d. vomiting
e. defence reflexes
f. sweating
g. influenza
h. nausea
362. The following belongs among the most frequent diseases of human airways:
a. bronchitis – lung inflammation
b. pharyngitis – laryngeal inflammation
c. laryngitis – pharyngeal inflammation
d. bronchitis – bronchial inflammation
e. pharyngitis – pharyngeal inflammation
f. laryngitis – laryngeal inflammation
g. sneezing
h. droplet infection
b. stomach
c. small intestine
d. large intestine
e. liver
f. pancreas
g. appendix
h. gall bladder
376. The digestion of fats takes place in the:
a. oral cavity
b. stomach – primarily
c. small intestine
d. large intestine
e. liver
f. gall bladder
g. stomach – to a limited extent
h. pancreas
377. The following enzymes fully participate in digestion in the small intestine of man:
a. lipase
b. trypsin, which comes into the duodenum in form of inactive pepsinogen
c. pepsin, which breaks down proteins into peptides and amino acids
d. trypsin, which breaks down proteins into peptides and amino acids
e. ptyalin, which breaks down polysaccharides into simple sugars
f. chymosin, which coagulates milk
g. amylase, which breaks down polysaccharides into simple sugars
h. pancreatic juice enzymes
378. Trypsin in man:
a. is produced by the pancreas, in the stomach it breaks down proteins into peptides and amino acids
b. is produced by the pancreas, in the small intestine it breaks down polypeptides into peptides and amino
acids
c. is produced by the stomach glands, where it breaks down proteins into polypeptides
d. is produced by the pancreas, in the small intestine it breaks down fats into glycerol and fatty acids
e. is a proteolytic enzyme
f. comes into the duodenum in form of inactive pepsinogen
g. comes into the duodenum in form of inactive trypsinogen
h. is a pancreatic hormone
379. Pancreatic juice contains:
a. the salts neutralising acidic chyme
b. active trypsinogen, which is inactivated by enterokinase
c. inactive trypsinogen, which is activated by enterokinase
d. inactive pepsinogen, which is activated by enterokinase
e. pepsin, lipase, chymosin
f. also hormones – glucagon and insulin
g. the enzymes digesting the proteins, saccharides, and fats
h. inactive trypsinogen, which is activated in the stomach by enterokinase
380. Human pancreas:
a. produces pancreatic juice and its ducts lead into the ileum
b. produces pancreatic juice and its ducts lead into the duodenum
c. produces protease, lipase, amylase
d. produces trypsin, amylase, lipase
e. lies under the liver in the duodenal curve
f. lies under the stomach in the duodenal curve
g. produces enzymes digesting the proteins, saccharides, and fats
h. produces chymosin, ptyalin, lipase
381. Bile acids salts in the small intestine of man:
a. break down fats into glycerol and fatty acids
b. are stercobilin and urobilin
c. disperse fats to minor drops of a large area
g. proteases
h. disaccharidases
388. As a rule, the following live permanently in the large intestine of adult man:
a. non-pathogenic bacteria
b. fermentative bacteria
c. pathogenic bacteria
d. nitrification bacteria
e. symbiotic bacteria
f. putrefactive bacteria
g. Salmonella and Shigella
h. minor unharmful helminths
389. The following are the energy-richest components of human food per unit of the weight:
a. saccharides
b. fats
c. proteins
d. essential amino acids
e. mineral substances
f. fibrous material and glucose
g. peptides
h. lipids
390. The most common source of energy from food for human organism are:
a. saccharides
b. proteins
c. amino acids
d. micronutrients
e. fats
f. nucleic acids
g. ATP and ADP
h. lipids
391. It holds true of the nutrition of man, that proteins:
a. are a source of essential amino acids
b. are a source of non-essential amino acids
c. are the energy-richest component of food
d. are required more in children and convalescents
e. are a source of theine after initial digestion
f. are digested in the digestive tract into individual atoms
g. of animal origin are biologically most suitable
h. are a rich source of vitamins and minerals
392. Lipids from the food of man are:
a. digested mainly in the stomach
b. the richest source of energy
c. a weak source of energy
d. the best digestible nutrient
e. digested in the small intestine
f. important for the intake of some vitamins
g. dispensable, i.e. they need not to be present in the foodstuff at all
h. included among macronutrients
393. Lipids are:
a. digested by lipase in the small intestine
b. emulsified by lipase into minor drops
c. broken down by amylase into glycerol and fatty acids
d. absorbed in the small intestine as glycerol and fatty acids
e. absorbed in the large intestine as glycerol and fatty acids
f. digested by lipase in the pancreas
g. digested by trypsin in the small intestine
h. the most important immediate source of energy for man
394. In complete fasting of man:
d. is placed under the diaphragm in the left part of the abdominal cavity
e. is a site of synthesis of urea
f. is placed under the diaphragm in the right part of the abdominal cavity
g. is placed under the stomach in the right part of the abdominal cavity
h. is a store of sugars in form of glycogen
401. Pyloric sphincter in man is found:
a. between the esophagus and the stomach
b. between the stomach and the duodenum
c. between the stomach and the small intestine
d. between the stomach and the large intestine
