Professional Documents
Culture Documents
DENNIS S. FLORES, MD
Colistin
Gram-positive organisms 0
Enterobacteriaceae except Serratia spp, +
Proteus spp., Providencia spp.,
Morganella spp.
Extended-spectrum β-lactamases +
(ESBLs)
Klebsiella pneumoniae Carbapenemases +
(KPCs) • Aminocyclitol structure
• Protein synthesis inhibitors
New Delhi metallo-β-lactamase (NDM- +
• More active in alkaline pH
1)
Acinetobacter baumannii including MDR +
Strep Genta Amik Tobra*
Pseudomonas aeruginosa including +
S. aureus NOT + + + +
MDR
MRSA
Anaerobes 0
Streptococci 0 0 0 0
+ = susceptible; + variable; 0 = resistant
Enterococcus + + + +
faecalis
MECHANISM OF ACTION
Enterococcus 0 + 0 0
faecium
• Attach and disrupt bacterial cell membrane
– Act as “cationic detergent” Enterobacteriaceae + + + +
– Bind to anionic lipopolysaccharide Pseudomonas + + + +#
molecules leading to permeability aeruginosa
changes in cell membrane Atypical organisms 0 0 0 0
– Leakage of intracellular metabolites Anaerobes 0 0 0 0
and nucleosides, causing cell death + susceptible; + variable; 0 resistant
*Not locally available
#
PHARMACOKINETICS Lowest MIC
• Polymyxin B (topical)
• Polymyxin E (IV) MECHANISM OF ACTION
• Poor oral absorption • Transported to the cytoplasm by an oxygen-
dependent process
– Skin and soft tissue infections • Widely distributed to tissues except CSF
– Intraabdominal infections • Good intracellular/ tissue penetration
• NOT recommended as 1st line treatment for • Excreted in bile
pneumonia • Can pass the placenta; excreted in milk
NOT recommended for bacteremia • Inhibit cytochrome P450
– Increases serum concentration of
ADVERSE REACTIONS theophylline, warfarin,
• Same as tetracyclines – Pregnancy Risk methylprednisolone, carbamazepine
Category D
• Hematologic disturbances e.g. PHARMACODYNAMICS
thrombocytopenia, prolonged partial • Time-dependent killing
thromboplastin time and
prothrombin time CLINICAL USES – ERYTHROMYCIN
• Pancreatitis • Drug of choice for infections caused by
• Transaminitis – Legionella pneumophila,
• Somnolence Mycoplasma pneumoniae,
• Chlamydophila spp. (atypical
MACROLIDES pneumonia)
• Macrocyclic lactone ring – Corynebacterium spp. (diphtheria)
– Bordetella pertussis
MECHANISM OF ACTION • Other uses
• Susceptible organisms concentrate the drug – Chlamydia trachomatis
intracellularly • Penicillin substitute for Streptococcus
• Bind to the 50s subunit pyogenes to those with penicillin-allergy
• Block peptide chain elongation
ADVERSE REACTIONS – ERYTHROMYCIN
Erythro Clarithro Azithro • Common
Gram-positive + + + – GI disturbance e.g. diarrhea,
cocci abdominal cramps, flatulence,
Moraxella + + + nausea/vomiting
catarrhalis • Occasional
Haemophilus + + + – Acute cholestatic hepatitis (estolate)
influenzae – Stomatitis
Some 0 0 + – Thrombophlebitis
Enterobacteriaceae • Rare
(E. coli, Klebsiella – Hypersensitivity
spp.) – Infantile hypertrophic pyloric
Legionella spp. + + + stenosis
Chlamydophila + + + – QTc interval prolongation,
spp. arrhythmia (torsades de pointes,
ventricular tachycardia)
Mycoplasma + + +
– Transient hearing loss
pneumoniae
– Pseudomembranous colitis
Pseudomonas 0 0 0
aeruginosa
CLARITHROMYCIN
Anaerobes 0 0 0
• Compared to Erythromycin
+ = susceptible; + variable; 0 = resistant
– Most active against H. influenzae
and Mycobacterium avium complex
MECHANISM OF RESISTANCE – Longer half-life
• Modification of ribosomal binding site/ – Absorption less affected by food
ribosomal protection (by production of – Excreted in urine
methylase) – Less GI disturbance
– Confers resistance to structurally
related compounds (clindamycin and AZITHROMYCIN
streptogramin B) • Similar spectrum of activity with
• Efflux pump Clarithromycin with additional coverage for
• Production of esterases Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp.
• Drug of choice for infection caused by
PHARMACOKINETICS – ERYTHROMYCIN Bartonella henselae (cat scratch disease)
• Absorption impaired by food • Compared to other macrolides
– Stearates and esters promotes • Absorption impaired by food
better absorption; estolate best • Best tissue penetration (>10 to 100-
absorption fold than serum)
– IV formulation (gluceptate, • Slowly released from tissues
lactobionate) (t½ 2-4days)
ADVERSE REACTIONS
• Common
– GI disturbances e.g.
nausea/vomiting, diarrhea
• Occasional
– Neuropathy
– Hemolytic anemia (those with G6PD
deficiency)
– Rash
– Pulmonary infiltration, fibrosis
FOSFOMYCIN
Fosfomycin
Staphylococci including MRSA +
Streptococci +
Enterococcus faecalis NOT E. +
faecium
Enterobacteriaceae +
Extended-spectrum β-lactamases +
(ESBLs)
Klebsiella pneumoniae +
Carbapenemases
(KPCs)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa 0
Anaerobes +
+ = susceptible; + variable; 0 = resistant
MECHANISM OF ACTION
• Inhibit the very early stage of cell wall
synthesis
– Inhibit enolpyruvate transferase
– Block the addition of
phosphoenolpyruvate to UDP-N-
acetylglucosamine (first step in the
formation of N-acetylmuramic acid)
PHARMACOKINETICS
• 40% bioavailability after oral administration
• Poorly distributed in tissues
• Excreted in urine
– Urinary concentration exceeding
MICs for most urinary tract
pathogens
CLINICAL USE
• Uncomplicated acute cystitis
• NOT recommended as 1st line agent for
treatment for MDR infections
Adverse effects: wt gain from increased appetite & 2. IM absorption is rapid with water soluble
sedations succinate and PO4, slower with lipid soluble
Indications: acetate & acetonide esters
1. adjunct therapy of asthma 3. CS are absorbed from sites of local application
2. treatment of AR & AC 4. > 90% are reversibly bound to plasma
proteins, CBG, transcortin & albumin
ANTI-IGE (OMALIZUMAB): 1st biological drug 5. only unbound portion is pharmacologically
approved for treatment of asthma. It is a active
recombinant humanized monoclonal Ab (IgG1) 6. crosses placenta & maybe distributed to milk
targeted vs IgE 7. metabolism mostly in the liver with resulting
MOA: metabolites undergoing sulfation or
1. binds to Fc portion of IgE, preventing IgE from glucoronidation before being excreted in the
binding to FceR1 on mast cells, basophils, kidneys
eosinophils & Ag presenting cells (APC),
preventing allergic rxn at very early step, Pharmacodynamcis:
free IgE by > 95% 1. Gene-active drugs, with most effects mediated
2. FceRI expression on cell surface of basophils by glucocorticoid receptors (GR) in the cell
& mast cells by > 95% due to turnover of 2. In the absence of hormonal ligand, GRs are in
unbound receptors complexes with heat shock protein (hsp) in the
Pharmacokinetics: cytoplasm
1. Given as single sc injection q 2-4 wks with 3. Free GCS enters cell & binds to GR, inducing
bioavailability of ~60%, reaching peak serum conformational changes in the GR leading to
levels after 7-8 days, T1/2 = 26 days hsp release. The ligand bound receptor
2. Elimination of omalizumab-IgE complexes complexes dimerize & are transported into the
occurs in liver RES nucleus, interacting with DNA, binding to GC
Adverse effects: receptor elements (GRE) in the promoter
1. local effects: redness, stinging, bruising, region of responsive genes. This interaction is
induration facilitated or inhibited by coactivators or
2. anaphylaxis corepressors respectively, leading in turn to
3. slight increased frequency of malignancy? activation or inhibition of transcription of mRNA
Indication: for patients ≥ 12 y/o with moderate - by polymerase II & associated transcription
severe persistent atopic asthma, AR & food allergies factors & subsequent translation to protein
synthesis. Thus there is a lag period of hew hrs
FIXED DOSE COMBINATIONS IN ASTHMA THERAPY: to days before steroid effects are noted
1. Salbutamol + Ipratropium Bromide: additive 4. Feedback suppression of ACTH occurs in
effect, for relief of asthma attacks & COPD minutes probably from direct effects of GC-GR
2. LABA + ICS: Salmeterol + Fluticasone, Formoterol complexes on cell membrane receptors or from
+ Budesonide; nongenomic effects.