e. at the outlet of the bile duct
f. at the outlet of the pancreatic duct
g. between the stomach and the ileum
h. at the outlet of the large intestine
402. The children´s dentition has:
a. 18 teeth
b. 20 teeth
c. 32 teeth
d. 22 teeth
e. 12 teeth
f. all of the teeth temporary, the so called milk teeth
g. all of the teeth permanent, the so called secondary teeth
h. 24 teeth
403. The developed milk dentition of a child has:
a. 4 cheek teeth
b. 4 premolar teeth
c. 8 incisive teeth
d. 4 eye teeth
e. 8 molar teeth
f. 32 teeth
g. 20 teeth
h. not developed eye teeth
404. Kidneys of man are situated:
a. in the area of lumbar part of the spine
b. as a non-pair, bean-shaped organ at the sides of lumbar spine
c. at the back wall of the abdominal cavity on the level of lumbar vertebrae
d. in the area of greater (false) pelvis
e. in the area of lesser (true) pelvis
f. as a pair, bean-shaped organ at the sides of lumbar spine
g. as a pair, bean-shaped organ at the sides of the sacral spine
h. at the sides of the thoracic spine at the back wall of the abdominal cavity
405. Kidneys of man produce:
a. urine
b. urea
c. adiuretin
d. renin
e. erythropoietin
f. urine, which contains water and all the soluble components in equal concentration as those in the blood
plasma
g. urine, which contains water, urea, a small amount of organic substances and inorganic substances
h. renin, which influences the formation of blood
406. Which of the following substances are not found in the urine of healthy man:
a. increased concentration of glucose
b. pus
c. creatinine
d. uric acid
e. erythrocytes
f. leukocytes
g. urea
h. NaCl, K+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+
407. The following is a part of the nephron:
a. afferent arteriole
b. efferent arteriole
c. glomerulus
d. Bowman´s capsule
e. collecting duct
f. renal pelvis
g. renal calyx
h. distal convoluted tubule
408. Nephron enters into the:
a. Malpighian corpuscle
b. collecting duct
c. ureter
d. urinary bladder
e. proximal convoluted tubule
f. distal convoluted tubule
g. proximal collecting duct
h. distal collecting duct
409. Urea in the human body is formed in the:
a. kidneys and is excreted out of the body
b. liver
c. kidneys and the liver
d. kidneys by the filtration of blood
e. nephrons and is excreted through kidneys out of the body
f. the liver and is excreted in form of bile
g. glomerulus
h. liver during the degradation of old erythrocytes
410. The filtrate which is produced in the glomerulus of human kidney:
a. is called primary urine
b. is called final urine
c. is identical with human blood plasma
d. is identical with human blood plasma without blood amino acids
e. is identical with human blood plasma without blood proteins
f. contains also blood and proteins
g. changes into the primary urine by the passage through the kidney tubules
h. changes into the final urine by the passage through the kidney tubules
411. Primary urine of man:
a. is formed by the filtration in the collecting tubules
b. creates by the filtration in the renal (Malpighian) corpuscle
c. creates in the process of reabsorption and excretion in the kidney tubules
d. is produced about 1,5 litre per 24 hours
e. is produced about 170 l per hour
f. is produced about 170 l per 24 hours
g. creates by the filtration in the urinary tubules
h. is a filtrate of blood flowing through the glomerular capillaries
412. The following is part of Malpighian (renal) corpuscle:
a. kidney corpuscle
b. glomerulus
c. Bowman capsule
d. proximal convoluted tubule
e. distal convoluted tubule
f. Mendel´s loop
g. Henle´s loop
h. capillary network
c. hypothalamus
d. anterior lobe of hypophysis
e. neurohypophysis
f. adrenal cortex
g. liver
h. pancreas
445. Human thyrotropin:
a. is glandotropic hormone
b. supports the growth and activity of parathyroid glands
c. is produced by the parathyroid glands at the decrease of thyroxine level
d. is gonadotropic hormone
e. is produced by the pineal gland
f. supports the growth and activity of the thyroid gland
g. stimulates the production of hormones in the adrenal glands
h. is produced by the adenohypophysis
446. The following hormones are produced by the posterior pituitary:
a. adrenocorticotropic hormone
b. calciferol
c. luteinizing hormone
d. adrenalin
e. antidiuretic hormone
f. cortisol
g. oxytocin
h. vasopressin
447. Human oxytocin:
a. regulates the activity of the anterior pituitary
b. promotes release of milk form mammary glands
c. influences maturation of ovarian follicles
d. accelerates the metabolism of nutrients
e. promotes contractions of uterine myometrium
f. increases tissue oxidation
g. stimulates the development of mammary gland
h. initiates ovulation
448. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin in man are produced:
a. by the thalamus
b. exclusively outside the pituitary gland
c. by the hypothalamus
d. upon the stimulus of the growth hormone
e. by the pineal gland
f. by the neurohypophysis
g. by the adenohypophysis
h. by the posterior lobe of the hypophysis
449. In human kidneys adiuretin influences:
a. reabsorption of potassium
b. reabsorption of glucose
c. walls of arterioles, where it decreases the pressure
d. reabsorption of sodium
e. reabsorption of water
f. reabsorption of amino-acids and magnesium
g. water level management
h. walls of arterioles, where it increases the pressure