Synergistic actions: LABA induced sustained
bronchodilation enhancing penetration of Table 1, Effects of GC-GR on Gene transcription
ICS, ICS
Genes whose Genes whose
prevents down-regulation of ß2 agonist
transcriptions transcriptions are
receptors;
are promoted inhibited
LABA + ICS in fixed dose combination
obviates the need for doubling ICS dose in 1. lipocortin 1. cytokines
patients with 2. ß2-agonist 2. 5-lipoxygenase
partially controlled asthma receptors 3. endothelin-1
enhance compliance by combining 2
3. endonucleas 4. collagenase,
medicines in 1 gadget es stromelysin
4. stromelysin
CORTICOSTEROIDS
ADRENOCORTICOSTEROIDS: Hormones produced &
secreted from the adrenal cortex and their Physiologic effects of GCS:
analogues Cortisol are produced 10 mg daily & in times of
stress, there is 10 fold increased secretion
1. glucocorticoids (GCS): those with important
effects on intermediary metabolism & immune
functions, ie., Cortisol
2. mineralocorticoids (MC): those with salt-
retaining property, ie. Aldosterone
3. sex steroids: with either androgenic or
estrogenic activity
Pharmacokinetics:
1. most are absorbed readily
Table 2: Physiologic effects of GCS Table 4. Relative potencies & equivalent doses of
representative CS
Permissive effects: Metabolic effects
responses in the anti- Na durati Equi
absence of cortisol & inflam retainin on of -
restored by physiologic mator g action vale
amount y potency * nt
dose
1. vascular & bronchial 1. formation of
smooth muscle glucose, glycogen Cortisol 1 1 S 20
response to storage &
catecholamines gluconeogenesis by cortisone 0.8 0.8 S 25
2. lipolytic response of mobilizing AA
fat cells to 2. peripheral Prednisone 4 0.8 I 5
catecholamines, utilization, glucose
ACTH, GH uptake in adipose Prednisolone 4 0.8 I 5
tissue, skin
fibroblasts, methylpredn 5 0.5 I 4
thymocytes, PMNs isolone
3. Redistributes body
Triamcinolon 5 0 I 4
fat (truncal obesity),
e
lipolysis of
triglycerides of
Betamethaso 25 0 L 0.75
adipose tissues,
ne
lipogenesis net in
fat deposition Dexamethas 25 0 L 0.75
4. Catabolic effects: one
lymphoid tissue,
connective tissue, Fludrocortiso 10 125 - -
muscles, fat & skin ne
Effects on electrolyte & water balance: h •Biologic half-life: S = short acting (8-12 hrs), I
reabsorption of Na from tubular fluid, h urinary = intermediate (12-36 hrs); L = long acting (36-
excretion of K, Ca, & H 72 hrs)
Metabolic 1. hyperglycemia, DM (
gluconeogenesis in liver &
degradation of proteins to free
amino acid in muscles)
2. metabolic alkalosis (from K+ &
H+ losses in the kidneys)
3. dyslipidemia (from lipolysis)
______3. Which of the ff anti-asthma drugs is NOT ______11. The following steroid preparation is a
suitable for monotherapy of asthma pro-drug. Its C-11 ketone needs to be hydroxylated
A. Montelukast in the liver before it becomes active.
B. LABA A. Prednisone
C. ICS B. Prednisolone
D. Theophylline C. Methylprednisolone
D. Dexamethasone
______4. This is the bronchodilator of choice for
patients with COPD. ______12. In the long term treatment of chronic
A. Salbutamol autoimmune disorders with prednisone, it is best to
B. Tiotropium give steroids at this time of the day to minimise
C. Formoterol adverse effects.
D. Theophylline A. 6 – 8 am
B. 12 noon
______5. Which subtype of muscarinic receptors is C. 3 pm
blocked by tiotropium D. 6 – 8 pm
A. M1
B. M2 ______13. The steroid preparation of choice for a
C. M3 patient in Addisonian crisis:
D. M4 A. Hydrocortisone
B. Prednisolone
______6. Which of the ff anti-asthma drugs C. Methylprednisolone
possesses both bronchodilator & anti-inflammatory D. Dexamethasone
properties
A. Formoterol ______14. The most potent mineralocorticosteroid
B. Montelukast recommended in the treatment of salt losing
C. Theophylline adrenogenital syndrome:
D. Ipratropium A. Hydrocortisone
B. Prednisolone
______7. Clearance of theophylline is enhanced by C. Methylprednisolone
concurrent administration of the ff drug or D. Fludrocortisone
substance
A. Cigarette smoke ______15. In adopting “every other day” steroid
B. Grapefruit juice therapy for persistent severe asthma, which of the
C. Macrolides following is most suitable for long term use.
D. Cimetidine A. Hydrocortisone
B. Prednisone
______8. Which of the ff is best for reducing C. Methylprednisolone
bronchial hyperreactivity of persistent asthma? D. Dexamethasone
A. ICS
B. Inhaled LABA
C. Methylxanthines
D. LTRA
o Insulin aspart – proline at B28 is Effect appears within 30 minutes, peak between
replaced with aspartic acid 2-3h and lasts 5-8h
o Insulin glulisine – glutamic acid Given 30 min SC before a meal to control
replaces lysine at B29, and lysine postprandial hyperglycemia
replaces asparagine at B3
Preparation of choice for IV therapy during
Long Acting Analogs
surgery, acute infections, diabetic ketoacidosis ;
o Insulin glargine
the only type that can be administered IV
2 arginine are attached to B chain
carboxyl terminal; glycine is
INTERMEDIATE ACTING INSULIN
substituted for asparagine at A21
NPH ( Isophane Insulin )
o Insulin detemir
Threonine is dropped from B30 and Onset of action is delayed by mixing insulin and
myristic acid is attached to B29 lysine protamine in an equal ratio at neutral pH with
small amount of zinc
PHARMACOKINETICS OF AVAILABLE INSULIN Converts the normally rapidly absorbed insulin
PREPARATIONS (refer to Table 4 Appendix A) to a preparation with longer duration of action
Can be mixed with regular, lispro, aspart or
INDICATIONS FOR INSULIN glulisine insulin and given 2-4 times daily
1. Persons with Type 1 (insulin dependent) Dose regulates the action profile; small doses
diabetes or postpancreatectomy diabetes have lower, earlier peaks and a short duration of
2. Acutely decompensated diabetes (with action
diabetic ketoacidosis or hypersmolar, Variability of absorption is >50%
hyperglycemic coma)
3. Hyperglycemic pregnant diabetic not RAPID ACTING INSULIN ANALOGS
controlled by diet alone - Very fast onset, short duration
4. Short-term treatment of type 2 or impaired Insulin Analogs
glucose tolerance during intercurrent events 1. Insulin Lispro
(operations, infections, myocardial
infarction)
Same AA as human insulin except
B28 contains lysine and B29
5. Persons with Type 2 diabetes but good
contains proline
blood glucose control can not be achieved
and maintained by diet, exercise and/or oral The switching results in insulin
hypoglycemics molecule that resists formation of
6. Emergency treatment of hyperkalemia; hexamers and tends to remain
insulin is given with glucose to lower ECF K+ monomeric, thus promoting a more
via distribution into cells. rapid rate of absorption from SC
injection sites reaching peak serum
CHARACTERISTICS OF INSULIN values as early as 1 hour, and has
PREPARATION shorter duration of action (2-4 hrs)