450. Production of thyroid gland hormones in man depends mainly on the supply of:
a. potassium
b. magnesium
c. manganese
d. zinc
e. iron
f. cobalt
g. calcium
h. iodine
451. Human thyroxine is produced by:
a. glandula thyreoidea
b. hypophysis
c. adenohypophysis
d. thyroid gland
e. hypothalamic-pituitary system
f. parathyroid glands
g. pituitary gland
h. placenta
452. Secretion of human parathyroid hormone is regulated by:
a. the activity of hypothalamus and thalamus
b. adenohypophysis
c. neurohypophysis
d. mineralocorticoids
e. humoral signals from bone cells
f. activity of hypophysis
g. the level of calcium in the lymphatic fluid
h. the level of calcium in blood plasma
453. Main regulator of the calcium level in the human blood is:
a. hormone produced by anterior pituitary
b. parathormone
c. antidiuretic hormone
d. testosterone
e. parathyroid hormone
f. prolactin
g. hormone produced by adrenal cortex
h. auxin
454. Hormones produced by human adrenal medulla:
a. decrease the level of glucose in blood
b. are mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids and androgens
c. stimulate retention of sodium in the organism
d. increase the level of blood sugar
e. influence the heart activity
f. increase the level of blood sugar except for glucose
g. are aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone
h. are also called stress hormones
455. Mineralocorticoids in the human organism:
a. mobilize the energy resources in stressful situation
b. influence with the metabolism of nutrients, mainly proteins
c. influence the sodium and potassium metabolism
d. markedly change the diameter of blood vessels and increase the heart activity
e. increase reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium in the organism
f. influence the metabolism of glucose
g. influence the sodium and selenium metabolism
h. influence the properties of extra-cellular fluid
456. Secretion of glucocorticoids is regulated:
a. by the neurohypophysis
b. by the anterior pituitary
c. by the adrenocorticotropic hormone
d. hormonally
e. humorally
f. by the posterior lobe of hypophysis
g. by the hypothalamic-pituitary complex
h. by the adenohypophysis
457. Glucocorticoids:
a. are produced by islets of Langerhans
b. are hormones produced by adrenal medulla
c. are hormones produced by adrenal cortex
d. influence protein metabolism
e. provide resistance of organism to stress
f. increase protein breakdown
g. depress immune responses
h. increase proteins production
458. Human insulin:
a. increases glucose transport into cells
b. increases the conversion of proteins to saccharides
c. supports the production of proteins
d. increases the level of glucose in blood
e. decreases the level of glucose in blood
f. is produced by the pancreas
g. is a steroid hormone
h. is a protein hormone
459. Deficiency of insulin in human causes:
a. decreased level of glucose in blood
b. nanism
c. cretinism
d. elevated level of sucrose in blood
e. hyperglycemia
f. delay of both physical and mental development in females
g. diabetes
h. increased level of glucose in blood
460. Which of the following hormones in human control management of water level:
a. glucagon
b. oxytocin
c. antidiuretic hormone
d. thyrotropin
e. vasopressin
f. thyroxine
g. adiuretin
h. cortisol
461. Which of the following hormones in human directly increase the level of glucose in blood:
a. noradrenalin and corticotropin
b. hormones of the adrenal medulla
c. glucocorticoids
d. insulin
e. adrenalin and corticotropin
f. adrenalin and noradrenalin
g. adrenalin and insulin
h. glucagon
462. Glucagon in human:
a. influences the concentration of blood sugar
b. influences glycemia
c. is glucocorticoid
d. is glandotropic hormone
e. may worsen the diabetes condition raising blood glucose level too high
f. is digestive enzyme
g. is produced by the parathyroid glands
h. causes acromegaly
463. Mark the correct answer:
a. hypothalamus is the part of diencephalon
b. neurohypophysis is not true endocrine gland
f. has dendrites, that transmit impulses away from the cell body
g. has an afferent axon
h. communicates with other neurons via synapses
470. Nerve fibres of the spinal cord form:
a. white matter surrounding the grey matter
b. grey matter surrounded by the white matter
c. white matter surrounded by the grey matter
d. grey matter surrounding the white matter
e. both grey matter and white matter
f. a basis of the reflex arch
g. spinal central canal
h. brain stem
471. Spinal cord:
a. is a centre of visual and auditory reflexes
b. is phylogenetically the oldest part of the nervous system
c. is phylogenetically the youngest part of the nervous system
d. is a reflex centre regulating the movement of muscles in the limbs
e. controls some of the autonomic functions
f. is a centre of posture and balance regulation
g. influences physiological processes, e.g. food intake
h. mediates emotional responses
472. Autonomic nervous system:
a. innervates internal organs and vessels
b. stems from the spinal cord and the brain
c. stems from the spinal cord only
d. stems from the brain only
e. is a part of the vegetative nervous system, which is phylogenetically older than the somatic system
f. is a part of the vegetative nervous system, which is phylogenetically younger than the somatic system
g. controls the movement of skeletal muscles
h. controls the conscious or voluntary activities of the body
473. Afferent extensions of nerve cells:
a. transmit impulses toward the cell bodies
b. are called neurons
c. create synapses with other cells
d. are called neurites
e. are called dendrites
f. transmit impulses away from the cell bodies
g. are called axons
h. are short and extensively branched
474. The following are important functional properties of neurons:
a. excitability
b. conductivity
c. ability of cellular division
d. ability to react to stimuli
e. motility
f. ability of diapedesis
g. ability to conduct nerve signals without the information loss or change
h. ability of contraction
475. Midbrain of mammals:
a. is a centre of visual and auditory reflexes
b. keeps the upright posture of head and body
c. is the main coordination centre of voluntary movements
d. regulates body temperature
e. controls the heart activity and circulation of body fluids
f. mediates emotional responses
g. contains auditory cortex
h. is phylogenetically the youngest part of the nervous system
e. 5 kg
f. 25 g
g. 0.8 kg
h. 750 g
489. The inner part of the cerebral hemispheres of the human is mainly made up of:
a. grey matter
b. white matter
c. light matter
d. myelinated axons
e. nerve cell bodies
f. reticular formation
g. cerebrospinal fluid
h. basal ganglia
490. Mark the correct statement:
a. cerebral cortex regulates the conscious activity
b. thalamus is a centre of regulation for internal organs
c. basal ganglia regulate accessory movements and muscle tone
d. the centre for visual and auditory reflexes is situated in the cerebellum
e. the speech area is situated in the dominant cerebral hemisphere
f. the number of neural synapses is higher than number of neurons in the human brain
g. the estimated number of synapses in the human brain is 1014
h. there is about one billion synapses in human brain
491. The following is true about the ventricles of the human brain:
a. brain has 5 ventricles
b. brain has 4 ventricles
c. brain has 3 ventricles
d. three of the brain ventricles can be found in hemispheres of the cerebrum
e. two of the brain ventricles can be found in hemispheres of the cerebrum
f. only one of the brain ventricles can be found in the cerebrum
g. one of the brain ventricles can be found in the diencephalon
h. there is no exchange of substances between cerebrospinal fluid in brain ventricles and the blood
492. Which of the following are the parts of the peripheral nervous system:
a. sensory division
b. brain and spinal cord
c. somatic nervous system
d. autonomic nervous system
e. external division
f. internal division
g. cranial nerves
h. spinal nerves
493. Association areas of the human cerebral cortex:
a. have a relationship to formation of memory traces
b. are areas for abstract thinking, reasoning, learning
c. can be found in the cerebellar cortex
d. are the main centre of vegetative control
e. are made up of basal ganglia
f. are areas of coordination of nerve functions
g. are areas of formation of the consciousness
h. maintain homeostasis
494. The main centre regulating body temperature of man is in:
a. sweat glands
b. hypothalamus
c. liver
d. cerebellum
e. autonomous ganglia
f. medulla oblongata
g. a part of diencephalon
h. skin
495. Reticular formation of the human brain:
a. contributes to regulating muscle tone
b. helps to maintain attention and alertness
c. regulates the defence reflexes (cough and sneezing)
d. receives input from receptors for the sense of smell
e. influences the sleep and the awakening
f. controls voluntary movements of the eyes
g. maintains the consciousness
h. is active during awakening from sleep
496. Midbrain of man:
a. is situated in close neighbourhood to the pons
b. is a centre of olfactory and auditory reflexes
c. contains the centres of the cranial nerves V and VI
d. is a centre of gustatory and auditory reflexes
e. is a centre of visual and auditory reflexes
f. contains four rounded elevations in the posterior part
g. is a centre of olfactory and visual reflexes
h. is associated with cranial nerves III and IV
497. Cerebellum of man:
a. participates in maintenance of the balance and movements coordination
b. has the white matter on its surface and the grey matter inside
c. is a centre of respiration
d. receives impulses from the cerebral cortex
e. regulates and controls the activity of the cerebral cortex
f. has the grey matter on its surface and the white matter inside
g. is the main centre of vegetative control
h. receives impulses from receptors in inner ear, from the skin receptors, muscular and tendon receptors
498. The following is the main function of the human cerebellum:
a. production of hormones
b. analysis of visual information
c. regulation of muscle tone
d. formation of the conscious activity
e. realisation of the voluntary movements
f. maintenance of posture and equilibrium
g. realisation of defence reflexes
h. coordination of movement
499. The following vital centres can be found in the human medulla oblongata:
a. thermoregulatory centre
b. visual centre
c. centre of balance and posture
d. reflex centre for coughing and sneezing
e. respiratory centre
f. coordination centres of blood circulation and mental functions
g. satiety centre
h. cardiovascular centre
500. Respiratory and cardiovascular centres of man are located in:
a. cerebellum
b. thalamus
c. medulla oblongata
d. spinal cord
e. hypothalamus
f. cerebral cortex
g. hypophysis
h. midbrain