No advantage over regular insulin if Injection immediately before a meal
given intravenously affords hypoglycemic control similar
2. Insulin Aspart to regular insulin given 30 min.
before the meal
Substitution of the B28 proline with
aspartic acid Lowest variability of absorption;
duration of action is not prolonged
The modification reduces ProB28
by increasing the dose
and GlyB23 monomer -monomer
interaction inhibiting self – These unique characters allow a
aggregation better match of the rise in
circulating insulin concentration with
Rapidly breaks into monomers after
glucose excursions after meals
SC injection
Absorption and activity profile LONG ACTING BASAL INSULIN ANALOGS
similar to insulin lispro. Provide a more constant low-level release of insulin
3.Insulin glulisine 1. Insulin Glargine - An insulin analog
Asparagine is substituted for lysine
at B3 and glutamic acid for lysine at
2 arginine are attached to the
carboxyl terminal of B; glycine is
B29
substituted for asparaginase at A21
SHORT ACTING INSULIN Soluble in solution but precipitates in the more
Regular or Soluble Crystalline Zinc Insulin neutral body pH after SC injection, absorption
is thus prolonged; avoids insulin peaks
Predominantly dimeric and hexameric causing
delay in onset and prolong time to peak action Provides constant basal insulin supply and
mimic physiological post-absorptive basal
Has to be diluted by interstitial fluid to change to
insulin secretion
monomers
Used in conjunction with short acting insulin SOME DRUGS THAT MAY PROMOTE
– Lower post absorptive plasma glucose but HYPOGLYCEMIA
reduce the risk of night time hypoglycemia β Adrenergic antagonists
*Due to its acidic pH, it should not be Ethanol
mixed with short acting or rapid acting Salicylates
insulin Lithium chloride
*Must be given as separate injections Theophylline
ACE inhibitors
2. Insulin - detemir NSAIDs
Terminal threonine is dropped from B30 & Pentamidine
myristic acid (C-14 FA chains) is attached to Bromocriptine
the terminal B29 lysine Mebendazole
This modification prolong the availability of the
injected analog by promoting binding to serum
COMPLICATIONS OF INSULIN THERAPY
and tissue albumin
1. Hypoglycemia
Dose dependent onset of action of 1-2h and 2. Weight gain
duration of action of more than 24h 3. Insulin lipodystrophy (atrophy and/or
hypertrophy)
INSULIN MIXTURES 4. Insulin allergy and resistance
Combination of intermediate acting & rapid or
short acting insulin in premixed ratio II. ORAL ANTIDIABETIC AGENTS
Useful for patients with physical impairments A. Insulin Secretagogues
(visual or manual) who are on mixed insulin 1. Sulfonylureas (SUR)
regimens. 2. Rapid-Acting Prandial Insulin
Not ideal for most diabetics who may achieve Releasers (Glinides)
better control by separately mixing short-acting B. Biguanides (MET)
and intermediate acting insulins to arrive at a C. Thiazolidinediones(Tzds)
ratio that is better suited to manage their D. Alpha Glucosidase Inhibitors (AGIs)
diabetes.
A. INSULIN SECRETAGOGUES
FACTORS THAT AFFECT THE ABSORPTION OF
INSULIN 1. SULFONYLUREAS
1. Site of injection – abdominal wall > arm >
buttocks > thigh
2. Type of insulin
3. Subcutaneous blood flow
4. Altered volume or concentration of injected
insulin
5. Regional muscular activity at site of injection
6. Depth of injection The effective compounds are arysulfonylureas with
7. Species source – human insulin is absorbed substitution on the benzene and the urea group
faster
Mechanisms of Action
EFFECTS OF SELECTED HORMONES ON ENERGY Stimulate release of preformed insulin
HOMEOSTASIS (refer to Table 5 Appendix B Reduce serum glucagon concentration
(chronic)
SOME DRUGS THAT MAY PROMOTE
HYPERGLYCEMIA PHARMACOKINETICS OF SULFONYLUREAS refer to
Glucocorticoids Table 6 Appendix B)
Epinephrine SECOND GENERATION SULFONYLUREAS
Thyroid hormones 100-200 x more potent by weight than first
β 2 Adrenergic agonists generation agents
Diuretics (thiazide, loop) Similar mechanism of action as first generation
Hydantoins (phenytoin, others) agents
Antipsychotics (atypical,others) May be effective in patients who experience
Diazoxide secondary failure with first generation
Oral contraceptives
Fewer adverse effects and drug interactions
Pentamidine
Interferons
INDICATIONS FOR SULFONYLUREAS
Amphotericin B
Asparaginase In type 2 DM who can not achieve appropriate
Protease inhibitors control with diet and exercise alone
Opioids (morphine fentanyl)
Type 2 DM whose disease is controlled with Result in plasma insulin levels that
relatively low doses of insulin (<40 u/d) and are peak within 2 hrs; returns to
> 40 yrs of age baseline by 4 hrs.
Clinical presentation warrants immediately Hepatically metabolized (CYP2C9,
beginning oral agent along with diet and CYP3A4), t ½ = 1.5 hrs, duration
exercise. of action < 4 hrs
Dose: 60-120 mg before each meal
CONTRAINDICATIONS Side effect :Hypoglycemia
Type I DM
Pregnancy and Lactation B. BIGUANIDES: METFORMIN
Significant hepatic or renal insufficiency MECHANISMS OF ACTION
Decreases hepatic glucose
ADVERSE EFFECTS: production thru activation of AMPK
Hypoglycemia (adenosine 5’ monophosphate –
GIT upsets activated protein kinase)inhibits
gluconeogenesis, fatty acid
Cholestatic jaundice synthesis, . cholesterol synthesis
Agranulocytosis Increase peripheral glucose uptake
Aplastic & hemolytic anemias and utilization in skeletal muscle &
Disulfiram-like reactions (chlorpropamide) adipose tissues
Dilutional hyponatremia (chlorpropamide) Increases insulin signaling (inc.
Hypersensitivity reactions activity of insulin receptor)
Slows glucose absorption from the
DRUG INTERACTIONS GIT
Concomitant intake of drugs
(a) that affect: Added benefits:
(1) protein binding - Improvement in the adverse lipid
(2) hepatic metabolism profile found in DM: inc. HDL, dec.
(3) urinary excretion Tg
(b) that has opposite action / suppress insulin - suppresses appetite & causes less
secretion weight gain than SUR
Absorption, Fate and Excretion
2. GLINIDES. Rapid-acting prandial insulin Metformin is partially absorbed from
secretagogues the GIT not bound to plasma
proteins, not metabolized and is
Repaglinide excreted by the kidney as the active
a derivative of benzoic acid, lack the compound. It has a half-life of 1.5
SUR moiety to 3 hours.
stimulates insulin release by closing
KATP channels in β cells CLINICAL USE
rapidly absorbed from gut, peak 1. Firstline therapy for mild to
blood level is obtained in 1 hr, moderate type 2 obese diabetic with
metabolized in the liver (CYP3A4) insulin resistance
2. Combination with sulfonylurea
t1/2 = 1 hour, duration of action 5- 3. Prevention of T2DM in middle-aged
9 hrs
obese with IGT and fasting
Indicated for use in controlling hyperglycemia
postprandial glucose excursions 4. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (off-
Dose: 0.25-4 mg taken just before label use)
each meal
Side effect: hypoglycemia if meal is CONTRAINDICATIONS
delayed or skipped 1. Decreased renal or hepatic function
2. Myocardial infarction
Nateglinide 3. Septicemia
D-phenylalanine derivative 4. Prolonged fasting
Same M.A. as SUR and repaglinide
UNTOWARD EFFECT
Binds with higher affinity; 1. GIT disturbances – metallic taste,
Faster onset, shorter duration anorexia, nausea diarrhea
Restores initial insulin release in 2. Lactate accumulation and acidosis
response to glucose 3. Long-term use may interfere with
Absorbed within 20 min. after oral absorption of Vit. B12 and folate
administration peak effect < 1 hr.
Mechanisms of action:
(1) increase insulin mediated glucose bone fracture in women
transport into muscle and adipose tissue Pre-treatment liver function tests
(inc. glucose transporter expression) and periodically thereafter
(2) decreased hepatic glucose output Contraindications: liver disease,
(3) promote fatty acid uptake and storage CHF
in adipose tissue
(4) regulates the release of adipokines from D. ALPHA-GLUCOSIDASE INHIBITORS
dipocytes Acarbose, Miglitol
(4-a) stimulate secretion of Carbohydrate analogues that bind to α-
adipomectin sensitizes tissues to glucosidase
the effects of insulin Competitive inhibitors of alpha-
(4-b) inhibit resistin secretion glucosidases (final enzyme in the
reduces insulin resistance digestion of CHO)
Long term therapy dec. Tg, inc. has higher affinity for the enzymes (
HDL, inc. LDL (less dense) 1000 x ) than natural CHO
Readily absorb from the GIT, highly Reduce postprandial peak in blood
protein bound rapidly metabolized glucose by delaying the digestion and
by the liver absorption of starch and dissacharides
Half-life <7 hours for parent drug Prevent progression to diabetes mellitus
but up to 150 hrs and 24 hrs for the in prediabetics (STOP-NIDDM)
metabolites of rosiglitazone and Reduce CV events in diabetics
pioglitazone respectively.