501. Human thalamus:
a. is a part of hypothalamus
b. is a part of diencephalon
c. together with hypothalamus is a part of diencephalon
d. is a part of mesencephalon
e. is the main centre for regulation of the activity of internal organs
f. has the centre of speech situated in its lower part
g. is the part of the brain, where the cranial nerves III and IV stem
h. regulates the activity of all endocrine glands
502. Vasomotor and cardiovascular centres of man are located in:
a. diencephalon
b. medulla oblongata
c. hypophysis
d. spinal cord
e. dominant hemisphere
f. aorta
g. reticular formation
h. cerebral cortex
503. How many pairs of cranial nerves stem from human brain:
a. 7
b. 9
c. 14
d. 16
e. 31
f. 33
g. 11
h. 12
504. Nerve fibres of the spinal cord of human:
a. form the white matter surrounded by the grey matter
b. form the grey matter surrounding the white matter
c. are functionally divided into motor and sensory
d. form numerous channels
e. contain myelinated axons
f. form the white matter surrounding the grey matter
g. form the grey matter surrounded by the white matter
h. do not normally occur
505. The number of spinal nerve pairs in human is:
a. 12
b. 31
c. 11
d. 14
e. 7
f. 60
g. uncountable
h. 22
506. The following belong to the peripheral nervous system of human:
a. medulla oblongata and peripheral nerves
b. coccygeal and central part of spinal cord
c. sacral and coccygeal nerves
d. sacral and cervical nerves
e. lumbar and thoracic nerves
f. cranial nerves
g. spinal nerves
h. cranial and spinal nerves
507. The following protective layers cover the brain and the spinal cord of man:
a. pia mater
b. dura mater
c. arachnoid mater
d. subarachnoid layer
e. subdural space
f. medulla
g. thick outermost layer made of fibrous connective tissue
h. middle layer made of web-like strands of connective tissue
508. Arachnoid mater of the human brain:
a. is a highly vascularized connective tissue membrane
b. is a poorly vascularized connective tissue membrane
c. is a thin transparent avascular connective tissue membrane
d. is a layer that firmly adheres to the brain and spinal cord
e. is the middle layer of the meninges
f. creates callosal commissure
g. is also called a “gate to consciousness“
h. is a spider web-like membrane
509. Evolutionary youngest part of the human brain is:
a. hindbrain
b. midbrain
c. pons
d. cerebellum
e. medulla oblongata
f. cerebrum
g. thalamus
h. mesencephalon
510. Proprioceptors of human:
a. are gustatory receptors
b. are pain receptors
c. sense the motions and position of the body
d. are thermoreceptors
e. are mechanoreceptors
f. sense the motions and position of the body and are localized in the middle ear
g. sense the position and motions of the body and are localized in the joints
h. sense the position and motions of the body and are localized in muscles and tendons
511. The following nerves conduct impulses from the central nervous system to skeletal muscles of human:
a. vegetative
b. statoacoustic
c. spinal
d. cranial
e. somatic
f. motor
g. autonomic
h. sensitive
512. Immediate involuntary response evoked by a given stimulus is called:
a. receptor
b. neurite
c. impulse
d. axon
e. reflex
f. sense
g. stress
h. effector
513. The reflex arc of human:
a. is always localized to the spinal cord
b. is a direct single neuron connection between the receptor and the effector
c. has never any part of its path situated in the head
d. has afferent and efferent path
e. is a nerve connection between the receptor and effector through the central nervous system
f. arises as a response of organism to the receptor stimulation
g. can be autonomic or somatic
c. aqueous humour
d. cornea
e. sclera
f. choroid
g. uvea
h. lacrimal glands
527. Retina of the human eye:
a. is the inner layer of the eyeball
b. is the superficial layer of the eyeball
c. is the middle layer of the eyeball
d. contains photoreceptors
e. contains taste buds
f. contains blind spot
g. contains rods responsible for colour vision
h. contains cones responsible for colour vision
528. The following are refraction abnormalities of the eye:
a. myopia also called near-sightedness
b. hyperopia also called far-sightedness
c. myopia also called far-sightedness
d. hyperopia also called near-sightedness
e. presbyopia related to aging process
f. astigmatism also called far-sightedness
g. astigmatism in which the eye does not focus light evenly on the sclera
h. astigmatism in which the cornea has an irregular curvature
529. The area of retina with the highest visual resolution (sharpness) is:
a. blind spot
b. macula lutea
c. macula purpura
d. lens
e. choroid
f. centre of the macula lutea containing only cones
g. centre of the macula lutea containing only rods
h. the place where the optic nerves exit the eyeball
530. Organ of Corti is located in:
a. external ear
b. middle ear
c. inner ear
d. cochlea
e. eardrum
f. auditory canal
g. tympanic membrane
h. auricle
531. Auditory ossicles are:
a. the smallest bones in the body
b. the biggest bones in the body
c. malleus
d. stapes
e. hammer
f. incus
g. pliers
h. stirrup
532. Inner ear:
a. contains bony labyrinth and membranous labyrinth
b. contains bony labyrinth and tendinous labyrinth
c. contains auditory ossicles
d. contains eardrum
e. contains cochlea
c. antibiotics
d. lysosome
e. bacteriophage
f. lysozyme
g. ptyalin
h. phagosome
546. Diapedesis is:
a. ingestion of microorganisms
b. ability to walk on two limbs
c. transformation of B lymphocytes into plasma cells
d. filtration of blood plasma in the glomerulus
e. outward passage of leukocytes through capillary walls
f. erected walking on lower limbs
g. secretory activity of lymphocytes
h. outward passage of erythrocytes through capillary walls
547. The ingestion of microorganisms by immune cell is called:
a. pinocytosis
b. exocytosis
c. diapedesis
d. phagocytosis
e. plasmolysis
f. endocytosis
g. disjunction
h. chemotaxis
548. Human thymus:
a. belongs to primary lymphatic organs
b. is best developed in adult individuals
c. is best developed in children
d. is an organ where B lymphocytes mature
e. is an organ where T lymphocytes mature
f. is usually replaced by muscle tissue in adulthood
g. is replaced by fat tissue in the adulthood
h. is the biggest lymphatic organ
549. Tonsils:
a. are the biggest lymphatic organ
b. are the primary lymphatic organs
c. are considered to be immunological filter of blood
d. are localized in laryngeal epithelium
e. are localized in pharyngeal epithelium
f. are the part of the immune system
g. produce lymphocytes
h. are the vital organs and therefore cannot be surgically removed
550. Microorganisms in human body are usually captured:
a. in the tissue fluid
b. in blood plasma and lymph nodes
c. on the surface of erythrocytes
d. in the lymph nodes
e. in blood plasma
f. on the skin surface
g. on the epithelial surface
h. in the mucus of airways
551. Which of the following cells perform nonspecific line of immune response called phagocytosis:
a. eosinophil granulocytes
b. leukocytes and erythrocytes
c. neutrophil granulocytes
d. B lymphocytes
e. T lymphocytes
f. monocytes
g. specific cells in blood and tissues
h. some types of leukocytes
552. Agglutinins are:
a. red blood cell antigens
b. all antibodies in blood plasma
c. agglutinogens of leukocytes
d. products of agglutinogens
e. responsible for agglutination of erythrocytes in incompatible blood transfusion
f. specific type of antibodies in blood
g. used in ABO blood group typing
h. antigens present on the corpus luteum
553. Agglutinogens of human erythrocytes:
a. are acquired
b. are not inherited
c. are heritable
d. change during life time
e. are red blood cells antigens
f. induce the formation of antibodies
g. belong to plasma proteins
h. are used in blood typing
554. Blood groups of man are determined:
a. by the presence of specific antigens in blood plasma
b. by the ability of erythrocytes to produce antibodies
c. by specific type of plasma proteins in any individual
d. by the presence of specific antigens in the membrane of erythrocytes
e. by the presence of antibodies in blood plasma
f. genetically
g. by the presence of immunoglobulins in the membrane of erythrocytes
h. by the presence of gamma globulins in the membrane of erythrocytes
555. Blood plasma of a person with the blood group A contains:
a. antigen A
b. antigen B
c. agglutinin anti-A
d. agglutinin anti-B
e. antibody anti-A
f. antibody anti-B
g. antigens A, B
h. agglutinogen anti-A
556. Blood of a person with the blood group AB does not contain:
a. antigen B
b. antigen A
c. antigens A, B
d. antibody anti-A
e. antibody anti-B
f. agglutinin anti-A
g. agglutinin anti-B
h. agglutinins targeted against self-antigens
557. The blood group of child is A Rh+ and the blood group of its mother is O Rh- . Which man can be
excluded as possible father of the child:
a. AB Rh+
b. A Rh-
c. B Rh+
d. A Rh+
e. 0 Rh+
f. 0 Rh-
g. AB Rh-
h. B Rh-
558. A person with the blood group B has:
a. agglutinogen B and agglutinin anti-A
b. agglutinogen A and agglutinin anti-B
c. agglutinogen B in blood plasma and agglutinin anti-A on the surface of erythrocytes
d. agglutinogen A on the surface of erythrocytes and agglutinin anti-B in blood plasma
e. agglutinogen B on the surface of erythrocytes and agglutinin anti-A in blood plasma
f. agglutinogen B and no agglutinins
g. agglutinogen AB on the surface of erythrocytes
h. agglutinins anti-A and anti-B in blood plasma
559. A person with the blood group O has:
a. agglutinogens A and B in blood plasma
b. no agglutinins
c. agglutinins anti-A and anti-B in blood plasma
d. anti-A and anti-B agglutinins, which are found on the surface of erythrocytes
e. antigens A and B
f. antibodies targeted against antigens A and B
g. agglutinins anti-A and anti-B in the serum
h. different antigens on the surface of erythrocytes
560. A person with the blood group AB:
a. has antigens A and B
b. has no agglutinins anti-A and anti-B
c. has agglutinin anti-A
d. has agglutinin anti-B
e. has agglutinins anti-A and anti-B
f. may never receive blood transfusion
g. has no antibodies anti-A and anti-B
h. is always Rh positive
561. Which of the following is the safe red blood cell transfusion:
a. O Rh- donates the blood to O Rh+
b. B Rh+ donates the blood to A Rh+
c. A Rh- donates the blood to AB Rh-
d. B Rh- donates the blood to AB Rh-
e. A Rh+ donates the blood to A Rh-
f. O Rh+ donates the blood to B Rh-
g. AB Rh- donates the blood to O Rh-
h. A Rh- donates the blood to A Rh+
562. The following is true about the Rh blood system:
a. it is named after the Rhesus monkey
b. antibodies anti-Rh are not naturally occurring in blood plasma
c. antibodies anti-Rh are naturally occurring in blood plasma
d. antibody anti-Rh are produced, if Rh- individual receives Rh+ positive blood