Pioglitazone:
Poorly absorbed from GIT, extensively
degraded in the bowel and excreted in
with PPAR-α and PPAR-y
the feces and urine
activity
food delays absorption but Should be administered at the start of a
total bioavailability is not meal
affected; Prominent adverse effects: diarrhea,
absorption is decreased if flatulence, abdominal bloating
taken with bile acid Contraindicated in patients with
sequestrants inflammatory bowel disease
metabolized by CYP2C8 and
CYP3A4 III. GLP-1-BASED AGENTS
Tg lowering effect greater
than rosiglitazone A. GLP-1- Receptor Agonists
Approved as monotherapy 1. Exenatide
and in combination with Synthetic analog of GLP-1
MET, SUR and insulin for ACTIONS:
T2DM -Potentiates glucose-mediated
risk of bladder cancer insulin secretion
when used for >1 yr. -Suppresses postprandial glucagon
release
Rosiglitazone: -Slows gastric emptying
PPAR-y agonist -Decreases appetite
Rapidly absorbed; highly An injectable adjunctive therapy
protein bound in T2DM on MET and/or SUR
Metabolized by CYP2C8 and who still have suboptimal
CYP2C9 glycemic control
Appears to carry more Injected SC within 60 min
cardiovascular risk than before a meal
pioglitazone Associated with weight loss
Adverse effects:
-Nausea (44%)
DIAZOXIDE
It inhibits insulin release from β cells and
causes hyperglycemia lasting 4-8 hours.
Its action on ATP sensitive K+ channels is
opposite to that of sulfonylureas.
Other actions which may contribute to
hyperglycemia are decreased peripheral
utilization of glucose and release of
catecholamines.
It has been used to prevent hypoglycemia in
insulinomas.
OCREOTIDE
somatostatin analogue
blocks hormone release from insulinomas,
glucogonomas and thyrotropin secreting
pituitary adenomas
2. Bone OSTEOPOROSIS
- enhances calcium and phosphate Disease characterized by loss of bone mass
mobilization by stimulating bone due to reduced organic bone matrix and
resorption consequently, mineral content which
reduces the mechanical strength of the
Net Effect: to increase serum calcium bone.
concentration and to lower the serum Once established, it is extremely difficult to
phosphate concentration reverse.
VITAMIN D
Types: Postmenopausal, senile or
glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis
prohormone
secosteroid produced in the skin from 7- ANTI-OSTEOPOROSIS DRUGS
dehydrocholesterol under the influence of A. Anti-resorptive :
UV radiation Bisphosphonates
undergoes metabolic activation in the liver & Estrogens/HRT
kidneys Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators
2 sources: the natural form (vitamin D3, (SERMs)
cholecalciferol) and the plant-derived form Calcitonin
(vitamin D2, ergocalciferol) Denosumab
stored in the body, mostly in adipose tissue B. Vitamins and minerals
Calcium
plasma half-life : 22 h Vitamin D3
C. Bone-forming :
Actions:
Teriparatide (Recombinant PTH)
1. GIT: stimulates intestinal absorption of
C. Both anti-resorptive and Bone-forming
calcium & phosphate
Strontium ranelate
2. Bone: enhances calcium and phosphate
mobilization
BISPHOSPHONATES
3. Kidney: promotes tubular reabsorption
of calcium & phosphate enzyme resistant analogues of
pyrophosphate that directly bind to
Net effect: to increase serum calcium and hydroxyapatite in bone
phosphate concentrations oral bioavailability is low and is impaired by
food and iron
Drug interactions: 50% excreted unchanged by the kidney in
Cholestyramine can decrease vitamin D 24 hours; the rest is bound to tissues
absorption Amino bisphosphonates such as alendronate
Phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine and risedronate inhibit farnesyl
and rifampicin increase vitamin D pyrophosphate synthase, an enzyme in the
metabolism mevalonate pathway that is important for
Preparations: osteoclast survival
Cholecalciferol (D3)
Calcitriol or 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D 3 – Effects:
active vitamin D provide the greatest BMD increases and
Ergocalciferol (D2) fracture risk reductions
Therapeutic Use:
for treatment of postmenopausal
osteoporosis and osteoporosis in men at
high risk of osteoporosis-related fracture
who cannot or have failed bisphosphonate
therapy
Adverse Effects:
nausea, esophageal reflux, postural
hypotension, dizziness
DENOSUMAB
Human monoclonal antibody to RANKL
preventing its binding to RANK receptor
leading to osteoclast inhibition ( both in
number and function )
Reduces bone resorption
Reduces risk of spine, hip and nonvertebral
fractures
Used for postmenopausal osteoporosis,
prostate CA, breast CA
No dose adjustment for decreased kidney
function
ADR: increased risk of infection (RANKL also
present in immune system), Osteonecrosis
of the jaw, Subtrochanteric fractures
THYROID AND ANTI-THYROID DRUGS ______9. When taking this drug for osteoporosis,
the patient should remain upright position for 30
Choose the best answer: min to prevent esophageal ulceration:
A. Teriparatide
______1. The major mechanism of action of PTU is B. Alendronate
to: C. Raloxifene
A. Block iodide transport mechanism D. Calcitriol
B. interfere directly with the synthesis of
thyroid hormones ______10. A 60 year old male recently fell and
C. decrease the release of thyroid hormones sustained hip fracture. What is the best agent that
from the gland will promote bone healing?
D. Destroy the thyroid gland A. Zoledronic acid
B. Teriparatide
______2. This is a pharmacokinetic property of PTU: C. Denosumab
A. slowly absorbed, reaching peak serum D. Alendronate
levels after 6 hours
B. excreted in urine conjugated to ______11. A patient with uncontrolled
glucuronide within 24 hours hyperglycemia was managed with insulin therapy.
C. has a 100% bioavailability What correct metabolic process will take place?
D. long half-life A. Intracellular lipase will be activated
favoring ketone body formation as
______3. This is an advantage of methimazole over energy source
PTU in the treatment of hyperthyroidism: B. Both muscle and liver glycogenolysis will
A. higher oral bioavailability be stimulated
B. longer duration of action C. Muscle ribosomal protein synthesis is
C. higher protein binding stimulated
D. lower incidence of drug-drug interaction D. Lipoprotein lipase is inhibited to inhibit
hydrolysis of chylomicrons
______4. The serious toxicity that maybe associated
with thioamides (methimazole): ______12. This is an advantage of insulin lispro over
A. SLE syndrome regular insulin:
B. myopathy A. more effective in lowering blood glucose
C. Torsades de pointes B. longer duration of action
D. Agranulocytosis C. faster onset of action
D. less immunogenicity
______5. Saturated solution of potassium iodide can
be administered 1 hour after initiation of thioamide ______13. Which of the following is a
in thyroid storm patients for this purpose? pharmacokinetic property of insulin glargine?
A. To inhibit thyroid hormone release A. neutral pH in solution
B. To replenish depleted iodine stores B. protaminated insulin
C. To replace sodium loss due to sweating C. bound to albumin
D. To replace potassium D. Forms stable aggregates in
subcutaneous tissue
______6. Which of the following is used to reduce
the size and vascularity of the thyroid prior to ______14. This is the proper technique of insulin
surgery? administration:
A. Propylthiouracil A. Exercise the muscle adjacent to the
B. Levothyroxine injection site
C. Saturated solution of Potassium iodide B. rotate injection sites in a single region of
D. Radioactive iodine (I 131) the body
C. Inject into the muscle tissue
______7. Iodides cannot be used long term to D. preferred injection site is the thigh
control thyrotoxicosis (hyperthyroidism) because of
this effect? ______15. The glucose lowering effect of this drug
A. Wolff-Chaikoff requires functioning beta cells:
B. Thyroid storm A. Sulfonylurea
C. Jod-Basedow B. Biguanide
D. Iodism C. Thiazolidinedione
D. alpha glucosidase inhibitor
______8. The mechanism of action of this agent is
inhibiton of osteoclastic bone resorption: ______16. Which of the following is a correct pairing
A. Teriparatide of class and specific agent?
B. glucocorticoid A. Sulfonylurea – repaglinide
C. Calcitonin B. SGLT2 inhibitor – Sitagliptin
D. calcitriol C. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor – voglibose
D. Biguanide – pramlintide
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 | PHARMACOLOGY
REVIEW TEST
JEAN UY-HO, MD
(refer to Annex A)
Q2. Blood pressure reduction can be achieved
either by decreasing the total peripheral resistance
or by decreasing cardiac output. Which of the
following drugs can achieve both?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Carvedilol
C. Metopolol Classes of Antihypertensive Drugs
D. A and B only • Diuretics
• Drugs Acting on the Adrenergic
Goal: to lower blood pressure by decreasing cardiac Nervous System
output and/or peripheral resistance – Alpha-blockers (alpha 1)
BP = CO x TPR – Beta-blockers (beta 1)
CO= SV x HR – Centrally Acting Adrenergic
o Antihypertensive drug classification based Blockers (alpha 2)
on mechanism of action • Peripheral Vasodilators
Decrease CO Decrease TPR – Calcium Channel Blockers
o Diuretics o Diuretics • Drugs Acting on the Renin-Angiotensin
o Betablockers o Alpha-blockers System
o Adrenergic blockers – Angiotensin Converting
o Ca Channel blockers Enzyme Inhibitors
o ACE Inhibitors - Angiotensin Receptor Blockers
o A-II Receptor
blockers Q4. Antihypertensive drugs that decrease the total
peripheral resistance do so through vasodilation.
Q3. Which of the following statements is true? Which of the following produce vasodilation by
A. Methyldopa block peripheral sympathetic releasing nitric oxide?
nerve endings A. Amlodipine
B. Nifedipine lowers blood pressure by blocking B. Nitroprusside
the T type calcium channels C. Methydopa
C. Valartan blocks the AT2 receptor D. Carvedilol
D. Captopril inhibits the angiotensin converting
enzyme MECHANISMS OF VASODILATION
• Fall in intracellular calcium
– hydralazine
– CCBs
• K-ATP channel openers leading to
hyperpolarization & relaxation of smooth
muscles
– Minoxidil
– Diazoxide
• Release of nitric oxide –inc cGMP
– nitroprusside
– Nitrates
Vascular
Vascular
Constriction
Hypertrophy
AngiotensinII
Positive Inotropic
Action
Increase in Myocardial
Afterload/Preload Hypertrophy
Intra-glomerular
Increase of Sodium Hypertension
Re-absorption by Aldosterone
Q27. A 24-year-old woman was previously Q28. A 50-year-old male was previously diagnosed
diagnosed to have Severe Mitral Stenosis. She to have dyslipidemia. He consults because of
underwent valve replacement using a metallic flushing. Which of the following drugs is he
prosthetic valve. She has been on warfarin since probably taking?
then. She plans to start a family soon. What advise A. Clofibrate
should be given to her? B. Rosuvastatin
A. Stop warfarin when she gets pregnant. C. Ezetimibe
B. She may continue the warfarin even when D. Niacin
she gets pregnant.
C. Stop the warfarin and start IV heparin Q29. A 50-year-old male with history of
D. Stop the warfarin and start low molecular dyslipidemia develops acute renal failure. He was
weight heparin on simvastatin for more than a month until he
consulted, and another drug was added. Which of
Q28. The dose of warfarin must be decreased if the following drug combination was responsible for
given with the following drugs this?
A. Amiodarone A. Simvastatin and ezetimibe
B. Metronidazole B. Simvastatin and nicotinic acid
C. Fluconazole C. Simvastatin and omega 3 fatty acid
D. All of the above D. Simvastatin and gemfibrozil
CHF Principles of Pharmacolgy Management Q32. Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by the following
1. Decrease the preload electrolyte abnormalities:
2. Decrease the afterload A. hypocalcemia
3. Increase myocardial contractility B. hyperkalemia
o Digitalis – inhibits NaK ATPase; at physiologic C. hyponatremia
doses= parasympathomimetic; at high doses = D. hypomagnesemia
sympathomimetic
• Digoxin – renal excretion Q33. An acute MI patient complains of dyspnea.
• Digitoxin – hepatic excretion The BP is 130/80, LV filling pressure >20 mmHg and
For acute heart failure: CI >2.5. He must be given:
o PhosphdiesteraseIII A. Dopamine
o inhibitors – inotropic and vasodilators through B. Dobutamine
increase in cAMP and cGMP C. Furosemide
• Amrinone D. Digoxin
• Milrinone
o Beta-adrenoceptor stimulants – for acute heart Therapeutic Classification of Subsets in Acute MI
failure or exacerbation of chronic heart failure Subset SBP LV Cl Therapy
• Dopamine mmH Filling
1-2ug/kg/min = dopaminergic g pressure
receptors Hypovolemi <100 <10 <2. Volume
2-10ug/kg/min = alpha and beta a 5 replacemen
>20ug/kg/min = alpha, similar to NE t
• Dobutamine = inotropic and Pulmonary 100- >20 >2. Diuretics
vasodilator, B1 agonist and alpha1 Congestion 150 5
antagonist Peripheral <100 10-20 >2. None, or
4. Attenuate the adverse effects of chronic vasodilation 5 vasoactive
neurohumoral stimulation drugs
o ACEi Power <100 >20 <2. Vasodilator
o ARBs failure 5 s, Inotropic
o Betablockers drugs
o ARNI – angiotensin receptor neprilysin Severe <90 >20 <2. Vasoactive
inhibitor; neprilysin degrades BNP – shock 0 drugs,
valsartan/sacubitril Inotropic,
5. Prevent ventricular remodeling Vasodilator
o ACEi s,
o ARBs circulatory
o Betablockers assist
o Spironolactone RV <100 RVFP>1 <2. Provide
6. Relieve the congestion Infarction 0 5 volume
o Furosemide LVFP<1 replacemen
o Other Loop 0 t for LVFP,
o HCTZ Inotropic.
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 10 | PHARMACOLOGY
CARDIOVASCULAR DRUGS
CLARISSA M. MENDOZA, MD
Class III Potassium Channel Blocking Drugs Q34. A 45-year-old male was admitted because of
• Amiodarone chest pain. The initial ECG is normal. While in the
• Bretyllium ER he complains of palpitation and the monitor
• Sotalol shows atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular
• Ibutilide response. The BP is 130/80. What is the most
appropriate drug to give?
Class IV Calcium Channel Blocking Drugs A. Amiodarone
• Verapamil B. Digoxin
• Diltiazem C. Verapamil
D. Esmolol
Miscellaneous Agents:
1. Adenosine – inhibits AV nodal conduction and Principles of Drug Use
increases AV nodal refractory perior 1. Define a benefit for therapy.
Use: Paroxysmal SVT Goals of therapy in AF:
2. Magnesium – for Torsades de Pointes Acute AF – cardiovert
3. Potassium Chronic AF – rate control
2. Define an end point for therapy.
Increasing serum K will result in In AF: 1) cardioversion: Class1A, 1C, III
• Resting potential depolarizing action 2) rate control: AV nodal blocking
• Membrane potential stabilizing action drugs: Class II, IV, digitalis
• Depress ectopic pacemakers 3. Minimize the risks (and ensure that these do
• Severe hyperK will suppress the SA node not outweigh the expected benefits).
4. Define the need for therapy.
Hypokalemia results in Asymptomatic PVCs in normal hearts – no
• Increased risk of EAD and DAD treatment required.
• Increased ectopic pacemaker activity 5. Consider alternative therapies
VTach stable: drug
Vtach with pulse, low BP: electrical
synchronized cardioversion
Vtach without pulse and Vfib: defibrillation
Ifosfamide Streptozotocin
MOA: ifosfamide hydroxylation ifosfamide - methylnitrosourea isolated from
mustard acrolein + chloroacetic acid Streptomyces sp.