e. antibody anti-Rh are produced, if Rh+ individual receives Rh- blood
f. naturally occurring antibodies exist in this system
g. antibodies in this system are produced after immunization only
h. antibodies anti-Rh can be produced in blood of Rh+ mother bearing the Rh- fetus
563. Specific immunity of human organism:
a. is based on the ability of the organism to tolerate foreign antigen material
b. develops individually during ontogenesis
c. is carried out by macrophages
d. may be cell-mediated
e. is carried out by lymphocytes
f. may be antibody-mediated
g. is carried out by B but not T lymphocytes
h. is carried out by monocytes
564. Adaptive immunity is:
a. always non-specific
b. specific
c. for instance humoral type of immunity
d. carried out by T lymphocytes that produce antibodies
e. active
f. carried out by basophil granulocytes
g. carried out by B lymphocytes, which became activated upon contact with antigen
h. carried out by memory cells
565. The following belong to innate (non-specific) immunity:
a. vaccination
b. formation of antibodies
c. phagocytosis
d. allergy
e. immunisation
f. antimicrobial substance in tears and saliva
g. action of lysine
h. action of lysozyme
566. Female uterine cycle is divided into:
a. childhood, puberty, adulthood, menopause and senescence
b. adulthood and climax
c. 4 phases
d. ovulation, pregnancy and postpartum period
e. 3 phases
f. ovulation and menstrual phase
g. menstrual, proliferative, secretory and ischemic phase
h. 5 phases
567. Female ovarian cycle is divided into:
a. 3 phases
b. follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase
c. menstrual, proliferative, secretory and ischemic phase
d. 4 phases
e. preovulatory phase, ovulation and postovulatory phase
f. 2 phases
g. ovulation, fertilization
h. menarche and menopause
568. Corpus luteum is:
a. formed from macula lutea in sexually mature females
b. under the control of prolactin hormone
c. “yellow body”
d. produced in luteal phase of ovarian cycle
e. produced from cells of uterine mucosa
f. produced in postovulatory phase
g. produced before ovulation phase
h. temporary endocrine structure in female ovaries
569. Ovaries:
a. are female gonads
b. are male gonads
c. produce sperm cells
d. produce egg cells
e. are paired oval structures on either side of the uterus in the pelvic cavity
f. are paired oval structures on either side of the uterus in the thoracic cavity
g. produce sex hormones
h. produce ova
570. Human Graafian follicle produces:
a. estrogens
b. progesterone
c. choriogonadotropin
d. testosterone
e. oxytocin
f. follicle-stimulating hormone
g. androgens
h. gestagens
571. How many primary follicles mature and ovulate during a woman’s reproductive lifetime:
a. 6000
b. 1400
c. 1460
d. 5000
e. 2000
f. 1200
g. 450
h. 40
572. Ovulation usually occurs:
a. in the end of uterine cycle
b. between day 14 - 16 of ovarian cycle
c. on day 28 of ovarian cycle
d. on day 24 of menstrual cycle
e. once per lunar month
f. during menopause
g. regularly
h. during menstruation
573. After ovulation human Graafian follicle:
a. peels off and disappears
b. may change to corpus luteum menstruationis
c. is resorbed
d. may change to corpus luteum graviditatis
e. enters menopause
f. produces hormones
g. is changed into a temporary endocrine structure
h. is autolysed
574. Which of the following belongs to male internal genital organs:
a. prostate
b. epididymis
c. seminal vesicles
d. scrotum
e. penis
f. glans penis
g. ductus deferens
h. corpus cavernosum
575. Which of the following belongs to male external genital organs:
a. epididymis
b. ductus deferens
c. prostate
d. scrotum
e. penis
f. seminal vesicles
g. testis
h. urinary bladder
576. Which of the following belongs to male gonads:
a. seminal vesicles
b. testicles
c. paired oval glands in scrotum
d. testes
e. fallopian tubes
f. ovaries
g. epididymis
h. glans penis
577. Which of the following is true of male reproductive system:
a. testes produce sperms and the male sex hormone progesterone
b. testes produce sperms and the male sex hormone testosterone
c. system of ducts transports sperms
d. system of ducts assists in maturation of sperms
e. seminal vesicles secrete an alkaline fluid that contributes to sperms motility and viability
f. uterus is the site of implantation of a fertilized ovum
g. uterus is the site of development of the fetus during pregnancy
h. ovaries produce ova and hormones
578. Which of the following hormones control sperm production and maturation:
a. follicle-stimulating hormone
b. growth hormone
c. vasopressin
d. calcitonin
e. luteinizing hormone
f. testosterone
g. cortisol
h. insulin
579. Ischemic phase of uterine cycle usually starts on:
a. day 1-4 of the cycle
b. day 5-9 of the cycle
c. day 10-14 of the cycle
d. day 14-18 of the cycle
e. day 18 of the cycle
f. day 21 of the cycle
g. day 24 of the cycle
h. day 28 of the cycle
580. Which of the following belongs to sexually transmitted diseases:
a. AIDS
b. gonorrhea
c. influenza
d. syphilis
e. trichomoniasis
f. diabetes
g. mumps
h. meningitis
581. Mark the correct statement about the development of human male sperm:
a. spermatogenesis produces sperms with a diploid number of chromosomes
b. spermatogenesis produces sperms with a haploid number of chromosomes
c. correct course of spermatogenesis depends on the temperature in testicles