- excreted in the urine - short plasma half-life: 35 minutes
- adverse effects: - excreted in the urine
o bladder toxicity (dose-limiting - selectively lethal to the beta-islet cells of the
toxicity) pancreas
vigorous hydration required - adverse effects:
antidote: MESNA (nausea and o nephrotoxicity (dose-limiting toxicity)
vomiting) o mild glucose tolerance
o nausea and vomiting o nausea and vomiting
o alopecia o minimal myelosuppression
o veno-occlusive disease of the liver - clinical uses:
o myelosuppression o carcinoid and islet cell tumors of the
o CNS toxicity (changes in mental pancreas
status, cerebellar dysfunction, o Hodgkin’s disease, colon CA
seizures)
- clinical uses: lymphoma, ovarian CA, Non-Classical Alkylating Agents
sarcoma, testicular CA Dacarbazine
- methylating agent
Melphalan - activated by hepatic CYP450 microsomal
- bifunctional alkylator enzyme system
- causes interstrand, intrastrand DNA protein - elimination half-life: 5 hours
cross link - administered intravenously
- active orally - excreted unchanged in the urine as
- adverse effects: diazomethane
o myelosuppression (dose-limiting toxicity) - adverse effects:
o alopecia o severe nausea and vomiting
o pulmonary fiborosis o myelosuppression is uncommon
o GI toxicity in high doses (nausea, o flu-like syndrome
vomiting, diarrhea, mucositis) o facial flushing
- clinical uses: multiple myeloma, ovarian CA, o occasional hepatotoxicity
breast CA o severe pain and necrosis when
extravasated
Chlorambucil - clinical uses: Hodgkin’s disease, soft tissue
- administered orally sarcoma, malignant melanoma
- well-tolerated with minimal nausea and
vomiting Procarbazine
- given as pulse treatment (5 days a month) MOA: inhibition of DNA, RNA and protein synthesis
or continuous infusion prolongs interphase chromosome breaks
- adverse effect: - activated by the hepatic CYP450 microsomal
o myelosuppression (dose-limiting toxicity) enzyme system to produce azoprocarbazine
o liver abnormalities which causes DNA scission
o pulmonary fibrosis - administered orally
o secondary malignancies and leukemias - equilibrates rapidly between plasma and CSF
- half-life: 10 minutes
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 7 | PHARMACOLOGY
ANTI-NEOPLASTIC AGENTS
FLORDELUNA Z. MESINA, MD
Busulfan Oxaliplatin
o alkyl sulfonate alkylator - third generation platinum analog
o metabolized by the hepatic CYP450 enzyme - adverse effects:
microsomal system o neurotoxicity (dose-limiting toxicity)
o excreted in the urine peripheral neuropathy worsened by
o administered orally and well-absorbed cold
o elimination half-life: 2-5 hours cumulative and reversible
o adverse effects: - clinical uses: second line therapy for
o myelosuppression chiefly of the myeloid metastatic colorectal CA
elements (dose-limiting toxicity)
o nausea and vomiting ANTI-TUMOR ANTIBIOTICS
o gynecomastia, hyperpigmentation, transient - isolated from soil microbes Streptomyces
elevation of transaminases - cytotoxicity due to DNA interactions leading to
o pulmonary fibrosis (long term treatment) disruption of DNA function
- clinical uses: - cell-cycle specific
o CML (rapid reduction of leukocytosis and
splenomegaly) Anthracyclines: Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin -
o myeloablation treatment produced by the fungus Streptomyces peucetius var.
o myeloproliferative disorders caesius
o gonadal dysfunction MOA: (1) inhibition of topoisomerase II induction
of single strand DNA breaks
PLATINUM COMPOUNDS inhibition of DNA synthesis
Cisplatin, Carboplatin and Oxaliplatin MOA: (2) high affinity binding to DNA through
- platinum coordination complex intercalation blockade of DNA synthesis and RNA
- inorganic metal complex
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 8 | PHARMACOLOGY
ANTI-NEOPLASTIC AGENTS
FLORDELUNA Z. MESINA, MD
1|PHARMACOLOGY
PHARMACOLOGY
JUDE P. GUIANG, MD
2|PHARMACOLOGY
PHARMACOLOGY
JUDE P. GUIANG, MD
4|PHARMACOLOGY
PHARMACOLOGY
JUDE P. GUIANG, MD
5|PHARMACOLOGY
PHARMACOLOGY
JUDE P. GUIANG, MD
8|PHARMACOLOGY
PHARMACOLOGY
JUDE P. GUIANG, MD
9|PHARMACOLOGY
PHARMACOLOGY
JUDE P. GUIANG, MD
2. MARAVIROC
With rapid and variable absorption
Dose depends on renal function and
concomitant use of CYP3A inducers or
inhibitors
High conc. in the cervicovaginal fluid
than plasma
Resistance: V3 loop of gp120; NO cross
resistance with other ART
Levels increases if co-administered with
delavirdine, ketoconazole, itraconazole,
clarithromycin
Levels decreases if co-administered with
efavirenz, etravirine, rifampin,
carbamazepine
10 | P H A R M A C O L O G Y
REVIEW TEST
JUDE P. GUIANG, MD
______1. A 30year old smear (+) was started on ______9. A 2nd line anti-TB drug that interferes with
quadruple anti-Koch’s. Which among the following folic acid synthesis?
agent has the most sterilizing property? A. Ethionamide
A. Isoniazid B. Cycloserine
B. Rifampicin C. Stretomysin
C. Ethambutol D. Para-amino-salicyclic acid (PAS)
D. Pyrazinamide
______10. Which among the fluoroquinolones has a
______2. A 30-year old on his 5th month of anti-TB higher in vitro activity against Mycobacterium TB?
treatment remains smear (+). Culture revealed A. Levofloxacin.
rifampicin resistance. The mechanism is due to: B. Moxifloxacin.
A. point mutation in rpoB gene. C. Ciprofloxacin.
B. point mutation in rpsL gene. D. Gatifloxacin.
C. overexpression of rpoB gene.
D. overexpression of pncA gene. ______11. Aside from leprosy, this drug is also used
in the prevention or treatment of Pneumocystis
______3. Mutation in one of the following gene jiroveci pneumonia in AIDS patients?
expresses high level of resistance to isoniazid? A. Clofazimine.
A. ahpC. B. Dapsone.
B. KatG. C. Thalidomide.
C. inhA. D. Ethionamide.
D. kras.
______12. True of the pharmacokinetic profile of
______4. A patient on anti-TB drugs developed flu dapsone:
like symptoms. CBC done showed A. absorption is unpredictable.
thrombocytopenia. The agent most likely responsible B. widely distributed in fluids and tissues.
is? C. excretion is primarily thru the kidneys.
A. Pyrazinamide. D. it has a short half-life.
B. Ethambutol.
C. Rifampicin. ______13. Discoloration of the skin and
D. Isoniazid. conjunctivae, nausea and vomiting are side effects
associated with?
______5. An 18 year-old developed hypersensitivity A. Ethionamide
reaction 3 weeks after starting his anti-TB B. Dapsone
medications. This reaction is rarely seen in patients C. Clofazimine
taking? D. Thalidomide
A. pyrazinamide.
B. rifampicin. ______14. Incorporation of the triphosphate form of
C. ethambutol. this anti-herpes agent into both viral and host DNA
D. streptomycin. polymerase prevents its systemic use?
A. Acyclovir
______6. Which of these agents inhibits B. Trifluridine
mycobacterial arabinosyl transferases? C. Valacyclovir
A. Rifampicin. D. Valgancyclovir
B. Ethambutol.
C. Pyrazinamide. ______15. Which of the following anti-CMV agent
D. Isoniazid has poor CNS penetration and a prolonged
intracellular half-life of 17-65 hours?
______7. A 50-year old 1 month after starting anti- A. Valganciclovir
TB medications consulted because of joint pains. B. Cidofovir
Blood tests shows hyperuricemia. Which of the C. Ganciclovir
following most likely caused his symptoms? D. Foscarnet
A. Fluoroqinolone.
B. Ethambutol. ______16. Bioavailability of this nucleoside reverse
C. Pyrazinamide. transcriptase inhibitor is increased if co-administered
D. Isoniazid. with one of the following drugs?
A. Probenecid
______8. Which agent has good bactericidal activity B. Colchicine
on rapidly growing extracellular bacilli used in C. Co-trimoxazole
patients with MDR-TB? D. Cimetidine
A. Cycloserine.
B. Streptomycin
C. Fluoroquinolone.
D. Ethionamide.
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 | PHARMACOLOGY
REVIEW TEST
JUDE P. GUIANG, MD
Act directly on both alpha and beta Used in asthma and other allergic diseases; it
Epinephrine
receptors relaxes airways and reduces swelling
Pseudoephedrine Used as treatment for rhinitis and colds as a
Causes release of noradrenaline
decongestant
Acts directly on alpha receptors.
Phenylephrine Used as decongestant in rhinitis and colds
Selective alpha 1 agonist
No longer used clinically except for treatment
Causes accumulation of
Amphetamines of narcolepsy and attention deficiency
noradrenaline at the synapses
hyperkinesis
Acts indirectly on both alpha and Used as vasopressor
Ephedrine beta receptors. Causes release of
endogenous catecholamines
Used as a bronchodilator in asthma and as a
Terbutaline Selective beta 2 agonist
tocolytic agent in premature labor.
Clonidine Selective alpha2 agonist Used for the treatment of hypertension.
Dopamine alpha1 agonist with Used for hemodynamic support in patients
Dopexamine
beta2 agonist activity with low cardiac output as in heart failure
In vivo imaging:
o Antipsychotic effects: 60% receptor
occupancy, > 80% EPS
o This level is not required for atypical
APs (~30-50%) due to their effect
on 5-HT2A
Generic name (class) Dose D2/ Histamine EPS Anticholinergic α-1
equivalent in 5HT2A blockade blockade
mg
Chlorpromazine 100 ++++ ++++ ++ +++ ++++
(Phenothiazines,
alipathic)
Thioridazine 100 ++++ ++++ + ++++ ++++
(Phenothiazines,
piperidine)
Triflupromazine 25 ++++ +++ ++ +++ ++
(Phenothiazines,
aliphatic)
Clozapine 50 + +++ 0 ++++ +
(Dibenzodiazepine)
Quetiapine 150 + ++ 0 ++ +
(Dibenzothiazepine)
Aripiprazole has a very high D2 receptor
occupancy, but it does not cause EPS being
a partial D2 agonist and also with high 5-
HT2A antagonism and 5-HT1
partial agonism
Diazepam
Clonazepam
Lorazepam
Others
o Hypersensitivity reactions
o Teratogenicity
o Barbiturates - exacerbate intermittent
porphyria
____13. An individual with schizophrenia when ____20. If a patient on the other hand is manic,
presenting with disorganised speech, the term which of the following clinical impressions can
'clanging' refers to which of the following? be conveniently eliminated?
A. individuals only communicate A. major depressive disorder
with words that rhyme B. cyclothymic disorder
B. answers to questions may not be C. bipolar I mood disorder
relevant D. bipolar II mood disorder
C. individuals communicate without
completing their sentences
D. speech may be neither structured
nor comprehensible
Pharmacokinetics:
• Well absorbed after an oral dose;
peak plasma concentration in 1-3h
• Low plasma protein binding (<20%)
• Distributed to all body fluids
including CSF
• Freely penetrates protozoal and
bacterial cells
• Metabolized in the liver
• Half-life of 7.5h
• Excreted in the urine as
metabolites(>75%), as
unchanged(10%)
Therapeutic Indications:
• Drug of choice in the
treatment of all symptomatic
amebiasis ( including amebic
colitis and amebic liver abscess) in
conjunction with a luminal
amebicide
• Drug of choice in the
treatment of giardiasis,
trichomoniasis, and Clostridium
difficile-induced pseudomembranous
Courtesy of DPD/CDC colitis
DRUGS FOR AMEBIASIS • Drug of choice for reducing the
1. Tissue amebicides – act on organisms in vegetative form of C. tetani in
the bowel wall, liver and other conjunction with Tetanus Immune
extraintestinal tissues Globulin
A. For both intestinal and • Treatment of anaerobic
extraintestinal amebiasis infections particularly B. fragilis
- nitroimidazoles: metronidazole, • In combination with other
tinidazole antibiotics and PPI to treat H. Pylori-
- alkaloids: emetine, associated peptic
dehydroemetine ulcer disease
B. For extraintestinal amebiasis
only Adverse Effects:
- chloroquine • Most frequent: nausea, headache,
2. Luminal amebicides dry mouth, metallic taste
- act on organisms in the bowel • Infrequent: vomiting, diarrhea,
lumen insomnia, dark urine
- diloxanide furoate • Rare: pancreatitis, CNS toxicity
- iodoquinol Drug Interactions:
- paromomycin • Potentiates anti-coagulant effect of
Tetracycline / erythromycin – bowel coumarin
amebicides • Elimination increased by phenytoin
and phenobarbital
METRONIDAZOLE / TINIDAZOLE • Elimination decreased by cimetidine
• Prodrug • Disulfiram-like reaction with ethanol
• Kills trophozoites but not cysts of E.
histolytica EMETINE / DEHYDROEMETINE
• Effectively eradicates intestinal and • Effective against tissue trophozoites
extraintestinal tissue infections • Use is limited to severe amebiasis
• Not effective against luminal in patients in whom metronidazole
parasites
UST FMS MEDICAL BOARD REVIEW 2019 5 | PHARMACOLOGY
ANTIPROTOZOAL DRUGS
KRISTINE MARIE F. GUTIERREZ, MD
ATERNATIVE DRUGS
(refer to Table 8 Annex G)
1. Chloroquine + - - +
2. Mefloquine + - - -
3. Quinine + - - +
4. Proguanil + ± * *
5.Pyrimethamine + - * *
6. Primaquine ± + + +
7. Sulfadoxine ± - - -
8. Doxycycline + - - -
9. Artemisinin + - + +
10. Halofantrine + - - -
Do not kill gametocytes but inhibit development in mosquito
Chloroquine Areas without resistant P. falciparum 500 mg (base) weekly starting 1-2 weeks
before entering an endemic area &
continued for 4 weeks after leaving the
endemic area
Mefloquine Areas with chloroquine-resistant P. 250 mg weekly starting 1-2 wks before
falciparum entering an endemic area & continued for
4 weeks after leaving
Doxycycline Areas with multidrug-resistant P. 100 mg daily. Begin 2 days before travel
falciparum to an endemic area & continued for 4
weeks after leaving
Clinical Setting Drug of Choice and Adult Dosage Alternative Drugs and Adult
Dosage
Luminal agent: Diloxanide furoate,
500 mg tid for 10 days
Asymptomatic intestinal or–
infection Iodoquinol, 650 mg tid for 21 days
or–
Paromomycin, 10mg/kg tid for 7 days
Luminal agent
Metronidazole, 750 mg tid (or 500 mg
plus either–
IV q 6h) for 10 days
Tetracycline, 250 mg tid for
Mild to moderate intestinal or–
10 days
infection Tinidazole, 2 g daily for 3 days
or–
plus–
Erythromycin, 500 mg qid for
Luminal agent
10 days
Luminal agent
Metronidazole, 750 mg tid (or 500 mg
plus either–
IV q 6h) for 10 days
Tetracycline, 250 mg tid for
or–
Severe intestinal infection 10 days
Tinidazole, 2 g daily for 3 days
or–
plus–
Dehydroemetine or emetine, 1
Luminal agent
mg/kg SC or IM for 3–5 days
Dehydroemetine or emetine, 1
Metronidazole,750 mg tid(or 500 mg mg/kg SC or IM for 8-10
IV q 6h) for 10 days days, followed by (for liver
Hepatic abscess, ameboma
or– abscess only) chloroquine,
and other extraintestinal
Tinidazole, 2 g daily for 3 days 500 mg bid for 2 days, then
disease
plus– 500 mg daily for 21 days
Luminal agent plus–
Luminal agent
RoundWorms (nematodes)
Albendazole or mebendazole or Ivermectin or
Ascaris lumbricoides (roundworm)
Pyrantel pamoate Piperazine
Albendazole or
Strongyloides stercoralis (threadworm) Ivermectin
thiabendazole
Mebendazole or Albendazole
Trichinella spiralis (trichinosis)
add corticosticosteroids for severe infection
Capillaria philippinensis
Albendazole Mebendazole
(intestinal capillariasis)
Flukes (trematodes)
Tapeworm (cestodes)
ANNEX A
Table 1 Histamine receptors & their distribution, functions
H1 R H2 R H3 R H4 R
Distribution Vascular smooth muscle, endothelium, Presynaptic (auto Eφ PMNs, CD4 T
brain, brains, epithelial cells, DC, Eφ. receptor), brain, cells
MO, T & B cells myenteric plexus,
Airway sm muscle Gastric mucosa, other neurons
muscle, mast
cell,
Post receptor Gq, IP3, DAG Gs, cAMP Gi, cAMP Gi, cAMP
mechanism
Histamine pruritus, pain, gastric acid pruritus (no mast pruritus (no
general vasodilation, production, cell involvement), mast cell
functions vascular vascular nasal congestion; involvement),
permeability, permeability, prevents excessive nasal
hypotension, CR, hypotension, bronchoconstriction congestion;
bronchoconstriction, CR, chrono- & differentiation of
stimulation of a/w inotropic myeloblasts &
vagal afferent activity, promyeloblasts
nerves & cough bronchodilation,
receptors; AV node a/w mucus
conduction time production
Histamine histamine & other Eφ & PMN che- Inhibition of Selective
function in mediator release, motaxis, TH1 histamine release recruitment of
allergic CAMs, chemotaxis of & TH2 cells, Eφ in humans,
inflammation Eφ & PMNs, induces chemotaxis of
tolerance mast cells
Histamine Sleep/wakefulness, Neuroendocrine Modulate release
function in the food intake, thermal of other
brain regulation, neurotransmitters
emotions/aggressive
behavior,
locomotion,
memory, learning
Desloratadine+
Ebastine+
Levocabastine
unclassified Azelastine+ +
Non-sedating
Olopatadine+
used topically
may cause sedation if taken orally
+ nd
2 generation H1-blockers
Table 7 Comparison between AT1 & AT2
AT1 AT2
Sites Most vascular tissues level seen in fetal tissues; in
adults, high conc is found in
adrenal medulla, reproductive
tissues, parts of brain; upregulated
in CHF & MI
Affinity for Yes No
Losartan
Receptor GqPCR
Activation phospholipase C leading to IP3 & Causes vasodilation that is nitric
DAG, resulting in smooth muscle oxide dependent involving
contraction; it also stimulates vascular bradykinin-NO-cGMP pathway
& cardiac growth
ANNEX B
AUTACOIDS
to H1 R, but act mostly as inverse agonist.