d. length of sperm cell is 90 μm
e. spermatogonia are able of active movement
f. sperms production begins at birth and continues until the end of male’s life
g. sperm cell consists of the glans, middle piece, and flagellum
h. spermatogonia are produced in seminiferous tubules of the seminal vesicle
582. Mark the correct statement about male reproductive organs:
a. epididymis is the site of sperm maturation
b. ductus deferens is about 45-50 cm long
c. spermatogonia can be found in walls of ductus deferens
d. prostate is a paired organ often hypertrophic in the old age
e. erection occurs mainly by the accumulation of blood in corpora cavernosa of penis
f. thoracic portion of the spinal cord initiates and maintains penile erection
g. sacral portion of the spinal cord initiates and maintains penile erection
h. seminal vesicle has about 4-5 cm in length
583. Which of the following belongs to female internal genital organs:
a. labia minora
b. vulvar vestibule
c. uterus
d. ovaries
e. clitoris
f. womb
g. uterine tubes
h. ovulum
584. Which of the following belongs to female external genital organs:
a. labia majora
b. vulvar vestibule
c. ovaries
d. scrotum
e. clitoris
f. mons pubis
g. fallopian tubes
h. vagina
585. Which of the following terms refer to common name for all external genitals of female that surround
the opening to the vagina:
a. vagina
b. vulva
c. scrotum
d. pudendum
e. ovary
f. labia minora and majora
g. clitoris
h. primary oocyte
586. Which of the following structures are found in female uterus:
a. vaginal orifice
b. dome-shaped superior portion called the body
c. central portion called the fundus
d. dome-shaped superior portion called the fundus
e. central portion called the body
f. inferior narrow portion called the cervix
g. cervix that opens to vestibule
h. vestibule
587. Mark the correct statement about the female reproductive organs:
a. oviducts are paired glands that resemble almonds
b. ovary is composed of ovarian cortex and internal ovarian medulla
c. uterus is an unpaired hollow organ ending with finger-like projections
d. hymen is located at the beginning of the uterus of virgin females
e. mons pubis is erectile like male penis
f. uterus is lined with ciliated simple columnar cells to help move a fertilized ovum
g. vagina is the receptacle for the penis during sexual intercourse
h. labia majora pupendi are covered by pubic hair
588. Testicles of male:
a. produce male gametes – sperms
b. produce large amounts of progesterone
c. produce mainly estrogens
d. produce testosterone
e. produce mainly gestagens
f. work under the control of pituitary gland
g. have endocrine function
h. have not only endocrine function
589. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by:
a. Treponema pallidum
b. virus
c. bacterium
d. flagellate
e. Trichomonas vaginalis
f. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
g. Amoeba proteus
h. Entamoeba histolytica
590. Mark the correct statements about the female reproductive cycle:
a. ovarian cycle is a series of events in the ovaries that occur during and after the maturation of an oocyte
b. uterine cycle is also called the menstrual cycle
c. uterine cycle is a concurrent series of changes in the endometrium of the vagina
d. in general female reproductive cycle encompasses the ovarian and uterine cycles
e. hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary and ovaries control the main events of the cycle
f. hormones secreted by thyroid gland and ovaries control the main events of the cycle
g. definite end to reproductive capability of women is called climacterium
h. definite end to reproductive capability of women is called menopause
591. Which of the following is true about the proliferative phase of uterine cycle:
a. thickness of the endometrium approximately doubles
b. uterine endometrium proliferates
c. menstrual flow from the uterus occurs
d. menstrual flow passes from the uterine cavity through the cervix and vagina to the exterior
e. rupture of the mature (Graafian) follicle occurs
f. corpus luteum is formed
g. Graafian follicle ruptures and the ovum is released
h. uterine spiral arterioles constrict and the endometrium sloughs off
592. Which of the following is true about hormones of female reproduction:
a. luteinizing hormone causes ovulation
b. estrogen initiates development of the secondary sex characteristics
c. luteinizing hormone stimulates secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum
d. luteinizing hormone is produced by corpus luteum
e. follicle-stimulating hormone is produced by ovarian follicles
f. estrogen promotes growth of the mammary ducts and fat deposition in the breasts of females
g. progesterone is produced by corpus luteum
h. androgens promote growth of the uterus and other female reproductive organs
593. Human intrauterine development lasts approximately about:
a. 45 weeks
b. 250 days
c. 280 days
d. 10 lunar months
e. 9 lunar months
f. 10 calendar months
g. 290 days
h. 40 weeks
594. Which of the following belongs to labour stages:
a. histiotrophic stage
b. chorionic stage
c. dilation stage
d. hemotrophic stage
e. expulsion stage
f. placental stage
g. proliferative stage
h. secretory stage
595. The connection between the human fetus and the maternal organism allowing the nutrient uptake is
mediated by:
a. all fetal membranes
b. uterine smooth muscle
c. placenta
d. yolk sac
e. cervix