Autacoids: Physiologically active substances (see chemical structure of Histamine and
produced by many cell types, released by various Anti-histamine – Katzung book)
stimuli, & acting within the body & consist of the
following: 1.4.1. Pharmacodynamics:
biologically active amines like histamine, competitive antagonist (traditional view)
serotonins at H1 receptors (HR1) of bronchiolar &
ergot alkaloids GIT smooth muscles;
endogenous peptides partial block of H receptors of the
prostaglandins cardiovascular system which have both H1 &
leukotriennes H2 receptors;
1. Histamine: a natural body constituent synthesized H1 blockers (current view) act as inverse
from L-histidine by histidine decarboxylase, an agonist which has a preferential affinity for
enzyme expressed throughout the body cells. the inactive state, stabilizing the receptor in
1.1. Major sources of histamine: this conformation and consequently inducing
mast cells, basophils, gastric an inactive state characterized by blocked
enterochromaffin-like cells, platelets & signal transduction through HR1, thus,
histaminergic neurons NF-kB expression & subsequently
Mast cell & basophils are the major sources generation of proinflammatory cytokines,
of granule stored histamine where it is growth factors, chemokines, adhesion
associated with proteoglycans & chondroitin molecules. These effects occur with low
SO4 concentrations of H1 blockers in vitro & with
Histamine is released when mast cells & usual doses of H1 blockers in vivo.
basophils degranulate in response to both H1 receptor independent anti-inflammatory
immunologic & non-immunologic stimuli. actions of antihistamines include release
Non-mast cell histamine are found in of preformed mediators of inflammation
neurons in the brain from mast cells & basophils after
1.2. Histamine plays diverse roles in human immunologic & non-immunologic stimuli,
health by exerting its effects through 4 types inflammatory cell activation & de novo
of receptors. generation & release of pro-inflammatory
products. These effects require high H1
Table 1 Histamine receptors & their distribution, blocker concentration in vitro & in vivo &
functions (refer to Annex A) have no direct relationship with H1 blocker
potency).
1.3. All histamine receptors exist in active &
inactive forms & have constitutive activity in - Other effects of H1 blockers:
the absence of agonist, histamine sedation with old generation H1 blockers
Histamine (agonist) binds anti-nausea & anti-emetic actions of some
preferentially to the active receptor old generation H1 blockers
(R), stabilizing the R in active antimuscarinic effects on peripheral
state, leading to continuous muscarinic receptors: drying of secretions,
activating signals, thus urinary retention, blurring of vision (esp with
upregulation of transcription factor ethanolamines & ethylendiamines); anti-
NF-kB, results of which is Parkinson’s effect
production of the following which adrenoceptor blockade hypotension
further propagate allergic (phenothiazine)
inflammation: serotonin blocking effects appetite
proinflammatory cytokines (IL-1a, IL-1b, IL- blocks Na+ channels in excitable
6), membranes like procaine & lidocaine,
growth factors (GM-CSF, IL-3), (diphenhydramine, promethazine)
chemotactic factors (RANTES, IL-8)
adhesions molecules (ICAM-1, VCAM-1, p- 1.4.2 Classifications of H1 blockers:
selectin). 1st generation H1-blockers
An inverse agonist like antihistamine 2nd generation H1-blockers
preferentially bind to inactive R, stabilizing
the R in this state, thus, blocking Table 2 Comparisons between 1st & 2nd generation
downstream activation signals from the H1 blockers: (refer to Annex A)
active R. Low dose H1-blocker with cetirizine Some of the new generation H1 blockers in use are
& azelastine has been shown downregulate derivatives of other old & new generation H1
NF-kB & pro-inflammatory cytokine blockers:
production. Cetirizine: metabolite of hydroxyzine
Fexofenadine: end metabolite of terfenadine
1.4. Antihistamines or H1-blockers: bind Desloratadine: metabolite of loratadine
competitively Levocetirizine: enantiomer of cetirizine
5.1.3. Prostanoids
Table 16. Prostanoids & derivatives
& their indications
(refer to Annex B)
ANTIPROTOZOAL DRUGS
Choose the best answer: ______8. A patient diagnosed with Filariasis
developed fever, papular rash, pruritus, chest
______1. This antimalarial is a synthetic 4- pain, muscle or joint pain, proteinuria,
aminoquinolone and is a rapidly acting blood eosinophilia, leukocytosis . The most likely drug
schizonticide against all 4 species: that caused this
A. Chloroquine A. Diethylcarbamazine Citrate
B. Primaquine B. Praziquantel
C. Clindamhycin C. Pyrantel pamoate
D. Co-trimoxazole D. Thiabendazole
______2. A patient diagnosed with Falciparum ______9. This drug has a mechanism of action
malaria had impaired consciousness, respiratory of this drug against roundworms: depolarizes
distress and jaundice. The most appropriate the neuromuscular junction of most intestinal
treatment of choice: nematodes resulting in their irreversible
A. Primaquine paralysis and allowing their natural expulsion
B. Quinidine A. Albendazole
C. Mefloquine B. Pyrantel pamoate
D. Doxycycline C. Ivermectin
D. Praziquantel
______3. This drug acts against the dormant
hepatic stage of P. vivax and P. ovale ______10. Drug of choice for all forms of
A. Chloroquine schistosomiasis:
B. Primaquine A. Albendazole
C. Quinidine B. Pyrantel pamoate
D. Mefloquine C. Ivermectin
D. Praziquantel
______4. A patient on anti malarial drug developed
tinnitus, headache, dizziness, vomiting, flushing, ______11. Which of the ff H1 blockers is
visual disturbances. The most likely drug that available in IV formulation?
caused this is: A. Hydroxyzine
A. Chloroquine B. Chlorphenamine
B. Primaquine C. Diphenhydramine
C. Quinidine D. Brompherinamine
D. Mefloquine
______12. An elderly man received
______5. This drug acts for both intestinal and Diphenhydramine in the ER due to severe
extraintestinal amebiasis: urticaria & angioedema. Thereafter he
A. Chloroquine complained of urinary retention. This adverse
B. Metronidazole effect is due to blockade of which receptors:
C. Tetracycline A. Muscarinic
D. Iodoquinol B. Serotonin
C. Histamine
______6. A 70 year old was diagnosed with D. alpha-agonist
amoebiasis. Metronidazole was given. Which of the
following drugs should have dose adjustment? ______13. Which of the ff H1 blockers can be
A. Losartan given safely and once daily to a pilot?
B. Coumarin A. Clemastine
C. Simvastatin B. Hydroxyzine
D. Metformin C. Loratadine
D. Chlorphenamine
______7. Treatment for ascaris lumbricoides
infection: ______14. A child has history of severe motion
A. Metronidazole sickness. What can you give her before her
B. Mebendazole plane flight?
C. Praziquantel A. Cetirizine
D. Ivermectin B. Meclizine
C. Desloratadine
D. Loratadine